Connecticut House Bill HB06666 Introduced / Bill

                        
 
 
LCO No. 5823  	1 of 89 
 
General Assembly  Raised Bill No. 6666  
January Session, 2021 
LCO No. 5823 
 
 
Referred to Committee on PUBLIC HEALTH  
 
 
Introduced by:  
(PH)  
 
 
 
 
AN ACT CONCERNING TH E DEPARTMENT OF PUBL IC HEALTH'S 
RECOMMENDATIONS REGA RDING VARIOUS REVISIONS TO THE 
PUBLIC HEALTH STATUT ES. 
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives in General 
Assembly convened: 
 
Section 1. Section 73 of public act 19-117 is repealed and the following 1 
is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2021): 2 
Notwithstanding any provision of title 19a or 25 of the general 3 
statutes, [and not later than March 1, 2020,] a director of health of a town, 4 
city or borough or of a district department of health appointed pursuant 5 
to section 19a-200 or 19a-242 of the general statutes may issue a permit 6 
for a replacement public well if the Department of Public Health has 7 
approved such replacement public well pursuant to subsection (b) of 8 
section 25-33 of the general statutes, as amended by this act. For 9 
purposes of this section, "replacement public well" means a public well 10 
that (1) replaces an existing public well, [in a town in southeastern 11 
Connecticut with a population between fifteen thousand and fifteen 12 
thousand three hundred, as enumerated by the 2010 federal decennial 13 
census,] and (2) does not meet the sanitary radius and minimum setback 14  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	2 of 89 
 
requirements as specified in the regulations of Connecticut State 15 
Agencies. 16 
Sec. 2. Subsection (b) of section 25-33 of the general statutes is 17 
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 18 
1, 2021): 19 
(b) No system of water supply owned or used by a water company 20 
shall be constructed or expanded or a new additional source of water 21 
supply utilized until the plans therefor have been submitted to and 22 
reviewed and approved by the department, except that no such prior 23 
review or approval is required for distribution water main installations 24 
that are constructed in accordance with sound engineering standards 25 
and all applicable laws and regulations. A plan for any proposed new 26 
source of water supply submitted to the department pursuant to this 27 
subsection shall include documentation that provides for: (1) A brief 28 
description of potential effects that the proposed new source of water 29 
supply may have on nearby water supply systems including public and 30 
private wells; and (2) the water company's ownership or control of the 31 
proposed new source of water supply's sanitary radius and minimum 32 
setback requirements as specified in the regulations of Connecticut state 33 
agencies and that such ownership or control shall continue to be 34 
maintained as specified in such regulations. If the department 35 
determines, based upon documentation provided, that the water 36 
company does not own or control the proposed new source of water 37 
supply's sanitary radius or minimum setback requirements as specified 38 
in the regulations of Connecticut state agencies, the department shall 39 
require the water company proposing a new source of water supply to 40 
supply additional documentation to the department that adequately 41 
demonstrates the alternative methods that will be utilized to assure the 42 
proposed new source of water supply's long-term purity and adequacy. 43 
In reviewing any plan for a proposed new source of water supply, the 44 
department shall consider the issues specified in this subsection. The 45 
Commissioner of Public Health may adopt regulations, in accordance 46 
with the provisions of chapter 54, to carry out the provisions of this 47 
subsection and subsection (c) of this section. For purposes of this 48  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	3 of 89 
 
subsection and subsection (c) of this section, "distribution water main 49 
installations" means installations, extensions, replacements or repairs of 50 
public water supply system mains from which water is or will be 51 
delivered to one or more service connections and which do not require 52 
construction or expansion of pumping stations, storage facilities, 53 
treatment facilities or sources of supply. Notwithstanding the 54 
provisions of this subsection, the department may approve any location 55 
of a replacement public well, if such replacement public well is (A) 56 
necessary for the water company to maintain and provide to its 57 
consumers a safe and adequate water supply, (B) located in an aquifer 58 
of adequate water quality determined by historical water quality data 59 
from the source of water supply it is replacing, and (C) in a more 60 
protected location when compared to the source of water supply it is 61 
replacing, as determined by the department. For purposes of this 62 
subsection, "replacement public well" means a public well that (i) 63 
replaces an existing public well, [in a town in southeastern Connecticut 64 
with a population between fifteen thousand and fifteen thousand three 65 
hundred, as enumerated by the 2010, federal decennial census,] and (ii) 66 
does not meet the sanitary radius and minimum setback requirements 67 
as specified in the regulations of Connecticut state agencies. 68 
Sec. 3. Section 8-3i of the general statutes is repealed and the 69 
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2021): 70 
(a) As used in this section "water company" means a water company, 71 
as defined in section 25-32a, and "petition" includes a petition or 72 
proposal to change the regulations, boundaries or classifications of 73 
zoning districts. 74 
(b) When an application, petition, request or plan is filed with the 75 
zoning commission, planning and zoning commission or zoning board 76 
of appeals of any municipality concerning any project on any site that is 77 
within the aquifer protection area delineated pursuant to section 22a-78 
354c or the watershed of a water company, the applicant or the person 79 
making the filing shall: (1) [provide] Provide written notice of the 80 
application, petition, request or plan to the water company and the 81  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	4 of 89 
 
[Commissioner of Public Health in a format prescribed by said 82 
commissioner, provided such water company or said commissioner has 83 
filed a map showing the boundaries of the watershed on the land 84 
records of the municipality in which the application, petition, request or 85 
plan is made and with the planning commission, zoning commission, 86 
planning and zoning commission or zoning board of appeals of such 87 
municipality or the aquifer protection area has been delineated in 88 
accordance with section 22a-354c, as the case may be] Department of 89 
Public Health; and (2) determine if the project is within the watershed 90 
of a water company by consulting the maps posted on the department's 91 
Internet web site showing the boundaries of the watershed. Such notice 92 
shall be [made] sent to the water company by certified mail, return 93 
receipt requested, and to the department by electronic mail to the 94 
electronic mail address designated on its Internet web site for receipt of 95 
such notice. Such notice shall be mailed not later than seven days after 96 
the date of the application. Such water company and the Commissioner 97 
of Public Health may, through a representative, appear and be heard at 98 
any hearing on any such application, petition, request or plan. 99 
(c) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (b) of this section, 100 
when an agent of the zoning commission, planning and zoning 101 
commission or zoning board of appeals is authorized to approve an 102 
application, petition, request or plan concerning any site that is within 103 
the aquifer protection area delineated pursuant to section 22a-354c or 104 
the watershed of a water company without the approval of the zoning 105 
commission, planning and zoning commission or zoning board of 106 
appeals, and such agent determines that the proposed activity will not 107 
adversely affect the public water supply, the applicant or person making 108 
the filing shall not be required to notify the water company or the 109 
[Commissioner] Department of Public Health.  110 
Sec. 4. Section 22a-42f of the general statutes is repealed and the 111 
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2021): 112 
When an application is filed to conduct or cause to be conducted a 113 
regulated activity upon an inland wetland or watercourse, any portion 114  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	5 of 89 
 
of which is within the watershed of a water company as defined in 115 
section 25-32a, the applicant shall: (1) [provide] Provide written notice 116 
of the application to the water company and the [Commissioner of 117 
Public Health in a format prescribed by said commissioner, provided 118 
such water company or said commissioner has filed a map showing the 119 
boundaries of the watershed on the land records of the municipality in 120 
which the application is made and with the inland wetlands agency of 121 
such municipality] Department of Public Health; and (2) determine if 122 
the project is within the watershed of a water company by consulting 123 
the maps posted on the department's Internet web site showing the 124 
boundaries of the watershed. Such notice shall be [made] sent to the 125 
water company by certified mail, return receipt requested, and to the 126 
department by electronic mail to the electronic mail address designated 127 
by the department on its Internet web site for receipt of such notice. Such 128 
notice shall be mailed not later than seven days after the date of the 129 
application. The water company and the Commissioner of Public 130 
Health, through a representative, may appear and be heard at any 131 
hearing on the application.  132 
Sec. 5. Section 19a-111 of the general statutes is repealed and the 133 
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2021): 134 
Upon receipt of each report of confirmed venous blood lead level 135 
equal to or greater than twenty micrograms per deciliter of blood, the 136 
local director of health shall make or cause to be made an 137 
epidemiological investigation of the source of the lead causing the 138 
increased lead level or abnormal body burden and shall order action to 139 
be taken by the appropriate person responsible for the condition that 140 
brought about such lead poisoning as may be necessary to prevent 141 
further exposure of persons to such poisoning. In the case of any 142 
residential unit where such action will not result in removal of the 143 
hazard within a reasonable time, the local director of health shall utilize 144 
such community resources as are available to effect relocation of any 145 
family occupying such unit. The local director of health may permit 146 
occupancy in said residential unit during abatement if, in such director's 147 
judgment, occupancy would not threaten the health and well-being of 148  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	6 of 89 
 
the occupants. The local director of health shall, not later than thirty 149 
days after the conclusion of such director's investigation, report to the 150 
Commissioner of Public Health, using a web-based surveillance system 151 
as prescribed by the commissioner, the result of such investigation and 152 
the action taken to ensure against further lead poisoning from the same 153 
source, including any measures taken to effect relocation of families. 154 
Such report shall include information relevant to the identification and 155 
location of the source of lead poisoning and such other information as 156 
the commissioner may require pursuant to regulations adopted in 157 
accordance with the provisions of chapter 54. The commissioner shall 158 
maintain comprehensive records of all reports submitted pursuant to 159 
this section and section 19a-110. Such records shall be geographically 160 
indexed in order to determine the location of areas of relatively high 161 
incidence of lead poisoning. The commissioner shall establish, in 162 
conjunction with recognized professional medical groups, guidelines 163 
consistent with the National Centers for Disease Control and Prevention 164 
for assessment of the risk of lead poisoning, screening for lead poisoning 165 
and treatment and follow-up care of individuals including children with 166 
lead poisoning, women who are pregnant and women who are planning 167 
pregnancy. Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit a local 168 
building official from requiring abatement of sources of lead.  169 
Sec. 6. Section 19a-37 of the general statutes is repealed and the 170 
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2021): 171 
(a) As used in this section: 172 
(1) "Laboratory or firm" means an environmental laboratory 173 
registered by the Department of Public Health pursuant to section 19a-174 
29a; 175 
(2) "Private well" means a water supply well that meets all of the 176 
following criteria: (A) Is not a public well; (B) supplies a residential 177 
population of less than twenty-five persons per day; and (C) is owned 178 
or controlled through an easement or by the same entity that owns or 179 
controls the building or parcel that is served by the water supply well; 180  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	7 of 89 
 
(3) "Public well" means a water supply well that supplies a public 181 
water system; 182 
(4) "Semipublic well" means a water supply well that (A) does not 183 
meet the definition of a private well or public well, and (B) provides 184 
water for drinking and other domestic purposes; and 185 
(5) "Water supply well" means an artificial excavation constructed by 186 
any method for the purpose of obtaining or providing water for 187 
drinking or other domestic, industrial, commercial, agricultural, 188 
recreational or irrigation use, or other outdoor water use. 189 
(b) The Commissioner of Public Health may adopt regulations in the 190 
[Public Health Code] regulations of Connecticut state agencies for the 191 
preservation of the public health pertaining to (1) protection and 192 
location of new water supply wells or springs for residential or 193 
nonresidential construction or for public or semipublic use, and (2) 194 
inspection for compliance with the provisions of municipal regulations 195 
adopted pursuant to section 22a-354p. 196 
(c) The Commissioner of Public Health shall adopt regulations, in 197 
accordance with chapter 54, for the testing of water quality in private 198 
[residential] wells and semipublic wells. Any laboratory or firm which 199 
conducts a water quality test on a private well serving a residential 200 
property or semipublic well shall, not later than thirty days after the 201 
completion of such test, report the results of such test to (1) the public 202 
health authority of the municipality where the property is located, and 203 
(2) the Department of Public Health in a format specified by the 204 
department, provided such report shall only be required if the party for 205 
whom the laboratory or firm conducted such test informs the laboratory 206 
or firm identified on the chain of custody documentation submitted 207 
with the test samples that the test was conducted in connection with the 208 
sale of such property. No regulation may require such a test to be 209 
conducted as a consequence or a condition of the sale, exchange, 210 
transfer, purchase or rental of the real property on which the private 211 
[residential] well or semipublic well is located. 212  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	8 of 89 
 
(d) Prior to the sale, exchange, purchase, transfer or rental of real 213 
property on which a [residential] private or semipublic well is located, 214 
the owner shall provide the buyer or tenant notice that educational 215 
material concerning private well testing is available on the Department 216 
of Public Health web site. Failure to provide such notice shall not 217 
invalidate any sale, exchange, purchase, transfer or rental of real 218 
property. If the seller or landlord provides such notice in writing, the 219 
seller or landlord and any real estate licensee shall be deemed to have 220 
fully satisfied any duty to notify the buyer or tenant that the subject real 221 
property is located in an area for which there are reasonable grounds for 222 
testing under subsection (g) or (j) of this section. 223 
(e) The Commissioner of Public Health shall adopt regulations, in 224 
accordance with chapter 54, to clarify the criteria under which the 225 
commissioner may issue a well permit exception and to describe the 226 
terms and conditions that shall be imposed when a well is allowed at a 227 
premises (1) that is connected to a public water supply system, or (2) 228 
whose boundary is located within two hundred feet of an approved 229 
community water supply system, measured along a street, alley or 230 
easement. Such regulations shall (A) provide for notification of the 231 
permit to the public water supplier, (B) address the quality of the water 232 
supplied from the well, the means and extent to which the well shall not 233 
be interconnected with the public water supply, the need for a physical 234 
separation, and the installation of a reduced pressure device for 235 
backflow prevention, the inspection and testing requirements of any 236 
such reduced pressure device, and (C) identify the extent and frequency 237 
of water quality testing required for the well supply. 238 
(f) No regulation may require that a certificate of occupancy for a 239 
dwelling unit on such residential property be withheld or revoked on 240 
the basis of a water quality test performed on a private [residential] well 241 
pursuant to this section, unless such test results indicate that any 242 
maximum contaminant level applicable to public water supply systems 243 
for any contaminant listed in the [public health code] regulations of 244 
Connecticut state agencies has been exceeded. No administrative 245 
agency, health district or municipal health officer may withhold or 246  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	9 of 89 
 
cause to be withheld such a certificate of occupancy except as provided 247 
in this section. 248 
(g) The local director of health may require a private [residential] well 249 
or semipublic well to be tested for arsenic, radium, uranium, radon or 250 
gross alpha emitters, when there are reasonable grounds to suspect that 251 
such contaminants are present in the groundwater. For purposes of this 252 
subsection, "reasonable grounds" means (1) the existence of a geological 253 
area known to have naturally occurring arsenic, radium, uranium, 254 
radon or gross alpha emitter deposits in the bedrock; or (2) the well is 255 
located in an area in which it is known that arsenic, radium, uranium, 256 
radon or gross alpha emitters are present in the groundwater. 257 
(h) Except as provided in subsection (i) of this section, the collection 258 
of samples for determining the water quality of private [residential] 259 
wells and semipublic wells may be made only by (1) employees of a 260 
laboratory or firm certified or approved by the Department of Public 261 
Health to test drinking water, if such employees have been trained in 262 
sample collection techniques, (2) certified water operators, (3) local 263 
health departments and state employees trained in sample collection 264 
techniques, or (4) individuals with training and experience that the 265 
Department of Public Health deems sufficient. 266 
(i) Any owner of a residential construction, including, but not limited 267 
to, a homeowner, on which a private [residential] well is located or any 268 
general contractor of a new residential construction on which a private 269 
[residential] well is located may collect samples of well water for 270 
submission to a laboratory or firm for the purposes of testing water 271 
quality pursuant to this section, provided (1) such laboratory or firm has 272 
provided instructions to said owner or general contractor on how to 273 
collect such samples, and (2) such owner or general contractor is 274 
identified to the subsequent owner on a form to be prescribed by the 275 
Department of Public Health. No regulation may prohibit or impede 276 
such collection or analysis. 277 
(j) The local director of health may require private [residential] wells 278  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	10 of 89 
 
and semipublic wells to be tested for pesticides, herbicides or organic 279 
chemicals when there are reasonable grounds to suspect that any such 280 
contaminants might be present in the groundwater. For purposes of this 281 
subsection, "reasonable grounds" means (1) the presence of nitrate-282 
nitrogen in the groundwater at a concentration greater than ten 283 
milligrams per liter, or (2) that the private [residential] well or 284 
semipublic well is located on land, or in proximity to land, associated 285 
with the past or present production, storage, use or disposal of organic 286 
chemicals as identified in any public record. 287 
(k) Any water transported in bulk by any means to a premises 288 
currently supplied by a private well or semipublic well where the water 289 
is to be used for purposes of drinking or domestic use shall be provided 290 
by a bulk water hauler licensed pursuant to section 20-278h. No bulk 291 
water hauler shall deliver water without first notifying the owner of the 292 
premises of such delivery. Bulk water hauling to a premises currently 293 
supplied by a private well or semipublic well shall be permitted only as 294 
a temporary measure to alleviate a water supply shortage.  295 
Sec. 7. Section 19a-524 of the general statutes is repealed and the 296 
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2021): 297 
If, upon review, investigation or inspection pursuant to section 19a-298 
498, the Commissioner of Public Health determines that a nursing home 299 
facility or residential care home has violated any provision of section 300 
17a-411, 19a-491a to 19a-491c, inclusive, as amended by this act, 19a-301 
493a, 19a-521 to 19a-529, inclusive, 19a-531 to 19a-551, inclusive, or 19a-302 
553 to 19a-555, inclusive, or any provision of any regulation of 303 
Connecticut state agencies relating to licensure, the Fire Safety Code or 304 
the operation or maintenance of a nursing home facility or residential 305 
care home, which violation has been classified in accordance with 306 
section 19a-527, the commissioner may immediately issue or cause to be 307 
issued a citation to the licensee of such nursing home facility or 308 
residential care home. Governmental immunity shall not be a defense to 309 
any citation issued or civil penalty imposed pursuant to this section or 310 
sections 19-525 to 19a-528, inclusive. Each such citation shall be in 311  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	11 of 89 
 
writing, provide notice of the nature and scope of the alleged violation 312 
or violations, and include, but not be limited to, the citation and notice 313 
of noncompliance issued in accordance with section 19a-496. Each 314 
citation and notice of noncompliance issued under this section shall be 315 
sent to the licensee electronically in a form and manner prescribed by 316 
the commissioner or by certified mail [to the licensee] at the address of 317 
the nursing home facility or residential care home in issue. A copy of 318 
such citation and notice of noncompliance shall also be sent to the 319 
licensed administrator at the address of the nursing home facility or 320 
residential care home.  321 
Sec. 8. Subdivision (2) of subsection (c) of section 19a-491c of the 322 
general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 323 
thereof (Effective July 1, 2021): 324 
(2) No long-term care facility shall be required to comply with the 325 
provisions of this subsection if (A) the individual provides evidence to 326 
the long-term care facility that such individual submitted to a 327 
background search conducted pursuant to subdivision (1) of this 328 
subsection not more than three years immediately preceding the date 329 
such individual applies for employment, seeks to enter into a contract 330 
or begins volunteering with the long-term care facility and that the prior 331 
background search confirmed that the individual did not have a 332 
disqualifying offense, or (B) the commissioner determines the need to 333 
temporarily suspend the requirements of this subsection in the event of 334 
an emergency or significant disruption. The commissioner shall inform 335 
the long-term care facility when the commissioner has suspended the 336 
requirements of this subsection pursuant to subparagraph (B) of this 337 
subdivision and when such suspension is rescinded. 338 
Sec. 9. Section 19a-177 of the general statutes is repealed and the 339 
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2021): 340 
The commissioner shall: 341 
(1) With the advice of the Office of Emergency Medical Services 342 
established pursuant to section 19a-178 and of an advisory committee 343  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	12 of 89 
 
on emergency medical services and with the benefit of meetings held 344 
pursuant to subsection (b) of section 19a-184, adopt every five years a 345 
state-wide plan for the coordinated delivery of emergency medical 346 
services; 347 
(2) License or certify the following: (A) Ambulance operations, 348 
ambulance drivers, emergency medical services personnel and 349 
communications personnel; (B) emergency room facilities and 350 
communications facilities; and (C) transportation equipment, including 351 
land, sea and air vehicles used for transportation of patients to 352 
emergency facilities and periodically inspect life saving equipment, 353 
emergency facilities and emergency transportation vehicles to ensure 354 
state standards are maintained; 355 
(3) Annually inventory emergency medical services resources within 356 
the state, including facilities, equipment, and personnel, for the 357 
purposes of determining the need for additional services and the 358 
effectiveness of existing services; 359 
(4) Review and evaluate all area-wide plans developed by the 360 
emergency medical services councils pursuant to section 19a-182 in 361 
order to insure conformity with standards issued by the commissioner; 362 
(5) Not later than thirty days after their receipt, review all grant and 363 
contract applications for federal or state funds concerning emergency 364 
medical services or related activities for conformity to policy guidelines 365 
and forward such application to the appropriate agency, when required; 366 
(6) Establish such minimum standards and adopt such regulations in 367 
accordance with the provisions of chapter 54, as may be necessary to 368 
develop the following components of an emergency medical service 369 
system: (A) Communications, which shall include, but not be limited to, 370 
equipment, radio frequencies and operational procedures; (B) 371 
transportation services, which shall include, but not be limited to, 372 
vehicle type, design, condition and maintenance, and operational 373 
procedures; (C) training, which shall include, but not be limited to, 374 
emergency medical services personnel, communications personnel, 375  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	13 of 89 
 
paraprofessionals associated with emergency medical services, 376 
firefighters and state and local police; (D) emergency medical service 377 
facilities, which shall include, but not be limited to, categorization of 378 
emergency departments as to their treatment capabilities and ancillary 379 
services; and (E) mobile integrated health care programs, which shall 380 
include, but not be limited to, the standards to ensure the health, safety 381 
and welfare of the patients being served by such programs and data 382 
collection and reporting requirements to ensure and measure quality 383 
outcomes of such programs; 384 
(7) Coordinate training of all emergency medical services personnel; 385 
(8) (A) Develop an emergency medical services data collection 386 
system. Each emergency medical service organization licensed or 387 
certified pursuant to this chapter shall submit data to the commissioner, 388 
on a quarterly basis, from each licensed ambulance service, certified 389 
ambulance service or paramedic intercept service that provides 390 
emergency medical services. Such submitted data shall include, but not 391 
be limited to: (i) The total number of calls for emergency medical 392 
services received by such licensed ambulance service, certified 393 
ambulance service or paramedic intercept service through the 9-1-1 394 
system during the reporting period; (ii) each level of emergency medical 395 
services, as defined in regulations adopted pursuant to section 19a-179, 396 
required for each such call; (iii) the response time for each licensed 397 
ambulance service, certified ambulance service or paramedic intercept 398 
service during the reporting period; (iv) the number of passed calls, 399 
cancelled calls and mutual aid calls, both made and received, during the 400 
reporting period; and (v) for the reporting period, the prehospital data 401 
for the nonscheduled transport of patients required by regulations 402 
adopted pursuant to subdivision (6) of this section. The data required 403 
under this subdivision may be submitted in any electronic form selected 404 
by such licensed ambulance service, certified ambulance service or 405 
paramedic intercept service and approved by the commissioner, 406 
provided the commissioner shall take into consideration the needs of 407 
such licensed ambulance service, certified ambulance service or 408 
paramedic intercept service in approving such electronic form. The 409  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	14 of 89 
 
commissioner may conduct an audit of any such licensed ambulance 410 
service, certified ambulance service or paramedic intercept service as 411 
the commissioner deems necessary in order to verify the accuracy of 412 
such reported data. 413 
(B) On or before December 31, 2018, and annually thereafter, the 414 
commissioner shall prepare a report to the Emergency Medical Services 415 
Advisory Board, established pursuant to section 19a-178a, as amended 416 
by this act, that shall include, but not be limited to, the following data: 417 
(i) The total number of calls for emergency medical services received 418 
during the reporting year by each licensed ambulance service, certified 419 
ambulance service or paramedic intercept service; (ii) the level of 420 
emergency medical services required for each such call; (iii) the name of 421 
the emergency medical service organization that provided each such 422 
level of emergency medical services furnished during the reporting 423 
year; (iv) the response time, by time ranges or fractile response times, 424 
for each licensed ambulance service, certified ambulance service or 425 
paramedic intercept service, using a common definition of response 426 
time, as provided in regulations adopted pursuant to section 19a-179; 427 
and (v) the number of passed calls, cancelled calls and mutual aid calls 428 
during the reporting year. The commissioner shall prepare such report 429 
in a format that categorizes such data for each municipality in which the 430 
emergency medical services were provided, with each such 431 
municipality grouped according to urban, suburban and rural 432 
classifications. 433 
(C) If any licensed ambulance service, certified ambulance service or 434 
paramedic intercept service does not submit the data required under 435 
subparagraph (A) of this subdivision for a period of six consecutive 436 
months, or if the commissioner believes that such licensed ambulance 437 
service, certified ambulance service or paramedic intercept service 438 
knowingly or intentionally submitted incomplete or false data, the 439 
commissioner shall issue a written order directing such licensed 440 
ambulance service, certified ambulance service or paramedic intercept 441 
service to comply with the provisions of subparagraph (A) of this 442 
subdivision and submit all missing data or such corrected data as the 443  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	15 of 89 
 
commissioner may require. If such licensed ambulance service, certified 444 
ambulance service or paramedic intercept service fails to fully comply 445 
with such order not later than three months from the date such order is 446 
issued, the commissioner (i) shall conduct a hearing, in accordance with 447 
chapter 54, at which such licensed ambulance service, certified 448 
ambulance service or paramedic intercept service shall be required to 449 
show cause why the primary service area assignment of such licensed 450 
ambulance service, certified ambulance service or paramedic intercept 451 
service should not be revoked, and (ii) may take such disciplinary action 452 
under section 19a-17 as the commissioner deems appropriate. 453 
(D) The commissioner shall collect the data required by 454 
subparagraph (A) of this subdivision, in the manner provided in said 455 
subparagraph, from each emergency medical service organization 456 
licensed or certified pursuant to this chapter. Any such emergency 457 
medical service organization that fails to comply with the provisions of 458 
this section shall be liable for a civil penalty not to exceed one hundred 459 
dollars per day for each failure to report the required data regarding 460 
emergency medical services provided to a patient, as determined by the 461 
commissioner. The civil penalties set forth in this subparagraph shall be 462 
assessed only after the department provides a written notice of 463 
deficiency and the organization is afforded the opportunity to respond 464 
to such notice. An organization shall have not more than fifteen business 465 
days after the date of receiving such notice to provide a written response 466 
to the department. The commissioner may adopt regulations, in 467 
accordance with chapter 54, concerning the development, 468 
implementation, monitoring and collection of emergency medical 469 
service system data. All state agencies licensed or certified as emergency 470 
medical service organizations shall be exempt from the civil penalties 471 
set forth in this subparagraph. 472 
(E) The commissioner shall, with the recommendation of the 473 
Connecticut Emergency Medical Services Advisory Board established 474 
pursuant to section 19a-178a, as amended by this act, adopt for use in 475 
trauma data collection the most recent version of the National Trauma 476 
Data Bank's National Trauma Data Standards and Data Dictionary and 477  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	16 of 89 
 
nationally recognized guidelines for field triage of injured patients; 478 
(9) (A) Establish rates for the conveyance and treatment of patients 479 
by licensed ambulance services and invalid coaches and establish 480 
emergency service rates for certified ambulance services and paramedic 481 
intercept services, provided (i) the present rates established for such 482 
services and vehicles shall remain in effect until such time as the 483 
commissioner establishes a new rate schedule as provided in this 484 
subdivision, and (ii) any rate increase not in excess of the Medical Care 485 
Services Consumer Price Index, as published by the Bureau of Labor 486 
Statistics of the United States Department of Labor, for the prior year, 487 
filed in accordance with subparagraph (B)(iii) of this subdivision shall 488 
be deemed approved by the commissioner. For purposes of this 489 
subdivision, licensed ambulance services and paramedic intercept 490 
services shall not include emergency air transport services or mobile 491 
integrated health care programs. 492 
(B) Adopt regulations, in accordance with the provisions of chapter 493 
54, establishing methods for setting rates and conditions for charging 494 
such rates. Such regulations shall include, but not be limited to, 495 
provisions requiring that on and after July 1, 2000: (i) Requests for rate 496 
increases may be filed no more frequently than once a year, except that, 497 
in any case where an agency's schedule of maximum allowable rates 498 
falls below that of the Medicare allowable rates for that agency, the 499 
commissioner shall immediately amend such schedule so that the rates 500 
are at or above the Medicare allowable rates; (ii) only licensed 501 
ambulance services, certified ambulance services and paramedic 502 
intercept services that apply for a rate increase in excess of the Medical 503 
Care Services Consumer Price Index, as published by the Bureau of 504 
Labor Statistics of the United States Department of Labor, for the prior 505 
year, and do not accept the maximum allowable rates contained in any 506 
voluntary state-wide rate schedule established by the commissioner for 507 
the rate application year shall be required to file detailed financial 508 
information with the commissioner, provided any hearing that the 509 
commissioner may hold concerning such application shall be conducted 510 
as a contested case in accordance with chapter 54; (iii) licensed 511  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	17 of 89 
 
ambulance services, certified ambulance services and paramedic 512 
intercept services that do not apply for a rate increase in any year in 513 
excess of the Medical Care Services Consumer Price Index, as published 514 
by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the United States Department of 515 
Labor, for the prior year, or that accept the maximum allowable rates 516 
contained in any voluntary state-wide rate schedule established by the 517 
commissioner for the rate application year shall, not later than the last 518 
business day in August of such year, file with the commissioner a 519 
statement of emergency and nonemergency call volume, and, in the case 520 
of a licensed ambulance service, certified ambulance service or 521 
paramedic intercept service that is not applying for a rate increase, a 522 
written declaration by such licensed ambulance service, certified 523 
ambulance service or paramedic intercept service that no change in its 524 
currently approved maximum allowable rates will occur for the rate 525 
application year; and (iv) detailed financial and operational information 526 
filed by licensed ambulance services, certified ambulance services and 527 
paramedic intercept services to support a request for a rate increase in 528 
excess of the Medical Care Services Consumer Price Index, as published 529 
by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the United States Department of 530 
Labor, for the prior year, shall cover the time period pertaining to the 531 
most recently completed fiscal year and the rate application year of the 532 
licensed ambulance service, certified ambulance service or paramedic 533 
intercept service. 534 
(C) Establish rates for licensed ambulance services, certified 535 
ambulance services or paramedic intercept services for the following 536 
services and conditions: (i) "Advanced life support assessment" and 537 
"specialty care transports", which terms have the meanings provided in 538 
42 CFR 414.605; and (ii) mileage, which may include mileage for an 539 
ambulance transport when the point of origin and final destination for 540 
a transport is within the boundaries of the same municipality. The rates 541 
established by the commissioner for each such service or condition shall 542 
be equal to (I) the ambulance service's base rate plus its established 543 
advanced life support/paramedic surcharge when advanced life 544 
support assessment services are performed; (II) two hundred twenty-545  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	18 of 89 
 
five per cent of the ambulance service's established base rate for 546 
specialty care transports; and (III) "loaded mileage", as the term is 547 
defined in 42 CFR 414.605, multiplied by the ambulance service's 548 
established rate for mileage. Such rates shall remain in effect until such 549 
time as the commissioner establishes a new rate schedule as provided 550 
in this subdivision. 551 
(D) Establish rates for the treatment and release of patients by a 552 
licensed or certified emergency medical services organization or a 553 
provider who does not transport such patients to an emergency 554 
department and who is operating within the scope of such 555 
organization's or provider's practice and following protocols approved 556 
by the sponsor hospital. The rates established pursuant to this 557 
subparagraph shall not apply to the treatment provided to patients 558 
through mobile integrated health care programs; 559 
(10) Establish primary service areas and assign in writing a primary 560 
service area responder for each primary service area. Each state-owned 561 
campus having an acute care hospital on the premises shall be 562 
designated as the primary service area responder for that campus; 563 
(11) Revoke primary service area assignments upon determination by 564 
the commissioner that it is in the best interests of patient care to do so; 565 
[and]  566 
(12) Annually issue a list of minimum equipment requirements for 567 
[ambulances and rescue vehicles] authorized emergency medical 568 
services vehicles based upon current national standards. The 569 
commissioner shall distribute such list to all emergency medical service 570 
organizations and sponsor hospital medical directors and make such list 571 
available to other interested stakeholders. Emergency medical service 572 
organizations shall have one year from the date of issuance of such list 573 
to comply with the minimum equipment requirements; and 574 
(13) The commissioner may waive any provisions of the regulations 575 
affecting an emergency medical service organization, as defined in 576 
section 19a-175, if the commissioner determines that such waiver would 577  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	19 of 89 
 
not endanger the health, safety or welfare of any patient or resident. The 578 
commissioner may impose conditions, upon granting the waiver, that 579 
assure the health, safety or welfare of patients or residents and may 580 
revoke the waiver upon a finding that the health, safety or welfare of 581 
any patient or resident has been jeopardized. The commissioner may 582 
adopt regulations, in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54, 583 
establishing procedures for an application for a waiver pursuant to this 584 
subdivision.  585 
Sec. 10. Section 20-207 of the general statutes is repealed and the 586 
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2021): 587 
As used in this chapter, unless the context otherwise requires, the 588 
following terms shall have the meanings specified: 589 
(1) "Board" means the Connecticut Board of Examiners of Embalmers 590 
and Funeral Directors; 591 
(2) "Person" means an individual or corporation, but not a 592 
partnership; 593 
(3) "Funeral directing" means the business, practice or profession, as 594 
commonly practiced, of (A) directing or supervising funerals, or 595 
providing funeral services; (B) handling or encasing or providing 596 
services for handling and encasing dead human bodies, otherwise than 597 
by embalming, for burial or disposal; (C) providing embalming services; 598 
(D) providing transportation, interment and disinterment of dead 599 
human bodies; (E) maintaining an establishment so located, constructed 600 
and equipped as to permit the decent and sanitary handling of dead 601 
human bodies, with suitable equipment in such establishment for such 602 
handling; (F) conducting an establishment from which funerals may be 603 
held; (G) engaging in consultations concerning arrangements for the 604 
disposition of human remains, including, but not limited to, 605 
arrangements for cremation or alkaline hydrolysis; (H) casketing human 606 
remains; (I) making cemetery and cremation arrangements; and (J) 607 
preparing funeral service contracts, as defined in section 42-200; 608  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	20 of 89 
 
(4) "Funeral director" means any person engaged or holding himself 609 
or herself out as engaged in funeral directing whether or not he or she 610 
uses in connection with his or her name or business the words "funeral 611 
director," "undertaker" or "mortician" or any other word or title 612 
intended to designate him or her as a funeral director or mortician or as 613 
one so engaged; 614 
(5) "Funeral service business" means the business, practice or 615 
profession of funeral directing; 616 
(6) "Licensed embalmer" means an embalmer holding a license as 617 
provided in this chapter; 618 
(7) "Licensed funeral director" means a funeral director holding a 619 
license as provided in this chapter; 620 
(8) ["Student embalmer"] "Registered apprentice embalmer" means a 621 
person [studying embalming and] registered with the Department of 622 
Public Health as an apprentice pursuant to the provisions of this 623 
chapter; 624 
(9) ["Student funeral director"] "Registered apprentice funeral 625 
director" means a person [studying the funeral service business and] 626 
registered with the Department of Public Health as an apprentice 627 
pursuant to the provisions of this chapter; 628 
(10) "Full-time employment" means regular and steady work during 629 
the normal working hours by any person at the establishment at which 630 
he is employed; and 631 
(11) "Manager" means an individual who (A) is licensed as an 632 
embalmer or funeral director pursuant to this chapter and (B) has direct 633 
and personal responsibility for the daily operation and management of 634 
a funeral service business.  635 
Sec. 11. Section 20-212 of the general statutes is repealed and the 636 
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2021): 637  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	21 of 89 
 
No person, except a licensed embalmer, shall inject any fluid or 638 
substance into any dead human body, except that a registered [student] 639 
apprentice embalmer may, even if not in the presence of a licensed 640 
embalmer, make such injection or perform any other act under [his] 641 
such licensed embalmer's instruction; and no person, firm or 642 
corporation shall enter, engage in, carry on or manage for another the 643 
business of caring for, preserving or disposing of dead human bodies 644 
until each person, firm or corporation so engaged has obtained from the 645 
Department of Public Health and holds a license as provided in this 646 
chapter; nor shall any person be employed to remove a dead human 647 
body, except a licensed embalmer, a registered [student] apprentice 648 
embalmer, a licensed funeral director, or a person authorized in each 649 
instance by the Chief Medical Examiner, Deputy Medical Examiner or 650 
assistant medical examiner incidental to examining the body of a 651 
deceased person, except that once a dead human body has been 652 
prepared in accordance with the [Public Health Code] regulations of 653 
Connecticut state agencies and the applicable provisions of the general 654 
statutes, an embalmer or funeral director licensed in this state may 655 
authorize an unlicensed employee to transport such body. Nothing in 656 
this section shall be construed to prohibit any person licensed as an 657 
embalmer or as a funeral director under the laws of another state from 658 
bringing into or removing from this state a dead human body, provided 659 
any and all other laws of this state relative to such body have been 660 
complied with. Nothing in this chapter shall be construed to prohibit 661 
any student who is enrolled in a program of education in mortuary 662 
science, approved by the board, with the consent of the Commissioner 663 
of Public Health, from embalming up to ten human bodies under the 664 
supervision of a licensed embalmer and incidental to such student's 665 
course of study.  666 
Sec. 12. Subsections (a) and (b) of section 20-213 of the general statutes 667 
are repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective 668 
October 1, 2021): 669 
(a) (1) After a [student] registered apprentice embalmer has (A) 670 
completed a program of education in mortuary science approved by the 671  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	22 of 89 
 
board with the consent of the Commissioner of Public Health, (B) 672 
successfully completed an examination prescribed by the Department 673 
of Public Health with the consent of the board, (C) completed one year 674 
of practical training and experience of a grade and character satisfactory 675 
to the commissioner in the state in full-time employment under the 676 
personal supervision and instruction of an embalmer licensed under the 677 
provisions of this chapter, and (D) embalmed fifty human bodies in not 678 
more than two years under the supervision of a licensed embalmer or 679 
embalmers, (2) the [student] registered apprentice embalmer shall (A) 680 
submit to the department an application and fee of two hundred ten 681 
dollars, (B) take a written examination on the Connecticut public health 682 
laws and the regulations of Connecticut state agencies pertaining to the 683 
activities of an embalmer, and (C) take an examination in practical 684 
embalming that shall include an actual demonstration upon a cadaver. 685 
When the [student] registered apprentice embalmer has satisfactorily 686 
passed such examinations, said department shall issue to him or her a 687 
license to practice embalming. At the expiration of such license, if the 688 
holder thereof desires a renewal, said department shall grant it pursuant 689 
to section 20-222a, except for cause. 690 
(b) Examinations for registration as a [student] registered apprentice 691 
embalmer and for an embalmer's license shall be administered to 692 
applicants by the Department of Public Health, under the supervision 693 
of the board, semiannually and at such other times as may be 694 
determined by the department. 695 
Sec. 13. Section 20-215 of the general statutes is repealed and the 696 
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2021): 697 
No licensed embalmer shall sign an affidavit attesting the 698 
preparation or embalming of any body unless such body has been 699 
prepared or embalmed by [him] such licensed embalmer, or by a 700 
registered [student] apprentice embalmer under [his] such licensed 701 
embalmer's personal supervision.  702 
Sec. 14. Subsection (a) of section 20-217 of the general statutes is 703  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	23 of 89 
 
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 704 
1, 2021): 705 
(a) When a [student] registered apprentice funeral director has 706 
completed a program of education approved by the board with the 707 
consent of the Commissioner of Public Health, has successfully 708 
completed an examination prescribed by the department with the 709 
consent of the board and furnishes the department with satisfactory 710 
proof that he or she has completed one year of practical training and 711 
experience in full-time employment under the personal supervision of 712 
a licensed embalmer or funeral director, and pays to the department a 713 
fee of two hundred ten dollars, [he] such registered apprentice funeral 714 
director shall be entitled to be examined upon the Connecticut state law 715 
and regulations pertaining to his or her professional activities. If found 716 
to be qualified by the Department of Public Health, [he] such registered 717 
apprentice funeral director shall be licensed as a funeral director. 718 
Renewal licenses shall be issued by the Department of Public Health 719 
pursuant to section 20-222a, unless withheld for cause as herein 720 
provided, upon a payment of a fee of two hundred thirty dollars. 721 
Sec. 15. Section 20-224 of the general statutes is repealed and the 722 
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2021): 723 
(a) The provisions of sections 20-217, as amended by this act, 20-220 724 
and 20-227 shall not prohibit the employment of assistants or of 725 
[student] registered apprentice embalmers and [student] registered 726 
apprentice funeral directors as provided in this chapter, provided a 727 
licensed funeral service business may employ no more than two 728 
[student] registered apprentice embalmers at any one time, and any 729 
person, firm, corporation or other organization engaged in the business 730 
of funeral directing may employ no more than one [student] registered 731 
apprentice funeral director at any one time, without the approval of the 732 
Board of Examiners of Embalmers and Funeral Directors. 733 
(b) [Student] Registered apprentice embalmers and [student] 734 
registered apprentice funeral directors shall register as apprentices with 735  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	24 of 89 
 
the Department of Public Health, in the manner prescribed by the 736 
commissioner in regulations adopted pursuant to section 20-211, for 737 
purposes of completing practical training and experience pursuant to 738 
the provisions of this chapter.  739 
Sec. 16. Section 20-195dd of the general statutes is repealed and the 740 
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2021): 741 
(a) Except as otherwise provided in subsections (c) and (d) of this 742 
section, an applicant for a license as a professional counselor shall 743 
submit evidence satisfactory to the commissioner of having: (1) (A) 744 
Earned a graduate degree in clinical mental health counseling as part of 745 
a program of higher learning accredited by the Council for 746 
Accreditation of Counseling and Related Educational Programs, or a 747 
successor organization, or (B) (i) completed at least sixty graduate 748 
semester hours in counseling or a related mental health field at a 749 
regionally accredited institution of higher education that included 750 
coursework in each of the following areas: (I) Human growth and 751 
development; (II) social and cultural foundations; (III) counseling 752 
theories; (IV) counseling techniques; (V) group counseling; (VI) career 753 
counseling; (VII) appraisals or tests and measurements to individuals 754 
and groups; (VIII) research and evaluation; (IX) professional orientation 755 
to mental health counseling; (X) addiction and substance abuse 756 
counseling; (XI) trauma and crisis counseling; and (XII) diagnosis and 757 
treatment of mental and emotional disorders, (ii) earned from a 758 
regionally accredited institution of higher education a graduate degree 759 
in counseling or a related mental health field, (iii) completed a one-760 
hundred-hour practicum in counseling taught by a faculty member 761 
licensed or certified as a professional counselor or its equivalent in 762 
another state, and (iv) completed a six-hundred-hour clinical mental 763 
health counseling internship taught by a faculty member licensed or 764 
certified as a professional counselor or its equivalent in another state; (2) 765 
acquired three thousand hours of postgraduate experience under 766 
professional supervision, including a minimum of one hundred hours 767 
of direct professional supervision, in the practice of professional 768 
counseling, performed over a period of not less than two years; and (3) 769  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	25 of 89 
 
passed an examination prescribed by the commissioner. The provisions 770 
of subparagraphs (B)(i)(X) to (B)(i)(XII), inclusive, (B)(iii) and (B)(iv) of 771 
this subsection shall not apply to any applicant who, on or before July 772 
1, 2017, was a matriculating student in good standing in a graduate 773 
degree program at a regionally accredited institution of higher 774 
education in one of the fields required under subparagraph (B) of this 775 
subsection. 776 
(b) An applicant for a license as a professional counselor associate 777 
shall submit to the Commissioner of Public Health evidence satisfactory 778 
to the commissioner of having (1) earned a graduate degree in clinical 779 
mental health counseling as part of a program of higher learning 780 
accredited by the Council for Accreditation of Counseling and Related 781 
Educational Programs, or a successor organization, or (2) (A) completed 782 
at least sixty graduate semester hours in counseling or a related mental 783 
health field at a regionally accredited institution of higher education 784 
that included coursework in each of the following areas: Human growth 785 
and development; social and cultural foundations; counseling theories; 786 
counseling techniques; group counseling; career counseling; appraisals 787 
or tests and measurements to individuals and groups; research and 788 
evaluation; professional orientation to mental health counseling; 789 
addiction and substance abuse counseling; trauma and crisis 790 
counseling; and diagnosis and treatment of mental and emotional 791 
disorders, (B) completed a one-hundred-hour practicum in counseling 792 
taught by a faculty member licensed or certified as a professional 793 
counselor or its equivalent in another state, (C) completed a six-794 
hundred-hour clinical mental health counseling internship taught by a 795 
faculty member licensed or certified as a professional counselor or its 796 
equivalent in another state, and (D) earned from a regionally accredited 797 
institution of higher education a graduate degree in counseling or a 798 
related mental health field. The provisions of subparagraphs (A) to (C), 799 
inclusive, of subdivision (2) of this subsection shall not apply to any 800 
applicant who, on or before July 1, 2022, earned a graduate degree at a 801 
regionally accredited institution of higher education in counseling or a 802 
related mental health field and has accumulated at least three thousand 803  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	26 of 89 
 
hours of experience under professional supervision, as defined in 804 
section 20-195aa. 805 
(c) An applicant for licensure by endorsement shall present evidence 806 
satisfactory to the commissioner that the applicant is licensed or 807 
certified as a professional counselor or professional counselor associate, 808 
or as a person entitled to perform similar services under a different 809 
designation, in another state or jurisdiction whose requirements for 810 
practicing in such capacity are substantially similar to or higher than 811 
those of this state and that there are no disciplinary actions or 812 
unresolved complaints pending. 813 
(d) An applicant who is licensed or certified as a professional 814 
counselor or its equivalent in another state, territory or commonwealth 815 
of the United States may substitute three years of licensed or certified 816 
work experience in the practice of professional counseling in lieu of the 817 
requirements of subdivision (2) of subsection (a) of this section, 818 
provided the commissioner finds that such experience is equal to or 819 
greater than the requirements of this state.  820 
Sec. 17. Subsection (a) of section 20-195c of the general statutes is 821 
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 822 
1, 2021): 823 
(a) Each applicant for licensure as a marital and family therapist shall 824 
present to the department satisfactory evidence that such applicant has: 825 
(1) Completed a graduate degree program specializing in marital and 826 
family therapy offered by a regionally accredited college or university 827 
or an accredited postgraduate clinical training program accredited by 828 
the Commission on Accreditation for Marriage and Family Therapy 829 
Education offered by a regionally accredited institution of higher 830 
education; (2) completed a supervised practicum or internship with 831 
emphasis in marital and family therapy supervised by the program 832 
granting the requisite degree or by an accredited postgraduate clinical 833 
training program accredited by the Commission on Accreditation for 834 
Marriage and Family Therapy Education and offered by a regionally 835  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	27 of 89 
 
accredited institution of higher education; [, in which the student 836 
received a minimum of five hundred direct clinical hours that included 837 
one hundred hours of clinical supervision;] (3) completed twelve 838 
months of relevant postgraduate experience, including (A) a minimum 839 
of one thousand hours of direct client contact offering marital and 840 
family therapy services subsequent to being awarded a master's degree 841 
or doctorate or subsequent to the training year specified in subdivision 842 
(2) of this subsection, and (B) one hundred hours of postgraduate 843 
clinical supervision provided by a licensed marital and family therapist; 844 
and (4) passed an examination prescribed by the department. The fee 845 
shall be three hundred fifteen dollars for each initial application. 846 
Sec. 18. Subdivision (12) of subsection (a) of section 19a-14 of the 847 
general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 848 
thereof (Effective October 1, 2021): 849 
(12) With respect to any complaint filed with the department on or 850 
after October 1, 2010, alleging incompetence, negligence, fraud or deceit 851 
by a person subject to regulation or licensing by any board or 852 
commission described in subdivision (1) to [(5), inclusive, (7),] (8), 853 
inclusive, (12) to (14), inclusive, or subdivision (16) of subsection (b) of 854 
this section: 855 
(A) Upon request of the person who filed the complaint, provide such 856 
person with information on the status of the complaint; 857 
(B) Upon request of the person who filed the complaint, provide such 858 
person with an opportunity to review, at the department, records 859 
compiled as of the date of the request pursuant to any investigation of 860 
the complaint, including, but not limited to, the respondent's written 861 
response to the complaint, except that such person shall not be entitled 862 
to copy such records and the department (i) shall not disclose (I) 863 
information concerning a health care professional's referral to, 864 
participation in or completion of an assistance program in accordance 865 
with sections 19a-12a and 19a-12b, that is confidential pursuant to 866 
section 19a-12a, (II) information not related to such person's specific 867  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	28 of 89 
 
complaint, including, but not limited to, information concerning 868 
patients other than such person, or (III) personnel or medical records 869 
and similar files the disclosure of which would constitute an invasion of 870 
personal privacy pursuant to section 1-210, except for such records or 871 
similar files solely related to such person; (ii) shall not be required to 872 
disclose any other information that is otherwise confidential pursuant 873 
to federal law or state statute, except for information solely related to 874 
such person; and (iii) may require up to ten business days written notice 875 
prior to providing such opportunity for review; 876 
(C) Prior to resolving the complaint with a consent order, provide the 877 
person who filed the complaint with not less than ten business days to 878 
submit a written statement as to whether such person objects to 879 
resolving the complaint with a consent order; 880 
(D) If a hearing is held with respect to such complaint after a finding 881 
of probable cause, provide the person who filed the complaint with a 882 
copy of the notice of hearing issued pursuant to section 4-177, which 883 
shall include information concerning the opportunity to present oral or 884 
written statements pursuant to subsection (b) of section 4-177c; and 885 
(E) Notify the person who filed the complaint of the final disposition 886 
of such complaint not later than seven business days after such final 887 
disposition; 888 
Sec. 19. Subsections (a) to (c), inclusive, of section 20-204a of the 889 
general statutes are repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 890 
thereof (Effective October 1, 2021): 891 
(a) The department shall investigate each allegation of any act or 892 
omission by a veterinarian specified in section 20-202. The investigation 893 
shall be conducted in accordance with the provisions of section 19a-14, 894 
as amended by this act, to determine if probable cause exists to issue a 895 
statement of charges and to institute proceedings against the 896 
veterinarian. Such investigation shall be concluded not later than twelve 897 
months from the date the allegation is submitted to the department. 898  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	29 of 89 
 
(b) Except as provided in subsections (c) and (d) of this section, the 899 
investigation shall be confidential and not subject to disclosure under 900 
section 1-210 and no person may disclose knowledge of the 901 
investigation to a third party unless the veterinarian requests that the 902 
investigation be open, [The owner of any animal that is the subject of 903 
such an investigation shall not be deemed a third party to such an 904 
investigation for purposes of disclosure under this section] except that 905 
the department shall provide information to the person who filed the 906 
complaint pursuant to subdivision (12) of subsection (a) of section 19a-907 
14, as amended by this act.  908 
(c) If the department makes a finding of no probable cause to take 909 
action under section 20-202 or fails to make a finding within the twelve-910 
month period required by subsection [(b)] (a) of this section, the 911 
allegation submitted pursuant to subsection (a) of this section and the 912 
entire record of the investigation may remain confidential and no 913 
person shall disclose knowledge of such investigation to a third party 914 
unless the veterinarian requests that it be open, except that the 915 
department shall provide information to the person who filed the 916 
complaint pursuant to subdivision (12) of subsection (a) of section 19a-917 
14, as amended by this act. 918 
Sec. 20. Subsections (b) and (c) of section 7-62b of the general statutes 919 
are repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective 920 
January 1, 2022): 921 
(b) The funeral director or embalmer licensed by the department, or 922 
the funeral director or embalmer licensed in another state and 923 
complying with the terms of a reciprocal agreement on file with the 924 
department, in charge of the burial of the deceased person shall 925 
complete the death certificate through the electronic death registry 926 
system, or, if the electronic death registry system is unavailable, on a 927 
form provided by the department. Said certificate shall be filed by a 928 
licensed embalmer or such embalmer's designee or a funeral director or 929 
such director's designee, in accordance with the provisions of this 930 
section, except when inquiry is required by the Chief Medical 931  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	30 of 89 
 
Examiner's Office, in which case the death certificate shall be filed in 932 
accordance with section 19a-409. The Social Security number of the 933 
deceased person shall be recorded on such certificate. Such licensed 934 
funeral director or licensed embalmer shall obtain the personal data 935 
from the next of kin or the best qualified person or source available and 936 
shall obtain a medical certification from the person responsible therefor, 937 
in accordance with the provisions of this section. Only a licensed 938 
embalmer may assume charge of the burial of a deceased person who 939 
had a communicable disease, as designated in the [Public Health Code] 940 
regulations of Connecticut state agencies, at the time of death and such 941 
licensed embalmer shall file an affidavit, on a form provided by the 942 
department, signed and sworn to by such licensed embalmer stating 943 
that the body has been disinfected in accordance with the [Public Health 944 
Code] regulations of Connecticut State Agencies. 945 
(c) The medical certification portion of the death certificate shall be 946 
completed, signed and returned to the licensed funeral director or 947 
licensed embalmer no later than twenty-four hours after death by the 948 
physician or advanced practice registered nurse in charge of the 949 
patient's care for the illness or condition which resulted in death, or 950 
upon the death of an infant delivered by a nurse-midwife, by such 951 
nurse-midwife, as provided in section 20-86b. In the absence of such 952 
physician or advanced practice registered nurse, or with the physician's 953 
or advanced practice registered nurse's approval, the medical 954 
certification may be completed and signed by an associate physician, an 955 
advanced practice registered nurse, a physician assistant as provided in 956 
subsection (d) of section 20-12d, a registered nurse as provided in 957 
section 20-101a, the chief medical officer of the institution in which 958 
death occurred, or by the pathologist who performed an autopsy upon 959 
the decedent. No physician, advanced practice registered nurse, 960 
physician assistant, registered nurse, nurse-midwife, chief medical 961 
officer or pathologist shall sign and return the medical certification 962 
unless such physician, advanced practice registered nurse, physician 963 
assistant, registered nurse, nurse-midwife, chief medical officer or 964 
pathologist has personally viewed and examined the body of the person 965  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	31 of 89 
 
to whom the medical certification relates and is satisfied that at the time 966 
of the examination such person was in fact dead, except in the event a 967 
medical certification is completed by a physician, advanced practice 968 
registered nurse, physician assistant, registered nurse, nurse-midwife, 969 
chief medical officer or pathologist other than the one who made the 970 
determination and pronouncement of death, an additional viewing and 971 
examination of the body shall not be required. Such physician, 972 
advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, registered 973 
nurse, nurse-midwife, chief medical officer or pathologist shall certify 974 
to the facts of death through the electronic death registry system, or, if 975 
the electronic death registry is unavailable, on a form provided by the 976 
department. If a physician, advanced practice registered nurse, 977 
physician assistant, registered nurse, nurse-midwife, chief medical 978 
officer or pathologist refuses or otherwise fails to complete, sign and 979 
return the medical portion of the death certificate to the licensed funeral 980 
director or licensed embalmer within twenty-four hours after death, 981 
such licensed funeral director or embalmer may notify the 982 
Commissioner of Public Health of such refusal. The commissioner may, 983 
upon receipt of notification and investigation, assess a civil penalty 984 
against such physician, advanced practice registered nurse, physician 985 
assistant, registered nurse, chief medical officer or pathologist not to 986 
exceed two hundred fifty dollars. The medical certification shall state 987 
the cause of death, defined so that such death may be classified under 988 
the international list of causes of death, the duration of disease if known 989 
and such additional information as the Department of Public Health 990 
requires. The department shall give due consideration to national 991 
uniformity in vital statistics in prescribing the form and content of such 992 
information. 993 
Sec. 21. Section 19a-200 of the general statutes is repealed and the 994 
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 2021): 995 
(a) The mayor of each city, the chief executive officer of each town 996 
and the warden of each borough shall, unless the charter of such city, 997 
town or borough otherwise provides, nominate some person to be 998 
director of health for such city, town or borough. [, which] Such person 999  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	32 of 89 
 
shall possess the qualifications specified in subsection (b) of this section. 1000 
Upon approval of the commissioner, such nomination shall be 1001 
confirmed or rejected by the board of selectmen, if there be such a board, 1002 
otherwise by the legislative body of such city or town or by the 1003 
burgesses of such borough within thirty days thereafter.  1004 
(b) Notwithstanding the charter provisions of any city, town or 1005 
borough with respect to the qualifications of the director of health, on 1006 
and after October 1, 2010, any person nominated to be a director of 1007 
health shall (1) be a licensed physician and hold a degree in public health 1008 
from an accredited school, college, university or institution, or (2) hold 1009 
a graduate degree in public health from an accredited institution of 1010 
higher education. The educational requirements of this section shall not 1011 
apply to any director of health nominated or otherwise appointed as 1012 
director of health prior to October 1, 2010.  1013 
(c) In cities, towns or boroughs with a population of forty thousand 1014 
or more for five consecutive years, according to the estimated 1015 
population figures authorized pursuant to subsection (b) of section 1016 
8-159a, such director of health shall serve in a full-time capacity, except 1017 
where a town has designated such director as the chief medical advisor 1018 
for its public schools under section 10-205. [, and]  1019 
(d) No director shall not, during such director's term of office, have 1020 
any financial interest in or engage in any employment, transaction or 1021 
professional activity that is in substantial conflict with the proper 1022 
discharge of the duties required of directors of health by the general 1023 
statutes or the regulations of Connecticut state agencies or specified by 1024 
the appointing authority of the city, town or borough in its written 1025 
agreement with such director. A written agreement with such director 1026 
shall be submitted to the Commissioner of Public Health upon such 1027 
director's appointment or reappointment. 1028 
(e) Such director of health shall have and exercise within the limits of 1029 
the city, town or borough for which such director is appointed all 1030 
powers necessary for enforcing the general statutes, provisions of the 1031  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	33 of 89 
 
regulations of Connecticut state agencies relating to the preservation 1032 
and improvement of the public health and preventing the spread of 1033 
diseases therein.  1034 
(f) In case of the absence or inability to act of a city, town or borough 1035 
director of health or if a vacancy exists in the office of such director, the 1036 
appointing authority of such city, town or borough may, with the 1037 
approval of the Commissioner of Public Health, designate in writing a 1038 
suitable person to serve as acting director of health during the period of 1039 
such absence or inability or vacancy, provided the commissioner may 1040 
appoint such acting director if the city, town or borough fails to do so. 1041 
The person so designated, when sworn, shall have all the powers and 1042 
be subject to all the duties of such director. In case of vacancy in the 1043 
office of such director, if such vacancy exists for [thirty] sixty days, said 1044 
commissioner may appoint a director of health for such city, town or 1045 
borough. Said commissioner, may, for cause, remove an officer the 1046 
commissioner or any predecessor in said office has appointed, and the 1047 
common council of such city, town or the burgesses of such borough 1048 
may, respectively, for cause, remove a director whose nomination has 1049 
been confirmed by them, provided such removal shall be approved by 1050 
said commissioner; and, within two days thereafter, notice in writing of 1051 
such action shall be given by the clerk of such city, town or borough, as 1052 
the case may be, to said commissioner, who shall, within ten days after 1053 
receipt, file with the clerk from whom the notice was received, approval 1054 
or disapproval.  1055 
(g) Each such director of health shall hold office for the term of four 1056 
years from the date of appointment and until a successor is nominated 1057 
and confirmed in accordance with this section.  1058 
(h) Each director of health shall, annually, at the end of the fiscal year 1059 
of the city, town or borough, file with the Department of Public Health 1060 
a report of the doings as such director for the year preceding. 1061 
[(b)] (i) On and after July 1, 1988, each city, town and borough shall 1062 
provide for the services of a sanitarian licensed under chapter 395 to 1063  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	34 of 89 
 
work under the direction of the local director of health. Where practical, 1064 
the local director of health may act as the sanitarian. 1065 
[(c)] (j) As used in this chapter, "authorized agent" means a sanitarian 1066 
licensed under chapter 395 and any individual certified for a specific 1067 
program of environmental health by the Commissioner of Public Health 1068 
in accordance with the general statutes and regulations of Connecticut 1069 
state agencies.  1070 
Sec. 22. Section 19a-202a of the general statutes is repealed and the 1071 
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 2021): 1072 
(a) Any municipality may designate itself as having a part-time 1073 
health department if: (1) The municipality has not had a full-time health 1074 
department or been in a full-time health district prior to January 1, 1998; 1075 
(2) the municipality has the equivalent of at least one full-time 1076 
employee, as determined by the Commissioner of Public Health, who 1077 
performs public health functions required by the general statutes and 1078 
the regulations of Connecticut states agencies; (3) the municipality 1079 
annually submits a public health program plan and budget to the 1080 
commissioner. [; and (4) the commissioner approves the program plan 1081 
and budget.] 1082 
(b) The Commissioner of Public Health [shall] may adopt regulations, 1083 
in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54, for the development 1084 
and approval of the program plan and budget required by subdivision 1085 
(3) of subsection (a) of this section.  1086 
Sec. 23. Section 19a-244 of the general statutes is repealed and the 1087 
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 2021): 1088 
On and after October 1, 2010, any person nominated to be the director 1089 
of health shall (1) be a licensed physician and hold a degree in public 1090 
health from an accredited school, college, university or institution, or (2) 1091 
hold a graduate degree in public health from an accredited school, 1092 
college or institution. The educational requirements of this section shall 1093 
not apply to any director of health nominated or otherwise appointed 1094  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	35 of 89 
 
as director of health prior to October 1, 2010. The board may specify in 1095 
a written agreement with such director the term of office, which shall 1096 
not exceed three years, salary and duties required of and responsibilities 1097 
assigned to such director in addition to those required by the general 1098 
statutes or the [Public Health Code] regulations of Connecticut state 1099 
agencies, if any. Such director shall be removed during the term of such 1100 
written agreement only for cause after a public hearing by the board on 1101 
charges preferred, of which reasonable notice shall have been given. No 1102 
director shall, during such director's term of office, have any financial 1103 
interest in or engage in any employment, transaction or professional 1104 
activity that is in substantial conflict with the proper discharge of the 1105 
duties required of directors of health by the general statutes or the 1106 
[Public Health Code] regulations of Connecticut state agencies or 1107 
specified by the board in its written agreement with such director. The 1108 
written agreement shall be submitted to the Commissioner of Public 1109 
Health upon such director's appointment or reappointment. Such 1110 
director shall serve in a full-time capacity and act as secretary and 1111 
treasurer of the board, without the right to vote. Such director shall give 1112 
to the district a bond with a surety company authorized to transact 1113 
business in the state, for the faithful performance of such director's 1114 
duties as treasurer, in such sum and upon such conditions as the board 1115 
requires. Such director shall be the executive officer of the district 1116 
department of health. Full-time employees of a city, town or borough 1117 
health department at the time such city, town or borough votes to form 1118 
or join a district department of health shall become employees of such 1119 
district department of health. Such employees may retain their rights 1120 
and benefits in the pension system of the town, city or borough by which 1121 
they were employed and shall continue to retain their active 1122 
participating membership therein until retired. Such employees shall 1123 
pay into such pension system the contributions required of them for 1124 
their class and membership. Any additional employees to be hired by 1125 
the district or any vacancies to be filled shall be filled in accordance with 1126 
the rules and regulations of the merit system of the state of Connecticut 1127 
and the employees who are employees of cities, towns or boroughs 1128 
which have adopted a local civil service or merit system shall be 1129  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	36 of 89 
 
included in their comparable grade with fully attained seniority in the 1130 
state merit system. Such employees shall perform such duties as are 1131 
prescribed by the director of health. In the event of the withdrawal of a 1132 
town, city or borough from the district department, or in the event of a 1133 
dissolution of any district department, the employees thereof, originally 1134 
employed therein, shall automatically become employees of the 1135 
appropriate town, city or borough's board of health. At the end of each 1136 
fiscal year, each director of health shall submit a report to the 1137 
Department of Public Health detailing the activities of such director 1138 
during the preceding fiscal year.  1139 
Sec. 24. Subdivision (3) of subsection (a) of section 19a-12a of the 1140 
general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 1141 
thereof (Effective July 1, 2021): 1142 
(3) "Health care professionals" includes any person licensed or who 1143 
holds a permit pursuant to chapter 370, 372, 373, 375, 375a, 376, 376a, 1144 
376b, 376c, 377, 378, 379, 379a, 380, 381, 381a, 382a, 383, 383a, 383b, 383c, 1145 
384, 384a, 384b, 384c, 384d, 385, 398 or 399; 1146 
Sec. 25. Section 19a-12d of the general statutes is repealed and the 1147 
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 2021): 1148 
On or before the last day of January, April, July and October in each 1149 
year, the Commissioner of Public Health shall certify the amount of 1150 
revenue received as a result of any fee increase in the amount of five 1151 
dollars (1) that took effect October 1, 2015, pursuant to sections 19a-88, 1152 
19a-515, 20-65k, 20-74bb, 20-74h, 20-74s, 20-149, 20-162o, 20-162bb, 20-1153 
191a, 20-195c, as amended by this act, 20-195o, 20-195cc, 20-201, 20-206b, 1154 
20-206n, 20-206r, 20-206bb, 20-206ll, 20-222a, 20-275, 20-395d, 20-398 and 1155 
20-412, and (2) that took effect October 1, 2021, pursuant to section 20-1156 
185k, as amended by this act, and transfer such amount to the 1157 
professional assistance program account established in section 19a-12c.  1158 
Sec. 26. Subsection (a) of section 19a-12e of the general statutes is 1159 
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1160 
1, 2021): 1161  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	37 of 89 
 
(a) As used in this section: 1162 
(1) "Health care professional" means any individual licensed or who 1163 
holds a permit pursuant to chapter 368v, 370, 372, 373, 375 to 378, 1164 
inclusive, 379 to 381b, inclusive, 382a, 383 to 385, inclusive, 388 or 397a 1165 
to 399, inclusive; 1166 
(2) "Assistance program" means the program established pursuant to 1167 
section 19a-12a, as amended by this act, to provide education, 1168 
prevention, intervention, referral assistance, rehabilitation or support 1169 
services to health care professionals who have a chemical dependency, 1170 
emotional or behavioral disorder or physical or mental illness; and 1171 
(3) "Hospital" has the same meaning as provided in section 19a-490. 1172 
Sec. 27. Subsection (b) of section 20-185k of the general statutes is 1173 
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from 1174 
passage): 1175 
(b) A license issued under this section may be renewed annually. The 1176 
license shall be renewed in accordance with the provisions of section 1177 
19a-88, for a fee of one hundred [seventy-five] eighty dollars for 1178 
applications for renewal of licenses that expire on or after October 1, 1179 
2021. Each behavior analyst applying for license renewal shall furnish 1180 
evidence satisfactory to the commissioner of having current certification 1181 
with the Behavior Analyst Certification Board.  1182 
Sec. 28. Subsection (a) of section 17a-412 of the general statutes is 1183 
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1184 
1, 2021): 1185 
(a) Any physician or surgeon licensed under the provisions of chapter 1186 
370, any resident physician or intern in any hospital in this state, 1187 
whether or not so licensed, [and] any registered nurse, licensed practical 1188 
nurse, medical examiner, dentist, optometrist, chiropractor, podiatrist, 1189 
social worker, clergyman, police officer, pharmacist, physical therapist, 1190 
long-term care facility administrator, nurse's aide or orderly in a long-1191  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	38 of 89 
 
term care facility, any person paid for caring for a patient in a long-term 1192 
care facility, any staff person employed by a long-term care facility,  1193 
[and] any person who is a sexual assault counselor or a domestic 1194 
violence counselor as defined in section 52-146k, and any behavior 1195 
analyst licensed under the provisions of chapter 382a, who has 1196 
reasonable cause to suspect or believe that a resident in a long-term care 1197 
facility has been abused, neglected, exploited or abandoned, or is in a 1198 
condition that is the result of such abuse, neglect, exploitation or 1199 
abandonment, shall, not later than seventy-two hours after such 1200 
suspicion or belief arose, report such information or cause a report to be 1201 
made in any reasonable manner to the Commissioner of Social Services 1202 
pursuant to chapter 319dd. Any person required to report under the 1203 
provision of this section who fails to make such report within the 1204 
prescribed time period shall be fined not more than five hundred 1205 
dollars, except that, if such person intentionally fails to make such report 1206 
within the prescribed time period, such person shall be guilty of a class 1207 
C misdemeanor for the first offense and a class A misdemeanor for any 1208 
subsequent offense. 1209 
Sec. 29. Subsection (a) of section 17b-451 of the general statutes is 1210 
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1211 
1, 2021): 1212 
(a) A mandatory reporter [, as defined in this section,] who has 1213 
reasonable cause to suspect or believe that any elderly person has been 1214 
abused, neglected, exploited or abandoned, or is in a condition that is 1215 
the result of such abuse, neglect, exploitation or abandonment, or is in 1216 
need of protective services, shall, not later than seventy-two hours after 1217 
such suspicion or belief arose, report such information or cause a report 1218 
to be made in any reasonable manner to the Commissioner of Social 1219 
Services or to the person or persons designated by the commissioner to 1220 
receive such reports. The term "mandatory reporter" means (1) any 1221 
physician or surgeon licensed under the provisions of chapter 370, (2) 1222 
any resident physician or intern in any hospital in this state, whether or 1223 
not so licensed, (3) any registered nurse, (4) any nursing home 1224 
administrator, nurse's aide or orderly in a nursing home facility or 1225  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	39 of 89 
 
residential care home, (5) any person paid for caring for a resident in a 1226 
nursing home facility or residential care home, (6) any staff person 1227 
employed by a nursing home facility or residential care home, (7) any 1228 
residents' advocate, other than a representative of the Office of the Long-1229 
Term Care Ombudsman, as established under section 17a -405, 1230 
including the State Ombudsman, (8) any licensed practical nurse, 1231 
medical examiner, dentist, optometrist, chiropractor, podiatrist, 1232 
behavior analyst, social worker, clergyman, police officer, pharmacist, 1233 
psychologist or physical therapist, (9) any person paid for caring for an 1234 
elderly person by any institution, organization, agency or facility, 1235 
including without limitation, any employee of a community-based 1236 
services provider, senior center, home care agency, homemaker and 1237 
companion agency, adult day care center, village-model community 1238 
and congregate housing facility, and (10) any person licensed or 1239 
certified as an emergency medical services provider pursuant to chapter 1240 
368d or chapter 384d, including any such emergency medical services 1241 
provider who is a member of a municipal fire department. Any 1242 
mandatory reporter who fails to make such report within the prescribed 1243 
time period shall be fined not more than five hundred dollars, except 1244 
that, if such person intentionally fails to make such report within the 1245 
prescribed time period, such person shall be guilty of a class C 1246 
misdemeanor for the first offense and a class A misdemeanor for any 1247 
subsequent offense. Any institution, organization, agency or facility 1248 
employing individuals to care for persons sixty years of age or older 1249 
shall provide mandatory training on detecting potential abuse, neglect, 1250 
exploitation and abandonment of such persons and inform such 1251 
employees of their obligations under this section. For purposes of this 1252 
subsection, "person paid for caring for an elderly person by any 1253 
institution, organization, agency or facility" includes an employee of a 1254 
community-based services provider, senior center, home health care 1255 
agency, homemaker and companion agency, adult day care center, 1256 
village-model community and congregate housing facility. 1257 
Sec. 30. Section 19a-6o of the general statutes is repealed and the 1258 
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 2021): 1259  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	40 of 89 
 
(a) There is established, within available appropriations, within the 1260 
Department of Public Health, a Palliative Care Advisory Council. The 1261 
advisory council shall: (1) Analyze the current state of palliative care in 1262 
the state; and (2) advise the department on matters relating to the 1263 
improvement of palliative care and the quality of life for persons with 1264 
serious or chronic illnesses. 1265 
(b) The advisory council shall consist of the following members: 1266 
(1) Two appointed by the Governor, one of whom shall be a physician 1267 
certified by the American Board of Hospice and Palliative Medicine and 1268 
one of whom shall be a registered nurse or advanced practice registered 1269 
nurse certified by the National Board for Certification of Hospice and 1270 
Palliative Nurses; 1271 
(2) Seven appointed by the Commissioner of Public Health, each of 1272 
whom shall be a licensed health care provider, with each appointee 1273 
having experience or expertise in the provision of one of the following: 1274 
(A) Inpatient palliative care in a hospital; (B) inpatient palliative care in 1275 
a nursing home facility; (C) palliative care in the patient's home or a 1276 
community setting; (D) pediatric palliative care; (E) palliative care for 1277 
young adults; (F) palliative care for adults or elderly persons; and (G) 1278 
inpatient palliative care in a psychiatric facility;  1279 
(3) One appointed by the speaker of the House of Representatives, 1280 
who shall be a licensed social worker experienced in working with 1281 
persons with serious or chronic illness and their family members; 1282 
(4) One appointed by the president pro tempore of the Senate, who 1283 
shall be a licensed pharmacist experienced in working with persons 1284 
with serious or chronic illness; 1285 
(5) One appointed by the minority leader of the House of 1286 
Representatives, who shall be a spiritual counselor experienced in 1287 
working with persons with serious or chronic illness and their family 1288 
members; and 1289  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	41 of 89 
 
(6) One appointed by the minority leader of the Senate, who shall be 1290 
a representative of the American Cancer Society or a person experienced 1291 
in advocating for persons with serious or chronic illness and their family 1292 
members. 1293 
(c) All appointments to the advisory council shall be made not later 1294 
than December 31, 2013. Advisory council members shall serve three-1295 
year terms. Any vacancy shall be filled by the appointing authority. 1296 
(d) Any appointment that is vacant for one year or more shall be 1297 
made by the Commissioner of Public Health. The commissioner shall 1298 
notify the appointing authority of the identity of the commissioner's 1299 
choice for appointment not later than thirty days before making such 1300 
appointment. 1301 
[(d)] (e) Members shall receive no compensation except for 1302 
reimbursement for necessary expenses incurred in performing their 1303 
duties. 1304 
[(e)] (f) The members shall elect the chairperson of the advisory 1305 
council from among the members of the advisory council. A majority of 1306 
the advisory council members shall constitute a quorum. Any action 1307 
taken by the advisory council shall require a majority vote of those 1308 
present. The first meeting of the advisory council shall be held not later 1309 
than December 31, 2013. The advisory council shall meet biannually and 1310 
at other times upon the call of the chairperson, upon the request of the 1311 
Commissioner of Public Health or upon the request of a majority of the 1312 
advisory council members. 1313 
[(f)] (g) Not later than January 1, [2015] 2022, and [annually] 1314 
biennially thereafter, the advisory council shall submit a report on its 1315 
findings and recommendations to the Commissioner of Public Health 1316 
and the joint standing committee of the General Assembly having 1317 
cognizance of matters relating to public health, in accordance with the 1318 
provisions of section 11-4a.  1319 
Sec. 31. Section 19a-6q of the general statutes is repealed and the 1320  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	42 of 89 
 
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage): 1321 
[(a)] The Commissioner of Public Health, in consultation with the 1322 
executive director of the Office of Health Strategy, established under 1323 
section 19a-754a, and local and regional health departments, shall, 1324 
within available resources, develop a plan that is consistent with the 1325 
Department of Public Health's Healthy Connecticut 2020 health 1326 
improvement plan and the state healthcare innovation plan developed 1327 
pursuant to the State Innovation Model Initiative by the Centers for 1328 
Medicare and Medicaid Services Innovation Center. The commissioner 1329 
shall develop and implement such plan to: (1) Reduce the incidence of 1330 
tobacco use, high blood pressure, health care associated infections, 1331 
asthma, unintended pregnancy and diabetes; (2) improve chronic 1332 
disease care coordination in the state; and (3) reduce the incidence and 1333 
effects of chronic disease and improve outcomes for conditions 1334 
associated with chronic disease in the state. The commissioner shall post 1335 
such plan on the Department of Public Health's Internet web site. 1336 
[(b) The commissioner shall, on or before January 15, 2015, and 1337 
biennially thereafter, submit a report, in consultation with the executive 1338 
director of the Office of Health Strategy, in accordance with the 1339 
provisions of section 11-4a to the joint standing committee of the 1340 
General Assembly having cognizance of matters relating to public 1341 
health concerning chronic disease and implementation of the plan 1342 
described in subsection (a) of this section. The commissioner shall post 1343 
each report on the Department of Public Health's Internet web site not 1344 
later than thirty days after submitting such report. Each report shall 1345 
include, but need not be limited to: (1) A description of the chronic 1346 
diseases that are most likely to cause a person's death or disability, the 1347 
approximate number of persons affected by such chronic diseases and 1348 
an assessment of the financial effects of each such disease on the state 1349 
and on hospitals and health care facilities; (2) a description and 1350 
assessment of programs and actions that have been implemented by the 1351 
department and health care providers to improve chronic disease care 1352 
coordination and prevent chronic disease; (3) the sources and amounts 1353 
of funding received by the department to treat persons with multiple 1354  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	43 of 89 
 
chronic diseases and to treat or reduce the most prevalent chronic 1355 
diseases in the state; (4) a description of chronic disease care 1356 
coordination between the department and health care providers, to 1357 
prevent and treat chronic disease; and (5) recommendations concerning 1358 
actions that health care providers and persons with chronic disease may 1359 
take to reduce the incidence and effects of chronic disease.]  1360 
Sec. 32. Subsection (b) of section 19a-493 of the general statutes is 1361 
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 1362 
2021): 1363 
(b) (1) A nursing home license may be renewed biennially after (A) 1364 
an unscheduled inspection conducted by the department, (B) 1365 
submission of the information required by section 19a-491a, and (C) 1366 
submission of evidence satisfactory to the department that the nursing 1367 
home is in compliance with the provisions of this chapter, the [Public 1368 
Health Code] regulations of Connecticut state agencies and licensing 1369 
regulations.  1370 
(2) Any change in the ownership of a facility or institution, as defined 1371 
in section 19a-490, owned by an individual, partnership or association 1372 
or the change in ownership or beneficial ownership of ten per cent or 1373 
more of the stock of a corporation which owns, conducts, operates or 1374 
maintains such facility or institution, shall be subject to prior approval 1375 
of the department after a scheduled inspection of such facility or 1376 
institution is conducted by the department, provided such approval 1377 
shall be conditioned upon a showing by such facility or institution to the 1378 
commissioner that it has complied with all requirements of this chapter, 1379 
the regulations relating to licensure and all applicable requirements of 1380 
the [Public Health Code] regulations of Connecticut state agencies. Any 1381 
such change in ownership or beneficial ownership resulting in a transfer 1382 
to a person related by blood or marriage to such an owner or beneficial 1383 
owner shall not be subject to prior approval of the department unless: 1384 
(A) Ownership or beneficial ownership of ten per cent or more of the 1385 
stock of a corporation, limited liability company, partnership or 1386 
association which owns, conducts, operates or maintains more than one 1387  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	44 of 89 
 
facility or institution is transferred; (B) ownership or beneficial 1388 
ownership is transferred in more than one facility or institution; or (C) 1389 
the facility or institution is the subject of a pending complaint, 1390 
investigation or licensure action. If the facility or institution is not in 1391 
compliance, the commissioner may require the new owner to sign a 1392 
consent order providing reasonable assurances that the violations shall 1393 
be corrected within a specified period of time. Notice of any such 1394 
proposed change of ownership shall be given to the department at least 1395 
one hundred twenty days prior to the effective date of such proposed 1396 
change. For the purposes of this subdivision, "a person related by blood 1397 
or marriage" means a parent, spouse, child, brother, sister, aunt, uncle, 1398 
niece or nephew. For the purposes of this subdivision, a change in the 1399 
legal form of the ownership entity, including, but not limited to, changes 1400 
from a corporation to a limited liability company, a partnership to a 1401 
limited liability partnership, a sole proprietorship to a corporation and 1402 
similar changes, shall not be considered a change of ownership if the 1403 
beneficial ownership remains unchanged and the owner provides such 1404 
information regarding the change to the department as may be required 1405 
by the department in order to properly identify the current status of 1406 
ownership and beneficial ownership of the facility or institution. For the 1407 
purposes of this subdivision, a public offering of the stock of any 1408 
corporation that owns, conducts, operates or maintains any such facility 1409 
or institution shall not be considered a change in ownership or beneficial 1410 
ownership of such facility or institution if the licensee and the officers 1411 
and directors of such corporation remain unchanged, such public 1412 
offering cannot result in an individual or entity owning ten per cent or 1413 
more of the stock of such corporation, and the owner provides such 1414 
information to the department as may be required by the department in 1415 
order to properly identify the current status of ownership and beneficial 1416 
ownership of the facility or institution.  1417 
Sec. 33. (NEW) (Effective July 1, 2021) A health care facility licensed 1418 
pursuant to chapter 368v of the general statutes shall have policies and 1419 
procedures in place that reflect the National Centers for Disease Control 1420 
and Prevention's recommendations for tuberculosis screening, testing, 1421  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	45 of 89 
 
treatment and education for health care personnel. Notwithstanding 1422 
any provision of the general statutes or any regulations adopted 1423 
thereunder, any employee providing direct patient care in a facility 1424 
licensed pursuant to chapter 368v of the general statutes shall receive 1425 
tuberculosis screening and testing in compliance with the licensed 1426 
health care facility's policies and procedures.  1427 
Sec. 34. Subsection (c) of section 19a-343 of the general statutes is 1428 
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1429 
1, 2021): 1430 
(c) Three or more arrests, the issuance of three or more arrest 1431 
warrants indicating a pattern of criminal activity and not isolated 1432 
incidents or the issuance of three or more citations for a violation of a 1433 
municipal ordinance as described in subdivision (14) of this subsection, 1434 
for the following offenses shall constitute the basis for bringing an action 1435 
to abate a public nuisance: 1436 
(1) Prostitution under section 53a-82, 53a-83, 53a-86, 53a-87, 53a-88 or 1437 
53a-89. 1438 
(2) Promoting an obscene performance or obscene material under 1439 
section 53a-196 or 53a-196b, employing a minor in an obscene 1440 
performance under section 53a-196a, importing child pornography 1441 
under section 53a-196c, possessing child pornography in the first degree 1442 
under section 53a-196d, possessing child pornography in the second 1443 
degree under section 53a-196e or possessing child pornography in the 1444 
third degree under section 53a-196f. 1445 
(3) Transmission of gambling information under section 53-278b or 1446 
53-278d or maintaining of a gambling premises under section 53-278e. 1447 
(4) Offenses for the sale of controlled substances, possession of 1448 
controlled substances with intent to sell, or maintaining a drug factory 1449 
under section 21a-277, 21a-278 or 21a-278a or use of the property by 1450 
persons possessing controlled substances under section 21a-279. 1451 
Nothing in this section shall prevent the state from also proceeding 1452  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	46 of 89 
 
against property under section 21a-259 or 54-36h. 1453 
(5) Unauthorized sale of alcoholic liquor under section 30-74 or 1454 
disposing of liquor without a permit under section 30-77, or sale or 1455 
delivery of alcoholic liquor to any minor under subdivision (1) of 1456 
subsection (b) of section 30-86 or the sale, delivery or giving of alcoholic 1457 
liquor to a minor under subdivision (2) of subsection (b) of section 30-1458 
86. 1459 
(6) Maintaining a motor vehicle chop shop under section 14-149a. 1460 
(7) Inciting injury to persons or property under section 53a-179a. 1461 
(8) Murder or manslaughter under section 53a-54a, 53a-54b, 53a-55, 1462 
53a-56 or 53a-56a. 1463 
(9) Assault under section 53a-59, 53a-59a, subdivision (1) of 1464 
subsection (a) of section 53a-60 or section 53a-60a or 53a-61. 1465 
(10) Sexual assault under section 53a-70 or 53a-70a. 1466 
(11) Fire safety violations under section 29-291a, 29-291c, 29-292, 1467 
subsection (b) of section 29-310, or section 29-315, 29-349 or 29-357. 1468 
(12) Firearm offenses under section 29-35, 53-202aa, 53-203, 53a-211, 1469 
53a-212, 53a-216, 53a-217 or 53a-217c. 1470 
(13) Illegal manufacture, sale, possession or dispensing of a drug 1471 
under subdivision (2) of section 21a-108. 1472 
(14) Violation of a municipal ordinance resulting in the issuance of a 1473 
citation for (A) excessive noise on nonresidential real property that 1474 
significantly impacts the surrounding area, provided the municipality's 1475 
excessive noise ordinance is based on an objective standard, (B) owning 1476 
or leasing a dwelling unit that provides residence to an excessive 1477 
number of unrelated persons resulting in dangerous or unsanitary 1478 
conditions that significantly impact the safety of the surrounding area, 1479 
or (C) impermissible operation of (i) a business that permits persons 1480  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	47 of 89 
 
who are not licensed pursuant to section 20-206b to engage in the 1481 
practice of massage therapy, or (ii) a massage parlor, as defined by the 1482 
applicable municipal ordinance, that significantly impacts the safety of 1483 
the surrounding area.  1484 
Sec. 35. Section 19a-131g of the general statutes is repealed and the 1485 
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage): 1486 
The Commissioner of Public Health shall establish a Public Health 1487 
Preparedness Advisory Committee for purposes of advising the 1488 
Department of Public Health on matters concerning emergency 1489 
responses to a public health emergency. The advisory committee shall 1490 
consist of the Commissioner of Public Health, or his or her designee, the 1491 
Commissioner of Emergency Services and Public Protection, or his or 1492 
her designee, the president pro tempore of the Senate, or his or her 1493 
designee, the speaker of the House of Representatives, or his or her 1494 
designee, the majority and minority leaders of both houses of the 1495 
General Assembly, or their designees, and the chairpersons and ranking 1496 
members of the joint standing committees of the General Assembly 1497 
having cognizance of matters relating to public health, public safety and 1498 
the judiciary, or their designees, and representatives of town, city, 1499 
borough and district directors of health, as appointed by the 1500 
commissioner, and any other organization or persons that the 1501 
commissioner deems relevant to the issues of public health 1502 
preparedness. Upon the request of the commissioner, the Public Health 1503 
Preparedness Advisory Committee may meet to review the plan for 1504 
emergency responses to a public health emergency and other matters as 1505 
deemed necessary by the commissioner.  1506 
Sec. 36. Subsection (d) of section 19a-30 of the general statutes is 1507 
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 1508 
2021): 1509 
(d) A nonrefundable fee of two hundred dollars shall accompany 1510 
each application for a license or for renewal thereof, except in the case 1511 
of a clinical laboratory owned and operated by a municipality, the state, 1512  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	48 of 89 
 
the United States, [or] any agency of said municipality, state or United 1513 
States or any hospital. Each license shall be issued for a period of not 1514 
less than twenty-four nor more than twenty-seven months from the 1515 
deadline for applications established by the commissioner. Renewal 1516 
applications shall be made (1) biennially within the twenty-fourth 1517 
month of the current license; (2) before any change in ownership or 1518 
change in director is made; and (3) prior to any major expansion or 1519 
alteration in quarters. The licensed clinical laboratory shall report to the 1520 
Department of Public Health, in a form and manner prescribed by the 1521 
commissioner, the name and address of each blood collection facility 1522 
owned and operated by the clinical laboratory, prior to the issuance of 1523 
a new license, prior to the issuance of a renewal license or whenever a 1524 
blood collection facility opens or closes. 1525 
Sec. 37. Subsection (b) of section 20-365 of the general statutes is 1526 
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 1527 
2021): 1528 
(b) Nothing in section 19a-200, as amended by this act, subsection (a) 1529 
of section 19a-206, or sections 19a-207, 19a-242, 20-358 or 20-360 to 20-1530 
365, inclusive, shall prevent any of the following persons from engaging 1531 
in the performance of their duties: (1) Any person certified by the 1532 
Department of Public Health as a food or sewage inspector in 1533 
accordance with regulations adopted pursuant to section 19a-36, (2) any 1534 
person employed by a local health department performing the duties of 1535 
a lead inspector who complies with training standards established 1536 
pursuant to section 20-479, (3) a director of health acting pursuant to 1537 
[subsection (a) of] section 19a-200, as amended by this act or section 19a-1538 
244, as amended by this act, (4) any employee of a water utility or federal 1539 
or state agency performing his duties in accordance with applicable 1540 
statutes and regulations, (5) any person employed by a local health 1541 
department working under the direct supervision of a licensed 1542 
sanitarian, (6) any person licensed or certified by the Department of 1543 
Public Health in a specific program performing certain duties that are 1544 
included within the duties of a sanitarian, or (7) a student enrolled in an 1545 
accredited academic program leading to a degree in environmental 1546  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	49 of 89 
 
health or completing a special training course in environmental health 1547 
approved by the commissioner, provided such student is clearly 1548 
identified by a title which indicates his or her status as a student.  1549 
Sec. 38. Subsection (b) of section 20-195u of the general statutes is 1550 
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from 1551 
passage): 1552 
(b) Continuing education required pursuant to this section shall be 1553 
related to the practice of social work and shall include not less than one 1554 
contact hour of training or education each registration period on the 1555 
topic of cultural competency and, on and after January 1, 2016, not less 1556 
than two contact hours of training or education during the first renewal 1557 
period in which continuing education is required and not less than once 1558 
every six years thereafter on the topic of mental health conditions 1559 
common to veterans and family members of veterans, including (1) 1560 
determining whether a patient is a veteran or family member of a 1561 
veteran, (2) screening for conditions such as post-traumatic stress 1562 
disorder, risk of suicide, depression and grief, and (3) suicide prevention 1563 
training. Such continuing education shall consist of courses, workshops 1564 
and conferences offered or approved by the Association of Social Work 1565 
Boards, the National Association of Social Workers or a school or 1566 
department of social work accredited by the Council on Social Work 1567 
Education. A licensee's ability to engage in on-line and home study 1568 
continuing education shall be limited to not more than [six] ten hours 1569 
per registration period. Within the registration period, an initial 1570 
presentation by a licensee of an original paper, essay or formal lecture 1571 
in social work to a recognized group of fellow professionals may 1572 
account for five hours of continuing education hours of the aggregate 1573 
continuing education requirements prescribed in this section. 1574 
Sec. 39. Subsection (a) of section 20-265h of the general statutes is 1575 
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from 1576 
passage): 1577 
(a) On and after July 1, 2021, each spa or salon that employs 1578  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	50 of 89 
 
hairdressers and cosmeticians, estheticians, eyelash technicians, [or] nail 1579 
technicians or massage therapists shall be under the management of a 1580 
hairdresser and cosmetician registered under this chapter, an esthetician 1581 
licensed under section 20-265b or 20-265f, an eyelash technician licensed 1582 
under section 20-265c or 20-265f, [or] a nail technician licensed under 1583 
section 20-265d or 20-265f or a massage therapist licensed under chapter 1584 
384a. 1585 
Sec. 40. Subsection (a) of section 19a-131j of the general statutes is 1586 
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from 1587 
passage): 1588 
(a) The commissioner may issue an order to temporarily suspend, for 1589 
a period not to exceed sixty consecutive days, the requirements for 1590 
licensure, certification or registration, pursuant to chapters 368d, 370, 1591 
376 to 376c, inclusive, 378, 378a, 379, 379a, 381a, 382a, 383 to 383c, 1592 
inclusive, 383d, 383f, 383g, 384b, 384d, 385, 395, 399, 400a, 400j and 474, 1593 
to allow persons who are appropriately licensed, certified or registered 1594 
in another state or territory of the United States or the District of 1595 
Columbia, to render temporary assistance within the scope of the 1596 
profession for which a person is licensed, certified or registered, in 1597 
managing a public health emergency in this state, declared by the 1598 
Governor pursuant to section 19a-131a. Nothing in this section shall be 1599 
construed to permit a person to provide services beyond the scope 1600 
allowed in the chapter specified in this section that pertains to such 1601 
person's profession. 1602 
Sec. 41. Subsection (a) of section 19a-512 of the general statutes is 1603 
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 1604 
2021): 1605 
(a) In order to be eligible for licensure by examination pursuant to 1606 
sections 19a-511 to 19a-520, inclusive, a person shall submit an 1607 
application, together with a fee of two hundred dollars, and proof 1608 
satisfactory to the Department of Public Health that he (1) is physically 1609 
and emotionally capable of administering a nursing home; (2) has 1610  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	51 of 89 
 
satisfactorily completed a program of instruction and training, 1611 
including residency training which meets the requirements of 1612 
subsection (b) of this section and which is approved by the 1613 
Commissioner of Public Health; and (3) has passed an examination 1614 
prescribed [and administered] by the Department of Public Health 1615 
designed to test the applicant's knowledge and competence in the 1616 
subject matter referred to in subsection (b) of this section. Passing scores 1617 
shall be established by the department. 1618 
Sec. 42. Section 19a-490 of the general statutes is repealed and the 1619 
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 2021): 1620 
(a) "Institution" means a hospital, short-term hospital special hospice, 1621 
hospice inpatient facility, residential care home, nursing home facility, 1622 
home health care agency, hospice home health care agency, home health 1623 
aide agency, behavioral health facility, assisted living services agency, 1624 
[substance abuse treatment facility,] outpatient surgical facility, 1625 
outpatient clinic, an infirmary operated by an educational institution for 1626 
the care of students enrolled in, and faculty and employees of, such 1627 
institution; a facility engaged in providing services for the prevention, 1628 
diagnosis, treatment or care of human health conditions, including 1629 
facilities operated and maintained by any state agency; and a residential 1630 
facility for persons with intellectual disability licensed pursuant to 1631 
section 17a-227 and certified to participate in the Title XIX Medicaid 1632 
program as an intermediate care facility for individuals with intellectual 1633 
disability. "Institution" does not include any facility for the care and 1634 
treatment of persons with mental illness or substance use disorder 1635 
operated or maintained by any state agency, except Whiting Forensic 1636 
Hospital; 1637 
(b) "Hospital" means an establishment for the lodging, care and 1638 
treatment of persons suffering from disease or other abnormal physical 1639 
or mental conditions and includes inpatient psychiatric services in 1640 
general hospitals; 1641 
(c) "Residential care home" or "rest home" means a community 1642  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	52 of 89 
 
residence that furnishes, in single or multiple facilities, food and shelter 1643 
to two or more persons unrelated to the proprietor and, in addition, 1644 
provides services that meet a need beyond the basic provisions of food, 1645 
shelter and laundry and may qualify as a setting that allows residents to 1646 
receive home and community-based services funded by state and 1647 
federal programs; 1648 
(d) "Home health care agency" means a public or private 1649 
organization, or a subdivision thereof, engaged in providing 1650 
professional nursing services and the following services, available 1651 
twenty-four hours per day, in the patient's home or a substantially 1652 
equivalent environment: Home health aide services as defined in this 1653 
section, physical therapy, speech therapy, occupational therapy or 1654 
medical social services. The agency shall provide professional nursing 1655 
services and at least one additional service directly and all others 1656 
directly or through contract. An agency shall be available to enroll new 1657 
patients seven days a week, twenty-four hours per day; 1658 
(e) "Home health aide agency" means a public or private 1659 
organization, except a home health care agency, which provides in the 1660 
patient's home or a substantially equivalent environment supportive 1661 
services which may include, but are not limited to, assistance with 1662 
personal hygiene, dressing, feeding and incidental household tasks 1663 
essential to achieving adequate household and family management. 1664 
Such supportive services shall be provided under the supervision of a 1665 
registered nurse and, if such nurse determines appropriate, shall be 1666 
provided by a social worker, physical therapist, speech therapist or 1667 
occupational therapist. Such supervision may be provided directly or 1668 
through contract; 1669 
(f) "Home health aide services" as defined in this section shall not 1670 
include services provided to assist individuals with activities of daily 1671 
living when such individuals have a disease or condition that is chronic 1672 
and stable as determined by a physician licensed in the state;  1673 
(g) "Behavioral health facility" means any facility that provides 1674  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	53 of 89 
 
mental health services to persons eighteen years of age or older or 1675 
substance use disorder services to persons of any age in an outpatient 1676 
treatment or residential setting to ameliorate mental, emotional, 1677 
behavioral or substance use disorder issues;  1678 
(h) "Alcohol or drug treatment facility" means any facility for the care 1679 
or treatment of persons suffering from alcoholism or other drug 1680 
addiction;  1681 
(i) "Person" means any individual, firm, partnership, corporation, 1682 
limited liability company or association; 1683 
(j) "Commissioner" means the Commissioner of Public Health or the 1684 
commissioner's designee; 1685 
(k) "Home health agency" means an agency licensed as a home health 1686 
care agency or a home health aide agency;  1687 
(l) "Assisted living services agency" means an agency that provides, 1688 
among other things, nursing services and assistance with activities of 1689 
daily living and that may provide memory care to a population that is 1690 
chronic and stable;  1691 
(m) "Outpatient clinic" means an organization operated by a 1692 
municipality or a corporation, other than a hospital, that provides (1) 1693 
ambulatory medical care, including preventive and health promotion 1694 
services, (2) dental care, or (3) mental health services in conjunction with 1695 
medical or dental care for the purpose of diagnosing or treating a health 1696 
condition that does not require the patient's overnight care;  1697 
(n) "Multicare institution" means a hospital that provides outpatient 1698 
behavioral health services or other health care services, psychiatric 1699 
outpatient clinic for adults, free-standing facility for the care or 1700 
treatment of substance abusive or dependent persons, hospital for 1701 
psychiatric disabilities, as defined in section 17a-495, or a general acute 1702 
care hospital that provides outpatient behavioral health services that (1) 1703 
is licensed in accordance with this chapter, (2) has more than one facility 1704  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	54 of 89 
 
or one or more satellite units owned and operated by a single licensee, 1705 
and (3) offers complex patient health care services at each facility or 1706 
satellite unit. For purposes of this subsection, "satellite unit" means a 1707 
location where a segregated unit of services is provided by the multicare 1708 
institution; 1709 
(o) "Nursing home" or "nursing home facility" means (1) any chronic 1710 
and convalescent nursing home or any rest home with nursing 1711 
supervision that provides nursing supervision under a medical director 1712 
twenty-four hours per day, or (2) any chronic and convalescent nursing 1713 
home that provides skilled nursing care under medical supervision and 1714 
direction to carry out nonsurgical treatment and dietary procedures for 1715 
chronic diseases, convalescent stages, acute diseases or injuries; [and]  1716 
(p) "Outpatient dialysis unit" means (1) an out-of-hospital out-patient 1717 
dialysis unit that is licensed by the department to provide (A) services 1718 
on an out-patient basis to persons requiring dialysis on a short-term 1719 
basis or for a chronic condition, or (B) training for home dialysis, or (2) 1720 
an in-hospital dialysis unit that is a special unit of a licensed hospital 1721 
designed, equipped and staffed to (A) offer dialysis therapy on an out-1722 
patient basis, (B) provide training for home dialysis, and (C) perform 1723 
renal transplantations; [.] and 1724 
(q) "Hospice home health care agency" means a public or private 1725 
organization that provides home care and hospice services to terminally 1726 
ill patients. 1727 
Sec. 43. Subsections (b) to (i), inclusive, of section 19a-491 of the 1728 
general statutes are repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 1729 
thereof (Effective July 1, 2021): 1730 
(b) If any person acting individually or jointly with any other person 1731 
owns real property or any improvements thereon, upon or within which 1732 
an institution, as defined in subsections (c) and (o) of section 19a-490, is 1733 
established, conducted, operated or maintained and is not the licensee 1734 
of the institution, such person shall submit a copy of the lease agreement 1735 
to the department at the time of any change of ownership and with each 1736  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	55 of 89 
 
license renewal application. The lease agreement shall, at a minimum, 1737 
identify the person or entity responsible for the maintenance and repair 1738 
of all buildings and structures within which such an institution is 1739 
established, conducted or operated. If a violation is found as a result of 1740 
an inspection or investigation, the commissioner may require the owner 1741 
to sign a consent order providing assurances that repairs or 1742 
improvements necessary for compliance with the provisions of the 1743 
[Public Health Code] regulations of Connecticut state agencies shall be 1744 
completed within a specified period of time or may assess a civil penalty 1745 
of not more than one thousand dollars for each day that such owner is 1746 
in violation of the [Public Health Code] regulations of Connecticut state 1747 
agencies or a consent order. A consent order may include a provision 1748 
for the establishment of a temporary manager of such real property who 1749 
has the authority to complete any repairs or improvements required by 1750 
such order. Upon request of the Commissioner of Public Health, the 1751 
Attorney General may petition the Superior Court for such equitable 1752 
and injunctive relief as such court deems appropriate to ensure 1753 
compliance with the provisions of a consent order. The provisions of 1754 
this subsection shall not apply to any property or improvements owned 1755 
by a person licensed in accordance with the provisions of subsection (a) 1756 
of this section to establish, conduct, operate or maintain an institution 1757 
on or within such property or improvements. 1758 
(c) Notwithstanding any regulation, the Commissioner of Public 1759 
Health shall charge the following fees for the biennial licensing and 1760 
inspection of the following institutions: (1) Chronic and convalescent 1761 
nursing homes, per site, four hundred forty dollars; (2) chronic and 1762 
convalescent nursing homes, per bed, five dollars; (3) rest homes with 1763 
nursing supervision, per site, four hundred forty dollars; (4) rest homes 1764 
with nursing supervision, per bed, five dollars; (5) outpatient dialysis 1765 
units and outpatient surgical facilities, six hundred twenty-five dollars; 1766 
(6) mental health residential facilities, per site, three hundred seventy-1767 
five dollars; (7) mental health residential facilities, per bed, five dollars; 1768 
(8) hospitals, per site, nine hundred forty dollars; (9) hospitals, per bed, 1769 
seven dollars and fifty cents; (10) nonstate agency educational 1770  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	56 of 89 
 
institutions, per infirmary, one hundred fifty dollars; (11) nonstate 1771 
agency educational institutions, per infirmary bed, twenty-five dollars; 1772 
(12) home health care agencies, except certified home health care 1773 
agencies described in subsection (d) of this section, per agency, three 1774 
hundred dollars; (13) home health care agencies, hospice home health 1775 
care agencies, or home health aide agencies, except certified home 1776 
health care agencies, hospice home health care agencies or home health 1777 
aide agencies described in subsection (d) of this section, per satellite 1778 
patient service office, one hundred dollars; (14) assisted living services 1779 
agencies, except such agencies participating in the congregate housing 1780 
facility pilot program described in section 8-119n, per site, five hundred 1781 
dollars; (15) short-term hospitals special hospice, per site, nine hundred 1782 
forty dollars; (16) short-term hospitals special hospice, per bed, seven 1783 
dollars and fifty cents; (17) hospice inpatient facility, per site, four 1784 
hundred forty dollars; and (18) hospice inpatient facility, per bed, five 1785 
dollars. 1786 
(d) Notwithstanding any regulation, the commissioner shall charge 1787 
the following fees for the triennial licensing and inspection of the 1788 
following institutions: (1) Residential care homes, per site, five hundred 1789 
sixty-five dollars; (2) residential care homes, per bed, four dollars and 1790 
fifty cents; (3) home health care agencies that are certified as a provider 1791 
of services by the United States Department of Health and Human 1792 
Services under the Medicare or Medicaid program, three hundred 1793 
dollars; and (4) certified home health care agencies or hospice home 1794 
health care agencies, as described in section 19a-493, as amended by this 1795 
act, per satellite patient service office, one hundred dollars. 1796 
(e) The commissioner shall charge one thousand dollars for the 1797 
licensing and inspection of outpatient clinics that provide either medical 1798 
or mental health service, urgent care services and well-child clinical 1799 
services, except those operated by a municipal health department, 1800 
health district or licensed nonprofit nursing or community health 1801 
agency. Such licensing and inspection shall be performed every three 1802 
years, except those outpatient clinics that have obtained accreditation 1803 
from a national accrediting organization within the immediately 1804  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	57 of 89 
 
preceding twelve-month period may be inspected by the commissioner 1805 
once every four years, provided the outpatient clinic has not committed 1806 
any violation that the commissioner determines would pose an 1807 
immediate threat to the health, safety or welfare of the patients of the 1808 
outpatient clinic. The provisions of this subsection shall not be 1809 
construed to limit the commissioner's authority to inspect any applicant 1810 
for licensure or renewal of licensure as an outpatient clinic, suspend or 1811 
revoke any license granted to an outpatient clinic pursuant to this 1812 
section or take any other legal action against an outpatient clinic that is 1813 
authorized by any provision of the general statutes. 1814 
(f) Any institution that is planning a project for construction or 1815 
building alteration shall provide the plan for such project to the 1816 
Department of Public Health for review. Any such project shall comply 1817 
with nationally established facility guidelines for health care 1818 
construction, as approved by the commissioner, that are in place at the 1819 
time the institution provides the plan to the department. The 1820 
commissioner shall post a reference to such guidelines, including the 1821 
effective date of such guidelines, on the Department of Public Health's 1822 
Internet web site. No institution shall be required to include matters 1823 
outside the scope and applicability of such guidelines in the institution's 1824 
plan. 1825 
(g) The commissioner shall charge a fee of five hundred sixty-five 1826 
dollars for the technical assistance provided for the design, review and 1827 
development of an institution's construction, renovation, building 1828 
alteration, sale or change in ownership when the cost of the project is 1829 
one million dollars or less and shall charge a fee of one-quarter of one 1830 
per cent of the total construction cost when the cost of the project is more 1831 
than one million dollars. Such fee shall include all department reviews 1832 
and on-site inspections. For purposes of this subsection, "institution" 1833 
does not include a facility owned by the state. 1834 
(h) The commissioner may require as a condition of the licensure of a 1835 
home health care [agencies] agency, hospice home health care agency 1836 
and home health aide [agencies] agency that each agency meet 1837  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	58 of 89 
 
minimum service quality standards. In the event the commissioner 1838 
requires such agencies to meet minimum service quality standards as a 1839 
condition of their licensure, the commissioner shall adopt regulations, 1840 
in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54, to define such 1841 
minimum service quality standards, which shall (1) allow for training of 1842 
home health aides by adult continuing education, (2) require a 1843 
registered nurse to visit and assess each patient receiving home health 1844 
aide services as often as necessary based on the patient's condition, but 1845 
not less than once every sixty days, and (3) require the assessment 1846 
prescribed by subdivision (2) of this subsection to be completed while 1847 
the home health aide is providing services in the patient's home. 1848 
(i) No person acting individually or jointly with any other person 1849 
shall establish, conduct, operate or maintain a home health care agency, 1850 
hospice home health care agency or home health aide agency without 1851 
maintaining professional liability insurance or other indemnity against 1852 
liability for professional malpractice. The amount of insurance which 1853 
such person shall maintain as insurance or indemnity against claims for 1854 
injury or death for professional malpractice shall be not less than one 1855 
million dollars for one person, per occurrence, with an aggregate of not 1856 
less than three million dollars. 1857 
Sec. 44. Subdivision (4) of subsection (a) of section 19a-491c of the 1858 
general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 1859 
thereof (Effective July 1, 2021): 1860 
(4) "Long-term care facility" means any facility, agency or provider 1861 
that is a nursing home, as defined in section 19a-521, a residential care 1862 
home, as defined in section 19a-521, a home health care agency, hospice 1863 
home health care agency or home health aide agency, as defined in 1864 
section 19a-490, as amended by this act, an assisted living services 1865 
agency, as defined in section 19a-490, as amended by this act, an 1866 
intermediate care facility for individuals with intellectual disabilities, as 1867 
defined in 42 USC 1396d(d), except any such facility operated by a 1868 
Department of Developmental Services' program subject to background 1869 
checks pursuant to section 17a-227a, a chronic disease hospital, as 1870  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	59 of 89 
 
defined in section 19a-550, or an agency providing hospice care which 1871 
is licensed to provide such care by the Department of Public Health or 1872 
certified to provide such care pursuant to 42 USC 1395x. 1873 
Sec. 45. Section 19a-492b of the general statutes is repealed and the 1874 
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 2021): 1875 
(a) A home health care agency or hospice home health care agency 1876 
that receives payment for rendering care to persons receiving medical 1877 
assistance from the state, assistance from the Connecticut home-care 1878 
program for the elderly pursuant to section 17b-342, or funds obtained 1879 
through Title XVIII of the Social Security Amendments of 1965 shall be 1880 
prohibited from discriminating against such persons who apply for 1881 
enrollment to such home health care agency on the basis of source of 1882 
payment. 1883 
(b) Any home health care agency or hospice home health care agency 1884 
which violates the provisions of this section shall be subject to 1885 
suspension or revocation of license.  1886 
Sec. 46. Subsection (b) of section 19a-492c of the general statutes is 1887 
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 1888 
2021): 1889 
(b) A home health care agency or hospice home health care agency 1890 
licensed pursuant to this chapter that provides hospice services in a 1891 
rural town and is unable to access licensed or Medicare-certified hospice 1892 
care to consistently provide adequate services to patients in the rural 1893 
town may apply to the Commissioner of Public Health for a waiver from 1894 
the regulations licensing such agency adopted pursuant to this chapter. 1895 
The waiver may authorize one or more of the following: (1) The agency's 1896 
supervisor of clinical services may also serve as the supervisor of clinical 1897 
services assigned to the hospice program; (2) the hospice volunteer 1898 
coordinator and the hospice program director may be permanent part-1899 
time employees; and (3) the program director may perform other 1900 
services at the agency, including, but not limited to, hospice volunteer 1901 
coordinator. The commissioner shall not grant a waiver unless the 1902  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	60 of 89 
 
commissioner determines that such waiver will not adversely impact 1903 
the health, safety and welfare of hospice patients and their families. The 1904 
waiver shall be in effect for two years. An agency may reapply for such 1905 
a waiver.  1906 
Sec. 47. Section 19a-492d of the general statutes is repealed and the 1907 
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 2021): 1908 
On and after October 1, 2007, a nurse who is employed by an agency 1909 
licensed by the Department of Public Health as a home health care 1910 
agency, hospice home health care agency or [a] home health aide agency 1911 
may administer influenza and pneumococcal vaccines to persons in 1912 
their homes, after an assessment for contraindications, without a 1913 
physician's order in accordance with a physician-approved agency 1914 
policy that includes an anaphylaxis protocol. In the event of an adverse 1915 
reaction to the vaccine, such nurse may also administer epinephrine or 1916 
other anaphylaxis medication without a physician's order in accordance 1917 
with the physician-approved agency policy. For purposes of this 1918 
section, "nurse" means an advanced practice registered nurse, registered 1919 
nurse or practical nurse licensed under chapter 378.  1920 
Sec. 48. Section 19a-492e of the general statutes is repealed and the 1921 
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 2021): 1922 
(a) For purposes of this section "home health care agency" and 1923 
"hospice home health care agency" [has] have the same [meaning] 1924 
meanings as provided in section 19a-490, as amended by this act. 1925 
Notwithstanding the provisions of chapter 378, a registered nurse may 1926 
delegate the administration of medications that are not administered by 1927 
injection to home health aides and hospice home health care aides who 1928 
have obtained certification and recertification every three years 1929 
thereafter for medication administration in accordance with regulations 1930 
adopted pursuant to subsection (b) of this section, unless the prescribing 1931 
practitioner specifies that a medication shall only be administered by a 1932 
licensed nurse. Any home health aide or hospice home health care aide 1933 
who obtained certification in the administration of medications on or 1934  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	61 of 89 
 
before June 30, 2015, shall obtain recertification on or before July 1, 2018. 1935 
(b) (1) The Commissioner of Public Health shall adopt regulations, in 1936 
accordance with the provisions of chapter 54, to carry out the provisions 1937 
of this section. Such regulations shall require each home health care 1938 
agency or hospice home health care agency that serves clients requiring 1939 
assistance with medication administration to (A) adopt practices that 1940 
increase and encourage client choice, dignity and independence; (B) 1941 
establish policies and procedures to ensure that a registered nurse may 1942 
delegate allowed tasks of nursing care, to include medication 1943 
administration, to home health aides or hospice home health care aides 1944 
when the registered nurse determines that it is in the best interest of the 1945 
client and the home health aide or hospice home health care aide has 1946 
been deemed competent to perform the task; (C) designate home health 1947 
aides or hospice home health care aides to obtain certification and 1948 
recertification for the administration of medication; and (D) ensure that 1949 
such home health aides receive such certification and recertification. 1950 
(2) The regulations shall establish certification and recertification 1951 
requirements for medication administration and the criteria to be used 1952 
by home health care agencies or hospice home health care agencies that 1953 
provide services for clients requiring assistance with medication 1954 
administration in determining (A) which home health aides or hospice 1955 
home health care aides shall obtain such certification and recertification, 1956 
and (B) education and skill training requirements, including ongoing 1957 
training requirements for such certification and recertification. 1958 
(3) Education and skill training requirements for initial certification 1959 
and recertification shall include, but not be limited to, initial orientation, 1960 
training in client rights and identification of the types of medication that 1961 
may be administered by unlicensed personnel, behavioral management, 1962 
personal care, nutrition and food safety, and health and safety in 1963 
general. 1964 
(c) Each home health care agency or hospice home health care agency 1965 
shall ensure that, on or before January 1, 2013, delegation of nursing care 1966  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	62 of 89 
 
tasks in the home care setting is allowed within such agency and that 1967 
policies are adopted to employ home health aides or hospice home 1968 
health care aides for the purposes of allowing nurses to delegate such 1969 
tasks. 1970 
(d) A registered nurse licensed pursuant to the provisions of chapter 1971 
378 who delegates the task of medication administration to a home 1972 
health aide or hospice home health care aide pursuant to this section 1973 
shall not be subject to disciplinary action based on the performance of 1974 
the home health aide or hospice home health care aide to whom tasks 1975 
are delegated, unless the home health aide or hospice home health care 1976 
aide is acting pursuant to specific instructions from the registered nurse 1977 
or the registered nurse fails to leave instructions when the nurse should 1978 
have done so, provided the registered nurse: (1) Documented in the 1979 
patient's care plan that the medication administration could be properly 1980 
and safely performed by the home health aide or hospice home health 1981 
care aide to whom it is delegated, (2) provided initial direction to the 1982 
home health aide or hospice home health care aide, and (3) provided 1983 
ongoing supervision of the home health aide or hospice home health 1984 
care aide, including the periodic assessment and evaluation of the 1985 
patient's health and safety related to medication administration. 1986 
(e) A registered nurse who delegates the provision of nursing care to 1987 
another person pursuant to this section shall not be subject to an action 1988 
for civil damages for the performance of the person to whom nursing 1989 
care is delegated unless the person is acting pursuant to specific 1990 
instructions from the nurse or the nurse fails to leave instructions when 1991 
the nurse should have done so. 1992 
(f) No person may coerce a registered nurse into compromising 1993 
patient safety by requiring the nurse to delegate the administration of 1994 
medication if the nurse's assessment of the patient documents a need for 1995 
a nurse to administer medication and identifies why the need cannot be 1996 
safely met through utilization of assistive technology or administration 1997 
of medication by certified home health aides or hospice home health 1998 
care aides. No registered nurse who has made a reasonable 1999  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	63 of 89 
 
determination based on such assessment that delegation may 2000 
compromise patient safety shall be subject to any employer reprisal or 2001 
disciplinary action pursuant to chapter 378 for refusing to delegate or 2002 
refusing to provide the required training for such delegation. The 2003 
Department of Social Services, in consultation with the Department of 2004 
Public Health, [and] home health care agencies and hospice home health 2005 
care agencies, shall develop protocols for documentation pursuant to 2006 
the requirements of this subsection. The Department of Social Services 2007 
shall notify all licensed home health care agencies and hospice home 2008 
health care agencies of such protocols prior to the implementation of 2009 
this section. 2010 
(g) The Commissioner of Public Health may implement policies and 2011 
procedures necessary to administer the provisions of this section while 2012 
in the process of adopting such policies and procedures as regulations, 2013 
provided notice of intent to adopt regulations is published in the 2014 
Connecticut Law Journal not later than twenty days after the date of 2015 
implementation. Policies and procedures implemented pursuant to this 2016 
section shall be valid until the time final regulations are adopted.  2017 
Sec. 49. Section 19a-496a of the general statutes is repealed and the 2018 
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 2021): 2019 
(a) Notwithstanding any provision of the regulations of Connecticut 2020 
state agencies, all home health care agency, hospice home health care 2021 
agency or home health aide agency services shall be performed upon 2022 
the order of a physician or physician assistant licensed pursuant to 2023 
chapter 370 or an advanced practice registered nurse licensed pursuant 2024 
to chapter 378. 2025 
(b) All home health care agency services which are required by law 2026 
to be performed upon the order of a licensed physician may be 2027 
performed upon the order of a physician, physician assistant or 2028 
advanced practice registered nurse licensed in a state which borders 2029 
Connecticut.  2030 
Sec. 50. Section 19a-504d of the general statutes is repealed and the 2031  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	64 of 89 
 
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 2021): 2032 
(a) If a hospital recommends home health care to a patient, the 2033 
hospital discharge plan shall include two or more available options of 2034 
home health care agencies or hospice home health care agencies. 2035 
(b) A hospital which (1) has an ownership or investment interest in a 2036 
home health care agency or hospice home health care agency, or (2) 2037 
receives compensation or remuneration for referral of patients to a home 2038 
health care agency or hospice home health care agency shall disclose 2039 
such interest to any patient prior to including such agency as an option 2040 
in a hospital discharge plan. Such information shall be verbally 2041 
disclosed to each patient or shall be posted in a conspicuous place visible 2042 
to patients. As used in this subsection, "ownership or investment 2043 
interest" does not include ownership of investment securities purchased 2044 
by the practitioner on terms available to the general public and which 2045 
are publicly traded.  2046 
Sec. 51. (NEW) (Effective July 1, 2021) (a) The Commissioner of Public 2047 
Health may suspend the requirements for licensure to authorize a 2048 
licensed chronic and convalescent nursing home to provide services to 2049 
patients with a reportable disease, emergency illness or health 2050 
condition, pursuant to section 19-91 of the general statutes, under their 2051 
existing license if such licensed chronic and convalescent nursing home 2052 
(1) provides services to such patients in a building that is not physically 2053 
connected to its licensed facility, or (2) expands its bed capacity in a 2054 
portion of a facility that is separate from the licensed facility. Such 2055 
services may only be provided in order to render temporary assistance 2056 
in managing a public health emergency in this state, declared by the 2057 
Governor pursuant to section 19a-131a of the general statutes.  2058 
(b) Each chronic and convalescent nursing home that intends to 2059 
provide services pursuant to subsection (a) of this section shall submit 2060 
an application to the Department of Public Health in a form and manner 2061 
prescribed by the commissioner. Such application shall include, but 2062 
need not be limited to: (1) Information regarding the facility's ability to 2063  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	65 of 89 
 
sufficiently address the health, safety or welfare of such chronic and 2064 
convalescent nursing home's residents and staff; (2) the address of such 2065 
facility; (3) an attestation that all equipment located at such facility is 2066 
maintained according to the manufacturers' specifications, and is 2067 
capable of meeting the needs of such facility's residents; (4) information 2068 
regarding such facility's maximum bed capacity; and (5) information 2069 
indicating that such facility is in compliance with any provisions of the 2070 
general statutes or regulations of Connecticut state agencies pertaining 2071 
to the operation of such facility.  2072 
(c) Upon receipt of an application pursuant to subsection (a) of this 2073 
section, the Department of Public Health shall conduct a scheduled 2074 
inspection and investigation of the applicant's facilities to ensure 2075 
compliance with any provisions of the general statutes or regulations of 2076 
Connecticut state agencies pertaining to the licensing of such facilities. 2077 
After conducting such inspection and investigation, the department 2078 
shall notify the applicant of the department's approval or denial of such 2079 
application.  2080 
Sec. 52. Section 19a-522f of the general statutes is repealed and the 2081 
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 2021): 2082 
(a) As used in this section: 2083 
(1) "Administer" means to initiate the venipuncture and deliver an IV 2084 
fluid or IV admixture into the blood stream through a vein, and to 2085 
monitor and care for the venipuncture site, terminate the procedure and 2086 
record pertinent events and observations; 2087 
(2) "IV admixture" means an IV fluid to which one or more additional 2088 
drug products have been added; 2089 
(3) "IV fluid" means sterile solutions of fifty milliliters or more, 2090 
intended for intravenous infusion, but does not include blood and blood 2091 
products; 2092 
(4) "IV therapy" means the introduction of an IV fluid or IV admixture 2093  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	66 of 89 
 
into the blood stream through a vein for the purpose of correcting water 2094 
deficit and electrolyte imbalances, providing nutrition, and delivering 2095 
antibiotics and other therapeutic agents approved by a chronic and 2096 
convalescent nursing home's or a rest home with nursing supervision's 2097 
medical staff; 2098 
(5) "IV therapy program" means the overall plan by which a chronic 2099 
and convalescent nursing home or a rest home with nursing supervision 2100 
implements, monitors and safeguards the administration of IV therapy 2101 
to patients; and 2102 
(6) "IV therapy nurse" means a registered nurse who is qualified by 2103 
education and training and has demonstrated proficiency in the 2104 
theoretical and clinical aspects of IV therapy to administer an IV fluid 2105 
or IV admixture. 2106 
(b) An IV therapy nurse or a physician assistant licensed pursuant to 2107 
section 20-12b, who is employed by, or operating under a contract to 2108 
provide services in, a chronic and convalescent nursing home or a rest 2109 
home with nursing supervision that operates an IV therapy program 2110 
may administer a peripherally inserted central catheter as part of such 2111 
facility's IV therapy program. The Department of Public Health shall 2112 
adopt regulations in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54 to 2113 
carry out the purposes of this section. 2114 
(c) A chronic and convalescent nursing home may permit a registered 2115 
nurse licensed pursuant to chapter 378 and employed by such chronic 2116 
and convalescent nursing home who has been properly trained by the 2117 
director of nursing or by an intravenous infusion company to (1) draw 2118 
blood from a central line for laboratory purposes, provided the facility 2119 
has an agreement with a laboratory to process such specimens, or (2) 2120 
administer a dose of medication by intravenous injection, provided such 2121 
medication is on a list of medications approved by the Commissioner of 2122 
Public Health for intravenous injection by a registered nurse. Such 2123 
chronic and convalescent nursing home shall notify the Commissioner 2124 
of Public Health of any such services being provided. The 2125  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	67 of 89 
 
Commissioner of Public Health shall notify all chronic and convalescent 2126 
nursing homes of the list of medications approved for intravenous 2127 
injection by a registered nurse. The administrator of each chronic and 2128 
convalescent nursing home shall ensure that each registered nurse who 2129 
is permitted to perform the services described in subdivisions (1) and 2130 
(2) of this subsection is appropriately trained and competent to perform 2131 
such services. Each administrator shall provide documentation 2132 
regarding the training and competency of such registered nurses to the 2133 
department upon the department's request.  2134 
Sec. 53. (NEW) (Effective July 1, 2021) (a) The Commissioner of Public 2135 
Health shall license assisted living services agencies, as defined in 2136 
section 19a-490 of the general statutes, as amended by this act. A 2137 
managed residential community wishing to provide assisted living 2138 
services shall become licensed as an assisted living services agency.  2139 
(b) A managed residential care community that intends to arrange for 2140 
assisted living services, shall only do so with a currently licensed 2141 
assisted living services agency. Such managed residential community 2142 
shall submit an application to arrange for the assisted living services to 2143 
the Department of Public Health. Such application shall be submitted in 2144 
a form and manner prescribed by the commissioner.  2145 
(c) No assisted living services agency shall provide memory care to 2146 
residents with early to mid-stage cognitive impairment from 2147 
Alzheimer's disease or other dementias unless they have obtained 2148 
approval from the Department of Public Health. Such assisted living 2149 
services agencies shall ensure that they have adequate staff to meet the 2150 
needs of the residents. Each assisted living services agency that offers 2151 
memory care services shall submit to the Department of Public Health a 2152 
list of memory care units or locations and their staffing plans when 2153 
completing an initial or a renewal licensure application, or upon request 2154 
from the department.  2155 
(d) An assisted living services agency shall ensure all services being 2156 
provided on an individual basis to clients are (1) fully understood and 2157  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	68 of 89 
 
agreed upon between either the client or the client's representative, and 2158 
(2) that the client or the client's representative are made aware of the 2159 
cost of any such services. 2160 
(e) The Department of Public Health may adopt regulations, in 2161 
accordance with the provisions of chapter 54 of the general statutes, to 2162 
carry out the purposes of this section. 2163 
Sec. 54. Section 19a-521b of the general statutes is repealed and the 2164 
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 2021): 2165 
[In each] Each licensed chronic and convalescent nursing home, 2166 
chronic disease hospital associated with a chronic and convalescent 2167 
nursing home, rest home with nursing supervision and residential care 2168 
home [, at least a three-foot clearance shall be provided at the sides and 2169 
the foot of each bed.] shall position beds in a manner that promotes 2170 
resident care. Such bed position shall (1) not act as a restraint to the 2171 
resident, (2) ensure that the resident's call bell, overhead bed light and 2172 
privacy curtain function and are readily useable by such resident, (3) not 2173 
create a hazardous situation, including, but not limited to, creating an 2174 
entrapment possibility, obstacle to evacuation or is close to or blocking 2175 
a heat source, (4) prevent the spread of pathogens, (5) allow for infection 2176 
control, (6) ensure residence privacy, and (7) provide at least six-foot 2177 
clearance at the sides and foot of each bed.  2178 
Sec. 55. Section 19a-195 of the general statutes is repealed and the 2179 
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2021): 2180 
The commissioner shall adopt regulations in accordance with the 2181 
provisions of chapter 54 to require all [emergency medical response 2182 
services] ambulances to be staffed by at least one certified emergency 2183 
medical technician, who shall be in the patient compartment attending 2184 
the patient during all periods in which a patient is being transported, 2185 
and one certified [medical response technician] emergency medical 2186 
responder.  2187 
Sec. 56. Section 20-206jj of the general statutes is repealed and the 2188  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	69 of 89 
 
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage): 2189 
As used in this section and sections 20-206kk to 20-206oo, inclusive: 2190 
(1) "Advanced emergency medical technician" means an individual 2191 
who is certified as an advanced emergency medical technician by the 2192 
Department of Public Health; 2193 
(2) "Commissioner" means the Commissioner of Public Health; 2194 
(3) "Emergency medical services instructor" means a person who is 2195 
certified under the provisions of section 20-206ll or 20-206mm, as 2196 
amended by this act, by the Department of Public Health to teach 2197 
courses, the completion of which is required in order to become an 2198 
emergency medical technician; 2199 
(4) "Emergency medical responder" means an individual who is 2200 
certified to practice as an emergency medical responder under the 2201 
provisions of section 20-206ll or 20-206mm, as amended by this act; 2202 
(5) "Emergency medical services personnel" means an individual 2203 
certified to practice as an emergency medical responder, emergency 2204 
medical technician, advanced emergency medica l technician, 2205 
emergency medical services instructor or an individual licensed as a 2206 
paramedic; 2207 
(6) "Emergency medical technician" means a person who is certified 2208 
to practice as an emergency medical technician under the provisions of 2209 
section 20-206ll or 20-206mm, as amended by this act; 2210 
(7) "National organization for emergency medical certification" 2211 
means a national organization approved by the Department of Public 2212 
Health and identified on the department's Internet web site, or such 2213 
national organization's successor organization, that tests and provides 2214 
certification to emergency medical responders, emergency medical 2215 
technicians, advanced medical technicians and paramedics; 2216 
(8) "Office of Emergency Medical Services" means the office 2217  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	70 of 89 
 
established within the Department of Public Health pursuant to section 2218 
19a-178; 2219 
(9) "Paramedicine" means the carrying out of (A) all phases of 2220 
cardiopulmonary resuscitation and defibrillation, (B) the administration 2221 
of drugs and intravenous solutions under written or oral authorization 2222 
from a licensed physician or a licensed advanced practice registered 2223 
nurse, and (C) the administration of controlled substances, as defined in 2224 
section 21a-240, in accordance with written protocols or standing orders 2225 
of a licensed physician or a licensed advanced practice registered nurse; 2226 
(10) "Paramedic" means a person licensed to practice as a paramedic 2227 
under the provisions of section 20-206ll; and 2228 
[(11) "Continuing education platform Internet web site" means an 2229 
online database, approved by the Commissioner of Public Health, for 2230 
emergency medical services personnel to enter, track and reconcile the 2231 
hours and topics of continuing education completed by such personnel.]  2232 
Sec. 57. Subsection (f) of section 20-206mm of the general statutes is 2233 
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from 2234 
passage): 2235 
(f) A certified emergency medical responder, emergency medical 2236 
technician, advanced emergency medical technician or emergency 2237 
medical services instructor shall document the completion of his or her 2238 
continuing educational requirements [through the continuing education 2239 
platform Internet web site] in a form and manner prescribed by the 2240 
commissioner. A certified emergency medical responder, emergency 2241 
medical technician, advanced emergency medical technician or 2242 
emergency medical services instructor who is not engaged in active 2243 
professional practice in any form during a certification period shall be 2244 
exempt from the continuing education requirements of this section, 2245 
provided the emergency medical responder, emergency medical 2246 
technician, advanced emergency medical technician or emergency 2247 
medical services instructor submits to the department, prior to the 2248 
expiration of the certification period, an application for inactive status 2249  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	71 of 89 
 
on a form prescribed by the department and such other documentation 2250 
as may be required by the department. The application for inactive 2251 
status pursuant to this subsection shall contain a statement that the 2252 
emergency medical responder, emergency medical technician, 2253 
advanced emergency medical technician or emergency medical services 2254 
instructor may not engage in professional practice until the continuing 2255 
education requirements of this section have been met. 2256 
Sec. 58. Subsection (b) of section 19a-178a of the general statutes is 2257 
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from 2258 
passage): 2259 
(b) The advisory board shall consist of members appointed in 2260 
accordance with the provisions of this subsection and shall include the 2261 
Commissioner of Public Health, the department's emergency medical 2262 
services medical director and the president of each of the regional 2263 
emergency medical services councils, or their designees. The Governor 2264 
shall appoint the following members: (1) One person from the 2265 
Connecticut Association of Directors of Health; (2) three persons from 2266 
the Connecticut College of Emergency Physicians; (3) one person from 2267 
the Connecticut Committee on Trauma of the American College of 2268 
Surgeons; (4) one person from the Connecticut Medical Advisory 2269 
Committee; (5) one person from the Emergency Nurses Association; (6) 2270 
one person from the Connecticut Association of Emergency Medical 2271 
Services Instructors; (7) one person from the Connecticut Hospital 2272 
Association; (8) two persons representing commercial ambulance 2273 
services; (9) one person from the Connecticut State Firefighters 2274 
Association; (10) one person from the Connecticut Fire Chiefs 2275 
Association; (11) one person from the Connecticut Police Chiefs 2276 
Association; (12) one person from the Connecticut State Police; and (13) 2277 
one person from the Connecticut Commission on Fire Prevention and 2278 
Control. An additional eighteen members shall be appointed as follows: 2279 
(A) Three by the president pro tempore of the Senate; (B) three by the 2280 
majority leader of the Senate; (C) four by the minority leader of the 2281 
Senate; (D) three by the speaker of the House of Representatives; (E) two 2282 
by the majority leader of the House of Representatives; and (F) three by 2283  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	72 of 89 
 
the minority leader of the House of Representatives. The appointees 2284 
shall include a person with experience in municipal ambulance services; 2285 
a person with experience in for-profit ambulance services; three persons 2286 
with experience in volunteer ambulance services; a paramedic; an 2287 
emergency medical technician; an advanced emergency medical 2288 
technician; three consumers and four persons from state-wide 2289 
organizations with interests in emergency medical services as well as 2290 
any other areas of expertise that may be deemed necessary for the 2291 
proper functioning of the advisory board. Any appointment that is 2292 
vacant for more than one year shall be filled by the Commissioner of 2293 
Public Health. The commissioner shall notify the appointing authority 2294 
of the identity of the commissioner's appointment not later than thirty 2295 
days before making such appointment. 2296 
Sec. 59. Subsection (a) of section 19a-36h of the general statutes is 2297 
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from 2298 
passage): 2299 
(a) Not later than January 1, [2020] 2022, the commissioner shall adopt 2300 
and administer by reference the United States Food and Drug 2301 
Administration's Food Code, as amended from time to time, and any 2302 
Food Code Supplement published by said administration as the state's 2303 
food code for the purpose of regulating food establishments. 2304 
Sec. 60. Subsection (a) of section 19a-36j of the general statutes is 2305 
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from 2306 
passage): 2307 
(a) On and after January 1, [2019] 2022, no person shall engage in the 2308 
practice of a food inspector unless such person has obtained a 2309 
certification from the commissioner in accordance with the provisions 2310 
of this section. The commissioner shall develop a training and 2311 
verification program for food inspector certification that shall be 2312 
administered by the food inspection training officer at a local health 2313 
department. 2314 
(1) Each person seeking certification as a food inspector shall submit 2315  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	73 of 89 
 
an application to the department on a form prescribed by the 2316 
commissioner and present to the department satisfactory evidence that 2317 
such person (A) is sponsored by the director of health in the jurisdiction 2318 
in which the applicant is employed to conduct food inspections, (B) 2319 
possesses a bachelor's degree or three years of experience in a regulatory 2320 
food protection program, (C) has successfully completed a training and 2321 
verification program, (D) has successfully completed the field 2322 
standardization inspection prescribed by the commissioner, and (E) is 2323 
not involved in the ownership or management of a food establishment 2324 
located in the applicant's jurisdiction. 2325 
(2) Each director of health sponsoring an applicant for certification as 2326 
a food inspector shall submit to the commissioner a form documenting 2327 
the applicant's qualifications and successful completion of the 2328 
requirements described in subdivision (1) of this subsection. 2329 
(3) Certifications issued under this section shall be subject to renewal 2330 
once every three years. A food inspector applying for renewal of his or 2331 
her certification shall demonstrate successful completion of twenty 2332 
contact hours in food protection training, as approved by the 2333 
commissioner, and reassessment by the food inspection training officer. 2334 
Sec. 61. Section 19a-36o of the general statutes is repealed and the 2335 
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage): 2336 
Notwithstanding any provision of the general statutes, from June 30, 2337 
2017, until December 31, [2018] 2021, a food service establishment may 2338 
request a variance from the Commissioner of Public Health from the 2339 
requirements of the Public Health Code, established under section 19a-2340 
36, to utilize the process of sous vide and acidification of sushi rice, as 2341 
defined in section 3-502.11 of the United States Food and Drug 2342 
Administration's Food Code, as amended from time to time. The 2343 
Commissioner of Public Health shall review the request for a variance 2344 
and provide the food establishment with notification regarding the 2345 
status of its request not later than thirty days after the commissioner 2346 
receives such request. The commissioner may grant such variance if he 2347  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	74 of 89 
 
or she determines that such variance would not result in a health hazard 2348 
or nuisance.  2349 
Sec. 62. Subdivision (5) of section 19a-332 of the general statutes is 2350 
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 2351 
1, 2021): 2352 
(5) "Asbestos-containing material" means material composed of 2353 
asbestos of any type and in an amount equal to or greater than [one] 1.0 2354 
per cent by weight, either alone or mixed with other fibrous or 2355 
nonfibrous material; 2356 
Sec. 63. Subdivision (4) of section 20-250 of the general statutes is 2357 
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from 2358 
passage): 2359 
(4) "Hairdressing and cosmetology" means the art of dressing, 2360 
arranging, curling, waving, weaving, cutting, singeing, bleaching and 2361 
coloring the hair and treating the scalp of any person, and massaging, 2362 
cleansing, stimulating, manipulating, exercising or beautifying with the 2363 
use of the hands, appliances, cosmetic preparations, antiseptics, tonics, 2364 
lotions, creams, powders, oils or clays and doing similar work on the 2365 
face, neck and arms for compensation, removing hair from the face or 2366 
neck using manual or mechanical means, excluding esthetics, as defined 2367 
in section 20-265a or any of the actions listed in this subdivision 2368 
performed on the nails of the hands or feet, provided nothing in this 2369 
subdivision shall prohibit an unlicensed person from performing 2370 
shampooing or braiding hair; 2371 
Sec. 64. Subsection (b) of section 20-265b of the general statutes is 2372 
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 2373 
2021): 2374 
(b) On and after January 1, 2020, each person seeking an initial license 2375 
as an esthetician shall apply to the department on a form prescribed by 2376 
the department, accompanied by an application fee of one hundred 2377 
dollars and evidence that the applicant (1) has completed a course of not 2378  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	75 of 89 
 
less than six hundred hours of study and received a certification of 2379 
completion from a school approved under section 20-265g or section 20-2380 
26 or in a school outside of the state whose requirements are equivalent 2381 
to a school approved under section 20-265g, or (2) (A), if applying before 2382 
January 1, 2022, has practiced esthetics continuously in this state for a 2383 
period of not less than two years prior to July 1, 2020, and (B) is in 2384 
compliance with the infection prevention and control plan guidelines 2385 
prescribed by the department under section 19a-231 in the form of an 2386 
attestation. 2387 
Sec. 65. Subsection (f) of section 10-206 of the general statutes is 2388 
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 2389 
2021): 2390 
(f) On and after October 1, 2017, each local or regional board of 2391 
education shall report to the local health department and the 2392 
Department of Public Health, on an triennial basis, the total number of 2393 
pupils per school and per school district having a diagnosis of asthma 2394 
(1) at the time of public school enrollment, (2) in grade six or seven, and 2395 
(3) in grade nine or ten. [or eleven.] The report shall contain the asthma 2396 
information collected as required under subsections (b) and (c) of this 2397 
section and shall include pupil age, gender, race, ethnicity and school. 2398 
Beginning on October 1, 2021, and every three years thereafter, the 2399 
Department of Public Health shall review the asthma screening 2400 
information reported pursuant to this section and shall submit a report 2401 
to the joint standing committees of the General Assembly having 2402 
cognizance of matters relating to public health and education 2403 
concerning asthma trends and distributions among pupils enrolled in 2404 
the public schools. The report shall be submitted in accordance with the 2405 
provisions of section 11-4a and shall include, but not be limited to, (A) 2406 
trends and findings based on pupil age, gender, race, ethnicity, school 2407 
and the education reference group, as determined by the Department of 2408 
Education for the town or regional school district in which such school 2409 
is located, and (B) activities of the asthma screening monitoring system 2410 
maintained under section 19a-62a.  2411  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	76 of 89 
 
Sec. 66. Subsections (b) to (f), inclusive, of section 19a-215 of the 2412 
general statutes are repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 2413 
thereof (Effective from passage): 2414 
(b) A health care provider shall report each case occurring in such 2415 
provider's practice, of any disease on the commissioner's list of 2416 
reportable diseases, emergency illnesses and health conditions to the 2417 
director of health of the town, city or borough in which such case resides 2418 
and to the Department of Public Health, no later than twelve hours after 2419 
such provider's recognition of the disease. Such reports shall be [in 2420 
writing, by telephone or] in an electronic format approved by the 2421 
commissioner. Such reports of disease shall be confidential and not open 2422 
to public inspection except as provided for in section 19a-25. 2423 
(c) A clinical laboratory shall report each finding identified by such 2424 
laboratory of any disease identified on the commissioner's list of 2425 
reportable laboratory findings to the Department of Public Health not 2426 
later than forty-eight hours after such laboratory's finding. A clinical 2427 
laboratory [that reports an average of more than thirty findings per 2428 
month] shall make such reports electronically in a format approved by 2429 
the commissioner. [Any clinical laboratory that reports an average of 2430 
less than thirty findings per month shall submit such reports, in writing, 2431 
by telephone or in an electronic format approved by the commissioner.] 2432 
All such reports shall be confidential and not open to public inspection 2433 
except as provided for in section 19a-25. The Department of Public 2434 
Health shall provide a copy of all such reports to the director of health 2435 
of the town, city or borough in which the affected person resides or, in 2436 
the absence of such information, the town where the specimen 2437 
originated. 2438 
(d) When a local director of health, the local director's authorized 2439 
agent or the Department of Public Health receives a report of a disease 2440 
or laboratory finding on the commissioner's lists of reportable diseases, 2441 
emergency illnesses and health conditions and laboratory findings, the 2442 
local director of health, the local director's authorized agent or the 2443 
Department of Public Health may contact first the reporting health care 2444  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	77 of 89 
 
provider and then the person with the reportable finding to obtain such 2445 
information as may be necessary to lead to the effective control of 2446 
further spread of such disease. In the case of reportable communicable 2447 
diseases and laboratory findings, this information may include 2448 
obtaining the identification of persons who may be the source or 2449 
subsequent contacts of such infection. 2450 
(e) All personal information obtained from disease prevention and 2451 
control investigations as performed in subsections (c) and (d) of this 2452 
section including the health care provider's name and the identity of the 2453 
reported case of disease and suspected source persons and contacts shall 2454 
not be divulged to anyone and shall be held strictly confidential 2455 
pursuant to section 19a-25, by the local director of health and the 2456 
director's authorized agent and by the Department of Public Health. 2457 
(f) [Any person who violates any reporting or confidentiality 2458 
provision of this section shall be fined not more than five hundred 2459 
dollars.] The Commissioner of Public Health may impose a civil penalty 2460 
not to exceed one thousand dollars on any person who violates any 2461 
reporting provision of this section for each such violation. Each failure 2462 
to report a case or finding of a disease as required by this section shall 2463 
constitute a separate violation.  2464 
(g) If the Commissioner of Public Health has reason to believe that a 2465 
violation has occurred for which a civil penalty is authorized by 2466 
subsection (f) of this section, he or she may send to such person by 2467 
certified mail, return receipt requested, or personally serve upon such 2468 
person, a notice which shall include: (1) A short and plain statement of 2469 
the matters asserted or charged; (2) a statement of the maximum civil 2470 
penalty which may be imposed for such violation; and (3) a statement 2471 
of the party's right to request a hearing, which such request shall 2472 
submitted in writing to the commissioner not later than ten days after 2473 
the notice is mailed or served. 2474 
(h) If such person so requests, the commissioner shall cause a hearing 2475 
to be held, in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54. If such 2476  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	78 of 89 
 
person fails to request a hearing or fails to appear at the hearing or if, 2477 
after the hearing, the commissioner finds that the person has committed 2478 
such violation, the commissioner may, in his or her discretion, order that 2479 
a civil penalty be imposed that is not greater than the penalty stated in 2480 
the notice. The commissioner shall send a copy of any order issued 2481 
pursuant to this subsection by certified mail, return receipt requested, 2482 
to the person named in such order. 2483 
(i) No provision of this section shall be deemed to supersede section 2484 
19a-584.  2485 
Sec. 67. Section 19a-490w of the general statutes is repealed and the 2486 
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2021): 2487 
(a) Not later than October 1, 2017, and annually thereafter, any 2488 
hospital that has been certified as a comprehensive stroke center, a 2489 
primary stroke center, a thrombectomy-capable stroke center or an 2490 
acute stroke-ready hospital by the American Heart Association, the Joint 2491 
Commission or any other nationally recognized certifying organization 2492 
shall submit an attestation of such certification to the Commissioner of 2493 
Public Health, in a form and manner prescribed by the commissioner. 2494 
Not later than October 15, 2017, and annually thereafter, the Department 2495 
of Public Health shall post a list of certified stroke centers on its Internet 2496 
web site. 2497 
(b) The department may remove a hospital from the list posted 2498 
pursuant to subsection (a) of this section if (1) the hospital requests such 2499 
removal, (2) the department is informed by the American Heart 2500 
Association, the Joint Commission or other nationally recognized 2501 
certifying organization that a hospital's certification has expired or been 2502 
suspended or revoked, or (3) the department does not receive attestation 2503 
of certification from a hospital on or before October first. The 2504 
department shall report to the nationally recognized certifying 2505 
organization any complaint it receives related to the certification of a 2506 
hospital as a comprehensive stroke center, a primary stroke center, a 2507 
thrombectomy-capable stroke center or an acute stroke-ready hospital. 2508  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	79 of 89 
 
The department shall provide the complainant with the name and 2509 
contact information of the nationally recognized certifying organization 2510 
if the complainant seeks to pursue a complaint with such organization.  2511 
Sec. 68. (NEW) (Effective October 1, 2021) (a) The Department of Public 2512 
Health shall maintain and operate a state-wide stroke registry. Said 2513 
registry shall use the American Heart Association's Get With The 2514 
Guidelines–Stroke program's data set platform and include information 2515 
and data on stroke care in the state that align with the stroke consensus 2516 
metrics developed and approved by the American Heart Association 2517 
and American Stroke Association. 2518 
(b) On and after January 1, 2022, each comprehensive stroke center, 2519 
thrombectomy-capable stroke center, primary stroke center or acute 2520 
stroke-ready hospital shall, on a quarterly basis, submit to the 2521 
Department of Public Health data concerning stroke care that are 2522 
necessary for including in the state-wide stroke registry, as determined 2523 
by the Commissioner of Public Health, and that, at a minimum, align 2524 
with the stroke consensus metrics developed and approved by the 2525 
American Heart Association and American Stroke Association. 2526 
(c) The Department of Public Health shall be provided access to 2527 
records of any comprehensive stroke center, thrombectomy-capable 2528 
stroke center, primary stroke center or acute stroke-ready hospital, as 2529 
the department deems necessary, to perform case finding or other 2530 
quality improvement audits to ensure completeness of reporting and 2531 
data accuracy consistent with the purposes of this section. 2532 
(d) The Department of Public Health may enter into a contract for the 2533 
receipt, storage, holding or maintenance of the data or files under its 2534 
control and management. 2535 
(e) The Department of Public Health may enter into reciprocal 2536 
reporting agreements with the appropriate agencies of other states to 2537 
exchange stroke care data. 2538 
(f) (1) Failure by a comprehensive stroke center, thrombectomy-2539  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	80 of 89 
 
capable stroke center, primary stroke center or acute stroke-ready 2540 
hospital to comply with the reporting requirements prescribed in this 2541 
section may result in the department electing to perform the registry 2542 
services for such comprehensive stroke center, thrombectomy-capable 2543 
stroke center, primary stroke center or acute stroke-ready hospital. In 2544 
such case, the comprehensive stroke center, thrombectomy-capable 2545 
stroke center, primary stroke center or acute stroke-ready hospital shall 2546 
reimburse the department for actual expenses incurred in performing 2547 
such services.  2548 
(2) Any comprehensive stroke center, thrombectomy-capable stroke 2549 
center, primary stroke center or acute stroke-ready hospital that fails to 2550 
comply with the provisions of this section shall be liable for a civil 2551 
penalty not to exceed five hundred dollars for each failure to disclose a 2552 
stroke care data, as determined by the commissioner. 2553 
(3) The reimbursements, expenses and civil penalties set forth in this 2554 
section shall be assessed only after the Department of Public Health has 2555 
provided a comprehensive stroke center, thrombectomy-capable stroke 2556 
center, primary stroke center or acute stroke-ready hospital with written 2557 
notice of deficiency and such comprehensive stroke center, 2558 
thrombectomy-capable stroke center, primary stroke center or acute 2559 
stroke-ready hospital has been afforded not less than fourteen business 2560 
days after the date of receiving such notice to provide a written response 2561 
to the department. Such written response shall include any information 2562 
requested by the department. 2563 
(g) The Commissioner of Public Health may request that the Attorney 2564 
General initiate an action to collect any civil penalties assessed pursuant 2565 
to this section and obtain such orders as necessary to enforce any 2566 
provision of this section. 2567 
(h) Not later than January 1, 2022, the Department of Public Health, 2568 
in consultation with the State of Connecticut Stroke Advisory Council, 2569 
shall establish a stroke registry data oversight committee. Such 2570 
committee shall monitor the operations of the state-wide stroke registry, 2571  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	81 of 89 
 
provide advice regarding the oversight of such registry, develop a plan 2572 
to improve quality of stroke care and address disparities in the 2573 
provision of such care and develop short and long-term goals for 2574 
improvement of stroke care in comprehensive stroke centers, 2575 
thrombectomy-capable stroke centers, primary stroke centers and acute 2576 
stroke-ready hospitals. 2577 
(i) The Commissioner of Public Health may adopt regulations, in 2578 
accordance with the provisions of chapter 54 of the general statutes, to 2579 
implement the provisions of this section. 2580 
Sec. 69. Subsection (k) of section 19a-180 of the general statutes is 2581 
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from 2582 
passage): 2583 
(k) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this section, 2584 
any [volunteer, hospital-based or municipal ambulance service] 2585 
emergency medical services organization that is licensed or certified and 2586 
a primary service area responder may apply to the commissioner, on a 2587 
short form application prescribed by the commissioner, to change the 2588 
address of a principal or branch location or to add a branch location 2589 
within its primary service area. Upon making such application, the 2590 
applicant shall notify in writing all other primary service area 2591 
responders in any municipality or abutting municipality in which the 2592 
applicant proposes to change principal or branch locations. Unless a 2593 
primary service area responder entitled to receive notification of such 2594 
application objects, in writing, to the commissioner and requests a 2595 
hearing on such application not later than fifteen calendar days after 2596 
receiving such notice, the application shall be deemed approved thirty 2597 
calendar days after filing. If any such primary service area responder 2598 
files an objection with the commissioner within the fifteen-calendar-day 2599 
time period and requests a hearing, the applicant shall be required to 2600 
demonstrate need to change the address of a principal or branch 2601 
location within its primary service area at a public hearing as required 2602 
under subsection (a) of this section. 2603  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	82 of 89 
 
Sec. 70. Section 7-36 of the general statutes is repealed and the 2604 
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 2021): 2605 
As used in this chapter and sections 19a-40 to 19a-45, inclusive, unless 2606 
the context otherwise requires: 2607 
(1) "Registrar of vital statistics" or "registrar" means the registrar of 2608 
births, marriages, deaths and fetal deaths or any public official charged 2609 
with the care of returns relating to vital statistics; 2610 
(2) "Registration" means the process by which vital records are 2611 
completed, filed and incorporated into the official records of the 2612 
department; 2613 
(3) "Institution" means any public or private facility that provides 2614 
inpatient medical, surgical or diagnostic care or treatment, or nursing, 2615 
custodial or domiciliary care, or to which persons are committed by law; 2616 
(4) "Vital records" means a certificate of birth, death, fetal death or 2617 
marriage; 2618 
(5) "Certified copy" means a copy of a birth, death, fetal death or 2619 
marriage certificate that (A) includes all information on the certificate 2620 
except such information that is nondisclosable by law, (B) is issued or 2621 
transmitted by any registrar of vital statistics, (C) includes an attested 2622 
signature and the raised seal of an authorized person, and (D) if 2623 
submitted to the department, includes all information required by the 2624 
commissioner; 2625 
(6) "Uncertified copy" means a copy of a birth, death, fetal death or 2626 
marriage certificate that includes all information contained in a certified 2627 
copy except an original attested signature and a raised seal of an 2628 
authorized person; 2629 
(7) "Authenticate" or "authenticated" means to affix to a vital record 2630 
in paper format the official seal, or to affix to a vital record in electronic 2631 
format the user identification, password, or other means of electronic 2632 
identification, as approved by the department, of the creator of the vital 2633  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	83 of 89 
 
record, or the creator's designee, by which affixing the creator of such 2634 
paper or electronic vital record, or the creator's designee, affirms the 2635 
integrity of such vital record; 2636 
(8) "Attest" means to verify a vital record in accordance with the 2637 
provisions of subdivision (5) of this section; 2638 
(9) "Correction" means to change or enter new information on a 2639 
certificate of birth, marriage, death or fetal death, within one year of the 2640 
date of the vital event recorded in such certificate, in order to accurately 2641 
reflect the facts existing at the time of the recording of such vital event, 2642 
where such changes or entries are to correct errors on such certificate 2643 
due to inaccurate or incomplete information provided by the informant 2644 
at the time the certificate was prepared, or to correct transcribing, 2645 
typographical or clerical errors; 2646 
(10) "Amendment" means to (A) change or enter new information on 2647 
a certificate of birth, marriage, death or fetal death, more than one year 2648 
after the date of the vital event recorded in such certificate, in order to 2649 
accurately reflect the facts existing at the time of the recording of the 2650 
event, (B) create a replacement certificate of birth for matters pertaining 2651 
to parentage and gender change, or (C) reflect a legal name change in 2652 
accordance with section 19a-42 or make a modification to a cause of 2653 
death; 2654 
(11) "Acknowledgment of paternity" means to legally acknowledge 2655 
paternity of a child pursuant to section 46b-172; 2656 
(12) "Adjudication of paternity" means to legally establish paternity 2657 
through an order of a court of competent jurisdiction; 2658 
(13) "Parentage" includes matters relating to adoption, gestational 2659 
agreements, paternity and maternity; 2660 
(14) "Department" means the Department of Public Health; 2661 
(15) "Commissioner" means the Commissioner of Public Health or the 2662 
commissioner's designee; 2663  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	84 of 89 
 
(16) "Gestational agreement" means a written agreement for assisted 2664 
reproduction in which a woman agrees to carry a child to birth for an 2665 
intended parent or intended parents, which woman contributed no 2666 
genetic material to the child and which agreement (A) names each party 2667 
to the agreement and indicates each party's respective obligations under 2668 
the agreement, (B) is signed by each party to the agreement and the 2669 
spouse of each such party, if any, and (C) is witnessed by at least two 2670 
disinterested adults and acknowledged in the manner prescribed by 2671 
law; 2672 
(17) "Intended parent" means a party to a gestational agreement who 2673 
agrees, under the gestational agreement, to be the parent of a child born 2674 
to a woman by means of assisted reproduction, regardless of whether 2675 
the party has a genetic relationship to the child;  2676 
(18) "Foundling" means (A) a child of unknown parentage, or (B) an 2677 
infant voluntarily surrendered pursuant to the provisions of section 17a-2678 
58; [and]  2679 
(19) "Certified homeless youth" means a person who is at least fifteen 2680 
years of age but less than eighteen years of age, is not in the physical 2681 
custody of a parent or legal guardian, who is a homeless child or youth, 2682 
as defined in 42 USC 11434a, as amended from time to time, and who 2683 
has been certified as homeless by (A) a school district homeless liaison, 2684 
(B) the director of an emergency shelter program funded by the United 2685 
States Department of Housing and Urban Development, or the 2686 
director's designee, [or] (C) the director of a runaway or homeless youth 2687 
basic center or transitional living program funded by the United States 2688 
Department of Health and Human Services, or the director's designee, 2689 
or (D) the director of a program of a nonprofit organization or 2690 
municipality that is contracted with the homeless youth program 2691 
established pursuant to section 17a-62a; and 2692 
(20) "Certified homeless young adult" means a person who is at least 2693 
eighteen years of age but less than twenty-five years of age who has 2694 
been certified as homeless by (A) a school district homeless liaison, (B) 2695  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	85 of 89 
 
the director of an emergency shelter program funded by the United 2696 
States Department of Housing and Urban Development, or the 2697 
director's designee, (C) the director of a runaway or homeless youth 2698 
basic center or transitional living program funded by the United States 2699 
Department of Health and Human Services, or the director's designee, 2700 
or (D) the director of a program of a nonprofit organization or 2701 
municipality that is contracted with the homeless youth program 2702 
established pursuant to section 17a-62a.  2703 
Sec. 71. Subsection (c) of section 7-51 of the general statutes is 2704 
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 2705 
2021): 2706 
(c) (1) The registrar of the town in which the birth or fetal death 2707 
occurred or of the town in which the mother resided at the time of the 2708 
birth or fetal death, or the department, may issue a certified copy of the 2709 
certificate of birth or fetal death of any person born in this state that is 2710 
kept in paper form in the custody of the registrar. Except as provided in 2711 
subdivision (2) of this subsection, such certificate shall be issued upon 2712 
the written request of an eligible party listed in subsection (a) of this 2713 
section. Any registrar of vital statistics in this state with access, as 2714 
authorized by the department, to the electronic vital records system of 2715 
the department may issue a certified copy of the electronically filed 2716 
certificate of birth or fetal death of any person born in this state upon 2717 
the written request of an eligible party listed in subsection (a) of this 2718 
section. The registrar and the department may waive the fee for the 2719 
issuance of a certified copy of the certificate of birth of a certified 2720 
homeless young adult to such young adult under this subsection. 2721 
(2) In the case of a certified homeless youth, such certified homeless 2722 
youth and the person who is certifying the certified homeless youth as 2723 
homeless, as described in section 7-36, as amended by this act, shall 2724 
appear in person when the certified homeless youth is presenting the 2725 
written request described in subdivision (1) of this subsection at (A) the 2726 
office of the registrar of the town in which the certified homeless youth 2727 
was born, (B) the office of the registrar of the town in which the mother 2728  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	86 of 89 
 
of the certified homeless youth resided at the time of the birth, (C) if the 2729 
birth certificate of the certified homeless youth has been electronically 2730 
filed, any registrar of vital statistics in the state with access, as 2731 
authorized by the department, to the electronic vital records system, or 2732 
(D) the state vital records office of the department. The certified 2733 
homeless youth shall present to the registrar or the department 2734 
information sufficient to identify himself or herself as may be required 2735 
by regulations adopted by the commissioner pursuant to section 7-41. 2736 
The person who is certifying the certified homeless youth as homeless 2737 
shall present to the registrar or the department information sufficient to 2738 
identify himself or herself as meeting the certification requirements of 2739 
section 7-36, as amended by this act. The registrar and the department 2740 
may waive the fee for the issuance of a certified copy of the certificate of 2741 
birth of a homeless youth to such youth under this subsection. 2742 
Sec. 72. Subsection (a) of section 1-1h of the general statutes is 2743 
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 2744 
2021): 2745 
(a) Any person who does not possess a valid motor vehicle operator's 2746 
license may apply to the Department of Motor Vehicles for an identity 2747 
card. The application for an identity card shall be accompanied by the 2748 
birth certificate of the applicant or a certificate of identification of the 2749 
applicant issued and authorized for such use by the Department of 2750 
Correction and a fee of twenty-eight dollars. Such application shall 2751 
include: (1) The applicant's name; (2) the applicant's address; (3) 2752 
whether the address is permanent or temporary; (4) the applicant's date 2753 
of birth; (5) notice to the applicant that false statements on such 2754 
application are punishable under section 53a-157b; and (6) such other 2755 
pertinent information as the Commissioner of Motor Vehicles deems 2756 
necessary. The applicant shall sign the application in the presence of an 2757 
official of the Department of Motor Vehicles. The commissioner may 2758 
waive the fee for any applicant (A) who has voluntarily surrendered 2759 
such applicant's motor vehicle operator's license, (B) whose license has 2760 
been refused by the commissioner pursuant to subdivision (4) of 2761 
subsection (e) of section 14-36, (C) who is both a veteran, as defined in 2762  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	87 of 89 
 
subsection (a) of section 27-103, and blind, as defined in subsection (a) 2763 
of section 1-1f, or (D) who is a resident of a homeless shelter or other 2764 
facility for homeless persons or a certified homeless youth or certified 2765 
homeless young adult. The commissioner shall adopt regulations, in 2766 
accordance with the provisions of chapter 54, to establish the procedure 2767 
and qualifications for the issuance of an identity card to any such 2768 
homeless applicant. For the purposes of this subsection, "certified 2769 
homeless youth" and "certified homeless young adult" have the same 2770 
meanings as provided in section 7-36, as amended by this act. 2771 
Sec. 73. Section 20-226 of the general statutes is repealed. (Effective 2772 
from passage)  2773 
This act shall take effect as follows and shall amend the following 
sections: 
 
Section 1 October 1, 2021 PA 19-117, Sec. 73 
Sec. 2 October 1, 2021 25-33(b) 
Sec. 3 October 1, 2021 8-3i 
Sec. 4 October 1, 2021 22a-42f 
Sec. 5 October 1, 2021 19a-111 
Sec. 6 October 1, 2021 19a-37 
Sec. 7 October 1, 2021 19a-524 
Sec. 8 July 1, 2021 19a-491c(c)(2) 
Sec. 9 October 1, 2021 19a-177 
Sec. 10 October 1, 2021 20-207 
Sec. 11 October 1, 2021 20-212 
Sec. 12 October 1, 2021 20-213(a) and (b) 
Sec. 13 October 1, 2021 20-215 
Sec. 14 October 1, 2021 20-217(a) 
Sec. 15 October 1, 2021 20-224 
Sec. 16 October 1, 2021 20-195dd 
Sec. 17 October 1, 2021 20-195c(a) 
Sec. 18 October 1, 2021 19a-14(a)(12) 
Sec. 19 October 1, 2021 20-204a(a) to (c) 
Sec. 20 January 1, 2022 7-62b(b) and (c) 
Sec. 21 July 1, 2021 19a-200 
Sec. 22 July 1, 2021 19a-202a 
Sec. 23 July 1, 2021 19a-244  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	88 of 89 
 
Sec. 24 July 1, 2021 19a-12a(a)(3) 
Sec. 25 July 1, 2021 19a-12d 
Sec. 26 October 1, 2021 19a-12e(a) 
Sec. 27 from passage 20-185k(b) 
Sec. 28 October 1, 2021 17a-412(a) 
Sec. 29 October 1, 2021 17b-451(a) 
Sec. 30 July 1, 2021 19a-6o 
Sec. 31 from passage 19a-6q 
Sec. 32 July 1, 2021 19a-493(b) 
Sec. 33 July 1, 2021 New section 
Sec. 34 October 1, 2021 19a-343(c) 
Sec. 35 from passage 19a-131g 
Sec. 36 July 1, 2021 19a-30(d) 
Sec. 37 July 1, 2021 20-365(b) 
Sec. 38 from passage 20-195u(b) 
Sec. 39 from passage 20-265h(a) 
Sec. 40 from passage 19a-131j(a) 
Sec. 41 July 1, 2021 19a-512(a) 
Sec. 42 July 1, 2021 19a-490 
Sec. 43 July 1, 2021 19a-491(b) to (i) 
Sec. 44 July 1, 2021 19a-491c(a)(4) 
Sec. 45 July 1, 2021 19a-492b 
Sec. 46 July 1, 2021 19a-492c(b) 
Sec. 47 July 1, 2021 19a-492d 
Sec. 48 July 1, 2021 19a-492e 
Sec. 49 July 1, 2021 19a-496a 
Sec. 50 July 1, 2021 19a-504d 
Sec. 51 July 1, 2021 New section 
Sec. 52 July 1, 2021 19a-522f 
Sec. 53 July 1, 2021 New section 
Sec. 54 July 1, 2021 19a-521b 
Sec. 55 October 1, 2021 19a-195 
Sec. 56 from passage 20-206jj 
Sec. 57 from passage 20-206mm(f) 
Sec. 58 from passage 19a-178a(b) 
Sec. 59 from passage 19a-36h(a) 
Sec. 60 from passage 19a-36j(a) 
Sec. 61 from passage 19a-36o 
Sec. 62 October 1, 2021 19a-332(5) 
Sec. 63 from passage 20-250(4) 
Sec. 64 July 1, 2021 20-265b(b)  Raised Bill No.  6666 
 
 
 
LCO No. 5823   	89 of 89 
 
Sec. 65 July 1, 2021 10-206(f) 
Sec. 66 from passage 19a-215(b) to (f) 
Sec. 67 October 1, 2021 19a-490w 
Sec. 68 October 1, 2021 New section 
Sec. 69 from passage 19a-180(k) 
Sec. 70 July 1, 2021 7-36 
Sec. 71 July 1, 2021 7-51(c) 
Sec. 72 July 1, 2021 1-1h(a) 
Sec. 73 from passage Repealer section 
 
Statement of Purpose:   
To implement the recommendations of the Department of Public Health 
regarding various revisions to the public health statutes. 
[Proposed deletions are enclosed in brackets. Proposed additions are indicated by underline, except 
that when the entire text of a bill or resolution or a section of a bill or resolution is new, it is not 
underlined.]