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General Assembly Raised Bill No. 5488
February Session, 2024
LCO No. 2753
Referred to Committee on PUBLIC HEALTH
Introduced by:
(PH)
AN ACT CONCERNING VARIOUS REVISIONS TO THE PUBLIC
HEALTH STATUTES.
Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives in General
Assembly convened:
Section 1. Section 19a-6s of the general statutes is repealed and the 1
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage): 2
(a) For purposes of this section, "clinical medical assistant" means a 3
person who (1) (A) is certified by the American Association of Medical 4
Assistants, the National Healthcareer Association, the National Center 5
for Competency Testing, [or] the American Medical Technologists or the 6
American Medical Certification Association, and (B) has graduated 7
from a postsecondary medical assisting program (i) that is accredited by 8
the Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs, 9
the Accrediting Bureau of Health Education Schools or another 10
accrediting organization recognized by the United States Department of 11
Education, or (ii) offered by an institution of higher education 12
accredited by an accrediting organization recognized by the United 13
States Department of Education and that includes a total of seven 14
hundred twenty hours, including one hundred sixty hours of clinical 15 Raised Bill No. 5488
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practice skills, including, but not limited to, administering injections, or 16
(2) has completed relevant medical assistant training provided by any 17
branch of the armed forces of the United States. 18
(b) A clinical medical assistant may administer a vaccine under the 19
supervision, control and responsibility of a physician licensed pursuant 20
to chapter 370, a physician assistant licensed pursuant to chapter 370 or 21
an advanced practice registered nurse licensed pursuant to chapter 378 22
to any person in any setting other than a hospital setting. Prior to 23
administering a vaccine, a clinical medical assistant shall complete not 24
less than twenty-four hours of classroom training and not less than eight 25
hours of training in a clinical setting regarding the administration of 26
vaccines. Nothing in this section shall be construed to permit an 27
employer of a physician, a physician assistant or an advanced practice 28
registered nurse to require the physician, physician assistant or 29
advanced practice registered nurse to oversee a clinical medical 30
assistant in the administration of a vaccine without the consent of the 31
physician, physician assistant or advanced practice registered nurse. 32
(c) On or before January first annually, the Commissioner of Public 33
Health shall obtain from the American Association of Medical 34
Assistants, the National Healthcareer Association, the National Center 35
for Competency Testing, [and] the American Medical Technologists and 36
the American Medical Certification Association a listing of all state 37
residents maintained on said organizations' registries of certified 38
medical assistants. The commissioner shall make such listings available 39
for public inspection. 40
Sec. 2. Subsection (b) of section 19a-127n of the 2024 supplement to 41
the general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 42
thereof (Effective October 1, 2024): 43
(b) On and after October 1, 2023, a hospital or birth center, as such 44
terms are defined in section 19a-490, as amended by this act, or 45
outpatient surgical facility, as defined in section 19a-493b, shall report 46
adverse events to the Department of Public Health on a form prescribed 47 Raised Bill No. 5488
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by the commissioner as follows: (1) A written report and the status of 48
any corrective steps shall be submitted not later than seven days after 49
the date on which the adverse event occurred; and (2) a corrective action 50
plan shall be filed not later than thirty days after the date on which the 51
adverse event occurred. Emergent reports, as defined in the regulations 52
adopted pursuant to subsection (c) of this section, shall be made to the 53
department immediately. Failure to report an adverse event to the 54
department or implement a corrective action plan may result in 55
disciplinary action by the commissioner, pursuant to section 19a-494. 56
Sec. 3. Section 19a-197a of the 2024 supplement to the general statutes 57
is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective 58
October 1, 2024): 59
(a) As used in this section, "emergency medical services personnel" 60
means (1) any class of emergency medical technician certified pursuant 61
to sections 20-206ll and 20-206mm, including, but not limited to, any 62
advanced emergency medical technician, (2) any paramedic licensed 63
pursuant to sections 20-206ll and 20-206mm, and (3) any emergency 64
medical responder certified pursuant to sections 20-206ll and 20-65
206mm. 66
(b) Any emergency medical services personnel who has been trained, 67
in accordance with national standards recognized by the Commissioner 68
of Public Health, in the administration of (1) epinephrine using 69
automatic prefilled cartridge injectors, similar automatic injectable 70
equipment or prefilled vial and syringe, or (2) glucagon nasal powder, 71
and who functions in accordance with written protocols and the 72
standing orders of a licensed physician serving as an emergency 73
department director [may administer, on or before June 30, 2024, and] 74
shall administer [, on and after July 1, 2024,] epinephrine using such 75
injectors, equipment or prefilled vial and syringe or glucagon nasal 76
powder when the use of epinephrine or glucagon is deemed necessary 77
by the emergency medical services personnel for the treatment of a 78
patient. All emergency medical services personnel shall receive such 79
training from an organization designated by the commissioner. 80 Raised Bill No. 5488
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(c) All licensed or certified ambulances shall be equipped with 81
epinephrine in such injectors, equipment or prefilled vials and syringes 82
and glucagon nasal powder to be administered as described in 83
subsection (b) of this section and in accordance with written protocols 84
and standing orders of a licensed physician serving as an emergency 85
department director. 86
Sec. 4. Subsection (a) of section 20-195c of the 2024 supplement to the 87
general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 88
thereof (Effective July 1, 2024): 89
(a) Each applicant for licensure as a marital and family therapist shall 90
present to the department satisfactory evidence that such applicant has: 91
(1) Completed a graduate degree program specializing in marital and 92
family therapy offered by a regionally accredited college or university 93
or an accredited postgraduate clinical training program accredited by 94
the Commission on Accreditation for Marriage and Family Therapy 95
Education offered by a regionally accredited institution of higher 96
education; (2) completed a supervised practicum or internship with 97
emphasis in marital and family therapy supervised by the program 98
granting the requisite degree or by an accredited postgraduate clinical 99
training program accredited by the Commission on Accreditation for 100
Marriage and Family Therapy Education and offered by a regionally 101
accredited institution of higher education; (3) completed [twelve] 102
twenty-four months of relevant postgraduate experience, including (A) 103
a minimum of one thousand hours of direct client contact offering 104
marital and family therapy services subsequent to being awarded a 105
master's degree or doctorate or subsequent to the training year specified 106
in subdivision (2) of this subsection, and (B) one hundred hours of 107
postgraduate clinical supervision provided by a licensed marital and 108
family therapist; and (4) passed an examination prescribed by the 109
department. The fee shall be two hundred dollars for each initial 110
application. 111
Sec. 5. Subdivision (3) of subsection (l) of section 19a-508c of the 2024 112
supplement to the general statutes is repealed and the following is 113 Raised Bill No. 5488
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substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2024): 114
(3) Notwithstanding the provisions of subdivisions (1) and (2) of this 115
subsection, in circumstances when an insurance contract that is in effect 116
on July 1, 2016, provides reimbursement for facility fees prohibited 117
under the provisions of subdivision (1) of this subsection, and in 118
circumstances when an insurance contract that is in effect on July 1, 119
2024, provides reimbursement for facility fees prohibited under the 120
provisions of subdivision (2) of this subsection, a hospital or health 121
system may continue to collect reimbursement from the health insurer 122
for such facility fees until the applicable date of expiration, renewal or 123
amendment of such contract, whichever such date is the earliest. A 124
violation of this subsection shall be considered an unfair trade practice 125
pursuant to chapter 735a. 126
Sec. 6. Section 20-7f of the general statutes is repealed and the 127
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2024): 128
(a) For purposes of this section: 129
(1) "Request payment" includes, but is not limited to, submitting a bill 130
for services not actually owed or submitting for such services an invoice 131
or other communication detailing the cost of the services that is not 132
clearly marked with the phrase "This is not a bill". 133
(2) "Health care provider" means a person licensed to provide health 134
care services under chapter 368d or 368v, chapters 370 to 373, inclusive, 135
chapters 375 to 383b, inclusive, chapters 384a to 384c, inclusive, or 136
chapter 400j. 137
(3) "Enrollee" means a person who has contracted for or who 138
participates in a health care plan for such enrollee or such enrollee's 139
eligible dependents. 140
(4) "Coinsurance, copayment, deductible or other out-of-pocket 141
expense" means the portion of a charge for services covered by a health 142
care plan that, under the plan's terms, it is the obligation of the enrollee 143 Raised Bill No. 5488
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to pay. 144
(5) "Health care plan" has the same meaning as provided in 145
subsection (a) of section 38a-477aa. 146
(6) "Health carrier" has the same meaning as provided in subsection 147
(a) of section 38a-477aa. 148
(7) "Emergency services" has the same meaning as provided in 149
subsection (a) of section 38a-477aa. 150
(b) It shall be an unfair trade practice in violation of chapter 735a for 151
any health care provider to request payment from an enrollee, other 152
than a coinsurance, copayment, deductible or other out-of-pocket 153
expense, for (1) health care services or a facility fee, as defined in section 154
19a-508c, as amended by this act, covered under a health care plan, (2) 155
emergency services, or services rendered to an insured at an urgent 156
crisis center, as defined in section 19a-179f, covered under a health care 157
plan and rendered by an out-of-network health care provider, or (3) a 158
surprise bill, as defined in section 38a-477aa. 159
(c) It shall be an unfair trade practice in violation of chapter 735a for 160
any health care provider to report to a credit reporting agency an 161
enrollee's failure to pay a bill for the services, facility fee or surprise bill 162
as set forth in subsection (b) of this section, when a health carrier has 163
primary responsibility for payment of such services, fees or bills. 164
Sec. 7. (NEW) (Effective from passage) Notwithstanding the provisions 165
of section 3-6c of the general statutes, the Governor may enter into a 166
compact, memorandum of understanding or agreement with any 167
federally recognized Indian tribe located within the geographical 168
boundaries of this state pursuant to which birth and death certificates 169
issued pursuant to chapter 93 of the general statutes concerning a birth 170
or death occurring on land held in trust by the United States for such 171
tribe shall be filed with and issued by the clerk or registrar of vital 172
statistics of such tribe in lieu of being filed with and issued by the 173
registrar of vital statistics of a town or municipality. 174 Raised Bill No. 5488
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Sec. 8. Subsection (b) of section 20-195n of the 2024 supplement to the 175
general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 176
thereof (Effective from passage): 177
(b) An applicant for licensure as a master social worker shall: (1) (A) 178
Hold a master's degree from a social work program (i) accredited by the 179
Council on Social Work Education, or (ii) that is in candidate status for 180
accreditation by said council and offered by an institution of higher 181
education in the state during or after the spring semester of 2024, and 182
prior to the fall semester of 2027, or [,] (B) if educated outside the United 183
States or its territories, have completed an educational program deemed 184
equivalent by the council; and (2) pass the masters level examination of 185
the Association of Social Work Boards or any other examination 186
prescribed by the commissioner. 187
Sec. 9. Section 20-252 of the general statutes is repealed and the 188
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2024): 189
(a) No person shall engage in the occupation of registered hairdresser 190
and cosmetician without having obtained a license from the 191
department. Persons desiring such licenses shall apply in writing on 192
forms furnished by the department. No license shall be issued, except a 193
renewal of a license, to a registered hairdresser and cosmetician unless 194
the applicant has shown to the satisfaction of the department that the 195
applicant has complied with the laws and the regulations administered 196
or adopted by the department. No applicant shall be licensed as a 197
registered hairdresser and cosmetician, except by renewal of a license, 198
until the applicant has made written application to the department, 199
setting forth by affidavit that the applicant has (1) (A) successfully 200
completed the ninth grade, (B) completed a course of not less than 201
fifteen hundred hours of study in a school approved in accordance with 202
the provisions of this chapter or in a school teaching hairdressing and 203
cosmetology under the supervision of the State Board of Education, or, 204
if trained outside of Connecticut, in a school teaching hairdressing and 205
cosmetology whose requirements are equivalent to those of a 206
Connecticut school, and (C) passed a written examination satisfactory 207 Raised Bill No. 5488
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to the department, or (2) if the applicant is an apprentice, (A) 208
successfully completed the eighth grade, (B) completed an 209
apprenticeship approved by the Labor Department and conducted in 210
accordance with sections 31-22m to 31-22u, inclusive, and (C) passed a 211
written examination satisfactory to the Department of Public Health. 212
Examinations required for licensure under this chapter shall be 213
prescribed by the department with the advice and assistance of the 214
board. The department shall establish a passing score for examinations 215
with the advice and assistance of the board which shall be the same as 216
the passing score established in section 20-236. 217
(b) No person applying for licensure as a hairdresser and cosmetician 218
under this chapter shall be required to submit to a state or national 219
criminal history records check as a prerequisite to licensure. 220
(c) The commissioner shall notify each applicant who is approved to 221
take a written examination required under subsection (a) of this section 222
that such applicant may be eligible for testing accommodations 223
pursuant to the federal Americans with Disabilities Act, 42 USC 12101 224
et seq., as amended from time to time, or other accommodations, as 225
determined by the board, or its successor organization, which may 226
include the use of a dictionary while taking such examination and 227
additional time within which to take such examination. 228
Sec. 10. Section 20-12i of the general statutes is repealed and the 229
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2024): 230
(a) [On and after October 1, 2011, prior] Prior to engaging in the use 231
of fluoroscopy for guidance of diagnostic and therapeutic procedures, a 232
physician assistant or advanced practice registered nurse shall: (1) 233
Successfully complete a course that includes forty hours of didactic 234
instruction relevant to fluoroscopy which includes, but is not limited to, 235
radiation biology and physics, exposure reduction, equipment 236
operation, image evaluation, quality control and patient considerations; 237
(2) successfully complete a minimum of forty hours of supervised 238
clinical experience that includes a demonstration of patient dose 239 Raised Bill No. 5488
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reduction, occupational dose reduction, image recording and quality 240
control of fluoroscopy equipment; and (3) pass an examination 241
prescribed by the Commissioner of Public Health. Documentation that 242
the physician assistant or advanced practice registered nurse has met 243
the requirements prescribed in this subsection shall be maintained at the 244
employment site of the physician assistant or advanced practice 245
registered nurse and made available to the Department of Public Health 246
upon request. 247
(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section or sections 20-74bb 248
and 20-74ee, nothing shall prohibit a physician assistant who is 249
engaging in the use of fluoroscopy for guidance of diagnostic and 250
therapeutic procedures or positioning and utilizing a mini C-arm in 251
conjunction with fluoroscopic procedures prior to October 1, 2011, from 252
continuing to engage in such procedures, or require the physician 253
assistant to complete the course or supervised clinical experience 254
described in subsection (a) of this section, provided such physician 255
assistant shall pass the examination prescribed by the commissioner on 256
or before September 1, 2012. If a physician assistant does not pass the 257
required examination on or before September 1, 2012, such physician 258
assistant shall not engage in the use of fluoroscopy for guidance of 259
diagnostic and therapeutic procedures or position and utilize a mini C-260
arm in conjunction with fluoroscopic procedures until such time as such 261
physician assistant meets the requirements of subsection (a) of this 262
section. 263
Sec. 11. Subsection (b) of section 19a-508c of the 2024 supplement to 264
the general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 265
thereof (Effective October 1, 2024): 266
(b) If a hospital or health system charges a facility fee utilizing a 267
current procedural terminology evaluation and management (CPT 268
E/M) code, [or] assessment and management (CPT A/M) code , 269
injection and infusion (CPT) code or drug administration (CPT) code for 270
outpatient services provided at a hospital-based facility where a 271
professional fee is also expected to be charged, the hospital or health 272 Raised Bill No. 5488
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system shall provide the patient with a written notice that includes the 273
following information: 274
(1) That the hospital-based facility is part of a hospital or health 275
system and that the hospital or health system charges a facility fee that 276
is in addition to and separate from the professional fee charged by the 277
provider; 278
(2) (A) The amount of the patient's potential financial liability, 279
including any facility fee likely to be charged, and, where professional 280
medical services are provided by an affiliated provider, any professional 281
fee likely to be charged, or, if the exact type and extent of the 282
professional medical services needed are not known or the terms of a 283
patient's health insurance coverage are not known with reasonable 284
certainty, an estimate of the patient's financial liability based on typical 285
or average charges for visits to the hospital-based facility, including the 286
facility fee, (B) a statement that the patient's actual financial liability will 287
depend on the professional medical services actually provided to the 288
patient, (C) an explanation that the patient may incur financial liability 289
that is greater than the patient would incur if the professional medical 290
services were not provided by a hospital-based facility, and (D) a 291
telephone number the patient may call for additional information 292
regarding such patient's potential financial liability, including an 293
estimate of the facility fee likely to be charged based on the scheduled 294
professional medical services; and 295
(3) That a patient covered by a health insurance policy should contact 296
the health insurer for additional information regarding the hospital's or 297
health system's charges and fees, including the patient's potential 298
financial liability, if any, for such charges and fees. 299
Sec. 12. Subdivision (1) of subsection (l) of section 19a-508c of the 2024 300
supplement to the general statutes is repealed and the following is 301
substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2024): 302
(l) (1) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, no hospital, 303
health system or hospital-based facility shall collect a facility fee for (A) 304 Raised Bill No. 5488
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outpatient health care services that use a current procedural 305
terminology evaluation and management (CPT E/M) code , [or] 306
assessment and management (CPT A/M) code, injection and infusion 307
(CPT) code or drug administration (CPT) code and are provided at a 308
hospital-based facility located off-site from a hospital campus, or (B) 309
outpatient health care services provided at a hospital-based facility 310
located off-site from a hospital campus received by a patient who is 311
uninsured of more than the Medicare rate. 312
Sec. 13. Subsection (d) of section 17a-673c of the 2024 supplement to 313
the general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 314
thereof (Effective from passage): 315
(d) The Commissioner of Mental Health and Addiction Services may 316
request a disbursement of funds from the Opioid Settlement Fund 317
established pursuant to section 17a-674c, in whole or in part, for the 318
establishment and administration of the pilot program. 319
Sec. 14. Subsection (c) of section 17a-674h of the 2024 supplement to 320
the general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 321
thereof (Effective from passage): 322
(c) Not later than January 1, 2024, the Department of Mental Health 323
and Addiction Services, in collaboration with the Department of Public 324
Health, shall use the Opioid Antagonist Bulk Purchase Fund for the 325
provision of opioid antagonists to eligible entities and by emergency 326
medical services personnel to certain members of the public. Emergency 327
medical services personnel shall distribute an opioid antagonist kit 328
containing a personal supply of opioid antagonists and the one-page 329
fact sheet developed by the Connecticut Alcohol and Drug Policy 330
Council pursuant to section 17a-667a regarding the risks of taking an 331
opioid drug, symptoms of opioid use disorder and services available in 332
the state for persons who experience symptoms of or are otherwise 333
affected by opioid use disorder to a patient who (1) is treated by such 334
personnel for an overdose of an opioid drug, (2) displays symptoms to 335
such personnel of opioid use disorder, or (3) is treated at a location 336 Raised Bill No. 5488
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where such personnel observes evidence of illicit use of an opioid drug, 337
or to such patient's family member, caregiver or friend who is present 338
at the location. Emergency medical services personnel shall refer the 339
patient or such patient's family member, caregiver or friend to the 340
written instructions regarding the administration of such opioid 341
antagonist, as deemed appropriate by such personnel. 342
Sec. 15. Subdivision (5) of subsection (a) of section 19a-77 of the 2024 343
supplement to the general statutes is repealed and the following is 344
substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage): 345
(5) ["Year-round" program] "Year-round program" means a program 346
open at least fifty weeks per year. 347
Sec. 16. Subsection (q) of section 19a-89e of the 2024 supplement to 348
the general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 349
thereof (Effective from passage): 350
(q) The Commissioner of Public Health may order an audit of the 351
nurse staffing assignments of each hospital to determine compliance 352
with the nurse staffing assignments for each hospital unit set forth in the 353
nurse staffing plan developed pursuant to subsections (d) and (e) of this 354
section. Such audit may include an assessment of the hospital's 355
compliance with the requirements of this section for the content of such 356
plan, accuracy of reports submitted to the department and the 357
membership of the hospital staffing committee. In determining whether 358
to order an audit, the commissioner shall consider whether there has 359
been consistent noncompliance by the hospital with the nurse staffing 360
plan, fear of false reporting by the hospital [,] or any other health care 361
quality safety concerns. The hospital that is subject to the audit shall pay 362
the cost of the audit. The audit shall not affect the conduct by the 363
hospital of peer review as defined in section 19a-17b. 364
Sec. 17. Subsection (a) of section 19a-133c of the 2024 supplement to 365
the general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 366
thereof (Effective from passage): 367 Raised Bill No. 5488
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(a) As used in this section, "structural racism" means a system that 368
structures opportunity and assigns value in a way that 369
disproportionally and negatively impacts Black, Indigenous, Latino or 370
Asian people or other people of color, and "state agency" has the same 371
meaning as provided in section 1-79. The Commission on Racial Equity 372
in Public Health, established under section 19a-133a, shall recommend 373
best practices for state agencies to (1) evaluate structural racism within 374
their own policies, practices [,] and operations, and (2) create and 375
implement a plan, which includes the establishment of benchmarks for 376
improvement, to ultimately eliminate any such structural racism within 377
the agency. 378
Sec. 18. Subdivision (1) of subsection (k) of section 19a-508c of the 379
2024 supplement to the general statutes is repealed and the following is 380
substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage): 381
(k) (1) If any transaction described in subsection (c) of section 19a-382
486i [,] results in the establishment of a hospital-based facility at which 383
facility fees may be billed, the hospital or health system, that is the 384
purchaser in such transaction shall, not later than thirty days after such 385
transaction, provide written notice, by first class mail, of the transaction 386
to each patient served within the three years preceding the date of the 387
transaction by the health care facility that has been purchased as part of 388
such transaction. 389
Sec. 19. Subdivision (21) of section 20-73e of the 2024 supplement to 390
the general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 391
thereof (Effective from passage): 392
(21) "Rule" means a regulation, principle [,] or directive promulgated 393
by the commission that has the force of law; and 394
Sec. 20. Subparagraph (B) of subdivision (2) of subsection (b) of 395
section 20-87a of the 2024 supplement to the general statutes is repealed 396
and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage): 397
(B) An advanced practice registered nurse having been issued a 398 Raised Bill No. 5488
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license pursuant to subsection (d) of section 20-94a who collaborated, 399
prior to the issuance of such license, with a physician licensed to practice 400
medicine in another state may count the time of such collaboration 401
toward the three-year requirement set forth in subparagraph (A) of this 402
[subsection] subdivision, provided such collaboration otherwise 403
satisfies the requirements set forth in said subparagraph. 404
Sec. 21. Subsection (d) of section 20-185aa of the 2024 supplement to 405
the general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 406
thereof (Effective from passage): 407
(d) Any health care facility that employs or retains a surgical 408
technologist shall submit to the Department of Public Health, upon 409
request of the department, documentation [demonstration] 410
demonstrating that the surgical technologist is in compliance with the 411
requirements set forth in this section. 412
Sec. 22. Subsection (b) of section 38a-479jjj of the 2024 supplement to 413
the general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 414
thereof (Effective from passage): 415
(b) On and after January 1, 2024, a contract entered into between a 416
pharmacy [benefit] benefits manager and a 340B covered entity shall not 417
contain any of the following provisions: 418
(1) A reimbursement rate for a prescription drug that is less than the 419
reimbursement rate paid to pharmacies that are not 340B covered 420
entities; 421
(2) A fee or adjustment that is not imposed on providers or 422
pharmacies that are not 340B covered entities; 423
(3) A fee or adjustment amount that exceeds the fee or adjustment 424
amount imposed on providers or pharmacies that are not 340B covered 425
entities; 426
(4) Any provision that prevents or interferes with a patient's choice 427
to receive a prescription drug from a 340B covered entity, including the 428 Raised Bill No. 5488
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administration of the drug; and 429
(5) Any provision that excludes a 340B covered entity from pharmacy 430
[benefit] benefits manager networks based on the 340B covered entity's 431
participation in the federal 340B Drug Pricing Program. 432
Sec. 23. Subsection (d) of section 38a-518v of the 2024 supplement to 433
the general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 434
thereof (Effective from passage): 435
(d) Nothing in this section shall prohibit or limit a health insurer, 436
health care center, hospital service corporation, medical service 437
corporation or other entity from conducting utilization review for an in-438
home hospice [services] service, provided such utilization review is 439
conducted in the same manner and uses the same clinical review criteria 440
as a utilization review for the same hospice services provided in a 441
hospital. 442
Sec. 24. Subsection (c) of section 10-532 of the 2024 supplement to the 443
general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 444
thereof (Effective October 1, 2024): 445
(c) When developing the program, said commissioners and executive 446
director [,] shall (1) consult with insurers that offer health benefit plans 447
in the state, hospitals, local public health authorities, existing early 448
childhood home visiting programs, community-based organizations 449
and social service providers; and (2) maximize the use of available 450
federal funding. 451
Sec. 25. Subsection (g) of section 19a-59j of the 2024 supplement to the 452
general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 453
thereof (Effective October 1, 2024): 454
(g) Notwithstanding any provision of the general statutes, the 455
commissioner, or the commissioner's designee, may provide the infant 456
mortality review committee, established pursuant to section 19a-59k, 457
with information as is necessary, in the commissioner's discretion, for 458 Raised Bill No. 5488
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the committee to make recommendations regarding the prevention of 459
infant deaths. 460
Sec. 26. Subdivision (3) of section 19a-111b of the 2024 supplement to 461
the general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 462
thereof (Effective October 1, 2024): 463
(3) The commissioner shall establish a program for the detection of 464
sources of lead poisoning. Within available appropriations, such 465
program shall include the identification of dwellings in which paint, 466
plaster or other accessible substances contain toxic levels of lead and the 467
inspection of areas surrounding such dwellings for lead-containing 468
materials. Any person who detects a toxic level of lead, as defined by 469
the commissioner, shall report such findings to the commissioner. The 470
commissioner shall inform all interested parties, including, but not 471
limited to, the owner of the building, the occupants of the building, 472
enforcement officials and other necessary parties. 473
Sec. 27. Subsection (l) of section 19a-490 of the 2024 supplement to the 474
general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 475
thereof (Effective October 1, 2024): 476
(l) "Assisted living services agency" means an agency that provides 477
chronic and stable individuals with services that include, but need not 478
be limited to, nursing services and assistance with activities of daily 479
living and may have a dementia special care unit or program as defined 480
in section 19a-562; 481
Sec. 28. Subdivisions (2) and (3) of subsection (b) of section 19a-181 of 482
the 2024 supplement to the general statutes are repealed and the 483
following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2024): 484
(2) Each authorized emergency medical [service] services vehicle 485
shall be equipped with the equipment required for its specific vehicle 486
classification as specified in the 2022 Connecticut EMS Minimum 487
Equipment Checklist, as amended from time to time; and 488 Raised Bill No. 5488
LCO No. 2753 17 of 18
(3) Each authorized emergency medical [service] services vehicle 489
shall comply with all state and federal safety, design and equipment 490
requirements. 491
Sec. 29. Subdivision (9) of subsection (c) of section 19a-493 of the 2024 492
supplement to the general statutes is repealed and the following is 493
substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2024): 494
(9) The provisions of this subsection shall not apply in the event of a 495
change of ownership or beneficial ownership of ten per cent or less of 496
the ownership of a licensed outpatient surgical facility, as defined in 497
section 19a-493b, resulting in a transfer to a physician licensed under 498
chapter 370 if such facility provides information, in a form and manner 499
prescribed by the commissioner, to update such facility's licensing 500
information. 501
Sec. 30. Subdivision (2) of subsection (c) of section 19a-566 of the 2024 502
supplement to the general statutes is repealed and the following is 503
substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2024): 504
(2) If a patient receiving birth center services no longer presents with 505
a low-risk pregnancy, as defined in section 19a-490, as amended by this 506
act, or otherwise fails to meet the patient eligibility criteria described in 507
subparagraph (A) of subdivision (1) of this subsection, the birth center 508
providing such services shall ensure the patient's care is transferred to a 509
licensed health care provider capable of providing the appropriate level 510
of obstetrical care for the patient. 511
This act shall take effect as follows and shall amend the following
sections:
Section 1 from passage 19a-6s
Sec. 2 October 1, 2024 19a-127n(b)
Sec. 3 October 1, 2024 19a-197a
Sec. 4 July 1, 2024 20-195c(a)
Sec. 5 October 1, 2024 19a-508c(l)(3)
Sec. 6 October 1, 2024 20-7f
Sec. 7 from passage New section Raised Bill No. 5488
LCO No. 2753 18 of 18
Sec. 8 from passage 20-195n(b)
Sec. 9 October 1, 2024 20-252
Sec. 10 October 1, 2024 20-12i
Sec. 11 October 1, 2024 19a-508c(b)
Sec. 12 October 1, 2024 19a-508c(l)(1)
Sec. 13 from passage 17a-673c(d)
Sec. 14 from passage 17a-674h(c)
Sec. 15 from passage 19a-77(a)(5)
Sec. 16 from passage 19a-89e(q)
Sec. 17 from passage 19a-133c(a)
Sec. 18 from passage 19a-508c(k)(1)
Sec. 19 from passage 20-73e(21)
Sec. 20 from passage 20-87a(b)(2)(B)
Sec. 21 from passage 20-185aa(d)
Sec. 22 from passage 38a-479jjj(b)
Sec. 23 from passage 38a-518v(d)
Sec. 24 October 1, 2024 10-532(c)
Sec. 25 October 1, 2024 19a-59j(g)
Sec. 26 October 1, 2024 19a-111b(3)
Sec. 27 October 1, 2024 19a-490(l)
Sec. 28 October 1, 2024 19a-181(b)(2) and (3)
Sec. 29 October 1, 2024 19a-493(c)(9)
Sec. 30 October 1, 2024 19a-566(c)(2)
Statement of Purpose:
To make various revisions to the public health statutes.
[Proposed deletions are enclosed in brackets. Proposed additions are indicated by underline, except
that when the entire text of a bill or resolution or a section of a bill or resolution is new, it is not
underlined.]