Connecticut House Bill HB05500 Introduced / Bill

                        
 
 
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General Assembly  Raised Bill No. 5500  
February Session, 2022 
LCO No. 3709 
 
 
Referred to Committee on PUBLIC HEALTH 
 
 
Introduced by:  
(PH)  
 
 
 
 
AN ACT CONCERNING THE DEPARTMENT OF PUBLIC HEALTH'S 
RECOMMENDATIONS REGARDING VARIOUS REVISIONS TO THE 
PUBLIC HEALTH STATUTES. 
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives in General 
Assembly convened: 
 
Section 1. Section 19a-490 of the 2022 supplement to the general 1 
statutes, as amended by sections 29 and 30 of public act 21-2 of the June 2 
special session, is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 3 
thereof (Effective October 1, 2022): 4 
As used in this chapter, unless the context otherwise requires: 5 
(a) "Institution" means a hospital, short-term hospital special hospice, 6 
hospice inpatient facility, residential care home, nursing home facility, 7 
home health care agency, home health aide agency, behavioral health 8 
facility, assisted living services agency, substance abuse treatment 9 
facility, outpatient surgical facility, outpatient clinic, clinical laboratory, 10 
an infirmary operated by an educational institution for the care of 11 
students enrolled in, and faculty and employees of, such institution; a 12 
facility engaged in providing services for the prevention, diagnosis, 13 
treatment or care of human health conditions, including facilities 14  Raised Bill No.  5500 
 
 
 
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operated and maintained by any state agency; and a residential facility 15 
for persons with intellectual disability licensed pursuant to section 17a-16 
227 and certified to participate in the Title XIX Medicaid program as an 17 
intermediate care facility for individuals with intellectual disability. 18 
"Institution" does not include any facility for the care and treatment of 19 
persons with mental illness or substance use disorder operated or 20 
maintained by any state agency, except Whiting Forensic Hospital and 21 
the hospital and psychiatric residential treatment facility units of the 22 
Albert J. Solnit Children's Center; 23 
(b) "Hospital" means an establishment for the lodging, care and 24 
treatment of persons suffering from disease or other abnormal physical 25 
or mental conditions and includes inpatient psychiatric services in 26 
general hospitals; 27 
(c) "Residential care home" or "rest home" means a community 28 
residence that furnishes, in single or multiple facilities, food and shelter 29 
to two or more persons unrelated to the proprietor and, in addition, 30 
provides services that meet a need beyond the basic provisions of food, 31 
shelter and laundry and may qualify as a setting that allows residents to 32 
receive home and community-based services funded by state and 33 
federal programs; 34 
(d) "Home health care agency" means a public or private 35 
organization, or a subdivision thereof, engaged in providing 36 
professional nursing services and the following services, available 37 
twenty-four hours per day, in the patient's home or a substantially 38 
equivalent environment: Home health aide services as defined in this 39 
section, physical therapy, speech therapy, occupational therapy or 40 
medical social services. The agency shall provide professional nursing 41 
services and at least one additional service directly and all others 42 
directly or through contract. An agency shall be available to enroll new 43 
patients seven days a week, twenty-four hours per day; 44 
(e) "Home health aide agency" means a public or private 45 
organization, except a home health care agency, which provides in the 46  Raised Bill No.  5500 
 
 
 
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patient's home or a substantially equivalent environment supportive 47 
services which may include, but are not limited to, assistance with 48 
personal hygiene, dressing, feeding and incidental household tasks 49 
essential to achieving adequate household and family management. 50 
Such supportive services shall be provided under the supervision of a 51 
registered nurse and, if such nurse determines appropriate, shall be 52 
provided by a social worker, physical therapist, speech therapist or 53 
occupational therapist. Such supervision may be provided directly or 54 
through contract; 55 
(f) "Home health aide services" as defined in this section shall not 56 
include services provided to assist individuals with activities of daily 57 
living when such individuals have a disease or condition that is chronic 58 
and stable as determined by a physician licensed in the state; 59 
(g) "Behavioral health facility" means any facility that provides 60 
mental health services to persons eighteen years of age or older or 61 
substance use disorder services to persons of any age in an outpatient 62 
treatment or residential setting to ameliorate mental, emotional, 63 
behavioral or substance use disorder issues; 64 
(h) ["Alcohol or drug treatment facility" means any facility for the 65 
care or treatment of persons suffering from alcoholism or other drug 66 
addiction] "Clinical laboratory" means any facility or other area used for 67 
microbiological, serological, chemical, h ematological, 68 
immunohematological, biophysical, cytological, pathological or other 69 
examinations of human body fluids, secretions, excretions or excised or 70 
exfoliated tissues for the purpose of providing information for the (1) 71 
diagnosis, prevention or treatment of any human disease or 72 
impairment, (2) assessment of human health, or (3) the presence of 73 
drugs, poisons or other toxicological substances; 74 
(i) "Person" means any individual, firm, partnership, corporation, 75 
limited liability company or association; 76 
(j) "Commissioner" means the Commissioner of Public Health or the 77 
commissioner's designee; 78  Raised Bill No.  5500 
 
 
 
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(k) "Home health agency" means an agency licensed as a home health 79 
care agency or a home health aide agency; 80 
(l)  "Assisted living services agency" means an agency that provides, 81 
among other things, nursing services and assistance with activities of 82 
daily living to a population that is chronic and stable and may have a 83 
dementia special care unit or program as defined in section 19a-562; 84 
(m) "Outpatient clinic" means an organization operated by a 85 
municipality or a corporation, other than a hospital, that provides (1) 86 
ambulatory medical care, including preventive and health promotion 87 
services, (2) dental care, or (3) mental health services in conjunction with 88 
medical or dental care for the purpose of diagnosing or treating a health 89 
condition that does not require the patient's overnight care; 90 
(n) "Multicare institution" means a hospital that provides outpatient 91 
behavioral health services or other health care services, psychiatric 92 
outpatient clinic for adults, free-standing facility for the care or 93 
treatment of substance abusive or dependent persons, hospital for 94 
psychiatric disabilities, as defined in section 17a-495, or a general acute 95 
care hospital that provides outpatient behavioral health services that (1) 96 
is licensed in accordance with this chapter, (2) has more than one facility 97 
or one or more satellite units owned and operated by a single licensee, 98 
and (3) offers complex patient health care services at each facility or 99 
satellite unit. For purposes of this subsection, "satellite unit" means a 100 
location where a segregated unit of services is provided by the multicare 101 
institution; 102 
(o) "Nursing home" or "nursing home facility" means (1) any chronic 103 
and convalescent nursing home or any rest home with nursing 104 
supervision that provides nursing supervision under a medical director 105 
twenty-four hours per day, or (2) any chronic and convalescent nursing 106 
home that provides skilled nursing care under medical supervision and 107 
direction to carry out nonsurgical treatment and dietary procedures for 108 
chronic diseases, convalescent stages, acute diseases or injuries; 109 
(p) "Outpatient dialysis unit" means (1) an out-of-hospital out-patient 110  Raised Bill No.  5500 
 
 
 
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dialysis unit that is licensed by the department to provide (A) services 111 
on an out-patient basis to persons requiring dialysis on a short-term 112 
basis or for a chronic condition, or (B) training for home dialysis, or (2) 113 
an in-hospital dialysis unit that is a special unit of a licensed hospital 114 
designed, equipped and staffed to (A) offer dialysis therapy on an out-115 
patient basis, (B) provide training for home dialysis, and (C) perform 116 
renal transplantations; [and] 117 
(q) "Hospice agency" means a public or private organization that 118 
provides home care and hospice services to terminally ill patients; [.] 119 
(r) "Psychiatric residential treatment facility" means a nonhospital 120 
facility with a provider agreement with the Department of Social 121 
Services to provide inpatient services to Medicaid-eligible individuals 122 
under the age of twenty-one; [.] and 123 
(s) "Chronic disease hospital" means a long-term hospital having 124 
facilities, medical staff and all necessary personnel for the diagnosis, 125 
care and treatment of chronic diseases. 126 
Sec. 2. Subsection (a) of section 19a-491c of the 2022 supplement to 127 
the general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 128 
thereof (Effective October 1, 2022): 129 
(a) As used in this section: 130 
(1) "Criminal history and patient abuse background search" or 131 
"background search" means (A) a review of the registry of nurse's aides 132 
maintained by the Department of Public Health pursuant to section 20-133 
102bb, (B) checks of state and national criminal history records 134 
conducted in accordance with section 29-17a, and (C) a review of any 135 
other registry specified by the Department of Public Health which the 136 
department deems necessary for the administration of a background 137 
search program. 138 
(2) "Direct access" means physical access to a patient or resident of a 139 
long-term care facility that affords an individual with the opportunity 140  Raised Bill No.  5500 
 
 
 
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to commit abuse or neglect against or misappropriate the property of a 141 
patient or resident. 142 
(3) "Disqualifying offense" means a conviction of (A) any crime 143 
described in 42 USC 1320a-7(a)(1), (2), (3) or (4), (B) a substantiated 144 
finding of neglect, abuse or misappropriation of property by a state or 145 
federal agency pursuant to an investigation conducted in accordance 146 
with 42 USC 1395i-3(g)(1)(C) or 42 USC 1396r(g)(1)(C), or (C) a 147 
conviction of any crime described in section 53a-59a, 53a-60b, 53a-60c, 148 
53a-61a, 53a-321, 53a-322 or 53a-323. 149 
(4) "Long-term care facility" means any facility, agency or provider 150 
that is a nursing home, as defined in section 19a-521, a residential care 151 
home, as defined in section 19a-521, a home health care agency, hospice 152 
agency or home health aide agency, as defined in section 19a-490, as 153 
amended by this act, an assisted living services agency, as defined in 154 
section 19a-490, as amended by this act, an intermediate care facility for 155 
individuals with intellectual disabilities, as defined in 42 USC 1396d(d), 156 
except any such facility operated by a Department of Developmental 157 
Services' program subject to background checks pursuant to section 17a-158 
227a, a chronic disease hospital, as defined in section [19a-550] 19a-490, 159 
as amended by this act, or an agency providing hospice care which is 160 
licensed to provide such care by the Department of Public Health or 161 
certified to provide such care pursuant to 42 USC 1395x. 162 
Sec. 3. Section 19a-535b of the general statutes is repealed and the 163 
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2022): 164 
[(a) As used in this section, a "facility" means a chronic disease 165 
hospital which is a long-term hospital having facilities, medical staff and 166 
all necessary personnel for the diagnosis, care and treatment of chronic 167 
diseases.] 168 
[(b)] A [facility] chronic disease hospital shall not transfer or 169 
discharge a patient from [the facility] such hospital except for medical 170 
reasons, or for the patient's welfare or the welfare of other patients, as 171 
documented in the patient's medical record; or, in the case of a self pay 172  Raised Bill No.  5500 
 
 
 
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patient, for nonpayment or arrearage of more than fifteen days of the 173 
per diem chronic disease hospital room rates for the patient's stay, 174 
except as prohibited by the Social Security Act. In the case of an 175 
involuntary transfer or discharge, the patient and, if known, the 176 
patient's legally liable relative, guardian or conservator and the patient's 177 
personal physician, if the discharge plan is prepared by the medical 178 
director of the chronic disease hospital, shall be given at least thirty 179 
days' written notice of the proposed action to ensure orderly transfer or 180 
discharge.  181 
Sec. 4. Subsection (a) of section 19a-537 of the general statutes is 182 
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 183 
1, 2022): 184 
(a) As used in this section and section 19a-537a: 185 
(1) "Vacancy" means a bed that is available for an admission; 186 
(2) "Nursing home" means any chronic and convalescent facility or 187 
any rest home with nursing supervision, as defined in section 19a-521; 188 
(3) "Hospital" means a general short-term hospital licensed by the 189 
Department of Public Health or a hospital for mental illness, as defined 190 
in section 17a-495, or a chronic disease hospital. [, as defined in section 191 
19-13-D1(a) of the Public Health Code.]  192 
Sec. 5. Subsection (a) of section 19a-550 of the 2022 supplement to the 193 
general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 194 
thereof (Effective October 1, 2022): 195 
(a) (1) As used in this section, (A) "nursing home facility" has the same 196 
meaning as provided in section 19a-521, and (B) "residential care home" 197 
has the same meaning as provided in section 19a-521; [, and (C) "chronic 198 
disease hospital" means a long-term hospital having facilities, medical 199 
staff and all necessary personnel for the diagnosis, care and treatment 200 
of chronic diseases;] and (2) for the purposes of subsections (c) and (d) 201 
of this section, and subsection (b) of section 19a-537, "medically 202  Raised Bill No.  5500 
 
 
 
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contraindicated" means a comprehensive evaluation of the impact of a 203 
potential room transfer on the patient's physical, mental and 204 
psychosocial well-being, which determines that the transfer would 205 
cause new symptoms or exacerbate present symptoms beyond a 206 
reasonable adjustment period resulting in a prolonged or significant 207 
negative outcome that could not be ameliorated through care plan 208 
intervention, as documented by a physician, physician assistant or an 209 
advanced practice registered nurse in a patient's medical record. 210 
Sec. 6. Subsections (a) to (e), inclusive, of section 20-185r of the general 211 
statutes are repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof 212 
(October 1, 2022): 213 
(a) As used in this section: 214 
(1) "Central service technician" means a person who decontaminates, 215 
inspects, assembles, packages and sterilizes reusable medical 216 
instruments or devices [in] for a health care facility, whether such 217 
person is employed by the health care facility or provides services 218 
pursuant to a contract with the health care facility; 219 
(2) "Health care facility" means an outpatient surgical facility, as 220 
defined in section 19a-493b, or a hospital, as defined in section 19a-490, 221 
as amended by this act, but does not include a chronic disease hospital, 222 
as defined in section [19a-550] 19a-490, as amended by this act; 223 
(3) "Health care provider" means a person or organization that 224 
provides health care services and is licensed in accordance with this title; 225 
and 226 
(4) "Central service department" means a department within a health 227 
care facility that processes, issues and controls medical supplies, devices 228 
and equipment, both sterile and nonsterile, for patient care areas of a 229 
health care facility. 230 
(b) Unless otherwise permitted pursuant to this section, no person 231 
shall practice as a central service technician unless such person (1) (A) 232  Raised Bill No.  5500 
 
 
 
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has successfully passed a nationally accredited central service exam for 233 
central service technicians and holds and maintains one of the following 234 
credentials: (i) A certified registered central service technician credential 235 
administered by the International Association of Healthcare Central 236 
Service Materiel Management, or its successor organization, or (ii) a 237 
certified sterile processing and distribution technician credential 238 
administered by the Certification Board for Sterile Processing and 239 
Distribution, Inc., or (B) was employed or otherwise contracted for 240 
services as a central service technician [in] by a health care facility before 241 
January 1, 2016, or (2) obtains a certified registered central service 242 
technician credential administered by the International Association of 243 
Healthcare Central Service Materiel Management, or its successor 244 
organization, or a certified sterile processing and distribution technician 245 
credential administered by the Certification Board for Sterile Processing 246 
and Distribution, Inc., not later than two years after such person's date 247 
of hire or contracting for services with the health care facility. 248 
(c) A central service technician shall complete a minimum of ten 249 
hours of continuing education annually. The continuing education shall 250 
be in areas related to the functions of a central service technician. 251 
(d) A health care facility shall, upon the written request of a central 252 
service technician, verify, in writing, the central service technician's 253 
dates of employment or the contract period during which the central 254 
service technician provided services to the health care facility. 255 
(e) Nothing in this section shall prohibit the following persons from 256 
performing the tasks or functions of a central service technician: (1) A 257 
health care provider; (2) a student or intern performing the functions of 258 
a central service technician under the direct supervision of a health care 259 
provider as part of the student's or intern's training or internship; or (3) 260 
a person who does not work in a central service department in a health 261 
care facility, but who has been specially trained and determined 262 
competent, based on standards set by a health care facility's infection 263 
prevention or control committee, acting in consultation with a central 264 
service technician certified in accordance with subsection (b) of this 265  Raised Bill No.  5500 
 
 
 
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section, to decontaminate or sterilize reusable medical equipment, 266 
instruments or devices, in a manner that meets ap plicable 267 
manufacturer's instructions and standards. 268 
Sec. 7. Subsection (a) of section 12-20a of the general statutes is 269 
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 270 
1, 2022): 271 
(a) Until the fiscal year commencing July 1, 2016, on or before January 272 
first, annually, the Secretary of the Office of Policy and Management 273 
shall determine the amount due to each municipality in the state, in 274 
accordance with this section, as a state grant in lieu of taxes with respect 275 
to real property owned by any private nonprofit institution of higher 276 
learning or any nonprofit general hospital facility or freestanding 277 
chronic disease hospital or an urgent care facility that operates for at 278 
least twelve hours a day and that had been the location of a nonprofit 279 
general hospital for at least a portion of calendar year 1996 to receive 280 
payments in lieu of taxes for such property, exclusive of any such facility 281 
operated by the federal government, except a campus of the United 282 
States Department of Veterans Affairs Connecticut Healthcare Systems, 283 
or the state of Connecticut or any subdivision thereof. As used in this 284 
section, "private nonprofit institution of higher learning" means any 285 
such institution, as defined in subsection (a) of section 10a-34, or any 286 
independent institution of higher education, as defined in subsection (a) 287 
of section 10a-173, that is engaged primarily in education beyond the 288 
high school level, and offers courses of instruction for which college or 289 
university-level credit may be given or may be received by transfer, the 290 
property of which is exempt from property tax under any of the 291 
subdivisions of section 12-81, as amended by this act; "nonprofit general 292 
hospital facility" means any such facility that is used primarily for the 293 
purpose of general medical care and treatment, exclusive of any hospital 294 
facility used primarily for the care and treatment of special types of 295 
disease or physical or mental conditions; and "freestanding chronic 296 
disease hospital" [means a facility that provides for the care and 297 
treatment of chronic diseases] has the same meaning as "chronic disease 298 
hospital" as defined in section 19a-490, as amended by this act, 299  Raised Bill No.  5500 
 
 
 
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excluding any such facility having an ownership affiliation with and 300 
operated in the same location as a chronic and convalescent nursing 301 
home. 302 
Sec. 8. Section 17b-368 of the general statutes is repealed and the 303 
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2022): 304 
On or before July 1, 2004, the Department of Social Services shall, 305 
within the limits of available Medicaid funding, implement a pilot 306 
project in Greater Hartford with a chronic disease hospital colocated 307 
with a skilled nursing facility and with the facilities, medical staff and 308 
all necessary personnel for the diagnosis, care and treatment of chronic 309 
or geriatric mental conditions that require prolonged hospital or 310 
restorative care. For purposes of this section, "chronic disease hospital" 311 
[means a long-term hospital with facilities, medical staff and all 312 
necessary personnel for the diagnosis, care and treatment of chronic 313 
physical and geriatric mental health conditions that require prolonged 314 
hospital or restorative care] has the same meaning as provided in section 315 
19a-490, as amended by this act. 316 
Sec. 9. Subsection (a) of section 19a-491 of the 2022 supplement to the 317 
general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 318 
thereof (Effective from passage): 319 
(a) No person acting individually or jointly with any other person 320 
shall establish, conduct, operate or maintain an institution in this state 321 
without a license as required by this chapter, except for persons issued 322 
a license by the Commissioner of Children and Families pursuant to 323 
section 17a-145 for the operation of (1) a substance abuse treatment 324 
facility, or (2) a facility for the purpose of caring for women during 325 
pregnancies and for women and their infants following such 326 
pregnancies, provided such exception shall not apply to the hospital and 327 
psychiatric residential treatment facility units of the Albert J. Solnit 328 
Children's Center. Application for such license shall (A) be made to the 329 
Department of Public Health upon forms provided by it, (B) be 330 
accompanied by the fee required under subsection (c), (d) or (e) of this 331  Raised Bill No.  5500 
 
 
 
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section, (C) contain such information as the department requires, which 332 
may include affirmative evidence of ability to comply with reasonable 333 
standards and regulations prescribed under the provisions of this 334 
chapter, and (D) not be required to be notarized. The commissioner may 335 
require as a condition of licensure that an applicant sign a consent order 336 
providing reasonable assurances of compliance with the Public Health 337 
Code. The commissioner may issue more than one chronic disease 338 
hospital license to a single institution until such time as the state offers 339 
a rehabilitation hospital license. 340 
Sec. 10. Subsection (a) of section 19a-497 of the general statutes is 341 
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 342 
1, 2022): 343 
(a) Each institution shall, upon receipt of a notice of intention to strike 344 
by a labor organization representing the employees of such institution, 345 
in accordance with the provisions of the National Labor Relations Act, 346 
29 USC 158, file a strike contingency plan with the commissioner not 347 
later than five days before the date indicated for the strike. Such strike 348 
contingency plan shall include the institution's staffing plan for at least 349 
the first three days of such strike. The strike contingency plan shall 350 
include, but need not be limited to, the names and titles of the 351 
individuals who will be providing services at the institution.  352 
Sec. 11. Subsections (a) and (b) of section 19a-515 of the general 353 
statutes are repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof 354 
(Effective from passage): 355 
(a) Each nursing home administrator's license issued pursuant to the 356 
provisions of sections 19a-511 to 19a-520, inclusive, shall be renewed 357 
once every two years, in accordance with section 19a-88, except for 358 
cause, by the Department of Public Health, upon forms to be furnished 359 
by said department and upon the payment to said department, by each 360 
applicant for license renewal, of the sum of two hundred five dollars. 361 
Each such fee shall be remitted to the Department of Public Health on 362 
or before the date prescribed under section 19a-88. Such renewals shall 363  Raised Bill No.  5500 
 
 
 
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be granted unless said department finds the applicant has acted or failed 364 
to act in such a manner or under such circumstances as would constitute 365 
grounds for suspension or revocation of such license. 366 
(b) Each licensee shall complete a minimum of forty hours of 367 
continuing education every two years, including, but not limited to, 368 
training in (1) Alzheimer's disease and dementia symptoms and care, 369 
and (2) infection prevention and control. Such two-year period shall 370 
commence on the first date of renewal of the licensee's license after 371 
January 1, 2004. The continuing education shall be in areas related to the 372 
licensee's practice. Qualifying continuing education activities are 373 
courses offered or approved by the Connecticut Association of 374 
Healthcare Facilities, LeadingAge Connecticut, Inc., the Connecticut 375 
Assisted Living Association, the Connecticut Alliance for Subacute 376 
Care, Inc., the Connecticut Chapter of the American College of Health 377 
Care Administrators, the Association For Long Term Care Financial 378 
Managers, the Alzheimer's Association or any accredited college or 379 
university, or programs presented or approved by the National 380 
Continuing Education Review Service of the National Association of 381 
Boards of Examiners of Long Term Care Administrators, the 382 
Association for Professionals in Infection Control and Epidemiology or 383 
by federal or state departments or agencies. 384 
Sec. 12. Subsection (a) of section 19a-492e of the 2022 supplement to 385 
the general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 386 
thereof (Effective October 1, 2022): 387 
(a) For purposes of this section "home health care agency" and 388 
"hospice agency" have the same meanings as provided in section 19a-389 
490, as amended by this act. Notwithstanding the provisions of chapter 390 
378, a registered nurse may delegate the administration of medications 391 
that are not administered by injection to home health aides and hospice 392 
aides who have obtained (1) certification and recertification every three 393 
years thereafter for medication administration in accordance with 394 
regulations adopted pursuant to subsection (b) of this section, or (2) a 395 
current certification from the Department of Children and Families or 396  Raised Bill No.  5500 
 
 
 
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the Department of Developmental Services in accordance with section 397 
19a-495a, as amended by this act, unless the prescribing practitioner 398 
specifies that a medication shall only be administered by a licensed 399 
nurse. [Any home health aide or hospice aide who obtained certification 400 
in the administration of medications on or before June 30, 2015, shall 401 
obtain recertification on or before July 1, 2018.] 402 
Sec. 13. Subsections (a) and (b) of section 19a-495a of the general 403 
statutes are repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof 404 
(Effective October 1, 2022): 405 
(a) (1) The Commissioner of Public Health may adopt regulations, as 406 
provided in subsection (d) of this section, to require each residential care 407 
home [, as defined in section 19a-490] that admits residents requiring 408 
assistance with medication administration, to (A) designate unlicensed 409 
personnel to obtain certification for the administration of medication 410 
from the Department of Public Health, Department of Children and 411 
Families or Department of Developmental Services, and (B) ensure that 412 
such unlicensed personnel receive such certification and recertification 413 
every three years thereafter from the Department of Public Health, 414 
Department of Children and Families or Department of Developmental 415 
Services. 416 
(2) Any regulations adopted pursuant to this subsection shall 417 
establish criteria to be used by such homes in determining (A) the 418 
appropriate number of unlicensed personnel who shall obtain such 419 
certification and recertification, and (B) training requirements, 420 
including ongoing training requirements for such certification and 421 
recertification. 422 
(3) Training requirements for initial certification and recertification 423 
shall include, but shall not be limited to: Initial orientation, resident 424 
rights, identification of the types of medication that may be 425 
administered by unlicensed personnel, behavioral management, 426 
personal care, nutrition and food safety, and health and safety in 427 
general. 428  Raised Bill No.  5500 
 
 
 
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(b) Each residential care home [, as defined in section 19a-490,] shall 429 
ensure that an appropriate number of unlicensed personnel, as 430 
determined by the residential care home, obtain certification and 431 
recertification for the administration of medication from the 432 
Department of Public Health, Department of Children and Families or 433 
Department of Developmental Services. Certification and recertification 434 
of such personnel shall be in accordance with any regulations adopted 435 
pursuant to this section. [, except any personnel who obtained 436 
certification in the administration of medication on or before June 30, 437 
2015, shall obtain recertification on or before July 1, 2018.] Unlicensed 438 
personnel obtaining such certification and recertification may 439 
administer medications that are not administered by injection to 440 
residents of such homes, unless a resident's physician specifies that a 441 
medication only be administered by licensed personnel. 442 
Sec. 14. (Effective from passage) The Commissioner of Public Health 443 
shall conduct a scope of practice review pursuant to sections 19a-16d to 444 
19a-16f, inclusive, of the general statutes, as amended by this act, to 445 
determine whether the Department of Public Health should regulate 446 
midwives who are not eligible for licensure as nurse-midwives, licensed 447 
pursuant to chapter 377 of the general statutes. The commissioner shall 448 
report, in accordance with the provisions of section 11-4a of the general 449 
statutes, the findings of such review and any recommendations to the 450 
joint standing committee of the General Assembly having cognizance of 451 
matters relating to public health on or before February 1, 2023. 452 
Sec. 15. Section 20-90 of the general statutes is repealed and the 453 
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage): 454 
(a) [Said board may adopt a seal. The Commissioner of Public Health, 455 
with advice and assistance from the board, and in consultation with the 456 
State Board of Education, shall adopt regulations, in accordance with 457 
the provisions of chapter 54, permitting and setting standards for 458 
courses for the training of practical nurses to be offered in high schools 459 
or by the Technical Education and Career System for students who have 460 
not yet acquired a high school diploma. Students who satisfactorily 461  Raised Bill No.  5500 
 
 
 
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complete courses approved by said Board of Examiners for Nursing, 462 
with the consent of the Commissioner of Public Health, as meeting such 463 
standards shall be given credit for each such course toward the 464 
requirements for a practical nurse's license. All schools of nursing in this 465 
state, except such schools accredited by the National League for Nursing 466 
or other professional accrediting association approved by the United 467 
States Department of Education and recognized by the Commissioner 468 
of Public Health, and all schools for training licensed practical nurses 469 
and all hospitals connected to such schools] The Connecticut State Board 470 
of Examiners for Nursing shall have the following duties: (1) Hear and 471 
decide matters concerning suspension or revocation of licensure; (2) 472 
adjudicate complaints filed against practitioners licensed under this 473 
chapter and impose sanctions where appropriate; (3) approve schools of 474 
nursing in the state that prepare persons for examination under the 475 
provisions of this chapter; and (4) consult, where possible, with national 476 
recognized accrediting agencies when approving schools pursuant to 477 
subdivision (3) of this subsection. The board may adopt a seal. 478 
(b) All schools of nursing in the state that prepare persons for 479 
examination under the provisions of this chapter, shall be (1) visited 480 
periodically by a representative of the Department of Public Health who 481 
shall be a registered nurse or a person experienced in the field of nursing 482 
education, and (2) approved by the Connecticut State Board of 483 
Examiners for Nursing pursuant to subdivisions (3) and (4) of 484 
subsection (a) of this section. 485 
(c) The [board shall keep] Department of Public Health shall post a 486 
list of all nursing programs and all programs for training licensed 487 
practical nurses that are approved by [it, with the consent of the 488 
Commissioner of Public Health, as maintaining] the Connecticut State 489 
Board of Examiners for Nursing and maintain the standard for the 490 
education of nurses and the training of licensed practical nurses as 491 
established by the [commissioner. The board shall consult, where 492 
possible, with nationally recognized accrediting agencies when 493 
approving schools] Commissioner of Public Health on the department's 494 
Internet web site. 495  Raised Bill No.  5500 
 
 
 
LCO No. 3709   	17 of 42 
 
[(b)] (d) Said board shall (1) hear and decide matters concerning 496 
suspension or revocation of licensure, (2) adjudicate complaints filed 497 
against practitioners licensed under this chapter and impose sanctions 498 
where appropriate. 499 
Sec. 16. Subsections (c) and (d) of section 19a-16d of the general 500 
statutes are repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof 501 
(Effective from passage): 502 
(c) In any year in which a scope of practice request is received 503 
pursuant to this section, not later than September [fifteenth] first of the 504 
year preceding the commencement of the next regular session of the 505 
General Assembly, the Department of Public Health, within available 506 
appropriations, shall: (1) Provide written notification to the joint 507 
standing committee of the General Assembly having cognizance of 508 
matters relating to public health of any health care profession that has 509 
submitted a scope of practice request, including any request for 510 
exemption, to the department pursuant to this section; and (2) post any 511 
such request, including any request for exemption, and the name and 512 
address of the requestor on the department's Internet web site. 513 
(d) Any person or entity, acting on behalf of a health care profession 514 
that may be directly impacted by a scope of practice request submitted 515 
pursuant to this section, may submit to the department a written 516 
statement identifying the nature of the impact not later than [October 517 
first] September fifteenth of the year preceding the next regular session 518 
of the General Assembly. Any such person or entity directly impacted 519 
by a scope of practice request shall indicate the nature of the impact 520 
taking into consideration the criteria set forth in subsection (b) of this 521 
section and shall provide a copy of the written impact statement to the 522 
requestor. Not later than October [fifteenth] first of such year, the 523 
requestor shall submit a written response to the department and any 524 
person or entity that has provided a written impact statement. The 525 
requestor's written response shall include, but not be limited to, a 526 
description of areas of agreement and disagreement between the 527 
respective health care professions. 528  Raised Bill No.  5500 
 
 
 
LCO No. 3709   	18 of 42 
 
Sec. 17. Subsection (a) of section 19a-16e of the general statutes is 529 
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from 530 
passage): 531 
(a) On or before [November first] October fifteenth of the year 532 
preceding the commencement of the next regular session of the General 533 
Assembly, the Commissioner of Public Health shall, within available 534 
appropriations allocated to the department, establish and appoint 535 
members to a scope of practice review committee for each timely scope 536 
of practice request submitted to the department pursuant to section 19a-537 
16d, as amended by this act. Committees established pursuant to this 538 
section shall consist of the following members: (1) Two members 539 
recommended by the requestor to represent the health care profession 540 
making the scope of practice request; (2) two members recommended 541 
by each person or entity that has submitted a written impact statement 542 
pursuant to subsection (d) of section 19a-16d, as amended by this act, to 543 
represent the health care professions directly impacted by the scope of 544 
practice request; and (3) the Commissioner of Public Health or the 545 
commissioner's designee, who shall serve as an ex-officio, nonvoting 546 
member of the committee. The Commissioner of Public Health or the 547 
commissioner's designee shall serve as the chairperson of any such 548 
committee. The Commissioner of Public Health may appoint additional 549 
members to any committee established pursuant to this section to 550 
include representatives from health care professions having a proximate 551 
relationship to the underlying request if the commissioner or the 552 
commissioner's designee determines that such expansion would be 553 
beneficial to a resolution of the issues presented. Any member of such 554 
committee shall serve without compensation. 555 
Sec. 18. Subsection (c) of section 20-132a of the 2022 supplement to 556 
the general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 557 
thereof (Effective from passage): 558 
(c) (1) Except as provided in this section, a licensee who is actively 559 
engaged in the practice of optometry shall earn a minimum of twenty 560 
hours of continuing education each registration period. The subject 561  Raised Bill No.  5500 
 
 
 
LCO No. 3709   	19 of 42 
 
matter for continuing education shall reflect the professional needs of 562 
the licensee in order to meet the health care needs of the public, and shall 563 
include [(1)] (A) not less than six hours in any of the following areas: 564 
Pathology, detection of diabetes and ocular treatment; and [(2)] (B) not 565 
less than six hours in treatment as it applies to the use of ocular agents-566 
T. 567 
(2) Coursework shall be provided in the following manner: (A) Not 568 
less than ten hours shall be earned through direct, live instruction that 569 
the licensee physically attends; [either individually or as part of a group 570 
of participants or through a formal home study or distance learning 571 
program. Not] (B) not more than ten hours shall be earned through 572 
synchronous online education with opportunities for live interaction; 573 
(C) not more than [six] five hours shall be earned through [a home study 574 
or other distance learning program] asynchronous online education, 575 
distance learning or home study; and (D) not more than six hours shall 576 
be in practice management. For the purposes of this subdivision, 577 
"synchronous online education" means live online classes that are 578 
conducted in real time and "asynchronous online education" means a 579 
program where the instructor, learner and other participants are not 580 
engaged in the learning process at the same time, there is no real-time 581 
interaction between participants and instructors and the educational 582 
content is created and made available for later consumption. 583 
(3) Qualifying continuing education activities include, but are not 584 
limited to, courses offered or approved by the Council on Optometric 585 
Practitioner Education of the Association of Regulatory Boards of 586 
Optometry, the American Optometric Association or state or local 587 
optometry associations and societies that are affiliated with the 588 
American Optometric Association, a hospital or other health care 589 
institution, a school or college of optometry or other institution of higher 590 
education accredited or recognized by the Council on Optometric 591 
Practitioner Education or the American Optometric Association, a state 592 
or local health department, or a national, state or local medical 593 
association. 594  Raised Bill No.  5500 
 
 
 
LCO No. 3709   	20 of 42 
 
Sec. 19. Subsection (b) of section 19a-14c of the 2022 supplement to 595 
the general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 596 
thereof (Effective from passage): 597 
(b) A psychiatrist licensed pursuant to chapter 370, a psychologist 598 
licensed pursuant to chapter 383, [an independent] a clinical social 599 
worker [certified] licensed pursuant to chapter 383b or a marital and 600 
family therapist licensed pursuant to chapter 383a may provide 601 
outpatient mental health treatment to a minor without the consent or 602 
notification of a parent or guardian at the request of the minor if (1) 603 
requiring the consent or notification of a parent or guardian would 604 
cause the minor to reject such treatment; (2) the provision of such 605 
treatment is clinically indicated; (3) the failure to provide such treatment 606 
would be seriously detrimental to the minor's well-being; (4) the minor 607 
has knowingly and voluntarily sought such treatment; and (5) in the 608 
opinion of the provider of treatment, the minor is mature enough to 609 
participate in treatment productively. The provider of such treatment 610 
shall document the reasons for any determination made to treat a minor 611 
without the consent or notification of a parent or guardian and shall 612 
include such documentation in the minor's clinical record, along with a 613 
written statement signed by the minor stating that (A) the minor is 614 
voluntarily seeking such treatment; (B) the minor has discussed with the 615 
provider the possibility of involving his or her parent or guardian in the 616 
decision to pursue such treatment; (C) the minor has determined it is 617 
not in his or her best interest to involve his or her parent or guardian in 618 
such decision; and (D) the minor has been given adequate opportunity 619 
to ask the provider questions about the course of his or her treatment. 620 
Sec. 20. Subsection (b) of section 20-12j of the 2022 supplement to the 621 
general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 622 
thereof (Effective from passage): 623 
(b) Each person holding a license as a physician assistant shall, 624 
annually, during the month of such person's birth, [register] renew such 625 
license with the Department of Public Health, upon payment of a fee of 626 
one hundred fifty-five dollars, on [blanks] a form to be [furnished] 627  Raised Bill No.  5500 
 
 
 
LCO No. 3709   	21 of 42 
 
provided by the department for such purpose, giving such person's 628 
name in full, such person's residence and business address and such 629 
other information as the department requests. No such license shall be 630 
renewed unless the department is satisfied that the practitioner (1) has 631 
met the mandatory continuing medical education requirements of the 632 
National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants or a 633 
successor organization for the certification or recertification of physician 634 
assistants that may be approved by the department; (2) has passed any 635 
examination or continued competency assessment the passage of which 636 
may be required by said commission for maintenance of current 637 
certification by said commission; (3) has completed not less than one 638 
contact hour of training or education in prescribing controlled 639 
substances and pain management in the preceding two-year period; and 640 
(4) for registration periods beginning on [or before] and after January 1, 641 
2022, during the first renewal period and not less than once every six 642 
years thereafter, earn not less than two contact hours of training or 643 
education screening for post-traumatic stress disorder, risk of suicide, 644 
depression and grief and suicide prevention training administered by 645 
the American [Association] Academy of Physician Assistants, or the 646 
American Academy of Physician Assistants' successor organization, a 647 
hospital or other licensed health care institution or a regionally 648 
accredited institution of higher education. 649 
Sec. 21. Subparagraph (B) of subdivision (8) of section 19a-177 of the 650 
2022 supplement to the general statutes is repealed and the following is 651 
substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage): 652 
(B) On or before [December 31, 2018] April 1, 2023, and annually 653 
thereafter, the commissioner shall prepare a report to the Emergency 654 
Medical Services Advisory Board, established pursuant to section 19a-655 
178a, that shall include, but not be limited to, the following data: (i) The 656 
total number of calls for emergency medical services received during 657 
the reporting year by each licensed ambulance service, certified 658 
ambulance service or paramedic intercept service; (ii) the level of 659 
emergency medical services required for each such call; (iii) the name of 660 
the emergency medical service organization that provided each such 661  Raised Bill No.  5500 
 
 
 
LCO No. 3709   	22 of 42 
 
level of emergency medical services furnished during the reporting 662 
year; (iv) the response time, by time ranges or fractile response times, 663 
for each licensed ambulance service, certified ambulance service or 664 
paramedic intercept service, using a common definition of response 665 
time, as provided in regulations adopted pursuant to section 19a-179; 666 
and (v) the number of passed calls, cancelled calls and mutual aid calls 667 
during the reporting year. The commissioner shall prepare such report 668 
in a format that categorizes such data for each municipality in which the 669 
emergency medical services were provided, with each such 670 
municipality grouped according to urban, suburban and rural 671 
classifications. 672 
Sec. 22. Subdivision (5) of section 14-1 of the 2022 supplement to the 673 
general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 674 
thereof (Effective from passage): 675 
(5) "Authorized emergency vehicle" means (A) a fire department 676 
vehicle, (B) a police vehicle, or (C) an [ambulance] authorized 677 
emergency medical services vehicle, as defined in section 19a-175; 678 
Sec. 23. Subsection (a) of section 19a-30 of the 2022 supplement to the 679 
general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 680 
thereof (Effective October 1, 2022): 681 
(a) As used in this section, "clinical laboratory" [means any facility or 682 
other area used for microbiological, serological, chemical, 683 
hematological, immunohematological, biophysical, cytological, 684 
pathological or other examinations of human body fluids, secretions, 685 
excretions or excised or exfoliated tissues, for the purpose of providing 686 
information for the diagnosis, prevention or treatment of any human 687 
disease or impairment, for the assessment of human health or for the 688 
presence of drugs, poisons or other toxicological substances] has the 689 
same meaning as provided in section 19a-490, as amended by this act. 690 
Sec. 24. Section 19a-31b of the general statutes is repealed and the 691 
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2022): 692  Raised Bill No.  5500 
 
 
 
LCO No. 3709   	23 of 42 
 
No clinical laboratory, as defined in section [19a-30] 19a-490, as 693 
amended by this act, that offers hair follicle drug testing as part of its 694 
array of diagnostic testing services shall refuse to administer a hair 695 
follicle drug test that has been ordered by a physician or physician 696 
assistant, licensed under chapter 370, or an advanced practice registered 697 
nurse, licensed under chapter 378. 698 
Sec. 25. Subdivisions (1) and (2) of subsection (a) of section 19a-72 of 699 
the 2022 supplement to the general statutes are repealed and the 700 
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2022): 701 
(1) "Clinical laboratory" [means any facility or other area used for 702 
microbiological, serological, chemical, hematological, 703 
immunohematological, biophysical, cytological, pathological or other 704 
examinations of human body fluids, secretions, excretions or excised or 705 
exfoliated tissues, for the purpose of providing information for the 706 
diagnosis, prevention or treatment of any human disease or 707 
impairment, for the assessment of human health or for the presence of 708 
drugs, poisons or other toxicological substances] has the same meaning 709 
as provided in section 19a-490, as amended by this act; 710 
(2) "Hospital" [means an establishment for the lodging, care and 711 
treatment of persons suffering from disease or other abnormal physical 712 
or mental conditions and includes inpatient psychiatric services in 713 
general hospitals] has the same meaning as provided in section 19a-490, 714 
as amended by this act; 715 
Sec. 26. Subdivision (1) of subsection (a) of section 19a-215 of the 2022 716 
supplement to the general statutes is repealed and the following is 717 
substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from October 1, 2022): 718 
(1) "Clinical laboratory" [means any facility or other area used for 719 
microbiological, serological, chemical, hematological, 720 
immunohematological, biophysical, cytological, pathological or other 721 
examinations of human body fluids, secretions, excretions or excised or 722 
exfoliated tissues, for the purpose of providing information for the 723 
diagnosis, prevention or treatment of any human disease or 724  Raised Bill No.  5500 
 
 
 
LCO No. 3709   	24 of 42 
 
impairment, for the assessment of human health or for the presence of 725 
drugs, poisons or other toxicological substances] has the same meaning 726 
as provided in section 19a-490, as amended by this act. 727 
Sec. 27. Subsection (a) of section 19a-269b of the general statutes is 728 
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 729 
1, 2022): 730 
(a) As used in this section, "clinical laboratory" has the same meaning 731 
as provided in section [19a-30] 19a-490, as amended by this act. 732 
Sec. 28. Subsection (d) of section 20-7a of the general statutes is 733 
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 734 
1, 2022): 735 
(d) No person or entity, other than a physician licensed under chapter 736 
370, a clinical laboratory, as defined in section [19a-30] 19a-490, as 737 
amended by this act, or a referring clinical laboratory, shall directly or 738 
indirectly charge, bill or otherwise solicit payment for the provision of 739 
anatomic pathology services, unless such services were personally 740 
rendered by or under the direct supervision of such physician, clinical 741 
laboratory or referring laboratory in accordance with section 353 of the 742 
Public Health Service Act, (42 USC 263a). A clinical laboratory or 743 
referring laboratory may only solicit payment for anatomic pathology 744 
services from the patient, a hospital, the responsible insurer of a third 745 
party payor, or a governmental agency or such agency's public or 746 
private agent that is acting on behalf of the recipient of such services. 747 
Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to prohibit a clinical 748 
laboratory from billing a referring clinical laboratory when specimens 749 
are transferred between such laboratories for histologic or cytologic 750 
processing or consultation. No patient or other third party payor, as 751 
described in this subsection, shall be required to reimburse any provider 752 
for charges or claims submitted in violation of this section. For purposes 753 
of this subsection, (1) "referring clinical laboratory" means a clinical 754 
laboratory that refers a patient specimen for consultation or anatomic 755 
pathology services, excluding the laboratory of a physician's office or 756  Raised Bill No.  5500 
 
 
 
LCO No. 3709   	25 of 42 
 
group practice that takes a patient specimen and does not perform the 757 
professional diagnostic component of the anatomic pathology services 758 
involved, and (2) "anatomic pathology services" means the gross and 759 
microscopic examination and histologic or cytologic processing of 760 
human specimens, including histopathology or surgical pathology, 761 
cytopathology, hematology, subcellular pathology or molecular 762 
pathology or blood banking service performed by a pathologist. 763 
Sec. 29. Subsection (a) of section 20-7c of the general statutes is 764 
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 765 
1, 2022): 766 
(a) For purposes of this section, "clinical laboratory" has the same 767 
meaning as provided in section [19a-30] 19a-490, as amended by this act. 768 
"Clinical laboratory" does not include any state laboratory established 769 
by the Department of Public Health pursuant to section 19a-26 or 19a-770 
29. 771 
Sec. 30. Subparagraph (A) of subdivision (6) of subsection (a) of 772 
section 38a-477aa of the general statutes is repealed and the following is 773 
substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2022): 774 
(6) (A) "Surprise bill" means a bill for health care services, other than 775 
emergency services, received by an insured for services rendered by an 776 
out-of-network health care provider, where such services were rendered 777 
by (i) such out-of-network provider at an in-network facility, during a 778 
service or procedure performed by an in-network provider or during a 779 
service or procedure previously approved or authorized by the health 780 
carrier and the insured did not knowingly elect to obtain such services 781 
from such out-of-network provider, or (ii) a clinical laboratory, as 782 
defined in section [19a-30] 19a-490, as amended by this act, that is an 783 
out-of-network provider, upon the referral of an in-network provider. 784 
Sec. 31. Section 7-51a of the 2022 supplement to the general statutes 785 
is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from 786 
passage): 787  Raised Bill No.  5500 
 
 
 
LCO No. 3709   	26 of 42 
 
(a) Any person eighteen years of age or older may purchase certified 788 
copies of marriage and death records, and certified copies of records of 789 
births or fetal deaths which are at least one hundred years old, in the 790 
custody of any registrar of vital statistics. The department may issue 791 
uncertified copies of death certificates for deaths occurring less than one 792 
hundred years ago, and uncertified copies of birth, marriage, death and 793 
fetal death certificates for births, marriages, deaths and fetal deaths that 794 
occurred at least one hundred years ago, to researchers approved by the 795 
department pursuant to section 19a-25, and to state and federal agencies 796 
approved by the department. During all normal business hours, 797 
members of genealogical societies incorporated or authorized by the 798 
Secretary of the State to do business or conduct affairs in this state shall 799 
(1) have full access to all vital records in the custody of any registrar of 800 
vital statistics, including certificates, ledgers, record books, card files, 801 
indexes and database printouts, except for those records containing 802 
Social Security numbers protected pursuant to 42 USC 405 (c)(2)(C), and 803 
confidential files on adoptions, gender change, surrogacy agreements, 804 
and parentage, (2) be permitted to make notes from such records, (3) be 805 
permitted to purchase certified copies of such records, and (4) be 806 
permitted to incorporate statistics derived from such records in the 807 
publications of such genealogical societies. For all vital records 808 
containing Social Security numbers that are protected from disclosure 809 
pursuant to federal law, the Social Security numbers contained on such 810 
records shall be redacted from any certified copy of such records issued 811 
to a genealogist by a registrar of vital statistics. 812 
(b) For marriage and civil union licenses, the Social Security numbers 813 
of the parties to the marriage or civil union shall be recorded in the 814 
"administrative purposes" section of the marriage or civil union license 815 
and the application for such license. All persons specified on the license, 816 
including the parties to the marriage or civil union, officiator and local 817 
registrar shall have access to the Social Security numbers specified on 818 
the marriage or civil union license and the application for such license 819 
for the purpose of processing the license. Only the parties to a marriage 820 
or civil union, or entities authorized by state or federal law, may receive 821  Raised Bill No.  5500 
 
 
 
LCO No. 3709   	27 of 42 
 
a certified copy of a marriage or civil union license with the Social 822 
Security numbers included on the license. Any other individual, 823 
researcher or state or federal agency requesting a certified or uncertified 824 
copy of any marriage or civil union license in accordance with the 825 
provisions of this section shall be provided such copy with such Social 826 
Security numbers removed or redacted, or with the "administrative 827 
purposes" section omitted. 828 
(c) For deaths occurring on or after July 1, 1997, the Social Security 829 
number of the deceased person shall be recorded in the "administrative 830 
purposes" section of the death certificate. Such administrative purposes 831 
section, and the Social Security number contained therein, shall be 832 
restricted and disclosed only to the following eligible parties: (1) All 833 
parties specified on the death certificate, including the informant, 834 
licensed funeral director, licensed embalmer, conservator, surviving 835 
spouse, physician or advanced practice registered nurse and town clerk, 836 
for the purpose of processing the certificate, (2) the surviving spouse, (3) 837 
the next of kin, or (4) any state and federal agencies authorized by 838 
federal law. The department shall provide any other individual, 839 
researcher or state or federal agency requesting a certified or uncertified 840 
death certificate, or the information contained within such certificate, 841 
for a death occurring on or after July 1, 1997, such certificate or 842 
information. The decedent's Social Security number shall be removed or 843 
redacted from such certificate or information or the administrative 844 
purposes section shall be omitted from such certificate. 845 
(d) The registrar of vital statistics of any town or city in this state that 846 
has access to an electronic vital records system, as authorized by the 847 
department, may use such system to issue certified copies of birth, 848 
death, fetal death or marriage certificates that are electronically filed in 849 
such system. 850 
[(e) Any registrar of vital statistics who receives payment pursuant to 851 
this section may permit such payment to be made on an Internet web 852 
site designated by the registrar, in a manner prescribed by the registrar.] 853  Raised Bill No.  5500 
 
 
 
LCO No. 3709   	28 of 42 
 
Sec. 32. Section 7-74 of the general statutes is repealed and the 854 
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage): 855 
(a) The fee for a certification of birth registration, short form, shall be 856 
fifteen dollars. The fee for a certified copy of a certificate of birth, long 857 
form, shall be twenty dollars, except that the fee for such certifications 858 
and copies when issued by the department shall be thirty dollars. 859 
(b) (1) The fee for a certified copy of a certificate of marriage or death 860 
shall be twenty dollars. Such fees shall not be required of the 861 
department. 862 
(2) Any fee received by the Department of Public Health for a 863 
certificate of death shall be deposited in the neglected cemetery account, 864 
established in accordance with section 19a-308b. 865 
(c) The fee for one certified copy of a certificate of death for any 866 
deceased person who was a veteran, as defined in subsection (a) of 867 
section 27-103, shall be waived when such copy is requested by a 868 
spouse, child or parent of such deceased veteran. 869 
(d) The fee for an uncertified copy of an original certificate of birth 870 
issued pursuant to section 7-53 shall be sixty-five dollars. 871 
(e) Any registrar of vital statistics who receives payment pursuant to 872 
this section may permit such payment to be made on an Internet web 873 
site designated by the registrar, in a manner prescribed by the registrar, 874 
as approved by the Commissioner of Public Health, or the 875 
commissioner's designee. 876 
Sec. 33. Subsections (c) and (d) of section 19a-36m of the general 877 
statutes are repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof 878 
(Effective from passage): 879 
(c) The provisions of the food code that concern the employment of a 880 
certified food protection manager and any reporting requirements 881 
relative to such certified food protection manager [(1)] shall not apply 882 
to [(A)] (1) an owner or operator of a soup kitchen that relies exclusively 883  Raised Bill No.  5500 
 
 
 
LCO No. 3709   	29 of 42 
 
on services provided by volunteers, [(B)] (2) any volunteer who serves 884 
meals from a nonprofit organization, including a temporary food 885 
service establishment and a special event sponsored by a nonprofit civic 886 
organization, including, but not limited to, school sporting events, little 887 
league food booths, church suppers and fairs, or [(C)] (3) any person 888 
who serves meals to individuals at a registered congregate meal site 889 
funded under Title III of the Older Americans Act of 1965, as amended 890 
from time to time, that were prepared under the supervision of a 891 
certified food protection manager. [, and (2) shall not prohibit the sale 892 
or distribution of food at (A) a bed and breakfast establishment that 893 
prepares and offers food to guests, provided the operation is owner-894 
occupied and the total building occupant load is not more than sixteen 895 
persons, including the owner and occupants, has no provisions for 896 
cooking or warming food in the guest rooms, breakfast is the only meal 897 
offered and the consumer of such operation is informed by statements 898 
contained in published advertisements, mailed brochures and placards 899 
posted in the registration area that the food is prepared in a kitchen that 900 
is not regulated and inspected by the local health director, and (B) a 901 
noncommercial function, including, but not limited to, an educational, 902 
religious, political or charitable organization's bake sale or potluck 903 
supper, provided the seller or person distributing the food maintains 904 
the food at the temperature, pH level and water activity level conditions 905 
that will inhibit the growth of infectious or toxigenic microorganisms. 906 
For the purposes of this subsection, "noncommercial function" means a 907 
function where food is sold or distributed by a person not regularly 908 
engaged in the business of selling such food for profit.] 909 
(d) The provisions of the food code shall not (1) apply to a residential 910 
care home with thirty beds or less that is licensed pursuant to chapter 911 
368v, provided the administrator of the residential care home or the 912 
administrator's designee has satisfactorily passed a test as part of a food 913 
protection manager certification program that is evaluated and 914 
approved by an accrediting agency recognized by the Conference for 915 
Food Protection as conforming to its standard for accreditation of food 916 
protection manager certification programs, unless such residential care 917  Raised Bill No.  5500 
 
 
 
LCO No. 3709   	30 of 42 
 
home enters into a service contract with a food establishment or lends, 918 
rents or leases any area of its facility to any person or entity for the 919 
purpose of preparing or selling food, at which time the provisions of the 920 
food code shall apply to such residential care home, and (2) shall not 921 
prohibit the sale or distribution of food at (A) a bed and breakfast 922 
establishment that prepares and offers food to guests, provided the 923 
operation is owner-occupied and the total building occupant load is not 924 
more than sixteen persons, including the owner and occupants, has no 925 
provisions for cooking or warming food in the guest rooms, breakfast is 926 
the only meal offered and the consumer of such operation is informed 927 
by statements contained in published advertisements, mailed brochures 928 
and placards posted in the registration area that the food is prepared in 929 
a kitchen that is not regulated and inspected by the local health director, 930 
and (B) a noncommercial function, including, but not limited to, an 931 
educational, religious, political or charitable organization's bake sale or 932 
potluck supper, provided the seller or person distributing the food 933 
maintains the food at the temperature, pH level and water activity level 934 
conditions that will inhibit the growth of infectious or toxigenic 935 
microorganisms. For the purposes of this subsection, "noncommercial 936 
function" means a function where food is sold or distributed by a person 937 
not regularly engaged in the business of selling such food for profit. 938 
Sec. 34. Subparagraph (A) of subdivision (2) of subsection (c) of 939 
section 16-245n of the 2022 supplement to the general statutes is 940 
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from 941 
passage): 942 
(2) (A) There is hereby created an Environmental Infrastructure Fund 943 
which shall be within the Connecticut Green Bank. The fund may 944 
receive any amount required by law to be deposited into the fund and 945 
may receive any federal funds as may become available to the state for 946 
environmental infrastructure investments, except that the fund shall not 947 
receive: (i) Ratepayer or Regional Greenhouse Gas Initiative funds, (ii) 948 
funds that have been deposited in, or are required to be deposited in, an 949 
account of the Clean Water Fund pursuant to sections 22a-475 to [22a-950 
438f] 22a-483f, inclusive, or (iii) funds collected from a water company, 951  Raised Bill No.  5500 
 
 
 
LCO No. 3709   	31 of 42 
 
as defined in section 25-32a. 952 
Sec. 35. Subsection (b) of section 20-191c of the 2022 supplement to 953 
the general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 954 
thereof (Effective July 1, 2022): 955 
(b) Qualifying continuing education activities shall be related to the 956 
practice of psychology and shall include courses, seminars, workshops, 957 
conferences and postdoctoral institutes offered or approved by: (1) The 958 
American Psychological Association; (2) a regionally accredited 959 
institution of higher education graduate program; (3) a nationally 960 
recognized provider of continuing education seminars; (4) the 961 
Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services; or (5) a 962 
behavioral science organization that is professionally or scientifically 963 
recognized. Not more than five continuing education units during each 964 
registration period shall be completed via [the Internet] asynchronous 965 
online education, distance learning or home study. Not less than five 966 
continuing education units shall be earned through synchronous online 967 
education. On and after January 1, 2016, qualifying continuing 968 
education activities shall include not less than two contact hours of 969 
training or education during the first renewal period in which 970 
continuing education is required and not less than once every six years 971 
thereafter on the topic of mental health conditions common to veterans 972 
and family members of veterans, including (A) determining whether a 973 
patient is a veteran or family member of a veteran, (B) screening for 974 
conditions such as post-traumatic stress disorder, risk of suicide, 975 
depression and grief, and (C) suicide prevention training. Qualifying 976 
continuing education activities may include a licensee's research-based 977 
presentation at a professional conference, provided not more than five 978 
continuing education units during each registration period shall be 979 
completed by such activities. A licensee who has earned a diploma from 980 
the American Board of Professional Psychology during the registration 981 
period may substitute the diploma for continuing education 982 
requirements for such registration period. For purposes of this section, 983 
"continuing education unit" means fifty to sixty minutes of participation 984 
in accredited continuing professional education. For the purposes of this 985  Raised Bill No.  5500 
 
 
 
LCO No. 3709   	32 of 42 
 
subsection, "synchronous online education" means live online classes 986 
that are conducted in real time and "asynchronous online education" 987 
means a program where the instructor, learner and other participants 988 
are not engaged in the learning process at the same time, there is no real-989 
time interaction between participants and instructors and the 990 
educational content is created and made available for later 991 
consumption. 992 
Sec. 36. Section 19a-563h of the 2022 supplement to the general 993 
statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof 994 
(Effective from passage): 995 
(a) On or before January 1, 2022, the Department of Public Health 996 
shall (1) establish minimum staffing level requirements for nursing 997 
homes of three hours of direct care per resident per day, and (2) modify 998 
staffing level requirements for social work and recreational staff of 999 
nursing homes such that the requirements (A) for social work are one 1000 
full-time social worker per sixty residents, and (B) for recreational staff 1001 
are lower than the current requirements, as deemed appropriate by the 1002 
Commissioner of Public Health. 1003 
(b) The commissioner shall adopt regulations in accordance with the 1004 
provisions of chapter 54 that set forth nursing home staffing level 1005 
requirements to implement the provisions of this section. The 1006 
Commissioner of Public Health may implement policies and procedures 1007 
necessary to administer the provisions of this section while in the 1008 
process of adopting such policies and procedures as regulations, 1009 
provided notice of intent to adopt regulations is published on the 1010 
eRegulations system not later than twenty days after the date of 1011 
implementation. Policies and procedures implemented pursuant to this 1012 
section shall be valid until the time final regulations are adopted. 1013 
Sec. 37. Section 17b-59d of the general statutes is repealed and the 1014 
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage): 1015 
(a) There shall be established a State-wide Health Information 1016 
Exchange to empower consumers to make effective health care 1017  Raised Bill No.  5500 
 
 
 
LCO No. 3709   	33 of 42 
 
decisions, promote patient-centered care, improve the quality, safety 1018 
and value of health care, reduce waste and duplication of services, 1019 
support clinical decision-making, keep confidential health information 1020 
secure and make progress toward the state's public health goals. 1021 
(b) It shall be the goal of the State-wide Health Information Exchange 1022 
to: (1) Allow real-time, secure access to patient health information and 1023 
complete medical records across all health care provider settings; (2) 1024 
provide patients with secure electronic access to their health 1025 
information; (3) allow voluntary participation by patients to access their 1026 
health information at no cost; (4) support care coordination through 1027 
real-time alerts and timely access to clinical information; (5) reduce costs 1028 
associated with preventable readmissions, duplicative testing and 1029 
medical errors; (6) promote the highest level of interoperability; (7) meet 1030 
all state and federal privacy and security requirements; (8) support 1031 
public health reporting, quality improvement, academic research and 1032 
health care delivery and payment reform through data aggregation and 1033 
analytics; (9) support population health analytics; (10) be standards-1034 
based; and (11) provide for broad local governance that (A) includes 1035 
stakeholders, including, but not limited to, representatives of the 1036 
Department of Social Services, hospitals, physicians, behavioral health 1037 
care providers, long-term care providers, health insurers, employers, 1038 
patients and academic or medical research institutions, and (B) is 1039 
committed to the successful development and implementation of the 1040 
State-wide Health Information Exchange. 1041 
(c) All contracts or agreements entered into by or on behalf of the state 1042 
relating to health information technology or the exchange of health 1043 
information shall be consistent with the goals articulated in subsection 1044 
(b) of this section and shall utilize contractors, vendors and other 1045 
partners with a demonstrated commitment to such goals. 1046 
(d) (1) The executive director of the Office of Health Strategy, in 1047 
consultation with the Secretary of the Office of Policy and Management 1048 
and the State Health Information Technology Advisory Council, 1049 
established pursuant to section 17b-59f, shall, upon the approval by the 1050  Raised Bill No.  5500 
 
 
 
LCO No. 3709   	34 of 42 
 
State Bond Commission of bond funds authorized by the General 1051 
Assembly for the purposes of establishing a State-wide Health 1052 
Information Exchange, develop and issue a request for proposals for the 1053 
development, management and operation of the State-wide Health 1054 
Information Exchange. Such request shall promote the reuse of any and 1055 
all enterprise health information technology assets, such as the existing 1056 
Provider Directory, Enterprise Master Person Index, Direct Secure 1057 
Messaging Health Information Service provider infrastructure, analytic 1058 
capabilities and tools that exist in the state or are in the process of being 1059 
deployed. Any enterprise health information exchange technology 1060 
assets purchased after June 2, 2016, and prior to the implementation of 1061 
the State-wide Health Information Exchange shall be capable of 1062 
interoperability with a State-wide Health Information Exchange. 1063 
(2) Such request for proposals may require an eligible organization 1064 
responding to the request to: (A) Have not less than three years of 1065 
experience operating either a state-wide health information exchange in 1066 
any state or a regional exchange serving a population of not less than 1067 
one million that (i) enables the exchange of patient health information 1068 
among health care providers, patients and other authorized users 1069 
without regard to location, source of payment or technology, (ii) 1070 
includes, with proper consent, behavioral health and substance abuse 1071 
treatment information, (iii) supports transitions of care and care 1072 
coordination through real-time health care provider alerts and access to 1073 
clinical information, (iv) allows health information to follow each 1074 
patient, (v) allows patients to access and manage their health data, and 1075 
(vi) has demonstrated success in reducing costs associated with 1076 
preventable readmissions, duplicative testing or medical errors; (B) be 1077 
committed to, and demonstrate, a high level of transparency in its 1078 
governance, decision-making and operations; (C) be capable of 1079 
providing consulting to ensure effective governance; (D) be regulated or 1080 
administratively overseen by a state government agency; and (E) have 1081 
sufficient staff and appropriate expertise and experience to carry out the 1082 
administrative, operational and financial responsibilities of the State-1083 
wide Health Information Exchange. 1084  Raised Bill No.  5500 
 
 
 
LCO No. 3709   	35 of 42 
 
(e) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (d) of this section, 1085 
if, on or before January 1, 2016, the Commissioner of Social Services, in 1086 
consultation with the State Health Information Technology Advisory 1087 
Council, established pursuant to section 17b-59f, submits a plan to the 1088 
Secretary of the Office of Policy and Management for the establishment 1089 
of a State-wide Health Information Exchange consistent with 1090 
subsections (a), (b) and (c) of this section, and such plan is approved by 1091 
the secretary, the commissioner may implement such plan and enter 1092 
into any contracts or agreements to implement such plan. 1093 
(f) The executive director of the Office of Health Strategy shall have 1094 
administrative authority over the State-wide Health Information 1095 
Exchange. The executive director shall be responsible for designating, 1096 
and posting on its Internet web site, the list of systems, technologies, 1097 
entities and programs that shall constitute the State-wide Health 1098 
Information Exchange. Systems, technologies, entities, and programs 1099 
that have not been so designated shall not be considered part of said 1100 
exchange. 1101 
(g) The executive director of the Office of Health Strategy may 1102 
implement policies and procedures necessary to administer the 1103 
provisions of this section while in the process of adopting such policies 1104 
and procedures in regulation form, provided the executive director 1105 
publishes notice of intention to adopt the regulations on the Office of 1106 
Health Strategy's Internet web site and the eRegulations system not later 1107 
than twenty days after implementing such policies and procedures. 1108 
Policies and procedures implemented pursuant to this subsection shall 1109 
be valid until the time such regulations are effective. 1110 
Sec. 38. Section 17b-59e of the general statutes is repealed and the 1111 
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage): 1112 
(a) For purposes of this section: 1113 
(1) "Health care provider" means any individual, corporation, facility 1114 
or institution licensed by the state to provide health care services; and  1115  Raised Bill No.  5500 
 
 
 
LCO No. 3709   	36 of 42 
 
(2) "Electronic health record system" means a computer-based 1116 
information system that is used to create, collect, store, manipulate, 1117 
share, exchange or make available electronic health records for the 1118 
purposes of the delivery of patient care. 1119 
(b) Not later than one year after commencement of the operation of 1120 
the State-wide Health Information Exchange, each hospital licensed 1121 
under chapter 368v and clinical laboratory licensed under section 19a-1122 
30, as amended by this act, shall maintain an electronic health record 1123 
system capable of connecting to and participating in the State-wide 1124 
Health Information Exchange and shall apply to begin the process of 1125 
connecting to, and participating in, the State-wide Health Information 1126 
Exchange. 1127 
(c) Not later than two years after commencement of the operation of 1128 
the State-wide Health Information Exchange, (1) each health care 1129 
provider with an electronic health record system capable of connecting 1130 
to, and participating in, the State-wide Health Information Exchange 1131 
shall apply to begin the process of connecting to, and participating in, 1132 
the State-wide Health Information Exchange, and (2) each health care 1133 
provider without an electronic health record system capable of 1134 
connecting to, and participating in, the State-wide Health Information 1135 
Exchange shall be capable of sending and receiving secure messages 1136 
that comply with the Direct Project specifications published by the 1137 
federal Office of the National Coordinator for Health Information 1138 
Technology. 1139 
(d) The executive director of the Office of Health Strategy may 1140 
implement policies and procedures necessary to administer the 1141 
provisions of this section while in the process of adopting such policies 1142 
and procedures in regulation form, provided the executive director 1143 
publishes notice of intention to adopt the regulations on the Office of 1144 
Health Strategy's Internet web site and the eRegulations system not later 1145 
than twenty days after implementing such policies and procedures. 1146 
Policies and procedures implemented pursuant to this subsection shall 1147 
be valid until the time such regulations are effective. 1148  Raised Bill No.  5500 
 
 
 
LCO No. 3709   	37 of 42 
 
Sec. 39. Subsection (c) of section 19a-495 of the general statutes is 1149 
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 1150 
2022): 1151 
(c) The commissioner may waive any provisions of the regulations 1152 
affecting an institution [, as defined in section 19a-490,] or a clinical 1153 
laboratory, licensed pursuant to section 19a-30, as amended by this act, 1154 
if the commissioner determines that such waiver would not endanger 1155 
the health, safety or welfare of any patient or resident. The 1156 
commissioner may impose conditions, upon granting the waiver, that 1157 
assure the health, safety and welfare of patients or residents, and may 1158 
revoke the waiver upon a finding that the health, safety or welfare of 1159 
any patient or resident has been jeopardized. The commissioner shall 1160 
not grant a waiver that would result in a violation of the Fire Safety 1161 
Code or State Building Code. The commissioner may adopt regulations, 1162 
in accordance with chapter 54, establishing procedures for an 1163 
application for a waiver pursuant to this subsection. 1164 
Sec. 40. (Effective from passage) (a) As used in this section: 1165 
(1) "Certified doula" means a doula that is certified by the Department 1166 
of Public Health; and 1167 
(2) "Doula" means a trained, nonmedical professional who provides 1168 
physical, emotional and informational support, virtually or in person, 1169 
to a pregnant person before, during and after birth. 1170 
(b) The Commissioner of Public Health shall, within available 1171 
resources, establish a Doula Advisory Committee within the 1172 
Department of Public Health. The Doula Advisory Committee shall 1173 
develop recommendations for (1) requirements for certification and 1174 
certification renewal of doulas, including, but not limited to, training, 1175 
experience or continuing education requirements; and (2) standards for 1176 
recognizing doula training program curricula that are sufficient to 1177 
satisfy the requirements for doula certification. 1178 
(c) The Commissioner of Public Health, or the commissioner's 1179  Raised Bill No.  5500 
 
 
 
LCO No. 3709   	38 of 42 
 
designee, shall be the chairperson of the Doula Advisory Committee. 1180 
(d) The Doula Advisory Committee shall consist of the following 1181 
members: 1182 
(1) Seven appointed by the Commissioner of Public Health, or the 1183 
commissioner's designee, who are actively practicing as doulas in the 1184 
state; 1185 
(2) One appointed by the Commissioner of Public Health, or the 1186 
commissioner's designee, who is a nurse-midwife, licensed pursuant to 1187 
chapter 377 of the general statutes, who has experience working with a 1188 
doula; 1189 
(3) One appointed by the Commissioner of Public Health, or the 1190 
commissioner's designee, in consultation with the Connecticut Hospital 1191 
Association, who shall represent an acute care hospital; 1192 
(4) One appointed by the Commissioner of Public Health, or the 1193 
commissioner's designee, who shall represent an association that 1194 
represents hospitals and health-related organizations in the state; 1195 
(5) One appointed by the Commissioner of Public Health, or the 1196 
commissioner's designee, who shall be a licensed health care provider 1197 
who specializes in obstetrics and has experience working with a doula; 1198 
(6) One appointed by the Commissioner of Public Health, or the 1199 
commissioner's designee, who shall represent a community-based 1200 
doula training organization; 1201 
(7) One appointed by the Commissioner of Public Health, or the 1202 
commissioner's designee, who shall represent a community-based 1203 
maternal and child health organization; 1204 
(8) One appointed by the Commissioner of Public Health, or the 1205 
commissioner's designee, who shall have expertise in health equity; 1206 
(9) The Commissioner of Social Services, or the commissioner's 1207  Raised Bill No.  5500 
 
 
 
LCO No. 3709   	39 of 42 
 
designee; 1208 
(10) The Commissioner of Mental Health and Addiction Services, or 1209 
the commissioner's designee; and 1210 
(11) The Commissioner of Early Childhood, or the commissioner's 1211 
designee. 1212 
(e) Not later than January 15, 2023, the Doula Advisory Committee 1213 
shall establish a Doula Training Program Review Committee. Such 1214 
committee shall (1) conduct a continuous review of doula training 1215 
programs; and (2) provide a list of approved doula training programs 1216 
in the state that meet the requirements established by the Doula 1217 
Advisory Committee. 1218 
Sec. 41. Subsection (c) of section 19a-498 of the general statutes is 1219 
repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1220 
1, 2022): 1221 
(c) The Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services, with 1222 
respect to any behavioral health facility, [or alcohol or drug treatment 1223 
facility,] shall be authorized, either upon the request of the 1224 
Commissioner of Public Health or at such other times as they deem 1225 
necessary, to enter such facility for the purpose of inspecting programs 1226 
conducted at such facility. A written report of the findings of any such 1227 
inspection shall be forwarded to the Commissioner of Public Health and 1228 
a copy shall be maintained in such facility's licensure file. 1229 
Sec. 42. Section 19a-509g of the general statutes is repealed and the 1230 
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2022): 1231 
[An alcohol or drug treatment facility, as defined in section 19a-490,] 1232 
A behavioral health facility shall use the criteria for admission 1233 
developed by the American Society of Addiction Medicine for purposes 1234 
of assessing a person for admission to such facility in consideration of 1235 
(1) the services for which the facility is licensed, and (2) the appropriate 1236 
services required for treatment of such person. 1237  Raised Bill No.  5500 
 
 
 
LCO No. 3709   	40 of 42 
 
Sec. 43. Subdivision (1) of subsection (b) of section 38a-493 of the 2022 1238 
supplement to the general statutes is repealed and the following is 1239 
substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2022): 1240 
(1) "Hospital" means an institution that is primarily engaged in 1241 
providing, by or under the supervision of physicians, to inpatients (A) 1242 
diagnostic, surgical and therapeutic services for medical diagnosis, 1243 
treatment and care of persons who have an injury, sickness or disability, 1244 
or (B) medical rehabilitation services for the rehabilitation of persons 1245 
who have an injury, sickness or disability. "Hospital" does not include a 1246 
residential care home, nursing home, rest home or [alcohol or drug 1247 
treatment facility] behavioral health facility, as defined in section 19a-1248 
490, as amended by this act; 1249 
Sec. 44. Subdivision (1) of subsection (b) of section 38a-520 of the 2022 1250 
supplement to the general statutes is repealed and the following is 1251 
substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2022): 1252 
(1) "Hospital" means an institution that is primarily engaged in 1253 
providing, by or under the supervision of physicians, to inpatients (A) 1254 
diagnostic, surgical and therapeutic services for medical diagnosis, 1255 
treatment and care of persons who have an injury, sickness or disability, 1256 
or (B) medical rehabilitation services for the rehabilitation of persons 1257 
who have an injury, sickness or disability. "Hospital" does not include a 1258 
residential care home, nursing home, rest home or [alcohol or drug 1259 
treatment facility] behavioral health facility, as defined in section 19a-1260 
490, as amended by this act; 1261 
This act shall take effect as follows and shall amend the following 
sections: 
 
Section 1 October 1, 2022 19a-490 
Sec. 2 October 1, 2022 19a-491c(a) 
Sec. 3 October 1, 2022 19a-535b 
Sec. 4 October 1, 2022 19a-537(a) 
Sec. 5 October 1, 2022 19a-550(a) 
Sec. 7 October 1, 2022 12-20a(a) 
Sec. 8 October 1, 2022 17b-368  Raised Bill No.  5500 
 
 
 
LCO No. 3709   	41 of 42 
 
Sec. 9 from passage 19a-491(a) 
Sec. 10 October 1, 2022 19a-497(a) 
Sec. 11 from passage 19a-515(a) and (b) 
Sec. 12 October 1, 2022 19a-492e(a) 
Sec. 13 October 1, 2022 19a-495a(a) and (b) 
Sec. 14 from passage New section 
Sec. 15 from passage 20-90 
Sec. 16 from passage 19a-16d(c) and (d) 
Sec. 17 from passage 19a-16e(a) 
Sec. 18 from passage 20-132a(c) 
Sec. 19 from passage 19a-14c(b) 
Sec. 20 from passage 20-12j(b) 
Sec. 21 from passage 19a-177(8)(B) 
Sec. 22 from passage 14-1(5) 
Sec. 23 October 1, 2022 19a-30(a) 
Sec. 24 October 1, 2022 19a-31b 
Sec. 25 October 1, 2022 19a-72(a)(1) and (2) 
Sec. 26 from October 1, 2022 19a-215(a)(1) 
Sec. 27 October 1, 2022 19a-269b(a) 
Sec. 28 October 1, 2022 20-7a(d) 
Sec. 29 October 1, 2022 20-7c(a) 
Sec. 30 October 1, 2022 38a-477aa(a)(6)(A) 
Sec. 31 from passage 7-51a 
Sec. 32 from passage 7-74 
Sec. 33 from passage 19a-36m(c) and (d) 
Sec. 34 from passage 16-245n(c)(2)(A) 
Sec. 35 July 1, 2022 20-191c(b) 
Sec. 36 from passage 19a-563h 
Sec. 37 from passage 17b-59d 
Sec. 38 from passage 17b-59e 
Sec. 39 July 1, 2022 19a-495(c) 
Sec. 40 from passage New section 
Sec. 41 October 1, 2022 19a-498(c) 
Sec. 42 October 1, 2022 19a-509g 
Sec. 43 October 1, 2022 38a-493(b)(1) 
Sec. 44 October 1, 2022 38a-520(b)(1) 
 
Statement of Purpose:   
To make various revisions to the public health statutes.  Raised Bill No.  5500 
 
 
 
LCO No. 3709   	42 of 42 
 
[Proposed deletions are enclosed in brackets. Proposed additions are indicated by underline, except 
that when the entire text of a bill or resolution or a section of a bill or resolution is new, it is not 
underlined.]