Connecticut 2022 2022 Regular Session

Connecticut House Bill HB05329 Comm Sub / Bill

Filed 03/30/2022

                     
 
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General Assembly  Substitute Bill No. 5329  
February Session, 2022 
 
 
 
 
 
AN ACT CONCERNING CANNABIS.  
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives in General 
Assembly convened: 
 
Section 1. Section 21a-420 of the 2022 supplement to the general 1 
statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof 2 
(Effective July 1, 2022): 3 
As used in RERACA, unless the context otherwise requires: 4 
(1) "Responsible and Equitable Regulation of Adult-Use Cannabis 5 
Act" or "RERACA" means this section, sections 2-56j, 7-294kk, 7-294ll, 6 
12-330ll to 12-330nn, inclusive, 14-227p, 21a-278b, 21a-278c, 21a-279c, 7 
21a-279d, 21a-420a to 21a-420i, inclusive, 21a-420l to 21a-421r, inclusive, 8 
21a-421aa to 21a-421ff, inclusive, 21a-421aaa to 21a-421ggg, inclusive, 9 
21a-422 to 21a-422c, inclusive, 21a-422e to 21a-422g, inclusive, 21a-422j 10 
to 21a-422s, inclusive, 22-61n, 23-4b, 47a-9a, 53-247a, 53a-213a, 53a-213b, 11 
54-33p, 54-56q, 54-56r, 54-125k and 54-142u, sections 23, 60, 63 to 65, 12 
inclusive, 124, 144 and 165 of public act 21-1 of the June special session 13 
and the amendments in public act 21-1 of the June special session to 14 
sections 7-148, 10-221, 12-30a, 12-35b, 12-412, 12-650, 12-704d, 14-44k, 14-15 
111e, 14-227a to 14-227c, inclusive, 14-227j, 15-140q, 15-140r, 18-100h, 16 
19a-342, 19a-342a, 21a-267, 21a-277, 21a-279, 21a-279a, 21a-408 to 21a-17 
408f, inclusive, 21a-408h to 21a-408p, inclusive, 21a-408r to 21a-408v, 18  Substitute Bill No. 5329 
 
 
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inclusive, 30-89a, 31-40q, 32-39, 46b-120, 51-164n, as amended by this 19 
act, 53-394, 53a-39c, 54-1m, 54-33g, 54-41b, 54-56e, 54-56g, 54-56i, 54-56k, 20 
54-56n, 54-63d, 54-66a, [and] 54-142e, section 2 of this act and section 5 21 
of this act; 22 
(2) "Backer" means any individual with a direct or indirect financial 23 
interest in a cannabis establishment. "Backer" does not include an 24 
individual with an investment interest in a cannabis establishment if (A) 25 
the interest held by such individual and such individual's spouse, 26 
parent or child, in the aggregate, does not exceed five per cent of the 27 
total ownership or interest rights in such cannabis establishment, and 28 
(B) such individual does not participate directly or indirectly in the 29 
control, management or operation of the cannabis establishment; 30 
(3) "Cannabis" means marijuana, as defined in section 21a-240; 31 
(4) "Cannabis establishment" means a producer, dispensary facility, 32 
cultivator, micro-cultivator, retailer, hybrid retailer, food and beverage 33 
manufacturer, product manufacturer, product packager, delivery 34 
service or transporter; 35 
(5) "Cannabis flower" means the flower, including abnormal and 36 
immature flowers, of a plant of the genus cannabis that has been 37 
harvested, dried and cured, and prior to any processing whereby the 38 
flower material is transformed into a cannabis product. "Cannabis 39 
flower" does not include (A) the leaves or stem of such plant, or (B) 40 
hemp, as defined in section 22-61l; 41 
(6) "Cannabis trim" means all parts, including abnormal or immature 42 
parts, of a plant of the genus cannabis, other than cannabis flower, that 43 
have been harvested, dried and cured, and prior to any processing 44 
whereby the plant material is transformed into a cannabis product. 45 
"Cannabis trim" does not include hemp, as defined in section 22-61l; 46 
(7) "Cannabis product" means cannabis that is in the form of a 47 
cannabis concentrate or a product that contains cannabis, which may be 48 
combined with other ingredients, and is intended for use or 49  Substitute Bill No. 5329 
 
 
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consumption. "Cannabis product" does not include the raw cannabis 50 
plant; 51 
(8) "Cannabis concentrate" means any form of concentration, 52 
including, but not limited to, extracts, oils, tinctures, shatter and waxes, 53 
that is extracted from cannabis; 54 
(9) "Cannabis-type substances" have the same meaning as 55 
"marijuana", as defined in section 21a-240; 56 
(10) "Commissioner" means the Commissioner of Consumer 57 
Protection and includes any designee of the commissioner; 58 
(11) "Consumer" means an individual who is twenty-one years of age 59 
or older; 60 
(12) "Cultivation" has the same meaning as provided in section 21a-61 
408; 62 
(13) "Cultivator" means a person that is licensed to engage in the 63 
cultivation, growing and propagation of the cannabis plant at an 64 
establishment with not less than fifteen thousand square feet of grow 65 
space; 66 
(14) "Delivery service" means a person that is licensed to deliver 67 
cannabis from (A) micro-cultivators, retailers and hybrid retailers to 68 
consumers and research program subjects, and (B) hybrid retailers and 69 
dispensary facilities to qualifying patients, caregivers and research 70 
program subjects, as defined in section 21a-408, or to hospices or other 71 
inpatient care facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health 72 
pursuant to chapter 368v that have a protocol for the handling and 73 
distribution of cannabis that has been approved by the department, or a 74 
combination thereof; 75 
(15) "Department" means the Department of Consumer Protection; 76 
(16) "Dispensary facility" means a place of business where cannabis 77  Substitute Bill No. 5329 
 
 
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may be dispensed, sold or distributed in accordance with chapter 420f 78 
and any regulations adopted thereunder, to qualifying patients and 79 
caregivers, and to which the department has issued a dispensary facility 80 
license under chapter 420f and any regulations adopted thereunder; 81 
(17) "Disproportionately impacted area" means a United States 82 
census tract in the state that has, as determined by the Social Equity 83 
Council under section 21a-420d, as amended by this act, (A) a historical 84 
conviction rate for drug-related offenses greater than one-tenth, or (B) 85 
an unemployment rate greater than ten per cent; 86 
(18) "Disqualifying conviction" means a conviction within the last ten 87 
years which has not been the subject of an absolute pardon under the 88 
provisions of section 54-130a, or an equivalent pardon process under the 89 
laws of another state or the federal government, for an offense under (A) 90 
section 53a-276, 53a-277 or 53a-278; (B) section 53a-291, 53a-292 or 53a-91 
293; (C) section 53a-215; (D) section 53a-138 or 53a-139; (E) section 53a-92 
142a; (F) sections 53a-147 to 53a-162, inclusive; (G) sections 53a-125c to 93 
53a-125f, inclusive; (H) section 53a-129b, 53a-129c or 53a-129d; (I) 94 
subsection (b) of section 12-737; (J) section 53a-48 or 53a-49, if the offense 95 
which is attempted or is an object of the conspiracy is an offense under 96 
the statutes listed in subparagraphs (A) to (I), inclusive, of this 97 
subdivision; or (K) the law of any other state or of the federal 98 
government, if the offense on which such conviction is based is defined 99 
by elements that substantially include the elements of an offense under 100 
the statutes listed in subparagraphs (A) to (J), inclusive, of this 101 
subdivision; 102 
(19) "Dispensary technician" means an individual who has had an 103 
active pharmacy technician or dispensary technician registration in this 104 
state within the past five years, is affiliated with a dispensary facility or 105 
hybrid retailer and is registered with the department in accordance with 106 
chapter 420f and any regulations adopted thereunder; 107 
(20) "Employee" means any person who is not a backer, but is a 108 
member of the board of a company with an ownership interest in a 109  Substitute Bill No. 5329 
 
 
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cannabis establishment, and any person employed by a cannabis 110 
establishment or who otherwise has access to such establishment or the 111 
vehicles used to transport cannabis, including, but not limited to, an 112 
independent contractor who has routine access to the premises of such 113 
establishment or to the cannabis handled by such establishment; 114 
(21) "Equity" and "equitable" means efforts, regulations, policies, 115 
programs, standards, processes and any other functions of government 116 
or principles of law and governance intended to: (A) Identify and 117 
remedy past and present patterns of discrimination and disparities of 118 
race, ethnicity, gender and sexual orientation; (B) ensure that such 119 
patterns of discrimination and disparities, whether intentional or 120 
unintentional, are neither reinforced nor perpetuated; and (C) prevent 121 
the emergence and persistence of foreseeable future patterns of 122 
discrimination or disparities of race, ethnicity, gender, and sexual 123 
orientation; 124 
(22) "Equity joint venture" means a business entity that is at least fifty 125 
per cent owned and controlled by an individual or individuals, or such 126 
applicant is an individual, who meets the criteria of subparagraphs (A) 127 
and (B) of subdivision (48) of this section; 128 
(23) "Extract" means the preparation, compounding, conversion or 129 
processing of cannabis, either directly or indirectly by extraction or 130 
independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of 131 
extraction and chemical synthesis to produce a cannabis concentrate; 132 
(24) "Financial interest" means any right to, ownership, an investment 133 
or a compensation arrangement with another person, directly, through 134 
business, investment or family. "Financial interest" does not include 135 
ownership of investment securities in a publicly-held corporation that 136 
is traded on a national exchange or over-the-counter market, provided 137 
the investment securities held by such person and such person's spouse, 138 
parent or child, in the aggregate, do not exceed one-half of one per cent 139 
of the total number of shares issued by the corporation; 140  Substitute Bill No. 5329 
 
 
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(25) "Food and beverage manufacturer" means a person that is 141 
licensed to own and operate a place of business that acquires cannabis 142 
and creates food and beverages; 143 
(26) "Grow space" means the portion of a premises owned and 144 
controlled by a producer, cultivator or micro-cultivator that is utilized 145 
for the cultivation, growing or propagation of the cannabis plant, and 146 
contains cannabis plants in an active stage of growth, measured starting 147 
from the outermost wall of the room containing cannabis plants and 148 
continuing around the outside of the room. "Grow space" does not 149 
include space used to cure, process, store harvested cannabis or 150 
manufacture cannabis once the cannabis has been harvested; 151 
(27) "Historical conviction count for drug-related offenses" means, for 152 
a given area, the number of convictions of residents of such area (A) for 153 
violations of sections 21a-267, 21a-277, 21a-278, 21a-279 and 21a-279a, 154 
and (B) who were arrested for such violations between January 1, 1982, 155 
and December 31, 2020, inclusive, where such arrest was recorded in 156 
databases maintained by the Department of Emergency Services and 157 
Public Protection; 158 
(28) "Historical conviction rate for drug-related offenses" means, for 159 
a given area, the historical conviction count for drug-related offenses 160 
divided by the population of such area, as determined by the five-year 161 
estimates of the most recent American Community Survey conducted 162 
by the United States Census Bureau; 163 
(29) "Hybrid retailer" means a person that is licensed to purchase 164 
cannabis and sell cannabis and medical marijuana products; 165 
(30) "Key employee" means an employee with the following 166 
management position or an equivalent title within a cannabis 167 
establishment: (A) President or chief officer, who is the top ranking 168 
individual at the cannabis establishment and is responsible for all staff 169 
and overall direction of business operations; (B) financial manager, who 170 
is the individual who reports to the president or chief officer and who is 171  Substitute Bill No. 5329 
 
 
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generally responsible for oversight of the financial operations of the 172 
cannabis establishment, including, but not limited to, revenue 173 
generation, distributions, tax compliance and budget implementation; 174 
or (C) compliance manager, who is the individual who reports to the 175 
president or chief officer and who is generally responsible for ensuring 176 
the cannabis establishment complies with all laws, regulations and 177 
requirements related to the operation of the cannabis establishment; 178 
(31) "Laboratory" means a laboratory located in the state that is 179 
licensed by the department to provide analysis of cannabis that meets 180 
the licensure requirements set forth in section 21a-246; 181 
(32) "Laboratory employee" means an individual who is registered as 182 
a laboratory employee pursuant to section 21a-408r; 183 
(33) "Labor peace agreement" means an agreement between a 184 
cannabis establishment and a bona fide labor organization under section 185 
21a-421d pursuant to which the owners and management of the 186 
cannabis establishment agree not to lock out employees and that 187 
prohibits the bona fide labor organization from engaging in picketing, 188 
work stoppages or boycotts against the cannabis establishment; 189 
(34) "Manufacture" means to add or incorporate cannabis into other 190 
products or ingredients or create a cannabis product; 191 
(35) "Medical marijuana product" means cannabis that may be 192 
exclusively sold to qualifying patients and caregivers by dispensary 193 
facilities and hybrid retailers and which are designated by the 194 
commissioner as reserved for sale to qualifying patients and caregivers 195 
and published on the department's Internet web site; 196 
(36) "Micro-cultivator" means a person licensed to engage in the 197 
cultivation, growing and propagation of the cannabis plant at an 198 
establishment containing not less than two thousand square feet and not 199 
more than ten thousand square feet of grow space, prior to any 200 
expansion authorized by the commissioner; 201  Substitute Bill No. 5329 
 
 
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(37) "Municipality" means any town, city or borough, consolidated 202 
town and city or consolidated town and borough; 203 
(38) "Paraphernalia" means drug paraphernalia, as defined in section 204 
21a-240; 205 
(39) "Person" means an individual, partnership, limited liability 206 
company, society, association, joint stock company, corporation, estate, 207 
receiver, trustee, assignee, referee or any other legal entity and any other 208 
person acting in a fiduciary or representative capacity, whether 209 
appointed by a court or otherwise, and any combination thereof; 210 
(40) "Producer" means a person that is licensed as a producer 211 
pursuant to section 21a-408i and any regulations adopted thereunder; 212 
(41) "Product manufacturer" means a person that is licensed to obtain 213 
cannabis, extract and manufacture products exclusive to such license 214 
type; 215 
(42) "Product packager" means a person that is licensed to package 216 
and label cannabis; 217 
(43) "Qualifying patient" has the same meaning as provided in section 218 
21a-408; 219 
(44) "Research program" has the same meaning as provided in section 220 
21a-408; 221 
(45) "Retailer" means a person, excluding a dispensary facility and 222 
hybrid retailer, that is licensed to purchase cannabis from producers, 223 
cultivators, micro-cultivators, product manufacturers and food and 224 
beverage manufacturers and to sell cannabis to consumers and research 225 
programs; 226 
(46) "Sale" or "sell" has the same meaning as provided in section 21a-227 
240; 228 
(47) "Social Equity Council" or "council" means the council 229  Substitute Bill No. 5329 
 
 
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established under section 21a-420d, as amended by this act; 230 
(48) "Social equity applicant" means a person that has applied for a 231 
license for a cannabis establishment, where such applicant is at least 232 
sixty-five per cent owned and controlled by an individual or 233 
individuals, or such applicant is an individual, who: 234 
(A) Had an average household income of less than three hundred per 235 
cent of the state median household income over the three tax years 236 
immediately preceding such individual's application; and 237 
(B) (i) Was a resident of a disproportionately impacted area for not 238 
less than five of the ten years immediately preceding the date of such 239 
application; or 240 
(ii) Was a resident of a disproportionately impacted area for not less 241 
than nine years prior to attaining the age of eighteen; 242 
(49) "THC" has the same meaning as provided in section 21a-240; 243 
(50) "Third-party lottery operator" means a person, or a constituent 244 
unit of the state system of higher education, that conducts lotteries 245 
pursuant to section 21a-420g, identifies the cannabis establishment 246 
license applications for consideration without performing any review of 247 
the applications that are identified for consideration, and that has no 248 
direct or indirect oversight of or investment in a cannabis establishment 249 
or a cannabis establishment applicant; 250 
(51) "Transfer" means to transfer, change, give or otherwise dispose 251 
of control over or interest in; 252 
(52) "Transport" means to physically move from one place to another; 253 
(53) "Transporter" means a person licensed to transport cannabis 254 
between cannabis establishments, laboratories and research programs; 255 
and 256 
(54) "Unemployment rate" means, in a given area, the number of 257  Substitute Bill No. 5329 
 
 
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people sixteen years of age or older who are in the civilian labor force 258 
and unemployed divided by the number of people sixteen years of age 259 
or older who are in the civilian labor force. 260 
Sec. 2. (NEW) (Effective July 1, 2022) (a) Notwithstanding any 261 
provision of the general statutes, no person shall gift, sell or transfer 262 
cannabis to another person: (1) To induce, or in exchange for, any 263 
donation for any purpose, including, but not limited to, any charitable 264 
donation or any donation made to gain admission to any event; (2) at 265 
any location, other than a dispensary facility, retailer or hybrid-retailer, 266 
(A) where a consumer may purchase any item other than cannabis, a 267 
cannabis product or services related to cannabis, or (B) that requires 268 
consideration, including, but not limited to, membership in any club, in 269 
order to gain admission to such location; or (3) as part of any giveaway 270 
associated with attendance at any event, including, but not limited to, 271 
any giveaway made by way of a door prize, goodie bag or swag bag. 272 
The provisions of this subsection shall not be construed to prohibit any 273 
gift of cannabis between individuals with a bona fide social relationship, 274 
provided such gift is made without consideration and is not associated 275 
with any commercial transaction. 276 
(b) Any person who violates the provisions of subsection (a) of this 277 
section shall, in addition to any other penalty provided by law: (1) Be 278 
subject to a fine imposed by a municipality under section 3 of this act; 279 
(2) be fined two thousand five hundred dollars per offense, in 280 
accordance with the provisions of section 51-164n of the general statutes, 281 
as amended by this act, by the Commissioner of Emergency Services and 282 
Public Protection; and (3) be subject to an administrative hearing held 283 
by the Commissioner of Revenue Services pursuant to chapter 54 of the 284 
general statutes for failure to pay taxes, which may result in a civil 285 
penalty of not more than one thousand dollars per violation. For the 286 
purposes of this subsection, "per offense" and "per violation" mean 287 
either per transaction or per day the violation continues, as determined 288 
by the Commissioner of Emergency Services and Public Protection for 289 
the purposes of subdivision (2) of this subsection or the Commissioner 290  Substitute Bill No. 5329 
 
 
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of Revenue Services for the purposes of subdivision (3) of this 291 
subsection. 292 
Sec. 3. (NEW) (Effective July 1, 2022) Any municipality may establish, 293 
by ordinance, a fine for violations of section 2 of this act, provided the 294 
amount of any such fine shall not be greater than two thousand five 295 
hundred dollars per violation. Any police officer or other person 296 
authorized by the chief executive officer of the municipality may issue 297 
a citation to any person who commits such a violation. Any municipality 298 
that adopts an ordinance pursuant to this section shall also adopt a 299 
citation hearing procedure pursuant to section 7-152c of the general 300 
statutes. Any fine collected by a municipality pursuant to this section 301 
shall be deposited into the general fund of the municipality or in any 302 
special fund designated by the municipality. 303 
Sec. 4. Subsections (a) and (b) of section 51-164n of the 2022 304 
supplement to the general statutes are repealed and the following is 305 
substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 2022): 306 
(a) There shall be a Centralized Infractions Bureau of the Superior 307 
Court to handle payments or pleas of not guilty with respect to the 308 
commission of an infraction under any provision of the general statutes 309 
or a violation set forth in subsection (b) of this section. Except as 310 
provided in section 51-164o, any person who is alleged to have 311 
committed an infraction or a violation under subsection (b) of this 312 
section may plead not guilty or pay the established fine and any 313 
additional fee or cost for the infraction or such violation. 314 
(b) Notwithstanding any provision of the general statutes, any person 315 
who is alleged to have committed (1) a violation under the provisions of 316 
section 1-9, 1-10, 1-11, 4b-13, 7-13, 7-14, 7-35, 7-41, 7-83, 7-283, 7-325, 7-317 
393, 8-12, 8-25, 8-27, 9-63, 9-322, 9-350, 10-193, 10-197, 10-198, 10-230, 10-318 
251, 10-254, 12-52, 12-170aa, 12-292, 12-314b or 12-326g, subdivision (4) 319 
of section 12-408, subdivision (3), (5) or (6) of section 12-411, section 12-320 
435c, 12-476a, 12-476b, 12-487, 13a-71, 13a-107, 13a-113, 13a-114, 13a-115, 321 
13a-117b, 13a-123, 13a-124, 13a-139, 13a-140, 13a-143b, 13a-247, 13a-253 322  Substitute Bill No. 5329 
 
 
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or 13a-263, subsection (f) of section 13b-42, section 13b-90, 13b-221, 13b-323 
292, 13b-336, 13b-337, 13b-338, 13b-410a, 13b-410b or 13b-410c, 324 
subsection (a), (b) or (c) of section 13b-412, section 13b-414, subsection 325 
(d) of section 14-12, section 14-20a or 14-27a, subsection (f) of section 14-326 
34a, subsection (d) of section 14-35, section 14-43, 14-49, 14-50a or 14-58, 327 
subsection (b) of section 14-66, section 14-66a or 14-67a, subsection (g) 328 
of section 14-80, subsection (f) of section 14-80h, section 14-97a, 14-100b, 329 
14-103a, 14-106a, 14-106c, 14-146, 14-152, 14-153 or 14-163b, a first 330 
violation as specified in subsection (f) of section 14-164i, section 14-219 331 
as specified in subsection (e) of said section, subdivision (1) of section 332 
14-223a, section 14-240, 14-250 or 14-253a, subsection (a) of section 14-333 
261a, section 14-262, 14-264, 14-267a, 14-269, 14-270, 14-275a, 14-278 or 334 
14-279, subsection (e) or (h) of section 14-283, section 14-291, 14-293b, 14-335 
296aa, 14-300, 14-300d, 14-319, 14-320, 14-321, 14-325a, 14-326, 14-330 or 336 
14-332a, subdivision (1), (2) or (3) of section 14-386a, section 15-25 or 15-337 
33, subdivision (1) of section 15-97, subsection (a) of section 15-115, 338 
section 16-44, 16-256e, 16a-15 or 16a-22, subsection (a) or (b) of section 339 
16a-22h, section 17a-24, 17a-145, 17a-149, 17a-152, 17a-465, 17b-124, 17b-340 
131, 17b-137, 19a-30, 19a-33, 19a-39 or 19a-87, subsection (b) of section 341 
19a-87a, section 19a-91, 19a-105, 19a-107, 19a-113, 19a-215, 19a-219, 19a-342 
222, 19a-224, 19a-286, 19a-287, 19a-297, 19a-301, 19a-309, 19a-335, 19a-343 
336, 19a-338, 19a-339, 19a-340, 19a-425, 19a-502, 20-7a, 20-14, 20-158, 20-344 
231, 20-249, 20-257, 20-265, 20-324e, subsection (b) of section 20-334, 345 
section 20-341l, 20-366, 20-597, 20-608, 20-610, 21-1, 21-38, 21-39, 21-43, 346 
21-47, 21-48, 21-63, subsection (d) of section 21-71 or section 21-76a, 347 
subsection (c) of section 21a-2, subdivision (1) of section 21a-19, section 348 
21a-21, subdivision (1) of subsection (b) of section 21a-25, section 21a-26 349 
or 21a-30, subsection (a) of section 21a-37, section 21a-46, 21a-61, 21a-63 350 
or 21a-77, subsection (b) of section 21a-79, section 21a-85 or 21a-154, 351 
subdivision (1) of subsection (a) of section 21a-159, section 21a-278b, 352 
subsection (c), (d) or (e) of section 21a-279a, section 21a-421eee, 21a-353 
421fff, 22-12b, 22-13, 22-14, 22-15, 22-16, 22-26g, 22-29, 22-30, 22-34, 22-354 
35, 22-36, 22-38, 22-39, 22-39f, 22-49, 22-54, 22-61j or 22-61l, subdivision 355 
(1) of subsection (n) of section 22-61l, subsection (f) of section 22-61m, 356 
subdivision (1) of subsection (f) of section 22-61m, subsection (d) of 357  Substitute Bill No. 5329 
 
 
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section 22-84, section 22-89, 22-90, 22-96, 22-98, 22-99, 22-100, 22-111o, 358 
22-167, subsection (c) of section 22-277, section 22-278, 22-279, 22-280a, 359 
22-318a, 22-320h, 22-324a, 22-326, subsection (b), subdivision (1) or (2) of 360 
subsection (e) or subsection (g) of section 22-344, subdivision (2) of 361 
subsection (b) of section 22-344b, subsection (d) of section 22-344c, 362 
subsection (d) of section 22-344d, section 22-344f, 22-350a, 22-354, 22-363 
359, 22-366, 22-391, 22-413, 22-414, 22-415, 22a-66a or 22a-246, subsection 364 
(a) of section 22a-250, subsection (e) of section 22a-256h, section 22a-363 365 
or 22a-381d, subsections (c) and (d) of section 22a-381e, section 22a-449, 366 
22a-461, 23-4b, 23-38, 23-46 or 23-61b, subsection (a) or subdivision (1) 367 
of subsection (c) of section 23-65, section 25-37 or 25-40, subsection (a) of 368 
section 25-43, section 25-43d, 25-135, 26-18, 26-19, 26-21, 26-31, 26-40, 26-369 
40a, 26-42, 26-49, 26-54, 26-55, 26-56, 26-58 or 26-59, subdivision (1) of 370 
subsection (d) of section 26-61, section 26-64, subdivision (1) of section 371 
26-76, section 26-79, 26-87, 26-89, 26-91, 26-94, 26-97, 26-98, 26-104, 26-372 
105, 26-107, 26-117, 26-128, 26-131, 26-132, 26-138 or 26-141, subdivision 373 
(1) of section 26-186, section 26-207, 26-215, 26-217 or 26-224a, 374 
subdivision (1) of section 26-226, section 26-227, 26-230, 26-232, 26-244, 375 
26-257a, 26-260, 26-276, 26-284, 26-285, 26-286, 26-288, 26-294, 28-13, 29-376 
6a, 29-25, 29-143o, 29-143z or 29-156a, subsection (b), (d), (e) or (g) of 377 
section 29-161q, section 29-161y or 29-161z, subdivision (1) of section 29-378 
198, section 29-210, 29-243 or 29-277, subsection (c) of section 29-291c, 379 
section 29-316, 29-318, 29-381, 30-48a, 30-86a, 31-3, 31-10, 31-11, 31-12, 380 
31-13, 31-14, 31-15, 31-16, 31-18, 31-23, 31-24, 31-25, 31-32, 31-36, 31-38, 381 
31-40, 31-44, 31-47, 31-48, 31-51, 31-52, 31-52a or 31-54, subsection (a) or 382 
(c) of section 31-69, section 31-70, 31-74, 31-75, 31-76, 31-76a, 31-89b or 383 
31-134, subsection (i) of section 31-273, section 31-288, subdivision (1) of 384 
section 35-20, section 36a-787, 42-230, 45a-283, 45a-450, 45a-634 or 45a-385 
658, subdivision (13) or (14) of section 46a-54, section 46a-59, 46b-22, 386 
46b-24, 46b-34, 47-34a, 47-47, 49-8a, 49-16, 53-133, 53-199, 53-212a, 53-387 
249a, 53-252, 53-264, 53-280, 53-302a, 53-303e, 53-311a, 53-321, 53-322, 53-388 
323, 53-331 or 53-344, subsection (c) of section 53-344b, [or] section 53-389 
450 or section 2 of this act, or (2) a violation under the provisions of 390 
chapter 268, or (3) a violation of any regulation adopted in accordance 391 
with the provisions of section 12-484, 12-487 or 13b-410, or (4) a violation 392  Substitute Bill No. 5329 
 
 
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of any ordinance, regulation or bylaw of any town, city or borough, 393 
except violations of building codes and the health code, for which the 394 
penalty exceeds ninety dollars but does not exceed two hundred fifty 395 
dollars, unless such town, city or borough has established a payment 396 
and hearing procedure for such violation pursuant to section 7-152c, 397 
shall follow the procedures set forth in this section. 398 
Sec. 5. (NEW) (Effective from passage) (a) A cultivator licensed under 399 
section 21a-420o of the general statutes may create not more than two 400 
equity joint ventures to be approved by the Social Equity Council under 401 
section 21a-420d of the general statutes, as amended by this act, and 402 
licensed by the department under this section. The equity joint venture 403 
shall be in any cannabis establishment licensed business, other than a 404 
cultivator license. 405 
(b) The equity joint venture applicant shall submit an application to 406 
the Social Equity Council that may include, but need not be limited to, 407 
evidence of business formation, ownership allocation, terms of 408 
ownership and financing and proof of social equity status. The equity 409 
joint venture applicant shall submit to the Social Equity Council 410 
information including, but not limited to, the organizing documents of 411 
the entity that outline the ownership stake of each backer, initial backer 412 
investment and payout information to enable the council to determine 413 
the terms of ownership. 414 
(c) Upon obtaining the written approval of the Social Equity Council 415 
for an equity joint venture, the equity joint venture applicant shall apply 416 
for a license from the department in the same form as required by all 417 
other licensees of the same license type, except that such application 418 
shall not be subject to the lottery. 419 
(d) A cultivator licensed under section 21a-420o of the general 420 
statutes, including the backer of such cultivator, shall not increase its 421 
ownership in an equity joint venture in excess of fifty per cent during 422 
the seven-year period after a license is issued by the department under 423 
this section. 424  Substitute Bill No. 5329 
 
 
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(e) Equity joint ventures that share a common cultivator or cultivator 425 
backer shall not be located within twenty miles of another commonly 426 
owned equity joint venture. 427 
(f) An equity joint venture applicant shall pay fifty per cent of the 428 
amount of any applicable fee specified in subsection (c) of section 21a-429 
420e of the general statutes for the first three renewal cycles of the 430 
applicable cannabis establishment license applied for, and shall pay the 431 
full amount of such fee thereafter. 432 
Sec. 6. Section 21a-420m of the 2022 supplement to the general 433 
statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof 434 
(Effective from passage): 435 
(a) In order to pay a reduced license expansion authorization fee as 436 
described in subsection (b) of section 21a-420l, a producer shall commit 437 
to create two equity joint ventures to be approved by the Social Equity 438 
Council under section 21a-420d, as amended by this act, and licensed by 439 
the department under this section. 440 
(b) The equity joint venture shall be in any cannabis establishment 441 
licensed business, other than a cultivator license, provided [the social 442 
equity applicant shall own at least fifty per cent of such business] such 443 
equity joint venture is at least fifty per cent owned and controlled by an 444 
individual or individuals who meet, or the equity joint venture 445 
applicant is an individual who meets, the criteria established in 446 
subparagraphs (A) and (B) of subdivision (48) of section 21a-420, as 447 
amended by this act. 448 
(c) The [producer or social equity applicant of an] equity joint venture 449 
applicant shall submit an application to the Social Equity Council that 450 
may include, but need not be limited to, evidence of business formation, 451 
ownership allocation, terms of ownership and financing and proof of 452 
social equity [applicant involvement] status. The [producer or social 453 
equity applicant of an] equity joint venture applicant shall submit to the 454 
Social Equity Council information including, but not limited to, the 455  Substitute Bill No. 5329 
 
 
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organizing documents of the entity that outline the ownership stake of 456 
each backer, initial backer investment and payout information to enable 457 
the council to determine the terms of ownership. 458 
(d) Upon obtaining the written approval of the Social Equity Council 459 
for an equity joint venture, [the producer or social equity applicant of] 460 
the equity joint venture applicant shall apply for a license from the 461 
department in the same form as required by all other licensees of the 462 
same license type, except that such application shall not be subject to the 463 
lottery. 464 
(e) A producer, including the backer of such producer, shall not 465 
increase its ownership in an equity joint venture in excess of fifty per 466 
cent during the seven-year period after a license is issued by the 467 
department under this section. 468 
(f) Equity joint ventures that share a common producer or producer 469 
backer and that are retailers or hybrid retailers shall not be located 470 
within twenty miles of another commonly owned equity joint venture. 471 
(g) If a producer [had] has paid a reduced conversion fee, as 472 
described in subsection (b) of section 21a-420l, and subsequently did not 473 
create two equity joint ventures under this section that, not later than 474 
fourteen months after the Department of Consumer Protection 475 
approved the producer's license expansion application under section 476 
21a-420l, each received a final license from the department, the producer 477 
shall be liable for the full conversion fee of three million dollars 478 
established in section 21a-420l minus such paid reduced conversion fee. 479 
(h) No producer that receives license expansion authorization under 480 
section 21a-420l shall create more than two equity joint ventures. No 481 
such producer shall apply for, or create, any additional equity joint 482 
venture if, on the effective date of this section, such producer has created 483 
at least two equity joint ventures that have each received a provisional 484 
license. 485 
(i) An equity joint venture applicant shall pay fifty per cent of the 486  Substitute Bill No. 5329 
 
 
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amount of any applicable fee specified in subsection (c) of section 21a-487 
420e for the first three renewal cycles of the applicable cannabis 488 
establishment license applied for, and shall pay the full amount of such 489 
fee thereafter. 490 
Sec. 7. Section 21a-420u of the 2022 supplement to the general statutes 491 
is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from 492 
passage): 493 
(a) In order for a dispensary facility to convert its license to a hybrid-494 
retailer license, a dispensary facility shall have a workforce 495 
development plan that has been approved by the Social Equity Council 496 
under section 21a-420d, as amended by this act, and shall either pay the 497 
fee of one million dollars established in section 21a-420e or, if such 498 
dispensary facility has committed to create one equity joint venture to 499 
be approved by the Social Equity Council for ownership purposes under 500 
section 21a-420d, as amended by this act, and subsequent to obtaining 501 
such approval, approved by the department for licensure under this 502 
section, pay a reduced fee of five hundred thousand dollars. 503 
(b) Any equity joint venture created under this section shall be 504 
created for the development of a cannabis establishment, [business with 505 
a social equity applicant that owns at least fifty per cent of such business 506 
and where the dispensary facility owns at most fifty per cent of such 507 
business] other than a cultivator, provided such equity joint venture is 508 
at least fifty per cent owned and controlled by an individual or 509 
individuals who meet, or the equity joint venture applicant is an 510 
individual who meets, the criteria established in subparagraphs (A) and 511 
(B) of subdivision (48) of section 21a-420, as amended by this act. 512 
(c) An equity joint venture applicant shall submit an application to 513 
the Social Equity Council that may include, but need not be limited to, 514 
evidence of business formation, ownership allocation, terms of 515 
ownership and financing and proof of social equity [applicant 516 
involvement. The dispensary facility or social equity applicant of an 517 
equity joint venture shall submit an application to the Social Equity 518  Substitute Bill No. 5329 
 
 
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Council that may include, but need not be limited to, evidence of 519 
business formation, ownership allocation, terms of ownership and 520 
financing and proof of social equity applicant involvement. The 521 
dispensary facility or social equity applicant of an] status. The equity 522 
joint venture applicant shall submit to the Social Equity Council 523 
information including, but not limited to, the organizing documents of 524 
the entity that outline the ownership stake of each backer, initial backer 525 
investment and payout information to enable the council to determine 526 
the terms of ownership. 527 
(d) Upon receipt of written approval of the equity joint venture by 528 
the Social Equity Council, [the dispensary facility or social equity 529 
applicant of] the equity joint venture applicant shall apply for a license 530 
from the department in the same form as required by all other licensees 531 
of the same license type and subject to the same fees as required by all 532 
other licensees of the same license type. 533 
(e) A dispensary facility, including the backers of such dispensary 534 
facility, shall not increase its ownership in an equity joint venture in 535 
excess of fifty per cent during the seven-year period after a license is 536 
issued by the department under this section. 537 
(f) Equity joint ventures that are retailers or hybrid retailers that share 538 
a common dispensary facility or dispensary facility backer owner shall 539 
not be located within twenty miles of another commonly owned equity 540 
joint venture. 541 
(g) If a dispensary facility has paid the reduced conversion fee, in 542 
accordance with subsection (a) of this section, and did not subsequently 543 
create one equity joint venture under this section [, the] that, not later 544 
than fourteen months after the Department of Consumer Protection 545 
approved the dispensary facility's license conversion application under 546 
section 21a-420t, receives a final license from the department, the 547 
dispensary facility shall be liable for the full conversion fee of one 548 
million dollars [,] established [under] in section 21a-420e minus such 549 
paid reduced conversion fee. 550  Substitute Bill No. 5329 
 
 
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(h) No dispensary facility that receives approval to convert the 551 
dispensary facility's license to a hybrid-retailer license under section 552 
21a-420t shall create more than two equity joint ventures. No such 553 
dispensary facility shall apply for, or create, any additional equity joint 554 
venture if, on the effective date of this section, such dispensary facility 555 
has created at least two equity joint ventures that have each received a 556 
provisional license. 557 
(i) An equity joint venture applicant shall pay fifty per cent of the 558 
amount of any applicable fee specified in subsection (c) of section 21a-559 
420e for the first three renewal cycles of the applicable cannabis 560 
establishment license applied for, and shall pay the full amount of such 561 
fee thereafter. 562 
Sec. 8. Subsection (k) of section 21a-420d of the 2022 supplement to 563 
the general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 564 
thereof (Effective from passage): 565 
(k) The council shall develop criteria for evaluating the ownership 566 
and control of any equity joint venture created under section 21a-420m, 567 
as amended by this act, [or] 21a-420u, as amended by this act, or section 568 
5 of this act and shall review and approve or deny in writing such equity 569 
joint venture prior to such equity joint venture being licensed under 570 
section 21a-420m, as amended by this act, [or] 21a-420u, as amended by 571 
this act, or section 5 of this act. After developing criteria for social equity 572 
plans as described in subdivision (5) of subsection (h) of this section, the 573 
council shall review and approve or deny in writing any such plan 574 
submitted by a cannabis establishment as part of its final license 575 
application. The council shall not approve any equity joint venture 576 
applicant which shares with an equity joint venture any individual 577 
owner who meets the criteria established in subparagraphs (A) and (B) 578 
of subdivision (48) of section 21a-420, as amended by this act. 579 
Sec. 9. Section 21a-421bb of the 2022 supplement to the general 580 
statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof 581 
(Effective July 1, 2022): 582  Substitute Bill No. 5329 
 
 
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(a) [Cannabis] Except as provided in subsection (c) of this section, 583 
cannabis establishments and any person advertising any cannabis or 584 
services related to cannabis shall not: 585 
(1) Advertise, including, but not limited to, through a business name 586 
or logo, cannabis, cannabis paraphernalia or goods or services related to 587 
cannabis in ways that target or are designed to appeal to individuals 588 
under twenty-one years of age, including, but not limited to, 589 
spokespersons or celebrities who appeal to individuals under the legal 590 
age to purchase cannabis or cannabis products, depictions of a person 591 
under twenty-five years of age consuming cannabis, or, the inclusion of 592 
objects, such as toys, characters or cartoon characters suggesting the 593 
presence of a person under twenty-one years of age, or any other 594 
depiction designed in any manner to be appealing to a person under 595 
twenty-one years of age; 596 
(2) Engage in advertising by means of any billboard; 597 
[(2)] (3) Engage in advertising by means of any television, radio, 598 
Internet, mobile [applications] application, social media [,] or other 599 
electronic communication, [billboard or other] outdoor signage [,] or 600 
print publication unless the advertiser has reliable evidence that at least 601 
ninety per cent of the audience for the advertisement is reasonably 602 
expected to be twenty-one years of age or older; 603 
[(3)] (4) Engage in advertising or marketing directed toward location-604 
based devices, including, but not limited to, cellular phones, unless the 605 
marketing is a mobile device application installed on the device by the 606 
owner of the device who is twenty-one years of age or older and 607 
includes a permanent and easy opt-out feature and warnings that the 608 
use of cannabis is restricted to persons twenty-one years of age or older; 609 
[(4)] (5) Advertise cannabis or cannabis products in a manner 610 
claiming or implying, or permit any employee of the cannabis 611 
establishment to claim or imply, that such products have curative or 612 
therapeutic effects, or that any other medical claim is true, or allow any 613  Substitute Bill No. 5329 
 
 
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employee to promote cannabis for a wellness purpose unless such 614 
claims are substantiated as set forth in regulations adopted under 615 
chapter 420f or verbally conveyed by a licensed pharmacist or other 616 
licensed medical practitioner in the course of business in, or while 617 
representing, a hybrid retail or dispensary facility; 618 
[(5)] (6) Sponsor charitable, sports, musical, artistic, cultural, social or 619 
other similar events or advertising at, or in connection with, such an 620 
event unless the sponsor or advertiser has reliable evidence that (A) not 621 
more than ten per cent of the in-person audience at the event is 622 
reasonably expected to be under the legal age to purchase cannabis or 623 
cannabis products, and (B) not more than ten per cent of the audience 624 
that will watch, listen or participate in the event is expected to be under 625 
the legal age to purchase cannabis products; 626 
[(6)] (7) Advertise cannabis, cannabis products or cannabis 627 
paraphernalia in any physical form visible to the public within five 628 
hundred feet of an elementary or secondary school ground, recreation 629 
center or facility, child care center, playground, public park or library; 630 
[(7)] (8) Cultivate cannabis or manufacture cannabis products for 631 
distribution outside of this state in violation of federal law, advertise in 632 
any way that encourages the transportation of cannabis across state lines 633 
or otherwise encourages illegal activity; 634 
[(8)] (9) Except for dispensary facilities and hybrid retailers, exhibit 635 
within or upon the outside of the facility used in the operation of a 636 
cannabis establishment, or include in any advertisement, the word 637 
"dispensary" or any variation of such term or any other words, displays 638 
or symbols indicating that such store, shop or place of business is a 639 
dispensary; 640 
[(9)] (10) Exhibit within or upon the outside of the premises subject to 641 
the cannabis establishment license, or include in any advertisement the 642 
words "drug store", "pharmacy", "apothecary", "drug", "drugs" or 643 
"medicine shop" or any combination of such terms or any other words, 644  Substitute Bill No. 5329 
 
 
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displays or symbols indicating that such store, shop or place of business 645 
is a pharmacy; 646 
[(10)] (11) Advertise on or in public or private vehicles or at bus stops, 647 
taxi stands, transportation waiting areas, train stations, airports or other 648 
similar transportation venues including, but not limited to, vinyl-649 
wrapped vehicles or signs or logos on transportation vehicles not 650 
owned by a cannabis establishment; 651 
[(11)] (12) Display cannabis or cannabis products so as to be clearly 652 
visible to a person from the exterior of the facility used in the operation 653 
of a cannabis establishment, or display signs or other printed material 654 
advertising any brand or any kind of cannabis or cannabis product on 655 
the exterior of any facility used in the operation of a cannabis 656 
establishment; 657 
[(12)] (13) Utilize radio or loudspeaker, in a vehicle or in or outside of 658 
a facility used in the operation of a cannabis establishment, for the 659 
purposes of advertising the sale of cannabis or cannabis products; or 660 
[(13)] (14) Operate any web site advertising or depicting cannabis, 661 
cannabis products or cannabis paraphernalia unless such web site 662 
verifies that the entrants or users are twenty-one years of age or older. 663 
(b) [Any] Except as provided in subsection (c) of this section, any 664 
advertisements from a cannabis establishment shall contain the 665 
following warning: "Do not use cannabis if you are under twenty-one 666 
years of age. Keep cannabis out of the reach of children." In a print or 667 
visual medium, such warning shall be conspicuous, easily legible and 668 
shall take up not less than ten per cent of the advertisement space. In an 669 
audio medium, such warning shall be at the same speed as the rest of 670 
the advertisement and be easily intelligible. 671 
(c) Any outdoor signage, other than a billboard and including, but 672 
not limited to, any monument sign, pylon sign or wayfinding sign, shall 673 
be deemed to satisfy the audience requirement established in 674 
subdivision (3) of subsection (a) of this section, and shall not be required 675  Substitute Bill No. 5329 
 
 
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to contain the warning required under subsection (b) of this section, if 676 
such outdoor signage: 677 
(1) Contains only the name and logo of: 678 
(A) A cannabis establishment; or 679 
(B) Any business entity advertising (i) cannabis paraphernalia, or (ii) 680 
goods or services related to a cannabis business; 681 
(2) Is comprised of not more than three colors; and 682 
(3) Is located: 683 
(A) On the cannabis establishment's or such business entity's 684 
premises, regardless of whether such cannabis establishment or 685 
business entity leases or owns such premises; or 686 
(B) On any commercial property occupied by multiple tenants 687 
including such cannabis establishment or business entity. 688 
[(c)] (d) The department shall not register, and may require revision 689 
of, any submitted or registered cannabis brand name that: 690 
(1) Is identical to, or confusingly similar to, the name of an existing 691 
non-cannabis product; 692 
(2) Is identical to, or confusingly similar to, the name of an unlawful 693 
product or substance;  694 
(3) Is confusingly similar to the name of a previously approved 695 
cannabis brand name; 696 
(4) Is obscene or indecent; and 697 
(5) Is customarily associated with persons under the age of twenty-698 
one. 699 
[(d)] (e) A violation of the provisions of subsection (a) or (b) of this 700  Substitute Bill No. 5329 
 
 
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section shall be deemed to be an unfair or deceptive trade practice under 701 
subsection (a) of section 42-110b. 702 
Sec. 10. Section 21a-422f of the 2022 supplement to the general 703 
statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof 704 
(Effective from passage): 705 
(a) As used in this section, "municipality" means any town, city or 706 
borough, consolidated town and city or consolidated town and 707 
borough, and a district establishing a zoning commission under section 708 
7-326. 709 
(b) Any municipality may, by amendment to such municipality's 710 
zoning regulations or by local ordinance, (1) prohibit the establishment 711 
of a cannabis establishment, (2) establish reasonable restrictions 712 
regarding the hours and signage within the limits of such municipality, 713 
or (3) establish restrictions on the proximity of cannabis establishments 714 
to any of the establishments listed in subdivision (1) of subsection (a) of 715 
section 30-46. The chief zoning official of a municipality shall report, in 716 
writing, any zoning changes adopted by the municipality regarding 717 
cannabis establishments pursuant to this subsection to the Secretary of 718 
the Office of Policy and Management and to the department not later 719 
than fourteen days after the adoption of such changes. 720 
(c) Unless otherwise provided for by a municipality through its 721 
zoning regulations or ordinances, a cannabis establishment shall be 722 
zoned as if for any other similar use, other than a cannabis 723 
establishment, would be zoned. 724 
(d) Any restriction regarding hours, zoning and signage of a cannabis 725 
establishment adopted by a municipality shall not apply to an existing 726 
cannabis establishment located in such municipality if such cannabis 727 
establishment does not convert to a different license type, for a period 728 
of five years after the adoption of such prohibition or restriction. 729 
[(e) Until June 30, 2024, no municipality shall grant zoning approval 730 
for more retailers or micro-cultivators than a number that would allow 731  Substitute Bill No. 5329 
 
 
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for one retailer and one micro-cultivator for every twenty-five thousand 732 
residents of such municipality, as determined by the most recent 733 
decennial census. 734 
(f) On and after July 1, 2024, the Commissioner of Consumer 735 
Protection may, in the discretion of the commissioner, post on the 736 
Department of Consumer Protection's Internet web site a specific 737 
number of residents such that no municipality shall grant zoning 738 
approval for more retailers or micro-cultivators than would result in one 739 
retailer and one micro-cultivator for every such specific number of 740 
residents, as determined by the commissioner. Any such determination 741 
shall be made to ensure reasonable access to cannabis by consumers.] 742 
[(g)] (e) For purposes of ensuring compliance with this section, a 743 
special permit or other affirmative approval shall be required for any 744 
retailer or micro-cultivator seeking to be located within a municipality. 745 
[A municipality shall not grant such special permit or approval for any 746 
retailer or micro-cultivator applying for such special permit or approval 747 
if that would result in an amount that (1) until June 30, 2024, exceeds the 748 
density cap of one retailer and one micro-cultivator for every twenty-749 
five thousand residents, and (2) on and after July 1, 2024, exceeds any 750 
density cap determined by the commissioner under subsection (f) of this 751 
section.] When awarding final licenses for a retailer or micro-cultivator, 752 
the Department of Consumer Protection may assume that, if an 753 
applicant for such final license has obtained zoning approval, the 754 
approval of a final license for such applicant shall not result in a 755 
violation of this section or any [other] municipal restrictions on the 756 
number or density of cannabis establishments. 757 
Sec. 11. (Effective from passage) (a) Not later than September 1, 2022, 758 
the chairpersons of the joint standing committee of the General 759 
Assembly having cognizance of matters relating to general law shall 760 
convene a working group to study: 761 
(1) The regulation of hemp; 762  Substitute Bill No. 5329 
 
 
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(2) The possibility of including hemp in this state's cannabis program; 763 
and 764 
(3) Any other topic that is relevant to hemp production and 765 
regulation. 766 
(b) The chairpersons of the joint standing committee of the General 767 
Assembly having cognizance of matters relating to general law shall 768 
serve as the chairpersons of the working group and shall jointly appoint 769 
the members of the working group, which members shall include, but 770 
need not be limited to: 771 
(1) Representatives from the Department of Consumer Protection, 772 
Connecticut Farm Bureau and cannabis industry; and 773 
(2) Members of the General Assembly who represent rural districts in 774 
this state. 775 
(c) The administrative staff of the joint standing committee of the 776 
General Assembly having cognizance of matters relating to general law 777 
shall serve as administrative staff of the working group. 778 
(d) Not later than January 1, 2023, the working group shall submit a 779 
report, in accordance with the provisions of section 11-4a of the general 780 
statutes, on its findings and recommendations to the joint standing 781 
committee of the General Assembly having cognizance of matters 782 
relating to general law. The working group shall terminate on the date 783 
that it submits such report or January 1, 2023, whichever is later. 784 
This act shall take effect as follows and shall amend the following 
sections: 
 
Section 1 July 1, 2022 21a-420 
Sec. 2 July 1, 2022 New section 
Sec. 3 July 1, 2022 New section 
Sec. 4 July 1, 2022 51-164n(a) and (b) 
Sec. 5 from passage New section 
Sec. 6 from passage 21a-420m  Substitute Bill No. 5329 
 
 
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Sec. 7 from passage 21a-420u 
Sec. 8 from passage 21a-420d(k) 
Sec. 9 July 1, 2022 21a-421bb 
Sec. 10 from passage 21a-422f 
Sec. 11 from passage New section 
 
Statement of Legislative Commissioners:   
In Section 4(b)(1), "section 2 of this act," was deleted, "or" was bracketed 
and "or section 2 of this act" was added, for consistency; in Section 5(f), 
a comma was deleted, for clarity; and, in Section 8(k), "5 of this act, 21a-
420m, as amended by this act, or 21a-420u, as amended by this act" was 
changed to "21a-420m, as amended by this act, [or] 21a-420u, as 
amended by this act, or section 5 of this act", for consistency. 
 
GL Joint Favorable Subst.