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General Assembly Substitute Bill No. 6666
January Session, 2021
AN ACT CONCERNING TH E DEPARTMENT OF PUBL IC HEALTH'S
RECOMMENDATIONS REGA RDING VARIOUS REVISIONS TO THE
PUBLIC HEALTH STATUT ES.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives in General
Assembly convened:
Section 1. Section 73 of public act 19-117 is repealed and the following 1
is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2021): 2
Notwithstanding any provision of title 19a or 25 of the general 3
statutes, [and not later than March 1, 2020,] a director of health of a town, 4
city or borough or of a district department of health appointed pursuant 5
to section 19a-200 or 19a-242 of the general statutes may issue a permit 6
for a replacement public well if the Department of Public Health has 7
approved such replacement public well pursuant to subsection (b) of 8
section 25-33 of the general statutes, as amended by this act. For 9
purposes of this section, "replacement public well" means a public well 10
that (1) replaces an existing public well, [in a town in southeastern 11
Connecticut with a population between fifteen thousand and fifteen 12
thousand three hundred, as enumerated by the 2010 federal decennial 13
census,] and (2) does not meet the sanitary radius and minimum setback 14
requirements as specified in the regulations of Connecticut State 15
Agencies. 16
Sec. 2. Subsection (b) of section 25-33 of the general statutes is 17
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 18 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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1, 2021): 19
(b) No system of water supply owned or used by a water company 20
shall be constructed or expanded or a new additional source of water 21
supply utilized until the plans therefor have been submitted to and 22
reviewed and approved by the department, except that no such prior 23
review or approval is required for distribution water main installations 24
that are constructed in accordance with sound engineering standards 25
and all applicable laws and regulations. A plan for any proposed new 26
source of water supply submitted to the department pursuant to this 27
subsection shall include documentation that provides for: (1) A brief 28
description of potential effects that the proposed new source of water 29
supply may have on nearby water supply systems including public and 30
private wells; and (2) the water company's ownership or control of the 31
proposed new source of water supply's sanitary radius and minimum 32
setback requirements as specified in the regulations of Connecticut state 33
agencies and that such ownership or control shall continue to be 34
maintained as specified in such regulations. If the department 35
determines, based upon documentation provided, that the water 36
company does not own or control the proposed new source of water 37
supply's sanitary radius or minimum setback requirements as specified 38
in the regulations of Connecticut state agencies, the department shall 39
require the water company proposing a new source of water supply to 40
supply additional documentation to the department that adequately 41
demonstrates the alternative methods that will be utilized to assure the 42
proposed new source of water supply's long-term purity and adequacy. 43
In reviewing any plan for a proposed new source of water supply, the 44
department shall consider the issues specified in this subsection. The 45
Commissioner of Public Health may adopt regulations, in accordance 46
with the provisions of chapter 54, to carry out the provisions of this 47
subsection and subsection (c) of this section. For purposes of this 48
subsection and subsection (c) of this section, "distribution water main 49
installations" means installations, extensions, replacements or repairs of 50
public water supply system mains from which water is or will be 51
delivered to one or more service connections and which do not require 52 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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construction or expansion of pumping stations, storage facilities, 53
treatment facilities or sources of supply. Notwithstanding the 54
provisions of this subsection, the department may approve any location 55
of a replacement public well, if such replacement public well is (A) 56
necessary for the water company to maintain and provide to its 57
consumers a safe and adequate water supply, (B) located in an aquifer 58
of adequate water quality determined by historical water quality data 59
from the source of water supply it is replacing, and (C) in a more 60
protected location when compared to the source of water supply it is 61
replacing, as determined by the department. For purposes of this 62
subsection, "replacement public well" means a public well that (i) 63
replaces an existing public well, [in a town in southeastern Connecticut 64
with a population between fifteen thousand and fifteen thousand three 65
hundred, as enumerated by the 2010, federal decennial census,] and (ii) 66
does not meet the sanitary radius and minimum setback requirements 67
as specified in the regulations of Connecticut state agencies. 68
Sec. 3. Section 8-3i of the general statutes is repealed and the 69
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2021): 70
(a) As used in this section "water company" means a water company, 71
as defined in section 25-32a, and "petition" includes a petition or 72
proposal to change the regulations, boundaries or classifications of 73
zoning districts. 74
(b) When an application, petition, request or plan is filed with the 75
zoning commission, planning and zoning commission or zoning board 76
of appeals of any municipality concerning any project on any site that is 77
within the aquifer protection area delineated pursuant to section 22a-78
354c or the watershed of a water company, the applicant or the person 79
making the filing shall: (1) [provide] Provide written notice of the 80
application, petition, request or plan to the water company and the 81
[Commissioner of Public Health in a format prescribed by said 82
commissioner, provided such water company or said commissioner has 83
filed a map showing the boundaries of the watershed on the land 84
records of the municipality in which the application, petition, request or 85 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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plan is made and with the planning commission, zoning commission, 86
planning and zoning commission or zoning board of appeals of such 87
municipality or the aquifer protection area has been delineated in 88
accordance with section 22a-354c, as the case may be] Department of 89
Public Health; and (2) determine if the project is within the watershed 90
of a water company by consulting the maps posted on the department's 91
Internet web site showing the boundaries of the watershed. Such [notice 92
shall be made] applicant shall send such notice to the water company 93
by certified mail, return receipt requested, and to the department by 94
electronic mail to the electronic mail address designated on its Internet 95
web site for receipt of such notice. Such applicant shall [be mailed] mail 96
such notice not later than seven days after the date of the application. 97
Such water company and the Commissioner of Public Health may, 98
through a representative, appear and be heard at any hearing on any 99
such application, petition, request or plan. 100
(c) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (b) of this section, 101
when an agent of the zoning commission, planning and zoning 102
commission or zoning board of appeals is authorized to approve an 103
application, petition, request or plan concerning any site that is within 104
the aquifer protection area delineated pursuant to section 22a-354c or 105
the watershed of a water company without the approval of the zoning 106
commission, planning and zoning commission or zoning board of 107
appeals, and such agent determines that the proposed activity will not 108
adversely affect the public water supply, the applicant or person making 109
the filing shall not be required to notify the water company or the 110
[Commissioner] Department of Public Health. 111
Sec. 4. Section 22a-42f of the general statutes is repealed and the 112
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2021): 113
When an application is filed to conduct or cause to be conducted a 114
regulated activity upon an inland wetland or watercourse, any portion 115
of which is within the watershed of a water company as defined in 116
section 25-32a, the applicant shall: (1) [provide] Provide written notice 117
of the application to the water company and the [Commissioner of 118 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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Public Health in a format prescribed by said commissioner, provided 119
such water company or said commissioner has filed a map showing the 120
boundaries of the watershed on the land records of the municipality in 121
which the application is made and with the inland wetlands agency of 122
such municipality] Department of Public Health; and (2) determine if 123
the project is within the watershed of a water company by consulting 124
the maps posted on the department's Internet web site showing the 125
boundaries of the watershed. Such [notice shall be made] applicant shall 126
send such notice to the water company by certified mail, return receipt 127
requested, and to the department by electronic mail to the electronic 128
mail address designated by the department on its Internet web site for 129
receipt of such notice. Such applicant shall [be mailed] mail such notice 130
not later than seven days after the date of the application. The water 131
company and the Commissioner of Public Health, through a 132
representative, may appear and be heard at any hearing on the 133
application. 134
Sec. 5. Section 19a-111 of the general statutes is repealed and the 135
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2021): 136
Upon receipt of each report of confirmed venous blood lead level 137
equal to or greater than twenty micrograms per deciliter of blood, the 138
local director of health shall make or cause to be made an 139
epidemiological investigation of the source of the lead causing the 140
increased lead level or abnormal body burden and shall order action to 141
be taken by the appropriate person responsible for the condition that 142
brought about such lead poisoning as may be necessary to prevent 143
further exposure of persons to such poisoning. In the case of any 144
residential unit where such action will not result in removal of the 145
hazard within a reasonable time, the local director of health shall utilize 146
such community resources as are available to effect relocation of any 147
family occupying such unit. The local director of health may permit 148
occupancy in said residential unit during abatement if, in such director's 149
judgment, occupancy would not threaten the health and well-being of 150
the occupants. The local director of health shall, not later than thirty 151 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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days after the conclusion of such director's investigation, report to the 152
Commissioner of Public Health, using a web-based surveillance system 153
as prescribed by the commissioner, the result of such investigation and 154
the action taken to ensure against further lead poisoning from the same 155
source, including any measures taken to effect relocation of families. 156
Such report shall include information relevant to the identification and 157
location of the source of lead poisoning and such other information as 158
the commissioner may require pursuant to regulations adopted in 159
accordance with the provisions of chapter 54. The commissioner shall 160
maintain comprehensive records of all reports submitted pursuant to 161
this section and section 19a-110. Such records shall be geographically 162
indexed in order to determine the location of areas of relatively high 163
incidence of lead poisoning. The commissioner shall establish, in 164
conjunction with recognized professional medical groups, guidelines 165
consistent with the National Centers for Disease Control and Prevention 166
for assessment of the risk of lead poisoning, screening for lead poisoning 167
and treatment and follow-up care of individuals including children with 168
lead poisoning, women who are pregnant and women who are planning 169
pregnancy. Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit a local 170
building official from requiring abatement of sources of lead. 171
Sec. 6. Section 19a-37 of the general statutes is repealed and the 172
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2021): 173
(a) As used in this section: 174
(1) "Laboratory or firm" means an environmental laboratory 175
registered by the Department of Public Health pursuant to section 19a-176
29a; 177
(2) "Private well" means a water supply well that meets all of the 178
following criteria: (A) Is not a public well; (B) supplies a residential 179
population of less than twenty-five persons per day; and (C) is owned 180
or controlled through an easement or by the same entity that owns or 181
controls the building or parcel that is served by the water supply well; 182 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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(3) "Public well" means a water supply well that supplies a public 183
water system; 184
(4) "Semipublic well" means a water supply well that (A) does not 185
meet the definition of a private well or public well, and (B) provides 186
water for drinking and other domestic purposes; and 187
(5) "Water supply well" means an artificial excavation constructed by 188
any method for the purpose of obtaining or providing water for 189
drinking or other domestic, industrial, commercial, agricultural, 190
recreational or irrigation use, or other outdoor water use. 191
(b) The Commissioner of Public Health may adopt regulations in the 192
[Public Health Code] regulations of Connecticut state agencies for the 193
preservation of the public health pertaining to (1) protection and 194
location of new water supply wells or springs for residential or 195
nonresidential construction or for public or semipublic use, and (2) 196
inspection for compliance with the provisions of municipal regulations 197
adopted pursuant to section 22a-354p. 198
(c) The Commissioner of Public Health shall adopt regulations, in 199
accordance with chapter 54, for the testing of water quality in private 200
[residential] wells and semipublic wells. Any laboratory or firm which 201
conducts a water quality test on a private well serving a residential 202
property or semipublic well shall, not later than thirty days after the 203
completion of such test, report the results of such test to (1) the public 204
health authority of the municipality where the property is located, and 205
(2) the Department of Public Health in a format specified by the 206
department, provided such report shall only be required if the party for 207
whom the laboratory or firm conducted such test informs the laboratory 208
or firm identified on the chain of custody documentation submitted 209
with the test samples that the test was conducted in connection with the 210
sale of such property. No regulation may require such a test to be 211
conducted as a consequence or a condition of the sale, exchange, 212
transfer, purchase or rental of the real property on which the private 213
[residential] well or semipublic well is located. 214 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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(d) Prior to the sale, exchange, purchase, transfer or rental of real 215
property on which a [residential] private or semipublic well is located, 216
the owner shall provide the buyer or tenant notice that educational 217
material concerning private well testing is available on the Department 218
of Public Health web site. Failure to provide such notice shall not 219
invalidate any sale, exchange, purchase, transfer or rental of real 220
property. If the seller or landlord provides such notice in writing, the 221
seller or landlord and any real estate licensee shall be deemed to have 222
fully satisfied any duty to notify the buyer or tenant that the subject real 223
property is located in an area for which there are reasonable grounds for 224
testing under subsection (g) or (j) of this section. 225
(e) The Commissioner of Public Health shall adopt regulations, in 226
accordance with chapter 54, to clarify the criteria under which the 227
commissioner may issue a well permit exception and to describe the 228
terms and conditions that shall be imposed when a well is allowed at a 229
premises (1) that is connected to a public water supply system, or (2) 230
whose boundary is located within two hundred feet of an approved 231
community water supply system, measured along a street, alley or 232
easement. Such regulations shall (A) provide for notification of the 233
permit to the public water supplier, (B) address the quality of the water 234
supplied from the well, the means and extent to which the well shall not 235
be interconnected with the public water supply, the need for a physical 236
separation, and the installation of a reduced pressure device for 237
backflow prevention, the inspection and testing requirements of any 238
such reduced pressure device, and (C) identify the extent and frequency 239
of water quality testing required for the well supply. 240
(f) No regulation may require that a certificate of occupancy for a 241
dwelling unit on such residential property be withheld or revoked on 242
the basis of a water quality test performed on a private [residential] well 243
pursuant to this section, unless such test results indicate that any 244
maximum contaminant level applicable to public water supply systems 245
for any contaminant listed in the [public health code] regulations of 246
Connecticut state agencies has been exceeded. No administrative 247 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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agency, health district or municipal health officer may withhold or 248
cause to be withheld such a certificate of occupancy except as provided 249
in this section. 250
(g) The local director of health may require a private [residential] well 251
or semipublic well to be tested for arsenic, radium, uranium, radon or 252
gross alpha emitters, when there are reasonable grounds to suspect that 253
such contaminants are present in the groundwater. For purposes of this 254
subsection, "reasonable grounds" means (1) the existence of a geological 255
area known to have naturally occurring arsenic, radium, uranium, 256
radon or gross alpha emitter deposits in the bedrock; or (2) the well is 257
located in an area in which it is known that arsenic, radium, uranium, 258
radon or gross alpha emitters are present in the groundwater. 259
(h) Except as provided in subsection (i) of this section, the collection 260
of samples for determining the water quality of private [residential] 261
wells and semipublic wells may be made only by (1) employees of a 262
laboratory or firm certified or approved by the Department of Public 263
Health to test drinking water, if such employees have been trained in 264
sample collection techniques, (2) certified water operators, (3) local 265
health departments and state employees trained in sample collection 266
techniques, or (4) individuals with training and experience that the 267
Department of Public Health deems sufficient. 268
(i) Any owner of a residential construction, including, but not limited 269
to, a homeowner, on which a private [residential] well is located or any 270
general contractor of a new residential construction on which a private 271
[residential] well is located may collect samples of well water for 272
submission to a laboratory or firm for the purposes of testing water 273
quality pursuant to this section, provided (1) such laboratory or firm has 274
provided instructions to said owner or general contractor on how to 275
collect such samples, and (2) such owner or general contractor is 276
identified to the subsequent owner on a form to be prescribed by the 277
Department of Public Health. No regulation may prohibit or impede 278
such collection or analysis. 279 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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(j) The local director of health may require private [residential] wells 280
and semipublic wells to be tested for pesticides, herbicides or organic 281
chemicals when there are reasonable grounds to suspect that any such 282
contaminants might be present in the groundwater. For purposes of this 283
subsection, "reasonable grounds" means (1) the presence of nitrate-284
nitrogen in the groundwater at a concentration greater than ten 285
milligrams per liter, or (2) that the private [residential] well or 286
semipublic well is located on land, or in proximity to land, associated 287
with the past or present production, storage, use or disposal of organic 288
chemicals as identified in any public record. 289
(k) Any water transported in bulk by any means to a premises 290
currently supplied by a private well or semipublic well where the water 291
is to be used for purposes of drinking or domestic use shall be provided 292
by a bulk water hauler licensed pursuant to section 20-278h. No bulk 293
water hauler shall deliver water without first notifying the owner of the 294
premises of such delivery. Bulk water hauling to a premises currently 295
supplied by a private well or semipublic well shall be permitted only as 296
a temporary measure to alleviate a water supply shortage. 297
Sec. 7. Section 19a-524 of the general statutes is repealed and the 298
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2021): 299
If, upon review, investigation or inspection pursuant to section 19a-300
498, the Commissioner of Public Health determines that a nursing home 301
facility or residential care home has violated any provision of section 302
17a-411, 19a-491a to 19a-491c, inclusive, as amended by this act, 19a-303
493a, 19a-521 to 19a-529, inclusive, 19a-531 to 19a-551, inclusive, or 19a-304
553 to 19a-555, inclusive, or any provision of any regulation of 305
Connecticut state agencies relating to licensure, the Fire Safety Code or 306
the operation or maintenance of a nursing home facility or residential 307
care home, which violation has been classified in accordance with 308
section 19a-527, the commissioner may immediately issue or cause to be 309
issued a citation to the licensee of such nursing home facility or 310
residential care home. Governmental immunity shall not be a defense to 311
any citation issued or civil penalty imposed pursuant to this section or 312 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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sections 19-525 to 19a-528, inclusive. Each such citation shall be in 313
writing, provide notice of the nature and scope of the alleged violation 314
or violations, and include, but not be limited to, the citation and notice 315
of noncompliance issued in accordance with section 19a-496. Each 316
citation and notice of noncompliance issued under this section shall be 317
sent to the licensee electronically in a form and manner prescribed by 318
the commissioner or by certified mail [to the licensee] at the address of 319
the nursing home facility or residential care home in issue. A copy of 320
such citation and notice of noncompliance shall also be sent to the 321
licensed administrator at the address of the nursing home facility or 322
residential care home. 323
Sec. 8. Subdivision (2) of subsection (c) of section 19a-491c of the 324
general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 325
thereof (Effective July 1, 2021): 326
(2) No long-term care facility shall be required to comply with the 327
provisions of this subsection if (A) the individual provides evidence to 328
the long-term care facility that such individual submitted to a 329
background search conducted pursuant to subdivision (1) of this 330
subsection not more than three years immediately preceding the date 331
such individual applies for employment, seeks to enter into a contract 332
or begins volunteering with the long-term care facility and that the prior 333
background search confirmed that the individual did not have a 334
disqualifying offense, or (B) the commissioner determines the need to 335
temporarily suspend the requirements of this subsection in the event of 336
an emergency or significant disruption. The commissioner shall inform 337
the long-term care facility when the commissioner has suspended the 338
requirements of this subsection pursuant to subparagraph (B) of this 339
subdivision and when such suspension is rescinded. 340
Sec. 9. Section 19a-177 of the general statutes is repealed and the 341
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2021): 342
The commissioner shall: 343 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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(1) With the advice of the Office of Emergency Medical Services 344
established pursuant to section 19a-178 and of an advisory committee 345
on emergency medical services and with the benefit of meetings held 346
pursuant to subsection (b) of section 19a-184, adopt every five years a 347
state-wide plan for the coordinated delivery of emergency medical 348
services; 349
(2) License or certify the following: (A) Ambulance operations, 350
ambulance drivers, emergency medical services personnel and 351
communications personnel; (B) emergency room facilities and 352
communications facilities; and (C) transportation equipment, including 353
land, sea and air vehicles used for transportation of patients to 354
emergency facilities and periodically inspect life saving equipment, 355
emergency facilities and emergency transportation vehicles to ensure 356
state standards are maintained; 357
(3) Annually inventory emergency medical services resources within 358
the state, including facilities, equipment, and personnel, for the 359
purposes of determining the need for additional services and the 360
effectiveness of existing services; 361
(4) Review and evaluate all area-wide plans developed by the 362
emergency medical services councils pursuant to section 19a-182 in 363
order to insure conformity with standards issued by the commissioner; 364
(5) Not later than thirty days after their receipt, review all grant and 365
contract applications for federal or state funds concerning emergency 366
medical services or related activities for conformity to policy guidelines 367
and forward such application to the appropriate agency, when required; 368
(6) Establish such minimum standards and adopt such regulations in 369
accordance with the provisions of chapter 54, as may be necessary to 370
develop the following components of an emergency medical service 371
system: (A) Communications, which shall include, but not be limited to, 372
equipment, radio frequencies and operational procedures; (B) 373
transportation services, which shall include, but not be limited to, 374 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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vehicle type, design, condition and maintenance, and operational 375
procedures; (C) training, which shall include, but not be limited to, 376
emergency medical services personnel, communications personnel, 377
paraprofessionals associated with emergency medical services, 378
firefighters and state and local police; (D) emergency medical service 379
facilities, which shall include, but not be limited to, categorization of 380
emergency departments as to their treatment capabilities and ancillary 381
services; and (E) mobile integrated health care programs, which shall 382
include, but not be limited to, the standards to ensure the health, safety 383
and welfare of the patients being served by such programs and data 384
collection and reporting requirements to ensure and measure quality 385
outcomes of such programs; 386
(7) Coordinate training of all emergency medical services personnel; 387
(8) (A) Develop an emergency medical services data collection 388
system. Each emergency medical service organization licensed or 389
certified pursuant to this chapter shall submit data to the commissioner, 390
on a quarterly basis, from each licensed ambulance service, certified 391
ambulance service or paramedic intercept service that provides 392
emergency medical services. Such submitted data shall include, but not 393
be limited to: (i) The total number of calls for emergency medical 394
services received by such licensed ambulance service, certified 395
ambulance service or paramedic intercept service through the 9-1-1 396
system during the reporting period; (ii) each level of emergency medical 397
services, as defined in regulations adopted pursuant to section 19a-179, 398
required for each such call; (iii) the response time for each licensed 399
ambulance service, certified ambulance service or paramedic intercept 400
service during the reporting period; (iv) the number of passed calls, 401
cancelled calls and mutual aid calls, both made and received, during the 402
reporting period; and (v) for the reporting period, the prehospital data 403
for the nonscheduled transport of patients required by regulations 404
adopted pursuant to subdivision (6) of this section. The data required 405
under this subdivision may be submitted in any electronic form selected 406
by such licensed ambulance service, certified ambulance service or 407 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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paramedic intercept service and approved by the commissioner, 408
provided the commissioner shall take into consideration the needs of 409
such licensed ambulance service, certified ambulance service or 410
paramedic intercept service in approving such electronic form. The 411
commissioner may conduct an audit of any such licensed ambulance 412
service, certified ambulance service or paramedic intercept service as 413
the commissioner deems necessary in order to verify the accuracy of 414
such reported data. 415
(B) On or before December 31, 2018, and annually thereafter, the 416
commissioner shall prepare a report to the Emergency Medical Services 417
Advisory Board, established pursuant to section 19a-178a, as amended 418
by this act, that shall include, but not be limited to, the following data: 419
(i) The total number of calls for emergency medical services received 420
during the reporting year by each licensed ambulance service, certified 421
ambulance service or paramedic intercept service; (ii) the level of 422
emergency medical services required for each such call; (iii) the name of 423
the emergency medical service organization that provided each such 424
level of emergency medical services furnished during the reporting 425
year; (iv) the response time, by time ranges or fractile response times, 426
for each licensed ambulance service, certified ambulance service or 427
paramedic intercept service, using a common definition of response 428
time, as provided in regulations adopted pursuant to section 19a-179; 429
and (v) the number of passed calls, cancelled calls and mutual aid calls 430
during the reporting year. The commissioner shall prepare such report 431
in a format that categorizes such data for each municipality in which the 432
emergency medical services were provided, with each such 433
municipality grouped according to urban, suburban and rural 434
classifications. 435
(C) If any licensed ambulance service, certified ambulance service or 436
paramedic intercept service does not submit the data required under 437
subparagraph (A) of this subdivision for a period of six consecutive 438
months, or if the commissioner believes that such licensed ambulance 439
service, certified ambulance service or paramedic intercept service 440 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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knowingly or intentionally submitted incomplete or false data, the 441
commissioner shall issue a written order directing such licensed 442
ambulance service, certified ambulance service or paramedic intercept 443
service to comply with the provisions of subparagraph (A) of this 444
subdivision and submit all missing data or such corrected data as the 445
commissioner may require. If such licensed ambulance service, certified 446
ambulance service or paramedic intercept service fails to fully comply 447
with such order not later than three months from the date such order is 448
issued, the commissioner (i) shall conduct a hearing, in accordance with 449
chapter 54, at which such licensed ambulance service, certified 450
ambulance service or paramedic intercept service shall be required to 451
show cause why the primary service area assignment of such licensed 452
ambulance service, certified ambulance service or paramedic intercept 453
service should not be revoked, and (ii) may take such disciplinary action 454
under section 19a-17 as the commissioner deems appropriate. 455
(D) The commissioner shall collect the data required by 456
subparagraph (A) of this subdivision, in the manner provided in said 457
subparagraph, from each emergency medical service organization 458
licensed or certified pursuant to this chapter. Any such emergency 459
medical service organization that fails to comply with the provisions of 460
this section shall be liable for a civil penalty not to exceed one hundred 461
dollars per day for each failure to report the required data regarding 462
emergency medical services provided to a patient, as determined by the 463
commissioner. The civil penalties set forth in this subparagraph shall be 464
assessed only after the department provides a written notice of 465
deficiency and the organization is afforded the opportunity to respond 466
to such notice. An organization shall have not more than fifteen business 467
days after the date of receiving such notice to provide a written response 468
to the department. The commissioner may adopt regulations, in 469
accordance with chapter 54, concerning the development, 470
implementation, monitoring and collection of emergency medical 471
service system data. All state agencies licensed or certified as emergency 472
medical service organizations shall be exempt from the civil penalties 473
set forth in this subparagraph. 474 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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(E) The commissioner shall, with the recommendation of the 475
Connecticut Emergency Medical Services Advisory Board established 476
pursuant to section 19a-178a, as amended by this act, adopt for use in 477
trauma data collection the most recent version of the National Trauma 478
Data Bank's National Trauma Data Standards and Data Dictionary and 479
nationally recognized guidelines for field triage of injured patients; 480
(9) (A) Establish rates for the conveyance and treatment of patients 481
by licensed ambulance services and invalid coaches and establish 482
emergency service rates for certified ambulance services and paramedic 483
intercept services, provided (i) the present rates established for such 484
services and vehicles shall remain in effect until such time as the 485
commissioner establishes a new rate schedule as provided in this 486
subdivision, and (ii) any rate increase not in excess of the Medical Care 487
Services Consumer Price Index, as published by the Bureau of Labor 488
Statistics of the United States Department of Labor, for the prior year, 489
filed in accordance with subparagraph (B)(iii) of this subdivision shall 490
be deemed approved by the commissioner. For purposes of this 491
subdivision, licensed ambulance services and paramedic intercept 492
services shall not include emergency air transport services or mobile 493
integrated health care programs. 494
(B) Adopt regulations, in accordance with the provisions of chapter 495
54, establishing methods for setting rates and conditions for charging 496
such rates. Such regulations shall include, but not be limited to, 497
provisions requiring that on and after July 1, 2000: (i) Requests for rate 498
increases may be filed no more frequently than once a year, except that, 499
in any case where an agency's schedule of maximum allowable rates 500
falls below that of the Medicare allowable rates for that agency, the 501
commissioner shall immediately amend such schedule so that the rates 502
are at or above the Medicare allowable rates; (ii) only licensed 503
ambulance services, certified ambulance services and paramedic 504
intercept services that apply for a rate increase in excess of the Medical 505
Care Services Consumer Price Index, as published by the Bureau of 506
Labor Statistics of the United States Department of Labor, for the prior 507 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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year, and do not accept the maximum allowable rates contained in any 508
voluntary state-wide rate schedule established by the commissioner for 509
the rate application year shall be required to file detailed financial 510
information with the commissioner, provided any hearing that the 511
commissioner may hold concerning such application shall be conducted 512
as a contested case in accordance with chapter 54; (iii) licensed 513
ambulance services, certified ambulance services and paramedic 514
intercept services that do not apply for a rate increase in any year in 515
excess of the Medical Care Services Consumer Price Index, as published 516
by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the United States Department of 517
Labor, for the prior year, or that accept the maximum allowable rates 518
contained in any voluntary state-wide rate schedule established by the 519
commissioner for the rate application year shall, not later than the last 520
business day in August of such year, file with the commissioner a 521
statement of emergency and nonemergency call volume, and, in the case 522
of a licensed ambulance service, certified ambulance service or 523
paramedic intercept service that is not applying for a rate increase, a 524
written declaration by such licensed ambulance service, certified 525
ambulance service or paramedic intercept service that no change in its 526
currently approved maximum allowable rates will occur for the rate 527
application year; and (iv) detailed financial and operational information 528
filed by licensed ambulance services, certified ambulance services and 529
paramedic intercept services to support a request for a rate increase in 530
excess of the Medical Care Services Consumer Price Index, as published 531
by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the United States Department of 532
Labor, for the prior year, shall cover the time period pertaining to the 533
most recently completed fiscal year and the rate application year of the 534
licensed ambulance service, certified ambulance service or paramedic 535
intercept service. 536
(C) Establish rates for licensed ambulance services, certified 537
ambulance services or paramedic intercept services for the following 538
services and conditions: (i) "Advanced life support assessment" and 539
"specialty care transports", which terms have the meanings provided in 540
42 CFR 414.605; and (ii) mileage, which may include mileage for an 541 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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ambulance transport when the point of origin and final destination for 542
a transport is within the boundaries of the same municipality. The rates 543
established by the commissioner for each such service or condition shall 544
be equal to (I) the ambulance service's base rate plus its established 545
advanced life support/paramedic surcharge when advanced life 546
support assessment services are performed; (II) two hundred twenty-547
five per cent of the ambulance service's established base rate for 548
specialty care transports; and (III) "loaded mileage", as the term is 549
defined in 42 CFR 414.605, multiplied by the ambulance service's 550
established rate for mileage. Such rates shall remain in effect until such 551
time as the commissioner establishes a new rate schedule as provided 552
in this subdivision. 553
(D) Establish rates for the treatment and release of patients by a 554
licensed or certified emergency medical services organization or a 555
provider who does not transport such patients to an emergency 556
department and who is operating within the scope of such 557
organization's or provider's practice and following protocols approved 558
by the sponsor hospital. The rates established pursuant to this 559
subparagraph shall not apply to the treatment provided to patients 560
through mobile integrated health care programs; 561
(10) Establish primary service areas and assign in writing a primary 562
service area responder for each primary service area. Each state-owned 563
campus having an acute care hospital on the premises shall be 564
designated as the primary service area responder for that campus; 565
(11) Revoke primary service area assignments upon determination by 566
the commissioner that it is in the best interests of patient care to do so; 567
and 568
(12) Annually issue a list of minimum equipment requirements for 569
[ambulances and rescue vehicles] authorized emergency medical 570
services vehicles based upon current national standards. The 571
commissioner shall distribute such list to all emergency medical service 572
organizations and sponsor hospital medical directors and make such list 573 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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available to other interested stakeholders. Emergency medical service 574
organizations shall have one year from the date of issuance of such list 575
to comply with the minimum equipment requirements. 576
Sec. 10. (NEW) (Effective July 1, 2021) The Commissioner of Public 577
Health may waive any provisions of the regulations affecting an 578
emergency medical service organization, as defined in section 19a-175 579
of the general statutes, if the commissioner determines that such waiver 580
would not endanger the health, safety or welfare of any patient or 581
resident. The commissioner may impose conditions, upon granting the 582
waiver, that assure the health, safety or welfare of patients or residents 583
and may revoke the waiver upon a finding that the health, safety or 584
welfare of any patient or resident has been jeopardized. The 585
commissioner may adopt regulations, in accordance with the provisions 586
of chapter 54 of the general statutes, establishing procedures for an 587
application for a waiver pursuant to this subdivision. 588
Sec. 11. Section 20-207 of the general statutes is repealed and the 589
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2021): 590
As used in this chapter, unless the context otherwise requires, the 591
following terms shall have the meanings specified: 592
(1) "Board" means the Connecticut Board of Examiners of Embalmers 593
and Funeral Directors; 594
(2) "Person" means an individual or corporation, but not a 595
partnership; 596
(3) "Funeral directing" means the business, practice or profession, as 597
commonly practiced, of (A) directing or supervising funerals, or 598
providing funeral services; (B) handling or encasing or providing 599
services for handling and encasing dead human bodies, otherwise than 600
by embalming, for burial or disposal; (C) providing embalming services; 601
(D) providing transportation, interment and disinterment of dead 602
human bodies; (E) maintaining an establishment so located, constructed 603
and equipped as to permit the decent and sanitary handling of dead 604 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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human bodies, with suitable equipment in such establishment for such 605
handling; (F) conducting an establishment from which funerals may be 606
held; (G) engaging in consultations concerning arrangements for the 607
disposition of human remains, including, but not limited to, 608
arrangements for cremation or alkaline hydrolysis; (H) casketing human 609
remains; (I) making cemetery and cremation arrangements; and (J) 610
preparing funeral service contracts, as defined in section 42-200; 611
(4) "Funeral director" means any person engaged or holding himself 612
or herself out as engaged in funeral directing whether or not he or she 613
uses in connection with his or her name or business the words "funeral 614
director," "undertaker" or "mortician" or any other word or title 615
intended to designate him or her as a funeral director or mortician or as 616
one so engaged; 617
(5) "Funeral service business" means the business, practice or 618
profession of funeral directing; 619
(6) "Licensed embalmer" means an embalmer holding a license as 620
provided in this chapter; 621
(7) "Licensed funeral director" means a funeral director holding a 622
license as provided in this chapter; 623
(8) ["Student embalmer"] "Registered apprentice embalmer" means a 624
person [studying embalming and] registered with the Department of 625
Public Health as an apprentice pursuant to the provisions of this 626
chapter; 627
(9) ["Student funeral director"] "Registered apprentice funeral 628
director" means a person [studying the funeral service business and] 629
registered with the Department of Public Health as an apprentice 630
pursuant to the provisions of this chapter; 631
(10) "Full-time employment" means regular and steady work during 632
the normal working hours by any person at the establishment at which 633
he is employed; and 634 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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(11) "Manager" means an individual who (A) is licensed as an 635
embalmer or funeral director pursuant to this chapter and (B) has direct 636
and personal responsibility for the daily operation and management of 637
a funeral service business. 638
Sec. 12. Section 20-212 of the general statutes is repealed and the 639
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2021): 640
No person, except a licensed embalmer, shall inject any fluid or 641
substance into any dead human body, except that a registered [student] 642
apprentice embalmer may, even if not in the presence of a licensed 643
embalmer, make such injection or perform any other act under [his] 644
such licensed embalmer's instruction; and no person, firm or 645
corporation shall enter, engage in, carry on or manage for another the 646
business of caring for, preserving or disposing of dead human bodies 647
until each person, firm or corporation so engaged has obtained from the 648
Department of Public Health and holds a license as provided in this 649
chapter; nor shall any person be employed to remove a dead human 650
body, except a licensed embalmer, a registered [student] apprentice 651
embalmer, a licensed funeral director, or a person authorized in each 652
instance by the Chief Medical Examiner, Deputy Medical Examiner or 653
assistant medical examiner incidental to examining the body of a 654
deceased person, except that once a dead human body has been 655
prepared in accordance with the [Public Health Code] regulations of 656
Connecticut state agencies and the applicable provisions of the general 657
statutes, an embalmer or funeral director licensed in this state may 658
authorize an unlicensed employee to transport such body. Nothing in 659
this section shall be construed to prohibit any person licensed as an 660
embalmer or as a funeral director under the laws of another state from 661
bringing into or removing from this state a dead human body, provided 662
any and all other laws of this state relative to such body have been 663
complied with. Nothing in this chapter shall be construed to prohibit 664
any student who is enrolled in a program of education in mortuary 665
science, approved by the board, with the consent of the Commissioner 666
of Public Health, from embalming up to ten human bodies under the 667 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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supervision of a licensed embalmer and incidental to such student's 668
course of study. 669
Sec. 13. Subsections (a) and (b) of section 20-213 of the general statutes 670
are repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective 671
October 1, 2021): 672
(a) (1) After a [student] registered apprentice embalmer has (A) 673
completed a program of education in mortuary science approved by the 674
board with the consent of the Commissioner of Public Health, (B) 675
successfully completed an examination prescribed by the Department 676
of Public Health with the consent of the board, (C) completed one year 677
of practical training and experience of a grade and character satisfactory 678
to the commissioner in the state in full-time employment under the 679
personal supervision and instruction of an embalmer licensed under the 680
provisions of this chapter, and (D) embalmed fifty human bodies in not 681
more than two years under the supervision of a licensed embalmer or 682
embalmers, (2) the [student] registered apprentice embalmer shall (A) 683
submit to the department an application and fee of two hundred ten 684
dollars, (B) take a written examination on the Connecticut public health 685
laws and the regulations of Connecticut state agencies pertaining to the 686
activities of an embalmer, and (C) take an examination in practical 687
embalming that shall include an actual demonstration upon a cadaver. 688
When the [student] registered apprentice embalmer has satisfactorily 689
passed such examinations, said department shall issue to him or her a 690
license to practice embalming. At the expiration of such license, if the 691
holder thereof desires a renewal, said department shall grant it pursuant 692
to section 20-222a, except for cause. 693
(b) Examinations for registration as a [student] registered apprentice 694
embalmer and for an embalmer's license shall be administered to 695
applicants by the Department of Public Health, under the supervision 696
of the board, semiannually and at such other times as may be 697
determined by the department. 698
Sec. 14. Section 20-215 of the general statutes is repealed and the 699 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2021): 700
No licensed embalmer shall sign an affidavit attesting the 701
preparation or embalming of any body unless such body has been 702
prepared or embalmed by [him] such licensed embalmer, or by a 703
registered [student] apprentice embalmer under [his] such licensed 704
embalmer's personal supervision. 705
Sec. 15. Subsection (a) of section 20-217 of the general statutes is 706
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 707
1, 2021): 708
(a) When a [student] registered apprentice funeral director has 709
completed a program of education approved by the board with the 710
consent of the Commissioner of Public Health, has successfully 711
completed an examination prescribed by the department with the 712
consent of the board and furnishes the department with satisfactory 713
proof that he or she has completed one year of practical training and 714
experience in full-time employment under the personal supervision of 715
a licensed embalmer or funeral director, and pays to the department a 716
fee of two hundred ten dollars, [he] such registered apprentice funeral 717
director shall be entitled to be examined upon the Connecticut state law 718
and regulations pertaining to his or her professional activities. If found 719
to be qualified by the Department of Public Health, [he] such registered 720
apprentice funeral director shall be licensed as a funeral director. 721
Renewal licenses shall be issued by the Department of Public Health 722
pursuant to section 20-222a, unless withheld for cause as herein 723
provided, upon a payment of a fee of two hundred thirty dollars. 724
Sec. 16. Section 20-224 of the general statutes is repealed and the 725
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2021): 726
(a) The provisions of sections 20-217, as amended by this act, 20-220 727
and 20-227 shall not prohibit the employment of assistants or of 728
[student] registered apprentice embalmers and [student] registered 729
apprentice funeral directors as provided in this chapter, provided a 730 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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licensed funeral service business may employ no more than two 731
[student] registered apprentice embalmers at any one time, and any 732
person, firm, corporation or other organization engaged in the business 733
of funeral directing may employ no more than one [student] registered 734
apprentice funeral director at any one time, without the approval of the 735
Board of Examiners of Embalmers and Funeral Directors. 736
(b) [Student] Registered apprentice embalmers and [student] 737
registered apprentice funeral directors shall register as apprentices with 738
the Department of Public Health, in the manner prescribed by the 739
commissioner in regulations adopted pursuant to section 20-211, for 740
purposes of completing practical training and experience pursuant to 741
the provisions of this chapter. 742
Sec. 17. Section 20-195dd of the general statutes is repealed and the 743
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2021): 744
(a) Except as otherwise provided in subsections (c) and (d) of this 745
section, an applicant for a license as a professional counselor shall 746
submit evidence satisfactory to the commissioner of having: (1) (A) 747
Earned a graduate degree in clinical mental health counseling as part of 748
a program of higher learning accredited by the Council for 749
Accreditation of Counseling and Related Educational Programs, or a 750
successor organization, or (B) (i) completed at least sixty graduate 751
semester hours in counseling or a related mental health field at a 752
regionally accredited institution of higher education that included 753
coursework in each of the following areas: (I) Human growth and 754
development; (II) social and cultural foundations; (III) counseling 755
theories; (IV) counseling techniques; (V) group counseling; (VI) career 756
counseling; (VII) appraisals or tests and measurements to individuals 757
and groups; (VIII) research and evaluation; (IX) professional orientation 758
to mental health counseling; (X) addiction and substance abuse 759
counseling; (XI) trauma and crisis counseling; and (XII) diagnosis and 760
treatment of mental and emotional disorders, (ii) earned from a 761
regionally accredited institution of higher education a graduate degree 762
in counseling or a related mental health field, (iii) completed a one-763 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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hundred-hour practicum in counseling taught by a faculty member 764
licensed or certified as a professional counselor or its equivalent in 765
another state, and (iv) completed a six-hundred-hour clinical mental 766
health counseling internship taught by a faculty member licensed or 767
certified as a professional counselor or its equivalent in another state; (2) 768
acquired three thousand hours of postgraduate experience under 769
professional supervision, including a minimum of one hundred hours 770
of direct professional supervision, in the practice of professional 771
counseling, performed over a period of not less than two years; and (3) 772
passed an examination prescribed by the commissioner. The provisions 773
of subparagraphs (B)(i)(X) to (B)(i)(XII), inclusive, (B)(iii) and (B)(iv) of 774
this subsection shall not apply to any applicant who, on or before July 775
1, 2017, was a matriculating student in good standing in a graduate 776
degree program at a regionally accredited institution of higher 777
education in one of the fields required under subparagraph (B) of this 778
subsection. 779
(b) An applicant for a license as a professional counselor associate 780
shall submit to the Commissioner of Public Health evidence satisfactory 781
to the commissioner of having (1) earned a graduate degree in clinical 782
mental health counseling as part of a program of higher learning 783
accredited by the Council for Accreditation of Counseling and Related 784
Educational Programs, or a successor organization, or (2) (A) completed 785
at least sixty graduate semester hours in counseling or a related mental 786
health field at a regionally accredited institution of higher education 787
that included coursework in each of the following areas: Human growth 788
and development; social and cultural foundations; counseling theories; 789
counseling techniques; group counseling; career counseling; appraisals 790
or tests and measurements to individuals and groups; research and 791
evaluation; professional orientation to mental health counseling; 792
addiction and substance abuse counseling; trauma and crisis 793
counseling; and diagnosis and treatment of mental and emotional 794
disorders, (B) completed a one-hundred-hour practicum in counseling 795
taught by a faculty member licensed or certified as a professional 796
counselor or its equivalent in another state, (C) completed a six-797 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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hundred-hour clinical mental health counseling internship taught by a 798
faculty member licensed or certified as a professional counselor or its 799
equivalent in another state, and (D) earned from a regionally accredited 800
institution of higher education a graduate degree in counseling or a 801
related mental health field. The provisions of subparagraphs (A) to (C), 802
inclusive, of subdivision (2) of this subsection shall not apply to any 803
applicant who, on or before July 1, 2022, earned a graduate degree at a 804
regionally accredited institution of higher education in counseling or a 805
related mental health field and has accumulated at least three thousand 806
hours of experience under professional supervision, as defined in 807
section 20-195aa. 808
(c) An applicant for licensure by endorsement shall present evidence 809
satisfactory to the commissioner that the applicant is licensed or 810
certified as a professional counselor or professional counselor associate, 811
or as a person entitled to perform similar services under a different 812
designation, in another state or jurisdiction whose requirements for 813
practicing in such capacity are substantially similar to or higher than 814
those of this state and that there are no disciplinary actions or 815
unresolved complaints pending. 816
(d) An applicant who is licensed or certified as a professional 817
counselor or its equivalent in another state, territory or commonwealth 818
of the United States may substitute three years of licensed or certified 819
work experience in the practice of professional counseling in lieu of the 820
requirements of subdivision (2) of subsection (a) of this section, 821
provided the commissioner finds that such experience is equal to or 822
greater than the requirements of this state. 823
Sec. 18. Subsection (a) of section 20-195c of the general statutes is 824
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 825
1, 2021): 826
(a) Each applicant for licensure as a marital and family therapist shall 827
present to the department satisfactory evidence that such applicant has: 828
(1) Completed a graduate degree program specializing in marital and 829 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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family therapy offered by a regionally accredited college or university 830
or an accredited postgraduate clinical training program accredited by 831
the Commission on Accreditation for Marriage and Family Therapy 832
Education offered by a regionally accredited institution of higher 833
education; (2) completed a supervised practicum or internship with 834
emphasis in marital and family therapy supervised by the program 835
granting the requisite degree or by an accredited postgraduate clinical 836
training program accredited by the Commission on Accreditation for 837
Marriage and Family Therapy Education and offered by a regionally 838
accredited institution of higher education; [, in which the student 839
received a minimum of five hundred direct clinical hours that included 840
one hundred hours of clinical supervision;] (3) completed twelve 841
months of relevant postgraduate experience, including (A) a minimum 842
of one thousand hours of direct client contact offering marital and 843
family therapy services subsequent to being awarded a master's degree 844
or doctorate or subsequent to the training year specified in subdivision 845
(2) of this subsection, and (B) one hundred hours of postgraduate 846
clinical supervision provided by a licensed marital and family therapist; 847
and (4) passed an examination prescribed by the department. The fee 848
shall be three hundred fifteen dollars for each initial application. 849
Sec. 19. Subdivision (12) of subsection (a) of section 19a-14 of the 850
general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 851
thereof (Effective October 1, 2021): 852
(12) With respect to any complaint filed with the department on or 853
after October 1, 2010, alleging incompetence, negligence, fraud or deceit 854
by a person subject to regulation or licensing by any board or 855
commission described in subdivision (1) to [(5), inclusive, (7),] (8), 856
inclusive, (12) to (14), inclusive, or subdivision (16) of subsection (b) of 857
this section: 858
(A) Upon request of the person who filed the complaint, provide such 859
person with information on the status of the complaint; 860
(B) Upon request of the person who filed the complaint, provide such 861 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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person with an opportunity to review, at the department, records 862
compiled as of the date of the request pursuant to any investigation of 863
the complaint, including, but not limited to, the respondent's written 864
response to the complaint, except that such person shall not be entitled 865
to copy such records and the department (i) shall not disclose (I) 866
information concerning a health care professional's referral to, 867
participation in or completion of an assistance program in accordance 868
with sections 19a-12a and 19a-12b, that is confidential pursuant to 869
section 19a-12a, (II) information not related to such person's specific 870
complaint, including, but not limited to, information concerning 871
patients other than such person, or (III) personnel or medical records 872
and similar files the disclosure of which would constitute an invasion of 873
personal privacy pursuant to section 1-210, except for such records or 874
similar files solely related to such person; (ii) shall not be required to 875
disclose any other information that is otherwise confidential pursuant 876
to federal law or state statute, except for information solely related to 877
such person; and (iii) may require up to ten business days written notice 878
prior to providing such opportunity for review; 879
(C) Prior to resolving the complaint with a consent order, provide the 880
person who filed the complaint with not less than ten business days to 881
submit a written statement as to whether such person objects to 882
resolving the complaint with a consent order; 883
(D) If a hearing is held with respect to such complaint after a finding 884
of probable cause, provide the person who filed the complaint with a 885
copy of the notice of hearing issued pursuant to section 4-177, which 886
shall include information concerning the opportunity to present oral or 887
written statements pursuant to subsection (b) of section 4-177c; and 888
(E) Notify the person who filed the complaint of the final disposition 889
of such complaint not later than seven business days after such final 890
disposition; 891
Sec. 20. Subsections (a) to (c), inclusive, of section 20-204a of the 892
general statutes are repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 893 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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thereof (Effective October 1, 2021): 894
(a) The department shall investigate each allegation of any act or 895
omission by a veterinarian specified in section 20-202. The investigation 896
shall be conducted in accordance with the provisions of section 19a-14, 897
as amended by this act, to determine if probable cause exists to issue a 898
statement of charges and to institute proceedings against the 899
veterinarian. Such investigation shall be concluded not later than twelve 900
months from the date the allegation is submitted to the department. 901
(b) Except as provided in subsections (c) and (d) of this section, the 902
investigation shall be confidential and not subject to disclosure under 903
section 1-210 and no person may disclose knowledge of the 904
investigation to a third party unless the veterinarian requests that the 905
investigation be open, [The owner of any animal that is the subject of 906
such an investigation shall not be deemed a third party to such an 907
investigation for purposes of disclosure under this section] except that 908
the department shall provide information to the person who filed the 909
complaint pursuant to subdivision (12) of subsection (a) of section 19a-910
14, as amended by this act. 911
(c) If the department makes a finding of no probable cause to take 912
action under section 20-202 or fails to make a finding within the twelve-913
month period required by subsection [(b)] (a) of this section, the 914
allegation submitted pursuant to subsection (a) of this section and the 915
entire record of the investigation may remain confidential and no 916
person shall disclose knowledge of such investigation to a third party 917
unless the veterinarian requests that it be open, except that the 918
department shall provide information to the person who filed the 919
complaint pursuant to subdivision (12) of subsection (a) of section 19a-920
14, as amended by this act. 921
Sec. 21. Subsections (b) and (c) of section 7-62b of the general statutes 922
are repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective 923
January 1, 2022): 924 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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(b) The funeral director or embalmer licensed by the department, or 925
the funeral director or embalmer licensed in another state and 926
complying with the terms of a reciprocal agreement on file with the 927
department, in charge of the burial of the deceased person shall 928
complete the death certificate through the electronic death registry 929
system, or, if the electronic death registry system is unavailable, on a 930
form provided by the department. Said certificate shall be filed by a 931
licensed embalmer or such embalmer's designee or a funeral director or 932
such director's designee, in accordance with the provisions of this 933
section, except when inquiry is required by the Chief Medical 934
Examiner's Office, in which case the death certificate shall be filed in 935
accordance with section 19a-409. The Social Security number of the 936
deceased person shall be recorded on such certificate. Such licensed 937
funeral director or licensed embalmer shall obtain the personal data 938
from the next of kin or the best qualified person or source available and 939
shall obtain a medical certification from the person responsible therefor, 940
in accordance with the provisions of this section. Only a licensed 941
embalmer may assume charge of the burial of a deceased person who 942
had a communicable disease, as designated in the [Public Health Code] 943
regulations of Connecticut state agencies, at the time of death and such 944
licensed embalmer shall file an affidavit, on a form provided by the 945
department, signed and sworn to by such licensed embalmer stating 946
that the body has been disinfected in accordance with the [Public Health 947
Code] regulations of Connecticut State Agencies. 948
(c) The medical certification portion of the death certificate shall be 949
completed, signed and returned to the licensed funeral director or 950
licensed embalmer no later than twenty-four hours after death by the 951
physician or advanced practice registered nurse in charge of the 952
patient's care for the illness or condition which resulted in death, or 953
upon the death of an infant delivered by a nurse-midwife, by such 954
nurse-midwife, as provided in section 20-86b. In the absence of such 955
physician or advanced practice registered nurse, or with the physician's 956
or advanced practice registered nurse's approval, the medical 957
certification may be completed and signed by an associate physician, an 958 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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advanced practice registered nurse, a physician assistant as provided in 959
subsection (d) of section 20-12d, a registered nurse as provided in 960
section 20-101a, the chief medical officer of the institution in which 961
death occurred, or by the pathologist who performed an autopsy upon 962
the decedent. No physician, advanced practice registered nurse, 963
physician assistant, registered nurse, nurse-midwife, chief medical 964
officer or pathologist shall sign and return the medical certification 965
unless such physician, advanced practice registered nurse, physician 966
assistant, registered nurse, nurse-midwife, chief medical officer or 967
pathologist has personally viewed and examined the body of the person 968
to whom the medical certification relates and is satisfied that at the time 969
of the examination such person was in fact dead, except in the event a 970
medical certification is completed by a physician, advanced practice 971
registered nurse, physician assistant, registered nurse, nurse-midwife, 972
chief medical officer or pathologist other than the one who made the 973
determination and pronouncement of death, an additional viewing and 974
examination of the body shall not be required. Such physician, 975
advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, registered 976
nurse, nurse-midwife, chief medical officer or pathologist shall certify 977
to the facts of death through the electronic death registry system, or, if 978
the electronic death registry is unavailable, on a form provided by the 979
department. If a physician, advanced practice registered nurse, 980
physician assistant, registered nurse, nurse-midwife, chief medical 981
officer or pathologist refuses or otherwise fails to complete, sign and 982
return the medical portion of the death certificate to the licensed funeral 983
director or licensed embalmer within twenty-four hours after death, 984
such licensed funeral director or embalmer may notify the 985
Commissioner of Public Health of such refusal. The commissioner may, 986
upon receipt of notification and investigation, assess a civil penalty 987
against such physician, advanced practice registered nurse, physician 988
assistant, registered nurse, chief medical officer or pathologist not to 989
exceed two hundred fifty dollars. The medical certification shall state 990
the cause of death, defined so that such death may be classified under 991
the international list of causes of death, the duration of disease if known 992
and such additional information as the Department of Public Health 993 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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requires. The department shall give due consideration to national 994
uniformity in vital statistics in prescribing the form and content of such 995
information. 996
Sec. 22. Section 19a-200 of the general statutes is repealed and the 997
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 2021): 998
(a) The mayor of each city, the chief executive officer of each town 999
and the warden of each borough shall, unless the charter of such city, 1000
town or borough otherwise provides, nominate some person to be 1001
director of health for such city, town or borough. [, which] Such person 1002
shall possess the qualifications specified in subsection (b) of this section. 1003
Upon approval of the commissioner, such nomination shall be 1004
confirmed or rejected by the board of selectmen, if there be such a board, 1005
otherwise by the legislative body of such city or town or by the 1006
burgesses of such borough within thirty days thereafter. 1007
(b) Notwithstanding the charter provisions of any city, town or 1008
borough with respect to the qualifications of the director of health, on 1009
and after October 1, 2010, any person nominated to be a director of 1010
health shall (1) be a licensed physician and hold a degree in public health 1011
from an accredited school, college, university or institution, or (2) hold 1012
a graduate degree in public health from an accredited institution of 1013
higher education. The educational requirements of this section shall not 1014
apply to any director of health nominated or otherwise appointed as 1015
director of health prior to October 1, 2010. 1016
(c) In cities, towns or boroughs with a population of forty thousand 1017
or more for five consecutive years, according to the estimated 1018
population figures authorized pursuant to subsection (b) of section 1019
8-159a, such director of health shall serve in a full-time capacity, except 1020
where a town has designated such director as the chief medical advisor 1021
for its public schools under section 10-205. [, and] 1022
(d) No director shall, [not,] during such director's term of office, have 1023
any financial interest in or engage in any employment, transaction or 1024 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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professional activity that is in substantial conflict with the proper 1025
discharge of the duties required of directors of health by the general 1026
statutes or the regulations of Connecticut state agencies or specified by 1027
the appointing authority of the city, town or borough in its written 1028
agreement with such director. A written agreement with such director 1029
shall be submitted to the Commissioner of Public Health upon such 1030
director's appointment or reappointment. 1031
(e) Such director of health shall have and exercise within the limits of 1032
the city, town or borough for which such director is appointed all 1033
powers necessary for enforcing the general statutes, provisions of the 1034
regulations of Connecticut state agencies relating to the preservation 1035
and improvement of the public health and preventing the spread of 1036
diseases therein. 1037
(f) In case of the absence or inability to act of a city, town or borough 1038
director of health or if a vacancy exists in the office of such director, the 1039
appointing authority of such city, town or borough may, with the 1040
approval of the Commissioner of Public Health, designate in writing a 1041
suitable person to serve as acting director of health during the period of 1042
such absence or inability or vacancy, provided the commissioner may 1043
appoint such acting director if the city, town or borough fails to do so. 1044
The person so designated, when sworn, shall have all the powers and 1045
be subject to all the duties of such director. In case of vacancy in the 1046
office of such director, if such vacancy exists for [thirty] sixty days, said 1047
commissioner may appoint a director of health for such city, town or 1048
borough. Said commissioner, may, for cause, remove an officer the 1049
commissioner or any predecessor in said office has appointed, and the 1050
common council of such city, town or the burgesses of such borough 1051
may, respectively, for cause, remove a director whose nomination has 1052
been confirmed by them, provided such removal shall be approved by 1053
said commissioner; and, within two days thereafter, notice in writing of 1054
such action shall be given by the clerk of such city, town or borough, as 1055
the case may be, to said commissioner, who shall, within ten days after 1056
receipt, file with the clerk from whom the notice was received, approval 1057 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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or disapproval. 1058
(g) Each such director of health shall hold office for the term of four 1059
years from the date of appointment and until a successor is nominated 1060
and confirmed in accordance with this section. 1061
(h) Each director of health shall, annually, at the end of the fiscal year 1062
of the city, town or borough, file with the Department of Public Health 1063
a report of the doings as such director for the year preceding. 1064
[(b)] (i) On and after July 1, 1988, each city, town and borough shall 1065
provide for the services of a sanitarian licensed under chapter 395 to 1066
work under the direction of the local director of health. Where practical, 1067
the local director of health may act as the sanitarian. 1068
[(c)] (j) As used in this chapter, "authorized agent" means a sanitarian 1069
licensed under chapter 395 and any individual certified for a specific 1070
program of environmental health by the Commissioner of Public Health 1071
in accordance with the general statutes and regulations of Connecticut 1072
state agencies. 1073
Sec. 23. Section 19a-202a of the general statutes is repealed and the 1074
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 2021): 1075
(a) Any municipality may designate itself as having a part-time 1076
health department if: (1) The municipality has not had a full-time health 1077
department or been in a full-time health district prior to January 1, 1998; 1078
(2) the municipality has the equivalent of at least one full-time 1079
employee, as determined by the Commissioner of Public Health, who 1080
performs public health functions required by the general statutes and 1081
the regulations of Connecticut states agencies; and (3) the municipality 1082
annually submits a public health program plan and budget to the 1083
commissioner. [; and (4) the commissioner approves the program plan 1084
and budget.] 1085
(b) The Commissioner of Public Health [shall] may adopt regulations, 1086
in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54, for the development 1087 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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and approval of the program plan and budget required by subdivision 1088
(3) of subsection (a) of this section. 1089
Sec. 24. Section 19a-244 of the general statutes is repealed and the 1090
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 2021): 1091
On and after October 1, 2010, any person nominated to be the director 1092
of health shall (1) be a licensed physician and hold a degree in public 1093
health from an accredited school, college, university or institution, or (2) 1094
hold a graduate degree in public health from an accredited school, 1095
college or institution. The educational requirements of this section shall 1096
not apply to any director of health nominated or otherwise appointed 1097
as director of health prior to October 1, 2010. The board may specify in 1098
a written agreement with such director the term of office, which shall 1099
not exceed three years, salary and duties required of and responsibilities 1100
assigned to such director in addition to those required by the general 1101
statutes or the [Public Health Code] regulations of Connecticut state 1102
agencies, if any. Such director shall be removed during the term of such 1103
written agreement only for cause after a public hearing by the board on 1104
charges preferred, of which reasonable notice shall have been given. No 1105
director shall, during such director's term of office, have any financial 1106
interest in or engage in any employment, transaction or professional 1107
activity that is in substantial conflict with the proper discharge of the 1108
duties required of directors of health by the general statutes or the 1109
[Public Health Code] regulations of Connecticut state agencies or 1110
specified by the board in its written agreement with such director. The 1111
board shall submit such written agreement to the Commissioner of 1112
Public Health upon such director's appointment or reappointment. Such 1113
director shall serve in a full-time capacity and act as secretary and 1114
treasurer of the board, without the right to vote. Such director shall give 1115
to the district a bond with a surety company authorized to transact 1116
business in the state, for the faithful performance of such director's 1117
duties as treasurer, in such sum and upon such conditions as the board 1118
requires. Such director shall be the executive officer of the district 1119
department of health. Full-time employees of a city, town or borough 1120 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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health department at the time such city, town or borough votes to form 1121
or join a district department of health shall become employees of such 1122
district department of health. Such employees may retain their rights 1123
and benefits in the pension system of the town, city or borough by which 1124
they were employed and shall continue to retain their active 1125
participating membership therein until retired. Such employees shall 1126
pay into such pension system the contributions required of them for 1127
their class and membership. Any additional employees to be hired by 1128
the district or any vacancies to be filled shall be filled in accordance with 1129
the rules and regulations of the merit system of the state of Connecticut 1130
and the employees who are employees of cities, towns or boroughs 1131
which have adopted a local civil service or merit system shall be 1132
included in their comparable grade with fully attained seniority in the 1133
state merit system. Such employees shall perform such duties as are 1134
prescribed by the director of health. In the event of the withdrawal of a 1135
town, city or borough from the district department, or in the event of a 1136
dissolution of any district department, the employees thereof, originally 1137
employed therein, shall automatically become employees of the 1138
appropriate town, city or borough's board of health. At the end of each 1139
fiscal year, each director of health shall submit a report to the 1140
Department of Public Health detailing the activities of such director 1141
during the preceding fiscal year. 1142
Sec. 25. Subdivision (3) of subsection (a) of section 19a-12a of the 1143
general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 1144
thereof (Effective July 1, 2021): 1145
(3) "Health care professionals" includes any person licensed or who 1146
holds a permit pursuant to chapter 370, 372, 373, 375, 375a, 376, 376a, 1147
376b, 376c, 377, 378, 379, 379a, 380, 381, 381a, 382a, 383, 383a, 383b, 383c, 1148
384, 384a, 384b, 384c, 384d, 385, 398 or 399; 1149
Sec. 26. Section 19a-12d of the general statutes is repealed and the 1150
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 2021): 1151
On or before the last day of January, April, July and October in each 1152 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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year, the Commissioner of Public Health shall certify the amount of 1153
revenue received as a result of any fee increase in the amount of five 1154
dollars (1) that took effect October 1, 2015, pursuant to sections 19a-88, 1155
19a-515, 20-65k, 20-74bb, 20-74h, 20-74s, 20-149, 20-162o, 20-162bb, 20-1156
191a, 20-195c, as amended by this act, 20-195o, 20-195cc, 20-201, 20-206b, 1157
20-206n, 20-206r, 20-206bb, 20-206ll, 20-222a, 20-275, 20-395d, 20-398 and 1158
20-412, and (2) that took effect October 1, 2021, pursuant to section 20-1159
185k, as amended by this act, and transfer such amount to the 1160
professional assistance program account established in section 19a-12c. 1161
Sec. 27. Subsection (a) of section 19a-12e of the general statutes is 1162
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1163
1, 2021): 1164
(a) As used in this section: 1165
(1) "Health care professional" means any individual licensed or who 1166
holds a permit pursuant to chapter 368v, 370, 372, 373, 375 to 378, 1167
inclusive, 379 to 381b, inclusive, 382a, 383 to 385, inclusive, 388 or 397a 1168
to 399, inclusive; 1169
(2) "Assistance program" means the program established pursuant to 1170
section 19a-12a, as amended by this act, to provide education, 1171
prevention, intervention, referral assistance, rehabilitation or support 1172
services to health care professionals who have a chemical dependency, 1173
emotional or behavioral disorder or physical or mental illness; and 1174
(3) "Hospital" has the same meaning as provided in section 19a-490. 1175
Sec. 28. Subsection (b) of section 20-185k of the general statutes is 1176
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from 1177
passage): 1178
(b) A license issued under this section may be renewed annually. The 1179
license shall be renewed in accordance with the provisions of section 1180
19a-88, for a fee of one hundred [seventy-five] eighty dollars for 1181
applications for renewal of licenses that expire on or after October 1, 1182 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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2021. Each behavior analyst applying for license renewal shall furnish 1183
evidence satisfactory to the commissioner of having current certification 1184
with the Behavior Analyst Certification Board. 1185
Sec. 29. Subsection (a) of section 17a-412 of the general statutes is 1186
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1187
1, 2021): 1188
(a) Any physician or surgeon licensed under the provisions of chapter 1189
370, any resident physician or intern in any hospital in this state, 1190
whether or not so licensed, [and] any registered nurse, licensed practical 1191
nurse, medical examiner, dentist, optometrist, chiropractor, podiatrist, 1192
social worker, clergyman, police officer, pharmacist, physical therapist, 1193
long-term care facility administrator, nurse's aide or orderly in a long-1194
term care facility, any person paid for caring for a patient in a long-term 1195
care facility, any staff person employed by a long-term care facility, 1196
[and] any person who is a sexual assault counselor or a domestic 1197
violence counselor as defined in section 52-146k, and any behavior 1198
analyst licensed under the provisions of chapter 382a, who has 1199
reasonable cause to suspect or believe that a resident in a long-term care 1200
facility has been abused, neglected, exploited or abandoned, or is in a 1201
condition that is the result of such abuse, neglect, exploitation or 1202
abandonment, shall, not later than seventy-two hours after such 1203
suspicion or belief arose, report such information or cause a report to be 1204
made in any reasonable manner to the Commissioner of Social Services 1205
pursuant to chapter 319dd. Any person required to report under the 1206
provision of this section who fails to make such report within the 1207
prescribed time period shall be fined not more than five hundred 1208
dollars, except that, if such person intentionally fails to make such report 1209
within the prescribed time period, such person shall be guilty of a class 1210
C misdemeanor for the first offense and a class A misdemeanor for any 1211
subsequent offense. 1212
Sec. 30. Subsection (a) of section 17b-451 of the general statutes is 1213
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1214
1, 2021): 1215 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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(a) A mandatory reporter [, as defined in this section,] who has 1216
reasonable cause to suspect or believe that any elderly person has been 1217
abused, neglected, exploited or abandoned, or is in a condition that is 1218
the result of such abuse, neglect, exploitation or abandonment, or is in 1219
need of protective services, shall, not later than seventy-two hours after 1220
such suspicion or belief arose, report such information or cause a report 1221
to be made in any reasonable manner to the Commissioner of Social 1222
Services or to the person or persons designated by the commissioner to 1223
receive such reports. [The term] As used in this section, "mandatory 1224
reporter" means (1) any physician or surgeon licensed under the 1225
provisions of chapter 370, (2) any resident physician or intern in any 1226
hospital in this state, whether or not so licensed, (3) any registered nurse, 1227
(4) any nursing home administrator, nurse's aide or orderly in a nursing 1228
home facility or residential care home, (5) any person paid for caring for 1229
a resident in a nursing home facility or residential care home, (6) any 1230
staff person employed by a nursing home facility or residential care 1231
home, (7) any residents' advocate, other than a representative of the 1232
Office of the Long-Term Care Ombudsman, as established under section 1233
17a-405, including the State Ombudsman, (8) any licensed practical 1234
nurse, medical examiner, dentist, optometrist, chiropractor, podiatrist, 1235
behavior analyst, social worker, clergyman, police officer, pharmacist, 1236
psychologist or physical therapist, (9) any person paid for caring for an 1237
elderly person by any institution, organization, agency or facility, 1238
including without limitation, any employee of a community-based 1239
services provider, senior center, home care agency, homemaker and 1240
companion agency, adult day care center, village-model community 1241
and congregate housing facility, and (10) any person licensed or 1242
certified as an emergency medical services provider pursuant to chapter 1243
368d or chapter 384d, including any such emergency medical services 1244
provider who is a member of a municipal fire department. Any 1245
mandatory reporter who fails to make such report within the prescribed 1246
time period shall be fined not more than five hundred dollars, except 1247
that, if such person intentionally fails to make such report within the 1248
prescribed time period, such person shall be guilty of a class C 1249
misdemeanor for the first offense and a class A misdemeanor for any 1250 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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subsequent offense. Any institution, organization, agency or facility 1251
employing individuals to care for persons sixty years of age or older 1252
shall provide mandatory training on detecting potential abuse, neglect, 1253
exploitation and abandonment of such persons and inform such 1254
employees of their obligations under this section. For purposes of this 1255
subsection, "person paid for caring for an elderly person by any 1256
institution, organization, agency or facility" includes an employee of a 1257
community-based services provider, senior center, home health care 1258
agency, homemaker and companion agency, adult day care center, 1259
village-model community and congregate housing facility. 1260
Sec. 31. Subsection (g) of section 17b-451 of the general statutes is 1261
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1262
1, 2021): 1263
(g) The Commissioner of Social Services shall develop an educational 1264
training program to promote and encourage the accurate and prompt 1265
identification and reporting of abuse, neglect, exploitation and 1266
abandonment of elderly persons. Such training program shall be made 1267
available on the Internet web site of the Department of Social Services 1268
to [mandated] mandatory reporters and other interested persons. The 1269
commissioner shall also make such training available in person or 1270
otherwise at various times and locations throughout the state as 1271
determined by the commissioner. 1272
Sec. 32. Section 19a-6o of the general statutes is repealed and the 1273
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 2021): 1274
(a) There is established, within available appropriations, within the 1275
Department of Public Health, a Palliative Care Advisory Council. The 1276
advisory council shall: (1) Analyze the current state of palliative care in 1277
the state; and (2) advise the department on matters relating to the 1278
improvement of palliative care and the quality of life for persons with 1279
serious or chronic illnesses. 1280
(b) The advisory council shall consist of the following members: 1281 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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(1) Two appointed by the Governor, one of whom shall be a physician 1282
certified by the American Board of Hospice and Palliative Medicine and 1283
one of whom shall be a registered nurse or advanced practice registered 1284
nurse certified by the National Board for Certification of Hospice and 1285
Palliative Nurses; 1286
(2) Seven appointed by the Commissioner of Public Health, each of 1287
whom shall be a licensed health care provider, with each appointee 1288
having experience or expertise in the provision of one of the following: 1289
(A) Inpatient palliative care in a hospital; (B) inpatient palliative care in 1290
a nursing home facility; (C) palliative care in the patient's home or a 1291
community setting; (D) pediatric palliative care; (E) palliative care for 1292
young adults; (F) palliative care for adults or elderly persons; and (G) 1293
inpatient palliative care in a psychiatric facility; 1294
(3) One appointed by the speaker of the House of Representatives, 1295
who shall be a licensed social worker experienced in working with 1296
persons with serious or chronic illness and their family members; 1297
(4) One appointed by the president pro tempore of the Senate, who 1298
shall be a licensed pharmacist experienced in working with persons 1299
with serious or chronic illness; 1300
(5) One appointed by the minority leader of the House of 1301
Representatives, who shall be a spiritual counselor experienced in 1302
working with persons with serious or chronic illness and their family 1303
members; and 1304
(6) One appointed by the minority leader of the Senate, who shall be 1305
a representative of the American Cancer Society or a person experienced 1306
in advocating for persons with serious or chronic illness and their family 1307
members. 1308
(c) All appointments to the advisory council shall be made not later 1309
than December 31, 2013. Advisory council members shall serve three-1310
year terms. Any vacancy shall be filled by the appointing authority. 1311 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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(d) Any appointment that is vacant for one year or more shall be 1312
made by the Commissioner of Public Health. The commissioner shall 1313
notify the appointing authority of the identity of the commissioner's 1314
choice for appointment not later than thirty days before making such 1315
appointment. 1316
[(d)] (e) Members shall receive no compensation except for 1317
reimbursement for necessary expenses incurred in performing their 1318
duties. 1319
[(e)] (f) The members shall elect the chairperson of the advisory 1320
council from among the members of the advisory council. A majority of 1321
the advisory council members shall constitute a quorum. Any action 1322
taken by the advisory council shall require a majority vote of those 1323
present. The first meeting of the advisory council shall be held not later 1324
than December 31, 2013. The advisory council shall meet biannually and 1325
at other times upon the call of the chairperson, upon the request of the 1326
Commissioner of Public Health or upon the request of a majority of the 1327
advisory council members. 1328
[(f)] (g) Not later than January 1, [2015] 2022, and [annually] 1329
biennially thereafter, the advisory council shall submit a report on its 1330
findings and recommendations to the Commissioner of Public Health 1331
and the joint standing committee of the General Assembly having 1332
cognizance of matters relating to public health, in accordance with the 1333
provisions of section 11-4a. 1334
Sec. 33. Section 19a-6q of the general statutes is repealed and the 1335
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage): 1336
[(a)] The Commissioner of Public Health, in consultation with the 1337
executive director of the Office of Health Strategy, established under 1338
section 19a-754a, and local and regional health departments, shall, 1339
within available resources, develop a plan that is consistent with the 1340
Department of Public Health's Healthy Connecticut 2020 health 1341
improvement plan and the state healthcare innovation plan developed 1342 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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pursuant to the State Innovation Model Initiative by the Centers for 1343
Medicare and Medicaid Services Innovation Center. The commissioner 1344
shall develop and implement such plan to: (1) Reduce the incidence of 1345
tobacco use, high blood pressure, health care associated infections, 1346
asthma, unintended pregnancy and diabetes; (2) improve chronic 1347
disease care coordination in the state; and (3) reduce the incidence and 1348
effects of chronic disease and improve outcomes for conditions 1349
associated with chronic disease in the state. The commissioner shall post 1350
such plan on the Department of Public Health's Internet web site. 1351
[(b) The commissioner shall, on or before January 15, 2015, and 1352
biennially thereafter, submit a report, in consultation with the executive 1353
director of the Office of Health Strategy, in accordance with the 1354
provisions of section 11-4a to the joint standing committee of the 1355
General Assembly having cognizance of matters relating to public 1356
health concerning chronic disease and implementation of the plan 1357
described in subsection (a) of this section. The commissioner shall post 1358
each report on the Department of Public Health's Internet web site not 1359
later than thirty days after submitting such report. Each report shall 1360
include, but need not be limited to: (1) A description of the chronic 1361
diseases that are most likely to cause a person's death or disability, the 1362
approximate number of persons affected by such chronic diseases and 1363
an assessment of the financial effects of each such disease on the state 1364
and on hospitals and health care facilities; (2) a description and 1365
assessment of programs and actions that have been implemented by the 1366
department and health care providers to improve chronic disease care 1367
coordination and prevent chronic disease; (3) the sources and amounts 1368
of funding received by the department to treat persons with multiple 1369
chronic diseases and to treat or reduce the most prevalent chronic 1370
diseases in the state; (4) a description of chronic disease care 1371
coordination between the department and health care providers, to 1372
prevent and treat chronic disease; and (5) recommendations concerning 1373
actions that health care providers and persons with chronic disease may 1374
take to reduce the incidence and effects of chronic disease.] 1375 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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Sec. 34. Subsection (b) of section 19a-493 of the general statutes is 1376
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 1377
2021): 1378
(b) (1) A nursing home license may be renewed biennially after (A) 1379
an unscheduled inspection conducted by the department, (B) 1380
submission of the information required by section 19a-491a, and (C) 1381
submission of evidence satisfactory to the department that the nursing 1382
home is in compliance with the provisions of this chapter, the [Public 1383
Health Code] regulations of Connecticut state agencies and licensing 1384
regulations. 1385
(2) Any change in the ownership of a facility or institution, as defined 1386
in section 19a-490, owned by an individual, partnership or association 1387
or the change in ownership or beneficial ownership of ten per cent or 1388
more of the stock of a corporation which owns, conducts, operates or 1389
maintains such facility or institution, shall be subject to prior approval 1390
of the department after a scheduled inspection of such facility or 1391
institution is conducted by the department, provided such approval 1392
shall be conditioned upon a showing by such facility or institution to the 1393
commissioner that it has complied with all requirements of this chapter, 1394
the regulations relating to licensure and all applicable requirements of 1395
the [Public Health Code] regulations of Connecticut state agencies. Any 1396
such change in ownership or beneficial ownership resulting in a transfer 1397
to a person related by blood or marriage to such an owner or beneficial 1398
owner shall not be subject to prior approval of the department unless: 1399
(A) Ownership or beneficial ownership of ten per cent or more of the 1400
stock of a corporation, limited liability company, partnership or 1401
association which owns, conducts, operates or maintains more than one 1402
facility or institution is transferred; (B) ownership or beneficial 1403
ownership is transferred in more than one facility or institution; or (C) 1404
the facility or institution is the subject of a pending complaint, 1405
investigation or licensure action. If the facility or institution is not in 1406
compliance, the commissioner may require the new owner to sign a 1407
consent order providing reasonable assurances that the violations shall 1408 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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be corrected within a specified period of time. Notice of any such 1409
proposed change of ownership shall be given to the department at least 1410
one hundred twenty days prior to the effective date of such proposed 1411
change. For the purposes of this subdivision, "a person related by blood 1412
or marriage" means a parent, spouse, child, brother, sister, aunt, uncle, 1413
niece or nephew. For the purposes of this subdivision, a change in the 1414
legal form of the ownership entity, including, but not limited to, changes 1415
from a corporation to a limited liability company, a partnership to a 1416
limited liability partnership, a sole proprietorship to a corporation and 1417
similar changes, shall not be considered a change of ownership if the 1418
beneficial ownership remains unchanged and the owner provides such 1419
information regarding the change to the department as may be required 1420
by the department in order to properly identify the current status of 1421
ownership and beneficial ownership of the facility or institution. For the 1422
purposes of this subdivision, a public offering of the stock of any 1423
corporation that owns, conducts, operates or maintains any such facility 1424
or institution shall not be considered a change in ownership or beneficial 1425
ownership of such facility or institution if the licensee and the officers 1426
and directors of such corporation remain unchanged, such public 1427
offering cannot result in an individual or entity owning ten per cent or 1428
more of the stock of such corporation, and the owner provides such 1429
information to the department as may be required by the department in 1430
order to properly identify the current status of ownership and beneficial 1431
ownership of the facility or institution. 1432
Sec. 35. (NEW) (Effective July 1, 2021) A health care facility licensed 1433
pursuant to chapter 368v of the general statutes shall have policies and 1434
procedures in place that reflect the National Centers for Disease Control 1435
and Prevention's recommendations for tuberculosis screening, testing, 1436
treatment and education for health care personnel. Notwithstanding 1437
any provision of the general statutes or any regulations adopted 1438
thereunder, any employee providing direct patient care in a facility 1439
licensed pursuant to chapter 368v of the general statutes shall receive 1440
tuberculosis screening and testing in compliance with the licensed 1441
health care facility's policies and procedures. 1442 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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Sec. 36. Subsection (c) of section 19a-343 of the general statutes is 1443
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1444
1, 2021): 1445
(c) Three or more arrests, the issuance of three or more arrest 1446
warrants indicating a pattern of criminal activity and not isolated 1447
incidents or the issuance of three or more citations for a violation of a 1448
municipal ordinance as described in subdivision (14) of this subsection, 1449
for the following offenses shall constitute the basis for bringing an action 1450
to abate a public nuisance: 1451
(1) Prostitution under section 53a-82, 53a-83, 53a-86, 53a-87, 53a-88 or 1452
53a-89. 1453
(2) Promoting an obscene performance or obscene material under 1454
section 53a-196 or 53a-196b, employing a minor in an obscene 1455
performance under section 53a-196a, importing child pornography 1456
under section 53a-196c, possessing child pornography in the first degree 1457
under section 53a-196d, possessing child pornography in the second 1458
degree under section 53a-196e or possessing child pornography in the 1459
third degree under section 53a-196f. 1460
(3) Transmission of gambling information under section 53-278b or 1461
53-278d or maintaining of a gambling premises under section 53-278e. 1462
(4) Offenses for the sale of controlled substances, possession of 1463
controlled substances with intent to sell, or maintaining a drug factory 1464
under section 21a-277, 21a-278 or 21a-278a or use of the property by 1465
persons possessing controlled substances under section 21a-279. 1466
Nothing in this section shall prevent the state from also proceeding 1467
against property under section 21a-259 or 54-36h. 1468
(5) Unauthorized sale of alcoholic liquor under section 30-74 or 1469
disposing of liquor without a permit under section 30-77, or sale or 1470
delivery of alcoholic liquor to any minor under subdivision (1) of 1471
subsection (b) of section 30-86 or the sale, delivery or giving of alcoholic 1472
liquor to a minor under subdivision (2) of subsection (b) of section 30-1473 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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86. 1474
(6) Maintaining a motor vehicle chop shop under section 14-149a. 1475
(7) Inciting injury to persons or property under section 53a-179a. 1476
(8) Murder or manslaughter under section 53a-54a, 53a-54b, 53a-55, 1477
53a-56 or 53a-56a. 1478
(9) Assault under section 53a-59, 53a-59a, subdivision (1) of 1479
subsection (a) of section 53a-60 or section 53a-60a or 53a-61. 1480
(10) Sexual assault under section 53a-70 or 53a-70a. 1481
(11) Fire safety violations under section 29-291a, 29-291c, 29-292, 1482
subsection (b) of section 29-310, or section 29-315, 29-349 or 29-357. 1483
(12) Firearm offenses under section 29-35, 53-202aa, 53-203, 53a-211, 1484
53a-212, 53a-216, 53a-217 or 53a-217c. 1485
(13) Illegal manufacture, sale, possession or dispensing of a drug 1486
under subdivision (2) of section 21a-108. 1487
(14) Violation of a municipal ordinance resulting in the issuance of a 1488
citation for (A) excessive noise on nonresidential real property that 1489
significantly impacts the surrounding area, provided the municipality's 1490
excessive noise ordinance is based on an objective standard, (B) owning 1491
or leasing a dwelling unit that provides residence to an excessive 1492
number of unrelated persons resulting in dangerous or unsanitary 1493
conditions that significantly impact the safety of the surrounding area, 1494
or (C) impermissible operation of (i) a business that permits persons 1495
who are not licensed pursuant to section 20-206b to engage in the 1496
practice of massage therapy, or (ii) a massage parlor, as defined by the 1497
applicable municipal ordinance, that significantly impacts the safety of 1498
the surrounding area. 1499
Sec. 37. Section 19a-131g of the general statutes is repealed and the 1500
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage): 1501 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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The Commissioner of Public Health shall establish a Public Health 1502
Preparedness Advisory Committee for purposes of advising the 1503
Department of Public Health on matters concerning emergency 1504
responses to a public health emergency. The advisory committee shall 1505
consist of the Commissioner of Public Health, or his or her designee, the 1506
Commissioner of Emergency Services and Public Protection, or his or 1507
her designee, the president pro tempore of the Senate, or his or her 1508
designee, the speaker of the House of Representatives, or his or her 1509
designee, the majority and minority leaders of both houses of the 1510
General Assembly, or their designees, and the chairpersons and ranking 1511
members of the joint standing committees of the General Assembly 1512
having cognizance of matters relating to public health, public safety and 1513
the judiciary, or their designees, and representatives of town, city, 1514
borough and district directors of health, as appointed by the 1515
commissioner, and any other organization or persons that the 1516
commissioner deems relevant to the issues of public health 1517
preparedness. Upon the request of the commissioner, the Public Health 1518
Preparedness Advisory Committee may meet to review the plan for 1519
emergency responses to a public health emergency and other matters as 1520
deemed necessary by the commissioner. 1521
Sec. 38. Subsection (d) of section 19a-30 of the general statutes is 1522
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 1523
2021): 1524
(d) A nonrefundable fee of two hundred dollars shall accompany 1525
each application for a license or for renewal thereof, except in the case 1526
of a clinical laboratory owned and operated by a municipality, the state, 1527
the United States, [or] any agency of said municipality, state or United 1528
States or any hospital. Each license shall be issued for a period of not 1529
less than twenty-four nor more than twenty-seven months from the 1530
deadline for applications established by the commissioner. Renewal 1531
applications shall be made (1) biennially within the twenty-fourth 1532
month of the current license; (2) before any change in ownership or 1533
change in director is made; and (3) prior to any major expansion or 1534 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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alteration in quarters. The licensed clinical laboratory shall report to the 1535
Department of Public Health, in a form and manner prescribed by the 1536
commissioner, the name and address of each blood collection facility 1537
owned and operated by the clinical laboratory, prior to the issuance of 1538
a new license, prior to the issuance of a renewal license or whenever a 1539
blood collection facility opens or closes. 1540
Sec. 39. Subsection (b) of section 20-365 of the general statutes is 1541
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 1542
2021): 1543
(b) Nothing in section 19a-200, as amended by this act, subsection (a) 1544
of section 19a-206, or sections 19a-207, 19a-242, 20-358 or 20-360 to 20-1545
365, inclusive, shall prevent any of the following persons from engaging 1546
in the performance of their duties: (1) Any person certified by the 1547
Department of Public Health as a food or sewage inspector in 1548
accordance with regulations adopted pursuant to section 19a-36, (2) any 1549
person employed by a local health department performing the duties of 1550
a lead inspector who complies with training standards established 1551
pursuant to section 20-479, (3) a director of health acting pursuant to 1552
[subsection (a) of] section 19a-200, as amended by this act, or section 1553
19a-244, as amended by this act, (4) any employee of a water utility or 1554
federal or state agency performing his duties in accordance with 1555
applicable statutes and regulations, (5) any person employed by a local 1556
health department working under the direct supervision of a licensed 1557
sanitarian, (6) any person licensed or certified by the Department of 1558
Public Health in a specific program performing certain duties that are 1559
included within the duties of a sanitarian, or (7) a student enrolled in an 1560
accredited academic program leading to a degree in environmental 1561
health or completing a special training course in environmental health 1562
approved by the commissioner, provided such student is clearly 1563
identified by a title which indicates his or her status as a student. 1564
Sec. 40. Subsection (b) of section 20-195u of the general statutes is 1565
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from 1566
passage): 1567 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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(b) Continuing education required pursuant to this section shall be 1568
related to the practice of social work and shall include not less than one 1569
contact hour of training or education each registration period on the 1570
topic of cultural competency and, on and after January 1, 2016, not less 1571
than two contact hours of training or education during the first renewal 1572
period in which continuing education is required and not less than once 1573
every six years thereafter on the topic of mental health conditions 1574
common to veterans and family members of veterans, including (1) 1575
determining whether a patient is a veteran or family member of a 1576
veteran, (2) screening for conditions such as post-traumatic stress 1577
disorder, risk of suicide, depression and grief, and (3) suicide prevention 1578
training. Such continuing education shall consist of courses, workshops 1579
and conferences offered or approved by the Association of Social Work 1580
Boards, the National Association of Social Workers or a school or 1581
department of social work accredited by the Council on Social Work 1582
Education. A licensee's ability to engage in on-line and home study 1583
continuing education shall be limited to not more than [six] ten hours 1584
per registration period. Within the registration period, an initial 1585
presentation by a licensee of an original paper, essay or formal lecture 1586
in social work to a recognized group of fellow professionals may 1587
account for five hours of continuing education hours of the aggregate 1588
continuing education requirements prescribed in this section. 1589
Sec. 41. Subsection (a) of section 20-265h of the general statutes is 1590
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from 1591
passage): 1592
(a) On and after July 1, 2021, each spa or salon that employs 1593
hairdressers and cosmeticians, estheticians, eyelash technicians, [or] nail 1594
technicians or massage therapists shall be under the management of a 1595
hairdresser and cosmetician registered under this chapter, an esthetician 1596
licensed under section 20-265b or 20-265f, an eyelash technician licensed 1597
under section 20-265c or 20-265f, [or] a nail technician licensed under 1598
section 20-265d or 20-265f or a massage therapist licensed under chapter 1599
384a. 1600 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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Sec. 42. Subsection (a) of section 19a-131j of the general statutes is 1601
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from 1602
passage): 1603
(a) The commissioner may issue an order to temporarily suspend, for 1604
a period not to exceed sixty consecutive days, the requirements for 1605
licensure, certification or registration, pursuant to chapters 368d, 370, 1606
376 to 376c, inclusive, 378, 378a, 379, 379a, 381a, 382a, 383 to 383c, 1607
inclusive, 383d, 383f, 383g, 384b, 384d, 385, 395, 399, 400a, 400j and 474, 1608
to allow persons who are appropriately licensed, certified or registered 1609
in another state or territory of the United States or the District of 1610
Columbia, to render temporary assistance within the scope of the 1611
profession for which a person is licensed, certified or registered, in 1612
managing a public health emergency in this state, declared by the 1613
Governor pursuant to section 19a-131a. Nothing in this section shall be 1614
construed to permit a person to provide services beyond the scope 1615
allowed in the chapter specified in this section that pertains to such 1616
person's profession. 1617
Sec. 43. Subsection (a) of section 19a-512 of the general statutes is 1618
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 1619
2021): 1620
(a) In order to be eligible for licensure by examination pursuant to 1621
sections 19a-511 to 19a-520, inclusive, a person shall submit an 1622
application, together with a fee of two hundred dollars, and proof 1623
satisfactory to the Department of Public Health that he or she (1) is 1624
physically and emotionally capable of administering a nursing home; 1625
(2) has satisfactorily completed a program of instruction and training, 1626
including residency training which meets the requirements of 1627
subsection (b) of this section and which is approved by the 1628
Commissioner of Public Health; and (3) has passed an examination 1629
prescribed [and administered] by the Department of Public Health 1630
designed to test the applicant's knowledge and competence in the 1631
subject matter referred to in subsection (b) of this section. Passing scores 1632
shall be established by the department. 1633 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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Sec. 44. Section 19a-490 of the general statutes is repealed and the 1634
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 2021): 1635
(a) "Institution" means a hospital, short-term hospital special hospice, 1636
hospice inpatient facility, residential care home, nursing home facility, 1637
home health care agency, hospice home health care agency, home health 1638
aide agency, behavioral health facility, assisted living services agency, 1639
[substance abuse treatment facility,] outpatient surgical facility, 1640
outpatient clinic, an infirmary operated by an educational institution for 1641
the care of students enrolled in, and faculty and employees of, such 1642
institution; a facility engaged in providing services for the prevention, 1643
diagnosis, treatment or care of human health conditions, including 1644
facilities operated and maintained by any state agency; and a residential 1645
facility for persons with intellectual disability licensed pursuant to 1646
section 17a-227 and certified to participate in the Title XIX Medicaid 1647
program as an intermediate care facility for individuals with intellectual 1648
disability. "Institution" does not include any facility for the care and 1649
treatment of persons with mental illness or substance use disorder 1650
operated or maintained by any state agency, except Whiting Forensic 1651
Hospital; 1652
(b) "Hospital" means an establishment for the lodging, care and 1653
treatment of persons suffering from disease or other abnormal physical 1654
or mental conditions and includes inpatient psychiatric services in 1655
general hospitals; 1656
(c) "Residential care home" or "rest home" means a community 1657
residence that furnishes, in single or multiple facilities, food and shelter 1658
to two or more persons unrelated to the proprietor and, in addition, 1659
provides services that meet a need beyond the basic provisions of food, 1660
shelter and laundry and may qualify as a setting that allows residents to 1661
receive home and community-based services funded by state and 1662
federal programs; 1663
(d) "Home health care agency" means a public or private 1664
organization, or a subdivision thereof, engaged in providing 1665 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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professional nursing services and the following services, available 1666
twenty-four hours per day, in the patient's home or a substantially 1667
equivalent environment: Home health aide services as defined in this 1668
section, physical therapy, speech therapy, occupational therapy or 1669
medical social services. The agency shall provide professional nursing 1670
services and at least one additional service directly and all others 1671
directly or through contract. An agency shall be available to enroll new 1672
patients seven days a week, twenty-four hours per day; 1673
(e) "Home health aide agency" means a public or private 1674
organization, except a home health care agency, which provides in the 1675
patient's home or a substantially equivalent environment supportive 1676
services which may include, but are not limited to, assistance with 1677
personal hygiene, dressing, feeding and incidental household tasks 1678
essential to achieving adequate household and family management. 1679
Such supportive services shall be provided under the supervision of a 1680
registered nurse and, if such nurse determines appropriate, shall be 1681
provided by a social worker, physical therapist, speech therapist or 1682
occupational therapist. Such supervision may be provided directly or 1683
through contract; 1684
(f) "Home health aide services" as defined in this section shall not 1685
include services provided to assist individuals with activities of daily 1686
living when such individuals have a disease or condition that is chronic 1687
and stable as determined by a physician licensed in the state; 1688
(g) "Behavioral health facility" means any facility that provides 1689
mental health services to persons eighteen years of age or older or 1690
substance use disorder services to persons of any age in an outpatient 1691
treatment or residential setting to ameliorate mental, emotional, 1692
behavioral or substance use disorder issues; 1693
(h) "Alcohol or drug treatment facility" means any facility for the care 1694
or treatment of persons suffering from alcoholism or other drug 1695
addiction; 1696 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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(i) "Person" means any individual, firm, partnership, corporation, 1697
limited liability company or association; 1698
(j) "Commissioner" means the Commissioner of Public Health or the 1699
commissioner's designee; 1700
(k) "Home health agency" means an agency licensed as a home health 1701
care agency or a home health aide agency; 1702
(l) "Assisted living services agency" means an agency that provides, 1703
among other things, nursing services and assistance with activities of 1704
daily living and that may provide memory care to a population that is 1705
chronic and stable; 1706
(m) "Outpatient clinic" means an organization operated by a 1707
municipality or a corporation, other than a hospital, that provides (1) 1708
ambulatory medical care, including preventive and health promotion 1709
services, (2) dental care, or (3) mental health services in conjunction with 1710
medical or dental care for the purpose of diagnosing or treating a health 1711
condition that does not require the patient's overnight care; 1712
(n) "Multicare institution" means a hospital that provides outpatient 1713
behavioral health services or other health care services, psychiatric 1714
outpatient clinic for adults, free-standing facility for the care or 1715
treatment of substance abusive or dependent persons, hospital for 1716
psychiatric disabilities, as defined in section 17a-495, or a general acute 1717
care hospital that provides outpatient behavioral health services that (1) 1718
is licensed in accordance with this chapter, (2) has more than one facility 1719
or one or more satellite units owned and operated by a single licensee, 1720
and (3) offers complex patient health care services at each facility or 1721
satellite unit. For purposes of this subsection, "satellite unit" means a 1722
location where a segregated unit of services is provided by the multicare 1723
institution; 1724
(o) "Nursing home" or "nursing home facility" means (1) any chronic 1725
and convalescent nursing home or any rest home with nursing 1726
supervision that provides nursing supervision under a medical director 1727 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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twenty-four hours per day, or (2) any chronic and convalescent nursing 1728
home that provides skilled nursing care under medical supervision and 1729
direction to carry out nonsurgical treatment and dietary procedures for 1730
chronic diseases, convalescent stages, acute diseases or injuries; [and] 1731
(p) "Outpatient dialysis unit" means (1) an out-of-hospital out-patient 1732
dialysis unit that is licensed by the department to provide (A) services 1733
on an out-patient basis to persons requiring dialysis on a short-term 1734
basis or for a chronic condition, or (B) training for home dialysis, or (2) 1735
an in-hospital dialysis unit that is a special unit of a licensed hospital 1736
designed, equipped and staffed to (A) offer dialysis therapy on an out-1737
patient basis, (B) provide training for home dialysis, and (C) perform 1738
renal transplantations; [.] and 1739
(q) "Hospice home health care agency" means a public or private 1740
organization that provides home care and hospice services to terminally 1741
ill patients. 1742
Sec. 45. Subsections (b) to (i), inclusive, of section 19a-491 of the 1743
general statutes are repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 1744
thereof (Effective July 1, 2021): 1745
(b) If any person acting individually or jointly with any other person 1746
owns real property or any improvements thereon, upon or within which 1747
an institution, as defined in subsections (c) and (o) of section 19a-490, is 1748
established, conducted, operated or maintained and is not the licensee 1749
of the institution, such person shall submit a copy of the lease agreement 1750
to the department at the time of any change of ownership and with each 1751
license renewal application. The lease agreement shall, at a minimum, 1752
identify the person or entity responsible for the maintenance and repair 1753
of all buildings and structures within which such an institution is 1754
established, conducted or operated. If a violation is found as a result of 1755
an inspection or investigation, the commissioner may require the owner 1756
to sign a consent order providing assurances that repairs or 1757
improvements necessary for compliance with the provisions of the 1758
[Public Health Code] regulations of Connecticut state agencies shall be 1759 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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completed within a specified period of time or may assess a civil penalty 1760
of not more than one thousand dollars for each day that such owner is 1761
in violation of the [Public Health Code] regulations of Connecticut state 1762
agencies or a consent order. A consent order may include a provision 1763
for the establishment of a temporary manager of such real property who 1764
has the authority to complete any repairs or improvements required by 1765
such order. Upon request of the Commissioner of Public Health, the 1766
Attorney General may petition the Superior Court for such equitable 1767
and injunctive relief as such court deems appropriate to ensure 1768
compliance with the provisions of a consent order. The provisions of 1769
this subsection shall not apply to any property or improvements owned 1770
by a person licensed in accordance with the provisions of subsection (a) 1771
of this section to establish, conduct, operate or maintain an institution 1772
on or within such property or improvements. 1773
(c) Notwithstanding any regulation, the Commissioner of Public 1774
Health shall charge the following fees for the biennial licensing and 1775
inspection of the following institutions: (1) Chronic and convalescent 1776
nursing homes, per site, four hundred forty dollars; (2) chronic and 1777
convalescent nursing homes, per bed, five dollars; (3) rest homes with 1778
nursing supervision, per site, four hundred forty dollars; (4) rest homes 1779
with nursing supervision, per bed, five dollars; (5) outpatient dialysis 1780
units and outpatient surgical facilities, six hundred twenty-five dollars; 1781
(6) mental health residential facilities, per site, three hundred seventy-1782
five dollars; (7) mental health residential facilities, per bed, five dollars; 1783
(8) hospitals, per site, nine hundred forty dollars; (9) hospitals, per bed, 1784
seven dollars and fifty cents; (10) nonstate agency educational 1785
institutions, per infirmary, one hundred fifty dollars; (11) nonstate 1786
agency educational institutions, per infirmary bed, twenty-five dollars; 1787
(12) home health care agencies, except certified home health care 1788
agencies described in subsection (d) of this section, per agency, three 1789
hundred dollars; (13) home health care agencies, hospice home health 1790
care agencies, or home health aide agencies, except certified home 1791
health care agencies, hospice home health care agencies or home health 1792
aide agencies described in subsection (d) of this section, per satellite 1793 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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patient service office, one hundred dollars; (14) assisted living services 1794
agencies, except such agencies participating in the congregate housing 1795
facility pilot program described in section 8-119n, per site, five hundred 1796
dollars; (15) short-term hospitals special hospice, per site, nine hundred 1797
forty dollars; (16) short-term hospitals special hospice, per bed, seven 1798
dollars and fifty cents; (17) hospice inpatient facility, per site, four 1799
hundred forty dollars; and (18) hospice inpatient facility, per bed, five 1800
dollars. 1801
(d) Notwithstanding any regulation, the commissioner shall charge 1802
the following fees for the triennial licensing and inspection of the 1803
following institutions: (1) Residential care homes, per site, five hundred 1804
sixty-five dollars; (2) residential care homes, per bed, four dollars and 1805
fifty cents; (3) home health care agencies that are certified as a provider 1806
of services by the United States Department of Health and Human 1807
Services under the Medicare or Medicaid program, three hundred 1808
dollars; and (4) certified home health care agencies or hospice home 1809
health care agencies, as described in section 19a-493, as amended by this 1810
act, per satellite patient service office, one hundred dollars. 1811
(e) The commissioner shall charge one thousand dollars for the 1812
licensing and inspection of outpatient clinics that provide either medical 1813
or mental health service, urgent care services and well-child clinical 1814
services, except those operated by a municipal health department, 1815
health district or licensed nonprofit nursing or community health 1816
agency. Such licensing and inspection shall be performed every three 1817
years, except those outpatient clinics that have obtained accreditation 1818
from a national accrediting organization within the immediately 1819
preceding twelve-month period may be inspected by the commissioner 1820
once every four years, provided the outpatient clinic has not committed 1821
any violation that the commissioner determines would pose an 1822
immediate threat to the health, safety or welfare of the patients of the 1823
outpatient clinic. The provisions of this subsection shall not be 1824
construed to limit the commissioner's authority to inspect any applicant 1825
for licensure or renewal of licensure as an outpatient clinic, suspend or 1826 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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revoke any license granted to an outpatient clinic pursuant to this 1827
section or take any other legal action against an outpatient clinic that is 1828
authorized by any provision of the general statutes. 1829
(f) Any institution that is planning a project for construction or 1830
building alteration shall provide the plan for such project to the 1831
Department of Public Health for review. Any such project shall comply 1832
with nationally established facility guidelines for health care 1833
construction, as approved by the commissioner, that are in place at the 1834
time the institution provides the plan to the department. The 1835
commissioner shall post a reference to such guidelines, including the 1836
effective date of such guidelines, on the Department of Public Health's 1837
Internet web site. No institution shall be required to include matters 1838
outside the scope and applicability of such guidelines in the institution's 1839
plan. 1840
(g) The commissioner shall charge a fee of five hundred sixty-five 1841
dollars for the technical assistance provided for the design, review and 1842
development of an institution's construction, renovation, building 1843
alteration, sale or change in ownership when the cost of the project is 1844
one million dollars or less and shall charge a fee of one-quarter of one 1845
per cent of the total construction cost when the cost of the project is more 1846
than one million dollars. Such fee shall include all department reviews 1847
and on-site inspections. For purposes of this subsection, "institution" 1848
does not include a facility owned by the state. 1849
(h) The commissioner may require as a condition of the licensure of a 1850
home health care [agencies] agency, hospice home health care agency 1851
and home health aide [agencies] agency that each agency meet 1852
minimum service quality standards. In the event the commissioner 1853
requires such agencies to meet minimum service quality standards as a 1854
condition of their licensure, the commissioner shall adopt regulations, 1855
in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54, to define such 1856
minimum service quality standards, which shall (1) allow for training of 1857
home health aides by adult continuing education, (2) require a 1858
registered nurse to visit and assess each patient receiving home health 1859 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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aide services as often as necessary based on the patient's condition, but 1860
not less than once every sixty days, and (3) require the assessment 1861
prescribed by subdivision (2) of this subsection to be completed while 1862
the home health aide is providing services in the patient's home. 1863
(i) No person acting individually or jointly with any other person 1864
shall establish, conduct, operate or maintain a home health care agency, 1865
hospice home health care agency or home health aide agency without 1866
maintaining professional liability insurance or other indemnity against 1867
liability for professional malpractice. The amount of insurance which 1868
such person shall maintain as insurance or indemnity against claims for 1869
injury or death for professional malpractice shall be not less than one 1870
million dollars for one person, per occurrence, with an aggregate of not 1871
less than three million dollars. 1872
Sec. 46. Subdivision (4) of subsection (a) of section 19a-491c of the 1873
general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 1874
thereof (Effective July 1, 2021): 1875
(4) "Long-term care facility" means any facility, agency or provider 1876
that is a nursing home, as defined in section 19a-521, a residential care 1877
home, as defined in section 19a-521, a home health care agency, hospice 1878
home health care agency or home health aide agency, as defined in 1879
section 19a-490, as amended by this act, an assisted living services 1880
agency, as defined in section 19a-490, as amended by this act, an 1881
intermediate care facility for individuals with intellectual disabilities, as 1882
defined in 42 USC 1396d(d), except any such facility operated by a 1883
Department of Developmental Services' program subject to background 1884
checks pursuant to section 17a-227a, a chronic disease hospital, as 1885
defined in section 19a-550, or an agency providing hospice care which 1886
is licensed to provide such care by the Department of Public Health or 1887
certified to provide such care pursuant to 42 USC 1395x. 1888
Sec. 47. Section 19a-492b of the general statutes is repealed and the 1889
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 2021): 1890 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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(a) A home health care agency or hospice home health care agency 1891
that receives payment for rendering care to persons receiving medical 1892
assistance from the state, assistance from the Connecticut home-care 1893
program for the elderly pursuant to section 17b-342, or funds obtained 1894
through Title XVIII of the Social Security Amendments of 1965 shall be 1895
prohibited from discriminating against such persons who apply for 1896
enrollment to such home health care agency on the basis of source of 1897
payment. 1898
(b) Any home health care agency or hospice home health care agency 1899
which violates the provisions of this section shall be subject to 1900
suspension or revocation of license. 1901
Sec. 48. Subsection (b) of section 19a-492c of the general statutes is 1902
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 1903
2021): 1904
(b) A home health care agency or hospice home health care agency 1905
licensed pursuant to this chapter that provides hospice services in a 1906
rural town and is unable to access licensed or Medicare-certified hospice 1907
care to consistently provide adequate services to patients in the rural 1908
town may apply to the Commissioner of Public Health for a waiver from 1909
the regulations licensing such agency adopted pursuant to this chapter. 1910
The waiver may authorize one or more of the following: (1) The agency's 1911
supervisor of clinical services may also serve as the supervisor of clinical 1912
services assigned to the hospice program; (2) the hospice volunteer 1913
coordinator and the hospice program director may be permanent part-1914
time employees; and (3) the program director may perform other 1915
services at the agency, including, but not limited to, hospice volunteer 1916
coordinator. The commissioner shall not grant a waiver unless the 1917
commissioner determines that such waiver will not adversely impact 1918
the health, safety and welfare of hospice patients and their families. The 1919
waiver shall be in effect for two years. An agency may reapply for such 1920
a waiver. 1921
Sec. 49. Section 19a-492d of the general statutes is repealed and the 1922 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 2021): 1923
On and after October 1, 2007, a nurse who is employed by an agency 1924
licensed by the Department of Public Health as a home health care 1925
agency, hospice home health care agency or [a] home health aide agency 1926
may administer influenza and pneumococcal vaccines to persons in 1927
their homes, after an assessment for contraindications, without a 1928
physician's order in accordance with a physician-approved agency 1929
policy that includes an anaphylaxis protocol. In the event of an adverse 1930
reaction to the vaccine, such nurse may also administer epinephrine or 1931
other anaphylaxis medication without a physician's order in accordance 1932
with the physician-approved agency policy. For purposes of this 1933
section, "nurse" means an advanced practice registered nurse, registered 1934
nurse or practical nurse licensed under chapter 378. 1935
Sec. 50. Section 19a-492e of the general statutes is repealed and the 1936
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 2021): 1937
(a) For purposes of this section "home health care agency" and 1938
"hospice home health care agency" [has] have the same [meaning] 1939
meanings as provided in section 19a-490, as amended by this act. 1940
Notwithstanding the provisions of chapter 378, a registered nurse may 1941
delegate the administration of medications that are not administered by 1942
injection to home health aides and hospice home health care aides who 1943
have obtained certification and recertification every three years 1944
thereafter for medication administration in accordance with regulations 1945
adopted pursuant to subsection (b) of this section, unless the prescribing 1946
practitioner specifies that a medication shall only be administered by a 1947
licensed nurse. Any home health aide or hospice home health care aide 1948
who obtained certification in the administration of medications on or 1949
before June 30, 2015, shall obtain recertification on or before July 1, 2018. 1950
(b) (1) The Commissioner of Public Health shall adopt regulations, in 1951
accordance with the provisions of chapter 54, to carry out the provisions 1952
of this section. Such regulations shall require each home health care 1953
agency or hospice home health care agency that serves clients requiring 1954 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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assistance with medication administration to (A) adopt practices that 1955
increase and encourage client choice, dignity and independence; (B) 1956
establish policies and procedures to ensure that a registered nurse may 1957
delegate allowed tasks of nursing care, to include medication 1958
administration, to home health aides or hospice home health care aides 1959
when the registered nurse determines that it is in the best interest of the 1960
client and the home health aide or hospice home health care aide has 1961
been deemed competent to perform the task; (C) designate home health 1962
aides and hospice home health care aides to obtain certification and 1963
recertification for the administration of medication; and (D) ensure that 1964
such home health aides receive such certification and recertification. 1965
(2) The regulations shall establish certification and recertification 1966
requirements for medication administration and the criteria to be used 1967
by home health care agencies and hospice home health care agencies 1968
that provide services for clients requiring assistance with medication 1969
administration in determining (A) which home health aides and hospice 1970
home health care aides shall obtain such certification and recertification, 1971
and (B) education and skill training requirements, including ongoing 1972
training requirements for such certification and recertification. 1973
(3) Education and skill training requirements for initial certification 1974
and recertification shall include, but not be limited to, initial orientation, 1975
training in client rights and identification of the types of medication that 1976
may be administered by unlicensed personnel, behavioral management, 1977
personal care, nutrition and food safety, and health and safety in 1978
general. 1979
(c) Each home health care agency and, on or before January 1, 2022, 1980
each hospice home health care agency shall ensure that, on or before 1981
January 1, 2013, delegation of nursing care tasks in the home care setting 1982
is allowed within such agency and that policies are adopted to employ 1983
home health aides or hospice home health care aides for the purposes of 1984
allowing nurses to delegate such tasks. 1985
(d) A registered nurse licensed pursuant to the provisions of chapter 1986 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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378 who delegates the task of medication administration to a home 1987
health aide or hospice home health care aide pursuant to this section 1988
shall not be subject to disciplinary action based on the performance of 1989
the home health aide or hospice home health care aide to whom tasks 1990
are delegated, unless the home health aide or hospice home health care 1991
aide is acting pursuant to specific instructions from the registered nurse 1992
or the registered nurse fails to leave instructions when the nurse should 1993
have done so, provided the registered nurse: (1) Documented in the 1994
patient's care plan that the medication administration could be properly 1995
and safely performed by the home health aide or hospice home health 1996
care aide to whom it is delegated, (2) provided initial direction to the 1997
home health aide or hospice home health care aide, and (3) provided 1998
ongoing supervision of the home health aide or hospice home health 1999
care aide, including the periodic assessment and evaluation of the 2000
patient's health and safety related to medication administration. 2001
(e) A registered nurse who delegates the provision of nursing care to 2002
another person pursuant to this section shall not be subject to an action 2003
for civil damages for the performance of the person to whom nursing 2004
care is delegated unless the person is acting pursuant to specific 2005
instructions from the nurse or the nurse fails to leave instructions when 2006
the nurse should have done so. 2007
(f) No person may coerce a registered nurse into compromising 2008
patient safety by requiring the nurse to delegate the administration of 2009
medication if the nurse's assessment of the patient documents a need for 2010
a nurse to administer medication and identifies why the need cannot be 2011
safely met through utilization of assistive technology or administration 2012
of medication by certified home health aides or hospice home health 2013
care aides. No registered nurse who has made a reasonable 2014
determination based on such assessment that delegation may 2015
compromise patient safety shall be subject to any employer reprisal or 2016
disciplinary action pursuant to chapter 378 for refusing to delegate or 2017
refusing to provide the required training for such delegation. The 2018
Department of Social Services, in consultation with the Department of 2019 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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Public Health, [and] home health care agencies and hospice home health 2020
care agencies, shall develop protocols for documentation pursuant to 2021
the requirements of this subsection. The Department of Social Services 2022
shall notify all licensed home health care agencies and hospice home 2023
health care agencies of such protocols prior to the implementation of 2024
this section. 2025
(g) The Commissioner of Public Health may implement policies and 2026
procedures necessary to administer the provisions of this section while 2027
in the process of adopting such policies and procedures as regulations, 2028
provided notice of intent to adopt regulations is published in the 2029
Connecticut Law Journal not later than twenty days after the date of 2030
implementation. Policies and procedures implemented pursuant to this 2031
section shall be valid until the time final regulations are adopted. 2032
Sec. 51. Section 19a-496a of the general statutes is repealed and the 2033
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 2021): 2034
(a) Notwithstanding any provision of the regulations of Connecticut 2035
state agencies, all home health care agency, hospice home health care 2036
agency and home health aide agency services shall be performed upon 2037
the order of a physician or physician assistant licensed pursuant to 2038
chapter 370 or an advanced practice registered nurse licensed pursuant 2039
to chapter 378. 2040
(b) All home health care agency services which are required by law 2041
to be performed upon the order of a licensed physician may be 2042
performed upon the order of a physician, physician assistant or 2043
advanced practice registered nurse licensed in a state which borders 2044
Connecticut. 2045
Sec. 52. Section 19a-504d of the general statutes is repealed and the 2046
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 2021): 2047
(a) If a hospital recommends home health care to a patient, the 2048
hospital discharge plan shall include two or more available options of 2049
home health care agencies or hospice home health care agencies. 2050 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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(b) A hospital which (1) has an ownership or investment interest in a 2051
home health care agency or hospice home health care agency, or (2) 2052
receives compensation or remuneration for referral of patients to a home 2053
health care agency or hospice home health care agency shall disclose 2054
such interest to any patient prior to including such agency as an option 2055
in a hospital discharge plan. Such information shall be verbally 2056
disclosed to each patient or shall be posted in a conspicuous place visible 2057
to patients. As used in this subsection, "ownership or investment 2058
interest" does not include ownership of investment securities purchased 2059
by the practitioner on terms available to the general public and which 2060
are publicly traded. 2061
Sec. 53. (NEW) (Effective July 1, 2021) (a) The Commissioner of Public 2062
Health may suspend the requirements for licensure to authorize a 2063
licensed chronic and convalescent nursing home to provide services to 2064
patients with a reportable disease, emergency illness or health 2065
condition, pursuant to section 19-91 of the general statutes, under their 2066
existing license if such licensed chronic and convalescent nursing home 2067
(1) provides services to such patients in a building that is not physically 2068
connected to its licensed facility, or (2) expands its bed capacity in a 2069
portion of a facility that is separate from the licensed facility. Such 2070
services may only be provided in order to render temporary assistance 2071
in managing a public health emergency in this state, declared by the 2072
Governor pursuant to section 19a-131a of the general statutes. 2073
(b) Each chronic and convalescent nursing home that intends to 2074
provide services pursuant to subsection (a) of this section shall submit 2075
an application to the Department of Public Health in a form and manner 2076
prescribed by the commissioner. Such application shall include, but 2077
need not be limited to: (1) Information regarding the facility's ability to 2078
sufficiently address the health, safety or welfare of such chronic and 2079
convalescent nursing home's residents and staff; (2) the address of such 2080
facility; (3) an attestation that all equipment located at such facility is 2081
maintained according to the manufacturers' specifications, and is 2082
capable of meeting the needs of such facility's residents; (4) information 2083 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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regarding such facility's maximum bed capacity; and (5) information 2084
indicating that such facility is in compliance with any provisions of the 2085
general statutes or regulations of Connecticut state agencies pertaining 2086
to the operation of such facility. 2087
(c) Upon receipt of an application pursuant to subsection (a) of this 2088
section, the Department of Public Health shall conduct a scheduled 2089
inspection and investigation of the applicant's facilities to ensure 2090
compliance with any provisions of the general statutes or regulations of 2091
Connecticut state agencies pertaining to the licensing of such facilities. 2092
After conducting such inspection and investigation, the department 2093
shall notify the applicant of the department's approval or denial of such 2094
application. 2095
Sec. 54. Section 19a-522f of the general statutes is repealed and the 2096
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 2021): 2097
(a) As used in this section: 2098
(1) "Administer" means to initiate the venipuncture and deliver an IV 2099
fluid or IV admixture into the blood stream through a vein, and to 2100
monitor and care for the venipuncture site, terminate the procedure and 2101
record pertinent events and observations; 2102
(2) "IV admixture" means an IV fluid to which one or more additional 2103
drug products have been added; 2104
(3) "IV fluid" means sterile solutions of fifty milliliters or more, 2105
intended for intravenous infusion, but does not include blood and blood 2106
products; 2107
(4) "IV therapy" means the introduction of an IV fluid or IV admixture 2108
into the blood stream through a vein for the purpose of correcting water 2109
deficit and electrolyte imbalances, providing nutrition, and delivering 2110
antibiotics and other therapeutic agents approved by a chronic and 2111
convalescent nursing home's or a rest home with nursing supervision's 2112
medical staff; 2113 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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(5) "IV therapy program" means the overall plan by which a chronic 2114
and convalescent nursing home or a rest home with nursing supervision 2115
implements, monitors and safeguards the administration of IV therapy 2116
to patients; and 2117
(6) "IV therapy nurse" means a registered nurse who is qualified by 2118
education and training and has demonstrated proficiency in the 2119
theoretical and clinical aspects of IV therapy to administer an IV fluid 2120
or IV admixture. 2121
(b) An IV therapy nurse or a physician assistant licensed pursuant to 2122
section 20-12b, who is employed by, or operating under a contract to 2123
provide services in, a chronic and convalescent nursing home or a rest 2124
home with nursing supervision that operates an IV therapy program 2125
may administer a peripherally inserted central catheter as part of such 2126
facility's IV therapy program. The Department of Public Health shall 2127
adopt regulations in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54 to 2128
carry out the purposes of this section. 2129
(c) A chronic and convalescent nursing home may permit a registered 2130
nurse licensed pursuant to chapter 378 and employed by such chronic 2131
and convalescent nursing home who has been properly trained by the 2132
director of nursing or by an intravenous infusion company to (1) draw 2133
blood from a central line for laboratory purposes, provided the facility 2134
has an agreement with a laboratory to process such specimens, or (2) 2135
administer a dose of medication by intravenous injection, provided such 2136
medication is on a list of medications approved by the Commissioner of 2137
Public Health for intravenous injection by a registered nurse. Such 2138
chronic and convalescent nursing home shall notify the Commissioner 2139
of Public Health of any such services being provided under subdivisions 2140
(1) and (2) of this subsection. The Commissioner of Public Health shall 2141
notify all chronic and convalescent nursing homes of the list of 2142
medications approved for intravenous injection by a registered nurse. 2143
The administrator of each chronic and convalescent nursing home shall 2144
ensure that each registered nurse who is permitted to perform the 2145
services described in subdivisions (1) and (2) of this subsection is 2146 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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appropriately trained and competent to perform such services. Each 2147
administrator shall provide documentation regarding the training and 2148
competency of such registered nurses to the department upon the 2149
department's request. 2150
Sec. 55. (NEW) (Effective July 1, 2021) (a) The Commissioner of Public 2151
Health shall license assisted living services agencies, as defined in 2152
section 19a-490 of the general statutes, as amended by this act. A 2153
managed residential community wishing to provide assisted living 2154
services shall become licensed as an assisted living services agency. 2155
(b) A managed residential care community that intends to arrange for 2156
assisted living services shall only do so with a currently licensed assisted 2157
living services agency. Such managed residential community shall 2158
submit an application to arrange for the assisted living services to the 2159
Department of Public Health in a form and manner prescribed by the 2160
commissioner. 2161
(c) No assisted living services agency shall provide memory care to 2162
residents with early to mid-stage cognitive impairment from 2163
Alzheimer's disease or other dementias unless they have obtained 2164
approval from the Department of Public Health. Such assisted living 2165
services agencies shall ensure that they have adequate staff to meet the 2166
needs of the residents. Each assisted living services agency that offers 2167
memory care services shall submit to the Department of Public Health a 2168
list of memory care units or locations and their staffing plans for any 2169
such units and locations when completing an initial or a renewal 2170
licensure application, or upon request from the department. 2171
(d) An assisted living services agency shall ensure that (1) all services 2172
being provided on an individual basis to clients are fully understood 2173
and agreed upon between either the client or the client's representative, 2174
and (2) the client or the client's representative are made aware of the cost 2175
of any such services. 2176
(e) The Department of Public Health may adopt regulations, in 2177 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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accordance with the provisions of chapter 54 of the general statutes, to 2178
carry out the purposes of this section. 2179
Sec. 56. Section 19a-521b of the general statutes is repealed and the 2180
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 2021): 2181
[In each] Each licensed chronic and convalescent nursing home, 2182
chronic disease hospital associated with a chronic and convalescent 2183
nursing home, rest home with nursing supervision and residential care 2184
home [, at least a three-foot clearance shall be provided at the sides and 2185
the foot of each bed.] shall position beds in a manner that promotes 2186
resident care. Such bed position shall (1) not act as a restraint to the 2187
resident, (2) ensure that the resident's call bell, overhead bed light and 2188
privacy curtain function and are readily useable by such resident, (3) not 2189
create a hazardous situation, including, but not limited to, an 2190
entrapment possibility, or obstacle to evacuation or being close to or 2191
blocking a heat source, (4) prevent the spread of pathogens, (5) allow for 2192
infection control, (6) ensure residence privacy, and (7) provide at least 2193
six-foot clearance at the sides and foot of each bed. 2194
Sec. 57. Section 19a-195 of the general statutes is repealed and the 2195
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2021): 2196
The commissioner shall adopt regulations in accordance with the 2197
provisions of chapter 54 to require all [emergency medical response 2198
services] ambulances to be staffed by at least one certified emergency 2199
medical technician, who shall be in the patient compartment attending 2200
the patient during all periods in which a patient is being transported, 2201
and one certified [medical response technician] emergency medical 2202
responder. 2203
Sec. 58. Section 20-206jj of the general statutes is repealed and the 2204
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage): 2205
As used in this section and sections 20-206kk to 20-206oo, inclusive: 2206
(1) "Advanced emergency medical technician" means an individual 2207 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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who is certified as an advanced emergency medical technician by the 2208
Department of Public Health; 2209
(2) "Commissioner" means the Commissioner of Public Health; 2210
(3) "Emergency medical services instructor" means a person who is 2211
certified under the provisions of section 20-206ll or 20-206mm, as 2212
amended by this act, by the Department of Public Health to teach 2213
courses, the completion of which is required in order to become an 2214
emergency medical technician; 2215
(4) "Emergency medical responder" means an individual who is 2216
certified to practice as an emergency medical responder under the 2217
provisions of section 20-206ll or 20-206mm, as amended by this act; 2218
(5) "Emergency medical services personnel" means an individual 2219
certified to practice as an emergency medical responder, emergency 2220
medical technician, advanced emergency medical technician, 2221
emergency medical services instructor or an individual licensed as a 2222
paramedic; 2223
(6) "Emergency medical technician" means a person who is certified 2224
to practice as an emergency medical technician under the provisions of 2225
section 20-206ll or 20-206mm, as amended by this act; 2226
(7) "National organization for emergency medical certification" 2227
means a national organization approved by the Department of Public 2228
Health and identified on the department's Internet web site, or such 2229
national organization's successor organization, that tests and provides 2230
certification to emergency medical responders, emergency medical 2231
technicians, advanced medical technicians and paramedics; 2232
(8) "Office of Emergency Medical Services" means the office 2233
established within the Department of Public Health pursuant to section 2234
19a-178; 2235
(9) "Paramedicine" means the carrying out of (A) all phases of 2236 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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cardiopulmonary resuscitation and defibrillation, (B) the administration 2237
of drugs and intravenous solutions under written or oral authorization 2238
from a licensed physician or a licensed advanced practice registered 2239
nurse, and (C) the administration of controlled substances, as defined in 2240
section 21a-240, in accordance with written protocols or standing orders 2241
of a licensed physician or a licensed advanced practice registered nurse; 2242
and 2243
(10) "Paramedic" means a person licensed to practice as a paramedic 2244
under the provisions of section 20-206ll. [; and] 2245
[(11) "Continuing education platform Internet web site" means an 2246
online database, approved by the Commissioner of Public Health, for 2247
emergency medical services personnel to enter, track and reconcile the 2248
hours and topics of continuing education completed by such personnel.] 2249
Sec. 59. Subsection (f) of section 20-206mm of the general statutes is 2250
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from 2251
passage): 2252
(f) A certified emergency medical responder, emergency medical 2253
technician, advanced emergency medical technician or emergency 2254
medical services instructor shall document the completion of his or her 2255
continuing educational requirements [through the continuing education 2256
platform Internet web site] in a form and manner prescribed by the 2257
commissioner. A certified emergency medical responder, emergency 2258
medical technician, advanced emergency medical technician or 2259
emergency medical services instructor who is not engaged in active 2260
professional practice in any form during a certification period shall be 2261
exempt from the continuing education requirements of this section, 2262
provided the emergency medical responder, emergency medical 2263
technician, advanced emergency medical technician or emergency 2264
medical services instructor submits to the department, prior to the 2265
expiration of the certification period, an application for inactive status 2266
on a form prescribed by the department and such other documentation 2267
as may be required by the department. The application for inactive 2268 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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status pursuant to this subsection shall contain a statement that the 2269
emergency medical responder, emergency medical technic ian, 2270
advanced emergency medical technician or emergency medical services 2271
instructor may not engage in professional practice until the continuing 2272
education requirements of this section have been met. 2273
Sec. 60. Subsection (b) of section 19a-178a of the general statutes is 2274
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from 2275
passage): 2276
(b) The advisory board shall consist of members appointed in 2277
accordance with the provisions of this subsection and shall include the 2278
Commissioner of Public Health, the department's emergency medical 2279
services medical director and the president of each of the regional 2280
emergency medical services councils, or their designees. The Governor 2281
shall appoint the following members: (1) One person from the 2282
Connecticut Association of Directors of Health; (2) three persons from 2283
the Connecticut College of Emergency Physicians; (3) one person from 2284
the Connecticut Committee on Trauma of the American College of 2285
Surgeons; (4) one person from the Connecticut Medical Advisory 2286
Committee; (5) one person from the Emergency Nurses Association; (6) 2287
one person from the Connecticut Association of Emergency Medical 2288
Services Instructors; (7) one person from the Connecticut Hospital 2289
Association; (8) two persons representing commercial ambulance 2290
services; (9) one person from the Connecticut State Firefighters 2291
Association; (10) one person from the Connecticut Fire Chiefs 2292
Association; (11) one person from the Connecticut Police Chiefs 2293
Association; (12) one person from the Connecticut State Police; and (13) 2294
one person from the Connecticut Commission on Fire Prevention and 2295
Control. An additional eighteen members shall be appointed as follows: 2296
(A) Three by the president pro tempore of the Senate; (B) three by the 2297
majority leader of the Senate; (C) four by the minority leader of the 2298
Senate; (D) three by the speaker of the House of Representatives; (E) two 2299
by the majority leader of the House of Representatives; and (F) three by 2300
the minority leader of the House of Representatives. The appointees 2301 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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shall include a person with experience in municipal ambulance services; 2302
a person with experience in for-profit ambulance services; three persons 2303
with experience in volunteer ambulance services; a paramedic; an 2304
emergency medical technician; an advanced emergency medical 2305
technician; three consumers and four persons from state-wide 2306
organizations with interests in emergency medical services as well as 2307
any other areas of expertise that may be deemed necessary for the 2308
proper functioning of the advisory board. Any appointment to the 2309
advisory board that is vacant for more than one year shall be filled by 2310
the Commissioner of Public Health. The commissioner shall notify the 2311
appointing authority of the identity of the commissioner's appointment 2312
not later than thirty days before making such appointment. 2313
Sec. 61. Subsection (a) of section 19a-36h of the general statutes is 2314
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from 2315
passage): 2316
(a) Not later than January 1, [2020] 2022, the commissioner shall adopt 2317
and administer by reference the United States Food and Drug 2318
Administration's Food Code, as amended from time to time, and any 2319
Food Code Supplement published by said administration as the state's 2320
food code for the purpose of regulating food establishments. 2321
Sec. 62. Subsection (a) of section 19a-36j of the general statutes is 2322
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from 2323
passage): 2324
(a) On and after January 1, [2019] 2022, no person shall engage in the 2325
practice of a food inspector unless such person has obtained a 2326
certification from the commissioner in accordance with the provisions 2327
of this section. The commissioner shall develop a training and 2328
verification program for food inspector certification that shall be 2329
administered by the food inspection training officer at a local health 2330
department. 2331
(1) Each person seeking certification as a food inspector shall submit 2332 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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an application to the department on a form prescribed by the 2333
commissioner and present to the department satisfactory evidence that 2334
such person (A) is sponsored by the director of health in the jurisdiction 2335
in which the applicant is employed to conduct food inspections, (B) 2336
possesses a bachelor's degree or three years of experience in a regulatory 2337
food protection program, (C) has successfully completed a training and 2338
verification program, (D) has successfully completed the field 2339
standardization inspection prescribed by the commissioner, and (E) is 2340
not involved in the ownership or management of a food establishment 2341
located in the applicant's jurisdiction. 2342
(2) Each director of health sponsoring an applicant for certification as 2343
a food inspector shall submit to the commissioner a form documenting 2344
the applicant's qualifications and successful completion of the 2345
requirements described in subdivision (1) of this subsection. 2346
(3) Certifications issued under this section shall be subject to renewal 2347
once every three years. A food inspector applying for renewal of his or 2348
her certification shall demonstrate successful completion of twenty 2349
contact hours in food protection training, as approved by the 2350
commissioner, and reassessment by the food inspection training officer. 2351
Sec. 63. Section 19a-36o of the general statutes is repealed and the 2352
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage): 2353
Notwithstanding any provision of the general statutes, from June 30, 2354
2017, until December 31, [2018] 2021, a food service establishment may 2355
request a variance from the Commissioner of Public Health from the 2356
requirements of the Public Health Code, established under section 19a-2357
36, to utilize the process of sous vide and acidification of sushi rice, as 2358
defined in section 3-502.11 of the United States Food and Drug 2359
Administration's Food Code, as amended from time to time. The 2360
Commissioner of Public Health shall review the request for a variance 2361
and provide the food establishment with notification regarding the 2362
status of its request not later than thirty days after the commissioner 2363
receives such request. The commissioner may grant such variance if he 2364 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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or she determines that such variance would not result in a health hazard 2365
or nuisance. 2366
Sec. 64. Subdivision (5) of section 19a-332 of the general statutes is 2367
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 2368
1, 2021): 2369
(5) "Asbestos-containing material" means material composed of 2370
asbestos of any type and in an amount equal to or greater than one per 2371
cent by weight, either alone or mixed with other fibrous or nonfibrous 2372
material; 2373
Sec. 65. Subdivision (4) of section 20-250 of the general statutes is 2374
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from 2375
passage): 2376
(4) "Hairdressing and cosmetology" means the art of dressing, 2377
arranging, curling, waving, weaving, cutting, singeing, bleaching and 2378
coloring the hair and treating the scalp of any person, and massaging, 2379
cleansing, stimulating, manipulating, exercising or beautifying with the 2380
use of the hands, appliances, cosmetic preparations, antiseptics, tonics, 2381
lotions, creams, powders, oils or clays and doing similar work on the 2382
face, neck and arms for compensation, removing hair from the face or 2383
neck using manual or mechanical means, excluding esthetics, as defined 2384
in section 20-265a or any of the actions listed in this subdivision 2385
performed on the nails of the hands or feet, provided nothing in this 2386
subdivision shall prohibit an unlicensed person from performing 2387
shampooing or braiding hair; 2388
Sec. 66. Subsection (b) of section 20-265b of the general statutes is 2389
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 2390
2021): 2391
(b) On and after January 1, 2020, each person seeking an initial license 2392
as an esthetician shall apply to the department on a form prescribed by 2393
the department, accompanied by an application fee of one hundred 2394
dollars and evidence that the applicant (1) has completed a course of not 2395 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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less than six hundred hours of study and received a certification of 2396
completion from a school approved under section 20-265g or section 20-2397
26 or in a school outside of the state whose requirements are equivalent 2398
to a school approved under section 20-265g, or (2) (A), if applying before 2399
January 1, 2022, has practiced esthetics continuously in this state for a 2400
period of not less than two years prior to July 1, 2020, and (B) is in 2401
compliance with the infection prevention and control plan guidelines 2402
prescribed by the department under section 19a-231 in the form of an 2403
attestation. 2404
Sec. 67. Subsection (f) of section 10-206 of the general statutes is 2405
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 2406
2021): 2407
(f) On and after October 1, 2017, each local or regional board of 2408
education shall report to the local health department and the 2409
Department of Public Health, on an triennial basis, the total number of 2410
pupils per school and per school district having a diagnosis of asthma 2411
(1) at the time of public school enrollment, (2) in grade six or seven, and 2412
(3) in grade nine or ten. [or eleven.] The report shall contain the asthma 2413
information collected as required under subsections (b) and (c) of this 2414
section and shall include pupil age, gender, race, ethnicity and school. 2415
Beginning on October 1, 2021, and every three years thereafter, the 2416
Department of Public Health shall review the asthma screening 2417
information reported pursuant to this section and shall submit a report 2418
to the joint standing committees of the General Assembly having 2419
cognizance of matters relating to public health and education 2420
concerning asthma trends and distributions among pupils enrolled in 2421
the public schools. The report shall be submitted in accordance with the 2422
provisions of section 11-4a and shall include, but not be limited to, (A) 2423
trends and findings based on pupil age, gender, race, ethnicity, school 2424
and the education reference group, as determined by the Department of 2425
Education for the town or regional school district in which such school 2426
is located, and (B) activities of the asthma screening monitoring system 2427
maintained under section 19a-62a. 2428 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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Sec. 68. Subsections (b) to (f), inclusive, of section 19a-215 of the 2429
general statutes are repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 2430
thereof (Effective from passage): 2431
(b) A health care provider shall report each case occurring in such 2432
provider's practice, of any disease on the commissioner's list of 2433
reportable diseases, emergency illnesses and health conditions to the 2434
director of health of the town, city or borough in which such case resides 2435
and to the Department of Public Health, no later than twelve hours after 2436
such provider's recognition of the disease. Such reports shall be [in 2437
writing, by telephone or] in an electronic format approved by the 2438
commissioner. Such reports of disease shall be confidential and not open 2439
to public inspection except as provided for in section 19a-25. 2440
(c) A clinical laboratory shall report each finding identified by such 2441
laboratory of any disease identified on the commissioner's list of 2442
reportable laboratory findings to the Department of Public Health not 2443
later than forty-eight hours after such laboratory's finding. A clinical 2444
laboratory [that reports an average of more than thirty findings per 2445
month] shall make such reports electronically in a format approved by 2446
the commissioner. [Any clinical laboratory that reports an average of 2447
less than thirty findings per month shall submit such reports, in writing, 2448
by telephone or in an electronic format approved by the commissioner.] 2449
All such reports shall be confidential and not open to public inspection 2450
except as provided for in section 19a-25. The Department of Public 2451
Health shall provide a copy of all such reports to the director of health 2452
of the town, city or borough in which the affected person resides or, in 2453
the absence of such information, the town where the specimen 2454
originated. 2455
(d) When a local director of health, the local director's authorized 2456
agent or the Department of Public Health receives a report of a disease 2457
or laboratory finding on the commissioner's lists of reportable diseases, 2458
emergency illnesses and health conditions and laboratory findings, the 2459
local director of health, the local director's authorized agent or the 2460
Department of Public Health may contact first the reporting health care 2461 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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provider and then the person with the reportable finding to obtain such 2462
information as may be necessary to lead to the effective control of 2463
further spread of such disease. In the case of reportable communicable 2464
diseases and laboratory findings, this information may include 2465
obtaining the identification of persons who may be the source or 2466
subsequent contacts of such infection. 2467
(e) All personal information obtained from disease prevention and 2468
control investigations as performed in subsections (c) and (d) of this 2469
section including the health care provider's name and the identity of the 2470
reported case of disease and suspected source persons and contacts shall 2471
not be divulged to anyone and shall be held strictly confidential 2472
pursuant to section 19a-25, by the local director of health and the 2473
director's authorized agent and by the Department of Public Health. 2474
(f) [Any person who violates any reporting or confidentiality 2475
provision of this section shall be fined not more than five hundred 2476
dollars.] The Commissioner of Public Health may impose a civil penalty 2477
not to exceed one thousand dollars on any person who violates any 2478
reporting provision of this section for each such violation. Each failure 2479
to report a case or finding of a disease as required by this section shall 2480
constitute a separate violation. 2481
(g) If the Commissioner of Public Health has reason to believe that a 2482
violation has occurred for which a civil penalty is authorized by 2483
subsection (f) of this section, he or she may send to such person by 2484
certified mail, return receipt requested, or personally serve upon such 2485
person, a notice which shall include: (1) A short and plain statement of 2486
the matters asserted or charged; (2) a statement of the maximum civil 2487
penalty which may be imposed for such violation; and (3) a statement 2488
of the party's right to request a hearing, which such request shall 2489
submitted in writing to the commissioner not later than ten days after 2490
the notice is mailed or served. 2491
(h) If such person so requests, the commissioner shall cause a hearing 2492
to be held, in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54. If such 2493 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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person fails to request a hearing or fails to appear at the hearing or if, 2494
after the hearing, the commissioner finds that the person has committed 2495
such violation, the commissioner may, in his or her discretion, order that 2496
a civil penalty be imposed that is not greater than the penalty stated in 2497
the notice. The commissioner shall send a copy of any order issued 2498
pursuant to this subsection by certified mail, return receipt requested, 2499
to the person named in such order. 2500
(i) No provision of this section shall be deemed to supersede section 2501
19a-584. 2502
Sec. 69. Section 19a-490w of the general statutes is repealed and the 2503
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2021): 2504
(a) Not later than October 1, 2017, and annually thereafter, any 2505
hospital that has been certified as a comprehensive stroke center, a 2506
primary stroke center, a thrombectomy-capable stroke center or an 2507
acute stroke-ready hospital by the American Heart Association, the Joint 2508
Commission or any other nationally recognized certifying organization 2509
shall submit an attestation of such certification to the Commissioner of 2510
Public Health, in a form and manner prescribed by the commissioner. 2511
Not later than October 15, 2017, and annually thereafter, the Department 2512
of Public Health shall post a list of certified stroke centers on its Internet 2513
web site. 2514
(b) The department may remove a hospital from the list posted 2515
pursuant to subsection (a) of this section if (1) the hospital requests such 2516
removal, (2) the department is informed by the American Heart 2517
Association, the Joint Commission or other nationally recognized 2518
certifying organization that a hospital's certification has expired or been 2519
suspended or revoked, or (3) the department does not receive attestation 2520
of certification from a hospital on or before October first. The 2521
department shall report to the nationally recognized certifying 2522
organization any complaint it receives related to the certification of a 2523
hospital as a comprehensive stroke center, a primary stroke center, a 2524
thrombectomy-capable stroke center or an acute stroke-ready hospital. 2525 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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The department shall provide the complainant with the name and 2526
contact information of the nationally recognized certifying organization 2527
if the complainant seeks to pursue a complaint with such organization. 2528
Sec. 70. (NEW) (Effective October 1, 2021) (a) The Department of Public 2529
Health shall maintain and operate a state-wide stroke registry. Said 2530
registry shall use the American Heart Association's Get With The 2531
Guidelines–Stroke program's data set platform and include information 2532
and data on stroke care in the state that align with the stroke consensus 2533
metrics developed and approved by the American Heart Association 2534
and American Stroke Association. 2535
(b) On and after January 1, 2022, each comprehensive stroke center, 2536
thrombectomy-capable stroke center, primary stroke center or acute 2537
stroke-ready hospital shall, on a quarterly basis, submit to the 2538
Department of Public Health data concerning stroke care that are 2539
necessary for including in the state-wide stroke registry, as determined 2540
by the Commissioner of Public Health, and that, at a minimum, align 2541
with the stroke consensus metrics developed and approved by the 2542
American Heart Association and American Stroke Association. 2543
(c) The Department of Public Health shall be provided access to 2544
records of any comprehensive stroke center, thrombectomy-capable 2545
stroke center, primary stroke center or acute stroke-ready hospital, as 2546
the department deems necessary, to perform case finding or other 2547
quality improvement audits to ensure completeness of reporting and 2548
data accuracy consistent with the purposes of this section. 2549
(d) The Department of Public Health may enter into a contract for the 2550
receipt, storage, holding or maintenance of the data or files under its 2551
control and management. 2552
(e) The Department of Public Health may enter into reciprocal 2553
reporting agreements with the appropriate agencies of other states to 2554
exchange stroke care data. 2555
(f) (1) Failure by a comprehensive stroke center, thrombectomy-2556 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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capable stroke center, primary stroke center or acute stroke-ready 2557
hospital to comply with the reporting requirements prescribed in this 2558
section may result in the department electing to perform the registry 2559
services for such comprehensive stroke center, thrombectomy-capable 2560
stroke center, primary stroke center or acute stroke-ready hospital. In 2561
such case, the comprehensive stroke center, thrombectomy-capable 2562
stroke center, primary stroke center or acute stroke-ready hospital shall 2563
reimburse the department for actual expenses incurred in performing 2564
such services. 2565
(2) Any comprehensive stroke center, thrombectomy-capable stroke 2566
center, primary stroke center or acute stroke-ready hospital that fails to 2567
comply with the provisions of this section shall be liable for a civil 2568
penalty not to exceed five hundred dollars for each failure to disclose a 2569
stroke care data, as determined by the commissioner. 2570
(3) The reimbursements, expenses and civil penalties set forth in this 2571
section shall be assessed only after the Department of Public Health has 2572
provided a comprehensive stroke center, thrombectomy-capable stroke 2573
center, primary stroke center or acute stroke-ready hospital with written 2574
notice of deficiency and such comprehensive stroke center, 2575
thrombectomy-capable stroke center, primary stroke center or acute 2576
stroke-ready hospital has been afforded not less than fourteen business 2577
days after the date of receiving such notice to provide a written response 2578
to the department. Such written response shall include any information 2579
requested by the department. 2580
(g) The Commissioner of Public Health may request that the Attorney 2581
General initiate an action to collect any civil penalties assessed pursuant 2582
to this section and obtain such orders as necessary to enforce any 2583
provision of this section. 2584
(h) Not later than January 1, 2022, the Department of Public Health, 2585
in consultation with the State of Connecticut Stroke Advisory Council, 2586
shall establish a stroke registry data oversight committee. Such 2587
committee shall monitor the operations of the state-wide stroke registry, 2588 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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provide advice regarding the oversight of such registry, develop a plan 2589
to improve quality of stroke care and address disparities in the 2590
provision of such care and develop short and long-term goals for 2591
improvement of stroke care in comprehensive stroke centers, 2592
thrombectomy-capable stroke centers, primary stroke centers and acute 2593
stroke-ready hospitals. 2594
(i) The Commissioner of Public Health may adopt regulations, in 2595
accordance with the provisions of chapter 54 of the general statutes, to 2596
implement the provisions of this section. 2597
Sec. 71. Subsection (k) of section 19a-180 of the general statutes is 2598
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from 2599
passage): 2600
(k) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this section, 2601
any [volunteer, hospital-based or municipal ambulance service] 2602
emergency medical services organization that is licensed or certified and 2603
a primary service area responder may apply to the commissioner, on a 2604
short form application prescribed by the commissioner, to change the 2605
address of a principal or branch location or to add a branch location 2606
within its primary service area. Upon making such application, the 2607
applicant shall notify in writing all other primary service area 2608
responders in any municipality or abutting municipality in which the 2609
applicant proposes to change principal or branch locations. Unless a 2610
primary service area responder entitled to receive notification of such 2611
application objects, in writing, to the commissioner and requests a 2612
hearing on such application not later than fifteen calendar days after 2613
receiving such notice, the application shall be deemed approved thirty 2614
calendar days after filing. If any such primary service area responder 2615
files an objection with the commissioner within the fifteen-calendar-day 2616
time period and requests a hearing, the applicant shall be required to 2617
demonstrate need to change the address of a principal or branch 2618
location within its primary service area at a public hearing as required 2619
under subsection (a) of this section. 2620 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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Sec. 72. Section 7-36 of the general statutes is repealed and the 2621
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 2021): 2622
As used in this chapter and sections 19a-40 to 19a-45, inclusive, unless 2623
the context otherwise requires: 2624
(1) "Registrar of vital statistics" or "registrar" means the registrar of 2625
births, marriages, deaths and fetal deaths or any public official charged 2626
with the care of returns relating to vital statistics; 2627
(2) "Registration" means the process by which vital records are 2628
completed, filed and incorporated into the official records of the 2629
department; 2630
(3) "Institution" means any public or private facility that provides 2631
inpatient medical, surgical or diagnostic care or treatment, or nursing, 2632
custodial or domiciliary care, or to which persons are committed by law; 2633
(4) "Vital records" means a certificate of birth, death, fetal death or 2634
marriage; 2635
(5) "Certified copy" means a copy of a birth, death, fetal death or 2636
marriage certificate that (A) includes all information on the certificate 2637
except such information that is nondisclosable by law, (B) is issued or 2638
transmitted by any registrar of vital statistics, (C) includes an attested 2639
signature and the raised seal of an authorized person, and (D) if 2640
submitted to the department, includes all information required by the 2641
commissioner; 2642
(6) "Uncertified copy" means a copy of a birth, death, fetal death or 2643
marriage certificate that includes all information contained in a certified 2644
copy except an original attested signature and a raised seal of an 2645
authorized person; 2646
(7) "Authenticate" or "authenticated" means to affix to a vital record 2647
in paper format the official seal, or to affix to a vital record in electronic 2648
format the user identification, password, or other means of electronic 2649 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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identification, as approved by the department, of the creator of the vital 2650
record, or the creator's designee, by which affixing the creator of such 2651
paper or electronic vital record, or the creator's designee, affirms the 2652
integrity of such vital record; 2653
(8) "Attest" means to verify a vital record in accordance with the 2654
provisions of subdivision (5) of this section; 2655
(9) "Correction" means to change or enter new information on a 2656
certificate of birth, marriage, death or fetal death, within one year of the 2657
date of the vital event recorded in such certificate, in order to accurately 2658
reflect the facts existing at the time of the recording of such vital event, 2659
where such changes or entries are to correct errors on such certificate 2660
due to inaccurate or incomplete information provided by the informant 2661
at the time the certificate was prepared, or to correct transcribing, 2662
typographical or clerical errors; 2663
(10) "Amendment" means to (A) change or enter new information on 2664
a certificate of birth, marriage, death or fetal death, more than one year 2665
after the date of the vital event recorded in such certificate, in order to 2666
accurately reflect the facts existing at the time of the recording of the 2667
event, (B) create a replacement certificate of birth for matters pertaining 2668
to parentage and gender change, or (C) reflect a legal name change in 2669
accordance with section 19a-42 or make a modification to a cause of 2670
death; 2671
(11) "Acknowledgment of paternity" means to legally acknowledge 2672
paternity of a child pursuant to section 46b-172; 2673
(12) "Adjudication of paternity" means to legally establish paternity 2674
through an order of a court of competent jurisdiction; 2675
(13) "Parentage" includes matters relating to adoption, gestational 2676
agreements, paternity and maternity; 2677
(14) "Department" means the Department of Public Health; 2678 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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(15) "Commissioner" means the Commissioner of Public Health or the 2679
commissioner's designee; 2680
(16) "Gestational agreement" means a written agreement for assisted 2681
reproduction in which a woman agrees to carry a child to birth for an 2682
intended parent or intended parents, which woman contributed no 2683
genetic material to the child and which agreement (A) names each party 2684
to the agreement and indicates each party's respective obligations under 2685
the agreement, (B) is signed by each party to the agreement and the 2686
spouse of each such party, if any, and (C) is witnessed by at least two 2687
disinterested adults and acknowledged in the manner prescribed by 2688
law; 2689
(17) "Intended parent" means a party to a gestational agreement who 2690
agrees, under the gestational agreement, to be the parent of a child born 2691
to a woman by means of assisted reproduction, regardless of whether 2692
the party has a genetic relationship to the child; 2693
(18) "Foundling" means (A) a child of unknown parentage, or (B) an 2694
infant voluntarily surrendered pursuant to the provisions of section 17a-2695
58; [and] 2696
(19) "Certified homeless youth" means a person who is at least fifteen 2697
years of age but less than eighteen years of age, is not in the physical 2698
custody of a parent or legal guardian, who is a homeless child or youth, 2699
as defined in 42 USC 11434a, as amended from time to time, and who 2700
has been certified as homeless by (A) a school district homeless liaison, 2701
(B) the director of an emergency shelter program funded by the United 2702
States Department of Housing and Urban Devel opment, or the 2703
director's designee, [or] (C) the director of a runaway or homeless youth 2704
basic center or transitional living program funded by the United States 2705
Department of Health and Human Services, or the director's designee, 2706
or (D) the director of a program of a nonprofit organization or 2707
municipality that is contracted with the homeless youth program 2708
established pursuant to section 17a-62a; and 2709 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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(20) "Certified homeless young adult" means a person who is at least 2710
eighteen years of age but less than twenty-five years of age who has 2711
been certified as homeless by (A) a school district homeless liaison, (B) 2712
the director of an emergency shelter program funded by the United 2713
States Department of Housing and Urban Development, or the 2714
director's designee, (C) the director of a runaway or homeless youth 2715
basic center or transitional living program funded by the United States 2716
Department of Health and Human Services, or the director's designee, 2717
or (D) the director of a program of a nonprofit organization or 2718
municipality that is contracted with the homeless youth program 2719
established pursuant to section 17a-62a. 2720
Sec. 73. Subsection (c) of section 7-51 of the general statutes is 2721
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 2722
2021): 2723
(c) (1) The registrar of the town in which the birth or fetal death 2724
occurred or of the town in which the mother resided at the time of the 2725
birth or fetal death, or the department, may issue a certified copy of the 2726
certificate of birth or fetal death of any person born in this state that is 2727
kept in paper form in the custody of the registrar. Except as provided in 2728
subdivision (2) of this subsection, such certificate shall be issued upon 2729
the written request of an eligible party listed in subsection (a) of this 2730
section. Any registrar of vital statistics in this state with access, as 2731
authorized by the department, to the electronic vital records system of 2732
the department may issue a certified copy of the electronically filed 2733
certificate of birth or fetal death of any person born in this state upon 2734
the written request of an eligible party listed in subsection (a) of this 2735
section. The registrar and the department may waive the fee for the 2736
issuance of a certified copy of the certificate of birth of a certified 2737
homeless young adult to such young adult under this subsection. 2738
(2) In the case of a certified homeless youth, such certified homeless 2739
youth and the person who is certifying the certified homeless youth as 2740
homeless, as described in section 7-36, as amended by this act, shall 2741
appear in person when the certified homeless youth is presenting the 2742 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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written request described in subdivision (1) of this subsection at (A) the 2743
office of the registrar of the town in which the certified homeless youth 2744
was born, (B) the office of the registrar of the town in which the mother 2745
of the certified homeless youth resided at the time of the birth, (C) if the 2746
birth certificate of the certified homeless youth has been electronically 2747
filed, any registrar of vital statistics in the state with access, as 2748
authorized by the department, to the electronic vital records system, or 2749
(D) the state vital records office of the department. The certified 2750
homeless youth shall present to the registrar or the department 2751
information sufficient to identify himself or herself as may be required 2752
by regulations adopted by the commissioner pursuant to section 7-41. 2753
The person who is certifying the certified homeless youth as homeless 2754
shall present to the registrar or the department information sufficient to 2755
identify himself or herself as meeting the certification requirements of 2756
section 7-36, as amended by this act. The registrar and the department 2757
may waive the fee for the issuance of a certified copy of the certificate of 2758
birth of a homeless youth to such youth under this subsection. 2759
Sec. 74. Subsection (a) of section 1-1h of the general statutes is 2760
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 2761
2021): 2762
(a) Any person who does not possess a valid motor vehicle operator's 2763
license may apply to the Department of Motor Vehicles for an identity 2764
card. The application for an identity card shall be accompanied by the 2765
birth certificate of the applicant or a certificate of identification of the 2766
applicant issued and authorized for such use by the Department of 2767
Correction and a fee of twenty-eight dollars. Such application shall 2768
include: (1) The applicant's name; (2) the applicant's address; (3) 2769
whether the address is permanent or temporary; (4) the applicant's date 2770
of birth; (5) notice to the applicant that false statements on such 2771
application are punishable under section 53a-157b; and (6) such other 2772
pertinent information as the Commissioner of Motor Vehicles deems 2773
necessary. The applicant shall sign the application in the presence of an 2774
official of the Department of Motor Vehicles. The commissioner may 2775 Substitute Bill No. 6666
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waive the fee for any applicant (A) who has voluntarily surrendered 2776
such applicant's motor vehicle operator's license, (B) whose license has 2777
been refused by the commissioner pursuant to subdivision (4) of 2778
subsection (e) of section 14-36, (C) who is both a veteran, as defined in 2779
subsection (a) of section 27-103, and blind, as defined in subsection (a) 2780
of section 1-1f, or (D) who is a resident of a homeless shelter or other 2781
facility for homeless persons or a certified homeless youth or certified 2782
homeless young adult. The commissioner shall adopt regulations, in 2783
accordance with the provisions of chapter 54, to establish the procedure 2784
and qualifications for the issuance of an identity card to any such 2785
homeless applicant. For the purposes of this subsection, "certified 2786
homeless youth" and "certified homeless young adult" have the same 2787
meanings as provided in section 7-36, as amended by this act. 2788
Sec. 75. Section 20-226 of the general statutes is repealed. (Effective 2789
from passage) 2790
This act shall take effect as follows and shall amend the following
sections:
Section 1 October 1, 2021 PA 19-117, Sec. 73
Sec. 2 October 1, 2021 25-33(b)
Sec. 3 October 1, 2021 8-3i
Sec. 4 October 1, 2021 22a-42f
Sec. 5 October 1, 2021 19a-111
Sec. 6 October 1, 2021 19a-37
Sec. 7 October 1, 2021 19a-524
Sec. 8 July 1, 2021 19a-491c(c)(2)
Sec. 9 October 1, 2021 19a-177
Sec. 10 July 1, 2021 New section
Sec. 11 October 1, 2021 20-207
Sec. 12 October 1, 2021 20-212
Sec. 13 October 1, 2021 20-213(a) and (b)
Sec. 14 October 1, 2021 20-215
Sec. 15 October 1, 2021 20-217(a)
Sec. 16 October 1, 2021 20-224
Sec. 17 October 1, 2021 20-195dd
Sec. 18 October 1, 2021 20-195c(a) Substitute Bill No. 6666
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Sec. 19 October 1, 2021 19a-14(a)(12)
Sec. 20 October 1, 2021 20-204a(a) to (c)
Sec. 21 January 1, 2022 7-62b(b) and (c)
Sec. 22 July 1, 2021 19a-200
Sec. 23 July 1, 2021 19a-202a
Sec. 24 July 1, 2021 19a-244
Sec. 25 July 1, 2021 19a-12a(a)(3)
Sec. 26 July 1, 2021 19a-12d
Sec. 27 October 1, 2021 19a-12e(a)
Sec. 28 from passage 20-185k(b)
Sec. 29 October 1, 2021 17a-412(a)
Sec. 30 October 1, 2021 17b-451(a)
Sec. 31 October 1, 2021 17b-451(g)
Sec. 32 July 1, 2021 19a-6o
Sec. 33 from passage 19a-6q
Sec. 34 July 1, 2021 19a-493(b)
Sec. 35 July 1, 2021 New section
Sec. 36 October 1, 2021 19a-343(c)
Sec. 37 from passage 19a-131g
Sec. 38 July 1, 2021 19a-30(d)
Sec. 39 July 1, 2021 20-365(b)
Sec. 40 from passage 20-195u(b)
Sec. 41 from passage 20-265h(a)
Sec. 42 from passage 19a-131j(a)
Sec. 43 July 1, 2021 19a-512(a)
Sec. 44 July 1, 2021 19a-490
Sec. 45 July 1, 2021 19a-491(b) to (i)
Sec. 46 July 1, 2021 19a-491c(a)(4)
Sec. 47 July 1, 2021 19a-492b
Sec. 48 July 1, 2021 19a-492c(b)
Sec. 49 July 1, 2021 19a-492d
Sec. 50 July 1, 2021 19a-492e
Sec. 51 July 1, 2021 19a-496a
Sec. 52 July 1, 2021 19a-504d
Sec. 53 July 1, 2021 New section
Sec. 54 July 1, 2021 19a-522f
Sec. 55 July 1, 2021 New section
Sec. 56 July 1, 2021 19a-521b
Sec. 57 October 1, 2021 19a-195
Sec. 58 from passage 20-206jj Substitute Bill No. 6666
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Sec. 59 from passage 20-206mm(f)
Sec. 60 from passage 19a-178a(b)
Sec. 61 from passage 19a-36h(a)
Sec. 62 from passage 19a-36j(a)
Sec. 63 from passage 19a-36o
Sec. 64 October 1, 2021 19a-332(5)
Sec. 65 from passage 20-250(4)
Sec. 66 July 1, 2021 20-265b(b)
Sec. 67 July 1, 2021 10-206(f)
Sec. 68 from passage 19a-215(b) to (f)
Sec. 69 October 1, 2021 19a-490w
Sec. 70 October 1, 2021 New section
Sec. 71 from passage 19a-180(k)
Sec. 72 July 1, 2021 7-36
Sec. 73 July 1, 2021 7-51(c)
Sec. 74 July 1, 2021 1-1h(a)
Sec. 75 from passage Repealer section
Statement of Legislative Commissioners:
Section 3(b), was redrafted for consistency with the standard drafting
conventions; Section 4 was redrafted for consistency with standard
drafting conventions; in Section 9, subdivision (13) was deleted and
added as a new Section 10 for clarity; in Section 24 "the written
agreement shall be submitted" was changed to "The board shall submit
such written agreement" for clarity and consistency with standard
drafting conventions; in Section 30 "The term" was bracketed and "As
used in this section," was inserted immediately thereafter for
consistency with the standard drafting conventions; Section 31 was
added and "mandated" was bracketed and "mandatory" was inserted
immediately thereafter for statutory consistency; in Section 43 "or she"
was inserted after "he" for consistency with the standard drafting
conventions; in Section 50(c), "on or before January 1, 2022, each" was
added for clarity; in Section 54(c), "under subdivisions (1) and (2) of this
subsection" was added for clarity; in Section 55(b), "Such application
shall be submitted" was deleted for clarity and to eliminate redundant
language; in Section 55(c), "for any such units or locations" was added
for clarity; in Section 55(d), Subdiv. (1) was moved before "all" for
clarity; in Section 56, "creating" was deleted for clarity; in Section 60(b),
"to the advisory board" was added after "Any appointment" for clarity; Substitute Bill No. 6666
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and in Section 64, the brackets around "one" were removed and "1.0"
was deleted for consistency with standard drafting conventions.
PH Joint Favorable Subst. -LCO