Enrolled Copy H.B. 276
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Commitment Revisions
2025 GENERAL SESSION
STATE OF UTAH
Chief Sponsor: Nelson T. Abbott
Senate Sponsor: Evan J. Vickers
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LONG TITLE
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General Description:
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This bill addresses the commitment of individuals in relation to civil, criminal, and juvenile
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proceedings.
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Highlighted Provisions:
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This bill:
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▸ defines terms;
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▸ amends the definitions of "intellectual disability" and "intermediate care facility for
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people with an intellectual disability" as used in the Utah Code;
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▸ amends provisions relating to the rights and privileges to which an individual is entitled
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when under commitment to the custody or to the treatment services of a local mental
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health authority;
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▸ provides that if a right of a patient of a local mental health authority is limited or denied,
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including for the welfare of the patient or caretakers, the nature, extent, and reason for
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that limitation or denial shall be entered in the patient's treatment record;
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▸ requires a designated examiner to conduct an examination of a proposed patient by
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telehealth except in certain circumstances;
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▸ requires a court to hold a hearing on an application for involuntary commitment remotely
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unless the court finds good cause not to hold the hearing remotely;
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▸ amends standards and processes related to the involuntary civil commitment of an
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individual with an intellectual disability or related condition;
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▸ provides that a court may only order the Department of Health and Human Services
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(department) to provide an initial evaluation and progress toward competency evaluation
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for a defendant or minor if the defendant or minor is located within the state;
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▸ requires a court to dismiss a petition for involuntary civil commitment if both designated H.B. 276 Enrolled Copy
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examiners determine that the proposed patient does not meet the criteria for involuntary
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commitment;
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▸ provides that when there is a conflict in the opinions of forensic evaluators, if a party
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seeks an additional competency evaluation then the party is responsible for selecting the
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evaluator and paying the cost of the evaluator;
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▸ amends provisions regarding the release of a defendant determined to be incompetent to
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proceed from a secured setting;
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▸ addresses when the department is required to provide an updated juvenile competency
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evaluation after an extended attainment period; and
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▸ makes technical and conforming changes.
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Money Appropriated in this Bill:
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None
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Other Special Clauses:
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None
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Utah Code Sections Affected:
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AMENDS:
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26B-2-121, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2023, Chapter 305
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26B-2-122, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2024, Chapter 240
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26B-5-301, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2023, Chapter 308
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26B-5-310, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2023, Chapter 308
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26B-5-322, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2023, Chapter 184 and renumbered and
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amended by Laws of Utah 2023, Chapter 308
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26B-5-332, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2024, Chapters 287, 299 and 314
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26B-5-362, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2023, Chapter 308
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26B-5-371, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2023, Chapter 184 and renumbered and
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amended by Laws of Utah 2023, Chapter 308
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26B-6-401, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2024, Chapter 240
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26B-6-606, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2023, Chapter 308
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26B-6-607, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2024, Chapter 299
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26B-6-608, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2024, Chapter 299
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26B-6-613, as renumbered and amended by Laws of Utah 2023, Chapter 308
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68-3-12.5, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2024, Chapter 438
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77-15-2, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2023, Chapter 171
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77-15-5, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2023, Chapters 171, 417 and last amended by
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Coordination Clause, Laws of Utah 2023, Chapter 417
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77-15-6, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2024, Chapter 174
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77-19-203, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2004, Chapter 137
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77-29-3, as enacted by Laws of Utah 1980, Chapter 15
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80-6-402, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2023, Chapter 330
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80-6-403, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2023, Chapter 330
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Be it enacted by the Legislature of the state of Utah:
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Section 1. Section 26B-2-121 is amended to read:
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26B-2-121 . Access to abuse and neglect information.
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(1) As used in this section:
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(a) "Direct service worker" means the same as that term is defined in Section 26B-6-401.
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(b) "Personal care attendant" means the same as that term is defined in Section [
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26B-6-401] 26B-6-101.
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(2) With respect to a licensee, a direct service worker, or a personal care attendant, the
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department may access only the Licensing Information System of the Division of Child
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and Family Services created by Section 80-2-1002 and juvenile court records under
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Subsection 80-3-404(4), for the purpose of:
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(a)(i) determining whether a person associated with a licensee, with direct access to
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children:
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(A) is listed in the Licensing Information System; or
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(B) has a substantiated finding by a juvenile court of a severe type of child abuse
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or neglect under Subsections 80-3-404(1) and (2); and
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(ii) informing a licensee that a person associated with the licensee:
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(A) is listed in the Licensing Information System; or
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(B) has a substantiated finding by a juvenile court of a severe type of child abuse
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or neglect under Subsections 80-3-404(1) and (2);
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(b)(i) determining whether a direct service worker:
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(A) is listed in the Licensing Information System; or
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(B) has a substantiated finding by a juvenile court of a severe type of child abuse
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or neglect under Subsections 80-3-404(1) and (2); and
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(ii) informing a direct service worker or the direct service worker's employer that the
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direct service worker:
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(A) is listed in the Licensing Information System; or
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(B) has a substantiated finding by a juvenile court of a severe type of child abuse
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or neglect under Subsections 80-3-404(1) and (2); or
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(c)(i) determining whether a personal care attendant:
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(A) is listed in the Licensing Information System; or
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(B) has a substantiated finding by a juvenile court of a severe type of child abuse
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or neglect under Subsections 80-3-404(1) and (2); and
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(ii) informing a person described in Subsections 26B-6-101(9)(a)(i) through (iv) that
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a personal care attendant:
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(A) is listed in the Licensing Information System; or
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(B) has a substantiated finding by a juvenile court of a severe type of child abuse
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or neglect under Subsections 80-3-404(1) and (2).
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(3) Notwithstanding Subsection (2), the department may access the Division of Child and
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Family Services' Management Information System under Section 80-2-1001:
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(a) for the purpose of licensing and monitoring foster parents;
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(b) for the purposes described in Subsection 80-2-1001(5)(b)(iii); and
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(c) for the purpose described in Section 26B-1-211.
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(4) The department shall receive and process personal identifying information under
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Subsection 26B-2-120(1) for the purposes described in Subsection (2).
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(5) The department shall adopt rules under Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative
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Rulemaking Act, consistent with this part, defining the circumstances under which a
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person may have direct access or provide services to children when:
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(a) the person is listed in the Licensing Information System of the Division of Child and
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Family Services created by Section 80-2-1002; or
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(b) juvenile court records show that a court made a substantiated finding under Section
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80-3-404, that the person committed a severe type of child abuse or neglect.
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Section 2. Section 26B-2-122 is amended to read:
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26B-2-122 . Access to vulnerable adult abuse and neglect information.
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(1) For purposes of this section:
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(a) "Direct service worker" means the same as that term is defined in Section 26B-6-401.
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(b) "Personal care attendant" means the same as that term is defined in Section [
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26B-6-401] 26B-6-101.
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(2) With respect to a licensee, a direct service worker, or a personal care attendant, the
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department may access the database created by Section 26B-6-210 for the purpose of:
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(a)(i) determining whether a person associated with a licensee, with direct access to
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vulnerable adults, has a supported or substantiated finding of:
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(A) abuse;
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(B) neglect; or
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(C) exploitation; and
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(ii) informing a licensee that a person associated with the licensee has a supported or
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substantiated finding of:
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(A) abuse;
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(B) neglect; or
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(C) exploitation;
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(b)(i) determining whether a direct service worker has a supported or substantiated
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finding of:
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(A) abuse;
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(B) neglect; or
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(C) exploitation; and
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(ii) informing a direct service worker or the direct service worker's employer that the
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direct service worker has a supported or substantiated finding of:
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(A) abuse;
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(B) neglect; or
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(C) exploitation; or
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(c)(i) determining whether a personal care attendant has a supported or substantiated
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finding of:
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(A) abuse;
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(B) neglect; or
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(C) exploitation; and
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(ii) informing a person described in Subsections 26B-6-401(9)(a)(i) through (iv) that
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a personal care attendant has a supported or substantiated finding of:
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(A) abuse;
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(B) neglect; or
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(C) exploitation.
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(3) The department shall receive and process personal identifying information under
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Subsection 26B-2-120(2) for the purposes described in Subsection (2).
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(4) The department shall adopt rules under Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative
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Rulemaking Act, consistent with this part and Chapter 6, Part 2, Abuse, Neglect, or
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Exploitation of a Vulnerable Adult, defining the circumstances under which a person
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may have direct access or provide services to vulnerable adults when the person is listed
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in the statewide database of the Division of Aging and Adult Services created by Section
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26B-6-210 as having a supported or substantiated finding of abuse, neglect, or
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exploitation.
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Section 3. Section 26B-5-301 is amended to read:
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26B-5-301 . Definitions.
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As used in this part, Part 4, Commitment of Persons Under Age 18, and Part 5, Essential
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Treatment and Intervention:
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(1) "Adult" means an individual 18 years old or older.
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(2) "Approved treatment facility or program" means a mental health or substance use
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treatment provider that meets the goals and measurements described in Subsection
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26B-5-102(2)(j).
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(3) "Assisted outpatient treatment" means involuntary outpatient mental health treatment
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ordered under Section 26B-5-351.
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(4) "Attending physician" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in this state who
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has primary responsibility for the care and treatment of the declarant.
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(5) "Attorney-in-fact" means an adult properly appointed under this part to make mental
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health treatment decisions for a declarant under a declaration for mental health treatment.
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(6) "Commitment to the custody of a local mental health authority" means that an adult is
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committed to the custody of the local mental health authority that governs the mental
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health catchment area where the adult resides or is found.
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(7) "Community mental health center" means an entity that provides treatment and services
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to a resident of a designated geographical area, that operates by or under contract with a
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local mental health authority, and that complies with state standards for community
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mental health centers.
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(8) "Designated examiner" means:
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(a) a licensed physician, preferably a psychiatrist, who is designated by the division as
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specially qualified by training or experience in the diagnosis of mental or related
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illness; or
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(b) a licensed mental health professional designated by the division as specially qualified
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by training and who has at least five years' continual experience in the treatment of
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mental illness.
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(9) "Designee" means a physician who has responsibility for medical functions including
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admission and discharge, an employee of a local mental health authority, or an employee
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of a person that has contracted with a local mental health authority to provide mental
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health services under Section 17-43-304.
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(10) "Essential treatment" and "essential treatment and intervention" mean court-ordered
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treatment at a local substance abuse authority or an approved treatment facility or
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program for the treatment of an adult's substance use disorder.
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(11) "Harmful sexual conduct" means the following conduct upon an individual without the
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individual's consent, including the nonconsensual circumstances described in
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Subsections 76-5-406(2)(a) through (l):
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(a) sexual intercourse;
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(b) penetration, however slight, of the genital or anal opening of the individual;
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(c) any sexual act involving the genitals or anus of the actor or the individual and the
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mouth or anus of either individual, regardless of the gender of either participant; or
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(d) any sexual act causing substantial emotional injury or bodily pain.
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(12) "Informed waiver" means the patient was informed of a right and, after being informed
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of that right and the patient's right to waive the right, expressly communicated his or her
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intention to waive that right.
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(13) "Incapable" means that, in the opinion of the court in a guardianship proceeding under
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Title 75, Utah Uniform Probate Code, or in the opinion of two physicians, a person's
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ability to receive and evaluate information effectively or communicate decisions is
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impaired to such an extent that the person currently lacks the capacity to make mental
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health treatment decisions.
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(14) "Institution" means a hospital or a health facility licensed under Section 26B-2-206.
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(15) "Lay person" means an individual identified and authorized by a patient to participate
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in activities related to the patient's commitment, including court appearances, discharge
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planning, and grievances, except that a patient may revoke a lay person's authorization at
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any time.
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(16) "Local substance abuse authority" means the same as that term is defined in Section
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26B-5-101 and described in Section 17-43-201.
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[(16)] (17) "Mental health facility" means the Utah State Hospital or other facility that
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provides mental health services under contract with the division, a local mental health
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authority, a person that contracts with a local mental health authority, or a person that
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provides acute inpatient psychiatric services to a patient.
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[(17)] (18) "Mental health officer" means an individual who is designated by a local mental
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health authority as qualified by training and experience in the recognition and
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identification of mental illness, to:
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(a) apply for and provide certification for a temporary commitment; or
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(b) assist in the arrangement of transportation to a designated mental health facility.
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[(18)] (19) "Mental illness" means:
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(a) a psychiatric disorder that substantially impairs an individual's mental, emotional,
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behavioral, or related functioning; or
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(b) the same as that term is defined in:
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(i) the current edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders
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published by the American Psychiatric Association; or
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(ii) the current edition of the International Statistical Classification of Diseases and
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Related Health Problems.
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[(19)] (20) "Mental health treatment" means convulsive treatment, treatment with
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psychoactive medication, or admission to and retention in a facility for a period not to
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exceed 17 days.
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[(20)] (21) "Patient" means an individual who is:
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(a) under commitment to the custody or to the treatment services of a local mental health
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authority; or
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(b) undergoing essential treatment and intervention.
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[(21)] (22) "Physician" means an individual who is:
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(a) licensed as a physician under Title 58, Chapter 67, Utah Medical Practice Act; or
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(b) licensed as a physician under Title 58, Chapter 68, Utah Osteopathic Medical
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Practice Act.
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[(22)] (23) "Serious bodily injury" means bodily injury that involves a substantial risk of
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death, unconsciousness, extreme physical pain, protracted and obvious disfigurement, or
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protracted loss or impairment of the function of a bodily member, organ, or mental
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faculty.
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[(23)] (24) "State hospital" means the Utah State Hospital established in Section 26B-5-302.
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[(24)] (25) "Substantial danger" means that due to mental illness, an individual is at serious
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risk of:
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(a) suicide;
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(b) serious bodily self-injury;
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(c) serious bodily injury because the individual is incapable of providing the basic
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necessities of life, including food, clothing, or shelter;
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(d) causing or attempting to cause serious bodily injury to another individual;
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(e) engaging in harmful sexual conduct; or
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(f) if not treated, suffering severe and abnormal mental, emotional, or physical distress
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that:
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(i) is associated with significant impairment of judgment, reason, or behavior; and
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(ii) causes a substantial deterioration of the individual's previous ability to function
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independently.
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[(25)] (26) "Treatment" means psychotherapy, medication, including the administration of
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psychotropic medication, or other medical treatments that are generally accepted
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medical or psychosocial interventions for the purpose of restoring the patient to an
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optimal level of functioning in the least restrictive environment.
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Section 4. Section 26B-5-310 is amended to read:
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26B-5-310 . Restrictions and limitations -- Rights and privileges.
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(1) Subject to the general rules of the division, subject to the requirement in Subsection (2)
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that the reason, nature, and extent of any limitation or denial of a patient's right shall be
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entered in the patient's treatment record, and except to the extent that the director or [his]
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the director's designee determines that it is necessary for the welfare of the patient or the
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patient's caretakers to impose restrictions, every patient is entitled to:
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(a)(i) communicate, by sealed mail or otherwise, with persons, including official
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agencies, inside or outside the [facility] responsible mental health authority, local
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substance abuse authority, or approved treatment facility or program;
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(ii) be provided with letter-writing materials, including postage; and
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(iii) have staff of the responsible mental health authority, local substance abuse
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authority, or approved treatment facility or program assist the patient if the patient
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is unable to write, prepare, or mail correspondence;
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(b) have frequent and consistent opportunities to receive visitors[; and] at reasonable
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times that do not interfere with clinical activities;
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(c) speak or visit with the patient's attorney or clergy member within a reasonable period
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of time;
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(d) exercise all civil rights, including the right to dispose of property, execute
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instruments, make purchases, enter contractual relationships, and vote, unless the
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patient has been adjudicated to be incompetent and has not been restored to legal
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capacity[.] ;
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(e) while in an inpatient or residential facility, have access to adequate water and food
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and have the patient's nutritional needs met in a manner that is consistent with
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recognized dietary practices;
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(f) be treated fairly, with respect and recognition of the patient's dignity and
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individuality;
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(g) not be discriminated against on the basis of a characteristic identified in Subsection
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57-21-5(1);
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(h) within 72 business hours after the patient's request, see and receive the services of a
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patient representative, including a peer specialist or patient advocate, who is not
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involved in the direct clinical care of the patient;
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(i) have the patient's behavioral health orders for scope of treatment, declaration for
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mental health treatment, or other psychiatric advance directive reviewed and
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considered as the preferred treatment option for involuntary administration of
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medications by the responsible local mental health authority, local substance abuse
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authority, or approved treatment facility or program, unless by clear and convincing
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evidence the patient's directive does not qualify as effective participation in
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behavioral health decision-making;
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(j) with the patient's consent, have the patient's information or records disclosed to an
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adult family member, the patient's lay person, or, in accordance with state and federal
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law, to a protection and advocacy system designated pursuant to 42 U.S.C. Sec.
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10801 et seq.;
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(k)(i) access to a telephone to make and receive private calls, unless determined a
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clinical or safety risk; and
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(ii) staff assistance to be able to communicate with others, if the patient does not have
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a contact list;
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(l) wear the patient's own clothes, keep and use the patient's own possessions, and keep
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and be allowed to spend a reasonable amount of the patient's own money, unless
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deemed a clinical or safety risk; and
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(m) be told:
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(i) the reason for the patient's detainment and the limitation of the patient's
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detainment, including a description of the patient's right to refuse medication
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unless the patient requires emergency medications; and
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(ii) that the patient's commitment does not mean all treatment during commitment is
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mandatory.
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(2)(a) When any right of a patient is limited or denied, the nature, extent, and reason for
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that limitation or denial shall be entered in the patient's treatment record.
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(b) Information pertaining to a denial of any right of a patient shall be made available,
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upon request, to the patient, the patient's attorney, and the patient's lay person.
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(c) Any continuing denial or limitation of any right of a patient shall be reviewed every
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30 days and shall also be entered in [that] the patient's treatment record.
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(d) Notice of [that] a continuing denial of any right of a patient in excess of 30 days shall
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be sent to the division, the [appropriate] responsible local mental health authority, the
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appropriate local substance abuse authority, or an approved treatment facility or
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program[, whichever is most applicable to the patient].
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[(3) Notwithstanding any limitations authorized under this section on the right of
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communication, each patient is entitled to communicate by sealed mail with the
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appropriate local mental health authority, the appropriate local substance abuse
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authority, an approved treatment facility or program, the division, the patient's attorney,
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and the court, if any, that ordered the patient's commitment or essential treatment. In no
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case may the patient be denied a visit with the legal counsel or clergy of the patient's
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choice.]
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[(4)] (3) Local mental health authorities, local substance abuse authorities, and approved
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treatment facilities or programs shall provide reasonable means and arrangements for
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informing involuntary patients of their right to release as provided in this chapter, and
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for assisting them in making and presenting requests for release.
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[(5)] (4) [Mental] Local mental health facilities, local substance abuse authorities, and
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approved treatment facilities or programs shall post a statement, created by the division,
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describing a patient's rights under Utah law.
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[(6)] (5) A local mental health authority, local substance abuse authority, or approved
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treatment facility or program may not intentionally retaliate or discriminate against a
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detained patient or employee for contacting or providing information to any official or to
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an employee of any state protection and advocacy agency or for initiating, participating
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in, or testifying in a grievance procedure or in an action for any remedy authorized
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pursuant to this section.
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(6) Notwithstanding Section 53B-17-303, an individual committed under this chapter has
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the right to determine the final disposition of that individual's body after death.
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Section 5. Section 26B-5-322 is amended to read:
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26B-5-322 . Criminal's escape -- Penalty.
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Any person committed to the state hospital under the provisions of [Title 77, Chapter 15,
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Inquiry into Sanity of Defendant] Title 77, Chapter 15, Defendant's Competency to Proceed, or
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Chapter 16a, Commitment and Treatment of Individuals with a Mental Condition, who escapes
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or leaves the state hospital without proper legal authority is guilty of a class A misdemeanor.
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Section 6. Section 26B-5-332 is amended to read:
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26B-5-332 . Involuntary commitment under court order -- Examination --
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Hearing -- Power of court -- Findings required -- Costs.
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(1) A responsible individual who has credible knowledge of an adult's mental illness and
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the condition or circumstances that have led to the adult's need to be involuntarily
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committed may initiate an involuntary commitment court proceeding by filing, in the
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court in the county where the proposed patient resides or is found, a written application
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that includes:
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(a) unless the court finds that the information is not reasonably available, the proposed
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patient's:
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(i) name;
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(ii) date of birth; and
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(iii) social security number;
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(b)(i) a certificate of a licensed physician or a designated examiner stating that within
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the seven-day period immediately preceding the certification, the physician or
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designated examiner examined the proposed patient and is of the opinion that the
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proposed patient has a mental illness and should be involuntarily committed; or
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(ii) a written statement by the applicant that:
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(A) the proposed patient has been requested to, but has refused to, submit to an
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examination of mental condition by a licensed physician or designated
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examiner;
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(B) is sworn to under oath; and
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(C) states the facts upon which the application is based; and
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(c) a statement whether the proposed patient has previously been under an assisted
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outpatient treatment order, if known by the applicant.
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(2) Before issuing a judicial order, the court:
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(a) shall require the applicant to consult with the appropriate local mental health
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authority at or before the hearing; and
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(b) may direct a mental health professional from the local mental health authority to
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interview the applicant and the proposed patient to determine the existing facts and
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report the existing facts to the court.
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(3) The court may issue an order, directed to a mental health officer or peace officer, to
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immediately place a proposed patient in the custody of a local mental health authority or
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in a temporary emergency facility, as described in Section 26B-5-334, to be detained for
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the purpose of examination if:
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(a) the court finds from the application, any other statements under oath, or any reports
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from a mental health professional that there is a reasonable basis to believe that the
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proposed patient has a mental illness that poses a danger to self or others and requires
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involuntary commitment pending examination and hearing; or
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(b) the proposed patient refuses to submit to an interview with a mental health
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professional as directed by the court or to go to a treatment facility voluntarily.
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(4)(a) The court shall provide notice of commencement of proceedings for involuntary
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commitment, setting forth the allegations of the application and any reported facts,
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together with a copy of any official order of detention, to a proposed patient before,
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or upon, placement of the proposed patient in the custody of a local mental health
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authority or, with respect to any proposed patient presently in the custody of a local
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mental health authority whose status is being changed from voluntary to involuntary,
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upon the filing of an application for that purpose with the court.
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(b) The place of detention shall maintain a copy of the order of detention.
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(5)(a) The court shall provide notice of commencement of proceedings for involuntary
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commitment as soon as practicable to the applicant, any legal guardian, any
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immediate adult family members, legal counsel for the parties involved, the local
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mental health authority or the local mental health authority's designee, and any other
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persons whom the proposed patient or the court designates.
424
(b) Except as provided in Subsection (5)(c), the notice under Subsection (5)(a) shall
425
advise the persons that a hearing may be held within the time provided by law.
426
(c) If the proposed patient refuses to permit release of information necessary for
427
provisions of notice under this subsection, the court shall determine the extent of
428
notice.
429
(6) Proceedings for commitment of an individual under 18 years old to a local mental health
430
authority may be commenced in accordance with Part 4, Commitment of Persons Under
431
Age 18.
432
(7)(a) The court may, in the court's discretion, transfer the case to any other district court
433
within this state, if the transfer will not be adverse to the interest of the proposed
434
patient.
435
(b) If a case is transferred under Subsection (7)(a), the parties to the case may be
- 13 - H.B. 276 Enrolled Copy
436
transferred and the local mental health authority may be substituted in accordance
437
with Utah Rules of Civil Procedure, Rule 25.
438
(8) Within 24 hours, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays, of the issuance of a
439
judicial order, or after commitment of a proposed patient to a local mental health
440
authority or the local mental health authority's designee under court order for detention
441
or examination, the court shall appoint two designated examiners:
442
(a) who did not sign the civil commitment application nor the civil commitment
443
certification under Subsection (1);
444
(b) one of whom is:
445
(i) a licensed physician; or
446
(ii) a psychiatric mental health nurse practitioner or a psychiatric mental health
447
clinical nurse specialist who:
448
(A) is nationally certified;
449
(B) is doctorally trained; and
450
(C) has at least two years of inpatient mental health experience, regardless of the
451
license the individual held at the time of that experience; and
452
(c) one of whom may be designated by the proposed patient or the proposed patient's
453
counsel, if that designated examiner is reasonably available.
454
(9) The court shall schedule a hearing to be held within 10 calendar days after the day on
455
which the designated examiners are appointed.
456
(10)(a) The designated examiners shall[:]
457
[(i)] conduct the examinations separately[;] .
458
[(ii)] (b) [conduct the examinations at the home of the proposed patient, at a hospital or
459
other medical facility, or at any other suitable place, including] The designated
460
examiners shall conduct the examinations:
461
(i) through telehealth[,] unless the designated examiner determines that:
462
(A) a telehealth examination would not be sufficient to properly assess the
463
proposed patient;
464
(B) a telehealth examination would have a harmful effect on the proposed patient's
465
health; or
466
(C) an in-person examination can be conducted as effectively, conveniently, and
467
timely as an examination through telehealth; and
468
(ii) if the designated examiner determines, pursuant to Subsection (10)(b)(i), that the
469
examination should be conducted in person, at the home of the proposed patient,
- 14 - Enrolled Copy H.B. 276
470
at a hospital or other medical facility, or at any other suitable place that is not
471
likely to have a harmful effect on the proposed patient's health[;] .
472
[(iii)] (c) The designated examiners shall inform the proposed patient, if not represented
473
by an attorney:
474
[(A)] (i) that the proposed patient does not have to say anything;
475
[(B)] (ii) of the nature and reasons for the examination;
476
[(C)] (iii) that the examination was ordered by the court;
477
[(D)] (iv) that any information volunteered could form part of the basis for the
478
proposed patient's involuntary commitment;
479
[(E)] (v) that findings resulting from the examination will be made available to the
480
court; and
481
[(F)] (vi) that the designated examiner may, under court order, obtain the proposed
482
patient's mental health records[; and] .
483
[(iv)] (d) [within] Within 24 hours of examining the proposed patient, a designated
484
examiner shall report to the court, orally or in writing, whether the proposed patient
485
is mentally ill, has agreed to voluntary commitment, as described in Section
486
26B-5-360, or has acceptable programs available to the proposed patient without
487
court proceedings.
488
[(b)] (e) If a designated examiner reports orally under Subsection [(10)(a)] (10)(d), the
489
designated examiner shall immediately send a written report to the clerk of the court.
490
(11) If a designated examiner is unable to complete an examination on the first attempt
491
because the proposed patient refuses to submit to the examination, the court shall fix a
492
reasonable compensation to be paid to the examiner.
493
(12) If the local mental health authority, the local mental health authority's designee, or a
494
medical examiner determines before the court hearing that the conditions justifying the
495
findings leading to a commitment hearing no longer exist, the local mental health
496
authority, the local mental health authority's designee, or the medical examiner shall
497
immediately report the determination to the court.
498
(13)(a) The court shall terminate the proceedings and dismiss the application before the
499
hearing if both designated examiners inform the court that the proposed patient does
500
not meet the criteria in Subsection (16).
501
(b) The court may terminate the proceedings and dismiss the application at any time,
502
including before the hearing, if the designated examiners or the local mental health
503
authority or the local mental health authority's designee informs the court that the
- 15 - H.B. 276 Enrolled Copy
504
proposed patient:
505
[(a) does not meet the criteria in Subsection (16);]
506
[(b)] (i) has agreed to voluntary commitment, as described in Section 26B-5-360;
507
[(c)] (ii) has acceptable options for treatment programs that are available without
508
court proceedings; or
509
[(d)] (iii) meets the criteria for assisted outpatient treatment described in Section
510
26B-5-351.
511
(14)(a) Before the hearing, the court shall provide the proposed patient an opportunity to
512
be represented by counsel, and if neither the proposed patient nor others provide
513
counsel, the court shall appoint counsel and allow counsel sufficient time to consult
514
with the proposed patient before the hearing.
515
(b) In the case of an indigent proposed patient, the county in which the proposed patient
516
resides or is found shall make payment of reasonable attorney fees for counsel, as
517
determined by the court.
518
(15)(a)(i) The court shall afford the proposed patient, the applicant, and any other
519
person to whom notice is required to be given an opportunity to appear at the
520
hearing, to testify, and to present and cross-examine witnesses.
521
(ii) The court may, in the court's discretion, receive the testimony of any other person.
522
(iii) The court may allow a waiver of the proposed patient's right to appear for good
523
cause, which cause shall be set forth in the record, or an informed waiver by the
524
patient, which shall be included in the record.
525
(b) The court is authorized to exclude any person not necessary for the conduct of the
526
proceedings and may, upon motion of counsel, require the testimony of each
527
designated examiner to be given out of the presence of any other designated
528
examiners.
529
(c) The court shall:
530
(i) conduct the hearing in as informal a manner as may be consistent with orderly
531
procedure[, and] ; and
532
(ii) while preserving the due process rights of the proposed patient:
533
(A) conduct the hearing remotely, in accordance with Utah Rules of Civil
534
Procedure, Rule 87, unless the court finds good cause under Rule 87 not to
535
conduct the hearing remotely; or
536
(B) if the court finds good cause under Rule 87 not to conduct the hearing
537
remotely, conduct the hearing in a physical setting that is not likely to have a
- 16 - Enrolled Copy H.B. 276
538
harmful effect on the mental health of the proposed patient[, while preserving
539
the due process rights of the proposed patient].
540
(d) The court shall consider any relevant historical and material information that is
541
offered, subject to the rules of evidence, including reliable hearsay under Utah Rules
542
of Evidence, Rule 1102.
543
(e)(i) A local mental health authority or the local mental health authority's designee
544
or the physician in charge of the proposed patient's care shall, at the time of the
545
hearing, provide the court with the following information:
546
(A) the detention order;
547
(B) admission notes;
548
(C) the diagnosis;
549
(D) any doctors' orders;
550
(E) progress notes;
551
(F) nursing notes;
552
(G) medication records pertaining to the current commitment; and
553
(H) whether the proposed patient has previously been civilly committed or under
554
an order for assisted outpatient treatment.
555
(ii) The local mental health authority or the local mental health authority's designee
556
or the physician in charge of the proposed patient's care shall also supply the
557
information described in Subsection (15)(e)(i) [shall also be supplied ]to the
558
proposed patient's counsel at the time of the hearing, and at any time prior to the
559
hearing upon request by the proposed patient's counsel.
560
(16)(a) The court shall order commitment of an adult proposed patient to a local mental
561
health authority if, upon completion of the hearing and consideration of the
562
information presented, the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that:
563
(i)(A) the proposed patient has a mental illness;
564
(B) because of the proposed patient's mental illness the proposed patient poses a
565
substantial danger to self or others;
566
(C) the proposed patient lacks the ability to engage in a rational decision-making
567
process regarding the acceptance of mental treatment as demonstrated by
568
evidence of inability to weigh the possible risks of accepting or rejecting
569
treatment;
570
(D) there is no appropriate less-restrictive alternative to a court order of
571
commitment; and
- 17 - H.B. 276 Enrolled Copy
572
(E) the local mental health authority can provide the proposed patient with
573
treatment that is adequate and appropriate to the proposed patient's conditions
574
and needs; or
575
(ii)(A) the proposed patient has been charged with a criminal offense;
576
(B) with respect to the charged offense, the proposed patient is found incompetent
577
to proceed as a result of a mental illness;
578
(C) the proposed patient has a mental illness;
579
(D) the proposed patient has a persistent unawareness of their mental illness and
580
the negative consequences of that illness, or within the preceding six months
581
has been requested or ordered to undergo mental health treatment but has
582
unreasonably refused to undergo that treatment;
583
(E) there is no appropriate less-restrictive alternative to a court order of
584
commitment; and
585
(F) the local mental health authority can provide the proposed patient with
586
treatment that is adequate and appropriate to the proposed patient's conditions
587
and needs.
588
(b)(i) If, at the hearing, the court determines that the proposed patient has a mental
589
illness but does not meet the other criteria described in Subsection (16)(a), the
590
court may consider whether the proposed patient meets the criteria for assisted
591
outpatient treatment under Section 26B-5-351.
592
(ii) The court may order the proposed patient to receive assisted outpatient treatment
593
in accordance with Section 26B-5-351 if, at the hearing, the court finds the
594
proposed patient meets the criteria for assisted outpatient treatment under Section
595
26B-5-351.
596
(iii) If the court determines that neither the criteria for commitment under Subsection
597
(16)(a) nor the criteria for assisted outpatient treatment under Section 26B-5-351
598
are met, the court shall dismiss the proceedings after the hearing.
599
(17)(a)(i) The order of commitment shall designate the period for which the patient
600
shall be treated.
601
(ii) If the patient is not under an order of commitment at the time of the hearing, the
602
patient's treatment period may not exceed six months without a review hearing.
603
(iii) Upon a review hearing, to be commenced before the expiration of the previous
604
order of commitment, an order for commitment may be for an indeterminate
605
period, if the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that the criteria
- 18 - Enrolled Copy H.B. 276
606
described in Subsection (16) will last for an indeterminate period.
607
(b)(i) The court shall maintain a current list of all patients under the court's order of
608
commitment and review the list to determine those patients who have been under
609
an order of commitment for the court designated period.
610
(ii) At least two weeks before the expiration of the designated period of any order of
611
commitment still in effect, the court that entered the original order of commitment
612
shall inform the appropriate local mental health authority or the local mental
613
health authority's designee of the expiration.
614
(iii) Upon receipt of the information described in Subsection (17)(b)(ii), the local
615
mental health authority or the local mental health authority's designee shall
616
immediately reexamine the reasons upon which the order of commitment was
617
based.
618
(iv) If, after reexamination under Subsection (17)(b)(iii), the local mental health
619
authority or the local mental health authority's designee determines that the
620
conditions justifying commitment no longer exist, the local mental health
621
authority or the local mental health authority's designee shall discharge the patient
622
from involuntary commitment and immediately report the discharge to the court.
623
(v) If, after reexamination under Subsection (17)(b)(iii), the local mental health
624
authority or the local mental health authority's designee determines that the
625
conditions justifying commitment continue to exist, the court shall immediately
626
appoint two designated examiners and proceed under Subsections (8) through (14).
627
(c)(i) The local mental health authority or the local mental health authority's designee
628
responsible for the care of a patient under an order of commitment for an
629
indeterminate period shall, at six-month intervals, reexamine the reasons upon
630
which the order of indeterminate commitment was based.
631
(ii) If the local mental health authority or the local mental health authority's designee
632
determines that the conditions justifying commitment no longer exist, the local
633
mental health authority or the local mental health authority's designee shall
634
discharge the patient from the local mental health authority's or the local mental
635
health authority designee's custody and immediately report the discharge to the
636
court.
637
(iii) If the local mental health authority or the local mental health authority's designee
638
determines that the conditions justifying commitment continue to exist, the local
639
mental health authority or the local mental health authority's designee shall send a
- 19 - H.B. 276 Enrolled Copy
640
written report of the findings to the court.
641
(iv) [A] The local mental health authority or the local mental health authority's
642
designee shall notify the patient and the patient's counsel of record [shall be
643
notified ]in writing that the involuntary commitment will be continued under
644
Subsection (17)(c)(iii), the reasons for the decision to continue, and that the
645
patient has the right to a review hearing by making a request to the court.
646
(v) Upon receiving a request under Subsection (17)(c)(iv), the court shall
647
immediately appoint two designated examiners and proceed under Subsections (8)
648
through (14).
649
(18)(a) Any patient committed as a result of an original hearing or a patient's legally
650
designated representative who is aggrieved by the findings, conclusions, and order of
651
the court entered in the original hearing has the right to a new hearing upon filing a
652
petition [filed ]with the court within 30 days after the day on which the court entered
653
the order[ is entered].
654
(b) The petition shall allege error or mistake in the findings, in which case the court shall
655
appoint three impartial designated examiners previously unrelated to the case to
656
conduct an additional examination of the patient.
657
(c) Except as provided in Subsection (18)(b), the court shall, in all other respects,
658
conduct the new hearing in the manner otherwise permitted.
659
(19) The county in which the proposed patient resides or is found shall pay the costs of all
660
proceedings under this section.
661
(20)(a) A local mental health authority shall provide discharge instructions to each
662
individual committed under this section at or before the time the individual is
663
discharged from the local mental health authority's custody, regardless of the
664
circumstances under which the individual is discharged.
665
(b) Discharge instructions provided under Subsection (20)(a) shall include:
666
(i) a summary of why the individual was committed to the local mental health
667
authority;
668
(ii) detailed information about why the individual is being discharged from the local
669
mental health authority's custody;
670
(iii) a safety plan for the individual based on the individual's mental illness or mental
671
or emotional state;
672
(iv) notification to the individual's primary care provider, if applicable;
673
(v) if the individual is discharged without food, housing, or economic security, a
- 20 - Enrolled Copy H.B. 276
674
referral to appropriate services, if such services exist in the individual's
675
community;
676
(vi) the phone number to call or text for a crisis services hotline, and information
677
about the availability of peer support services;
678
(vii) a copy of any psychiatric advance directive presented to the local mental health
679
authority, if applicable;
680
(viii) information about how to establish a psychiatric advance directive if one was
681
not presented to the local mental health authority;
682
(ix) as applicable, information about medications that were changed or discontinued
683
during the commitment;
684
(x) a list of any screening or diagnostic tests conducted during the commitment;
685
(xi) a summary of therapeutic treatments provided during the commitment;
686
(xii) any laboratory work, including blood samples or imaging, that was completed or
687
attempted during the commitment; and
688
(xiii) information about how to contact the local mental health authority if needed.
689
(c) If an individual's medications were changed, or if an individual was prescribed new
690
medications while committed under this section, discharge instructions provided
691
under Subsection (20)(a) shall include a clinically appropriate supply of medications,
692
as determined by a licensed health care provider, to allow the individual time to
693
access another health care provider or follow-up appointment.
694
(d) If an individual refuses to accept discharge instructions, the local mental health
695
authority shall document the refusal in the individual's medical record.
696
(e) If an individual's discharge instructions include referrals to services under Subsection
697
(20)(b)(v), the local mental health authority shall document those referrals in the
698
individual's medical record.
699
(f) The local mental health authority shall attempt to follow up with a discharged
700
individual at least 48 hours after discharge, and may use peer support professionals
701
when performing follow-up care or developing a continuing care plan.
702
(21) If any provision of Subsection (16)(a)(ii) or the application of any provision of
703
Subsection (16)(a)(ii) to any person or circumstance is held invalid by a court with
704
jurisdiction, the remainder of Subsection (16)(a)(ii) shall be given effect without the
705
invalid provision or application. The provisions of Subsection (16)(a)(ii) are severable.
706
Section 7. Section 26B-5-362 is amended to read:
707
26B-5-362 . Commitment and care of criminally insane.
- 21 - H.B. 276 Enrolled Copy
708
Nothing contained in this part may be construed to alter or change the method presently
709
employed for the commitment and care of the criminally insane as provided in [Title 77,
710
Chapter 15, Inquiry into Sanity of Defendant] Title 77, Chapter 15, Defendant's Competency to
711
Proceed.
712
Section 8. Section 26B-5-371 is amended to read:
713
26B-5-371 . Utah Forensic Mental Health Facility -- Design and operation --
714
Security.
715
(1) The forensic mental health facility is a secure treatment facility.
716
(2)(a) The forensic mental health facility accommodates the following populations:
717
(i) prison inmates displaying mental illness necessitating treatment in a secure mental
718
health facility;
719
(ii) criminally adjudicated persons found guilty with a mental illness or guilty with a
720
mental condition at the time of the offense undergoing evaluation for a mental
721
condition under Title 77, Chapter 16a, Commitment and Treatment of Individuals
722
with a Mental Condition;
723
(iii) criminally adjudicated persons undergoing evaluation for competency or found
724
guilty with a mental condition or guilty with a mental condition at the time of the
725
offense under Title 77, Chapter 16a, Commitment and Treatment of Individuals
726
with a Mental Condition, who also have an intellectual disability;
727
(iv) persons undergoing evaluation for competency or found by a court to be
728
incompetent to proceed in accordance with [Title 77, Chapter 15, Inquiry into
729
Sanity of Defendant] Title 77, Chapter 15, Defendant's Competency to Proceed, or
730
not guilty by reason of insanity under Title 77, Chapter 14, Defenses;
731
(v) persons who are civilly committed to the custody of a local mental health
732
authority in accordance with this part, and who may not be properly supervised by
733
the Utah State Hospital because of a lack of necessary security, as determined by
734
the superintendent or the superintendent's designee; and
735
(vi) persons ordered to commit themselves to the custody of the division for
736
treatment at the Utah State Hospital as a condition of probation or stay of sentence
737
pursuant to Title 77, Chapter 18, The Judgment.
738
(b) Placement of an offender in the forensic mental health facility under any category
739
described in Subsection (2)(a)(ii), (iii), (iv), or (vi) shall be made on the basis of the
740
offender's status as established by the court at the time of adjudication.
741
(c) In accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act, the
- 22 - Enrolled Copy H.B. 276
742
department shall make rules providing for the allocation of beds to the categories
743
described in Subsection (2)(a).
744
(3) The department shall:
745
(a) own and operate the forensic mental health facility;
746
(b) provide and supervise administrative and clinical staff; and
747
(c) provide security staff who are trained as psychiatric technicians.
748
(4) Pursuant to Subsection 26B-5-303(3) the executive director shall designate individuals
749
to perform security functions for the state hospital.
750
Section 9. Section 26B-6-401 is amended to read:
751
26B-6-401 . Definitions.
752
As used in this part:
753
(1) "Approved provider" means a person approved by the division to provide home-and
754
community-based services.
755
(2) "Board" means the Utah State Developmental Center Board created under Section
756
26B-1-429.
757
(3)(a) "Brain injury" means an acquired injury to the brain that is neurological in nature,
758
including a cerebral vascular accident.
759
(b) "Brain injury" does not include a deteriorating disease.
760
(4) "Designated intellectual disability professional" means:
761
(a) a psychologist licensed under Title 58, Chapter 61, Psychologist Licensing Act, who:
762
(i)(A) has at least one year of specialized training in working with persons with an
763
intellectual disability; or
764
(B) has at least one year of clinical experience with persons with an intellectual
765
disability; and
766
(ii) is designated by the division as specially qualified, by training and experience, in
767
the treatment of an intellectual disability; or
768
(b) a clinical social worker, certified social worker, marriage and family therapist, or
769
professional counselor, licensed under Title 58, Chapter 60, Mental Health
770
Professional Practice Act, who:
771
(i) has at least two years of clinical experience with persons with an intellectual
772
disability; and
773
(ii) is designated by the division as specially qualified, by training and experience, in
774
the treatment of an intellectual disability.
775
(5) "Deteriorating disease" includes:
- 23 - H.B. 276 Enrolled Copy
776
(a) multiple sclerosis;
777
(b) muscular dystrophy;
778
(c) Huntington's chorea;
779
(d) Alzheimer's disease;
780
(e) ataxia; or
781
(f) cancer.
782
(6) "Developmental center" means the Utah State Developmental Center, established in
783
accordance with Part 5, Utah State Developmental Center.
784
(7) "Director" means the director of the Division of Services for People with Disabilities.
785
(8) "Direct service worker" means a person who provides services to a person with a
786
disability:
787
(a) when the services are rendered in:
788
(i) the physical presence of the person with a disability; or
789
(ii) a location where the person rendering the services has access to the physical
790
presence of the person with a disability; and
791
(b)(i) under a contract with the division;
792
(ii) under a grant agreement with the division; or
793
(iii) as an employee of the division.
794
(9)(a) "Disability" means a severe, chronic disability that:
795
(i) is attributable to:
796
(A) an intellectual disability;
797
(B) a condition that qualifies a person as a person with a related condition, as
798
defined in 42 C.F.R. Sec. 435.1010;
799
(C) a physical disability; or
800
(D) a brain injury;
801
(ii) is likely to continue indefinitely;
802
(iii)(A) for a condition described in Subsection (9)(a)(i)(A), (B), or (C), results in
803
a substantial functional limitation in three or more of the following areas of
804
major life activity:
805
(I) self-care;
806
(II) receptive and expressive language;
807
(III) learning;
808
(IV) mobility;
809
(V) self-direction;
- 24 - Enrolled Copy H.B. 276
810
(VI) capacity for independent living; or
811
(VII) economic self-sufficiency; or
812
(B) for a condition described in Subsection (9)(a)(i)(D), results in a substantial
813
limitation in three or more of the following areas:
814
(I) memory or cognition;
815
(II) activities of daily life;
816
(III) judgment and self-protection;
817
(IV) control of emotions;
818
(V) communication;
819
(VI) physical health; or
820
(VII) employment; and
821
(iv) requires a combination or sequence of special interdisciplinary or generic care,
822
treatment, or other services that:
823
(A) may continue throughout life; and
824
(B) must be individually planned and coordinated.
825
(b) "Disability" does not include a condition due solely to:
826
(i) mental illness;
827
(ii) personality disorder;
828
(iii) deafness or being hard of hearing;
829
(iv) visual impairment;
830
(v) learning disability;
831
(vi) behavior disorder;
832
(vii) substance abuse; or
833
(viii) the aging process.
834
(10) "Division" means the Division of Services for People with Disabilities.
835
(11) "Eligible to receive division services" or "eligibility" means qualification, based on
836
criteria established by the division, to receive services that are administered by the
837
division.
838
(12) "Endorsed program" means a facility or program that:
839
(a) is operated:
840
(i) by the division; or
841
(ii) under contract with the division; or
842
(b) provides services to a person committed to the division under Part 6, Admission to
843
an Intermediate Care Facility for People with an Intellectual Disability.
- 25 - H.B. 276 Enrolled Copy
844
(13) "Licensed physician" means:
845
(a) an individual licensed to practice medicine under:
846
(i) Title 58, Chapter 67, Utah Medical Practice Act; or
847
(ii) Title 58, Chapter 68, Utah Osteopathic Medical Practice Act; or
848
(b) a medical officer of the United States Government while in this state in the
849
performance of official duties.
850
(14) "Limited support services" means services that are administered by the division to
851
individuals with a disability:
852
(a) under a waiver authorized under 42 U.S.C. Sec. 1396n(c) by the Centers for
853
Medicare and Medicaid Services that permits the division to limit services to an
854
individual who is eligible to receive division services; and
855
(b) through a program that:
856
(i) was not operated by the division on or before January 1, 2020; and
857
(ii)(A) limits the kinds of services that an individual may receive; or
858
(B) sets a maximum total dollar amount for program services provided to each
859
individual.
860
(15) "Physical disability" means a medically determinable physical impairment that has
861
resulted in the functional loss of two or more of a person's limbs.
862
(16) "Public funds" means state or federal funds that are disbursed by the division.
863
(17)(a) "Related condition" means a severe, chronic condition that:
864
(i) manifests before the day on which an individual turns 22 years old;
865
(ii) is likely to continue indefinitely;
866
(iii) results in substantial functional limitations;
867
(iv) is closely related to an intellectual disability because the condition results in the
868
impairment of:
869
(A) general intellectual functioning, similar to that of an individual with an
870
intellectual disability; or
871
(B) adaptive behavior, similar to that of an individual with an intellectual
872
disability; and
873
(v) requires treatment or services similar to the treatment or services required for an
874
individual with an intellectual disability.
875
(b) "Related condition" does not include mental illness, as that term is defined in Section
876
26B-5-301.
877
[(17)] (18) "Resident" means an individual under observation, care, or treatment in an
- 26 - Enrolled Copy H.B. 276
878
intermediate care facility for people with an intellectual disability.
879
(19) "Substantial danger" means that because of an intellectual disability or related
880
condition, an individual is at risk of:
881
(a) suicide;
882
(b) serious bodily self-injury;
883
(c) serious bodily injury because the individual lacks capacity to provide the basic
884
necessities of life, such as food, clothing, or shelter;
885
(d) causing or attempting to cause serious bodily injury or serious emotional harm to
886
another individual;
887
(e) engaging in harmful sexual conduct, as that term is defined in Section 26B-5-301; or
888
(f) suffering serious physical harm or serious emotional harm as a result of being
889
exploited, abused, or neglected.
890
[(18)] (20) "Sustainability fund" means the Utah State Developmental Center Long-Term
891
Sustainability Fund created in Section 26B-1-331.
892
Section 10. Section 26B-6-606 is amended to read:
893
26B-6-606 . Involuntary commitment.
894
An individual with an intellectual disability or related condition may not be involuntarily
895
committed to [an intermediate care facility for people with an intellectual disability] the division
896
except in accordance with Sections 26B-6-607 and 26B-6-608.
897
Section 11. Section 26B-6-607 is amended to read:
898
26B-6-607 . Temporary emergency commitment -- Observation and evaluation.
899
(1) [The director of the division or his designee may temporarily commit an individual to
900
the division and therefore, as a matter of course, to an intermediate care facility for
901
people with an intellectual disability for observation and evaluation] An individual with
902
an intellectual disability or related condition may be committed to the division on an
903
emergency basis upon[:]
904
[(a) written application by a responsible person who has reason to know that the
905
individual is in need of commitment, stating:]
906
[(i) a belief that the individual has an intellectual disability and is likely to cause
907
serious injury to self or others if not immediately committed;]
908
[(ii) personal knowledge of the individual's condition; and]
909
[(iii) the circumstances supporting that belief; or]
910
[(b)] certification by a [licensed physician or ]designated intellectual disability
911
professional stating that the [physician or ]designated intellectual disability
- 27 - H.B. 276 Enrolled Copy
912
professional:
913
[(i)] (a) has examined the individual within a three-day period, excluding Saturdays,
914
Sundays, and state holidays, immediately preceding the certification; and
915
[(ii)] (b) is of the opinion that the individual has an intellectual disability or related
916
condition, and that because of the individual's intellectual disability [is likely to injure]
917
or related condition is a substantial danger to self or others[ if not immediately
918
committed].
919
(2) If the individual in need of commitment is not placed in the custody of the director or
920
the director's designee by the person submitting the [application, the director's]
921
certification, the director or the director's designee may certify, either in writing or orally
922
that the individual is in need of immediate commitment to prevent [injury] posing
923
substantial danger to self or others.
924
(3) Upon receipt of the [application] certification required by Subsection [(1)(a) and the
925
certifications required by Subsections (1)(b) and (2)] (2), a peace officer [may take the
926
individual named in the application and certificates into custody, and ]may transport the
927
individual to a [designated intermediate care facility for people with an intellectual
928
disability] placement designated by the division.
929
(4)(a) An individual committed under this section may be held for a maximum of [72
930
hours, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays. At the expiration of that
931
time,] 10 days, after which the individual shall be released unless proceedings for
932
involuntary commitment have been commenced under Section 26B-6-608.
933
(b) [After] If proceedings for involuntary commitment have been commenced[ the
934
individual shall be released unless an order of detention is issued in accordance with
935
Section 26B-6-608] , an emergency order under this section remains in effect until:
936
(i) the division determines that the conditions justifying commitment no longer exist;
937
or
938
(ii) a court order is issued pursuant to Section 26B-6-608.
939
(5)(a) If an individual is committed to the division under this section[ on the application
940
of any person other than the individual's legal guardian, spouse, parent, or next of kin],
941
the director or [his] the director's designee shall immediately give notice of the
942
commitment to the individual's legal guardian[, spouse, parent, or next of kin], if
943
known.
944
(b)(i) Immediately after an individual is committed to the division under this section,
945
the division shall inform the individual, orally and in writing, of the individual's
- 28 - Enrolled Copy H.B. 276
946
right to communicate with an attorney.
947
(ii) If the individual desires to communicate with an attorney, the division shall take
948
immediate steps to assist the individual in contacting and communicating with an
949
attorney.
950
(6)(a) The division [or an intermediate care facility ]shall provide discharge instructions
951
to each individual committed under this section at or before the time the individual is
952
discharged from the custody of the division[ or intermediate care facility],
953
regardless of whether the individual is discharged by being released or under other
954
circumstances.
955
(b) Discharge instructions provided under Subsection (6)(a) shall include:
956
(i) a summary of why the individual was committed;
957
(ii) detailed information about why the individual is being discharged;
958
(iii) a safety plan for the individual based on the individual's intellectual disability
959
and condition;
960
(iv) notification to the individual's primary care provider, if applicable;
961
(v) if the individual is discharged without food, housing, or economic security, a
962
referral to appropriate services, if such services exist in the individual's
963
community;
964
(vi) the phone number to call or text for a crisis services hotline, and information
965
about the availability of peer support services;
966
(vii) a copy of any advance directive presented to the local mental health authority, if
967
applicable;
968
(viii) information about how to establish an advance directive if one was not
969
presented to the division[ or intermediate care facility];
970
(ix) as applicable, information about medications that were changed or discontinued
971
during the commitment;
972
(x) a list of any screening or diagnostic tests conducted during the commitment;
973
(xi) a summary of therapeutic treatments provided during the commitment;
974
(xii) any laboratory work, including blood samples or imaging, that was completed or
975
attempted during the commitment; and
976
(xiii) information about how to contact the division[ or intermediate care facility] if
977
needed.
978
(c) If an individual's medications were changed, or if an individual was prescribed new
979
medications while committed under this section, discharge instructions provided
- 29 - H.B. 276 Enrolled Copy
980
under Subsection (6)(a) shall include a clinically appropriate supply of medications,
981
as determined by a licensed health care provider, to allow the individual time to
982
access another health care provider or follow-up appointment.
983
(d) If an individual refuses to accept discharge instructions, the division[ or intermediate
984
care facility] shall document the refusal in the individual's medical record.
985
(e) If an individual's discharge instructions include referrals to services under Subsection
986
(6)(b)(v), the division[ or intermediate care facility] shall document those referrals
987
in the individual's medical record.
988
(f) The division shall attempt to follow up with a discharged individual at least 48 hours
989
after discharge, and may use peer support professionals when performing follow-up
990
care or developing a continuing care plan.
991
Section 12. Section 26B-6-608 is amended to read:
992
26B-6-608 . Involuntary commitment -- Procedures -- Necessary findings --
993
Periodic review.
994
[(1) Any responsible person who has reason to know that an individual is in need of
995
commitment, who has a belief that the individual has an intellectual disability, and who
996
has personal knowledge of the conditions and circumstances supporting that belief, may
997
commence proceedings for involuntary commitment by filing a written petition with the
998
district court, or if the subject of the petition is less than 18 years old with the juvenile
999
court, of the county in which the individual to be committed is physically located at the
1000
time the petition is filed. The application shall be accompanied by:]
1001
[(a) a certificate of a licensed physician or a designated intellectual disability
1002
professional, stating that within a seven-day period immediately preceding the
1003
certification, the physician or designated intellectual disability professional examined
1004
the individual and believes that the individual has an intellectual disability and is in
1005
need of involuntary commitment; or]
1006
[(b) a written statement by the petitioner that:]
1007
[(i) states that the individual was requested to, but refused to, submit to an
1008
examination for an intellectual disability by a licensed physician or designated
1009
intellectual disability professional, and that the individual refuses to voluntarily go
1010
to the division or an intermediate care facility for people with an intellectual
1011
disability recommended by the division for treatment;]
1012
[(ii) is under oath; and]
1013
[(iii) sets forth the facts on which the statement is based.]
- 30 - Enrolled Copy H.B. 276
1014
[(2) Before issuing a detention order, the court may require the petitioner to consult with
1015
personnel at the division or at an intermediate care facility for people with an intellectual
1016
disability and may direct a designated intellectual disability professional to interview the
1017
petitioner and the individual to be committed, to determine the existing facts, and to
1018
report them to the court.]
1019
[(3) The court may issue a detention order and may direct a peace officer to immediately
1020
take the individual to an intermediate care facility for people with an intellectual
1021
disability to be detained for purposes of an examination if the court finds from the
1022
petition, from other statements under oath, or from reports of physicians or designated
1023
intellectual disability professionals that there is a reasonable basis to believe that the
1024
individual to be committed:]
1025
[(a) poses an immediate danger of physical injury to self or others;]
1026
[(b) requires involuntary commitment pending examination and hearing;]
1027
[(c) the individual was requested but refused to submit to an examination by a licensed
1028
physician or designated intellectual disability professional; or]
1029
[(d) the individual refused to voluntarily go to the division or to an intermediate care
1030
facility for people with an intellectual disability recommended by the division.]
1031
[(4)(a) If the court issues a detention order based on an application that did not include
1032
a certification by a designated intellectual disability professional or physician in
1033
accordance with Subsection (1)(a), the director or his designee shall within 24 hours
1034
after issuance of the detention order, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal
1035
holidays, examine the individual, report the results of the examination to the court
1036
and inform the court:]
1037
[(i) whether the director or his designee believes that the individual has an intellectual
1038
disability; and]
1039
[(ii) whether appropriate treatment programs are available and will be used by the
1040
individual without court proceedings.]
1041
[(b) If the report of the director or his designee is based on an oral report of the
1042
examiner, the examiner shall immediately send the results of the examination in
1043
writing to the clerk of the court.]
1044
[(5) Immediately after an individual is involuntarily committed under a detention order or
1045
under Section 26B-6-607, the director or his designee shall inform the individual, orally
1046
and in writing, of his right to communicate with an attorney. If an individual desires to
1047
communicate with an attorney, the director or his designee shall take immediate steps to
- 31 - H.B. 276 Enrolled Copy
1048
assist the individual in contacting and communicating with an attorney.]
1049
(1)(a) Any responsible person who has reason to know that an individual is in need of
1050
commitment, who has a belief that the individual has an intellectual disability or
1051
related condition, and who has personal knowledge of the conditions and
1052
circumstances supporting that belief, may make a referral to the division to conduct
1053
an assessment to determine if the individual meets the criteria for involuntary
1054
commitment under this section.
1055
(b)(i) To conduct an assessment of an individual who may be in need of commitment
1056
under this section, the division shall have two designated intellectual disability
1057
professionals examine the individual.
1058
(ii) The examinations described in Subsection (1)(b)(i) shall be conducted separately
1059
and at a suitable location not likely to have a harmful effect on the individual
1060
being examined.
1061
(c) If the designated intellectual disability professionals who conduct the examinations
1062
described in Subsection (1)(b)(i) both believe the examined individual meets the
1063
criteria for involuntary commitment under this section, the division may file a written
1064
petition to commence involuntary commitment proceedings with the district court, or
1065
with the juvenile court if the subject of the petition is less than 18 years old, of the
1066
county in which the subject of the petition is physically located at the time the
1067
petition is filed.
1068
(d)(i) The division shall include with a petition described in Subsection (1)(c) a
1069
certification from each of the designated intellectual disability professionals who
1070
examined the subject of the petition.
1071
(ii) A designated intellectual disability professional's certification shall state that:
1072
(A) within a seven-day period immediately preceding the filing of the petition, the
1073
designated intellectual disability professional examined the subject of the
1074
petition separate from the other designated intellectual disability professional;
1075
and
1076
(B) it is the designated intellectual disability professional's belief that the subject
1077
of the petition has an intellectual disability or related condition and meets the
1078
criteria for involuntary commitment under this section.
1079
(2)(a) If, pursuant to Title 77, Chapter 15, Defendant's Competency to Proceed, or Title
1080
80, Chapter 6, Part 4, Competency, a prosecutor informs a court that commitment
1081
proceedings will be initiated, the prosecutor shall make a referral to the division
- 32 - Enrolled Copy H.B. 276
1082
pursuant to Subsection (1).
1083
(b) If a prosecutor makes a referral to the division pursuant to Subsection (1), the
1084
division shall complete an assessment as described in Subsection (1)(b) within seven
1085
days after the day on which the prosecutor makes the referral unless the court
1086
enlarges the time for good cause shown.
1087
(c) Upon completion of the assessment described in Subsection (2)(b), if the designated
1088
intellectual disability professionals who examine the individual who is the subject of
1089
the referral both certify that they believe the individual meets the criteria for
1090
involuntary commitment under this section, the division may file a petition to
1091
commence involuntary commitment proceedings in accordance with Subsections
1092
(1)(c) and (d).
1093
[(6)] (3)(a) Immediately after [commencement of proceedings] the division files a petition
1094
for involuntary commitment under this section, the court shall:
1095
(i) schedule a hearing on the petition for no later than 10 days after the day on which
1096
the division filed the petition; and
1097
(ii) give notice of commencement of the proceedings to:
1098
[(i)] (A) the individual to be committed;
1099
[(ii)] (B) the [applicant] referent under Subsection (1)(a) or (2)(a), if applicable;
1100
[(iii)] (C) any legal guardian of the individual;
1101
[(iv)] (D) adult members of the individual's immediate family;
1102
[(v)] (E) legal counsel of the individual to be committed, if any;
1103
[(vi)] (F) the division; and
1104
[(vii)] (G) any other person to whom the individual requests, or the court
1105
designates, notice to be given.
1106
(b) If an individual cannot or refuses to disclose the identity of persons to be notified,
1107
the extent of notice shall be determined by the court.
1108
[(7)] (4) [That notice] The notice described in Subsection (3) shall:
1109
(a) set forth the allegations of the petition and all supporting facts;
1110
(b) be accompanied by a copy of [any detention] an emergency order issued under [
1111
Subsection (3)] Section 26B-6-607, if applicable; and
1112
(c) state that a hearing will be held within the time provided by law, and give the time
1113
and place for that hearing.
1114
[(8)] (5) The court may transfer the case and the custody of the individual to be committed
1115
to any other district court within the state[, if:] if the individual resides in another
- 33 - H.B. 276 Enrolled Copy
1116
jurisdiction within the state.
1117
[(a) there are no appropriate facilities for persons with an intellectual disability within
1118
the judicial district; and]
1119
[(b) the transfer will not be adverse to the interests of the individual.]
1120
[(9)(a) Within 24 hours, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays, after any
1121
order or commitment under a detention order, the court shall appoint two designated
1122
intellectual disability professionals to examine the individual. If requested by the
1123
individual's counsel, the court shall appoint a reasonably available, qualified person
1124
designated by counsel to be one of the examining designated intellectual disability
1125
professionals. The examinations shall be conducted:]
1126
[(i) separately;]
1127
[(ii) at the home of the individual to be committed, a hospital, an intermediate care
1128
facility for people with an intellectual disability, or any other suitable place not
1129
likely to have a harmful effect on the individual; and]
1130
[(iii) within a reasonable period of time after appointment of the examiners by the
1131
court.]
1132
[(b) The court shall set a time for a hearing to be held within 10 court days of the
1133
appointment of the examiners. However, the court may immediately terminate the
1134
proceedings and dismiss the application if, prior to the hearing date, the examiners,
1135
the director, or his designee informs the court that:]
1136
[(i) the individual does not have an intellectual disability; or]
1137
[(ii) treatment programs are available and will be used by the individual without court
1138
proceedings.]
1139
[(10)] (6)(a)(i) Each individual has the right to be represented by counsel at the
1140
commitment hearing and in all preliminary proceedings.
1141
(ii) If neither the individual nor others provide counsel, [ ]the court shall appoint
1142
counsel and allow sufficient time for counsel to consult with the individual prior
1143
to any hearing.
1144
(b) If the individual is indigent, the county in which the individual was physically
1145
located when taken into custody shall pay reasonable attorney fees as determined by
1146
the court.
1147
[(11)] (7) [The division or a designated intellectual disability professional in charge of the
1148
individual's care] Upon order of the court, the division or the division's designee shall
1149
provide all [documented information on] relevant documentation on the individual to be
- 34 - Enrolled Copy H.B. 276
1150
committed [and ]to the court [at the time of the hearing. The] and the individual's
1151
attorney[ shall have access to all documented information on the individual at the time
1152
of and prior to the hearing].
1153
[(12)] (8)(a) The court shall provide an opportunity to the individual, the petitioner, and
1154
all other persons to whom notice is required to be given to appear at the hearing, to
1155
testify, and to present and cross-examine witnesses.
1156
(b) The court may, in its discretion:
1157
(i) receive the testimony of any other person;
1158
(ii) allow a waiver of the right to appear only for good cause shown;
1159
(iii) exclude from the hearing all persons not necessary to conduct the proceedings;
1160
and
1161
(iv) upon motion of counsel, require the testimony of each examiner to be given out
1162
of the presence of any other examiner.
1163
(c)(i) The hearing shall be conducted in as informal a manner as may be consistent
1164
with orderly procedure, and in a physical setting that is not likely to have a
1165
harmful effect on the individual.
1166
(ii) The Utah Rules of Evidence apply, and the hearing shall be a matter of court
1167
record.
1168
(iii) A verbatim record of the proceedings shall be maintained.
1169
[(13)] (9) The court may order commitment if, upon completion of the hearing and
1170
consideration of the record, [it] the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that all
1171
of the following conditions are met:
1172
(a) the individual to be committed has an intellectual disability or a related condition;
1173
(b) because of the individual's intellectual disability or related condition, one or more of
1174
the following conditions exist:
1175
(i) the individual poses [an immediate danger of physical injury] substantial danger to
1176
self or others;
1177
(ii) the individual lacks the capacity to provide the basic necessities of life, such as
1178
food, clothing, or shelter;[ or]
1179
(iii) the individual is in immediate need of habilitation, rehabilitation, care, or
1180
treatment to minimize the effects of the condition which poses a [threat of serious
1181
physical or psychological injury to the individual, and] risk of substantial danger to
1182
self or others; or
1183
(iv) the individual lacks the capacity to engage in a rational decision-making process
- 35 - H.B. 276 Enrolled Copy
1184
concerning the need for habilitation, rehabilitation, care, or treatment, as
1185
evidenced by an inability to weigh the possible costs and benefits of the care or
1186
treatment and the alternatives to it;
1187
(c) there is no appropriate, less restrictive alternative reasonably available; and
1188
(d) the division [or the intermediate care facility for people with an intellectual disability
1189
recommended by the division in which the individual is to be committed ]can provide
1190
the individual with treatment, care, habilitation, or rehabilitation that is adequate and
1191
appropriate to the individual's condition and needs.
1192
[(14)] (10) In the absence of any of the required findings by the court, described in
1193
Subsection [(13)] (9), the court shall dismiss the proceedings.
1194
[(15)] (11)(a) The order of commitment shall designate the period for which the
1195
individual will be committed.
1196
(b) An initial commitment may not exceed six months.[ Before the end of the initial
1197
commitment period, the administrator of the intermediate care facility for people with
1198
an intellectual disability shall commence a review hearing on behalf of the individual.]
1199
[(b) At the conclusion of the review hearing, the court may issue an order of
1200
commitment for up to a one-year period.]
1201
[(16)] (12)(a) An individual committed under this part has the right to a rehearing[, upon
1202
filing a petition with the court within 30 days after entry of the court's order. If the
1203
petition for rehearing alleges error or mistake in the court's findings, the] if, within 15
1204
days after the court enters the order of commitment, the individual files a petition
1205
with the court alleging error or mistake in the court's findings.
1206
(b) Upon a request for rehearing filed in accordance with Subsection (12)(a), the court
1207
shall:
1208
(i) appoint[ one impartial licensed physician and] two impartial designated
1209
intellectual disability professionals who have not previously been involved in the
1210
case to examine the individual[. ] ; and
1211
(ii) schedule a rehearing to be held within 30 days after the court entered the order of
1212
commitment.
1213
(c) [The] In all other respects, the rehearing shall[, in all other respects,] be conducted in
1214
accordance with this part.
1215
[(17)] (13)(a)(i) The court shall maintain a current list of all individuals under its
1216
orders of commitment.
1217
(ii) [That list shall be reviewed in order] The court shall review the list described in
- 36 - Enrolled Copy H.B. 276
1218
Subsection (13)(a)(i) to determine those patients who have been under an order of
1219
commitment for the designated period.
1220
(b) At least two weeks prior to the expiration of the designated period of any
1221
commitment order still in effect, the court that entered the original order shall [inform
1222
the director of the division of the impending expiration of the designated
1223
commitment period] commence and send notice to all parties of a review hearing for
1224
the committed individual.
1225
(c) Prior to the review hearing, a division-designated intellectual disability professional
1226
shall reexamine the basis for the order of commitment and provide a report of that
1227
reexamination to the court.
1228
(d) At the conclusion of a review hearing, the court may:
1229
(i) issue an order of commitment for up to a one-year period; or
1230
(ii) discharge the individual from involuntary commitment if the conditions justifying
1231
commitment no longer exist.
1232
[(c) The staff of the division shall immediately:]
1233
[(i) reexamine the reasons upon which the order of commitment was based and report
1234
the results of the examination to the court;]
1235
[(ii) discharge the resident from involuntary commitment if the conditions justifying
1236
commitment no longer exist; and]
1237
[(iii) immediately inform the court of any discharge.]
1238
[(d)] (e) [If the director of the division reports to the court that the conditions justifying
1239
commitment no longer exist, and the administrator of the intermediate care facility
1240
for people with an intellectual disability does not discharge the individual at the end
1241
of the designated period, the court shall order the immediate discharge of the
1242
individual, unless involuntary commitment proceedings are again commenced in
1243
accordance with this section] If at any time during the commitment period the director
1244
or the director's designee determines that the conditions justifying commitment no
1245
longer exist, the division shall immediately discharge the individual from the
1246
commitment and notify the court.
1247
(f) If the division does not discharge an individual at the end of the designated period of
1248
a commitment order, the court shall order the immediate discharge of the individual
1249
unless involuntary commitment proceedings are commenced again in accordance
1250
with this section.
1251
[(e) If the director of the division, or the director's designee reports to the court that the
- 37 - H.B. 276 Enrolled Copy
1252
conditions designated in Subsection (13) still exist, the court may extend the
1253
commitment order for up to one year. At the end of any extension, the individual
1254
must be reexamined in accordance with this section, or discharged.]
1255
[(18)] (14) When a resident is discharged under this [subsection] section, the division shall [
1256
provide any further support services available and] continue to provide division services
1257
for which the individual is eligible and as required to meet the resident's needs.
1258
[(19)] (15)(a) The division[ or an intermediate care facility] shall provide discharge
1259
instructions to each individual committed under this section at or before the time the
1260
individual is discharged from the custody of the division[ or intermediate care facility],
1261
regardless of whether the individual is discharged by being released or under other
1262
circumstances.
1263
(b) Discharge instructions provided under Subsection [(19)(a)] (15)(a) shall include:
1264
(i) a summary of why the individual was committed;
1265
(ii) detailed information about why the individual is being discharged;
1266
(iii) a safety plan for the individual based on the individual's intellectual disability
1267
and condition;
1268
(iv) notification to the individual's primary care provider, if applicable;
1269
(v) if the individual is discharged without food, housing, or economic security, a
1270
referral to appropriate services, if such services exist in the individual's
1271
community;
1272
(vi) the phone number to call or text for a crisis services hotline, and information
1273
about the availability of peer support services;
1274
(vii) a copy of any advance directive presented to the local mental health authority, if
1275
applicable;
1276
(viii) information about how to establish an advance directive if one was not
1277
presented to the division[ or intermediate care facility];
1278
(ix) as applicable, information about medications that were changed or discontinued
1279
during the commitment;
1280
(x) a list of any screening or diagnostic tests conducted during the commitment;
1281
(xi) a summary of therapeutic treatments provided during the commitment;
1282
(xii) any laboratory work, including blood samples or imaging, that was completed or
1283
attempted during the commitment; and
1284
(xiii) information about how to contact the division[ or intermediate care facility] if
1285
needed.
- 38 - Enrolled Copy H.B. 276
1286
(c) If an individual's medications were changed, or if an individual was prescribed new
1287
medications while committed under this section, discharge instructions provided
1288
under Subsection [(19)(a)] (15)(a) shall include a clinically appropriate supply of
1289
medications, as determined by a licensed health care provider, to allow the individual
1290
time to access another health care provider or follow-up appointment.
1291
(d) If an individual refuses to accept discharge instructions, the division[ or intermediate
1292
care facility] shall document the refusal in the individual's medical record.
1293
(e) If an individual's discharge instructions include referrals to services under Subsection [
1294
(19)(b)(v)] (15)(b)(v), the division[ or intermediate care facility] shall document those
1295
referrals in the individual's medical record.
1296
(f) The division shall attempt to follow up with a discharged individual at least 48 hours
1297
after discharge, and may use peer support professionals when performing follow-up
1298
care or developing a continuing care plan.
1299
Section 13. Section 26B-6-613 is amended to read:
1300
26B-6-613 . Involuntary treatment with medication -- Committee -- Findings.
1301
(1) If, after commitment, a resident elects to refuse treatment with medication, the director,
1302
the administrator of the intermediate care facility for people with an intellectual
1303
disability, or a designee, shall submit documentation regarding the resident's proposed
1304
treatment to a committee composed of:
1305
(a) a licensed physician experienced in treating persons with an intellectual disability,
1306
who is not directly involved in the resident's treatment or diagnosis, and who is not
1307
biased toward any one facility;
1308
(b) a psychologist who is a designated intellectual disability professional who is not
1309
directly involved in the resident's treatment or diagnosis; and
1310
(c) another designated intellectual disability professional of the facility for persons with
1311
an intellectual disability, or a designee.
1312
(2) Based upon the court's finding, under Subsection [26B-6-608(13)] 26B-6-608(9), that
1313
the resident lacks the ability to engage in a rational decision-making process regarding
1314
the need for habilitation, rehabilitation, care, or treatment, as demonstrated by evidence
1315
of inability to weigh the possible costs and benefits of treatment, the committee may
1316
authorize involuntary treatment with medication if it determines that:
1317
(a) the proposed treatment is in the medical best interest of the resident, taking into
1318
account the possible side effects as well as the potential benefits of the medication;
1319
and
- 39 - H.B. 276 Enrolled Copy
1320
(b) the proposed treatment is in accordance with prevailing standards of accepted
1321
medical practice.
1322
(3) In making the determination described in Subsection (2), the committee shall consider
1323
the resident's general history and present condition, the specific need for medication and
1324
its possible side effects, and any previous reaction to the same or comparable medication.
1325
(4) Any authorization of involuntary treatment under this section shall be periodically
1326
reviewed in accordance with rules promulgated by the division.
1327
Section 14. Section 68-3-12.5 is amended to read:
1328
68-3-12.5 . Definitions for Utah Code.
1329
(1) The definitions listed in this section apply to the Utah Code, unless:
1330
(a) the definition is inconsistent with the manifest intent of the Legislature or repugnant
1331
to the context of the statute; or
1332
(b) a different definition is expressly provided for the respective title, chapter, part,
1333
section, or subsection.
1334
(2) "Adjudicative proceeding" means:
1335
(a) an action by a board, commission, department, officer, or other administrative unit of
1336
the state that determines the legal rights, duties, privileges, immunities, or other legal
1337
interests of one or more identifiable persons, including an action to grant, deny,
1338
revoke, suspend, modify, annul, withdraw, or amend an authority, right, or license;
1339
and
1340
(b) judicial review of an action described in Subsection (2)(a).
1341
(3) "Administrator" includes "executor" when the subject matter justifies the use.
1342
(4) "Advisory board," "advisory commission," and "advisory council" mean a board,
1343
commission, committee, or council that:
1344
(a) is created by, and whose duties are provided by, statute or executive order;
1345
(b) performs its duties only under the supervision of another person as provided by
1346
statute; and
1347
(c) provides advice and makes recommendations to another person that makes policy for
1348
the benefit of the general public.
1349
(5) "Armed forces" means the United States Army, Navy, Air Force, Marine Corps, Space
1350
Force, and Coast Guard.
1351
(6) "County executive" means:
1352
(a) the county commission, in the county commission or expanded county commission
1353
form of government established under Title 17, Chapter 52a, Changing Forms of
- 40 - Enrolled Copy H.B. 276
1354
County Government;
1355
(b) the county executive, in the county executive-council optional form of government
1356
authorized by Section 17-52a-203; or
1357
(c) the county manager, in the council-manager optional form of government authorized
1358
by Section 17-52a-204.
1359
(7) "County legislative body" means:
1360
(a) the county commission, in the county commission or expanded county commission
1361
form of government established under Title 17, Chapter 52a, Changing Forms of
1362
County Government;
1363
(b) the county council, in the county executive-council optional form of government
1364
authorized by Section 17-52a-203; and
1365
(c) the county council, in the council-manager optional form of government authorized
1366
by Section 17-52a-204.
1367
(8) "Depose" means to make a written statement made under oath or affirmation.
1368
(9)(a) "Equal" means, with respect to biological sex, of the same value.
1369
(b) "Equal" does not mean, with respect to biological sex:
1370
(i) a characteristic of being the same or identical; or
1371
(ii) a requirement that biological sexes be ignored or co-mingled in every
1372
circumstance.
1373
(10) "Executor" includes "administrator" when the subject matter justifies the use.
1374
(11) "Father" means a parent who is of the male sex.
1375
(12) "Female" means the characteristic of an individual whose biological reproductive
1376
system is of the general type that functions in a way that could produce ova.
1377
(13) "Guardian" includes a person who:
1378
(a) qualifies as a guardian of a minor or incapacitated person pursuant to testamentary or
1379
court appointment; or
1380
(b) is appointed by a court to manage the estate of a minor or incapacitated person.
1381
(14) "Highway" includes:
1382
(a) a public bridge;
1383
(b) a county way;
1384
(c) a county road;
1385
(d) a common road; and
1386
(e) a state road.
1387
(15) "Intellectual disability" [means a significant, subaverage general intellectual
- 41 - H.B. 276 Enrolled Copy
1388
functioning that:] means the same as that term is defined in the most recent edition of the
1389
Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders published by the American
1390
Psychiatric Association.
1391
[(a) exists concurrently with deficits in adaptive behavior; and]
1392
[(b) is manifested during the developmental period as defined in the current edition of
1393
the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, published by the
1394
American Psychiatric Association.]
1395
(16) "Intermediate care facility for people with an intellectual disability" means an [
1396
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded, as defined in Title XIX of the Social
1397
Security Act] institution or distinct part thereof for people with an intellectual disability
1398
or related conditions, if the institution or distinct part thereof meets the requirements
1399
described in 42 U.S.C. Secs. 1396d(d)(1) through (3).
1400
(17) "Land" includes:
1401
(a) land;
1402
(b) a tenement;
1403
(c) a hereditament;
1404
(d) a water right;
1405
(e) a possessory right; and
1406
(f) a claim.
1407
(18) "Male" means the characteristic of an individual whose biological reproductive system
1408
is of the general type that functions to fertilize the ova of a female.
1409
(19) "Man" means an adult human male.
1410
(20) "Month" means a calendar month, unless otherwise expressed.
1411
(21) "Mother" means a parent who is of the female sex.
1412
(22) "Oath" includes "affirmation."
1413
(23) "Person" means:
1414
(a) an individual;
1415
(b) an association;
1416
(c) an institution;
1417
(d) a corporation;
1418
(e) a company;
1419
(f) a trust;
1420
(g) a limited liability company;
1421
(h) a partnership;
- 42 - Enrolled Copy H.B. 276
1422
(i) a political subdivision;
1423
(j) a government office, department, division, bureau, or other body of government; and
1424
(k) any other organization or entity.
1425
(24) "Personal property" includes:
1426
(a) money;
1427
(b) goods;
1428
(c) chattels;
1429
(d) effects;
1430
(e) evidences of a right in action;
1431
(f) a written instrument by which a pecuniary obligation, right, or title to property is
1432
created, acknowledged, transferred, increased, defeated, discharged, or diminished;
1433
and
1434
(g) a right or interest in an item described in Subsections (24)(a) through (f).
1435
(25) "Personal representative," "executor," and "administrator" include:
1436
(a) an executor;
1437
(b) an administrator;
1438
(c) a successor personal representative;
1439
(d) a special administrator; and
1440
(e) a person who performs substantially the same function as a person described in
1441
Subsections (25)(a) through (d) under the law governing the person's status.
1442
(26) "Policy board," "policy commission," or "policy council" means a board, commission,
1443
or council that:
1444
(a) is authorized to make policy for the benefit of the general public;
1445
(b) is created by, and whose duties are provided by, the constitution or statute; and
1446
(c) performs its duties according to its own rules without supervision other than under
1447
the general control of another person as provided by statute.
1448
(27) "Population" is shown by the most recent state or national census, unless expressly
1449
provided otherwise.
1450
(28) "Process" means a writ or summons issued in the course of a judicial proceeding.
1451
(29) "Property" includes both real and personal property.
1452
(30) "Real estate" or "real property" includes:
1453
(a) land;
1454
(b) a tenement;
1455
(c) a hereditament;
- 43 - H.B. 276 Enrolled Copy
1456
(d) a water right;
1457
(e) a possessory right; and
1458
(f) a claim.
1459
(31) "Review board," "review commission," and "review council" mean a board,
1460
commission, committee, or council that:
1461
(a) is authorized to approve policy made for the benefit of the general public by another
1462
body or person;
1463
(b) is created by, and whose duties are provided by, statute; and
1464
(c) performs its duties according to its own rules without supervision other than under
1465
the general control of another person as provided by statute.
1466
(32) "Road" includes:
1467
(a) a public bridge;
1468
(b) a county way;
1469
(c) a county road;
1470
(d) a common road; and
1471
(e) a state road.
1472
(33) "Sex" means, in relation to an individual, the individual's biological sex, either male or
1473
female, at birth, according to distinct reproductive roles as manifested by:
1474
(a) sex and reproductive organ anatomy;
1475
(b) chromosomal makeup; and
1476
(c) endogenous hormone profiles.
1477
(34) "Signature" includes a name, mark, or sign written with the intent to authenticate an
1478
instrument or writing.
1479
(35) "State," when applied to the different parts of the United States, includes a state,
1480
district, or territory of the United States.
1481
(36) "Swear" includes "affirm."
1482
(37) "Testify" means to make an oral statement under oath or affirmation.
1483
(38) "Uniformed services" means:
1484
(a) the armed forces;
1485
(b) the commissioned corps of the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration;
1486
and
1487
(c) the commissioned corps of the United States Public Health Service.
1488
(39) "United States" includes each state, district, and territory of the United States of
1489
America.
- 44 - Enrolled Copy H.B. 276
1490
(40) "Utah Code" means the 1953 recodification of the Utah Code, as amended, unless the
1491
text expressly references a portion of the 1953 recodification of the Utah Code as it
1492
existed:
1493
(a) on the day on which the 1953 recodification of the Utah Code was enacted; or
1494
(b)(i) after the day described in Subsection (40)(a); and
1495
(ii) before the most recent amendment to the referenced portion of the 1953
1496
recodification of the Utah Code.
1497
(41) "Vessel," when used with reference to shipping, includes a steamboat, canal boat, and
1498
every structure adapted to be navigated from place to place.
1499
(42)(a) "Veteran" means an individual who:
1500
(i) has served in the United States Armed Forces for at least 180 days:
1501
(A) on active duty; or
1502
(B) in a reserve component, to include the National Guard; or
1503
(ii) has incurred an actual service-related injury or disability while in the United
1504
States Armed Forces regardless of whether the individual completed 180 days; and
1505
(iii) was separated or retired under conditions characterized as honorable or general.
1506
(b) This definition is not intended to confer eligibility for benefits.
1507
(43) "Will" includes a codicil.
1508
(44) "Woman" means an adult human female.
1509
(45) "Writ" means an order or precept in writing, issued in the name of:
1510
(a) the state;
1511
(b) a court; or
1512
(c) a judicial officer.
1513
(46) "Writing" includes:
1514
(a) printing;
1515
(b) handwriting; and
1516
(c) information stored in an electronic or other medium if the information is retrievable
1517
in a perceivable format.
1518
Section 15. Section 77-15-2 is amended to read:
1519
77-15-2 . Definitions.
1520
As used in this chapter:
1521
(1) "Competency evaluation" means an evaluation conducted by a forensic evaluator to
1522
determine if an individual is competent to stand trial.
1523
(2) "Competent to stand trial" means that a defendant has:
- 45 - H.B. 276 Enrolled Copy
1524
(a) a rational and factual understanding of the criminal proceedings against the
1525
defendant and of the punishment specified for the offense charged; and
1526
(b) the ability to consult with the defendant's legal counsel with a reasonable degree of
1527
rational understanding in order to assist in the defense.
1528
(3) "Department" means the Department of Health and Human Services.
1529
(4) "Forensic evaluator" means a licensed mental health professional who:
1530
(a) is not involved in the defendant's treatment;
1531
(b) is trained and qualified by the department to conduct a competency evaluation, a
1532
restoration screening, and a progress toward competency evaluation, based on
1533
knowledge, experience, or education relating to:
1534
(i) intellectual functioning or psychopathology; and
1535
(ii) the legal system and the rights of a defendant in a criminal trial; and
1536
(c) if under contract with the department, demonstrates ongoing education and training
1537
relating to forensic mental health in accordance with rules established by the
1538
department in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative
1539
Rulemaking Act.
1540
(5) "Incompetent to proceed" means that a defendant is not competent to stand trial as a
1541
result of:
1542
(a) mental illness; or
1543
(b) intellectual disability.
1544
[(6) "Intellectual disability" means an intellectual disability as defined in the current edition
1545
of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders published by the American
1546
Psychiatric Association.]
1547
[(7)] (6) "Mental illness" means the same as that term is defined in Section 26B-5-301.
1548
[(8)] (7) "Petition" means a petition to request a court to determine whether a defendant is
1549
competent to stand trial.
1550
[(9)] (8) "Progress toward competency evaluation" means an evaluation to determine
1551
whether an individual who is receiving restoration treatment is:
1552
(a) competent to stand trial;
1553
(b) incompetent to proceed but has a substantial probability of becoming competent to
1554
stand trial in the foreseeable future; or
1555
(c) incompetent to proceed and does not have a substantial probability of becoming
1556
competent to stand trial in the foreseeable future.
1557
[(10)] (9) "Restoration treatment" means training and treatment that is:
- 46 - Enrolled Copy H.B. 276
1558
(a) provided to an individual who is incompetent to proceed;
1559
(b) tailored to the individual's particular impairment to competency; and
1560
(c) limited to the purpose of restoring the individual to competency.
1561
Section 16. Section 77-15-5 is amended to read:
1562
CHAPTER 15. DEFENDANT'S COMPETENCY TO PROCEED
1563
77-15-5 . Order for hearing -- Stay of other proceedings -- Examinations of
1564
defendant -- Scope of examination and report.
1565
(1) A court in which criminal proceedings are pending shall stay all criminal proceedings, if:
1566
(a) a petition is filed under Section 77-15-3 or 77-15-3.5; or
1567
(b) the court raises the issue of the defendant's competency under Section 77-15-4.
1568
(2) The court in which the petition described in Subsection (1)(a) is filed:
1569
(a) shall inform the court in which criminal proceedings are pending of the petition, if
1570
the petition is not filed in the court in which criminal proceedings are pending;
1571
(b) shall review the allegations of incompetency;
1572
(c) may hold a limited hearing solely for the purpose of determining the sufficiency of
1573
the petition, if the court finds the petition is not clearly sufficient on its face;
1574
(d) shall hold a hearing, if the petition is opposed by either party; and
1575
(e) may not order an examination of the defendant or order a hearing on the mental
1576
condition of the defendant unless the court finds that the allegations in the petition
1577
raise a bona fide doubt as to the defendant's competency to stand trial.
1578
(3)(a) If the court finds that there is a bona fide doubt as to the defendant's competency
1579
to stand trial, the court shall order the department to have one or two forensic
1580
evaluators complete a competency evaluation for the defendant in accordance with
1581
Subsection (3)(b) and provide a report to the court regarding the competency of the
1582
defendant to stand trial.
1583
(b) The court shall order the department to have the defendant evaluated by one forensic
1584
evaluator unless:
1585
(i) the defendant is charged with a capital felony; or
1586
(ii) the defendant is charged with a felony that is not a capital felony, and the court
1587
determines, based on the allegations in the petition, that good cause exists to order
1588
two competency evaluations.
1589
(c)(i) This section does not prohibit a party from seeking an additional forensic
1590
evaluator to conduct a competency evaluation of the defendant.
1591
(ii) If a party seeks an additional competency evaluation under this Subsection (3)(c),
- 47 - H.B. 276 Enrolled Copy
1592
the party shall:
1593
(A) select the additional forensic evaluator; and
1594
(B) pay the costs of the additional forensic evaluator.
1595
(d) The stipulation by parties to a bona fide doubt as to the defendant's competency to
1596
stand trial alone may not take the place of a competency evaluation ordered under
1597
this Subsection (3).
1598
(e) In accordance with state licensing laws, the court may only order the department to
1599
provide an initial evaluation and progress toward competency evaluation for a
1600
defendant who is located within the state.
1601
(4)(a) If the petition or other information sufficiently raises concerns that the defendant
1602
may have an intellectual disability, at least one forensic evaluator who is experienced
1603
in assessments of intellectual disabilities shall conduct a competency evaluation.
1604
(b) The petitioner or other party, as directed by the court or requested by the department,
1605
shall provide to the forensic evaluator nonmedical information and materials relevant
1606
to a determination of the defendant's competency, including the charging document,
1607
arrest or incident reports pertaining to the charged offense, known criminal history
1608
information, and known prior mental health evaluations and treatments.
1609
(c) For purposes of a competency evaluation, a custodian of mental health records
1610
pertaining to the defendant, including the defendant's prior mental health evaluations
1611
or records relating to the defendant's substance use disorder, may provide the records
1612
to:
1613
(i) with the defendant's consent, a forensic evaluator or the department on the
1614
department's request; or
1615
(ii) a forensic evaluator by court order.
1616
(d) A court order under Subsection (4)(c) shall include a protective order that expires
1617
180 days after the day on which:
1618
(i) the defendant is found guilty;
1619
(ii) the defendant enters a guilty plea;
1620
(iii) the court sentences the defendant; or
1621
(iv) if the case is appealed, the day on which the final appeal is resolved.
1622
(e)(i) Except as otherwise provided by law and in Subsections (4)(e)(ii) and (4)(f),
1623
the court shall order the forensic evaluator to destroy all records subject to the
1624
protective order within the 180 day period described in Subsection (4)(d).
1625
(ii) A forensic evaluator is not required to destroy the records subject to the
- 48 - Enrolled Copy H.B. 276
1626
protective order if destroying the records is a violation of ethical standards to
1627
which the forensic evaluator is subject for occupational licensing.
1628
(f) The court may extend the protective order described in Subsection (4)(d) if:
1629
(i) the court finds the defendant incompetent to proceed without a substantial
1630
probability that the defendant will become competent in the foreseeable future;
1631
(ii) the prosecutor or another individual indicates to the court that the prosecutor or
1632
other individual will seek civil commitment of the defendant under Section
1633
77-15-6; and
1634
(iii) the court orders the records be maintained and used only for the purposes of
1635
examining the defendant in connection with the petition for civil commitment.
1636
(g) An order for a competency evaluation may not contain an order for any other inquiry
1637
into the mental state of the defendant that is not described in this Subsection (4).
1638
(5) Pending a competency evaluation, unless the court or the department directs otherwise,
1639
the defendant shall be retained in the same custody or status that the defendant was in at
1640
the time the examination was ordered.
1641
(6) In the conduct of a competency evaluation and in a report to the court, a forensic
1642
evaluator shall consider and address, in addition to any other factors determined to be
1643
relevant by the forensic evaluator:
1644
(a)[(i)] the impact of the defendant's mental illness or intellectual disability on the
1645
defendant's present ability to:
1646
[(A)] (i) rationally and factually understand the criminal proceedings against the
1647
defendant; and
1648
[(B)] (ii) consult with the defendant's legal counsel with a reasonable degree of
1649
rational understanding in order to assist in the defense;
1650
(b) in making the determinations described in Subsection (6)(a), the forensic evaluator
1651
shall consider, as applicable[:]
1652
[(i)] the defendant's present ability to:
1653
[(A)] (i) understand the charges or allegations against the defendant;
1654
[(B)] (ii) communicate facts, events, and states of mind;
1655
[(C)] (iii) understand the range of possible penalties associated with the charges or
1656
allegations against the defendant;
1657
[(D)] (iv) engage in reasoned choice of legal strategies and options;
1658
[(E)] (v) understand the adversarial nature of the proceedings against the defendant;
1659
[(F)] (vi) manifest behavior sufficient to allow the court to proceed; and
- 49 - H.B. 276 Enrolled Copy
1660
[(G)] (vii) testify relevantly, if applicable; and
1661
(c) whether the defendant is exhibiting false or exaggerated physical or psychological
1662
symptoms relevant to the defendant's capacity to stand trial.
1663
(7) Upon a determination that the defendant is incompetent to proceed, the forensic
1664
evaluator shall indicate in the report to the court:
1665
(a) the factors that contribute to the defendant's incompetency, including the nature of
1666
the defendant's mental illness or intellectual disability, if any, and its relationship to
1667
the factors contributing to the defendant's incompetency;
1668
(b) whether there is a substantial probability that:
1669
(i) restoration treatment may bring the defendant to competency to stand trial in the
1670
foreseeable future; or
1671
(ii) the defendant cannot become competent to stand trial in the foreseeable future;
1672
(c) whether the defendant would benefit from restoration treatment; and
1673
(d) if the forensic evaluator makes the determination under Subsection (7)(b)(i) or (7)(c),
1674
an explanation of the reason for the determination and a summary of the treatment
1675
provided to the defendant in the past.
1676
(8)(a) A forensic evaluator shall provide an initial report to the court and the prosecuting
1677
and defense attorneys within 30 days of the receipt of the court's order. The report
1678
shall inform the court of the examiner's opinion concerning the competency of the
1679
defendant to stand trial.
1680
(b)(i) If the forensic evaluator is unable to complete the report in the time specified in
1681
Subsection (8)(a), the forensic evaluator shall give written notice to the court.
1682
(ii) A forensic evaluator who provides the notice described in Subsection (8)(b)(i)
1683
shall receive a 15-day extension, giving the forensic evaluator a total of 45 days
1684
after the day on which the forensic evaluator received the court's order to conduct
1685
a competency evaluation and file a report.
1686
(iii) The court may further extend the deadline for completion of the evaluation and
1687
report if the court determines that there is good cause for the extension.
1688
(iv) Upon receipt of an extension described in Subsection (8)(b)(iii), the forensic
1689
evaluator shall file the report as soon as reasonably possible.
1690
(9) Any written report submitted by a forensic evaluator shall:
1691
(a) identify the case ordered for evaluation by the case number;
1692
(b) describe the procedures, techniques, and tests used in the examination and the
1693
purpose or purposes for each, the time spent by the forensic evaluator with the
- 50 - Enrolled Copy H.B. 276
1694
defendant for purposes of the examination, and the compensation to be paid to the
1695
evaluator for the report;
1696
(c) state the forensic evaluator's clinical observations, findings, and opinions on each
1697
factor described in Subsection (6); and
1698
(d) identify the sources of information used by the forensic evaluator and present the
1699
basis for the forensic evaluator's clinical findings and opinions.
1700
(10)(a) Any statement made by the defendant in the course of any competency
1701
examination, whether the examination is with or without the consent of the
1702
defendant, any testimony by a forensic evaluator based upon the statement, and any
1703
other fruits of the statement may not be admitted in evidence against the defendant in
1704
any criminal proceeding except on an issue respecting mental condition on which the
1705
defendant has introduced evidence, unless the evidence is relevant to a determination
1706
of the defendant's competency.
1707
(b) Before examining the defendant, the forensic evaluator shall specifically advise the
1708
defendant of the limits of confidentiality as provided under Subsection (10)(a).
1709
(11)(a) Upon receipt of the forensic evaluators' reports, the court shall set a date for a
1710
competency hearing. The hearing shall be held not less than five and not more than
1711
15 days after the day on which the court received the forensic evaluators' reports,
1712
unless for good cause the court sets a later date.
1713
(b) Any person directed by the department to conduct the competency evaluation may be
1714
subpoenaed to testify at the hearing.
1715
(c) The court may call any forensic evaluator to testify at the hearing who is not called
1716
by the parties. [ ]If the court calls a forensic evaluator, counsel for the parties may
1717
cross-examine the forensic evaluator.
1718
(d)(i) If the forensic evaluators are in conflict as to the competency of the defendant,
1719
all forensic evaluators should be called to testify at the hearing if reasonably
1720
available.
1721
(ii) A conflict in the opinions of the forensic evaluators does not require the
1722
appointment of an additional forensic evaluator unless the court finds good cause
1723
for the appointment.
1724
(iii) If a party seeks an additional competency evaluation under this Subsection (11),
1725
that party shall:
1726
(A) select the additional forensic evaluator; and
1727
(B) pay the costs of the additional forensic evaluator.
- 51 - H.B. 276 Enrolled Copy
1728
(12)(a)(i) A defendant shall be presumed competent to stand trial unless the court, by
1729
a preponderance of the evidence, finds the defendant incompetent to proceed.
1730
(ii) The burden of proof is upon the proponent of incompetency at the hearing.
1731
(b) An adjudication of incompetent to proceed does not operate as an adjudication of
1732
incompetency to give informed consent for medical treatment or for any other
1733
purpose, unless specifically set forth in the court order.
1734
(13) In determining the defendant's competency to stand trial, the court shall consider the
1735
totality of the circumstances, including:
1736
(a) the petition;
1737
(b) the defendant's criminal and arrest history;
1738
(c) prior mental health evaluations and treatments provided to the court by the defendant;
1739
(d) subject to Subsection (15), whether the defendant was found incompetent to proceed
1740
in a criminal action unrelated to the charged offense for which the petition is filed;
1741
(e) the testimony of lay witnesses, if any;
1742
(f) the forensic evaluator's testimony and report;
1743
(g) the materials on which the forensic evaluator's report is based; and
1744
(h) any other relevant evidence or consideration bearing on the competency of the
1745
defendant.
1746
(14) If the court finds the defendant incompetent to proceed:
1747
(a) the court shall issue the order described in Subsection 77-15-6(1), which shall:
1748
(i) include findings addressing each of the factors in Subsection (6)(a);
1749
(ii) include a transportation order, if necessary;
1750
(iii) be accompanied by the forensic evaluators' reports, any psychiatric,
1751
psychological, or social work reports submitted to the court relative to the mental
1752
condition of the defendant, and any other documents made available to the court
1753
by either the defense or the prosecution, pertaining to the defendant's current or
1754
past mental condition; and
1755
(iv) be sent by the court to the department; and
1756
(b) the prosecuting attorney shall provide to the department:
1757
(i) the charging document and probable cause statement, if any;
1758
(ii) arrest or incident reports prepared by law enforcement and pertaining to the
1759
charged offense; and
1760
(iii) additional supporting documents.
1761
(15) The court may not find the defendant incompetent to proceed based solely on a court
- 52 - Enrolled Copy H.B. 276
1762
having ordered the release of the defendant under Section 77-15-3.5 or Section 77-15-6
1763
in an unrelated criminal action if the court in the unrelated criminal action ordered the
1764
release more than one year before the day on which the petition described in Subsection
1765
(13)(a) is filed.
1766
(16) The court may make any reasonable order to ensure compliance with this section.
1767
(17) Failure to comply with this section does not result in the dismissal of criminal charges.
1768
Section 17. Section 77-15-6 is amended to read:
1769
77-15-6 . Commitment on finding of incompetency to stand trial -- Subsequent
1770
hearings -- Notice to prosecuting attorneys.
1771
(1)(a) Except as provided in Subsection (5), if after a hearing a court finds a defendant to
1772
be incompetent to proceed, the court shall order the defendant committed to the
1773
department for restoration treatment.
1774
(b)(i) Except as provided in Subsection (1)(b)(ii), the court may recommend but may
1775
not order placement of a defendant who is found incompetent to proceed.
1776
(ii) The court may order that the defendant be placed in a secure setting rather than a
1777
nonsecure setting.
1778
(c) Following restoration screening, the department's designee shall designate and
1779
inform the court of the specific placement and restoration treatment program for the
1780
defendant.
1781
(d) Restoration treatment shall be of sufficient scope and duration to:
1782
(i) restore the defendant to competency; or
1783
(ii) determine whether the defendant can be restored to competency in the foreseeable
1784
future.
1785
(e) A defendant who a court determines is incompetent to proceed may not be held for
1786
restoration treatment longer than:
1787
(i) the time reasonably necessary to determine that the defendant cannot become
1788
competent to stand trial in the foreseeable future; and
1789
(ii) the maximum period of incarceration that the defendant could receive if the
1790
defendant were convicted of the most severe offense of the offenses charged.
1791
(2)(a) A defendant who is receiving restoration treatment shall receive a progress toward
1792
competency evaluation, by:
1793
(i) a forensic evaluator, designated by the department; and
1794
(ii) an additional forensic evaluator, if requested by a party and paid for by the
1795
requesting party.
- 53 - H.B. 276 Enrolled Copy
1796
(b) A forensic evaluator shall complete a progress toward competency evaluation and
1797
submit a report within 90 days after the day on which the forensic evaluator receives
1798
the commitment order from the department.
1799
(c) The report shall:
1800
(i) assess whether the defendant is exhibiting false or exaggerated physical or
1801
psychological symptoms;
1802
(ii) describe any diagnostic instruments, methods, and observations used by the
1803
evaluator to make the determination;
1804
(iii) describe the defendant's current mental illness or intellectual disability, if any;
1805
(iv) state the forensic evaluator's opinion as to the effect of any false or exaggerated
1806
symptoms on the defendant's competency to stand trial;
1807
(v) assess the facility's or program's capacity to provide appropriate restoration
1808
treatment for the defendant;
1809
(vi) assess the nature of restoration treatment provided to the defendant;
1810
(vii) assess what progress the defendant has made toward competency restoration,
1811
with respect to the factors identified by the court in its initial order;
1812
(viii) assess whether the defendant can reasonably be restored to competency in the
1813
foreseeable future given the restoration treatment currently being provided and the
1814
facility's or program's capacity to provide appropriate restoration treatment for the
1815
defendant;
1816
(ix) assess the likelihood of restoration to competency, the amount of time estimated
1817
to achieve competency, or the amount of time estimated to determine whether
1818
restoration to competency may be achieved; and
1819
(x) include a statement by the facility's treating physician regarding:
1820
(A) whether the defendant is taking any antipsychotic medication as prescribed;
1821
(B) whether ongoing administration of antipsychotic medication is necessary to
1822
maintain the defendant's competency to stand trial;
1823
(C) whether antipsychotic medication is substantially likely to maintain the
1824
defendant's competency to stand trial;
1825
(D) whether antipsychotic medication is substantially unlikely to produce side
1826
effects which would significantly interfere with the defendant's ability to assist
1827
in the defendant's defense;
1828
(E) that no less intrusive means are available, and whether any of those means
1829
have been attempted to render the defendant competent; and
- 54 - Enrolled Copy H.B. 276
1830
(F) whether antipsychotic medication is medically appropriate and in the
1831
defendant's best medical interest in light of the defendant's medical condition.
1832
(3)(a) The court on its own motion or upon motion by either party or the department
1833
may appoint an additional forensic evaluator to conduct a progress toward
1834
competency evaluation.
1835
(b) If the court appoints an additional forensic evaluator upon motion of a party, that
1836
party shall pay the costs of the additional forensic evaluator.
1837
(4)(a) Within 15 days after the day on which the court receives the forensic evaluator's
1838
report of the progress toward competency evaluation, the court shall hold a hearing to
1839
review the defendant's competency.
1840
(b) At the hearing, the burden of proving that the defendant is competent to stand trial is
1841
on the proponent of competency.
1842
(c) Following the hearing, the court shall determine by a preponderance of evidence
1843
whether the defendant:
1844
(i) is competent to stand trial;
1845
(ii) is competent, but requires the ongoing administration of antipsychotic medication
1846
in order to maintain the defendant's competency to stand trial;
1847
(iii) is incompetent to proceed, with a substantial probability that the defendant may
1848
become competent in the foreseeable future; or
1849
(iv) is incompetent to proceed, without a substantial probability that the defendant
1850
may become competent in the foreseeable future.
1851
(5)(a) If at any time the court determines that the defendant is competent to stand trial,
1852
the court shall:
1853
(i) proceed with the trial or other procedures as may be necessary to adjudicate the
1854
charges;
1855
(ii) order that the defendant be returned to the placement and status that the defendant
1856
was in at the time when the petition for the adjudication of competency was filed
1857
or raised by the court, unless the court determines that placement of the defendant
1858
in a less restrictive environment is more appropriate;
1859
(iii) order the ongoing administration of antipsychotic medication to the defendant for
1860
the purpose of maintaining the defendant's competency to stand trial, if the court
1861
finds that the administration of antipsychotic medication is necessary to maintain
1862
the defendant's competency to stand trial under Subsection (4)(c)(ii); and
1863
(iv) require the agency, jail, or prison with custody over the defendant to report to the
- 55 - H.B. 276 Enrolled Copy
1864
court any noncompliance with the court's orders under this Subsection (5) within
1865
48 hours of the noncompliance.
1866
(b) If the court determines that the defendant is incompetent to proceed with a
1867
substantial probability that the defendant may become competent in the foreseeable
1868
future, the court may order that the defendant remain committed to the department or
1869
the department's designee for the purpose of restoration treatment.
1870
(c)(i) If the court determines that the defendant is incompetent to proceed without a
1871
substantial probability that the defendant may become competent in the
1872
foreseeable future, the court shall order the defendant released from commitment
1873
to the department, unless the prosecutor or another individual informs the court
1874
that civil commitment proceedings pursuant to Title 26B, Chapter 5, Health Care -
1875
Substance Use and Mental Health, or Title 26B, Chapter 6, Part 4, Division of
1876
Services for People with Disabilities, will be initiated.
1877
(ii) The commitment proceedings must be initiated by a petition filed within seven
1878
days after the day on which the court makes the determination described in
1879
Subsection (4)(c)(iv), unless the court finds that there is good cause to delay the
1880
initiation of the civil commitment proceedings.
1881
(iii) The court may order the defendant to remain committed to the department until
1882
the civil commitment proceedings conclude.
1883
(iv) If the defendant is civilly committed and admitted to a secure setting, the
1884
department shall provide notice to the court that adjudicated the defendant
1885
incompetent to proceed and to the prosecution agency that prosecuted the case at
1886
least [60] 15 days before any proposed release of the committed individual from
1887
the secure setting.
1888
(v) If the prosecution agency that prosecuted the case intends to refile charges against
1889
the committed individual:
1890
(A) the prosecution agency shall provide written notice of that intent to the
1891
department within 15 days after the department provides the notice described
1892
in Subsection (5)(c)(iv); and
1893
(B) the department shall postpone release of the committed individual for at least
1894
30 days after the day on which the department receives the written notice of
1895
intent from the prosecution agency.
1896
(vi) If the prosecution agency that prosecuted the case refiles charges against the
1897
committed individual and the individual's competency is raised, the department
- 56 - Enrolled Copy H.B. 276
1898
shall postpone release of the individual until the competency proceedings
1899
conclude.
1900
(6)(a) At any time following the court's order under Subsection (5)(a)(iii), the defendant,
1901
the prosecuting attorney, the department, the treating physician, or the agency, jail, or
1902
prison with custody over the defendant, may notify the court of the need to review
1903
the medication order under Subsection (5)(a)(iii) for continued appropriateness and
1904
feasibility.
1905
(b) The court shall set the matter for a hearing if the notification under Subsection (6)(a)
1906
establishes good cause to review the matter.
1907
(7) If a court, under Subsection (5)(b), extends a defendant's commitment, the court shall
1908
schedule a competency review hearing for the earlier of:
1909
(a) the department's best estimate of when the defendant may be restored to competency;
1910
or
1911
(b) three months after the day on which the court determined under Subsection (5)(b) to
1912
extend the defendant's commitment.
1913
(8) Unless the defendant is charged with a crime listed in Subsection (9), if a defendant is
1914
incompetent to proceed by the day of the competency review hearing that follows the
1915
extension of a defendant's commitment, the court shall:
1916
(a) order the defendant be:
1917
(i) released or temporarily detained pending civil commitment proceedings as
1918
described in Subsection (5)(c); and
1919
(ii) terminate the defendant's commitment to the department for restoration treatment;
1920
or
1921
(b) if the forensic evaluator reports to the court that there is a substantial probability that
1922
restoration treatment will bring the defendant to competency to stand trial in the
1923
foreseeable future, extend the defendant's commitment for restoration treatment up to
1924
45 additional days.
1925
(9) If the defendant is charged with aggravated murder, murder, attempted murder,
1926
manslaughter, or a first degree felony and the court determines that the defendant is
1927
making reasonable progress towards restoration of competency at the time of the hearing
1928
held pursuant to Subsection (7), the court may extend the commitment for a period not
1929
to exceed nine months for the purpose of restoration treatment, with a mandatory review
1930
hearing at the end of the nine-month period.
1931
(10) Unless the defendant is charged with aggravated murder or murder, if, at the
- 57 - H.B. 276 Enrolled Copy
1932
nine-month review hearing described in Subsection (9), the court determines that the
1933
defendant is incompetent to proceed, the court shall:
1934
(a)(i) order the defendant be released or temporarily detained pending civil
1935
commitment proceedings as provided in Subsection (5)(c); and
1936
(ii) terminate the defendant's commitment to the department for restoration treatment;
1937
or
1938
(b) if the forensic evaluator reports to the court that there is a substantial probability that
1939
restoration treatment will bring the defendant to competency to stand trial in the
1940
foreseeable future, extend the defendant's commitment for restoration treatment for
1941
up to 135 additional days.
1942
(11) If the defendant is charged with aggravated murder or murder and the court determines
1943
that the defendant is making reasonable progress towards restoration of competency at
1944
the time of the nine-month review hearing described in Subsection (9), the court may
1945
extend the commitment for a period not to exceed 24 months for the purpose of
1946
restoration treatment.
1947
(12) If the court extends the defendant's commitment term under Subsection (11), the court
1948
shall hold a hearing no less frequently than at 12-month intervals following the
1949
extension for the purpose of determining the defendant's competency status.
1950
(13) If, at the end of the 24-month commitment period described in Subsection (11), the
1951
court determines that the defendant is incompetent to proceed, the court shall:
1952
(a)(i) order the defendant be released or temporarily detained pending civil
1953
commitment proceedings as provided in Subsection (5)(c); and
1954
(ii) terminate the defendant's commitment to the department for restoration treatment;
1955
or
1956
(b) if the forensic evaluator reports to the court that there is a substantial probability that
1957
restoration treatment will bring the defendant to competency to stand trial in the
1958
foreseeable future, extend the defendant's commitment for restoration treatment for
1959
up to 12 additional months.
1960
(14)(a) Neither release from a pretrial incompetency commitment under the provisions
1961
of this section nor civil commitment requires dismissal of criminal charges.
1962
(b) The court may retain jurisdiction over the criminal case and may order periodic
1963
reviews.
1964
(15) A defendant who is civilly committed pursuant to Title 26B, Chapter 5, Health Care -
1965
Substance Use and Mental Health, or Title 26B, Chapter 6, Part 4, Division of Services
- 58 - Enrolled Copy H.B. 276
1966
for People with Disabilities, may still be adjudicated competent to stand trial under this
1967
chapter.
1968
(16)(a) The remedy for a violation of the time periods specified in this section, other
1969
than those specified in Subsection (5)(c), (8), (10), or (13), shall be a motion to
1970
compel the hearing, or mandamus, but not release from detention or dismissal of the
1971
criminal charges.
1972
(b) The remedy for a violation of the time periods specified in Subsection (5)(c), (8), (9),
1973
or (13), or is not dismissal of the criminal charges.
1974
(17) In cases in which the treatment of the defendant is precluded by court order for a
1975
period of time, that time period may not be considered in computing time limitations
1976
under this section.
1977
(18)(a) If, at any time, the defendant becomes competent to stand trial while the
1978
defendant is committed to the department, the clinical director of the Utah State
1979
Hospital, the department, or the department's designee shall certify that fact to the
1980
court.
1981
(b) The court shall conduct a competency review hearing:
1982
(i) within 15 working days after the day on which the court receives the certification
1983
described in Subsection (18)(a); or
1984
(ii) within 30 working days after the day on which the court receives the certification
1985
described in Subsection (18)(a), if the court determines that more than 15 working
1986
days are necessary for good cause related to the defendant's competency.
1987
(19) The court may order a hearing at any time on the court's own motion or upon
1988
recommendations of the clinical director of the Utah State Hospital or other facility or
1989
the department.
1990
(20) Notice of a hearing on competency to stand trial shall be given to the prosecuting
1991
attorney and all counsel of record.
1992
Section 18. Section 77-19-203 is amended to read:
1993
77-19-203 . Petition for inquiry as to competency to be executed -- Filing --
1994
Contents -- Successive petitions.
1995
(1) If an inmate who has been sentenced to death is or becomes incompetent to be executed,
1996
a petition under Subsection (2) may be filed in the district court of the county where the
1997
inmate is confined.
1998
(2) The petition shall:
1999
(a) contain a certificate stating that it is filed in good faith and on reasonable grounds to
- 59 - H.B. 276 Enrolled Copy
2000
believe the inmate is incompetent to be executed; and
2001
(b) contain a specific recital of the facts, observations, and conversations with the inmate
2002
that form the basis for the petition.
2003
(3) The petition may be based upon knowledge or information and belief and may be filed
2004
by the inmate alleged to be incompetent, legal counsel for the inmate, or by an attorney
2005
representing the state.
2006
(4) Before ruling on a petition filed by an inmate or his counsel alleging that the inmate is
2007
incompetent to be executed, the court shall give the state and the Department of
2008
Corrections an opportunity to respond to the allegations of incompetency.
2009
(5) If a petition is filed after an inmate has previously been found competent under either
2010
this chapter or under [Title 77, Chapter 15, Inquiry into Sanity of Defendant] Chapter 15,
2011
Defendant's Competency to Proceed, no further hearing on competency may be granted
2012
unless the successive petition:
2013
(a) alleges with specificity a substantial change of circumstances subsequent to the
2014
previous determination of competency; and
2015
(b) is sufficient to raise a significant question about the inmate's competency to be
2016
executed.
2017
Section 19. Section 77-29-3 is amended to read:
2018
77-29-3 . Chapter inapplicable to incompetent persons.
2019
The provisions of this chapter shall not apply to any person while adjudged to be
2020
incompetent to proceed under [Chapter 15, Inquiry into Sanity of Defendant] Chapter 15,
2021
Defendant's Competency to Proceed.
2022
Section 20. Section 80-6-402 is amended to read:
2023
80-6-402 . Procedure -- Standard.
2024
(1) When a written motion is filed in accordance with Section 80-6-401 [ ]raising the issue
2025
of a minor's competency to proceed, or when the juvenile [ ]court raises the issue of a
2026
minor's competency to proceed, the juvenile court shall stay all proceedings under this
2027
chapter .
2028
(2)(a) If a motion for inquiry is opposed by either party, the juvenile [ ]court shall,
2029
before granting or denying the motion, hold a limited hearing solely for the purpose
2030
of determining the sufficiency of the motion.
2031
(b) If the juvenile [ ]court finds that the allegations of incompetency raise a bona fide
2032
doubt as to the minor's competency to proceed, the juvenile court shall:
2033
(i) enter an order for an evaluation of the minor's competency to proceed; and
- 60 - Enrolled Copy H.B. 276
2034
(ii) set a date for a hearing on the issue of the minor's competency.
2035
(3)(a) After the granting of a motion, and before a full competency hearing, the juvenile [ ]
2036
court may order the department to evaluate the minor and to report to the juvenile [ ]
2037
court concerning the minor's mental condition.
2038
(b) In accordance with state licensing laws, the court may only order the department to
2039
provide an initial evaluation and progress toward competency evaluation for a minor
2040
who is located within the state.
2041
(4) The minor shall be evaluated by a forensic evaluator who:
2042
(a) has experience in juvenile forensic evaluations and juvenile brain development;
2043
(b) if it becomes apparent that the minor is not competent due to an intellectual disability
2044
or related condition, has experience in intellectual disability or related conditions; and
2045
(c) is not involved in the current treatment of the minor.
2046
(5) The petitioner or other party, as directed by the juvenile court, shall provide all
2047
information and materials relevant to a determination of the minor's competency to the
2048
department within seven days of the juvenile court's order, including:
2049
(a) the motion;
2050
(b) the arrest or incident reports pertaining to the charged offense;
2051
(c) the minor's known delinquency history information;
2052
(d) the minor's probation record relevant to competency;
2053
(e) known prior mental health evaluations and treatments; and
2054
(f) consistent with 20 U.S.C. Sec. 1232g (b)(1)(E)(ii)(I), records pertaining to the
2055
minor's education.
2056
(6)(a) The minor's parent or guardian, the prosecuting attorney, the defense attorney, and
2057
the attorney guardian ad litem, shall cooperate, by executing releases of information
2058
when necessary, in providing the relevant information and materials to the forensic
2059
evaluator, including:
2060
(i) medical records;
2061
(ii) prior mental evaluations; or
2062
(iii) records of diagnosis or treatment of substance abuse disorders.
2063
(b) The minor shall cooperate, by executing a release of information when necessary, in
2064
providing the relevant information and materials to the forensic evaluator regarding
2065
records of diagnosis or treatment of a substance abuse disorder.
2066
(7)(a) In conducting the evaluation and in the report determining if a minor is competent
2067
to proceed, the forensic evaluator shall inform the juvenile court of the forensic
- 61 - H.B. 276 Enrolled Copy
2068
evaluator's opinion whether:
2069
(i) the minor has a present ability to consult with counsel with a reasonable degree of
2070
rational understanding; and
2071
(ii) the minor has a rational as well as factual understanding of the proceedings.
2072
(b) In evaluating the minor, the forensic evaluator shall consider the minor's present
2073
ability to:
2074
(i) understand the charges or allegations against the minor;
2075
(ii) communicate facts, events, and states of mind;
2076
(iii) understand the range of possible penalties associated with the allegations against
2077
the minor;
2078
(iv) engage in reasoned choice of legal strategies and options;
2079
(v) understand the adversarial nature of the proceedings against the minor;
2080
(vi) manifest behavior sufficient to allow the juvenile court to proceed;
2081
(vii) testify relevantly; and
2082
(viii) any other factor determined to be relevant to the forensic evaluator.
2083
(8)(a) The forensic evaluator shall provide an initial report to the juvenile court, the
2084
prosecuting and defense attorneys, and the attorney guardian ad litem, if applicable,
2085
within 30 days of the receipt of the juvenile court's order.
2086
(b) If the forensic evaluator informs the juvenile court that additional time is needed, the
2087
juvenile court may grant, taking into consideration the custody status of the minor, up
2088
to an additional 15 days to provide the report to the juvenile court and counsel.
2089
(c) The forensic evaluator must provide the report within 45 days from the receipt of the
2090
juvenile court's order unless, for good cause shown, the juvenile court authorizes an
2091
additional period of time to complete the evaluation and provide the report.
2092
(d) The report shall inform the juvenile court of the forensic evaluator's opinion
2093
concerning the minor's competency.
2094
(9) If the forensic evaluator's opinion is that the minor is not competent to proceed, the
2095
report shall indicate:
2096
(a) the nature of the minor's:
2097
(i) mental illness;
2098
(ii) intellectual disability or related condition; or
2099
(iii) developmental immaturity;
2100
(b) the relationship of the minor's mental illness, intellectual disability, related condition,
2101
or developmental immaturity to the minor's incompetence;
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2102
(c) whether there is a substantial likelihood that the minor may attain competency in the
2103
foreseeable future;
2104
(d) the amount of time estimated for the minor to achieve competency if the minor
2105
undergoes competency attainment treatment, including medication;
2106
(e) the sources of information used by the forensic evaluator; and
2107
(f) the basis for clinical findings and opinions.
2108
(10) Regardless of whether a minor consents to a competency evaluation, any statement
2109
made by the minor in the course of the competency evaluation, any testimony by the
2110
forensic evaluator based upon any statement made by the minor in the competency
2111
evaluation, and any other fruits of the statement made by the minor in the competency
2112
evaluation:
2113
(a) may not be admitted in evidence against the minor in a proceeding under this
2114
chapter, except the statement may be admitted on an issue respecting the mental
2115
condition on which the minor has introduced evidence; and
2116
(b) may be admitted where relevant to a determination of the minor's competency.
2117
(11) Before evaluating the minor for a competency evaluation, a forensic evaluator shall
2118
specifically advise the minor, and the minor's parent or guardian if reasonably available,
2119
of the limits of confidentiality as provided under Subsection (10).
2120
(12) When the report is received, the juvenile court shall set a date for a competency
2121
hearing that shall be held in not less than five and not more than 15 days, unless the
2122
juvenile court enlarges the time for good cause.
2123
(13)(a) A minor shall be presumed competent unless the juvenile court, by a
2124
preponderance of the evidence, finds the minor not competent to proceed.
2125
(b) The burden of proof is upon the proponent of incompetency to proceed.
2126
(14)(a) Following the hearing, the juvenile court shall determine by a preponderance of
2127
evidence whether the minor is:
2128
(i) competent to proceed;
2129
(ii) not competent to proceed with a substantial probability that the minor may attain
2130
competency in the foreseeable future; or
2131
(iii) not competent to proceed without a substantial probability that the minor may
2132
attain competency in the foreseeable future.
2133
(b) If the juvenile court enters a finding described in Subsection (14)(a)(i), the juvenile
2134
court shall proceed with the proceedings in the minor's case.
2135
(c) If the juvenile court enters a finding described in Subsection (14)(a)(ii), the juvenile
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2136
court shall proceed in accordance with Section 80-6-403.
2137
(d)(i) If the juvenile court enters a finding described in Subsection (14)(a)(iii), the
2138
juvenile court shall terminate the competency proceeding, dismiss the charges
2139
against the minor without prejudice, and release the minor from any custody order
2140
related to the pending proceeding, unless the prosecutor informs the court that
2141
commitment proceedings will be initiated in accordance with:
2142
(A) Title 26B, Chapter 6, Part 6, Admission to an Intermediate Care Facility for
2143
People with an Intellectual Disability;
2144
(B) if the minor is 18 years old or older, Title 26B, Chapter 5, Part 3, Utah State
2145
Hospital and Other Mental Health Facilities; or
2146
(C) if the minor is a child, Title 26B, Chapter 5, Part 4, Commitment of Persons
2147
Under Age 18.
2148
(ii) The commitment proceedings described in Subsection (14)(d)(i) shall be initiated
2149
within seven days after the day on which the juvenile court enters the order under
2150
Subsection (14)(a), unless the court enlarges the time for good cause shown.
2151
(iii) The juvenile court may order the minor to remain in custody until the
2152
commitment proceedings have been concluded.
2153
(15) If the juvenile court finds the minor not competent to proceed, the juvenile court's
2154
order shall contain findings addressing each of the factors in Subsection (7)(b).
2155
Section 21. Section 80-6-403 is amended to read:
2156
80-6-403 . Disposition on finding of not competent to proceed -- Subsequent
2157
hearings -- Notice to prosecuting attorneys.
2158
(1) If the juvenile court determines that the minor is not competent to proceed, and there is
2159
a substantial likelihood that the minor may attain competency in the foreseeable future,
2160
the juvenile court shall notify the department of the finding and allow the department 30
2161
days to develop an attainment plan for the minor.
2162
(2) The attainment plan shall include:
2163
(a) any services or treatment the minor has been or is currently receiving that are
2164
necessary to attain competency;
2165
(b) any additional services or treatment the minor may require to attain competency;
2166
(c) an assessment of the parent, custodian, or guardian's ability to access or provide any
2167
recommended treatment or services;
2168
(d) any special conditions or supervision that may be necessary for the safety of the
2169
minor or others during the attainment period; and
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2170
(e) the likelihood that the minor will attain competency and the amount of time likely
2171
required for the minor to attain competency.
2172
(3) The department shall provide the attainment plan to the juvenile court, the prosecuting
2173
attorney, the defense attorney, and the attorney guardian ad litem at least three days
2174
before the competency disposition hearing.
2175
(4)(a) During the attainment period, the minor shall remain in the least restrictive
2176
appropriate setting.
2177
(b) A finding of not competent to proceed does not grant authority for a juvenile court to
2178
place a minor in the custody of a division of the department, or create eligibility for
2179
services from the Division of Services for People With Disabilities.
2180
(c) If the juvenile court orders the minor to be held in detention during the attainment
2181
period, the juvenile court shall make the following findings on the record:
2182
(i) the placement is the least restrictive appropriate setting;
2183
(ii) the placement is in the best interest of the minor;
2184
(iii) the minor will have access to the services and treatment required by the
2185
attainment plan in the placement; and
2186
(iv) the placement is necessary for the safety of the minor or others.
2187
(d) A juvenile court shall terminate an order of detention related to the pending
2188
proceeding for a minor who is not competent to proceed in that matter if:
2189
(i) the most severe allegation against the minor if committed by an adult is a class B
2190
misdemeanor;
2191
(ii) more than 60 days have passed after the day on which the juvenile court
2192
adjudicated the minor not competent to proceed; and
2193
(iii) the minor has not attained competency.
2194
(5)(a) At any time that the minor becomes competent to proceed during the attainment
2195
period, the department shall notify the juvenile court, the prosecuting attorney, the
2196
defense attorney, and the attorney guardian ad litem.
2197
(b) The juvenile court shall hold a hearing with 15 business days of notice from the
2198
department described in Subsection (5)(a).
2199
(6)(a) If at any time during the attainment period the juvenile court finds that there is not
2200
a substantial probability that the minor will attain competency in the foreseeable
2201
future, the juvenile court shall terminate the competency proceeding, dismiss the
2202
petition or information without prejudice, and release the minor from any custody
2203
order related to the pending proceeding, unless the prosecuting attorney or any other
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2204
individual informs the juvenile court that commitment proceedings will be initiated in
2205
accordance with:
2206
(i) Title 26B, Chapter 6, Part 6, Admission to an Intermediate Care Facility for
2207
People with an Intellectual Disability;
2208
(ii) if the minor is 18 years old or older, Title 26B, Chapter 5, Part 3, Utah State
2209
Hospital and Other Mental Health Facilities; or
2210
(iii) if the minor is a child, Title 26B, Chapter 5, Part 4, Commitment of Persons
2211
Under Age 18.
2212
(b) The prosecuting attorney shall initiate the proceedings described in Subsection (6)(a)
2213
within seven days after the juvenile court's order, unless the juvenile court enlarges
2214
the time for good cause shown.
2215
(7) During the attainment period, the juvenile court may order a hearing or rehearing at
2216
anytime on the juvenile court's own motion or upon recommendation of any interested
2217
party or the department.
2218
(8)(a) Within three months of the juvenile court's approval of the attainment plan, the
2219
department shall provide a report on the minor's progress towards competence.
2220
(b) The report described in Subsection (8)(a) shall address the minor's:
2221
(i) compliance with the attainment plan;
2222
(ii) progress towards competency based on the issues identified in the original
2223
competency evaluation; and
2224
(iii) current mental illness, intellectual disability or related condition, or
2225
developmental immaturity, and need for treatment, if any, and whether there is
2226
substantial likelihood of the minor attaining competency within six months.
2227
(9)(a) Within 30 days of receipt of the report, the juvenile court shall hold a hearing to
2228
determine the minor's current status.
2229
(b) At the hearing, the burden of proving the minor is competent is on the proponent of
2230
competency.
2231
(c) The juvenile court shall determine by a preponderance of the evidence whether the
2232
minor is competent to proceed.
2233
(10) If the minor has not attained competency after the initial three month attainment period
2234
but is showing reasonable progress towards attainment of competency, the juvenile court
2235
may extend the attainment period up to an additional three months.
2236
(11) The department shall provide an updated juvenile competency evaluation at the
2237
conclusion of the [six month] extended attainment period under Subsection (10) to advise
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2238
the juvenile court on the minor's current competency status.
2239
(12) If the minor does not attain competency within six months after the juvenile court
2240
initially finds the minor not competent to proceed, the court shall terminate the
2241
competency proceedings and dismiss the petition or information filed without prejudice,
2242
unless good cause is shown that there is a substantial likelihood the minor will attain
2243
competency within one year from the initial finding of not competent to proceed.
2244
(13) In the event a minor has an unauthorized leave lasting more than 24 hours, the
2245
attainment period shall toll until the minor returns.
2246
(14)(a) Regardless of whether a minor consents to attainment, any statement made by
2247
the minor in the course of attainment, any testimony by the forensic evaluator based
2248
upon any statement made by the minor in the course of attainment, and any other
2249
fruits of a statement made by the minor in the course of attainment:
2250
(i) may not be admitted in evidence against the minor in a proceeding under this
2251
chapter, except the statement may be admitted on an issue respecting the mental
2252
condition on which the minor has introduced evidence; and
2253
(ii) may be admitted where relevant to a determination of the minor's competency.
2254
(b) Before evaluating the minor during the attainment period, a forensic evaluator shall
2255
specifically advise the minor, and the minor's parent or guardian if reasonably
2256
available, of the limits of confidentiality provided in Subsection (14)(a).
2257
Section 22. Effective Date.
2258
This bill takes effect on May 7, 2025.
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