California Senate Bill SB1115 Introduced / Bill

 BILL NUMBER: SB 1115INTRODUCED BILL TEXT INTRODUCED BY Committee on Public Safety (Senators Leno (Chair), Cedillo, Cogdill, Hancock, Huff, Steinberg, and Wright) FEBRUARY 17, 2010 An act to amend Sections 7542.1, 7574.14, 7581, 7582.2, 7583.12, 7583.31, 7583.35, 7583.37, 7591.11, 7596.6, 7596.12, 7597.1, 7597.6, 17533.9, 21626, 21628, 21628.2, and 21641 of the Business and Professions Code, to amend Section 3485 of the Civil Code, to amend Sections 527.6, 527.8, 527.85, and 527.9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, to amend Sections 6383, 6385, and 6389 of the Family Code, to amend Sections 211, 2006, 3001, 3801.6, 10500, and 10506 of the Fish and Game Code, to amend Sections 6254, 6276.18, and 53071.5 of the Government Code, to amend Sections 1257.7, 12000, 12101, 12540, 12756, and 12757 of the Health and Safety Code, to amend Sections 136.2, 139, 166, 171b, 171c, 171d, 171.5, 186.22, 186.22a, 189, 244.5, 245, 245.3, 273.6, 417.4, 417.6, 538d, 626.9, 626.95, 626.10, 629.52, 667.5, 667.7, 679.03, 830.5, 830.8, 833.5, 836, 999e, 1170.11, 1174.4, 1192.7, 1203, 1203.1, 1203.4, 1203.4a, 1210.1, 1524, 1601, 2933.5, 2962, 3057, 4852.03, 4852.17, 4854, 11105, 11105.03, 11106, 11108, 11413, 11418, 11460, and 13730 of the Penal Code, to amend Section 10334 of the Public Contract Code, and to amend Sections 676, 707, 727, 1772, 4514, 5328.4, 6500, 8100, 8103, 8104, and 15657.03 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, relating to the nonsubstantive reorganization of the deadly weapons statutes. LEGISLATIVE COUNSEL'S DIGEST SB 1115, as introduced, Committee on Public Safety. Deadly weapons. Existing law generally regulates deadly weapons. This bill would make cross-reference changes to provisions of law that reference various deadly weapons provisions in the Penal Code, to be operative January 1, 2012. The operation of this bill is contingent upon enactment of Senate Bill 1080, which would reorganize and make other nonsubstantive changes to the deadly weapons provisions of law. Vote: majority. Appropriation: no. Fiscal committee: no. State-mandated local program: no. THE PEOPLE OF THE STATE OF CALIFORNIA DO ENACT AS FOLLOWS: SECTION 1. Section 7542.1 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: 7542.1. Every licensee and any person employed and compensated by a licensee who in the course of  such   that  employment or business carries tear gas or any other nonlethal chemical agent shall complete the required course pursuant to Section  12403.5   22835  of the Penal Code. SEC. 2. Section 7574.14 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: 7574.14. This chapter shall not apply to the following: (a) An officer or employee of the United States of America, or of this state or a political subdivision thereof, while the officer or employee is engaged in the performance of his or her official duties, including uniformed peace officers employed part time by a public agency pursuant to a written agreement between a chief of police or sheriff and the public agency, provided the part-time employment does not exceed 50 hours in any calendar month. (b) A person engaged exclusively in the business of obtaining and furnishing information as to the financial rating of persons. (c) A charitable philanthropic society or association incorporated under the laws of this state that is organized and duly maintained for the public good and not for private profit. (d) Patrol special police officers appointed by the police commission of any city, county, or city and county under the express terms of its charter who also under the express terms of the charter (1) are subject to suspension or dismissal after a hearing on charges duly filed with the commission after a fair and impartial trial, (2) must be not less than 18 years of age nor more than 40 years of age, (3) must possess physical qualifications prescribed by the commission, and (4) are designated by the police commission as the owners of a certain beat or territory as may be fixed from time to time by the police commission. (e) An attorney at law in performing his or her duties as an attorney at law. (f) A collection agency or an employee thereof while acting within the scope of his or her employment, while making an investigation incidental to the business of the agency, including an investigation of the location of a debtor or his or her property where the contract with an assignor creditor is for the collection of claims owed or due or asserted to be owed or due or the equivalent thereof. (g) Admitted insurers and agents and insurance brokers licensed by the state, performing duties in connection with insurance transacted by them. (h) Any bank subject to the jurisdiction of the Commissioner of Financial Institutions of the State of California under Division 1 (commencing with Section 99) of the Financial Code or the Comptroller of Currency of the United States. (i) A person engaged solely in the business of securing information about persons or property from public records. (j) A peace officer of this state or a political subdivision thereof while the peace officer is employed by a private employer to engage in off-duty employment in accordance with Section 1126 of the Government Code. However, nothing herein shall exempt such a peace officer who either contracts for his or her services or the services of others as a private patrol operator or contracts for his or her services as or is employed as an armed private security officer. For purposes of this subdivision, "armed security officer" means an individual who carries or uses a firearm in the course and scope of that contract or employment. (k) A retired peace officer of the state or political subdivision thereof when the retired peace officer is employed by a private employer in employment approved by the chief law enforcement officer of the jurisdiction where the employment takes place, provided that the retired officer is in a uniform of a public law enforcement agency, has registered with the bureau on a form approved by the director, and has met any training requirements or their equivalent as established for security personnel under Section 7583.5. This officer may not carry a loaded or concealed firearm unless he or she is exempted under the provisions of  subdivision (a) of Section 12027  Sections 25450 to 25475, inclusive,  of the Penal Code or  paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) of Section 12031   Sections 25900 to   25910, inclusive,  of the Penal Code or has met the requirements set forth in  Section 12033   subdivision (d) of Section 26030  of the Penal Code. However, nothing herein shall exempt the retired peace officer who contracts for his or her services or the services of others as a private patrol operator. (l) A licensed insurance adjuster in performing his or her duties within the scope of his or her license as an insurance adjuster. (m) Any savings association subject to the jurisdiction of the Commissioner of Financial Institutions or the Office of Thrift Supervision. (n) Any secured creditor engaged in the repossession of the creditor's collateral and any lessor engaged in the repossession of leased property in which it claims an interest. (o) A peace officer in his or her official police uniform acting in accordance with subdivisions (c) and (d) of Section 70 of the Penal Code. (p) An unarmed, uniformed security person employed exclusively and regularly by a motion picture studio facility employer who does not provide contract security services for other entities or persons in connection with the affairs of that employer only and where there exists an employer-employee relationship if that person at no time carries or uses any deadly weapon, as defined in subdivision (a), in the performance of his or her duties, which may include, but are not limited to, the following business purposes: (1) The screening and monitoring access of employees of the same employer. (2) The screening and monitoring access of prearranged and preauthorized invited guests. (3) The screening and monitoring of vendors and suppliers. (4) Patrolling the private property facilities for the safety and welfare of all who have been legitimately authorized to have access to the facility. (q) An armored contract carrier operating armored vehicles pursuant to the authority of the Department of the California Highway Patrol or the Public Utilities Commission, or an armored vehicle guard employed by an armored contract carrier. SEC. 3. Section 7581 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: 7581. The director may adopt and enforce reasonable rules, as follows: (a) Classifying licensees according to the type of business regulated by this chapter in which they are engaged, including, but not limited to, persons employed by any lawful business as security guards or patrolpersons, and armored contract carriers and limiting the field and scope of the operations of a licensee to those in which he or she is classified and qualified to engage. (b) Fixing the qualifications of licensees and managers, in addition to those prescribed in this chapter, necessary to promote and protect the public welfare. (c) Carrying out generally the provisions of this chapter, including regulation of the conduct of licensees. (d) Establishing the qualifications that any person employed by a private patrol operator or any lawful business as a security guard or patrolperson, or employed by an armored contract carrier, must meet as a condition of becoming eligible to carry firearms pursuant to  subdivision (d) of Section 12031   Section 26030  of the Penal Code. (e) Requiring each uniformed employee of a private patrol operator and each armored vehicle guard, as defined in this chapter, and any other person employed and compensated by a private patrol operator or any lawful business as a security guard or patrolperson and who in the course of this employment carries a deadly weapon to be registered with the bureau upon application on a form prescribed by the director accompanied by the registration fee and by two classifiable sets of fingerprints of the applicant or its equivalent as determined by the director and approved by the Department of Justice, establishing the term of the registration for a period of not less than two nor more than four years, and providing for the renewal thereof upon proper application and payment of the renewal fee. The director may, after opportunity for a hearing, refuse this registration to any person who lacks good moral character, and may impose reasonable additional requirements as are necessary to meet local needs that are not inconsistent with the provisions of this chapter. (f) Establishing procedures whereby the local authorities of any city, county, or city and county may file charges with, or any person in this state, may file a complaint with the director alleging that any licensed private patrol operator, registered security guard, or patrolperson, or anyone who is an applicant for registration or licensure with the bureau, fails to meet standards for registration or licensure, or violates any provision of this chapter, and providing further for the investigation of the charges and a response to the charging or complaining party in the manner described in subdivision (b) of Section 129. (g) Requiring private patrol operators and any lawful business to maintain detailed records identifying all firearms in their possession or under their control, and the employees or persons authorized to carry or have access to those firearms. SEC. 4. Section 7582.2 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: 7582.2. This chapter does not apply to the following: (a) A person who does not meet the requirements to be a proprietary private security officer, as defined in Section 7574.1, and is employed exclusively and regularly by any employer who does not provide contract security services for other entities or persons, in connection with the affairs of the employer only and where there exists an employer-employee relationship if that person at no time carries or uses any deadly weapon in the performance of his or her duties. For purposes of this subdivision, "deadly weapon" is defined to include any instrument or weapon of the kind commonly known as a blackjack, slungshot, billy, sandclub, sandbag, metal knuckles, any dirk, dagger, pistol, revolver, or any other firearm, any knife having a blade longer than five inches, any razor with an unguarded blade and any metal pipe or bar used or intended to be used as a club. (b) An officer or employee of the United States of America, or of this state or a political subdivision thereof, while the officer or employee is engaged in the performance of his or her official duties, including uniformed peace officers employed part time by a public agency pursuant to a written agreement between a chief of police or sheriff and the public agency, provided the part-time employment does not exceed 50 hours in any calendar month. (c) A person engaged exclusively in the business of obtaining and furnishing information as to the financial rating of persons. (d) A charitable philanthropic society or association duly incorporated under the laws of this state that is organized and maintained for the public good and not for private profit. (e) Patrol special police officers appointed by the police commission of any city, county, or city and county under the express terms of its charter who also under the express terms of the charter (1) are subject to suspension or dismissal after a hearing on charges duly filed with the commission after a fair and impartial trial, (2) must be not less than 18 years of age nor more than 40 years of age, (3) must possess physical qualifications prescribed by the commission, and (4) are designated by the police commission as the owners of a certain beat or territory as may be fixed from time to time by the police commission. (f) An attorney at law in performing his or her duties as an attorney at law. (g) A collection agency or an employee thereof while acting within the scope of his or her employment, while making an investigation incidental to the business of the agency, including an investigation of the location of a debtor or his or her property where the contract with an assignor creditor is for the collection of claims owed or due or asserted to be owed or due or the equivalent thereof. (h) Admitted insurers and agents and insurance brokers licensed by the state, performing duties in connection with insurance transacted by them. (i) Any bank subject to the jurisdiction of the Commissioner of Financial Institutions of the State of California under Division 1 (commencing with Section 99) of the Financial Code or the Comptroller of Currency of the United States. (j) A person engaged solely in the business of securing information about persons or property from public records. (k) A peace officer of this state or a political subdivision thereof while the peace officer is employed by a private employer to engage in off-duty employment in accordance with Section 1126 of the Government Code. However, nothing herein shall exempt  such   a  peace officer who either contracts for his or her services or the services of others as a private patrol operator or contracts for his or her services as or is employed as an armed private security officer. For purposes of this subdivision, "armed security officer" means an individual who carries or uses a firearm in the course and scope of that contract or employment. (  l  ) A retired peace officer of the state or political subdivision thereof when the retired peace officer is employed by a private employer in employment approved by the chief law enforcement officer of the jurisdiction where the employment takes place, provided that the retired officer is in a uniform of a public law enforcement agency, has registered with the bureau on a form approved by the director, and has met any training requirements or their equivalent as established for security personnel under Section 7583.5. This officer may not carry a loaded or concealed firearm unless he or she is exempted under the provisions of  subdivision (a) of Section 12027   Article 2 (commencing with Section 25450) of Chapter 2 of Division 5 of Title 4 of Part 6  of the Penal Code or  paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) of Section 12031   Sections 25900 to 25910, inclusive,  of the Penal Code or has met the requirements set forth in  Section 12033   subdivision (d) of Section 26030  of the Penal Code. However, nothing herein shall exempt the retired peace officer who contracts for his or her services or the services of others as a private patrol operator. (m) A licensed insurance adjuster in performing his or her duties within the scope of his or her license as an insurance adjuster. (n) Any savings association subject to the jurisdiction of the Commissioner of Financial Institutions or the Office of Thrift Supervision. (o) Any secured creditor engaged in the repossession of the creditor's collateral and any lessor engaged in the repossession of leased property in which it claims an interest. (p) A peace officer in his or her official police uniform acting in accordance with subdivisions (c) and (d) of Section 70 of the Penal Code. (q) An unarmed, uniformed security person employed exclusively and regularly by a motion picture studio facility employer who does not provide contract security services for other entities or persons in connection with the affairs of that employer only and where there exists an employer-employee relationship if that person at no time carries or uses any deadly weapon, as defined in subdivision (a), in the performance of his or her duties, which may include, but are not limited to, the following business purposes: (1) The screening and monitoring access of employees of the same employer. (2) The screening and monitoring access of prearranged and preauthorized invited guests. (3) The screening and monitoring of vendors and suppliers. (4) Patrolling the private property facilities for the safety and welfare of all who have been legitimately authorized to have access to the facility. (r) The changes made to this section by the act adding this subdivision during the  2005-06   2005-06  Regular Session of the Legislature shall apply as follows: (1) On and after July 1, 2006, to a person hired as a security officer on and after January 1, 2006. (2) On and after January 1, 2007, to a person hired as a security officer before January 1, 2006. SEC. 5. Section 7583.12 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: 7583.12. (a) No employee of a licensee shall carry or use a firearm unless the employee has in his or her possession both of the following: (1) A valid guard registration card issued pursuant to this chapter. (2) A valid firearm qualification card issued pursuant to this chapter. (b) Paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) shall not apply to a duly appointed peace officer, as defined in Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830) of Title 3 of Part 2 of the Penal Code, who meets all of the following: (1) He or she has successfully completed a course of study in the use of firearms. (2) He or she is authorized to carry a concealed firearm in the course and scope of his or her employment pursuant to  subdivision (a) of Section 12027   Article 2 (commencing with Section 25450) of Chapter 2 of Division 5 of Title 4 of Part 6  of the Penal Code. (3) He or she has proof that he or she has applied to the bureau for a firearms qualification card. (c) (1) This section shall not apply to a duly appointed peace officer, as defined in Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830) of Title 3 of Part 2 of the Penal Code, who has written approval from his or her primary employer, as defined in paragraph (2) of subdivision (i) of Section 7583.9, to carry a firearm while working as a security guard or security officer. (2) A peace officer exempt under this subdivision shall carry on his or her person a letter of approval from his or her primary employer authorizing him or her to carry a firearm while working as a security guard or security officer. SEC. 6. Section 7583.31 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: 7583.31. A firearms qualification card does not authorize the holder thereof to carry a pistol, revolver, or other firearm capable of being concealed upon the person in a concealed manner pursuant to Section  12050   26150, 26155, 26170, or 26215  of the Penal Code. SEC. 7. Section 7583.35 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: 7583.35. Every licensee, qualified manager, or a registered uniformed security guard, who in the course of his or her employment carries tear gas or any other nonlethal chemical agent, shall complete the required course pursuant to Section  12403.5   22835  of the Penal Code. SEC. 8. Section 7583.37 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: 7583.37. The director may assess fines as enumerated in Article 7 (commencing with Section 7587). Assessment of administrative fines shall be independent of any other action by the bureau or any local, state, or federal governmental agency that may result from a violation of this article. In addition to other prohibited acts under this chapter, no licensee, qualified manager, or registered security guard shall, during the course and scope of licensed activity, do any of the following: (a) Carry any inoperable, replica, or other simulated firearm. (b) Use a firearm in violation of the law, or in knowing violation of the standards for the carrying and usage of firearms as taught in the course of training in the carrying and use of firearms. Unlawful or prohibited uses of firearms shall include, but not be limited to, the following: (1) Illegally using, carrying, or possessing a dangerous weapon. (2) Brandishing a weapon. (3) Drawing a weapon without proper cause. (4) Provoking a shooting incident without cause. (5) Carrying or using a firearm while on duty while under the influence of alcohol or dangerous drugs. (6) Carrying or using a firearm of a caliber for which a firearms permit has not been issued by the bureau. (c) Carry or use a baton in the performance of his or her duties, unless he or she has in his or her possession a valid baton certificate issued pursuant to Section 7585.14. (d) Carry or use tear gas or any other nonlethal chemical agent in the performance of his or her duties unless he or she has in his or her possession proof of completion of a course in the carrying and use of tear gas or any other nonlethal chemical agent. (e) Carry a concealed pistol, revolver, or other firearm capable of being concealed upon the person unless one of the following circumstances applies: (1) The person has been issued a permit to carry a pistol, revolver, or other firearm capable of being concealed upon the person in a concealed manner by a local law enforcement agency pursuant to Section  12050   26150, 26155, 26170, or 26215  of the Penal Code. (2) The person is employed as a guard or messenger of a common carrier, bank, or other financial institution and he or she carries the weapon while actually employed in and about the shipment, transportation, or delivery of any money, treasure, bullion, bonds, or other thing of value within this state, as specified in  subdivision (e) of Section 12027   Section 25630  of the Penal Code. (3) The person is an honorably retired peace officer authorized to carry a concealed firearm pursuant to  subdivision (a) or (i) of Section 12027   Section 25650 of the Penal Code or Article 2 (commencing with Section 25450) of Chapter 2 of Division 5 of Title 4 of Part 6  of the Penal Code. (4) The person is a duly appointed peace officer, as defined in Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830) of Title 3 of Part 2 of the Penal Code, who is authorized to carry a concealed firearm in the course and scope of his or her employment pursuant to  subdivision (a) of Section 12027   Article 2 (commencing with Section 25450) of Chapter 2 of Division 5 of Title 4 of Part 6  of the Penal Code. SEC. 9. Section 7591.11 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: 7591.11. The bureau shall deny a firearms permit, pursuant to  Section 12021   Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 29800) of Division 9 of Title 4 of Part 6  of the Penal Code, to any licensee, qualified manager, or alarm agent who has been convicted of a felony, unless the felony conviction has been reduced pursuant to Section 17 of the Penal Code or the person has been pardoned by the Governor. The licensee, qualified manager, or alarm agent shall not have a right to a review or a hearing if the denial is made pursuant to this section. SEC. 10. Section 7596.6 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: 7596.6. A firearms qualification card does not authorize the holder thereof to carry a pistol, revolver, or other firearm capable of being concealed upon the person in a concealed manner pursuant to Section  12050   26150, 26155, 26170, or 26215  of the Penal Code. SEC. 11. Section 7596.12 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: 7596.12. Every person licensed, registered, or designated under this chapter, who in the course of his or her employment carries tear gas, or any other nonlethal chemical agent, shall complete the course required pursuant to Section  12403.5   22835  of the Penal Code. SEC. 12. Section 7597.1 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: 7597.1. (a) No licensee, qualified manager, branch office manager, or alarm agent shall carry, use, or possess a loaded or unloaded firearm in the course and scope of his or her employment, whether or not it is serviceable or operative, unless he or she has in his or her possession a valid and current firearms qualification card issued to him or her by the bureau. The card shall be shown to any peace officer or bureau representative upon demand. (b) Subdivision (a) shall not apply to a duly appointed peace officer, as defined in Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830) of Title 3 of Part 2 of the Penal Code, who meets all of the following: (1) He or she has successfully completed a course of study in the use of firearms. (2) He or she is authorized to carry a concealed firearm in the course and scope of his or her employment pursuant to  subdivision (a) of Section 12027   Article 2 (commencing with Section 25450) of Chapter 2 of Division 5 of Title 4 of Part 6  of the Penal Code. (3) He or she has proof that he or she has applied to the bureau for a firearms qualification card. (c) A fine of twenty-five dollars ($25) may be assessed for the first violation of this section and a fine of one hundred dollars ($100) for each subsequent violation. SEC. 13. Section 7597.6 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: 7597.6. (a) No licensee, qualified manager, branch office manager, or alarm agent shall carry a pistol, revolver, or other firearm capable of being concealed upon the person in a concealed manner unless one of the following circumstances apply: (1) The person has been issued a permit to carry that firearm in a concealed manner by a local law enforcement agency pursuant to Section  12050   26150, 26155, 26170, or 26215  of the Penal Code. (2) The person is an honorably retired peace officer authorized to carry a concealed firearm pursuant to  subdivision (a) or (i) of Section 12027   Section 25650 of the Penal Code or Article 2 (commencing with Section 25450) of Chapter 2 of Division 5 of Title 4 of Part 6  of the Penal Code. (3) The person is a duly appointed peace officer, as defined in Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830) of Title 3 of Part 2 of the Penal Code, who is authorized to carry a concealed firearm in the course and scope of his or her employment pursuant to  subdivision (a) of Section 12027   Article 2 (commencing with Section 25450) of Chapter 2 of Division 5 of Title 4 of Part 6  of the Penal Code. (b) A fine of five hundred dollars ($500) may be assessed for each violation of subdivision (a). SEC. 14. Section 17533.9 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: 17533.9. It shall be unlawful for any person, firm, corporation, or association, in any newspaper, magazine, circular, form letter, or open publication, published, distributed, or circulated in this state, including over the Internet, or on any billboard, card, label, or other advertising medium, or by means of any other advertising device, to advertise the sale of tear gas, tear gas devices, and tear gas weapons, as defined in Sections  12401 and 12402   17240 and 17250  of the Penal Code, unless there is conspicuously displayed or stated in connection with the name and description of that tear gas, or those tear gas weapons or devices, a direct and unequivocal statement that will clearly indicate that possession or transportation of tear gas and tear gas weapons or devices is prohibited by law unless specifically exempted or permitted pursuant to the authority contained in  Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 12401) of Title 2 of Part 4   Division 11 (commencing with Section 22810) of Title 3 of Part 6  of the Penal Code. SEC. 15. Section 21626 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: 21626. (a) A "secondhand dealer," as used in this article, means and includes any person, copartnership, firm, or corporation whose business includes buying, selling, trading, taking in pawn, accepting for sale on consignment, accepting for auctioning, or auctioning secondhand tangible personal property. A "secondhand dealer" does not include a "coin dealer" or participants at gun shows or events, as defined in Section 478.100 of Title 27 of the Code of Federal Regulations, or its successor, who are not required to be licensed pursuant to  Section 12071   Sections 26700 to 26915, inclusive, of the Penal Code, who are acting in compliance with the requirements of  Section 12070 and subdivision (d) of Section 12072   Sections 26500 to 26585, inclusive, and 27545  of the Penal Code, and who are not a "Gun Show Trader," as described in  paragraph (5) of subdivision (b) of Section 12070   Sections 16620 and 26525  of the Penal Code. (b) As used in this section, a "coin dealer" means any person, firm, partnership, or corporation whose principal business is the buying, selling, and trading of coins, monetized bullion, or commercial grade ingots of gold, or silver, or other precious metals. SEC. 16. Section 21628 of the Business and Professions Code, as added by Section 2.5 of Chapter 335 of the Statutes of 2009, is amended to read: 21628. Every secondhand dealer or coin dealer described in Section 21626 shall report daily, or on the first working day after receipt or purchase of the property, on forms either approved or provided at actual cost by the Department of Justice, all tangible personal property, except for firearms, which he or she has purchased, taken in trade, taken in pawn, accepted for sale on consignment, or accepted for auctioning, to the chief of police or to the sheriff, in accordance with the provisions of Sections 21630 and 21633 and subdivision (j) of this section. The report shall be legible, prepared in English, completed where applicable, and include, but not be limited to, the following information: (a) The name and current address of the intended seller or pledger of the property. (b) The identification of the intended seller or pledger. The identification of the seller or pledger of the property shall be verified by the person taking the information. The verification shall be valid if the person taking the information reasonably relies on any one of the following documents, provided that the document is currently valid or has been issued within five years and contains a photograph or description, or both, of the person named on it, and, where applicable, is signed by the person, and bears a serial or other identifying number: (1) A passport of the United States. (2) A driver's license issued by any state, or Canada. (3) An identification card issued by any state. (4) An identification card issued by the United States. (5) A passport from any other country in addition to another item of identification bearing an address. (6) A Matricula Consular in addition to another item of identification bearing an address. (c) A complete and reasonably accurate description of serialized property, including, but not limited to, the following: serial number and other identifying marks or symbols, owner-applied numbers, manufacturer's named brand, and model name or number. Watches need not be disassembled when special skill or special tools are required to obtain the required information, unless specifically requested to do so by a peace officer. A special tool does not include a penknife, caseknife, or similar instrument and disassembling a watch with a penknife, caseknife, or similar instrument does not constitute a special skill. In all instances where the required information may be obtained by removal of a watchband, then the watchband shall be removed. The cost associated with opening the watch shall be borne by the pawnbroker, secondhand dealer, or customer. (d) A complete and reasonably accurate description of nonserialized property, including, but not limited to, the following: size, color, material, manufacturer's pattern name (when known), owner-applied numbers and personalized inscriptions, and other identifying marks or symbols. Watches need not be disassembled when special skill or special tools are required to obtain the required information, unless specifically requested to do so by a peace officer. A special tool does not include a penknife, caseknife, or similar instrument and disassembling a watch with a penknife, caseknife, or similar instrument does not constitute a special skill. In all instances where the required information may be obtained by removal of a watchband, then the watchband shall be removed. The cost associated with opening the watch shall be borne by the pawnbroker, secondhand dealer, or customer. (e) A certification by the intended seller or pledger that he or she is the owner of the property or has the authority of the owner to sell or pledge the property. (f) A certification by the intended seller or pledger that to his or her knowledge and belief the information is true and complete. (g) A legible fingerprint taken from the intended seller or pledger, as prescribed by the Department of Justice. This requirement does not apply to a coin dealer, unless required pursuant to local regulation. (h) When a secondhand dealer complies with all of the provisions of this section, he or she shall be deemed to have received from the seller or pledger adequate evidence of authority to sell or pledge the property for all purposes included in this article, and Division 8 (commencing with Section 21000) of the Financial Code. In enacting this subdivision, it is the intent of the Legislature that its provisions shall not adversely affect the implementation of, or prosecution under, any provision of the Penal Code. (i) Any person who conducts business as a secondhand dealer at any gun show or event, as defined in Section 478.100 of Title 27 of the Code of Federal Regulations, or its successor, outside the jurisdiction that issued the secondhand dealer license in accordance with subdivision (d) of Section 21641, may be required to submit a duplicate of the transaction report prepared pursuant to this section to the local law enforcement agency where the gun show or event is conducted. (j) (1) The Department of Justice shall, in consultation with appropriate local law enforcement agencies, develop clear and comprehensive descriptive categories denoting tangible personal property subject to the reporting requirements of this section. These categories shall be incorporated by secondhand dealers and coin dealers described in Section 21626 for purposes of the reporting requirements set forth herein. Any required report shall be transmitted by electronic means. The Department of Justice and local law enforcement agencies, in consultation with representatives from the secondhand dealer and coin dealer businesses, shall develop a standard format to be used statewide to transmit this report electronically. (2) Twelve months after the format and the categories described in paragraph (1) have been developed, each secondhand dealer and coin dealer shall electronically report using this format the information required by this section under these reporting categories. Until that time, each secondhand dealer and coin dealer may either continue to report this information using existing forms and procedures or may begin electronically reporting this information under the reporting categories and using the format described in paragraph (1) as soon as each has been developed. (3) A coin dealer who engages in less than 10 transactions each week in which he or she has purchased, taken in trade, taken in pawn, accepted for sale or consignment, or accepted for auctioning tangible personal property, shall report the information required by this section under the reporting categories described in paragraph (1) on a form developed by the Attorney General that the coin dealer shall transmit each day by facsimile transmission or by mail to the chief of police or sheriff. A transaction shall consist of not more than one item. Nothing in this section shall prohibit up to 10 transactions with the same customer per week, provided that the cumulative total per week for all customers does not exceed 10 transactions. Until that form is developed, these coin dealers shall continue to report information required by this section using existing forms and procedures. If these transactions increase to 10 per week, the coin dealer shall electronically report using the format described in paragraph (1) the information required by this section beginning six months after his or her transactions exceed 10 per week or 12 months after the format described in paragraph (1) has been developed, whichever occurs later. (4) For purposes of this subdivision, "item" shall mean any single physical article. However, with respect to a commonly accepted grouping of articles that are purchased as a set, including, but not limited to, a pair of earrings or place settings of china, silverware, or other tableware, "item" shall mean that commonly accepted grouping. (5) Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed as excepting a secondhand dealer from the fingerprinting requirement of subdivision (g). (k) Nothing in this section shall be construed to exempt a person licensed as a firearms dealer pursuant to  Article 4 (commencing with Section 12071) of Chapter 1 of Title 2 of Part 4   Sections 26700 to 26915, inclusive,  of the Penal Code from the reporting requirements for the delivery of firearms pursuant to  Section 12071   Sections 26700 to 26915, inclusive,  of the Penal Code. (l) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2010. SEC. 17. Section 21628.2 of the Business and Professions Code, as added by Section 5 of Chapter 335 of the Statutes of 2009, is amended to read: 21628.2. (a) For purposes of this section, the "department" shall mean the Department of Justice. (b) Every secondhand dealer described in Section 21626 shall, in a format prescribed by the department, and on the day of the transaction, electronically report to the department each firearm purchased, taken in trade, taken in pawn, accepted for sale on consignment, or accepted for auctioning. The secondhand dealer shall retain a copy of the report submitted to the department and make it available for inspection by the department, any peace officer, or any local law enforcement employee who is authorized by  Section 12071   Sections 26700 to 26915, inclusive,  of the Penal Code to inspect a firearms transaction record. (c) The department may retain secondhand dealer reports to determine whether a firearm taken in by a secondhand dealer has been reported lost or stolen. If the department's records indicate that the firearm is lost or stolen, the department shall notify the law enforcement agency that entered the information in the department's records and a law enforcement agency with jurisdiction over the secondhand dealer's business location about the status of the firearm. The Dealers' Record of Sale shall be retained by the department pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) of Section 11106 of the Penal Code. (d) All information in the secondhand dealer report of each firearm described in subdivision (a) shall be electronically provided by the department to the secure mailbox of the local law enforcement agency described in Section 21630 within one working day of receipt by the department. (e) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2010. SEC. 18. Section 21641 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: 21641. (a) The chief of police, the sheriff or, where appropriate, the police commission, shall accept an application for and grant a license permitting the licensee to engage in the business of secondhand dealer, as defined in Section 21626, to an applicant who has not been convicted of an attempt to receive stolen property or any other offense involving stolen property. Prior to the granting of a license, the licensing authority shall submit the application to the Department of Justice. If the Department of Justice does not comment on the application within 30 days thereafter, the licensing authority may grant the applicant a license. All forms for application and licensure, and license renewal, shall be prescribed and provided by the Department of Justice. A fee may be charged to the applicant as specified by the Department of Justice and the local licensing authority for processing the initial license application. (b) For the purposes of this section, "convicted" means a plea or verdict of guilty or a conviction following a plea of nolo contendere. (c) Notwithstanding subdivisions (a) and (b), no person shall be denied a secondhand dealer's license solely on the grounds that he or she violated any provision contained in Article 4 (commencing with Section 21625) or Article 5 (commencing with Section 21650) of this chapter, or any provision contained in Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 21200) of Division 8 of the Financial Code, unless the violation demonstrates a pattern of conduct. (d) Any person licensed as a firearms dealer pursuant to  Section 12071   Sections 26700 to 26915, inclusive,  of the Penal Code, who is conducting business at gun shows or events pursuant to  subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) of Section 12071   subdivision (b) of Section 26805  of the Penal Code, and who has a valid secondhand dealer license granted by the appropriate local authorities in the jurisdiction where the firearms dealer license has been granted, shall be authorized to conduct business as a secondhand dealer at any gun show or event, as defined in Section 478.100 of Title 27 of the Code of Federal Regulations, or its successor, without regard to the jurisdiction within this state that issued the secondhand dealer license pursuant to subdivision (a) of this section. No additional fees or separate secondhand dealer license shall be required by any agency having jurisdiction over the locality where the gun show or event is conducted. However, the person shall otherwise be subject to, and comply with, the requirements of this article when he or she acts as a secondhand dealer at the gun show or event to the same extent as if he or she were licensed as a secondhand dealer in the jurisdiction in which the gun show or event is being conducted. SEC. 19. Section 3485 of the Civil Code is amended to read: 3485. (a) To abate the nuisance caused by illegal conduct involving an unlawful weapons or ammunition purpose on real property, the city prosecutor or city attorney may file, in the name of the people, an action for unlawful detainer against any person who is in violation of the nuisance or illegal purpose provisions of subdivision 4 of Section 1161 of the Code of Civil Procedure, with respect to that unlawful weapons or ammunition purpose. In filing this action, which shall be based upon an arrest report or other report by a law enforcement agency, reporting an offense committed on the property and documented by the observations of a police officer, the city prosecutor or city attorney shall utilize the procedures set forth in Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 1159) of Title 3 of Part 3 of the Code of Civil Procedure, except that in cases filed under this section, the following also shall apply: (1) (A) Prior to filing an action pursuant to this section, the city prosecutor or city attorney shall give 30 calendar days' written notice to the owner, requiring the owner to file an action for the removal of the person who is in violation of the nuisance or illegal purpose provisions of subdivision 4 of Section 1161 of the Code of Civil Procedure with respect to an unlawful weapons or ammunition purpose. (B) This notice shall include sufficient documentation establishing a violation of the nuisance or illegal purpose provisions of subdivision 4 of Section 1161 of the Code of Civil Procedure and an advisement to the owner of the assignment provision contained in subparagraph (D). The notice shall be served upon the owner and the tenant in accordance with subdivision (e). (C) The notice to the tenant shall, in at least 14-point bold type, meet the following requirements: (i) The notice shall contain the following language: "(Date) (Name of tenant) (Address of tenant) Re: Civil Code Section 3485 Dear (name of tenant): This letter is to inform you that an eviction action may soon be filed in court against you for suspected firearms activity. According to state law, Civil Code Section 3485 provides for eviction of persons engaging in such conduct, as described below. (Name of police department) records indicate that you, (name of arrestee), were arrested on (date) for violations of (list violations) on (address of property). A letter has been sent to the property owner(s) advising of your arrest and the requirements of state law, as well as the landlord's option to assign the unlawful detainer action to the (name of city attorney or prosecutor's office). A list of legal assistance providers is provided below. Please note, this list is not exclusive and is provided for your information only; the (name of city attorney or prosecutor's office) does not endorse or recommend any of the listed agencies. Sincerely, (Name of deputy city attorney or city prosecutor) Deputy City (Attorney or Prosecutor) Notice to Tenant: This notice is not a notice of eviction. You should call (name of the city attorney or prosecutor pursuing the action) at (telephone number) or a legal assistance provider to stop the eviction action if any of the following is applicable: (1) You are not the person named in this notice. (2) The person named in the notice does not live with you. (3) The person named in the notice has permanently moved. (4) You do not know the person named in the notice. (5) You want to request that only the person involved in the nuisance be evicted, allowing the other residents to stay. (6) You have any other legal defense or legal reason to stop the eviction action. A list of legal assistance providers is attached to this notice. Some provide free legal assistance if you are eligible." (ii) The notice shall be provided to the tenant in English and, as translated, in all of the languages identified in subdivision (a) of Section 1632 of the Civil Code. (D) The owner shall, within 30 calendar days of the mailing of the written notice, either provide the city prosecutor or city attorney with all relevant information pertaining to the unlawful detainer case, or provide a written explanation setting forth any safety-related reasons for noncompliance, and an assignment to the city prosecutor or city attorney of the right to bring an unlawful detainer action against the tenant. (E) The assignment shall be on a form provided by the city prosecutor or city attorney and may contain a provision for costs of investigation, discovery, and reasonable attorney's fees, in an amount not to exceed six hundred dollars ($600). (F) If the city prosecutor or city attorney accepts the assignment of the right of the owner to bring the unlawful detainer action, the owner shall retain all other rights and duties, including the handling of the tenant's personal property, following issuance of the writ of possession and its delivery to and execution by the appropriate agency. (2) Upon the failure of the owner to file an action pursuant to this section, or to respond to the city prosecutor or city attorney as provided in paragraph (1), or having filed an action, if the owner fails to prosecute it diligently and in good faith, the city prosecutor or city attorney may file and prosecute the action, and join the owner as a defendant in the action. This action shall have precedence over any similar proceeding thereafter brought by the owner, or to one previously brought by the owner and not prosecuted diligently and in good faith. Service of the summons and complaint upon the defendant owner shall be in accordance with Sections 415.10, 415.20, 415.30, 415.40, and 415.50 of the Code of Civil Procedure. (3) If a jury or court finds the defendant tenant guilty of unlawful detainer in a case filed pursuant to paragraph (2), the city prosecutor or city attorney may be awarded costs, including the costs of investigation and discovery and reasonable attorney's fees. These costs shall be assessed against the defendant owner, to whom notice was directed pursuant to paragraph (1), and once an abstract of judgment is recorded, it shall constitute a lien on the subject real property. (4) This section shall not prevent a local governing body from adopting and enforcing laws, consistent with this section, relating to weapons or ammunition abatement. If local laws duplicate or supplement this section, this section shall be construed as providing alternative remedies and not preempting the field. (5) This section shall not prevent a tenant from receiving relief against a forfeiture of a lease pursuant to Section 1179 of the Code of Civil Procedure. (b) In any proceeding brought under this section, the court may, upon a showing of good cause, issue a partial eviction ordering the removal of any person, including, but not limited to, members of the tenant's household if the court finds that the person has engaged in the activities described in subdivision (a). Persons removed pursuant to this section may be permanently barred from returning to or reentering any portion of the entire premises. The court may further order as an express condition of the tenancy that the remaining tenants shall not give permission to or invite any person who has been removed pursuant to this subdivision to return to or reenter any portion of the entire premises. (c) For purposes of this section, "unlawful weapons or ammunition purpose" means the illegal use, manufacture, causing to be manufactured, importation, possession, possession for sale, sale, furnishing, or giving away of any of the following: (1) A firearm, as defined in subdivision  (b) of Section 12001   (a) of Section 16520  of the Penal Code. (2) Any ammunition, as defined in  paragraph (2) of subdivision (b) of Section 12316 or subdivisions (a) and (b) of Section 12323   subdivision (b) of Section 16150 of the Penal Code or in Section 16650 or 16660  of the Penal Code. (3) Any assault weapon, as defined in Section  12276, 12276.1, or 12276.5   30510 or 30515  of the Penal Code. (4) Any .50 BMG rifle, as defined in Section  12278   30530  of the Penal Code. (5) Any tear gas weapon, as defined in Section  12402   17250  of the Penal Code. (d) Notwithstanding subdivision (b) of Section 68097.2 of the Government Code, a public entity may waive all or part of the costs incurred in furnishing the testimony of a peace officer in an unlawful detainer action brought pursuant to this section. (e) The notice and documentation described in paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) shall be given in writing and may be given either by personal delivery or by deposit in the United States mail in a sealed envelope, postage prepaid, addressed to the owner at the address known to the public entity giving the notice, or as shown on the last equalized assessment roll, if not known. Separate notice of not less than 30 calendar days and documentation shall be provided to the tenant in accordance with this subdivision. Service by mail shall be deemed to be completed at the time of deposit in the United States mail. Proof of giving the notice may be made by a declaration signed under penalty of perjury by any employee of the public entity which shows service in conformity with this section. (f) This section shall apply only to the following courts: (1) In the County of Los Angeles, any court having jurisdiction over unlawful detainer cases involving real property situated in the City of Los Angeles or the City of Long Beach. (2) In the County of San Diego, any court having jurisdiction over unlawful detainer cases involving real property situated in the City of San Diego. (3) In the County of Alameda, any court with jurisdiction over unlawful detainer cases involving real property situated in the City of Oakland. (4) In the County of Sacramento, any court with jurisdiction over unlawful detainer cases involving real property situated in the City of Sacramento. (g) (1) The city attorney and city prosecutor of each participating jurisdiction shall provide to the California Research Bureau the following information: (A) The number of notices provided pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a). (B) For each notice provided pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a), the following information: (i) The name and age, as provided by the landlord, of each person residing at the noticed address. (ii) Whether the person has previously received a notice pursuant to this section from the reporting city attorney or prosecutor, and if so, whether the tenant vacated or was evicted as a result. (C) For the tenant receiving the notice, whether the tenant has previously been arrested (other than an arrest that is the basis of this notice) for any of the offenses specified in subdivision (c). (D) The number of cases filed by an owner, upon notice. (E) The number of assignments executed by owners to the city attorney or city prosecutor. (F) The number of three-day, 30-day, or 60-day notices issued by the city attorney or city prosecutor. (G) The number of cases filed by the city attorney or city prosecutor. (H) The number of times that an owner is joined as a defendant pursuant to this section. (I) For the subtotal of cases filed by an owner, the city attorney, or the city prosecutor, the following information: (i) The number of judgments ordering an eviction or partial eviction, and specifying whether each was a default judgment, stipulated judgment, or judgment following trial. (ii) The number of cases, listed by separate categories, in which the case was withdrawn or in which the tenant prevailed. (iii) The number of other dispositions, and specifying the disposition. (iv) The number of defendants represented by counsel. (v) Whether the case was a trial by the court or a trial by a jury. (vi) Whether an appeal was taken, and, if so, the result of the appeal. (vii) The number of cases in which partial eviction was requested, and the number of cases in which the court ordered a partial eviction. (J) For the subtotal of cases in which a notice was provided pursuant to subdivision (a), but no case was filed, the following information: (i) The number of instances in which a tenant voluntarily vacated subsequent to receiving the notice. (ii) The number of instances in which a tenant vacated a unit prior to the providing of the notice. (iii) The number of cases in which the notice provided pursuant to subdivision (a) was erroneously sent to the tenant. This shall include a list of the reasons, if known, for the erroneously sent notice, such as reliance on information on the suspected violator's name or address that was incorrect, a clerical error, or any other reason. (iv) The number of other resolutions, and specifying the type of resolution. (K) For each case in which a notice was issued and the tenants either vacated the premises before a judgment in the unlawful detainer action or were evicted, the street address, city, and ZIP Code of residence where the tenants relocated, to the extent known. (2) (A) Information compiled pursuant to this section shall be reported annually to the California Research Bureau on or before January 20. (B) The California Research Bureau shall thereafter submit a brief report to the Senate and Assembly Committees on Judiciary once on or before March 20, 2011, and once on or before March 20, 2013, summarizing the information collected pursuant to this section and evaluating the merits of the pilot programs established by this section. The report for this section may be combined with the California Research Bureau report submitted for the pilot program established by Section 3486 of the Civil Code. The 2013 report shall indicate whether the City of Los Angeles has regularly reported to the bureau. (3) Personally identifiable information submitted to the California Research Bureau pursuant to this section shall be confidential and shall not be publicly disclosed. (h) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2014, and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, that is enacted before January 1, 2014, deletes or extends that date. SEC. 20. Section 527.6 of the Code of Civil Procedure is amended to read: 527.6. (a) A person who has suffered harassment as defined in subdivision (b) may seek a temporary restraining order and an injunction prohibiting harassment as provided in this section. (b) For the purposes of this section, "harassment" is unlawful violence, a credible threat of violence, or a knowing and willful course of conduct directed at a specific person that seriously alarms, annoys, or harasses the person, and that serves no legitimate purpose. The course of conduct must be such as would cause a reasonable person to suffer substantial emotional distress, and must actually cause substantial emotional distress to the plaintiff. As used in this subdivision: (1) "Unlawful violence" is any assault or battery, or stalking as prohibited in Section 646.9 of the Penal Code, but shall not include lawful acts of self-defense or defense of others. (2) "Credible threat of violence" is a knowing and willful statement or course of conduct that would place a reasonable person in fear for his or her safety, or the safety of his or her immediate family, and that serves no legitimate purpose. (3) "Course of conduct" is a pattern of conduct composed of a series of acts over a period of time, however short, evidencing a continuity of purpose, including following or stalking an individual, making harassing telephone calls to an individual, or sending harassing correspondence to an individual by any means, including, but not limited to, the use of public or private mails, interoffice mail, fax, or computer e-mail. Constitutionally protected activity is not included within the meaning of "course of conduct." (c) Upon filing a petition for an injunction under this section, the plaintiff may obtain a temporary restraining order in accordance with Section 527, except to the extent this section provides a rule that is inconsistent. A temporary restraining order may be issued with or without notice upon an affidavit that, to the satisfaction of the court, shows reasonable proof of harassment of the plaintiff by the defendant, and that great or irreparable harm would result to the plaintiff. In the discretion of the court, and on a showing of good cause, a temporary restraining order or injunction, issued under this section may include other named family or household members who reside with the plaintiff. A temporary restraining order issued under this section shall remain in effect, at the court's discretion, for a period not to exceed 15 days, or, if the court extends the time for hearing under subdivision (d), not to exceed 22 days, unless otherwise modified or terminated by the court. (d) Within 15 days, or, if good cause appears to the court, 22 days from the date the temporary restraining order is issued, a hearing shall be held on the petition for the injunction. The defendant may file a response that explains, excuses, justifies, or denies the alleged harassment or may file a cross-complaint under this section. At the hearing, the judge shall receive any testimony that is relevant, and may make an independent inquiry. If the judge finds by clear and convincing evidence that unlawful harassment exists, an injunction shall issue prohibiting the harassment. An injunction issued pursuant to this section shall have a duration of not more than three years. At any time within the three months before the expiration of the injunction, the plaintiff may apply for a renewal of the injunction by filing a new petition for an injunction under this section. (e) This section does not preclude either party from representation by private counsel or from appearing on the party's own behalf. (f) In a proceeding under this section if there are allegations or threats of domestic violence, a support person may accompany a party in court and, if the party is not represented by an attorney, may sit with the party at the table that is generally reserved for the party and the party's attorney. The support person is present to provide moral and emotional support for a person who alleges he or she is a victim of domestic violence. The support person is not present as a legal adviser and may not provide legal advice. The support person may assist the person who alleges he or she is a victim of domestic violence in feeling more confident that he or she will not be injured or threatened by the other party during the proceedings if the person who alleges he or she is a victim of domestic violence and the other party are required to be present in close proximity. This subdivision does not preclude the court from exercising its discretion to remove the support person from the courtroom if the court believes the support person is prompting, swaying, or influencing the party assisted by the support person. (g) Upon the filing of a petition for an injunction under this section, the defendant shall be personally served with a copy of the petition, temporary restraining order, if any, and notice of hearing of the petition. Service shall be made at least five days before the hearing. The court may for good cause, on motion of the plaintiff or on its own motion, shorten the time for service on the defendant. (h) The court shall order the plaintiff or the attorney for the plaintiff to deliver a copy of each temporary restraining order or injunction, or modification or termination thereof, granted under this section, by the close of the business day on which the order was granted, to the law enforcement agencies within the court's discretion as are requested by the plaintiff. Each appropriate law enforcement agency shall make available information as to the existence and current status of these orders to law enforcement officers responding to the scene of reported harassment. An order issued under this section shall, on request of the plaintiff, be served on the defendant, whether or not the defendant has been taken into custody, by any law enforcement officer who is present at the scene of reported harassment involving the parties to the proceeding. The plaintiff shall provide the officer with an endorsed copy of the order and a proof of service that the officer shall complete and send to the issuing court. Upon receiving information at the scene of an incident of harassment that a protective order has been issued under this section, or that a person who has been taken into custody is the subject of an order, if the protected person cannot produce a certified copy of the order, a law enforcement officer shall immediately attempt to verify the existence of the order. If the law enforcement officer determines that a protective order has been issued, but not served, the officer shall immediately notify the defendant of the terms of the order and shall at that time also enforce the order. Verbal notice of the terms of the order shall constitute service of the order and is sufficient notice for the purposes of this section and for the purposes of  Section   Sections  273.6 and  subdivision (g) of Section 12021   29825  of the Penal Code. (i) The prevailing party in any action brought under this section may be awarded court costs and attorney's fees, if any. (j) Any willful disobedience of any temporary restraining order or injunction granted under this section is punishable pursuant to Section 273.6 of the Penal Code. (k) (1) A person subject to a protective order issued under this section shall not own, possess, purchase, receive, or attempt to purchase or receive a firearm while the protective order is in effect. (2) The court shall order a person subject to a protective order issued under this section to relinquish any firearms he or she owns or possesses pursuant to Section 527.9. (3) Every person who owns, possesses, purchases or receives, or attempts to purchase or receive a firearm while the protective order is in effect is punishable pursuant to  subdivision (g) of Section 12021   Section 29825  of the Penal Code. (  l  ) This section does not apply to any action or proceeding covered by Title 1.6C (commencing with Section 1788) of the Civil Code or by Division 10 (commencing with Section 6200) of the Family Code. This section does not preclude a plaintiff from using other existing civil remedies. (m) The Judicial Council shall promulgate forms and instructions therefor, and rules for service of process, scheduling of hearings, and any other matters required by this section. The petition and response forms shall be simple and concise, and their use by parties in actions brought pursuant to this section shall be mandatory. (n) A temporary restraining order or injunction relating to harassment or domestic violence issued by a court pursuant to this section shall be issued on forms adopted by the Judicial Council of California and that have been approved by the Department of Justice pursuant to subdivision (i) of Section 6380 of the Family Code. However, the fact that an order issued by a court pursuant to this section was not issued on forms adopted by the Judicial Council and approved by the Department of Justice shall not, in and of itself, make the order unenforceable. (o) Information on any temporary restraining order or injunction relating to harassment or domestic violence issued by a court pursuant to this section shall be transmitted to the Department of Justice in accordance with subdivision (b) of Section 6380 of the Family Code. (p) There is no filing fee for a petition that alleges that a person has inflicted or threatened violence against the petitioner, or stalked the petitioner, or acted or spoken in any other manner that has placed the petitioner in reasonable fear of violence, and that seeks a protective or restraining order or injunction restraining stalking or future violence or threats of violence, in any action brought pursuant to this section. No fee shall be paid for a subpoena filed in connection with a petition alleging these acts. No fee shall be paid for filing a response to a petition alleging these acts. (q) (1) Subject to paragraph (4) of subdivision (b) of Section 6103.2 of the Government Code, there shall be no fee for the service of process of a protective order, restraining order, or injunction to be issued, if any of the following conditions apply: (A) The protective order, restraining order, or injunction issued pursuant to this section is based upon stalking, as prohibited by Section 646.9 of the Penal Code. (B) The protective order, restraining order, or injunction issued pursuant to this section is based upon a credible threat of violence. (C) The protective order, restraining order, or injunction is issued pursuant to Section 6222 of the Family Code. (2) The Judicial Council shall prepare and develop application forms for applicants who wish to avail themselves of the services described in this subdivision. SEC. 21. Section 527.8 of the Code of Civil Procedure is amended to read: 527.8. (a) Any employer, whose employee has suffered unlawful violence or a credible threat of violence from any individual, that can reasonably be construed to be carried out or to have been carried out at the workplace, may seek a temporary restraining order and an injunction on behalf of the employee and, at the discretion of the court, any number of other employees at the workplace, and, if appropriate, other employees at other workplaces of the employer. (b) For the purposes of this section: (1) "Unlawful violence" is any assault or battery, or stalking as prohibited in Section 646.9 of the Penal Code, but shall not include lawful acts of self-defense or defense of others. (2) "Credible threat of violence" is a knowing and willful statement or course of conduct that would place a reasonable person in fear for his or her safety, or the safety of his or her immediate family, and that serves no legitimate purpose. (3) "Course of conduct" is a pattern of conduct composed of a series of acts over a period of time, however short, evidencing a continuity of purpose, including following or stalking an employee to or from the place of work; entering the workplace; following an employee during hours of employment; making telephone calls to an employee; or sending correspondence to an employee by any means, including, but not limited to, the use of the public or private mails, interoffice mail, fax, or computer e-mail. (c) This section does not permit a court to issue a temporary restraining order or injunction prohibiting speech or other activities that are constitutionally protected, or otherwise protected by Section 527.3 or any other provision of law. (d) For purposes of this section, the terms "employer" and "employee" mean persons defined in Section 350 of the Labor Code. "Employer" also includes a federal agency, the state, a state agency, a city, county, or district, and a private, public, or quasi-public corporation, or any public agency thereof or therein. "Employee" also includes the members of boards of directors of private, public, and quasi-public corporations and elected and appointed public officers. For purposes of this section only, "employee" also includes a volunteer or independent contractor who performs services for the employer at the employer's worksite. (e) Upon filing a petition for an injunction under this section, the plaintiff may obtain a temporary restraining order in accordance with subdivision (a) of Section 527, if the plaintiff also files an affidavit that, to the satisfaction of the court, shows reasonable proof that an employee has suffered unlawful violence or a credible threat of violence by the defendant, and that great or irreparable harm would result to an employee. In the discretion of the court, and on a showing of good cause, a temporary restraining order or injunction issued under this section may include other named family or household members who reside with the employee, or other persons employed at his or her workplace or workplaces. A temporary restraining order granted under this section shall remain in effect, at the court's discretion, for a period not to exceed 15 days, unless otherwise modified or terminated by the court. (f) Within 15 days of the filing of the petition, a hearing shall be held on the petition for the injunction. The defendant may file a response that explains, excuses, justifies, or denies the alleged unlawful violence or credible threats of violence or may file a cross-complaint under this section. At the hearing, the judge shall receive any testimony that is relevant and may make an independent inquiry. Moreover, if the defendant is a current employee of the entity requesting the injunction, the judge shall receive evidence concerning the employer's decision to retain, terminate, or otherwise discipline the defendant. If the judge finds by clear and convincing evidence that the defendant engaged in unlawful violence or made a credible threat of violence, an injunction shall issue prohibiting further unlawful violence or threats of violence. An injunction issued pursuant to this section shall have a duration of not more than three years. At any time within the three months before the expiration of the injunction, the plaintiff may apply for a renewal of the injunction by filing a new petition for an injunction under this section. (g) This section does not preclude either party from representation by private counsel or from appearing on his or her own behalf. (h) Upon filing of a petition for an injunction under this section, the defendant shall be personally served with a copy of the petition, temporary restraining order, if any, and notice of hearing of the petition. Service shall be made at least five days before the hearing. The court may, for good cause, on motion of the plaintiff or on its own motion, shorten the time for service on the defendant. (i) (1) The court shall order the plaintiff or the attorney for the plaintiff to deliver a copy of each temporary restraining order or injunction, or modification or termination thereof, granted under this section, by the close of the business day on which the order was granted, to the law enforcement agencies within the court's discretion as are requested by the plaintiff. Each appropriate law enforcement agency shall make available information as to the existence and current status of these orders to law enforcement officers responding to the scene of reported unlawful violence or a credible threat of violence. (2) At the request of the plaintiff, an order issued under this section shall be served on the defendant, regardless of whether the defendant has been taken into custody, by any law enforcement officer who is present at the scene of reported unlawful violence or a credible threat of violence involving the parties to the proceedings. The plaintiff shall provide the officer with an endorsed copy of the order and proof of service that the officer shall complete and send to the issuing court. (3) Upon receiving information at the scene of an incident of unlawful violence or a credible threat of violence that a protective order has been issued under this section, or that a person who has been taken into custody is the subject of an order, if the plaintiff or the protected person cannot produce an endorsed copy of the order, a law enforcement officer shall immediately attempt to verify the existence of the order. (4) If the law enforcement officer determines that a protective order has been issued, but not served, the officer shall immediately notify the defendant of the terms of the order and obtain the defendant's address. The law enforcement officer shall at that time also enforce the order, but may not arrest or take the defendant into custody for acts in violation of the order that were committed prior to the verbal notice of the terms and conditions of the order. The law enforcement officer's verbal notice of the terms of the order shall constitute service of the order and constitutes sufficient notice for the purposes of this section and for the purposes of  Section   Sections  273.6 and  subdivision (g) of Section 12021   29825  of the Penal Code. The plaintiff shall mail an endorsed copy of the order to the defendant's mailing address provided to the law enforcement officer within one business day of the reported incident of unlawful violence or a credible threat of violence at which a verbal notice of the terms of the order was provided by a law enforcement officer. (j) (1) A person subject to a protective order issued under this section shall not own, possess, purchase, receive, or attempt to purchase or receive a firearm while the protective order is in effect. (2) The court shall order a person subject to a protective order issued under this section to relinquish any firearms he or she owns or possesses pursuant to Section 527.9. (3) Every person who owns, possesses, purchases or receives, or attempts to purchase or receive a firearm while the protective order is in effect is punishable pursuant to  subdivision (g) of Section 12021   Section 29825  of the Penal Code. (k) Any intentional disobedience of any temporary restraining order or injunction granted under this section is punishable pursuant to Section 273.6 of the Penal Code. (  l  ) Nothing in this section may be construed as expanding, diminishing, altering, or modifying the duty, if any, of an employer to provide a safe workplace for employees and other persons. (m) The Judicial Council shall develop forms, instructions, and rules for scheduling of hearings and other procedures established pursuant to this section. The forms for the petition and response shall be simple and concise, and their use by parties in actions brought pursuant to this section shall be mandatory. (n) A temporary restraining order or injunction relating to harassment or domestic violence issued by a court pursuant to this section shall be issued on forms adopted by the Judicial Council of California and that have been approved by the Department of Justice pursuant to subdivision (i) of Section 6380 of the Family Code. However, the fact that an order issued by a court pursuant to this section was not issued on forms adopted by the Judicial Council and approved by the Department of Justice shall not, in and of itself, make the order unenforceable. (o) Information on any temporary restraining order or injunction relating to harassment or domestic violence issued by a court pursuant to this section shall be transmitted to the Department of Justice in accordance with subdivision (b) of Section 6380 of the Family Code. (p) There is no filing fee for a petition that alleges that a person has inflicted or threatened violence against an employee of the petitioner, or stalked the employee, or acted or spoken in any other manner that has placed the employee in reasonable fear of violence, and that seeks a protective or restraining order or injunction restraining stalking or future violence or threats of violence, in any action brought pursuant to this section. No fee shall be paid for a subpoena filed in connection with a petition alleging these acts. No fee shall be paid for filing a response to a petition alleging these acts. (q) (1) Subject to paragraph (4) of subdivision (b) of Section 6103.2 of the Government Code, there shall be no fee for the service of process of a temporary restraining order or injunction to be issued pursuant to this section if either of the following conditions apply: (A) The temporary restraining order or injunction issued pursuant to this section is based upon stalking, as prohibited by Section 646.9 of the Penal Code. (B) The temporary restraining order or injunction issued pursuant to this section is based upon a credible threat of violence. (2) The Judicial Council shall prepare and develop application forms for applicants who wish to avail themselves of the services described in this subdivision. SEC. 22. Section 527.85 of the Code of Civil Procedure is amended to read: 527.85. (a) Any chief administrative officer of a postsecondary educational institution, or an officer or employee designated by the chief administrative officer to maintain order on the school campus or facility, a student of which has suffered a credible threat of violence made off the school campus or facility from any individual, which can reasonably be construed to be carried out or to have been carried out at the school campus or facility, may, with the written consent of the student, seek a temporary restraining order and an injunction, on behalf of the student and, at the discretion of the court, any number of other students at the campus or facility who are similarly situated. (b) For the purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply: (1) "Chief administrative officer" means the principal, president, or highest ranking official of the postsecondary educational institution. (2) "Course of conduct" means a pattern of conduct composed of a series of acts over a period of time, however short, evidencing a continuity of purpose, including any of the following: (A) Following or stalking a student to or from school. (B) Entering the school campus or facility. (C) Following a student during school hours. (D) Making telephone calls to a student. (E) Sending correspondence to a student by any means, including, but not limited to, the use of the public or private mails, interoffice mail, fax, or computer e-mail. (3) "Credible threat of violence" means a knowing and willful statement or course of conduct that would place a reasonable person in fear for his or her safety, or the safety of his or her immediate family, and that serves no legitimate purpose. (4) "Postsecondary educational institution" means a private institution of vocational, professional, or postsecondary education. (5) "Student" means an adult currently enrolled in or applying for admission to a postsecondary educational institution. (6) "Unlawful violence" means any assault or battery, or stalking as prohibited in Section 646.9 of the Penal Code, but shall not include lawful acts of self-defense or defense of others. (c) This section does not permit a court to issue a temporary restraining order or injunction prohibiting speech or other activities that are constitutionally protected, or otherwise protected by Section 527.3 or any other provision of law. (d) Upon filing a petition for an injunction under this section, the plaintiff may obtain a temporary restraining order in accordance with subdivision (a) of Section 527, if the plaintiff also files an affidavit that, to the satisfaction of the court, shows reasonable proof that a student has suffered a credible threat of violence made off the school campus or facility by the defendant, and that great or irreparable harm would result to the student. In the discretion of the court, and on a showing of good cause, a temporary restraining order or injunction issued under this section may include other named family or household members who reside with the student, or other students at the campus or facility. A temporary restraining order granted under this section shall remain in effect, at the court's discretion, for a period not to exceed 15 days, unless otherwise modified or terminated by the court. (e) Within 15 days of the filing of the petition, a hearing shall be held on the petition for the injunction. The defendant may file a response that explains, excuses, justifies, or denies the alleged credible threats of violence or may file a cross-complaint under this section. At the hearing, the judge shall receive any testimony that is relevant and may make an independent inquiry. Moreover, if the defendant is a current student of the entity requesting the injunction, the judge shall receive evidence concerning the decision of the postsecondary educational institution decision to retain, terminate, or otherwise discipline the defendant. If the judge finds by clear and convincing evidence that the defendant made a credible threat of violence off the school campus or facility, an injunction shall be issued prohibiting further threats of violence. An injunction issued pursuant to this section shall have a duration of not more than three years. At any time within three months before the expiration of the injunction, the plaintiff may apply for a renewal of the injunction by filing a new petition for an injunction under this section. (f) This section does not preclude either party from representation by private counsel or from appearing on his or her own behalf. (g) Upon filing of a petition for an injunction under this section, the defendant shall be personally served with a copy of the petition, temporary restraining order, if any, and notice of hearing of the petition. Service shall be made at least five days before the hearing. The court may, for good cause, on motion of the plaintiff or on its own motion, shorten the time for service on the defendant. (h) (1) The court shall order the plaintiff or the attorney for the plaintiff to deliver a copy of each temporary restraining order or injunction, or modification or termination thereof, granted under this section, by the close of the business day on which the order was granted, to the law enforcement agencies within the court's discretion as are requested by the plaintiff. Each appropriate law enforcement agency shall make available information as to the existence and current status of these orders to law enforcement officers responding to the scene of reported unlawful violence or a credible threat of violence. (2) At the request of the plaintiff, an order issued under this section shall be served on the defendant, regardless of whether the defendant has been taken into custody, by any law enforcement officer who is present at the scene of reported unlawful violence or a credible threat of violence involving the parties to the proceedings. The plaintiff shall provide the officer with an endorsed copy of the order and proof of service that the officer shall complete and send to the issuing court. (3) Upon receiving information at the scene of an incident of unlawful violence or a credible threat of violence that a protective order has been issued under this section, or that a person who has been taken into custody is the subject of an order, if the plaintiff or the protected person cannot produce an endorsed copy of the order, a law enforcement officer shall immediately attempt to verify the existence of the order. (4) If the law enforcement officer determines that a protective order has been issued, but not served, the officer shall immediately notify the defendant of the terms of the order and obtain the defendant's address. The law enforcement officer shall at that time also enforce the order, but may not arrest or take the defendant into custody for acts in violation of the order that were committed prior to the verbal notice of the terms and conditions of the order. The law enforcement officer's verbal notice of the terms of the order shall constitute service of the order and constitutes sufficient notice for the purposes of this section, and  Section   Sections  273.6 and  subdivision (g) of Section 12021   29825  of the Penal Code. The plaintiff shall mail an endorsed copy of the order to the defendant's mailing address provided to the law enforcement officer within one business day of the reported incident of unlawful violence or a credible threat of violence at which a verbal notice of the terms of the order was provided by a law enforcement officer. (i) (1) A person subject to a protective order issued under this section shall not own, possess, purchase, receive, or attempt to purchase or receive a firearm while the protective order is in effect. (2) The court shall order a person subject to a protective order issued under this section to relinquish any firearms he or she owns or possesses pursuant to Section 527.9. (3) Every person who owns, possesses, purchases, or receives, or attempts to purchase or receive a firearm while the protective order is in effect is punishable pursuant to  subdivision (g) of Section 12021   Section 29825  of the Penal Code. (j) Any intentional disobedience of any temporary restraining order or injunction granted under this section is punishable pursuant to Section 273.6 of the Penal Code. (k) Nothing in this section may be construed as expanding, diminishing, altering, or modifying the duty, if any, of a postsecondary educational institution to provide a safe environment for students and other persons. (l) The Judicial Council shall develop forms, instructions, and rules for scheduling of hearings and other procedures established pursuant to this section. The forms for the petition and response shall be simple and concise, and their use by parties in actions brought pursuant to this section shall be mandatory. (m) A temporary restraining order or injunction relating to harassment or domestic violence issued by a court pursuant to this section shall be issued on forms adopted by the Judicial Council and that have been approved by the Department of Justice pursuant to subdivision (i) of Section 6380 of the Family Code. However, the fact that an order issued by a court pursuant to this section was not issued on forms adopted by the Judicial Council and approved by the Department of Justice shall not, in and of itself, make the order unenforceable. (n) Information on any temporary restraining order or injunction relating to harassment or domestic violence issued by a court pursuant to this section shall be transmitted to the Department of Justice in accordance with subdivision (b) of Section 6380 of the Family Code. (o) There is no filing fee for a petition that alleges that a person has threatened violence against a student of the petitioner, or stalked the student, or acted or spoken in any other manner that has placed the student in reasonable fear of violence, and that seeks a protective or restraining order or injunction restraining stalking or future threats of violence, in any action brought pursuant to this section. No fee shall be paid for a subpoena filed in connection with a petition alleging these acts. No fee shall be paid for filing a response to a petition alleging these acts. (p) (1) Subject to paragraph (4) of subdivision (b) of Section 6103.2 of the Government Code, there shall be no fee for the service of process of a temporary restraining order or injunction to be issued pursuant to this section if either of the following conditions apply: (A) The temporary restraining order or injunction issued pursuant to this section is based upon stalking, as prohibited by Section 646.9 of the Penal Code. (B) The temporary restraining order or injunction issued pursuant to this section is based upon a credible threat of violence. (2) The Judicial Council shall prepare and develop application forms for applicants who wish to avail themselves of the services described in this subdivision. SEC. 23. Section 527.9 of the Code of Civil Procedure is amended to read: 527.9. (a) A person subject to a temporary restraining order or injunction issued pursuant to Section 527.6 or 527.8 of the Code of Civil Procedure, or subject to a restraining order issued pursuant to Section 136.2 of the Penal Code, or Section 15657.03 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, shall relinquish the firearm pursuant to this section. (b) Upon the issuance of a protective order pursuant to subdivision (a), the court shall order the person to relinquish any firearm in that person's immediate possession or control, or subject to that person's immediate possession or control, within 24 hours of being served with the order, either by surrendering the firearm to the control of local law enforcement officials, or by selling the firearm to a licensed gun dealer, as specified in  Section 12071   Sections 26700 to 26915, inclusive,  of the Penal Code. A person ordered to relinquish any firearm pursuant to this subdivision shall file with the court a receipt showing the firearm was surrendered to the local law enforcement agency or sold to a licensed gun dealer within 48 hours after receiving the order. In the event that it is necessary to continue the date of any hearing due to a request for a relinquishment order pursuant to this section, the court shall ensure that all applicable protective orders described in Section 6218 of the Family Code remain in effect or bifurcate the issues and grant the permanent restraining order pending the date of the hearing. (c) A local law enforcement agency may charge the person subject to the order or injunction a fee for the storage of any firearm relinquished pursuant to this section. The fee shall not exceed the actual cost incurred by the local law enforcement agency for the storage of the firearm. For purposes of this subdivision, "actual cost" means expenses directly related to taking possession of a firearm, storing the firearm, and surrendering possession of the firearm to a licensed dealer as defined in Section  12071   26700  of the Penal Code or to the person relinquishing the firearm. (d) The restraining order requiring a person to relinquish a firearm pursuant to subdivision (b) shall state on its face that the respondent is prohibited from owning, possessing, purchasing, or receiving a firearm while the protective order is in effect and that the firearm shall be relinquished to the local law enforcement agency for that jurisdiction or sold to a licensed gun dealer, and that proof of surrender or sale shall be filed with the court within a specified period of receipt of the order. The order shall also state on its face the expiration date for relinquishment. Nothing in this section shall limit a respondent's right under existing law to petition the court at a later date for modification of the order. (e) The restraining order requiring a person to relinquish a firearm pursuant to subdivision (b) shall prohibit the person from possessing or controlling any firearm for the duration of the order. At the expiration of the order, the local law enforcement agency shall return possession of any surrendered firearm to the respondent, within five days after the expiration of the relinquishment order, unless the local law enforcement agency determines that (1) the firearm has been stolen, (2) the respondent is prohibited from possessing a firearm because the respondent is in any prohibited class for the possession of firearms, as defined in  Sections 12021 and 12021.1   Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 29800) and Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 29900) of Division 9 of Title 4 of Part 6  of the Penal Code and Sections 8100 and 8103 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or (3) another successive restraining order is used against the respondent under this section. If the local law enforcement agency determines that the respondent is the legal owner of any firearm deposited with the local law enforcement agency and is prohibited from possessing any firearm, the respondent shall be entitled to sell or transfer the firearm to a licensed dealer as defined in Section  12071   26700  of the Penal Code. If the firearm has been stolen, the firearm shall be restored to the lawful owner upon his or her identification of the firearm and proof of ownership. (f) The court may, as part of the relinquishment order, grant an exemption from the relinquishment requirements of this section for a particular firearm if the respondent can show that a particular firearm is necessary as a condition of continued employment and that the current employer is unable to reassign the respondent to another position where a firearm is unnecessary. If an exemption is granted pursuant to this subdivision, the order shall provide that the firearm shall be in the physical possession of the respondent only during scheduled work hours and during travel to and from his or her place of employment. In any case involving a peace officer who as a condition of employment and whose personal safety depends on the ability to carry a firearm, a court may allow the peace officer to continue to carry a firearm, either on duty or off duty, if the court finds by a preponderance of the evidence that the officer does not pose a threat of harm. Prior to making this finding, the court shall require a mandatory psychological evaluation of the peace officer and may require the peace officer to enter into counseling or other remedial treatment program to deal with any propensity for domestic violence. (g) During the period of the relinquishment order, a respondent is entitled to make one sale of all firearms that are in the possession of a local law enforcement agency pursuant to this section. A licensed gun dealer, who presents a local law enforcement agency with a bill of sale indicating that all firearms owned by the respondent that are in the possession of the local law enforcement agency have been sold by the respondent to the licensed gun dealer, shall be given possession of those firearms, at the location where a respondent's firearms are stored, within five days of presenting the local law enforcement agency with a bill of sale. SEC. 24. Section 6383 of the Family Code is amended to read: 6383. (a) A temporary restraining order or emergency protective order issued under this part shall, on request of the petitioner, be served on the respondent, whether or not the respondent has been taken into custody, by any law enforcement officer who is present at the scene of reported domestic violence involving the parties to the proceeding. (b) The petitioner shall provide the officer with an endorsed copy of the order and a proof of service that the officer shall complete and transmit to the issuing court. (c) It is a rebuttable presumption that the proof of service was signed on the date of service. (d) Upon receiving information at the scene of a domestic violence incident that a protective order has been issued under this part, or that a person who has been taken into custody is the respondent to that order, if the protected person cannot produce an endorsed copy of the order, a law enforcement officer shall immediately inquire of the Department of Justice Domestic Violence Restraining Order System to verify the existence of the order. (e) If the law enforcement officer determines that a protective order has been issued, but not served, the officer shall immediately notify the respondent of the terms of the order and where a written copy of the order can be obtained and the officer shall, at that time, also enforce the order. The law enforcement officer's verbal notice of the terms of the order shall constitute service of the order and is sufficient notice for the purposes of this section and for the purposes of  Section   Sections  273.6 and  subdivision (g) of Section 12021   29825  of the Penal Code. (f) If a report is required under Section 13730 of the Penal Code, or if no report is required, then in the daily incident log, the officer shall provide the name and assignment of the officer notifying the respondent pursuant to subdivision (e) and the case number of the order. (g) Upon service of the order outside of the court, a law enforcement officer shall advise the respondent to go to the local court to obtain a copy of the order containing the full terms and conditions of the order. (h) There shall be no civil liability on the part of, and no cause of action for, false arrest or false imprisonment against any peace officer who makes an arrest pursuant to a protective or restraining order that is regular upon its face, if the peace officer in making the arrest acts in good faith and has reasonable cause to believe that the person against whom the order is issued has notice of the order and has committed an act in violation of the order. If there is more than one civil order regarding the same parties, the peace officer shall enforce the order that was issued last. If there are both civil and criminal orders regarding the same parties, the peace officer shall enforce the criminal order issued last, subject to the provisions of subdivisions (h) and (i) of Section 136.2 of the Penal Code. Nothing in this section shall be deemed to exonerate a peace officer from liability for the unreasonable use of force in the enforcement of the order. The immunities afforded by this section shall not affect the availability of any other immunity which may apply, including, but not limited to, Sections 820.2 and 820.4 of the Government Code. SEC. 25. Section 6385 of the Family Code is amended to read: 6385. (a) Proof of service of the protective order is not required for the purposes of Section 6380 if the order indicates on its face that both parties were personally present at the hearing at which the order was issued and that, for the purpose of Section 6384, no proof of service is required, or if the order was served by a law enforcement officer pursuant to Section 6383. (b) The failure of the petitioner to provide the Department of Justice with the personal descriptive information regarding the person restrained does not invalidate the protective order. (c) There is no civil liability on the part of, and no cause of action arises against, an employee of a local law enforcement agency, a court, or the Department of Justice, acting within the scope of employment, if a person described in  subdivision (g) of Section 12021   Section 29825  of the Penal Code unlawfully purchases or receives or attempts to purchase or receive a firearm and a person is injured by that firearm or a person who is otherwise entitled to receive a firearm is denied a firearm and either wrongful action is due to a failure of a court to provide the notification provided for in this chapter. SEC. 26. Section 6389 of the Family Code is amended to read: 6389. (a) A person subject to a protective order, as defined in Section 6218, shall not own, possess, purchase, or receive a firearm while that protective order is in effect. Every person who owns, possesses, purchases or receives, or attempts to purchase or receive a firearm while the protective order is in effect is punishable pursuant to  subdivision (g) of Section 12021   Section 29825  of the Penal Code. (b) On all forms providing notice that a protective order has been requested or granted, the Judicial Council shall include a notice that, upon service of the order, the respondent shall be ordered to relinquish possession or control of any firearms and not to purchase or receive or attempt to purchase or receive any firearms for a period not to exceed the duration of the restraining order. (c) (1) Upon issuance of a protective order, as defined in Section 6218, the court shall order the respondent to relinquish any firearm in the respondent's immediate possession or control or subject to the respondent's immediate possession or control. (2) The relinquishment ordered pursuant to paragraph (1) shall occur by immediately surrendering the firearm in a safe manner, upon request of any law enforcement officer, to the control of the officer, after being served with the protective order. Alternatively, if no request is made by a law enforcement officer, the relinquishment shall occur within 24 hours of being served with the order, by either surrendering the firearm in a safe manner to the control of local law enforcement officials, or by selling the firearm to a licensed gun dealer, as specified in  Section 12071   Sections 26700 to 26915, inclusive,  of the Penal Code. The law enforcement officer or licensed gun dealer taking possession of the firearm pursuant to this subdivision shall issue a receipt to the person relinquishing the firearm at the time of relinquishment. A person ordered to relinquish any firearm pursuant to this subdivision shall file with the court that issued the protective order, within 48 hours after being served with the order, the receipt showing the firearm was surrendered to a local law enforcement agency or sold to a licensed gun dealer. Failure to timely file a receipt shall constitute a violation of the protective order. (3) The application forms for protective orders adopted by the Judicial Council and approved by the Department of Justice shall be amended to require the petitioner to describe the number, types, and locations of any firearms presently known by the petitioner to be possessed or controlled by the respondent. (4) It is recommended that every law enforcement agency in the state develop, adopt, and implement written policies and standards for law enforcement officers who request immediate relinquishment of firearms. (d) If the respondent declines to relinquish possession of any firearm based on the assertion of the right against self-incrimination, as provided by the Fifth Amendment to the United States Constitution and Section 15 of Article I of the California Constitution, the court may grant use immunity for the act of relinquishing the firearm required under this section. (e) A local law enforcement agency may charge the respondent a fee for the storage of any firearm pursuant to this section. This fee shall not exceed the actual cost incurred by the local law enforcement agency for the storage of the firearm. For purposes of this subdivision, "actual cost" means expenses directly related to taking possession of a firearm, storing the firearm, and surrendering possession of the firearm to a licensed dealer as defined in Section  12071   26700  of the Penal Code or to the respondent. (f) The restraining order requiring a person to relinquish a firearm pursuant to subdivision (c) shall state on its face that the respondent is prohibited from owning, possessing, purchasing, or receiving a firearm while the protective order is in effect and that the firearm shall be relinquished to the local law enforcement agency for that jurisdiction or sold to a licensed gun dealer, and that proof of surrender or sale shall be filed with the court within a specified period of receipt of the order. The order shall also state on its face the expiration date for relinquishment. Nothing in this section shall limit a respondent's right under existing law to petition the court at a later date for modification of the order. (g) The restraining order requiring a person to relinquish a firearm pursuant to subdivision (c) shall prohibit the person from possessing or controlling any firearm for the duration of the order. At the expiration of the order, the local law enforcement agency shall return possession of any surrendered firearm to the respondent, within five days after the expiration of the relinquishment order, unless the local law enforcement agency determines that (1) the firearm has been stolen, (2) the respondent is prohibited from possessing a firearm because the respondent is in any prohibited class for the possession of firearms, as defined in  Sections 12021 and 12021.1   Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 29800) and Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 29900) of Division 9 of Title 4 of Part 6  of the Penal Code and Sections 8100 and 8103 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or (3) another successive restraining order is used against the respondent under this section. If the local law enforcement agency determines that the respondent is the legal owner of any firearm deposited with the local law enforcement agency and is prohibited from possessing any firearm, the respondent shall be entitled to sell or transfer the firearm to a licensed dealer as defined in Section  12071   26700  of the Penal Code. If the firearm has been stolen, the firearm shall be restored to the lawful owner upon his or her identification of the firearm and proof of ownership. (h) The court may, as part of the relinquishment order, grant an exemption from the relinquishment requirements of this section for a particular firearm if the respondent can show that a particular firearm is necessary as a condition of continued employment and that the current employer is unable to reassign the respondent to another position where a firearm is unnecessary. If an exemption is granted pursuant to this subdivision, the order shall provide that the firearm shall be in the physical possession of the respondent only during scheduled work hours and during travel to and from his or her place of employment. In any case involving a peace officer who as a condition of employment and whose personal safety depends on the ability to carry a firearm, a court may allow the peace officer to continue to carry a firearm, either on duty or off duty, if the court finds by a preponderance of the evidence that the officer does not pose a threat of harm. Prior to making this finding, the court shall require a mandatory psychological evaluation of the peace officer and may require the peace officer to enter into counseling or other remedial treatment program to deal with any propensity for domestic violence. (i) During the period of the relinquishment order, a respondent is entitled to make one sale of all firearms that are in the possession of a local law enforcement agency pursuant to this section. A licensed gun dealer, who presents a local law enforcement agency with a bill of sale indicating that all firearms owned by the respondent that are in the possession of the local law enforcement agency have been sold by the respondent to the licensed gun dealer, shall be given possession of those firearms, at the location where a respondent's firearms are stored, within five days of presenting the local law enforcement agency with a bill of sale. (j) The disposition of any unclaimed property under this section shall be made pursuant to Section 1413 of the Penal Code. (k) The return of a firearm to any person pursuant to subdivision (g) shall not be subject to the requirements of  subdivision (d) of Section 12072  Section 27545  of the Penal Code. (l) If the respondent notifies the court that he or she owns a firearm that is not in his or her immediate possession, the court may limit the order to exclude that firearm if the judge is satisfied the respondent is unable to gain access to that firearm while the protective order is in effect. (m) Any respondent to a protective order who violates any order issued pursuant to this section shall be punished under the provisions of  subdivision (g) of  Section  12021   29825  of the Penal Code. SEC. 27. Section 211 of the Fish and Game Code is amended to read: 211. (a) Material printed pursuant to subdivision (d) of Section 210 that contains advertisements shall meet all specifications prescribed by the department. The printed material shall not contain advertisements for tobacco products, alcohol, firearms and devices prohibited pursuant to  Sections 12020, 12220, and 12280   Section 32625  of the Penal Code,  Article 2 (commencing with Section 30600) of Chapter 2 of Division 10 of Title 4 of Part 6 of the Penal Code, or any provision listed in Section 16590 of the Penal Code,  or firearms not authorized by the commission as a legal method of sport-hunting, political statements, solicitations for membership in organizations, or any other statement, solicitation, or product advertisement that is in conflict with the purposes for which the material is produced, as determined by the commission. The printing contract shall include criteria to ensure that the public information provided in the publication is easy to reference, read, and understand. (b) Neither the department nor the commission shall contract with private entities to print the materials described in subdivision (d) of Section 210 if the letting of those contracts will result in the elimination of civil service positions. SEC. 28. Section 2006 of the Fish and Game Code is amended to read: 2006.  (a)    It is unlawful to possess a loaded rifle or shotgun in any vehicle or conveyance or its attachments which is standing on or along or is being driven on or along any public highway or other way open to the public.  A   (b)    A  rifle or shotgun shall be deemed to be loaded for the purposes of this section when there is an unexpended cartridge or shell in the firing chamber but not when the only cartridges or shells are in the magazine.  The   (c)    The  provisions of this section shall not apply to peace officers or members of the armed forces of this State or the United States, while on duty or going to or returning from duty. SEC. 29. Section 3001 of the Fish and Game Code is amended to read: 3001. It is unlawful to take birds or mammals with firearms, BB devices as defined in  subdivision (g) of  Section  12001   16250  of the Penal Code, crossbows, or with bow and arrow when intoxicated. SEC. 30. Section 3801.6 of the Fish and Game Code is amended to read: 3801.6. (a) Except as otherwise provided in this code or regulations made pursuant thereto, it is unlawful to possess the carcass, skin, or parts of any nongame bird. The feathers, carcass, skin, or parts of any nongame bird possessed by any person in violation of any of the provisions of this code shall be seized by the department and delivered to a California Native American tribal government or a scientific or educational institution, used by the department, or destroyed. (b) (1) It shall be an affirmative defense to a violation of this section if the possessor of feathers, carcass, skin, or parts of a nongame bird legally acquired the feathers, carcass, skin, or parts, possesses them for tribal, cultural, or spiritual purposes, and satisfies either of the following criteria: (A) The possessor is an enrolled member of a federally recognized Native American tribe or nonfederally recognized California Native American tribe listed on the California Tribal Consultation List maintained by the Native American Heritage Commission who has, in his or her immediate possession, valid tribal identification or other irrefutable proof of current enrollment. (B) The possessor has a certificate of degree of Indian blood issued by the United States Bureau of Indian Affairs in his or her immediate possession. (2) Nothing in this section allows any person to sell nongame bird feathers, carcasses, skins, or parts. Native Americans meeting the affirmative defense requirements may salvage dead nongame birds so long as the person salvaging these birds does not possess, nor is in the company of any person who possesses, a firearm, BB device as defined in  subdivision (g) of  Section  12001   16250  of the Penal Code, trap, snare, net archery equipment, device capable of discharging a projectile, or any apparatus designed to take birds. Salvaging shall not take place by any person involved in the take of the nongame bird to be salvaged, any person present at the time of the take, or by any person who received related information originating from any person present at the time of the take of the nongame bird. Salvaging pursuant to this subdivision shall not take place if a bird has been struck with any thrown or discharged projectile, trapped, netted, caught, or snared. (c) Notwithstanding subdivisions (a) and (b), any officer deputized pursuant to this code may interrupt any ongoing salvaging of dead nongame carcasses, feathers, skins, or parts if, in the officer's judgment, the activity causes a public disruption, safety hazard, or is detrimental to the ability of the department to prevent a possible violation of this section. The officer may seize any of the salvaged feathers, carcasses, skins, or parts and has the option of returning them to the general location from where they were salvaged. SEC. 31. Section 10500 of the Fish and Game Code is amended to read: 10500. Except under a permit or specific authorization, it is unlawful to do any of the following: (a) To take or possess any bird or mammal, or part thereof, in any game refuge. (b) To use or have in possession in a game refuge, any firearm, BB device as defined in  subdivision (g) of  Section  12001   16250  of the Penal Code, crossbow, bow and arrow, or any trap or other contrivance designed to be, or capable of being, used to take birds or mammals, or to discharge any firearm or BB device or to release any arrow or crossbow bolt into any game refuge. (c) To take or possess any species of fish or amphibian, or part thereof, in any fish refuge, or to use or have in possession in that refuge any contrivance designed to be used for catching fish. (d) To take or possess any bird in, or to discharge any firearm or BB device, or to release any arrow or crossbow bolt within or into, any waterfowl refuge. (e) To take or possess any quail in a quail refuge. (f) To take or possess any invertebrate or specimen of marine plant life in a marine life refuge. (g) To take or possess any clam in a clam refuge or to possess in such a refuge any instrument or apparatus capable of being used to dig clams. SEC. 32. Section 10506 of the Fish and Game Code is amended to read: 10506. Nothing in this code prohibits the possession of firearms, BB devices as defined in  subdivision (g) of  Section  12001   16250  of the Penal Code, crossbows and bolts, or bows and arrows by persons when traveling through any game refuges when the firearms are taken apart or encased and unloaded and the bows are unstrung or stored separately from any arrow or bolt. When the traveling is done on a route other than a public highway or other public thoroughfare or right of way, notice shall be given to the department at least 24 hours before that traveling. The notice shall give the name and address of the person intending to travel through the refuge, the name of the refuge, the approximate route, and the approximate time when that person intends to travel through the refuge. SEC. 33. Section 6254 of the Government Code is amended to read: 6254. Except as provided in Sections 6254.7 and 6254.13, nothing in this chapter shall be construed to require disclosure of records that are any of the following: (a) Preliminary drafts, notes, or interagency or intra-agency memoranda that are not retained by the public agency in the ordinary course of business, if the public interest in withholding those records clearly outweighs the public interest in disclosure. (b) Records pertaining to pending litigation to which the public agency is a party, or to claims made pursuant to Division 3.6 (commencing with Section 810), until the pending litigation or claim has been finally adjudicated or otherwise settled. (c) Personnel, medical, or similar files, the disclosure of which would constitute an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy. (d) Contained in or related to any of the following: (1) Applications filed with any state agency responsible for the regulation or supervision of the issuance of securities or of financial institutions, including, but not limited to, banks, savings and loan associations, industrial loan companies, credit unions, and insurance companies. (2) Examination, operating, or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of, any state agency referred to in paragraph (1). (3) Preliminary drafts, notes, or interagency or intra-agency communications prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of, any state agency referred to in paragraph (1). (4) Information received in confidence by any state agency referred to in paragraph (1). (e) Geological and geophysical data, plant production data, and similar information relating to utility systems development, or market or crop reports, that are obtained in confidence from any person. (f) Records of complaints to, or investigations conducted by, or records of intelligence information or security procedures of, the office of the Attorney General and the Department of Justice, the California Emergency Management Agency, and any state or local police agency, or any investigatory or security files compiled by any other state or local police agency, or any investigatory or security files compiled by any other state or local agency for correctional, law enforcement, or licensing purposes. However, state and local law enforcement agencies shall disclose the names and addresses of persons involved in, or witnesses other than confidential informants to, the incident, the description of any property involved, the date, time, and location of the incident, all diagrams, statements of the parties involved in the incident, the statements of all witnesses, other than confidential informants, to the victims of an incident, or an authorized representative thereof, an insurance carrier against which a claim has been or might be made, and any person suffering bodily injury or property damage or loss, as the result of the incident caused by arson, burglary, fire, explosion, larceny, robbery, carjacking, vandalism, vehicle theft, or a crime as defined by subdivision (b) of Section 13951, unless the disclosure would endanger the safety of a witness or other person involved in the investigation, or unless disclosure would endanger the successful completion of the investigation or a related investigation. However, nothing in this division shall require the disclosure of that portion of those investigative files that reflects the analysis or conclusions of the investigating officer. Customer lists provided to a state or local police agency by an alarm or security company at the request of the agency shall be construed to be records subject to this subdivision. Notwithstanding any other provision of this subdivision, state and local law enforcement agencies shall make public the following information, except to the extent that disclosure of a particular item of information would endanger the safety of a person involved in an investigation or would endanger the successful completion of the investigation or a related investigation: (1) The full name and occupation of every individual arrested by the agency, the individual's physical description including date of birth, color of eyes and hair, sex, height and weight, the time and date of arrest, the time and date of booking, the location of the arrest, the factual circumstances surrounding the arrest, the amount of bail set, the time and manner of release or the location where the individual is currently being held, and all charges the individual is being held upon, including any outstanding warrants from other jurisdictions and parole or probation holds. (2) Subject to the restrictions imposed by Section 841.5 of the Penal Code, the time, substance, and location of all complaints or requests for assistance received by the agency and the time and nature of the response thereto, including, to the extent the information regarding crimes alleged or committed or any other incident investigated is recorded, the time, date, and location of occurrence, the time and date of the report, the name and age of the victim, the factual circumstances surrounding the crime or incident, and a general description of any injuries, property, or weapons involved. The name of a victim of any crime defined by Section 220, 236.1, 261, 261.5, 262, 264, 264.1, 265, 266, 266a, 266b, 266c, 266e, 266f, 266j, 267, 269, 273a, 273d, 273.5, 285, 286, 288, 288a, 288.2, 288.3 (as added by Chapter 337 of the Statutes of 2006), 288.3 (as added by Section 6 of Proposition 83 of the November 7, 2006, statewide general election), 288.5, 288.7, 289, 422.6, 422.7, 422.75, 646.9, or 647.6 of the Penal Code may be withheld at the victim's request, or at the request of the victim's parent or guardian if the victim is a minor. When a person is the victim of more than one crime, information disclosing that the person is a victim of a crime defined in any of the sections of the Penal Code set forth in this subdivision may be deleted at the request of the victim, or the victim's parent or guardian if the victim is a minor, in making the report of the crime, or of any crime or incident accompanying the crime, available to the public in compliance with the requirements of this paragraph. (3) Subject to the restrictions of Section 841.5 of the Penal Code and this subdivision, the current address of every individual arrested by the agency and the current address of the victim of a crime, where the requester declares under penalty of perjury that the request is made for a scholarly, journalistic, political, or governmental purpose, or that the request is made for investigation purposes by a licensed private investigator as described in Chapter 11.3 (commencing with Section 7512) of Division 3 of the Business and Professions Code. However, the address of the victim of any crime defined by Section 220, 236.1, 261, 261.5, 262, 264, 264.1, 265, 266, 266a, 266b, 266c, 266e, 266f, 266j, 267, 269, 273a, 273d, 273.5, 285, 286, 288, 288a, 288.2, 288.3 (as added by Chapter 337 of the Statutes of 2006), 288.3 (as added by Section 6 of Proposition 83 of the November 7, 2006, statewide general election), 288.5, 288.7, 289, 422.6, 422.7, 422.75, 646.9, or 647.6 of the Penal Code shall remain confidential. Address information obtained pursuant to this paragraph may not be used directly or indirectly, or furnished to another, to sell a product or service to any individual or group of individuals, and the requester shall execute a declaration to that effect under penalty of perjury. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to prohibit or limit a scholarly, journalistic, political, or government use of address information obtained pursuant to this paragraph. (g) Test questions, scoring keys, and other examination data used to administer a licensing examination, examination for employment, or academic examination, except as provided for in Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 99150) of Part 65 of Division 14 of Title 3 of the Education Code. (h) The contents of real estate appraisals or engineering or feasibility estimates and evaluations made for or by the state or local agency relative to the acquisition of property, or to prospective public supply and construction contracts, until all of the property has been acquired or all of the contract agreement obtained. However, the law of eminent domain shall not be affected by this provision. (i) Information required from any taxpayer in connection with the collection of local taxes that is received in confidence and the disclosure of the information to other persons would result in unfair competitive disadvantage to the person supplying the information. (j) Library circulation records kept for the purpose of identifying the borrower of items available in libraries, and library and museum materials made or acquired and presented solely for reference or exhibition purposes. The exemption in this subdivision shall not apply to records of fines imposed on the borrowers. (k) Records, the disclosure of which is exempted or prohibited pursuant to federal or state law, including, but not limited to, provisions of the Evidence Code relating to privilege. (  l  ) Correspondence of and to the Governor or employees of the Governor's office or in the custody of or maintained by the Governor's Legal Affairs Secretary. However, public records shall not be transferred to the custody of the Governor's Legal Affairs Secretary to evade the disclosure provisions of this chapter. (m) In the custody of or maintained by the Legislative Counsel, except those records in the public database maintained by the Legislative Counsel that are described in Section 10248. (n) Statements of personal worth or personal financial data required by a licensing agency and filed by an applicant with the licensing agency to establish his or her personal qualification for the license, certificate, or permit applied for. (o) Financial data contained in applications for financing under Division 27 (commencing with Section 44500) of the Health and Safety Code, where an authorized officer of the California Pollution Control Financing Authority determines that disclosure of the financial data would be competitively injurious to the applicant and the data is required in order to obtain guarantees from the United States Small Business Administration. The California Pollution Control Financing Authority shall adopt rules for review of individual requests for confidentiality under this section and for making available to the public those portions of an application that are subject to disclosure under this chapter. (p) Records of state agencies related to activities governed by Chapter 10.3 (commencing with Section 3512), Chapter 10.5 (commencing with Section 3525), and Chapter 12 (commencing with Section 3560) of Division 4, that reveal a state agency's deliberative processes, impressions, evaluations, opinions, recommendations, meeting minutes, research, work products, theories, or strategy, or that provide instruction, advice, or training to employees who do not have full collective bargaining and representation rights under these chapters. Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to limit the disclosure duties of a state agency with respect to any other records relating to the activities governed by the employee relations acts referred to in this subdivision. (q) Records of state agencies related to activities governed by Article 2.6 (commencing with Section 14081), Article 2.8 (commencing with Section 14087.5), and Article 2.91 (commencing with Section 14089) of Chapter 7 of Part 3 of Division 9 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, that reveal the special negotiator's deliberative processes, discussions, communications, or any other portion of the negotiations with providers of health care services, impressions, opinions, recommendations, meeting minutes, research, work product, theories, or strategy, or that provide instruction, advice, or training to employees. Except for the portion of a contract containing the rates of payment, contracts for inpatient services entered into pursuant to these articles, on or after April 1, 1984, shall be open to inspection one year after they are fully executed. If a contract for inpatient services that is entered into prior to April 1, 1984, is amended on or after April 1, 1984, the amendment, except for any portion containing the rates of payment, shall be open to inspection one year after it is fully executed. If the California Medical Assistance Commission enters into contracts with health care providers for other than inpatient hospital services, those contracts shall be open to inspection one year after they are fully executed. Three years after a contract or amendment is open to inspection under this subdivision, the portion of the contract or amendment containing the rates of payment shall be open to inspection. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the entire contract or amendment shall be open to inspection by the Joint Legislative Audit Committee and the Legislative Analyst's Office. The committee and that office shall maintain the confidentiality of the contracts and amendments until the time a contract or amendment is fully open to inspection by the public. (r) Records of Native American graves, cemeteries, and sacred places and records of Native American places, features, and objects described in Sections 5097.9 and 5097.993 of the Public Resources Code maintained by, or in the possession of, the Native American Heritage Commission, another state agency, or a local agency. (s) A final accreditation report of the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Hospitals that has been transmitted to the State Department of Health Care Services pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 1282 of the Health and Safety Code. (t) Records of a local hospital district, formed pursuant to Division 23 (commencing with Section 32000) of the Health and Safety Code, or the records of a municipal hospital, formed pursuant to Article 7 (commencing with Section 37600) or Article 8 (commencing with Section 37650) of Chapter 5 of Part 2 of Division 3 of Title 4 of this code, that relate to any contract with an insurer or nonprofit hospital service plan for inpatient or outpatient services for alternative rates pursuant to Section 10133 of the Insurance Code. However, the record shall be open to inspection within one year after the contract is fully executed. (u) (1) Information contained in applications for licenses to carry firearms issued pursuant to Section  12050   26150, 26155, 26170, or 26215  of the Penal Code by the sheriff of a county or the chief or other head of a municipal police department that indicates when or where the applicant is vulnerable to attack or that concerns the applicant's medical or psychological history or that of members of his or her family. (2) The home address and telephone number of peace officers, judges, court commissioners, and magistrates that are set forth in applications for licenses to carry firearms issued pursuant to Section  12050   26150, 26155, 26170, or 26215  of the Penal Code by the sheriff of a county or the chief or other head of a municipal police department. (3) The home address and telephone number of peace officers, judges, court commissioners, and magistrates that are set forth in licenses to carry firearms issued pursuant to Section  12050   26150, 26155, 26170, or 26215  of the Penal Code by the sheriff of a county or the chief or other head of a municipal police department. (v) (1) Records of the Managed Risk Medical Insurance Board related to activities governed by Part 6.3 (commencing with Section 12695) and Part 6.5 (commencing with Section 12700) of Division 2 of the Insurance Code, and that reveal the deliberative processes, discussions, communications, or any other portion of the negotiations with entities contracting or seeking to contract with the board, or the impressions, opinions, recommendations, meeting minutes, research, work product, theories, or strategy of the board or its staff, or records that provide instructions, advice, or training to employees. (2) (A) Except for the portion of a contract that contains the rates of payment, contracts for health coverage entered into pursuant to Part 6.3 (commencing with Section 12695) or Part 6.5 (commencing with Section 12700) of Division 2 of the Insurance Code, on or after July 1, 1991, shall be open to inspection one year after their effective dates. (B) If a contract that is entered into prior to July 1, 1991, is amended on or after July 1, 1991, the amendment, except for any portion containing the rates of payment, shall be open to inspection one year after the amendment has been fully executed. (3) Three years after a contract or amendment is open to inspection pursuant to this subdivision, the portion of the contract or amendment containing the rates of payment shall be open to inspection. (4) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the entire contract or amendments to a contract shall be open to inspection by the Joint Legislative Audit Committee. The committee shall maintain the confidentiality of the contracts and amendments thereto, until the contracts or amendments to the contracts are open to inspection pursuant to paragraph (3). (w) (1) Records of the Managed Risk Medical Insurance Board related to activities governed by Chapter 8 (commencing with Section 10700) of Part 2 of Division 2 of the Insurance Code, and that reveal the deliberative processes, discussions, communications, or any other portion of the negotiations with health plans, or the impressions, opinions, recommendations, meeting minutes, research, work product, theories, or strategy of the board or its staff, or records that provide instructions, advice, or training to employees. (2) Except for the portion of a contract that contains the rates of payment, contracts for health coverage entered into pursuant to Chapter 8 (commencing with Section 10700) of Part 2 of Division 2 of the Insurance Code, on or after January 1, 1993, shall be open to inspection one year after they have been fully executed. (3) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the entire contract or amendments to a contract shall be open to inspection by the Joint Legislative Audit Committee. The committee shall maintain the confidentiality of the contracts and amendments thereto, until the contracts or amendments to the contracts are open to inspection pursuant to paragraph (2). (x) Financial data contained in applications for registration, or registration renewal, as a service contractor filed with the Director of Consumer Affairs pursuant to Chapter 20 (commencing with Section 9800) of Division 3 of the Business and Professions Code, for the purpose of establishing the service contractor's net worth, or financial data regarding the funded accounts held in escrow for service contracts held in force in this state by a service contractor. (y) (1) Records of the Managed Risk Medical Insurance Board related to activities governed by Part 6.2 (commencing with Section 12693) or Part 6.4 (commencing with Section 12699.50) of Division 2 of the Insurance Code, and that reveal the deliberative processes, discussions, communications, or any other portion of the negotiations with entities contracting or seeking to contract with the board, or the impressions, opinions, recommendations, meeting minutes, research, work product, theories, or strategy of the board or its staff, or records that provide instructions, advice, or training to employees. (2) (A) Except for the portion of a contract that contains the rates of payment, contracts entered into pursuant to Part 6.2 (commencing with Section 12693) or Part 6.4 (commencing with Section 12699.50) of Division 2 of the Insurance Code, on or after January 1, 1998, shall be open to inspection one year after their effective dates. (B) If a contract entered into pursuant to Part 6.2 (commencing with Section 12693) or Part 6.4 (commencing with Section 12699.50) of Division 2 of the Insurance Code is amended, the amendment shall be open to inspection one year after the amendment has been fully executed. (3) Three years after a contract or amendment is open to inspection pursuant to this subdivision, the portion of the contract or amendment containing the rates of payment shall be open to inspection. (4) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the entire contract or amendments to a contract shall be open to inspection by the Joint Legislative Audit Committee. The committee shall maintain the confidentiality of the contracts and amendments thereto until the contract or amendments to a contract are open to inspection pursuant to paragraph (2) or (3). (5) The exemption from disclosure provided pursuant to this subdivision for the contracts, deliberative processes, discussions, communications, negotiations, impressions, opinions, recommendations, meeting minutes, research, work product, theories, or strategy of the board or its staff shall also apply to the contracts, deliberative processes, discussions, communications, negotiations, impressions, opinions, recommendations, meeting minutes, research, work product, theories, or strategy of applicants pursuant to Part 6.4 (commencing with Section 12699.50) of Division 2 of the Insurance Code. (z) Records obtained pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (c) of Section 2891.1 of the Public Utilities Code. (aa) A document prepared by or for a state or local agency that assesses its vulnerability to terrorist attack or other criminal acts intended to disrupt the public agency's operations and that is for distribution or consideration in a closed session. (ab) Critical infrastructure information, as defined in Section 131(3) of Title 6 of the United States Code, that is voluntarily submitted to the California Emergency Management Agency for use by that office, including the identity of the person who or entity that voluntarily submitted the information. As used in this subdivision, "voluntarily submitted" means submitted in the absence of the office exercising any legal authority to compel access to or submission of critical infrastructure information. This subdivision shall not affect the status of information in the possession of any other state or local governmental agency. (ac) All information provided to the Secretary of State by a person for the purpose of registration in the Advance Health Care Directive Registry, except that those records shall be released at the request of a health care provider, a public guardian, or the registrant's legal representative. (ad) The following records of the State Compensation Insurance Fund: (1) Records related to claims pursuant to Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 3200) of Division 4 of the Labor Code, to the extent that confidential medical information or other individually identifiable information would be disclosed. (2) Records related to the discussions, communications, or any other portion of the negotiations with entities contracting or seeking to contract with the fund, and any related deliberations. (3) Records related to the impressions, opinions, recommendations, meeting minutes of meetings or sessions that are lawfully closed to the public, research, work product, theories, or strategy of the fund or its staff, on the development of rates, contracting strategy, underwriting, or competitive strategy pursuant to the powers granted to the fund in Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 11770) of Part 3 of Division 2 of the Insurance Code. (4) Records obtained to provide workers' compensation insurance under Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 11770) of Part 3 of Division 2 of the Insurance Code, including, but not limited to, any medical claims information, policyholder information provided that nothing in this paragraph shall be interpreted to prevent an insurance agent or broker from obtaining proprietary information or other information authorized by law to be obtained by the agent or broker, and information on rates, pricing, and claims handling received from brokers. (5) (A) Records that are trade secrets pursuant to Section 6276.44, or Article 11 (commencing with Section 1060) of Chapter 4 of Division 8 of the Evidence Code, including without limitation, instructions, advice, or training provided by the State Compensation Insurance Fund to its board members, officers, and employees regarding the fund's special investigation unit, internal audit unit, and informational security, marketing, rating, pricing, underwriting, claims handling, audits, and collections. (B) Notwithstanding subparagraph (A), the portions of records containing trade secrets shall be available for review by the Joint Legislative Audit Committee, the Bureau of State Audits, Division of Workers' Compensation, and the Department of Insurance to ensure compliance with applicable law. (6) (A) Internal audits containing proprietary information and the following records that are related to an internal audit: (i) Personal papers and correspondence of any person providing assistance to the fund when that person has requested in writing that his or her papers and correspondence be kept private and confidential. Those papers and correspondence shall become public records if the written request is withdrawn, or upon order of the fund. (ii) Papers, correspondence, memoranda, or any substantive information pertaining to any audit not completed or an internal audit that contains proprietary information. (B) Notwithstanding subparagraph (A), the portions of records containing proprietary information, or any information specified in subparagraph (A) shall be available for review by the Joint Legislative Audit Committee, the Bureau of State Audits, Division of Workers' Compensation, and the Department of Insurance to ensure compliance with applicable law. (7) (A) Except as provided in subparagraph (C), contracts entered into pursuant to Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 11770) of Part 3 of Division 2 of the Insurance Code shall be open to inspection one year after the contract has been fully executed. (B) If a contract entered into pursuant to Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 11770) of Part 3 of Division 2 of the Insurance Code is amended, the amendment shall be open to inspection one year after the amendment has been fully executed. (C) Three years after a contract or amendment is open to inspection pursuant to this subdivision, the portion of the contract or amendment containing the rates of payment shall be open to inspection. (D) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the entire contract or amendments to a contract shall be open to inspection by the Joint Legislative Audit Committee. The committee shall maintain the confidentiality of the contracts and amendments thereto until the contract or amendments to a contract are open to inspection pursuant to this paragraph. (E) Nothing in this paragraph is intended to apply to documents related to contracts with public entities that are not otherwise expressly confidential as to that public entity. (F) For purposes of this paragraph, "fully executed" means the point in time when all of the necessary parties to the contract have signed the contract. Nothing in this section prevents any agency from opening its records concerning the administration of the agency to public inspection, unless disclosure is otherwise prohibited by law. Nothing in this section prevents any health facility from disclosing to a certified bargaining agent relevant financing information pursuant to Section 8 of the National Labor Relations Act (29 U.S.C. Sec. 158). SEC. 34. Section 6276.18 of the Government Code is amended to read: 6276.18. Family Court, records, Section 1818, Family  Law  Code. Farm product processor license, confidentiality of financial statements, Section 55523.6, Food and Agricultural Code. Farm product processor licensee, confidentiality of grape purchases, Section 55601.5, Food and Agricultural Code. Fee payer information, prohibition against disclosure by Board of Equalization and others, Section 55381, Revenue and Taxation Code. Financial institutions, issuance of securities, reports and records of state agencies, subdivision (d), Section 6254. Financial statements of insurers, confidentiality of information received, Section 925.3, Insurance Code. Financial statements and questionnaires, of prospective bidders for the state, confidentiality of, Section 10165, Public Contract Code. Financial statements and questionnaires, of prospective bidders for California State University contracts, confidentiality of, Section 10763, Public Contract Code. Firearms, centralized list of exempted federal firearms licensees, disclosure of information compiled from,  Section 12083   Sections 24850 to 24890, inclusive  , Penal Code. Firearms, centralized list of dealers and licensees, disclosure of information compiled from,  Section 12071   Sections 26700 to 26915, inclusive  , Penal Code. Firearm license applications, subdivision (u), Section 6254. Firearm sale or transfer, confidentiality of records,  Section 12082   Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 28050) of Division 6 of Title 4 of Part 6  , Penal Code. Fishing and hunting licenses, confidentiality of names and addresses contained in records submitted to the Department of Fish and Game to obtain recreational fishing and hunting licenses, Section 1050.6, Fish and Game Code. Food stamps, disclosure of information, Section 18909, Welfare and Institutions Code. Foreign marketing of agricultural products, confidentiality of financial information, Section 58577, Food and Agricultural Code. Forest fires, anonymity of informants, Section 4417, Public Resources Code. Foster homes, identifying information, Section 1536, Health and Safety Code. Franchise Tax Board, access to Franchise Tax Board information by the State Department of Social Services, Section 11025, Welfare and Institutions Code. Franchise Tax Board, auditing, confidentiality of, Section 90005. Franchises, applications, and reports filed with Commissioner of Corporations, disclosure and withholding from public inspection, Section 31504, Corporations Code. Fur dealer licensee, confidentiality of records, Section 4041, Fish and Game Code. SEC. 35. Section 53071.5 of the Government Code is amended to read: 53071.5. By the enforcement of this section, the Legislature occupies the whole field of regulation of the manufacture, sale, or possession of imitation firearms, as defined in  subdivision (a) of  Section  12550   16700  of the Penal Code, and that section shall preempt and be exclusive of all regulations relating to the manufacture, sale, or possession of imitation firearms, including regulations governing the manufacture, sale, or possession of BB devices and air rifles described in  subdivision (g) of  Section  12001   16250  of the Penal Code. SEC. 36. Section 1257.7 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read: 1257.7. (a) After July 1, 2010, all hospitals licensed pursuant to subdivisions (a), (b), and (f) of Section 1250 shall conduct, not less than annually, a security and safety assessment and, using the assessment, develop, and annually update based on the assessment, a security plan with measures to protect personnel, patients, and visitors from aggressive or violent behavior. The security and safety assessment shall examine trends of aggressive or violent behavior at the facility. These hospitals shall track incidents of aggressive or violent behavior as part of the quality assessment and improvement program and for the purposes of developing a security plan to deter and manage further aggressive or violent acts of a similar nature. The plan may include, but shall not be limited to, security considerations relating to all of the following: (1) Physical layout. (2) Staffing. (3) Security personnel availability. (4) Policy and training related to appropriate responses to violent acts. (5) Efforts to cooperate with local law enforcement regarding violent acts in the facility. In developing this plan, the hospital shall consider guidelines or standards on violence in health care facilities issued by the department, the Division of Occupational Safety and Health, and the federal Occupational Safety and Health Administration. As part of the security plan, a hospital shall adopt security policies including, but not limited to, personnel training policies designed to protect personnel, patients, and visitors from aggressive or violent behavior. In developing the plan and the assessment, the hospital shall consult with affected employees, including the recognized collective bargaining agent or agents, if any, and members of the hospital medical staff organized pursuant to Section 2282 of the Business and Professions Code. This consultation may occur through hospital committees. (b) The individual or members of a hospital committee responsible for developing the security plan shall be familiar with all of the following: (1) The role of security in hospital operations. (2) Hospital organization. (3) Protective measures, including alarms and access control. (4) The handling of disturbed patients, visitors, and employees. (5) Identification of aggressive and violent predicting factors. (6) Hospital safety and emergency preparedness. (7) The rudiments of documenting and reporting crimes, including, by way of example, not disturbing a crime scene. (c) The hospital shall have sufficient personnel to provide security pursuant to the security plan developed pursuant to subdivision (a). Persons regularly assigned to provide security in a hospital setting shall be trained regarding the role of security in hospital operations, including the identification of aggressive and violent predicting factors and management of violent disturbances. (d) Any act of assault, as defined in Section 240 of the Penal Code, or battery, as defined in Section 242 of the Penal Code, that results in injury or involves the use of a firearm or other dangerous weapon, against any on-duty hospital personnel shall be reported to the local law enforcement agency within 72 hours of the incident. Any other act of assault, as defined in Section 240 of the Penal Code, or battery, as defined in Section 242 of the Penal Code, against any on-duty hospital personnel may be reported to the local law enforcement agency within 72 hours of the incident. No health facility or employee of a health facility who reports a known or suspected instance of assault or battery pursuant to this section shall be civilly or criminally liable for any report required by this section. No health facility or employee of a health facility who reports a known or suspected instance of assault or battery that is authorized, but not required, by this section, shall be civilly or criminally liable for the report authorized by this section unless it can be proven that a false report was made and the health facility or its employee knew that the report was false or was made with reckless disregard of the truth or falsity of the report, and any health facility or employee of a health facility who makes a report known to be false or with reckless disregard of the truth or falsity of the report shall be liable for any damages caused. Any individual knowingly interfering with or obstructing the lawful reporting process shall be guilty of a misdemeanor. "Dangerous weapon," as used in this section, means any weapon the possession or concealed carrying of which is prohibited by  any provision listed in  Section  12020   16590  of the Penal Code. SEC. 37. Section 12000 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read: 12000. For the purposes of this part, "explosives" means any substance, or combination of substances, the primary or common purpose of which is detonation or rapid combustion, and which is capable of a relatively instantaneous or rapid release of gas and heat, or any substance, the primary purpose of which, when combined with others, is to form a substance capable of a relatively instantaneous or rapid release of gas and heat. "Explosives" includes, but is not limited to, any explosives as defined in Section 841 of Title 18 of the United States Code and published pursuant to Section 555.23 of Title 27 of the Code of Federal Regulations, and any of the following: (a) Dynamite, nitroglycerine, picric acid, lead azide, fulminate of mercury, black powder, smokeless powder, propellant explosives, detonating primers, blasting caps, or commercial boosters. (b) Substances determined to be division 1.1, 1.2, 1.3, or 1.6 explosives as classified by the United States Department of Transportation. (c) Nitro carbo nitrate substances (blasting agent) classified as division 1.5 explosives by the United States Department of Transportation. (d) Any material designated as an explosive by the State Fire Marshal. The designation shall be made pursuant to the classification standards established by the United States Department of Transportation. The State Fire Marshal shall adopt regulations in accordance with the Government Code to establish procedures for the classification and designation of explosive materials or explosive devices that are not under the jurisdiction of the United States Department of Transportation pursuant to provisions of Section 841 of Title 18 of the United States Code and published pursuant to Section 555.23 of Title 27 of the Code of Federal Regulations that define explosives. (e) Certain division 1.4 explosives as designated by the United States Department of Transportation when listed in regulations adopted by the State Fire Marshal. (f) For the purposes of this part, "explosives" does not include any destructive device, as defined in Section  12301   16460  of the Penal Code, nor does it include ammunition or small arms primers manufactured for use in shotguns, rifles, and pistols. SEC. 38. Section 12101 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read: 12101. (a) No person shall do any one of the following without first having made application for and received a permit in accordance with this section: (1) Manufacture explosives. (2) Sell, furnish, or give away explosives. (3) Receive, store, or possess explosives. (4) Transport explosives. (5) Use explosives. (6) Operate a terminal for handling explosives. (7) Park or leave standing any vehicle carrying explosives, except when parked or left standing in or at a safe stopping place designated as such by the Department of the California Highway Patrol under Division 14 (commencing with Section 31600) of the Vehicle Code. (b) Application for a permit shall be made to the appropriate issuing authority. (c) (1) A permit shall be obtained from the issuing authority having the responsibility in the area where the activity, as specified in subdivision (a), is to be conducted. (2) If the person holding a valid permit for the use or storage of explosives desires to purchase or receive explosives in a jurisdiction other than that of intended use or storage, the person shall first present the permit to the issuing authority in the jurisdiction of purchase or receipt for endorsement. The issuing authority may include any reasonable restrictions or conditions which the authority finds necessary for the prevention of fire and explosion, the preservation of life, safety, or the control and security of explosives within the authority's jurisdiction. If, for any reason, the issuing authority refuses to endorse the permit previously issued in the area of intended use or storage, the authority shall immediately notify both the issuing authority who issued the permit and the Department of Justice of the fact of the refusal and the reasons for the refusal. (3) Every person who sells, gives away, delivers, or otherwise disposes of explosives to another person shall first be satisfied that the person receiving the explosives has a permit valid for that purpose. When the permit to receive explosives indicates that the intended storage or use of the explosives is other than in that area in which the permittee receives the explosives, the person who sells, gives away, delivers, or otherwise disposes of the explosives shall ensure that the permit has been properly endorsed by a local issuing authority and, further, shall immediately send a copy of the record of sale to the issuing authority who originally issued the permit in the area of intended storage or use. The issuing authority in the area in which the explosives are received or sold shall not issue a permit for the possession, use, or storage of explosives in an area not within the authority's jurisdiction. (d) In the event any person desires to receive explosives for use in an area outside of this state, a permit to receive the explosives shall be obtained from the State Fire Marshal. (e) A permit may include any restrictions or conditions which the issuing authority finds necessary for the prevention of fire and explosion, the preservation of life, safety, or the control and security of explosives. (f) A permit shall remain valid only until the time when the act or acts authorized by the permit are performed, but in no event shall the permit remain valid for a period longer than one year from the date of issuance of the permit. (g) Any valid permit which authorizes the performance of any act shall not constitute authorization for the performance of any act not stipulated in the permit. (h) An issuing authority shall not issue a permit authorizing the transportation of explosives pursuant to this section if the display of placards for that transportation is required by Section 27903 of the Vehicle Code, unless the driver possesses a license for the transportation of hazardous materials issued pursuant to Division 14.1 (commencing with Section 32000) of the Vehicle Code, or the explosives are a hazardous waste or extremely hazardous waste, as defined in Sections 25117 and 25115 of the Health and Safety Code, and the transporter is currently registered as a hazardous waste hauler pursuant to Section 25163 of the Health and Safety Code. (i) An issuing authority shall not issue a permit pursuant to this section authorizing the handling or storage of division 1.1, 1.2, or 1.3 explosives in a building, unless the building has caution placards which meet the standards established pursuant to subdivision (g) of Section 12081. (j) (1) A permit shall not be issued to a person who meets any of the following criteria: (A) He or she has been convicted of a felony. (B) He or she is addicted to a narcotic drug. (C) He or she is in a class prohibited by state or federal law from possessing, receiving, owning, or purchasing a firearm. (2) For purposes of determining whether a person meets any of the criteria set forth in this subdivision, the issuing authority shall obtain two sets of fingerprints on prescribed cards from all persons applying for a permit under this section and shall submit these cards to the Department of Justice. The Department of Justice shall utilize the fingerprint cards to make inquiries both within this state and to the Federal Bureau of Investigation regarding the criminal history of the applicant identified on the fingerprint card. This paragraph does not apply to any person possessing a current certificate of eligibility issued pursuant to  paragraph (4) of subdivision (a) of Section 12071   subdivisions (a) to (c), inclusive, of Section 26710 of the Penal Code  or to any holder of a dangerous weapons permit or license issued pursuant to Section  12095, 12230, 12250, 12286, or 12305   31000, 32650, or 33300 of the Penal Code, or pursuant to Sections 18900 to 18910, inclusive, or Sections 32700 to 32720, inclusive,  of the Penal Code. (k) An issuing authority shall inquire with the Department of Justice for the purposes of determining whether a person who is applying for a permit meets any of the criteria specified in subdivision (j). The Department of Justice shall determine whether a person who is applying for a permit meets any of the criteria specified in subdivision (j) and shall either grant or deny clearance for a permit to be issued pursuant to the determination. The Department of Justice shall not disclose the contents of a person's records to any person who is not authorized to receive the information in order to ensure confidentiality. If an applicant becomes ineligible to hold a permit, the Department of Justice shall provide to the issuing authority any subsequent arrest and conviction information supporting that ineligibility. SEC. 39. Section 12540 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read: 12540. The provisions of this part shall not apply to any of the following: (a) Explosives regulated under Part 1 (commencing with Section 12000) of Division 11. (b) Arms and handguns defined as firearms by the Federal Gun Control Act of 1968, as well as such devices and weapons classified under Section  12020 or 12301   16460 of the Penal Code or any provision listed in Section 16590  of the Penal Code, including blank cartridge pistols of the type used at sporting events or theatrical productions. (c) Research or experiments with rockets or missiles or the production or transportation of rockets or missiles by the Department of Defense of the United States, or by any agency or organization acting pursuant to a contract with the Department of Defense for the development and production of rockets or missiles. (d) Paper caps which contain less than 0.25 grain of pyrotechnic composition per unit load. SEC. 40. Section 12756 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read: 12756. The State Fire Marshal shall adopt regulations to administer this part and establish standards for the background investigation of an applicant for, and holder of, a flamethrowing device permit, and for the use, storage, and transportation of a flamethrowing device. In adopting these regulations, the State Fire Marshal shall consult with the Department of Justice regarding regulations for the use and possession of destructive devices (Chapter 12.5 (commencing with Section 970) of Division 1 of Title 11 of the California Code of Regulations). These regulations for the use and possession of destructive devices may provide suggestions for potential methods to utilize in developing standards and shall serve as guidance only. At a minimum, the regulations adopted by the State Fire Marshal shall require a permitholder to possess a current, valid certificate of eligibility issued by the Department of Justice pursuant to  paragraph (4) of subdivision (a) of Section 12071   subdivisions (a) to (c), inclusive, of Section 26710  of the Penal Code. SEC. 41. Section 12757 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read: 12757. The State Fire Marshal may issue or renew a permit to use and possess a flamethrowing device only if all of the following conditions are met: (a) The applicant or permitholder is not addicted to any controlled substance. (b) The applicant or permitholder possesses a current, valid certificate of eligibility issued by the Department of Justice pursuant to  paragraph (4) of subdivision (a) of Section 12071   subdivisions (a) to (c), inclusive, of Section 26710  of the Penal Code. (c) The applicant or permitholder meets the other standards specified in regulations adopted pursuant to Section 12756. SEC. 42. Section 136.2 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 136.2. (a) Except as provided in subdivision (c), upon a good cause belief that harm to, or intimidation or dissuasion of, a victim or witness has occurred or is reasonably likely to occur, any court with jurisdiction over a criminal matter may issue orders including, but not limited to, the following: (1) Any order issued pursuant to Section 6320 of the Family Code. (2) An order that a defendant shall not violate any provision of Section 136.1. (3) An order that a person before the court other than a defendant, including, but not limited to, a subpoenaed witness or other person entering the courtroom of the court, shall not violate any provisions of Section 136.1. (4) An order that any person described in this section shall have no communication whatsoever with any specified witness or any victim, except through an attorney under any reasonable restrictions that the court may impose. (5) An order calling for a hearing to determine if an order as described in paragraphs (1) to (4), inclusive, should be issued. (6) An order that a particular law enforcement agency within the jurisdiction of the court provide protection for a victim or a witness, or both, or for immediate family members of a victim or a witness who reside in the same household as the victim or witness or within reasonable proximity of the victim's or witness' household, as determined by the court. The order shall not be made without the consent of the law enforcement agency except for limited and specified periods of time and upon an express finding by the court of a clear and present danger of harm to the victim or witness or immediate family members of the victim or witness. For purposes of this paragraph, "immediate family members" include the spouse, children, or parents of the victim or witness. (7) (A) Any order protecting victims of violent crime from all contact by the defendant, or contact, with the intent to annoy, harass, threaten, or commit acts of violence, by the defendant. The court or its designee shall transmit orders made under this paragraph to law enforcement personnel within one business day of the issuance, modification, extension, or termination of the order, pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 6380 of the Family Code. It is the responsibility of the court to transmit the modification, extension, or termination orders made under this paragraph to the same agency that entered the original protective order into the Domestic Violence Restraining Order System. (B) (i) If a court does not issue an order pursuant to subparagraph (A) in a case in which the defendant is charged with a crime of domestic violence as defined in Section 13700, the court on its own motion shall consider issuing a protective order upon a good cause belief that harm to, or intimidation or dissuasion of, a victim or witness has occurred or is reasonably likely to occur, that provides as follows: (I) The defendant shall not own, possess, purchase, receive, or attempt to purchase or receive, a firearm while the protective order is in effect. (II) The defendant shall relinquish any firearms that he or she owns or possesses pursuant to Section 527.9 of the Code of Civil Procedure. (ii) Every person who owns, possesses, purchases, or receives, or attempts to purchase or receive, a firearm while this protective order is in effect is punishable pursuant to  subdivision (g) of Section 12021   Section 29825  . (C) Any order issued, modified, extended, or terminated by a court pursuant to this paragraph shall be issued on forms adopted by the Judicial Council of California and that have been approved by the Department of Justice pursuant to subdivision (i) of Section 6380 of the Family Code. However, the fact that an order issued by a court pursuant to this section was not issued on forms adopted by the Judicial Council and approved by the Department of Justice shall not, in and of itself, make the order unenforceable. (b) Any person violating any order made pursuant to paragraphs (1) to (7), inclusive, of subdivision (a) may be punished for any substantive offense described in Section 136.1, or for a contempt of the court making the order. A finding of contempt shall not be a bar to prosecution for a violation of Section 136.1. However, any person so held in contempt shall be entitled to credit for any punishment imposed therein against any sentence imposed upon conviction of an offense described in Section 136.1. Any conviction or acquittal for any substantive offense under Section 136.1 shall be a bar to a subsequent punishment for contempt arising out of the same act. (c) (1) Notwithstanding subdivisions (a) and (e), an emergency protective order issued pursuant to Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 6250) of Part 3 of Division 10 of the Family Code or Section 646.91 of the Penal Code shall have precedence in enforcement over any other restraining or protective order, provided the emergency protective order meets all of the following requirements: (A) The emergency protective order is issued to protect one or more individuals who are already protected persons under another restraining or protective order. (B) The emergency protective order restrains the individual who is the restrained person in the other restraining or protective order specified in subparagraph (A). (C) The provisions of the emergency protective order are more restrictive in relation to the restrained person than are the provisions of the other restraining or protective order specified in subparagraph (A). (2) An emergency protective order that meets the requirements of paragraph (1) shall have precedence in enforcement over the provisions of any other restraining or protective order only with respect to those provisions of the emergency protective order that are more restrictive in relation to the restrained person. (d) (1) A person subject to a protective order issued under this section shall not own, possess, purchase, receive, or attempt to purchase or receive a firearm while the protective order is in effect. (2) The court shall order a person subject to a protective order issued under this section to relinquish any firearms he or she owns or possesses pursuant to Section 527.9 of the Code of Civil Procedure. (3) Every person who owns, possesses, purchases or receives, or attempts to purchase or receive a firearm while the protective order is in effect is punishable pursuant to  subdivision (g) of Section 12021 of the Penal Code   Section 29825  . (e) (1) In all cases where the defendant is charged with a crime of domestic violence, as defined in Section 13700, the court shall consider issuing the above-described orders on its own motion. All interested parties shall receive a copy of those orders. In order to facilitate this, the court's records of all criminal cases involving domestic violence shall be marked to clearly alert the court to this issue. (2) In those cases in which a complaint, information, or indictment charging a crime of domestic violence, as defined in Section 13700, has been issued, a restraining order or protective order against the defendant issued by the criminal court in that case has precedence in enforcement over any civil court order against the defendant, unless a court issues an emergency protective order pursuant to Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 6250) of Part 3 of Division 10 of the Family Code or Section 646.91 of the Penal Code, in which case the emergency protective order shall have precedence in enforcement over any other restraining or protective order, provided the emergency protective order meets the following requirements: (A) The emergency protective order is issued to protect one or more individuals who are already protected persons under another restraining or protective order. (B) The emergency protective order restrains the individual who is the restrained person in the other restraining or protective order specified in subparagraph (A). (C) The provisions of the emergency protective order are more restrictive in relation to the restrained person than are the provisions of the other restraining or protective order specified in subparagraph (A). (3) Custody and visitation with respect to the defendant and his or her minor children may be ordered by a family or juvenile court consistent with the protocol established pursuant to subdivision (f), but if ordered after a criminal protective order has been issued pursuant to this section, the custody and visitation order shall make reference to, and acknowledge the precedence of enforcement of, any appropriate criminal protective order. On or before July 1, 2006, the Judicial Council shall modify the criminal and civil court forms consistent with this subdivision. (f) On or before January 1, 2003, the Judicial Council shall promulgate a protocol, for adoption by each local court in substantially similar terms, to provide for the timely coordination of all orders against the same defendant and in favor of the same named victim or victims. The protocol shall include, but shall not be limited to, mechanisms for assuring appropriate communication and information sharing between criminal, family, and juvenile courts concerning orders and cases that involve the same parties, and shall permit a family or juvenile court order to coexist with a criminal court protective order subject to the following conditions: (1) Any order that permits contact between the restrained person and his or her children shall provide for the safe exchange of the children and shall not contain language either printed or handwritten that violates a "no contact order" issued by a criminal court. (2) Safety of all parties shall be the courts' paramount concern. The family or juvenile court shall specify the time, day, place, and manner of transfer of the child, as provided in Section 3100 of the Family Code. (g) On or before January 1, 2003, the Judicial Council shall modify the criminal and civil court protective order forms consistent with this section. (h) In any case in which a complaint, information, or indictment charging a crime of domestic violence, as defined in Section 13700, has been filed, the court may consider, in determining whether good cause exists to issue an order under paragraph (1) of subdivision (a), the underlying nature of the offense charged, and the information provided to the court pursuant to Section 273.75. SEC. 43. Section 139 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 139. (a) Except as provided in Sections 71 and 136.1, any person who has been convicted of any felony offense specified in  Section 12021.1   Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 29900) of Division 9 of Title 4 of Part 6  who willfully and maliciously communicates to a witness to, or a victim of, the crime for which the person was convicted, a credible threat to use force or violence upon that person or that person's immediate family, shall be punished by imprisonment in the county jail not exceeding one year or by imprisonment in the state prison for two, three, or four years. (b) Any person who is convicted of violating subdivision (a) who subsequently is convicted of making a credible threat, as defined in subdivision (c), which constitutes a threat against the life of, or a threat to cause great bodily injury to, a person described in subdivision (a), shall be sentenced to consecutive terms of imprisonment as prescribed in Section 1170.13. (c) As used in this section, "a credible threat" is a threat made with the intent and the apparent ability to carry out the threat so as to cause the target of the threat to reasonably fear for his or her safety or the safety of his or her immediate family. (d) The present incarceration of the person making the threat shall not be a bar to prosecution under this section. (e) As used in this section, "malice," "witness," and "victim" have the meanings given in Section 136. SEC. 44. Section 166 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 166. (a) Except as provided in subdivisions (b), (c), and (d), every person guilty of any contempt of court, of any of the following kinds, is guilty of a misdemeanor: (1) Disorderly, contemptuous, or insolent behavior committed during the sitting of any court of justice, in the immediate view and presence of the court, and directly tending to interrupt its proceedings or to impair the respect due to its authority. (2) Behavior as specified in paragraph (1) committed in the presence of any referee, while actually engaged in any trial or hearing, pursuant to the order of any court, or in the presence of any jury while actually sitting for the trial of a cause, or upon any inquest or other proceedings authorized by law. (3) Any breach of the peace, noise, or other disturbance directly tending to interrupt the proceedings of any court. (4) Willful disobedience of the terms as written of any process or court order or out-of-state court order, lawfully issued by any court, including orders pending trial. (5) Resistance willfully offered by any person to the lawful order or process of any court. (6) The contumacious and unlawful refusal of any person to be sworn as a witness or, when so sworn, the like refusal to answer any material question. (7) The publication of a false or grossly inaccurate report of the proceedings of any court. (8) Presenting to any court having power to pass sentence upon any prisoner under conviction, or to any member of the court, any affidavit or testimony or representation of any kind, verbal or written, in aggravation or mitigation of the punishment to be imposed upon the prisoner, except as provided in this code. (b) (1) Any person who is guilty of contempt of court under paragraph (4) of subdivision (a) by willfully contacting a victim by telephone or mail, or directly, and who has been previously convicted of a violation of Section 646.9 shall be punished by imprisonment in a county jail for not more than one year, by a fine of five thousand dollars ($5,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment. (2) For the purposes of sentencing under this subdivision, each contact shall constitute a separate violation of this subdivision. (3) The present incarceration of a person who makes contact with a victim in violation of paragraph (1) is not a defense to a violation of this subdivision. (c) (1) Notwithstanding paragraph (4) of subdivision (a), any willful and knowing violation of any protective order or stay-away court order issued pursuant to Section 136.2, in a pending criminal proceeding involving domestic violence, as defined in Section 13700, or issued as a condition of probation after a conviction in a criminal proceeding involving domestic violence, as defined in Section 13700, or elder or dependent adult abuse, as defined in Section 368, or that is an order described in paragraph (3), shall constitute contempt of court, a misdemeanor, punishable by imprisonment in a county jail for not more than one year, by a fine of not more than one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that imprisonment and fine. (2) If a violation of paragraph (1) results in a physical injury, the person shall be imprisoned in a county jail for at least 48 hours, whether a fine or imprisonment is imposed, or the sentence is suspended. (3) Paragraphs (1) and (2) apply to the following court orders: (A) Any order issued pursuant to Section 6320 or 6389 of the Family Code. (B) An order excluding one party from the family dwelling or from the dwelling of the other. (C) An order enjoining a party from specified behavior that the court determined was necessary to effectuate the orders described in paragraph (1). (4) A second or subsequent conviction for a violation of any order described in paragraph (1) occurring within seven years of a prior conviction for a violation of any of those orders and involving an act of violence or "a credible threat" of violence, as provided in subdivisions (c) and (d) of Section 139, is punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not to exceed one year, or in the state prison for 16 months or two or three years. (5) The prosecuting agency of each county shall have the primary responsibility for the enforcement of the orders described in paragraph (1). (d) (1) A person who owns, possesses, purchases, or receives a firearm knowing he or she is prohibited from doing so by the provisions of a protective order as defined in Section 136.2 of this code, Section 6218 of the Family Code, or Section 527.6 or 527.8 of the Code of Civil Procedure, shall be punished under the provisions of  subdivision (g) of Section 12021   Section 29825  . (2) A person subject to a protective order described in paragraph (1) shall not be prosecuted under this section for owning, possessing, purchasing, or receiving a firearm to the extent that firearm is granted an exemption pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 6389 of the Family Code. (e) (1) If probation is granted upon conviction of a violation of subdivision (c), the court shall impose probation consistent with Section 1203.097  of the Penal Code  . (2) If probation is granted upon conviction of a violation of subdivision (c), the conditions of probation may include, in lieu of a fine, one or both of the following requirements: (A) That the defendant make payments to a battered women's shelter, up to a maximum of one thousand dollars ($1,000). (B) That the defendant provide restitution to reimburse the victim for reasonable costs of counseling and other reasonable expenses that the court finds are the direct result of the defendant's offense. (3) For any order to pay a fine, make payments to a battered women' s shelter, or pay restitution as a condition of probation under this subdivision or subdivision (c), the court shall make a determination of the defendant's ability to pay. In no event shall any order to make payments to a battered women's shelter be made if it would impair the ability of the defendant to pay direct restitution to the victim or court-ordered child support. (4) If the injury to a married person is caused in whole or in part by the criminal acts of his or her spouse in violation of subdivision (c), the community property may not be used to discharge the liability of the offending spouse for restitution to the injured spouse required by Section 1203.04, as operative on or before August 2, 1995, or Section 1202.4, or to a shelter for costs with regard to the injured spouse and dependents required by this subdivision, until all separate property of the offending spouse is exhausted. (5) Any person violating any order described in subdivision (c) may be punished for any substantive offenses described under Section 136.1 or 646.9. No finding of contempt shall be a bar to prosecution for a violation of Section 136.1 or 646.9. However, any person held in contempt for a violation of subdivision (c) shall be entitled to credit for any punishment imposed as a result of that violation against any sentence imposed upon conviction of an offense described in Section 136.1 or 646.9. Any conviction or acquittal for any substantive offense under Section 136.1 or 646.9 shall be a bar to a subsequent punishment for contempt arising out of the same act. SEC. 45. Section 171b of the Penal Code is amended to read: 171b. (a) Any person who brings or possesses within any state or local public building or at any meeting required to be open to the public pursuant to Chapter 9 (commencing with Section 54950) of Part 1 of Division 2 of Title 5 of, or Article 9 (commencing with Section 11120) of Chapter 1 of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of, the Government Code, any of the following is guilty of a public offense punishable by imprisonment in a county jail for not more than one year, or in the state prison: (1) Any firearm. (2) Any deadly weapon described in Section  653k or 12020   17235 or in any provision listed in Section 16590  . (3) Any knife with a blade length in excess of four inches, the blade of which is fixed or is capable of being fixed in an unguarded position by the use of one or two hands. (4) Any unauthorized tear gas weapon. (5) Any taser or stun gun, as defined in Section 244.5. (6) Any instrument that expels a metallic projectile, such as a BB or pellet, through the force of air pressure, CO2 pressure, or spring action, or any spot marker gun or paint gun. (b) Subdivision (a) shall not apply to, or affect, any of the following: (1) A person who possesses weapons in, or transports weapons into, a court of law to be used as evidence. (2) (A) A duly appointed peace officer as defined in Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830) of Title 3 of Part 2, a retired peace officer with authorization to carry concealed weapons as described in  subdivision (a) of Section 12027   Article 2 (commencing with Section 25450) of Chapter 2 of Division 5 of Title 4 of Part 6  , a full-time paid peace officer of another state or the federal government who is carrying out official duties while in California, or any person summoned by any of these officers to assist in making arrests or preserving the peace while he or she is actually engaged in assisting the officer. (B) Notwithstanding subparagraph (A), subdivision (a) shall apply to any person who brings or possesses any weapon specified therein within any courtroom if he or she is a party to an action pending before the court. (3) A person holding a valid license to carry the firearm pursuant to  Article 3 (commencing with Section 12050) of Chapter 1 of Title 2 of Part 4   Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 26150) of Division 5 of Title 4 of Part 6  . (4) A person who has permission to possess that weapon granted in writing by a duly authorized official who is in charge of the security of the state or local government building. (5) A person who lawfully resides in, lawfully owns, or is in lawful possession of, that building with respect to those portions of the building that are not owned or leased by the state or local government. (6) A person licensed or registered in accordance with, and acting within the course and scope of, Chapter 11.5 (commencing with Section 7512) or Chapter 11.6 (commencing with Section 7590) of Division 3 of the Business and Professions Code who has been hired by the owner or manager of the building if the person has permission pursuant to paragraph (5). (7) (A) A person who, for the purpose of sale or trade, brings any weapon that may otherwise be lawfully transferred, into a gun show conducted pursuant to  Sections 12071.1 and 12071.4   Article 1 (commencing with Section 27200) and Article 2 (commencing with Section 27300) of Chapter 3 of Division 6 of Title 4 of Part 6  . (B) A person who, for purposes of an authorized public exhibition, brings any weapon that may otherwise be lawfully possessed, into a gun show conducted pursuant to  Sections 12071.1 and 12071.4   Article 1 (commencing with Section 27200) and Article 2 (commencing with Section 27300) of Chapter 3 of Division 6 of Title 4 of Part 6  . (c) As used in this section, "state or local public building" means a building that meets all of the following criteria: (1) It is a building or part of a building owned or leased by the state or local government, if state or local public employees are regularly present for the purposes of performing their official duties. A state or local public building includes, but is not limited to, a building that contains a courtroom. (2) It is not a building or facility, or a part thereof, that is referred to in Section 171c, 171d, 626.9, 626.95, or 626.10 of this code, or in Section 18544 of the Elections Code. (3) It is a building not regularly used, and not intended to be used, by state or local employees as a place of residence. SEC. 46. Section 171c of the Penal Code is amended to read: 171c. Any person, except a duly appointed peace officer as defined in Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830) of Title 3 of Part 2, a full-time paid peace officer of another state or the federal government who is carrying out official duties while in California, any person summoned by  any such officer   one of those officers  to assist in making arrests or preserving the peace while  he is  actually engaged in assisting  such  that  officer, a member of the military forces of this state or the United States engaged in the performance of  his   that person's  duties, or a person holding a valid license to carry the firearm pursuant to  Article 3 (commencing with Section 12050) of Chapter 1 of Title 2 of Part 4   Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 26150) of Division 5 of Title 4 of Part 6  , who brings a loaded firearm into, or possesses a loaded firearm within, the State Capitol, any legislative office, any office of the Governor or other constitutional officer, or any hearing room in which any committee of the Senate or Assembly is conducting a hearing, or upon the grounds of the State Capitol, which is bounded by 10th, L, 15th, and N Streets in the City of Sacramento, shall be punished by imprisonment in the county jail for a period of not more than one year, a fine of not more than one thousand dollars ($1,000), or both  such   that  imprisonment and fine, or by imprisonment in the state prison. SEC. 47. Section 171d of the Penal Code is amended to read: 171d. Any person, except a duly appointed peace officer as defined in Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830) of Title 3 of Part 2, a full-time paid peace officer of another state or the federal government who is carrying out official duties while in California, any person summoned by that officer to assist in making arrests or preserving the peace while he or she is actually engaged in assisting the officer, a member of the military forces of this state or of the United States engaged in the performance of his or her duties, a person holding a valid license to carry the firearm pursuant to  Article 3 (commencing with Section 12050) of Chapter 1 of Title 2 of Part 4   Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 26150) of Division 5 of Title 4 of Part 6  , the Governor or a member of his or her immediate family or a person acting with his or her permission with respect to the Governor's Mansion or any other residence of the Governor, any other constitutional officer or a member of his or her immediate family or a person acting with his or her permission with respect to the officer's residence, or a Member of the Legislature or a member of his or her immediate family or a person acting with his or her permission with respect to the Member's residence, shall be punished by imprisonment in a county jail for not more than one year, by fine of not more than one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both the fine and imprisonment, or by imprisonment in the state prison, if he or she does any of the following: (a) Brings a loaded firearm into, or possesses a loaded firearm within, the Governor's Mansion, or any other residence of the Governor, the residence of any other constitutional officer, or the residence of any Member of the Legislature. (b) Brings a loaded firearm upon, or possesses a loaded firearm upon, the grounds of the Governor's Mansion or any other residence of the Governor, the residence of any other constitutional officer, or the residence of any Member of the Legislature. SEC. 48. Section 171.5 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 171.5. (a) For purposes of this section: (1) "Airport" means an airport, with a secured area, that regularly serves an air carrier holding a certificate issued by the United States Secretary of Transportation. (2) "Passenger vessel terminal" means only that portion of a harbor or port facility, as described in Section 105.105(a)(2) of Title 33 of the Code of Federal Regulations, with a secured area that regularly serves scheduled commuter or passenger operations. (3) "Sterile area" means a portion of an airport defined in the airport security program to which access generally is controlled through the screening of persons and property, as specified in Section 1540.5 of Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations, or a portion of any passenger vessel terminal to which, pursuant to the requirements set forth in Sections 105.255(a)(1), 105.255(c)(1), and 105.260(a) of Title 33 of the Code of Federal Regulations, access is generally controlled in a manner consistent with the passenger vessel terminal's security plan and the MARSEC level in effect at the time. (b) It is unlawful for any person to knowingly possess, within any sterile area of an airport or a passenger vessel terminal, any of the items listed in subdivision (c). (c) The following items are unlawful to possess as provided in subdivision (b): (1) Any firearm. (2) Any knife with a blade length in excess of four inches, the blade of which is fixed, or is capable of being fixed, in an unguarded position by the use of one or two hands. (3) Any box cutter or straight razor. (4) Any metal military practice hand grenade. (5) Any metal replica hand grenade. (6) Any plastic replica hand grenade. (7) Any imitation firearm as defined in Section 417.4. (8) Any frame, receiver, barrel, or magazine of a firearm. (9) Any unauthorized tear gas weapon. (10) Any taser or stun gun, as defined in Section 244.5. (11) Any instrument that expels a metallic projectile, such as a BB or pellet, through the force of air pressure, CO2 pressure, or spring action, or any spot marker gun or paint gun. (12) Any ammunition as defined in Section  12316   16150  . (d) Subdivision (b) shall not apply to, or affect, any of the following: (1) A duly appointed peace officer, as defined in Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830) of Title 3 of Part 2, a retired peace officer with authorization to carry concealed weapons as described in  subdivision (a) of Section 12027   Article 2 (commencing with Section 25450) of Chapter 2 of Division 5 of Title 4 of Part 6  , a full-time paid peace officer of another state or the federal government who is carrying out official duties while in California, or any person summoned by any of these officers to assist in making arrests or preserving the peace while he or she is actually engaged in assisting the officer. (2) A person who has authorization to possess a weapon specified in subdivision (c), granted in writing by an airport security coordinator who is designated as specified in Section 1542.3 of Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations, and who is responsible for the security of the airport. (3) A person, including an employee of a licensed contract guard service, who has authorization to possess a weapon specified in subdivision (c) granted in writing by a person discharging the duties of Facility Security Officer or Company Security Officer pursuant to an approved United States Coast Guard facility security plan, and who is responsible for the security of the passenger vessel terminal. (e) A violation of this section is punishable by imprisonment in a county jail for a period not exceeding six months, or by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment. (f) The provisions of this section are cumulative, and shall not be construed as restricting the application of any other law. However, an act or omission that is punishable in different ways by this and any other provision of law shall not be punished under more than one provision. (g) Nothing in this section is intended to affect existing state or federal law regarding the transportation of firearms on airplanes in checked luggage, or the possession of the items listed in subdivision (c) in areas that are not "sterile areas." SEC. 49. Section 186.22 of the Penal Code, as added by Section 2 of Chapter 171 of the Statutes of 2009, is amended to read: 186.22. (a) Any person who actively participates in any criminal street gang with knowledge that its members engage in or have engaged in a pattern of criminal gang activity, and who willfully promotes, furthers, or assists in any felonious criminal conduct by members of that gang, shall be punished by imprisonment in a county jail for a period not to exceed one year, or by imprisonment in the state prison for 16 months, or two or three years. (b) (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (4) and (5), any person who is convicted of a felony committed for the benefit of, at the direction of, or in association with any criminal street gang, with the specific intent to promote, further, or assist in any criminal conduct by gang members, shall, upon conviction of that felony, in addition and consecutive to the punishment prescribed for the felony or attempted felony of which he or she has been convicted, be punished as follows: (A) Except as provided in subparagraphs (B) and (C), the person shall be punished by an additional term of two, three, or four years at the court's discretion. (B) If the felony is a serious felony, as defined in subdivision (c) of Section 1192.7, the person shall be punished by an additional term of five years. (C) If the felony is a violent felony, as defined in subdivision (c) of Section 667.5, the person shall be punished by an additional term of 10 years. (2) If the underlying felony described in paragraph (1) is committed on the grounds of, or within 1,000 feet of, a public or private elementary, vocational, junior high, or high school, during hours in which the facility is open for classes or school-related programs or when minors are using the facility, that fact shall be a circumstance in aggravation of the crime in imposing a term under paragraph (1). (3) The court shall order the imposition of the middle term of the sentence enhancement, unless there are circumstances in aggravation or mitigation. The court shall state the reasons for its choice of sentencing enhancements on the record at the time of the sentencing. (4) Any person who is convicted of a felony enumerated in this paragraph committed for the benefit of, at the direction of, or in association with any criminal street gang, with the specific intent to promote, further, or assist in any criminal conduct by gang members, shall, upon conviction of that felony, be sentenced to an indeterminate term of life imprisonment with a minimum term of the indeterminate sentence calculated as the greater of: (A) The term determined by the court pursuant to Section 1170 for the underlying conviction, including any enhancement applicable under Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 1170) of Title 7 of Part 2, or any period prescribed by Section 3046, if the felony is any of the offenses enumerated in subparagraph (B) or (C) of this paragraph. (B) Imprisonment in the state prison for 15 years, if the felony is a home invasion robbery, in violation of subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 213; carjacking, as defined in Section 215; a felony violation of Section 246; or a violation of Section 12022.55. (C) Imprisonment in the state prison for seven years, if the felony is extortion, as defined in Section 519; or threats to victims and witnesses, as defined in Section 136.1. (5) Except as provided in paragraph (4), any person who violates this subdivision in the commission of a felony punishable by imprisonment in the state prison for life shall not be paroled until a minimum of 15 calendar years have been served. (c) If the court grants probation or suspends the execution of sentence imposed upon the defendant for a violation of subdivision (a), or in cases involving a true finding of the enhancement enumerated in subdivision (b), the court shall require that the defendant serve a minimum of 180 days in a county jail as a condition thereof. (d) Any person who is convicted of a public offense punishable as a felony or a misdemeanor, which is committed for the benefit of, at the direction of or in association with, any criminal street gang with the specific intent to promote, further, or assist in any criminal conduct by gang members, shall be punished by imprisonment in the county jail not to exceed one year, or by imprisonment in the state prison for one, two, or three years, provided that any person sentenced to imprisonment in the county jail shall be imprisoned for a period not to exceed one year, but not less than 180 days, and shall not be eligible for release upon completion of sentence, parole, or any other basis, until he or she has served 180 days. If the court grants probation or suspends the execution of sentence imposed upon the defendant, it shall require as a condition thereof that the defendant serve 180 days in a county jail. (e) As used in this chapter, "pattern of criminal gang activity" means the commission of, attempted commission of, conspiracy to commit, or solicitation of, sustained juvenile petition for, or conviction of two or more of the following offenses, provided at least one of these offenses occurred after the effective date of this chapter and the last of those offenses occurred within three years after a prior offense, and the offenses were committed on separate occasions, or by two or more persons: (1) Assault with a deadly weapon or by means of force likely to produce great bodily injury, as defined in Section 245. (2) Robbery, as defined in Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 211) of Title 8 of Part 1. (3) Unlawful homicide or manslaughter, as defined in Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 187) of Title 8 of Part 1. (4) The sale, possession for sale, transportation, manufacture, offer for sale, or offer to manufacture controlled substances as defined in Sections 11054, 11055, 11056, 11057, and 11058 of the Health and Safety Code. (5) Shooting at an inhabited dwelling or occupied motor vehicle, as defined in Section 246. (6) Discharging or permitting the discharge of a firearm from a motor vehicle, as defined in subdivisions (a) and (b) of Section  12034   26100  . (7) Arson, as defined in Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 450) of Title 13. (8) The intimidation of witnesses and victims, as defined in Section 136.1. (9) Grand theft, as defined in subdivision (a) or (c) of Section 487. (10) Grand theft of any firearm, vehicle, trailer, or vessel. (11) Burglary, as defined in Section 459. (12) Rape, as defined in Section 261. (13) Looting, as defined in Section 463. (14) Money laundering, as defined in Section 186.10. (15) Kidnapping, as defined in Section 207. (16) Mayhem, as defined in Section 203. (17) Aggravated mayhem, as defined in Section 205. (18) Torture, as defined in Section 206. (19) Felony extortion, as defined in Sections 518 and 520. (20) Felony vandalism, as defined in paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) of Section 594. (21) Carjacking, as defined in Section 215. (22) The sale, delivery, or transfer of a firearm, as defined in  Section 12072   Article 1 (commencing with Section 27500) of Chapter 4 of Division 6 of Title 4 of Part 6  . (23) Possession of a pistol, revolver, or other firearm capable of being concealed upon the person in violation of  paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 12101   Section 29610  . (24) Threats to commit crimes resulting in death or great bodily injury, as defined in Section 422. (25) Theft and unlawful taking or driving of a vehicle, as defined in Section 10851 of the Vehicle Code. (26) Felony theft of an access card or account information, as defined in Section 484e. (27) Counterfeiting, designing, using, attempting to use an access card, as defined in Section 484f. (28) Felony fraudulent use of an access card or account information, as defined in Section 484g. (29) Unlawful use of personal identifying information to obtain credit, goods, services, or medical information, as defined in Section 530.5. (30) Wrongfully obtaining Department of Motor Vehicles documentation, as defined in Section 529.7. (31) Prohibited possession of a firearm in violation of  Section 12021   Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 29800) of Division 9 of Title 4 of Part 6  . (32) Carrying a concealed firearm in violation of Section  12025   25400  . (33) Carrying a loaded firearm in violation of Section  12031   25850  . (f) As used in this chapter, "criminal street gang" means any ongoing organization, association, or group of three or more persons, whether formal or informal, having as one of its primary activities the commission of one or more of the criminal acts enumerated in paragraphs (1) to (25), inclusive, or (31) to (33), inclusive, of subdivision (e), having a common name or common identifying sign or symbol, and whose members individually or collectively engage in or have engaged in a pattern of criminal gang activity. (g) Notwithstanding any other law, the court may strike the additional punishment for the enhancements provided in this section or refuse to impose the minimum jail sentence for misdemeanors in an unusual case where the interests of justice would best be served, if the court specifies on the record and enters into the minutes the circumstances indicating that the interests of justice would best be served by that disposition. (h) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, for each person committed to the Division of Juvenile Facilities for a conviction pursuant to subdivision (a) or (b) of this section, the offense shall be deemed one for which the state shall pay the rate of 100 percent of the per capita institutional cost of the Division of Juvenile Facilities, pursuant to Section 912.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. (i) In order to secure a conviction or sustain a juvenile petition, pursuant to subdivision (a) it is not necessary for the prosecution to prove that the person devotes all, or a substantial part, of his or her time or efforts to the criminal street gang, nor is it necessary to prove that the person is a member of the criminal street gang. Active participation in the criminal street gang is all that is required. (j) A pattern of gang activity may be shown by the commission of one or more of the offenses enumerated in paragraphs (26) to (30), inclusive, of subdivision (e), and the commission of one or more of the offenses enumerated in paragraphs (1) to (25), inclusive, or (31) to (33), inclusive of subdivision (e). A pattern of gang activity cannot be established solely by proof of commission of offenses enumerated in paragraphs (26) to (30), inclusive, of subdivision (e), alone. (k) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2011. SEC. 50. Section 186.22a of the Penal Code is amended to read: 186.22a. (a) Every building or place used by members of a criminal street gang for the purpose of the commission of the offenses listed in subdivision (e) of Section 186.22 or any offense involving dangerous or deadly weapons, burglary, or rape, and every building or place wherein or upon which that criminal conduct by gang members takes place, is a nuisance which shall be enjoined, abated, and prevented, and for which damages may be recovered, whether it is a public or private nuisance. (b) Any action for injunction or abatement filed pursuant to subdivision (a), including an action filed by the Attorney General, shall proceed according to the provisions of Article 3 (commencing with Section 11570) of Chapter 10 of Division 10 of the Health and Safety Code, except that all of the following shall apply: (1) The court shall not assess a civil penalty against any person unless that person knew or should have known of the unlawful acts. (2) No order of eviction or closure may be entered. (3) All injunctions issued shall be limited to those necessary to protect the health and safety of the residents or the public or those necessary to prevent further criminal activity. (4) Suit may not be filed until 30-day notice of the unlawful use or criminal conduct has been provided to the owner by mail, return receipt requested, postage prepaid, to the last known address. (c) Whenever an injunction is issued pursuant to subdivision (a), or Section 3479 of the Civil Code, to abate gang activity constituting a nuisance, the Attorney General or any district attorney or any prosecuting city attorney may maintain an action for money damages on behalf of the community or neighborhood injured by that nuisance. Any money damages awarded shall be paid by or collected from assets of the criminal street gang or its members. Only members of the criminal street gang who created, maintained, or contributed to the creation or maintenance of the nuisance shall be personally liable for the payment of the damages awarded. In a civil action for damages brought pursuant to this subdivision, the Attorney General, district attorney, or city attorney may use, but is not limited to the use of, the testimony of experts to establish damages suffered by the community or neighborhood injured by the nuisance. The damages recovered pursuant to this subdivision shall be deposited into a separate segregated fund for payment to the governing body of the city or county in whose political subdivision the community or neighborhood is located, and that governing body shall use those assets solely for the benefit of the community or neighborhood that has been injured by the nuisance. (d) No nonprofit or charitable organization which is conducting its affairs with ordinary care or skill, and no governmental entity, shall be abated pursuant to subdivisions (a) and (b). (e) Nothing in this chapter shall preclude any aggrieved person from seeking any other remedy provided by law. (f) (1) Any firearm, ammunition which may be used with the firearm, or any deadly or dangerous weapon which is owned or possessed by a member of a criminal street gang for the purpose of the commission of any of the offenses listed in subdivision (e) of Section 186.22, or the commission of any burglary or rape, may be confiscated by any law enforcement agency or peace officer. (2) In those cases where a law enforcement agency believes that the return of the firearm, ammunition, or deadly weapon confiscated pursuant to this subdivision, is or will be used in criminal street gang activity or that the return of the item would be likely to result in endangering the safety of others, the law enforcement agency shall initiate a petition in the superior court to determine if the item confiscated should be returned or declared a nuisance. (3) No firearm, ammunition, or deadly weapon shall be sold or destroyed unless reasonable notice is given to its lawful owner if his or her identity and address can be reasonably ascertained. The law enforcement agency shall inform the lawful owner, at that person' s last known address by registered mail, that he or she has 30 days from the date of receipt of the notice to respond to the court clerk to confirm his or her desire for a hearing and that the failure to respond shall result in a default order forfeiting the confiscated firearm, ammunition, or deadly weapon as a nuisance. (4) If the person requests a hearing, the court clerk shall set a hearing no later than 30 days from receipt of that request. The court clerk shall notify the person, the law enforcement agency involved, and the district attorney of the date, time, and place of the hearing. (5) At the hearing, the burden of proof is upon the law enforcement agency or peace officer to show by a preponderance of the evidence that the seized item is or will be used in criminal street gang activity or that return of the item would be likely to result in endangering the safety of others. All returns of firearms shall be subject to  Section 12021.3   Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 33850) of Division 11 of Title 4 of Part 6  . (6) If the person does not request a hearing within 30 days of the notice or the lawful owner cannot be ascertained, the law enforcement agency may file a petition that the confiscated firearm, ammunition, or deadly weapon be declared a nuisance. If the items are declared to be a nuisance, the law enforcement agency shall dispose of the items as provided in  Section 12028   Sections 18000 and 18005  . SEC. 51. Section 189 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 189. All murder which is perpetrated by means of a destructive device or explosive, a weapon of mass destruction, knowing use of ammunition designed primarily to penetrate metal or armor, poison, lying in wait, torture, or by any other kind of willful, deliberate, and premeditated killing, or which is committed in the perpetration of, or attempt to perpetrate, arson, rape, carjacking, robbery, burglary, mayhem, kidnapping, train wrecking, or any act punishable under Section 206, 286, 288, 288a, or 289, or any murder which is perpetrated by means of discharging a firearm from a motor vehicle, intentionally at another person outside of the vehicle with the intent to inflict death, is murder of the first degree. All other kinds of murders are of the second degree. As used in this section, "destructive device" means any destructive device as defined in Section  12301   16460  , and "explosive" means any explosive as defined in Section 12000 of the Health and Safety Code. As used in this section, "weapon of mass destruction" means any item defined in Section 11417. To prove the killing was "deliberate and premeditated," it shall not be necessary to prove the defendant maturely and meaningfully reflected upon the gravity of his or her act. SEC. 52. Section 244.5 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 244.5. (a) As used in this section, "stun gun" means any item, except a less lethal weapon, as defined in Section  12601   16780  , used or intended to be used as either an offensive or defensive weapon that is capable of temporarily immobilizing a person by the infliction of an electrical charge. (b) Every person who commits an assault upon the person of another with a stun gun or less lethal weapon, as defined in Section  12601   16780  , shall be punished by imprisonment in a county jail for a term not exceeding one year, or by imprisonment in the state prison for 16 months, two, or three years. (c) Every person who commits an assault upon the person of a peace officer or firefighter with a stun gun or less lethal weapon, as defined in Section  12601   16780  , who knows or reasonably should know that the person is a peace officer or firefighter engaged in the performance of his or her duties, when the peace officer or firefighter is engaged in the performance of his or her duties, shall be punished by imprisonment in the county jail for a term not exceeding one year, or by imprisonment in the state prison for two, three, or four years. (d) This section shall not be construed to preclude or in any way limit the applicability of Section 245 in any criminal prosecution. SEC. 53. Section 245 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 245. (a) (1) Any person who commits an assault upon the person of another with a deadly weapon or instrument other than a firearm or by any means of force likely to produce great bodily injury shall be punished by imprisonment in the state prison for two, three, or four years, or in a county jail for not exceeding one year, or by a fine not exceeding ten thousand dollars ($10,000), or by both the fine and imprisonment. (2) Any person who commits an assault upon the person of another with a firearm shall be punished by imprisonment in the state prison for two, three, or four years, or in a county jail for not less than six months and not exceeding one year, or by both a fine not exceeding ten thousand dollars ($10,000) and imprisonment. (3) Any person who commits an assault upon the person of another with a machinegun, as defined in Section  12200   16880  , or an assault weapon, as defined in Section  12276 or 12276.1   30510 or 30515  , or a .50 BMG rifle, as defined in Section  12278   30530  , shall be punished by imprisonment in the state prison for 4, 8, or 12 years. (b) Any person who commits an assault upon the person of another with a semiautomatic firearm shall be punished by imprisonment in the state prison for three, six, or nine years. (c) Any person who commits an assault with a deadly weapon or instrument, other than a firearm, or by any means likely to produce great bodily injury upon the person of a peace officer or firefighter, and who knows or reasonably should know that the victim is a peace officer or firefighter engaged in the performance of his or her duties, when the peace officer or firefighter is engaged in the performance of his or her duties, shall be punished by imprisonment in the state prison for three, four, or five years. (d) (1) Any person who commits an assault with a firearm upon the person of a peace officer or firefighter, and who knows or reasonably should know that the victim is a peace officer or firefighter engaged in the performance of his or her duties, when the peace officer or firefighter is engaged in the performance of his or her duties, shall be punished by imprisonment in the state prison for four, six, or eight years. (2) Any person who commits an assault upon the person of a peace officer or firefighter with a semiautomatic firearm and who knows or reasonably should know that the victim is a peace officer or firefighter engaged in the performance of his or her duties, when the peace officer or firefighter is engaged in the performance of his or her duties, shall be punished by imprisonment in the state prison for five, seven, or nine years. (3) Any person who commits an assault with a machinegun, as defined in Section  12200   16880  , or an assault weapon, as defined in Section  12276 or 12276.1   30510 or 30515  , or a .50 BMG rifle, as defined in Section  12278   30530  , upon the person of a peace officer or firefighter, and who knows or reasonably should know that the victim is a peace officer or firefighter engaged in the performance of his or her duties, shall be punished by imprisonment in the state prison for 6, 9, or 12 years. (e) When a person is convicted of a violation of this section in a case involving use of a deadly weapon or instrument or firearm, and the weapon or instrument or firearm is owned by that person, the court shall order that the weapon or instrument or firearm be deemed a nuisance, and it shall be confiscated and disposed of in the manner provided by  Section 12028   Sections 18000 and 18005  . (f) As used in this section, "peace officer" refers to any person designated as a peace officer in Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830) of Title 3 of Part 2. SEC. 54. Section 245.3 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 245.3. Every person who commits an assault with a deadly weapon or instrument or by any means likely to produce great bodily injury upon the person of a custodial officer as defined in Section 831 or 831.5, and who knows or reasonably should know that such   the  victim is  such  a custodial officer engaged in the performance of  his   that person's  duties, shall be punished by imprisonment in the state prison for three, four, or five years. When a person is convicted of a violation of this section in a case involving use of a deadly weapon or instrument, and such weapon or instrument is owned by  such   that  person, the court may, in its discretion, order that the weapon or instrument be deemed a nuisance and shall be confiscated and destroyed in the manner provided by  Section 12028   Sections 18000 and 18005  . SEC. 55. Section 273.6 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 273.6. (a) Any intentional and knowing violation of a protective order, as defined in Section 6218 of the Family Code, or of an order issued pursuant to Section 527.6, 527.8, or 527.85 of the Code of Civil Procedure, or Section 15657.03 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, is a misdemeanor punishable by a fine of not more than one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by imprisonment in a county jail for not more than one year, or by both that fine and imprisonment. (b) In the event of a violation of subdivision (a) that results in physical injury, the person shall be punished by a fine of not more than two thousand dollars ($2,000), or by imprisonment in a county jail for not less than 30 days nor more than one year, or by both that fine and imprisonment. However, if the person is imprisoned in a county jail for at least 48 hours, the court may, in the interest of justice and for reasons stated on the record, reduce or eliminate the 30-day minimum imprisonment required by this subdivision. In determining whether to reduce or eliminate the minimum imprisonment pursuant to this subdivision, the court shall consider the seriousness of the facts before the court, whether there are additional allegations of a violation of the order during the pendency of the case before the court, the probability of future violations, the safety of the victim, and whether the defendant has successfully completed or is making progress with counseling. (c) Subdivisions (a) and (b) shall apply to the following court orders: (1) Any order issued pursuant to Section 6320 or 6389 of the Family Code. (2) An order excluding one party from the family dwelling or from the dwelling of the other. (3) An order enjoining a party from specified behavior that the court determined was necessary to effectuate the order described in subdivision (a). (4) Any order issued by another state that is recognized under Part 5 (commencing with Section 6400) of Division 10 of the Family Code. (d) A subsequent conviction for a violation of an order described in subdivision (a), occurring within seven years of a prior conviction for a violation of an order described in subdivision (a) and involving an act of violence or "a credible threat" of violence, as defined in subdivision (c) of Section 139, is punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not to exceed one year, or in the state prison. (e) In the event of a subsequent conviction for a violation of an order described in subdivision (a) for an act occurring within one year of a prior conviction for a violation of an order described in subdivision (a) that results in physical injury to a victim, the person shall be punished by a fine of not more than two thousand dollars ($2,000), or by imprisonment in a county jail for not less than six months nor more than one year, by both that fine and imprisonment, or by imprisonment in the state prison. However, if the person is imprisoned in a county jail for at least 30 days, the court may, in the interest of justice and for reasons stated in the record, reduce or eliminate the six-month minimum imprisonment required by this subdivision. In determining whether to reduce or eliminate the minimum imprisonment pursuant to this subdivision, the court shall consider the seriousness of the facts before the court, whether there are additional allegations of a violation of the order during the pendency of the case before the court, the probability of future violations, the safety of the victim, and whether the defendant has successfully completed or is making progress with counseling. (f) The prosecuting agency of each county shall have the primary responsibility for the enforcement of orders described in subdivisions (a), (b), (d), and (e). (g) (1) Every person who owns, possesses, purchases, or receives a firearm knowing he or she is prohibited from doing so by the provisions of a protective order as defined in Section 136.2 of this code, Section 6218 of the Family Code, or Section 527.6 or 527.8 of the Code of Civil Procedure, or Section 15657.03 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, shall be punished under  subdivision (g) of Section 12021   Section 29825  . (2) Every person subject to a protective order described in paragraph (1) shall not be prosecuted under this section for owning, possessing, purchasing, or receiving a firearm to the extent that firearm is granted an exemption pursuant to subdivision (f) of Section 527.9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, or subdivision (h) of Section 6389 of the Family Code. (h) If probation is granted upon conviction of a violation of subdivision (a), (b), (c), (d), or (e), the court shall impose probation consistent with Section 1203.097, and the conditions of probation may include, in lieu of a fine, one or both of the following requirements: (1) That the defendant make payments to a battered women's shelter or to a shelter for abused elder persons or dependent adults, up to a maximum of five thousand dollars ($5,000), pursuant to Section 1203.097. (2) That the defendant reimburse the victim for reasonable costs of counseling and other reasonable expenses that the court finds are the direct result of the defendant's offense. (i) For any order to pay a fine, make payments to a battered women' s shelter, or pay restitution as a condition of probation under subdivision (e), the court shall make a determination of the defendant's ability to pay. In no event shall any order to make payments to a battered women's shelter be made if it would impair the ability of the defendant to pay direct restitution to the victim or court-ordered child support. Where the injury to a married person is caused in whole or in part by the criminal acts of his or her spouse in violation of this section, the community property may not be used to discharge the liability of the offending spouse for restitution to the injured spouse, required by Section 1203.04, as operative on or before August 2, 1995, or Section 1202.4, or to a shelter for costs with regard to the injured spouse and dependents, required by this section, until all separate property of the offending spouse is exhausted. SEC. 56. Section 417.4 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 417.4. Every person who, except in self-defense, draws or exhibits an imitation firearm, as defined in  Section 12550   subdivision (a) of Section 16700  , in a threatening manner against another in such a way as to cause a reasonable person apprehension or fear of bodily harm is guilty of a misdemeanor punishable by imprisonment in a county jail for a term of not less than 30 days. SEC. 57. Section 417.6 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 417.6. (a) If, in the commission of a violation of Section 417 or 417.8, serious bodily injury is intentionally inflicted by the person drawing or exhibiting the firearm or deadly weapon, the offense shall be punished by imprisonment in the county jail not exceeding one year or by imprisonment in the state prison. (b) As used in this section, "serious bodily injury" means a serious impairment of physical condition, including, but not limited to, the following: loss of consciousness; concussion; bone fracture; protracted loss or impairment of function of any bodily member or organ; a wound requiring extensive suturing; and serious disfigurement. (c) When a person is convicted of a violation of Section 417 or 417.8 and the deadly weapon or firearm used by the person is owned by that person, the court shall order that the weapon or firearm be deemed a nuisance and disposed of in the manner provided by  Section 12028   Sections 18000 and 18005  . SEC. 58. Section 538d of the Penal Code is amended to read: 538d. (a) Any person other than one who by law is given the authority of a peace officer, who willfully wears, exhibits, or uses the authorized uniform, insignia, emblem, device, label, certificate, card, or writing, of a peace officer, with the intent of fraudulently impersonating a peace officer, or of fraudulently inducing the belief that he or she is a peace officer, is guilty of a misdemeanor. (b) (1) Any person, other than the one who by law is given the authority of a peace officer, who willfully wears, exhibits, or uses the badge of a peace officer with the intent of fraudulently impersonating a peace officer, or of fraudulently inducing the belief that he or she is a peace officer, is guilty of a misdemeanor punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not to exceed one year, by a fine not to exceed two thousand dollars ($2,000), or by both that imprisonment and fine. (2) Any person who willfully wears or uses any badge that falsely purports to be authorized for the use of one who by law is given the authority of a peace officer, or which so resembles the authorized badge of a peace officer as would deceive any ordinary reasonable person into believing that it is authorized for the use of one who by law is given the authority of a peace officer, for the purpose of fraudulently impersonating a peace officer, or of fraudulently inducing the belief that he or she is a peace officer, is guilty of a misdemeanor punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not to exceed one year, by a fine not to exceed two thousand dollars ($2,000), or by both that imprisonment and fine. (c) Except as provided in subdivision (d), any person who willfully wears, exhibits, or uses, or who willfully makes, sells, loans, gives, or transfers to another, any badge, insignia, emblem, device, or any label, certificate, card, or writing, which falsely purports to be authorized for the use of one who by law is given the authority of a peace officer, or which so resembles the authorized badge, insignia, emblem, device, label, certificate, card, or writing of a peace officer as would deceive an ordinary reasonable person into believing that it is authorized for the use of one who by law is given the authority of a peace officer, is guilty of a misdemeanor, except that any person who makes or sells any badge under the circumstances described in this subdivision is subject to a fine not to exceed fifteen thousand dollars ($15,000). (d) (1) The head of an agency that employs peace officers, as defined in Sections 830.1 and 830.2, is authorized to issue identification in the form of a badge, insignia, emblem, device, label, certificate, card, or writing that clearly states that the person has honorably retired following service as a peace officer from that agency. The identification authorized pursuant to this subdivision is separate and distinct from the identification authorized by  subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 12027   Article 2 (commencing with Section 25450) of Chapter 2 of Division 5 of Title 4 of Part 6  . (2) If the head of an agency issues a badge to an honorably retired peace officer that is not affixed to a plaque or other memento commemorating the retiree's service for the agency, the words "Honorably Retired" shall be clearly visible above, underneath, or on the badge itself. (3) The head of an agency that employs peace officers as defined in Sections 830.1 and 830.2 is authorized to revoke identification granted pursuant to this subdivision in the event of misuse or abuse. (4) For the purposes of this subdivision, the term "honorably retired" does not include an officer who has agreed to a service retirement in lieu of termination. (e) (1) Vendors of law enforcement uniforms shall verify that a person purchasing a uniform identifying a law enforcement agency is an employee of the agency identified on the uniform. Presentation and examination of a valid identification card with a picture of the person purchasing the uniform and identification, on the letterhead of the law enforcement agency, of the person buying the uniform as an employee of the agency identified on the uniform shall be sufficient verification. (2) Any uniform vendor who sells a uniform identifying a law enforcement agency, without verifying that the purchaser is an employee of the agency, is guilty of a misdemeanor, punishable by a fine of not more than one thousand dollars ($1,000). (3) This subdivision shall not apply if the uniform is to be used solely as a prop for a motion picture, television, video production, or a theatrical event, and prior written permission has been obtained from the identified law enforcement agency. SEC. 59. Section 626.9 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 626.9. (a) This section shall be known, and may be cited, as the Gun-Free School Zone Act of 1995. (b) Any person who possesses a firearm in a place that the person knows, or reasonably should know, is a school zone, as defined in paragraph (1) of subdivision (e), unless it is with the written permission of the school district superintendent, his or her designee, or equivalent school authority, shall be punished as specified in subdivision (f). (c) Subdivision (b) does not apply to the possession of a firearm under any of the following circumstances: (1) Within a place of residence or place of business or on private property, if the place of residence, place of business, or private property is not part of the school grounds and the possession of the firearm is otherwise lawful. (2) When the firearm is an unloaded pistol, revolver, or other firearm capable of being concealed on the person and is in a locked container or within the locked trunk of a motor vehicle. This section does not prohibit or limit the otherwise lawful transportation of any other firearm, other than a pistol, revolver, or other firearm capable of being concealed on the person, in accordance with state law. (3) When the person possessing the firearm reasonably believes that he or she is in grave danger because of circumstances forming the basis of a current restraining order issued by a court against another person or persons who has or have been found to pose a threat to his or her life or safety. This subdivision may not apply when the circumstances involve a mutual restraining order issued pursuant to Division 10 (commencing with Section 6200) of the Family Code absent a factual finding of a specific threat to the person's life or safety. Upon a trial for violating subdivision (b), the trier of a fact shall determine whether the defendant was acting out of a reasonable belief that he or she was in grave danger. (4) When the person is exempt from the prohibition against carrying a concealed firearm pursuant to  subdivision (b), (d), (e), or (h) of Section 12027   Section 25615, 25625, 25630, or 25645  . (d) Except as provided in subdivision (b), it shall be unlawful for any person, with reckless disregard for the safety of another, to discharge, or attempt to discharge, a firearm in a school zone, as defined in paragraph (1) of subdivision (e). The prohibition contained in this subdivision does not apply to the discharge of a firearm to the extent that the conditions of paragraph (1) of subdivision (c) are satisfied. (e) As used in this section, the following definitions shall apply: (1) "School zone" means an area in, or on the grounds of, a public or private school providing instruction in kindergarten or grades 1 to 12, inclusive, or within a distance of 1,000 feet from the grounds of the public or private school. (2) "Firearm" has the same meaning as that term is given in  Section 12001   subdivisions (a) to (d), inclusive, of Section 16520  . (3) "Locked container" has the same meaning as that term is given in  subdivision (c) of Section 12026.1   Section 16850  . (4) "Concealed firearm" has the same meaning as that term is given in Sections  12025 and 12026.1   25400 and 25610  . (f) (1) Any person who violates subdivision (b) by possessing a firearm in, or on the grounds of, a public or private school providing instruction in kindergarten or grades 1 to 12, inclusive, shall be punished by imprisonment in the state prison for two, three, or five years. (2) Any person who violates subdivision (b) by possessing a firearm within a distance of 1,000 feet from the grounds of a public or private school providing instruction in kindergarten or grades 1 to 12, inclusive, shall be punished as follows: (A) By imprisonment in the state prison for two, three, or five years, if any of the following circumstances apply: (i) If the person previously has been convicted of any felony, or of any crime made punishable by  Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 12000) of Title 2 of Part 4   any provision listed in Section 16580  . (ii) If the person is within a class of persons prohibited from possessing or acquiring a firearm pursuant to  Section 12021 or 12021.1   Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 29800) or Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 29900) of Division 9 of Title 4 of Part 6  of this code or Section 8100 or 8103 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. (iii) If the firearm is any pistol, revolver, or other firearm capable of being concealed upon the person and the offense is punished as a felony pursuant to Section  12025   25400  . (B) By imprisonment in a county jail for not more than one year or by imprisonment in the state prison for two, three, or five years, in all cases other than those specified in subparagraph (A). (3) Any person who violates subdivision (d) shall be punished by imprisonment in the state prison for three, five, or seven years. (g) (1) Every person convicted under this section for a misdemeanor violation of subdivision (b) who has been convicted previously of a misdemeanor offense enumerated in Section  12001.6   23515  shall be punished by imprisonment in a county jail for not less than three months, or if probation is granted or if the execution or imposition of sentence is suspended, it shall be a condition thereof that he or she be imprisoned in a county jail for not less than three months. (2) Every person convicted under this section of a felony violation of subdivision (b) or (d) who has been convicted previously of a misdemeanor offense enumerated in Section  12001.6   23515  , if probation is granted or if the execution of sentence is suspended, it shall be a condition thereof that he or she be imprisoned in a county jail for not less than three months. (3) Every person convicted under this section for a felony violation of subdivision (b) or (d) who has been convicted previously of any felony, or of any crime made punishable by  Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 12000) of Title 2 of Part 4   any provision listed in Section 16580  , if probation is granted or if the execution or imposition of sentence is suspended, it shall be a condition thereof that he or she be imprisoned in a county jail for not less than three months. (4) The court shall apply the three-month minimum sentence specified in this subdivision, except in unusual cases where the interests of justice would best be served by granting probation or suspending the execution or imposition of sentence without the minimum imprisonment required in this subdivision or by granting probation or suspending the execution or imposition of sentence with conditions other than those set forth in this subdivision, in which case the court shall specify on the record and shall enter on the minutes the circumstances indicating that the interests of justice would best be served by this disposition. (h) Notwithstanding Section  12026   25605  , any person who brings or possesses a loaded firearm upon the grounds of a campus of, or buildings owned or operated for student housing, teaching, research, or administration by, a public or private university or college, that are contiguous or are clearly marked university property, unless it is with the written permission of the university or college president, his or her designee, or equivalent university or college authority, shall be punished by imprisonment in the state prison for two, three, or four years. Notwithstanding subdivision (k), a university or college shall post a prominent notice at primary entrances on noncontiguous property stating that firearms are prohibited on that property pursuant to this subdivision. (i) Notwithstanding Section  12026   25605  , any person who brings or possesses a firearm upon the grounds of a campus of, or buildings owned or operated for student housing, teaching, research, or administration by, a public or private university or college, that are contiguous or are clearly marked university property, unless it is with the written permission of the university or college president, his or her designee, or equivalent university or college authority, shall be punished by imprisonment in the state prison for one, two, or three years. Notwithstanding subdivision (k), a university or college shall post a prominent notice at primary entrances on noncontiguous property stating that firearms are prohibited on that property pursuant to this subdivision. (j) For purposes of this section, a firearm shall be deemed to be loaded when there is an unexpended cartridge or shell, consisting of a case that holds a charge of powder and a bullet or shot, in, or attached in any manner to, the firearm, including, but not limited to, in the firing chamber, magazine, or clip thereof attached to the firearm. A muzzle-loader firearm shall be deemed to be loaded when it is capped or primed and has a powder charge and ball or shot in the barrel or cylinder. (k) This section does not require that notice be posted regarding the proscribed conduct. (  l  ) This section does not apply to a duly appointed peace officer as defined in Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830) of Title 3 of Part 2, a full-time paid peace officer of another state or the federal government who is carrying out official duties while in California, any person summoned by any of these officers to assist in making arrests or preserving the peace while he or she is actually engaged in assisting the officer, a member of the military forces of this state or of the United States who is engaged in the performance of his or her duties, a person holding a valid license to carry the firearm pursuant to  Article 3 (commencing with Section 12050) of Chapter 1 of Title 2 of Part 4   Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 26150) of Division 5 of Title 4 of Part 6  , or an armored vehicle guard, engaged in the performance of his or her duties, as defined in subdivision (e) of Section 7521 of the Business and Professions Code. (m) This section does not apply to a security guard authorized to carry a loaded firearm pursuant to  Section 12031   Article 4 (commencing   with Section 26000) of Chapter 3 of Division 5 of Title 4 of Part 6  . (n) This section does not apply to an existing shooting range at a public or private school or university or college campus. (o) This section does not apply to an honorably retired peace officer authorized to carry a concealed or loaded firearm pursuant to  subdivision (a) or (i) of Section 12027 or paragraph (1) or (8) of subdivision (b) of Section 12031.   any of the following:   (1) Article 2 (commencing with Section 25450) of Chapter 2 of Division 5 of Title 4 of Part 6.   (2) Section 25650.   (3) Sections 25900 to 25910, inclusive.   (4) Section 26020.  SEC. 60. Section 626.95 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 626.95. (a) Any person who is in violation of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a), or subdivision (b), of Section  417 ,   417,  or  Section 12025 or 12031   25400 or 25850  , upon the grounds of or within a playground, or a public or private youth center during hours in which the facility is open for business, classes, or school-related programs, or at any time when minors are using the facility, knowing that he or she is on or within those grounds, shall be punished by imprisonment in the state prison for one, two, or three years, or in a county jail not exceeding one year. (b) State and local authorities are encouraged to cause signs to be posted around playgrounds and youth centers giving warning of prohibition of the possession of firearms upon the grounds of or within playgrounds or youth centers. (c) For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply: (1) "Playground" means any park or recreational area specifically designed to be used by children that has play equipment installed, including public grounds designed for athletic activities such as baseball, football, soccer, or basketball, or any similar facility located on public or private school grounds, or on city or county parks. (2) "Youth center" means any public or private facility that is used to host recreational or social activities for minors while minors are present. (d) It is the Legislature's intent that only an actual conviction of a felony of one of the offenses specified in this section would subject the person to firearms disabilities under the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (P.L. 90-618; 18 U.S.C. Sec. 921). SEC. 61. Section 626.10 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 626.10. (a) (1) Any person, except a duly appointed peace officer as defined in Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830) of Title 3 of Part 2, a full-time paid peace officer of another state or the federal government who is carrying out official duties while in this state, a person summoned by any officer to assist in making arrests or preserving the peace while the person is actually engaged in assisting any officer, or a member of the military forces of this state or the United States who is engaged in the performance of his or her duties, who brings or possesses any dirk, dagger, ice pick, knife having a blade longer than 21/2 inches, folding knife with a blade that locks into place, razor with an unguarded blade, taser, or stun gun, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 244.5, any instrument that expels a metallic projectile such as a BB or a pellet, through the force of air pressure, CO2 pressure, or spring action, or any spot marker gun, upon the grounds of, or within, any public or private school providing instruction in kindergarten or any of grades 1 to 12, inclusive, is guilty of a public offense, punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year, or by imprisonment in the state prison. (2) Any person, except a duly appointed peace officer as defined in Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830) of Title 3 of Part 2, a full-time paid peace officer of another state or the federal government who is carrying out official duties while in this state, a person summoned by any officer to assist in making arrests or preserving the peace while the person is actually engaged in assisting any officer, or a member of the military forces of this state or the United States who is engaged in the performance of his or her duties, who brings or possesses a razor blade or a box cutter upon the grounds of, or within, any public or private school providing instruction in kindergarten or any of grades 1 to 12, inclusive, is guilty of a public offense, punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year. (b) Any person, except a duly appointed peace officer as defined in Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830) of Title 3 of Part 2, a full-time paid peace officer of another state or the federal government who is carrying out official duties while in this state, a person summoned by any officer to assist in making arrests or preserving the peace while the person is actually engaged in assisting any officer, or a member of the military forces of this state or the United States who is engaged in the performance of his or her duties, who brings or possesses any dirk, dagger, ice pick, or knife having a fixed blade longer than 21/2 inches upon the grounds of, or within, any private university, the University of California, the California State University, or the California Community Colleges is guilty of a public offense, punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year, or by imprisonment in the state prison. (c) Subdivisions (a) and (b) do not apply to any person who brings or possesses a knife having a blade longer than 21/2 inches, a razor with an unguarded blade, a razor blade, or a box cutter upon the grounds of, or within, a public or private school providing instruction in kindergarten or any of grades 1 to 12, inclusive, or any private university, state university, or community college at the direction of a faculty member of the private university, state university, or community college, or a certificated or classified employee of the school for use in a private university, state university, community college, or school-sponsored activity or class. (d) Subdivisions (a) and (b) do not apply to any person who brings or possesses an ice pick, a knife having a blade longer than 21/2 inches, a razor with an unguarded blade, a razor blade, or a box cutter upon the grounds of, or within, a public or private school providing instruction in kindergarten or any of grades 1 to 12, inclusive, or any private university, state university, or community college for a lawful purpose within the scope of the person's employment. (e) Subdivision (b) does not apply to any person who brings or possesses an ice pick or a knife having a fixed blade longer than 21/2 inches upon the grounds of, or within, any private university, state university, or community college for lawful use in or around a residence or residential facility located upon those grounds or for lawful use in food preparation or consumption. (f) Subdivision (a) does not apply to any person who brings an instrument that expels a metallic projectile such as a BB or a pellet, through the force of air pressure, CO2 pressure, or spring action, or any spot marker gun, or any razor blade or box cutter upon the grounds of, or within, a public or private school providing instruction in kindergarten or any of grades 1 to 12, inclusive, if the person has the written permission of the school principal or his or her designee. (g) Any certificated or classified employee or school peace officer of a public or private school providing instruction in kindergarten or any of grades 1 to 12, inclusive, may seize any of the weapons described in subdivision (a), and any certificated or classified employee or school peace officer of any private university, state university, or community college may seize any of the weapons described in subdivision (b), from the possession of any person upon the grounds of, or within, the school if he or she knows, or has reasonable cause to know, the person is prohibited from bringing or possessing the weapon upon the grounds of, or within, the school. (h) As used in this section, "dirk" or "dagger" means a knife or other instrument with or without a handguard that is capable of ready use as a stabbing weapon that may inflict great bodily injury or death. (i) Any person who, without the written permission of the college or university president or chancellor or his or her designee, brings or possesses a less lethal weapon, as defined in Section  12601   16780  , or a stun gun, as defined in Section  12650   17230  , upon the grounds of or within, a public or private college or university campus is guilty of a misdemeanor. SEC. 62. Section 629.52 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 629.52. Upon application made under Section 629.50, the judge may enter an ex parte order, as requested or modified, authorizing interception of wire, electronic pager, or electronic cellular telephone communications initially intercepted within the territorial jurisdiction of the court in which the judge is sitting, if the judge determines, on the basis of the facts submitted by the applicant, all of the following: (a) There is probable cause to believe that an individual is committing, has committed, or is about to commit, one of the following offenses: (1) Importation, possession for sale, transportation, manufacture, or sale of controlled substances in violation of Section 11351, 11351.5, 11352, 11370.6, 11378, 11378.5, 11379, 11379.5, or 11379.6 of the Health and Safety Code with respect to a substance containing heroin, cocaine, PCP, methamphetamine, or their precursors or analogs where the substance exceeds 10 gallons by liquid volume or three pounds of solid substance by weight. (2) Murder, solicitation to commit murder, the commission of a felony involving a destructive device in violation of Section  12303, 12303.1, 12303.2, 12303.3, 12303.6, 12308, 12309, 12310, or 12312   18710, 18715, 18720, 18725, 18730, 18740, 18745, 18750, or 18755  , or a violation of Section 209. (3) Any felony violation of Section 186.22. (4) Any felony violation of Section 11418, relating to weapons of mass destruction, Section 11418.5, relating to threats to use weapons of mass destruction, or Section 11419, relating to restricted biological agents. (5) An attempt or conspiracy to commit any of the above-mentioned crimes. (b) There is probable cause to believe that particular communications concerning the illegal activities will be obtained through that interception, including, but not limited to, communications that may be utilized for locating or rescuing a kidnap victim. (c) There is probable cause to believe that the facilities from which, or the place where, the wire, electronic pager, or electronic cellular telephone communications are to be intercepted are being used, or are about to be used, in connection with the commission of the offense, or are leased to, listed in the name of, or commonly used by the person whose communications are to be intercepted. (d) Normal investigative procedures have been tried and have failed or reasonably appear either to be unlikely to succeed if tried or to be too dangerous. SEC. 63. Section 667.5 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 667.5. Enhancement of prison terms for new offenses because of prior prison terms shall be imposed as follows: (a) Where one of the new offenses is one of the violent felonies specified in subdivision (c), in addition to and consecutive to any other prison terms therefor, the court shall impose a three-year term for each prior separate prison term served by the defendant where the prior offense was one of the violent felonies specified in subdivision (c). However, no additional term shall be imposed under this subdivision for any prison term served prior to a period of 10 years in which the defendant remained free of both prison custody and the commission of an offense which results in a felony conviction. (b) Except where subdivision (a) applies, where the new offense is any felony for which a prison sentence is imposed, in addition and consecutive to any other prison terms therefor, the court shall impose a one-year term for each prior separate prison term served for any felony; provided that no additional term shall be imposed under this subdivision for any prison term served prior to a period of five years in which the defendant remained free of both prison custody and the commission of an offense which results in a felony conviction. (c) For the purpose of this section, "violent felony" shall mean any of the following: (1) Murder or voluntary manslaughter. (2) Mayhem. (3) Rape as defined in paragraph (2) or (6) of subdivision (a) of Section 261 or paragraph (1) or (4) of subdivision (a) of Section 262. (4) Sodomy as defined in subdivision (c) or (d) of Section 286. (5) Oral copulation as defined in subdivision (c) or (d) of Section 288a. (6) Lewd or lascivious act as defined in subdivision (a) or (b) of Section 288. (7) Any felony punishable by death or imprisonment in the state prison for life. (8) Any felony in which the defendant inflicts great bodily injury on any person other than an accomplice which has been charged and proved as provided for in Section 12022.7, 12022.8, or 12022.9 on or after July 1, 1977, or as specified prior to July 1, 1977, in Sections 213, 264, and 461, or any felony in which the defendant uses a firearm which use has been charged and proved as provided in subdivision (a) of Section 12022.3, or Section 12022.5 or 12022.55. (9) Any robbery. (10) Arson, in violation of subdivision (a) or (b) of Section 451. (11) Sexual penetration as defined in subdivision (a) or (j) of Section 289. (12) Attempted murder. (13) A violation of Section  12308, 12309, or 12310   18745, 18750, or 18755  . (14) Kidnapping. (15) Assault with the intent to commit a specified felony, in violation of Section 220. (16) Continuous sexual abuse of a child, in violation of Section 288.5. (17) Carjacking, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 215. (18) Rape, spousal rape, or sexual penetration, in concert, in violation of Section 264.1. (19) Extortion, as defined in Section 518, which would constitute a felony violation of Section 186.22 of the Penal Code. (20) Threats to victims or witnesses, as defined in Section 136.1, which would constitute a felony violation of Section 186.22 of the Penal Code. (21) Any burglary of the first degree, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 460, wherein it is charged and proved that another person, other than an accomplice, was present in the residence during the commission of the burglary. (22) Any violation of Section 12022.53. (23) A violation of subdivision (b) or (c) of Section 11418. The Legislature finds and declares that these specified crimes merit special consideration when imposing a sentence to display society's condemnation for these extraordinary crimes of violence against the person. (d) For the purposes of this section, the defendant shall be deemed to remain in prison custody for an offense until the official discharge from custody or until release on parole, whichever first occurs, including any time during which the defendant remains subject to reimprisonment for escape from custody or is reimprisoned on revocation of parole. The additional penalties provided for prior prison terms shall not be imposed unless they are charged and admitted or found true in the action for the new offense. (e) The additional penalties provided for prior prison terms shall not be imposed for any felony for which the defendant did not serve a prior separate term in state prison. (f) A prior conviction of a felony shall include a conviction in another jurisdiction for an offense which, if committed in California, is punishable by imprisonment in the state prison if the defendant served one year or more in prison for the offense in the other jurisdiction. A prior conviction of a particular felony shall include a conviction in another jurisdiction for an offense which includes all of the elements of the particular felony as defined under California law if the defendant served one year or more in prison for the offense in the other jurisdiction. (g) A prior separate prison term for the purposes of this section shall mean a continuous completed period of prison incarceration imposed for the particular offense alone or in combination with concurrent or consecutive sentences for other crimes, including any reimprisonment on revocation of parole which is not accompanied by a new commitment to prison, and including any reimprisonment after an escape from incarceration. (h) Serving a prison term includes any confinement time in any state prison or federal penal institution as punishment for commission of an offense, including confinement in a hospital or other institution or facility credited as service of prison time in the jurisdiction of the confinement. (i) For the purposes of this section, a commitment to the State Department of Mental Health as a mentally disordered sex offender following a conviction of a felony, which commitment exceeds one year in duration, shall be deemed a prior prison term. (j) For the purposes of this section, when a person subject to the custody, control, and discipline of the Director of Corrections is incarcerated at a facility operated by the Department of the Youth Authority, that incarceration shall be deemed to be a term served in state prison. (k) Notwithstanding subdivisions (d) and (g) or any other provision of law, where one of the new offenses is committed while the defendant is temporarily removed from prison pursuant to Section 2690 or while the defendant is transferred to a community facility pursuant to Section 3416, 6253, or 6263, or while the defendant is on furlough pursuant to Section 6254, the defendant shall be subject to the full enhancements provided for in this section. This subdivision shall not apply when a full, separate, and consecutive term is imposed pursuant to any other provision of law. SEC. 64. Section 667.7 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 667.7. (a) Any person convicted of a felony in which the person inflicted great bodily injury as provided in Section 12022.53 or 12022.7, or personally used force which was likely to produce great bodily injury, who has served two or more prior separate prison terms as defined in Section 667.5 for the crime of murder; attempted murder; voluntary manslaughter; mayhem; rape by force, violence, or fear of immediate and unlawful bodily injury on the victim or another person; oral copulation by force, violence, duress, menace, or fear of immediate and unlawful bodily injury on the victim or another person; sodomy by force, violence, duress, menace, or fear of immediate and unlawful bodily injury on the victim or another person; lewd acts on a child under the age of 14 years by use of force, violence, duress, menace, or fear of immediate and unlawful bodily injury on the victim or another person; a violation of subdivision (a) of Section 289 where the act is accomplished against the victim's will by means of force, violence, duress, menace, or fear of immediate and unlawful bodily injury on the victim or another person; kidnapping as punished in former subdivision (d) of Section 208, or for ransom, extortion, or robbery; robbery involving the use of force or a deadly weapon; carjacking involving the use of a deadly weapon; assault with intent to commit murder; assault with a deadly weapon; assault with a force likely to produce great bodily injury; assault with intent to commit rape, sodomy, oral copulation, sexual penetration in violation of Section 289, or lewd and lascivious acts on a child; arson of a structure; escape or attempted escape by an inmate with force or violence in violation of subdivision (a) of Section 4530, or of Section 4532; exploding a destructive device with intent to murder in violation of Section  12308   18745  ; exploding a destructive device which causes bodily injury in violation of Section  12309   18750  , or mayhem or great bodily injury in violation of Section  12310   18755  ; exploding a destructive device with intent to injure, intimidate, or terrify, in violation of Section  12303.3   18740  ; any felony in which the person inflicted great bodily injury as provided in Section 12022.53 or 12022.7; or any felony punishable by death or life imprisonment with or without the possibility of parole is a habitual offender and shall be punished as follows: (1) A person who served two prior separate prison terms shall be punished by imprisonment in the state prison for life and shall not be eligible for release on parole for 20 years, or the term determined by the court pursuant to Section 1170 for the underlying conviction, including any enhancement applicable under Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 1170) of Title 7 of Part 2, or any period prescribed by Section 190 or 3046, whichever is greatest. Article 2.5 (commencing with Section 2930) of Chapter 7 of Title 1 of Part 3 shall apply to reduce any minimum term in a state prison imposed pursuant to this section, but the person shall not otherwise be released on parole prior to that time. (2) Any person convicted of a felony specified in this subdivision who has served three or more prior separate prison terms, as defined in Section 667.5, for the crimes specified in subdivision (a) of this section shall be punished by imprisonment in the state prison for life without the possibility of parole. (b) This section shall not prevent the imposition of the punishment of death or imprisonment for life without the possibility of parole. No prior prison term shall be used for this determination which was served prior to a period of 10 years in which the person remained free of both prison custody and the commission of an offense which results in a felony conviction. As used in this section, a commitment to the Department of the Youth Authority after conviction for a felony shall constitute a prior prison term. The term imposed under this section shall be imposed only if the prior prison terms are alleged under this section in the accusatory pleading, and either admitted by the defendant in open court, or found to be true by the jury trying the issue of guilt or by the court where guilt is established by a plea of guilty or nolo contendere or by a trial by the court sitting without a jury. SEC. 65. Section 679.03 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 679.03. (a) With respect to the conviction of a defendant involving a violent offense, as defined in  subdivision (b) of Section 12021.1   Section 29905  , the county district attorney, probation department, and victim-witness coordinator shall confer and establish an annual policy within existing resources to decide which one of their agencies shall inform each witness involved in the conviction who was threatened by the defendant following the defendant's arrest and each victim or next of kin of the victim of that offense of the right to request and receive a notice pursuant to Section 3058.8 or 3605. If no agreement is reached, the presiding judge shall designate the appropriate county agency or department to provide this notification. (b) The Department of Corrections shall supply a form to the agency designated pursuant to subdivision (a) in order to enable persons specified in subdivision (a) to request and receive notification from the department of the release, escape, scheduled execution, or death of the violent offender. That agency shall give the form to the victim, witness, or next of kin of the victim for completion, explain to that person or persons the right to be so notified, and forward the completed form to the department. The department or the Board of Prison Terms is responsible for notifying all victims, witnesses, or next of kin of victims who request to be notified of a violent offender's release or scheduled execution, as provided by Sections 3058.8 and 3605. (c) All information relating to any person receiving notice pursuant to subdivision (b) shall remain confidential and is not subject to disclosure pursuant to the California Public Records Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Title 7 of Division 1 of the Government Code). SEC. 66. Section 830.5 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 830.5. The following persons are peace officers whose authority extends to any place in the state while engaged in the performance of the duties of their respective employment and for the purpose of carrying out the primary function of their employment or as required under Sections 8597, 8598, and 8617 of the Government Code. Except as specified in this section, these peace officers may carry firearms only if authorized and under those terms and conditions specified by their employing agency: (a) A parole officer of the Department of Corrections or the Department of the Youth Authority, probation officer, deputy probation officer, or a board coordinating parole agent employed by the Youthful Offender Parole Board. Except as otherwise provided in this subdivision, the authority of these parole or probation officers shall extend only as follows: (1) To conditions of parole or of probation by any person in this state on parole or probation. (2) To the escape of any inmate or ward from a state or local institution. (3) To the transportation of persons on parole or probation. (4) To violations of any penal provisions of law which are discovered while performing the usual or authorized duties of his or her employment. (5) To the rendering of mutual aid to any other law enforcement agency. For the purposes of this subdivision, "parole agent" shall have the same meaning as parole officer of the Department of Corrections or of the Department of the Youth Authority. Any parole officer of the Department of Corrections, the Department of the Youth Authority, or the Youthful Offender Parole Board is authorized to carry firearms, but only as determined by the director on a case-by-case or unit-by-unit basis and only under those terms and conditions specified by the director or chairperson. The Department of the Youth Authority shall develop a policy for arming peace officers of the Department of the Youth Authority who comprise "high-risk transportation details" or "high-risk escape details" no later than June 30, 1995. This policy shall be implemented no later than December 31, 1995. The Department of the Youth Authority shall train and arm those peace officers who comprise tactical teams at each facility for use during "high-risk escape details." (b) A correctional officer employed by the Department of Corrections or any employee of the Department of the Youth Authority having custody of wards or the Inspector General of the Youth and Adult Correctional Agency or any internal affairs investigator under the authority of the Inspector General or any employee of the Department of Corrections designated by the Director of Corrections or any correctional counselor series employee of the Department of Corrections or any medical technical assistant series employee designated by the Director of Corrections or designated by the Director of Corrections and employed by the State Department of Mental Health or employee of the Board of Prison Terms designated by the Secretary of the Youth and Adult Correctional Agency or employee of the Department of the Youth Authority designated by the Director of the Youth Authority or any superintendent, supervisor, or employee having custodial responsibilities in an institution operated by a probation department, or any transportation officer of a probation department. (c) The following persons may carry a firearm while not on duty: a parole officer of the Department of Corrections or the Department of the Youth Authority, a correctional officer or correctional counselor employed by the Department of Corrections or any employee of the Department of the Youth Authority having custody of wards or any employee of the Department of Corrections designated by the Director of Corrections. A parole officer of the Youthful Offender Parole Board may carry a firearm while not on duty only when so authorized by the chairperson of the board and only under the terms and conditions specified by the chairperson. Nothing in this section shall be interpreted to require licensure pursuant to Section  12025   25400  . The director or chairperson may deny, suspend, or revoke for good cause a person's right to carry a firearm under this subdivision. That person shall, upon request, receive a hearing, as provided for in the negotiated grievance procedure between the exclusive employee representative and the Department of Corrections, the Department of the Youth Authority, or the Youthful Offender Parole Board, to review the director's or the chairperson's decision. (d) Persons permitted to carry firearms pursuant to this section, either on or off duty, shall meet the training requirements of Section 832 and shall qualify with the firearm at least quarterly. It is the responsibility of the individual officer or designee to maintain his or her eligibility to carry concealable firearms off duty. Failure to maintain quarterly qualifications by an officer or designee with any concealable firearms carried off duty shall constitute good cause to suspend or revoke that person's right to carry firearms off duty. (e) The Department of Corrections shall allow reasonable access to its ranges for officers and designees of either department to qualify to carry concealable firearms off duty. The time spent on the range for purposes of meeting the qualification requirements shall be the person's own time during the person's off-duty hours. (f) The Director of Corrections shall promulgate regulations consistent with this section. (g) "High-risk transportation details" and "high-risk escape details" as used in this section shall be determined by the Director of the Youth Authority, or his or her designee. The director, or his or her designee, shall consider at least the following in determining "high-risk transportation details" and "high-risk escape details": protection of the public, protection of officers, flight risk, and violence potential of the wards. (h) "Transportation detail" as used in this section shall include transportation of wards outside the facility, including, but not limited to, court appearances, medical trips, and interfacility transfers. SEC. 67. Section 830.8 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 830.8. (a) Federal criminal investigators and law enforcement officers are not California peace officers, but may exercise the powers of arrest of a peace officer in any of the following circumstances: (1) Any circumstances specified in Section 836 or Section 5150 of the Welfare and Institutions Code for violations of state or local laws. (2) When these investigators and law enforcement officers are engaged in the enforcement of federal criminal laws and exercise the arrest powers only incidental to the performance of these duties. (3) When requested by a California law enforcement agency to be involved in a joint task force or criminal investigation. (4) When probable cause exists to believe that a public offense that involves immediate danger to persons or property has just occurred or is being committed. In all of these instances, the provisions of Section 847 shall apply. These investigators and law enforcement officers, prior to the exercise of these arrest powers, shall have been certified by their agency heads as having satisfied the training requirements of Section 832, or the equivalent thereof. This subdivision does not apply to federal officers of the Bureau of Land Management or the Forest Service of the Department of Agriculture. These officers have no authority to enforce California statutes without the written consent of the sheriff or the chief of police in whose jurisdiction they are assigned. (b) Duly authorized federal employees who comply with the training requirements set forth in Section 832 are peace officers when they are engaged in enforcing applicable state or local laws on property owned or possessed by the United States government, or on any street, sidewalk, or property adjacent thereto, and with the written consent of the sheriff or the chief of police, respectively, in whose jurisdiction the property is situated. (c) National park rangers are not California peace officers but may exercise the powers of arrest of a peace officer as specified in Section 836 and the powers of a peace officer specified in Section 5150 of the Welfare and Institutions Code for violations of state or local laws provided these rangers are exercising the arrest powers incidental to the performance of their federal duties or providing or attempting to provide law enforcement services in response to a request initiated by California state park rangers to assist in preserving the peace and protecting state parks and other property for which California state park rangers are responsible. National park rangers, prior to the exercise of these arrest powers, shall have been certified by their agency heads as having satisfactorily completed the training requirements of Section 832.3, or the equivalent thereof. (d) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, during a state of war emergency or a state of emergency, as defined in Section 8558 of the Government Code, federal criminal investigators and law enforcement officers who are assisting California law enforcement officers in carrying out emergency operations are not deemed California peace officers, but may exercise the powers of arrest of a peace officer as specified in Section 836 and the powers of a peace officer specified in Section 5150 of the Welfare and Institutions Code for violations of state or local laws. In these instances, the provisions of Section 847 and of Section 8655 of the Government Code shall apply. (e) (1) Any qualified person who is appointed as a Washoe tribal law enforcement officer is not a California peace officer, but may exercise the powers of a Washoe tribal peace officer when engaged in the enforcement of Washoe tribal criminal laws against any person who is an Indian, as defined in subsection (a) of Section 450b of Title 25 of the United States Code, on Washoe tribal land. The respective prosecuting authorities, in consultation with law enforcement agencies, may agree on who shall have initial responsibility for prosecution of specified infractions. This subdivision is not meant to confer cross-deputized status as California peace officers, nor to confer California peace officer status upon Washoe tribal law enforcement officers when enforcing state or local laws in the State of California. Nothing in this section shall be construed to impose liability upon or to require indemnification by the County of Alpine or the State of California for any act performed by an officer of the Washoe Tribe. Washoe tribal law enforcement officers shall have the right to travel to and from Washoe tribal lands within California in order to carry out tribal duties. (2) Washoe tribal law enforcement officers are exempted from the provisions of subdivision (a) of Section  12025 and subdivision (a) of Section 12031   25400 and subdivision (a) and subdivisions (c) to (h), inclusive, of Section 25850  while performing their official duties on their tribal lands or while proceeding by a direct route to or from the tribal lands. Tribal law enforcement vehicles are deemed to be emergency vehicles within the meaning of Section 30 of the Vehicle Code while performing official police services. (3) As used in this subdivision, the term "Washoe tribal lands" includes the following: (A) All lands located in the County of Alpine within the limits of the reservation created for the Washoe Tribe of Nevada and California, notwithstanding the issuance of any patent and including rights-of-way running through the reservation and all tribal trust lands. (B) All Indian allotments, the Indian titles to which have not been extinguished, including rights-of-way running through the same. (4) As used in this subdivision, the term "Washoe tribal law" refers to the laws codified in the Law and Order Code of the Washoe Tribe of Nevada and California, as adopted by the Tribal Council of the Washoe Tribe of Nevada and California. SEC. 68. Section 833.5 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 833.5. (a) In addition to any other detention permitted by law, if a peace officer has reasonable cause to believe that a person has a firearm or other deadly weapon with him or her in violation of any provision of law relating to firearms or deadly weapons the peace officer may detain that person to determine whether a crime relating to firearms or deadly weapons has been committed. For purposes of this section "reasonable cause to detain" requires that the circumstances known or apparent to the officer must include specific and articulable facts causing him or her to suspect that some offense relating to firearms or deadly weapons has taken place or is occurring or is about to occur and that the person he or she intends to detain is involved in that offense. The circumstances must be such as would cause any reasonable peace officer in like position, drawing when appropriate on his or her training and experience, to suspect the same offense and the same involvement by the person in question. (b) Incident to any detention permitted pursuant to subdivision (a), a peace officer may conduct a limited search of the person for firearms or weapons if the peace officer reasonably concludes that the person detained may be armed and presently dangerous to the peace officer or others. Any firearm or weapon seized pursuant to a valid detention or search pursuant to this section shall be admissible in evidence in any proceeding for any purpose permitted by law. (c) This section shall not be construed to otherwise limit the authority of a peace officer to detain any person or to make an arrest based on reasonable cause. (d) This section shall not be construed to permit a peace officer to conduct a detention or search of any person at the person's residence or place of business absent a search warrant or other reasonable cause to detain or search. (e) If a firearm or weapon is seized pursuant to this section and the person from whom it was seized owned the firearm or weapon and is convicted of a violation of any offense relating to the possession of such firearm or weapon, the court shall order the firearm or weapon to be deemed a nuisance and disposed of in the manner provided by  Section 12028   Sections 18000 and 18005  . SEC. 69. Section 836 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 836. (a) A peace officer may arrest a person in obedience to a warrant, or, pursuant to the authority granted to him or her by Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830) of Title 3 of Part 2, without a warrant, may arrest a person whenever any of the following circumstances occur: (1) The officer has probable cause to believe that the person to be arrested has committed a public offense in the officer's presence. (2) The person arrested has committed a felony, although not in the officer's presence. (3) The officer has probable cause to believe that the person to be arrested has committed a felony, whether or not a felony, in fact, has been committed. (b) Any time a peace officer is called out on a domestic violence call, it shall be mandatory that the officer make a good faith effort to inform the victim of his or her right to make a citizen's arrest. This information shall include advising the victim how to safely execute the arrest. (c) (1) When a peace officer is responding to a call alleging a violation of a domestic violence protective or restraining order issued under Section 527.6 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the Family Code, Section 136.2, 646.91, or paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 1203.097 of this code, Section 213.5 or 15657.03 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or of a domestic violence protective or restraining order issued by the court of another state, tribe, or territory and the peace officer has probable cause to believe that the person against whom the order is issued has notice of the order and has committed an act in violation of the order, the officer shall, consistent with subdivision (b) of Section 13701, make a lawful arrest of the person without a warrant and take that person into custody whether or not the violation occurred in the presence of the arresting officer. The officer shall, as soon as possible after the arrest, confirm with the appropriate authorities or the Domestic Violence Protection Order Registry maintained pursuant to Section 6380 of the Family Code that a true copy of the protective order has been registered, unless the victim provides the officer with a copy of the protective order. (2) The person against whom a protective order has been issued shall be deemed to have notice of the order if the victim presents to the officer proof of service of the order, the officer confirms with the appropriate authorities that a true copy of the proof of service is on file, or the person against whom the protective order was issued was present at the protective order hearing or was informed by a peace officer of the contents of the protective order. (3) In situations where mutual protective orders have been issued under Division 10 (commencing with Section 6200) of the Family Code, liability for arrest under this subdivision applies only to those persons who are reasonably believed to have been the dominant aggressor. In those situations, prior to making an arrest under this subdivision, the peace officer shall make reasonable efforts to identify, and may arrest, the dominant aggressor involved in the incident. The dominant aggressor is the person determined to be the most significant, rather than the first, aggressor. In identifying the dominant aggressor, an officer shall consider (A) the intent of the law to protect victims of domestic violence from continuing abuse, (B) the threats creating fear of physical injury, (C) the history of domestic violence between the persons involved, and (D) whether either person involved acted in self-defense. (d) Notwithstanding paragraph (1) of subdivision (a), if a suspect commits an assault or battery upon a current or former spouse, fiance, fiancee, a current or former cohabitant as defined in Section 6209 of the Family Code, a person with whom the suspect currently is having or has previously had an engagement or dating relationship, as defined in paragraph (10) of subdivision (f) of Section 243, a person with whom the suspect has parented a child, or is presumed to have parented a child pursuant to the Uniform Parentage Act (Part 3 (commencing with Section 7600) of Division 12 of the Family Code), a child of the suspect, a child whose parentage by the suspect is the subject of an action under the Uniform Parentage Act, a child of a person in one of the above categories, any other person related to the suspect by consanguinity or affinity within the second degree, or any person who is 65 years of age or older and who is related to the suspect by blood or legal guardianship, a peace officer may arrest the suspect without a warrant where both of the following circumstances apply: (1) The peace officer has probable cause to believe that the person to be arrested has committed the assault or battery, whether or not it has in fact been committed. (2) The peace officer makes the arrest as soon as probable cause arises to believe that the person to be arrested has committed the assault or battery, whether or not it has in fact been committed. (e) In addition to the authority to make an arrest without a warrant pursuant to paragraphs (1) and (3) of subdivision (a), a peace officer may, without a warrant, arrest a person for a violation of Section  12025   25400  when all of the following apply: (1) The officer has reasonable cause to believe that the person to be arrested has committed the violation of Section  12025   25400  . (2) The violation of Section  12025   25400  occurred within an airport, as defined in Section 21013 of the Public Utilities Code, in an area to which access is controlled by the inspection of persons and property. (3) The peace officer makes the arrest as soon as reasonable cause arises to believe that the person to be arrested has committed the violation of Section  12025   25400  . SEC. 70. Section 999e of the Penal Code is amended to read: 999e. (a) An individual who is under arrest for the commission or attempted commission of one or more of the felonies listed in paragraph (1) and who is either being prosecuted for three or more separate offenses not arising out of the same transaction involving one or more of those felonies, or has been convicted during the preceding 10 years for any felony listed in paragraph (2) of this subdivision, or at least two convictions during the preceding 10 years for any felony listed in paragraph (3) of this subdivision shall be the subject of career criminal prosecution efforts. (1) Murder, manslaughter, rape, sexual assault, child molestation, robbery, carjacking, burglary, arson, receiving stolen property, grand theft, grand theft auto, lewd and lascivious conduct upon a child, assault with a firearm, discharging a firearm into an inhabited structure or vehicle, owning, possessing, or having custody or control of a firearm, as specified in subdivision (a) or (b) of Section  12021   29800  , or any unlawful act relating to controlled substances in violation of  Sections   Section  11351, 11351.5, 11352, or 11378 of the Health and Safety Code. (2) Robbery of the first degree, carjacking, burglary of the first degree, arson as defined in Section 451, unlawfully causing a fire as defined in Section 452, forcible rape, sodomy or oral copulation committed with force, lewd or lascivious conduct committed upon a child, kidnapping as defined in Section 209 or 209.5, murder, or manslaughter. (3) Grand theft, grand theft auto, receiving stolen property, robbery of the second degree, burglary of the second degree, kidnapping as defined in Section 207, assault with a deadly weapon or instrument, or any unlawful act relating to controlled substances in violation of Section 11351 or 11352 of the Health and Safety Code. For purposes of this chapter, the 10-year periods specified in this section shall be exclusive of any time which the arrested person has served in state prison. (b) In applying the career criminal selection criteria set forth above, a district attorney may elect to limit career criminal prosecution efforts to persons arrested for any one or more of the felonies listed in subdivision (a) of this section if crime statistics demonstrate that the incidence of one or more of these felonies presents a particularly serious problem in the county. (c) In exercising the prosecutorial discretion granted by Section 999g, the district attorney shall consider the character, background, and prior criminal background of the defendant, and the number and the seriousness of the offenses currently charged against the defendant. SEC. 71. Section 1170.11 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 1170.11. As used in Section 1170.1, the term "specific enhancement" means an enhancement that relates to the circumstances of the crime. It includes, but is not limited to, the enhancements provided in Sections 186.10, 186.11, 186.22, 186.26, 186.33, 192.5, 273.4, 289.5, 290.4, 290.45, 290.46, 347, and 368, subdivisions (a) and (b) of Section 422.75, paragraphs (2), (3), (4), and (5) of subdivision (a) of Section 451.1, paragraphs (2), (3), and (4) of subdivision (a) of Section 452.1, subdivision (g) of Section 550, Sections 593a, 600, 667.8, 667.85, 667.9, 667.10, 667.15, 667.16, 667.17, 674, 675, 12021.5, 12022, 12022.2, 12022.3, 12022.4, 12022.5, 12022.53, 12022.55, 12022.6, 12022.7, 12022.75, 12022.8, 12022.85, 12022.9, 12022.95,  12072, and 12280   27590, 30600, and 30615  of this code, and in Sections 1522.01 and 11353.1, subdivision (b) of Section 11353.4, Sections 11353.6, 11356.5, 11370.4, 11379.7, 11379.8, 11379.9, 11380.1, 11380.7, 25189.5, and 25189.7 of the Health and Safety Code, and in Sections 20001 and 23558 of the Vehicle Code, and in Sections 10980 and 14107 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. SEC. 72. Section 1174.4 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 1174.4. (a) Persons eligible for participation in this alternative sentencing program shall meet all of the following criteria: (1) Pregnant women with an established history of substance abuse, or pregnant or parenting women with an established history of substance abuse who have one or more children under six years old at the time of entry into the program. For women with children, at least one eligible child shall reside with the mother in the facility. (2) Never served a prior prison term for, nor been convicted in the present proceeding of, committing or attempting to commit, any of the following offenses: (A) Murder or voluntary manslaughter. (B) Mayhem. (C) Rape. (D) Kidnapping. (E) Sodomy by force, violence, duress, menace, or fear of immediate and unlawful bodily injury on the victim or another person. (F) Oral copulation by force, violence, duress, menace, or fear of immediate and unlawful bodily injury on the victim or another person. (G) Lewd acts on a child under 14 years of age, as defined in Section 288. (H) Any felony punishable by death or imprisonment in the state prison for life. (I) Any felony in which the defendant inflicts great bodily injury on any person, other than an accomplice, that has been charged and proved as provided for in Section 12022.53, 12022.7, or 12022.9, or any felony in which the defendant uses a firearm, as provided in Section 12022.5, 12022.53, or 12022.55, in which the use has been charged and proved. (J) Robbery. (K) Any robbery perpetrated in an inhabited dwelling house or trailer coach as defined in the Vehicle Code, or in the inhabited portion of any other building, wherein it is charged and proved that the defendant personally used a deadly or dangerous weapon, as provided in subdivision (b) of Section 12022, in the commission of that robbery. (L) Arson in violation of subdivision (a) of Section 451. (M) Sexual penetration in violation of subdivision (a) of Section 289 if the act is accomplished against the victim's will by force, violence, duress, menace, or fear of immediate and unlawful bodily injury on the victim or another person. (N) Rape or sexual penetration in concert, in violation of Section 264.1. (O) Continual sexual abuse of a child in violation of Section 288.5. (P) Assault with intent to commit mayhem, rape, sodomy, oral copulation, rape in concert with another, lascivious acts upon a child, or sexual penetration. (Q) Assault with a deadly weapon or with force likely to produce great bodily injury in violation of subdivision (a) of Section 245. (R) Any violent felony defined in Section 667.5. (S) A violation of Section 12022. (T) A violation of Section  12308   18745  . (U) Burglary of the first degree. (V) A violation of Section 11351, 11351.5, 11352, 11353, 11358, 11359, 11360, 11370.1, 11370.6, 11378, 11378.5, 11379, 11379.5, 11379.6, 11380, or 11383 of the Health and Safety Code. (3) Has not been sentenced to state prison for a term exceeding 36 months. (b) Prior to sentencing, if the court proposes to give consideration to a placement, the court shall consider a written evaluation by the probation department, which shall include the following: (1) Whether the defendant is eligible for participation pursuant to this section. (2) Whether participation by the defendant and her eligible children is deemed to be in the best interests of the children. (3) Whether the defendant is amenable to treatment for substance abuse and would benefit from participation in the program. (4) Whether the program is deemed to be in the best interests of an eligible child of the defendant, as determined by a representative of the appropriate child welfare services agency of the county if the child is a dependent child of the juvenile court pursuant to Section 300 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. (c) The district attorney shall make a recommendation to the court as to whether or not the defendant would benefit from the program, which the court shall consider in making its decision. If the court's decision is without the concurrence of the district attorney, the court shall specify its reasons in writing and enter them into the record. (d) If the court determines that the defendant may benefit from participation in this program, the court may impose a state prison sentence with the recommendation that the defendant participate in the program pursuant to this chapter. The court shall notify the department within 48 hours of imposition of this sentence. (e) The Director of Corrections shall consider the court's recommendation in making a determination on the inmate's placement in the program. (f) Women accepted for the program by the Director of Corrections shall be delivered by the county, pursuant to Section 1202a, to the facility selected by the department. Before the director accepts a woman for the program, the county shall provide to the director the necessary information to determine her eligibility and appropriate placement status. Priority for services and aftercare shall be given to inmates who are incarcerated in a county, or adjacent to a county, in which a program facility is located. (g) Prior to being admitted to the program, each participant shall voluntarily sign an agreement specifying the terms and conditions of participation in the program. (h) The department may refer inmates back to the sentencing court if the department determines that an eligible inmate has not been recommended for the program. The department shall refer the inmate to the court by an evaluative report so stating the department's assessment of eligibility, and requesting a recommendation by the court. (i) Women who successfully complete the program, including the minimum of one year of transition services under intensive parole supervision, shall be discharged from parole. Women who do not successfully complete the program shall be returned to the state prison where they shall serve their original sentences. These persons shall receive full credit against their original sentences for the time served in the program, pursuant to Section 2933. SEC. 73. Section 1192.7 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 1192.7. (a) (1) It is the intent of the Legislature that district attorneys prosecute violent sex crimes under statutes that provide sentencing under a "one strike," "three strikes" or habitual sex offender statute instead of engaging in plea bargaining over those offenses. (2) Plea bargaining in any case in which the indictment or information charges any serious felony, any felony in which it is alleged that a firearm was personally used by the defendant, or any offense of driving while under the influence of alcohol, drugs, narcotics, or any other intoxicating substance, or any combination thereof, is prohibited, unless there is insufficient evidence to prove the people's case, or testimony of a material witness cannot be obtained, or a reduction or dismissal would not result in a substantial change in sentence. (3) If the indictment or information charges the defendant with a violent sex crime, as listed in subdivision (c) of Section 667.61, that could be prosecuted under Sections 269, 288.7, subdivisions (b) through (i) of Section 667, Section 667.61, or 667.71, plea bargaining is prohibited unless there is insufficient evidence to prove the people's case, or testimony of a material witness cannot be obtained, or a reduction or dismissal would not result in a substantial change in sentence. At the time of presenting the agreement to the court, the district attorney shall state on the record why a sentence under one of those sections was not sought. (b) As used in this section "plea bargaining" means any bargaining, negotiation, or discussion between a criminal defendant, or his or her counsel, and a prosecuting attorney or judge, whereby the defendant agrees to plead guilty or nolo contendere, in exchange for any promises, commitments, concessions, assurances, or consideration by the prosecuting attorney or judge relating to any charge against the defendant or to the sentencing of the defendant. (c) As used in this section, "serious felony" means any of the following: (1) Murder or voluntary manslaughter; (2) mayhem; (3) rape; (4) sodomy by force, violence, duress, menace, threat of great bodily injury, or fear of immediate and unlawful bodily injury on the victim or another person; (5) oral copulation by force, violence, duress, menace, threat of great bodily injury, or fear of immediate and unlawful bodily injury on the victim or another person; (6) lewd or lascivious act on a child under 14 years of age; (7) any felony punishable by death or imprisonment in the state prison for life; (8) any felony in which the defendant personally inflicts great bodily injury on any person, other than an accomplice, or any felony in which the defendant personally uses a firearm; (9) attempted murder; (10) assault with intent to commit rape or robbery; (11) assault with a deadly weapon or instrument on a peace officer; (12) assault by a life prisoner on a noninmate; (13) assault with a deadly weapon by an inmate; (14) arson; (15) exploding a destructive device or any explosive with intent to injure; (16) exploding a destructive device or any explosive causing bodily injury, great bodily injury, or mayhem; (17) exploding a destructive device or any explosive with intent to murder; (18) any burglary of the first degree; (19) robbery or bank robbery; (20) kidnapping; (21) holding of a hostage by a person confined in a state prison; (22) attempt to commit a felony punishable by death or imprisonment in the state prison for life; (23) any felony in which the defendant personally used a dangerous or deadly weapon; (24) selling, furnishing, administering, giving, or offering to sell, furnish, administer, or give to a minor any heroin, cocaine, phencyclidine (PCP), or any methamphetamine-related drug, as described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (d) of Section 11055 of the Health and Safety Code, or any of the precursors of methamphetamines, as described in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (f) of Section 11055 or subdivision (a) of Section 11100 of the Health and Safety Code; (25) any violation of subdivision (a) of Section 289 where the act is accomplished against the victim's will by force, violence, duress, menace, or fear of immediate and unlawful bodily injury on the victim or another person; (26) grand theft involving a firearm; (27) carjacking; (28) any felony offense, which would also constitute a felony violation of Section 186.22; (29) assault with the intent to commit mayhem, rape, sodomy, or oral copulation, in violation of Section 220; (30) throwing acid or flammable substances, in violation of Section 244; (31) assault with a deadly weapon, firearm, machinegun, assault weapon, or semiautomatic firearm or assault on a peace officer or firefighter, in violation of Section 245; (32) assault with a deadly weapon against a public transit employee, custodial officer, or school employee, in violation of  Sections   Section  245.2, 245.3, or 245.5; (33) discharge of a firearm at an inhabited dwelling, vehicle, or aircraft, in violation of Section 246; (34) commission of rape or sexual penetration in concert with another person, in violation of Section 264.1; (35) continuous sexual abuse of a child, in violation of Section 288.5; (36) shooting from a vehicle, in violation of subdivision (c) or (d) of Section  12034   26100  ; (37) intimidation of victims or witnesses, in violation of Section 136.1; (38) criminal threats, in violation of Section 422; (39) any attempt to commit a crime listed in this subdivision other than an assault; (40) any violation of Section 12022.53; (41) a violation of subdivision (b) or (c) of Section 11418; and (42) any conspiracy to commit an offense described in this subdivision. (d) As used in this section, "bank robbery" means to take or attempt to take, by force or violence, or by intimidation from the person or presence of another any property or money or any other thing of value belonging to, or in the care, custody, control, management, or possession of, any bank, credit union, or any savings and loan association. As used in this subdivision, the following terms have the following meanings: (1) "Bank" means any member of the Federal Reserve System, and any bank, banking association, trust company, savings bank, or other banking institution organized or operating under the laws of the United States, and any bank the deposits of which are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation. (2) "Savings and loan association" means any federal savings and loan association and any "insured institution" as defined in Section 401 of the National Housing Act, as amended, and any federal credit union as defined in Section 2 of the Federal Credit Union Act. (3) "Credit union" means any federal credit union and any state-chartered credit union the accounts of which are insured by the Administrator of the National Credit Union administration. (e) The provisions of this section shall not be amended by the Legislature except by statute passed in each house by rollcall vote entered in the journal, two-thirds of the membership concurring, or by a statute that becomes effective only when approved by the electors. SEC. 74. Section 1203 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 1203. (a) As used in this code, "probation" means the suspension of the imposition or execution of a sentence and the order of conditional and revocable release in the community under the supervision of a probation officer. As used in this code, "conditional sentence" means the suspension of the imposition or execution of a sentence and the order of revocable release in the community subject to conditions established by the court without the supervision of a probation officer. It is the intent of the Legislature that both conditional sentence and probation are authorized whenever probation is authorized in any code as a sentencing option for infractions or misdemeanors. (b) (1) Except as provided in subdivision (j), if a person is convicted of a felony and is eligible for probation, before judgment is pronounced, the court shall immediately refer the matter to a probation officer to investigate and report to the court, at a specified time, upon the circumstances surrounding the crime and the prior history and record of the person, which may be considered either in aggravation or mitigation of the punishment. (2) (A) The probation officer shall immediately investigate and make a written report to the court of his or her findings and recommendations, including his or her recommendations as to the granting or denying of probation and the conditions of probation, if granted. (B) Pursuant to Section 828 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the probation officer shall include in his or her report any information gathered by a law enforcement agency relating to the taking of the defendant into custody as a minor, which shall be considered for purposes of determining whether adjudications of commissions of crimes as a juvenile warrant a finding that there are circumstances in aggravation pursuant to Section 1170 or to deny probation. (C) If the person was convicted of an offense that requires him or her to register as a sex offender pursuant to Sections 290 to 290.023, inclusive, or if the probation report recommends that registration be ordered at sentencing pursuant to Section 290.006, the probation officer's report shall include the results of the State-Authorized Risk Assessment Tool for Sex Offenders (SARATSO) administered pursuant to Sections 290.04 to 290.06, inclusive, if applicable. (D) The probation officer shall also include in the report his or her recommendation of both of the following: (i) The amount the defendant should be required to pay as a restitution fine pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 1202.4. (ii) Whether the court shall require, as a condition of probation, restitution to the victim or to the Restitution Fund and the amount thereof. (E) The report shall be made available to the court and the prosecuting and defense attorneys at least five days, or upon request of the defendant or prosecuting attorney nine days, prior to the time fixed by the court for the hearing and determination of the report, and shall be filed with the clerk of the court as a record in the case at the time of the hearing. The time within which the report shall be made available and filed may be waived by written stipulation of the prosecuting and defense attorneys that is filed with the court or an oral stipulation in open court that is made and entered upon the minutes of the court. (3) At a time fixed by the court, the court shall hear and determine the application, if one has been made, or, in any case, the suitability of probation in the particular case. At the hearing, the court shall consider any report of the probation officer, including the results of the SARATSO, if applicable, and shall make a statement that it has considered the report, which shall be filed with the clerk of the court as a record in the case. If the court determines that there are circumstances in mitigation of the punishment prescribed by law or that the ends of justice would be served by granting probation to the person, it may place the person on probation. If probation is denied, the clerk of the court shall immediately send a copy of the report to the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation at the prison or other institution to which the person is delivered. (4) The preparation of the report or the consideration of the report by the court may be waived only by a written stipulation of the prosecuting and defense attorneys that is filed with the court or an oral stipulation in open court that is made and entered upon the minutes of the court, except that there shall be no waiver unless the court consents thereto. However, if the defendant is ultimately sentenced and committed to the state prison, a probation report shall be completed pursuant to Section 1203c. (c) If a defendant is not represented by an attorney, the court shall order the probation officer who makes the probation report to discuss its contents with the defendant. (d) If a person is convicted of a misdemeanor, the court may either refer the matter to the probation officer for an investigation and a report or summarily pronounce a conditional sentence. If the person was convicted of an offense that requires him or her to register as a sex offender pursuant to Sections 290 to 290.023, inclusive, or if the probation officer recommends that the court, at sentencing, order the offender to register as a sex offender pursuant to Section 290.006, the court shall refer the matter to the probation officer for the purpose of obtaining a report on the results of the State-Authorized Risk Assessment Tool for Sex Offenders administered pursuant to Sections 290.04 to 290.06, inclusive, if applicable, which the court shall consider. If the case is not referred to the probation officer, in sentencing the person, the court may consider any information concerning the person that could have been included in a probation report. The court shall inform the person of the information to be considered and permit him or her to answer or controvert the information. For this purpose, upon the request of the person, the court shall grant a continuance before the judgment is pronounced. (e) Except in unusual cases where the interests of justice would best be served if the person is granted probation, probation shall not be granted to any of the following persons: (1) Unless the person had a lawful right to carry a deadly weapon, other than a firearm, at the time of the perpetration of the crime or his or her arrest, any person who has been convicted of arson, robbery, carjacking, burglary, burglary with explosives, rape with force or violence, torture, aggravated mayhem, murder, attempt to commit murder, trainwrecking, kidnapping, escape from the state prison, or a conspiracy to commit one or more of those crimes and who was armed with the weapon at either of those times. (2) Any person who used, or attempted to use, a deadly weapon upon a human being in connection with the perpetration of the crime of which he or she has been convicted. (3) Any person who willfully inflicted great bodily injury or torture in the perpetration of the crime of which he or she has been convicted. (4) Any person who has been previously convicted twice in this state of a felony or in any other place of a public offense which, if committed in this state, would have been punishable as a felony. (5) Unless the person has never been previously convicted once in this state of a felony or in any other place of a public offense which, if committed in this state, would have been punishable as a felony, any person who has been convicted of burglary with explosives, rape with force or violence, torture, aggravated mayhem, murder, attempt to commit murder, trainwrecking, extortion, kidnapping, escape from the state prison, a violation of Section 286, 288, 288a, or 288.5, or a conspiracy to commit one or more of those crimes. (6) Any person who has been previously convicted once in this state of a felony or in any other place of a public offense which, if committed in this state, would have been punishable as a felony, if he or she committed any of the following acts: (A) Unless the person had a lawful right to carry a deadly weapon at the time of the perpetration of the previous crime or his or her arrest for the previous crime, he or she was armed with a weapon at either of those times. (B) The person used, or attempted to use, a deadly weapon upon a human being in connection with the perpetration of the previous crime. (C) The person willfully inflicted great bodily injury or torture in the perpetration of the previous crime. (7) Any public official or peace officer of this state or any city, county, or other political subdivision who, in the discharge of the duties of his or her public office or employment, accepted or gave or offered to accept or give any bribe, embezzled public money, or was guilty of extortion. (8) Any person who knowingly furnishes or gives away phencyclidine. (9) Any person who intentionally inflicted great bodily injury in the commission of arson under subdivision (a) of Section 451 or who intentionally set fire to, burned, or caused the burning of, an inhabited structure or inhabited property in violation of subdivision (b) of Section 451. (10) Any person who, in the commission of a felony, inflicts great bodily injury or causes the death of a human being by the discharge of a firearm from or at an occupied motor vehicle proceeding on a public street or highway. (11) Any person who possesses a short-barreled rifle or a short-barreled shotgun under Section  12020   33215  , a machinegun under Section  12220   32625 , or a silencer under Section  12520   33410  . (12) Any person who is convicted of violating Section 8101 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. (13) Any person who is described in  paragraph (2) or (3) of subdivision (g) of Section 12072   subdivision (b) or (c) of Section 27590  . (f) When probation is granted in a case which comes within subdivision (e), the court shall specify on the record and shall enter on the minutes the circumstances indicating that the interests of justice would best be served by that disposition. (g) If a person is not eligible for probation, the judge shall refer the matter to the probation officer for an investigation of the facts relevant to determination of the amount of a restitution fine pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 1202.4 in all cases where the determination is applicable. The judge, in his or her discretion, may direct the probation officer to investigate all facts relevant to the sentencing of the person. Upon that referral, the probation officer shall immediately investigate the circumstances surrounding the crime and the prior record and history of the person and make a written report to the court of his or her findings. The findings shall include a recommendation of the amount of the restitution fine as provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1202.4. (h) If a defendant is convicted of a felony and a probation report is prepared pursuant to subdivision (b) or (g), the probation officer may obtain and include in the report a statement of the comments of the victim concerning the offense. The court may direct the probation officer not to obtain a statement if the victim has in fact testified at any of the court proceedings concerning the offense. (i) No probationer shall be released to enter another state unless his or her case has been referred to the Administrator of the Interstate Probation and Parole Compacts, pursuant to the Uniform Act for Out-of-State Probationer or Parolee Supervision (Article 3 (commencing with Section 11175) of Chapter 2 of Title 1 of Part 4) and the probationer has reimbursed the county that has jurisdiction over his or her probation case the reasonable costs of processing his or her request for interstate compact supervision. The amount and method of reimbursement shall be in accordance with Section 1203.1b. (j) In any court where a county financial evaluation officer is available, in addition to referring the matter to the probation officer, the court may order the defendant to appear before the county financial evaluation officer for a financial evaluation of the defendant's ability to pay restitution, in which case the county financial evaluation officer shall report his or her findings regarding restitution and other court-related costs to the probation officer on the question of the defendant's ability to pay those costs. Any order made pursuant to this subdivision may be enforced as a violation of the terms and conditions of probation upon willful failure to pay and at the discretion of the court, may be enforced in the same manner as a judgment in a civil action, if any balance remains unpaid at the end of the defendant's probationary period. (k) Probation shall not be granted to, nor shall the execution of, or imposition of sentence be suspended for, any person who is convicted of a violent felony, as defined in subdivision (c) of Section 667.5, or a serious felony, as defined in subdivision (c) of Section 1192.7, and who was on probation for a felony offense at the time of the commission of the new felony offense. SEC. 75. Section 1203.1 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 1203.1. (a) The court, or judge thereof, in the order granting probation, may suspend the imposing or the execution of the sentence and may direct that the suspension may continue for a period of time not exceeding the maximum possible term of the sentence, except as hereinafter set forth, and upon those terms and conditions as it shall determine. The court, or judge thereof, in the order granting probation and as a condition thereof, may imprison the defendant in a county jail for a period not exceeding the maximum time fixed by law in the case. However, where the maximum possible term of the sentence is five years or less, then the period of suspension of imposition or execution of sentence may, in the discretion of the court, continue for not over five years. The following shall apply to this subdivision: (1) The court may fine the defendant in a sum not to exceed the maximum fine provided by law in the case. (2) The court may, in connection with granting probation, impose either imprisonment in a county jail or a fine, both, or neither. (3) The court shall provide for restitution in proper cases. The restitution order shall be fully enforceable as a civil judgment forthwith and in accordance with Section 1202.4 of the Penal Code. (4) The court may require bonds for the faithful observance and performance of any or all of the conditions of probation. (b) The court shall consider whether the defendant as a condition of probation shall make restitution to the victim or the Restitution Fund. Any restitution payment received by a court or probation department in the form of cash or money order shall be forwarded to the victim within 30 days from the date the payment is received by the department. Any restitution payment received by a court or probation department in the form of a check or draft shall be forwarded to the victim within 45 days from the date the payment is received, provided, that payment need not be forwarded to a victim until 180 days from the date the first payment is received, if the restitution payments for that victim received by the court or probation department total less than fifty dollars ($50). In cases where the court has ordered the defendant to pay restitution to multiple victims and where the administrative cost of disbursing restitution payments to multiple victims involves a significant cost, any restitution payment received by a probation department shall be forwarded to multiple victims when it is cost effective to do so, but in no event shall restitution disbursements be delayed beyond 180 days from the date the payment is received by the probation department. (c) In counties or cities and counties where road camps, farms, or other public work is available the court may place the probationer in the road camp, farm, or other public work instead of in jail. In this case, Section 25359 of the Government Code shall apply to probation and the court shall have the same power to require adult probationers to work, as prisoners confined in the county jail are required to work, at public work. Each county board of supervisors may fix the scale of compensation of the adult probationers in that county. (d) In all cases of probation the court may require as a condition of probation that the probationer go to work and earn money for the support of his or her dependents or to pay any fine imposed or reparation condition, to keep an account of his or her earnings, to report them to the probation officer and apply those earnings as directed by the court. (e) The court shall also consider whether the defendant as a condition of probation shall make restitution to a public agency for the costs of an emergency response pursuant to Article 8 (commencing with Section 53150) of Chapter 1 of Part 1 of Division 2 of the Government Code. (f) In all felony cases in which, as a condition of probation, a judge of the superior court sitting by authority of law elsewhere than at the county seat requires a convicted person to serve his or her sentence at intermittent periods the sentence may be served on the order of the judge at the city jail nearest to the place at which the court is sitting, and the cost of his or her maintenance shall be a county charge. (g) (1) The court and prosecuting attorney shall consider whether any defendant who has been convicted of a nonviolent or nonserious offense and ordered to participate in community service as a condition of probation shall be required to engage in the removal of graffiti in the performance of the community service. For the purpose of this subdivision, a nonserious offense shall not include the following: (A) Offenses in violation of the Dangerous  Weapons'   Weapons  Control Law  (Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 12000) of Title 2 of Part 4)   , as defined in   Section 23500  . (B) Offenses involving the use of a dangerous or deadly weapon, including all violations of Section 417. (C) Offenses involving the use or attempted use of violence against the person of another or involving injury to a victim. (D) Offenses involving annoying or molesting children. (2) Notwithstanding subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1), any person who violates  Section 12101   Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 29610) of Division 9 of Title 4 of Part 6  shall be ordered to perform not less than 100 hours and not more than 500 hours of community service as a condition of probation. (3) The court and the prosecuting attorney need not consider a defendant pursuant to paragraph (1) if the following circumstances exist: (A) The defendant was convicted of any offense set forth in subdivision (c) of Section 667.5 or subdivision (c) of Section 1192.7. (B) The judge believes that the public safety may be endangered if the person is ordered to do community service or the judge believes that the facts or circumstances or facts and circumstances call for imposition of a more substantial penalty. (h) The probation officer or his or her designated representative shall consider whether any defendant who has been convicted of a nonviolent and nonserious offense and ordered to participate in community service as a condition of probation shall be required to engage in the performance of house repairs or yard services for senior citizens and the performance of repairs to senior centers through contact with local senior service organizations in the performance of the community service. (i) (1) Upon conviction of any offense involving child abuse or neglect, the court may require, in addition to any or all of the above-mentioned terms of imprisonment, fine, and other reasonable conditions, that the defendant shall participate in counseling or education programs, or both, including, but not limited to, parent education or parenting programs operated by community colleges, school districts, other public agencies, or private agencies. (2) Upon conviction of any sex offense subjecting the defendant to the registration requirements of Section 290, the court may order as a condition of probation, at the request of the victim or in the court's discretion, that the defendant stay away from the victim and the victim's residence or place of employment, and that the defendant have no contact with the victim in person, by telephone or electronic means, or by mail. (j) The court may impose and require any or all of the above-mentioned terms of imprisonment, fine, and conditions, and other reasonable conditions, as it may determine are fitting and proper to the end that justice may be done, that amends may be made to society for the breach of the law, for any injury done to any person resulting from that breach, and generally and specifically for the reformation and rehabilitation of the probationer, and that should the probationer violate any of the terms or conditions imposed by the court in the matter, it shall have authority to modify and change any and all the terms and conditions and to reimprison the probationer in the county jail within the limitations of the penalty of the public offense involved. Upon the defendant being released from the county jail under the terms of probation as originally granted or any modification subsequently made, and in all cases where confinement in a county jail has not been a condition of the grant of probation, the court shall place the defendant or probationer in and under the charge of the probation officer of the court, for the period or term fixed for probation. However, upon the payment of any fine imposed and the fulfillment of all conditions of probation, probation shall cease at the end of the term of probation, or sooner, in the event of modification. In counties and cities and counties in which there are facilities for taking fingerprints, those of each probationer shall be taken and a record of them kept and preserved. (k) Notwithstanding any other provisions of law to the contrary, except as provided in Section 13967, as operative on or before September 28, 1994, of the Government Code and Section 13967.5 of the Government Code and Sections 1202.4, 1463.16, paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 1463.18, and Section 1464, and Section 1203.04, as operative on or before August 2, 1995, all fines collected by a county probation officer in any of the courts of this state, as a condition of the granting of probation or as a part of the terms of probation, shall be paid into the county treasury and placed in the general fund for the use and benefit of the county. (l) If the court orders restitution to be made to the victim, the entity collecting the restitution may add a fee to cover the actual administrative cost of collection, but not to exceed 15 percent of the total amount ordered to be paid. The amount of the fee shall be set by the board of supervisors if it is collected by the county and the fee collected shall be paid into the general fund of the county treasury for the use and benefit of the county. The amount of the fee shall be set by the court if it is collected by the court and the fee collected shall be paid into the Trial Court Operations Fund or account established by Section 77009 of the Government Code for the use and benefit of the court. SEC. 76. Section 1203.4 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 1203.4. (a) In any case in which a defendant has fulfilled the conditions of probation for the entire period of probation, or has been discharged prior to the termination of the period of probation, or in any other case in which a court, in its discretion and the interests of justice, determines that a defendant should be granted the relief available under this section, the defendant shall, at any time after the termination of the period of probation, if he or she is not then serving a sentence for any offense, on probation for any offense, or charged with the commission of any offense, be permitted by the court to withdraw his or her plea of guilty or plea of nolo contendere and enter a plea of not guilty; or, if he or she has been convicted after a plea of not guilty, the court shall set aside the verdict of guilty; and, in either case, the court shall thereupon dismiss the accusations or information against the defendant and except as noted below, he or she shall thereafter be released from all penalties and disabilities resulting from the offense of which he or she has been convicted, except as provided in Section 13555 of the Vehicle Code. The probationer shall be informed, in his or her probation papers, of this right and privilege and his or her right, if any, to petition for a certificate of rehabilitation and pardon. The probationer may make the application and change of plea in person or by attorney, or by the probation officer authorized in writing. However, in any subsequent prosecution of the defendant for any other offense, the prior conviction may be pleaded and proved and shall have the same effect as if probation had not been granted or the accusation or information dismissed. The order shall state, and the probationer shall be informed, that the order does not relieve him or her of the obligation to disclose the conviction in response to any direct question contained in any questionnaire or application for public office, for licensure by any state or local agency, or for contracting with the California State Lottery. Dismissal of an accusation or information pursuant to this section does not permit a person to own, possess, or have in his or her custody or control any firearm or prevent his or her conviction under  Section 12021   Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 29800) of Division 9 of Title 4 of Part 6  . Dismissal of an accusation or information underlying a conviction pursuant to this section does not permit a person prohibited from holding public office as a result of that conviction to hold public office. This subdivision shall apply to all applications for relief under this section which are filed on or after November 23, 1970. (b) Subdivision (a) of this section does not apply to any misdemeanor that is within the provisions of subdivision (b) of Section 42001 of the Vehicle Code, to any violation of subdivision (c) of Section 286, Section 288, subdivision (c) of Section 288a, Section 288.5, or subdivision (j) of Section 289, any felony conviction pursuant to subdivision (d) of Section 261.5, or to any infraction. (c) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), subdivision (a) does not apply to a person who receives a notice to appear or is otherwise charged with a violation of an offense described in subdivisions (a) to (e), inclusive, of Section 12810 of the Vehicle Code. (2) If a defendant who was convicted of a violation listed in paragraph (1) petitions the court, the court in its discretion and in the interests of justice, may order the relief provided pursuant to subdivision (a) to that defendant. (d) A person who petitions for a change of plea or setting aside of a verdict under this section may be required to reimburse the court for the actual costs of services rendered, whether or not the petition is granted and the records are sealed or expunged, at a rate to be determined by the court not to exceed one hundred fifty dollars ($150), and to reimburse the county for the actual costs of services rendered, whether or not the petition is granted and the records are sealed or expunged, at a rate to be determined by the county board of supervisors not to exceed one hundred fifty dollars ($150), and to reimburse any city for the actual costs of services rendered, whether or not the petition is granted and the records are sealed or expunged, at a rate to be determined by the city council not to exceed one hundred fifty dollars ($150). Ability to make this reimbursement shall be determined by the court using the standards set forth in paragraph (2) of subdivision (g) of Section 987.8 and shall not be a prerequisite to a person's eligibility under this section. The court may order reimbursement in any case in which the petitioner appears to have the ability to pay, without undue hardship, all or any portion of the costs for services established pursuant to this subdivision. (e) Relief shall not be granted under this section unless the prosecuting attorney has been given 15 days' notice of the petition for relief. The probation officer shall notify the prosecuting attorney when a petition is filed, pursuant to this section. It shall be presumed that the prosecuting attorney has received notice if proof of service is filed with the court. (f) If, after receiving notice pursuant to subdivision (e), the prosecuting attorney fails to appear and object to a petition for dismissal, the prosecuting attorney may not move to set aside or otherwise appeal the grant of that petition. (g) Notwithstanding the above provisions or any other provision of law, the Governor shall have the right to pardon a person convicted of a violation of subdivision (c) of Section 286, Section 288, subdivision (c) of Section 288a, Section 288.5, or subdivision (j) of Section 289, if there are extraordinary circumstances. SEC. 77. Section 1203.4a of the Penal Code is amended to read: 1203.4a. (a) Every defendant convicted of a misdemeanor and not granted probation shall, at any time after the lapse of one year from the date of pronouncement of judgment, if he or she has fully complied with and performed the sentence of the court, is not then serving a sentence for any offense and is not under charge of commission of any crime and has, since the pronouncement of judgment, lived an honest and upright life and has conformed to and obeyed the laws of the land, be permitted by the court to withdraw his or her plea of guilty or nolo contendere and enter a plea of not guilty; or if he or she has been convicted after a plea of not guilty, the court shall set aside the verdict of guilty; and in either case the court shall thereupon dismiss the accusatory pleading against the defendant, who shall thereafter be released from all penalties and disabilities resulting from the offense of which he or she has been convicted, except as provided in  Section 12021.1   Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 29900) of Division 9 of Title 4 of Part 6  of this code or Section 13555 of the Vehicle Code. The defendant shall be informed of the provisions of this section, either orally or in writing, at the time he or she is sentenced. The defendant may make an application and change of plea in person or by attorney, or by the probation officer authorized in writing; provided, that in any subsequent prosecution of the defendant for any other offense, the prior conviction may be pleaded and proved and shall have the same effect as if relief had not been granted pursuant to this section. This subdivision applies to convictions which occurred before as well as those occurring after, the effective date of this section. (b) Subdivision (a) does not apply to any misdemeanor falling within the provisions of subdivision (b) of Section 42001 of the Vehicle Code, or to any infraction. (c) A person who petitions for a dismissal of a charge under this section may be required to reimburse the county and the court for the cost of services rendered at a rate to be determined by the county board of supervisors for the county and by the court for the court, not to exceed sixty dollars ($60), and to reimburse any city for the cost of services rendered at a rate to be determined by the city council not to exceed sixty dollars ($60). Ability to make this reimbursement shall be determined by the court using the standards set forth in paragraph (2) of subdivision (g) of Section 987.8 and shall not be a prerequisite to a person's eligibility under this section. The court may order reimbursement in any case in which the petitioner appears to have the ability to pay, without undue hardship, all or any portion of the cost for services established pursuant to this subdivision. (d) Any determination of amount made by a court under this section shall be valid only if either (1) made under procedures adopted by the Judicial Council or (2) approved by the Judicial Council. SEC. 78. Section 1210.1 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 1210.1. (a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, and except as provided in subdivision (b), any person convicted of a nonviolent drug possession offense shall receive probation. As a condition of probation the court shall require participation in and completion of an appropriate drug treatment program. The court shall impose appropriate drug testing as a condition of probation. The court may also impose, as a condition of probation, participation in vocational training, family counseling, literacy training and/or community service. A court may not impose incarceration as an additional condition of probation. Aside from the limitations imposed in this subdivision, the trial court is not otherwise limited in the type of probation conditions it may impose. Probation shall be imposed by suspending the imposition of sentence. No person shall be denied the opportunity to benefit from the provisions of the Substance Abuse and Crime Prevention Act of 2000 based solely upon evidence of a co-occurring psychiatric or developmental disorder. To the greatest extent possible, any person who is convicted of, and placed on probation pursuant to this section for a nonviolent drug possession offense shall be monitored by the court through the use of a dedicated court calendar and the incorporation of a collaborative court model of oversight that includes close collaboration with treatment providers and probation, drug testing commensurate with treatment needs, and supervision of progress through review hearings. In addition to any fine assessed under other provisions of law, the trial judge may require any person convicted of a nonviolent drug possession offense who is reasonably able to do so to contribute to the cost of his or her own placement in a drug treatment program. (b) Subdivision (a) shall not apply to any of the following: (1) Any defendant who previously has been convicted of one or more violent or serious felonies as defined in subdivision (c) of Section 667.5 or subdivision (c) of Section 1192.7, respectively, unless the nonviolent drug possession offense occurred after a period of five years in which the defendant remained free of both prison custody and the commission of an offense that results in a felony conviction other than a nonviolent drug possession offense, or a misdemeanor conviction involving physical injury or the threat of physical injury to another person. (2) Any defendant who, in addition to one or more nonviolent drug possession offenses, has been convicted in the same proceeding of a misdemeanor not related to the use of drugs or any felony. (3) Any defendant who, while armed with a deadly weapon, with the intent to use the same as a deadly weapon, unlawfully possesses or is under the influence of any controlled substance identified in Section 11054, 11055, 11056, 11057, or 11058 of the Health and Safety Code. (4) Any defendant who refuses drug treatment as a condition of probation. (5) Any defendant who has two separate convictions for nonviolent drug possession offenses, has participated in two separate courses of drug treatment pursuant to subdivision (a), and is found by the court, by clear and convincing evidence, to be unamenable to any and all forms of available drug treatment, as defined in subdivision (b) of Section 1210. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the trial court shall sentence that defendant to 30 days in jail. (c) (1) Any defendant who has previously been convicted of at least three non-drug-related felonies for which the defendant has served three separate prison terms within the meaning of subdivision (b) of Section 667.5 shall be presumed eligible for treatment under subdivision (a). The court may exclude  such a   the  defendant from treatment under subdivision (a) where the court, pursuant to the motion of the prosecutor or its own motion, finds that the defendant poses a present danger to the safety of others and would not benefit from a drug treatment program. The court shall, on the record, state its findings, the reasons for those findings. (2) Any defendant who has previously been convicted of a misdemeanor or felony at least five times within the prior 30 months shall be presumed to be eligible for treatment under subdivision (a). The court may exclude  such a   the  defendant from treatment under subdivision (a) if the court, pursuant to the motion of the prosecutor, or on its own motion, finds that the defendant poses a present danger to the safety of others or would not benefit from a drug treatment program. The court shall, on the record, state its findings and the reasons for those findings. (d) Within seven days of an order imposing probation under subdivision (a), the probation department shall notify the drug treatment provider designated to provide drug treatment under subdivision (a). Within 30 days of receiving that notice, the treatment provider shall prepare a treatment plan and forward it to the probation department for distribution to the court and counsel. The treatment provider shall provide to the probation department standardized treatment progress reports, with minimum data elements as determined by the department, including all drug testing results. At a minimum, the reports shall be provided to the court every 90 days, or more frequently, as the court directs. (1) If at any point during the course of drug treatment the treatment provider notifies the probation department and the court that the defendant is unamenable to the drug treatment being provided, but may be amenable to other drug treatments or related programs, the probation department may move the court to modify the terms of probation, or on its own motion, the court may modify the terms of probation after a hearing to ensure that the defendant receives the alternative drug treatment or program. (2) If at any point during the course of drug treatment the treatment provider notifies the probation department and the court that the defendant is unamenable to the drug treatment provided and all other forms of drug treatment programs pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 1210, the probation department may move to revoke probation. At the revocation hearing, if it is proved that the defendant is unamenable to all drug treatment programs pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 1210, the court may revoke probation. (3) Drug treatment services provided by subdivision (a) as a required condition of probation may not exceed 12 months, unless the court makes a finding supported by the record, that the continuation of treatment services beyond 12 months is necessary for drug treatment to be successful. If  such a   that  finding is made, the court may order up to two six-month extensions of treatment services. The provision of treatment services under the Substance Abuse and Crime Prevention Act of 2000 shall not exceed 24 months. (e) (1) At any time after completion of drug treatment and the terms of probation, the court shall conduct a hearing, and if the court finds that the defendant successfully completed drug treatment, and substantially complied with the conditions of probation, including refraining from the use of drugs after the completion of treatment, the conviction on which the probation was based shall be set aside and the court shall dismiss the indictment, complaint, or information against the defendant. In addition, except as provided in paragraphs (2) and (3), both the arrest and the conviction shall be deemed never to have occurred. The defendant may additionally petition the court for a dismissal of charges at any time after completion of the prescribed course of drug treatment. Except as provided in paragraph (2) or (3), the defendant shall thereafter be released from all penalties and disabilities resulting from the offense of which he or she has been convicted. (2) Dismissal of an indictment, complaint, or information pursuant to paragraph (1) does not permit a person to own, possess, or have in his or her custody or control any firearm capable of being concealed upon the person or prevent his or her conviction under  Section 12021   Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 29800) of Division 9 of Title 4 of Part 6  . (3) Except as provided below, after an indictment, complaint, or information is dismissed pursuant to paragraph (1), the defendant may indicate in response to any question concerning his or her prior criminal record that he or she was not arrested or convicted for the offense. Except as provided below, a record pertaining to an arrest or conviction resulting in successful completion of a drug treatment program under this section may not, without the defendant's consent, be used in any way that could result in the denial of any employment, benefit, license, or certificate. Regardless of his or her successful completion of drug treatment, the arrest and conviction on which the probation was based may be recorded by the Department of Justice and disclosed in response to any peace officer application request or any law enforcement inquiry. Dismissal of an information, complaint, or indictment under this section does not relieve a defendant of the obligation to disclose the arrest and conviction in response to any direct question contained in any questionnaire or application for public office, for a position as a peace officer as defined in Section 830, for licensure by any state or local agency, for contracting with the California State Lottery, or for purposes of serving on a jury. (f) (1) If probation is revoked pursuant to the provisions of this subdivision, the defendant may be incarcerated pursuant to otherwise applicable law without regard to the provisions of this section. The court may modify or revoke probation if the alleged violation is proved. (2) If a defendant receives probation under subdivision (a), and violates that probation either by committing an offense that is not a nonviolent drug possession offense, or by violating a non-drug-related condition of probation, and the state moves to revoke probation, the court may remand the defendant for a period not exceeding 30 days during which time the court may receive input from treatment, probation, the state, and the defendant, and the court may conduct further hearings as it deems appropriate to determine whether or not probation should be reinstated under this section. If the court reinstates the defendant on probation, the court may modify the treatment plan and any other terms of probation, and continue the defendant in a treatment program under the Substance Abuse and Crime Prevention Act of 2000. If the court reinstates the defendant on probation, the court may, after receiving input from the treatment provider and probation, if available, intensify or alter the treatment plan under subdivision (a), and impose sanctions, including jail sanctions not exceeding 30 days, a tool to enhance treatment compliance. (3) (A) If a defendant receives probation under subdivision (a), and violates that probation either by committing a nonviolent drug possession offense, or a misdemeanor for simple possession or use of drugs or drug paraphernalia, being present where drugs are used, or failure to register as a drug offender, or any activity similar to those listed in subdivision (d) of Section 1210, or by violating a drug-related condition of probation, and the state moves to revoke probation, the court shall conduct a hearing to determine whether probation shall be revoked. The trial court shall revoke probation if the alleged probation violation is proved and the state proves by a preponderance of the evidence that the defendant poses a danger to the safety of others. If the court does not revoke probation, it may intensify or alter the drug treatment plan and in addition, if the violation does not involve the recent use of drugs as a circumstance of the violation, including, but not limited to, violations relating to failure to appear at treatment or court, noncompliance with treatment, and failure to report for drug testing, the court may impose sanctions including jail sanctions that may not exceed 48 hours of continuous custody as a tool to enhance treatment compliance and impose other changes in the terms and conditions of probation. The court shall consider, among other factors, the seriousness of the violation, previous treatment compliance, employment, education, vocational training, medical conditions, medical treatment, including narcotics replacement treatment, and including the opinion of the defendant's licensed and treating physician if immediately available and presented at the hearing, child support obligations, and family responsibilities. The court shall consider additional conditions of probation, which may include, but are not limited to, community service and supervised work programs. If one of the circumstances of the violation involves recent drug use, as well as other circumstances of violation, and the circumstance of recent drug use is demonstrated to the court by satisfactory evidence and a finding made on the record, the court may, after receiving input from treatment and probation, if available, direct the defendant to enter a licensed detoxification or residential treatment facility, and if there is no bed immediately available in  such a   that type of  facility, the court may order that the defendant be confined in a county jail for detoxification purposes only, if the jail offers detoxification services, for a period not to exceed 10 days. The detoxification services must provide narcotic replacement therapy for those defendants presently actually receiving narcotic replacement therapy. (B) If a defendant receives probation under subdivision (a), and for the second time violates that probation either by committing a nonviolent drug possession offense, or a misdemeanor for simple possession or use of drugs or drug paraphernalia, being present where drugs are used, or failure to register as a drug offender, or any activity similar to those listed in subdivision (d) of Section 1210, or by violating a drug-related condition of probation, and the state moves to revoke probation, the court shall conduct a hearing to determine whether probation shall be revoked. The trial court shall revoke probation if the alleged probation violation is proved and the state proves by a preponderance of the evidence either that the defendant poses a danger to the safety of others or is unamenable to drug treatment. In determining whether a defendant is unamenable to drug treatment, the court may consider, to the extent relevant, whether the defendant (i) has committed a serious violation of rules at the drug treatment program, (ii) has repeatedly committed violations of program rules that inhibit the defendant's ability to function in the program, or (iii) has continually refused to participate in the program or asked to be removed from the program. If the court does not revoke probation, it may intensify or alter the drug treatment plan, and may, in addition, if the violation does not involve the recent use of drugs as a circumstance of the violation, including, but not limited to, violations relating to failure to appear at treatment or court, noncompliance with treatment, and failure to report for drug testing, impose sanctions including jail sanctions that may not exceed 120 hours of continuous custody as a tool to enhance treatment compliance and impose other changes in the terms and conditions of probation. The court shall consider, among other factors, the seriousness of the violation, previous treatment compliance, employment, education, vocational training, medical conditions, medical treatment, including narcotics replacement treatment, and including the opinion of the defendant's licensed and treating physician if immediately available and presented at the hearing, child support obligations, and family responsibilities. The court shall consider additional conditions of probation, which may include, but are not limited to, community service and supervised work programs. If one of the circumstances of the violation involves recent drug use, as well as other circumstances of violation, and the circumstance of recent drug use is demonstrated to the court by satisfactory evidence and a finding made on the record, the court may, after receiving input from treatment and probation, if available, direct the defendant to enter a licensed detoxification or residential treatment facility, and if there is no bed immediately available in the facility, the court may order that the defendant be confined in a county jail for detoxification purposes only, if the jail offers detoxification services, for a period not to exceed 10 days. Detoxification services must provide narcotic replacement therapy for those defendants presently actually receiving narcotic replacement therapy. (C) If a defendant receives probation under subdivision (a), and for the third or subsequent time violates that probation either by committing a nonviolent drug possession offense, or by violating a drug-related condition of probation, and the state moves for a third or subsequent time to revoke probation, the court shall conduct a hearing to determine whether probation shall be revoked. If the alleged probation violation is proved, the defendant is not eligible for continued probation under subdivision (a) unless the court determines that the defendant is not a danger to the community and would benefit from further treatment under subdivision (a). The court may then either intensify or alter the treatment plan under subdivision (a) or transfer the defendant to a highly structured drug court. If the court continues the defendant in treatment under subdivision (a), or drug court, the court may impose appropriate sanctions including jail sanctions as the court deems appropriate. (D) If a defendant on probation at the effective date of this act for a nonviolent drug possession offense violates that probation either by committing a nonviolent drug possession offense, or a misdemeanor for simple possession or use of drugs or drug paraphernalia, being present where drugs are used, or failure to register as a drug offender, or any activity similar to those listed in subdivision (d) of Section 1210, or by violating a drug-related condition of probation, and the state moves to revoke probation, the court shall conduct a hearing to determine whether probation shall be revoked. The trial court shall revoke probation if the alleged probation violation is proved and the state proves by a preponderance of the evidence that the defendant poses a danger to the safety of others. If the court does not revoke probation, it may modify or alter the treatment plan, and in addition, if the violation does not involve the recent use of drugs as a circumstance of the violation, including, but not limited to, violations relating to failure to appear at treatment or court, noncompliance with treatment, and failure to report for drug testing, the court may impose sanctions including jail sanctions that may not exceed 48 hours of continuous custody as a tool to enhance treatment compliance and impose other changes in the terms and conditions of probation. The court shall consider, among other factors, the seriousness of the violation, previous treatment compliance, employment, education, vocational training, medical conditions, medical treatment, including narcotics replacement treatment, and including the opinion of the defendant's licensed and treating physician if immediately available and presented at the hearing, child support obligations, and family responsibilities. The court shall consider additional conditions of probation, which may include, but are not limited to, community service and supervised work programs. If one of the circumstances of the violation involves recent drug use, as well as other circumstances of violation, and the circumstance of recent drug use is demonstrated to the court by satisfactory evidence and a finding made on the record, the court may, after receiving input from treatment and probation, if available, direct the defendant to enter a licensed detoxification or residential treatment facility, and if there is no bed immediately available in  such a   that type of  facility, the court may order that the defendant be confined in a county jail for detoxification purposes only, if the jail offers detoxification services, for a period not to exceed 10 days. The detoxification services must provide narcotic replacement therapy for those defendants presently actually receiving narcotic replacement therapy. (E) If a defendant on probation at the effective date of this act for a nonviolent drug possession offense violates that probation a second time either by committing a nonviolent drug possession offense, or a misdemeanor for simple possession or use of drugs or drug paraphernalia, being present where drugs are used, or failure to register as a drug offender, or any activity similar to those listed in subdivision (d) of Section 1210, or by violating a drug-related condition of probation, and the state moves for a second time to revoke probation, the court shall conduct a hearing to determine whether probation shall be revoked. The trial court shall revoke probation if the alleged probation violation is proved and the state proves by a preponderance of the evidence either that the defendant poses a danger to the safety of others or that the defendant is unamenable to drug treatment. If the court does not revoke probation, it may modify or alter the treatment plan, and in addition, if the violation does not involve the recent use of drugs as a circumstance of the violation, including, but not limited to, violations relating to failure to appear at treatment or court, noncompliance with treatment, and failure to report for drug testing, the court may impose sanctions including jail sanctions that may not exceed 120 hours of continuous custody as a tool to enhance treatment compliance and impose other changes in the terms and conditions of probation. The court shall consider, among other factors, the seriousness of the violation, previous treatment compliance, employment, education, vocational training, medical conditions, medical treatment including narcotics replacement treatment, and including the opinion of the defendant's licensed and treating physician if immediately available and presented at the hearing, child support obligations, and family responsibilities. The court shall consider additional conditions of probation, which may include, but are not limited to, community service and supervised work programs. If one of the circumstances of the violation involves recent drug use, as well as other circumstances of violation, and the circumstance of recent drug use is demonstrated to the court by satisfactory evidence and a finding made on the record, the court may, after receiving input from treatment and probation, if available, direct the defendant to enter a licensed detoxification or residential treatment facility, and if there is no bed immediately available in  such a   that type of  facility, the court may order that the defendant be confined in a county jail for detoxification purposes only, if the jail offers detoxification services, for a period not to exceed 10 days. The detoxification services must provide narcotic replacement therapy for those defendants presently actually receiving narcotic replacement therapy. (F) If a defendant on probation at the effective date of this act for a nonviolent drug offense violates that probation a third or subsequent time either by committing a nonviolent drug possession offense, or by violating a drug-related condition of probation, and the state moves for a third or subsequent time to revoke probation, the court shall conduct a hearing to determine whether probation shall be revoked. If the alleged probation violation is proved, the defendant is not eligible for continued probation under subdivision (a), unless the court determines that the defendant is not a danger to the community and would benefit from further treatment under subdivision (a). The court may then either intensify or alter the treatment plan under subdivision (a) or transfer the defendant to a highly structured drug court. If the court continues the defendant in treatment under subdivision (a), or drug court, the court may impose appropriate sanctions including jail sanctions. (g) The term "drug-related condition of probation" shall include a probationer's specific drug treatment regimen, employment, vocational training, educational programs, psychological counseling, and family counseling. SEC. 79. Section 1524 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 1524. (a) A search warrant may be issued upon any of the following grounds: (1) When the property was stolen or embezzled. (2) When the property or things were used as the means of committing a felony. (3) When the property or things are in the possession of any person with the intent to use them as a means of committing a public offense, or in the possession of another to whom he or she may have delivered them for the purpose of concealing them or preventing them from being discovered. (4) When the property or things to be seized consist of any item or constitute any evidence that tends to show a felony has been committed, or tends to show that a particular person has committed a felony. (5) When the property or things to be seized consist of evidence that tends to show that sexual exploitation of a child, in violation of Section 311.3, or possession of matter depicting sexual conduct of a person under the age of 18 years, in violation of Section 311.11, has occurred or is occurring. (6) When there is a warrant to arrest a person. (7) When a provider of electronic communication service or remote computing service has records or evidence, as specified in Section 1524.3, showing that property was stolen or embezzled constituting a misdemeanor, or that property or things are in the possession of any person with the intent to use them as a means of committing a misdemeanor public offense, or in the possession of another to whom he or she may have delivered them for the purpose of concealing them or preventing their discovery. (8) When the property or things to be seized include an item or any evidence that tends to show a violation of Section 3700.5 of the Labor Code, or tends to show that a particular person has violated Section 3700.5 of the Labor Code. (9) When the property or things to be seized include a firearm or any other deadly weapon at the scene of, or at the premises occupied or under the control of the person arrested in connection with, a domestic violence incident involving a threat to human life or a physical assault as provided in  subdivision (b) of Section 12028.5   Section 18250  . This section does not affect warrantless seizures otherwise authorized by  subdivision (b) of Section 12028.5   Section 18250  . (10) When the property or things to be seized include a firearm or any other deadly weapon that is owned by, or in the possession of, or in the custody or control of, a person described in subdivision (a) of Section 8102 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. (11) When the property or things to be seized include a firearm that is owned by, or in the possession of, or in the custody or control of, a person who is subject to the prohibitions regarding firearms pursuant to Section 6389 of the Family Code, if a prohibited firearm is possessed, owned, in the custody of, or controlled by a person against whom a protective order has been issued pursuant to Section 6218 of the Family Code, the person has been lawfully served with that order, and the person has failed to relinquish the firearm as required by law. (b) The property, things, person, or persons described in subdivision (a) may be taken on the warrant from any place, or from any person in whose possession the property or things may be. (c) Notwithstanding subdivision (a) or (b), no search warrant shall issue for any documentary evidence in the possession or under the control of any person who is a lawyer as defined in Section 950 of the Evidence Code, a physician as defined in Section 990 of the Evidence Code, a psychotherapist as defined in Section 1010 of the Evidence Code, or a member of the clergy as defined in Section 1030 of the Evidence Code, and who is not reasonably suspected of engaging or having engaged in criminal activity related to the documentary evidence for which a warrant is requested unless the following procedure has been complied with: (1) At the time of the issuance of the warrant, the court shall appoint a special master in accordance with subdivision (d) to accompany the person who will serve the warrant. Upon service of the warrant, the special master shall inform the party served of the specific items being sought and that the party shall have the opportunity to provide the items requested. If the party, in the judgment of the special master, fails to provide the items requested, the special master shall conduct a search for the items in the areas indicated in the search warrant. (2) (A) If the party who has been served states that an item or items should not be disclosed, they shall be sealed by the special master and taken to court for a hearing. (B) At the hearing, the party searched shall be entitled to raise any issues that may be raised pursuant to Section 1538.5 as well as a claim that the item or items are privileged, as provided by law. The hearing shall be held in the superior court. The court shall provide sufficient time for the parties to obtain counsel and make any motions or present any evidence. The hearing shall be held within three days of the service of the warrant unless the court makes a finding that the expedited hearing is impracticable. In that case the matter shall be heard at the earliest possible time. (C) If an item or items are taken to court for a hearing, any limitations of time prescribed in Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 799) of Title 3 of Part 2 shall be tolled from the time of the seizure until the final conclusion of the hearing, including any associated writ or appellate proceedings. (3) The warrant shall, whenever practicable, be served during normal business hours. In addition, the warrant shall be served upon a party who appears to have possession or control of the items sought. If, after reasonable efforts, the party serving the warrant is unable to locate the person, the special master shall seal and return to the court, for determination by the court, any item that appears to be privileged as provided by law. (d) (1) As used in this section, a "special master" is an attorney who is a member in good standing of the California State Bar and who has been selected from a list of qualified attorneys that is maintained by the State Bar particularly for the purposes of conducting the searches described in this section. These attorneys shall serve without compensation. A special master shall be considered a public employee, and the governmental entity that caused the search warrant to be issued shall be considered the employer of the special master and the applicable public entity, for purposes of Division 3.6 (commencing with Section 810) of Title 1 of the Government Code, relating to claims and actions against public entities and public employees. In selecting the special master, the court shall make every reasonable effort to ensure that the person selected has no relationship with any of the parties involved in the pending matter. Any information obtained by the special master shall be confidential and may not be divulged except in direct response to inquiry by the court. (2) In any case in which the magistrate determines that, after reasonable efforts have been made to obtain a special master, a special master is not available and would not be available within a reasonable period of time, the magistrate may direct the party seeking the order to conduct the search in the manner described in this section in lieu of the special master. (e) Any search conducted pursuant to this section by a special master may be conducted in a manner that permits the party serving the warrant or his or her designee to accompany the special master as he or she conducts his or her search. However, that party or his or her designee may not participate in the search nor shall he or she examine any of the items being searched by the special master except upon agreement of the party upon whom the warrant has been served. (f) As used in this section, "documentary evidence" includes, but is not limited to, writings, documents, blueprints, drawings, photographs, computer printouts, microfilms, X-rays, files, diagrams, ledgers, books, tapes, audio and video recordings, films, and papers of any type or description. (g) No warrant shall issue for any item or items described in Section 1070 of the Evidence Code. (h) Notwithstanding any other law, no claim of attorney work product as described in Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 2018.010) of Title 4 of Part 4 of the Code of Civil Procedure shall be sustained where there is probable cause to believe that the lawyer is engaging or has engaged in criminal activity related to the documentary evidence for which a warrant is requested unless it is established at the hearing with respect to the documentary evidence seized under the warrant that the services of the lawyer were not sought or obtained to enable or aid anyone to commit or plan to commit a crime or a fraud. (i) Nothing in this section is intended to limit an attorney's ability to request an in camera hearing pursuant to the holding of the Supreme Court of California in People v. Superior Court (Laff) (2001) 25 Cal.4th 703. (j) In addition to any other circumstance permitting a magistrate to issue a warrant for a person or property in another county, when the property or things to be seized consist of any item or constitute any evidence that tends to show a violation of Section 530.5, the magistrate may issue a warrant to search a person or property located in another county if the person whose identifying information was taken or used resides in the same county as the issuing court. SEC. 80. Section 1601 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 1601. (a) In the case of any person charged with and found incompetent on a charge of, convicted of, or found not guilty by reason of insanity of murder, mayhem, aggravated mayhem, a violation of Section 207, 209, or 209.5 in which the victim suffers intentionally inflicted great bodily injury, robbery or carjacking with a deadly or dangerous weapon or in which the victim suffers great bodily injury, a violation of subdivision (a) or (b) of Section 451, a violation of paragraph (2), (3), or (6) of subdivision (a) of Section 261, a violation of paragraph (1) or (4) of subdivision (a) of Section 262, a violation of Section 459 in the first degree, a violation of Section 220 in which the victim suffers great bodily injury, a violation of Section 288, a violation of Section  12303.1, 12303.2, 12303.3, 12308, 12309, or 12310   18715, 18725, 18740, 18745, 18750, or 18755  , or any felony involving death, great bodily injury, or an act which poses a serious threat of bodily harm to another person, outpatient status under this title shall not be available until that person has actually been confined in a state hospital or other facility for 180 days or more after having been committed under the provisions of law specified in Section 1600. (b) In the case of any person charged with, and found incompetent on a charge of, or convicted of, any misdemeanor or any felony other than those described in subdivision (a), or found not guilty of any misdemeanor by reason of insanity, outpatient status under this title may be granted by the court prior to actual confinement in a state hospital or other treatment facility under the provisions of law specified in Section 1600. SEC. 81. Section 2933.5 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 2933.5. (a) (1) Notwithstanding any other law, every person who is convicted of any felony offense listed in paragraph (2), and who previously has been convicted two or more times, on charges separately brought and tried, and who previously has served two or more separate prior prison terms, as defined in subdivision (g) of Section 667.5, of any offense or offenses listed in paragraph (2), shall be ineligible to earn credit on his or her term of imprisonment pursuant to this article. (2) As used in this subdivision, "felony offense" includes any of the following: (A) Murder, as defined in Sections 187 and 189. (B) Voluntary manslaughter, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 192. (C) Mayhem as defined in Section 203. (D) Aggravated mayhem, as defined in Section 205. (E) Kidnapping, as defined in Section 207, 209, or 209.5. (F) Assault with vitriol, corrosive acid, or caustic chemical of any nature, as described in Section 244. (G) Rape, as defined in paragraph (2) or (6) of subdivision (a) of Section 261 or paragraph (1) or (4) of subdivision (a) of Section 262. (H) Sodomy by means of force, violence, duress, menace or fear of immediate and unlawful bodily injury on the victim or another person, as described in subdivision (c) of Section 286. (I) Sodomy while voluntarily acting in concert, as described in subdivision (d) of Section 286. (J) Lewd or lascivious acts on a child under the age of 14 years, as described in subdivision (b) of Section 288. (K) Oral copulation by means of force, violence, duress, menace, or fear of immediate and unlawful bodily injury on the victim or another person, as described in subdivision (c) of Section 288a. (L) Continuous sexual abuse of a child, as described in Section 288.5. (M) Sexual penetration, as described in subdivision (a) of Section 289. (N) Exploding a destructive device or explosive with intent to injure, as described in Section 12303.3, with intent to murder, as described in Section  12308   18745  , or resulting in great bodily injury or mayhem, as described in Section  12309   18750  . (O) Any felony in which the defendant personally inflicted great bodily injury, as provided in Section 12022.53 or 12022.7. (b) A prior conviction of an offense listed in subdivision (a) shall include a conviction in another jurisdiction for an offense which includes all of the elements of the particular felony as defined under California law. (c) This section shall apply whenever the present felony is committed on or after the effective date of this section, regardless of the date of commission of the prior offense or offenses resulting in credit-earning ineligibility. (d) This section shall be in addition to, and shall not preclude the imposition of, any applicable sentence enhancement terms, or probation ineligibility and habitual offender provisions authorized under any other section. SEC. 82. Section 2962 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 2962. As a condition of parole, a prisoner who meets the following criteria shall be required to be treated by the State Department of Mental Health, and the State Department of Mental Health shall provide the necessary treatment: (a) The prisoner has a severe mental disorder that is not in remission or cannot be kept in remission without treatment. The term "severe mental disorder" means an illness or disease or condition that substantially impairs the person's thought, perception of reality, emotional process, or judgment; or which grossly impairs behavior; or that demonstrates evidence of an acute brain syndrome for which prompt remission, in the absence of treatment, is unlikely. The term "severe mental disorder" as used in this section does not include a personality or adjustment disorder, epilepsy, mental retardation or other developmental disabilities, or addiction to or abuse of intoxicating substances. The term "remission" means a finding that the overt signs and symptoms of the severe mental disorder are controlled either by psychotropic medication or psychosocial support. A person "cannot be kept in remission without treatment" if during the year prior to the question being before the Board of Prison Terms or a trial court, he or she has been in remission and he or she has been physically violent, except in self-defense, or he or she has made a serious threat of substantial physical harm upon the person of another so as to cause the target of the threat to reasonably fear for his or her safety or the safety of his or her immediate family, or he or she has intentionally caused property damage, or he or she has not voluntarily followed the treatment plan. In determining if a person has voluntarily followed the treatment plan, the standard shall be whether the person has acted as a reasonable person would in following the treatment plan. (b) The severe mental disorder was one of the causes of or was an aggravating factor in the commission of a crime for which the prisoner was sentenced to prison. (c) The prisoner has been in treatment for the severe mental disorder for 90 days or more within the year prior to the prisoner's parole or release. (d) (1) Prior to release on parole, the person in charge of treating the prisoner and a practicing psychiatrist or psychologist from the State Department of Mental Health have evaluated the prisoner at a facility of the Department of Corrections, and a chief psychiatrist of the Department of Corrections has certified to the Board of Prison Terms that the prisoner has a severe mental disorder, that the disorder is not in remission, or cannot be kept in remission without treatment, that the severe mental disorder was one of the causes or was an aggravating factor in the prisoner's criminal behavior, that the prisoner has been in treatment for the severe mental disorder for 90 days or more within the year prior to his or her parole release day, and that by reason of his or her severe mental disorder the prisoner represents a substantial danger of physical harm to others. For prisoners being treated by the State Department of Mental Health pursuant to Section 2684, the certification shall be by a chief psychiatrist of the Department of Corrections, and the evaluation shall be done at a state hospital by the person at the state hospital in charge of treating the prisoner and a practicing psychiatrist or psychologist from the Department of Corrections. (2) If the professionals doing the evaluation pursuant to paragraph (1) do not concur that (A) the prisoner has a severe mental disorder, (B) that the disorder is not in remission or cannot be kept in remission without treatment, or (C) that the severe mental disorder was a cause of, or aggravated, the prisoner's criminal behavior, and a chief psychiatrist has certified the prisoner to the Board of Prison Terms pursuant to this paragraph, then the Board of Prison Terms shall order a further examination by two independent professionals, as provided for in Section 2978. (3) Only if both independent professionals who evaluate the prisoner pursuant to paragraph (2) concur with the chief psychiatrist' s certification of the issues described in paragraph (2), shall this subdivision be applicable to the prisoner. The professionals appointed pursuant to Section 2978 shall inform the prisoner that the purpose of their examination is not treatment but to determine if the prisoner meets certain criteria to be involuntarily treated as a mentally disordered offender. It is not required that the prisoner appreciate or understand that information. (e) The crime referred to in subdivision (b) meets both of the following criteria: (1) The defendant received a determinate sentence pursuant to Section 1170 for the crime. (2) The crime is one of the following: (A) Voluntary manslaughter. (B) Mayhem. (C) Kidnapping in violation of Section 207. (D) Any robbery wherein it was charged and proved that the defendant personally used a deadly or dangerous weapon, as provided in subdivision (b) of Section 12022, in the commission of that robbery. (E) Carjacking, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 215, if it is charged and proved that the defendant personally used a deadly or dangerous weapon, as provided in subdivision (b) of Section 12022, in the commission of the carjacking. (F) Rape, as defined in paragraph (2) or (6) of subdivision (a) of Section 261 or paragraph (1) or (4) of subdivision (a) of Section 262. (G) Sodomy by force, violence, duress, menace, or fear of immediate and unlawful bodily injury on the victim or another person. (H) Oral copulation by force, violence, duress, menace, or fear of immediate and unlawful bodily injury on the victim or another person. (I) Lewd acts on a child under the age of 14 years in violation of Section 288. (J) Continuous sexual abuse in violation of Section 288.5. (K) The offense described in subdivision (a) of Section 289 where the act was accomplished against the victim's will by force, violence, duress, menace, or fear of immediate and unlawful bodily injury on the victim or another person. (L) Arson in violation of subdivision (a) of Section 451, or arson in violation of any other provision of Section 451 or in violation of Section 455 where the act posed a substantial danger of physical harm to others. (M) Any felony in which the defendant used a firearm which use was charged and proved as provided in Section 12022.5, 12022.53, or 12022.55. (N) A violation of Section  12308   18745  . (O) Attempted murder. (P) A crime not enumerated in subparagraphs (A) to (O), inclusive, in which the prisoner used force or violence, or caused serious bodily injury as defined in paragraph (4) of subdivision (f) of Section 243. (Q) A crime in which the perpetrator expressly or impliedly threatened another with the use of force or violence likely to produce substantial physical harm in such a manner that a reasonable person would believe and expect that the force or violence would be used. For purposes of this subparagraph, substantial physical harm shall not require proof that the threatened act was likely to cause great or serious bodily injury. (f) As used in this chapter, "substantial danger of physical harm" does not require proof of a recent overt act. SEC. 83. Section 3057 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 3057. (a) Confinement pursuant to a revocation of parole in the absence of a new conviction and commitment to prison under other provisions of law, shall not exceed 12 months, except as provided in subdivision (c). (b) Upon completion of confinement pursuant to parole revocation without a new commitment to prison, the inmate shall be released on parole for a period which shall not extend beyond that portion of the maximum statutory period of parole specified by Section 3000 which was unexpired at the time of each revocation. (c) Notwithstanding the limitations in subdivision (a) and in Section 3060.5 upon confinement pursuant to a parole revocation, the parole authority may extend the confinement pursuant to parole revocation for a maximum of an additional 12 months for subsequent acts of misconduct committed by the parolee while confined pursuant to that parole revocation. Upon a finding of good cause to believe that a parolee has committed a subsequent act of misconduct and utilizing procedures governing parole revocation proceedings, the parole authority may extend the period of confinement pursuant to parole revocation as follows: (1) not more than 180 days for an act punishable as a felony, whether or not prosecution is undertaken, (2) not more than 90 days for an act punishable as a misdemeanor, whether or not prosecution is undertaken, and (3) not more than 30 days for an act defined as a serious disciplinary offense pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 2932. (d) (1) Except for parolees specified in paragraph (2), any revocation period imposed under subdivision (a) may be reduced in the same manner and to the same extent as a term of imprisonment may be reduced by worktime credits under Section 2933. Worktime credit must be earned and may be forfeited pursuant to the provisions of Section 2932. Worktime credit forfeited shall not be restored. (2) The following parolees shall not be eligible for credit under this subdivision: (A) Parolees who are sentenced under Section 1168 with a maximum term of life imprisonment. (B) Parolees who violated a condition of parole relating to association with specified persons, entering prohibited areas, attendance at parole outpatient clinics, or psychiatric attention. (C) Parolees who were revoked for conduct described in, or that could be prosecuted under any of the following sections, whether or not prosecution is undertaken: Section 189, Section 191.5, subdivision (a) of Section 192, subdivision (a) of Section 192.5, Section 203, 207, 211, 215, 217.1, or 220, subdivision (b) of Section 241, Section 244, paragraph (1) or (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 245, paragraph (2) or (6) of subdivision (a) of Section 261, paragraph (1) or (4) of subdivision (a) of Section 262, Section 264.1, subdivision (c) or (d) of Section 286, Section 288, subdivision (c) or (d) of Section 288a, subdivision (a) of Section 289, 347, or 404, subdivision (a) of Section 451, Section  12020, 12021,  12022, 12022.5, 12022.53, 12022.7, 12022.8,  12025, or 12560,   or 25400, Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 29800) of Division 9   of Title 4 of Part 6, any provision listed in Section 16590,  or Section 664 for any attempt to engage in conduct described in or that could be prosecuted under any of the above-mentioned sections. (D) Parolees who were revoked for any reason if they had been granted parole after conviction of any of the offenses specified in subparagraph (C). (E) Parolees who the parole authority finds at a revocation hearing to be unsuitable for reduction of the period of confinement because of the circumstances and gravity of the parole violation, or because of prior criminal history. SEC. 84. Section 4852.03 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 4852.03. (a) The period of rehabilitation shall begin to run upon the discharge of the petitioner from custody due to his or her completion of the term to which he or she was sentenced or upon his or her release on parole or probation, whichever is sooner. For purposes of this chapter, the period of rehabilitation shall constitute five years' residence in this state, plus a period of time determined by the following rules: (1) To the five years there shall be added four years in the case of any person convicted of violating Section 187, 209, 219, 4500 or  12310   18755  of this code, or subdivision (a) of Section 1672 of the Military and Veterans Code, or of committing any other offense which carries a life sentence. (2) To the five years there shall be added five years in the case of any person convicted of committing any offense or attempted offense for which sex offender registration is required pursuant to Section 290, except for convictions for violations of subdivision (b), (c), or (d) of Section 311.2, or of Section 311.3, 311.10, or 314. For those convictions, two years shall be added to the five years imposed by this section. (3) To the five years there shall be added two years in the case of any person convicted of committing any offense that is not listed in paragraph (1) or paragraph (2) and that does not carry a life sentence. (4) The trial court hearing the application for the certificate of rehabilitation may, if the defendant was ordered to serve consecutive sentences, order that his or her statutory period of rehabilitation be extended for an additional period of time which when combined with the time already served will not exceed the period prescribed by statute for the sum of the maximum penalties for all the crimes. (5) Any person who was discharged after completion of his or her term or was released on parole before May 13, 1943, is not subject to the periods of rehabilitation set forth in these rules. (b) Unless and until the period of rehabilitation, as stipulated in this section, has passed, the petitioner shall be ineligible to file his or her petition for a certificate of rehabilitation with the court. Any certificate of rehabilitation that is issued and under which the petitioner has not fulfilled the requirements of this chapter shall be void. (c) A change of residence within this state does not interrupt the period of rehabilitation prescribed by this section. SEC. 85. Section 4852.17 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 4852.17. Whenever a person is issued a certificate of rehabilitation or granted a pardon from the Governor under this chapter, the fact shall be immediately reported to the Department of Justice by the court, Governor, officer, or governmental agency by whose official action the certificate is issued or the pardon granted. The Department of Justice shall immediately record the facts so reported on the former criminal record of the person, and transmit those facts to the Federal Bureau of Investigation at Washington, D.C. When the criminal record is thereafter reported by the department, it shall also report the fact that the person has received a certificate of rehabilitation, or pardon, or both. Whenever a person is granted a full and unconditional pardon by the Governor, based upon a certificate of rehabilitation, the pardon shall entitle the person to exercise thereafter all civil and political rights of citizenship, including but not limited to: (1) the right to vote; (2) the right to own, possess, and keep any type of firearm that may lawfully be owned and possessed by other citizens; except that this right shall not be restored, and Sections  12001 and 12021   17800 and 23510 and Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 29800) of Division 9 of Title 4 of Part 6  shall apply, if the person was ever convicted of a felony involving the use of a dangerous weapon. SEC. 86. Section 4854 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 4854. In the granting of a pardon to a person, the Governor may provide that the person is entitled to exercise the right to own, possess and keep any type of firearm that may lawfully be owned and possessed by other citizens; except that this right shall not be restored, and Sections  12001 and 12021   17800 and 23510 and Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 29800) of Division 9 of Title 4 of Part 6  shall apply, if the person was ever convicted of a felony involving the use of a dangerous weapon. SEC. 87. Section 11105 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 11105. (a) (1) The Department of Justice shall maintain state summary criminal history information. (2) As used in this section: (A) "State summary criminal history information" means the master record of information compiled by the Attorney General pertaining to the identification and criminal history of any person, such as name, date of birth, physical description, fingerprints, photographs, date of arrests, arresting agencies and booking numbers, charges, dispositions, and similar data about the person. (B) "State summary criminal history information" does not refer to records and data compiled by criminal justice agencies other than the Attorney General, nor does it refer to records of complaints to or investigations conducted by, or records of intelligence information or security procedures of, the office of the Attorney General and the Department of Justice. (b) The Attorney General shall furnish state summary criminal history information to any of the following, if needed in the course of their duties, provided that when information is furnished to assist an agency, officer, or official of state or local government, a public utility, or any other entity, in fulfilling employment, certification, or licensing duties, Chapter 1321 of the Statutes of 1974 and Section 432.7 of the Labor Code shall apply: (1) The courts of the state. (2) Peace officers of the state, as defined in Section 830.1, subdivisions (a) and (e) of Section 830.2, subdivision (a) of Section 830.3, subdivisions (a) and (b) of Section 830.5, and subdivision (a) of Section 830.31. (3) District attorneys of the state. (4) Prosecuting city attorneys of any city within the state. (5) City attorneys pursuing civil gang injunctions pursuant to Section 186.22a, or drug abatement actions pursuant to Section 3479 or 3480 of the Civil Code, or Section 11571 of the Health and Safety Code. (6) Probation officers of the state. (7) Parole officers of the state. (8) A public defender or attorney of record when representing a person in proceedings upon a petition for a certificate of rehabilitation and pardon pursuant to Section 4852.08. (9) A public defender or attorney of record when representing a person in a criminal case, or parole revocation or revocation extension proceeding, and if authorized access by statutory or decisional law. (10) Any agency, officer, or official of the state if the criminal history information is required to implement a statute or regulation that expressly refers to specific criminal conduct applicable to the subject person of the state summary criminal history information, and contains requirements or exclusions, or both, expressly based upon that specified criminal conduct. The agency, officer, or official of the state authorized by this paragraph to receive state summary criminal history information may also transmit fingerprint images and related information to the Department of Justice to be transmitted to the Federal Bureau of Investigation. (11) Any city or county, city and county, district, or any officer or official thereof if access is needed in order to assist that agency, officer, or official in fulfilling employment, certification, or licensing duties, and if the access is specifically authorized by the city council, board of supervisors, or governing board of the city, county, or district if the criminal history information is required to implement a statute, ordinance, or regulation that expressly refers to specific criminal conduct applicable to the subject person of the state summary criminal history information, and contains requirements or exclusions, or both, expressly based upon that specified criminal conduct. The city or county, city and county, district, or the officer or official thereof authorized by this paragraph may also transmit fingerprint images and related information to the Department of Justice to be transmitted to the Federal Bureau of Investigation. (12) The subject of the state summary criminal history information under procedures established under Article 5 (commencing with Section 11120). (13) Any person or entity when access is expressly authorized by statute if the criminal history information is required to implement a statute or regulation that expressly refers to specific criminal conduct applicable to the subject person of the state summary criminal history information, and contains requirements or exclusions, or both, expressly based upon that specified criminal conduct. (14) Health officers of a city, county, city and county, or district when in the performance of their official duties enforcing Section 120175 of the Health and Safety Code. (15) Any managing or supervising correctional officer of a county jail or other county correctional facility. (16) Any humane society, or society for the prevention of cruelty to animals, for the specific purpose of complying with Section 14502 of the Corporations Code for the appointment of level 1 humane officers. (17) Local child support agencies established by Section 17304 of the Family Code. When a local child support agency closes a support enforcement case containing summary criminal history information, the agency shall delete or purge from the file and destroy any documents or information concerning or arising from offenses for or of which the parent has been arrested, charged, or convicted, other than for offenses related to the parent's having failed to provide support for minor children, consistent with the requirements of Section 17531 of the Family Code. (18) County child welfare agency personnel who have been delegated the authority of county probation officers to access state summary criminal history information pursuant to Section 272 of the Welfare and Institutions Code for the purposes specified in Section 16504.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. Information from criminal history records provided pursuant to this subdivision shall not be used for any purposes other than those specified in this section and Section 16504.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. When an agency obtains records obtained both on the basis of name checks and fingerprint checks, final placement decisions shall be based only on the records obtained pursuant to the fingerprint check. (19) The court of a tribe, or court of a consortium of tribes, that has entered into an agreement with the state pursuant to Section 10553.1 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. This information may be used only for the purposes specified in Section 16504.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code and for tribal approval or tribal licensing of foster care or adoptive homes. Article 6 (commencing with Section 11140) shall apply to officers, members, and employees of a tribal court receiving criminal record offender information pursuant to this section. (20) Child welfare agency personnel of a tribe or consortium of tribes that has entered into an agreement with the state pursuant to Section 10553.1 of the Welfare and Institutions Code and to whom the state has delegated duties under paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 272 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. The purposes for use of the information shall be for the purposes specified in Section 16504.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code and for tribal approval or tribal licensing of foster care or adoptive homes. When an agency obtains records on the basis of name checks and fingerprint checks, final placement decisions shall be based only on the records obtained pursuant to the fingerprint check. Article 6 (commencing with Section 11140) shall apply to child welfare agency personnel receiving criminal record offender information pursuant to this section. (21) An officer providing conservatorship investigations pursuant to Sections 5351, 5354, and 5356 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. (22) A court investigator providing investigations or reviews in conservatorships pursuant to Section 1826, 1850, 1851, or 2250.6 of the Probate Code. (23) A person authorized to conduct a guardianship investigation pursuant to Section 1513 of the Probate Code. (c) The Attorney General may furnish state summary criminal history information and, when specifically authorized by this subdivision, federal level criminal history information upon a showing of a compelling need to any of the following, provided that when information is furnished to assist an agency, officer, or official of state or local government, a public utility, or any other entity in fulfilling employment, certification, or licensing duties, Chapter 1321 of the Statutes of 1974 and Section 432.7 of the Labor Code shall apply: (1) Any public utility, as defined in Section 216 of the Public Utilities Code, that operates a nuclear energy facility when access is needed in order to assist in employing persons to work at the facility, provided that, if the Attorney General supplies the data, he or she shall furnish a copy of the data to the person to whom the data relates. (2) To a peace officer of the state other than those included in subdivision (b). (3) To an illegal dumping enforcement officer as defined in subdivision (j) of Section 830.7. (4) To a peace officer of another country. (5) To public officers, other than peace officers, of the United States, other states, or possessions or territories of the United States, provided that access to records similar to state summary criminal history information is expressly authorized by a statute of the United States, other states, or possessions or territories of the United States if the information is needed for the performance of their official duties. (6) To any person when disclosure is requested by a probation, parole, or peace officer with the consent of the subject of the state summary criminal history information and for purposes of furthering the rehabilitation of the subject. (7) The courts of the United States, other states, or territories or possessions of the United States. (8) Peace officers of the United States, other states, or territories or possessions of the United States. (9) To any individual who is the subject of the record requested if needed in conjunction with an application to enter the United States or any foreign nation. (10) (A) Any public utility, as defined in Section 216 of the Public Utilities Code, or any cable corporation as defined in subparagraph (B), if receipt of criminal history information is needed in order to assist in employing current or prospective employees, contract employees, or subcontract employees who, in the course of their employment may be seeking entrance to private residences or adjacent grounds. The information provided shall be limited to the record of convictions and any arrest for which the person is released on bail or on his or her own recognizance pending trial. If the Attorney General supplies the data pursuant to this paragraph, the Attorney General shall furnish a copy of the data to the current or prospective employee to whom the data relates. Any information obtained from the state summary criminal history is confidential and the receiving public utility or cable corporation shall not disclose its contents, other than for the purpose for which it was acquired. The state summary criminal history information in the possession of the public utility or cable corporation and all copies made from it shall be destroyed not more than 30 days after employment or promotion or transfer is denied or granted, except for those cases where a current or prospective employee is out on bail or on his or her own recognizance pending trial, in which case the state summary criminal history information and all copies shall be destroyed not more than 30 days after the case is resolved. A violation of this paragraph is a misdemeanor, and shall give the current or prospective employee who is injured by the violation a cause of action against the public utility or cable corporation to recover damages proximately caused by the violations. Any public utility's or cable corporation's request for state summary criminal history information for purposes of employing current or prospective employees who may be seeking entrance to private residences or adjacent grounds in the course of their employment shall be deemed a "compelling need" as required to be shown in this subdivision. Nothing in this section shall be construed as imposing any duty upon public utilities or cable corporations to request state summary criminal history information on any current or prospective employees. (B) For purposes of this paragraph, "cable corporation" means any corporation or firm that transmits or provides television, computer, or telephone services by cable, digital, fiber optic, satellite, or comparable technology to subscribers for a fee. (C) Requests for federal level criminal history information received by the Department of Justice from entities authorized pursuant to subparagraph (A) shall be forwarded to the Federal Bureau of Investigation by the Department of Justice. Federal level criminal history information received or compiled by the Department of Justice may then be disseminated to the entities referenced in subparagraph (A), as authorized by law. (D) (i) Authority for a cable corporation to request state or federal level criminal history information under this paragraph shall commence July 1, 2005. (ii) Authority for a public utility to request federal level criminal history information under this paragraph shall commence July 1, 2005. (11) To any campus of the California State University or the University of California, or any four year college or university accredited by a regional accreditation organization approved by the United States Department of Education, if needed in conjunction with an application for admission by a convicted felon to any special education program for convicted felons, including, but not limited to, university alternatives and halfway houses. Only conviction information shall be furnished. The college or university may require the convicted felon to be fingerprinted, and any inquiry to the department under this section shall include the convicted felon's fingerprints and any other information specified by the department. (12) To any foreign government, if requested by the individual who is the subject of the record requested, if needed in conjunction with the individual's application to adopt a minor child who is a citizen of that foreign nation. Requests for information pursuant to this paragraph shall be in accordance with the process described in Sections 11122 to 11124, inclusive. The response shall be provided to the foreign government or its designee and to the individual who requested the information. (d) Whenever an authorized request for state summary criminal history information pertains to a person whose fingerprints are on file with the Department of Justice and the department has no criminal history of that person, and the information is to be used for employment, licensing, or certification purposes, the fingerprint card accompanying the request for information, if any, may be stamped "no criminal record" and returned to the person or entity making the request. (e) Whenever state summary criminal history information is furnished as the result of an application and is to be used for employment, licensing, or certification purposes, the Department of Justice may charge the person or entity making the request a fee that it determines to be sufficient to reimburse the department for the cost of furnishing the information. In addition, the Department of Justice may add a surcharge to the fee to fund maintenance and improvements to the systems from which the information is obtained. Notwithstanding any other law, any person or entity required to pay a fee to the department for information received under this section may charge the applicant a fee sufficient to reimburse the person or entity for this expense. All moneys received by the department pursuant to this section, Sections 11105.3 and  12054   26190  of the Penal Code, and Section 13588 of the Education Code shall be deposited in a special account in the General Fund to be available for expenditure by the department to offset costs incurred pursuant to those sections and for maintenance and improvements to the systems from which the information is obtained upon appropriation by the Legislature. (f) Whenever there is a conflict, the processing of criminal fingerprints and fingerprints of applicants for security guard or alarm agent registrations or firearms qualification permits submitted pursuant to Section 7583.9, 7583.23, 7596.3, or 7598.4 of the Business and Professions Code shall take priority over the processing of other applicant fingerprints. (g) It is not a violation of this section to disseminate statistical or research information obtained from a record, provided that the identity of the subject of the record is not disclosed. (h) It is not a violation of this section to include information obtained from a record in (1) a transcript or record of a judicial or administrative proceeding or (2) any other public record if the inclusion of the information in the public record is authorized by a court, statute, or decisional law. (i) Notwithstanding any other law, the Department of Justice or any state or local law enforcement agency may require the submission of fingerprints for the purpose of conducting summary criminal history information checks that are authorized by law. (j) The state summary criminal history information shall include any finding of mental incompetence pursuant to Chapter 6 (commencing with Section 1367) of Title 10 of Part 2 arising out of a complaint charging a felony offense specified in Section 290. (k) (1) This subdivision shall apply whenever state or federal summary criminal history information is furnished by the Department of Justice as the result of an application by an authorized agency or organization and the information is to be used for peace officer employment or certification purposes. As used in this subdivision, a peace officer is defined in Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830) of Title 3 of Part 2. (2) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, whenever state summary criminal history information is furnished pursuant to paragraph (1), the Department of Justice shall disseminate the following information: (A) Every conviction rendered against the applicant. (B) Every arrest for an offense for which the applicant is presently awaiting trial, whether the applicant is incarcerated or has been released on bail or on his or her own recognizance pending trial. (C) Every arrest or detention, except for an arrest or detention resulting in an exoneration, provided however that where the records of the Department of Justice do not contain a disposition for the arrest, the Department of Justice first makes a genuine effort to determine the disposition of the arrest. (D) Every successful diversion. (E) Every date and agency name associated with all retained peace officer or nonsworn law enforcement agency employee preemployment criminal offender record information search requests. (l) (1) This subdivision shall apply whenever state or federal summary criminal history information is furnished by the Department of Justice as the result of an application by a criminal justice agency or organization as defined in Section 13101 of the Penal Code, and the information is to be used for criminal justice employment, licensing, or certification purposes. (2) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, whenever state summary criminal history information is furnished pursuant to paragraph (1), the Department of Justice shall disseminate the following information: (A) Every conviction rendered against the applicant. (B) Every arrest for an offense for which the applicant is presently awaiting trial, whether the applicant is incarcerated or has been released on bail or on his or her own recognizance pending trial. (C) Every arrest for an offense for which the records of the Department of Justice do not contain a disposition or did not result in a conviction, provided that the Department of Justice first makes a genuine effort to determine the disposition of the arrest. However, information concerning an arrest shall not be disclosed if the records of the Department of Justice indicate or if the genuine effort reveals that the subject was exonerated, successfully completed a diversion or deferred entry of judgment program, or the arrest was deemed a detention. (D) Every date and agency name associated with all retained peace officer or nonsworn law enforcement agency employee preemployment criminal offender record information search requests. (m) (1) This subdivision shall apply whenever state or federal summary criminal history information is furnished by the Department of Justice as the result of an application by an authorized agency or organization pursuant to Section 1522, 1568.09, 1569.17, or 1596.871 of the Health and Safety Code, or any statute that incorporates the criteria of any of those sections or this subdivision by reference, and the information is to be used for employment, licensing, or certification purposes. (2) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, whenever state summary criminal history information is furnished pursuant to paragraph (1), the Department of Justice shall disseminate the following information: (A) Every conviction of an offense rendered against the applicant. (B) Every arrest for an offense for which the applicant is presently awaiting trial, whether the applicant is incarcerated or has been released on bail or on his or her own recognizance pending trial. (C) Every arrest for an offense for which the Department of Social Services is required by paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 1522 of the Health and Safety Code to determine if an applicant has been arrested. However, if the records of the Department of Justice do not contain a disposition for an arrest, the Department of Justice shall first make a genuine effort to determine the disposition of the arrest. (3) Notwithstanding the requirements of the sections referenced in paragraph (1) of this subdivision, the Department of Justice shall not disseminate information about an arrest subsequently deemed a detention or an arrest that resulted in either the successful completion of a diversion program or exoneration. (n) (1) This subdivision shall apply whenever state or federal summary criminal history information, to be used for employment, licensing, or certification purposes, is furnished by the Department of Justice as the result of an application by an authorized agency, organization, or individual pursuant to any of the following: (A) Paragraph (9) of subdivision (c), when the information is to be used by a cable corporation. (B) Section 11105.3 or 11105.4. (C) Section 15660 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. (D) Any statute that incorporates the criteria of any of the statutory provisions listed in subparagraph (A), (B), or (C), or of this subdivision, by reference. (2) With the exception of applications submitted by transportation companies authorized pursuant to Section 11105.3, and notwithstanding any other provision of law, whenever state summary criminal history information is furnished pursuant to paragraph (1), the Department of Justice shall disseminate the following information: (A) Every conviction rendered against the applicant for a violation or attempted violation of any offense specified in subdivision (a) of Section 15660 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. However, with the exception of those offenses for which registration is required pursuant to Section 290, the Department of Justice shall not disseminate information pursuant to this subdivision unless the conviction occurred within 10 years of the date of the agency's request for information or the conviction is over 10 years old but the subject of the request was incarcerated within 10 years of the agency's request for information. (B) Every arrest for a violation or attempted violation of an offense specified in subdivision (a) of Section 15660 of the Welfare and Institutions Code for which the applicant is presently awaiting trial, whether the applicant is incarcerated or has been released on bail or on his or her own recognizance pending trial. (o) (1) This subdivision shall apply whenever state or federal summary criminal history information is furnished by the Department of Justice as the result of an application by an authorized agency or organization pursuant to Section 261 or 550 of the Financial Code, or any statute that incorporates the criteria of either of those sections or this subdivision by reference, and the information is to be used for employment, licensing, or certification purposes. (2) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, whenever state summary criminal history information is furnished pursuant to paragraph (1), the Department of Justice shall disseminate the following information: (A) Every conviction rendered against the applicant for a violation or attempted violation of any offense specified in Section 550 of the Financial Code. (B) Every arrest for a violation or attempted violation of an offense specified in Section 550 of the Financial Code for which the applicant is presently awaiting trial, whether the applicant is incarcerated or has been released on bail or on his or her own recognizance pending trial. (p) (1) This subdivision shall apply whenever state or federal criminal history information is furnished by the Department of Justice as the result of an application by an agency, organization, or individual not defined in subdivision (k), (l), (m), (n), or (o), or by a transportation company authorized pursuant to Section 11105.3, or any statute that incorporates the criteria of that section or this subdivision by reference, and the information is to be used for employment, licensing, or certification purposes. (2) Notwithstanding any other provisions of law, whenever state summary criminal history information is furnished pursuant to paragraph (1), the Department of Justice shall disseminate the following information: (A) Every conviction rendered against the applicant. (B) Every arrest for an offense for which the applicant is presently awaiting trial, whether the applicant is incarcerated or has been released on bail or on his or her own recognizance pending trial. (q) All agencies, organizations, or individuals defined in subdivisions (k), (l), (m), (n), (o), and (p) may contract with the Department of Justice for subsequent arrest notification pursuant to Section 11105.2. This subdivision shall not supersede sections that mandate an agency, organization, or individual to contract with the Department of Justice for subsequent arrest notification pursuant to Section 11105.2. (r) Nothing in this section shall be construed to mean that the Department of Justice shall cease compliance with any other statutory notification requirements. (s) The provisions of Section 50.12 of Title 28 of the Code of Federal Regulations are to be followed in processing federal criminal history information. SEC. 88. Section 11105.03 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 11105.03. (a) Subject to the requirements and conditions set forth in this section and Section 11105, local law enforcement agencies are hereby authorized to provide state criminal summary history information obtained through CLETS for the purpose of screening prospective participants and prospective and current staff of a regional, county, city, or other local public housing authority, at the request of the chief executive officer of the authority or his or her designee, upon a showing by that authority that the authority manages a Section 8 housing program pursuant to federal law (U.S. Housing Act of 1937), or operates housing at which children under the age of 18 years reside or operates housing for persons categorized as aged, blind, or disabled. (b) The following requirements shall apply to information released by local law enforcement agencies pursuant to subdivision (a): (1) Local law enforcement agencies shall not release any information unless it relates to a conviction for a serious felony, as defined in subdivision (c) of Section 1192.7, a conviction for any offense punishable under Section 273.5, 422.6, 422.7, 422.75, 422.9, 1170.75,  12020, 12021, or 12021.1   or under Chapter 2 (commencing with Secti   on 29800) or Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 29900) of Division 9 of Title 4 of Part 6, or under any provision listed in Section 16590  , a conviction under Section 273.6 that involves a violation of a protective order, as defined in Section 6218 of the Family Code, or a conviction for any felony offense that involves controlled substances or alcoholic beverages, or any felony offense that involves any activity related to controlled substances or alcoholic beverages, or a conviction for any offense that involves domestic violence, as defined in Section 13700. (2) Local law enforcement agencies shall not release any information concerning any arrest for an offense that did not result in a conviction. (3) Local law enforcement agencies shall not release any information concerning any offense committed by a person who was under 18 years of age at the time he or she committed the offense. (4) Local law enforcement agencies shall release any information concerning any conviction or release from custody that occurred within 10 years of the date on which the request for information is submitted to the Attorney General, unless the conviction was based upon a felony offense that involved controlled substances or alcoholic beverages or a felony offense that involved any activity related to controlled substances or alcoholic beverages. Where a conviction was based on any of these felony offenses, local law enforcement agencies shall release any information concerning this conviction if the conviction occurred within five years of the date on which a request for the information was submitted. (5) Notwithstanding paragraph (4), if information that meets the requirements of paragraphs (2) to (4), inclusive, is located and the information reveals a conviction of an offense specified in paragraph (1), local law enforcement agencies shall release all summary criminal history information concerning the person whether or not the information meets the requirements of paragraph (4), provided, however, that the information meets the requirements of paragraphs (1) to (3), inclusive. (6) Information released to the local public housing authority pursuant to this section shall also be released to parole or probation officers at the same time. (c) State summary criminal history information shall be used by the chief executive officer of the housing authority or a designee only for purposes of identifying prospective participants in subsidized programs and prospective and current staff who have access to residences, whose criminal history is likely to pose a risk to children under the age of 18 years or persons categorized as aged, blind, or disabled living in the housing operated by the authority. (d) If a housing authority obtains summary criminal history information for the purpose of screening a prospective participant pursuant to this section, it shall review and evaluate that information in the context of other available information and shall not evaluate the person's suitability as a prospective participant based solely on his or her past criminal history. (e) If a housing authority determines that a prospective participant is not eligible as a resident, it shall promptly notify him or her of the basis for its determination and, upon request, shall provide him or her within a reasonable time after the determination is made with an opportunity for an informal hearing on the determination in accordance with Section 960.207 of Title 24 of the Code of Federal Regulations. (f) Any information obtained from state summary criminal history information pursuant to this section is confidential and the recipient public housing authority shall not disclose or use the information for any purpose other than that authorized by this section. The state summary criminal history information in the possession of the authority and all copies made from it shall be destroyed not more than 30 days after the authority's final decision whether to act on the housing status of the individual to whom the information relates. (g) The local public housing authority receiving state summary criminal history information pursuant to this section shall adopt regulations governing the receipt, maintenance, and use of the information. The regulations shall include provisions that require notice that the authority has access to criminal records of participants and employees who have access to programs. (h) Use of this information is to be consistent with Title 24 of the Code of Federal Regulations and the current regulations adopted by the housing authority using the information. (i) Nothing in this section shall be construed to require a housing authority to request and review an applicant's criminal history. (j) The California Housing Authorities Association, after compiling data from all public housing authorities that receive summary criminal information pursuant to this chapter, shall report its findings based upon this data to the Legislature prior to January 1, 2000. SEC. 89. Section 11106 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 11106. (a) In order to assist in the investigation of crime, the prosecution of civil actions by city attorneys pursuant to paragraph (3) of subdivision (c), the arrest and prosecution of criminals, and the recovery of lost, stolen, or found property, the Attorney General shall keep and properly file a complete record of all copies of fingerprints, copies of licenses to carry firearms issued pursuant to Section  12050   26150, 26155, 26170, or 26215  , information reported to the Department of Justice pursuant to Section  12053   26225  , dealers' records of sales of firearms, reports provided pursuant to  Section 12072 or 12078   Article 1 (commencing with Section 27500) of Chapter 4 of Division 6 of Title 4 of Part 6, or pursuant to any provision listed in subdivision (a) of Section 16585  , forms provided pursuant to Section 12084, as that section read prior to being repealed by the act that amended this section, reports provided pursuant to  Section 12071   Sections 26700 to 26915, inclusive  , that are not dealers' records of sales of firearms, and reports of stolen, lost, found, pledged, or pawned property in any city or county of this state, and shall, upon proper application therefor, furnish this information to the officers referred to in Section 11105. (b) (1) Except as provided in subdivision (d), the Attorney General shall not retain or compile any information from reports filed pursuant to  subdivision (a) of Section 12078   any provision listed in subdivision (c) of Section 16585  for firearms that are not handguns, from forms submitted pursuant to Section 12084, as that section read prior to being repealed by the act that amended this section, for firearms that are not handguns, or from dealers' records of sales for firearms that are not handguns. All copies of the forms submitted, or any information received in electronic form, pursuant to Section 12084, as that section read prior to being repealed by the act that amended this section, for firearms that are not handguns, or of the dealers' records of sales for firearms that are not handguns shall be destroyed within five days of the clearance by the Attorney General, unless the purchaser or transferor is ineligible to take possession of the firearm. All copies of the reports filed, or any information received in electronic form, pursuant to  subdivision (a) of Section 12078   any provision listed in subdivision (c) of Section 16585  for firearms that are not handguns shall be destroyed within five days of the receipt by the Attorney General, unless retention is necessary for use in a criminal prosecution. (2) A peace officer, the Attorney General, a Department of Justice employee designated by the Attorney General, or any authorized local law enforcement employee shall not retain or compile any information from a  firearms   firearm  transaction record, as defined in paragraph (5) of subdivision (c) of Section 12071   Section 16550  , for firearms that are not handguns unless retention or compilation is necessary for use in a criminal prosecution or in a proceeding to revoke a license issued pursuant to  Section 12071   Sections 26700 to 26915, inclusive  . (3) A violation of this subdivision is a misdemeanor. (c) (1) The Attorney General shall permanently keep and properly file and maintain all information reported to the Department of Justice pursuant to  Sections 12071, 12072, 12078, 12082, and former Section 12084 or any other law,   th   e following provisions  as to handguns and maintain a registry  thereof.   thereof:   (A) Sections 26700 to 26915, inclusive.   (B) Article 1 (commencing with Section 27500) of Chapter 4 of Division 6 of Title 4 of Part 6.   (C) Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 28050) of Division 6 of Title 4 of Part 6.   (D) Any provision listed in subdivision (a) of Section 16585.   (E) Former Section 12084.   (F) Any other law.  (2) The registry shall consist of all of the following: (A) The name, address, identification of, place of birth (state or country), complete telephone number, occupation, sex, description, and all legal names and aliases ever used by the owner or person being loaned the particular handgun as listed on the information provided to the department on the Dealers' Record of Sale, the Law Enforcement Firearms Transfer (LEFT), as defined in former Section 12084, or reports made to the department pursuant to  Section 12078   any provision listed in subdivision (a) of Section 16585  or any other law. (B) The name and address of, and other information about, any person (whether a dealer or a private party) from whom the owner acquired or the person being loaned the particular handgun and when the firearm was acquired or loaned as listed on the information provided to the department on the Dealers' Record of Sale, the LEFT, or reports made to the department pursuant to  Section 12078   any provision listed in subdivision (a) of Section 16585  or any other law. (C) Any waiting period exemption applicable to the transaction which resulted in the owner of or the person being loaned the particular handgun acquiring or being loaned that firearm. (D) The manufacturer's name if stamped on the firearm, model name or number if stamped on the firearm, and, if applicable, the serial number, other number (if more than one serial number is stamped on the firearm), caliber, type of firearm, if the firearm is new or used, barrel length, and color of the firearm. (3) Information in the registry referred to in this subdivision shall, upon proper application therefor, be furnished to the officers referred to in Section 11105, to a city attorney prosecuting a civil action, solely for use in prosecuting that civil action and not for any other purpose, or to the person listed in the registry as the owner or person who is listed as being loaned the particular handgun. (4) If any person is listed in the registry as the owner of a firearm through a Dealers' Record of Sale prior to 1979, and the person listed in the registry requests by letter that the Attorney General store and keep the record electronically, as well as in the record's existing photographic, photostatic, or nonerasable optically stored form, the Attorney General shall do so within three working days of receipt of the request. The Attorney General shall, in writing, and as soon as practicable, notify the person requesting electronic storage of the record that the request has been honored as required by this paragraph. (d) (1) Any officer referred to in paragraphs (1) to (6), inclusive, of subdivision (b) of Section 11105 may disseminate the name of the subject of the record, the number of the firearms listed in the record, and the description of any firearm, including the make, model, and caliber, from the record relating to any firearm's sale, transfer, registration, or license record, or any information reported to the Department of Justice pursuant to  Section 12021.3, 12053, 12071, 12072, 12077, 12078, 12082, or 12285   Section 26225, Sections 26700 to 26915, inclusive, (A) Article 1 (commencing with Section 27500) of Chapter 4 of Division 6 of Title 4 of Part 6, (B) Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 28050) of Division 6 of Title 4 of Part 6, (C) Article 2 (commencing with Section 28150) of Chapter 6 of Division 6 of Title 4 of Part 6, (D) Article 5 (commencing with Section 30900) of Chapter 2 of Division 10 of Title 4 of Part 6, (E) Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 33850) of Division 11   of Title 4 of Part 6, or (F) any provision listed in subdivision (a) of Section 16585  , if the following conditions are met: (A) The subject of the record has been arraigned for a crime in which the victim is a person described in subdivisions (a) to (f), inclusive, of Section 6211 of the Family Code and is being prosecuted or is serving a sentence for the crime, or the subject of the record is the subject of an emergency protective order, a temporary restraining order, or an order after hearing, which is in effect and has been issued by a family court under the Domestic Violence Protection Act set forth in Division 10 (commencing with Section 6200) of the Family Code. (B) The information is disseminated only to the victim of the crime or to the person who has obtained the emergency protective order, the temporary restraining order, or the order after hearing issued by the family court. (C) Whenever a law enforcement officer disseminates the information authorized by this subdivision, that officer or another officer assigned to the case shall immediately provide the victim of the crime with a "Victims of Domestic Violence" card, as specified in subparagraph (H) of paragraph (9) of subdivision (c) of Section 13701. (2) The victim or person to whom information is disseminated pursuant to this subdivision may disclose it as he or she deems necessary to protect himself or herself or another person from bodily harm by the person who is the subject of the record. SEC. 90. Section 11108 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 11108. (a) Each sheriff or police chief executive shall submit descriptions of serialized property, or nonserialized property that has been uniquely inscribed, which has been reported stolen, lost, found, recovered, held for safekeeping, or under observation, directly into the appropriate Department of Justice automated property system for firearms, stolen bicycles, stolen vehicles, or other property, as the case may be. (b) Information about a firearm entered into the automated system for firearms shall remain in the system until the reported firearm has been found, recovered, is no longer under observation, or the record is determined to have been entered in error. (c) Any costs incurred by the Department of Justice to implement subdivision (b) shall be reimbursed from funds other than fees charged and collected pursuant to  subdivisions (e) and (f) of Section 12076   Sections 28225 and 28230  . SEC. 91. Section 11413 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 11413. (a) Any person who explodes, ignites, or attempts to explode or ignite any destructive device or any explosive, or who commits arson, in or about any of the places listed in subdivision (b), for the purpose of terrorizing another or in reckless disregard of terrorizing another is guilty of a felony, and shall be punished by imprisonment in the state prison for three, five, or seven years, and a fine not exceeding ten thousand dollars ($10,000). (b) Subdivision (a) applies to the following places: (1) Any health facility licensed under Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 1250) of Division 2 of the Health and Safety Code, or any place where medical care is provided by a licensed health care professional. (2) Any church, temple, synagogue, mosque, or other place of worship. (3) The buildings, offices, and meeting sites of organizations that counsel for or against abortion or among whose major activities are lobbying, publicizing, or organizing with respect to public or private issues relating to abortion. (4) Any place at which a lecture, film-showing, or other private meeting or presentation that educates or propagates with respect to abortion practices or policies, whether on private property or at a meeting site authorized for specific use by a private group on public property, is taking place. (5) Any bookstore or public or private library. (6) Any building or facility designated as a courthouse. (7) The home or office of a judicial officer. (8) Any building or facility regularly occupied by county probation department personnel in which the employees perform official duties of the probation department. (9) Any private property, if the property was targeted in whole or in part because of any of the actual or perceived characteristics of the owner or occupant of the property listed in subdivision (a) of Section 422.55. (10) Any public or private school providing instruction in kindergarten or grades 1 to 12, inclusive. (c) As used in this section, "judicial officer" means a magistrate, judge, justice, commissioner, referee, or any person appointed by a court to serve in one of these capacities, of any state or federal court located in this state. (d) As used in this section, "terrorizing" means to cause a person of ordinary emotions and sensibilities to fear for personal safety. (e) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit the prosecution of any person pursuant to Section  12303.3   18740  or any other provision of law in lieu of prosecution pursuant to this section. SEC. 92. Section 11418 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 11418. (a) (1) Any person, without lawful authority, who possesses, develops, manufactures, produces, transfers, acquires, or retains any weapon of mass destruction, shall be punished by imprisonment in the state prison for 4, 8, or 12 years. (2) Any person who commits a violation of paragraph (1) and who has been previously convicted of Section 11411, 11412, 11413, 11418, 11418.1, 11418.5, 11419, 11460,  12303.1, 12303.2, or 12303.3   18715, 18725, or 18740  shall be punished by imprisonment in the state prison for 5, 10, or 15 years. (b) (1) Any person who uses or directly employs against another person a weapon of mass destruction in a form that may cause widespread, disabling illness or injury in human beings shall be punished by imprisonment in the state prison for life. (2) Any person who uses or directly employs against another person a weapon of mass destruction in a form that may cause widespread great bodily injury or death and causes the death of any human being shall be punished by imprisonment in the state prison for life without the possibility of parole. Nothing in this paragraph shall prevent punishment instead under Section 190.2. (3) Any person who uses a weapon of mass destruction in a form that may cause widespread damage to or disruption of the food supply or "source of drinking water" as defined in subdivision (d) of Section 25249.11 of the Health and Safety Code shall be punished by imprisonment in the state prison for 5, 8, or 12 years and by a fine of not more than one hundred thousand dollars ($100,000). (4) Any person who maliciously uses against animals, crops, or seed and seed stock, a weapon of mass destruction in a form that may cause widespread damage to or substantial diminution in the value of stock animals or crops, including seeds used for crops or product of the crops, shall be punished by imprisonment in the state prison for 4, 8, or 12 years and by a fine of not more than one hundred thousand dollars ($100,000). (c) Any person who uses a weapon of mass destruction in a form that may cause widespread and significant damage to public natural resources, including coastal waterways and beaches, public parkland, surface waters, ground water, and wildlife, shall be punished by imprisonment in the state prison for 3, 4, or 6 years. (d) (1) Any person who uses recombinant technology or any other biological advance to create new pathogens or more virulent forms of existing pathogens for use in any crime described in subdivision (b) shall be punished by imprisonment in the state prison for 4, 8, or 12 years and by a fine of not more than two hundred fifty thousand dollars ($250,000). (2) Any person who uses recombinant technology or any other biological advance to create new pathogens or more virulent forms of existing pathogens for use in any crime described in subdivision (c) shall be punished by imprisonment in the state prison for three, six, or nine years and by a fine of not more than two hundred fifty thousand dollars ($250,000). (e) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prevent punishment instead pursuant to any other provision of law that imposes a greater or more severe punishment. SEC. 93. Section 11460 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 11460. (a) Any two or more persons who assemble as a paramilitary organization for the purpose of practicing with weapons shall be punished by imprisonment in a county jail for not more than one year or by a fine of not more than one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment. As used in this subdivision, "paramilitary organization" means an organization which is not an agency of the United States government or of the State of California, or which is not a private school meeting the requirements set forth in Section 48222 of the Education Code, but which engages in instruction or training in guerrilla warfare or sabotage, or which, as an organization, engages in rioting or the violent disruption of, or the violent interference with, school activities. (b) (1) Any person who teaches or demonstrates to any other person the use, application, or making of any firearm, explosive, or destructive device, or technique capable of causing injury or death to persons, knowing or having reason to know or intending that these objects or techniques will be unlawfully employed for use in, or in the furtherance of a civil disorder, or any person who assembles with one or more other persons for the purpose of training with, practicing with, or being instructed in the use of any firearm, explosive, or destructive device, or technique capable of causing injury or death to persons, with the intent to cause or further a civil disorder, shall be punished by imprisonment in the county jail for not more than one year or by a fine of not more than one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment. Nothing in this subdivision shall make unlawful any act of any peace officer or a member of the military forces of this state or of the United States, performed in the lawful course of his or her official duties. (2) As used in this section: (A) "Civil disorder" means any disturbance involving acts of violence which cause an immediate danger of or results in damage or injury to the property or person of any other individual. (B) "Destructive device" has the same meaning as in Section  12301   16460  . (C) "Explosive" has the same meaning as in Section 12000 of the Health and Safety Code. (D) "Firearm" means any device designed to be used as a weapon, or which may readily be converted to a weapon, from which is expelled a projectile by the force of any explosion or other form of combustion, or the frame or receiver of this weapon. (E) "Peace officer" means any peace officer or other officer having the powers of arrest of a peace officer, specified in Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830) of Title 3 of Part 2. SEC. 94. Section 13730 of the Penal Code is amended to read: 13730. (a) Each law enforcement agency shall develop a system, by January 1, 1986, for recording all domestic violence-related calls for assistance made to the department including whether weapons are involved. All domestic violence-related calls for assistance shall be supported with a written incident report, as described in subdivision (c), identifying the domestic violence incident. Monthly, the total number of domestic violence calls received and the numbers of those cases involving weapons shall be compiled by each law enforcement agency and submitted to the Attorney General. (b) The Attorney General shall report annually to the Governor, the Legislature, and the public the total number of domestic violence-related calls received by California law enforcement agencies, the number of cases involving weapons, and a breakdown of calls received by agency, city, and county. (c) Each law enforcement agency shall develop an incident report form that includes a domestic violence identification code by January 1, 1986. In all incidents of domestic violence, a report shall be written and shall be identified on the face of the report as a domestic violence incident. The report shall include at least all of the following: (1) A notation of whether the officer or officers who responded to the domestic violence call observed any signs that the alleged abuser was under the influence of alcohol or a controlled substance. (2) A notation of whether the officer or officers who responded to the domestic violence call determined if any law enforcement agency had previously responded to a domestic violence call at the same address involving the same alleged abuser or victim. (3) A notation of whether the officer or officers who responded to the domestic violence call found it necessary, for the protection of the peace officer or other persons present, to inquire of the victim, the alleged abuser, or both, whether a firearm or other deadly weapon was present at the location, and, if there is an inquiry, whether that inquiry disclosed the presence of a firearm or other deadly weapon. Any firearm or other deadly weapon discovered by an officer at the scene of a domestic violence incident shall be subject to confiscation pursuant to Section 12028.5   Division 4 (commencing with Section 18250) of Title 2 of Part 6  . SEC. 95. Section 10334 of the Public Contract Code is amended to read: 10334. (a) No state employee shall acquire any goods from the state, unless the goods are offered to the general public in the regular course of the state's business on the same terms and conditions as those applicable to the employee. "State employee," as used in this section, means any employee of the state included within Section 82009 of the Government Code, and all officers and employees included within Section 4 of Article VII of the California Constitution, except those persons excluded from the definition of "designated employee" under the last paragraph of Section 82019 of the Government Code. (b) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), any peace officer as defined in Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830) of Title 3 of Part 2 of the Penal Code, employed by the State of California for a period of more than 120 months who has been duly retired through a service retirement or a peace officer retiring from a job-incurred disability not related to a mental or emotional disorder and who has been granted the legal right to carry a concealed firearm pursuant to  subdivision (a) of Section 12027   Article 2 (commencing with Section 25450) of Chapter 2 of Division 5 of Title 4 of Part 6  of the Penal Code may be authorized by the person's department head to purchase his or her state-issued handgun. Disability retired peace officers need not meet the 120-month employment requirement. The cost of the handgun shall be the fair market value as listed in the annual Blue Book of Gun Values or replacement cost, whichever is less, of the handgun issued as determined by the appointing power, plus a charge for the cost of handling. The retiring officer shall request to purchase his or her handgun in writing to the department within 30 calendar days of his or her retirement date. (c) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), any peace officer described in Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830) of Title 3 of Part 2 of the Penal Code employed by the State of California who is authorized to carry firearms may purchase his or her state-issued service firearm if the person's department head directs the department to change its state-issued service weapon system. The cost of the service firearm shall be the fair market value as listed in the annual Blue Book of Gun Values or replacement cost, whichever is less, of the firearm issued as determined by the department head, plus a charge for the cost of handling. The requesting officer shall request to purchase his or her firearm in writing to the department within 10 calendar days of receiving the new state-issued weapon. SEC. 96. Section 676 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read: 676. (a) Unless requested by the minor concerning whom the petition has been filed and any parent or guardian present, the public shall not be admitted to a juvenile court hearing. Nothing in this section shall preclude the attendance of up to two family members of a prosecuting witness for the support of that witness, as authorized by Section 868.5 of the Penal Code. The judge or referee may nevertheless admit those persons he or she deems to have a direct and legitimate interest in the particular case or the work of the court. However, except as provided in subdivision (b), members of the public shall be admitted, on the same basis as they may be admitted to trials in a court of criminal jurisdiction, to hearings concerning petitions filed pursuant to Section 602 alleging that a minor is a person described in Section 602 by reason of the violation of any one of the following offenses: (1) Murder. (2) Arson of an inhabited building. (3) Robbery while armed with a dangerous or deadly weapon. (4) Rape with force or violence or threat of great bodily harm. (5) Sodomy by force, violence, duress, menace, or threat of great bodily harm. (6) Oral copulation by force, violence, duress, menace, or threat of great bodily harm. (7) Any offense specified in subdivision (a) of Section 289 of the Penal Code. (8) Kidnapping for ransom. (9) Kidnapping for purpose of robbery. (10) Kidnapping with bodily harm. (11) Assault with intent to murder or attempted murder. (12) Assault with a firearm or destructive device. (13) Assault by any means of force likely to produce great bodily injury. (14) Discharge of a firearm into an inhabited dwelling or occupied building. (15) Any offense described in Section 1203.09 of the Penal Code. (16) Any offense described in Section 12022.5 or 12022.53 of the Penal Code. (17) Any felony offense in which a minor personally used a weapon  listed in subdivision (a) of Section 12020   described in any provision listed in Section 16590  of the Penal Code. (18) Burglary of an inhabited dwelling house or trailer coach, as defined in Section 635 of the Vehicle Code, or the inhabited portion of any other building, if the minor previously has been adjudged a ward of the court by reason of the commission of any offense listed in this section, including an offense listed in this paragraph. (19) Any felony offense described in Section 136.1 or 137 of the Penal Code. (20) Any offense as specified in Sections 11351, 11351.5, 11352, 11378, 11378.5, 11379, and 11379.5 of the Health and Safety Code. (21) Criminal street gang activity which constitutes a felony pursuant to Section 186.22 of the Penal Code. (22) Manslaughter as specified in Section 192 of the Penal Code. (23) Driveby shooting or discharge of a weapon from or at a motor vehicle as specified in Sections 246, 247, and  12034   26100  of the Penal Code. (24) Any crime committed with an assault weapon, as defined in Section  12276   30510  of the Penal Code, including possession of an assault weapon as specified in  subdivision (b) of Section 12280   Section 30605  of the Penal Code. (25) Carjacking, while armed with a dangerous or deadly weapon. (26) Kidnapping, in violation of Section 209.5 of the Penal Code. (27) Torture, as described in Sections 206 and 206.1 of the Penal Code. (28) Aggravated mayhem, in violation of Section 205 of the Penal Code. (b) Where the petition filed alleges that the minor is a person described in Section 602 by reason of the commission of rape with force or violence or great bodily harm; sodomy by force, violence, duress, menace, or threat of great bodily harm; oral copulation by force, violence, duress, menace, or threat of great bodily harm; or any offense specified in Section 289 of the Penal Code, members of the public shall not be admitted to the hearing in either of the following instances: (1) Upon a motion for a closed hearing by the district attorney, who shall make the motion if so requested by the victim. (2) During the victim's testimony, if, at the time of the offense the victim was under 16 years of age. (c) The name of a minor found to have committed one of the offenses listed in subdivision (a) shall not be confidential, unless the court, for good cause, so orders. As used in this subdivision, "good cause" shall be limited to protecting the personal safety of the minor, a victim, or a member of the public. The court shall make a written finding, on the record, explaining why good cause exists to make the name of the minor confidential. (d) Notwithstanding Sections 827 and 828 and subject to subdivisions (e) and (f), when a petition is sustained for any offense listed in subdivision (a), the charging petition, the minutes of the proceeding, and the orders of adjudication and disposition of the court that are contained in the court file shall be available for public inspection. Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to authorize public access to any other documents in the court file. (e) The probation officer or any party may petition the juvenile court to prohibit disclosure to the public of any file or record. The juvenile court shall prohibit the disclosure if it appears that the harm to the minor, victims, witnesses, or public from the public disclosure outweighs the benefit of public knowledge. However, the court shall not prohibit disclosure for the benefit of the minor unless the court makes a written finding that the reason for the prohibition is to protect the safety of the minor. (f) Nothing in this section shall be applied to limit the disclosure of information as otherwise provided for by law. (g) The juvenile court shall for each day that the court is in session, post in a conspicuous place which is accessible to the general public, a written list of hearings that are open to the general public pursuant to this section, the location of those hearings, and the time when the hearings will be held. SEC. 97. Section 707 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read: 707. (a) (1) In any case in which a minor is alleged to be a person described in subdivision (a) of Section 602 by reason of the violation, when he or she was 16 years of age or older, of any criminal statute or ordinance except those listed in subdivision (b), upon motion of the petitioner made prior to the attachment of jeopardy the court shall cause the probation officer to investigate and submit a report on the behavioral patterns and social history of the minor being considered for a determination of unfitness. Following submission and consideration of the report, and of any other relevant evidence that the petitioner or the minor may wish to submit, the juvenile court may find that the minor is not a fit and proper subject to be dealt with under the juvenile court law if it concludes that the minor would not be amenable to the care, treatment, and training program available through the facilities of the juvenile court, based upon an evaluation of the following criteria: (A) The degree of criminal sophistication exhibited by the minor. (B) Whether the minor can be rehabilitated prior to the expiration of the juvenile court's jurisdiction. (C) The minor's previous delinquent history. (D) Success of previous attempts by the juvenile court to rehabilitate the minor. (E) The circumstances and gravity of the offense alleged in the petition to have been committed by the minor. A determination that the minor is not a fit and proper subject to be dealt with under the juvenile court law may be based on any one or a combination of the factors set forth above, which shall be recited in the order of unfitness. In any case in which a hearing has been noticed pursuant to this section, the court shall postpone the taking of a plea to the petition until the conclusion of the fitness hearing, and no plea that may have been entered already shall constitute evidence at the hearing. (2) (A) This paragraph shall apply to a minor alleged to be a person described in Section 602 by reason of the violation, when he or she has attained 16 years of age, of any felony offense when the minor has been declared to be a ward of the court pursuant to Section 602 on one or more prior occasions if both of the following apply: (i) The minor has previously been found to have committed two or more felony offenses. (ii) The offenses upon which the prior petition or petitions were based were committed when the minor had attained 14 years of age. (B) Upon motion of the petitioner made prior to the attachment of jeopardy the court shall cause the probation officer to investigate and submit a report on the behavioral patterns and social history of the minor being considered for a determination of unfitness. Following submission and consideration of the report, and of any other relevant evidence that the petitioner or the minor may wish to submit, the minor shall be presumed to be not a fit and proper subject to be dealt with under the juvenile court law unless the juvenile court concludes, based upon evidence, which evidence may be of extenuating or mitigating circumstances, that the minor would be amenable to the care, treatment, and training program available through the facilities of the juvenile court based upon an evaluation of the following criteria: (i) The degree of criminal sophistication exhibited by the minor. (ii) Whether the minor can be rehabilitated prior to the expiration of the juvenile court's jurisdiction. (iii) The minor's previous delinquent history. (iv) Success of previous attempts by the juvenile court to rehabilitate the minor. (v) The circumstances and gravity of the offense alleged in the petition to have been committed by the minor. A determination that the minor is a fit and proper subject to be dealt with under the juvenile court law shall be based on a finding of amenability after consideration of the criteria set forth above, and findings therefore recited in the order as to each of the above criteria that the minor is fit and proper under each and every one of the above criteria. In making a finding of fitness, the court may consider extenuating and mitigating circumstances in evaluating each of the above criteria. In any case in which the hearing has been noticed pursuant to this section, the court shall postpone the taking of a plea to the petition until the conclusion of the fitness hearing and no plea which may have been entered already shall constitute evidence at the hearing. If the minor is found to be a fit and proper subject to be dealt with under the juvenile court law pursuant to this subdivision, the minor shall be committed to placement in a juvenile hall, ranch camp, forestry camp, boot camp, or secure juvenile home pursuant to Section 730, or in any institution operated by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, Division of Juvenile Facilities. (3) If, pursuant to this subdivision, the minor is found to be not a fit and proper subject for juvenile court treatment and is tried in a court of criminal jurisdiction and found guilty by the trier of fact, the judge may commit the minor to the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, Division of Juvenile Facilities, in lieu of sentencing the minor to the state prison, unless the limitations specified in Section 1732.6 apply. (b) Subdivision (c) shall be applicable in any case in which a minor is alleged to be a person described in Section 602 by reason of the violation of one of the following offenses: (1) Murder. (2) Arson, as provided in subdivision (a) or (b) of Section 451 of the Penal Code. (3) Robbery. (4) Rape with force, violence, or threat of great bodily harm. (5) Sodomy by force, violence, duress, menace, or threat of great bodily harm. (6) A lewd or lascivious act as provided in subdivision (b) of Section 288 of the Penal Code. (7) Oral copulation by force, violence, duress, menace, or threat of great bodily harm. (8) An offense specified in subdivision (a) of Section 289 of the Penal Code. (9) Kidnapping for ransom. (10) Kidnapping for purposes of robbery. (11) Kidnapping with bodily harm. (12) Attempted murder. (13) Assault with a firearm or destructive device. (14) Assault by any means of force likely to produce great bodily injury. (15) Discharge of a firearm into an inhabited or occupied building. (16) An offense described in Section 1203.09 of the Penal Code. (17) An offense described in Section 12022.5 or 12022.53 of the Penal Code. (18) A felony offense in which the minor personally used a weapon  listed in subdivision (a) of Section 12020   described in any provision listed in Section 16590  of the Penal Code. (19) A felony offense described in Section 136.1 or 137 of the Penal Code. (20) Manufacturing, compounding, or selling one-half ounce or more of a salt or solution of a controlled substance specified in subdivision (e) of Section 11055 of the Health and Safety Code. (21) A violent felony, as defined in subdivision (c) of Section 667.5 of the Penal Code, which also would constitute a felony violation of subdivision (b) of Section 186.22 of the Penal Code. (22) Escape, by the use of force or violence, from a county juvenile hall, home, ranch, camp, or forestry camp in violation of subdivision (b) of Section 871 if great bodily injury is intentionally inflicted upon an employee of the juvenile facility during the commission of the escape. (23) Torture as described in Sections 206 and 206.1 of the Penal Code. (24) Aggravated mayhem, as described in Section 205 of the Penal Code. (25) Carjacking, as described in Section 215 of the Penal Code, while armed with a dangerous or deadly weapon. (26) Kidnapping for purposes of sexual assault, as punishable in subdivision (b) of Section 209 of the Penal Code. (27) Kidnapping as punishable in Section 209.5 of the Penal Code. (28) The offense described in subdivision (c) of Section  12034   26100  of the Penal Code. (29) The offense described in Section  12308   18745  of the Penal Code. (30) Voluntary manslaughter, as described in subdivision (a) of Section 192 of the Penal Code. (c) With regard to a minor alleged to be a person described in Section 602 by reason of the violation, when he or she was 14 years of age or older, of any of the offenses listed in subdivision (b), upon motion of the petitioner made prior to the attachment of jeopardy the court shall cause the probation officer to investigate and submit a report on the behavioral patterns and social history of the minor being considered for a determination of unfitness. Following submission and consideration of the report, and of any other relevant evidence that the petitioner or the minor may wish to submit, the minor shall be presumed to be not a fit and proper subject to be dealt with under the juvenile court law unless the juvenile court concludes, based upon evidence, which evidence may be of extenuating or mitigating circumstances, that the minor would be amenable to the care, treatment, and training program available through the facilities of the juvenile court based upon an evaluation of each of the following criteria: (1) The degree of criminal sophistication exhibited by the minor. (2) Whether the minor can be rehabilitated prior to the expiration of the juvenile court's jurisdiction. (3) The minor's previous delinquent history. (4) Success of previous attempts by the juvenile court to rehabilitate the minor. (5) The circumstances and gravity of the offenses alleged in the petition to have been committed by the minor. A determination that the minor is a fit and proper subject to be dealt with under the juvenile court law shall be based on a finding of amenability after consideration of the criteria set forth above, and findings therefore recited in the order as to each of the above criteria that the minor is fit and proper under each and every one of the above criteria. In making a finding of fitness, the court may consider extenuating or mitigating circumstances in evaluating each of the above criteria. In any case in which a hearing has been noticed pursuant to this section, the court shall postpone the taking of a plea to the petition until the conclusion of the fitness hearing and no plea which may have been entered already shall constitute evidence at the hearing. If, pursuant to this subdivision, the minor is found to be not a fit and proper subject for juvenile court treatment and is tried in a court of criminal jurisdiction and found guilty by the trier of fact, the judge may commit the minor to the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, Division of Juvenile Facilities, in lieu of sentencing the minor to the state prison, unless the limitations specified in Section 1732.6 apply. (d) (1) Except as provided in subdivision (b) of Section 602, the district attorney or other appropriate prosecuting officer may file an accusatory pleading in a court of criminal jurisdiction against any minor 16 years of age or older who is accused of committing an offense enumerated in subdivision (b). (2) Except as provided in subdivision (b) of Section 602, the district attorney or other appropriate prosecuting officer may file an accusatory pleading against a minor 14 years of age or older in a court of criminal jurisdiction in any case in which any one or more of the following circumstances apply: (A) The minor is alleged to have committed an offense that if committed by an adult would be punishable by death or imprisonment in the state prison for life. (B) The minor is alleged to have personally used a firearm during the commission or attempted commission of a felony, as described in Section 12022.5 or 12022.53 of the Penal Code. (C) The minor is alleged to have committed an offense listed in subdivision (b) in which any one or more of the following circumstances apply: (i) The minor has previously been found to be a person described in Section 602 by reason of the commission of an offense listed in subdivision (b). (ii) The offense was committed for the benefit of, at the direction of, or in association with any criminal street gang, as defined in subdivision (f) of Section 186.22 of the Penal Code, with the specific intent to promote, further, or assist in criminal conduct by gang members. (iii) The offense was committed for the purpose of intimidating or interfering with any other person's free exercise or enjoyment of a right secured to him or her by the Constitution or laws of this state or by the Constitution or laws of the United States and because of the other person's race, color, religion, ancestry, national origin, disability, gender, or sexual orientation, or because the minor perceives that the other person has one or more of those characteristics, as described in Title 11.6 (commencing with Section 422.55) of Part 1 of the Penal Code. (iv) The victim of the offense was 65 years of age or older, or blind, deaf, quadriplegic, paraplegic, developmentally disabled, or confined to a wheelchair, and that disability was known or reasonably should have been known to the minor at the time of the commission of the offense. (3) Except as provided in subdivision (b) of Section 602, the district attorney or other appropriate prosecuting officer may file an accusatory pleading in a court of criminal jurisdiction against any minor 16 years of age or older who is accused of committing one or more of the following offenses, if the minor has previously been found to be a person described in Section 602 by reason of the violation of a felony offense, when he or she was 14 years of age or older: (A) A felony offense in which it is alleged that the victim of the offense was 65 years of age or older, or blind, deaf, quadriplegic, paraplegic, developmentally disabled, or confined to a wheelchair, and that disability was known or reasonably should have been known to the minor at the time of the commission of the offense. (B) A felony offense committed for the purposes of intimidating or interfering with any other person's free exercise or enjoyment of a right secured to him or her by the Constitution or laws of this state or by the Constitution or laws of the United States and because of the other person's race, color, religion, ancestry, national origin, disability, gender, or sexual orientation, or because the minor perceived that the other person had one or more of those characteristics, as described in Title 11.6 (commencing with Section 422.55) of Part 1 of the Penal Code. (C) The offense was committed for the benefit of, at the direction of, or in association with any criminal street gang as prohibited by Section 186.22 of the Penal Code. (4) In any case in which the district attorney or other appropriate prosecuting officer has filed an accusatory pleading against a minor in a court of criminal jurisdiction pursuant to this subdivision, the case shall then proceed according to the laws applicable to a criminal case. In conjunction with the preliminary hearing as provided in Section 738 of the Penal Code, the magistrate shall make a finding that reasonable cause exists to believe that the minor comes within this subdivision. If reasonable cause is not established, the criminal court shall transfer the case to the juvenile court having jurisdiction over the matter. (5) For an offense for which the prosecutor may file the accusatory pleading in a court of criminal jurisdiction pursuant to this subdivision, but elects instead to file a petition in the juvenile court, if the minor is subsequently found to be a person described in subdivision (a) of Section 602, the minor shall be committed to placement in a juvenile hall, ranch camp, forestry camp, boot camp, or secure juvenile home pursuant to Section 730, or in any institution operated by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, Division of Juvenile Facilities. (6) If, pursuant to this subdivision, the minor is found to be not a fit and proper subject for juvenile court treatment and is tried in a court of criminal jurisdiction and found guilty by the trier of fact, the judge may commit the minor to the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, Division of Juvenile Facilities, in lieu of sentencing the minor to the state prison, unless the limitations specified in Section 1732.6 apply. (e) A report submitted by a probation officer pursuant to this section regarding the behavioral patterns and social history of the minor being considered for a determination of unfitness shall include any written or oral statement offered by the victim, the victim's parent or guardian if the victim is a minor, or if the victim has died, the victim's next of kin, as authorized by subdivision (b) of Section 656.2. Victims' statements shall be considered by the court to the extent they are relevant to the court's determination of unfitness. SEC. 98. Section 727 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read: 727. (a) When a minor is adjudged a ward of the court on the ground that he or she is a person described by Section 601 or 602, the court may make any and all reasonable orders for the care, supervision, custody, conduct, maintenance, and support of the minor, including medical treatment, subject to further order of the court. To facilitate coordination and cooperation among governmental agencies, the court may, after giving notice and an opportunity to be heard, join in the juvenile court proceedings any agency that the court determines has failed to meet a legal obligation to provide services to the minor. However, no governmental agency shall be joined as a party in a juvenile court proceeding in which a minor has been ordered committed to the Department of the Youth Authority. In any proceeding in which an agency is joined, the court shall not impose duties upon the agency beyond those mandated by law. Nothing in this section shall prohibit agencies which have received notice of the hearing on joinder from meeting prior to the hearing to coordinate services for the minor. The court has no authority to order services unless it has been determined through the administrative process of an agency that has been joined as a party, that the minor is eligible for those services. With respect to mental health assessment, treatment, and case management services pursuant to Chapter 26.5 (commencing with Section 7570) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code, the court's determination shall be limited to whether the agency has complied with that chapter. In the discretion of the court, a ward may be ordered to be on probation without supervision of the probation officer. The court, in so ordering, may impose on the ward any and all reasonable conditions of behavior as may be appropriate under this disposition. A minor who has been adjudged a ward of the court on the basis of the commission of any of the offenses described in subdivision (b) or paragraph (2) of subdivision (d) of Section 707, Section 459 of the Penal Code, or subdivision (a) of Section 11350 of the Health and Safety Code, shall not be eligible for probation without supervision of the probation officer. A minor who has been adjudged a ward of the court on the basis of the commission of any offense involving the sale or possession for sale of a controlled substance, except misdemeanor offenses involving marijuana, as specified in Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 11053) of Division 10 of the Health and Safety Code, or of an offense in violation of Section  12220   32625  of the Penal Code, shall be eligible for probation without supervision of the probation officer only when the court determines that the interests of justice would best be served and states reasons on the record for that determination. In all other cases, the court shall order the care, custody, and control of the minor to be under the supervision of the probation officer who may place the minor in any of the following: (1) The approved home of a relative, or the approved home of a nonrelative, extended family member as defined in Section 362.7. When a decision has been made to place the minor in the home of a relative, the court may authorize the relative to give legal consent for the minor's medical, surgical, and dental care and education as if the relative caretaker were the custodial parent of the minor. (2) A suitable licensed community care facility. (3) With a foster family agency to be placed in a suitable licensed foster family home or certified family home which has been certified by the agency as meeting licensing standards. (4) (A) Every child adjudged a ward of the juvenile court who is residing in a placement as defined in paragraphs (1) to (3), inclusive, shall be entitled to participate in age-appropriate extracurricular, enrichment, and social activities. No state or local regulation or policy may prevent, or create barriers to, participation in those activities. Each state and local entity shall ensure that private agencies that provide foster care services to wards have policies consistent with this section and that those agencies promote and protect the ability of wards to participate in age-appropriate extracurricular, enrichment, and social activities. A group home administrator, a facility manager, or his or her responsible designee, and a caregiver, as defined in paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 362.04, shall use a reasonable and prudent parent standard, as defined in paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 362.04, in determining whether to give permission for a child residing in foster care to participate in extracurricular, enrichment, and social activities. A group home administrator, a facility manager, or his or her responsible designee, and a caregiver shall take reasonable steps to determine the appropriateness of the activity taking into consideration the child's age, maturity, and developmental level. (B) A group home administrator or a facility manager, or his or her responsible designee, is encouraged to consult with social work or treatment staff members who are most familiar with the child at the group home in applying and using the reasonable and prudent parent standard. (b) When a minor has been adjudged a ward of the court on the ground that he or she is a person described in Section 601 or 602 and the court finds that notice has been given in accordance with Section 661, and when the court orders that a parent or guardian shall retain custody of that minor either subject to or without the supervision of the probation officer, the parent or guardian may be required to participate with that minor in a counseling or education program including, but not limited to, parent education and parenting programs operated by community colleges, school districts, or other appropriate agencies designated by the court. (c) The juvenile court may direct any and all reasonable orders to the parents and guardians of the minor who is the subject of any proceedings under this chapter as the court deems necessary and proper to carry out subdivisions (a) and (b), including orders to appear before a county financial evaluation officer and orders directing the parents or guardians to ensure the minor's regular school attendance and to make reasonable efforts to obtain appropriate educational services necessary to meet the needs of the minor. When counseling or other treatment services are ordered for the minor, the parent, guardian, or foster parent shall be ordered to participate in those services, unless participation by the parent, guardian, or foster parent is deemed by the court to be inappropriate or potentially detrimental to the child. SEC. 99. Section 1772 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read: 1772. (a) Subject to subdivision (b), every person honorably discharged from control by the Youth Authority Board who has not, during the period of control by the authority, been placed by the authority in a state prison shall thereafter be released from all penalties and disabilities resulting from the offense or crime for which he or she was committed, and every person discharged may petition the court which committed him or her, and the court may upon that petition set aside the verdict of guilty and dismiss the accusation or information against the petitioner who shall thereafter be released from all penalties and disabilities resulting from the offense or crime for which he or she was committed, including, but not limited to, any disqualification for any employment or occupational license, or both, created by any other provision of law. (b) Notwithstanding subdivision (a): (1) A person described by subdivision (a) shall not be eligible for appointment as a peace officer employed by any public agency if his or her appointment would otherwise be prohibited by Section 1029 of the Government Code. However, that person may be appointed and employed as a peace officer by the Department of the Youth Authority if (A) at least five years have passed since his or her honorable discharge, and the person has had no misdemeanor or felony convictions except for traffic misdemeanors since he or she was honorably discharged by the Youth Authority Board, or (B) the person was employed as a peace officer by the Department of the Youth Authority on or before January 1, 1983. No person who is under the jurisdiction of the Department of the Youth Authority shall be admitted to an examination for a peace officer position with the department unless and until the person has been honorably discharged from the jurisdiction of the Youth Authority Board. (2) A person described by subdivision (a) is subject to  Sections 12021 and 12021.1   Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 29800) and Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 29900) of Division 9 of Title 4 of Part 6  of the Penal Code. (3) The conviction of a person described by subdivision (a) for an offense listed in subdivision (b) of Section 707 is admissible in a subsequent criminal, juvenile, or civil proceeding if otherwise admissible, if all the following are true: (A) The person was 16 years of age or older at the time he or she committed the offense. (B) The person was found unfit to be dealt with under the juvenile court law pursuant to Section 707 because he or she was alleged to have committed an offense listed in subdivision (b) of Section 707. (C) The person was tried as an adult and convicted of an offense listed in subdivision (b) of Section 707. (D) The person was committed to the Department of the Youth Authority for the offense referred to in subparagraph (C). (4) The conviction of a person described by subdivision (a) may be used to enhance the punishment for a subsequent offense. (5) The conviction of a person who is 18 years of age or older at the time he or she committed the offense is admissible in a subsequent civil, criminal, or juvenile proceeding, if otherwise admissible pursuant to law. (c) Every person discharged from control by the Youth Authority Board shall be informed of the provisions of this section in writing at the time of discharge. (d) "Honorably discharged" as used in this section means and includes every person whose discharge is based upon a good record on parole. SEC. 100. Section 4514 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read: 4514. All information and records obtained in the course of providing intake, assessment, and services under Division 4.1 (commencing with Section 4400), Division 4.5 (commencing with Section 4500), Division 6 (commencing with Section 6000), or Division 7 (commencing with Section 7100) to persons with developmental disabilities shall be confidential. Information and records obtained in the course of providing similar services to either voluntary or involuntary recipients prior to 1969 shall also be confidential. Information and records shall be disclosed only in any of the following cases: (a) In communications between qualified professional persons, whether employed by a regional center or state developmental center, or not, in the provision of intake, assessment, and services or appropriate referrals. The consent of the person with a developmental disability, or his or her guardian or conservator, shall be obtained before information or records may be disclosed by regional center or state developmental center personnel to a professional not employed by the regional center or state developmental center, or a program not vendored by a regional center or state developmental center. (b) When the person with a developmental disability, who has the capacity to give informed consent, designates individuals to whom information or records may be released, except that nothing in this chapter shall be construed to compel a physician, psychologist, social worker, marriage and family therapist, nurse, attorney, or other professional to reveal information that has been given to him or her in confidence by a family member of the person unless a valid release has been executed by that family member. (c) To the extent necessary for a claim, or for a claim or application to be made on behalf of a person with a developmental disability for aid, insurance, government benefit, or medical assistance to which he or she may be entitled. (d) If the person with a developmental disability is a minor, ward, or conservatee, and his or her parent, guardian, conservator, or limited conservator with access to confidential records, designates, in writing, persons to whom records or information may be disclosed, except that nothing in this chapter shall be construed to compel a physician, psychologist, social worker, marriage and family therapist, nurse, attorney, or other professional to reveal information that has been given to him or her in confidence by a family member of the person unless a valid release has been executed by that family member. (e) For research, provided that the Director of Developmental Services designates by regulation rules for the conduct of research and requires the research to be first reviewed by the appropriate institutional review board or boards. These rules shall include, but need not be limited to, the requirement that all researchers shall sign an oath of confidentiality as follows: "" ____________________________ Date As a condition of doing research concerning persons with developmental disabilities who have received services from ____ (fill in the facility, agency or person), I, ____, agree to obtain the prior informed consent of persons who have received services to the maximum degree possible as determined by the appropriate institutional review board or boards for protection of human subjects reviewing my research, or the person's parent, guardian, or conservator, and I further agree not to divulge any information obtained in the course of the research to unauthorized persons, and not to publish or otherwise make public any information regarding persons who have received services so those persons who received services are identifiable. I recognize that the unauthorized release of confidential information may make me subject to a civil action under provisions of the Welfare and Institutions Code. ________________________'' Signed (f) To the courts, as necessary to the administration of justice. (g) To governmental law enforcement agencies as needed for the protection of federal and state elective constitutional officers and their families. (h) To the Senate Committee on Rules or the Assembly Committee on Rules for the purposes of legislative investigation authorized by the committee. (i) To the courts and designated parties as part of a regional center report or assessment in compliance with a statutory or regulatory requirement, including, but not limited to, Section 1827.5 of the Probate Code, Sections 1001.22 and 1370.1 of the Penal Code, Section 6502 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, and Section 56557 of Title 17 of the California Code of Regulations. (j) To the attorney for the person with a developmental disability in any and all proceedings upon presentation of a release of information signed by the person, except that when the person lacks the capacity to give informed consent, the regional center or state developmental center director or designee, upon satisfying himself or herself of the identity of the attorney, and of the fact that the attorney represents the person, shall release all information and records relating to the person except that nothing in this article shall be construed to compel a physician, psychologist, social worker, marriage and family therapist, nurse, attorney, or other professional to reveal information that has been given to him or her in confidence by a family member of the person unless a valid release has been executed by that family member. (k) Upon written consent by a person with a developmental disability previously or presently receiving services from a regional center or state developmental center, the director of the regional center or state developmental center, or his or her designee, may release any information, except information that has been given in confidence by members of the family of the person with developmental disabilities, requested by a probation officer charged with the evaluation of the person after his or her conviction of a crime if the regional center or state developmental center director or designee determines that the information is relevant to the evaluation. The consent shall only be operative until sentence is passed on the crime of which the person was convicted. The confidential information released pursuant to this subdivision shall be transmitted to the court separately from the probation report and shall not be placed in the probation report. The confidential information shall remain confidential except for purposes of sentencing. After sentencing, the confidential information shall be sealed. (  l  ) Between persons who are trained and qualified to serve on "multidisciplinary personnel" teams pursuant to subdivision (d) of Section 18951. The information and records sought to be disclosed shall be relevant to the prevention, identification, management, or treatment of an abused child and his or her parents pursuant to Chapter 11 (commencing with Section 18950) of Part 6 of Division 9. (m) When a person with a developmental disability dies from any cause, natural or otherwise, while hospitalized in a state developmental center, the State Department of Developmental Services, the physician in charge of the client, or the professional in charge of the facility or his or her designee, shall release information and records to the coroner. The State Department of Developmental Services, the physician in charge of the client, or the professional in charge of the facility or his or her designee, shall not release any notes, summaries, transcripts, tapes, or records of conversations between the resident and health professional personnel of the hospital relating to the personal life of the resident that is not related to the diagnosis and treatment of the resident's physical condition. Any information released to the coroner pursuant to this section shall remain confidential and shall be sealed and shall not be made part of the public record. (n) To authorized licensing personnel who are employed by, or who are authorized representatives of, the State Department of Health Services, and who are licensed or registered health professionals, and to authorized legal staff or special investigators who are peace officers who are employed by, or who are authorized representatives of, the State Department of Social Services, as necessary to the performance of their duties to inspect, license, and investigate health facilities and community care facilities, and to ensure that the standards of care and services provided in these facilities are adequate and appropriate and to ascertain compliance with the rules and regulations to which the facility is subject. The confidential information shall remain confidential except for purposes of inspection, licensing, or investigation pursuant to Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 1250) and Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 1500) of Division 2 of the Health and Safety Code, or a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding in relation thereto. The confidential information may be used by the State Department of Health Services or the State Department of Social Services in a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding. The confidential information shall be available only to the judge or hearing officer and to the parties to the case. Names which are confidential shall be listed in attachments separate to the general pleadings. The confidential information shall be sealed after the conclusion of the criminal, civil, or administrative hearings, and shall not subsequently be released except in accordance with this subdivision. If the confidential information does not result in a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding, it shall be sealed after the State Department of Health Services or the State Department of Social Services decides that no further action will be taken in the matter of suspected licensing violations. Except as otherwise provided in this subdivision, confidential information in the possession of the State Department of Health Services or the State Department of Social Services shall not contain the name of the person with a developmental disability. (o) To any board which licenses and certifies professionals in the fields of mental health and developmental disabilities pursuant to state law, when the Director of Developmental Services has reasonable cause to believe that there has occurred a violation of any provision of law subject to the jurisdiction of a board and the records are relevant to the violation. The information shall be sealed after a decision is reached in the matter of the suspected violation, and shall not subsequently be released except in accordance with this subdivision. Confidential information in the possession of the board shall not contain the name of the person with a developmental disability. (p) To governmental law enforcement agencies by the director of a regional center or state developmental center, or his or her designee, when (1) the person with a developmental disability has been reported lost or missing or (2) there is probable cause to believe that a person with a developmental disability has committed, or has been the victim of, murder, manslaughter, mayhem, aggravated mayhem, kidnapping, robbery, carjacking, assault with the intent to commit a felony, arson, extortion, rape, forcible sodomy, forcible oral copulation, assault or battery, or unlawful possession of a weapon, as provided in  Section 12020   any provision listed in Section 16590  of the Penal Code. This subdivision shall be limited solely to information directly relating to the factual circumstances of the commission of the enumerated offenses and shall not include any information relating to the mental state of the patient or the circumstances of his or her treatment unless relevant to the crime involved. This subdivision shall not be construed as an exception to, or in any other way affecting, the provisions of Article 7 (commencing with Section 1010) of Chapter 4 of Division 8 of the Evidence Code, or Chapter 11 (commencing with Section 15600) and Chapter 13 (commencing with Section 15750) of Part 3 of Division 9. (q) To the Youth Authority and Adult Correctional Agency or any component thereof, as necessary to the administration of justice. (r) To an agency mandated to investigate a report of abuse filed pursuant to either Section 11164 of the Penal Code or Section 15630 of the Welfare and Institutions Code for the purposes of either a mandated or voluntary report or when those agencies request information in the course of conducting their investigation. (s) When a person with developmental disabilities, or the parent, guardian, or conservator of a person with developmental disabilities who lacks capacity to consent, fails to grant or deny a request by a regional center or state developmental center to release information or records relating to the person with developmental disabilities within a reasonable period of time, the director of the regional or developmental center, or his or her designee, may release information or records on behalf of that person provided both of the following conditions are met: (1) Release of the information or records is deemed necessary to protect the person's health, safety, or welfare. (2) The person, or the person's parent, guardian, or conservator, has been advised annually in writing of the policy of the regional center or state developmental center for release of confidential client information or records when the person with developmental disabilities, or the person's parent, guardian, or conservator, fails to respond to a request for release of the information or records within a reasonable period of time. A statement of policy contained in the client's individual program plan shall be deemed to comply with the notice requirement of this paragraph. (t) (1) When an employee is served with a notice of adverse action, as defined in Section 19570 of the Government Code, the following information and records may be released: (A) All information and records that the appointing authority relied upon in issuing the notice of adverse action. (B) All other information and records that are relevant to the adverse action, or that would constitute relevant evidence as defined in Section 210 of the Evidence Code. (C) The information described in subparagraphs (A) and (B) may be released only if both of the following conditions are met: (i) The appointing authority has provided written notice to the consumer and the consumer's legal representative or, if the consumer has no legal representative or if the legal representative is a state agency, to the clients' rights advocate, and the consumer, the consumer's legal representative, or the clients' rights advocate has not objected in writing to the appointing authority within five business days of receipt of the notice, or the appointing authority, upon review of the objection has determined that the circumstances on which the adverse action is based are egregious or threaten the health, safety, or life of the consumer or other consumers and without the information the adverse action could not be taken. (ii) The appointing authority, the person against whom the adverse action has been taken, and the person's representative, if any, have entered into a stipulation that does all of the following: (I) Prohibits the parties from disclosing or using the information or records for any purpose other than the proceedings for which the information or records were requested or provided. (II) Requires the employee and the employee's legal representative to return to the appointing authority all records provided to them under this subdivision, including, but not limited to, all records and documents or copies thereof that are no longer in the possession of the employee or the employee's legal representative because they were from any source containing confidential information protected by this section, and all copies of those records and documents, within 10 days of the date that the adverse action becomes final except for the actual records and documents submitted to the administrative tribunal as a component of an appeal from the adverse action. (III) Requires the parties to submit the stipulation to the administrative tribunal with jurisdiction over the adverse action at the earliest possible opportunity. (2) For the purposes of this subdivision, the State Personnel Board may, prior to any appeal from adverse action being filed with it, issue a protective order, upon application by the appointing authority, for the limited purpose of prohibiting the parties from disclosing or using information or records for any purpose other than the proceeding for which the information or records were requested or provided, and to require the employee or the employee's legal representative to return to the appointing authority all records provided to them under this subdivision, including, but not limited to, all records and documents from any source containing confidential information protected by this section, and all copies of those records and documents, within 10 days of the date that the adverse action becomes final, except for the actual records and documents that are no longer in the possession of the employee or the employee' s legal representatives because they were submitted to the administrative tribunal as a component of an appeal from the adverse action. (3) Individual identifiers, including, but not limited to, names, social security numbers, and hospital numbers, that are not necessary for the prosecution or defense of the adverse action, shall not be disclosed. (4) All records, documents, or other materials containing confidential information protected by this section that have been submitted or otherwise disclosed to the administrative agency or other person as a component of an appeal from an adverse action shall, upon proper motion by the appointing authority to the administrative tribunal, be placed under administrative seal and shall not, thereafter, be subject to disclosure to any person or entity except upon the issuance of an order of a court of competent jurisdiction. (5) For purposes of this subdivision, an adverse action becomes final when the employee fails to answer within the time specified in Section 19575 of the Government Code, or, after filing an answer, withdraws the appeal, or, upon exhaustion of the administrative appeal or of the judicial review remedies as otherwise provided by law. SEC. 101. Section 5328.4 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read: 5328.4. The physician in charge of the patient, or the professional person in charge of the facility or his or her designee, when he or she has probable cause to believe that a patient while hospitalized has committed, or has been the victim of, murder, manslaughter, mayhem, aggravated mayhem, kidnapping, carjacking, robbery, assault with intent to commit a felony, arson, extortion, rape, forcible sodomy, forcible oral copulation, unlawful possession of a weapon as provided in  Section 12020   any provisi   on listed in Section 16590  of the Penal Code, or escape from a hospital by a mentally disordered sex offender as provided in Section 6330 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, shall release information about the patient to governmental law enforcement agencies. The physician in charge of the patient, or the professional person in charge of the facility or his or her designee, when he or she has probable cause to believe that a patient, while hospitalized has committed, or has been the victim of assault or battery may release information about the patient to governmental law enforcement agencies. This section shall be limited solely to information directly relating to the factual circumstances of the commission of the enumerated offenses and shall not include any information relating to the mental state of the patient or the circumstances of his or her voluntary or involuntary admission, commitment, or treatment. This section shall not be construed as an exception to or in any other way affecting the provisions of Article 7 (commencing with Section 1010) of Chapter 4 of Division 8 of the Evidence Code. SEC. 102. Section 6500 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read: 6500. On and after July 1, 1971, no mentally retarded person may be committed to the State Department of Developmental Services pursuant to this article, unless he or she is a danger to himself or herself, or others. For the purposes of this article, dangerousness to self or others shall be considered to include, but not be limited to, a finding of incompetence to stand trial pursuant to the provisions of Chapter 6 (commencing with Section 1367) of Title 10 of Part 2 of the Penal Code when the defendant has been charged with murder, mayhem, aggravated mayhem, a violation of Section 207, 209, or 209.5 of the Penal Code in which the victim suffers intentionally inflicted great bodily injury, robbery perpetrated by torture or by a person armed with a dangerous or deadly weapon or in which the victim suffers great bodily injury, carjacking perpetrated by torture or by a person armed with a dangerous or deadly weapon or in which the victim suffers great bodily injury, a violation of subdivision (b) of Section 451 of the Penal Code, a violation of paragraph (1) or (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 262 or paragraph (2) or (3) of subdivision (a) of Section 261 of the Penal Code, a violation of Section 288 of the Penal Code, any of the following acts when committed by force, violence, duress, menace, fear of immediate and unlawful bodily injury on the victim or another person: a violation of paragraph (1) or (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 262 of the Penal Code, a violation of Section 264.1, 286, or 288a of the Penal Code, or a violation of subdivision (a) of Section 289 of the Penal Code; a violation of Section 459 of the Penal Code in the first degree, assault with intent to commit murder, a violation of Section 220 of the Penal Code in which the victim suffers great bodily injury, a violation of Section  12303.1, 12303.3, 12308, 12309, or 12310   18725, 18740, 18745, 18750, or 18755  of the Penal Code, or if the defendant has been charged with a felony involving death, great bodily injury, or an act which poses a serious threat of bodily harm to another person. If the mentally retarded person is in the care or treatment of a state hospital, developmental center, or other facility at the time a petition for commitment is filed pursuant to this article, proof of a recent overt act while in the care and treatment of a state hospital, developmental center, or other facility is not required in order to find that the person is a danger to self or others. Any order of commitment made pursuant to this article shall expire automatically one year after the order of commitment is made. This section shall not be construed to prohibit any party enumerated in Section 6502 from filing subsequent petitions for additional periods of commitment. In the event subsequent petitions are filed, the procedures followed shall be the same as with an initial petition for commitment. In any proceedings conducted under the authority of this article, the alleged mentally retarded person shall be informed of his or her right to counsel by the court, and if the person does not have an attorney for the proceedings, the court shall immediately appoint the public defender or other attorney to represent him or her. The person shall pay the cost for the legal services if he or she is able to do so. At any judicial proceeding under the provisions of this article, allegations that a person is mentally retarded and a danger to himself or herself or to others shall be presented by the district attorney for the county unless the board of supervisors, by ordinance or resolution, delegates this authority to the county counsel. SEC. 103. Section 8100 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read: 8100. (a) A person shall not have in his or her possession or under his or her custody or control, or purchase or receive, or attempt to purchase or receive, any firearms whatsoever or any other deadly weapon, if on or after January 1, 1992, he or she has been admitted to a facility and is receiving inpatient treatment and, in the opinion of the attending health professional who is primarily responsible for the patient's treatment of a mental disorder, is a danger to self or others, as specified by Section 5150, 5250, or 5300, even though the patient has consented to that treatment. A person is not subject to this subdivision once he or she is discharged from the facility. (b) (1) A person shall not have in his or her possession or under his or her custody or control, or purchase or receive, or attempt to purchase or receive, any firearms whatsoever or any other deadly weapon for a period of six months whenever, on or after January 1, 1992, he or she communicates to a licensed psychotherapist, as defined in subdivisions (a) to (e), inclusive, of Section 1010 of the Evidence Code, a serious threat of physical violence against a reasonably identifiable victim or victims. The six-month period shall commence from the date that the licensed psychotherapist reports to the local law enforcement agency the identity of the person making the communication. The prohibition provided for in this subdivision shall not apply unless the licensed psychotherapist notifies a local law enforcement agency of the threat by that person. The person, however, may own, possess, have custody or control over, or receive or purchase any firearm if a superior court, pursuant to paragraph (3) and upon petition of the person, has found, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the person is likely to use firearms or other deadly weapons in a safe and lawful manner. (2) Upon receipt of the report from the local law enforcement agency pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 8105, the Department of Justice shall notify by certified mail, return receipt requested, a person subject to this subdivision of the following: (A) That he or she is prohibited from possessing, having custody or control over, receiving, or purchasing any firearm or other deadly weapon for a period of six months commencing from the date that the licensed psychotherapist reports to the local law enforcement agency the identity of the person making the communication. The notice shall state the date when the prohibition commences and ends. (B) That he or she may petition a court, as provided in this subdivision, for an order permitting the person to own, possess, control, receive, or purchase a firearm. (3) Any person who is subject to paragraph (1) may petition the superior court of his or her county of residence for an order that he or she may own, possess, have custody or control over, receive, or purchase firearms. At the time the petition is filed, the clerk of the court shall set a hearing date and notify the person, the Department of Justice, and the district attorney. The people of the State of California shall be the respondent in the proceeding and shall be represented by the district attorney. Upon motion of the district attorney, or upon its own motion, the superior court may transfer the petition to the county in which the person resided at the time of the statements, or the county in which the person made the statements. Within seven days after receiving notice of the petition, the Department of Justice shall file copies of the reports described in Section 8105 with the superior court. The reports shall be disclosed upon request to the person and to the district attorney. The district attorney shall be entitled to a continuance of the hearing to a date of not less than 14 days after the district attorney is notified of the hearing date by the clerk of the court. The court, upon motion of the petitioner establishing that confidential information is likely to be discussed during the hearing that would cause harm to the person, shall conduct the hearing in camera with only the relevant parties present, unless the court finds that the public interest would be better served by conducting the hearing in public. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, declarations, police reports, including criminal history information, and any other material and relevant evidence that is not excluded under Section 352 of the Evidence Code, shall be admissible at the hearing under this paragraph. If the court finds by a preponderance of the evidence that the person would be likely to use firearms in a safe and lawful manner, the court shall order that the person may have custody or control over, receive, possess, or purchase firearms. A copy of the order shall be submitted to the Department of Justice. Upon receipt of the order, the department shall delete any reference to the prohibition against firearms from the person's state summary criminal history information. (c) "Discharge," for the purposes of this section, does not include a leave of absence from a facility. (d) "Attending health care professional," as used in this section, means the licensed health care professional primarily responsible for the person's treatment who is qualified to make the decision that the person has a mental disorder and has probable cause to believe that the person is a danger to self or others. (e) "Deadly weapon," as used in this section and in Sections 8101, 8102, and 8103, means any weapon, the possession or concealed carrying of which is prohibited by  Section 12020   any provision listed in Section 16590  of the Penal Code. (f) "Danger to self," as used in subdivision (a), means a voluntary person who has made a serious threat of, or attempted, suicide with the use of a firearm or other deadly weapon. (g) A violation of subdivision (a) of, or paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) of, this section shall be a public offense, punishable by imprisonment in the state prison, or in a county jail for not more than one year, by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that imprisonment and fine. (h) The prohibitions set forth in this section shall be in addition to those set forth in Section 8103. (i) Any person admitted and receiving treatment prior to January 1, 1992, shall be governed by this section, as amended by Chapter 1090 of the Statutes of 1990, until discharged from the facility. SEC. 104. Section 8103 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read: 8103. (a) (1) No person who after October 1, 1955, has been adjudicated by a court of any state to be a danger to others as a result of a mental disorder or mental illness, or who has been adjudicated to be a mentally disordered sex offender, shall purchase or receive, or attempt to purchase or receive, or have in his or her possession, custody, or control any firearm or any other deadly weapon unless there has been issued to the person a certificate by the court of adjudication upon release from treatment or at a later date stating that the person may possess a firearm or any other deadly weapon without endangering others, and the person has not, subsequent to the issuance of the certificate, again been adjudicated by a court to be a danger to others as a result of a mental disorder or mental illness. (2) The court shall immediately notify the Department of Justice of the court order finding the individual to be a person described in paragraph (1). The court shall also notify the Department of Justice of any certificate issued as described in paragraph (1). (b) (1) No person who has been found, pursuant to Section 1026 of the Penal Code or the law of any other state or the United States, not guilty by reason of insanity of murder, mayhem, a violation of Section 207, 209, or 209.5 of the Penal Code in which the victim suffers intentionally inflicted great bodily injury, carjacking or robbery in which the victim suffers great bodily injury, a violation of Section 451 or 452 of the Penal Code involving a trailer coach, as defined in Section 635 of the Vehicle Code, or any dwelling house, a violation of paragraph (1) or (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 262 or paragraph (2) or (3) of subdivision (a) of Section 261 of the Penal Code, a violation of Section 459 of the Penal Code in the first degree, assault with intent to commit murder, a violation of Section 220 of the Penal Code in which the victim suffers great bodily injury, a violation of Section  12303.1, 12303.2, 12303.3, 12308, 12309, or 12310   18715, 18725, 18740, 18745, 18750, or 18755  of the Penal Code, or of a felony involving death, great bodily injury, or an act which poses a serious threat of bodily harm to another person, or a violation of the law of any other state or the United States that includes all the elements of any of the above felonies as defined under California law, shall purchase or receive, or attempt to purchase or receive, or have in his or her possession or under his or her custody or control any firearm or any other deadly weapon. (2) The court shall immediately notify the Department of Justice of the court order finding the person to be a person described in paragraph (1). (c) (1) No person who has been found, pursuant to Section 1026 of the Penal Code or the law of any other state or the United States, not guilty by reason of insanity of any crime other than those described in subdivision (b) shall purchase or receive, or attempt to purchase or receive, or shall have in his or her possession, custody, or control any firearm or any other deadly weapon unless the court of commitment has found the person to have recovered sanity, pursuant to Section 1026.2 of the Penal Code or the law of any other state or the United States. (2) The court shall immediately notify the Department of Justice of the court order finding the person to be a person described in paragraph (1). The court shall also notify the Department of Justice when it finds that the person has recovered his or her sanity. (d) (1) No person found by a court to be mentally incompetent to stand trial, pursuant to Section 1370 or 1370.1 of the Penal Code or the law of any other state or the United States, shall purchase or receive, or attempt to purchase or receive, or shall have in his or her possession, custody, or control any firearm or any other deadly weapon, unless there has been a finding with respect to the person of restoration to competence to stand trial by the committing court, pursuant to Section 1372 of the Penal Code or the law of any other state or the United States. (2) The court shall immediately notify the Department of Justice of the court order finding the person to be mentally incompetent as described in paragraph (1). The court shall also notify the Department of Justice when it finds that the person has recovered his or her competence. (e) (1) No person who has been placed under conservatorship by a court, pursuant to Section 5350 or the law of any other state or the United States, because the person is gravely disabled as a result of a mental disorder or impairment by chronic alcoholism shall purchase or receive, or attempt to purchase or receive, or shall have in his or her possession, custody, or control any firearm or any other deadly weapon while under the conservatorship if, at the time the conservatorship was ordered or thereafter, the court which imposed the conservatorship found that possession of a firearm or any other deadly weapon by the person would present a danger to the safety of the person or to others. Upon placing any person under conservatorship, and prohibiting firearm or any other deadly weapon possession by the person, the court shall notify the person of this prohibition. (2) The court shall immediately notify the Department of Justice of the court order placing the person under conservatorship and prohibiting firearm or any other deadly weapon possession by the person as described in paragraph (1). The notice shall include the date the conservatorship was imposed and the date the conservatorship is to be terminated. If the conservatorship is subsequently terminated before the date listed in the notice to the Department of Justice or the court subsequently finds that possession of a firearm or any other deadly weapon by the person would no longer present a danger to the safety of the person or others, the court shall immediately notify the Department of Justice. (3) All information provided to the Department of Justice pursuant to paragraph (2) shall be kept confidential, separate, and apart from all other records maintained by the Department of Justice, and shall be used only to determine eligibility to purchase or possess firearms or other deadly weapons. Any person who knowingly furnishes that information for any other purpose is guilty of a misdemeanor. All the information concerning any person shall be destroyed upon receipt by the Department of Justice of notice of the termination of conservatorship as to that person pursuant to paragraph (2). (f) (1) No person who has been (A) taken into custody as provided in Section 5150 because that person is a danger to himself, herself, or to others, (B) assessed within the meaning of Section 5151, and (C) admitted to a designated facility within the meaning of Sections 5151 and 5152 because that person is a danger to himself, herself, or others, shall own, possess, control, receive, or purchase, or attempt to own, possess, control, receive, or purchase any firearm for a period of five years after the person is released from the facility. A person described in the preceding sentence, however, may own, possess, control, receive, or purchase, or attempt to own, possess, control, receive, or purchase any firearm if the superior court has, pursuant to paragraph (5), found that the People of the State of California have not met their burden pursuant to paragraph (6). (2) For each person subject to this subdivision, the facility shall immediately, on the date of admission, submit a report to the Department of Justice, on a form prescribed by the Department of Justice, containing information that includes, but is not limited to, the identity of the person and the legal grounds upon which the person was admitted to the facility. Any report prescribed by this subdivision shall be confidential, except for purposes of the court proceedings described in this subdivision and for determining the eligibility of the person to own, possess, control, receive, or purchase a firearm. (3) Prior to, or concurrent with, the discharge, the facility shall inform a person subject to this subdivision that he or she is prohibited from owning, possessing, controlling, receiving, or purchasing any firearm for a period of five years. Simultaneously, the facility shall inform the person that he or she may request a hearing from a court, as provided in this subdivision, for an order permitting the person to own, possess, control, receive, or purchase a firearm. The facility shall provide the person with a form for a request for a hearing. The Department of Justice shall prescribe the form. Where the person requests a hearing at the time of discharge, the facility shall forward the form to the superior court unless the person states that he or she will submit the form to the superior court. (4) The Department of Justice shall provide the form upon request to any person described in paragraph (1). The Department of Justice shall also provide the form to the superior court in each county. A person described in paragraph (1) may make a single request for a hearing at any time during the five-year period. The request for hearing shall be made on the form prescribed by the department or in a document that includes equivalent language. (5) Any person who is subject to paragraph (1) who has requested a hearing from the superior court of his or her county of residence for an order that he or she may own, possess, control, receive, or purchase firearms shall be given a hearing. The clerk of the court shall set a hearing date and notify the person, the Department of Justice, and the district attorney. The People of the State of California shall be the plaintiff in the proceeding and shall be represented by the district attorney. Upon motion of the district attorney, or on its own motion, the superior court may transfer the hearing to the county in which the person resided at the time of his or her detention, the county in which the person was detained, or the county in which the person was evaluated or treated. Within seven days after the request for a hearing, the Department of Justice shall file copies of the reports described in this section with the superior court. The reports shall be disclosed upon request to the person and to the district attorney. The court shall set the hearing within 30 days of receipt of the request for a hearing. Upon showing good cause, the district attorney shall be entitled to a continuance not to exceed 14 days after the district attorney was notified of the hearing date by the clerk of the court. If additional continuances are granted, the total length of time for continuances shall not exceed 60 days. The district attorney may notify the county mental health director of the hearing who shall provide information about the detention of the person that may be relevant to the court and shall file that information with the superior court. That information shall be disclosed to the person and to the district attorney. The court, upon motion of the person subject to paragraph (1) establishing that confidential information is likely to be discussed during the hearing that would cause harm to the person, shall conduct the hearing in camera with only the relevant parties present, unless the court finds that the public interest would be better served by conducting the hearing in public. Notwithstanding any other law, declarations, police reports, including criminal history information, and any other material and relevant evidence that is not excluded under Section 352 of the Evidence Code, shall be admissible at the hearing under this section. (6) The people shall bear the burden of showing by a preponderance of the evidence that the person would not be likely to use firearms in a safe and lawful manner. (7) If the court finds at the hearing set forth in paragraph (5) that the people have not met their burden as set forth in paragraph (6), the court shall order that the person shall not be subject to the five-year prohibition in this section on the ownership, control, receipt, possession or purchase of firearms. A copy of the order shall be submitted to the Department of Justice. Upon receipt of the order, the Department of Justice shall delete any reference to the prohibition against firearms from the person's state mental health firearms prohibition system information. (8) Where the district attorney declines or fails to go forward in the hearing, the court shall order that the person shall not be subject to the five-year prohibition required by this subdivision on the ownership, control, receipt, possession, or purchase of firearms. A copy of the order shall be submitted to the Department of Justice. Upon receipt of the order, the Department of Justice shall, within 15 days, delete any reference to the prohibition against firearms from the person's state mental health firearms prohibition system information. (9) Nothing in this subdivision shall prohibit the use of reports filed pursuant to this section to determine the eligibility of persons to own, possess, control, receive, or purchase a firearm if the person is the subject of a criminal investigation, a part of which involves the ownership, possession, control, receipt, or purchase of a firearm. (g) (1) No person who has been certified for intensive treatment under Section 5250, 5260, or 5270.15 shall own, possess, control, receive, or purchase, or attempt to own, possess, control, receive, or purchase any firearm for a period of five years. Any person who meets the criteria contained in subdivision (e) or (f) who is released from intensive treatment shall nevertheless, if applicable, remain subject to the prohibition contained in subdivision (e) or (f). (2) For each person certified for intensive treatment under paragraph (1), the facility shall immediately submit a report to the Department of Justice, on a form prescribed by the department, containing information regarding the person, including, but not limited to, the legal identity of the person and the legal grounds upon which the person was certified. Any report submitted pursuant to this paragraph shall only be used for the purposes specified in paragraph (2) of subdivision (f). (3) Prior to, or concurrent with, the discharge of each person certified for intensive treatment under paragraph (1), the facility shall inform the person of that information specified in paragraph (3) of subdivision (f). (4) Any person who is subject to paragraph (1) may petition the superior court of his or her county of residence for an order that he or she may own, possess, control, receive, or purchase firearms. At the time the petition is filed, the clerk of the court shall set a hearing date and notify the person, the Department of Justice, and the district attorney. The People of the State of California shall be the respondent in the proceeding and shall be represented by the district attorney. Upon motion of the district attorney, or on its own motion, the superior court may transfer the petition to the county in which the person resided at the time of his or her detention, the county in which the person was detained, or the county in which the person was evaluated or treated. Within seven days after receiving notice of the petition, the Department of Justice shall file copies of the reports described in this section with the superior court. The reports shall be disclosed upon request to the person and to the district attorney. The district attorney shall be entitled to a continuance of the hearing to a date of not less than 14 days after the district attorney was notified of the hearing date by the clerk of the court. The district attorney may notify the county mental health director of the petition, and the county mental health director shall provide information about the detention of the person that may be relevant to the court and shall file that information with the superior court. That information shall be disclosed to the person and to the district attorney. The court, upon motion of the person subject to paragraph (1) establishing that confidential information is likely to be discussed during the hearing that would cause harm to the person, shall conduct the hearing in camera with only the relevant parties present, unless the court finds that the public interest would be better served by conducting the hearing in public. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, any declaration, police reports, including criminal history information, and any other material and relevant evidence that is not excluded under Section 352 of the Evidence Code, shall be admissible at the hearing under this section. If the court finds by a preponderance of the evidence that the person would be likely to use firearms in a safe and lawful manner, the court may order that the person may own, control, receive, possess, or purchase firearms. A copy of the order shall be submitted to the Department of Justice. Upon receipt of the order, the Department of Justice shall delete any reference to the prohibition against firearms from the person's state mental health firearms prohibition system information. (h) For all persons identified in subdivisions (f) and (g), facilities shall report to the Department of Justice as specified in those subdivisions, except facilities shall not report persons under subdivision (g) if the same persons previously have been reported under subdivision (f). Additionally, all facilities shall report to the Department of Justice upon the discharge of persons from whom reports have been submitted pursuant to subdivision (f) or (g). However, a report shall not be filed for persons who are discharged within 31 days after the date of admission. (i) Every person who owns or possesses or has under his or her custody or control, or purchases or receives, or attempts to purchase or receive, any firearm or any other deadly weapon in violation of this section shall be punished by imprisonment in the state prison or in a county jail for not more than one year. (j) "Deadly weapon," as used in this section, has the meaning prescribed by Section 8100. SEC. 105. Section 8104 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read: 8104. The State Department of Mental Health shall maintain in a convenient central location and shall make available to the Department of Justice those records that the State Department of Mental Health has in its possession that are necessary to identify persons who come within Section 8100 or 8103. These records shall be made available to the Department of Justice upon request. The Department of Justice shall make these requests only with respect to its duties with regard to applications for permits for, or to carry, or the possession, purchase, or transfer of, explosives as defined in Section 12000 of the Health and Safety Code, devices defined in Section  12001   16250, 16530, or 16640 of the Penal Code, in subdivisions (a) to (d), inclusive, of Section 16520 of the Penal Code, or in subdivision (a) of Section 16840  of the Penal Code, machineguns as defined in Section  12200   16880  of the Penal Code, short-barreled shotguns or short-barreled rifles as defined in  Section 12020   Sections 17170 and 17180  of the Penal Code, assault weapons as defined in Section  12276   30510  of the Penal Code, and destructive devices as defined in Section  12301   16460  of the Penal Code, or to determine the eligibility of a person to acquire, carry, or possess a firearm, explosive, or destructive device by a person who is subject to a criminal investigation, a part of which involves the acquisition, carrying, or possession of a firearm by that person. These records shall not be furnished or made available to any person unless the department determines that disclosure of any information in the records is necessary to carry out its duties with respect to applications for permits for, or to carry, or the possession, purchase, or transfer of, explosives, destructive devices, devices as defined in Section  12001   16250, 16530, or 16640 of the Penal Code, in subdivisions (a) to (d), inclusive, of Section 16520 of the Penal Code, or in subdivision (a) of Section 16840  of the Penal Code, short-barreled shotguns, short-barreled rifles, assault weapons, and machineguns, or to determine the eligibility of a person to acquire, carry, or possess a firearm, explosive, or destructive device by a person who is subject to a criminal investigation, a part of which involves the acquisition, carrying, or possession of a firearm by that person. SEC. 106. Section 15657.03 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, as added by Section 2 of Chapter 480 of the Statutes of 2008, is amended to read: 15657.03. (a) An elder or dependent adult who has suffered abuse as defined in Section 15610.07 may seek protective orders as provided in this section. (b) For the purposes of this section, "protective order" means an order that includes any of the following restraining orders, whether issued ex parte, after notice and hearing, or in a judgment: (1) An order enjoining a party from abusing, intimidating, molesting, attacking, striking, stalking, threatening, sexually assaulting, battering, harassing, telephoning, including, but not limited to, annoying telephone calls as described in Section 653m of the Penal Code, destroying personal property, contacting, either directly or indirectly, by mail or otherwise, or coming within a specified distance of, or disturbing the peace of the petitioner, and, in the discretion of the court, on a showing of good cause, of other named family or household members or a conservator, if any, of the petitioner. (2) An order excluding a party from the petitioner's residence or dwelling, except that this order shall not be issued if legal or equitable title to, or lease of, the residence or dwelling is in the sole name of the party to be excluded, or is in the name of the party to be excluded and any other party besides the petitioner. (3) An order enjoining a party from specified behavior that the court determines is necessary to effectuate orders described in paragraph (1) or (2). (c) An order may be issued under this section, with or without notice, to restrain any person for the purpose of preventing a recurrence of abuse, if an affidavit shows, to the satisfaction of the court, reasonable proof of a past act or acts of abuse of the petitioning elder or dependent adult. (d) (1) Upon filing a petition for protective orders under this section, the petitioner may obtain a temporary restraining order in accordance with Section 527 of the Code of Civil Procedure, except to the extent this section provides a rule that is inconsistent. The temporary restraining order may include any of the protective orders described in subdivision (b). However, the court may issue an ex parte order excluding a party from the petitioner's residence or dwelling only on a showing of all of the following: (A) Facts sufficient for the court to ascertain that the party who will stay in the dwelling has a right under color of law to possession of the premises. (B) That the party to be excluded has assaulted or threatens to assault the petitioner, other named family or household member of the petitioner, or conservator of the petitioner. (C) That physical or emotional harm would otherwise result to the petitioner, other named family or household member of the petitioner, or conservator of the petitioner. (2) If a temporary restraining order is granted without notice, the matter shall be made returnable on an order requiring cause to be shown why a permanent order should not be granted, on the earliest day that the business of the court will permit, but not later than 20 days or, if good cause appears to the court, 25 days from the date the temporary restraining order is granted, unless the order is otherwise modified or terminated by the court. (e) The court may issue, upon notice and a hearing, any of the orders set forth in subdivision (b). The court may issue, after notice and hearing, an order excluding a person from a residence or dwelling if the court finds that physical or emotional harm would otherwise result to the petitioner, other named family or household member of the petitioner, or conservator of the petitioner. (f) In the discretion of the court, an order issued after notice and a hearing under this section may have a duration of not more than three years, subject to termination or modification by further order of the court either on written stipulation filed with the court or on the motion of a party. These orders may be renewed upon the request of a party, either for three years or permanently, without a showing of any further abuse since the issuance of the original order, subject to termination or modification by further order of the court either on written stipulation filed with the court or on the motion of a party. The failure to state the expiration date on the face of the form creates an order with a duration of three years from the date of issuance. (g) Upon the filing of a petition for protective orders under this section, the respondent shall be personally served with a copy of the petition, notice of the hearing or order to show cause, temporary restraining order, if any, and any affidavits in support of the petition. Service shall be made at least five days before the hearing. The court may, on motion of the petitioner or on its own motion, shorten the time for service on the respondent. (h) The court may, upon the filing of an affidavit by the applicant that the respondent could not be served within the time required by statute, reissue an order previously issued and dissolved by the court for failure to serve the respondent. The reissued order shall be made returnable on the earliest day that the business of the court will permit, but not later than 20 days or, if good cause appears to the court, 25 days from the date of reissuance. The reissued order shall state on its face the date of expiration of the order. (i) (1) If a person named in an order issued under this section, after a hearing, has not been served personally with the order but has received actual notice of the existence and substance of the order through personal appearance in court to hear the terms of the order from the court, no additional proof of service is required for enforcement of the order. (2) If the person named in a temporary restraining order is personally served with the order and notice of hearing with respect to a restraining order or protective order based thereon, but the person does not appear at the hearing, either personally or by counsel, and the terms and conditions of the restraining order or protective order are identical to the temporary restraining order, except for the duration of the order, then the restraining order or protective order may be served on the person by first-class mail sent to that person at the most current address for the person available to the court. (3) The judicial form for orders issued pursuant to this subdivision shall contain a statement in substantially the following form: "NO ADDITIONAL PROOF OF SERVICE IS REQUIRED IF THE FACE OF THIS FORM INDICATES THAT BOTH PARTIES WERE PERSONALLY PRESENT AT THE HEARING WHERE THE ORDER WAS ISSUED. IF YOU HAVE BEEN PERSONALLY SERVED WITH A TEMPORARY RESTRAINING ORDER OR EMERGENCY PROTECTIVE ORDER AND NOTICE OF HEARING, BUT YOU DO NOT APPEAR AT THE HEARING EITHER IN PERSON OR BY COUNSEL, AND A RESTRAINING ORDER OR PROTECTIVE ORDER IS ISSUED AT THE HEARING THAT DOES NOT DIFFER FROM THE PRIOR TEMPORARY RESTRAINING ORDER OR EMERGENCY PROTECTIVE ORDER, A COPY OF THE ORDER WILL BE SERVED UPON YOU BY MAIL AT THE FOLLOWING ADDRESS ____. IF THAT ADDRESS IS NOT CORRECT OR YOU WISH TO VERIFY THAT THE TEMPORARY OR EMERGENCY ORDER WAS MADE PERMANENT WITHOUT SUBSTANTIVE CHANGE, CALL THE CLERK OF THE COURT AT ____." (j) (1) The court shall order the petitioner or the attorney for the petitioner to deliver, or the clerk of the court to mail, a copy of an order issued under this section, or a reissuance, extension, modification, or termination of the order, and any subsequent proof of service, by the close of the business day on which the order, reissuance, extension, modification, or termination was made, to each local law enforcement agency designated by the petitioner or the attorney for the petitioner having jurisdiction over the residence of the petitioner, and to any additional law enforcement agencies within the court's discretion as are requested by the petitioner. Each appropriate law enforcement agency shall make available information as to the existence and current status of these orders to law enforcement officers responding to the scene of reported abuse. (2) An order issued under this section shall, on request of the petitioner, be served on the respondent, whether or not the respondent has been taken into custody, by any law enforcement officer who is present at the scene of reported abuse involving the parties to the proceeding. The petitioner shall provide the officer with an endorsed copy of the order and a proof of service, which the officer shall complete and send to the issuing court. (3) Upon receiving information at the scene of an incident of abuse that a protective order has been issued under this section, or that a person who has been taken into custody is the respondent to that order, if the protected person cannot produce an endorsed copy of the order, a law enforcement officer shall immediately attempt to verify the existence of the order. (4) If the law enforcement officer determines that a protective order has been issued, but not served, the officer shall immediately notify the respondent of the terms of the order and where a written copy of the order can be obtained, and the officer shall at that time also enforce the order. The law enforcement officer's verbal notice of the terms of the order shall constitute service of the order and is sufficient notice for the purposes of this section and for the purposes of Section 273.6 of the Penal Code. (k) Nothing in this section shall preclude either party from representation by private counsel or from appearing on the party's own behalf. (l) There is no filing fee for a petition, response, or paper seeking the reissuance, modification, or enforcement of a protective order filed in a proceeding brought pursuant to this section. (m) Pursuant to paragraph (4) of subdivision (b) of Section 6103.2 of the Government Code, a petitioner shall not be required to pay a fee for law enforcement to serve an order issued under this chapter. (n) The prevailing party in any action brought under this section may be awarded court costs and attorney's fees, if any. (o) (1) An order issued pursuant to this section shall prohibit the person subject to it from owning, possessing, purchasing, receiving, or attempting to purchase or receive, a firearm. (2) Paragraph (1) shall not apply to a case consisting solely of financial abuse unaccompanied by force, threat, harassment, intimidation, or any other form of abuse. (3) The court shall order a person subject to a protective order issued under this section to relinquish any firearms he or she owns or possesses pursuant to Section 527.9 of the Code of Civil Procedure. (4) Every person who owns, possesses, purchases, or receives, or attempts to purchase or receive a firearm while the protective order is in effect is punishable pursuant to subdivision (g) of Section 12021   Section 29825  of the Penal Code. (p) Any willful disobedience of any temporary restraining order or restraining order after hearing granted under this section is punishable pursuant to Section 273.6 of the Penal Code. (q) This section does not apply to any action or proceeding covered by Title 1.6C (commencing with Section 1788) of Part 4 of Division 3 of the Civil Code, by Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 525) of Title 7 of Part 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure, or by Division 10 (commencing with Section 6200) of the Family Code. Nothing in this section shall preclude a petitioner's right to use other existing civil remedies. (r) The Judicial Council shall promulgate forms and instructions therefor, rules for service of process, scheduling of hearings, and any other matters required by this section. The petition and response forms shall be simple and concise. (s) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2010. SEC. 107. This act shall only become operative if Senate Bill 1080 is enacted and becomes operative on January 1, 2012, and that bill would reorganize and make other nonsubstantive changes to the deadly weapons provisions in the Penal Code, in which case this act shall also become operative on January 1, 2012. SEC. 108. Any section of any act enacted by the Legislature during the 2010 calendar year, other than a section of the annual maintenance of the codes bill or another bill with a subordination clause, that takes effect on or before January 1, 2012, and that amends, amends and renumbers, amends and repeals, adds, repeals and adds, or repeals a section that is amended, amended and renumbered, amended and repealed, added, repealed and added, or repealed by this act, shall prevail over this act, whether that act is chaptered before or after this act.