California 2017-2018 Regular Session

California Assembly Bill AB103 Compare Versions

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1-Assembly Bill No. 103 CHAPTER 17 An act to amend Sections 384 and 1010.6 of the Code of Civil Procedure, to amend Sections 11040, 11041, 11042, 11045, 24000, 69580, 69592, 69594, and 69600 of, to add Sections 15007, 15820.948, 68514, and 69614.4 to, to add Article 9 (commencing with 70500) to Chapter 5.7 of Title 8 of, to add Chapter 17.8 (commencing with Section 7310) to Division 7 of Title 1 of, to add Chapter 16 (commencing with Section 27770) to Part 3 of Division 2 of Title 3 of, to add and repeal Section 12532 of, and to repeal Section 11043 of, the Government Code, to add Section 329 to the Military and Veterans Code, to amend Sections 1170.18, 1370, 1370.6, 1372, 1463.007, 1464, 1557, 2801, 2808, 3453, 5075, 6031, 6031.1, 29800, 29805, 30680, and 30900 of, to add Sections 1170.127 and 4032 to, to repeal Sections 1203.6 and 1464.2 of, and to repeal and add Section 1203.5 of, the Penal Code, to add and repeal Section 10340.1 of the Public Contract Code, to amend Sections 13365, 13365.2, 40509, and 40509.5 of the Vehicle Code, and to amend Sections 209, 1982, 4100, 4358.5, 7228, and 7234 of, and to repeal and add Sections 270 and 271 of, the Welfare and Institutions Code, relating to public safety, making an appropriation therefor, to take effect immediately, bill related to the budget. [ Approved by Governor June 27, 2017. Filed with Secretary of State June 27, 2017. ] LEGISLATIVE COUNSEL'S DIGESTAB 103, Committee on Budget. Public safety: omnibus.(1) Existing law requires a court, prior to the entry of any judgment in a class action, to determine the total amount that will be payable to all class members. The court is also required to set a date when the parties are to report to the court the total amount that was actually paid to the class members. After the report is received, the court is required to amend the judgment to direct the defendant to pay the sum of the unpaid residue, plus interest, to nonprofit organizations or foundations to support projects that will benefit the class or similarly situated persons, or that promote the law consistent with the underlying cause of action, or to child advocacy programs, or to nonprofit organizations providing civil legal services to the indigent. Existing law excepts class actions brought against public entities and public employees from these provisions.This bill would require that whenever a judgment, including any consent judgment, decree, or settlement agreement that has been approved by the court, in a class action provides for the payment of money to members of the class, any unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds be distributed in accordance with its provisions, unless the court makes a specific finding. The bill would require the court to set a date when the parties must submit a report to the court regarding a plan for the distribution of these funds. The bill would require that at least 25% of the unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds generally attributable to California residents, plus any accrued interest that has not otherwise been distributed, be transmitted to the State Treasury for deposit in the Trial Court Improvement and Modernization Fund, subject to appropriation by the Legislature to the Judicial Council to fund trial court operations. The bill would further require that at least 25% of these funds be transmitted to the Equal Access Fund of the Judicial Branch, to be distributed as specified. The bill would require that the balance of these funds, if any, plus interest be distributed generally as previously required, as described above. The bill would also except any cause of action brought against public entities and public employees from these provisions.(2) Existing law authorizes a trial court to adopt local rules permitting electronic filing and service of documents, subject to rules adopted by the Judicial Council and other specified conditions. Existing law also authorizes the court, in any action in which a party has agreed to accept electronic service, or in which the court has ordered electronic service, as specified, to electronically serve any document issued by the court that is not required to be personally served, in the same manner that parties electronically serve documents.This bill would require a system for the electronic filing and service of documents to be accessible to individuals with disabilities. The bill would require a trial court that contracts with an entity for the provision of a system for the electronic filing and service of documents to include certain requirements in its contract with the entity, including a requirement that the entity test and verify that the entitys system is accessible. The bill would require the Judicial Council to adopt uniform rules to implement these requirements and to submit reports to the Legislature, as specified.(3) Existing federal law authorizes the United States Attorney General to enter into contracts or agreements with a state, or a political subdivision of a state, for detention or incarceration space or facilities. Existing federal law authorizes the United States Attorney General to enter into an agreement with a state, or a political subdivision of a state, to authorize an officer or employee of that state or political subdivision to, among other things, detain aliens in the United States.Existing law, commonly known as the TRUST Act, prohibits a law enforcement official, as defined, from detaining an individual on the basis of a United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement hold after that individual becomes eligible for release from custody, unless, at the time that the individual becomes eligible for release from custody, certain conditions are met, including, among other things, that the individual has been convicted of specified crimes.This bill would prohibit a city or county or local law enforcement agency from, on or after June 15, 2017, entering into a contract with the federal government or any federal agency to house or detain an adult noncitizen in a locked detention facility for purposes of civil immigration custody. The bill would prohibit a city or county or local law enforcement agency that entered into a contract of that nature on or before June 15, 2017, from modifying or renewing that contract so as to expand the maximum number of contract beds that may be used to house or detain an adult noncitizen for purposes of civil immigration custody.This bill would similarly prohibit a city or county or local law enforcement agency from, on or after June 15, 2017, entering into a contract with the federal government or any federal agency to house or detain an accompanied or unaccompanied minor that is in the custody of or detained by specified federal agencies in a locked detention facility. The bill would prohibit a city or county or local law enforcement agency that entered into a contract of that nature on or before June 15, 2017, from modifying or renewing that contract so as to expand the maximum number of contract beds that may be used to house or detain an accompanied or unaccompanied minor in a locked detention facility. The bill would provide that this prohibition does not apply to temporary housing of any accompanied or unaccompanied minor in less restrictive settings when the State Department of Social Services certifies that the contract is necessary based on changing conditions of the population in need and if the housing contract meets 2 requirements.(4) Existing law requires certain state agencies to obtain written consent from the Attorney General before employing legal counsel in any judicial proceeding.This bill would, instead, require certain state agencies to obtain the written consent of the Attorney General before employing in-house counsel to represent those agencies in any judicial or administrative adjudicative proceeding and before contracting with outside counsel. The bill would otherwise generally authorize a state agency to employ in-house counsel for any purpose, except that it would require a state agency to use the Attorney General for the purpose of delivering approving legal opinions on bonds or other evidence of indebtedness, unless the Attorney General waives that requirement.(5) Existing law sets forth the duties and responsibilities of the Attorney General and provides that he or she has charge, as attorney, of all legal matters in which the state is interested, except as specified.This bill would require, until July 1, 2027, the Attorney General, or his or her designee, to engage in reviews of county, local, or private locked detention facilities in which noncitizens are being housed or detained for purposes of civil immigration proceedings in California, as specified. The bill would require the Department of Justice to provide, during the budget process, updates and information to the Legislature and the Governor, including a written summary of findings, if appropriate, regarding the progress of these reviews and any relevant findings. The bill would also require the Attorney General, or his or her designee, on or before March 1, 2019, to conduct a review of these facilities and to provide, on or before March 1, 2019, the Legislature and the Governor with a comprehensive report outlining the findings of that review. The bill would require the comprehensive report to be posted on the Attorney Generals Internet Web site and otherwise made available to the public upon its release to the Legislature and the Governor.(6) Existing law creates the Department of Justice, which is under the direction and control of the Attorney General. Existing law establishes the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Program, which is administered by the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Investment Board. Existing law requires the board, prior to opening the program for enrollment, to make a report to the Governor and Legislature affirming that certain prerequisites and requirements have been met, including that the United States Department of Labor has finalized a regulation setting forth a safe harbor for savings arrangements established by states for nongovernmental employees and that the program is structured to meet the criteria of the regulation. The federal Employee Retirement Income Security Act, commonly known as ERISA, regulates employee benefit plans, as defined, and generally supersedes state law, except as specified.This bill would require, in connection with potential litigation involving the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Program, that the state be represented by attorneys who possess a comprehensive knowledge of ERISA and have at least 10 years of experience litigating claims related to ERISA in federal trial and appellate courts. The bill would require the Department of Justice, if it does not have sufficient attorneys with these characteristics, to enter into contracts with qualified attorneys to secure their services.(7) Existing law authorizes the Board of State and Community Corrections or the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, the State Public Works Board, and a participating county, as defined, to acquire, design, and construct an adult local criminal justice facility, as defined, and provides funding for those purposes. Existing regulations of the Board of State and Community Corrections specify the number of visits that inmates held in certain types of correctional facilities are required to be provided.This bill would require that specified conditional funding to a participating county for the construction or renovation of a local jail facility or adult local criminal justice facility be used to construct or renovate a facility that meets or surpasses the minimum number of weekly visits as specified in regulations through the use of in-person visitation space. The bill would require a scope change to be submitted to include in-person visitation, as specified, for any proposals submitted previous to these requirements that only provided for video visitation.Existing law provides that a county jail is kept by the sheriff of the county in which the jail is situated and is to be used for specified purposes, including for the confinement of persons sentenced to imprisonment in a county jail upon a criminal conviction. Existing regulations of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation specify the number of visits that inmates held in certain types of correctional facilities may be allowed.This bill would prohibit a local detention facility, as defined, that provided in-person visitation as of January 1, 2017, from converting to only video visitation. The bill would prohibit a local detention facility from charging for visitation when visitors are onsite and participating in either in-person or video visitation. The bill would require a local detention facility that does not offer in-person visitation to provide the first hour of remote video visitation each week free of charge.(8) Existing law requires a probation officer to be appointed in each county. Existing law requires the probation officer to be nominated by the juvenile justice commission and appointed by the judge of the juvenile court. Existing law allows the probation officer to revoke or terminate the appointment of a deputy or assistant probation officer with the written approval of the juvenile justice commission.This bill would revise and recast these provisions. The bill would require each county to appoint a chief probation officer. The bill would establish the duties and obligations of that office, as specified. The bill would require the presiding judge, in a county with 2 judges, or a majority of the judges, in a county with more than 2 judges, to appoint the chief probation officer upon nomination of the juvenile justice commission. The bill would allow the chief probation officer to revoke and terminate the appointment of a deputy or assistant probation officer without the written approval of the juvenile justice commission. The bill would delete the creation of the office of adult probation officer.(9) Existing law establishes the Judicial Council and requires it to perform various duties regarding the oversight and management of the courts, including, among others, reporting to the Legislature on specific accounting and case management programs.This bill would require the Judicial Council, beginning on October 1, 2018, to annually report on revenue and collections for each court and county for the previous fiscal year, as specified.(10) Existing law specifies the number of judges for the superior court of each county. Existing law allocates additional judgeships to the various counties in accordance with uniform standards for factually determining additional need in each county, as updated and approved by the Judicial Council, based on specified criteria, including, among others, workload standards that represent the average amount of time of bench and nonbench work required to resolve each case type.This bill would reallocate 2 vacant judgeships from the Superior Court of the County of Santa Clara to the Superior Court of the County of Riverside and 2 vacant judgeships from the Superior Court of the County of Alameda to the Superior Court of the County of San Bernardino. The bill would require the Judicial Council to determine which specific vacancies would be transferred between counties pursuant to this provision and to take all necessary steps to effectuate each transfer. The bill would provide that the term of the judgeships would begin on January 2, 2018, and that a court in which a vacant judgeship is reallocated shall not have its funding allocation reduced, shifted, or transferred as a result of the reallocation. The bill would make conforming changes.(11) Existing law authorizes the Judicial Council to dispose of surplus court facilities pursuant to a specified process that requires, among other things, the Judicial Council to consult with the county where the court facility is located, offer the facility to the county at a fair market value before offering it to another state or local government agency, and deposit the funds received from a sale into the State Court Facilities Construction Fund. Existing law imposes specified requirements on local entities with regard to the construction of new court facilities, or the alteration, remodeling, or relocation of court facilities, as specified. Existing law imposes specified requirements on the sale or lease of real property by the board of supervisors of a county, as prescribed.Existing law, the California Environmental Quality Act (CEQA), requires a lead agency, as defined, to prepare, or cause to be prepared, and certify the completion of, an environmental impact report on a project that it proposes to carry out or approve that may have a significant effect on the environment, as defined, or to adopt a negative declaration if it finds that the project will not have that effect, unless the project is exempt from the act. CEQA provides for various exemptions from the requirements of the act.This bill would authorize the Administrative Director of the Courts to transfer specified court facility property to the County of San Diego under prescribed circumstances, and would exempt the transfer from the procedures described above. With regard to the demolition project and further development of that property by the County of San Diego, the bill would, among other things, authorize the use of existing environmental impact reports, as specified, for purposes of CEQA. The bill would prescribe the circumstances under which the Board of Supervisors of the County of San Diego may enter into leases for subsequent improvements of the property.(12) Existing law establishes the Military Department, which includes the office of the Adjutant General, the California National Guard, the State Military Reserve, the California Cadet Corps, and the Naval Militia. Existing law provides that specified military members are deemed state employees for purposes of workers compensation.This bill would establish the Military Department Workers Compensation Fund, and would provide that all moneys in the fund are continuously appropriated to the Military Department for workers compensation claims that are wholly or partially reimbursed by the federal government for personnel within the Military Department, as specified. By creating a continuously appropriated fund, this bill would make an appropriation.(13) Existing law, the Three Strikes Reform Act of 2012, passed by the voters as Proposition 36 at the November 6, 2012, statewide general election, amended the Three Strikes Law and provided for lower sentences in specified circumstances, including when the current crime is not a serious or violent crime. The act provided a means by which a person serving an indeterminate term of imprisonment can be resentenced in conformance with the provisions of the act.Existing law, the Safe Neighborhoods and Schools Act, enacted by Proposition 47, as approved by the voters at the November 4, 2014, statewide general election, reduced the penalties for various crimes. Under the provisions of the act, a person currently convicted of a felony or felonies who would have been guilty of a misdemeanor under the act if the act had been in effect at the time of the conviction may petition or apply to have the sentence reduced in accordance with the act. That act requires that this petition or application be filed before November 4, 2017, or at a later date upon a showing of good cause.This bill would authorize a person who is committed to a state hospital after being found not guilty by reason of insanity to petition the court to have the maximum term of commitment reduced to what it would have been had Proposition 36 or Proposition 47 been in effect at the time of the original determination, as specified. The bill would require the petitioner to show that he or she would have been eligible to have his or her sentence reduced under the relevant proposition and to file the petition prior to January 1, 2021, or at a later date with a showing of good cause.(14) Existing law identifies the state hospitals over which the State Department of State Hospitals has jurisdiction, including, among others, Atascadero State Hospital and Coalinga State Hospital.This bill would provide the department with jurisdiction over the Admission, Evaluation, and Stabilization (AES) Center in the County of Kern, and other AES Centers as defined by regulation. The bill would also authorize the Director of State Hospitals to adopt emergency regulations to implement this provision and would declare that the adoption of emergency regulations under this provision is deemed to address an emergency, for purposes of the Administrative Procedure Act. The bill would provide the department with jurisdiction over any county jail treatment facility under contract with the State Department of State Hospitals to provide competency restoration services. The bill would also make other technical and conforming changes.(15) Existing law creates the State Penalty Fund into which moneys collected by the courts from the imposition of fines, forfeitures, or penalties on criminal offenses are deposited. Once a month, certain percentages of money in that fund are transferred into other funds.This bill would repeal the authority for these transfers to other funds and instead require the Department of Finance to provide a schedule to the Controller for all transfers of funds made available by the Budget Act from the State Penalty Fund in the current fiscal year. The bill would, upon the order of the Department of Finance, allow sufficient funds to be transferred by the Controller from the General Fund for cashflow needs of the State Penalty Fund, as provided.(16) Existing law authorizes, if certain conditions are met, reimbursement for expenses or payment of specified costs incurred by a person employed by the state, or a city, county, or city and county, to travel to a jurisdiction outside of the state for the purpose of returning a fugitive from justice to this state.This bill would establish reimbursement rates for meals and incidental expenses for persons transporting fugitives for return to certain local government jurisdictions, as specified.(17) Existing law establishes the Prison Industry Authority within the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation under the direction of the Prison Industry Board. Existing law grants the board specified powers, including the ability to review and approve the annual budget for the authority, in order to ensure that the solvency of the Prison Industries Revolving Fund is maintained. Existing law states that the purpose of the authority is, among other things, to operate a work program for prisoners which will ultimately be self-supporting by generating sufficient funds from the sale of products and services to pay all the expenses of the program.This bill would specify that the above provisions do not require immediate cash availability for funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above amounts established in the Budget Act, or as determined by the Board of Administration of the Public Employees Retirement System, or the Director of Finance for the fiscal year. The bill would prohibit the authority from establishing cash reserves to support funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above these amounts.(18) Existing law generally requires all persons released from prison to be subject to postrelease community supervision by a local probation department for a period of 3 years immediately following release. Existing law requires that postrelease community supervision include specified conditions, including that the person inform the supervising county agency of the persons place of residence, employment, education, or training and of any pending or anticipated changes to the place of residence, employment, education, or training.This bill would define residence for these purposes as one or more locations at which a person regularly resides, regardless of the number of days or nights spent there, such as a shelter or structure that can be located by a street address, including, but not limited to, a house, apartment building, motel, hotel, homeless shelter, and recreational or other vehicle. The bill would require, if the person has no residence, that he or she inform the supervising county agency that he or she is transient. The bill would also require the person to inform the supervising county agency of any change in residence, or the establishment of a new residence if the person was previously transient, within 5 working days of the change.(19) Existing law establishes the Board of Parole Hearings, which is composed of 14 commissioners appointed by the Governor, and subject to Senate confirmation, for staggered 3-year terms.This bill would instead provide that the board is composed of 15 commissioners. The bill would also revise the term of office for existing commissioners, as specified, so that 5 commissioners would commence a new term on July 1 of each year.(20) Existing law requires the Board of State and Community Corrections to inspect local detention facilities biennially and requires the inspection to include specified components, including, among others, a fire suppression preplanning inspection. Existing law requires a report of each facilitys inspection to be furnished to the official in charge of the local detention facility.This bill would require inspections of local detention facilities to be conducted, at a minimum, biennially. The bill would additionally require the inspections to address components relating to the availability of visitation and relating to the receipt of state funds for jail construction. The bill would require that reports made pursuant to the above-described provisions to be posted on the boards Internet Web site.Existing law requires the Board of State and Community Corrections to conduct a biennial inspection of each jail, juvenile hall, lockup, or special purpose juvenile hall that, during the preceding calendar year, was used for confinement for more than 24 hours of any minor and requires the board to issue a notice of its findings, as specified.This bill would require the board to post all reports and notices of findings it prepares pursuant to this provision on its Internet Web site.(21) Existing law prohibits a person who has been convicted of a felony or who is addicted to the use of any narcotic drug from owning, purchasing, receiving, or possessing a firearm. Under existing law, a violation of this prohibition is punishable as a felony.This bill would prohibit a person who has an outstanding warrant for a felony from owning, purchasing, receiving, or possessing a firearm. A violation of this prohibition would be punishable as a felony. Because a violation of this prohibition would be a crime, this bill would impose a state-mandated local program.Existing law also generally prohibits a person who has been convicted of certain misdemeanors from owning, purchasing, receiving, or possessing a firearm within 10 years of the conviction. Under existing law, a violation of this prohibition is a crime punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year or in the state prison, by a fine not exceeding $1,000, or by both that imprisonment and fine. Existing law, as a result of Proposition 63, an initiative measure approved by the voters at the November 8, 2016, statewide general election, codifies these provisions in separate, nonconflicting, identically numbered sections.This bill would prohibit a person who has an outstanding warrant for certain misdemeanors from owning, purchasing, receiving, or possessing a firearm. A violation of this prohibition would be a crime, punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year or in the state prison, by a fine not exceeding $1,000, or by both that imprisonment and fine. Because a violation of this prohibition would be a crime, this bill would impose a state-mandated local program.(22) Existing law prohibits, with some exceptions, the possession of an assault weapon that does not have a fixed magazine including those weapons with a detachable magazine that can be removed readily from the firearm with the use of a tool. Existing law exempts from that prohibition such a weapon that was lawfully possessed by the owner starting at any time from January 1, 2001, to December 31, 2016, and is registered by that owner with the Department of Justice before January 1, 2018, but not before the effective date of specified regulations to be adopted by the department.This bill would extend the deadline to register a weapon in order to be exempted from the prohibition from January 1, 2018, to July 1, 2018.(23) Existing law generally requires state agencies to obtain at least 3 competitive bids for each contract for services. Under existing law, this requirement does not apply under certain circumstances.This bill, until June 30, 2018, would authorize the State Department of State Hospitals to enter into an agreement for continued operation of the existing central utility plant at the Metropolitan State Hospital without having to comply with the competitive bidding requirements described above.(24) Existing law authorizes any county or court to implement a comprehensive collection program as a separate revenue collection activity, and requires the program to meet certain criteria, one of which is that the program engages in specified activities in collecting fines or penalties, including initiating drivers license suspension or hold actions when appropriate.This bill would instead limit the program to initiating a drivers license suspension or hold actions only for a failure to appear in court.Existing law authorizes the court to notify the Department of Motor Vehicles when a person has failed to pay a fine or bail, with respect to various violations relating to vehicles, and requires the department to suspend a persons drivers license upon receipt of the notice, as specified.The bill would repeal the authority of the court to notify the department of a failure to pay a fine or bail, thereby deleting the requirement for the department to suspend a persons drivers license upon receipt of that notice.(25) Existing law requires the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, Division of Juvenile Justice, and the Chief Probation Officers of California, in consultation with the Board of State and Community Corrections, formerly known as the Corrections Standards Authority, to provide annual reports to the Department of Finance, with information sorted by county, with the names of discharged wards, under specified circumstances.This bill would remove the requirement that the information include the name of a discharged ward and would instead require that the information include the identifying information, as defined, of a discharged ward, as specified. The bill would require the board, instead of the Chief Probation Officers of California, to provide an annual report and would remove the requirement of a consultation. The bill would also remove obsolete references to the authority under these provisions.Existing law requires, in each fiscal year, that funds be allocated to each county probation department from the Juvenile Reentry Grant Special Account on an average daily population basis per discharged ward transferred to a local juvenile facility for violating a condition of court-ordered supervision during the previous fiscal year, as specified.This bill would prohibit a county from receiving the above-described funding if it does not submit data under the provisions relating to the boards annual report.(26) The California Constitution requires the state to reimburse local agencies and school districts for certain costs mandated by the state. Statutory provisions establish procedures for making that reimbursement.This bill would provide that no reimbursement is required by this act for a specified reason.(27) This bill would declare that it is to take effect immediately as a bill providing for appropriations related to the Budget Bill.Digest Key Vote: MAJORITY Appropriation: YES Fiscal Committee: YES Local Program: YES Bill TextThe people of the State of California do enact as follows:SECTION 1. (a) The Legislature finds and declares that the provision of probation services is an essential element in the administration of criminal justice and the juvenile delinquency systems. The safety of the public is enhanced by a research-based approach that promotes positive behavior change while also enforcing laws to provide community safety as outlined in statute. The Legislature recognizes that the role and responsibility of probation departments has enhanced significantly due to public safety reforms, including, but not limited to, the Community Corrections Performance Incentive Grant Program, established in Chapter 608 of the Statutes of 2009, and 2011 Realignment Legislation addressing public safety, established in Chapter 15 of the Statutes of 2011, which made funding investments in local probation departments and increased the responsibility for probation departments to supervise more offenders including those on mandatory supervision and postrelease community supervision. In addition to a core mission of supervising felony probationers, to address the more serious level of offenders probation departments were tasked with supervising, the state made investments in evidence-informed rehabilitation strategies and supervision for probation departments throughout the state. County probation departments have played a critical role in helping the state meet its federally mandated reduction in the prison population by utilizing probations successful track record in supervision, community corrections, effective offender reentry, and evidence-informed rehabilitation services. Further reforms to the justice system which were enacted by the voters in California continue to place emphasis on services to supervised populations in the community, placing probations mission at the center of community corrections.(b) The Legislature additionally recognizes probations instrumental role in Californias juvenile justice system because of its work in supervision and services provided to youth involved in the justice system through supervising juveniles in the community, administering programming to address juveniles criminogenic behavior, providing secure and effective detention services, utilizing evidence-informed strategies that change behavior, and ensuring successful reentry into communities. The Legislature and voters of California have delegated to probation all responsibility and services for juveniles except for the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, Division of Juvenile Justice. This includes historic reforms such as Chapter 175 of the Statutes of 2007, which realigned most of the juvenile system responsibilities to probation.(c) The decisions made in the state budget process have had significant impact on the duties performed by probation. When probation services are unavailable at the local level there is a negative impact on recidivism which can require a more expensive solution at the state level in the form of incarceration. We have also seen more probation services for justice-involved youth as the state realigned the population away from the most expensive part of the system. These factors are not only driven by fiscal realities of state and local budgets but policies that are intended to improve the quality of life in our communities. The Legislature recognizes that such an important role should be clear and articulated with other core county department duties in order to establish the proper function and structure of probation. For these reasons the Legislature delegates the following duties to the chief probation officer to carry out in the county for the purposes of managing local juvenile facilities, preventing crime and delinquency, reducing recidivism, restoring victims, and promoting healthy families and communities through the community supervision and the enforcement of court orders and other criminal statutes. These duties are specific and exclusive to the primary areas of responsibility that exist for probation and are intended to emphasize the important role of probation within the criminal justice system in California. This is not intended to limit or diminish the importance of other duties currently delegated in whole or in part to probation elsewhere in code.SEC. 2. It is the intent of the Legislature in enacting amendments to Section 1170.18 of, and adding Section 1170.127 to, the Penal Code, to allow people who are committed to the State Department of State Hospitals upon a finding of not guilty by reason of insanity pursuant to Section 1026 of the Penal Code for an offense that would otherwise fall within the resentencing provisions of Section 1170.126 or 1170.18 of the Penal Code, as enacted by Proposition 36 of the 2012 statewide general election or Proposition 47 of the 2014 statewide general election, to petition the original committing court for relief under those sections. This act is intended to nullify the holding in People v. Dobson, 245 Cal.App.4th 310 (2016).SEC. 3. In enacting amendments to Sections 6031 and 6031.1 of the Penal Code, and Section 209 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, it is the intent of the Legislature that the Board of State and Community Corrections be encouraged to consider adding the maximum number of beds each facility is leasing to the federal government, including the current occupancy rate and the entity to which the beds are being leased, to the Jail Profile Survey.SEC. 4. Section 384 of the Code of Civil Procedure is amended to read:384. (a) It is the policy of the State of California to ensure that the unpaid cash residue and unclaimed or abandoned funds in class action litigation are distributed, to the fullest extent possible, in a manner designed either to further the purposes of the underlying class action or causes of action, or to promote justice for all Californians. The Legislature finds that the use of funds for these purposes is in the public interest, is a proper use of the funds, and is consistent with essential public and governmental purposes.(b) (1) Except as provided in subdivision (c), whenever a judgment, including any consent judgment, decree, or settlement agreement that has been approved by the court, in a class action established pursuant to Section 382, provides for the payment of money to members of the class, any unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds shall be distributed in accordance with this section unless for good cause shown the court makes a specific finding that an alternative distribution would better serve the public interest or the interest of the class. If not specified in the judgment, the court shall set a date when the parties shall submit a report to the court regarding a plan for the distribution of any moneys pursuant to this section.(2) The court shall make any orders necessary and appropriate for the payment, administration, supervision, and accounting of any unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds.(3) Any unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds generally attributable to California residents, plus any accrued interest that has not otherwise been distributed pursuant to order of the court, shall be transmitted as follows:(A) Twenty-five percent to the State Treasury for deposit in the Trial Court Improvement and Modernization Fund, established in Section 77209 of the Government Code, and subject to appropriation in the annual Budget Act for the Judicial Council to provide grants to trial courts for new or expanded collaborative courts or grants for Sargent Shriver Civil Counsel.(B) Twenty-five percent to the State Treasury for deposit into the Equal Access Fund of the Judicial Branch, to be distributed in accordance with Sections 6216 to 6223, inclusive, of the Business and Professions Code, except that administrative costs shall not be paid to the State Bar or the Judicial Council from this sum.(C) Fifty percent to one or more of the following: nonprofit organizations or foundations, to support projects that will benefit the class or similarly situated persons, further the objectives and purposes of the underlying class action or cause of action, or promote the law consistent with the objectives and purposes of the underlying class action or cause of action; child advocacy programs; or nonprofit organizations providing civil legal services to the indigent. Notwithstanding subparagraph (B), additional funds may be allocated by the court to the Equal Access Fund of the Judicial Branch, to be distributed in accordance with Sections 6216 to 6223, inclusive, of the Business and Professions Code. (4) The court shall ensure that the distribution of the balance of any unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds derived from multistate or national cases shall provide substantial or commensurate benefit to California consumers that is roughly proportional to the number of California class members or amounts available from the judgment to California class members in the multistate or national class.(c) This section shall not apply to any class action or cause of action brought against any public entity, as defined in Section 811.2 of the Government Code, or against any public employee, as defined in Section 811.4 of the Government Code. However, this section shall not be construed to abrogate any equitable cy pres remedy that may be available in any class action with regard to all or part of the cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds.SEC. 5. Section 1010.6 of the Code of Civil Procedure is amended to read:1010.6. (a) A document may be served electronically in an action filed with the court as provided in this section, in accordance with rules adopted pursuant to subdivision (e).(1) For purposes of this section:(A) Electronic service means service of a document, on a party or other person, by either electronic transmission or electronic notification. Electronic service may be performed directly by a party, by an agent of a party, including the partys attorney, or through an electronic filing service provider.(B) Electronic transmission means the transmission of a document by electronic means to the electronic service address at or through which a party or other person has authorized electronic service.(C) Electronic notification means the notification of the party or other person that a document is served by sending an electronic message to the electronic address at or through which the party or other person has authorized electronic service, specifying the exact name of the document served, and providing a hyperlink at which the served document may be viewed and downloaded.(2) If a document may be served by mail, express mail, overnight delivery, or facsimile transmission, electronic service of the document is authorized when a party has agreed to accept service electronically in that action.(3) In any action in which a party has agreed to accept electronic service under paragraph (2), or in which the court has ordered electronic service under subdivision (c) or (d), the court may electronically serve any document issued by the court that is not required to be personally served in the same manner that parties electronically serve documents. The electronic service of documents by the court shall have the same legal effect as service by mail, except as provided in paragraph (4).(4) (A) Electronic service of a document is complete at the time of the electronic transmission of the document or at the time that the electronic notification of service of the document is sent. However, any period of notice, or any right or duty to do any act or make any response within any period or on a date certain after the service of the document, which time period or date is prescribed by statute or rule of court, shall be extended after service by electronic means by two court days, but the extension shall not apply to extend the time for filing any of the following:(i) A notice of intention to move for new trial.(ii) A notice of intention to move to vacate judgment under Section 663a.(iii) A notice of appeal.(B) This extension applies in the absence of a specific exception provided by any other statute or rule of court.(b) A trial court may adopt local rules permitting electronic filing of documents, subject to rules adopted pursuant to subdivision (e) and the following conditions:(1) A document that is filed electronically shall have the same legal effect as an original paper document.(2) (A) When a document to be filed requires the signature, not under penalty of perjury, of an attorney or a self-represented party, the document shall be deemed to have been signed by that attorney or self-represented party if filed electronically.(B) When a document to be filed requires the signature, under penalty of perjury, of any person, the document shall be deemed to have been signed by that person if filed electronically and if a printed form of the document has been signed by that person before or on the same day as, the date of filing. The attorney or person filing the document represents, by the act of filing, that the declarant has complied with this section. The attorney or person filing the document shall maintain the printed form of the document bearing the original signature and make it available for review and copying upon the request of the court or any party to the action or proceeding in which it is filed.(3) Any document that is electronically filed with the court after the close of business on any day shall be deemed to have been filed on the next court day. Close of business, as used in this paragraph, means 5 p.m. or the time at which the court will not accept filing at the courts filing counter, whichever is earlier.(4) The court receiving a document filed electronically shall issue a confirmation that the document has been received and filed. The confirmation shall serve as proof that the document has been filed.(5) Upon electronic filing of a complaint, petition, or other document that must be served with a summons, a trial court, upon request of the party filing the action, shall issue a summons with the court seal and the case number. The court shall keep the summons in its records and may electronically transmit a copy of the summons to the requesting party. Personal service of a printed form of the electronic summons shall have the same legal effect as personal service of an original summons. If a trial court plans to electronically transmit a summons to the party filing a complaint, the court shall immediately, upon receipt of the complaint, notify the attorney or party that a summons will be electronically transmitted to the electronic address given by the person filing the complaint.(6) The court shall permit a party or attorney to file an application for waiver of court fees and costs, in lieu of requiring the payment of the filing fee, as part of the process involving the electronic filing of a document. The court shall consider and determine the application in accordance with Article 6 (commencing with Section 68630) of Chapter 2 of Title 8 of the Government Code and shall not require the party or attorney to submit any documentation other than that set forth in Article 6 (commencing with Section 68630) of Chapter 2 of Title 8 of the Government Code. Nothing in this section shall require the court to waive a filing fee that is not otherwise waivable.(7) A fee, if any, charged by the court, an electronic filing manager, or an electronic filing service provider to process a payment for filing fees and other court fees shall not exceed the costs incurred in processing the payment.(c) If a trial court adopts rules conforming to subdivision (b), it may provide by order that all parties to an action file and serve documents electronically in a class action, a consolidated action, a group of actions, a coordinated action, or an action that is deemed complex under Judicial Council rules, provided that the trial courts order does not cause undue hardship or significant prejudice to any party in the action.(d) (1) Notwithstanding subdivision (b), the Orange County Superior Court may, by local rule and until July 1, 2014, establish a pilot project to require parties to specified civil actions to electronically file and serve documents, subject to the requirements set forth in paragraphs (1), (2), (4), (5), and (6) of subdivision (b), rules adopted pursuant to subdivision (e), and the following conditions:(A) The court shall have the ability to maintain the official court record in electronic format for all cases where electronic filing is required.(B) The court and the parties shall have access to more than one electronic filing service provider capable of electronically filing documents with the court or to electronic filing access directly through the court. The court may charge fees of no more than the actual cost of the electronic filing and service of the documents. Any fees charged by an electronic filing service provider shall be reasonable. The court, an electronic filing manager, or an electronic filing service provider shall waive any fees charged if the court deems a waiver appropriate, including in instances where a party has received a fee waiver.(C) The court shall have a procedure for the filing of nonelectronic documents in order to prevent the program from causing undue hardship or significant prejudice to any party in an action, including, but not limited to, unrepresented parties.(D) A court that elects to require electronic filing pursuant to this subdivision may permit documents to be filed electronically until 12 a.m. of the day after the court date that the filing is due, and the filing shall be considered timely. However, if same day service of a document is required, the document shall be electronically filed by 5 p.m. on the court date that the filing is due. Ex parte documents shall be electronically filed on the same date and within the same time period as would be required for the filing of a hard copy of the ex parte documents at the clerks window in the participating county. Documents filed on or after 12 a.m., or filed upon a noncourt day, will be deemed filed on the soonest court day following the filing.(2) If a pilot project is established pursuant to paragraph (1), the Judicial Council shall conduct an evaluation of the pilot project and report to the Legislature, on or before December 31, 2013, on the results of the evaluation. The evaluation shall review, among other things, the cost of the program to participants, cost-effectiveness for the court, effect on unrepresented parties and parties with fee waivers, and ease of use for participants.(e) The Judicial Council shall adopt uniform rules for the electronic filing and service of documents in the trial courts of the state, which shall include statewide policies on vendor contracts, privacy, and access to public records, and rules relating to the integrity of electronic service. These rules shall conform to the conditions set forth in this section, as amended from time to time.(f) The Judicial Council shall, on or before July 1, 2014, adopt uniform rules to permit the mandatory electronic filing and service of documents for specified civil actions in the trial courts of the state, which shall be informed by any study performed pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (d) and which shall include statewide policies on vendor contracts, privacy, access to public records, unrepresented parties, parties with fee waivers, hardships, reasonable exceptions to electronic filing, and rules relating to the integrity of electronic service. These rules shall conform to the conditions set forth in this section, as amended from time to time.(g) (1) Upon the adoption of uniform rules by the Judicial Council for mandatory electronic filing and service of documents for specified civil actions in the trial courts of the state, as specified in subdivision (f), a superior court may, by local rule, require mandatory electronic filing, pursuant to paragraph (2).(2) A superior court that elects to adopt mandatory electronic filing shall do so pursuant to the requirements and conditions set forth in this section, including, but not limited to, paragraphs (1), (2), (4), (5), (6), and (7) of subdivision (b), and subparagraphs (A), (B), and (C) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (d), and pursuant to the rules adopted by the Judicial Council, as specified in subdivision (f).(h) (1) The Judicial Council shall adopt uniform rules to implement this subdivision as soon as practicable, but no later than June 30, 2019.(2) Any system for the electronic filing and service of documents, including any information technology applications, Internet Web sites, and Web-based applications, used by an electronic service provider or any other vendor or contractor that provides an electronic filing and service system to a trial court, regardless of the case management system used by the trial court, shall satisfy both of the following requirements:(A) The system shall be accessible to individuals with disabilities, including parties and attorneys with disabilities, in accordance with Section 508 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. Sec. 794d), as amended, the regulations implementing that act set forth in Part 1194 of Title 36 of the Code of Federal Regulations and Appendices A, C, and D of that part, and the federal Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (42 U.S.C. Sec. 12101 et seq.).(B) The system shall comply with the Web Content Accessibility Guidelines 2.0 at a Level AA success criteria.(3) A vendor or contractor that provides an electronic filing and service system to a trial court shall comply with paragraph (2) as soon as practicable, but no later than June 30, 2019. Commencing on the operative date of this subdivision, the vendor or contractor shall provide an accommodation to an individual with a disability in accordance with subparagraph (D) of paragraph (4).(4) A trial court that contracts with an entity for the provision of a system for electronic filing and service of documents shall require the entity, in the trial courts contract with the entity, to do all of the following:(A) Test and verify that the entitys system complies with this subdivision and provide the verification to the Judicial Council no later than June 30, 2019.(B) Respond to, and resolve, any complaints regarding the accessibility of the system that are brought to the attention of the entity.(C) Designate a lead individual to whom any complaints concerning accessibility may be addressed and post the individuals name and contact information on the entitys Internet Web site.(D) Provide to an individual with a disability, upon request, an accommodation to enable the individual to file and serve documents electronically at no additional charge for any time period that the entity is not compliant with paragraph (2) of this subdivision. Exempting an individual with a disability from mandatory electronic filing and service of documents shall not be deemed an accommodation unless the person chooses that as an accommodation. The vendor or contractor shall clearly state in its Internet Web site that an individual with a disability may request an accommodation and the process for submitting a request for an accommodation.(5) A trial court that provides electronic filing and service of documents directly to the public shall comply with this subdivision to the same extent as a vendor or contractor that provides electronic filing and services to a trial court.(6) (A) The Judicial Council shall submit four reports to the appropriate committees of the Legislature relating to the trial courts that have implemented a system of electronic filing and service of documents. The first report is due by June 30, 2018; the second report is due by December 31, 2019; the third report is due by December 31, 2021; and the fourth report is due by December 31, 2023.(B) The Judicial Councils reports shall include all of the following information:(i) The name of each court that has implemented a system of electronic filing and service of documents.(ii) A description of the system of electronic filing and service.(iii) The name of the entity or entities providing the system.(iv) A statement as to whether the system complies with this subdivision and, if the system is not fully compliant, a description of the actions that have been taken to make the system compliant.(7) An entity that contracts with a trial court to provide a system for electronic filing and service of documents shall cooperate with the Judicial Council by providing all information, and by permitting all testing, necessary for the Judicial Council to prepare its reports to the Legislature in a complete and timely manner.SEC. 6. Chapter 17.8 (commencing with Section 7310) is added to Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code, to read: CHAPTER 17.8. Housing Contracts7310. (a) A city, county, city and county, or local law enforcement agency that does not, as of June 15, 2017, have a contract with the federal government or any federal agency to detain adult noncitizens for purposes of civil immigration custody, is prohibited from entering into a contract with the federal government or any federal agency, to house or detain in a locked detention facility noncitizens for purposes of civil immigration custody.(b) A city, county, city and county, or local law enforcement agency that, as of June 15, 2017, has an existing contract with the federal government or any federal agency to detain adult noncitizens for purposes of civil immigration custody, shall not renew or modify that contract in such a way as to expand the maximum number of contract beds that may be utilized to house or detain in a locked detention facility noncitizens for purposes of civil immigration custody.7311. (a) A city, county, city and county, or local law enforcement agency that does not, as of June 15, 2017, have a contract with the federal government or any federal agency to house or detain any accompanied or unaccompanied minor in the custody of or detained by the federal Office of Refugee Resettlement or the United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement is prohibited from entering into a contract with the federal government or any federal agency to house minors in a locked detention facility.(b) A city, county, city and county, or local law enforcement agency that, as of June 15, 2017, has an existing contract with the federal government or any federal agency to house or detain any accompanied or unaccompanied minor in the custody of or detained by the federal Office of Refugee Resettlement or the United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement shall not renew or modify that contract in such a way as to expand the maximum number of contract beds that may be utilized to house minors in a locked detention facility.(c) This section does not apply to temporary housing of any accompanied or unaccompanied minor in less restrictive settings when the State Department of Social Services certifies a necessity for a contract based on changing conditions of the population in need and if the housing contract meets the following requirements:(1) It is temporary in nature and nonrenewable on a long-term or permanent basis.(2) It meets all applicable federal and state standards for that housing.SEC. 7. Section 11040 of the Government Code is amended to read:11040. (a) It is the intent of the Legislature that overall efficiency and economy in state government be enhanced by employment of the Attorney General as counsel for the representation of state agencies and employees in judicial and administrative adjudicative proceedings.The Legislature finds that it is in the best interests of the people of the State of California that the Attorney General be provided with the resources needed to develop and maintain the Attorney Generals capability to provide competent legal representation of state agencies and employees in any judicial or administrative adjudicative proceeding.(b) As used in this article:(1) In-house counsel means an attorney authorized to practice law in the State of California who is a state employee, including an excluded or exempt employee, other than an employee of the Office of the Attorney General.(2) Outside counsel means an attorney authorized to practice law in the State of California who is not a state employee, including an excluded or exempt employee.(c) Except with respect to employment by the state officers and agencies specified by title or name in Section 11041 or when specifically waived by statute other than Section 11041, a state agency shall obtain the written consent of the Attorney General before doing either of the following:(1) Employing in-house counsel to represent a state agency or employee in any judicial or administrative adjudicative proceeding.(2) Contracting with outside counsel.(d) Except as limited by paragraph (1) of subdivision (c), a state agency may employ in-house counsel for any purpose. This subdivision shall apply retroactively to the employment of any in-house counsel by any state agency before the operative date of the act adding this subdivision.(e) This article does not prohibit a state agency from obtaining legal services from the Attorney General for any purpose.(f) Consistent with subdivision (d), and except as may conflict with contrary authorization by statute, a state agency may employ in-house counsel for advice or other legal work related to bonds or other evidences of indebtedness, but shall engage the Attorney General, alone or with other counsel as may be authorized by statute, for the purpose of delivering any approving legal opinion on bonds or other evidences of indebtedness and advice related to the approving legal opinion. The Attorney General may waive the requirement under this subdivision.SEC. 8. Section 11041 of the Government Code is amended to read:11041. (a) Section 11042 does not apply to the Regents of the University of California, the Trustees of the California State University, Legal Division of the Department of Transportation, Division of Labor Standards Enforcement of the Department of Industrial Relations, Workers Compensation Appeals Board, Public Utilities Commission, State Compensation Insurance Fund, Legislative Counsel Bureau, Inheritance Tax Department, Secretary of State, State Lands Commission, Alcoholic Beverage Control Appeals Board (except when the board affirms the decision of the Department of Alcoholic Beverage Control), State Department of Education, and Treasurer with respect to bonds, nor to any other state agency which, by law enacted after Chapter 213 of the Statutes of 1933, is authorized to employ legal counsel.(b) The Trustees of the California State University shall pay the cost of employing legal counsel from their existing resources.SEC. 9. Section 11042 of the Government Code is amended to read:11042. (a) No state agency shall employ any in-house counsel to act on behalf of the state agency or its employees in any judicial or administrative adjudicative proceeding in which the agency is interested, or is a party as a result of office or official duties, or contract with outside counsel for any purpose, unless the agency has first obtained the written consent of the Attorney General pursuant to Section 11040.(b) The Attorney General may provide written consent for a state agency to employ in-house counsel to represent the agency or its employees in any judicial or administrative adjudicative proceeding in whatever manner the Attorney General deems most effective and consistent with the intent of this article. However, a state agency shall obtain written consent for the use of outside counsel for a matter or matters for which the outside counsel is to be engaged before the execution of each contract with the outside counsel for the matter or matters.SEC. 10. Section 11043 of the Government Code is repealed.SEC. 11. Section 11045 of the Government Code is amended to read:11045. (a) (1) Whenever a state agency requests the consent of the Attorney General to contract with outside counsel, as required by Sections 11040 and 11042, the state agency shall within five business days of the date the request is transmitted to the Attorney General provide the designated representative of State Employees Bargaining Unit 2 with written notification of the request. The notice shall include the items enumerated in subdivision (d).(2) All state agencies, other than the office of the Attorney General, that are not required to obtain the consent to contract with outside counsel required by paragraph (2) of subdivision (c) of Section 11040 and Section 11042, shall provide written notice of any proposed contract for outside counsel to the designated representative of State Employees Bargaining Unit 2 five business days before execution of the contract by the state agency. The notice shall include the items required by subdivision (d). In the event of an emergency that requires the immediate employment of outside counsel, the state agency shall provide the written notice no later than five business days after the contract with outside counsel is signed.(3) Whenever the Attorney General determines the need to employ outside counsel pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 12520, the Attorney General shall give written notice to the designated representative of State Employees Bargaining Unit 2 within 10 days of that determination. The notice shall include the items enumerated in subdivision (d).(b) The Attorney General shall provide the designated representative of State Employees Bargaining Unit 2 with a written report, at least monthly, of all consents granted to every state agency pursuant to Section 11040.(c) Notwithstanding the above notice requirements, whenever any state agency submits a proposed contract for outside counsel to the Department of General Services pursuant to Section 10335 of the Public Contract Code, the agency shall provide a copy of the contract to the designated representative of State Employees Bargaining Unit 2.(d) Written notice within the meaning of this section shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:(1) A copy of the complaint or other pleadings, if any, that gave rise to the litigation or matter for which a contract is being sought, or other identifying information.(2) The justification for the contract, pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 19130.(3) The nature of the legal services to be performed.(4) The estimated hourly wage to be paid under the contract.(5) The estimated length of the contract.(6) The identity of the person or entity that is entering into the contract with the state.(e) State agency, as used in this section, means every state office, department, division, bureau, board, or commission, including the Board of Directors of the State Compensation Insurance Fund, but does not include the Regents of the University of California, the Trustees of the California State University, the Legislature, the courts, or any agency in the judicial branch of government.(f) (1) The notice requirements of this section do not apply to contracts for expert witnesses or consultations in connection with a confidential investigation or to any confidential component of a pending or active legal action.(2) The exemption authorized in paragraph (1) shall only apply as long as necessary to protect the confidentiality of the investigation or the confidential component of a pending or active legal action.(3) Disclosures made pursuant to this section are deemed to be privileged communications for purposes of subdivision (c) of Section 912 of the Evidence Code, and shall not be construed to be a waiver of any privilege or exemption provided by law, including, but not limited to, the lawyer-client privilege, as described in Section 952 of the Evidence Code, or attorney work product, as described in Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 2018.010) of Title 4 of Part 4 of the Code of Civil Procedure.(g) If the provisions of this section are in conflict with the provisions of a memorandum of understanding or other written agreement reached pursuant to Section 3517 or 3517.5, the memorandum of understanding or agreement shall be controlling without further legislative action, except that if any provision of the memorandum of understanding or other agreement requires the expenditure of funds, the provisions may not become effective unless approved by the Legislature.SEC. 12. Section 12532 is added to the Government Code, to read:12532. (a) Until July 1, 2027, the Attorney General, or his or her designee, shall engage in reviews of county, local, or private locked detention facilities in which noncitizens are being housed or detained for purposes of civil immigration proceedings in California, including any county, local, or private locked detention facility in which an accompanied or unaccompanied minor is housed or detained on behalf of, or pursuant to a contract with, the federal Office of Refugee Resettlement or the United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement. The order and number of facilities to be reviewed shall be determined by the Department of Justice. The Attorney General, or his or her designee, shall have authority over which facilities may be reviewed and when. The Department of Justice shall provide, during the budget process, updates and information to the Legislature and the Governor, including a written summary of findings, if appropriate, regarding the progress of these reviews and any relevant findings.(b) The Attorney General, or his or her designee, shall, on or before March 1, 2019, conduct a review of county, local, or private locked detention facilities in which noncitizens are being housed or detained for purposes of civil immigration proceedings in California, including any county, local, or private locked detention facility in which an accompanied or unaccompanied minor is housed or detained on behalf of, or pursuant to a contract with, the federal Office of Refugee Resettlement or the United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement. The order and number of facilities to be reviewed shall be determined by the Department of Justice.(1) This review shall include, but not be limited to, the following:(A) A review of the conditions of confinement.(B) A review of the standard of care and due process provided to the individuals described in subdivision (a).(C) A review of the circumstances around their apprehension and transfer to the facility.(2) The Attorney General, or his or her designee, shall provide, on or before March 1, 2019, the Legislature and the Governor with a comprehensive report outlining the findings of the review described in this subdivision, which shall be posted on the Attorney Generals Internet Web site and otherwise made available to the public upon its release to the Legislature and the Governor. The Department of Justice shall provide, during the budget process, updates and information to the Legislature and the Governor, including a written summary of findings, if appropriate, regarding the progress of the review described in this subdivision and any relevant findings.(c) The Attorney General, or his or her designee, shall be provided all necessary access for the observations necessary to effectuate reviews required pursuant to this section, including, but not limited to, access to detainees, officials, personnel, and records.(d) This section shall become inoperative on July 1, 2027, and, as of January 1, 2028, is repealed.SEC. 13. Section 15007 is added to the Government Code, to read:15007. For potential litigation involving the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Program (Title 21 (commencing with Section 100000), the state shall be represented by attorneys who possess a comprehensive knowledge of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. Sec. 1001 et seq.) (ERISA) and have at least 10 years of experience litigating claims related to ERISA in federal trial and appellate courts. If the Department of Justice does not have sufficient attorneys who possess these characteristics, it shall enter into contracts with qualified attorneys to secure their services.SEC. 14. Section 15820.948 is added to the Government Code, to read:15820.948. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, any funding conditionally awarded by the Board of State and Community Corrections pursuant to Chapter 3.11 (commencing with Section 15820.90), Chapter 3.12 (commencing with Section 15820.91), Chapter 3.13 (commencing with Section 15820.92), or Chapter 3.131 (commencing with Section 15820.93), to a participating county for the construction or renovation of a local jail facility or adult local criminal justice facility after the effective date of the legislation that added this section, shall be used to construct or renovate a facility that meets or surpasses the minimum number of weekly visits as specified by Section 1062 of Title 15 of the California Code of Regulations through the use of in-person visitation space.(b) For any proposals previously submitted to the board pursuant to the funding authority referenced in subdivision (a) that only provided for video visitation, the board shall require the participating county to submit a scope change to include in-person visitation prior to the boards approval of the conditional award.(c) For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:(1) In-person visit means an on-site visit that may include barriers. In-person visits include interactions in which an inmate has physical contact with a visitor, the inmate is able to see a visitor through a barrier, or the inmate is otherwise in a room with a visitor without physical contact. In-person visit does not include an interaction between an inmate and a visitor through the use of an on-site, two-way, audio-video terminal.(2) Video visitation means interaction between an inmate and a member of the public through the means of an audio-visual communication device when the member of the public is located at a local detention facility or at a remote location.SEC. 15. Section 24000 of the Government Code is amended to read:24000. The officers of a county are:(a) A district attorney.(b) A sheriff.(c) A county clerk.(d) A controller.(e) An auditor, who shall be ex officio controller.(f) A treasurer.(g) A recorder.(h) A license collector.(i) A tax collector, who shall be ex officio license collector.(j) An assessor.(k) A superintendent of schools.(l) A public administrator.(m) A coroner.(n) A surveyor.(o) Members of the board of supervisors.(p) A county veterinarian.(q) A fish and game warden.(r) A county librarian.(s) A county health officer.(t) An administrative officer.(u) A director of finance.(v) A road commissioner.(w) A public guardian.(x) A chief probation officer.(y) Such other officers as are provided by law.SEC. 16. Chapter 16 (commencing with Section 27770) is added to Part 3 of Division 2 of Title 3 of the Government Code, to read: CHAPTER 16. Chief Probation Officer27770. (a) A chief probation officer shall be appointed in every county. He or she shall be nominated by the juvenile justice commission or regional juvenile justice commission of the county in the same manner as the presiding judge, in a county with two judges, or a majority of the judges, in a county with more than two judges, shall prescribe, and shall thereafter be appointed by the presiding judge or majority of judges. The salary for the position shall be established by the board of supervisors of the county. He or she may be removed for good cause as determined by the presiding judge or majority of judges.(b) In counties with charters that provide for appointment and tenure of office for the chief probation officer, the provisions of the charter shall control as to those matters and, in counties that have established or hereafter establish merit or civil service systems governing the methods of appointment and the tenure for the chief probation officer, the provisions of the merit or civil service systems shall control as to those matters. In all other counties, appointment and tenure of the chief probation officer shall be controlled exclusively by the provisions of this code.27771. (a) The chief probation officer shall perform the duties and discharge the obligations imposed on the office by law or by order of the superior court, including the following:(1) Community supervision of offenders subject to the jurisdiction of the juvenile court pursuant to Section 602 or 1766 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(2) Operation of juvenile halls pursuant to Section 852 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(3) Operation of juvenile camps and ranches established under Section 880 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(4) Community supervision of individuals subject to probation pursuant to conditions imposed under Section 1203 of the Penal Code.(5) Community supervision of individuals subject to mandatory supervision pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (5) of subdivision (h) of Section 1170 of the Penal Code.(6) Community supervision of individuals subject to postrelease community supervision pursuant to Section 3451 of the Penal Code.(7) Administration of community-based corrections programming, including, but not limited to, programs authorized by Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 1228) of Title 8 of Part 2 of the Penal Code.(8) Serving as chair of the Community Corrections Partnership pursuant to Section 1230 of the Penal Code.(9) Making recommendations to the court, including, but not limited to, pre-sentence investigative reports pursuant to Sections 1203.7 and 1203.10 of the Penal Code.(b) The chief probation officer may perform other duties that are consistent with those enumerated in subdivision (a) and may accept appointment to the Board of State and Community Corrections and collect the per diem authorized by Section 6025.1 of the Penal Code.27772. (a) Except as provided in Section 69906.5, the chief probation officer may appoint deputies, assistants, and other persons, and their compensation shall be established according to the provisions of the countys merit systems or civil service systems. If no merit systems or civil service systems exist in the county, the board of supervisors shall provide for appointment, removal, and compensation of this personnel.(b) A deputy or assistant to the chief probation officer shall not have authority to act until his or her appointment has been approved by the juvenile justice commission or regional juvenile justice commission and by the presiding judge or majority of judges. The term of office of a deputy or assistant shall expire with the term of the chief probation officer who appointed the deputy or assistant, but the chief probation officer may revoke and terminate the appointment at any time.(c) This section applies in any charter county with a charter establishing the office of chief probation officer or adult probation officer and provides for the appointment of the officer in accordance with general law, subject to the merit system provisions of the charter.27773. The office of chief probation officer shall not be consolidated with any other office, nor shall the services provided by the chief probation officer be integrated with or reorganized into any other office or department of the county.SEC. 17. Section 68514 is added to the Government Code, to read:68514. (a) Beginning October 1, 2018, and annually thereafter, the Judicial Council shall report to the Department of Finance and to the Joint Legislative Budget Committee, the total amount of revenue collected in the prior fiscal year, by each court and county, from criminal fines and fees assessed related to infractions and misdemeanors. The report shall include, but not be limited to, the following information:(1) Total nondelinquent revenue collected and the number of cases associated with those collections.(2) Total delinquent revenue collected and the number of cases associated with those collections, as reported by each superior court and county pursuant to Section 1463.010 of the Penal Code.(3) Total amount of fines and fees dismissed, discharged, or satisfied by means other than payment.(4) A description of the collection activities used pursuant to Section 1463.007 of the Penal Code.(5) The total amount collected per collection activity.(6) The total number of cases by collection activity and the total number of individuals associated with those cases.(7) Total administrative costs per collection activity.(8) The percentage of fines or fees that are defaulted on.(b) Judicial Council shall separately list the information required in subdivision (a) for fines and fees assessed in a year prior to the current reporting year that had outstanding balances in the current reporting year.(c) To the extent a court or county cannot provide the information listed in subdivisions (a) and (b), the Judicial Council shall notify the Department of Finance and the Joint Legislative Budget Committee and shall provide a plan for how to obtain this information in the future. The Department of Finance may approve alternate metrics if a court or county does not have this information.SEC. 18. Section 69580 of the Government Code is amended to read:69580. In the County of Alameda there are 67 judges of the superior court.SEC. 19. Section 69592 of the Government Code is amended to read:69592. In the County of Riverside there are 51 judges of the superior court.SEC. 20. Section 69594 of the Government Code is amended to read:69594. In the County of San Bernardino there are 65 judges of the superior court.SEC. 21. Section 69600 of the Government Code is amended to read:69600. In the County of Santa Clara there are 77 judges of the superior court.SEC. 22. Section 69614.4 is added to the Government Code, to read:69614.4. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, two vacant judgeships from the Superior Court of the County of Santa Clara shall be reallocated to the Superior Court of the County of Riverside, and two vacant judgeships from the Superior Court of the County of Alameda shall be reallocated to the Superior Court of the County of San Bernardino.(b) The Judicial Council shall determine which specific vacancies shall be transferred between counties pursuant to this section and take all necessary steps to effectuate each transfer.(c) The term of the judgeships specified in this section shall begin on January 2, 2018.(d) A court in which a vacant judgeship is reallocated shall not have the courts funding allocation reduced or any of its funding shifted or transferred as a result of, or in connection with, the reallocation of a vacant judgeship pursuant to this section.SEC. 23. Article 9 (commencing with Section 70500) is added to Chapter 5.7 of Title 8 of the Government Code, to read: Article 9. Conveyance: Court Facility Property: County of San Diego70500. For purposes of this article, the following definitions shall apply:(a) Central courthouse project means the project analyzed in the Judicial Council EIR to construct the San Diego Central Courthouse and perform the demolition project.(b) Central jail means the county-owned central jail located at 1173 Front Street in the City of San Diego.(c) City EIRs means both the March 2008 City of San Diego Program Environmental Impact Report for the City of San Diegos General Plan (State Clearinghouse No. 200691032), as updated, and the March 2006 Final Environmental Impact Report for the San Diego Downtown Community Plan (State Clearinghouse No. 2003041001), as updated.(d) County property means the county-owned city block in the City of San Diego bounded by West A Street to the north, Union Street to the west, West B Street to the south, and Front Street to the east.(e) Demolition project means the demolition of any or all improvements on the San Diego property or the county property, and the construction of the inmate tunnel.(f) Development project means the disposition and development of all or a portion of the San Diego property and the county property by the County of San Diego, or its successors, lessees, or agents, including any agreements therefor, in a manner consistent with the City of San Diegos General Plan and the San Diego Downtown Community Plan.(g) Improvements means the existing courthouse building located on the San Diego property and the county property and the former county jail facility located on the San Diego property.(h) Inmate tunnel means a tunnel that will transport inmates between the central jail and the San Diego Central Courthouse.(i) Judicial Council EIR means the Environmental Impact Report dated December 2010, State Clearinghouse No. 2000021015, certified by the Judicial Council in December 2010, as amended.(j) San Diego Central Courthouse means the real property and improvements described in subdivision (d) of Section 70501.(k) San Diego property means both the real property described in subdivision (a) of Section 70501 and the improvements.70501. The Legislature finds and declares all of the following:(a) The state owns two contiguous parcels of real property consisting of approximately 2.59 acres located in the City of San Diego on two city blocks bounded by West B Street on the north, Union Street on the west, Broadway on the south, and Front Street on the east. Two buildings are located on the real property. One of the buildings is a courthouse building that is used by the Superior Court of California, County of San Diego, as a trial court facility and by the County of San Diego for county offices. Only a portion of the existing courthouse building is located on the state property. The other building is a former county jail facility.(b) A portion of the existing courthouse building is located on the adjacent county property. The state owns the portion of the existing courthouse building that is located on the county property, but the County of San Diego owns fee title to the county property.(c) The existing courthouse building will be replaced as part of an overall plan for consolidation and upgrade of the court facilities in the County of San Diego.(d) The Judicial Council has constructed the new San Diego Central Courthouse on state-owned property in the downtown area of the City of San Diego that is bounded by West B Street on the north, State Street on the west, West C Street on the south, and Union Street on the east. The new San Diego Central Courthouse will fully replace all space occupied by the superior court in the existing courthouse building located on the San Diego property and the county property, and will improve and enhance the safety and efficiency of superior court operations.(e) The Administrative Director of the Courts may, pursuant to Section 70502, convey the San Diego property to the County of San Diego for the public purpose of promoting public safety by facilitating the construction of the inmate tunnel.(f) After acquisition of the San Diego property, the County of San Diego intends to perform the demolition project on all or a portion of the San Diego property and the county property, and perform the development project on all or a portion of the San Diego property and the county property.70502. (a) (1) Notwithstanding any other law, the Administrative Director of the Courts is hereby authorized, on behalf of the state, to convey to the County of San Diego fee title to the San Diego property in exchange for the countys release of the Judicial Council and the state from all obligations related to the demolition project, the countys agreement to the condition in paragraph (2), and otherwise upon the terms and conditions, and subject to the reservations, the Judicial Council deems to be in the best interests of the state, for the public purpose of promoting public safety by facilitating the construction of the inmate tunnel.(2) The Administrative Director of the Courts shall not convey any interest in the San Diego property to the County of San Diego unless the County of San Diego agrees that no new detention facility, or an expansion of the currently leased or contracted beds in a detention facility, will be constructed on any parcel of the San Diego property.(b) Any sale, exchange, or lease of the San Diego property or the county property by the County of San Diego as part of a development project shall not constitute a disposition of surplus property under Article 8 (commencing with Section 54220) of Chapter 5 of Part 1 of Division 2 of Title 5.(c) In connection with any conveyance of the San Diego property pursuant to the authority granted in subdivision (a), the Administrative Director of the Courts shall have the right and authority to enter into amendments of the existing written agreements in effect as of the operative date of this article, between the County of San Diego and the Judicial Council, that are necessary to reflect the terms of the conveyance described in subdivision (a).(d) The conveyance of the San Diego property to the County of San Diego, on behalf of the state, shall not cause or result in any obligation of the County of San Diego to provide necessary and suitable facilities under Section 70311.70503. The Board of Supervisors of the County of San Diego is authorized to approve a lease for any or all of the San Diego property and the county property, which actions shall not be subject to Article 8 (commencing with Section 25520) of Chapter 5 of Part 2 of Division 2 of Title 3.70504. (a) With respect to the Judicial Council EIR of the central courthouse project, the Legislature finds and declares all of the following:(1) The County of San Diegos approval of the acquisition of the San Diego property or approval of the demolition project does not propose any substantial changes to the central courthouse project.(2) The Judicial Councils approval of the conveyance of the San Diego property to the County of San Diego in exchange for the countys release of the Judicial Council and the state from all obligations related to the demolition project does not propose any substantial changes to the central courthouse project.(3) There are no substantial changes in the circumstances under which approval of the conveyance of the San Diego property to the County of San Diego, the countys acquisition of the San Diego property, or approval of the demolition project will be undertaken that will require major revisions to the Judicial Council EIR due to the involvement of significant new environmental effects or a substantial increase in the severity of previously identified significant effects.(4) There is no new information of substantial importance, as that phrase is described and used in Section 21166 of the Public Resources Code or Section 15162 of Title 14 of the California Code of Regulations, affecting the central courthouse project.(b) Pursuant to subdivision (a), both of the following shall apply:(1) The previously-certified Judicial Council EIR is hereby deemed adequate and approved for the Judicial Councils conveyance of the San Diego property to the County of San Diego and the County of San Diegos approval of the acquisition of the San Diego property and the demolition project.(2) No subsequent or supplemental environmental impact report, addendum, or environmental documentation shall be required pursuant to the California Environmental Quality Act (CEQA)(Division 13 (commencing with Section 21000) of the Public Resources Code).70505. (a) With respect to the city EIRs of the City of San Diegos General Plan and the San Diego Downtown Community Plan, which were conducted in compliance with CEQA, the Legislature finds and declares all of the following:(1) Section 21083.3 of the Public Resources Code and Section 15183 of Title 14 of the California Code of Regulations, for development projects consistent with a community plan, general plan, or zoning, shall be deemed to apply to any development project.(2) There are no project-specific significant effects that are peculiar to a development project, the San Diego property, or the county property, there are no significant effects, including offsite and cumulative impacts, that were not analyzed in the city EIRs, and there are no new or more severe adverse effects than those discussed in the city EIRs.(b) Pursuant to subdivision (a), the previously certified city EIRs are hereby deemed adequate and approved under CEQA for any development project, and no further environmental review shall be required pursuant to CEQA and its implementing regulations.70506. The exemption from CEQA for existing facilities identified in Section 15301 of Title 14 of the California Code of Regulations shall be deemed to apply to any lease authorized by the Board of Supervisors of the County of San Diego for any or all of the improvements on the San Diego property and the county property.70507. The demolition project shall be deemed to be a project that is separate and distinct from the development project. The demolition project and development project serve different purposes, have independent utility, and can be implemented independently.70508. Any legal challenge that is brought against the County of San Diego with regard to the demolition project or the development project shall not result in a reconveyance of the San Diego property to the state.SEC. 24. Section 329 is added to the Military and Veterans Code, to read:329. The Military Department Workers Compensation Fund is hereby created within the State Treasury. Notwithstanding Section 13340 of the Government Code, all moneys in the fund are continuously appropriated to the Military Department for purposes of subdivision (a).(a) The moneys in the fund shall be expended for workers compensation claims that are wholly or partially reimbursed by the federal government for personnel within the Military Department.(b) The fund may receive and deposit any moneys received from the federal government for the sole purpose of paying workers compensation claims of current employees or service members.(c) Moneys in the fund may only be expended by the Military Department for workers compensation claims.SEC. 25. Section 1170.127 is added to the Penal Code, to read:1170.127. (a) A person who is committed to a state hospital after being found not guilty by reason of insanity pursuant to Section 1026 may petition the court to have his or her maximum term of commitment, as established by Section 1026.5, reduced to the length it would have been had Section 1170.126 been in effect at the time of the original determination. Both of the following conditions are required for the maximum term of commitment to be reduced:(1) The person would have met all of the criteria for a reduction in sentence pursuant to Section 1170.126 had he or she been found guilty.(2) The person files the petition for a reduction of the maximum term of commitment before January 1, 2021, or on a later date upon a showing of good cause.(b) If a petitioners maximum term of confinement is ordered reduced under this section, the new term of confinement must provide opportunity to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5. If a petitioners new maximum term of confinement ordered under this section does not provide sufficient time to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5, the new maximum term of confinement may be extended, not more than 240 days from the date the petition is granted, in order to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5.SEC. 26. Section 1170.18 of the Penal Code is amended to read:1170.18. (a) A person who, on November 5, 2014, was serving a sentence for a conviction, whether by trial or plea, of a felony or felonies who would have been guilty of a misdemeanor under the act that added this section (this act) had this act been in effect at the time of the offense may petition for a recall of sentence before the trial court that entered the judgment of conviction in his or her case to request resentencing in accordance with Sections 11350, 11357, or 11377 of the Health and Safety Code, or Section 459.5, 473, 476a, 490.2, 496, or 666 of the Penal Code, as those sections have been amended or added by this act.(b) Upon receiving a petition under subdivision (a), the court shall determine whether the petitioner satisfies the criteria in subdivision (a). If the petitioner satisfies the criteria in subdivision (a), the petitioners felony sentence shall be recalled and the petitioner resentenced to a misdemeanor pursuant to Sections 11350, 11357, or 11377 of the Health and Safety Code, or Section 459.5, 473, 476a, 490.2, 496, or 666 of the Penal Code, as those sections have been amended or added by this act, unless the court, in its discretion, determines that resentencing the petitioner would pose an unreasonable risk of danger to public safety. In exercising its discretion, the court may consider all of the following:(1) The petitioners criminal conviction history, including the type of crimes committed, the extent of injury to victims, the length of prior prison commitments, and the remoteness of the crimes.(2) The petitioners disciplinary record and record of rehabilitation while incarcerated.(3) Any other evidence the court, within its discretion, determines to be relevant in deciding whether a new sentence would result in an unreasonable risk of danger to public safety.(c) As used throughout this code, unreasonable risk of danger to public safety means an unreasonable risk that the petitioner will commit a new violent felony within the meaning of clause (iv) of subparagraph (C) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (e) of Section 667.(d) A person who is resentenced pursuant to subdivision (b) shall be given credit for time served and shall be subject to parole for one year following completion of his or her sentence, unless the court, in its discretion, as part of its resentencing order, releases the person from parole. The person is subject to parole supervision by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation pursuant to Section 3000.08 and the jurisdiction of the court in the county in which the parolee is released or resides, or in which an alleged violation of supervision has occurred, for the purpose of hearing petitions to revoke parole and impose a term of custody.(e) Resentencing pursuant to this section shall not result in the imposition of a term longer than the original sentence.(f) A person who has completed his or her sentence for a conviction, whether by trial or plea, of a felony or felonies who would have been guilty of a misdemeanor under this act had this act been in effect at the time of the offense, may file an application before the trial court that entered the judgment of conviction in his or her case to have the felony conviction or convictions designated as misdemeanors.(g) If the application satisfies the criteria in subdivision (f), the court shall designate the felony offense or offenses as a misdemeanor.(h) Unless the applicant requests a hearing, a hearing is not necessary to grant or deny an application filed under subdivision (f).(i) This section does not apply to a person who has one or more prior convictions for an offense specified in clause (iv) of subparagraph (C) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (e) of Section 667 or for an offense requiring registration pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 290.(j) Except as specified in subdivision (p), a petition or application under this section shall be filed on or before November 4, 2022, or at a later date upon showing of good cause.(k) A felony conviction that is recalled and resentenced under subdivision (b) or designated as a misdemeanor under subdivision (g) shall be considered a misdemeanor for all purposes, except that resentencing shall not permit that person to own, possess, or have in his or her custody or control a firearm or prevent his or her conviction under Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 29800) of Division 9 of Title 4 of Part 6.(l) If the court that originally sentenced the petitioner is not available, the presiding judge shall designate another judge to rule on the petition or application.(m) This section does not diminish or abrogate any rights or remedies otherwise available to the petitioner or applicant.(n) Resentencing pursuant to this section does not diminish or abrogate the finality of judgments in any case that does not come within the purview of this section.(o) A resentencing hearing ordered under this section shall constitute a postconviction release proceeding under paragraph (7) of subdivision (b) of Section 28 of Article I of the California Constitution (Marsys Law).(p) (1) A person who is committed to a state hospital after being found not guilty by reason of insanity pursuant to Section 1026 may petition the court to have his or her maximum term of commitment, as established by Section 1026.5, reduced to the length it would have been had the act that added this section been in effect at the time of the original determination. Both of the following conditions are required for the maximum term of commitment to be reduced.(A) The person would have met all of the criteria for a reduction in sentence pursuant to this section had he or she been found guilty.(B) The person files the petition for a reduction of the maximum term of commitment before January 1, 2021, or on a later date upon a showing of good cause.(2) If a petitioners maximum term of confinement is ordered reduced under this subdivision, the new term of confinement must provide opportunity to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5. If a petitioners new maximum term of confinement ordered under this section does not provide sufficient time to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5, the new maximum term of confinement may be extended, not more than 240 days from the date the petition is granted, in order to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5.SEC. 27. Section 1203.5 of the Penal Code is repealed.SEC. 28. Section 1203.5 is added to the Penal Code, to read:1203.5. The chief probation officers, assistant probation officers, and deputy probation officers appointed in accordance with Chapter 16 (commencing with Section 27770) of Part 3 of Division 2 of Title 3 of the Government Code shall be ex officio adult chief probation officers, assistant adult probation officers, and deputy adult probation officers except in any county or city and county whose charter provides for the separate office of adult probation officer. When the separate office of adult probation officer has been established he or she shall perform all the duties of probation officers except for matters under the jurisdiction of the juvenile court.SEC. 29. Section 1203.6 of the Penal Code is repealed.SEC. 30. Section 1370 of the Penal Code is amended to read:1370. (a) (1) (A) If the defendant is found mentally competent, the criminal process shall resume, the trial on the offense charged or hearing on the alleged violation shall proceed, and judgment may be pronounced.(B) If the defendant is found mentally incompetent, the trial, the hearing on the alleged violation, or the judgment shall be suspended until the person becomes mentally competent.(i) In the meantime, the court shall order that the mentally incompetent defendant be delivered by the sheriff to a State Department of State Hospitals facility, as defined in Section 4100 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, for the care and treatment of the mentally disordered, as directed by the State Department of State Hospitals, or to any other available public or private treatment facility, including a community-based residential treatment system established pursuant to Article 1 (commencing with Section 5670) of Chapter 2.5 of Part 2 of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code if the facility has a secured perimeter or a locked and controlled treatment facility, approved by the community program director that will promote the defendants speedy restoration to mental competence, or placed on outpatient status as specified in Section 1600.(ii) However, if the action against the defendant who has been found mentally incompetent is on a complaint charging a felony offense specified in Section 290, the prosecutor shall determine whether the defendant previously has been found mentally incompetent to stand trial pursuant to this chapter on a charge of a Section 290 offense, or whether the defendant is currently the subject of a pending Section 1368 proceeding arising out of a charge of a Section 290 offense. If either determination is made, the prosecutor shall so notify the court and defendant in writing. After this notification, and opportunity for hearing, the court shall order that the defendant be delivered by the sheriff to a State Department of State Hospitals facility, as directed by the State Department of State Hospitals, or other secure treatment facility for the care and treatment of the mentally disordered unless the court makes specific findings on the record that an alternative placement would provide more appropriate treatment for the defendant and would not pose a danger to the health and safety of others.(iii) If the action against the defendant who has been found mentally incompetent is on a complaint charging a felony offense specified in Section 290 and the defendant has been denied bail pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 12 of Article I of the California Constitution because the court has found, based upon clear and convincing evidence, a substantial likelihood that the persons release would result in great bodily harm to others, the court shall order that the defendant be delivered by the sheriff to a State Department of State Hospitals facility, for the care and treatment of the mentally disordered, as directed by the State Department of State Hospitals, unless the court makes specific findings on the record that an alternative placement would provide more appropriate treatment for the defendant and would not pose a danger to the health and safety of others.(iv) The clerk of the court shall notify the Department of Justice in writing of a finding of mental incompetence with respect to a defendant who is subject to clause (ii) or (iii) for inclusion in his or her state summary criminal history information.(C) Upon the filing of a certificate of restoration to competence, the court shall order that the defendant be returned to court in accordance with Section 1372. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the community program director or a designee.(D) A defendant charged with a violent felony may not be delivered to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or treatment facility pursuant to this subdivision unless the State Department of State Hospitals facility or treatment facility has a secured perimeter or a locked and controlled treatment facility, and the judge determines that the public safety will be protected.(E) For purposes of this paragraph, violent felony means an offense specified in subdivision (c) of Section 667.5.(F) A defendant charged with a violent felony may be placed on outpatient status, as specified in Section 1600, only if the court finds that the placement will not pose a danger to the health or safety of others. If the court places a defendant charged with a violent felony on outpatient status, as specified in Section 1600, the court shall serve copies of the placement order on defense counsel, the sheriff in the county where the defendant will be placed, and the district attorney for the county in which the violent felony charges are pending against the defendant.(2) Prior to making the order directing that the defendant be committed to the State Department of State Hospitals or other treatment facility or placed on outpatient status, the court shall proceed as follows:(A) The court shall order the community program director or a designee to evaluate the defendant and to submit to the court within 15 judicial days of the order a written recommendation as to whether the defendant should be required to undergo outpatient treatment, or be committed to the State Department of State Hospitals or to any other treatment facility. A person shall not be admitted to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility or placed on outpatient status under this section without having been evaluated by the community program director or a designee. The community program director or designee shall evaluate the appropriate placement for the defendant between a State Department of State Hospitals facility or the community-based residential treatment system based upon guidelines provided by the State Department of State Hospitals.(B) The court shall hear and determine whether the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding the administration of antipsychotic medication. The court shall consider opinions in the reports prepared pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 1369, as applicable to the issue of whether the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding the administration of antipsychotic medication, and shall proceed as follows:(i) The court shall hear and determine whether any of the following is true:(I) The defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication, the defendants mental disorder requires medical treatment with antipsychotic medication, and, if the defendants mental disorder is not treated with antipsychotic medication, it is probable that serious harm to the physical or mental health of the patient will result. Probability of serious harm to the physical or mental health of the defendant requires evidence that the defendant is presently suffering adverse effects to his or her physical or mental health, or the defendant has previously suffered these effects as a result of a mental disorder and his or her condition is substantially deteriorating. The fact that a defendant has a diagnosis of a mental disorder does not alone establish probability of serious harm to the physical or mental health of the defendant.(II) The defendant is a danger to others, in that the defendant has inflicted, attempted to inflict, or made a serious threat of inflicting substantial physical harm on another while in custody, or the defendant had inflicted, attempted to inflict, or made a serious threat of inflicting substantial physical harm on another that resulted in his or her being taken into custody, and the defendant presents, as a result of mental disorder or mental defect, a demonstrated danger of inflicting substantial physical harm on others. Demonstrated danger may be based on an assessment of the defendants present mental condition, including a consideration of past behavior of the defendant within six years prior to the time the defendant last attempted to inflict, inflicted, or threatened to inflict substantial physical harm on another, and other relevant evidence.(III) The people have charged the defendant with a serious crime against the person or property, involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication is substantially likely to render the defendant competent to stand trial, the medication is unlikely to have side effects that interfere with the defendants ability to understand the nature of the criminal proceedings or to assist counsel in the conduct of a defense in a reasonable manner, less intrusive treatments are unlikely to have substantially the same results, and antipsychotic medication is in the patients best medical interest in light of his or her medical condition.(ii) If the court finds any of the conditions described in clause (i) to be true, the court shall issue an order authorizing involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication to the defendant when and as prescribed by the defendants treating psychiatrist at any facility housing the defendant for purposes of this chapter. The order shall be valid for no more than one year, pursuant to subparagraph (A) of paragraph (7). The court shall not order involuntary administration of psychotropic medication under subclause (III) of clause (i) unless the court has first found that the defendant does not meet the criteria for involuntary administration of psychotropic medication under subclause (I) of clause (i) and does not meet the criteria under subclause (II) of clause (i).(iii) In all cases, the treating hospital, facility, or program may administer medically appropriate antipsychotic medication prescribed by a psychiatrist in an emergency as described in subdivision (m) of Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(iv) If the court has determined that the defendant has the capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication, and if the defendant, with advice of his or her counsel, consents, the court order of commitment shall include confirmation that antipsychotic medication may be given to the defendant as prescribed by a treating psychiatrist pursuant to the defendants consent. The commitment order shall also indicate that, if the defendant withdraws consent for antipsychotic medication, after the treating psychiatrist complies with the provisions of subparagraph (C), the defendant shall be returned to court for a hearing in accordance with subparagraphs (C) and (D) regarding whether antipsychotic medication shall be administered involuntarily.(v) If the court has determined that the defendant has the capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication and if the defendant, with advice from his or her counsel, does not consent, the court order for commitment shall indicate that, after the treating psychiatrist complies with the provisions of subparagraph (C), the defendant shall be returned to court for a hearing in accordance with subparagraphs (C) and (D) regarding whether antipsychotic medication shall be administered involuntarily.(vi) A report made pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) shall include a description of antipsychotic medication administered to the defendant and its effects and side effects, including effects on the defendants appearance or behavior that would affect the defendants ability to understand the nature of the criminal proceedings or to assist counsel in the conduct of a defense in a reasonable manner. During the time the defendant is confined in a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility or placed on outpatient status, either the defendant or the people may request that the court review any order made pursuant to this subdivision. The defendant, to the same extent enjoyed by other patients in the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility, shall have the right to contact the patients rights advocate regarding his or her rights under this section.(C) If the defendant consented to antipsychotic medication as described in clause (iv) of subparagraph (B), but subsequently withdraws his or her consent, or, if involuntary antipsychotic medication was not ordered pursuant to clause (v) of subparagraph (B), and the treating psychiatrist determines that antipsychotic medication has become medically necessary and appropriate, the treating psychiatrist shall make efforts to obtain informed consent from the defendant for antipsychotic medication. If informed consent is not obtained from the defendant, and the treating psychiatrist is of the opinion that the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication based on the conditions described in subclause (I) or (II) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B), the treating psychiatrist shall certify whether the lack of capacity and any applicable conditions described above exist. That certification shall contain an assessment of the current mental status of the defendant and the opinion of the treating psychiatrist that involuntary antipsychotic medication has become medically necessary and appropriate.(D) (i) If the treating psychiatrist certifies that antipsychotic medication has become medically necessary and appropriate pursuant to subparagraph (C), antipsychotic medication may be administered to the defendant for not more than 21 days, provided, however, that, within 72 hours of the certification, the defendant is provided a medication review hearing before an administrative law judge to be conducted at the facility where the defendant is receiving treatment. The treating psychiatrist shall present the case for the certification for involuntary treatment and the defendant shall be represented by an attorney or a patients rights advocate. The attorney or patients rights advocate shall be appointed to meet with the defendant no later than one day prior to the medication review hearing to review the defendants rights at the medication review hearing, discuss the process, answer questions or concerns regarding involuntary medication or the hearing, assist the defendant in preparing for the hearing and advocating for his or her interests at the hearing, review the panels final determination following the hearing, advise the defendant of his or her right to judicial review of the panels decision, and provide the defendant with referral information for legal advice on the subject. The defendant shall also have the following rights with respect to the medication review hearing:(I) To be given timely access to the defendants records.(II) To be present at the hearing, unless the defendant waives that right.(III) To present evidence at the hearing.(IV) To question persons presenting evidence supporting involuntary medication.(V) To make reasonable requests for attendance of witnesses on the defendants behalf.(VI) To a hearing conducted in an impartial and informal manner.(ii) If the administrative law judge determines that the defendant either meets the criteria specified in subclause (I) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B), or meets the criteria specified in subclause (II) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B), then antipsychotic medication may continue to be administered to the defendant for the 21-day certification period. Concurrently with the treating psychiatrists certification, the treating psychiatrist shall file a copy of the certification and a petition with the court for issuance of an order to administer antipsychotic medication beyond the 21-day certification period. For purposes of this subparagraph, the treating psychiatrist shall not be required to pay or deposit any fee for the filing of the petition or other document or paper related to the petition.(iii) If the administrative law judge disagrees with the certification, medication may not be administered involuntarily until the court determines that antipsychotic medication should be administered pursuant to this section.(iv) The court shall provide notice to the prosecuting attorney and to the attorney representing the defendant, and shall hold a hearing, no later than 18 days from the date of the certification, to determine whether antipsychotic medication should be ordered beyond the certification period.(v) If, as a result of the hearing, the court determines that antipsychotic medication should be administered beyond the certification period, the court shall issue an order authorizing the administration of that medication.(vi) The court shall render its decision on the petition and issue its order no later than three calendar days after the hearing and, in any event, no later than the expiration of the 21-day certification period.(vii) If the administrative law judge upholds the certification pursuant to clause (ii), the court may, for a period not to exceed 14 days, extend the certification and continue the hearing pursuant to stipulation between the parties or upon a finding of good cause. In determining good cause, the court may review the petition filed with the court, the administrative law judges order, and any additional testimony needed by the court to determine if it is appropriate to continue medication beyond the 21-day certification and for a period of up to 14 days.(viii) The district attorney, county counsel, or representative of a facility where a defendant found incompetent to stand trial is committed may petition the court for an order to administer involuntary medication pursuant to the criteria set forth in subclauses (II) and (III) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B). The order is reviewable as provided in paragraph (7).(3) When the court orders that the defendant be committed to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other public or private treatment facility, the court shall provide copies of the following documents prior to the admission of the defendant to the State Department of State Hospitals or other treatment facility where the defendant is to be committed:(A) The commitment order, including a specification of the charges.(B) A computation or statement setting forth the maximum term of commitment in accordance with subdivision (c).(C) A computation or statement setting forth the amount of credit for time served, if any, to be deducted from the maximum term of commitment.(D) State summary criminal history information.(E) Arrest reports prepared by the police department or other law enforcement agency.(F) Court-ordered psychiatric examination or evaluation reports.(G) The community program directors placement recommendation report.(H) Records of a finding of mental incompetence pursuant to this chapter arising out of a complaint charging a felony offense specified in Section 290 or a pending Section 1368 proceeding arising out of a charge of a Section 290 offense.(I) Medical records.(4) When the defendant is committed to a treatment facility pursuant to clause (i) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) or the court makes the findings specified in clause (ii) or (iii) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) to assign the defendant to a treatment facility other than a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other secure treatment facility, the court shall order that notice be given to the appropriate law enforcement agency or agencies having local jurisdiction at the site of the placement facility of any finding of mental incompetence pursuant to this chapter arising out of a charge of a Section 290 offense.(5) When directing that the defendant be confined in a State Department of State Hospitals facility pursuant to this subdivision, the court shall commit the patient to the State Department of State Hospitals.(6) (A) If the defendant is committed or transferred to the State Department of State Hospitals pursuant to this section, the court may, upon receiving the written recommendation of the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility and the community program director that the defendant be transferred to a public or private treatment facility approved by the community program director, order the defendant transferred to that facility. If the defendant is committed or transferred to a public or private treatment facility approved by the community program director, the court may, upon receiving the written recommendation of the community program director, transfer the defendant to the State Department of State Hospitals or to another public or private treatment facility approved by the community program director. In the event of dismissal of the criminal charges before the defendant recovers competence, the person shall be subject to the applicable provisions of the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act (Part 1 (commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code). If either the defendant or the prosecutor chooses to contest either kind of order of transfer, a petition may be filed in the court for a hearing, which shall be held if the court determines that sufficient grounds exist. At the hearing, the prosecuting attorney or the defendant may present evidence bearing on the order of transfer. The court shall use the same standards as are used in conducting probation revocation hearings pursuant to Section 1203.2.Prior to making an order for transfer under this section, the court shall notify the defendant, the attorney of record for the defendant, the prosecuting attorney, and the community program director or a designee.(B) If the defendant is initially committed to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or secure treatment facility pursuant to clause (ii) or (iii) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) and is subsequently transferred to any other facility, copies of the documents specified in paragraph (3) shall be taken with the defendant to each subsequent facility to which the defendant is transferred. The transferring facility shall also notify the appropriate law enforcement agency or agencies having local jurisdiction at the site of the new facility that the defendant is a person subject to clause (ii) or (iii) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1).(7) (A) An order by the court authorizing involuntary medication of the defendant shall be valid for no more than one year. The court shall review the order at the time of the review of the initial report and the six-month progress reports pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) to determine if the grounds for the authorization remain. In the review, the court shall consider the reports of the treating psychiatrist or psychiatrists and the defendants patients rights advocate or attorney. The court may require testimony from the treating psychiatrist and the patients rights advocate or attorney, if necessary. The court may continue the order authorizing involuntary medication for up to another six months, or vacate the order, or make any other appropriate order.(B) Within 60 days before the expiration of the one-year involuntary medication order, the district attorney, county counsel, or representative of any facility where a defendant found incompetent to stand trial is committed may petition the committing court for a renewal, subject to the same conditions and requirements as in subparagraph (A). The petition shall include the basis for involuntary medication set forth in clause (i) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2). Notice of the petition shall be provided to the defendant, the defendants attorney, and the district attorney. The court shall hear and determine whether the defendant continues to meet the criteria set forth in clause (i) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2). The hearing on any petition to renew an order for involuntary medication shall be conducted prior to the expiration of the current order.(8) For purposes of subparagraph (D) of paragraph (2) and paragraph (7), if the treating psychiatrist determines that there is a need, based on preserving his or her rapport with the patient or preventing harm, the treating psychiatrist may request that the facility medical director designate another psychiatrist to act in the place of the treating psychiatrist. If the medical director of the facility designates another psychiatrist to act pursuant to this paragraph, the treating psychiatrist shall brief the acting psychiatrist of the relevant facts of the case and the acting psychiatrist shall examine the patient prior to the hearing.(b) (1) Within 90 days of a commitment made pursuant to subdivision (a), the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility to which the defendant is confined shall make a written report to the court and the community program director for the county or region of commitment, or a designee, concerning the defendants progress toward recovery of mental competence and whether the administration of antipsychotic medication remains necessary. If the defendant is on outpatient status, the outpatient treatment staff shall make a written report to the community program director concerning the defendants progress toward recovery of mental competence. Within 90 days of placement on outpatient status, the community program director shall report to the court on this matter. If the defendant has not recovered mental competence, but the report discloses a substantial likelihood that the defendant will regain mental competence in the foreseeable future, the defendant shall remain in the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility or on outpatient status. Thereafter, at six-month intervals or until the defendant becomes mentally competent, if the defendant is confined in a treatment facility, the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility or person in charge of the facility shall report in writing to the court and the community program director or a designee regarding the defendants progress toward recovery of mental competence and whether the administration of antipsychotic medication remains necessary. If the defendant is on outpatient status, after the initial 90-day report, the outpatient treatment staff shall report to the community program director on the defendants progress toward recovery, and the community program director shall report to the court on this matter at six-month intervals. A copy of these reports shall be provided to the prosecutor and defense counsel by the court.(A) If the report indicates that there is no substantial likelihood that the defendant will regain mental competence in the foreseeable future, the committing court shall order the defendant to be returned to the court for proceedings pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (c) no later than 10 days following receipt of the report. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the community program director or a designee.(B) If the report indicates that there is no substantial likelihood that the defendant will regain mental competence in the foreseeable future, the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility to which the defendant is confined shall do both of the following:(i) Promptly notify and provide a copy of the report to the defense counsel and the district attorney.(ii) Provide a separate notification, in compliance with applicable privacy laws, to the committing countys sheriff that transportation will be needed for the patient.(2) If the court has issued an order authorizing the treating facility to involuntarily administer antipsychotic medication to the defendant, the reports made pursuant to paragraph (1) concerning the defendants progress toward regaining competency shall also consider the issue of involuntary medication. Each report shall include, but is not limited to, all of the following:(A) Whether or not the defendant has the capacity to make decisions concerning antipsychotic medication.(B) If the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions concerning antipsychotic medication, whether the defendant risks serious harm to his or her physical or mental health if not treated with antipsychotic medication.(C) Whether or not the defendant presents a danger to others if he or she is not treated with antipsychotic medication.(D) Whether the defendant has a mental illness for which medications are the only effective treatment.(E) Whether there are any side effects from the medication currently being experienced by the defendant that would interfere with the defendants ability to collaborate with counsel.(F) Whether there are any effective alternatives to medication.(G) How quickly the medication is likely to bring the defendant to competency.(H) Whether the treatment plan includes methods other than medication to restore the defendant to competency.(I) A statement, if applicable, that no medication is likely to restore the defendant to competency.(3) After reviewing the reports, the court shall determine whether or not grounds for the order authorizing involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication still exist and shall do one of the following:(A) If the original grounds for involuntary medication still exist, the order authorizing the treating facility to involuntarily administer antipsychotic medication to the defendant shall remain in effect.(B) If the original grounds for involuntary medication no longer exist, and there is no other basis for involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication, the order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication shall be vacated.(C) If the original grounds for involuntary medication no longer exist, and the report states that there is another basis for involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication, the court shall set a hearing within 21 days to determine whether the order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication shall be vacated or whether a new order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication shall be issued. The hearing shall proceed as set forth in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a).(4) Any defendant who has been committed or has been on outpatient status for 18 months and is still hospitalized or on outpatient status shall be returned to the committing court where a hearing shall be held pursuant to the procedures set forth in Section 1369. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the community program director or a designee.(5) If it is determined by the court that no treatment for the defendants mental impairment is being conducted, the defendant shall be returned to the committing court. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the community program director or a designee.(6) At each review by the court specified in this subdivision, the court shall determine if the security level of housing and treatment is appropriate and may make an order in accordance with its determination. If the court determines that the defendant shall continue to be treated in the State Department of State Hospitals facility or on an outpatient basis, the court shall determine issues concerning administration of antipsychotic medication, as set forth in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a).(c) (1) At the end of three years from the date of commitment or a period of commitment equal to the maximum term of imprisonment provided by law for the most serious offense charged in the information, indictment, or misdemeanor complaint, or the maximum term of imprisonment provided by law for a violation of probation or mandatory supervision, whichever is shorter, but no later than 90 days prior to the expiration of the defendants term of commitment, a defendant who has not recovered mental competence shall be returned to the committing court. The court shall notify the community program director or a designee of the return and of any resulting court orders.(2) Whenever a defendant is returned to the court pursuant to paragraph (1) or (4) of subdivision (b) or paragraph (1) of this subdivision and it appears to the court that the defendant is gravely disabled, as defined in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (h) of Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the court shall order the conservatorship investigator of the county of commitment of the defendant to initiate conservatorship proceedings for the defendant pursuant to Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 5350) of Part 1 of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. Hearings required in the conservatorship proceedings shall be held in the superior court in the county that ordered the commitment. The court shall transmit a copy of the order directing initiation of conservatorship proceedings to the community program director or a designee, the sheriff and the district attorney of the county in which criminal charges are pending, and the defendants counsel of record. The court shall notify the community program director or a designee, the sheriff and district attorney of the county in which criminal charges are pending, and the defendants counsel of record of the outcome of the conservatorship proceedings.(3) If a change in placement is proposed for a defendant who is committed pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (h) of Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the court shall provide notice and an opportunity to be heard with respect to the proposed placement of the defendant to the sheriff and the district attorney of the county in which the criminal charges or revocation proceedings are pending.(4) If the defendant is confined in a treatment facility, a copy of any report to the committing court regarding the defendants progress toward recovery of mental competence shall be provided by the committing court to the prosecutor and to the defense counsel.(d) With the exception of proceedings alleging a violation of mandatory supervision, the criminal action remains subject to dismissal pursuant to Section 1385. If the criminal action is dismissed, the court shall transmit a copy of the order of dismissal to the community program director or a designee. In a proceeding alleging a violation of mandatory supervision, if the person is not placed under a conservatorship as described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (c), or if a conservatorship is terminated, the court shall reinstate mandatory supervision and may modify the terms and conditions of supervision to include appropriate mental health treatment or refer the matter to a local mental health court, reentry court, or other collaborative justice court available for improving the mental health of the defendant.(e) If the criminal action against the defendant is dismissed, the defendant shall be released from commitment ordered under this section, but without prejudice to the initiation of any proceedings that may be appropriate under the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act (Part 1 (commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code).(f) As used in this chapter, community program director means the person, agency, or entity designated by the State Department of State Hospitals pursuant to Section 1605 of this code and Section 4360 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(g) For the purpose of this section, secure treatment facility shall not include, except for State Department of State Hospitals facilities, state developmental centers, and correctional treatment facilities, any facility licensed pursuant to Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 1250) of, Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 1500) of, or Chapter 3.2 (commencing with Section 1569) of, Division 2 of the Health and Safety Code, or any community board and care facility.(h) Nothing in this section shall preclude a defendant from filing a petition for habeas corpus to challenge the continuing validity of an order authorizing a treatment facility or outpatient program to involuntarily administer antipsychotic medication to a person being treated as incompetent to stand trial.SEC. 31. Section 1370.6 of the Penal Code is amended to read:1370.6. (a) If a mentally incompetent defendant is admitted to a county jail treatment facility pursuant to Section 1370, the department shall provide restoration of competency treatment at the county jail treatment facility and shall provide payment to the county jail treatment facility for the reasonable costs of the bed during the restoration of competency treatment as well as for the reasonable costs of any necessary medical treatment not provided within the county jail treatment facility, unless otherwise agreed to by the department and the facility.(1) If the county jail treatment facility is able to provide restoration of competency services, upon approval by the department and subject to funding appropriated in the annual Budget Act, the county jail treatment facility may provide those services and the State Department of State Hospitals may provide payment to the county jail treatment facility for the reasonable costs of the bed during the restoration of competency treatment as well as the reasonable costs of providing restoration of competency services and for any necessary medical treatment not provided within the county jail treatment facility, unless otherwise agreed to by the department and the facility.(2) Transportation to a county jail treatment facility for admission and from the facility upon the filing of a certificate of restoration of competency, or for transfer of a person to another county jail treatment facility or to a state hospital, shall be provided by the committing county unless otherwise agreed to by the department and the facility.(3) In the event the State Department of State Hospitals and a county jail treatment facility are determined to be comparatively at fault for any claim, action, loss, or damage which results from their respective obligations under such a contract, each shall indemnify the other to the extent of its comparative fault.(4) The six-month limitation in Section 1369.1 shall not apply to individuals deemed incompetent to stand trial who are being treated to restore competency within a county jail treatment facility pursuant to this section.(b) If the community-based residential system is selected by the court pursuant to Section 1370, the State Department of State Hospitals shall provide reimbursement to the community-based residential treatment system for the cost of restoration of competency treatment as negotiated with the State Department of State Hospitals.(c) The State Department of State Hospitals may provide payment to either a county jail treatment facility or a community-based residential treatment system directly through invoice, or through a contract, at the discretion of the department in accordance with the terms and conditions of the contract or agreement.SEC. 32. Section 1372 of the Penal Code is amended to read:1372. (a) (1) If the medical director of a state hospital or other facility to which the defendant is committed, or the community program director, county mental health director, or regional center director providing outpatient services, determines that the defendant has regained mental competence, the director shall immediately certify that fact to the court by filing a certificate of restoration with the court by certified mail, return receipt requested. For purposes of this section, the date of filing shall be the date on the return receipt.(2) The courts order committing an individual to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility pursuant to Section 1370 shall include direction that the sheriff shall redeliver the patient to the court without any further order from the court upon receiving from the state hospital or treatment facility a copy of the certificate of restoration.(3) The defendant shall be returned to the committing court in the following manner:(A) A patient who remains confined in a state hospital or other treatment facility shall be redelivered to the sheriff of the county from which the patient was committed. The sheriff shall immediately return the person from the state hospital or other treatment facility to the court for further proceedings.(B) The patient who is on outpatient status shall be returned by the sheriff to court through arrangements made by the outpatient treatment supervisor.(C) In all cases, the patient shall be returned to the committing court no later than 10 days following the filing of a certificate of restoration. The state shall only pay for 10 hospital days for patients following the filing of a certificate of restoration of competency. The State Department of State Hospitals shall report to the fiscal and appropriate policy committees of the Legislature on an annual basis in February, on the number of days that exceed the 10-day limit prescribed in this subparagraph. This report shall include, but not be limited to, a data sheet that itemizes by county the number of days that exceed this 10-day limit during the preceding year.(b) If the defendant becomes mentally competent after a conservatorship has been established pursuant to the applicable provisions of the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act, Part 1 (commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, and Section 1370, the conservator shall certify that fact to the sheriff and district attorney of the county in which the defendants case is pending, defendants attorney of record, and the committing court.(c) When a defendant is returned to court with a certification that competence has been regained, the court shall notify either the community program director, the county mental health director, or the regional center director and the Director of Developmental Services, as appropriate, of the date of any hearing on the defendants competence and whether or not the defendant was found by the court to have recovered competence.(d) If the committing court approves the certificate of restoration to competence as to a person in custody, the court shall hold a hearing to determine whether the person is entitled to be admitted to bail or released on own recognizance status pending conclusion of the proceedings. If the superior court approves the certificate of restoration to competence regarding a person on outpatient status, unless it appears that the person has refused to come to court, that person shall remain released either on own recognizance status, or, in the case of a developmentally disabled person, either on the defendants promise or on the promise of a responsible adult to secure the persons appearance in court for further proceedings. If the person has refused to come to court, the court shall set bail and may place the person in custody until bail is posted.(e) A defendant subject to either subdivision (a) or (b) who is not admitted to bail or released under subdivision (d) may, at the discretion of the court, upon recommendation of the director of the facility where the defendant is receiving treatment, be returned to the hospital or facility of his or her original commitment or other appropriate secure facility approved by the community program director, the county mental health director, or the regional center director. The recommendation submitted to the court shall be based on the opinion that the person will need continued treatment in a hospital or treatment facility in order to maintain competence to stand trial or that placing the person in a jail environment would create a substantial risk that the person would again become incompetent to stand trial before criminal proceedings could be resumed.(f) Notwithstanding subdivision (e), if a defendant is returned by the court to a hospital or other facility for the purpose of maintaining competency to stand trial and that defendant is already under civil commitment to that hospital or facility from another county pursuant to the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act (Part 1 (commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code) or as a developmentally disabled person committed pursuant to Article 2 (commencing with Section 6500) of Chapter 2 of Part 2 of Division 6 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the costs of housing and treating the defendant in that facility following return pursuant to subdivision (e) shall be the responsibility of the original county of civil commitment.SEC. 33. Section 1463.007 of the Penal Code is amended to read:1463.007. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, a county or court that operates a comprehensive collection program may deduct the costs of operating that program, excluding capital expenditures, from any revenues collected under that program. The costs shall be deducted before any distribution of revenues to other governmental entities required by any other law. A county or court operating a comprehensive collection program may establish a minimum base fee, fine, forfeiture, penalty, or assessment amount for inclusion in the program.(b) Once debt becomes delinquent, it continues to be delinquent and may be subject to collection by a comprehensive collection program. Debt is delinquent and subject to collection by a comprehensive collection program if any of the following conditions is met:(1) A defendant does not post bail or appear on or before the date on which he or she promised to appear, or any lawful continuance of that date, if that defendant was eligible to post and forfeit bail.(2) A defendant does not pay the amount imposed by the court on or before the date ordered by the court, or any lawful continuance of that date.(3) A defendant has failed to make an installment payment on the date specified by the court.(c) For the purposes of this section, a comprehensive collection program is a separate and distinct revenue collection activity that meets each of the following criteria:(1) The program identifies and collects amounts arising from delinquent court-ordered debt, whether or not a warrant has been issued against the alleged violator.(2) The program complies with the requirements of subdivision (b) of Section 1463.010.(3) The program engages in each of the following activities:(A) Attempts telephone contact with delinquent debtors for whom the program has a telephone number to inform them of their delinquent status and payment options.(B) Notifies delinquent debtors for whom the program has an address in writing of their outstanding obligation within 95 days of delinquency.(C) Generates internal monthly reports to track collections data, such as age of debt and delinquent amounts outstanding.(D) Uses Department of Motor Vehicles information to locate delinquent debtors.(E) Accepts payment of delinquent debt by credit card.(4) The program engages in at least five of the following activities:(A) Sends delinquent debt to the Franchise Tax Boards Court-Ordered Debt Collections Program.(B) Sends delinquent debt to the Franchise Tax Boards Interagency Intercept Collections Program.(C) Initiates drivers license suspension or hold actions when appropriate for a failure to appear in court.(D) Contracts with one or more private debt collectors to collect delinquent debt.(E) Sends monthly bills or account statements to all delinquent debtors.(F) Contracts with local, regional, state, or national skip tracing or locator resources or services to locate delinquent debtors.(G) Coordinates with the probation department to locate debtors who may be on formal or informal probation.(H) Uses Employment Development Department employment and wage information to collect delinquent debt.(I) Establishes wage and bank account garnishments where appropriate.(J) Places liens on real property owned by delinquent debtors when appropriate.(K) Uses an automated dialer or automatic call distribution system to manage telephone calls.SEC. 34. Section 1464 of the Penal Code is amended to read:1464. (a) (1) Subject to Chapter 12 (commencing with Section 76000) of Title 8 of the Government Code, and except as otherwise provided in this section, there shall be levied a state penalty in the amount of ten dollars ($10) for every ten dollars ($10), or part of ten dollars ($10), upon every fine, penalty, or forfeiture imposed and collected by the courts for all criminal offenses, including all offenses, except parking offenses as defined in subdivision (i) of Section 1463, involving a violation of a section of the Vehicle Code or any local ordinance adopted pursuant to the Vehicle Code.(2) Any bail schedule adopted pursuant to Section 1269b or bail schedule adopted by the Judicial Council pursuant to Section 40310 of the Vehicle Code may include the necessary amount to pay the penalties established by this section and Chapter 12 (commencing with Section 76000) of Title 8 of the Government Code, and the surcharge authorized by Section 1465.7, for all matters where a personal appearance is not mandatory and the bail is posted primarily to guarantee payment of the fine.(3) The penalty imposed by this section does not apply to the following:(A) Any restitution fine.(B) Any penalty authorized by Chapter 12 (commencing with Section 76000) of Title 8 of the Government Code.(C) Any parking offense subject to Article 3 (commencing with Section 40200) of Chapter 1 of Division 17 of the Vehicle Code.(D) The state surcharge authorized by Section 1465.7.(b) Where multiple offenses are involved, the state penalty shall be based upon the total fine or bail for each case. When a fine is suspended, in whole or in part, the state penalty shall be reduced in proportion to the suspension.(c) When any deposited bail is made for an offense to which this section applies, and for which a court appearance is not mandatory, the person making the deposit shall also deposit a sufficient amount to include the state penalty prescribed by this section for forfeited bail. If bail is returned, the state penalty paid thereon pursuant to this section shall also be returned.(d) In any case where a person convicted of any offense, to which this section applies, is in prison until the fine is satisfied, the judge may waive all or any part of the state penalty, the payment of which would work a hardship on the person convicted or his or her immediate family.(e) After a determination by the court of the amount due, the clerk of the court shall collect the penalty and transmit it to the county treasury. The portion thereof attributable to Chapter 12 (commencing with Section 76000) of Title 8 of the Government Code shall be deposited in the appropriate county fund and 70 percent of the balance shall then be transmitted to the State Treasury, to be deposited in the State Penalty Fund, which is hereby created, and 30 percent to remain on deposit in the county general fund. The transmission to the State Treasury shall be carried out in the same manner as fines collected for the state by a county.(f) Notwithstanding any other law, the Director of Finance shall provide a schedule to the Controller for all transfers of funds made available by the Budget Act from the State Penalty Fund in the current fiscal year.(g) Upon the order of the Department of Finance, sufficient funds may be transferred by the Controller from the General Fund for cashflow needs of the State Penalty Fund. A cashflow loan made pursuant to this provision shall be short term and does not constitute a General Fund expenditure. A cashflow loan and the repayment of a cashflow loan does not affect the General Fund reserve.SEC. 35. Section 1464.2 of the Penal Code is repealed.SEC. 36. Section 1557 of the Penal Code is amended to read:1557. (a) This section shall apply when this state or a city, county, or city and county employs a person to travel to a foreign jurisdiction outside this state for the express purpose of returning a fugitive from justice to this state when the Governor of this state, in the exercise of the authority conferred by Section 2 of Article IV of the United States Constitution, or by the laws of this state, has demanded the surrender of the fugitive from the executive authority of any state of the United States, or of any foreign government.(b) Upon the approval of the Governor, the Controller shall audit and pay out of the State Treasury as provided in subdivision (c) or (d) the accounts of the person employed to bring back the fugitive, including any money paid by that person for all of the following:(1) Money paid to the authorities of a sister state for statutory fees in connection with the detention and surrender of the fugitive.(2) Money paid to the authorities of the sister state for the subsistence of the fugitive while detained by the sister state without payment of which the authorities of the sister state refuse to surrender the fugitive.(3) Where it is necessary to present witnesses or evidence in the sister state, without which the sister state would not surrender the fugitive, the cost of producing the witnesses or evidence in the sister state.(4) Where the appearance of witnesses has been authorized in advance by the Governor, who may authorize the appearance in unusual cases where the interests of justice would be served, the cost of producing witnesses to appear in the sister state on behalf of the fugitive in opposition to his or her extradition.(c) No amount shall be paid out of the State Treasury to a city, county, or city and county except as follows:(1) When a warrant has been issued by any magistrate after the filing of a complaint or the finding of an indictment and its presentation to the court and filing by the clerk, and the person named therein as defendant is a fugitive from justice who has been found and arrested in any state of the United States or in any foreign government, the county auditor shall draw his or her warrant and the county treasurer shall pay to the person designated to return the fugitive, the amount of expenses estimated by the district attorney to be incurred in the return of the fugitive.(2) If the person designated to return the fugitive is a city officer, the city officer authorized to draw warrants on the city treasury shall draw his or her warrant and the city treasurer shall pay to that person the amount of expenses estimated by the district attorney to be incurred in the return of the fugitive.(3) The person designated to return the fugitive shall make no disbursements from any funds advanced without a receipt being obtained therefor showing the amount, the purpose for which the sum is expended, the place, the date, and to whom paid.(4) A receipt obtained pursuant to paragraph (3) shall be filed by the person designated to return the fugitive with the county auditor or appropriate city officer or the Controller, as the case may be, together with an affidavit by the person that the expenditures represented by the receipts were necessarily made in the performance of duty, and when the advance has been made by the county or city treasurer to the person designated to return the fugitive, and has thereafter been audited by the Controller, the payment thereof shall be made by the State Treasurer to the county or city treasury that has advanced the funds.(5) If the expenses of the person employed to bring back the fugitive are less than the amount advanced on the recommendation of the district attorney, the person employed to bring back the fugitive shall return to the county or city treasurer, as appropriate, the difference in amount between the aggregate amount of receipts so filed by him or her, and the amount advanced to the person upon the recommendation of the district attorney.(6) When no advance has been made to the person designated to return the fugitive, the sums expended by him or her, when audited by the Controller, shall be paid by the State Treasurer to the person so designated.(7) Any payments made out of the State Treasury pursuant to this section shall be made from appropriations for the fiscal year in which those payments are made.(d) A city, county, or other jurisdiction shall not file, and the state shall not reimburse, a claim pursuant to this section that is presented to the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation or to any other agency or department of the state more than six months after the close of the month in which the costs were incurred. Notwithstanding any other law, a person transporting a fugitive as authorized by the Governor pursuant to this section shall be reimbursed according to the rates in paragraphs (1) to (5), inclusive. Rates and rules for reimbursement of travel claims not specified in paragraphs (1) to (5), inclusive, shall be consistent with the rules of the Department of General Services.(1) Reimbursement for breakfast is up to four dollars ($4).(2) Reimbursement for lunch is up to seven dollars and twenty-five cents ($7.25).(3) Reimbursement for dinner is up to twelve dollars ($12).(4) Reimbursement for incidental expenses is up to three dollars and seventy-five cents ($3.75).(5) Reimbursement for a meal for a prisoner, patient, ward, or fugitive is up to the amounts specified in paragraphs (1) to (3), inclusive.SEC. 37. Section 2801 of the Penal Code is amended to read:2801. The purposes of the authority are:(a) To develop and operate industrial, agricultural, and service enterprises employing prisoners in institutions under the jurisdiction of the Department of Corrections, which enterprises may be located either within those institutions or elsewhere, all as may be determined by the authority.(b) To create and maintain working conditions within the enterprises as much like those which prevail in private industry as possible, to assure prisoners employed therein the opportunity to work productively, to earn funds, and to acquire or improve effective work habits and occupational skills.(c) To operate a work program for prisoners which will ultimately be self-supporting by generating sufficient funds from the sale of products and services to pay all the expenses of the program, and one which will provide goods and services which are or will be used by the Department of Corrections, thereby reducing the cost of its operation.(1) This subdivision does not require immediate cash availability for funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above amounts established in the Budget Act, or as determined by the Board of Administration of the Public Employees Retirement System, or the Director of Finance for the fiscal year.(2) The Prison Industry Authority shall not establish cash reserves to support funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above the amounts specified in paragraph (1).SEC. 38. Section 2808 of the Penal Code is amended to read:2808. The board, in the exercise of its duties, shall have all of the powers and do all of the things that the board of directors of a private corporation would do, except as specifically limited in this article, including, but not limited to, all of the following:(a) To enter into contracts and leases, execute leases, pledge the equipment, inventory and supplies under the control of the authority and the anticipated future receipts of any enterprise under the jurisdiction of the authority as collateral for loans, and execute other necessary instruments and documents.(b) To assure that all funds received by the authority are kept in commercial accounts according to standard accounting practices.(c) To arrange for an independent annual audit.(d) To review and approve the annual budget for the authority, in order to assure that the solvency of the Prison Industries Revolving Fund is maintained.(1) This subdivision does not require immediate cash availability for funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above amounts established in the Budget Act, or as determined by the Board of Administration of the Public Employees Retirement System, or the Director of Finance for the fiscal year.(2) The Prison Industry Authority shall not establish cash reserves to support funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above the amounts specified in paragraph (1).(e) To contract to employ a general manager to serve as the chief administrative officer of the authority. The general manager shall serve at the pleasure of the chairperson. The general manager shall have wide and successful experience with a productive enterprise, and have a demonstrated appreciation of the problems associated with prison management.(f) To apply for and administer grants and contracts of all kinds.(g) To establish, notwithstanding any other provision of law, procedures governing the purchase of raw materials, component parts, and any other goods and services which may be needed by the authority or in the operation of any enterprise under its jurisdiction. Those procedures shall contain provisions for appeal to the board from any action taken in connection with them.(h) To establish, expand, diminish, or discontinue industrial, agricultural and service enterprises under the authoritys jurisdiction to enable it to operate as a self-supporting enterprise, to provide as much employment for inmates as is feasible, and to provide diversified work activities to minimize the impact on existing private industry in the state.(i) To hold public hearings pursuant to subdivision (h) to provide an opportunity for persons or organizations who may be affected to appear and present testimony concerning the plans and activities of the authority. The authority shall assure adequate public notice of those hearings. No new industrial, agricultural, or service enterprise which involves a gross annual production of more than fifty thousand dollars ($50,000) shall be established unless and until a hearing concerning the enterprise has been held by a committee of persons designated by the board including at least two board members. The board shall take into consideration the effect of a proposed enterprise on California industry and shall not approve the establishment of the enterprise if the board determines it would have a comprehensive and substantial adverse impact on California industry which cannot be mitigated.(j) To periodically determine the prices at which activities, supplies, and services shall be sold.(k) To report to the Legislature in writing, on or before February 1 of each year, regarding:(1) The financial activity and condition of each enterprise under its jurisdiction.(2) The plans of the board regarding any significant changes in existing operations.(3) The plans of the board regarding the development of new enterprises.(4) A breakdown, by institution, of the number of prisoners at each institution, working in enterprises under the jurisdiction of the authority, said number to indicate the number of prisoners which are not working full time.SEC. 39. Section 3453 of the Penal Code is amended to read:3453. Postrelease community supervision shall include the following conditions:(a) The person shall be informed of the conditions of release.(b) The person shall obey all laws.(c) The person shall report to the supervising county agency within two working days of release from custody.(d) The person shall follow the directives and instructions of the supervising county agency.(e) The person shall report to the supervising county agency as directed by that agency.(f) The person, and his or her residence and possessions, shall be subject to search at any time of the day or night, with or without a warrant, by an agent of the supervising county agency or by a peace officer.(g) The person shall waive extradition if found outside the state.(h) (1) The person shall inform the supervising county agency of the persons place of residence and shall notify the supervising county agency of any change in residence, or the establishment of a new residence if the person was previously transient, within five working days of the change.(2) For purposes of this section, residence means one or more locations at which a person regularly resides, regardless of the number of days or nights spent there, such as a shelter or structure that can be located by a street address, including, but not limited to, a house, apartment building, motel, hotel, homeless shelter, and recreational or other vehicle. If the person has no residence, he or she shall inform the supervising county agency that he or she is transient.(i) (1) The person shall inform the supervising county agency of the persons place of employment, education, or training. The person shall inform the supervising agency of any pending or anticipated change in employment, education, or training.(2) If the person enters into new employment, he or she shall inform the supervising county agency of the new employment within three business days of that entry.(j) The person shall immediately inform the supervising county agency if he or she is arrested or receives a citation.(k) The person shall obtain the permission of the supervising county agency to travel more than 50 miles from the persons place of residence.(l) The person shall obtain a travel pass from the supervising county agency before he or she may leave the county or state for more than two days.(m) The person shall not be in the presence of a firearm or ammunition, or any item that appears to be a firearm or ammunition.(n) The person shall not possess, use, or have access to any weapon listed in Section 16140, subdivision (c) of Section 16170, Section 16220, 16260, 16320, 16330, or 16340, subdivision (b) of Section 16460, Section 16470, subdivision (f) of Section 16520, or Section 16570, 16740, 16760, 16830, 16920, 16930, 16940, 17090, 17125, 17160, 17170, 17180, 17190, 17200, 17270, 17280, 17330, 17350, 17360, 17700, 17705, 17710, 17715, 17720, 17725, 17730, 17735, 17740, 17745, 19100, 19200, 19205, 20200, 20310, 20410, 20510, 20610, 20611, 20710, 20910, 21110, 21310, 21810, 22010, 22015, 22210, 22215, 22410, 24310, 24410, 24510, 24610, 24680, 24710, 30210, 30215, 31500, 32310, 32400, 32405, 32410, 32415, 32420, 32425, 32430 32435, 32440, 32445, 32450, 32900, 33215, 33220, 33225, or 33600.(o) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2) and subdivision (p), the person shall not possess a knife with a blade longer than two inches.(2) The person may possess a kitchen knife with a blade longer than two inches if the knife is used and kept only in the kitchen of the persons residence.(p) The person may use a knife with a blade longer than two inches, if the use is required for that persons employment, the use has been approved in a document issued by the supervising county agency, and the person possesses the document of approval at all times and makes it available for inspection.(q) The person shall waive any right to a court hearing prior to the imposition of a period of flash incarceration in a city or county jail of not more than 10 consecutive days for any violation of his or her postrelease supervision conditions.(r) The person shall participate in rehabilitation programming as recommended by the supervising county agency.(s) The person shall be subject to arrest with or without a warrant by a peace officer employed by the supervising county agency or, at the direction of the supervising county agency, by any peace officer when there is probable cause to believe the person has violated the terms and conditions of his or her release.(t) The person shall pay court-ordered restitution and restitution fines in the same manner as a person placed on probation.SEC. 40. Section 4032 is added to the Penal Code, to read:4032. (a) For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:(1) In-person visit means an on-site visit that may include barriers. In-person visits include interactions in which an inmate has physical contact with a visitor, the inmate is able to see a visitor through a barrier, or the inmate is otherwise in a room with a visitor without physical contact. In-person visit does not include an interaction between an inmate and a visitor through the use of an on-site, two-way, audio-video terminal.(2) Video visitation means interaction between an inmate and a member of the public through the means of an audio-visual communication device when the member of the public is located at a local detention facility or at a remote location.(3) Local detention facility has the same meaning as defined in Section 6031.4.(b) A local detention facility that offered in-person visitation as of January 1, 2017, may not convert to video visitation only.(c) A local detention facility shall not charge for visitation when visitors are onsite and participating in either in-person or video visitation. For purposes of this subdivision, onsite is defined as at the location where the inmate is housed.(d) If a local detention facility offered video visitation only as of January 1, 2017, on-site video visitation shall be offered free of charge, and the first hour of remote video visitation per week shall be offered free of charge.SEC. 41. Section 5075 of the Penal Code is amended to read:5075. (a) Commencing July 1, 2005, there is hereby created the Board of Parole Hearings. As of July 1, 2005, any reference to the Board of Prison Terms in this or any other code refers to the Board of Parole Hearings. As of that date, the Board of Prison Terms is abolished.(b) (1) The Governor shall appoint 15 commissioners, subject to Senate confirmation, pursuant to this section. These commissioners shall be appointed and trained to hear only adult matters. Except as specified in paragraph (2), commissioners shall hold office for terms of three years, each term to commence on the expiration date of the predecessor. Any appointment to a vacancy that occurs for any reason other than expiration of the term shall be for the remainder of the unexpired term. Commissioners are eligible for reappointment.(2) (A) The term for the commissioner whose position was created by the act that added this paragraph shall begin on July 1, 2017.(B) Two commissioners whose terms begin on July 1, 2017, shall be appointed for a term of one year. One of these commissioners may, but is not required to, be the commissioner whose position was created by the act that added this paragraph.(C) Three commissioners, as selected by the Governor, whose terms began on July 1, 2016, shall serve a reduced term of two years.(D) Terms of office subsequent to those described in subparagraphs (B) and (C) shall be governed by paragraph (1).(3) The selection of persons and their appointment by the Governor and confirmation by the Senate shall reflect as nearly as possible a cross section of the racial, sexual, economic, and geographic features of the population of the state.(c) The chair of the board shall be designated by the Governor periodically. The Governor may appoint an executive officer of the board, subject to Senate confirmation, who shall hold office at the pleasure of the Governor. The executive officer shall be the administrative head of the board and shall exercise all duties and functions necessary to insure that the responsibilities of the board are successfully discharged. The secretary shall be the appointing authority for all civil service positions of employment with the board.(d) Each commissioner shall participate in hearings on each workday, except when it is necessary for a commissioner to attend training, en banc hearings or full board meetings, or other administrative business requiring the participation of the commissioner. For purposes of this subdivision, these hearings shall include parole consideration hearings, parole rescission hearings, and parole progress hearings.SEC. 42. Section 6031 of the Penal Code is amended to read:6031. The Board of State and Community Corrections shall, at a minimum, inspect each local detention facility in the state biennially.SEC. 43. Section 6031.1 of the Penal Code is amended to read:6031.1. (a) Inspections of local detention facilities shall, at a minimum, be made biennially. Inspections of privately operated work furlough facilities and programs shall be made biennially unless the work furlough administrator requests an earlier inspection. Inspections shall include, but not be limited to, the following:(1) Health and safety inspections conducted pursuant to Section 101045 of the Health and Safety Code.(2) Fire suppression preplanning inspections by the local fire department.(3) Security, rehabilitation programs, recreation, treatment of persons confined in the facilities, and personnel training by the staff of the Board of State and Community Corrections.(4) The types and availability of visitation, including, but not limited to, the mode of visitation, visitation hours, time inmates are allowed for visitation, and any restrictions on inmate visitation.(5) Whether the county in which the facility is located received state funding for jail construction pursuant to Chapter 7 of the Statutes of 2007, Chapter 42 of the Statutes of 2012, Chapter 37 of the Statutes of 2014, or Chapter 34 of the Statutes of 2016. For counties that received funding, whether the county and facility are in compliance with the applicable requirements and restrictions of that funding.(b) Reports of each facilitys inspection shall be furnished to the official in charge of the local detention facility or, in the case of a privately operated facility, the work furlough administrator, the local governing body, the grand jury, and the presiding judge of the superior court in the county where the facility is located. These reports shall set forth the areas wherein the facility has complied and has failed to comply with the minimum standards established pursuant to Section 6030.(c) All reports completed pursuant to this section shall be posted on the Board of State and Community Corrections Internet Web site in a manner in which they are accessible to the public.SEC. 44. Section 29800 of the Penal Code is amended to read:29800. (a) (1) Any person who has been convicted of, or has an outstanding warrant for, a felony under the laws of the United States, the State of California, or any other state, government, or country, or of an offense enumerated in subdivision (a), (b), or (d) of Section 23515, or who is addicted to the use of any narcotic drug, and who owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control any firearm is guilty of a felony.(2) Any person who has two or more convictions for violating paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 417 and who owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control any firearm is guilty of a felony.(b) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), any person who has been convicted of a felony or of an offense enumerated in Section 23515, when that conviction results from certification by the juvenile court for prosecution as an adult in an adult court under Section 707 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, and who owns or has in possession or under custody or control any firearm is guilty of a felony.(c) Subdivision (a) shall not apply to a person who has been convicted of a felony under the laws of the United States unless either of the following criteria is satisfied:(1) Conviction of a like offense under California law can only result in imposition of felony punishment.(2) The defendant was sentenced to a federal correctional facility for more than 30 days, or received a fine of more than one thousand dollars ($1,000), or received both punishments.SEC. 45. Section 29805 of the Penal Code, as amended November 8, 2016, by initiative Proposition 63, Section 11.2, is amended to read:29805. Except as provided in Section 29855 or subdivision (a) of Section 29800, any person who has been convicted of, or has an outstanding warrant for, a misdemeanor violation of Section 71, 76, 136.1, 136.5, or 140, subdivision (d) of Section 148, Section 171b, paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 171c, 171d, 186.28, 240, 241, 242, 243, 243.4, 244.5, 245, 245.5, 246.3, 247, 273.5, 273.6, 417, 417.6, 422, 626.9, 646.9, or 830.95, subdivision (a) of former Section 12100, as that section read at any time from when it was enacted by Section 3 of Chapter 1386 of the Statutes of 1988 to when it was repealed by Section 18 of Chapter 23 of the Statutes of 1994, Section 17500, 17510, 25300, 25800, 30315, or 32625, subdivision (b) or (d) of Section 26100, or Section 27510, or Section 8100, 8101, or 8103 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, any firearm-related offense pursuant to Sections 871.5 and 1001.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, Section 490.2 if the property taken was a firearm, or of the conduct punished in subdivision (c) of Section 27590, and who, within 10 years of the conviction, or if the individual has an outstanding warrant, owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control, any firearm is guilty of a public offense, which shall be punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year or in the state prison, by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that imprisonment and fine. The court, on forms prescribed by the Department of Justice, shall notify the department of persons subject to this section. However, the prohibition in this section may be reduced, eliminated, or conditioned as provided in Section 29855 or 29860.SEC. 46. Section 29805 of the Penal Code, as amended by Section 2 of Chapter 47 of the Statutes of 2016, is amended to read:29805. (a) Except as provided in Section 29855 or subdivision (a) of Section 29800, any person who has been convicted of, or has an outstanding warrant for, a misdemeanor violation of Section 71, 76, 136.1, 136.5, or 140, subdivision (d) of Section 148, subdivision (f) of Section 148.5, Section 171b, paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 171c, Section 171d, 186.28, 240, 241, 242, 243, 243.4, 244.5, 245, 245.5, 246.3, 247, 273.5, 273.6, 417, 417.6, 422, 626.9, 646.9, or 830.95, subdivision (a) of former Section 12100, as that section read at any time from when it was enacted by Section 3 of Chapter 1386 of the Statutes of 1988 to when it was repealed by Section 18 of Chapter 23 of the Statutes of 1994, Section 17500, 17510, 25300, 25800, 30315, or 32625, subdivision (b) or (d) of Section 26100, or Section 27510, or Section 8100, 8101, or 8103 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, any firearm-related offense pursuant to Sections 871.5 and 1001.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or of the conduct punished in subdivision (c) of Section 27590, and who, within 10 years of the conviction, or if the individual has an outstanding warrant, owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control, any firearm is guilty of a public offense, which shall be punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year or in the state prison, by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that imprisonment and fine.(b) The court, on forms prescribed by the Department of Justice, shall notify the department of persons subject to this section. However, the prohibition in this section may be reduced, eliminated, or conditioned as provided in Section 29855 or 29860.SEC. 47. Section 30680 of the Penal Code, as added by Section 2 of Chapter 40 of the Statutes of 2016, is amended to read:30680. Section 30605 does not apply to the possession of an assault weapon by a person who has possessed the assault weapon prior to January 1, 2017, if all of the following are applicable:(a) Prior to January 1, 2017, the person would have been eligible to register that assault weapon pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 30900.(b) The person lawfully possessed that assault weapon prior to January 1, 2017.(c) The person registers the assault weapon by July 1, 2018, in accordance with subdivision (b) of Section 30900.SEC. 48. Section 30680 of the Penal Code, as added by Section 2 of Chapter 48 of the Statutes of 2016, is amended to read:30680. Section 30605 does not apply to the possession of an assault weapon by a person who has possessed the assault weapon prior to January 1, 2017, if all of the following are applicable:(a) Prior to January 1, 2017, the person was eligible to register that assault weapon pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 30900.(b) The person lawfully possessed that assault weapon prior to January 1, 2017.(c) The person registers the assault weapon by July 1, 2018, in accordance with subdivision (b) of Section 30900.SEC. 49. Section 30900 of the Penal Code is amended to read:30900. (a) (1) Any person who, prior to June 1, 1989, lawfully possessed an assault weapon, as defined in former Section 12276, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 19 of the Statutes of 1989, shall register the firearm by January 1, 1991, and any person who lawfully possessed an assault weapon prior to the date it was specified as an assault weapon pursuant to former Section 12276.5, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 19 of the Statutes of 1989 or as amended by Section 1 of Chapter 874 of the Statutes of 1990 or Section 3 of Chapter 954 of the Statutes of 1991, shall register the firearm within 90 days with the Department of Justice pursuant to those procedures that the department may establish.(2) Except as provided in Section 30600, any person who lawfully possessed an assault weapon prior to the date it was defined as an assault weapon pursuant to former Section 12276.1, as it read in Section 7 of Chapter 129 of the Statutes of 1999, and which was not specified as an assault weapon under former Section 12276, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 19 of the Statutes of 1989 or as amended at any time before January 1, 2001, or former Section 12276.5, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 19 of the Statutes of 1989 or as amended at any time before January 1, 2001, shall register the firearm by January 1, 2001, with the department pursuant to those procedures that the department may establish.(3) The registration shall contain a description of the firearm that identifies it uniquely, including all identification marks, the full name, address, date of birth, and thumbprint of the owner, and any other information that the department may deem appropriate.(4) The department may charge a fee for registration of up to twenty dollars ($20) per person but not to exceed the reasonable processing costs of the department. After the department establishes fees sufficient to reimburse the department for processing costs, fees charged shall increase at a rate not to exceed the legislatively approved annual cost-of-living adjustment for the departments budget or as otherwise increased through the Budget Act but not to exceed the reasonable costs of the department. The fees shall be deposited into the Dealers Record of Sale Special Account.(b) (1) Any person who, from January 1, 2001, to December 31, 2016, inclusive, lawfully possessed an assault weapon that does not have a fixed magazine, as defined in Section 30515, including those weapons with an ammunition feeding device that can be readily removed from the firearm with the use of a tool, shall register the firearm before July 1, 2018, but not before the effective date of the regulations adopted pursuant to paragraph (5), with the department pursuant to those procedures that the department may establish by regulation pursuant to paragraph (5).(2) Registrations shall be submitted electronically via the Internet utilizing a public-facing application made available by the department.(3) The registration shall contain a description of the firearm that identifies it uniquely, including all identification marks, the date the firearm was acquired, the name and address of the individual from whom, or business from which, the firearm was acquired, as well as the registrants full name, address, telephone number, date of birth, sex, height, weight, eye color, hair color, and California drivers license number or California identification card number.(4) The department may charge a fee in an amount of up to fifteen dollars ($15) per person but not to exceed the reasonable processing costs of the department. The fee shall be paid by debit or credit card at the time that the electronic registration is submitted to the department. The fee shall be deposited in the Dealers Record of Sale Special Account to be used for purposes of this section.(5) The department shall adopt regulations for the purpose of implementing this subdivision. These regulations are exempt from the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code).SEC. 50. Section 10340.1 is added to the Public Contract Code, to read:10340.1. (a) Notwithstanding existing law, the State Department of State Hospitals may enter into an agreement for the purposes of continued operation of the existing central utility plant at the Metropolitan State Hospital without having to go through a competitive bid process.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until June 30, 2018, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 51. Section 13365 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:13365. (a) Upon receipt of notification of a violation of subdivision (a) of Section 40508, the department shall take the following action:(1) If the notice is given pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 40509, if the driving record of the person who is the subject of the notice contains one or more prior notifications of a violation issued pursuant to Section 40509 or 40509.5, and if the persons driving privilege is not currently suspended under this section, the department shall suspend the driving privilege of the person.(2) If the notice is given pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 40509.5, and if the driving privilege of the person who is the subject of the notice is not currently suspended under this section, the department shall suspend the driving privilege of the person.(b) (1) A suspension under this section shall not be effective before a date 60 days after the date of receipt, by the department, of the notice given specified in subdivision (a), and the notice of suspension shall not be mailed by the department before a date 30 days after receipt of the notice given specified in subdivision (a).(2) The suspension shall continue until the suspended persons driving record does not contain any notification of a violation of subdivision (a) of Section 40508.SEC. 52. Section 13365.2 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:13365.2. (a) Upon receipt of the notice required under subdivision (b) of Section 40509.5, the department shall suspend the driving privilege of the person upon whom notice was received and shall continue that suspension until receipt of the certificate required under that subdivision.(b) The suspension required under subdivision (a) shall become effective on the 45th day after the mailing of written notice by the department.SEC. 53. Section 40509 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:40509. (a) Except as required under subdivision (b) of Section 40509.5, if a person has violated a written promise to appear or a lawfully granted continuance of his or her promise to appear in court or before the person authorized to receive a deposit of bail, or violated an order to appear in court, including, but not limited to, a written notice to appear issued in accordance with Section 40518, the magistrate or clerk of the court may give notice of the failure to appear to the department for any violation of this code, or any violation that can be heard by a juvenile traffic hearing referee pursuant to Section 256 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or any violation of any other statute relating to the safe operation of a vehicle, except violations not required to be reported pursuant to paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (6), and (7) of subdivision (b) of Section 1803. If thereafter the case in which the promise was given is adjudicated or the person who has violated the court order appears in court or otherwise satisfies the order of the court, the magistrate or clerk of the court hearing the case shall sign and file with the department a certificate to that effect.(b) (1) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), the court may notify the department of the total amount of bail, fines, assessments, and fees authorized or required by this code, including Section 40508.5, that are unpaid by a person.(2) Once a court has established the amount of bail, fines, assessments, and fees, and notified the department, the court shall not further enhance or modify that amount.(3) This subdivision applies only to violations of this code that do not require a mandatory court appearance, are not contested by the defendant, and do not require proof of correction certified by the court.(c) Any violation subject to Section 40001 that is the responsibility of the owner of the vehicle shall not be reported under this section.SEC. 54. Section 40509.5 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:40509.5. (a) Except as required under subdivision (b), if, with respect to an offense described in subdivision (d), a person has violated his or her written promise to appear or a lawfully granted continuance of his or her promise to appear in court or before the person authorized to receive a deposit of bail, or violated an order to appear in court, including, but not limited to, a written notice to appear issued in accordance with Section 40518, the magistrate or clerk of the court may give notice of the failure to appear to the department for a violation of this code, a violation that can be heard by a juvenile traffic hearing referee pursuant to Section 256 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or a violation of any other statute relating to the safe operation of a vehicle, except violations not required to be reported pursuant to paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (6), and (7) of subdivision (b) of Section 1803. If thereafter the case in which the promise was given is adjudicated or the person who has violated the court order appears in court and satisfies the order of the court, the magistrate or clerk of the court hearing the case shall sign and file with the department a certificate to that effect.(b) If a person charged with a violation of Section 23152 or 23153, or Section 191.5 of the Penal Code, or subdivision (a) of Section 192.5 of that code has violated a lawfully granted continuance of his or her promise to appear in court or is released from custody on his or her own recognizance and fails to appear in court or before the person authorized to receive a deposit of bail, or violated an order to appear in court, the magistrate or clerk of the court shall give notice to the department of the failure to appear. If thereafter the case in which the notice was given is adjudicated or the person who has violated the court order appears in court or otherwise satisfies the order of the court, the magistrate or clerk of the court hearing the case shall prepare and forward to the department a certificate to that effect.(c) Except as required under subdivision (b), the court shall mail a courtesy warning notice to the defendant by first-class mail at the address shown on the notice to appear, at least 10 days before sending a notice to the department under this section.(d) If the court notifies the department of a failure to appear pursuant to subdivision (a), no arrest warrant shall be issued for an alleged violation of subdivision (a) of Section 40508, unless one of the following criteria is met:(1) The alleged underlying offense is a misdemeanor or felony.(2) The alleged underlying offense is a violation of any provision of Division 12 (commencing with Section 24000), Division 13 (commencing with Section 29000), or Division 15 (commencing with Section 35000), required to be reported pursuant to Section 1803.(3) The drivers record does not show that the defendant has a valid California drivers license.(4) The drivers record shows an unresolved charge that the defendant is in violation of his or her written promise to appear for one or more other alleged violations of the law.(e) Except as required under subdivision (b), in addition to the proceedings described in this section, the court may elect to notify the department pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 40509.(f) A violation subject to Section 40001 that is the responsibility of the owner of the vehicle shall not be reported under this section.SEC. 55. Section 209 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:209. (a) (1) The judge of the juvenile court of a county, or, if there is more than one judge, any of the judges of the juvenile court shall, at least annually, inspect any jail, juvenile hall, or special purpose juvenile hall that, in the preceding calendar year, was used for confinement, for more than 24 hours, of any minor.(2) The judge shall promptly notify the operator of the jail, juvenile hall, or special purpose juvenile hall of any observed noncompliance with minimum standards for juvenile facilities adopted by the Board of State and Community Corrections under Section 210. Based on the facilitys subsequent compliance with the provisions of subdivisions (d) and (e), the judge shall thereafter make a finding whether the facility is a suitable place for the confinement of minors and shall note the finding in the minutes of the court.(3) The Board of State and Community Corrections shall conduct a biennial inspection of each jail, juvenile hall, lockup, or special purpose juvenile hall situated in this state that, during the preceding calendar year, was used for confinement, for more than 24 hours, of any minor. The board shall promptly notify the operator of any jail, juvenile hall, lockup, or special purpose juvenile hall of any noncompliance found, upon inspection, with any of the minimum standards for juvenile facilities adopted by the Board of State and Community Corrections under Section 210 or 210.2.(4) If either a judge of the juvenile court or the board, after inspection of a jail, juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, or lockup, finds that it is not being operated and maintained as a suitable place for the confinement of minors, the juvenile court or the board shall give notice of its finding to all persons having authority to confine minors pursuant to this chapter and commencing 60 days thereafter the facility shall not be used for confinement of minors until the time the judge or board, as the case may be, finds, after reinspection of the facility that the conditions that rendered the facility unsuitable have been remedied, and the facility is a suitable place for confinement of minors.(5) The custodian of each jail, juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, and lockup shall make any reports as may be requested by the board or the juvenile court to effectuate the purposes of this section.(b) (1) The Board of State and Community Corrections may inspect any law enforcement facility that contains a lockup for adults and that it has reason to believe may not be in compliance with the requirements of subdivision (d) of Section 207.1 or with the certification requirements or standards adopted under Section 210.2. A judge of the juvenile court shall conduct an annual inspection, either in person or through a delegated member of the appropriate county or regional juvenile justice commission, of any law enforcement facility that contains a lockup for adults which, in the preceding year, was used for the secure detention of any minor. If the law enforcement facility is observed, upon inspection, to be out of compliance with the requirements of subdivision (d) of Section 207.1, or with any standard adopted under Section 210.2, the board or the judge shall promptly notify the operator of the law enforcement facility of the specific points of noncompliance.(2) If either the judge or the board finds after inspection that the facility is not being operated and maintained in conformity with the requirements of subdivision (d) of Section 207.1 or with the certification requirements or standards adopted under Section 210.2, the juvenile court or the board shall give notice of its finding to all persons having authority to securely detain minors in the facility, and, commencing 60 days thereafter, the facility shall not be used for the secure detention of a minor until the time the judge or the board, as the case may be, finds, after reinspection, that the conditions that rendered the facility unsuitable have been remedied, and the facility is a suitable place for the confinement of minors in conformity with all requirements of law.(3) The custodian of each law enforcement facility that contains a lockup for adults shall make any report as may be requested by the board or by the juvenile court to effectuate the purposes of this subdivision.(c) The board shall collect biennial data on the number, place, and duration of confinements of minors in jails and lockups, as defined in subdivision (i) of Section 207.1, and shall publish biennially this information in the form as it deems appropriate for the purpose of providing public information on continuing compliance with the requirements of Section 207.1.(d) Except as provided in subdivision (e), a juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, law enforcement facility, or jail shall be unsuitable for the confinement of minors if it is not in compliance with one or more of the minimum standards for juvenile facilities adopted by the Board of State and Community Corrections under Section 210 or 210.2, and if, within 60 days of having received notice of noncompliance from the board or the judge of the juvenile court, the juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, law enforcement facility, or jail has failed to file an approved corrective action plan with the Board of State and Community Corrections to correct the condition or conditions of noncompliance of which it has been notified. The corrective action plan shall outline how the juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, law enforcement facility, or jail plans to correct the issue of noncompliance and give a reasonable timeframe, not to exceed 90 days, for resolution, that the board shall either approve or deny. In the event the juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, law enforcement facility, or jail fails to meet its commitment to resolve noncompliance issues outlined in its corrective action plan, the board shall make a determination of suitability at its next scheduled meeting.(e) If a juvenile hall is not in compliance with one or more of the minimum standards for juvenile facilities adopted by the Board of State and Community Corrections under Section 210, and where the noncompliance arises from sustained occupancy levels that are above the population capacity permitted by applicable minimum standards, the juvenile hall shall be unsuitable for the confinement of minors if the board or the judge of the juvenile court determines that conditions in the facility pose a serious risk to the health, safety, or welfare of minors confined in the facility. In making its determination of suitability, the board or the judge of the juvenile court shall consider, in addition to the noncompliance with minimum standards, the totality of conditions in the juvenile hall, including the extent and duration of overpopulation as well as staffing, program, physical plant, and medical and mental health care conditions in the facility. The Board of State and Community Corrections may develop guidelines and procedures for its determination of suitability in accordance with this subdivision and to assist counties in bringing their juvenile halls into full compliance with applicable minimum standards. This subdivision shall not be interpreted to exempt a juvenile hall from having to correct, in accordance with the provisions of subdivision (d), any minimum standard violations that are not directly related to overpopulation of the facility.(f) In accordance with the federal Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention Act of 2002 (42 U.S.C. Sec. 5601 et seq.), the Corrections Standards Authority shall inspect and collect relevant data from any facility that may be used for the secure detention of minors.(g) All reports and notices of findings prepared by the Board of State and Community Corrections pursuant to this section shall be posted on the Board of State and Community Corrections Internet Web site in a manner in which they are accessible to the public.SEC. 56. Section 270 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is repealed.SEC. 57. Section 270 is added to the Welfare and Institutions Code, to read:270. The chief probation officer shall be appointed and compensation for the position shall be determined as provided in Chapter 16 (commencing with Section 27770) of Part 3 of Division 2 of Title 3 of the Government Code.SEC. 58. Section 271 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is repealed.SEC. 59. Section 271 is added to the Welfare and Institutions Code, to read:271. In counties having charters that provide a method of appointment and tenure of office for the superintendent, matron, and other employees of the juvenile hall, the charter provisions shall control as to those matters and, in counties that have established or hereafter establish merit or civil service systems governing the methods of appointment and the tenure of office for the superintendent, matrons, and other employees of the juvenile hall, the provisions of the merit or civil service systems shall control as to those matters. In all other counties, these matters shall be controlled exclusively by the provisions of this code.SEC. 60. Section 1982 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:1982. (a) The Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, Division of Juvenile Justice, shall provide an annual report, commencing July 10, 2011, and annually thereafter, for the preceding fiscal year, with information sorted by county, to the Department of Finance that includes, but is not limited to, the following:(1) Identifying information of each ward discharged from a Division of Juvenile Justice facility on or after 90 days after the enactment of this section, excluding parole violators who were originally released to parole on or after 90 days after the enactment of this section, and the date each ward was released to local supervision.(2) The name of each parolee recalled pursuant to Section 731.1 on or after 90 days after the enactment of this section, the remaining term of supervision, and the date each ward was recalled.(b) (1) The Board of State and Community Corrections shall provide an annual report, commencing on July 10, 2011, and annually thereafter, for the preceding fiscal year, with information sorted by county, to the Department of Finance that includes, but is not limited to, the following: identifying information of each discharged ward returned to a local juvenile detention facility for violating a condition of court-ordered supervision that occurred during the first 24 months after the wards initial release to local supervision, and the number of months each violator was housed in a local juvenile detention facility. The Board of State and Community Corrections may audit the information included in the annual report required by this section.(2) A county that does not submit data pursuant to this subdivision may not receive funding pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 1984.(c) For the purposes of this section, identifying information means a unique identifier, which may include the wards initials, that allows the Department of Finance to reconcile information provided by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, Division of Juvenile Justice, pursuant to subdivision (a) with information provided by the Board of State and Community Corrections pursuant to subdivision (b), while preserving the confidentiality of the ward. The reports created pursuant to this section shall not be considered record information within the meaning of Section 11075 of the Penal Code or Section 825 of this code.SEC. 61. Section 4100 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:4100. The department has jurisdiction over the following facilities:(a) Atascadero State Hospital.(b) Coalinga State Hospital.(c) Metropolitan State Hospital.(d) Napa State Hospital.(e) Patton State Hospital.(f) (1) The Admission, Evaluation, and Stabilization (AES) Center in the County of Kern, and other AES Centers as defined by regulation.(2) The Director of State Hospitals may adopt emergency regulations in accordance with the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division of 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code) to implement this subdivision. The adoption of emergency regulations under this paragraph is deemed to address an emergency, for purposes of Sections 11346.1 and 11349.6 of the Government Code, and the Director of State Hospitals is hereby exempted for this purpose from the requirements of subdivision (b) of Section 11346.1 of the Government Code.(g) A county jail treatment facility under contract with the State Department of State Hospitals to provide competency restoration services.(h) Any other State Department of State Hospitals facility subject to available funding by the Legislature.SEC. 62. Section 4358.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:4358.5. Funds deposited into the Traumatic Brain Injury Fund pursuant to subdivision (f) of Section 1464 of the Penal Code may be matched by federal vocational rehabilitation services funds for implementation of the Traumatic Brain Injury program pursuant to this chapter. However, this matching of funds shall occur only to the extent it is permitted by other state and federal law, and to the extent the matching of funds would be consistent with the policies and priorities of the department.SEC. 63. Section 7228 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:7228. Prior to admission, the State Department of State Hospitals shall evaluate each patient committed pursuant to Section 1026 or 1370 of the Penal Code to determine the placement of the patient to the appropriate State Department of State Hospitals facility, as defined in Section 4100. The State Department of State Hospitals shall utilize the documents provided pursuant to subdivision (e) of Section 1026 of the Penal Code and paragraph (2) of subdivision (b) of Section 1370 of the Penal Code to make the appropriate placement. A patient determined to be a high security risk shall be treated in the departments most secure facilities pursuant to Section 7230. A Penal Code patient not needing this level of security shall be treated as near to the patients community as possible if an appropriate treatment program is available.SEC. 64. Section 7234 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:7234. (a) (1) A Patient Management Unit (PMU) shall be established within the State Department of State Hospitals to facilitate patient movement across all facilities under its jurisdiction, as defined in Section 4100, and any psychiatric programs operated by the State Department of State Hospitals pursuant to a memorandum of understanding with the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation.(2) The PMUs responsibilities shall include, but not be limited to, oversight and centralized management of patient admissions, and collection of data for reports and patient population projections.(b) The State Department of State Hospitals shall adopt regulations, consistent with this article, concerning policies and procedures to be implemented by the PMU, including, but not limited to, both of the following:(1) Policies and procedures for patient referral to the State Department of State Hospitals.(2) Screening criteria that ensures that patients are placed in a State Department of State Hospitals facility or psychiatric program closest to their county of residence in the absence of a compelling reason to place the patient in another facility. Compelling reasons may include, but not be limited to, the patients specialized psychiatric, medical, or safety needs, and the availability of beds for his or her commitment type.(c) The Director of State Hospitals may adopt emergency regulations in accordance with the Administrative Procedures Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code) to implement this section. The adoption of an emergency regulation under this paragraph is deemed to address an emergency, for purposes of Sections 11346.1 and 11349.6 of the Government Code, and the Director of State Hospitals is hereby exempted for this purpose from the requirements of subdivision (b) of Section 11346.1 of the Government Code.SEC. 65. The provisions of Section 4 of this act, amending Section 384 of the Code of Civil Procedure, are severable. If any provision of Section 4 of this act or its application is held invalid, that invalidity shall not affect other provisions or applications that can be given effect without the invalid provision or application.SEC. 66. No reimbursement is required by this act pursuant to Section 6 of Article XIIIB of the California Constitution because the only costs that may be incurred by a local agency or school district will be incurred because this act creates a new crime or infraction, eliminates a crime or infraction, or changes the penalty for a crime or infraction, within the meaning of Section 17556 of the Government Code, or changes the definition of a crime within the meaning of Section 6 of Article XIIIB of the California Constitution.SEC. 67. This act is a bill providing for appropriations related to the Budget Bill within the meaning of subdivision (e) of Section 12 of Article IV of the California Constitution, has been identified as related to the budget in the Budget Bill, and shall take effect immediately.
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3- Assembly Bill No. 103 CHAPTER 17 An act to amend Sections 384 and 1010.6 of the Code of Civil Procedure, to amend Sections 11040, 11041, 11042, 11045, 24000, 69580, 69592, 69594, and 69600 of, to add Sections 15007, 15820.948, 68514, and 69614.4 to, to add Article 9 (commencing with 70500) to Chapter 5.7 of Title 8 of, to add Chapter 17.8 (commencing with Section 7310) to Division 7 of Title 1 of, to add Chapter 16 (commencing with Section 27770) to Part 3 of Division 2 of Title 3 of, to add and repeal Section 12532 of, and to repeal Section 11043 of, the Government Code, to add Section 329 to the Military and Veterans Code, to amend Sections 1170.18, 1370, 1370.6, 1372, 1463.007, 1464, 1557, 2801, 2808, 3453, 5075, 6031, 6031.1, 29800, 29805, 30680, and 30900 of, to add Sections 1170.127 and 4032 to, to repeal Sections 1203.6 and 1464.2 of, and to repeal and add Section 1203.5 of, the Penal Code, to add and repeal Section 10340.1 of the Public Contract Code, to amend Sections 13365, 13365.2, 40509, and 40509.5 of the Vehicle Code, and to amend Sections 209, 1982, 4100, 4358.5, 7228, and 7234 of, and to repeal and add Sections 270 and 271 of, the Welfare and Institutions Code, relating to public safety, making an appropriation therefor, to take effect immediately, bill related to the budget. [ Approved by Governor June 27, 2017. Filed with Secretary of State June 27, 2017. ] LEGISLATIVE COUNSEL'S DIGESTAB 103, Committee on Budget. Public safety: omnibus.(1) Existing law requires a court, prior to the entry of any judgment in a class action, to determine the total amount that will be payable to all class members. The court is also required to set a date when the parties are to report to the court the total amount that was actually paid to the class members. After the report is received, the court is required to amend the judgment to direct the defendant to pay the sum of the unpaid residue, plus interest, to nonprofit organizations or foundations to support projects that will benefit the class or similarly situated persons, or that promote the law consistent with the underlying cause of action, or to child advocacy programs, or to nonprofit organizations providing civil legal services to the indigent. Existing law excepts class actions brought against public entities and public employees from these provisions.This bill would require that whenever a judgment, including any consent judgment, decree, or settlement agreement that has been approved by the court, in a class action provides for the payment of money to members of the class, any unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds be distributed in accordance with its provisions, unless the court makes a specific finding. The bill would require the court to set a date when the parties must submit a report to the court regarding a plan for the distribution of these funds. The bill would require that at least 25% of the unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds generally attributable to California residents, plus any accrued interest that has not otherwise been distributed, be transmitted to the State Treasury for deposit in the Trial Court Improvement and Modernization Fund, subject to appropriation by the Legislature to the Judicial Council to fund trial court operations. The bill would further require that at least 25% of these funds be transmitted to the Equal Access Fund of the Judicial Branch, to be distributed as specified. The bill would require that the balance of these funds, if any, plus interest be distributed generally as previously required, as described above. The bill would also except any cause of action brought against public entities and public employees from these provisions.(2) Existing law authorizes a trial court to adopt local rules permitting electronic filing and service of documents, subject to rules adopted by the Judicial Council and other specified conditions. Existing law also authorizes the court, in any action in which a party has agreed to accept electronic service, or in which the court has ordered electronic service, as specified, to electronically serve any document issued by the court that is not required to be personally served, in the same manner that parties electronically serve documents.This bill would require a system for the electronic filing and service of documents to be accessible to individuals with disabilities. The bill would require a trial court that contracts with an entity for the provision of a system for the electronic filing and service of documents to include certain requirements in its contract with the entity, including a requirement that the entity test and verify that the entitys system is accessible. The bill would require the Judicial Council to adopt uniform rules to implement these requirements and to submit reports to the Legislature, as specified.(3) Existing federal law authorizes the United States Attorney General to enter into contracts or agreements with a state, or a political subdivision of a state, for detention or incarceration space or facilities. Existing federal law authorizes the United States Attorney General to enter into an agreement with a state, or a political subdivision of a state, to authorize an officer or employee of that state or political subdivision to, among other things, detain aliens in the United States.Existing law, commonly known as the TRUST Act, prohibits a law enforcement official, as defined, from detaining an individual on the basis of a United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement hold after that individual becomes eligible for release from custody, unless, at the time that the individual becomes eligible for release from custody, certain conditions are met, including, among other things, that the individual has been convicted of specified crimes.This bill would prohibit a city or county or local law enforcement agency from, on or after June 15, 2017, entering into a contract with the federal government or any federal agency to house or detain an adult noncitizen in a locked detention facility for purposes of civil immigration custody. The bill would prohibit a city or county or local law enforcement agency that entered into a contract of that nature on or before June 15, 2017, from modifying or renewing that contract so as to expand the maximum number of contract beds that may be used to house or detain an adult noncitizen for purposes of civil immigration custody.This bill would similarly prohibit a city or county or local law enforcement agency from, on or after June 15, 2017, entering into a contract with the federal government or any federal agency to house or detain an accompanied or unaccompanied minor that is in the custody of or detained by specified federal agencies in a locked detention facility. The bill would prohibit a city or county or local law enforcement agency that entered into a contract of that nature on or before June 15, 2017, from modifying or renewing that contract so as to expand the maximum number of contract beds that may be used to house or detain an accompanied or unaccompanied minor in a locked detention facility. The bill would provide that this prohibition does not apply to temporary housing of any accompanied or unaccompanied minor in less restrictive settings when the State Department of Social Services certifies that the contract is necessary based on changing conditions of the population in need and if the housing contract meets 2 requirements.(4) Existing law requires certain state agencies to obtain written consent from the Attorney General before employing legal counsel in any judicial proceeding.This bill would, instead, require certain state agencies to obtain the written consent of the Attorney General before employing in-house counsel to represent those agencies in any judicial or administrative adjudicative proceeding and before contracting with outside counsel. The bill would otherwise generally authorize a state agency to employ in-house counsel for any purpose, except that it would require a state agency to use the Attorney General for the purpose of delivering approving legal opinions on bonds or other evidence of indebtedness, unless the Attorney General waives that requirement.(5) Existing law sets forth the duties and responsibilities of the Attorney General and provides that he or she has charge, as attorney, of all legal matters in which the state is interested, except as specified.This bill would require, until July 1, 2027, the Attorney General, or his or her designee, to engage in reviews of county, local, or private locked detention facilities in which noncitizens are being housed or detained for purposes of civil immigration proceedings in California, as specified. The bill would require the Department of Justice to provide, during the budget process, updates and information to the Legislature and the Governor, including a written summary of findings, if appropriate, regarding the progress of these reviews and any relevant findings. The bill would also require the Attorney General, or his or her designee, on or before March 1, 2019, to conduct a review of these facilities and to provide, on or before March 1, 2019, the Legislature and the Governor with a comprehensive report outlining the findings of that review. The bill would require the comprehensive report to be posted on the Attorney Generals Internet Web site and otherwise made available to the public upon its release to the Legislature and the Governor.(6) Existing law creates the Department of Justice, which is under the direction and control of the Attorney General. Existing law establishes the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Program, which is administered by the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Investment Board. Existing law requires the board, prior to opening the program for enrollment, to make a report to the Governor and Legislature affirming that certain prerequisites and requirements have been met, including that the United States Department of Labor has finalized a regulation setting forth a safe harbor for savings arrangements established by states for nongovernmental employees and that the program is structured to meet the criteria of the regulation. The federal Employee Retirement Income Security Act, commonly known as ERISA, regulates employee benefit plans, as defined, and generally supersedes state law, except as specified.This bill would require, in connection with potential litigation involving the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Program, that the state be represented by attorneys who possess a comprehensive knowledge of ERISA and have at least 10 years of experience litigating claims related to ERISA in federal trial and appellate courts. The bill would require the Department of Justice, if it does not have sufficient attorneys with these characteristics, to enter into contracts with qualified attorneys to secure their services.(7) Existing law authorizes the Board of State and Community Corrections or the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, the State Public Works Board, and a participating county, as defined, to acquire, design, and construct an adult local criminal justice facility, as defined, and provides funding for those purposes. Existing regulations of the Board of State and Community Corrections specify the number of visits that inmates held in certain types of correctional facilities are required to be provided.This bill would require that specified conditional funding to a participating county for the construction or renovation of a local jail facility or adult local criminal justice facility be used to construct or renovate a facility that meets or surpasses the minimum number of weekly visits as specified in regulations through the use of in-person visitation space. The bill would require a scope change to be submitted to include in-person visitation, as specified, for any proposals submitted previous to these requirements that only provided for video visitation.Existing law provides that a county jail is kept by the sheriff of the county in which the jail is situated and is to be used for specified purposes, including for the confinement of persons sentenced to imprisonment in a county jail upon a criminal conviction. Existing regulations of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation specify the number of visits that inmates held in certain types of correctional facilities may be allowed.This bill would prohibit a local detention facility, as defined, that provided in-person visitation as of January 1, 2017, from converting to only video visitation. The bill would prohibit a local detention facility from charging for visitation when visitors are onsite and participating in either in-person or video visitation. The bill would require a local detention facility that does not offer in-person visitation to provide the first hour of remote video visitation each week free of charge.(8) Existing law requires a probation officer to be appointed in each county. Existing law requires the probation officer to be nominated by the juvenile justice commission and appointed by the judge of the juvenile court. Existing law allows the probation officer to revoke or terminate the appointment of a deputy or assistant probation officer with the written approval of the juvenile justice commission.This bill would revise and recast these provisions. The bill would require each county to appoint a chief probation officer. The bill would establish the duties and obligations of that office, as specified. The bill would require the presiding judge, in a county with 2 judges, or a majority of the judges, in a county with more than 2 judges, to appoint the chief probation officer upon nomination of the juvenile justice commission. The bill would allow the chief probation officer to revoke and terminate the appointment of a deputy or assistant probation officer without the written approval of the juvenile justice commission. The bill would delete the creation of the office of adult probation officer.(9) Existing law establishes the Judicial Council and requires it to perform various duties regarding the oversight and management of the courts, including, among others, reporting to the Legislature on specific accounting and case management programs.This bill would require the Judicial Council, beginning on October 1, 2018, to annually report on revenue and collections for each court and county for the previous fiscal year, as specified.(10) Existing law specifies the number of judges for the superior court of each county. Existing law allocates additional judgeships to the various counties in accordance with uniform standards for factually determining additional need in each county, as updated and approved by the Judicial Council, based on specified criteria, including, among others, workload standards that represent the average amount of time of bench and nonbench work required to resolve each case type.This bill would reallocate 2 vacant judgeships from the Superior Court of the County of Santa Clara to the Superior Court of the County of Riverside and 2 vacant judgeships from the Superior Court of the County of Alameda to the Superior Court of the County of San Bernardino. The bill would require the Judicial Council to determine which specific vacancies would be transferred between counties pursuant to this provision and to take all necessary steps to effectuate each transfer. The bill would provide that the term of the judgeships would begin on January 2, 2018, and that a court in which a vacant judgeship is reallocated shall not have its funding allocation reduced, shifted, or transferred as a result of the reallocation. The bill would make conforming changes.(11) Existing law authorizes the Judicial Council to dispose of surplus court facilities pursuant to a specified process that requires, among other things, the Judicial Council to consult with the county where the court facility is located, offer the facility to the county at a fair market value before offering it to another state or local government agency, and deposit the funds received from a sale into the State Court Facilities Construction Fund. Existing law imposes specified requirements on local entities with regard to the construction of new court facilities, or the alteration, remodeling, or relocation of court facilities, as specified. Existing law imposes specified requirements on the sale or lease of real property by the board of supervisors of a county, as prescribed.Existing law, the California Environmental Quality Act (CEQA), requires a lead agency, as defined, to prepare, or cause to be prepared, and certify the completion of, an environmental impact report on a project that it proposes to carry out or approve that may have a significant effect on the environment, as defined, or to adopt a negative declaration if it finds that the project will not have that effect, unless the project is exempt from the act. CEQA provides for various exemptions from the requirements of the act.This bill would authorize the Administrative Director of the Courts to transfer specified court facility property to the County of San Diego under prescribed circumstances, and would exempt the transfer from the procedures described above. With regard to the demolition project and further development of that property by the County of San Diego, the bill would, among other things, authorize the use of existing environmental impact reports, as specified, for purposes of CEQA. The bill would prescribe the circumstances under which the Board of Supervisors of the County of San Diego may enter into leases for subsequent improvements of the property.(12) Existing law establishes the Military Department, which includes the office of the Adjutant General, the California National Guard, the State Military Reserve, the California Cadet Corps, and the Naval Militia. Existing law provides that specified military members are deemed state employees for purposes of workers compensation.This bill would establish the Military Department Workers Compensation Fund, and would provide that all moneys in the fund are continuously appropriated to the Military Department for workers compensation claims that are wholly or partially reimbursed by the federal government for personnel within the Military Department, as specified. By creating a continuously appropriated fund, this bill would make an appropriation.(13) Existing law, the Three Strikes Reform Act of 2012, passed by the voters as Proposition 36 at the November 6, 2012, statewide general election, amended the Three Strikes Law and provided for lower sentences in specified circumstances, including when the current crime is not a serious or violent crime. The act provided a means by which a person serving an indeterminate term of imprisonment can be resentenced in conformance with the provisions of the act.Existing law, the Safe Neighborhoods and Schools Act, enacted by Proposition 47, as approved by the voters at the November 4, 2014, statewide general election, reduced the penalties for various crimes. Under the provisions of the act, a person currently convicted of a felony or felonies who would have been guilty of a misdemeanor under the act if the act had been in effect at the time of the conviction may petition or apply to have the sentence reduced in accordance with the act. That act requires that this petition or application be filed before November 4, 2017, or at a later date upon a showing of good cause.This bill would authorize a person who is committed to a state hospital after being found not guilty by reason of insanity to petition the court to have the maximum term of commitment reduced to what it would have been had Proposition 36 or Proposition 47 been in effect at the time of the original determination, as specified. The bill would require the petitioner to show that he or she would have been eligible to have his or her sentence reduced under the relevant proposition and to file the petition prior to January 1, 2021, or at a later date with a showing of good cause.(14) Existing law identifies the state hospitals over which the State Department of State Hospitals has jurisdiction, including, among others, Atascadero State Hospital and Coalinga State Hospital.This bill would provide the department with jurisdiction over the Admission, Evaluation, and Stabilization (AES) Center in the County of Kern, and other AES Centers as defined by regulation. The bill would also authorize the Director of State Hospitals to adopt emergency regulations to implement this provision and would declare that the adoption of emergency regulations under this provision is deemed to address an emergency, for purposes of the Administrative Procedure Act. The bill would provide the department with jurisdiction over any county jail treatment facility under contract with the State Department of State Hospitals to provide competency restoration services. The bill would also make other technical and conforming changes.(15) Existing law creates the State Penalty Fund into which moneys collected by the courts from the imposition of fines, forfeitures, or penalties on criminal offenses are deposited. Once a month, certain percentages of money in that fund are transferred into other funds.This bill would repeal the authority for these transfers to other funds and instead require the Department of Finance to provide a schedule to the Controller for all transfers of funds made available by the Budget Act from the State Penalty Fund in the current fiscal year. The bill would, upon the order of the Department of Finance, allow sufficient funds to be transferred by the Controller from the General Fund for cashflow needs of the State Penalty Fund, as provided.(16) Existing law authorizes, if certain conditions are met, reimbursement for expenses or payment of specified costs incurred by a person employed by the state, or a city, county, or city and county, to travel to a jurisdiction outside of the state for the purpose of returning a fugitive from justice to this state.This bill would establish reimbursement rates for meals and incidental expenses for persons transporting fugitives for return to certain local government jurisdictions, as specified.(17) Existing law establishes the Prison Industry Authority within the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation under the direction of the Prison Industry Board. Existing law grants the board specified powers, including the ability to review and approve the annual budget for the authority, in order to ensure that the solvency of the Prison Industries Revolving Fund is maintained. Existing law states that the purpose of the authority is, among other things, to operate a work program for prisoners which will ultimately be self-supporting by generating sufficient funds from the sale of products and services to pay all the expenses of the program.This bill would specify that the above provisions do not require immediate cash availability for funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above amounts established in the Budget Act, or as determined by the Board of Administration of the Public Employees Retirement System, or the Director of Finance for the fiscal year. The bill would prohibit the authority from establishing cash reserves to support funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above these amounts.(18) Existing law generally requires all persons released from prison to be subject to postrelease community supervision by a local probation department for a period of 3 years immediately following release. Existing law requires that postrelease community supervision include specified conditions, including that the person inform the supervising county agency of the persons place of residence, employment, education, or training and of any pending or anticipated changes to the place of residence, employment, education, or training.This bill would define residence for these purposes as one or more locations at which a person regularly resides, regardless of the number of days or nights spent there, such as a shelter or structure that can be located by a street address, including, but not limited to, a house, apartment building, motel, hotel, homeless shelter, and recreational or other vehicle. The bill would require, if the person has no residence, that he or she inform the supervising county agency that he or she is transient. The bill would also require the person to inform the supervising county agency of any change in residence, or the establishment of a new residence if the person was previously transient, within 5 working days of the change.(19) Existing law establishes the Board of Parole Hearings, which is composed of 14 commissioners appointed by the Governor, and subject to Senate confirmation, for staggered 3-year terms.This bill would instead provide that the board is composed of 15 commissioners. The bill would also revise the term of office for existing commissioners, as specified, so that 5 commissioners would commence a new term on July 1 of each year.(20) Existing law requires the Board of State and Community Corrections to inspect local detention facilities biennially and requires the inspection to include specified components, including, among others, a fire suppression preplanning inspection. Existing law requires a report of each facilitys inspection to be furnished to the official in charge of the local detention facility.This bill would require inspections of local detention facilities to be conducted, at a minimum, biennially. The bill would additionally require the inspections to address components relating to the availability of visitation and relating to the receipt of state funds for jail construction. The bill would require that reports made pursuant to the above-described provisions to be posted on the boards Internet Web site.Existing law requires the Board of State and Community Corrections to conduct a biennial inspection of each jail, juvenile hall, lockup, or special purpose juvenile hall that, during the preceding calendar year, was used for confinement for more than 24 hours of any minor and requires the board to issue a notice of its findings, as specified.This bill would require the board to post all reports and notices of findings it prepares pursuant to this provision on its Internet Web site.(21) Existing law prohibits a person who has been convicted of a felony or who is addicted to the use of any narcotic drug from owning, purchasing, receiving, or possessing a firearm. Under existing law, a violation of this prohibition is punishable as a felony.This bill would prohibit a person who has an outstanding warrant for a felony from owning, purchasing, receiving, or possessing a firearm. A violation of this prohibition would be punishable as a felony. Because a violation of this prohibition would be a crime, this bill would impose a state-mandated local program.Existing law also generally prohibits a person who has been convicted of certain misdemeanors from owning, purchasing, receiving, or possessing a firearm within 10 years of the conviction. Under existing law, a violation of this prohibition is a crime punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year or in the state prison, by a fine not exceeding $1,000, or by both that imprisonment and fine. Existing law, as a result of Proposition 63, an initiative measure approved by the voters at the November 8, 2016, statewide general election, codifies these provisions in separate, nonconflicting, identically numbered sections.This bill would prohibit a person who has an outstanding warrant for certain misdemeanors from owning, purchasing, receiving, or possessing a firearm. A violation of this prohibition would be a crime, punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year or in the state prison, by a fine not exceeding $1,000, or by both that imprisonment and fine. Because a violation of this prohibition would be a crime, this bill would impose a state-mandated local program.(22) Existing law prohibits, with some exceptions, the possession of an assault weapon that does not have a fixed magazine including those weapons with a detachable magazine that can be removed readily from the firearm with the use of a tool. Existing law exempts from that prohibition such a weapon that was lawfully possessed by the owner starting at any time from January 1, 2001, to December 31, 2016, and is registered by that owner with the Department of Justice before January 1, 2018, but not before the effective date of specified regulations to be adopted by the department.This bill would extend the deadline to register a weapon in order to be exempted from the prohibition from January 1, 2018, to July 1, 2018.(23) Existing law generally requires state agencies to obtain at least 3 competitive bids for each contract for services. Under existing law, this requirement does not apply under certain circumstances.This bill, until June 30, 2018, would authorize the State Department of State Hospitals to enter into an agreement for continued operation of the existing central utility plant at the Metropolitan State Hospital without having to comply with the competitive bidding requirements described above.(24) Existing law authorizes any county or court to implement a comprehensive collection program as a separate revenue collection activity, and requires the program to meet certain criteria, one of which is that the program engages in specified activities in collecting fines or penalties, including initiating drivers license suspension or hold actions when appropriate.This bill would instead limit the program to initiating a drivers license suspension or hold actions only for a failure to appear in court.Existing law authorizes the court to notify the Department of Motor Vehicles when a person has failed to pay a fine or bail, with respect to various violations relating to vehicles, and requires the department to suspend a persons drivers license upon receipt of the notice, as specified.The bill would repeal the authority of the court to notify the department of a failure to pay a fine or bail, thereby deleting the requirement for the department to suspend a persons drivers license upon receipt of that notice.(25) Existing law requires the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, Division of Juvenile Justice, and the Chief Probation Officers of California, in consultation with the Board of State and Community Corrections, formerly known as the Corrections Standards Authority, to provide annual reports to the Department of Finance, with information sorted by county, with the names of discharged wards, under specified circumstances.This bill would remove the requirement that the information include the name of a discharged ward and would instead require that the information include the identifying information, as defined, of a discharged ward, as specified. The bill would require the board, instead of the Chief Probation Officers of California, to provide an annual report and would remove the requirement of a consultation. The bill would also remove obsolete references to the authority under these provisions.Existing law requires, in each fiscal year, that funds be allocated to each county probation department from the Juvenile Reentry Grant Special Account on an average daily population basis per discharged ward transferred to a local juvenile facility for violating a condition of court-ordered supervision during the previous fiscal year, as specified.This bill would prohibit a county from receiving the above-described funding if it does not submit data under the provisions relating to the boards annual report.(26) The California Constitution requires the state to reimburse local agencies and school districts for certain costs mandated by the state. Statutory provisions establish procedures for making that reimbursement.This bill would provide that no reimbursement is required by this act for a specified reason.(27) This bill would declare that it is to take effect immediately as a bill providing for appropriations related to the Budget Bill.Digest Key Vote: MAJORITY Appropriation: YES Fiscal Committee: YES Local Program: YES
1+Enrolled June 19, 2017 Passed IN Senate June 15, 2017 Passed IN Assembly June 15, 2017 Amended IN Senate June 08, 2017 CALIFORNIA LEGISLATURE 20172018 REGULAR SESSION Assembly Bill No. 103Introduced by Committee on Budget (Assembly Members Ting (Chair), Arambula, Bloom, Caballero, Chiu, Cooper, Cristina Garcia, Jones-Sawyer, Limn, McCarty, Medina, Mullin, Muratsuchi, ODonnell, Rubio, Mark Stone, Weber, and Wood)January 10, 2017 An act to amend Sections 384 and 1010.6 of the Code of Civil Procedure, to amend Sections 11040, 11041, 11042, 11045, 24000, 69580, 69592, 69594, and 69600 of, to add Sections 15007, 15820.948, 68514, and 69614.4 to, to add Article 9 (commencing with 70500) to Chapter 5.7 of Title 8 of, to add Chapter 17.8 (commencing with Section 7310) to Division 7 of Title 1 of, to add Chapter 16 (commencing with Section 27770) to Part 3 of Division 2 of Title 3 of, to add and repeal Section 12532 of, and to repeal Section 11043 of, the Government Code, to add Section 329 to the Military and Veterans Code, to amend Sections 1170.18, 1370, 1370.6, 1372, 1463.007, 1464, 1557, 2801, 2808, 3453, 5075, 6031, 6031.1, 29800, 29805, 30680, and 30900 of, to add Sections 1170.127 and 4032 to, to repeal Sections 1203.6 and 1464.2 of, and to repeal and add Section 1203.5 of, the Penal Code, to add and repeal Section 10340.1 of the Public Contract Code, to amend Sections 13365, 13365.2, 40509, and 40509.5 of the Vehicle Code, and to amend Sections 209, 1982, 4100, 4358.5, 7228, and 7234 of, and to repeal and add Sections 270 and 271 of, the Welfare and Institutions Code, relating to public safety, making an appropriation therefor, to take effect immediately, bill related to the budget.LEGISLATIVE COUNSEL'S DIGESTAB 103, Committee on Budget. Public safety: omnibus.(1) Existing law requires a court, prior to the entry of any judgment in a class action, to determine the total amount that will be payable to all class members. The court is also required to set a date when the parties are to report to the court the total amount that was actually paid to the class members. After the report is received, the court is required to amend the judgment to direct the defendant to pay the sum of the unpaid residue, plus interest, to nonprofit organizations or foundations to support projects that will benefit the class or similarly situated persons, or that promote the law consistent with the underlying cause of action, or to child advocacy programs, or to nonprofit organizations providing civil legal services to the indigent. Existing law excepts class actions brought against public entities and public employees from these provisions.This bill would require that whenever a judgment, including any consent judgment, decree, or settlement agreement that has been approved by the court, in a class action provides for the payment of money to members of the class, any unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds be distributed in accordance with its provisions, unless the court makes a specific finding. The bill would require the court to set a date when the parties must submit a report to the court regarding a plan for the distribution of these funds. The bill would require that at least 25% of the unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds generally attributable to California residents, plus any accrued interest that has not otherwise been distributed, be transmitted to the State Treasury for deposit in the Trial Court Improvement and Modernization Fund, subject to appropriation by the Legislature to the Judicial Council to fund trial court operations. The bill would further require that at least 25% of these funds be transmitted to the Equal Access Fund of the Judicial Branch, to be distributed as specified. The bill would require that the balance of these funds, if any, plus interest be distributed generally as previously required, as described above. The bill would also except any cause of action brought against public entities and public employees from these provisions.(2) Existing law authorizes a trial court to adopt local rules permitting electronic filing and service of documents, subject to rules adopted by the Judicial Council and other specified conditions. Existing law also authorizes the court, in any action in which a party has agreed to accept electronic service, or in which the court has ordered electronic service, as specified, to electronically serve any document issued by the court that is not required to be personally served, in the same manner that parties electronically serve documents.This bill would require a system for the electronic filing and service of documents to be accessible to individuals with disabilities. The bill would require a trial court that contracts with an entity for the provision of a system for the electronic filing and service of documents to include certain requirements in its contract with the entity, including a requirement that the entity test and verify that the entitys system is accessible. The bill would require the Judicial Council to adopt uniform rules to implement these requirements and to submit reports to the Legislature, as specified.(3) Existing federal law authorizes the United States Attorney General to enter into contracts or agreements with a state, or a political subdivision of a state, for detention or incarceration space or facilities. Existing federal law authorizes the United States Attorney General to enter into an agreement with a state, or a political subdivision of a state, to authorize an officer or employee of that state or political subdivision to, among other things, detain aliens in the United States.Existing law, commonly known as the TRUST Act, prohibits a law enforcement official, as defined, from detaining an individual on the basis of a United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement hold after that individual becomes eligible for release from custody, unless, at the time that the individual becomes eligible for release from custody, certain conditions are met, including, among other things, that the individual has been convicted of specified crimes.This bill would prohibit a city or county or local law enforcement agency from, on or after June 15, 2017, entering into a contract with the federal government or any federal agency to house or detain an adult noncitizen in a locked detention facility for purposes of civil immigration custody. The bill would prohibit a city or county or local law enforcement agency that entered into a contract of that nature on or before June 15, 2017, from modifying or renewing that contract so as to expand the maximum number of contract beds that may be used to house or detain an adult noncitizen for purposes of civil immigration custody.This bill would similarly prohibit a city or county or local law enforcement agency from, on or after June 15, 2017, entering into a contract with the federal government or any federal agency to house or detain an accompanied or unaccompanied minor that is in the custody of or detained by specified federal agencies in a locked detention facility. The bill would prohibit a city or county or local law enforcement agency that entered into a contract of that nature on or before June 15, 2017, from modifying or renewing that contract so as to expand the maximum number of contract beds that may be used to house or detain an accompanied or unaccompanied minor in a locked detention facility. The bill would provide that this prohibition does not apply to temporary housing of any accompanied or unaccompanied minor in less restrictive settings when the State Department of Social Services certifies that the contract is necessary based on changing conditions of the population in need and if the housing contract meets 2 requirements.(4) Existing law requires certain state agencies to obtain written consent from the Attorney General before employing legal counsel in any judicial proceeding.This bill would, instead, require certain state agencies to obtain the written consent of the Attorney General before employing in-house counsel to represent those agencies in any judicial or administrative adjudicative proceeding and before contracting with outside counsel. The bill would otherwise generally authorize a state agency to employ in-house counsel for any purpose, except that it would require a state agency to use the Attorney General for the purpose of delivering approving legal opinions on bonds or other evidence of indebtedness, unless the Attorney General waives that requirement.(5) Existing law sets forth the duties and responsibilities of the Attorney General and provides that he or she has charge, as attorney, of all legal matters in which the state is interested, except as specified.This bill would require, until July 1, 2027, the Attorney General, or his or her designee, to engage in reviews of county, local, or private locked detention facilities in which noncitizens are being housed or detained for purposes of civil immigration proceedings in California, as specified. The bill would require the Department of Justice to provide, during the budget process, updates and information to the Legislature and the Governor, including a written summary of findings, if appropriate, regarding the progress of these reviews and any relevant findings. The bill would also require the Attorney General, or his or her designee, on or before March 1, 2019, to conduct a review of these facilities and to provide, on or before March 1, 2019, the Legislature and the Governor with a comprehensive report outlining the findings of that review. The bill would require the comprehensive report to be posted on the Attorney Generals Internet Web site and otherwise made available to the public upon its release to the Legislature and the Governor.(6) Existing law creates the Department of Justice, which is under the direction and control of the Attorney General. Existing law establishes the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Program, which is administered by the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Investment Board. Existing law requires the board, prior to opening the program for enrollment, to make a report to the Governor and Legislature affirming that certain prerequisites and requirements have been met, including that the United States Department of Labor has finalized a regulation setting forth a safe harbor for savings arrangements established by states for nongovernmental employees and that the program is structured to meet the criteria of the regulation. The federal Employee Retirement Income Security Act, commonly known as ERISA, regulates employee benefit plans, as defined, and generally supersedes state law, except as specified.This bill would require, in connection with potential litigation involving the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Program, that the state be represented by attorneys who possess a comprehensive knowledge of ERISA and have at least 10 years of experience litigating claims related to ERISA in federal trial and appellate courts. The bill would require the Department of Justice, if it does not have sufficient attorneys with these characteristics, to enter into contracts with qualified attorneys to secure their services.(7) Existing law authorizes the Board of State and Community Corrections or the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, the State Public Works Board, and a participating county, as defined, to acquire, design, and construct an adult local criminal justice facility, as defined, and provides funding for those purposes. Existing regulations of the Board of State and Community Corrections specify the number of visits that inmates held in certain types of correctional facilities are required to be provided.This bill would require that specified conditional funding to a participating county for the construction or renovation of a local jail facility or adult local criminal justice facility be used to construct or renovate a facility that meets or surpasses the minimum number of weekly visits as specified in regulations through the use of in-person visitation space. The bill would require a scope change to be submitted to include in-person visitation, as specified, for any proposals submitted previous to these requirements that only provided for video visitation.Existing law provides that a county jail is kept by the sheriff of the county in which the jail is situated and is to be used for specified purposes, including for the confinement of persons sentenced to imprisonment in a county jail upon a criminal conviction. Existing regulations of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation specify the number of visits that inmates held in certain types of correctional facilities may be allowed.This bill would prohibit a local detention facility, as defined, that provided in-person visitation as of January 1, 2017, from converting to only video visitation. The bill would prohibit a local detention facility from charging for visitation when visitors are onsite and participating in either in-person or video visitation. The bill would require a local detention facility that does not offer in-person visitation to provide the first hour of remote video visitation each week free of charge.(8) Existing law requires a probation officer to be appointed in each county. Existing law requires the probation officer to be nominated by the juvenile justice commission and appointed by the judge of the juvenile court. Existing law allows the probation officer to revoke or terminate the appointment of a deputy or assistant probation officer with the written approval of the juvenile justice commission.This bill would revise and recast these provisions. The bill would require each county to appoint a chief probation officer. The bill would establish the duties and obligations of that office, as specified. The bill would require the presiding judge, in a county with 2 judges, or a majority of the judges, in a county with more than 2 judges, to appoint the chief probation officer upon nomination of the juvenile justice commission. The bill would allow the chief probation officer to revoke and terminate the appointment of a deputy or assistant probation officer without the written approval of the juvenile justice commission. The bill would delete the creation of the office of adult probation officer.(9) Existing law establishes the Judicial Council and requires it to perform various duties regarding the oversight and management of the courts, including, among others, reporting to the Legislature on specific accounting and case management programs.This bill would require the Judicial Council, beginning on October 1, 2018, to annually report on revenue and collections for each court and county for the previous fiscal year, as specified.(10) Existing law specifies the number of judges for the superior court of each county. Existing law allocates additional judgeships to the various counties in accordance with uniform standards for factually determining additional need in each county, as updated and approved by the Judicial Council, based on specified criteria, including, among others, workload standards that represent the average amount of time of bench and nonbench work required to resolve each case type.This bill would reallocate 2 vacant judgeships from the Superior Court of the County of Santa Clara to the Superior Court of the County of Riverside and 2 vacant judgeships from the Superior Court of the County of Alameda to the Superior Court of the County of San Bernardino. The bill would require the Judicial Council to determine which specific vacancies would be transferred between counties pursuant to this provision and to take all necessary steps to effectuate each transfer. The bill would provide that the term of the judgeships would begin on January 2, 2018, and that a court in which a vacant judgeship is reallocated shall not have its funding allocation reduced, shifted, or transferred as a result of the reallocation. The bill would make conforming changes.(11) Existing law authorizes the Judicial Council to dispose of surplus court facilities pursuant to a specified process that requires, among other things, the Judicial Council to consult with the county where the court facility is located, offer the facility to the county at a fair market value before offering it to another state or local government agency, and deposit the funds received from a sale into the State Court Facilities Construction Fund. Existing law imposes specified requirements on local entities with regard to the construction of new court facilities, or the alteration, remodeling, or relocation of court facilities, as specified. Existing law imposes specified requirements on the sale or lease of real property by the board of supervisors of a county, as prescribed.Existing law, the California Environmental Quality Act (CEQA), requires a lead agency, as defined, to prepare, or cause to be prepared, and certify the completion of, an environmental impact report on a project that it proposes to carry out or approve that may have a significant effect on the environment, as defined, or to adopt a negative declaration if it finds that the project will not have that effect, unless the project is exempt from the act. CEQA provides for various exemptions from the requirements of the act.This bill would authorize the Administrative Director of the Courts to transfer specified court facility property to the County of San Diego under prescribed circumstances, and would exempt the transfer from the procedures described above. With regard to the demolition project and further development of that property by the County of San Diego, the bill would, among other things, authorize the use of existing environmental impact reports, as specified, for purposes of CEQA. The bill would prescribe the circumstances under which the Board of Supervisors of the County of San Diego may enter into leases for subsequent improvements of the property.(12) Existing law establishes the Military Department, which includes the office of the Adjutant General, the California National Guard, the State Military Reserve, the California Cadet Corps, and the Naval Militia. Existing law provides that specified military members are deemed state employees for purposes of workers compensation.This bill would establish the Military Department Workers Compensation Fund, and would provide that all moneys in the fund are continuously appropriated to the Military Department for workers compensation claims that are wholly or partially reimbursed by the federal government for personnel within the Military Department, as specified. By creating a continuously appropriated fund, this bill would make an appropriation.(13) Existing law, the Three Strikes Reform Act of 2012, passed by the voters as Proposition 36 at the November 6, 2012, statewide general election, amended the Three Strikes Law and provided for lower sentences in specified circumstances, including when the current crime is not a serious or violent crime. The act provided a means by which a person serving an indeterminate term of imprisonment can be resentenced in conformance with the provisions of the act.Existing law, the Safe Neighborhoods and Schools Act, enacted by Proposition 47, as approved by the voters at the November 4, 2014, statewide general election, reduced the penalties for various crimes. Under the provisions of the act, a person currently convicted of a felony or felonies who would have been guilty of a misdemeanor under the act if the act had been in effect at the time of the conviction may petition or apply to have the sentence reduced in accordance with the act. That act requires that this petition or application be filed before November 4, 2017, or at a later date upon a showing of good cause.This bill would authorize a person who is committed to a state hospital after being found not guilty by reason of insanity to petition the court to have the maximum term of commitment reduced to what it would have been had Proposition 36 or Proposition 47 been in effect at the time of the original determination, as specified. The bill would require the petitioner to show that he or she would have been eligible to have his or her sentence reduced under the relevant proposition and to file the petition prior to January 1, 2021, or at a later date with a showing of good cause.(14) Existing law identifies the state hospitals over which the State Department of State Hospitals has jurisdiction, including, among others, Atascadero State Hospital and Coalinga State Hospital.This bill would provide the department with jurisdiction over the Admission, Evaluation, and Stabilization (AES) Center in the County of Kern, and other AES Centers as defined by regulation. The bill would also authorize the Director of State Hospitals to adopt emergency regulations to implement this provision and would declare that the adoption of emergency regulations under this provision is deemed to address an emergency, for purposes of the Administrative Procedure Act. The bill would provide the department with jurisdiction over any county jail treatment facility under contract with the State Department of State Hospitals to provide competency restoration services. The bill would also make other technical and conforming changes.(15) Existing law creates the State Penalty Fund into which moneys collected by the courts from the imposition of fines, forfeitures, or penalties on criminal offenses are deposited. Once a month, certain percentages of money in that fund are transferred into other funds.This bill would repeal the authority for these transfers to other funds and instead require the Department of Finance to provide a schedule to the Controller for all transfers of funds made available by the Budget Act from the State Penalty Fund in the current fiscal year. The bill would, upon the order of the Department of Finance, allow sufficient funds to be transferred by the Controller from the General Fund for cashflow needs of the State Penalty Fund, as provided.(16) Existing law authorizes, if certain conditions are met, reimbursement for expenses or payment of specified costs incurred by a person employed by the state, or a city, county, or city and county, to travel to a jurisdiction outside of the state for the purpose of returning a fugitive from justice to this state.This bill would establish reimbursement rates for meals and incidental expenses for persons transporting fugitives for return to certain local government jurisdictions, as specified.(17) Existing law establishes the Prison Industry Authority within the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation under the direction of the Prison Industry Board. Existing law grants the board specified powers, including the ability to review and approve the annual budget for the authority, in order to ensure that the solvency of the Prison Industries Revolving Fund is maintained. Existing law states that the purpose of the authority is, among other things, to operate a work program for prisoners which will ultimately be self-supporting by generating sufficient funds from the sale of products and services to pay all the expenses of the program.This bill would specify that the above provisions do not require immediate cash availability for funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above amounts established in the Budget Act, or as determined by the Board of Administration of the Public Employees Retirement System, or the Director of Finance for the fiscal year. The bill would prohibit the authority from establishing cash reserves to support funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above these amounts.(18) Existing law generally requires all persons released from prison to be subject to postrelease community supervision by a local probation department for a period of 3 years immediately following release. Existing law requires that postrelease community supervision include specified conditions, including that the person inform the supervising county agency of the persons place of residence, employment, education, or training and of any pending or anticipated changes to the place of residence, employment, education, or training.This bill would define residence for these purposes as one or more locations at which a person regularly resides, regardless of the number of days or nights spent there, such as a shelter or structure that can be located by a street address, including, but not limited to, a house, apartment building, motel, hotel, homeless shelter, and recreational or other vehicle. The bill would require, if the person has no residence, that he or she inform the supervising county agency that he or she is transient. The bill would also require the person to inform the supervising county agency of any change in residence, or the establishment of a new residence if the person was previously transient, within 5 working days of the change.(19) Existing law establishes the Board of Parole Hearings, which is composed of 14 commissioners appointed by the Governor, and subject to Senate confirmation, for staggered 3-year terms.This bill would instead provide that the board is composed of 15 commissioners. The bill would also revise the term of office for existing commissioners, as specified, so that 5 commissioners would commence a new term on July 1 of each year.(20) Existing law requires the Board of State and Community Corrections to inspect local detention facilities biennially and requires the inspection to include specified components, including, among others, a fire suppression preplanning inspection. Existing law requires a report of each facilitys inspection to be furnished to the official in charge of the local detention facility.This bill would require inspections of local detention facilities to be conducted, at a minimum, biennially. The bill would additionally require the inspections to address components relating to the availability of visitation and relating to the receipt of state funds for jail construction. The bill would require that reports made pursuant to the above-described provisions to be posted on the boards Internet Web site.Existing law requires the Board of State and Community Corrections to conduct a biennial inspection of each jail, juvenile hall, lockup, or special purpose juvenile hall that, during the preceding calendar year, was used for confinement for more than 24 hours of any minor and requires the board to issue a notice of its findings, as specified.This bill would require the board to post all reports and notices of findings it prepares pursuant to this provision on its Internet Web site.(21) Existing law prohibits a person who has been convicted of a felony or who is addicted to the use of any narcotic drug from owning, purchasing, receiving, or possessing a firearm. Under existing law, a violation of this prohibition is punishable as a felony.This bill would prohibit a person who has an outstanding warrant for a felony from owning, purchasing, receiving, or possessing a firearm. A violation of this prohibition would be punishable as a felony. Because a violation of this prohibition would be a crime, this bill would impose a state-mandated local program.Existing law also generally prohibits a person who has been convicted of certain misdemeanors from owning, purchasing, receiving, or possessing a firearm within 10 years of the conviction. Under existing law, a violation of this prohibition is a crime punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year or in the state prison, by a fine not exceeding $1,000, or by both that imprisonment and fine. Existing law, as a result of Proposition 63, an initiative measure approved by the voters at the November 8, 2016, statewide general election, codifies these provisions in separate, nonconflicting, identically numbered sections.This bill would prohibit a person who has an outstanding warrant for certain misdemeanors from owning, purchasing, receiving, or possessing a firearm. A violation of this prohibition would be a crime, punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year or in the state prison, by a fine not exceeding $1,000, or by both that imprisonment and fine. Because a violation of this prohibition would be a crime, this bill would impose a state-mandated local program.(22) Existing law prohibits, with some exceptions, the possession of an assault weapon that does not have a fixed magazine including those weapons with a detachable magazine that can be removed readily from the firearm with the use of a tool. Existing law exempts from that prohibition such a weapon that was lawfully possessed by the owner starting at any time from January 1, 2001, to December 31, 2016, and is registered by that owner with the Department of Justice before January 1, 2018, but not before the effective date of specified regulations to be adopted by the department.This bill would extend the deadline to register a weapon in order to be exempted from the prohibition from January 1, 2018, to July 1, 2018.(23) Existing law generally requires state agencies to obtain at least 3 competitive bids for each contract for services. Under existing law, this requirement does not apply under certain circumstances.This bill, until June 30, 2018, would authorize the State Department of State Hospitals to enter into an agreement for continued operation of the existing central utility plant at the Metropolitan State Hospital without having to comply with the competitive bidding requirements described above.(24) Existing law authorizes any county or court to implement a comprehensive collection program as a separate revenue collection activity, and requires the program to meet certain criteria, one of which is that the program engages in specified activities in collecting fines or penalties, including initiating drivers license suspension or hold actions when appropriate.This bill would instead limit the program to initiating a drivers license suspension or hold actions only for a failure to appear in court.Existing law authorizes the court to notify the Department of Motor Vehicles when a person has failed to pay a fine or bail, with respect to various violations relating to vehicles, and requires the department to suspend a persons drivers license upon receipt of the notice, as specified.The bill would repeal the authority of the court to notify the department of a failure to pay a fine or bail, thereby deleting the requirement for the department to suspend a persons drivers license upon receipt of that notice.(25) Existing law requires the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, Division of Juvenile Justice, and the Chief Probation Officers of California, in consultation with the Board of State and Community Corrections, formerly known as the Corrections Standards Authority, to provide annual reports to the Department of Finance, with information sorted by county, with the names of discharged wards, under specified circumstances.This bill would remove the requirement that the information include the name of a discharged ward and would instead require that the information include the identifying information, as defined, of a discharged ward, as specified. The bill would require the board, instead of the Chief Probation Officers of California, to provide an annual report and would remove the requirement of a consultation. The bill would also remove obsolete references to the authority under these provisions.Existing law requires, in each fiscal year, that funds be allocated to each county probation department from the Juvenile Reentry Grant Special Account on an average daily population basis per discharged ward transferred to a local juvenile facility for violating a condition of court-ordered supervision during the previous fiscal year, as specified.This bill would prohibit a county from receiving the above-described funding if it does not submit data under the provisions relating to the boards annual report.(26) The California Constitution requires the state to reimburse local agencies and school districts for certain costs mandated by the state. Statutory provisions establish procedures for making that reimbursement.This bill would provide that no reimbursement is required by this act for a specified reason.(27) This bill would declare that it is to take effect immediately as a bill providing for appropriations related to the Budget Bill.Digest Key Vote: MAJORITY Appropriation: YES Fiscal Committee: YES Local Program: YES Bill TextThe people of the State of California do enact as follows:SECTION 1. (a) The Legislature finds and declares that the provision of probation services is an essential element in the administration of criminal justice and the juvenile delinquency systems. The safety of the public is enhanced by a research-based approach that promotes positive behavior change while also enforcing laws to provide community safety as outlined in statute. The Legislature recognizes that the role and responsibility of probation departments has enhanced significantly due to public safety reforms, including, but not limited to, the Community Corrections Performance Incentive Grant Program, established in Chapter 608 of the Statutes of 2009, and 2011 Realignment Legislation addressing public safety, established in Chapter 15 of the Statutes of 2011, which made funding investments in local probation departments and increased the responsibility for probation departments to supervise more offenders including those on mandatory supervision and postrelease community supervision. In addition to a core mission of supervising felony probationers, to address the more serious level of offenders probation departments were tasked with supervising, the state made investments in evidence-informed rehabilitation strategies and supervision for probation departments throughout the state. County probation departments have played a critical role in helping the state meet its federally mandated reduction in the prison population by utilizing probations successful track record in supervision, community corrections, effective offender reentry, and evidence-informed rehabilitation services. Further reforms to the justice system which were enacted by the voters in California continue to place emphasis on services to supervised populations in the community, placing probations mission at the center of community corrections.(b) The Legislature additionally recognizes probations instrumental role in Californias juvenile justice system because of its work in supervision and services provided to youth involved in the justice system through supervising juveniles in the community, administering programming to address juveniles criminogenic behavior, providing secure and effective detention services, utilizing evidence-informed strategies that change behavior, and ensuring successful reentry into communities. The Legislature and voters of California have delegated to probation all responsibility and services for juveniles except for the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, Division of Juvenile Justice. This includes historic reforms such as Chapter 175 of the Statutes of 2007, which realigned most of the juvenile system responsibilities to probation.(c) The decisions made in the state budget process have had significant impact on the duties performed by probation. When probation services are unavailable at the local level there is a negative impact on recidivism which can require a more expensive solution at the state level in the form of incarceration. We have also seen more probation services for justice-involved youth as the state realigned the population away from the most expensive part of the system. These factors are not only driven by fiscal realities of state and local budgets but policies that are intended to improve the quality of life in our communities. The Legislature recognizes that such an important role should be clear and articulated with other core county department duties in order to establish the proper function and structure of probation. For these reasons the Legislature delegates the following duties to the chief probation officer to carry out in the county for the purposes of managing local juvenile facilities, preventing crime and delinquency, reducing recidivism, restoring victims, and promoting healthy families and communities through the community supervision and the enforcement of court orders and other criminal statutes. These duties are specific and exclusive to the primary areas of responsibility that exist for probation and are intended to emphasize the important role of probation within the criminal justice system in California. This is not intended to limit or diminish the importance of other duties currently delegated in whole or in part to probation elsewhere in code.SEC. 2. It is the intent of the Legislature in enacting amendments to Section 1170.18 of, and adding Section 1170.127 to, the Penal Code, to allow people who are committed to the State Department of State Hospitals upon a finding of not guilty by reason of insanity pursuant to Section 1026 of the Penal Code for an offense that would otherwise fall within the resentencing provisions of Section 1170.126 or 1170.18 of the Penal Code, as enacted by Proposition 36 of the 2012 statewide general election or Proposition 47 of the 2014 statewide general election, to petition the original committing court for relief under those sections. This act is intended to nullify the holding in People v. Dobson, 245 Cal.App.4th 310 (2016).SEC. 3. In enacting amendments to Sections 6031 and 6031.1 of the Penal Code, and Section 209 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, it is the intent of the Legislature that the Board of State and Community Corrections be encouraged to consider adding the maximum number of beds each facility is leasing to the federal government, including the current occupancy rate and the entity to which the beds are being leased, to the Jail Profile Survey.SEC. 4. Section 384 of the Code of Civil Procedure is amended to read:384. (a) It is the policy of the State of California to ensure that the unpaid cash residue and unclaimed or abandoned funds in class action litigation are distributed, to the fullest extent possible, in a manner designed either to further the purposes of the underlying class action or causes of action, or to promote justice for all Californians. The Legislature finds that the use of funds for these purposes is in the public interest, is a proper use of the funds, and is consistent with essential public and governmental purposes.(b) (1) Except as provided in subdivision (c), whenever a judgment, including any consent judgment, decree, or settlement agreement that has been approved by the court, in a class action established pursuant to Section 382, provides for the payment of money to members of the class, any unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds shall be distributed in accordance with this section unless for good cause shown the court makes a specific finding that an alternative distribution would better serve the public interest or the interest of the class. If not specified in the judgment, the court shall set a date when the parties shall submit a report to the court regarding a plan for the distribution of any moneys pursuant to this section.(2) The court shall make any orders necessary and appropriate for the payment, administration, supervision, and accounting of any unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds.(3) Any unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds generally attributable to California residents, plus any accrued interest that has not otherwise been distributed pursuant to order of the court, shall be transmitted as follows:(A) Twenty-five percent to the State Treasury for deposit in the Trial Court Improvement and Modernization Fund, established in Section 77209 of the Government Code, and subject to appropriation in the annual Budget Act for the Judicial Council to provide grants to trial courts for new or expanded collaborative courts or grants for Sargent Shriver Civil Counsel.(B) Twenty-five percent to the State Treasury for deposit into the Equal Access Fund of the Judicial Branch, to be distributed in accordance with Sections 6216 to 6223, inclusive, of the Business and Professions Code, except that administrative costs shall not be paid to the State Bar or the Judicial Council from this sum.(C) Fifty percent to one or more of the following: nonprofit organizations or foundations, to support projects that will benefit the class or similarly situated persons, further the objectives and purposes of the underlying class action or cause of action, or promote the law consistent with the objectives and purposes of the underlying class action or cause of action; child advocacy programs; or nonprofit organizations providing civil legal services to the indigent. Notwithstanding subparagraph (B), additional funds may be allocated by the court to the Equal Access Fund of the Judicial Branch, to be distributed in accordance with Sections 6216 to 6223, inclusive, of the Business and Professions Code. (4) The court shall ensure that the distribution of the balance of any unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds derived from multistate or national cases shall provide substantial or commensurate benefit to California consumers that is roughly proportional to the number of California class members or amounts available from the judgment to California class members in the multistate or national class.(c) This section shall not apply to any class action or cause of action brought against any public entity, as defined in Section 811.2 of the Government Code, or against any public employee, as defined in Section 811.4 of the Government Code. However, this section shall not be construed to abrogate any equitable cy pres remedy that may be available in any class action with regard to all or part of the cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds.SEC. 5. Section 1010.6 of the Code of Civil Procedure is amended to read:1010.6. (a) A document may be served electronically in an action filed with the court as provided in this section, in accordance with rules adopted pursuant to subdivision (e).(1) For purposes of this section:(A) Electronic service means service of a document, on a party or other person, by either electronic transmission or electronic notification. Electronic service may be performed directly by a party, by an agent of a party, including the partys attorney, or through an electronic filing service provider.(B) Electronic transmission means the transmission of a document by electronic means to the electronic service address at or through which a party or other person has authorized electronic service.(C) Electronic notification means the notification of the party or other person that a document is served by sending an electronic message to the electronic address at or through which the party or other person has authorized electronic service, specifying the exact name of the document served, and providing a hyperlink at which the served document may be viewed and downloaded.(2) If a document may be served by mail, express mail, overnight delivery, or facsimile transmission, electronic service of the document is authorized when a party has agreed to accept service electronically in that action.(3) In any action in which a party has agreed to accept electronic service under paragraph (2), or in which the court has ordered electronic service under subdivision (c) or (d), the court may electronically serve any document issued by the court that is not required to be personally served in the same manner that parties electronically serve documents. The electronic service of documents by the court shall have the same legal effect as service by mail, except as provided in paragraph (4).(4) (A) Electronic service of a document is complete at the time of the electronic transmission of the document or at the time that the electronic notification of service of the document is sent. However, any period of notice, or any right or duty to do any act or make any response within any period or on a date certain after the service of the document, which time period or date is prescribed by statute or rule of court, shall be extended after service by electronic means by two court days, but the extension shall not apply to extend the time for filing any of the following:(i) A notice of intention to move for new trial.(ii) A notice of intention to move to vacate judgment under Section 663a.(iii) A notice of appeal.(B) This extension applies in the absence of a specific exception provided by any other statute or rule of court.(b) A trial court may adopt local rules permitting electronic filing of documents, subject to rules adopted pursuant to subdivision (e) and the following conditions:(1) A document that is filed electronically shall have the same legal effect as an original paper document.(2) (A) When a document to be filed requires the signature, not under penalty of perjury, of an attorney or a self-represented party, the document shall be deemed to have been signed by that attorney or self-represented party if filed electronically.(B) When a document to be filed requires the signature, under penalty of perjury, of any person, the document shall be deemed to have been signed by that person if filed electronically and if a printed form of the document has been signed by that person before or on the same day as, the date of filing. The attorney or person filing the document represents, by the act of filing, that the declarant has complied with this section. The attorney or person filing the document shall maintain the printed form of the document bearing the original signature and make it available for review and copying upon the request of the court or any party to the action or proceeding in which it is filed.(3) Any document that is electronically filed with the court after the close of business on any day shall be deemed to have been filed on the next court day. Close of business, as used in this paragraph, means 5 p.m. or the time at which the court will not accept filing at the courts filing counter, whichever is earlier.(4) The court receiving a document filed electronically shall issue a confirmation that the document has been received and filed. The confirmation shall serve as proof that the document has been filed.(5) Upon electronic filing of a complaint, petition, or other document that must be served with a summons, a trial court, upon request of the party filing the action, shall issue a summons with the court seal and the case number. The court shall keep the summons in its records and may electronically transmit a copy of the summons to the requesting party. Personal service of a printed form of the electronic summons shall have the same legal effect as personal service of an original summons. If a trial court plans to electronically transmit a summons to the party filing a complaint, the court shall immediately, upon receipt of the complaint, notify the attorney or party that a summons will be electronically transmitted to the electronic address given by the person filing the complaint.(6) The court shall permit a party or attorney to file an application for waiver of court fees and costs, in lieu of requiring the payment of the filing fee, as part of the process involving the electronic filing of a document. The court shall consider and determine the application in accordance with Article 6 (commencing with Section 68630) of Chapter 2 of Title 8 of the Government Code and shall not require the party or attorney to submit any documentation other than that set forth in Article 6 (commencing with Section 68630) of Chapter 2 of Title 8 of the Government Code. Nothing in this section shall require the court to waive a filing fee that is not otherwise waivable.(7) A fee, if any, charged by the court, an electronic filing manager, or an electronic filing service provider to process a payment for filing fees and other court fees shall not exceed the costs incurred in processing the payment.(c) If a trial court adopts rules conforming to subdivision (b), it may provide by order that all parties to an action file and serve documents electronically in a class action, a consolidated action, a group of actions, a coordinated action, or an action that is deemed complex under Judicial Council rules, provided that the trial courts order does not cause undue hardship or significant prejudice to any party in the action.(d) (1) Notwithstanding subdivision (b), the Orange County Superior Court may, by local rule and until July 1, 2014, establish a pilot project to require parties to specified civil actions to electronically file and serve documents, subject to the requirements set forth in paragraphs (1), (2), (4), (5), and (6) of subdivision (b), rules adopted pursuant to subdivision (e), and the following conditions:(A) The court shall have the ability to maintain the official court record in electronic format for all cases where electronic filing is required.(B) The court and the parties shall have access to more than one electronic filing service provider capable of electronically filing documents with the court or to electronic filing access directly through the court. The court may charge fees of no more than the actual cost of the electronic filing and service of the documents. Any fees charged by an electronic filing service provider shall be reasonable. The court, an electronic filing manager, or an electronic filing service provider shall waive any fees charged if the court deems a waiver appropriate, including in instances where a party has received a fee waiver.(C) The court shall have a procedure for the filing of nonelectronic documents in order to prevent the program from causing undue hardship or significant prejudice to any party in an action, including, but not limited to, unrepresented parties.(D) A court that elects to require electronic filing pursuant to this subdivision may permit documents to be filed electronically until 12 a.m. of the day after the court date that the filing is due, and the filing shall be considered timely. However, if same day service of a document is required, the document shall be electronically filed by 5 p.m. on the court date that the filing is due. Ex parte documents shall be electronically filed on the same date and within the same time period as would be required for the filing of a hard copy of the ex parte documents at the clerks window in the participating county. Documents filed on or after 12 a.m., or filed upon a noncourt day, will be deemed filed on the soonest court day following the filing.(2) If a pilot project is established pursuant to paragraph (1), the Judicial Council shall conduct an evaluation of the pilot project and report to the Legislature, on or before December 31, 2013, on the results of the evaluation. The evaluation shall review, among other things, the cost of the program to participants, cost-effectiveness for the court, effect on unrepresented parties and parties with fee waivers, and ease of use for participants.(e) The Judicial Council shall adopt uniform rules for the electronic filing and service of documents in the trial courts of the state, which shall include statewide policies on vendor contracts, privacy, and access to public records, and rules relating to the integrity of electronic service. These rules shall conform to the conditions set forth in this section, as amended from time to time.(f) The Judicial Council shall, on or before July 1, 2014, adopt uniform rules to permit the mandatory electronic filing and service of documents for specified civil actions in the trial courts of the state, which shall be informed by any study performed pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (d) and which shall include statewide policies on vendor contracts, privacy, access to public records, unrepresented parties, parties with fee waivers, hardships, reasonable exceptions to electronic filing, and rules relating to the integrity of electronic service. These rules shall conform to the conditions set forth in this section, as amended from time to time.(g) (1) Upon the adoption of uniform rules by the Judicial Council for mandatory electronic filing and service of documents for specified civil actions in the trial courts of the state, as specified in subdivision (f), a superior court may, by local rule, require mandatory electronic filing, pursuant to paragraph (2).(2) A superior court that elects to adopt mandatory electronic filing shall do so pursuant to the requirements and conditions set forth in this section, including, but not limited to, paragraphs (1), (2), (4), (5), (6), and (7) of subdivision (b), and subparagraphs (A), (B), and (C) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (d), and pursuant to the rules adopted by the Judicial Council, as specified in subdivision (f).(h) (1) The Judicial Council shall adopt uniform rules to implement this subdivision as soon as practicable, but no later than June 30, 2019.(2) Any system for the electronic filing and service of documents, including any information technology applications, Internet Web sites, and Web-based applications, used by an electronic service provider or any other vendor or contractor that provides an electronic filing and service system to a trial court, regardless of the case management system used by the trial court, shall satisfy both of the following requirements:(A) The system shall be accessible to individuals with disabilities, including parties and attorneys with disabilities, in accordance with Section 508 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. Sec. 794d), as amended, the regulations implementing that act set forth in Part 1194 of Title 36 of the Code of Federal Regulations and Appendices A, C, and D of that part, and the federal Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (42 U.S.C. Sec. 12101 et seq.).(B) The system shall comply with the Web Content Accessibility Guidelines 2.0 at a Level AA success criteria.(3) A vendor or contractor that provides an electronic filing and service system to a trial court shall comply with paragraph (2) as soon as practicable, but no later than June 30, 2019. Commencing on the operative date of this subdivision, the vendor or contractor shall provide an accommodation to an individual with a disability in accordance with subparagraph (D) of paragraph (4).(4) A trial court that contracts with an entity for the provision of a system for electronic filing and service of documents shall require the entity, in the trial courts contract with the entity, to do all of the following:(A) Test and verify that the entitys system complies with this subdivision and provide the verification to the Judicial Council no later than June 30, 2019.(B) Respond to, and resolve, any complaints regarding the accessibility of the system that are brought to the attention of the entity.(C) Designate a lead individual to whom any complaints concerning accessibility may be addressed and post the individuals name and contact information on the entitys Internet Web site.(D) Provide to an individual with a disability, upon request, an accommodation to enable the individual to file and serve documents electronically at no additional charge for any time period that the entity is not compliant with paragraph (2) of this subdivision. Exempting an individual with a disability from mandatory electronic filing and service of documents shall not be deemed an accommodation unless the person chooses that as an accommodation. The vendor or contractor shall clearly state in its Internet Web site that an individual with a disability may request an accommodation and the process for submitting a request for an accommodation.(5) A trial court that provides electronic filing and service of documents directly to the public shall comply with this subdivision to the same extent as a vendor or contractor that provides electronic filing and services to a trial court.(6) (A) The Judicial Council shall submit four reports to the appropriate committees of the Legislature relating to the trial courts that have implemented a system of electronic filing and service of documents. The first report is due by June 30, 2018; the second report is due by December 31, 2019; the third report is due by December 31, 2021; and the fourth report is due by December 31, 2023.(B) The Judicial Councils reports shall include all of the following information:(i) The name of each court that has implemented a system of electronic filing and service of documents.(ii) A description of the system of electronic filing and service.(iii) The name of the entity or entities providing the system.(iv) A statement as to whether the system complies with this subdivision and, if the system is not fully compliant, a description of the actions that have been taken to make the system compliant.(7) An entity that contracts with a trial court to provide a system for electronic filing and service of documents shall cooperate with the Judicial Council by providing all information, and by permitting all testing, necessary for the Judicial Council to prepare its reports to the Legislature in a complete and timely manner.SEC. 6. Chapter 17.8 (commencing with Section 7310) is added to Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code, to read: CHAPTER 17.8. Housing Contracts7310. (a) A city, county, city and county, or local law enforcement agency that does not, as of June 15, 2017, have a contract with the federal government or any federal agency to detain adult noncitizens for purposes of civil immigration custody, is prohibited from entering into a contract with the federal government or any federal agency, to house or detain in a locked detention facility noncitizens for purposes of civil immigration custody.(b) A city, county, city and county, or local law enforcement agency that, as of June 15, 2017, has an existing contract with the federal government or any federal agency to detain adult noncitizens for purposes of civil immigration custody, shall not renew or modify that contract in such a way as to expand the maximum number of contract beds that may be utilized to house or detain in a locked detention facility noncitizens for purposes of civil immigration custody.7311. (a) A city, county, city and county, or local law enforcement agency that does not, as of June 15, 2017, have a contract with the federal government or any federal agency to house or detain any accompanied or unaccompanied minor in the custody of or detained by the federal Office of Refugee Resettlement or the United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement is prohibited from entering into a contract with the federal government or any federal agency to house minors in a locked detention facility.(b) A city, county, city and county, or local law enforcement agency that, as of June 15, 2017, has an existing contract with the federal government or any federal agency to house or detain any accompanied or unaccompanied minor in the custody of or detained by the federal Office of Refugee Resettlement or the United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement shall not renew or modify that contract in such a way as to expand the maximum number of contract beds that may be utilized to house minors in a locked detention facility.(c) This section does not apply to temporary housing of any accompanied or unaccompanied minor in less restrictive settings when the State Department of Social Services certifies a necessity for a contract based on changing conditions of the population in need and if the housing contract meets the following requirements:(1) It is temporary in nature and nonrenewable on a long-term or permanent basis.(2) It meets all applicable federal and state standards for that housing.SEC. 7. Section 11040 of the Government Code is amended to read:11040. (a) It is the intent of the Legislature that overall efficiency and economy in state government be enhanced by employment of the Attorney General as counsel for the representation of state agencies and employees in judicial and administrative adjudicative proceedings.The Legislature finds that it is in the best interests of the people of the State of California that the Attorney General be provided with the resources needed to develop and maintain the Attorney Generals capability to provide competent legal representation of state agencies and employees in any judicial or administrative adjudicative proceeding.(b) As used in this article:(1) In-house counsel means an attorney authorized to practice law in the State of California who is a state employee, including an excluded or exempt employee, other than an employee of the Office of the Attorney General.(2) Outside counsel means an attorney authorized to practice law in the State of California who is not a state employee, including an excluded or exempt employee.(c) Except with respect to employment by the state officers and agencies specified by title or name in Section 11041 or when specifically waived by statute other than Section 11041, a state agency shall obtain the written consent of the Attorney General before doing either of the following:(1) Employing in-house counsel to represent a state agency or employee in any judicial or administrative adjudicative proceeding.(2) Contracting with outside counsel.(d) Except as limited by paragraph (1) of subdivision (c), a state agency may employ in-house counsel for any purpose. This subdivision shall apply retroactively to the employment of any in-house counsel by any state agency before the operative date of the act adding this subdivision.(e) This article does not prohibit a state agency from obtaining legal services from the Attorney General for any purpose.(f) Consistent with subdivision (d), and except as may conflict with contrary authorization by statute, a state agency may employ in-house counsel for advice or other legal work related to bonds or other evidences of indebtedness, but shall engage the Attorney General, alone or with other counsel as may be authorized by statute, for the purpose of delivering any approving legal opinion on bonds or other evidences of indebtedness and advice related to the approving legal opinion. The Attorney General may waive the requirement under this subdivision.SEC. 8. Section 11041 of the Government Code is amended to read:11041. (a) Section 11042 does not apply to the Regents of the University of California, the Trustees of the California State University, Legal Division of the Department of Transportation, Division of Labor Standards Enforcement of the Department of Industrial Relations, Workers Compensation Appeals Board, Public Utilities Commission, State Compensation Insurance Fund, Legislative Counsel Bureau, Inheritance Tax Department, Secretary of State, State Lands Commission, Alcoholic Beverage Control Appeals Board (except when the board affirms the decision of the Department of Alcoholic Beverage Control), State Department of Education, and Treasurer with respect to bonds, nor to any other state agency which, by law enacted after Chapter 213 of the Statutes of 1933, is authorized to employ legal counsel.(b) The Trustees of the California State University shall pay the cost of employing legal counsel from their existing resources.SEC. 9. Section 11042 of the Government Code is amended to read:11042. (a) No state agency shall employ any in-house counsel to act on behalf of the state agency or its employees in any judicial or administrative adjudicative proceeding in which the agency is interested, or is a party as a result of office or official duties, or contract with outside counsel for any purpose, unless the agency has first obtained the written consent of the Attorney General pursuant to Section 11040.(b) The Attorney General may provide written consent for a state agency to employ in-house counsel to represent the agency or its employees in any judicial or administrative adjudicative proceeding in whatever manner the Attorney General deems most effective and consistent with the intent of this article. However, a state agency shall obtain written consent for the use of outside counsel for a matter or matters for which the outside counsel is to be engaged before the execution of each contract with the outside counsel for the matter or matters.SEC. 10. Section 11043 of the Government Code is repealed.SEC. 11. Section 11045 of the Government Code is amended to read:11045. (a) (1) Whenever a state agency requests the consent of the Attorney General to contract with outside counsel, as required by Sections 11040 and 11042, the state agency shall within five business days of the date the request is transmitted to the Attorney General provide the designated representative of State Employees Bargaining Unit 2 with written notification of the request. The notice shall include the items enumerated in subdivision (d).(2) All state agencies, other than the office of the Attorney General, that are not required to obtain the consent to contract with outside counsel required by paragraph (2) of subdivision (c) of Section 11040 and Section 11042, shall provide written notice of any proposed contract for outside counsel to the designated representative of State Employees Bargaining Unit 2 five business days before execution of the contract by the state agency. The notice shall include the items required by subdivision (d). In the event of an emergency that requires the immediate employment of outside counsel, the state agency shall provide the written notice no later than five business days after the contract with outside counsel is signed.(3) Whenever the Attorney General determines the need to employ outside counsel pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 12520, the Attorney General shall give written notice to the designated representative of State Employees Bargaining Unit 2 within 10 days of that determination. The notice shall include the items enumerated in subdivision (d).(b) The Attorney General shall provide the designated representative of State Employees Bargaining Unit 2 with a written report, at least monthly, of all consents granted to every state agency pursuant to Section 11040.(c) Notwithstanding the above notice requirements, whenever any state agency submits a proposed contract for outside counsel to the Department of General Services pursuant to Section 10335 of the Public Contract Code, the agency shall provide a copy of the contract to the designated representative of State Employees Bargaining Unit 2.(d) Written notice within the meaning of this section shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:(1) A copy of the complaint or other pleadings, if any, that gave rise to the litigation or matter for which a contract is being sought, or other identifying information.(2) The justification for the contract, pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 19130.(3) The nature of the legal services to be performed.(4) The estimated hourly wage to be paid under the contract.(5) The estimated length of the contract.(6) The identity of the person or entity that is entering into the contract with the state.(e) State agency, as used in this section, means every state office, department, division, bureau, board, or commission, including the Board of Directors of the State Compensation Insurance Fund, but does not include the Regents of the University of California, the Trustees of the California State University, the Legislature, the courts, or any agency in the judicial branch of government.(f) (1) The notice requirements of this section do not apply to contracts for expert witnesses or consultations in connection with a confidential investigation or to any confidential component of a pending or active legal action.(2) The exemption authorized in paragraph (1) shall only apply as long as necessary to protect the confidentiality of the investigation or the confidential component of a pending or active legal action.(3) Disclosures made pursuant to this section are deemed to be privileged communications for purposes of subdivision (c) of Section 912 of the Evidence Code, and shall not be construed to be a waiver of any privilege or exemption provided by law, including, but not limited to, the lawyer-client privilege, as described in Section 952 of the Evidence Code, or attorney work product, as described in Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 2018.010) of Title 4 of Part 4 of the Code of Civil Procedure.(g) If the provisions of this section are in conflict with the provisions of a memorandum of understanding or other written agreement reached pursuant to Section 3517 or 3517.5, the memorandum of understanding or agreement shall be controlling without further legislative action, except that if any provision of the memorandum of understanding or other agreement requires the expenditure of funds, the provisions may not become effective unless approved by the Legislature.SEC. 12. Section 12532 is added to the Government Code, to read:12532. (a) Until July 1, 2027, the Attorney General, or his or her designee, shall engage in reviews of county, local, or private locked detention facilities in which noncitizens are being housed or detained for purposes of civil immigration proceedings in California, including any county, local, or private locked detention facility in which an accompanied or unaccompanied minor is housed or detained on behalf of, or pursuant to a contract with, the federal Office of Refugee Resettlement or the United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement. The order and number of facilities to be reviewed shall be determined by the Department of Justice. The Attorney General, or his or her designee, shall have authority over which facilities may be reviewed and when. The Department of Justice shall provide, during the budget process, updates and information to the Legislature and the Governor, including a written summary of findings, if appropriate, regarding the progress of these reviews and any relevant findings.(b) The Attorney General, or his or her designee, shall, on or before March 1, 2019, conduct a review of county, local, or private locked detention facilities in which noncitizens are being housed or detained for purposes of civil immigration proceedings in California, including any county, local, or private locked detention facility in which an accompanied or unaccompanied minor is housed or detained on behalf of, or pursuant to a contract with, the federal Office of Refugee Resettlement or the United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement. The order and number of facilities to be reviewed shall be determined by the Department of Justice.(1) This review shall include, but not be limited to, the following:(A) A review of the conditions of confinement.(B) A review of the standard of care and due process provided to the individuals described in subdivision (a).(C) A review of the circumstances around their apprehension and transfer to the facility.(2) The Attorney General, or his or her designee, shall provide, on or before March 1, 2019, the Legislature and the Governor with a comprehensive report outlining the findings of the review described in this subdivision, which shall be posted on the Attorney Generals Internet Web site and otherwise made available to the public upon its release to the Legislature and the Governor. The Department of Justice shall provide, during the budget process, updates and information to the Legislature and the Governor, including a written summary of findings, if appropriate, regarding the progress of the review described in this subdivision and any relevant findings.(c) The Attorney General, or his or her designee, shall be provided all necessary access for the observations necessary to effectuate reviews required pursuant to this section, including, but not limited to, access to detainees, officials, personnel, and records.(d) This section shall become inoperative on July 1, 2027, and, as of January 1, 2028, is repealed.SEC. 13. Section 15007 is added to the Government Code, to read:15007. For potential litigation involving the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Program (Title 21 (commencing with Section 100000), the state shall be represented by attorneys who possess a comprehensive knowledge of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. Sec. 1001 et seq.) (ERISA) and have at least 10 years of experience litigating claims related to ERISA in federal trial and appellate courts. If the Department of Justice does not have sufficient attorneys who possess these characteristics, it shall enter into contracts with qualified attorneys to secure their services.SEC. 14. Section 15820.948 is added to the Government Code, to read:15820.948. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, any funding conditionally awarded by the Board of State and Community Corrections pursuant to Chapter 3.11 (commencing with Section 15820.90), Chapter 3.12 (commencing with Section 15820.91), Chapter 3.13 (commencing with Section 15820.92), or Chapter 3.131 (commencing with Section 15820.93), to a participating county for the construction or renovation of a local jail facility or adult local criminal justice facility after the effective date of the legislation that added this section, shall be used to construct or renovate a facility that meets or surpasses the minimum number of weekly visits as specified by Section 1062 of Title 15 of the California Code of Regulations through the use of in-person visitation space.(b) For any proposals previously submitted to the board pursuant to the funding authority referenced in subdivision (a) that only provided for video visitation, the board shall require the participating county to submit a scope change to include in-person visitation prior to the boards approval of the conditional award.(c) For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:(1) In-person visit means an on-site visit that may include barriers. In-person visits include interactions in which an inmate has physical contact with a visitor, the inmate is able to see a visitor through a barrier, or the inmate is otherwise in a room with a visitor without physical contact. In-person visit does not include an interaction between an inmate and a visitor through the use of an on-site, two-way, audio-video terminal.(2) Video visitation means interaction between an inmate and a member of the public through the means of an audio-visual communication device when the member of the public is located at a local detention facility or at a remote location.SEC. 15. Section 24000 of the Government Code is amended to read:24000. The officers of a county are:(a) A district attorney.(b) A sheriff.(c) A county clerk.(d) A controller.(e) An auditor, who shall be ex officio controller.(f) A treasurer.(g) A recorder.(h) A license collector.(i) A tax collector, who shall be ex officio license collector.(j) An assessor.(k) A superintendent of schools.(l) A public administrator.(m) A coroner.(n) A surveyor.(o) Members of the board of supervisors.(p) A county veterinarian.(q) A fish and game warden.(r) A county librarian.(s) A county health officer.(t) An administrative officer.(u) A director of finance.(v) A road commissioner.(w) A public guardian.(x) A chief probation officer.(y) Such other officers as are provided by law.SEC. 16. Chapter 16 (commencing with Section 27770) is added to Part 3 of Division 2 of Title 3 of the Government Code, to read: CHAPTER 16. Chief Probation Officer27770. (a) A chief probation officer shall be appointed in every county. He or she shall be nominated by the juvenile justice commission or regional juvenile justice commission of the county in the same manner as the presiding judge, in a county with two judges, or a majority of the judges, in a county with more than two judges, shall prescribe, and shall thereafter be appointed by the presiding judge or majority of judges. The salary for the position shall be established by the board of supervisors of the county. He or she may be removed for good cause as determined by the presiding judge or majority of judges.(b) In counties with charters that provide for appointment and tenure of office for the chief probation officer, the provisions of the charter shall control as to those matters and, in counties that have established or hereafter establish merit or civil service systems governing the methods of appointment and the tenure for the chief probation officer, the provisions of the merit or civil service systems shall control as to those matters. In all other counties, appointment and tenure of the chief probation officer shall be controlled exclusively by the provisions of this code.27771. (a) The chief probation officer shall perform the duties and discharge the obligations imposed on the office by law or by order of the superior court, including the following:(1) Community supervision of offenders subject to the jurisdiction of the juvenile court pursuant to Section 602 or 1766 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(2) Operation of juvenile halls pursuant to Section 852 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(3) Operation of juvenile camps and ranches established under Section 880 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(4) Community supervision of individuals subject to probation pursuant to conditions imposed under Section 1203 of the Penal Code.(5) Community supervision of individuals subject to mandatory supervision pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (5) of subdivision (h) of Section 1170 of the Penal Code.(6) Community supervision of individuals subject to postrelease community supervision pursuant to Section 3451 of the Penal Code.(7) Administration of community-based corrections programming, including, but not limited to, programs authorized by Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 1228) of Title 8 of Part 2 of the Penal Code.(8) Serving as chair of the Community Corrections Partnership pursuant to Section 1230 of the Penal Code.(9) Making recommendations to the court, including, but not limited to, pre-sentence investigative reports pursuant to Sections 1203.7 and 1203.10 of the Penal Code.(b) The chief probation officer may perform other duties that are consistent with those enumerated in subdivision (a) and may accept appointment to the Board of State and Community Corrections and collect the per diem authorized by Section 6025.1 of the Penal Code.27772. (a) Except as provided in Section 69906.5, the chief probation officer may appoint deputies, assistants, and other persons, and their compensation shall be established according to the provisions of the countys merit systems or civil service systems. If no merit systems or civil service systems exist in the county, the board of supervisors shall provide for appointment, removal, and compensation of this personnel.(b) A deputy or assistant to the chief probation officer shall not have authority to act until his or her appointment has been approved by the juvenile justice commission or regional juvenile justice commission and by the presiding judge or majority of judges. The term of office of a deputy or assistant shall expire with the term of the chief probation officer who appointed the deputy or assistant, but the chief probation officer may revoke and terminate the appointment at any time.(c) This section applies in any charter county with a charter establishing the office of chief probation officer or adult probation officer and provides for the appointment of the officer in accordance with general law, subject to the merit system provisions of the charter.27773. The office of chief probation officer shall not be consolidated with any other office, nor shall the services provided by the chief probation officer be integrated with or reorganized into any other office or department of the county.SEC. 17. Section 68514 is added to the Government Code, to read:68514. (a) Beginning October 1, 2018, and annually thereafter, the Judicial Council shall report to the Department of Finance and to the Joint Legislative Budget Committee, the total amount of revenue collected in the prior fiscal year, by each court and county, from criminal fines and fees assessed related to infractions and misdemeanors. The report shall include, but not be limited to, the following information:(1) Total nondelinquent revenue collected and the number of cases associated with those collections.(2) Total delinquent revenue collected and the number of cases associated with those collections, as reported by each superior court and county pursuant to Section 1463.010 of the Penal Code.(3) Total amount of fines and fees dismissed, discharged, or satisfied by means other than payment.(4) A description of the collection activities used pursuant to Section 1463.007 of the Penal Code.(5) The total amount collected per collection activity.(6) The total number of cases by collection activity and the total number of individuals associated with those cases.(7) Total administrative costs per collection activity.(8) The percentage of fines or fees that are defaulted on.(b) Judicial Council shall separately list the information required in subdivision (a) for fines and fees assessed in a year prior to the current reporting year that had outstanding balances in the current reporting year.(c) To the extent a court or county cannot provide the information listed in subdivisions (a) and (b), the Judicial Council shall notify the Department of Finance and the Joint Legislative Budget Committee and shall provide a plan for how to obtain this information in the future. The Department of Finance may approve alternate metrics if a court or county does not have this information.SEC. 18. Section 69580 of the Government Code is amended to read:69580. In the County of Alameda there are 67 judges of the superior court.SEC. 19. Section 69592 of the Government Code is amended to read:69592. In the County of Riverside there are 51 judges of the superior court.SEC. 20. Section 69594 of the Government Code is amended to read:69594. In the County of San Bernardino there are 65 judges of the superior court.SEC. 21. Section 69600 of the Government Code is amended to read:69600. In the County of Santa Clara there are 77 judges of the superior court.SEC. 22. Section 69614.4 is added to the Government Code, to read:69614.4. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, two vacant judgeships from the Superior Court of the County of Santa Clara shall be reallocated to the Superior Court of the County of Riverside, and two vacant judgeships from the Superior Court of the County of Alameda shall be reallocated to the Superior Court of the County of San Bernardino.(b) The Judicial Council shall determine which specific vacancies shall be transferred between counties pursuant to this section and take all necessary steps to effectuate each transfer.(c) The term of the judgeships specified in this section shall begin on January 2, 2018.(d) A court in which a vacant judgeship is reallocated shall not have the courts funding allocation reduced or any of its funding shifted or transferred as a result of, or in connection with, the reallocation of a vacant judgeship pursuant to this section.SEC. 23. Article 9 (commencing with Section 70500) is added to Chapter 5.7 of Title 8 of the Government Code, to read: Article 9. Conveyance: Court Facility Property: County of San Diego70500. For purposes of this article, the following definitions shall apply:(a) Central courthouse project means the project analyzed in the Judicial Council EIR to construct the San Diego Central Courthouse and perform the demolition project.(b) Central jail means the county-owned central jail located at 1173 Front Street in the City of San Diego.(c) City EIRs means both the March 2008 City of San Diego Program Environmental Impact Report for the City of San Diegos General Plan (State Clearinghouse No. 200691032), as updated, and the March 2006 Final Environmental Impact Report for the San Diego Downtown Community Plan (State Clearinghouse No. 2003041001), as updated.(d) County property means the county-owned city block in the City of San Diego bounded by West A Street to the north, Union Street to the west, West B Street to the south, and Front Street to the east.(e) Demolition project means the demolition of any or all improvements on the San Diego property or the county property, and the construction of the inmate tunnel.(f) Development project means the disposition and development of all or a portion of the San Diego property and the county property by the County of San Diego, or its successors, lessees, or agents, including any agreements therefor, in a manner consistent with the City of San Diegos General Plan and the San Diego Downtown Community Plan.(g) Improvements means the existing courthouse building located on the San Diego property and the county property and the former county jail facility located on the San Diego property.(h) Inmate tunnel means a tunnel that will transport inmates between the central jail and the San Diego Central Courthouse.(i) Judicial Council EIR means the Environmental Impact Report dated December 2010, State Clearinghouse No. 2000021015, certified by the Judicial Council in December 2010, as amended.(j) San Diego Central Courthouse means the real property and improvements described in subdivision (d) of Section 70501.(k) San Diego property means both the real property described in subdivision (a) of Section 70501 and the improvements.70501. The Legislature finds and declares all of the following:(a) The state owns two contiguous parcels of real property consisting of approximately 2.59 acres located in the City of San Diego on two city blocks bounded by West B Street on the north, Union Street on the west, Broadway on the south, and Front Street on the east. Two buildings are located on the real property. One of the buildings is a courthouse building that is used by the Superior Court of California, County of San Diego, as a trial court facility and by the County of San Diego for county offices. Only a portion of the existing courthouse building is located on the state property. The other building is a former county jail facility.(b) A portion of the existing courthouse building is located on the adjacent county property. The state owns the portion of the existing courthouse building that is located on the county property, but the County of San Diego owns fee title to the county property.(c) The existing courthouse building will be replaced as part of an overall plan for consolidation and upgrade of the court facilities in the County of San Diego.(d) The Judicial Council has constructed the new San Diego Central Courthouse on state-owned property in the downtown area of the City of San Diego that is bounded by West B Street on the north, State Street on the west, West C Street on the south, and Union Street on the east. The new San Diego Central Courthouse will fully replace all space occupied by the superior court in the existing courthouse building located on the San Diego property and the county property, and will improve and enhance the safety and efficiency of superior court operations.(e) The Administrative Director of the Courts may, pursuant to Section 70502, convey the San Diego property to the County of San Diego for the public purpose of promoting public safety by facilitating the construction of the inmate tunnel.(f) After acquisition of the San Diego property, the County of San Diego intends to perform the demolition project on all or a portion of the San Diego property and the county property, and perform the development project on all or a portion of the San Diego property and the county property.70502. (a) (1) Notwithstanding any other law, the Administrative Director of the Courts is hereby authorized, on behalf of the state, to convey to the County of San Diego fee title to the San Diego property in exchange for the countys release of the Judicial Council and the state from all obligations related to the demolition project, the countys agreement to the condition in paragraph (2), and otherwise upon the terms and conditions, and subject to the reservations, the Judicial Council deems to be in the best interests of the state, for the public purpose of promoting public safety by facilitating the construction of the inmate tunnel.(2) The Administrative Director of the Courts shall not convey any interest in the San Diego property to the County of San Diego unless the County of San Diego agrees that no new detention facility, or an expansion of the currently leased or contracted beds in a detention facility, will be constructed on any parcel of the San Diego property.(b) Any sale, exchange, or lease of the San Diego property or the county property by the County of San Diego as part of a development project shall not constitute a disposition of surplus property under Article 8 (commencing with Section 54220) of Chapter 5 of Part 1 of Division 2 of Title 5.(c) In connection with any conveyance of the San Diego property pursuant to the authority granted in subdivision (a), the Administrative Director of the Courts shall have the right and authority to enter into amendments of the existing written agreements in effect as of the operative date of this article, between the County of San Diego and the Judicial Council, that are necessary to reflect the terms of the conveyance described in subdivision (a).(d) The conveyance of the San Diego property to the County of San Diego, on behalf of the state, shall not cause or result in any obligation of the County of San Diego to provide necessary and suitable facilities under Section 70311.70503. The Board of Supervisors of the County of San Diego is authorized to approve a lease for any or all of the San Diego property and the county property, which actions shall not be subject to Article 8 (commencing with Section 25520) of Chapter 5 of Part 2 of Division 2 of Title 3.70504. (a) With respect to the Judicial Council EIR of the central courthouse project, the Legislature finds and declares all of the following:(1) The County of San Diegos approval of the acquisition of the San Diego property or approval of the demolition project does not propose any substantial changes to the central courthouse project.(2) The Judicial Councils approval of the conveyance of the San Diego property to the County of San Diego in exchange for the countys release of the Judicial Council and the state from all obligations related to the demolition project does not propose any substantial changes to the central courthouse project.(3) There are no substantial changes in the circumstances under which approval of the conveyance of the San Diego property to the County of San Diego, the countys acquisition of the San Diego property, or approval of the demolition project will be undertaken that will require major revisions to the Judicial Council EIR due to the involvement of significant new environmental effects or a substantial increase in the severity of previously identified significant effects.(4) There is no new information of substantial importance, as that phrase is described and used in Section 21166 of the Public Resources Code or Section 15162 of Title 14 of the California Code of Regulations, affecting the central courthouse project.(b) Pursuant to subdivision (a), both of the following shall apply:(1) The previously-certified Judicial Council EIR is hereby deemed adequate and approved for the Judicial Councils conveyance of the San Diego property to the County of San Diego and the County of San Diegos approval of the acquisition of the San Diego property and the demolition project.(2) No subsequent or supplemental environmental impact report, addendum, or environmental documentation shall be required pursuant to the California Environmental Quality Act (CEQA)(Division 13 (commencing with Section 21000) of the Public Resources Code).70505. (a) With respect to the city EIRs of the City of San Diegos General Plan and the San Diego Downtown Community Plan, which were conducted in compliance with CEQA, the Legislature finds and declares all of the following:(1) Section 21083.3 of the Public Resources Code and Section 15183 of Title 14 of the California Code of Regulations, for development projects consistent with a community plan, general plan, or zoning, shall be deemed to apply to any development project.(2) There are no project-specific significant effects that are peculiar to a development project, the San Diego property, or the county property, there are no significant effects, including offsite and cumulative impacts, that were not analyzed in the city EIRs, and there are no new or more severe adverse effects than those discussed in the city EIRs.(b) Pursuant to subdivision (a), the previously certified city EIRs are hereby deemed adequate and approved under CEQA for any development project, and no further environmental review shall be required pursuant to CEQA and its implementing regulations.70506. The exemption from CEQA for existing facilities identified in Section 15301 of Title 14 of the California Code of Regulations shall be deemed to apply to any lease authorized by the Board of Supervisors of the County of San Diego for any or all of the improvements on the San Diego property and the county property.70507. The demolition project shall be deemed to be a project that is separate and distinct from the development project. The demolition project and development project serve different purposes, have independent utility, and can be implemented independently.70508. Any legal challenge that is brought against the County of San Diego with regard to the demolition project or the development project shall not result in a reconveyance of the San Diego property to the state.SEC. 24. Section 329 is added to the Military and Veterans Code, to read:329. The Military Department Workers Compensation Fund is hereby created within the State Treasury. Notwithstanding Section 13340 of the Government Code, all moneys in the fund are continuously appropriated to the Military Department for purposes of subdivision (a).(a) The moneys in the fund shall be expended for workers compensation claims that are wholly or partially reimbursed by the federal government for personnel within the Military Department.(b) The fund may receive and deposit any moneys received from the federal government for the sole purpose of paying workers compensation claims of current employees or service members.(c) Moneys in the fund may only be expended by the Military Department for workers compensation claims.SEC. 25. Section 1170.127 is added to the Penal Code, to read:1170.127. (a) A person who is committed to a state hospital after being found not guilty by reason of insanity pursuant to Section 1026 may petition the court to have his or her maximum term of commitment, as established by Section 1026.5, reduced to the length it would have been had Section 1170.126 been in effect at the time of the original determination. Both of the following conditions are required for the maximum term of commitment to be reduced:(1) The person would have met all of the criteria for a reduction in sentence pursuant to Section 1170.126 had he or she been found guilty.(2) The person files the petition for a reduction of the maximum term of commitment before January 1, 2021, or on a later date upon a showing of good cause.(b) If a petitioners maximum term of confinement is ordered reduced under this section, the new term of confinement must provide opportunity to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5. If a petitioners new maximum term of confinement ordered under this section does not provide sufficient time to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5, the new maximum term of confinement may be extended, not more than 240 days from the date the petition is granted, in order to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5.SEC. 26. Section 1170.18 of the Penal Code is amended to read:1170.18. (a) A person who, on November 5, 2014, was serving a sentence for a conviction, whether by trial or plea, of a felony or felonies who would have been guilty of a misdemeanor under the act that added this section (this act) had this act been in effect at the time of the offense may petition for a recall of sentence before the trial court that entered the judgment of conviction in his or her case to request resentencing in accordance with Sections 11350, 11357, or 11377 of the Health and Safety Code, or Section 459.5, 473, 476a, 490.2, 496, or 666 of the Penal Code, as those sections have been amended or added by this act.(b) Upon receiving a petition under subdivision (a), the court shall determine whether the petitioner satisfies the criteria in subdivision (a). If the petitioner satisfies the criteria in subdivision (a), the petitioners felony sentence shall be recalled and the petitioner resentenced to a misdemeanor pursuant to Sections 11350, 11357, or 11377 of the Health and Safety Code, or Section 459.5, 473, 476a, 490.2, 496, or 666 of the Penal Code, as those sections have been amended or added by this act, unless the court, in its discretion, determines that resentencing the petitioner would pose an unreasonable risk of danger to public safety. In exercising its discretion, the court may consider all of the following:(1) The petitioners criminal conviction history, including the type of crimes committed, the extent of injury to victims, the length of prior prison commitments, and the remoteness of the crimes.(2) The petitioners disciplinary record and record of rehabilitation while incarcerated.(3) Any other evidence the court, within its discretion, determines to be relevant in deciding whether a new sentence would result in an unreasonable risk of danger to public safety.(c) As used throughout this code, unreasonable risk of danger to public safety means an unreasonable risk that the petitioner will commit a new violent felony within the meaning of clause (iv) of subparagraph (C) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (e) of Section 667.(d) A person who is resentenced pursuant to subdivision (b) shall be given credit for time served and shall be subject to parole for one year following completion of his or her sentence, unless the court, in its discretion, as part of its resentencing order, releases the person from parole. The person is subject to parole supervision by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation pursuant to Section 3000.08 and the jurisdiction of the court in the county in which the parolee is released or resides, or in which an alleged violation of supervision has occurred, for the purpose of hearing petitions to revoke parole and impose a term of custody.(e) Resentencing pursuant to this section shall not result in the imposition of a term longer than the original sentence.(f) A person who has completed his or her sentence for a conviction, whether by trial or plea, of a felony or felonies who would have been guilty of a misdemeanor under this act had this act been in effect at the time of the offense, may file an application before the trial court that entered the judgment of conviction in his or her case to have the felony conviction or convictions designated as misdemeanors.(g) If the application satisfies the criteria in subdivision (f), the court shall designate the felony offense or offenses as a misdemeanor.(h) Unless the applicant requests a hearing, a hearing is not necessary to grant or deny an application filed under subdivision (f).(i) This section does not apply to a person who has one or more prior convictions for an offense specified in clause (iv) of subparagraph (C) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (e) of Section 667 or for an offense requiring registration pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 290.(j) Except as specified in subdivision (p), a petition or application under this section shall be filed on or before November 4, 2022, or at a later date upon showing of good cause.(k) A felony conviction that is recalled and resentenced under subdivision (b) or designated as a misdemeanor under subdivision (g) shall be considered a misdemeanor for all purposes, except that resentencing shall not permit that person to own, possess, or have in his or her custody or control a firearm or prevent his or her conviction under Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 29800) of Division 9 of Title 4 of Part 6.(l) If the court that originally sentenced the petitioner is not available, the presiding judge shall designate another judge to rule on the petition or application.(m) This section does not diminish or abrogate any rights or remedies otherwise available to the petitioner or applicant.(n) Resentencing pursuant to this section does not diminish or abrogate the finality of judgments in any case that does not come within the purview of this section.(o) A resentencing hearing ordered under this section shall constitute a postconviction release proceeding under paragraph (7) of subdivision (b) of Section 28 of Article I of the California Constitution (Marsys Law).(p) (1) A person who is committed to a state hospital after being found not guilty by reason of insanity pursuant to Section 1026 may petition the court to have his or her maximum term of commitment, as established by Section 1026.5, reduced to the length it would have been had the act that added this section been in effect at the time of the original determination. Both of the following conditions are required for the maximum term of commitment to be reduced.(A) The person would have met all of the criteria for a reduction in sentence pursuant to this section had he or she been found guilty.(B) The person files the petition for a reduction of the maximum term of commitment before January 1, 2021, or on a later date upon a showing of good cause.(2) If a petitioners maximum term of confinement is ordered reduced under this subdivision, the new term of confinement must provide opportunity to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5. If a petitioners new maximum term of confinement ordered under this section does not provide sufficient time to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5, the new maximum term of confinement may be extended, not more than 240 days from the date the petition is granted, in order to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5.SEC. 27. Section 1203.5 of the Penal Code is repealed.SEC. 28. Section 1203.5 is added to the Penal Code, to read:1203.5. The chief probation officers, assistant probation officers, and deputy probation officers appointed in accordance with Chapter 16 (commencing with Section 27770) of Part 3 of Division 2 of Title 3 of the Government Code shall be ex officio adult chief probation officers, assistant adult probation officers, and deputy adult probation officers except in any county or city and county whose charter provides for the separate office of adult probation officer. When the separate office of adult probation officer has been established he or she shall perform all the duties of probation officers except for matters under the jurisdiction of the juvenile court.SEC. 29. Section 1203.6 of the Penal Code is repealed.SEC. 30. Section 1370 of the Penal Code is amended to read:1370. (a) (1) (A) If the defendant is found mentally competent, the criminal process shall resume, the trial on the offense charged or hearing on the alleged violation shall proceed, and judgment may be pronounced.(B) If the defendant is found mentally incompetent, the trial, the hearing on the alleged violation, or the judgment shall be suspended until the person becomes mentally competent.(i) In the meantime, the court shall order that the mentally incompetent defendant be delivered by the sheriff to a State Department of State Hospitals facility, as defined in Section 4100 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, for the care and treatment of the mentally disordered, as directed by the State Department of State Hospitals, or to any other available public or private treatment facility, including a community-based residential treatment system established pursuant to Article 1 (commencing with Section 5670) of Chapter 2.5 of Part 2 of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code if the facility has a secured perimeter or a locked and controlled treatment facility, approved by the community program director that will promote the defendants speedy restoration to mental competence, or placed on outpatient status as specified in Section 1600.(ii) However, if the action against the defendant who has been found mentally incompetent is on a complaint charging a felony offense specified in Section 290, the prosecutor shall determine whether the defendant previously has been found mentally incompetent to stand trial pursuant to this chapter on a charge of a Section 290 offense, or whether the defendant is currently the subject of a pending Section 1368 proceeding arising out of a charge of a Section 290 offense. If either determination is made, the prosecutor shall so notify the court and defendant in writing. After this notification, and opportunity for hearing, the court shall order that the defendant be delivered by the sheriff to a State Department of State Hospitals facility, as directed by the State Department of State Hospitals, or other secure treatment facility for the care and treatment of the mentally disordered unless the court makes specific findings on the record that an alternative placement would provide more appropriate treatment for the defendant and would not pose a danger to the health and safety of others.(iii) If the action against the defendant who has been found mentally incompetent is on a complaint charging a felony offense specified in Section 290 and the defendant has been denied bail pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 12 of Article I of the California Constitution because the court has found, based upon clear and convincing evidence, a substantial likelihood that the persons release would result in great bodily harm to others, the court shall order that the defendant be delivered by the sheriff to a State Department of State Hospitals facility, for the care and treatment of the mentally disordered, as directed by the State Department of State Hospitals, unless the court makes specific findings on the record that an alternative placement would provide more appropriate treatment for the defendant and would not pose a danger to the health and safety of others.(iv) The clerk of the court shall notify the Department of Justice in writing of a finding of mental incompetence with respect to a defendant who is subject to clause (ii) or (iii) for inclusion in his or her state summary criminal history information.(C) Upon the filing of a certificate of restoration to competence, the court shall order that the defendant be returned to court in accordance with Section 1372. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the community program director or a designee.(D) A defendant charged with a violent felony may not be delivered to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or treatment facility pursuant to this subdivision unless the State Department of State Hospitals facility or treatment facility has a secured perimeter or a locked and controlled treatment facility, and the judge determines that the public safety will be protected.(E) For purposes of this paragraph, violent felony means an offense specified in subdivision (c) of Section 667.5.(F) A defendant charged with a violent felony may be placed on outpatient status, as specified in Section 1600, only if the court finds that the placement will not pose a danger to the health or safety of others. If the court places a defendant charged with a violent felony on outpatient status, as specified in Section 1600, the court shall serve copies of the placement order on defense counsel, the sheriff in the county where the defendant will be placed, and the district attorney for the county in which the violent felony charges are pending against the defendant.(2) Prior to making the order directing that the defendant be committed to the State Department of State Hospitals or other treatment facility or placed on outpatient status, the court shall proceed as follows:(A) The court shall order the community program director or a designee to evaluate the defendant and to submit to the court within 15 judicial days of the order a written recommendation as to whether the defendant should be required to undergo outpatient treatment, or be committed to the State Department of State Hospitals or to any other treatment facility. A person shall not be admitted to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility or placed on outpatient status under this section without having been evaluated by the community program director or a designee. The community program director or designee shall evaluate the appropriate placement for the defendant between a State Department of State Hospitals facility or the community-based residential treatment system based upon guidelines provided by the State Department of State Hospitals.(B) The court shall hear and determine whether the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding the administration of antipsychotic medication. The court shall consider opinions in the reports prepared pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 1369, as applicable to the issue of whether the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding the administration of antipsychotic medication, and shall proceed as follows:(i) The court shall hear and determine whether any of the following is true:(I) The defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication, the defendants mental disorder requires medical treatment with antipsychotic medication, and, if the defendants mental disorder is not treated with antipsychotic medication, it is probable that serious harm to the physical or mental health of the patient will result. Probability of serious harm to the physical or mental health of the defendant requires evidence that the defendant is presently suffering adverse effects to his or her physical or mental health, or the defendant has previously suffered these effects as a result of a mental disorder and his or her condition is substantially deteriorating. The fact that a defendant has a diagnosis of a mental disorder does not alone establish probability of serious harm to the physical or mental health of the defendant.(II) The defendant is a danger to others, in that the defendant has inflicted, attempted to inflict, or made a serious threat of inflicting substantial physical harm on another while in custody, or the defendant had inflicted, attempted to inflict, or made a serious threat of inflicting substantial physical harm on another that resulted in his or her being taken into custody, and the defendant presents, as a result of mental disorder or mental defect, a demonstrated danger of inflicting substantial physical harm on others. Demonstrated danger may be based on an assessment of the defendants present mental condition, including a consideration of past behavior of the defendant within six years prior to the time the defendant last attempted to inflict, inflicted, or threatened to inflict substantial physical harm on another, and other relevant evidence.(III) The people have charged the defendant with a serious crime against the person or property, involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication is substantially likely to render the defendant competent to stand trial, the medication is unlikely to have side effects that interfere with the defendants ability to understand the nature of the criminal proceedings or to assist counsel in the conduct of a defense in a reasonable manner, less intrusive treatments are unlikely to have substantially the same results, and antipsychotic medication is in the patients best medical interest in light of his or her medical condition.(ii) If the court finds any of the conditions described in clause (i) to be true, the court shall issue an order authorizing involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication to the defendant when and as prescribed by the defendants treating psychiatrist at any facility housing the defendant for purposes of this chapter. The order shall be valid for no more than one year, pursuant to subparagraph (A) of paragraph (7). The court shall not order involuntary administration of psychotropic medication under subclause (III) of clause (i) unless the court has first found that the defendant does not meet the criteria for involuntary administration of psychotropic medication under subclause (I) of clause (i) and does not meet the criteria under subclause (II) of clause (i).(iii) In all cases, the treating hospital, facility, or program may administer medically appropriate antipsychotic medication prescribed by a psychiatrist in an emergency as described in subdivision (m) of Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(iv) If the court has determined that the defendant has the capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication, and if the defendant, with advice of his or her counsel, consents, the court order of commitment shall include confirmation that antipsychotic medication may be given to the defendant as prescribed by a treating psychiatrist pursuant to the defendants consent. The commitment order shall also indicate that, if the defendant withdraws consent for antipsychotic medication, after the treating psychiatrist complies with the provisions of subparagraph (C), the defendant shall be returned to court for a hearing in accordance with subparagraphs (C) and (D) regarding whether antipsychotic medication shall be administered involuntarily.(v) If the court has determined that the defendant has the capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication and if the defendant, with advice from his or her counsel, does not consent, the court order for commitment shall indicate that, after the treating psychiatrist complies with the provisions of subparagraph (C), the defendant shall be returned to court for a hearing in accordance with subparagraphs (C) and (D) regarding whether antipsychotic medication shall be administered involuntarily.(vi) A report made pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) shall include a description of antipsychotic medication administered to the defendant and its effects and side effects, including effects on the defendants appearance or behavior that would affect the defendants ability to understand the nature of the criminal proceedings or to assist counsel in the conduct of a defense in a reasonable manner. During the time the defendant is confined in a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility or placed on outpatient status, either the defendant or the people may request that the court review any order made pursuant to this subdivision. The defendant, to the same extent enjoyed by other patients in the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility, shall have the right to contact the patients rights advocate regarding his or her rights under this section.(C) If the defendant consented to antipsychotic medication as described in clause (iv) of subparagraph (B), but subsequently withdraws his or her consent, or, if involuntary antipsychotic medication was not ordered pursuant to clause (v) of subparagraph (B), and the treating psychiatrist determines that antipsychotic medication has become medically necessary and appropriate, the treating psychiatrist shall make efforts to obtain informed consent from the defendant for antipsychotic medication. If informed consent is not obtained from the defendant, and the treating psychiatrist is of the opinion that the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication based on the conditions described in subclause (I) or (II) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B), the treating psychiatrist shall certify whether the lack of capacity and any applicable conditions described above exist. That certification shall contain an assessment of the current mental status of the defendant and the opinion of the treating psychiatrist that involuntary antipsychotic medication has become medically necessary and appropriate.(D) (i) If the treating psychiatrist certifies that antipsychotic medication has become medically necessary and appropriate pursuant to subparagraph (C), antipsychotic medication may be administered to the defendant for not more than 21 days, provided, however, that, within 72 hours of the certification, the defendant is provided a medication review hearing before an administrative law judge to be conducted at the facility where the defendant is receiving treatment. The treating psychiatrist shall present the case for the certification for involuntary treatment and the defendant shall be represented by an attorney or a patients rights advocate. The attorney or patients rights advocate shall be appointed to meet with the defendant no later than one day prior to the medication review hearing to review the defendants rights at the medication review hearing, discuss the process, answer questions or concerns regarding involuntary medication or the hearing, assist the defendant in preparing for the hearing and advocating for his or her interests at the hearing, review the panels final determination following the hearing, advise the defendant of his or her right to judicial review of the panels decision, and provide the defendant with referral information for legal advice on the subject. The defendant shall also have the following rights with respect to the medication review hearing:(I) To be given timely access to the defendants records.(II) To be present at the hearing, unless the defendant waives that right.(III) To present evidence at the hearing.(IV) To question persons presenting evidence supporting involuntary medication.(V) To make reasonable requests for attendance of witnesses on the defendants behalf.(VI) To a hearing conducted in an impartial and informal manner.(ii) If the administrative law judge determines that the defendant either meets the criteria specified in subclause (I) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B), or meets the criteria specified in subclause (II) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B), then antipsychotic medication may continue to be administered to the defendant for the 21-day certification period. Concurrently with the treating psychiatrists certification, the treating psychiatrist shall file a copy of the certification and a petition with the court for issuance of an order to administer antipsychotic medication beyond the 21-day certification period. For purposes of this subparagraph, the treating psychiatrist shall not be required to pay or deposit any fee for the filing of the petition or other document or paper related to the petition.(iii) If the administrative law judge disagrees with the certification, medication may not be administered involuntarily until the court determines that antipsychotic medication should be administered pursuant to this section.(iv) The court shall provide notice to the prosecuting attorney and to the attorney representing the defendant, and shall hold a hearing, no later than 18 days from the date of the certification, to determine whether antipsychotic medication should be ordered beyond the certification period.(v) If, as a result of the hearing, the court determines that antipsychotic medication should be administered beyond the certification period, the court shall issue an order authorizing the administration of that medication.(vi) The court shall render its decision on the petition and issue its order no later than three calendar days after the hearing and, in any event, no later than the expiration of the 21-day certification period.(vii) If the administrative law judge upholds the certification pursuant to clause (ii), the court may, for a period not to exceed 14 days, extend the certification and continue the hearing pursuant to stipulation between the parties or upon a finding of good cause. In determining good cause, the court may review the petition filed with the court, the administrative law judges order, and any additional testimony needed by the court to determine if it is appropriate to continue medication beyond the 21-day certification and for a period of up to 14 days.(viii) The district attorney, county counsel, or representative of a facility where a defendant found incompetent to stand trial is committed may petition the court for an order to administer involuntary medication pursuant to the criteria set forth in subclauses (II) and (III) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B). The order is reviewable as provided in paragraph (7).(3) When the court orders that the defendant be committed to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other public or private treatment facility, the court shall provide copies of the following documents prior to the admission of the defendant to the State Department of State Hospitals or other treatment facility where the defendant is to be committed:(A) The commitment order, including a specification of the charges.(B) A computation or statement setting forth the maximum term of commitment in accordance with subdivision (c).(C) A computation or statement setting forth the amount of credit for time served, if any, to be deducted from the maximum term of commitment.(D) State summary criminal history information.(E) Arrest reports prepared by the police department or other law enforcement agency.(F) Court-ordered psychiatric examination or evaluation reports.(G) The community program directors placement recommendation report.(H) Records of a finding of mental incompetence pursuant to this chapter arising out of a complaint charging a felony offense specified in Section 290 or a pending Section 1368 proceeding arising out of a charge of a Section 290 offense.(I) Medical records.(4) When the defendant is committed to a treatment facility pursuant to clause (i) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) or the court makes the findings specified in clause (ii) or (iii) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) to assign the defendant to a treatment facility other than a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other secure treatment facility, the court shall order that notice be given to the appropriate law enforcement agency or agencies having local jurisdiction at the site of the placement facility of any finding of mental incompetence pursuant to this chapter arising out of a charge of a Section 290 offense.(5) When directing that the defendant be confined in a State Department of State Hospitals facility pursuant to this subdivision, the court shall commit the patient to the State Department of State Hospitals.(6) (A) If the defendant is committed or transferred to the State Department of State Hospitals pursuant to this section, the court may, upon receiving the written recommendation of the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility and the community program director that the defendant be transferred to a public or private treatment facility approved by the community program director, order the defendant transferred to that facility. If the defendant is committed or transferred to a public or private treatment facility approved by the community program director, the court may, upon receiving the written recommendation of the community program director, transfer the defendant to the State Department of State Hospitals or to another public or private treatment facility approved by the community program director. In the event of dismissal of the criminal charges before the defendant recovers competence, the person shall be subject to the applicable provisions of the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act (Part 1 (commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code). If either the defendant or the prosecutor chooses to contest either kind of order of transfer, a petition may be filed in the court for a hearing, which shall be held if the court determines that sufficient grounds exist. At the hearing, the prosecuting attorney or the defendant may present evidence bearing on the order of transfer. The court shall use the same standards as are used in conducting probation revocation hearings pursuant to Section 1203.2.Prior to making an order for transfer under this section, the court shall notify the defendant, the attorney of record for the defendant, the prosecuting attorney, and the community program director or a designee.(B) If the defendant is initially committed to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or secure treatment facility pursuant to clause (ii) or (iii) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) and is subsequently transferred to any other facility, copies of the documents specified in paragraph (3) shall be taken with the defendant to each subsequent facility to which the defendant is transferred. The transferring facility shall also notify the appropriate law enforcement agency or agencies having local jurisdiction at the site of the new facility that the defendant is a person subject to clause (ii) or (iii) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1).(7) (A) An order by the court authorizing involuntary medication of the defendant shall be valid for no more than one year. The court shall review the order at the time of the review of the initial report and the six-month progress reports pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) to determine if the grounds for the authorization remain. In the review, the court shall consider the reports of the treating psychiatrist or psychiatrists and the defendants patients rights advocate or attorney. The court may require testimony from the treating psychiatrist and the patients rights advocate or attorney, if necessary. The court may continue the order authorizing involuntary medication for up to another six months, or vacate the order, or make any other appropriate order.(B) Within 60 days before the expiration of the one-year involuntary medication order, the district attorney, county counsel, or representative of any facility where a defendant found incompetent to stand trial is committed may petition the committing court for a renewal, subject to the same conditions and requirements as in subparagraph (A). The petition shall include the basis for involuntary medication set forth in clause (i) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2). Notice of the petition shall be provided to the defendant, the defendants attorney, and the district attorney. The court shall hear and determine whether the defendant continues to meet the criteria set forth in clause (i) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2). The hearing on any petition to renew an order for involuntary medication shall be conducted prior to the expiration of the current order.(8) For purposes of subparagraph (D) of paragraph (2) and paragraph (7), if the treating psychiatrist determines that there is a need, based on preserving his or her rapport with the patient or preventing harm, the treating psychiatrist may request that the facility medical director designate another psychiatrist to act in the place of the treating psychiatrist. If the medical director of the facility designates another psychiatrist to act pursuant to this paragraph, the treating psychiatrist shall brief the acting psychiatrist of the relevant facts of the case and the acting psychiatrist shall examine the patient prior to the hearing.(b) (1) Within 90 days of a commitment made pursuant to subdivision (a), the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility to which the defendant is confined shall make a written report to the court and the community program director for the county or region of commitment, or a designee, concerning the defendants progress toward recovery of mental competence and whether the administration of antipsychotic medication remains necessary. If the defendant is on outpatient status, the outpatient treatment staff shall make a written report to the community program director concerning the defendants progress toward recovery of mental competence. Within 90 days of placement on outpatient status, the community program director shall report to the court on this matter. If the defendant has not recovered mental competence, but the report discloses a substantial likelihood that the defendant will regain mental competence in the foreseeable future, the defendant shall remain in the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility or on outpatient status. Thereafter, at six-month intervals or until the defendant becomes mentally competent, if the defendant is confined in a treatment facility, the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility or person in charge of the facility shall report in writing to the court and the community program director or a designee regarding the defendants progress toward recovery of mental competence and whether the administration of antipsychotic medication remains necessary. If the defendant is on outpatient status, after the initial 90-day report, the outpatient treatment staff shall report to the community program director on the defendants progress toward recovery, and the community program director shall report to the court on this matter at six-month intervals. A copy of these reports shall be provided to the prosecutor and defense counsel by the court.(A) If the report indicates that there is no substantial likelihood that the defendant will regain mental competence in the foreseeable future, the committing court shall order the defendant to be returned to the court for proceedings pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (c) no later than 10 days following receipt of the report. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the community program director or a designee.(B) If the report indicates that there is no substantial likelihood that the defendant will regain mental competence in the foreseeable future, the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility to which the defendant is confined shall do both of the following:(i) Promptly notify and provide a copy of the report to the defense counsel and the district attorney.(ii) Provide a separate notification, in compliance with applicable privacy laws, to the committing countys sheriff that transportation will be needed for the patient.(2) If the court has issued an order authorizing the treating facility to involuntarily administer antipsychotic medication to the defendant, the reports made pursuant to paragraph (1) concerning the defendants progress toward regaining competency shall also consider the issue of involuntary medication. Each report shall include, but is not limited to, all of the following:(A) Whether or not the defendant has the capacity to make decisions concerning antipsychotic medication.(B) If the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions concerning antipsychotic medication, whether the defendant risks serious harm to his or her physical or mental health if not treated with antipsychotic medication.(C) Whether or not the defendant presents a danger to others if he or she is not treated with antipsychotic medication.(D) Whether the defendant has a mental illness for which medications are the only effective treatment.(E) Whether there are any side effects from the medication currently being experienced by the defendant that would interfere with the defendants ability to collaborate with counsel.(F) Whether there are any effective alternatives to medication.(G) How quickly the medication is likely to bring the defendant to competency.(H) Whether the treatment plan includes methods other than medication to restore the defendant to competency.(I) A statement, if applicable, that no medication is likely to restore the defendant to competency.(3) After reviewing the reports, the court shall determine whether or not grounds for the order authorizing involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication still exist and shall do one of the following:(A) If the original grounds for involuntary medication still exist, the order authorizing the treating facility to involuntarily administer antipsychotic medication to the defendant shall remain in effect.(B) If the original grounds for involuntary medication no longer exist, and there is no other basis for involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication, the order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication shall be vacated.(C) If the original grounds for involuntary medication no longer exist, and the report states that there is another basis for involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication, the court shall set a hearing within 21 days to determine whether the order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication shall be vacated or whether a new order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication shall be issued. The hearing shall proceed as set forth in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a).(4) Any defendant who has been committed or has been on outpatient status for 18 months and is still hospitalized or on outpatient status shall be returned to the committing court where a hearing shall be held pursuant to the procedures set forth in Section 1369. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the community program director or a designee.(5) If it is determined by the court that no treatment for the defendants mental impairment is being conducted, the defendant shall be returned to the committing court. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the community program director or a designee.(6) At each review by the court specified in this subdivision, the court shall determine if the security level of housing and treatment is appropriate and may make an order in accordance with its determination. If the court determines that the defendant shall continue to be treated in the State Department of State Hospitals facility or on an outpatient basis, the court shall determine issues concerning administration of antipsychotic medication, as set forth in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a).(c) (1) At the end of three years from the date of commitment or a period of commitment equal to the maximum term of imprisonment provided by law for the most serious offense charged in the information, indictment, or misdemeanor complaint, or the maximum term of imprisonment provided by law for a violation of probation or mandatory supervision, whichever is shorter, but no later than 90 days prior to the expiration of the defendants term of commitment, a defendant who has not recovered mental competence shall be returned to the committing court. The court shall notify the community program director or a designee of the return and of any resulting court orders.(2) Whenever a defendant is returned to the court pursuant to paragraph (1) or (4) of subdivision (b) or paragraph (1) of this subdivision and it appears to the court that the defendant is gravely disabled, as defined in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (h) of Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the court shall order the conservatorship investigator of the county of commitment of the defendant to initiate conservatorship proceedings for the defendant pursuant to Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 5350) of Part 1 of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. Hearings required in the conservatorship proceedings shall be held in the superior court in the county that ordered the commitment. The court shall transmit a copy of the order directing initiation of conservatorship proceedings to the community program director or a designee, the sheriff and the district attorney of the county in which criminal charges are pending, and the defendants counsel of record. The court shall notify the community program director or a designee, the sheriff and district attorney of the county in which criminal charges are pending, and the defendants counsel of record of the outcome of the conservatorship proceedings.(3) If a change in placement is proposed for a defendant who is committed pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (h) of Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the court shall provide notice and an opportunity to be heard with respect to the proposed placement of the defendant to the sheriff and the district attorney of the county in which the criminal charges or revocation proceedings are pending.(4) If the defendant is confined in a treatment facility, a copy of any report to the committing court regarding the defendants progress toward recovery of mental competence shall be provided by the committing court to the prosecutor and to the defense counsel.(d) With the exception of proceedings alleging a violation of mandatory supervision, the criminal action remains subject to dismissal pursuant to Section 1385. If the criminal action is dismissed, the court shall transmit a copy of the order of dismissal to the community program director or a designee. In a proceeding alleging a violation of mandatory supervision, if the person is not placed under a conservatorship as described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (c), or if a conservatorship is terminated, the court shall reinstate mandatory supervision and may modify the terms and conditions of supervision to include appropriate mental health treatment or refer the matter to a local mental health court, reentry court, or other collaborative justice court available for improving the mental health of the defendant.(e) If the criminal action against the defendant is dismissed, the defendant shall be released from commitment ordered under this section, but without prejudice to the initiation of any proceedings that may be appropriate under the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act (Part 1 (commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code).(f) As used in this chapter, community program director means the person, agency, or entity designated by the State Department of State Hospitals pursuant to Section 1605 of this code and Section 4360 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(g) For the purpose of this section, secure treatment facility shall not include, except for State Department of State Hospitals facilities, state developmental centers, and correctional treatment facilities, any facility licensed pursuant to Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 1250) of, Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 1500) of, or Chapter 3.2 (commencing with Section 1569) of, Division 2 of the Health and Safety Code, or any community board and care facility.(h) Nothing in this section shall preclude a defendant from filing a petition for habeas corpus to challenge the continuing validity of an order authorizing a treatment facility or outpatient program to involuntarily administer antipsychotic medication to a person being treated as incompetent to stand trial.SEC. 31. Section 1370.6 of the Penal Code is amended to read:1370.6. (a) If a mentally incompetent defendant is admitted to a county jail treatment facility pursuant to Section 1370, the department shall provide restoration of competency treatment at the county jail treatment facility and shall provide payment to the county jail treatment facility for the reasonable costs of the bed during the restoration of competency treatment as well as for the reasonable costs of any necessary medical treatment not provided within the county jail treatment facility, unless otherwise agreed to by the department and the facility.(1) If the county jail treatment facility is able to provide restoration of competency services, upon approval by the department and subject to funding appropriated in the annual Budget Act, the county jail treatment facility may provide those services and the State Department of State Hospitals may provide payment to the county jail treatment facility for the reasonable costs of the bed during the restoration of competency treatment as well as the reasonable costs of providing restoration of competency services and for any necessary medical treatment not provided within the county jail treatment facility, unless otherwise agreed to by the department and the facility.(2) Transportation to a county jail treatment facility for admission and from the facility upon the filing of a certificate of restoration of competency, or for transfer of a person to another county jail treatment facility or to a state hospital, shall be provided by the committing county unless otherwise agreed to by the department and the facility.(3) In the event the State Department of State Hospitals and a county jail treatment facility are determined to be comparatively at fault for any claim, action, loss, or damage which results from their respective obligations under such a contract, each shall indemnify the other to the extent of its comparative fault.(4) The six-month limitation in Section 1369.1 shall not apply to individuals deemed incompetent to stand trial who are being treated to restore competency within a county jail treatment facility pursuant to this section.(b) If the community-based residential system is selected by the court pursuant to Section 1370, the State Department of State Hospitals shall provide reimbursement to the community-based residential treatment system for the cost of restoration of competency treatment as negotiated with the State Department of State Hospitals.(c) The State Department of State Hospitals may provide payment to either a county jail treatment facility or a community-based residential treatment system directly through invoice, or through a contract, at the discretion of the department in accordance with the terms and conditions of the contract or agreement.SEC. 32. Section 1372 of the Penal Code is amended to read:1372. (a) (1) If the medical director of a state hospital or other facility to which the defendant is committed, or the community program director, county mental health director, or regional center director providing outpatient services, determines that the defendant has regained mental competence, the director shall immediately certify that fact to the court by filing a certificate of restoration with the court by certified mail, return receipt requested. For purposes of this section, the date of filing shall be the date on the return receipt.(2) The courts order committing an individual to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility pursuant to Section 1370 shall include direction that the sheriff shall redeliver the patient to the court without any further order from the court upon receiving from the state hospital or treatment facility a copy of the certificate of restoration.(3) The defendant shall be returned to the committing court in the following manner:(A) A patient who remains confined in a state hospital or other treatment facility shall be redelivered to the sheriff of the county from which the patient was committed. The sheriff shall immediately return the person from the state hospital or other treatment facility to the court for further proceedings.(B) The patient who is on outpatient status shall be returned by the sheriff to court through arrangements made by the outpatient treatment supervisor.(C) In all cases, the patient shall be returned to the committing court no later than 10 days following the filing of a certificate of restoration. The state shall only pay for 10 hospital days for patients following the filing of a certificate of restoration of competency. The State Department of State Hospitals shall report to the fiscal and appropriate policy committees of the Legislature on an annual basis in February, on the number of days that exceed the 10-day limit prescribed in this subparagraph. This report shall include, but not be limited to, a data sheet that itemizes by county the number of days that exceed this 10-day limit during the preceding year.(b) If the defendant becomes mentally competent after a conservatorship has been established pursuant to the applicable provisions of the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act, Part 1 (commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, and Section 1370, the conservator shall certify that fact to the sheriff and district attorney of the county in which the defendants case is pending, defendants attorney of record, and the committing court.(c) When a defendant is returned to court with a certification that competence has been regained, the court shall notify either the community program director, the county mental health director, or the regional center director and the Director of Developmental Services, as appropriate, of the date of any hearing on the defendants competence and whether or not the defendant was found by the court to have recovered competence.(d) If the committing court approves the certificate of restoration to competence as to a person in custody, the court shall hold a hearing to determine whether the person is entitled to be admitted to bail or released on own recognizance status pending conclusion of the proceedings. If the superior court approves the certificate of restoration to competence regarding a person on outpatient status, unless it appears that the person has refused to come to court, that person shall remain released either on own recognizance status, or, in the case of a developmentally disabled person, either on the defendants promise or on the promise of a responsible adult to secure the persons appearance in court for further proceedings. If the person has refused to come to court, the court shall set bail and may place the person in custody until bail is posted.(e) A defendant subject to either subdivision (a) or (b) who is not admitted to bail or released under subdivision (d) may, at the discretion of the court, upon recommendation of the director of the facility where the defendant is receiving treatment, be returned to the hospital or facility of his or her original commitment or other appropriate secure facility approved by the community program director, the county mental health director, or the regional center director. The recommendation submitted to the court shall be based on the opinion that the person will need continued treatment in a hospital or treatment facility in order to maintain competence to stand trial or that placing the person in a jail environment would create a substantial risk that the person would again become incompetent to stand trial before criminal proceedings could be resumed.(f) Notwithstanding subdivision (e), if a defendant is returned by the court to a hospital or other facility for the purpose of maintaining competency to stand trial and that defendant is already under civil commitment to that hospital or facility from another county pursuant to the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act (Part 1 (commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code) or as a developmentally disabled person committed pursuant to Article 2 (commencing with Section 6500) of Chapter 2 of Part 2 of Division 6 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the costs of housing and treating the defendant in that facility following return pursuant to subdivision (e) shall be the responsibility of the original county of civil commitment.SEC. 33. Section 1463.007 of the Penal Code is amended to read:1463.007. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, a county or court that operates a comprehensive collection program may deduct the costs of operating that program, excluding capital expenditures, from any revenues collected under that program. The costs shall be deducted before any distribution of revenues to other governmental entities required by any other law. A county or court operating a comprehensive collection program may establish a minimum base fee, fine, forfeiture, penalty, or assessment amount for inclusion in the program.(b) Once debt becomes delinquent, it continues to be delinquent and may be subject to collection by a comprehensive collection program. Debt is delinquent and subject to collection by a comprehensive collection program if any of the following conditions is met:(1) A defendant does not post bail or appear on or before the date on which he or she promised to appear, or any lawful continuance of that date, if that defendant was eligible to post and forfeit bail.(2) A defendant does not pay the amount imposed by the court on or before the date ordered by the court, or any lawful continuance of that date.(3) A defendant has failed to make an installment payment on the date specified by the court.(c) For the purposes of this section, a comprehensive collection program is a separate and distinct revenue collection activity that meets each of the following criteria:(1) The program identifies and collects amounts arising from delinquent court-ordered debt, whether or not a warrant has been issued against the alleged violator.(2) The program complies with the requirements of subdivision (b) of Section 1463.010.(3) The program engages in each of the following activities:(A) Attempts telephone contact with delinquent debtors for whom the program has a telephone number to inform them of their delinquent status and payment options.(B) Notifies delinquent debtors for whom the program has an address in writing of their outstanding obligation within 95 days of delinquency.(C) Generates internal monthly reports to track collections data, such as age of debt and delinquent amounts outstanding.(D) Uses Department of Motor Vehicles information to locate delinquent debtors.(E) Accepts payment of delinquent debt by credit card.(4) The program engages in at least five of the following activities:(A) Sends delinquent debt to the Franchise Tax Boards Court-Ordered Debt Collections Program.(B) Sends delinquent debt to the Franchise Tax Boards Interagency Intercept Collections Program.(C) Initiates drivers license suspension or hold actions when appropriate for a failure to appear in court.(D) Contracts with one or more private debt collectors to collect delinquent debt.(E) Sends monthly bills or account statements to all delinquent debtors.(F) Contracts with local, regional, state, or national skip tracing or locator resources or services to locate delinquent debtors.(G) Coordinates with the probation department to locate debtors who may be on formal or informal probation.(H) Uses Employment Development Department employment and wage information to collect delinquent debt.(I) Establishes wage and bank account garnishments where appropriate.(J) Places liens on real property owned by delinquent debtors when appropriate.(K) Uses an automated dialer or automatic call distribution system to manage telephone calls.SEC. 34. Section 1464 of the Penal Code is amended to read:1464. (a) (1) Subject to Chapter 12 (commencing with Section 76000) of Title 8 of the Government Code, and except as otherwise provided in this section, there shall be levied a state penalty in the amount of ten dollars ($10) for every ten dollars ($10), or part of ten dollars ($10), upon every fine, penalty, or forfeiture imposed and collected by the courts for all criminal offenses, including all offenses, except parking offenses as defined in subdivision (i) of Section 1463, involving a violation of a section of the Vehicle Code or any local ordinance adopted pursuant to the Vehicle Code.(2) Any bail schedule adopted pursuant to Section 1269b or bail schedule adopted by the Judicial Council pursuant to Section 40310 of the Vehicle Code may include the necessary amount to pay the penalties established by this section and Chapter 12 (commencing with Section 76000) of Title 8 of the Government Code, and the surcharge authorized by Section 1465.7, for all matters where a personal appearance is not mandatory and the bail is posted primarily to guarantee payment of the fine.(3) The penalty imposed by this section does not apply to the following:(A) Any restitution fine.(B) Any penalty authorized by Chapter 12 (commencing with Section 76000) of Title 8 of the Government Code.(C) Any parking offense subject to Article 3 (commencing with Section 40200) of Chapter 1 of Division 17 of the Vehicle Code.(D) The state surcharge authorized by Section 1465.7.(b) Where multiple offenses are involved, the state penalty shall be based upon the total fine or bail for each case. When a fine is suspended, in whole or in part, the state penalty shall be reduced in proportion to the suspension.(c) When any deposited bail is made for an offense to which this section applies, and for which a court appearance is not mandatory, the person making the deposit shall also deposit a sufficient amount to include the state penalty prescribed by this section for forfeited bail. If bail is returned, the state penalty paid thereon pursuant to this section shall also be returned.(d) In any case where a person convicted of any offense, to which this section applies, is in prison until the fine is satisfied, the judge may waive all or any part of the state penalty, the payment of which would work a hardship on the person convicted or his or her immediate family.(e) After a determination by the court of the amount due, the clerk of the court shall collect the penalty and transmit it to the county treasury. The portion thereof attributable to Chapter 12 (commencing with Section 76000) of Title 8 of the Government Code shall be deposited in the appropriate county fund and 70 percent of the balance shall then be transmitted to the State Treasury, to be deposited in the State Penalty Fund, which is hereby created, and 30 percent to remain on deposit in the county general fund. The transmission to the State Treasury shall be carried out in the same manner as fines collected for the state by a county.(f) Notwithstanding any other law, the Director of Finance shall provide a schedule to the Controller for all transfers of funds made available by the Budget Act from the State Penalty Fund in the current fiscal year.(g) Upon the order of the Department of Finance, sufficient funds may be transferred by the Controller from the General Fund for cashflow needs of the State Penalty Fund. A cashflow loan made pursuant to this provision shall be short term and does not constitute a General Fund expenditure. A cashflow loan and the repayment of a cashflow loan does not affect the General Fund reserve.SEC. 35. Section 1464.2 of the Penal Code is repealed.SEC. 36. Section 1557 of the Penal Code is amended to read:1557. (a) This section shall apply when this state or a city, county, or city and county employs a person to travel to a foreign jurisdiction outside this state for the express purpose of returning a fugitive from justice to this state when the Governor of this state, in the exercise of the authority conferred by Section 2 of Article IV of the United States Constitution, or by the laws of this state, has demanded the surrender of the fugitive from the executive authority of any state of the United States, or of any foreign government.(b) Upon the approval of the Governor, the Controller shall audit and pay out of the State Treasury as provided in subdivision (c) or (d) the accounts of the person employed to bring back the fugitive, including any money paid by that person for all of the following:(1) Money paid to the authorities of a sister state for statutory fees in connection with the detention and surrender of the fugitive.(2) Money paid to the authorities of the sister state for the subsistence of the fugitive while detained by the sister state without payment of which the authorities of the sister state refuse to surrender the fugitive.(3) Where it is necessary to present witnesses or evidence in the sister state, without which the sister state would not surrender the fugitive, the cost of producing the witnesses or evidence in the sister state.(4) Where the appearance of witnesses has been authorized in advance by the Governor, who may authorize the appearance in unusual cases where the interests of justice would be served, the cost of producing witnesses to appear in the sister state on behalf of the fugitive in opposition to his or her extradition.(c) No amount shall be paid out of the State Treasury to a city, county, or city and county except as follows:(1) When a warrant has been issued by any magistrate after the filing of a complaint or the finding of an indictment and its presentation to the court and filing by the clerk, and the person named therein as defendant is a fugitive from justice who has been found and arrested in any state of the United States or in any foreign government, the county auditor shall draw his or her warrant and the county treasurer shall pay to the person designated to return the fugitive, the amount of expenses estimated by the district attorney to be incurred in the return of the fugitive.(2) If the person designated to return the fugitive is a city officer, the city officer authorized to draw warrants on the city treasury shall draw his or her warrant and the city treasurer shall pay to that person the amount of expenses estimated by the district attorney to be incurred in the return of the fugitive.(3) The person designated to return the fugitive shall make no disbursements from any funds advanced without a receipt being obtained therefor showing the amount, the purpose for which the sum is expended, the place, the date, and to whom paid.(4) A receipt obtained pursuant to paragraph (3) shall be filed by the person designated to return the fugitive with the county auditor or appropriate city officer or the Controller, as the case may be, together with an affidavit by the person that the expenditures represented by the receipts were necessarily made in the performance of duty, and when the advance has been made by the county or city treasurer to the person designated to return the fugitive, and has thereafter been audited by the Controller, the payment thereof shall be made by the State Treasurer to the county or city treasury that has advanced the funds.(5) If the expenses of the person employed to bring back the fugitive are less than the amount advanced on the recommendation of the district attorney, the person employed to bring back the fugitive shall return to the county or city treasurer, as appropriate, the difference in amount between the aggregate amount of receipts so filed by him or her, and the amount advanced to the person upon the recommendation of the district attorney.(6) When no advance has been made to the person designated to return the fugitive, the sums expended by him or her, when audited by the Controller, shall be paid by the State Treasurer to the person so designated.(7) Any payments made out of the State Treasury pursuant to this section shall be made from appropriations for the fiscal year in which those payments are made.(d) A city, county, or other jurisdiction shall not file, and the state shall not reimburse, a claim pursuant to this section that is presented to the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation or to any other agency or department of the state more than six months after the close of the month in which the costs were incurred. Notwithstanding any other law, a person transporting a fugitive as authorized by the Governor pursuant to this section shall be reimbursed according to the rates in paragraphs (1) to (5), inclusive. Rates and rules for reimbursement of travel claims not specified in paragraphs (1) to (5), inclusive, shall be consistent with the rules of the Department of General Services.(1) Reimbursement for breakfast is up to four dollars ($4).(2) Reimbursement for lunch is up to seven dollars and twenty-five cents ($7.25).(3) Reimbursement for dinner is up to twelve dollars ($12).(4) Reimbursement for incidental expenses is up to three dollars and seventy-five cents ($3.75).(5) Reimbursement for a meal for a prisoner, patient, ward, or fugitive is up to the amounts specified in paragraphs (1) to (3), inclusive.SEC. 37. Section 2801 of the Penal Code is amended to read:2801. The purposes of the authority are:(a) To develop and operate industrial, agricultural, and service enterprises employing prisoners in institutions under the jurisdiction of the Department of Corrections, which enterprises may be located either within those institutions or elsewhere, all as may be determined by the authority.(b) To create and maintain working conditions within the enterprises as much like those which prevail in private industry as possible, to assure prisoners employed therein the opportunity to work productively, to earn funds, and to acquire or improve effective work habits and occupational skills.(c) To operate a work program for prisoners which will ultimately be self-supporting by generating sufficient funds from the sale of products and services to pay all the expenses of the program, and one which will provide goods and services which are or will be used by the Department of Corrections, thereby reducing the cost of its operation.(1) This subdivision does not require immediate cash availability for funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above amounts established in the Budget Act, or as determined by the Board of Administration of the Public Employees Retirement System, or the Director of Finance for the fiscal year.(2) The Prison Industry Authority shall not establish cash reserves to support funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above the amounts specified in paragraph (1).SEC. 38. Section 2808 of the Penal Code is amended to read:2808. The board, in the exercise of its duties, shall have all of the powers and do all of the things that the board of directors of a private corporation would do, except as specifically limited in this article, including, but not limited to, all of the following:(a) To enter into contracts and leases, execute leases, pledge the equipment, inventory and supplies under the control of the authority and the anticipated future receipts of any enterprise under the jurisdiction of the authority as collateral for loans, and execute other necessary instruments and documents.(b) To assure that all funds received by the authority are kept in commercial accounts according to standard accounting practices.(c) To arrange for an independent annual audit.(d) To review and approve the annual budget for the authority, in order to assure that the solvency of the Prison Industries Revolving Fund is maintained.(1) This subdivision does not require immediate cash availability for funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above amounts established in the Budget Act, or as determined by the Board of Administration of the Public Employees Retirement System, or the Director of Finance for the fiscal year.(2) The Prison Industry Authority shall not establish cash reserves to support funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above the amounts specified in paragraph (1).(e) To contract to employ a general manager to serve as the chief administrative officer of the authority. The general manager shall serve at the pleasure of the chairperson. The general manager shall have wide and successful experience with a productive enterprise, and have a demonstrated appreciation of the problems associated with prison management.(f) To apply for and administer grants and contracts of all kinds.(g) To establish, notwithstanding any other provision of law, procedures governing the purchase of raw materials, component parts, and any other goods and services which may be needed by the authority or in the operation of any enterprise under its jurisdiction. Those procedures shall contain provisions for appeal to the board from any action taken in connection with them.(h) To establish, expand, diminish, or discontinue industrial, agricultural and service enterprises under the authoritys jurisdiction to enable it to operate as a self-supporting enterprise, to provide as much employment for inmates as is feasible, and to provide diversified work activities to minimize the impact on existing private industry in the state.(i) To hold public hearings pursuant to subdivision (h) to provide an opportunity for persons or organizations who may be affected to appear and present testimony concerning the plans and activities of the authority. The authority shall assure adequate public notice of those hearings. No new industrial, agricultural, or service enterprise which involves a gross annual production of more than fifty thousand dollars ($50,000) shall be established unless and until a hearing concerning the enterprise has been held by a committee of persons designated by the board including at least two board members. The board shall take into consideration the effect of a proposed enterprise on California industry and shall not approve the establishment of the enterprise if the board determines it would have a comprehensive and substantial adverse impact on California industry which cannot be mitigated.(j) To periodically determine the prices at which activities, supplies, and services shall be sold.(k) To report to the Legislature in writing, on or before February 1 of each year, regarding:(1) The financial activity and condition of each enterprise under its jurisdiction.(2) The plans of the board regarding any significant changes in existing operations.(3) The plans of the board regarding the development of new enterprises.(4) A breakdown, by institution, of the number of prisoners at each institution, working in enterprises under the jurisdiction of the authority, said number to indicate the number of prisoners which are not working full time.SEC. 39. Section 3453 of the Penal Code is amended to read:3453. Postrelease community supervision shall include the following conditions:(a) The person shall be informed of the conditions of release.(b) The person shall obey all laws.(c) The person shall report to the supervising county agency within two working days of release from custody.(d) The person shall follow the directives and instructions of the supervising county agency.(e) The person shall report to the supervising county agency as directed by that agency.(f) The person, and his or her residence and possessions, shall be subject to search at any time of the day or night, with or without a warrant, by an agent of the supervising county agency or by a peace officer.(g) The person shall waive extradition if found outside the state.(h) (1) The person shall inform the supervising county agency of the persons place of residence and shall notify the supervising county agency of any change in residence, or the establishment of a new residence if the person was previously transient, within five working days of the change.(2) For purposes of this section, residence means one or more locations at which a person regularly resides, regardless of the number of days or nights spent there, such as a shelter or structure that can be located by a street address, including, but not limited to, a house, apartment building, motel, hotel, homeless shelter, and recreational or other vehicle. If the person has no residence, he or she shall inform the supervising county agency that he or she is transient.(i) (1) The person shall inform the supervising county agency of the persons place of employment, education, or training. The person shall inform the supervising agency of any pending or anticipated change in employment, education, or training.(2) If the person enters into new employment, he or she shall inform the supervising county agency of the new employment within three business days of that entry.(j) The person shall immediately inform the supervising county agency if he or she is arrested or receives a citation.(k) The person shall obtain the permission of the supervising county agency to travel more than 50 miles from the persons place of residence.(l) The person shall obtain a travel pass from the supervising county agency before he or she may leave the county or state for more than two days.(m) The person shall not be in the presence of a firearm or ammunition, or any item that appears to be a firearm or ammunition.(n) The person shall not possess, use, or have access to any weapon listed in Section 16140, subdivision (c) of Section 16170, Section 16220, 16260, 16320, 16330, or 16340, subdivision (b) of Section 16460, Section 16470, subdivision (f) of Section 16520, or Section 16570, 16740, 16760, 16830, 16920, 16930, 16940, 17090, 17125, 17160, 17170, 17180, 17190, 17200, 17270, 17280, 17330, 17350, 17360, 17700, 17705, 17710, 17715, 17720, 17725, 17730, 17735, 17740, 17745, 19100, 19200, 19205, 20200, 20310, 20410, 20510, 20610, 20611, 20710, 20910, 21110, 21310, 21810, 22010, 22015, 22210, 22215, 22410, 24310, 24410, 24510, 24610, 24680, 24710, 30210, 30215, 31500, 32310, 32400, 32405, 32410, 32415, 32420, 32425, 32430 32435, 32440, 32445, 32450, 32900, 33215, 33220, 33225, or 33600.(o) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2) and subdivision (p), the person shall not possess a knife with a blade longer than two inches.(2) The person may possess a kitchen knife with a blade longer than two inches if the knife is used and kept only in the kitchen of the persons residence.(p) The person may use a knife with a blade longer than two inches, if the use is required for that persons employment, the use has been approved in a document issued by the supervising county agency, and the person possesses the document of approval at all times and makes it available for inspection.(q) The person shall waive any right to a court hearing prior to the imposition of a period of flash incarceration in a city or county jail of not more than 10 consecutive days for any violation of his or her postrelease supervision conditions.(r) The person shall participate in rehabilitation programming as recommended by the supervising county agency.(s) The person shall be subject to arrest with or without a warrant by a peace officer employed by the supervising county agency or, at the direction of the supervising county agency, by any peace officer when there is probable cause to believe the person has violated the terms and conditions of his or her release.(t) The person shall pay court-ordered restitution and restitution fines in the same manner as a person placed on probation.SEC. 40. Section 4032 is added to the Penal Code, to read:4032. (a) For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:(1) In-person visit means an on-site visit that may include barriers. In-person visits include interactions in which an inmate has physical contact with a visitor, the inmate is able to see a visitor through a barrier, or the inmate is otherwise in a room with a visitor without physical contact. In-person visit does not include an interaction between an inmate and a visitor through the use of an on-site, two-way, audio-video terminal.(2) Video visitation means interaction between an inmate and a member of the public through the means of an audio-visual communication device when the member of the public is located at a local detention facility or at a remote location.(3) Local detention facility has the same meaning as defined in Section 6031.4.(b) A local detention facility that offered in-person visitation as of January 1, 2017, may not convert to video visitation only.(c) A local detention facility shall not charge for visitation when visitors are onsite and participating in either in-person or video visitation. For purposes of this subdivision, onsite is defined as at the location where the inmate is housed.(d) If a local detention facility offered video visitation only as of January 1, 2017, on-site video visitation shall be offered free of charge, and the first hour of remote video visitation per week shall be offered free of charge.SEC. 41. Section 5075 of the Penal Code is amended to read:5075. (a) Commencing July 1, 2005, there is hereby created the Board of Parole Hearings. As of July 1, 2005, any reference to the Board of Prison Terms in this or any other code refers to the Board of Parole Hearings. As of that date, the Board of Prison Terms is abolished.(b) (1) The Governor shall appoint 15 commissioners, subject to Senate confirmation, pursuant to this section. These commissioners shall be appointed and trained to hear only adult matters. Except as specified in paragraph (2), commissioners shall hold office for terms of three years, each term to commence on the expiration date of the predecessor. Any appointment to a vacancy that occurs for any reason other than expiration of the term shall be for the remainder of the unexpired term. Commissioners are eligible for reappointment.(2) (A) The term for the commissioner whose position was created by the act that added this paragraph shall begin on July 1, 2017.(B) Two commissioners whose terms begin on July 1, 2017, shall be appointed for a term of one year. One of these commissioners may, but is not required to, be the commissioner whose position was created by the act that added this paragraph.(C) Three commissioners, as selected by the Governor, whose terms began on July 1, 2016, shall serve a reduced term of two years.(D) Terms of office subsequent to those described in subparagraphs (B) and (C) shall be governed by paragraph (1).(3) The selection of persons and their appointment by the Governor and confirmation by the Senate shall reflect as nearly as possible a cross section of the racial, sexual, economic, and geographic features of the population of the state.(c) The chair of the board shall be designated by the Governor periodically. The Governor may appoint an executive officer of the board, subject to Senate confirmation, who shall hold office at the pleasure of the Governor. The executive officer shall be the administrative head of the board and shall exercise all duties and functions necessary to insure that the responsibilities of the board are successfully discharged. The secretary shall be the appointing authority for all civil service positions of employment with the board.(d) Each commissioner shall participate in hearings on each workday, except when it is necessary for a commissioner to attend training, en banc hearings or full board meetings, or other administrative business requiring the participation of the commissioner. For purposes of this subdivision, these hearings shall include parole consideration hearings, parole rescission hearings, and parole progress hearings.SEC. 42. Section 6031 of the Penal Code is amended to read:6031. The Board of State and Community Corrections shall, at a minimum, inspect each local detention facility in the state biennially.SEC. 43. Section 6031.1 of the Penal Code is amended to read:6031.1. (a) Inspections of local detention facilities shall, at a minimum, be made biennially. Inspections of privately operated work furlough facilities and programs shall be made biennially unless the work furlough administrator requests an earlier inspection. Inspections shall include, but not be limited to, the following:(1) Health and safety inspections conducted pursuant to Section 101045 of the Health and Safety Code.(2) Fire suppression preplanning inspections by the local fire department.(3) Security, rehabilitation programs, recreation, treatment of persons confined in the facilities, and personnel training by the staff of the Board of State and Community Corrections.(4) The types and availability of visitation, including, but not limited to, the mode of visitation, visitation hours, time inmates are allowed for visitation, and any restrictions on inmate visitation.(5) Whether the county in which the facility is located received state funding for jail construction pursuant to Chapter 7 of the Statutes of 2007, Chapter 42 of the Statutes of 2012, Chapter 37 of the Statutes of 2014, or Chapter 34 of the Statutes of 2016. For counties that received funding, whether the county and facility are in compliance with the applicable requirements and restrictions of that funding.(b) Reports of each facilitys inspection shall be furnished to the official in charge of the local detention facility or, in the case of a privately operated facility, the work furlough administrator, the local governing body, the grand jury, and the presiding judge of the superior court in the county where the facility is located. These reports shall set forth the areas wherein the facility has complied and has failed to comply with the minimum standards established pursuant to Section 6030.(c) All reports completed pursuant to this section shall be posted on the Board of State and Community Corrections Internet Web site in a manner in which they are accessible to the public.SEC. 44. Section 29800 of the Penal Code is amended to read:29800. (a) (1) Any person who has been convicted of, or has an outstanding warrant for, a felony under the laws of the United States, the State of California, or any other state, government, or country, or of an offense enumerated in subdivision (a), (b), or (d) of Section 23515, or who is addicted to the use of any narcotic drug, and who owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control any firearm is guilty of a felony.(2) Any person who has two or more convictions for violating paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 417 and who owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control any firearm is guilty of a felony.(b) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), any person who has been convicted of a felony or of an offense enumerated in Section 23515, when that conviction results from certification by the juvenile court for prosecution as an adult in an adult court under Section 707 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, and who owns or has in possession or under custody or control any firearm is guilty of a felony.(c) Subdivision (a) shall not apply to a person who has been convicted of a felony under the laws of the United States unless either of the following criteria is satisfied:(1) Conviction of a like offense under California law can only result in imposition of felony punishment.(2) The defendant was sentenced to a federal correctional facility for more than 30 days, or received a fine of more than one thousand dollars ($1,000), or received both punishments.SEC. 45. Section 29805 of the Penal Code, as amended November 8, 2016, by initiative Proposition 63, Section 11.2, is amended to read:29805. Except as provided in Section 29855 or subdivision (a) of Section 29800, any person who has been convicted of, or has an outstanding warrant for, a misdemeanor violation of Section 71, 76, 136.1, 136.5, or 140, subdivision (d) of Section 148, Section 171b, paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 171c, 171d, 186.28, 240, 241, 242, 243, 243.4, 244.5, 245, 245.5, 246.3, 247, 273.5, 273.6, 417, 417.6, 422, 626.9, 646.9, or 830.95, subdivision (a) of former Section 12100, as that section read at any time from when it was enacted by Section 3 of Chapter 1386 of the Statutes of 1988 to when it was repealed by Section 18 of Chapter 23 of the Statutes of 1994, Section 17500, 17510, 25300, 25800, 30315, or 32625, subdivision (b) or (d) of Section 26100, or Section 27510, or Section 8100, 8101, or 8103 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, any firearm-related offense pursuant to Sections 871.5 and 1001.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, Section 490.2 if the property taken was a firearm, or of the conduct punished in subdivision (c) of Section 27590, and who, within 10 years of the conviction, or if the individual has an outstanding warrant, owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control, any firearm is guilty of a public offense, which shall be punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year or in the state prison, by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that imprisonment and fine. The court, on forms prescribed by the Department of Justice, shall notify the department of persons subject to this section. However, the prohibition in this section may be reduced, eliminated, or conditioned as provided in Section 29855 or 29860.SEC. 46. Section 29805 of the Penal Code, as amended by Section 2 of Chapter 47 of the Statutes of 2016, is amended to read:29805. (a) Except as provided in Section 29855 or subdivision (a) of Section 29800, any person who has been convicted of, or has an outstanding warrant for, a misdemeanor violation of Section 71, 76, 136.1, 136.5, or 140, subdivision (d) of Section 148, subdivision (f) of Section 148.5, Section 171b, paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 171c, Section 171d, 186.28, 240, 241, 242, 243, 243.4, 244.5, 245, 245.5, 246.3, 247, 273.5, 273.6, 417, 417.6, 422, 626.9, 646.9, or 830.95, subdivision (a) of former Section 12100, as that section read at any time from when it was enacted by Section 3 of Chapter 1386 of the Statutes of 1988 to when it was repealed by Section 18 of Chapter 23 of the Statutes of 1994, Section 17500, 17510, 25300, 25800, 30315, or 32625, subdivision (b) or (d) of Section 26100, or Section 27510, or Section 8100, 8101, or 8103 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, any firearm-related offense pursuant to Sections 871.5 and 1001.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or of the conduct punished in subdivision (c) of Section 27590, and who, within 10 years of the conviction, or if the individual has an outstanding warrant, owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control, any firearm is guilty of a public offense, which shall be punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year or in the state prison, by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that imprisonment and fine.(b) The court, on forms prescribed by the Department of Justice, shall notify the department of persons subject to this section. However, the prohibition in this section may be reduced, eliminated, or conditioned as provided in Section 29855 or 29860.SEC. 47. Section 30680 of the Penal Code, as added by Section 2 of Chapter 40 of the Statutes of 2016, is amended to read:30680. Section 30605 does not apply to the possession of an assault weapon by a person who has possessed the assault weapon prior to January 1, 2017, if all of the following are applicable:(a) Prior to January 1, 2017, the person would have been eligible to register that assault weapon pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 30900.(b) The person lawfully possessed that assault weapon prior to January 1, 2017.(c) The person registers the assault weapon by July 1, 2018, in accordance with subdivision (b) of Section 30900.SEC. 48. Section 30680 of the Penal Code, as added by Section 2 of Chapter 48 of the Statutes of 2016, is amended to read:30680. Section 30605 does not apply to the possession of an assault weapon by a person who has possessed the assault weapon prior to January 1, 2017, if all of the following are applicable:(a) Prior to January 1, 2017, the person was eligible to register that assault weapon pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 30900.(b) The person lawfully possessed that assault weapon prior to January 1, 2017.(c) The person registers the assault weapon by July 1, 2018, in accordance with subdivision (b) of Section 30900.SEC. 49. Section 30900 of the Penal Code is amended to read:30900. (a) (1) Any person who, prior to June 1, 1989, lawfully possessed an assault weapon, as defined in former Section 12276, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 19 of the Statutes of 1989, shall register the firearm by January 1, 1991, and any person who lawfully possessed an assault weapon prior to the date it was specified as an assault weapon pursuant to former Section 12276.5, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 19 of the Statutes of 1989 or as amended by Section 1 of Chapter 874 of the Statutes of 1990 or Section 3 of Chapter 954 of the Statutes of 1991, shall register the firearm within 90 days with the Department of Justice pursuant to those procedures that the department may establish.(2) Except as provided in Section 30600, any person who lawfully possessed an assault weapon prior to the date it was defined as an assault weapon pursuant to former Section 12276.1, as it read in Section 7 of Chapter 129 of the Statutes of 1999, and which was not specified as an assault weapon under former Section 12276, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 19 of the Statutes of 1989 or as amended at any time before January 1, 2001, or former Section 12276.5, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 19 of the Statutes of 1989 or as amended at any time before January 1, 2001, shall register the firearm by January 1, 2001, with the department pursuant to those procedures that the department may establish.(3) The registration shall contain a description of the firearm that identifies it uniquely, including all identification marks, the full name, address, date of birth, and thumbprint of the owner, and any other information that the department may deem appropriate.(4) The department may charge a fee for registration of up to twenty dollars ($20) per person but not to exceed the reasonable processing costs of the department. After the department establishes fees sufficient to reimburse the department for processing costs, fees charged shall increase at a rate not to exceed the legislatively approved annual cost-of-living adjustment for the departments budget or as otherwise increased through the Budget Act but not to exceed the reasonable costs of the department. The fees shall be deposited into the Dealers Record of Sale Special Account.(b) (1) Any person who, from January 1, 2001, to December 31, 2016, inclusive, lawfully possessed an assault weapon that does not have a fixed magazine, as defined in Section 30515, including those weapons with an ammunition feeding device that can be readily removed from the firearm with the use of a tool, shall register the firearm before July 1, 2018, but not before the effective date of the regulations adopted pursuant to paragraph (5), with the department pursuant to those procedures that the department may establish by regulation pursuant to paragraph (5).(2) Registrations shall be submitted electronically via the Internet utilizing a public-facing application made available by the department.(3) The registration shall contain a description of the firearm that identifies it uniquely, including all identification marks, the date the firearm was acquired, the name and address of the individual from whom, or business from which, the firearm was acquired, as well as the registrants full name, address, telephone number, date of birth, sex, height, weight, eye color, hair color, and California drivers license number or California identification card number.(4) The department may charge a fee in an amount of up to fifteen dollars ($15) per person but not to exceed the reasonable processing costs of the department. The fee shall be paid by debit or credit card at the time that the electronic registration is submitted to the department. The fee shall be deposited in the Dealers Record of Sale Special Account to be used for purposes of this section.(5) The department shall adopt regulations for the purpose of implementing this subdivision. These regulations are exempt from the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code).SEC. 50. Section 10340.1 is added to the Public Contract Code, to read:10340.1. (a) Notwithstanding existing law, the State Department of State Hospitals may enter into an agreement for the purposes of continued operation of the existing central utility plant at the Metropolitan State Hospital without having to go through a competitive bid process.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until June 30, 2018, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 51. Section 13365 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:13365. (a) Upon receipt of notification of a violation of subdivision (a) of Section 40508, the department shall take the following action:(1) If the notice is given pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 40509, if the driving record of the person who is the subject of the notice contains one or more prior notifications of a violation issued pursuant to Section 40509 or 40509.5, and if the persons driving privilege is not currently suspended under this section, the department shall suspend the driving privilege of the person.(2) If the notice is given pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 40509.5, and if the driving privilege of the person who is the subject of the notice is not currently suspended under this section, the department shall suspend the driving privilege of the person.(b) (1) A suspension under this section shall not be effective before a date 60 days after the date of receipt, by the department, of the notice given specified in subdivision (a), and the notice of suspension shall not be mailed by the department before a date 30 days after receipt of the notice given specified in subdivision (a).(2) The suspension shall continue until the suspended persons driving record does not contain any notification of a violation of subdivision (a) of Section 40508.SEC. 52. Section 13365.2 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:13365.2. (a) Upon receipt of the notice required under subdivision (b) of Section 40509.5, the department shall suspend the driving privilege of the person upon whom notice was received and shall continue that suspension until receipt of the certificate required under that subdivision.(b) The suspension required under subdivision (a) shall become effective on the 45th day after the mailing of written notice by the department.SEC. 53. Section 40509 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:40509. (a) Except as required under subdivision (b) of Section 40509.5, if a person has violated a written promise to appear or a lawfully granted continuance of his or her promise to appear in court or before the person authorized to receive a deposit of bail, or violated an order to appear in court, including, but not limited to, a written notice to appear issued in accordance with Section 40518, the magistrate or clerk of the court may give notice of the failure to appear to the department for any violation of this code, or any violation that can be heard by a juvenile traffic hearing referee pursuant to Section 256 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or any violation of any other statute relating to the safe operation of a vehicle, except violations not required to be reported pursuant to paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (6), and (7) of subdivision (b) of Section 1803. If thereafter the case in which the promise was given is adjudicated or the person who has violated the court order appears in court or otherwise satisfies the order of the court, the magistrate or clerk of the court hearing the case shall sign and file with the department a certificate to that effect.(b) (1) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), the court may notify the department of the total amount of bail, fines, assessments, and fees authorized or required by this code, including Section 40508.5, that are unpaid by a person.(2) Once a court has established the amount of bail, fines, assessments, and fees, and notified the department, the court shall not further enhance or modify that amount.(3) This subdivision applies only to violations of this code that do not require a mandatory court appearance, are not contested by the defendant, and do not require proof of correction certified by the court.(c) Any violation subject to Section 40001 that is the responsibility of the owner of the vehicle shall not be reported under this section.SEC. 54. Section 40509.5 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:40509.5. (a) Except as required under subdivision (b), if, with respect to an offense described in subdivision (d), a person has violated his or her written promise to appear or a lawfully granted continuance of his or her promise to appear in court or before the person authorized to receive a deposit of bail, or violated an order to appear in court, including, but not limited to, a written notice to appear issued in accordance with Section 40518, the magistrate or clerk of the court may give notice of the failure to appear to the department for a violation of this code, a violation that can be heard by a juvenile traffic hearing referee pursuant to Section 256 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or a violation of any other statute relating to the safe operation of a vehicle, except violations not required to be reported pursuant to paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (6), and (7) of subdivision (b) of Section 1803. If thereafter the case in which the promise was given is adjudicated or the person who has violated the court order appears in court and satisfies the order of the court, the magistrate or clerk of the court hearing the case shall sign and file with the department a certificate to that effect.(b) If a person charged with a violation of Section 23152 or 23153, or Section 191.5 of the Penal Code, or subdivision (a) of Section 192.5 of that code has violated a lawfully granted continuance of his or her promise to appear in court or is released from custody on his or her own recognizance and fails to appear in court or before the person authorized to receive a deposit of bail, or violated an order to appear in court, the magistrate or clerk of the court shall give notice to the department of the failure to appear. If thereafter the case in which the notice was given is adjudicated or the person who has violated the court order appears in court or otherwise satisfies the order of the court, the magistrate or clerk of the court hearing the case shall prepare and forward to the department a certificate to that effect.(c) Except as required under subdivision (b), the court shall mail a courtesy warning notice to the defendant by first-class mail at the address shown on the notice to appear, at least 10 days before sending a notice to the department under this section.(d) If the court notifies the department of a failure to appear pursuant to subdivision (a), no arrest warrant shall be issued for an alleged violation of subdivision (a) of Section 40508, unless one of the following criteria is met:(1) The alleged underlying offense is a misdemeanor or felony.(2) The alleged underlying offense is a violation of any provision of Division 12 (commencing with Section 24000), Division 13 (commencing with Section 29000), or Division 15 (commencing with Section 35000), required to be reported pursuant to Section 1803.(3) The drivers record does not show that the defendant has a valid California drivers license.(4) The drivers record shows an unresolved charge that the defendant is in violation of his or her written promise to appear for one or more other alleged violations of the law.(e) Except as required under subdivision (b), in addition to the proceedings described in this section, the court may elect to notify the department pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 40509.(f) A violation subject to Section 40001 that is the responsibility of the owner of the vehicle shall not be reported under this section.SEC. 55. Section 209 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:209. (a) (1) The judge of the juvenile court of a county, or, if there is more than one judge, any of the judges of the juvenile court shall, at least annually, inspect any jail, juvenile hall, or special purpose juvenile hall that, in the preceding calendar year, was used for confinement, for more than 24 hours, of any minor.(2) The judge shall promptly notify the operator of the jail, juvenile hall, or special purpose juvenile hall of any observed noncompliance with minimum standards for juvenile facilities adopted by the Board of State and Community Corrections under Section 210. Based on the facilitys subsequent compliance with the provisions of subdivisions (d) and (e), the judge shall thereafter make a finding whether the facility is a suitable place for the confinement of minors and shall note the finding in the minutes of the court.(3) The Board of State and Community Corrections shall conduct a biennial inspection of each jail, juvenile hall, lockup, or special purpose juvenile hall situated in this state that, during the preceding calendar year, was used for confinement, for more than 24 hours, of any minor. The board shall promptly notify the operator of any jail, juvenile hall, lockup, or special purpose juvenile hall of any noncompliance found, upon inspection, with any of the minimum standards for juvenile facilities adopted by the Board of State and Community Corrections under Section 210 or 210.2.(4) If either a judge of the juvenile court or the board, after inspection of a jail, juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, or lockup, finds that it is not being operated and maintained as a suitable place for the confinement of minors, the juvenile court or the board shall give notice of its finding to all persons having authority to confine minors pursuant to this chapter and commencing 60 days thereafter the facility shall not be used for confinement of minors until the time the judge or board, as the case may be, finds, after reinspection of the facility that the conditions that rendered the facility unsuitable have been remedied, and the facility is a suitable place for confinement of minors.(5) The custodian of each jail, juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, and lockup shall make any reports as may be requested by the board or the juvenile court to effectuate the purposes of this section.(b) (1) The Board of State and Community Corrections may inspect any law enforcement facility that contains a lockup for adults and that it has reason to believe may not be in compliance with the requirements of subdivision (d) of Section 207.1 or with the certification requirements or standards adopted under Section 210.2. A judge of the juvenile court shall conduct an annual inspection, either in person or through a delegated member of the appropriate county or regional juvenile justice commission, of any law enforcement facility that contains a lockup for adults which, in the preceding year, was used for the secure detention of any minor. If the law enforcement facility is observed, upon inspection, to be out of compliance with the requirements of subdivision (d) of Section 207.1, or with any standard adopted under Section 210.2, the board or the judge shall promptly notify the operator of the law enforcement facility of the specific points of noncompliance.(2) If either the judge or the board finds after inspection that the facility is not being operated and maintained in conformity with the requirements of subdivision (d) of Section 207.1 or with the certification requirements or standards adopted under Section 210.2, the juvenile court or the board shall give notice of its finding to all persons having authority to securely detain minors in the facility, and, commencing 60 days thereafter, the facility shall not be used for the secure detention of a minor until the time the judge or the board, as the case may be, finds, after reinspection, that the conditions that rendered the facility unsuitable have been remedied, and the facility is a suitable place for the confinement of minors in conformity with all requirements of law.(3) The custodian of each law enforcement facility that contains a lockup for adults shall make any report as may be requested by the board or by the juvenile court to effectuate the purposes of this subdivision.(c) The board shall collect biennial data on the number, place, and duration of confinements of minors in jails and lockups, as defined in subdivision (i) of Section 207.1, and shall publish biennially this information in the form as it deems appropriate for the purpose of providing public information on continuing compliance with the requirements of Section 207.1.(d) Except as provided in subdivision (e), a juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, law enforcement facility, or jail shall be unsuitable for the confinement of minors if it is not in compliance with one or more of the minimum standards for juvenile facilities adopted by the Board of State and Community Corrections under Section 210 or 210.2, and if, within 60 days of having received notice of noncompliance from the board or the judge of the juvenile court, the juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, law enforcement facility, or jail has failed to file an approved corrective action plan with the Board of State and Community Corrections to correct the condition or conditions of noncompliance of which it has been notified. The corrective action plan shall outline how the juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, law enforcement facility, or jail plans to correct the issue of noncompliance and give a reasonable timeframe, not to exceed 90 days, for resolution, that the board shall either approve or deny. In the event the juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, law enforcement facility, or jail fails to meet its commitment to resolve noncompliance issues outlined in its corrective action plan, the board shall make a determination of suitability at its next scheduled meeting.(e) If a juvenile hall is not in compliance with one or more of the minimum standards for juvenile facilities adopted by the Board of State and Community Corrections under Section 210, and where the noncompliance arises from sustained occupancy levels that are above the population capacity permitted by applicable minimum standards, the juvenile hall shall be unsuitable for the confinement of minors if the board or the judge of the juvenile court determines that conditions in the facility pose a serious risk to the health, safety, or welfare of minors confined in the facility. In making its determination of suitability, the board or the judge of the juvenile court shall consider, in addition to the noncompliance with minimum standards, the totality of conditions in the juvenile hall, including the extent and duration of overpopulation as well as staffing, program, physical plant, and medical and mental health care conditions in the facility. The Board of State and Community Corrections may develop guidelines and procedures for its determination of suitability in accordance with this subdivision and to assist counties in bringing their juvenile halls into full compliance with applicable minimum standards. This subdivision shall not be interpreted to exempt a juvenile hall from having to correct, in accordance with the provisions of subdivision (d), any minimum standard violations that are not directly related to overpopulation of the facility.(f) In accordance with the federal Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention Act of 2002 (42 U.S.C. Sec. 5601 et seq.), the Corrections Standards Authority shall inspect and collect relevant data from any facility that may be used for the secure detention of minors.(g) All reports and notices of findings prepared by the Board of State and Community Corrections pursuant to this section shall be posted on the Board of State and Community Corrections Internet Web site in a manner in which they are accessible to the public.SEC. 56. Section 270 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is repealed.SEC. 57. Section 270 is added to the Welfare and Institutions Code, to read:270. The chief probation officer shall be appointed and compensation for the position shall be determined as provided in Chapter 16 (commencing with Section 27770) of Part 3 of Division 2 of Title 3 of the Government Code.SEC. 58. Section 271 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is repealed.SEC. 59. Section 271 is added to the Welfare and Institutions Code, to read:271. In counties having charters that provide a method of appointment and tenure of office for the superintendent, matron, and other employees of the juvenile hall, the charter provisions shall control as to those matters and, in counties that have established or hereafter establish merit or civil service systems governing the methods of appointment and the tenure of office for the superintendent, matrons, and other employees of the juvenile hall, the provisions of the merit or civil service systems shall control as to those matters. In all other counties, these matters shall be controlled exclusively by the provisions of this code.SEC. 60. Section 1982 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:1982. (a) The Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, Division of Juvenile Justice, shall provide an annual report, commencing July 10, 2011, and annually thereafter, for the preceding fiscal year, with information sorted by county, to the Department of Finance that includes, but is not limited to, the following:(1) Identifying information of each ward discharged from a Division of Juvenile Justice facility on or after 90 days after the enactment of this section, excluding parole violators who were originally released to parole on or after 90 days after the enactment of this section, and the date each ward was released to local supervision.(2) The name of each parolee recalled pursuant to Section 731.1 on or after 90 days after the enactment of this section, the remaining term of supervision, and the date each ward was recalled.(b) (1) The Board of State and Community Corrections shall provide an annual report, commencing on July 10, 2011, and annually thereafter, for the preceding fiscal year, with information sorted by county, to the Department of Finance that includes, but is not limited to, the following: identifying information of each discharged ward returned to a local juvenile detention facility for violating a condition of court-ordered supervision that occurred during the first 24 months after the wards initial release to local supervision, and the number of months each violator was housed in a local juvenile detention facility. The Board of State and Community Corrections may audit the information included in the annual report required by this section.(2) A county that does not submit data pursuant to this subdivision may not receive funding pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 1984.(c) For the purposes of this section, identifying information means a unique identifier, which may include the wards initials, that allows the Department of Finance to reconcile information provided by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, Division of Juvenile Justice, pursuant to subdivision (a) with information provided by the Board of State and Community Corrections pursuant to subdivision (b), while preserving the confidentiality of the ward. The reports created pursuant to this section shall not be considered record information within the meaning of Section 11075 of the Penal Code or Section 825 of this code.SEC. 61. Section 4100 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:4100. The department has jurisdiction over the following facilities:(a) Atascadero State Hospital.(b) Coalinga State Hospital.(c) Metropolitan State Hospital.(d) Napa State Hospital.(e) Patton State Hospital.(f) (1) The Admission, Evaluation, and Stabilization (AES) Center in the County of Kern, and other AES Centers as defined by regulation.(2) The Director of State Hospitals may adopt emergency regulations in accordance with the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division of 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code) to implement this subdivision. The adoption of emergency regulations under this paragraph is deemed to address an emergency, for purposes of Sections 11346.1 and 11349.6 of the Government Code, and the Director of State Hospitals is hereby exempted for this purpose from the requirements of subdivision (b) of Section 11346.1 of the Government Code.(g) A county jail treatment facility under contract with the State Department of State Hospitals to provide competency restoration services.(h) Any other State Department of State Hospitals facility subject to available funding by the Legislature.SEC. 62. Section 4358.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:4358.5. Funds deposited into the Traumatic Brain Injury Fund pursuant to subdivision (f) of Section 1464 of the Penal Code may be matched by federal vocational rehabilitation services funds for implementation of the Traumatic Brain Injury program pursuant to this chapter. However, this matching of funds shall occur only to the extent it is permitted by other state and federal law, and to the extent the matching of funds would be consistent with the policies and priorities of the department.SEC. 63. Section 7228 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:7228. Prior to admission, the State Department of State Hospitals shall evaluate each patient committed pursuant to Section 1026 or 1370 of the Penal Code to determine the placement of the patient to the appropriate State Department of State Hospitals facility, as defined in Section 4100. The State Department of State Hospitals shall utilize the documents provided pursuant to subdivision (e) of Section 1026 of the Penal Code and paragraph (2) of subdivision (b) of Section 1370 of the Penal Code to make the appropriate placement. A patient determined to be a high security risk shall be treated in the departments most secure facilities pursuant to Section 7230. A Penal Code patient not needing this level of security shall be treated as near to the patients community as possible if an appropriate treatment program is available.SEC. 64. Section 7234 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:7234. (a) (1) A Patient Management Unit (PMU) shall be established within the State Department of State Hospitals to facilitate patient movement across all facilities under its jurisdiction, as defined in Section 4100, and any psychiatric programs operated by the State Department of State Hospitals pursuant to a memorandum of understanding with the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation.(2) The PMUs responsibilities shall include, but not be limited to, oversight and centralized management of patient admissions, and collection of data for reports and patient population projections.(b) The State Department of State Hospitals shall adopt regulations, consistent with this article, concerning policies and procedures to be implemented by the PMU, including, but not limited to, both of the following:(1) Policies and procedures for patient referral to the State Department of State Hospitals.(2) Screening criteria that ensures that patients are placed in a State Department of State Hospitals facility or psychiatric program closest to their county of residence in the absence of a compelling reason to place the patient in another facility. Compelling reasons may include, but not be limited to, the patients specialized psychiatric, medical, or safety needs, and the availability of beds for his or her commitment type.(c) The Director of State Hospitals may adopt emergency regulations in accordance with the Administrative Procedures Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code) to implement this section. The adoption of an emergency regulation under this paragraph is deemed to address an emergency, for purposes of Sections 11346.1 and 11349.6 of the Government Code, and the Director of State Hospitals is hereby exempted for this purpose from the requirements of subdivision (b) of Section 11346.1 of the Government Code.SEC. 65. The provisions of Section 4 of this act, amending Section 384 of the Code of Civil Procedure, are severable. If any provision of Section 4 of this act or its application is held invalid, that invalidity shall not affect other provisions or applications that can be given effect without the invalid provision or application.SEC. 66. No reimbursement is required by this act pursuant to Section 6 of Article XIIIB of the California Constitution because the only costs that may be incurred by a local agency or school district will be incurred because this act creates a new crime or infraction, eliminates a crime or infraction, or changes the penalty for a crime or infraction, within the meaning of Section 17556 of the Government Code, or changes the definition of a crime within the meaning of Section 6 of Article XIIIB of the California Constitution.SEC. 67. This act is a bill providing for appropriations related to the Budget Bill within the meaning of subdivision (e) of Section 12 of Article IV of the California Constitution, has been identified as related to the budget in the Budget Bill, and shall take effect immediately.
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3+ Enrolled June 19, 2017 Passed IN Senate June 15, 2017 Passed IN Assembly June 15, 2017 Amended IN Senate June 08, 2017 CALIFORNIA LEGISLATURE 20172018 REGULAR SESSION Assembly Bill No. 103Introduced by Committee on Budget (Assembly Members Ting (Chair), Arambula, Bloom, Caballero, Chiu, Cooper, Cristina Garcia, Jones-Sawyer, Limn, McCarty, Medina, Mullin, Muratsuchi, ODonnell, Rubio, Mark Stone, Weber, and Wood)January 10, 2017 An act to amend Sections 384 and 1010.6 of the Code of Civil Procedure, to amend Sections 11040, 11041, 11042, 11045, 24000, 69580, 69592, 69594, and 69600 of, to add Sections 15007, 15820.948, 68514, and 69614.4 to, to add Article 9 (commencing with 70500) to Chapter 5.7 of Title 8 of, to add Chapter 17.8 (commencing with Section 7310) to Division 7 of Title 1 of, to add Chapter 16 (commencing with Section 27770) to Part 3 of Division 2 of Title 3 of, to add and repeal Section 12532 of, and to repeal Section 11043 of, the Government Code, to add Section 329 to the Military and Veterans Code, to amend Sections 1170.18, 1370, 1370.6, 1372, 1463.007, 1464, 1557, 2801, 2808, 3453, 5075, 6031, 6031.1, 29800, 29805, 30680, and 30900 of, to add Sections 1170.127 and 4032 to, to repeal Sections 1203.6 and 1464.2 of, and to repeal and add Section 1203.5 of, the Penal Code, to add and repeal Section 10340.1 of the Public Contract Code, to amend Sections 13365, 13365.2, 40509, and 40509.5 of the Vehicle Code, and to amend Sections 209, 1982, 4100, 4358.5, 7228, and 7234 of, and to repeal and add Sections 270 and 271 of, the Welfare and Institutions Code, relating to public safety, making an appropriation therefor, to take effect immediately, bill related to the budget.LEGISLATIVE COUNSEL'S DIGESTAB 103, Committee on Budget. Public safety: omnibus.(1) Existing law requires a court, prior to the entry of any judgment in a class action, to determine the total amount that will be payable to all class members. The court is also required to set a date when the parties are to report to the court the total amount that was actually paid to the class members. After the report is received, the court is required to amend the judgment to direct the defendant to pay the sum of the unpaid residue, plus interest, to nonprofit organizations or foundations to support projects that will benefit the class or similarly situated persons, or that promote the law consistent with the underlying cause of action, or to child advocacy programs, or to nonprofit organizations providing civil legal services to the indigent. Existing law excepts class actions brought against public entities and public employees from these provisions.This bill would require that whenever a judgment, including any consent judgment, decree, or settlement agreement that has been approved by the court, in a class action provides for the payment of money to members of the class, any unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds be distributed in accordance with its provisions, unless the court makes a specific finding. The bill would require the court to set a date when the parties must submit a report to the court regarding a plan for the distribution of these funds. The bill would require that at least 25% of the unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds generally attributable to California residents, plus any accrued interest that has not otherwise been distributed, be transmitted to the State Treasury for deposit in the Trial Court Improvement and Modernization Fund, subject to appropriation by the Legislature to the Judicial Council to fund trial court operations. The bill would further require that at least 25% of these funds be transmitted to the Equal Access Fund of the Judicial Branch, to be distributed as specified. The bill would require that the balance of these funds, if any, plus interest be distributed generally as previously required, as described above. The bill would also except any cause of action brought against public entities and public employees from these provisions.(2) Existing law authorizes a trial court to adopt local rules permitting electronic filing and service of documents, subject to rules adopted by the Judicial Council and other specified conditions. Existing law also authorizes the court, in any action in which a party has agreed to accept electronic service, or in which the court has ordered electronic service, as specified, to electronically serve any document issued by the court that is not required to be personally served, in the same manner that parties electronically serve documents.This bill would require a system for the electronic filing and service of documents to be accessible to individuals with disabilities. The bill would require a trial court that contracts with an entity for the provision of a system for the electronic filing and service of documents to include certain requirements in its contract with the entity, including a requirement that the entity test and verify that the entitys system is accessible. The bill would require the Judicial Council to adopt uniform rules to implement these requirements and to submit reports to the Legislature, as specified.(3) Existing federal law authorizes the United States Attorney General to enter into contracts or agreements with a state, or a political subdivision of a state, for detention or incarceration space or facilities. Existing federal law authorizes the United States Attorney General to enter into an agreement with a state, or a political subdivision of a state, to authorize an officer or employee of that state or political subdivision to, among other things, detain aliens in the United States.Existing law, commonly known as the TRUST Act, prohibits a law enforcement official, as defined, from detaining an individual on the basis of a United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement hold after that individual becomes eligible for release from custody, unless, at the time that the individual becomes eligible for release from custody, certain conditions are met, including, among other things, that the individual has been convicted of specified crimes.This bill would prohibit a city or county or local law enforcement agency from, on or after June 15, 2017, entering into a contract with the federal government or any federal agency to house or detain an adult noncitizen in a locked detention facility for purposes of civil immigration custody. The bill would prohibit a city or county or local law enforcement agency that entered into a contract of that nature on or before June 15, 2017, from modifying or renewing that contract so as to expand the maximum number of contract beds that may be used to house or detain an adult noncitizen for purposes of civil immigration custody.This bill would similarly prohibit a city or county or local law enforcement agency from, on or after June 15, 2017, entering into a contract with the federal government or any federal agency to house or detain an accompanied or unaccompanied minor that is in the custody of or detained by specified federal agencies in a locked detention facility. The bill would prohibit a city or county or local law enforcement agency that entered into a contract of that nature on or before June 15, 2017, from modifying or renewing that contract so as to expand the maximum number of contract beds that may be used to house or detain an accompanied or unaccompanied minor in a locked detention facility. The bill would provide that this prohibition does not apply to temporary housing of any accompanied or unaccompanied minor in less restrictive settings when the State Department of Social Services certifies that the contract is necessary based on changing conditions of the population in need and if the housing contract meets 2 requirements.(4) Existing law requires certain state agencies to obtain written consent from the Attorney General before employing legal counsel in any judicial proceeding.This bill would, instead, require certain state agencies to obtain the written consent of the Attorney General before employing in-house counsel to represent those agencies in any judicial or administrative adjudicative proceeding and before contracting with outside counsel. The bill would otherwise generally authorize a state agency to employ in-house counsel for any purpose, except that it would require a state agency to use the Attorney General for the purpose of delivering approving legal opinions on bonds or other evidence of indebtedness, unless the Attorney General waives that requirement.(5) Existing law sets forth the duties and responsibilities of the Attorney General and provides that he or she has charge, as attorney, of all legal matters in which the state is interested, except as specified.This bill would require, until July 1, 2027, the Attorney General, or his or her designee, to engage in reviews of county, local, or private locked detention facilities in which noncitizens are being housed or detained for purposes of civil immigration proceedings in California, as specified. The bill would require the Department of Justice to provide, during the budget process, updates and information to the Legislature and the Governor, including a written summary of findings, if appropriate, regarding the progress of these reviews and any relevant findings. The bill would also require the Attorney General, or his or her designee, on or before March 1, 2019, to conduct a review of these facilities and to provide, on or before March 1, 2019, the Legislature and the Governor with a comprehensive report outlining the findings of that review. The bill would require the comprehensive report to be posted on the Attorney Generals Internet Web site and otherwise made available to the public upon its release to the Legislature and the Governor.(6) Existing law creates the Department of Justice, which is under the direction and control of the Attorney General. Existing law establishes the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Program, which is administered by the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Investment Board. Existing law requires the board, prior to opening the program for enrollment, to make a report to the Governor and Legislature affirming that certain prerequisites and requirements have been met, including that the United States Department of Labor has finalized a regulation setting forth a safe harbor for savings arrangements established by states for nongovernmental employees and that the program is structured to meet the criteria of the regulation. The federal Employee Retirement Income Security Act, commonly known as ERISA, regulates employee benefit plans, as defined, and generally supersedes state law, except as specified.This bill would require, in connection with potential litigation involving the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Program, that the state be represented by attorneys who possess a comprehensive knowledge of ERISA and have at least 10 years of experience litigating claims related to ERISA in federal trial and appellate courts. The bill would require the Department of Justice, if it does not have sufficient attorneys with these characteristics, to enter into contracts with qualified attorneys to secure their services.(7) Existing law authorizes the Board of State and Community Corrections or the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, the State Public Works Board, and a participating county, as defined, to acquire, design, and construct an adult local criminal justice facility, as defined, and provides funding for those purposes. Existing regulations of the Board of State and Community Corrections specify the number of visits that inmates held in certain types of correctional facilities are required to be provided.This bill would require that specified conditional funding to a participating county for the construction or renovation of a local jail facility or adult local criminal justice facility be used to construct or renovate a facility that meets or surpasses the minimum number of weekly visits as specified in regulations through the use of in-person visitation space. The bill would require a scope change to be submitted to include in-person visitation, as specified, for any proposals submitted previous to these requirements that only provided for video visitation.Existing law provides that a county jail is kept by the sheriff of the county in which the jail is situated and is to be used for specified purposes, including for the confinement of persons sentenced to imprisonment in a county jail upon a criminal conviction. Existing regulations of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation specify the number of visits that inmates held in certain types of correctional facilities may be allowed.This bill would prohibit a local detention facility, as defined, that provided in-person visitation as of January 1, 2017, from converting to only video visitation. The bill would prohibit a local detention facility from charging for visitation when visitors are onsite and participating in either in-person or video visitation. The bill would require a local detention facility that does not offer in-person visitation to provide the first hour of remote video visitation each week free of charge.(8) Existing law requires a probation officer to be appointed in each county. Existing law requires the probation officer to be nominated by the juvenile justice commission and appointed by the judge of the juvenile court. Existing law allows the probation officer to revoke or terminate the appointment of a deputy or assistant probation officer with the written approval of the juvenile justice commission.This bill would revise and recast these provisions. The bill would require each county to appoint a chief probation officer. The bill would establish the duties and obligations of that office, as specified. The bill would require the presiding judge, in a county with 2 judges, or a majority of the judges, in a county with more than 2 judges, to appoint the chief probation officer upon nomination of the juvenile justice commission. The bill would allow the chief probation officer to revoke and terminate the appointment of a deputy or assistant probation officer without the written approval of the juvenile justice commission. The bill would delete the creation of the office of adult probation officer.(9) Existing law establishes the Judicial Council and requires it to perform various duties regarding the oversight and management of the courts, including, among others, reporting to the Legislature on specific accounting and case management programs.This bill would require the Judicial Council, beginning on October 1, 2018, to annually report on revenue and collections for each court and county for the previous fiscal year, as specified.(10) Existing law specifies the number of judges for the superior court of each county. Existing law allocates additional judgeships to the various counties in accordance with uniform standards for factually determining additional need in each county, as updated and approved by the Judicial Council, based on specified criteria, including, among others, workload standards that represent the average amount of time of bench and nonbench work required to resolve each case type.This bill would reallocate 2 vacant judgeships from the Superior Court of the County of Santa Clara to the Superior Court of the County of Riverside and 2 vacant judgeships from the Superior Court of the County of Alameda to the Superior Court of the County of San Bernardino. The bill would require the Judicial Council to determine which specific vacancies would be transferred between counties pursuant to this provision and to take all necessary steps to effectuate each transfer. The bill would provide that the term of the judgeships would begin on January 2, 2018, and that a court in which a vacant judgeship is reallocated shall not have its funding allocation reduced, shifted, or transferred as a result of the reallocation. The bill would make conforming changes.(11) Existing law authorizes the Judicial Council to dispose of surplus court facilities pursuant to a specified process that requires, among other things, the Judicial Council to consult with the county where the court facility is located, offer the facility to the county at a fair market value before offering it to another state or local government agency, and deposit the funds received from a sale into the State Court Facilities Construction Fund. Existing law imposes specified requirements on local entities with regard to the construction of new court facilities, or the alteration, remodeling, or relocation of court facilities, as specified. Existing law imposes specified requirements on the sale or lease of real property by the board of supervisors of a county, as prescribed.Existing law, the California Environmental Quality Act (CEQA), requires a lead agency, as defined, to prepare, or cause to be prepared, and certify the completion of, an environmental impact report on a project that it proposes to carry out or approve that may have a significant effect on the environment, as defined, or to adopt a negative declaration if it finds that the project will not have that effect, unless the project is exempt from the act. CEQA provides for various exemptions from the requirements of the act.This bill would authorize the Administrative Director of the Courts to transfer specified court facility property to the County of San Diego under prescribed circumstances, and would exempt the transfer from the procedures described above. With regard to the demolition project and further development of that property by the County of San Diego, the bill would, among other things, authorize the use of existing environmental impact reports, as specified, for purposes of CEQA. The bill would prescribe the circumstances under which the Board of Supervisors of the County of San Diego may enter into leases for subsequent improvements of the property.(12) Existing law establishes the Military Department, which includes the office of the Adjutant General, the California National Guard, the State Military Reserve, the California Cadet Corps, and the Naval Militia. Existing law provides that specified military members are deemed state employees for purposes of workers compensation.This bill would establish the Military Department Workers Compensation Fund, and would provide that all moneys in the fund are continuously appropriated to the Military Department for workers compensation claims that are wholly or partially reimbursed by the federal government for personnel within the Military Department, as specified. By creating a continuously appropriated fund, this bill would make an appropriation.(13) Existing law, the Three Strikes Reform Act of 2012, passed by the voters as Proposition 36 at the November 6, 2012, statewide general election, amended the Three Strikes Law and provided for lower sentences in specified circumstances, including when the current crime is not a serious or violent crime. The act provided a means by which a person serving an indeterminate term of imprisonment can be resentenced in conformance with the provisions of the act.Existing law, the Safe Neighborhoods and Schools Act, enacted by Proposition 47, as approved by the voters at the November 4, 2014, statewide general election, reduced the penalties for various crimes. Under the provisions of the act, a person currently convicted of a felony or felonies who would have been guilty of a misdemeanor under the act if the act had been in effect at the time of the conviction may petition or apply to have the sentence reduced in accordance with the act. That act requires that this petition or application be filed before November 4, 2017, or at a later date upon a showing of good cause.This bill would authorize a person who is committed to a state hospital after being found not guilty by reason of insanity to petition the court to have the maximum term of commitment reduced to what it would have been had Proposition 36 or Proposition 47 been in effect at the time of the original determination, as specified. The bill would require the petitioner to show that he or she would have been eligible to have his or her sentence reduced under the relevant proposition and to file the petition prior to January 1, 2021, or at a later date with a showing of good cause.(14) Existing law identifies the state hospitals over which the State Department of State Hospitals has jurisdiction, including, among others, Atascadero State Hospital and Coalinga State Hospital.This bill would provide the department with jurisdiction over the Admission, Evaluation, and Stabilization (AES) Center in the County of Kern, and other AES Centers as defined by regulation. The bill would also authorize the Director of State Hospitals to adopt emergency regulations to implement this provision and would declare that the adoption of emergency regulations under this provision is deemed to address an emergency, for purposes of the Administrative Procedure Act. The bill would provide the department with jurisdiction over any county jail treatment facility under contract with the State Department of State Hospitals to provide competency restoration services. The bill would also make other technical and conforming changes.(15) Existing law creates the State Penalty Fund into which moneys collected by the courts from the imposition of fines, forfeitures, or penalties on criminal offenses are deposited. Once a month, certain percentages of money in that fund are transferred into other funds.This bill would repeal the authority for these transfers to other funds and instead require the Department of Finance to provide a schedule to the Controller for all transfers of funds made available by the Budget Act from the State Penalty Fund in the current fiscal year. The bill would, upon the order of the Department of Finance, allow sufficient funds to be transferred by the Controller from the General Fund for cashflow needs of the State Penalty Fund, as provided.(16) Existing law authorizes, if certain conditions are met, reimbursement for expenses or payment of specified costs incurred by a person employed by the state, or a city, county, or city and county, to travel to a jurisdiction outside of the state for the purpose of returning a fugitive from justice to this state.This bill would establish reimbursement rates for meals and incidental expenses for persons transporting fugitives for return to certain local government jurisdictions, as specified.(17) Existing law establishes the Prison Industry Authority within the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation under the direction of the Prison Industry Board. Existing law grants the board specified powers, including the ability to review and approve the annual budget for the authority, in order to ensure that the solvency of the Prison Industries Revolving Fund is maintained. Existing law states that the purpose of the authority is, among other things, to operate a work program for prisoners which will ultimately be self-supporting by generating sufficient funds from the sale of products and services to pay all the expenses of the program.This bill would specify that the above provisions do not require immediate cash availability for funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above amounts established in the Budget Act, or as determined by the Board of Administration of the Public Employees Retirement System, or the Director of Finance for the fiscal year. The bill would prohibit the authority from establishing cash reserves to support funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above these amounts.(18) Existing law generally requires all persons released from prison to be subject to postrelease community supervision by a local probation department for a period of 3 years immediately following release. Existing law requires that postrelease community supervision include specified conditions, including that the person inform the supervising county agency of the persons place of residence, employment, education, or training and of any pending or anticipated changes to the place of residence, employment, education, or training.This bill would define residence for these purposes as one or more locations at which a person regularly resides, regardless of the number of days or nights spent there, such as a shelter or structure that can be located by a street address, including, but not limited to, a house, apartment building, motel, hotel, homeless shelter, and recreational or other vehicle. The bill would require, if the person has no residence, that he or she inform the supervising county agency that he or she is transient. The bill would also require the person to inform the supervising county agency of any change in residence, or the establishment of a new residence if the person was previously transient, within 5 working days of the change.(19) Existing law establishes the Board of Parole Hearings, which is composed of 14 commissioners appointed by the Governor, and subject to Senate confirmation, for staggered 3-year terms.This bill would instead provide that the board is composed of 15 commissioners. The bill would also revise the term of office for existing commissioners, as specified, so that 5 commissioners would commence a new term on July 1 of each year.(20) Existing law requires the Board of State and Community Corrections to inspect local detention facilities biennially and requires the inspection to include specified components, including, among others, a fire suppression preplanning inspection. Existing law requires a report of each facilitys inspection to be furnished to the official in charge of the local detention facility.This bill would require inspections of local detention facilities to be conducted, at a minimum, biennially. The bill would additionally require the inspections to address components relating to the availability of visitation and relating to the receipt of state funds for jail construction. The bill would require that reports made pursuant to the above-described provisions to be posted on the boards Internet Web site.Existing law requires the Board of State and Community Corrections to conduct a biennial inspection of each jail, juvenile hall, lockup, or special purpose juvenile hall that, during the preceding calendar year, was used for confinement for more than 24 hours of any minor and requires the board to issue a notice of its findings, as specified.This bill would require the board to post all reports and notices of findings it prepares pursuant to this provision on its Internet Web site.(21) Existing law prohibits a person who has been convicted of a felony or who is addicted to the use of any narcotic drug from owning, purchasing, receiving, or possessing a firearm. Under existing law, a violation of this prohibition is punishable as a felony.This bill would prohibit a person who has an outstanding warrant for a felony from owning, purchasing, receiving, or possessing a firearm. A violation of this prohibition would be punishable as a felony. Because a violation of this prohibition would be a crime, this bill would impose a state-mandated local program.Existing law also generally prohibits a person who has been convicted of certain misdemeanors from owning, purchasing, receiving, or possessing a firearm within 10 years of the conviction. Under existing law, a violation of this prohibition is a crime punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year or in the state prison, by a fine not exceeding $1,000, or by both that imprisonment and fine. Existing law, as a result of Proposition 63, an initiative measure approved by the voters at the November 8, 2016, statewide general election, codifies these provisions in separate, nonconflicting, identically numbered sections.This bill would prohibit a person who has an outstanding warrant for certain misdemeanors from owning, purchasing, receiving, or possessing a firearm. A violation of this prohibition would be a crime, punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year or in the state prison, by a fine not exceeding $1,000, or by both that imprisonment and fine. Because a violation of this prohibition would be a crime, this bill would impose a state-mandated local program.(22) Existing law prohibits, with some exceptions, the possession of an assault weapon that does not have a fixed magazine including those weapons with a detachable magazine that can be removed readily from the firearm with the use of a tool. Existing law exempts from that prohibition such a weapon that was lawfully possessed by the owner starting at any time from January 1, 2001, to December 31, 2016, and is registered by that owner with the Department of Justice before January 1, 2018, but not before the effective date of specified regulations to be adopted by the department.This bill would extend the deadline to register a weapon in order to be exempted from the prohibition from January 1, 2018, to July 1, 2018.(23) Existing law generally requires state agencies to obtain at least 3 competitive bids for each contract for services. Under existing law, this requirement does not apply under certain circumstances.This bill, until June 30, 2018, would authorize the State Department of State Hospitals to enter into an agreement for continued operation of the existing central utility plant at the Metropolitan State Hospital without having to comply with the competitive bidding requirements described above.(24) Existing law authorizes any county or court to implement a comprehensive collection program as a separate revenue collection activity, and requires the program to meet certain criteria, one of which is that the program engages in specified activities in collecting fines or penalties, including initiating drivers license suspension or hold actions when appropriate.This bill would instead limit the program to initiating a drivers license suspension or hold actions only for a failure to appear in court.Existing law authorizes the court to notify the Department of Motor Vehicles when a person has failed to pay a fine or bail, with respect to various violations relating to vehicles, and requires the department to suspend a persons drivers license upon receipt of the notice, as specified.The bill would repeal the authority of the court to notify the department of a failure to pay a fine or bail, thereby deleting the requirement for the department to suspend a persons drivers license upon receipt of that notice.(25) Existing law requires the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, Division of Juvenile Justice, and the Chief Probation Officers of California, in consultation with the Board of State and Community Corrections, formerly known as the Corrections Standards Authority, to provide annual reports to the Department of Finance, with information sorted by county, with the names of discharged wards, under specified circumstances.This bill would remove the requirement that the information include the name of a discharged ward and would instead require that the information include the identifying information, as defined, of a discharged ward, as specified. The bill would require the board, instead of the Chief Probation Officers of California, to provide an annual report and would remove the requirement of a consultation. The bill would also remove obsolete references to the authority under these provisions.Existing law requires, in each fiscal year, that funds be allocated to each county probation department from the Juvenile Reentry Grant Special Account on an average daily population basis per discharged ward transferred to a local juvenile facility for violating a condition of court-ordered supervision during the previous fiscal year, as specified.This bill would prohibit a county from receiving the above-described funding if it does not submit data under the provisions relating to the boards annual report.(26) The California Constitution requires the state to reimburse local agencies and school districts for certain costs mandated by the state. Statutory provisions establish procedures for making that reimbursement.This bill would provide that no reimbursement is required by this act for a specified reason.(27) This bill would declare that it is to take effect immediately as a bill providing for appropriations related to the Budget Bill.Digest Key Vote: MAJORITY Appropriation: YES Fiscal Committee: YES Local Program: YES
4+
5+ Enrolled June 19, 2017 Passed IN Senate June 15, 2017 Passed IN Assembly June 15, 2017 Amended IN Senate June 08, 2017
6+
7+Enrolled June 19, 2017
8+Passed IN Senate June 15, 2017
9+Passed IN Assembly June 15, 2017
10+Amended IN Senate June 08, 2017
11+
12+ CALIFORNIA LEGISLATURE 20172018 REGULAR SESSION
413
514 Assembly Bill No. 103
6-CHAPTER 17
15+
16+Introduced by Committee on Budget (Assembly Members Ting (Chair), Arambula, Bloom, Caballero, Chiu, Cooper, Cristina Garcia, Jones-Sawyer, Limn, McCarty, Medina, Mullin, Muratsuchi, ODonnell, Rubio, Mark Stone, Weber, and Wood)January 10, 2017
17+
18+Introduced by Committee on Budget (Assembly Members Ting (Chair), Arambula, Bloom, Caballero, Chiu, Cooper, Cristina Garcia, Jones-Sawyer, Limn, McCarty, Medina, Mullin, Muratsuchi, ODonnell, Rubio, Mark Stone, Weber, and Wood)
19+January 10, 2017
720
821 An act to amend Sections 384 and 1010.6 of the Code of Civil Procedure, to amend Sections 11040, 11041, 11042, 11045, 24000, 69580, 69592, 69594, and 69600 of, to add Sections 15007, 15820.948, 68514, and 69614.4 to, to add Article 9 (commencing with 70500) to Chapter 5.7 of Title 8 of, to add Chapter 17.8 (commencing with Section 7310) to Division 7 of Title 1 of, to add Chapter 16 (commencing with Section 27770) to Part 3 of Division 2 of Title 3 of, to add and repeal Section 12532 of, and to repeal Section 11043 of, the Government Code, to add Section 329 to the Military and Veterans Code, to amend Sections 1170.18, 1370, 1370.6, 1372, 1463.007, 1464, 1557, 2801, 2808, 3453, 5075, 6031, 6031.1, 29800, 29805, 30680, and 30900 of, to add Sections 1170.127 and 4032 to, to repeal Sections 1203.6 and 1464.2 of, and to repeal and add Section 1203.5 of, the Penal Code, to add and repeal Section 10340.1 of the Public Contract Code, to amend Sections 13365, 13365.2, 40509, and 40509.5 of the Vehicle Code, and to amend Sections 209, 1982, 4100, 4358.5, 7228, and 7234 of, and to repeal and add Sections 270 and 271 of, the Welfare and Institutions Code, relating to public safety, making an appropriation therefor, to take effect immediately, bill related to the budget.
9-
10- [ Approved by Governor June 27, 2017. Filed with Secretary of State June 27, 2017. ]
1122
1223 LEGISLATIVE COUNSEL'S DIGEST
1324
1425 ## LEGISLATIVE COUNSEL'S DIGEST
1526
1627 AB 103, Committee on Budget. Public safety: omnibus.
1728
1829 (1) Existing law requires a court, prior to the entry of any judgment in a class action, to determine the total amount that will be payable to all class members. The court is also required to set a date when the parties are to report to the court the total amount that was actually paid to the class members. After the report is received, the court is required to amend the judgment to direct the defendant to pay the sum of the unpaid residue, plus interest, to nonprofit organizations or foundations to support projects that will benefit the class or similarly situated persons, or that promote the law consistent with the underlying cause of action, or to child advocacy programs, or to nonprofit organizations providing civil legal services to the indigent. Existing law excepts class actions brought against public entities and public employees from these provisions.This bill would require that whenever a judgment, including any consent judgment, decree, or settlement agreement that has been approved by the court, in a class action provides for the payment of money to members of the class, any unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds be distributed in accordance with its provisions, unless the court makes a specific finding. The bill would require the court to set a date when the parties must submit a report to the court regarding a plan for the distribution of these funds. The bill would require that at least 25% of the unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds generally attributable to California residents, plus any accrued interest that has not otherwise been distributed, be transmitted to the State Treasury for deposit in the Trial Court Improvement and Modernization Fund, subject to appropriation by the Legislature to the Judicial Council to fund trial court operations. The bill would further require that at least 25% of these funds be transmitted to the Equal Access Fund of the Judicial Branch, to be distributed as specified. The bill would require that the balance of these funds, if any, plus interest be distributed generally as previously required, as described above. The bill would also except any cause of action brought against public entities and public employees from these provisions.(2) Existing law authorizes a trial court to adopt local rules permitting electronic filing and service of documents, subject to rules adopted by the Judicial Council and other specified conditions. Existing law also authorizes the court, in any action in which a party has agreed to accept electronic service, or in which the court has ordered electronic service, as specified, to electronically serve any document issued by the court that is not required to be personally served, in the same manner that parties electronically serve documents.This bill would require a system for the electronic filing and service of documents to be accessible to individuals with disabilities. The bill would require a trial court that contracts with an entity for the provision of a system for the electronic filing and service of documents to include certain requirements in its contract with the entity, including a requirement that the entity test and verify that the entitys system is accessible. The bill would require the Judicial Council to adopt uniform rules to implement these requirements and to submit reports to the Legislature, as specified.(3) Existing federal law authorizes the United States Attorney General to enter into contracts or agreements with a state, or a political subdivision of a state, for detention or incarceration space or facilities. Existing federal law authorizes the United States Attorney General to enter into an agreement with a state, or a political subdivision of a state, to authorize an officer or employee of that state or political subdivision to, among other things, detain aliens in the United States.Existing law, commonly known as the TRUST Act, prohibits a law enforcement official, as defined, from detaining an individual on the basis of a United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement hold after that individual becomes eligible for release from custody, unless, at the time that the individual becomes eligible for release from custody, certain conditions are met, including, among other things, that the individual has been convicted of specified crimes.This bill would prohibit a city or county or local law enforcement agency from, on or after June 15, 2017, entering into a contract with the federal government or any federal agency to house or detain an adult noncitizen in a locked detention facility for purposes of civil immigration custody. The bill would prohibit a city or county or local law enforcement agency that entered into a contract of that nature on or before June 15, 2017, from modifying or renewing that contract so as to expand the maximum number of contract beds that may be used to house or detain an adult noncitizen for purposes of civil immigration custody.This bill would similarly prohibit a city or county or local law enforcement agency from, on or after June 15, 2017, entering into a contract with the federal government or any federal agency to house or detain an accompanied or unaccompanied minor that is in the custody of or detained by specified federal agencies in a locked detention facility. The bill would prohibit a city or county or local law enforcement agency that entered into a contract of that nature on or before June 15, 2017, from modifying or renewing that contract so as to expand the maximum number of contract beds that may be used to house or detain an accompanied or unaccompanied minor in a locked detention facility. The bill would provide that this prohibition does not apply to temporary housing of any accompanied or unaccompanied minor in less restrictive settings when the State Department of Social Services certifies that the contract is necessary based on changing conditions of the population in need and if the housing contract meets 2 requirements.(4) Existing law requires certain state agencies to obtain written consent from the Attorney General before employing legal counsel in any judicial proceeding.This bill would, instead, require certain state agencies to obtain the written consent of the Attorney General before employing in-house counsel to represent those agencies in any judicial or administrative adjudicative proceeding and before contracting with outside counsel. The bill would otherwise generally authorize a state agency to employ in-house counsel for any purpose, except that it would require a state agency to use the Attorney General for the purpose of delivering approving legal opinions on bonds or other evidence of indebtedness, unless the Attorney General waives that requirement.(5) Existing law sets forth the duties and responsibilities of the Attorney General and provides that he or she has charge, as attorney, of all legal matters in which the state is interested, except as specified.This bill would require, until July 1, 2027, the Attorney General, or his or her designee, to engage in reviews of county, local, or private locked detention facilities in which noncitizens are being housed or detained for purposes of civil immigration proceedings in California, as specified. The bill would require the Department of Justice to provide, during the budget process, updates and information to the Legislature and the Governor, including a written summary of findings, if appropriate, regarding the progress of these reviews and any relevant findings. The bill would also require the Attorney General, or his or her designee, on or before March 1, 2019, to conduct a review of these facilities and to provide, on or before March 1, 2019, the Legislature and the Governor with a comprehensive report outlining the findings of that review. The bill would require the comprehensive report to be posted on the Attorney Generals Internet Web site and otherwise made available to the public upon its release to the Legislature and the Governor.(6) Existing law creates the Department of Justice, which is under the direction and control of the Attorney General. Existing law establishes the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Program, which is administered by the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Investment Board. Existing law requires the board, prior to opening the program for enrollment, to make a report to the Governor and Legislature affirming that certain prerequisites and requirements have been met, including that the United States Department of Labor has finalized a regulation setting forth a safe harbor for savings arrangements established by states for nongovernmental employees and that the program is structured to meet the criteria of the regulation. The federal Employee Retirement Income Security Act, commonly known as ERISA, regulates employee benefit plans, as defined, and generally supersedes state law, except as specified.This bill would require, in connection with potential litigation involving the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Program, that the state be represented by attorneys who possess a comprehensive knowledge of ERISA and have at least 10 years of experience litigating claims related to ERISA in federal trial and appellate courts. The bill would require the Department of Justice, if it does not have sufficient attorneys with these characteristics, to enter into contracts with qualified attorneys to secure their services.(7) Existing law authorizes the Board of State and Community Corrections or the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, the State Public Works Board, and a participating county, as defined, to acquire, design, and construct an adult local criminal justice facility, as defined, and provides funding for those purposes. Existing regulations of the Board of State and Community Corrections specify the number of visits that inmates held in certain types of correctional facilities are required to be provided.This bill would require that specified conditional funding to a participating county for the construction or renovation of a local jail facility or adult local criminal justice facility be used to construct or renovate a facility that meets or surpasses the minimum number of weekly visits as specified in regulations through the use of in-person visitation space. The bill would require a scope change to be submitted to include in-person visitation, as specified, for any proposals submitted previous to these requirements that only provided for video visitation.Existing law provides that a county jail is kept by the sheriff of the county in which the jail is situated and is to be used for specified purposes, including for the confinement of persons sentenced to imprisonment in a county jail upon a criminal conviction. Existing regulations of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation specify the number of visits that inmates held in certain types of correctional facilities may be allowed.This bill would prohibit a local detention facility, as defined, that provided in-person visitation as of January 1, 2017, from converting to only video visitation. The bill would prohibit a local detention facility from charging for visitation when visitors are onsite and participating in either in-person or video visitation. The bill would require a local detention facility that does not offer in-person visitation to provide the first hour of remote video visitation each week free of charge.(8) Existing law requires a probation officer to be appointed in each county. Existing law requires the probation officer to be nominated by the juvenile justice commission and appointed by the judge of the juvenile court. Existing law allows the probation officer to revoke or terminate the appointment of a deputy or assistant probation officer with the written approval of the juvenile justice commission.This bill would revise and recast these provisions. The bill would require each county to appoint a chief probation officer. The bill would establish the duties and obligations of that office, as specified. The bill would require the presiding judge, in a county with 2 judges, or a majority of the judges, in a county with more than 2 judges, to appoint the chief probation officer upon nomination of the juvenile justice commission. The bill would allow the chief probation officer to revoke and terminate the appointment of a deputy or assistant probation officer without the written approval of the juvenile justice commission. The bill would delete the creation of the office of adult probation officer.(9) Existing law establishes the Judicial Council and requires it to perform various duties regarding the oversight and management of the courts, including, among others, reporting to the Legislature on specific accounting and case management programs.This bill would require the Judicial Council, beginning on October 1, 2018, to annually report on revenue and collections for each court and county for the previous fiscal year, as specified.(10) Existing law specifies the number of judges for the superior court of each county. Existing law allocates additional judgeships to the various counties in accordance with uniform standards for factually determining additional need in each county, as updated and approved by the Judicial Council, based on specified criteria, including, among others, workload standards that represent the average amount of time of bench and nonbench work required to resolve each case type.This bill would reallocate 2 vacant judgeships from the Superior Court of the County of Santa Clara to the Superior Court of the County of Riverside and 2 vacant judgeships from the Superior Court of the County of Alameda to the Superior Court of the County of San Bernardino. The bill would require the Judicial Council to determine which specific vacancies would be transferred between counties pursuant to this provision and to take all necessary steps to effectuate each transfer. The bill would provide that the term of the judgeships would begin on January 2, 2018, and that a court in which a vacant judgeship is reallocated shall not have its funding allocation reduced, shifted, or transferred as a result of the reallocation. The bill would make conforming changes.(11) Existing law authorizes the Judicial Council to dispose of surplus court facilities pursuant to a specified process that requires, among other things, the Judicial Council to consult with the county where the court facility is located, offer the facility to the county at a fair market value before offering it to another state or local government agency, and deposit the funds received from a sale into the State Court Facilities Construction Fund. Existing law imposes specified requirements on local entities with regard to the construction of new court facilities, or the alteration, remodeling, or relocation of court facilities, as specified. Existing law imposes specified requirements on the sale or lease of real property by the board of supervisors of a county, as prescribed.Existing law, the California Environmental Quality Act (CEQA), requires a lead agency, as defined, to prepare, or cause to be prepared, and certify the completion of, an environmental impact report on a project that it proposes to carry out or approve that may have a significant effect on the environment, as defined, or to adopt a negative declaration if it finds that the project will not have that effect, unless the project is exempt from the act. CEQA provides for various exemptions from the requirements of the act.This bill would authorize the Administrative Director of the Courts to transfer specified court facility property to the County of San Diego under prescribed circumstances, and would exempt the transfer from the procedures described above. With regard to the demolition project and further development of that property by the County of San Diego, the bill would, among other things, authorize the use of existing environmental impact reports, as specified, for purposes of CEQA. The bill would prescribe the circumstances under which the Board of Supervisors of the County of San Diego may enter into leases for subsequent improvements of the property.(12) Existing law establishes the Military Department, which includes the office of the Adjutant General, the California National Guard, the State Military Reserve, the California Cadet Corps, and the Naval Militia. Existing law provides that specified military members are deemed state employees for purposes of workers compensation.This bill would establish the Military Department Workers Compensation Fund, and would provide that all moneys in the fund are continuously appropriated to the Military Department for workers compensation claims that are wholly or partially reimbursed by the federal government for personnel within the Military Department, as specified. By creating a continuously appropriated fund, this bill would make an appropriation.(13) Existing law, the Three Strikes Reform Act of 2012, passed by the voters as Proposition 36 at the November 6, 2012, statewide general election, amended the Three Strikes Law and provided for lower sentences in specified circumstances, including when the current crime is not a serious or violent crime. The act provided a means by which a person serving an indeterminate term of imprisonment can be resentenced in conformance with the provisions of the act.Existing law, the Safe Neighborhoods and Schools Act, enacted by Proposition 47, as approved by the voters at the November 4, 2014, statewide general election, reduced the penalties for various crimes. Under the provisions of the act, a person currently convicted of a felony or felonies who would have been guilty of a misdemeanor under the act if the act had been in effect at the time of the conviction may petition or apply to have the sentence reduced in accordance with the act. That act requires that this petition or application be filed before November 4, 2017, or at a later date upon a showing of good cause.This bill would authorize a person who is committed to a state hospital after being found not guilty by reason of insanity to petition the court to have the maximum term of commitment reduced to what it would have been had Proposition 36 or Proposition 47 been in effect at the time of the original determination, as specified. The bill would require the petitioner to show that he or she would have been eligible to have his or her sentence reduced under the relevant proposition and to file the petition prior to January 1, 2021, or at a later date with a showing of good cause.(14) Existing law identifies the state hospitals over which the State Department of State Hospitals has jurisdiction, including, among others, Atascadero State Hospital and Coalinga State Hospital.This bill would provide the department with jurisdiction over the Admission, Evaluation, and Stabilization (AES) Center in the County of Kern, and other AES Centers as defined by regulation. The bill would also authorize the Director of State Hospitals to adopt emergency regulations to implement this provision and would declare that the adoption of emergency regulations under this provision is deemed to address an emergency, for purposes of the Administrative Procedure Act. The bill would provide the department with jurisdiction over any county jail treatment facility under contract with the State Department of State Hospitals to provide competency restoration services. The bill would also make other technical and conforming changes.(15) Existing law creates the State Penalty Fund into which moneys collected by the courts from the imposition of fines, forfeitures, or penalties on criminal offenses are deposited. Once a month, certain percentages of money in that fund are transferred into other funds.This bill would repeal the authority for these transfers to other funds and instead require the Department of Finance to provide a schedule to the Controller for all transfers of funds made available by the Budget Act from the State Penalty Fund in the current fiscal year. The bill would, upon the order of the Department of Finance, allow sufficient funds to be transferred by the Controller from the General Fund for cashflow needs of the State Penalty Fund, as provided.(16) Existing law authorizes, if certain conditions are met, reimbursement for expenses or payment of specified costs incurred by a person employed by the state, or a city, county, or city and county, to travel to a jurisdiction outside of the state for the purpose of returning a fugitive from justice to this state.This bill would establish reimbursement rates for meals and incidental expenses for persons transporting fugitives for return to certain local government jurisdictions, as specified.(17) Existing law establishes the Prison Industry Authority within the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation under the direction of the Prison Industry Board. Existing law grants the board specified powers, including the ability to review and approve the annual budget for the authority, in order to ensure that the solvency of the Prison Industries Revolving Fund is maintained. Existing law states that the purpose of the authority is, among other things, to operate a work program for prisoners which will ultimately be self-supporting by generating sufficient funds from the sale of products and services to pay all the expenses of the program.This bill would specify that the above provisions do not require immediate cash availability for funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above amounts established in the Budget Act, or as determined by the Board of Administration of the Public Employees Retirement System, or the Director of Finance for the fiscal year. The bill would prohibit the authority from establishing cash reserves to support funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above these amounts.(18) Existing law generally requires all persons released from prison to be subject to postrelease community supervision by a local probation department for a period of 3 years immediately following release. Existing law requires that postrelease community supervision include specified conditions, including that the person inform the supervising county agency of the persons place of residence, employment, education, or training and of any pending or anticipated changes to the place of residence, employment, education, or training.This bill would define residence for these purposes as one or more locations at which a person regularly resides, regardless of the number of days or nights spent there, such as a shelter or structure that can be located by a street address, including, but not limited to, a house, apartment building, motel, hotel, homeless shelter, and recreational or other vehicle. The bill would require, if the person has no residence, that he or she inform the supervising county agency that he or she is transient. The bill would also require the person to inform the supervising county agency of any change in residence, or the establishment of a new residence if the person was previously transient, within 5 working days of the change.(19) Existing law establishes the Board of Parole Hearings, which is composed of 14 commissioners appointed by the Governor, and subject to Senate confirmation, for staggered 3-year terms.This bill would instead provide that the board is composed of 15 commissioners. The bill would also revise the term of office for existing commissioners, as specified, so that 5 commissioners would commence a new term on July 1 of each year.(20) Existing law requires the Board of State and Community Corrections to inspect local detention facilities biennially and requires the inspection to include specified components, including, among others, a fire suppression preplanning inspection. Existing law requires a report of each facilitys inspection to be furnished to the official in charge of the local detention facility.This bill would require inspections of local detention facilities to be conducted, at a minimum, biennially. The bill would additionally require the inspections to address components relating to the availability of visitation and relating to the receipt of state funds for jail construction. The bill would require that reports made pursuant to the above-described provisions to be posted on the boards Internet Web site.Existing law requires the Board of State and Community Corrections to conduct a biennial inspection of each jail, juvenile hall, lockup, or special purpose juvenile hall that, during the preceding calendar year, was used for confinement for more than 24 hours of any minor and requires the board to issue a notice of its findings, as specified.This bill would require the board to post all reports and notices of findings it prepares pursuant to this provision on its Internet Web site.(21) Existing law prohibits a person who has been convicted of a felony or who is addicted to the use of any narcotic drug from owning, purchasing, receiving, or possessing a firearm. Under existing law, a violation of this prohibition is punishable as a felony.This bill would prohibit a person who has an outstanding warrant for a felony from owning, purchasing, receiving, or possessing a firearm. A violation of this prohibition would be punishable as a felony. Because a violation of this prohibition would be a crime, this bill would impose a state-mandated local program.Existing law also generally prohibits a person who has been convicted of certain misdemeanors from owning, purchasing, receiving, or possessing a firearm within 10 years of the conviction. Under existing law, a violation of this prohibition is a crime punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year or in the state prison, by a fine not exceeding $1,000, or by both that imprisonment and fine. Existing law, as a result of Proposition 63, an initiative measure approved by the voters at the November 8, 2016, statewide general election, codifies these provisions in separate, nonconflicting, identically numbered sections.This bill would prohibit a person who has an outstanding warrant for certain misdemeanors from owning, purchasing, receiving, or possessing a firearm. A violation of this prohibition would be a crime, punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year or in the state prison, by a fine not exceeding $1,000, or by both that imprisonment and fine. Because a violation of this prohibition would be a crime, this bill would impose a state-mandated local program.(22) Existing law prohibits, with some exceptions, the possession of an assault weapon that does not have a fixed magazine including those weapons with a detachable magazine that can be removed readily from the firearm with the use of a tool. Existing law exempts from that prohibition such a weapon that was lawfully possessed by the owner starting at any time from January 1, 2001, to December 31, 2016, and is registered by that owner with the Department of Justice before January 1, 2018, but not before the effective date of specified regulations to be adopted by the department.This bill would extend the deadline to register a weapon in order to be exempted from the prohibition from January 1, 2018, to July 1, 2018.(23) Existing law generally requires state agencies to obtain at least 3 competitive bids for each contract for services. Under existing law, this requirement does not apply under certain circumstances.This bill, until June 30, 2018, would authorize the State Department of State Hospitals to enter into an agreement for continued operation of the existing central utility plant at the Metropolitan State Hospital without having to comply with the competitive bidding requirements described above.(24) Existing law authorizes any county or court to implement a comprehensive collection program as a separate revenue collection activity, and requires the program to meet certain criteria, one of which is that the program engages in specified activities in collecting fines or penalties, including initiating drivers license suspension or hold actions when appropriate.This bill would instead limit the program to initiating a drivers license suspension or hold actions only for a failure to appear in court.Existing law authorizes the court to notify the Department of Motor Vehicles when a person has failed to pay a fine or bail, with respect to various violations relating to vehicles, and requires the department to suspend a persons drivers license upon receipt of the notice, as specified.The bill would repeal the authority of the court to notify the department of a failure to pay a fine or bail, thereby deleting the requirement for the department to suspend a persons drivers license upon receipt of that notice.(25) Existing law requires the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, Division of Juvenile Justice, and the Chief Probation Officers of California, in consultation with the Board of State and Community Corrections, formerly known as the Corrections Standards Authority, to provide annual reports to the Department of Finance, with information sorted by county, with the names of discharged wards, under specified circumstances.This bill would remove the requirement that the information include the name of a discharged ward and would instead require that the information include the identifying information, as defined, of a discharged ward, as specified. The bill would require the board, instead of the Chief Probation Officers of California, to provide an annual report and would remove the requirement of a consultation. The bill would also remove obsolete references to the authority under these provisions.Existing law requires, in each fiscal year, that funds be allocated to each county probation department from the Juvenile Reentry Grant Special Account on an average daily population basis per discharged ward transferred to a local juvenile facility for violating a condition of court-ordered supervision during the previous fiscal year, as specified.This bill would prohibit a county from receiving the above-described funding if it does not submit data under the provisions relating to the boards annual report.(26) The California Constitution requires the state to reimburse local agencies and school districts for certain costs mandated by the state. Statutory provisions establish procedures for making that reimbursement.This bill would provide that no reimbursement is required by this act for a specified reason.(27) This bill would declare that it is to take effect immediately as a bill providing for appropriations related to the Budget Bill.
1930
2031 (1) Existing law requires a court, prior to the entry of any judgment in a class action, to determine the total amount that will be payable to all class members. The court is also required to set a date when the parties are to report to the court the total amount that was actually paid to the class members. After the report is received, the court is required to amend the judgment to direct the defendant to pay the sum of the unpaid residue, plus interest, to nonprofit organizations or foundations to support projects that will benefit the class or similarly situated persons, or that promote the law consistent with the underlying cause of action, or to child advocacy programs, or to nonprofit organizations providing civil legal services to the indigent. Existing law excepts class actions brought against public entities and public employees from these provisions.
2132
2233 This bill would require that whenever a judgment, including any consent judgment, decree, or settlement agreement that has been approved by the court, in a class action provides for the payment of money to members of the class, any unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds be distributed in accordance with its provisions, unless the court makes a specific finding. The bill would require the court to set a date when the parties must submit a report to the court regarding a plan for the distribution of these funds. The bill would require that at least 25% of the unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds generally attributable to California residents, plus any accrued interest that has not otherwise been distributed, be transmitted to the State Treasury for deposit in the Trial Court Improvement and Modernization Fund, subject to appropriation by the Legislature to the Judicial Council to fund trial court operations. The bill would further require that at least 25% of these funds be transmitted to the Equal Access Fund of the Judicial Branch, to be distributed as specified. The bill would require that the balance of these funds, if any, plus interest be distributed generally as previously required, as described above. The bill would also except any cause of action brought against public entities and public employees from these provisions.
2334
2435 (2) Existing law authorizes a trial court to adopt local rules permitting electronic filing and service of documents, subject to rules adopted by the Judicial Council and other specified conditions. Existing law also authorizes the court, in any action in which a party has agreed to accept electronic service, or in which the court has ordered electronic service, as specified, to electronically serve any document issued by the court that is not required to be personally served, in the same manner that parties electronically serve documents.
2536
2637 This bill would require a system for the electronic filing and service of documents to be accessible to individuals with disabilities. The bill would require a trial court that contracts with an entity for the provision of a system for the electronic filing and service of documents to include certain requirements in its contract with the entity, including a requirement that the entity test and verify that the entitys system is accessible. The bill would require the Judicial Council to adopt uniform rules to implement these requirements and to submit reports to the Legislature, as specified.
2738
2839 (3) Existing federal law authorizes the United States Attorney General to enter into contracts or agreements with a state, or a political subdivision of a state, for detention or incarceration space or facilities. Existing federal law authorizes the United States Attorney General to enter into an agreement with a state, or a political subdivision of a state, to authorize an officer or employee of that state or political subdivision to, among other things, detain aliens in the United States.
2940
3041 Existing law, commonly known as the TRUST Act, prohibits a law enforcement official, as defined, from detaining an individual on the basis of a United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement hold after that individual becomes eligible for release from custody, unless, at the time that the individual becomes eligible for release from custody, certain conditions are met, including, among other things, that the individual has been convicted of specified crimes.
3142
3243 This bill would prohibit a city or county or local law enforcement agency from, on or after June 15, 2017, entering into a contract with the federal government or any federal agency to house or detain an adult noncitizen in a locked detention facility for purposes of civil immigration custody. The bill would prohibit a city or county or local law enforcement agency that entered into a contract of that nature on or before June 15, 2017, from modifying or renewing that contract so as to expand the maximum number of contract beds that may be used to house or detain an adult noncitizen for purposes of civil immigration custody.
3344
3445 This bill would similarly prohibit a city or county or local law enforcement agency from, on or after June 15, 2017, entering into a contract with the federal government or any federal agency to house or detain an accompanied or unaccompanied minor that is in the custody of or detained by specified federal agencies in a locked detention facility. The bill would prohibit a city or county or local law enforcement agency that entered into a contract of that nature on or before June 15, 2017, from modifying or renewing that contract so as to expand the maximum number of contract beds that may be used to house or detain an accompanied or unaccompanied minor in a locked detention facility. The bill would provide that this prohibition does not apply to temporary housing of any accompanied or unaccompanied minor in less restrictive settings when the State Department of Social Services certifies that the contract is necessary based on changing conditions of the population in need and if the housing contract meets 2 requirements.
3546
3647 (4) Existing law requires certain state agencies to obtain written consent from the Attorney General before employing legal counsel in any judicial proceeding.
3748
3849 This bill would, instead, require certain state agencies to obtain the written consent of the Attorney General before employing in-house counsel to represent those agencies in any judicial or administrative adjudicative proceeding and before contracting with outside counsel. The bill would otherwise generally authorize a state agency to employ in-house counsel for any purpose, except that it would require a state agency to use the Attorney General for the purpose of delivering approving legal opinions on bonds or other evidence of indebtedness, unless the Attorney General waives that requirement.
3950
4051 (5) Existing law sets forth the duties and responsibilities of the Attorney General and provides that he or she has charge, as attorney, of all legal matters in which the state is interested, except as specified.
4152
4253 This bill would require, until July 1, 2027, the Attorney General, or his or her designee, to engage in reviews of county, local, or private locked detention facilities in which noncitizens are being housed or detained for purposes of civil immigration proceedings in California, as specified. The bill would require the Department of Justice to provide, during the budget process, updates and information to the Legislature and the Governor, including a written summary of findings, if appropriate, regarding the progress of these reviews and any relevant findings. The bill would also require the Attorney General, or his or her designee, on or before March 1, 2019, to conduct a review of these facilities and to provide, on or before March 1, 2019, the Legislature and the Governor with a comprehensive report outlining the findings of that review. The bill would require the comprehensive report to be posted on the Attorney Generals Internet Web site and otherwise made available to the public upon its release to the Legislature and the Governor.
4354
4455 (6) Existing law creates the Department of Justice, which is under the direction and control of the Attorney General. Existing law establishes the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Program, which is administered by the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Investment Board. Existing law requires the board, prior to opening the program for enrollment, to make a report to the Governor and Legislature affirming that certain prerequisites and requirements have been met, including that the United States Department of Labor has finalized a regulation setting forth a safe harbor for savings arrangements established by states for nongovernmental employees and that the program is structured to meet the criteria of the regulation. The federal Employee Retirement Income Security Act, commonly known as ERISA, regulates employee benefit plans, as defined, and generally supersedes state law, except as specified.
4556
4657 This bill would require, in connection with potential litigation involving the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Program, that the state be represented by attorneys who possess a comprehensive knowledge of ERISA and have at least 10 years of experience litigating claims related to ERISA in federal trial and appellate courts. The bill would require the Department of Justice, if it does not have sufficient attorneys with these characteristics, to enter into contracts with qualified attorneys to secure their services.
4758
4859 (7) Existing law authorizes the Board of State and Community Corrections or the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, the State Public Works Board, and a participating county, as defined, to acquire, design, and construct an adult local criminal justice facility, as defined, and provides funding for those purposes. Existing regulations of the Board of State and Community Corrections specify the number of visits that inmates held in certain types of correctional facilities are required to be provided.
4960
5061 This bill would require that specified conditional funding to a participating county for the construction or renovation of a local jail facility or adult local criminal justice facility be used to construct or renovate a facility that meets or surpasses the minimum number of weekly visits as specified in regulations through the use of in-person visitation space. The bill would require a scope change to be submitted to include in-person visitation, as specified, for any proposals submitted previous to these requirements that only provided for video visitation.
5162
5263 Existing law provides that a county jail is kept by the sheriff of the county in which the jail is situated and is to be used for specified purposes, including for the confinement of persons sentenced to imprisonment in a county jail upon a criminal conviction. Existing regulations of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation specify the number of visits that inmates held in certain types of correctional facilities may be allowed.
5364
5465 This bill would prohibit a local detention facility, as defined, that provided in-person visitation as of January 1, 2017, from converting to only video visitation. The bill would prohibit a local detention facility from charging for visitation when visitors are onsite and participating in either in-person or video visitation. The bill would require a local detention facility that does not offer in-person visitation to provide the first hour of remote video visitation each week free of charge.
5566
5667 (8) Existing law requires a probation officer to be appointed in each county. Existing law requires the probation officer to be nominated by the juvenile justice commission and appointed by the judge of the juvenile court. Existing law allows the probation officer to revoke or terminate the appointment of a deputy or assistant probation officer with the written approval of the juvenile justice commission.
5768
5869 This bill would revise and recast these provisions. The bill would require each county to appoint a chief probation officer. The bill would establish the duties and obligations of that office, as specified. The bill would require the presiding judge, in a county with 2 judges, or a majority of the judges, in a county with more than 2 judges, to appoint the chief probation officer upon nomination of the juvenile justice commission. The bill would allow the chief probation officer to revoke and terminate the appointment of a deputy or assistant probation officer without the written approval of the juvenile justice commission. The bill would delete the creation of the office of adult probation officer.
5970
6071 (9) Existing law establishes the Judicial Council and requires it to perform various duties regarding the oversight and management of the courts, including, among others, reporting to the Legislature on specific accounting and case management programs.
6172
6273 This bill would require the Judicial Council, beginning on October 1, 2018, to annually report on revenue and collections for each court and county for the previous fiscal year, as specified.
6374
6475 (10) Existing law specifies the number of judges for the superior court of each county. Existing law allocates additional judgeships to the various counties in accordance with uniform standards for factually determining additional need in each county, as updated and approved by the Judicial Council, based on specified criteria, including, among others, workload standards that represent the average amount of time of bench and nonbench work required to resolve each case type.
6576
6677 This bill would reallocate 2 vacant judgeships from the Superior Court of the County of Santa Clara to the Superior Court of the County of Riverside and 2 vacant judgeships from the Superior Court of the County of Alameda to the Superior Court of the County of San Bernardino. The bill would require the Judicial Council to determine which specific vacancies would be transferred between counties pursuant to this provision and to take all necessary steps to effectuate each transfer. The bill would provide that the term of the judgeships would begin on January 2, 2018, and that a court in which a vacant judgeship is reallocated shall not have its funding allocation reduced, shifted, or transferred as a result of the reallocation. The bill would make conforming changes.
6778
6879 (11) Existing law authorizes the Judicial Council to dispose of surplus court facilities pursuant to a specified process that requires, among other things, the Judicial Council to consult with the county where the court facility is located, offer the facility to the county at a fair market value before offering it to another state or local government agency, and deposit the funds received from a sale into the State Court Facilities Construction Fund. Existing law imposes specified requirements on local entities with regard to the construction of new court facilities, or the alteration, remodeling, or relocation of court facilities, as specified. Existing law imposes specified requirements on the sale or lease of real property by the board of supervisors of a county, as prescribed.
6980
7081 Existing law, the California Environmental Quality Act (CEQA), requires a lead agency, as defined, to prepare, or cause to be prepared, and certify the completion of, an environmental impact report on a project that it proposes to carry out or approve that may have a significant effect on the environment, as defined, or to adopt a negative declaration if it finds that the project will not have that effect, unless the project is exempt from the act. CEQA provides for various exemptions from the requirements of the act.
7182
7283 This bill would authorize the Administrative Director of the Courts to transfer specified court facility property to the County of San Diego under prescribed circumstances, and would exempt the transfer from the procedures described above. With regard to the demolition project and further development of that property by the County of San Diego, the bill would, among other things, authorize the use of existing environmental impact reports, as specified, for purposes of CEQA. The bill would prescribe the circumstances under which the Board of Supervisors of the County of San Diego may enter into leases for subsequent improvements of the property.
7384
7485 (12) Existing law establishes the Military Department, which includes the office of the Adjutant General, the California National Guard, the State Military Reserve, the California Cadet Corps, and the Naval Militia. Existing law provides that specified military members are deemed state employees for purposes of workers compensation.
7586
7687 This bill would establish the Military Department Workers Compensation Fund, and would provide that all moneys in the fund are continuously appropriated to the Military Department for workers compensation claims that are wholly or partially reimbursed by the federal government for personnel within the Military Department, as specified. By creating a continuously appropriated fund, this bill would make an appropriation.
7788
7889 (13) Existing law, the Three Strikes Reform Act of 2012, passed by the voters as Proposition 36 at the November 6, 2012, statewide general election, amended the Three Strikes Law and provided for lower sentences in specified circumstances, including when the current crime is not a serious or violent crime. The act provided a means by which a person serving an indeterminate term of imprisonment can be resentenced in conformance with the provisions of the act.
7990
8091 Existing law, the Safe Neighborhoods and Schools Act, enacted by Proposition 47, as approved by the voters at the November 4, 2014, statewide general election, reduced the penalties for various crimes. Under the provisions of the act, a person currently convicted of a felony or felonies who would have been guilty of a misdemeanor under the act if the act had been in effect at the time of the conviction may petition or apply to have the sentence reduced in accordance with the act. That act requires that this petition or application be filed before November 4, 2017, or at a later date upon a showing of good cause.
8192
8293 This bill would authorize a person who is committed to a state hospital after being found not guilty by reason of insanity to petition the court to have the maximum term of commitment reduced to what it would have been had Proposition 36 or Proposition 47 been in effect at the time of the original determination, as specified. The bill would require the petitioner to show that he or she would have been eligible to have his or her sentence reduced under the relevant proposition and to file the petition prior to January 1, 2021, or at a later date with a showing of good cause.
8394
8495 (14) Existing law identifies the state hospitals over which the State Department of State Hospitals has jurisdiction, including, among others, Atascadero State Hospital and Coalinga State Hospital.
8596
8697 This bill would provide the department with jurisdiction over the Admission, Evaluation, and Stabilization (AES) Center in the County of Kern, and other AES Centers as defined by regulation. The bill would also authorize the Director of State Hospitals to adopt emergency regulations to implement this provision and would declare that the adoption of emergency regulations under this provision is deemed to address an emergency, for purposes of the Administrative Procedure Act. The bill would provide the department with jurisdiction over any county jail treatment facility under contract with the State Department of State Hospitals to provide competency restoration services. The bill would also make other technical and conforming changes.
8798
8899 (15) Existing law creates the State Penalty Fund into which moneys collected by the courts from the imposition of fines, forfeitures, or penalties on criminal offenses are deposited. Once a month, certain percentages of money in that fund are transferred into other funds.
89100
90101 This bill would repeal the authority for these transfers to other funds and instead require the Department of Finance to provide a schedule to the Controller for all transfers of funds made available by the Budget Act from the State Penalty Fund in the current fiscal year. The bill would, upon the order of the Department of Finance, allow sufficient funds to be transferred by the Controller from the General Fund for cashflow needs of the State Penalty Fund, as provided.
91102
92103 (16) Existing law authorizes, if certain conditions are met, reimbursement for expenses or payment of specified costs incurred by a person employed by the state, or a city, county, or city and county, to travel to a jurisdiction outside of the state for the purpose of returning a fugitive from justice to this state.
93104
94105 This bill would establish reimbursement rates for meals and incidental expenses for persons transporting fugitives for return to certain local government jurisdictions, as specified.
95106
96107 (17) Existing law establishes the Prison Industry Authority within the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation under the direction of the Prison Industry Board. Existing law grants the board specified powers, including the ability to review and approve the annual budget for the authority, in order to ensure that the solvency of the Prison Industries Revolving Fund is maintained. Existing law states that the purpose of the authority is, among other things, to operate a work program for prisoners which will ultimately be self-supporting by generating sufficient funds from the sale of products and services to pay all the expenses of the program.
97108
98109 This bill would specify that the above provisions do not require immediate cash availability for funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above amounts established in the Budget Act, or as determined by the Board of Administration of the Public Employees Retirement System, or the Director of Finance for the fiscal year. The bill would prohibit the authority from establishing cash reserves to support funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above these amounts.
99110
100111 (18) Existing law generally requires all persons released from prison to be subject to postrelease community supervision by a local probation department for a period of 3 years immediately following release. Existing law requires that postrelease community supervision include specified conditions, including that the person inform the supervising county agency of the persons place of residence, employment, education, or training and of any pending or anticipated changes to the place of residence, employment, education, or training.
101112
102113 This bill would define residence for these purposes as one or more locations at which a person regularly resides, regardless of the number of days or nights spent there, such as a shelter or structure that can be located by a street address, including, but not limited to, a house, apartment building, motel, hotel, homeless shelter, and recreational or other vehicle. The bill would require, if the person has no residence, that he or she inform the supervising county agency that he or she is transient. The bill would also require the person to inform the supervising county agency of any change in residence, or the establishment of a new residence if the person was previously transient, within 5 working days of the change.
103114
104115 (19) Existing law establishes the Board of Parole Hearings, which is composed of 14 commissioners appointed by the Governor, and subject to Senate confirmation, for staggered 3-year terms.
105116
106117 This bill would instead provide that the board is composed of 15 commissioners. The bill would also revise the term of office for existing commissioners, as specified, so that 5 commissioners would commence a new term on July 1 of each year.
107118
108119 (20) Existing law requires the Board of State and Community Corrections to inspect local detention facilities biennially and requires the inspection to include specified components, including, among others, a fire suppression preplanning inspection. Existing law requires a report of each facilitys inspection to be furnished to the official in charge of the local detention facility.
109120
110121 This bill would require inspections of local detention facilities to be conducted, at a minimum, biennially. The bill would additionally require the inspections to address components relating to the availability of visitation and relating to the receipt of state funds for jail construction. The bill would require that reports made pursuant to the above-described provisions to be posted on the boards Internet Web site.
111122
112123 Existing law requires the Board of State and Community Corrections to conduct a biennial inspection of each jail, juvenile hall, lockup, or special purpose juvenile hall that, during the preceding calendar year, was used for confinement for more than 24 hours of any minor and requires the board to issue a notice of its findings, as specified.
113124
114125 This bill would require the board to post all reports and notices of findings it prepares pursuant to this provision on its Internet Web site.
115126
116127 (21) Existing law prohibits a person who has been convicted of a felony or who is addicted to the use of any narcotic drug from owning, purchasing, receiving, or possessing a firearm. Under existing law, a violation of this prohibition is punishable as a felony.
117128
118129 This bill would prohibit a person who has an outstanding warrant for a felony from owning, purchasing, receiving, or possessing a firearm. A violation of this prohibition would be punishable as a felony. Because a violation of this prohibition would be a crime, this bill would impose a state-mandated local program.
119130
120131 Existing law also generally prohibits a person who has been convicted of certain misdemeanors from owning, purchasing, receiving, or possessing a firearm within 10 years of the conviction. Under existing law, a violation of this prohibition is a crime punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year or in the state prison, by a fine not exceeding $1,000, or by both that imprisonment and fine. Existing law, as a result of Proposition 63, an initiative measure approved by the voters at the November 8, 2016, statewide general election, codifies these provisions in separate, nonconflicting, identically numbered sections.
121132
122133 This bill would prohibit a person who has an outstanding warrant for certain misdemeanors from owning, purchasing, receiving, or possessing a firearm. A violation of this prohibition would be a crime, punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year or in the state prison, by a fine not exceeding $1,000, or by both that imprisonment and fine. Because a violation of this prohibition would be a crime, this bill would impose a state-mandated local program.
123134
124135 (22) Existing law prohibits, with some exceptions, the possession of an assault weapon that does not have a fixed magazine including those weapons with a detachable magazine that can be removed readily from the firearm with the use of a tool. Existing law exempts from that prohibition such a weapon that was lawfully possessed by the owner starting at any time from January 1, 2001, to December 31, 2016, and is registered by that owner with the Department of Justice before January 1, 2018, but not before the effective date of specified regulations to be adopted by the department.
125136
126137 This bill would extend the deadline to register a weapon in order to be exempted from the prohibition from January 1, 2018, to July 1, 2018.
127138
128139 (23) Existing law generally requires state agencies to obtain at least 3 competitive bids for each contract for services. Under existing law, this requirement does not apply under certain circumstances.
129140
130141 This bill, until June 30, 2018, would authorize the State Department of State Hospitals to enter into an agreement for continued operation of the existing central utility plant at the Metropolitan State Hospital without having to comply with the competitive bidding requirements described above.
131142
132143 (24) Existing law authorizes any county or court to implement a comprehensive collection program as a separate revenue collection activity, and requires the program to meet certain criteria, one of which is that the program engages in specified activities in collecting fines or penalties, including initiating drivers license suspension or hold actions when appropriate.
133144
134145 This bill would instead limit the program to initiating a drivers license suspension or hold actions only for a failure to appear in court.
135146
136147 Existing law authorizes the court to notify the Department of Motor Vehicles when a person has failed to pay a fine or bail, with respect to various violations relating to vehicles, and requires the department to suspend a persons drivers license upon receipt of the notice, as specified.
137148
138149 The bill would repeal the authority of the court to notify the department of a failure to pay a fine or bail, thereby deleting the requirement for the department to suspend a persons drivers license upon receipt of that notice.
139150
140151 (25) Existing law requires the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, Division of Juvenile Justice, and the Chief Probation Officers of California, in consultation with the Board of State and Community Corrections, formerly known as the Corrections Standards Authority, to provide annual reports to the Department of Finance, with information sorted by county, with the names of discharged wards, under specified circumstances.
141152
142153 This bill would remove the requirement that the information include the name of a discharged ward and would instead require that the information include the identifying information, as defined, of a discharged ward, as specified. The bill would require the board, instead of the Chief Probation Officers of California, to provide an annual report and would remove the requirement of a consultation. The bill would also remove obsolete references to the authority under these provisions.
143154
144155 Existing law requires, in each fiscal year, that funds be allocated to each county probation department from the Juvenile Reentry Grant Special Account on an average daily population basis per discharged ward transferred to a local juvenile facility for violating a condition of court-ordered supervision during the previous fiscal year, as specified.
145156
146157 This bill would prohibit a county from receiving the above-described funding if it does not submit data under the provisions relating to the boards annual report.
147158
148159 (26) The California Constitution requires the state to reimburse local agencies and school districts for certain costs mandated by the state. Statutory provisions establish procedures for making that reimbursement.
149160
150161 This bill would provide that no reimbursement is required by this act for a specified reason.
151162
152163 (27) This bill would declare that it is to take effect immediately as a bill providing for appropriations related to the Budget Bill.
153164
154165 ## Digest Key
155166
156167 ## Bill Text
157168
158169 The people of the State of California do enact as follows:SECTION 1. (a) The Legislature finds and declares that the provision of probation services is an essential element in the administration of criminal justice and the juvenile delinquency systems. The safety of the public is enhanced by a research-based approach that promotes positive behavior change while also enforcing laws to provide community safety as outlined in statute. The Legislature recognizes that the role and responsibility of probation departments has enhanced significantly due to public safety reforms, including, but not limited to, the Community Corrections Performance Incentive Grant Program, established in Chapter 608 of the Statutes of 2009, and 2011 Realignment Legislation addressing public safety, established in Chapter 15 of the Statutes of 2011, which made funding investments in local probation departments and increased the responsibility for probation departments to supervise more offenders including those on mandatory supervision and postrelease community supervision. In addition to a core mission of supervising felony probationers, to address the more serious level of offenders probation departments were tasked with supervising, the state made investments in evidence-informed rehabilitation strategies and supervision for probation departments throughout the state. County probation departments have played a critical role in helping the state meet its federally mandated reduction in the prison population by utilizing probations successful track record in supervision, community corrections, effective offender reentry, and evidence-informed rehabilitation services. Further reforms to the justice system which were enacted by the voters in California continue to place emphasis on services to supervised populations in the community, placing probations mission at the center of community corrections.(b) The Legislature additionally recognizes probations instrumental role in Californias juvenile justice system because of its work in supervision and services provided to youth involved in the justice system through supervising juveniles in the community, administering programming to address juveniles criminogenic behavior, providing secure and effective detention services, utilizing evidence-informed strategies that change behavior, and ensuring successful reentry into communities. The Legislature and voters of California have delegated to probation all responsibility and services for juveniles except for the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, Division of Juvenile Justice. This includes historic reforms such as Chapter 175 of the Statutes of 2007, which realigned most of the juvenile system responsibilities to probation.(c) The decisions made in the state budget process have had significant impact on the duties performed by probation. When probation services are unavailable at the local level there is a negative impact on recidivism which can require a more expensive solution at the state level in the form of incarceration. We have also seen more probation services for justice-involved youth as the state realigned the population away from the most expensive part of the system. These factors are not only driven by fiscal realities of state and local budgets but policies that are intended to improve the quality of life in our communities. The Legislature recognizes that such an important role should be clear and articulated with other core county department duties in order to establish the proper function and structure of probation. For these reasons the Legislature delegates the following duties to the chief probation officer to carry out in the county for the purposes of managing local juvenile facilities, preventing crime and delinquency, reducing recidivism, restoring victims, and promoting healthy families and communities through the community supervision and the enforcement of court orders and other criminal statutes. These duties are specific and exclusive to the primary areas of responsibility that exist for probation and are intended to emphasize the important role of probation within the criminal justice system in California. This is not intended to limit or diminish the importance of other duties currently delegated in whole or in part to probation elsewhere in code.SEC. 2. It is the intent of the Legislature in enacting amendments to Section 1170.18 of, and adding Section 1170.127 to, the Penal Code, to allow people who are committed to the State Department of State Hospitals upon a finding of not guilty by reason of insanity pursuant to Section 1026 of the Penal Code for an offense that would otherwise fall within the resentencing provisions of Section 1170.126 or 1170.18 of the Penal Code, as enacted by Proposition 36 of the 2012 statewide general election or Proposition 47 of the 2014 statewide general election, to petition the original committing court for relief under those sections. This act is intended to nullify the holding in People v. Dobson, 245 Cal.App.4th 310 (2016).SEC. 3. In enacting amendments to Sections 6031 and 6031.1 of the Penal Code, and Section 209 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, it is the intent of the Legislature that the Board of State and Community Corrections be encouraged to consider adding the maximum number of beds each facility is leasing to the federal government, including the current occupancy rate and the entity to which the beds are being leased, to the Jail Profile Survey.SEC. 4. Section 384 of the Code of Civil Procedure is amended to read:384. (a) It is the policy of the State of California to ensure that the unpaid cash residue and unclaimed or abandoned funds in class action litigation are distributed, to the fullest extent possible, in a manner designed either to further the purposes of the underlying class action or causes of action, or to promote justice for all Californians. The Legislature finds that the use of funds for these purposes is in the public interest, is a proper use of the funds, and is consistent with essential public and governmental purposes.(b) (1) Except as provided in subdivision (c), whenever a judgment, including any consent judgment, decree, or settlement agreement that has been approved by the court, in a class action established pursuant to Section 382, provides for the payment of money to members of the class, any unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds shall be distributed in accordance with this section unless for good cause shown the court makes a specific finding that an alternative distribution would better serve the public interest or the interest of the class. If not specified in the judgment, the court shall set a date when the parties shall submit a report to the court regarding a plan for the distribution of any moneys pursuant to this section.(2) The court shall make any orders necessary and appropriate for the payment, administration, supervision, and accounting of any unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds.(3) Any unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds generally attributable to California residents, plus any accrued interest that has not otherwise been distributed pursuant to order of the court, shall be transmitted as follows:(A) Twenty-five percent to the State Treasury for deposit in the Trial Court Improvement and Modernization Fund, established in Section 77209 of the Government Code, and subject to appropriation in the annual Budget Act for the Judicial Council to provide grants to trial courts for new or expanded collaborative courts or grants for Sargent Shriver Civil Counsel.(B) Twenty-five percent to the State Treasury for deposit into the Equal Access Fund of the Judicial Branch, to be distributed in accordance with Sections 6216 to 6223, inclusive, of the Business and Professions Code, except that administrative costs shall not be paid to the State Bar or the Judicial Council from this sum.(C) Fifty percent to one or more of the following: nonprofit organizations or foundations, to support projects that will benefit the class or similarly situated persons, further the objectives and purposes of the underlying class action or cause of action, or promote the law consistent with the objectives and purposes of the underlying class action or cause of action; child advocacy programs; or nonprofit organizations providing civil legal services to the indigent. Notwithstanding subparagraph (B), additional funds may be allocated by the court to the Equal Access Fund of the Judicial Branch, to be distributed in accordance with Sections 6216 to 6223, inclusive, of the Business and Professions Code. (4) The court shall ensure that the distribution of the balance of any unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds derived from multistate or national cases shall provide substantial or commensurate benefit to California consumers that is roughly proportional to the number of California class members or amounts available from the judgment to California class members in the multistate or national class.(c) This section shall not apply to any class action or cause of action brought against any public entity, as defined in Section 811.2 of the Government Code, or against any public employee, as defined in Section 811.4 of the Government Code. However, this section shall not be construed to abrogate any equitable cy pres remedy that may be available in any class action with regard to all or part of the cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds.SEC. 5. Section 1010.6 of the Code of Civil Procedure is amended to read:1010.6. (a) A document may be served electronically in an action filed with the court as provided in this section, in accordance with rules adopted pursuant to subdivision (e).(1) For purposes of this section:(A) Electronic service means service of a document, on a party or other person, by either electronic transmission or electronic notification. Electronic service may be performed directly by a party, by an agent of a party, including the partys attorney, or through an electronic filing service provider.(B) Electronic transmission means the transmission of a document by electronic means to the electronic service address at or through which a party or other person has authorized electronic service.(C) Electronic notification means the notification of the party or other person that a document is served by sending an electronic message to the electronic address at or through which the party or other person has authorized electronic service, specifying the exact name of the document served, and providing a hyperlink at which the served document may be viewed and downloaded.(2) If a document may be served by mail, express mail, overnight delivery, or facsimile transmission, electronic service of the document is authorized when a party has agreed to accept service electronically in that action.(3) In any action in which a party has agreed to accept electronic service under paragraph (2), or in which the court has ordered electronic service under subdivision (c) or (d), the court may electronically serve any document issued by the court that is not required to be personally served in the same manner that parties electronically serve documents. The electronic service of documents by the court shall have the same legal effect as service by mail, except as provided in paragraph (4).(4) (A) Electronic service of a document is complete at the time of the electronic transmission of the document or at the time that the electronic notification of service of the document is sent. However, any period of notice, or any right or duty to do any act or make any response within any period or on a date certain after the service of the document, which time period or date is prescribed by statute or rule of court, shall be extended after service by electronic means by two court days, but the extension shall not apply to extend the time for filing any of the following:(i) A notice of intention to move for new trial.(ii) A notice of intention to move to vacate judgment under Section 663a.(iii) A notice of appeal.(B) This extension applies in the absence of a specific exception provided by any other statute or rule of court.(b) A trial court may adopt local rules permitting electronic filing of documents, subject to rules adopted pursuant to subdivision (e) and the following conditions:(1) A document that is filed electronically shall have the same legal effect as an original paper document.(2) (A) When a document to be filed requires the signature, not under penalty of perjury, of an attorney or a self-represented party, the document shall be deemed to have been signed by that attorney or self-represented party if filed electronically.(B) When a document to be filed requires the signature, under penalty of perjury, of any person, the document shall be deemed to have been signed by that person if filed electronically and if a printed form of the document has been signed by that person before or on the same day as, the date of filing. The attorney or person filing the document represents, by the act of filing, that the declarant has complied with this section. The attorney or person filing the document shall maintain the printed form of the document bearing the original signature and make it available for review and copying upon the request of the court or any party to the action or proceeding in which it is filed.(3) Any document that is electronically filed with the court after the close of business on any day shall be deemed to have been filed on the next court day. Close of business, as used in this paragraph, means 5 p.m. or the time at which the court will not accept filing at the courts filing counter, whichever is earlier.(4) The court receiving a document filed electronically shall issue a confirmation that the document has been received and filed. The confirmation shall serve as proof that the document has been filed.(5) Upon electronic filing of a complaint, petition, or other document that must be served with a summons, a trial court, upon request of the party filing the action, shall issue a summons with the court seal and the case number. The court shall keep the summons in its records and may electronically transmit a copy of the summons to the requesting party. Personal service of a printed form of the electronic summons shall have the same legal effect as personal service of an original summons. If a trial court plans to electronically transmit a summons to the party filing a complaint, the court shall immediately, upon receipt of the complaint, notify the attorney or party that a summons will be electronically transmitted to the electronic address given by the person filing the complaint.(6) The court shall permit a party or attorney to file an application for waiver of court fees and costs, in lieu of requiring the payment of the filing fee, as part of the process involving the electronic filing of a document. The court shall consider and determine the application in accordance with Article 6 (commencing with Section 68630) of Chapter 2 of Title 8 of the Government Code and shall not require the party or attorney to submit any documentation other than that set forth in Article 6 (commencing with Section 68630) of Chapter 2 of Title 8 of the Government Code. Nothing in this section shall require the court to waive a filing fee that is not otherwise waivable.(7) A fee, if any, charged by the court, an electronic filing manager, or an electronic filing service provider to process a payment for filing fees and other court fees shall not exceed the costs incurred in processing the payment.(c) If a trial court adopts rules conforming to subdivision (b), it may provide by order that all parties to an action file and serve documents electronically in a class action, a consolidated action, a group of actions, a coordinated action, or an action that is deemed complex under Judicial Council rules, provided that the trial courts order does not cause undue hardship or significant prejudice to any party in the action.(d) (1) Notwithstanding subdivision (b), the Orange County Superior Court may, by local rule and until July 1, 2014, establish a pilot project to require parties to specified civil actions to electronically file and serve documents, subject to the requirements set forth in paragraphs (1), (2), (4), (5), and (6) of subdivision (b), rules adopted pursuant to subdivision (e), and the following conditions:(A) The court shall have the ability to maintain the official court record in electronic format for all cases where electronic filing is required.(B) The court and the parties shall have access to more than one electronic filing service provider capable of electronically filing documents with the court or to electronic filing access directly through the court. The court may charge fees of no more than the actual cost of the electronic filing and service of the documents. Any fees charged by an electronic filing service provider shall be reasonable. The court, an electronic filing manager, or an electronic filing service provider shall waive any fees charged if the court deems a waiver appropriate, including in instances where a party has received a fee waiver.(C) The court shall have a procedure for the filing of nonelectronic documents in order to prevent the program from causing undue hardship or significant prejudice to any party in an action, including, but not limited to, unrepresented parties.(D) A court that elects to require electronic filing pursuant to this subdivision may permit documents to be filed electronically until 12 a.m. of the day after the court date that the filing is due, and the filing shall be considered timely. However, if same day service of a document is required, the document shall be electronically filed by 5 p.m. on the court date that the filing is due. Ex parte documents shall be electronically filed on the same date and within the same time period as would be required for the filing of a hard copy of the ex parte documents at the clerks window in the participating county. Documents filed on or after 12 a.m., or filed upon a noncourt day, will be deemed filed on the soonest court day following the filing.(2) If a pilot project is established pursuant to paragraph (1), the Judicial Council shall conduct an evaluation of the pilot project and report to the Legislature, on or before December 31, 2013, on the results of the evaluation. The evaluation shall review, among other things, the cost of the program to participants, cost-effectiveness for the court, effect on unrepresented parties and parties with fee waivers, and ease of use for participants.(e) The Judicial Council shall adopt uniform rules for the electronic filing and service of documents in the trial courts of the state, which shall include statewide policies on vendor contracts, privacy, and access to public records, and rules relating to the integrity of electronic service. These rules shall conform to the conditions set forth in this section, as amended from time to time.(f) The Judicial Council shall, on or before July 1, 2014, adopt uniform rules to permit the mandatory electronic filing and service of documents for specified civil actions in the trial courts of the state, which shall be informed by any study performed pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (d) and which shall include statewide policies on vendor contracts, privacy, access to public records, unrepresented parties, parties with fee waivers, hardships, reasonable exceptions to electronic filing, and rules relating to the integrity of electronic service. These rules shall conform to the conditions set forth in this section, as amended from time to time.(g) (1) Upon the adoption of uniform rules by the Judicial Council for mandatory electronic filing and service of documents for specified civil actions in the trial courts of the state, as specified in subdivision (f), a superior court may, by local rule, require mandatory electronic filing, pursuant to paragraph (2).(2) A superior court that elects to adopt mandatory electronic filing shall do so pursuant to the requirements and conditions set forth in this section, including, but not limited to, paragraphs (1), (2), (4), (5), (6), and (7) of subdivision (b), and subparagraphs (A), (B), and (C) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (d), and pursuant to the rules adopted by the Judicial Council, as specified in subdivision (f).(h) (1) The Judicial Council shall adopt uniform rules to implement this subdivision as soon as practicable, but no later than June 30, 2019.(2) Any system for the electronic filing and service of documents, including any information technology applications, Internet Web sites, and Web-based applications, used by an electronic service provider or any other vendor or contractor that provides an electronic filing and service system to a trial court, regardless of the case management system used by the trial court, shall satisfy both of the following requirements:(A) The system shall be accessible to individuals with disabilities, including parties and attorneys with disabilities, in accordance with Section 508 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. Sec. 794d), as amended, the regulations implementing that act set forth in Part 1194 of Title 36 of the Code of Federal Regulations and Appendices A, C, and D of that part, and the federal Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (42 U.S.C. Sec. 12101 et seq.).(B) The system shall comply with the Web Content Accessibility Guidelines 2.0 at a Level AA success criteria.(3) A vendor or contractor that provides an electronic filing and service system to a trial court shall comply with paragraph (2) as soon as practicable, but no later than June 30, 2019. Commencing on the operative date of this subdivision, the vendor or contractor shall provide an accommodation to an individual with a disability in accordance with subparagraph (D) of paragraph (4).(4) A trial court that contracts with an entity for the provision of a system for electronic filing and service of documents shall require the entity, in the trial courts contract with the entity, to do all of the following:(A) Test and verify that the entitys system complies with this subdivision and provide the verification to the Judicial Council no later than June 30, 2019.(B) Respond to, and resolve, any complaints regarding the accessibility of the system that are brought to the attention of the entity.(C) Designate a lead individual to whom any complaints concerning accessibility may be addressed and post the individuals name and contact information on the entitys Internet Web site.(D) Provide to an individual with a disability, upon request, an accommodation to enable the individual to file and serve documents electronically at no additional charge for any time period that the entity is not compliant with paragraph (2) of this subdivision. Exempting an individual with a disability from mandatory electronic filing and service of documents shall not be deemed an accommodation unless the person chooses that as an accommodation. The vendor or contractor shall clearly state in its Internet Web site that an individual with a disability may request an accommodation and the process for submitting a request for an accommodation.(5) A trial court that provides electronic filing and service of documents directly to the public shall comply with this subdivision to the same extent as a vendor or contractor that provides electronic filing and services to a trial court.(6) (A) The Judicial Council shall submit four reports to the appropriate committees of the Legislature relating to the trial courts that have implemented a system of electronic filing and service of documents. The first report is due by June 30, 2018; the second report is due by December 31, 2019; the third report is due by December 31, 2021; and the fourth report is due by December 31, 2023.(B) The Judicial Councils reports shall include all of the following information:(i) The name of each court that has implemented a system of electronic filing and service of documents.(ii) A description of the system of electronic filing and service.(iii) The name of the entity or entities providing the system.(iv) A statement as to whether the system complies with this subdivision and, if the system is not fully compliant, a description of the actions that have been taken to make the system compliant.(7) An entity that contracts with a trial court to provide a system for electronic filing and service of documents shall cooperate with the Judicial Council by providing all information, and by permitting all testing, necessary for the Judicial Council to prepare its reports to the Legislature in a complete and timely manner.SEC. 6. Chapter 17.8 (commencing with Section 7310) is added to Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code, to read: CHAPTER 17.8. Housing Contracts7310. (a) A city, county, city and county, or local law enforcement agency that does not, as of June 15, 2017, have a contract with the federal government or any federal agency to detain adult noncitizens for purposes of civil immigration custody, is prohibited from entering into a contract with the federal government or any federal agency, to house or detain in a locked detention facility noncitizens for purposes of civil immigration custody.(b) A city, county, city and county, or local law enforcement agency that, as of June 15, 2017, has an existing contract with the federal government or any federal agency to detain adult noncitizens for purposes of civil immigration custody, shall not renew or modify that contract in such a way as to expand the maximum number of contract beds that may be utilized to house or detain in a locked detention facility noncitizens for purposes of civil immigration custody.7311. (a) A city, county, city and county, or local law enforcement agency that does not, as of June 15, 2017, have a contract with the federal government or any federal agency to house or detain any accompanied or unaccompanied minor in the custody of or detained by the federal Office of Refugee Resettlement or the United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement is prohibited from entering into a contract with the federal government or any federal agency to house minors in a locked detention facility.(b) A city, county, city and county, or local law enforcement agency that, as of June 15, 2017, has an existing contract with the federal government or any federal agency to house or detain any accompanied or unaccompanied minor in the custody of or detained by the federal Office of Refugee Resettlement or the United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement shall not renew or modify that contract in such a way as to expand the maximum number of contract beds that may be utilized to house minors in a locked detention facility.(c) This section does not apply to temporary housing of any accompanied or unaccompanied minor in less restrictive settings when the State Department of Social Services certifies a necessity for a contract based on changing conditions of the population in need and if the housing contract meets the following requirements:(1) It is temporary in nature and nonrenewable on a long-term or permanent basis.(2) It meets all applicable federal and state standards for that housing.SEC. 7. Section 11040 of the Government Code is amended to read:11040. (a) It is the intent of the Legislature that overall efficiency and economy in state government be enhanced by employment of the Attorney General as counsel for the representation of state agencies and employees in judicial and administrative adjudicative proceedings.The Legislature finds that it is in the best interests of the people of the State of California that the Attorney General be provided with the resources needed to develop and maintain the Attorney Generals capability to provide competent legal representation of state agencies and employees in any judicial or administrative adjudicative proceeding.(b) As used in this article:(1) In-house counsel means an attorney authorized to practice law in the State of California who is a state employee, including an excluded or exempt employee, other than an employee of the Office of the Attorney General.(2) Outside counsel means an attorney authorized to practice law in the State of California who is not a state employee, including an excluded or exempt employee.(c) Except with respect to employment by the state officers and agencies specified by title or name in Section 11041 or when specifically waived by statute other than Section 11041, a state agency shall obtain the written consent of the Attorney General before doing either of the following:(1) Employing in-house counsel to represent a state agency or employee in any judicial or administrative adjudicative proceeding.(2) Contracting with outside counsel.(d) Except as limited by paragraph (1) of subdivision (c), a state agency may employ in-house counsel for any purpose. This subdivision shall apply retroactively to the employment of any in-house counsel by any state agency before the operative date of the act adding this subdivision.(e) This article does not prohibit a state agency from obtaining legal services from the Attorney General for any purpose.(f) Consistent with subdivision (d), and except as may conflict with contrary authorization by statute, a state agency may employ in-house counsel for advice or other legal work related to bonds or other evidences of indebtedness, but shall engage the Attorney General, alone or with other counsel as may be authorized by statute, for the purpose of delivering any approving legal opinion on bonds or other evidences of indebtedness and advice related to the approving legal opinion. The Attorney General may waive the requirement under this subdivision.SEC. 8. Section 11041 of the Government Code is amended to read:11041. (a) Section 11042 does not apply to the Regents of the University of California, the Trustees of the California State University, Legal Division of the Department of Transportation, Division of Labor Standards Enforcement of the Department of Industrial Relations, Workers Compensation Appeals Board, Public Utilities Commission, State Compensation Insurance Fund, Legislative Counsel Bureau, Inheritance Tax Department, Secretary of State, State Lands Commission, Alcoholic Beverage Control Appeals Board (except when the board affirms the decision of the Department of Alcoholic Beverage Control), State Department of Education, and Treasurer with respect to bonds, nor to any other state agency which, by law enacted after Chapter 213 of the Statutes of 1933, is authorized to employ legal counsel.(b) The Trustees of the California State University shall pay the cost of employing legal counsel from their existing resources.SEC. 9. Section 11042 of the Government Code is amended to read:11042. (a) No state agency shall employ any in-house counsel to act on behalf of the state agency or its employees in any judicial or administrative adjudicative proceeding in which the agency is interested, or is a party as a result of office or official duties, or contract with outside counsel for any purpose, unless the agency has first obtained the written consent of the Attorney General pursuant to Section 11040.(b) The Attorney General may provide written consent for a state agency to employ in-house counsel to represent the agency or its employees in any judicial or administrative adjudicative proceeding in whatever manner the Attorney General deems most effective and consistent with the intent of this article. However, a state agency shall obtain written consent for the use of outside counsel for a matter or matters for which the outside counsel is to be engaged before the execution of each contract with the outside counsel for the matter or matters.SEC. 10. Section 11043 of the Government Code is repealed.SEC. 11. Section 11045 of the Government Code is amended to read:11045. (a) (1) Whenever a state agency requests the consent of the Attorney General to contract with outside counsel, as required by Sections 11040 and 11042, the state agency shall within five business days of the date the request is transmitted to the Attorney General provide the designated representative of State Employees Bargaining Unit 2 with written notification of the request. The notice shall include the items enumerated in subdivision (d).(2) All state agencies, other than the office of the Attorney General, that are not required to obtain the consent to contract with outside counsel required by paragraph (2) of subdivision (c) of Section 11040 and Section 11042, shall provide written notice of any proposed contract for outside counsel to the designated representative of State Employees Bargaining Unit 2 five business days before execution of the contract by the state agency. The notice shall include the items required by subdivision (d). In the event of an emergency that requires the immediate employment of outside counsel, the state agency shall provide the written notice no later than five business days after the contract with outside counsel is signed.(3) Whenever the Attorney General determines the need to employ outside counsel pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 12520, the Attorney General shall give written notice to the designated representative of State Employees Bargaining Unit 2 within 10 days of that determination. The notice shall include the items enumerated in subdivision (d).(b) The Attorney General shall provide the designated representative of State Employees Bargaining Unit 2 with a written report, at least monthly, of all consents granted to every state agency pursuant to Section 11040.(c) Notwithstanding the above notice requirements, whenever any state agency submits a proposed contract for outside counsel to the Department of General Services pursuant to Section 10335 of the Public Contract Code, the agency shall provide a copy of the contract to the designated representative of State Employees Bargaining Unit 2.(d) Written notice within the meaning of this section shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:(1) A copy of the complaint or other pleadings, if any, that gave rise to the litigation or matter for which a contract is being sought, or other identifying information.(2) The justification for the contract, pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 19130.(3) The nature of the legal services to be performed.(4) The estimated hourly wage to be paid under the contract.(5) The estimated length of the contract.(6) The identity of the person or entity that is entering into the contract with the state.(e) State agency, as used in this section, means every state office, department, division, bureau, board, or commission, including the Board of Directors of the State Compensation Insurance Fund, but does not include the Regents of the University of California, the Trustees of the California State University, the Legislature, the courts, or any agency in the judicial branch of government.(f) (1) The notice requirements of this section do not apply to contracts for expert witnesses or consultations in connection with a confidential investigation or to any confidential component of a pending or active legal action.(2) The exemption authorized in paragraph (1) shall only apply as long as necessary to protect the confidentiality of the investigation or the confidential component of a pending or active legal action.(3) Disclosures made pursuant to this section are deemed to be privileged communications for purposes of subdivision (c) of Section 912 of the Evidence Code, and shall not be construed to be a waiver of any privilege or exemption provided by law, including, but not limited to, the lawyer-client privilege, as described in Section 952 of the Evidence Code, or attorney work product, as described in Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 2018.010) of Title 4 of Part 4 of the Code of Civil Procedure.(g) If the provisions of this section are in conflict with the provisions of a memorandum of understanding or other written agreement reached pursuant to Section 3517 or 3517.5, the memorandum of understanding or agreement shall be controlling without further legislative action, except that if any provision of the memorandum of understanding or other agreement requires the expenditure of funds, the provisions may not become effective unless approved by the Legislature.SEC. 12. Section 12532 is added to the Government Code, to read:12532. (a) Until July 1, 2027, the Attorney General, or his or her designee, shall engage in reviews of county, local, or private locked detention facilities in which noncitizens are being housed or detained for purposes of civil immigration proceedings in California, including any county, local, or private locked detention facility in which an accompanied or unaccompanied minor is housed or detained on behalf of, or pursuant to a contract with, the federal Office of Refugee Resettlement or the United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement. The order and number of facilities to be reviewed shall be determined by the Department of Justice. The Attorney General, or his or her designee, shall have authority over which facilities may be reviewed and when. The Department of Justice shall provide, during the budget process, updates and information to the Legislature and the Governor, including a written summary of findings, if appropriate, regarding the progress of these reviews and any relevant findings.(b) The Attorney General, or his or her designee, shall, on or before March 1, 2019, conduct a review of county, local, or private locked detention facilities in which noncitizens are being housed or detained for purposes of civil immigration proceedings in California, including any county, local, or private locked detention facility in which an accompanied or unaccompanied minor is housed or detained on behalf of, or pursuant to a contract with, the federal Office of Refugee Resettlement or the United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement. The order and number of facilities to be reviewed shall be determined by the Department of Justice.(1) This review shall include, but not be limited to, the following:(A) A review of the conditions of confinement.(B) A review of the standard of care and due process provided to the individuals described in subdivision (a).(C) A review of the circumstances around their apprehension and transfer to the facility.(2) The Attorney General, or his or her designee, shall provide, on or before March 1, 2019, the Legislature and the Governor with a comprehensive report outlining the findings of the review described in this subdivision, which shall be posted on the Attorney Generals Internet Web site and otherwise made available to the public upon its release to the Legislature and the Governor. The Department of Justice shall provide, during the budget process, updates and information to the Legislature and the Governor, including a written summary of findings, if appropriate, regarding the progress of the review described in this subdivision and any relevant findings.(c) The Attorney General, or his or her designee, shall be provided all necessary access for the observations necessary to effectuate reviews required pursuant to this section, including, but not limited to, access to detainees, officials, personnel, and records.(d) This section shall become inoperative on July 1, 2027, and, as of January 1, 2028, is repealed.SEC. 13. Section 15007 is added to the Government Code, to read:15007. For potential litigation involving the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Program (Title 21 (commencing with Section 100000), the state shall be represented by attorneys who possess a comprehensive knowledge of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. Sec. 1001 et seq.) (ERISA) and have at least 10 years of experience litigating claims related to ERISA in federal trial and appellate courts. If the Department of Justice does not have sufficient attorneys who possess these characteristics, it shall enter into contracts with qualified attorneys to secure their services.SEC. 14. Section 15820.948 is added to the Government Code, to read:15820.948. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, any funding conditionally awarded by the Board of State and Community Corrections pursuant to Chapter 3.11 (commencing with Section 15820.90), Chapter 3.12 (commencing with Section 15820.91), Chapter 3.13 (commencing with Section 15820.92), or Chapter 3.131 (commencing with Section 15820.93), to a participating county for the construction or renovation of a local jail facility or adult local criminal justice facility after the effective date of the legislation that added this section, shall be used to construct or renovate a facility that meets or surpasses the minimum number of weekly visits as specified by Section 1062 of Title 15 of the California Code of Regulations through the use of in-person visitation space.(b) For any proposals previously submitted to the board pursuant to the funding authority referenced in subdivision (a) that only provided for video visitation, the board shall require the participating county to submit a scope change to include in-person visitation prior to the boards approval of the conditional award.(c) For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:(1) In-person visit means an on-site visit that may include barriers. In-person visits include interactions in which an inmate has physical contact with a visitor, the inmate is able to see a visitor through a barrier, or the inmate is otherwise in a room with a visitor without physical contact. In-person visit does not include an interaction between an inmate and a visitor through the use of an on-site, two-way, audio-video terminal.(2) Video visitation means interaction between an inmate and a member of the public through the means of an audio-visual communication device when the member of the public is located at a local detention facility or at a remote location.SEC. 15. Section 24000 of the Government Code is amended to read:24000. The officers of a county are:(a) A district attorney.(b) A sheriff.(c) A county clerk.(d) A controller.(e) An auditor, who shall be ex officio controller.(f) A treasurer.(g) A recorder.(h) A license collector.(i) A tax collector, who shall be ex officio license collector.(j) An assessor.(k) A superintendent of schools.(l) A public administrator.(m) A coroner.(n) A surveyor.(o) Members of the board of supervisors.(p) A county veterinarian.(q) A fish and game warden.(r) A county librarian.(s) A county health officer.(t) An administrative officer.(u) A director of finance.(v) A road commissioner.(w) A public guardian.(x) A chief probation officer.(y) Such other officers as are provided by law.SEC. 16. Chapter 16 (commencing with Section 27770) is added to Part 3 of Division 2 of Title 3 of the Government Code, to read: CHAPTER 16. Chief Probation Officer27770. (a) A chief probation officer shall be appointed in every county. He or she shall be nominated by the juvenile justice commission or regional juvenile justice commission of the county in the same manner as the presiding judge, in a county with two judges, or a majority of the judges, in a county with more than two judges, shall prescribe, and shall thereafter be appointed by the presiding judge or majority of judges. The salary for the position shall be established by the board of supervisors of the county. He or she may be removed for good cause as determined by the presiding judge or majority of judges.(b) In counties with charters that provide for appointment and tenure of office for the chief probation officer, the provisions of the charter shall control as to those matters and, in counties that have established or hereafter establish merit or civil service systems governing the methods of appointment and the tenure for the chief probation officer, the provisions of the merit or civil service systems shall control as to those matters. In all other counties, appointment and tenure of the chief probation officer shall be controlled exclusively by the provisions of this code.27771. (a) The chief probation officer shall perform the duties and discharge the obligations imposed on the office by law or by order of the superior court, including the following:(1) Community supervision of offenders subject to the jurisdiction of the juvenile court pursuant to Section 602 or 1766 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(2) Operation of juvenile halls pursuant to Section 852 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(3) Operation of juvenile camps and ranches established under Section 880 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(4) Community supervision of individuals subject to probation pursuant to conditions imposed under Section 1203 of the Penal Code.(5) Community supervision of individuals subject to mandatory supervision pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (5) of subdivision (h) of Section 1170 of the Penal Code.(6) Community supervision of individuals subject to postrelease community supervision pursuant to Section 3451 of the Penal Code.(7) Administration of community-based corrections programming, including, but not limited to, programs authorized by Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 1228) of Title 8 of Part 2 of the Penal Code.(8) Serving as chair of the Community Corrections Partnership pursuant to Section 1230 of the Penal Code.(9) Making recommendations to the court, including, but not limited to, pre-sentence investigative reports pursuant to Sections 1203.7 and 1203.10 of the Penal Code.(b) The chief probation officer may perform other duties that are consistent with those enumerated in subdivision (a) and may accept appointment to the Board of State and Community Corrections and collect the per diem authorized by Section 6025.1 of the Penal Code.27772. (a) Except as provided in Section 69906.5, the chief probation officer may appoint deputies, assistants, and other persons, and their compensation shall be established according to the provisions of the countys merit systems or civil service systems. If no merit systems or civil service systems exist in the county, the board of supervisors shall provide for appointment, removal, and compensation of this personnel.(b) A deputy or assistant to the chief probation officer shall not have authority to act until his or her appointment has been approved by the juvenile justice commission or regional juvenile justice commission and by the presiding judge or majority of judges. The term of office of a deputy or assistant shall expire with the term of the chief probation officer who appointed the deputy or assistant, but the chief probation officer may revoke and terminate the appointment at any time.(c) This section applies in any charter county with a charter establishing the office of chief probation officer or adult probation officer and provides for the appointment of the officer in accordance with general law, subject to the merit system provisions of the charter.27773. The office of chief probation officer shall not be consolidated with any other office, nor shall the services provided by the chief probation officer be integrated with or reorganized into any other office or department of the county.SEC. 17. Section 68514 is added to the Government Code, to read:68514. (a) Beginning October 1, 2018, and annually thereafter, the Judicial Council shall report to the Department of Finance and to the Joint Legislative Budget Committee, the total amount of revenue collected in the prior fiscal year, by each court and county, from criminal fines and fees assessed related to infractions and misdemeanors. The report shall include, but not be limited to, the following information:(1) Total nondelinquent revenue collected and the number of cases associated with those collections.(2) Total delinquent revenue collected and the number of cases associated with those collections, as reported by each superior court and county pursuant to Section 1463.010 of the Penal Code.(3) Total amount of fines and fees dismissed, discharged, or satisfied by means other than payment.(4) A description of the collection activities used pursuant to Section 1463.007 of the Penal Code.(5) The total amount collected per collection activity.(6) The total number of cases by collection activity and the total number of individuals associated with those cases.(7) Total administrative costs per collection activity.(8) The percentage of fines or fees that are defaulted on.(b) Judicial Council shall separately list the information required in subdivision (a) for fines and fees assessed in a year prior to the current reporting year that had outstanding balances in the current reporting year.(c) To the extent a court or county cannot provide the information listed in subdivisions (a) and (b), the Judicial Council shall notify the Department of Finance and the Joint Legislative Budget Committee and shall provide a plan for how to obtain this information in the future. The Department of Finance may approve alternate metrics if a court or county does not have this information.SEC. 18. Section 69580 of the Government Code is amended to read:69580. In the County of Alameda there are 67 judges of the superior court.SEC. 19. Section 69592 of the Government Code is amended to read:69592. In the County of Riverside there are 51 judges of the superior court.SEC. 20. Section 69594 of the Government Code is amended to read:69594. In the County of San Bernardino there are 65 judges of the superior court.SEC. 21. Section 69600 of the Government Code is amended to read:69600. In the County of Santa Clara there are 77 judges of the superior court.SEC. 22. Section 69614.4 is added to the Government Code, to read:69614.4. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, two vacant judgeships from the Superior Court of the County of Santa Clara shall be reallocated to the Superior Court of the County of Riverside, and two vacant judgeships from the Superior Court of the County of Alameda shall be reallocated to the Superior Court of the County of San Bernardino.(b) The Judicial Council shall determine which specific vacancies shall be transferred between counties pursuant to this section and take all necessary steps to effectuate each transfer.(c) The term of the judgeships specified in this section shall begin on January 2, 2018.(d) A court in which a vacant judgeship is reallocated shall not have the courts funding allocation reduced or any of its funding shifted or transferred as a result of, or in connection with, the reallocation of a vacant judgeship pursuant to this section.SEC. 23. Article 9 (commencing with Section 70500) is added to Chapter 5.7 of Title 8 of the Government Code, to read: Article 9. Conveyance: Court Facility Property: County of San Diego70500. For purposes of this article, the following definitions shall apply:(a) Central courthouse project means the project analyzed in the Judicial Council EIR to construct the San Diego Central Courthouse and perform the demolition project.(b) Central jail means the county-owned central jail located at 1173 Front Street in the City of San Diego.(c) City EIRs means both the March 2008 City of San Diego Program Environmental Impact Report for the City of San Diegos General Plan (State Clearinghouse No. 200691032), as updated, and the March 2006 Final Environmental Impact Report for the San Diego Downtown Community Plan (State Clearinghouse No. 2003041001), as updated.(d) County property means the county-owned city block in the City of San Diego bounded by West A Street to the north, Union Street to the west, West B Street to the south, and Front Street to the east.(e) Demolition project means the demolition of any or all improvements on the San Diego property or the county property, and the construction of the inmate tunnel.(f) Development project means the disposition and development of all or a portion of the San Diego property and the county property by the County of San Diego, or its successors, lessees, or agents, including any agreements therefor, in a manner consistent with the City of San Diegos General Plan and the San Diego Downtown Community Plan.(g) Improvements means the existing courthouse building located on the San Diego property and the county property and the former county jail facility located on the San Diego property.(h) Inmate tunnel means a tunnel that will transport inmates between the central jail and the San Diego Central Courthouse.(i) Judicial Council EIR means the Environmental Impact Report dated December 2010, State Clearinghouse No. 2000021015, certified by the Judicial Council in December 2010, as amended.(j) San Diego Central Courthouse means the real property and improvements described in subdivision (d) of Section 70501.(k) San Diego property means both the real property described in subdivision (a) of Section 70501 and the improvements.70501. The Legislature finds and declares all of the following:(a) The state owns two contiguous parcels of real property consisting of approximately 2.59 acres located in the City of San Diego on two city blocks bounded by West B Street on the north, Union Street on the west, Broadway on the south, and Front Street on the east. Two buildings are located on the real property. One of the buildings is a courthouse building that is used by the Superior Court of California, County of San Diego, as a trial court facility and by the County of San Diego for county offices. Only a portion of the existing courthouse building is located on the state property. The other building is a former county jail facility.(b) A portion of the existing courthouse building is located on the adjacent county property. The state owns the portion of the existing courthouse building that is located on the county property, but the County of San Diego owns fee title to the county property.(c) The existing courthouse building will be replaced as part of an overall plan for consolidation and upgrade of the court facilities in the County of San Diego.(d) The Judicial Council has constructed the new San Diego Central Courthouse on state-owned property in the downtown area of the City of San Diego that is bounded by West B Street on the north, State Street on the west, West C Street on the south, and Union Street on the east. The new San Diego Central Courthouse will fully replace all space occupied by the superior court in the existing courthouse building located on the San Diego property and the county property, and will improve and enhance the safety and efficiency of superior court operations.(e) The Administrative Director of the Courts may, pursuant to Section 70502, convey the San Diego property to the County of San Diego for the public purpose of promoting public safety by facilitating the construction of the inmate tunnel.(f) After acquisition of the San Diego property, the County of San Diego intends to perform the demolition project on all or a portion of the San Diego property and the county property, and perform the development project on all or a portion of the San Diego property and the county property.70502. (a) (1) Notwithstanding any other law, the Administrative Director of the Courts is hereby authorized, on behalf of the state, to convey to the County of San Diego fee title to the San Diego property in exchange for the countys release of the Judicial Council and the state from all obligations related to the demolition project, the countys agreement to the condition in paragraph (2), and otherwise upon the terms and conditions, and subject to the reservations, the Judicial Council deems to be in the best interests of the state, for the public purpose of promoting public safety by facilitating the construction of the inmate tunnel.(2) The Administrative Director of the Courts shall not convey any interest in the San Diego property to the County of San Diego unless the County of San Diego agrees that no new detention facility, or an expansion of the currently leased or contracted beds in a detention facility, will be constructed on any parcel of the San Diego property.(b) Any sale, exchange, or lease of the San Diego property or the county property by the County of San Diego as part of a development project shall not constitute a disposition of surplus property under Article 8 (commencing with Section 54220) of Chapter 5 of Part 1 of Division 2 of Title 5.(c) In connection with any conveyance of the San Diego property pursuant to the authority granted in subdivision (a), the Administrative Director of the Courts shall have the right and authority to enter into amendments of the existing written agreements in effect as of the operative date of this article, between the County of San Diego and the Judicial Council, that are necessary to reflect the terms of the conveyance described in subdivision (a).(d) The conveyance of the San Diego property to the County of San Diego, on behalf of the state, shall not cause or result in any obligation of the County of San Diego to provide necessary and suitable facilities under Section 70311.70503. The Board of Supervisors of the County of San Diego is authorized to approve a lease for any or all of the San Diego property and the county property, which actions shall not be subject to Article 8 (commencing with Section 25520) of Chapter 5 of Part 2 of Division 2 of Title 3.70504. (a) With respect to the Judicial Council EIR of the central courthouse project, the Legislature finds and declares all of the following:(1) The County of San Diegos approval of the acquisition of the San Diego property or approval of the demolition project does not propose any substantial changes to the central courthouse project.(2) The Judicial Councils approval of the conveyance of the San Diego property to the County of San Diego in exchange for the countys release of the Judicial Council and the state from all obligations related to the demolition project does not propose any substantial changes to the central courthouse project.(3) There are no substantial changes in the circumstances under which approval of the conveyance of the San Diego property to the County of San Diego, the countys acquisition of the San Diego property, or approval of the demolition project will be undertaken that will require major revisions to the Judicial Council EIR due to the involvement of significant new environmental effects or a substantial increase in the severity of previously identified significant effects.(4) There is no new information of substantial importance, as that phrase is described and used in Section 21166 of the Public Resources Code or Section 15162 of Title 14 of the California Code of Regulations, affecting the central courthouse project.(b) Pursuant to subdivision (a), both of the following shall apply:(1) The previously-certified Judicial Council EIR is hereby deemed adequate and approved for the Judicial Councils conveyance of the San Diego property to the County of San Diego and the County of San Diegos approval of the acquisition of the San Diego property and the demolition project.(2) No subsequent or supplemental environmental impact report, addendum, or environmental documentation shall be required pursuant to the California Environmental Quality Act (CEQA)(Division 13 (commencing with Section 21000) of the Public Resources Code).70505. (a) With respect to the city EIRs of the City of San Diegos General Plan and the San Diego Downtown Community Plan, which were conducted in compliance with CEQA, the Legislature finds and declares all of the following:(1) Section 21083.3 of the Public Resources Code and Section 15183 of Title 14 of the California Code of Regulations, for development projects consistent with a community plan, general plan, or zoning, shall be deemed to apply to any development project.(2) There are no project-specific significant effects that are peculiar to a development project, the San Diego property, or the county property, there are no significant effects, including offsite and cumulative impacts, that were not analyzed in the city EIRs, and there are no new or more severe adverse effects than those discussed in the city EIRs.(b) Pursuant to subdivision (a), the previously certified city EIRs are hereby deemed adequate and approved under CEQA for any development project, and no further environmental review shall be required pursuant to CEQA and its implementing regulations.70506. The exemption from CEQA for existing facilities identified in Section 15301 of Title 14 of the California Code of Regulations shall be deemed to apply to any lease authorized by the Board of Supervisors of the County of San Diego for any or all of the improvements on the San Diego property and the county property.70507. The demolition project shall be deemed to be a project that is separate and distinct from the development project. The demolition project and development project serve different purposes, have independent utility, and can be implemented independently.70508. Any legal challenge that is brought against the County of San Diego with regard to the demolition project or the development project shall not result in a reconveyance of the San Diego property to the state.SEC. 24. Section 329 is added to the Military and Veterans Code, to read:329. The Military Department Workers Compensation Fund is hereby created within the State Treasury. Notwithstanding Section 13340 of the Government Code, all moneys in the fund are continuously appropriated to the Military Department for purposes of subdivision (a).(a) The moneys in the fund shall be expended for workers compensation claims that are wholly or partially reimbursed by the federal government for personnel within the Military Department.(b) The fund may receive and deposit any moneys received from the federal government for the sole purpose of paying workers compensation claims of current employees or service members.(c) Moneys in the fund may only be expended by the Military Department for workers compensation claims.SEC. 25. Section 1170.127 is added to the Penal Code, to read:1170.127. (a) A person who is committed to a state hospital after being found not guilty by reason of insanity pursuant to Section 1026 may petition the court to have his or her maximum term of commitment, as established by Section 1026.5, reduced to the length it would have been had Section 1170.126 been in effect at the time of the original determination. Both of the following conditions are required for the maximum term of commitment to be reduced:(1) The person would have met all of the criteria for a reduction in sentence pursuant to Section 1170.126 had he or she been found guilty.(2) The person files the petition for a reduction of the maximum term of commitment before January 1, 2021, or on a later date upon a showing of good cause.(b) If a petitioners maximum term of confinement is ordered reduced under this section, the new term of confinement must provide opportunity to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5. If a petitioners new maximum term of confinement ordered under this section does not provide sufficient time to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5, the new maximum term of confinement may be extended, not more than 240 days from the date the petition is granted, in order to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5.SEC. 26. Section 1170.18 of the Penal Code is amended to read:1170.18. (a) A person who, on November 5, 2014, was serving a sentence for a conviction, whether by trial or plea, of a felony or felonies who would have been guilty of a misdemeanor under the act that added this section (this act) had this act been in effect at the time of the offense may petition for a recall of sentence before the trial court that entered the judgment of conviction in his or her case to request resentencing in accordance with Sections 11350, 11357, or 11377 of the Health and Safety Code, or Section 459.5, 473, 476a, 490.2, 496, or 666 of the Penal Code, as those sections have been amended or added by this act.(b) Upon receiving a petition under subdivision (a), the court shall determine whether the petitioner satisfies the criteria in subdivision (a). If the petitioner satisfies the criteria in subdivision (a), the petitioners felony sentence shall be recalled and the petitioner resentenced to a misdemeanor pursuant to Sections 11350, 11357, or 11377 of the Health and Safety Code, or Section 459.5, 473, 476a, 490.2, 496, or 666 of the Penal Code, as those sections have been amended or added by this act, unless the court, in its discretion, determines that resentencing the petitioner would pose an unreasonable risk of danger to public safety. In exercising its discretion, the court may consider all of the following:(1) The petitioners criminal conviction history, including the type of crimes committed, the extent of injury to victims, the length of prior prison commitments, and the remoteness of the crimes.(2) The petitioners disciplinary record and record of rehabilitation while incarcerated.(3) Any other evidence the court, within its discretion, determines to be relevant in deciding whether a new sentence would result in an unreasonable risk of danger to public safety.(c) As used throughout this code, unreasonable risk of danger to public safety means an unreasonable risk that the petitioner will commit a new violent felony within the meaning of clause (iv) of subparagraph (C) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (e) of Section 667.(d) A person who is resentenced pursuant to subdivision (b) shall be given credit for time served and shall be subject to parole for one year following completion of his or her sentence, unless the court, in its discretion, as part of its resentencing order, releases the person from parole. The person is subject to parole supervision by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation pursuant to Section 3000.08 and the jurisdiction of the court in the county in which the parolee is released or resides, or in which an alleged violation of supervision has occurred, for the purpose of hearing petitions to revoke parole and impose a term of custody.(e) Resentencing pursuant to this section shall not result in the imposition of a term longer than the original sentence.(f) A person who has completed his or her sentence for a conviction, whether by trial or plea, of a felony or felonies who would have been guilty of a misdemeanor under this act had this act been in effect at the time of the offense, may file an application before the trial court that entered the judgment of conviction in his or her case to have the felony conviction or convictions designated as misdemeanors.(g) If the application satisfies the criteria in subdivision (f), the court shall designate the felony offense or offenses as a misdemeanor.(h) Unless the applicant requests a hearing, a hearing is not necessary to grant or deny an application filed under subdivision (f).(i) This section does not apply to a person who has one or more prior convictions for an offense specified in clause (iv) of subparagraph (C) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (e) of Section 667 or for an offense requiring registration pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 290.(j) Except as specified in subdivision (p), a petition or application under this section shall be filed on or before November 4, 2022, or at a later date upon showing of good cause.(k) A felony conviction that is recalled and resentenced under subdivision (b) or designated as a misdemeanor under subdivision (g) shall be considered a misdemeanor for all purposes, except that resentencing shall not permit that person to own, possess, or have in his or her custody or control a firearm or prevent his or her conviction under Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 29800) of Division 9 of Title 4 of Part 6.(l) If the court that originally sentenced the petitioner is not available, the presiding judge shall designate another judge to rule on the petition or application.(m) This section does not diminish or abrogate any rights or remedies otherwise available to the petitioner or applicant.(n) Resentencing pursuant to this section does not diminish or abrogate the finality of judgments in any case that does not come within the purview of this section.(o) A resentencing hearing ordered under this section shall constitute a postconviction release proceeding under paragraph (7) of subdivision (b) of Section 28 of Article I of the California Constitution (Marsys Law).(p) (1) A person who is committed to a state hospital after being found not guilty by reason of insanity pursuant to Section 1026 may petition the court to have his or her maximum term of commitment, as established by Section 1026.5, reduced to the length it would have been had the act that added this section been in effect at the time of the original determination. Both of the following conditions are required for the maximum term of commitment to be reduced.(A) The person would have met all of the criteria for a reduction in sentence pursuant to this section had he or she been found guilty.(B) The person files the petition for a reduction of the maximum term of commitment before January 1, 2021, or on a later date upon a showing of good cause.(2) If a petitioners maximum term of confinement is ordered reduced under this subdivision, the new term of confinement must provide opportunity to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5. If a petitioners new maximum term of confinement ordered under this section does not provide sufficient time to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5, the new maximum term of confinement may be extended, not more than 240 days from the date the petition is granted, in order to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5.SEC. 27. Section 1203.5 of the Penal Code is repealed.SEC. 28. Section 1203.5 is added to the Penal Code, to read:1203.5. The chief probation officers, assistant probation officers, and deputy probation officers appointed in accordance with Chapter 16 (commencing with Section 27770) of Part 3 of Division 2 of Title 3 of the Government Code shall be ex officio adult chief probation officers, assistant adult probation officers, and deputy adult probation officers except in any county or city and county whose charter provides for the separate office of adult probation officer. When the separate office of adult probation officer has been established he or she shall perform all the duties of probation officers except for matters under the jurisdiction of the juvenile court.SEC. 29. Section 1203.6 of the Penal Code is repealed.SEC. 30. Section 1370 of the Penal Code is amended to read:1370. (a) (1) (A) If the defendant is found mentally competent, the criminal process shall resume, the trial on the offense charged or hearing on the alleged violation shall proceed, and judgment may be pronounced.(B) If the defendant is found mentally incompetent, the trial, the hearing on the alleged violation, or the judgment shall be suspended until the person becomes mentally competent.(i) In the meantime, the court shall order that the mentally incompetent defendant be delivered by the sheriff to a State Department of State Hospitals facility, as defined in Section 4100 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, for the care and treatment of the mentally disordered, as directed by the State Department of State Hospitals, or to any other available public or private treatment facility, including a community-based residential treatment system established pursuant to Article 1 (commencing with Section 5670) of Chapter 2.5 of Part 2 of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code if the facility has a secured perimeter or a locked and controlled treatment facility, approved by the community program director that will promote the defendants speedy restoration to mental competence, or placed on outpatient status as specified in Section 1600.(ii) However, if the action against the defendant who has been found mentally incompetent is on a complaint charging a felony offense specified in Section 290, the prosecutor shall determine whether the defendant previously has been found mentally incompetent to stand trial pursuant to this chapter on a charge of a Section 290 offense, or whether the defendant is currently the subject of a pending Section 1368 proceeding arising out of a charge of a Section 290 offense. If either determination is made, the prosecutor shall so notify the court and defendant in writing. After this notification, and opportunity for hearing, the court shall order that the defendant be delivered by the sheriff to a State Department of State Hospitals facility, as directed by the State Department of State Hospitals, or other secure treatment facility for the care and treatment of the mentally disordered unless the court makes specific findings on the record that an alternative placement would provide more appropriate treatment for the defendant and would not pose a danger to the health and safety of others.(iii) If the action against the defendant who has been found mentally incompetent is on a complaint charging a felony offense specified in Section 290 and the defendant has been denied bail pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 12 of Article I of the California Constitution because the court has found, based upon clear and convincing evidence, a substantial likelihood that the persons release would result in great bodily harm to others, the court shall order that the defendant be delivered by the sheriff to a State Department of State Hospitals facility, for the care and treatment of the mentally disordered, as directed by the State Department of State Hospitals, unless the court makes specific findings on the record that an alternative placement would provide more appropriate treatment for the defendant and would not pose a danger to the health and safety of others.(iv) The clerk of the court shall notify the Department of Justice in writing of a finding of mental incompetence with respect to a defendant who is subject to clause (ii) or (iii) for inclusion in his or her state summary criminal history information.(C) Upon the filing of a certificate of restoration to competence, the court shall order that the defendant be returned to court in accordance with Section 1372. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the community program director or a designee.(D) A defendant charged with a violent felony may not be delivered to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or treatment facility pursuant to this subdivision unless the State Department of State Hospitals facility or treatment facility has a secured perimeter or a locked and controlled treatment facility, and the judge determines that the public safety will be protected.(E) For purposes of this paragraph, violent felony means an offense specified in subdivision (c) of Section 667.5.(F) A defendant charged with a violent felony may be placed on outpatient status, as specified in Section 1600, only if the court finds that the placement will not pose a danger to the health or safety of others. If the court places a defendant charged with a violent felony on outpatient status, as specified in Section 1600, the court shall serve copies of the placement order on defense counsel, the sheriff in the county where the defendant will be placed, and the district attorney for the county in which the violent felony charges are pending against the defendant.(2) Prior to making the order directing that the defendant be committed to the State Department of State Hospitals or other treatment facility or placed on outpatient status, the court shall proceed as follows:(A) The court shall order the community program director or a designee to evaluate the defendant and to submit to the court within 15 judicial days of the order a written recommendation as to whether the defendant should be required to undergo outpatient treatment, or be committed to the State Department of State Hospitals or to any other treatment facility. A person shall not be admitted to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility or placed on outpatient status under this section without having been evaluated by the community program director or a designee. The community program director or designee shall evaluate the appropriate placement for the defendant between a State Department of State Hospitals facility or the community-based residential treatment system based upon guidelines provided by the State Department of State Hospitals.(B) The court shall hear and determine whether the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding the administration of antipsychotic medication. The court shall consider opinions in the reports prepared pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 1369, as applicable to the issue of whether the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding the administration of antipsychotic medication, and shall proceed as follows:(i) The court shall hear and determine whether any of the following is true:(I) The defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication, the defendants mental disorder requires medical treatment with antipsychotic medication, and, if the defendants mental disorder is not treated with antipsychotic medication, it is probable that serious harm to the physical or mental health of the patient will result. Probability of serious harm to the physical or mental health of the defendant requires evidence that the defendant is presently suffering adverse effects to his or her physical or mental health, or the defendant has previously suffered these effects as a result of a mental disorder and his or her condition is substantially deteriorating. The fact that a defendant has a diagnosis of a mental disorder does not alone establish probability of serious harm to the physical or mental health of the defendant.(II) The defendant is a danger to others, in that the defendant has inflicted, attempted to inflict, or made a serious threat of inflicting substantial physical harm on another while in custody, or the defendant had inflicted, attempted to inflict, or made a serious threat of inflicting substantial physical harm on another that resulted in his or her being taken into custody, and the defendant presents, as a result of mental disorder or mental defect, a demonstrated danger of inflicting substantial physical harm on others. Demonstrated danger may be based on an assessment of the defendants present mental condition, including a consideration of past behavior of the defendant within six years prior to the time the defendant last attempted to inflict, inflicted, or threatened to inflict substantial physical harm on another, and other relevant evidence.(III) The people have charged the defendant with a serious crime against the person or property, involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication is substantially likely to render the defendant competent to stand trial, the medication is unlikely to have side effects that interfere with the defendants ability to understand the nature of the criminal proceedings or to assist counsel in the conduct of a defense in a reasonable manner, less intrusive treatments are unlikely to have substantially the same results, and antipsychotic medication is in the patients best medical interest in light of his or her medical condition.(ii) If the court finds any of the conditions described in clause (i) to be true, the court shall issue an order authorizing involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication to the defendant when and as prescribed by the defendants treating psychiatrist at any facility housing the defendant for purposes of this chapter. The order shall be valid for no more than one year, pursuant to subparagraph (A) of paragraph (7). The court shall not order involuntary administration of psychotropic medication under subclause (III) of clause (i) unless the court has first found that the defendant does not meet the criteria for involuntary administration of psychotropic medication under subclause (I) of clause (i) and does not meet the criteria under subclause (II) of clause (i).(iii) In all cases, the treating hospital, facility, or program may administer medically appropriate antipsychotic medication prescribed by a psychiatrist in an emergency as described in subdivision (m) of Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(iv) If the court has determined that the defendant has the capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication, and if the defendant, with advice of his or her counsel, consents, the court order of commitment shall include confirmation that antipsychotic medication may be given to the defendant as prescribed by a treating psychiatrist pursuant to the defendants consent. The commitment order shall also indicate that, if the defendant withdraws consent for antipsychotic medication, after the treating psychiatrist complies with the provisions of subparagraph (C), the defendant shall be returned to court for a hearing in accordance with subparagraphs (C) and (D) regarding whether antipsychotic medication shall be administered involuntarily.(v) If the court has determined that the defendant has the capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication and if the defendant, with advice from his or her counsel, does not consent, the court order for commitment shall indicate that, after the treating psychiatrist complies with the provisions of subparagraph (C), the defendant shall be returned to court for a hearing in accordance with subparagraphs (C) and (D) regarding whether antipsychotic medication shall be administered involuntarily.(vi) A report made pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) shall include a description of antipsychotic medication administered to the defendant and its effects and side effects, including effects on the defendants appearance or behavior that would affect the defendants ability to understand the nature of the criminal proceedings or to assist counsel in the conduct of a defense in a reasonable manner. During the time the defendant is confined in a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility or placed on outpatient status, either the defendant or the people may request that the court review any order made pursuant to this subdivision. The defendant, to the same extent enjoyed by other patients in the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility, shall have the right to contact the patients rights advocate regarding his or her rights under this section.(C) If the defendant consented to antipsychotic medication as described in clause (iv) of subparagraph (B), but subsequently withdraws his or her consent, or, if involuntary antipsychotic medication was not ordered pursuant to clause (v) of subparagraph (B), and the treating psychiatrist determines that antipsychotic medication has become medically necessary and appropriate, the treating psychiatrist shall make efforts to obtain informed consent from the defendant for antipsychotic medication. If informed consent is not obtained from the defendant, and the treating psychiatrist is of the opinion that the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication based on the conditions described in subclause (I) or (II) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B), the treating psychiatrist shall certify whether the lack of capacity and any applicable conditions described above exist. That certification shall contain an assessment of the current mental status of the defendant and the opinion of the treating psychiatrist that involuntary antipsychotic medication has become medically necessary and appropriate.(D) (i) If the treating psychiatrist certifies that antipsychotic medication has become medically necessary and appropriate pursuant to subparagraph (C), antipsychotic medication may be administered to the defendant for not more than 21 days, provided, however, that, within 72 hours of the certification, the defendant is provided a medication review hearing before an administrative law judge to be conducted at the facility where the defendant is receiving treatment. The treating psychiatrist shall present the case for the certification for involuntary treatment and the defendant shall be represented by an attorney or a patients rights advocate. The attorney or patients rights advocate shall be appointed to meet with the defendant no later than one day prior to the medication review hearing to review the defendants rights at the medication review hearing, discuss the process, answer questions or concerns regarding involuntary medication or the hearing, assist the defendant in preparing for the hearing and advocating for his or her interests at the hearing, review the panels final determination following the hearing, advise the defendant of his or her right to judicial review of the panels decision, and provide the defendant with referral information for legal advice on the subject. The defendant shall also have the following rights with respect to the medication review hearing:(I) To be given timely access to the defendants records.(II) To be present at the hearing, unless the defendant waives that right.(III) To present evidence at the hearing.(IV) To question persons presenting evidence supporting involuntary medication.(V) To make reasonable requests for attendance of witnesses on the defendants behalf.(VI) To a hearing conducted in an impartial and informal manner.(ii) If the administrative law judge determines that the defendant either meets the criteria specified in subclause (I) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B), or meets the criteria specified in subclause (II) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B), then antipsychotic medication may continue to be administered to the defendant for the 21-day certification period. Concurrently with the treating psychiatrists certification, the treating psychiatrist shall file a copy of the certification and a petition with the court for issuance of an order to administer antipsychotic medication beyond the 21-day certification period. For purposes of this subparagraph, the treating psychiatrist shall not be required to pay or deposit any fee for the filing of the petition or other document or paper related to the petition.(iii) If the administrative law judge disagrees with the certification, medication may not be administered involuntarily until the court determines that antipsychotic medication should be administered pursuant to this section.(iv) The court shall provide notice to the prosecuting attorney and to the attorney representing the defendant, and shall hold a hearing, no later than 18 days from the date of the certification, to determine whether antipsychotic medication should be ordered beyond the certification period.(v) If, as a result of the hearing, the court determines that antipsychotic medication should be administered beyond the certification period, the court shall issue an order authorizing the administration of that medication.(vi) The court shall render its decision on the petition and issue its order no later than three calendar days after the hearing and, in any event, no later than the expiration of the 21-day certification period.(vii) If the administrative law judge upholds the certification pursuant to clause (ii), the court may, for a period not to exceed 14 days, extend the certification and continue the hearing pursuant to stipulation between the parties or upon a finding of good cause. In determining good cause, the court may review the petition filed with the court, the administrative law judges order, and any additional testimony needed by the court to determine if it is appropriate to continue medication beyond the 21-day certification and for a period of up to 14 days.(viii) The district attorney, county counsel, or representative of a facility where a defendant found incompetent to stand trial is committed may petition the court for an order to administer involuntary medication pursuant to the criteria set forth in subclauses (II) and (III) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B). The order is reviewable as provided in paragraph (7).(3) When the court orders that the defendant be committed to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other public or private treatment facility, the court shall provide copies of the following documents prior to the admission of the defendant to the State Department of State Hospitals or other treatment facility where the defendant is to be committed:(A) The commitment order, including a specification of the charges.(B) A computation or statement setting forth the maximum term of commitment in accordance with subdivision (c).(C) A computation or statement setting forth the amount of credit for time served, if any, to be deducted from the maximum term of commitment.(D) State summary criminal history information.(E) Arrest reports prepared by the police department or other law enforcement agency.(F) Court-ordered psychiatric examination or evaluation reports.(G) The community program directors placement recommendation report.(H) Records of a finding of mental incompetence pursuant to this chapter arising out of a complaint charging a felony offense specified in Section 290 or a pending Section 1368 proceeding arising out of a charge of a Section 290 offense.(I) Medical records.(4) When the defendant is committed to a treatment facility pursuant to clause (i) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) or the court makes the findings specified in clause (ii) or (iii) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) to assign the defendant to a treatment facility other than a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other secure treatment facility, the court shall order that notice be given to the appropriate law enforcement agency or agencies having local jurisdiction at the site of the placement facility of any finding of mental incompetence pursuant to this chapter arising out of a charge of a Section 290 offense.(5) When directing that the defendant be confined in a State Department of State Hospitals facility pursuant to this subdivision, the court shall commit the patient to the State Department of State Hospitals.(6) (A) If the defendant is committed or transferred to the State Department of State Hospitals pursuant to this section, the court may, upon receiving the written recommendation of the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility and the community program director that the defendant be transferred to a public or private treatment facility approved by the community program director, order the defendant transferred to that facility. If the defendant is committed or transferred to a public or private treatment facility approved by the community program director, the court may, upon receiving the written recommendation of the community program director, transfer the defendant to the State Department of State Hospitals or to another public or private treatment facility approved by the community program director. In the event of dismissal of the criminal charges before the defendant recovers competence, the person shall be subject to the applicable provisions of the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act (Part 1 (commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code). If either the defendant or the prosecutor chooses to contest either kind of order of transfer, a petition may be filed in the court for a hearing, which shall be held if the court determines that sufficient grounds exist. At the hearing, the prosecuting attorney or the defendant may present evidence bearing on the order of transfer. The court shall use the same standards as are used in conducting probation revocation hearings pursuant to Section 1203.2.Prior to making an order for transfer under this section, the court shall notify the defendant, the attorney of record for the defendant, the prosecuting attorney, and the community program director or a designee.(B) If the defendant is initially committed to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or secure treatment facility pursuant to clause (ii) or (iii) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) and is subsequently transferred to any other facility, copies of the documents specified in paragraph (3) shall be taken with the defendant to each subsequent facility to which the defendant is transferred. The transferring facility shall also notify the appropriate law enforcement agency or agencies having local jurisdiction at the site of the new facility that the defendant is a person subject to clause (ii) or (iii) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1).(7) (A) An order by the court authorizing involuntary medication of the defendant shall be valid for no more than one year. The court shall review the order at the time of the review of the initial report and the six-month progress reports pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) to determine if the grounds for the authorization remain. In the review, the court shall consider the reports of the treating psychiatrist or psychiatrists and the defendants patients rights advocate or attorney. The court may require testimony from the treating psychiatrist and the patients rights advocate or attorney, if necessary. The court may continue the order authorizing involuntary medication for up to another six months, or vacate the order, or make any other appropriate order.(B) Within 60 days before the expiration of the one-year involuntary medication order, the district attorney, county counsel, or representative of any facility where a defendant found incompetent to stand trial is committed may petition the committing court for a renewal, subject to the same conditions and requirements as in subparagraph (A). The petition shall include the basis for involuntary medication set forth in clause (i) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2). Notice of the petition shall be provided to the defendant, the defendants attorney, and the district attorney. The court shall hear and determine whether the defendant continues to meet the criteria set forth in clause (i) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2). The hearing on any petition to renew an order for involuntary medication shall be conducted prior to the expiration of the current order.(8) For purposes of subparagraph (D) of paragraph (2) and paragraph (7), if the treating psychiatrist determines that there is a need, based on preserving his or her rapport with the patient or preventing harm, the treating psychiatrist may request that the facility medical director designate another psychiatrist to act in the place of the treating psychiatrist. If the medical director of the facility designates another psychiatrist to act pursuant to this paragraph, the treating psychiatrist shall brief the acting psychiatrist of the relevant facts of the case and the acting psychiatrist shall examine the patient prior to the hearing.(b) (1) Within 90 days of a commitment made pursuant to subdivision (a), the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility to which the defendant is confined shall make a written report to the court and the community program director for the county or region of commitment, or a designee, concerning the defendants progress toward recovery of mental competence and whether the administration of antipsychotic medication remains necessary. If the defendant is on outpatient status, the outpatient treatment staff shall make a written report to the community program director concerning the defendants progress toward recovery of mental competence. Within 90 days of placement on outpatient status, the community program director shall report to the court on this matter. If the defendant has not recovered mental competence, but the report discloses a substantial likelihood that the defendant will regain mental competence in the foreseeable future, the defendant shall remain in the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility or on outpatient status. Thereafter, at six-month intervals or until the defendant becomes mentally competent, if the defendant is confined in a treatment facility, the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility or person in charge of the facility shall report in writing to the court and the community program director or a designee regarding the defendants progress toward recovery of mental competence and whether the administration of antipsychotic medication remains necessary. If the defendant is on outpatient status, after the initial 90-day report, the outpatient treatment staff shall report to the community program director on the defendants progress toward recovery, and the community program director shall report to the court on this matter at six-month intervals. A copy of these reports shall be provided to the prosecutor and defense counsel by the court.(A) If the report indicates that there is no substantial likelihood that the defendant will regain mental competence in the foreseeable future, the committing court shall order the defendant to be returned to the court for proceedings pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (c) no later than 10 days following receipt of the report. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the community program director or a designee.(B) If the report indicates that there is no substantial likelihood that the defendant will regain mental competence in the foreseeable future, the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility to which the defendant is confined shall do both of the following:(i) Promptly notify and provide a copy of the report to the defense counsel and the district attorney.(ii) Provide a separate notification, in compliance with applicable privacy laws, to the committing countys sheriff that transportation will be needed for the patient.(2) If the court has issued an order authorizing the treating facility to involuntarily administer antipsychotic medication to the defendant, the reports made pursuant to paragraph (1) concerning the defendants progress toward regaining competency shall also consider the issue of involuntary medication. Each report shall include, but is not limited to, all of the following:(A) Whether or not the defendant has the capacity to make decisions concerning antipsychotic medication.(B) If the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions concerning antipsychotic medication, whether the defendant risks serious harm to his or her physical or mental health if not treated with antipsychotic medication.(C) Whether or not the defendant presents a danger to others if he or she is not treated with antipsychotic medication.(D) Whether the defendant has a mental illness for which medications are the only effective treatment.(E) Whether there are any side effects from the medication currently being experienced by the defendant that would interfere with the defendants ability to collaborate with counsel.(F) Whether there are any effective alternatives to medication.(G) How quickly the medication is likely to bring the defendant to competency.(H) Whether the treatment plan includes methods other than medication to restore the defendant to competency.(I) A statement, if applicable, that no medication is likely to restore the defendant to competency.(3) After reviewing the reports, the court shall determine whether or not grounds for the order authorizing involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication still exist and shall do one of the following:(A) If the original grounds for involuntary medication still exist, the order authorizing the treating facility to involuntarily administer antipsychotic medication to the defendant shall remain in effect.(B) If the original grounds for involuntary medication no longer exist, and there is no other basis for involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication, the order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication shall be vacated.(C) If the original grounds for involuntary medication no longer exist, and the report states that there is another basis for involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication, the court shall set a hearing within 21 days to determine whether the order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication shall be vacated or whether a new order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication shall be issued. The hearing shall proceed as set forth in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a).(4) Any defendant who has been committed or has been on outpatient status for 18 months and is still hospitalized or on outpatient status shall be returned to the committing court where a hearing shall be held pursuant to the procedures set forth in Section 1369. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the community program director or a designee.(5) If it is determined by the court that no treatment for the defendants mental impairment is being conducted, the defendant shall be returned to the committing court. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the community program director or a designee.(6) At each review by the court specified in this subdivision, the court shall determine if the security level of housing and treatment is appropriate and may make an order in accordance with its determination. If the court determines that the defendant shall continue to be treated in the State Department of State Hospitals facility or on an outpatient basis, the court shall determine issues concerning administration of antipsychotic medication, as set forth in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a).(c) (1) At the end of three years from the date of commitment or a period of commitment equal to the maximum term of imprisonment provided by law for the most serious offense charged in the information, indictment, or misdemeanor complaint, or the maximum term of imprisonment provided by law for a violation of probation or mandatory supervision, whichever is shorter, but no later than 90 days prior to the expiration of the defendants term of commitment, a defendant who has not recovered mental competence shall be returned to the committing court. The court shall notify the community program director or a designee of the return and of any resulting court orders.(2) Whenever a defendant is returned to the court pursuant to paragraph (1) or (4) of subdivision (b) or paragraph (1) of this subdivision and it appears to the court that the defendant is gravely disabled, as defined in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (h) of Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the court shall order the conservatorship investigator of the county of commitment of the defendant to initiate conservatorship proceedings for the defendant pursuant to Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 5350) of Part 1 of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. Hearings required in the conservatorship proceedings shall be held in the superior court in the county that ordered the commitment. The court shall transmit a copy of the order directing initiation of conservatorship proceedings to the community program director or a designee, the sheriff and the district attorney of the county in which criminal charges are pending, and the defendants counsel of record. The court shall notify the community program director or a designee, the sheriff and district attorney of the county in which criminal charges are pending, and the defendants counsel of record of the outcome of the conservatorship proceedings.(3) If a change in placement is proposed for a defendant who is committed pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (h) of Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the court shall provide notice and an opportunity to be heard with respect to the proposed placement of the defendant to the sheriff and the district attorney of the county in which the criminal charges or revocation proceedings are pending.(4) If the defendant is confined in a treatment facility, a copy of any report to the committing court regarding the defendants progress toward recovery of mental competence shall be provided by the committing court to the prosecutor and to the defense counsel.(d) With the exception of proceedings alleging a violation of mandatory supervision, the criminal action remains subject to dismissal pursuant to Section 1385. If the criminal action is dismissed, the court shall transmit a copy of the order of dismissal to the community program director or a designee. In a proceeding alleging a violation of mandatory supervision, if the person is not placed under a conservatorship as described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (c), or if a conservatorship is terminated, the court shall reinstate mandatory supervision and may modify the terms and conditions of supervision to include appropriate mental health treatment or refer the matter to a local mental health court, reentry court, or other collaborative justice court available for improving the mental health of the defendant.(e) If the criminal action against the defendant is dismissed, the defendant shall be released from commitment ordered under this section, but without prejudice to the initiation of any proceedings that may be appropriate under the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act (Part 1 (commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code).(f) As used in this chapter, community program director means the person, agency, or entity designated by the State Department of State Hospitals pursuant to Section 1605 of this code and Section 4360 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(g) For the purpose of this section, secure treatment facility shall not include, except for State Department of State Hospitals facilities, state developmental centers, and correctional treatment facilities, any facility licensed pursuant to Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 1250) of, Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 1500) of, or Chapter 3.2 (commencing with Section 1569) of, Division 2 of the Health and Safety Code, or any community board and care facility.(h) Nothing in this section shall preclude a defendant from filing a petition for habeas corpus to challenge the continuing validity of an order authorizing a treatment facility or outpatient program to involuntarily administer antipsychotic medication to a person being treated as incompetent to stand trial.SEC. 31. Section 1370.6 of the Penal Code is amended to read:1370.6. (a) If a mentally incompetent defendant is admitted to a county jail treatment facility pursuant to Section 1370, the department shall provide restoration of competency treatment at the county jail treatment facility and shall provide payment to the county jail treatment facility for the reasonable costs of the bed during the restoration of competency treatment as well as for the reasonable costs of any necessary medical treatment not provided within the county jail treatment facility, unless otherwise agreed to by the department and the facility.(1) If the county jail treatment facility is able to provide restoration of competency services, upon approval by the department and subject to funding appropriated in the annual Budget Act, the county jail treatment facility may provide those services and the State Department of State Hospitals may provide payment to the county jail treatment facility for the reasonable costs of the bed during the restoration of competency treatment as well as the reasonable costs of providing restoration of competency services and for any necessary medical treatment not provided within the county jail treatment facility, unless otherwise agreed to by the department and the facility.(2) Transportation to a county jail treatment facility for admission and from the facility upon the filing of a certificate of restoration of competency, or for transfer of a person to another county jail treatment facility or to a state hospital, shall be provided by the committing county unless otherwise agreed to by the department and the facility.(3) In the event the State Department of State Hospitals and a county jail treatment facility are determined to be comparatively at fault for any claim, action, loss, or damage which results from their respective obligations under such a contract, each shall indemnify the other to the extent of its comparative fault.(4) The six-month limitation in Section 1369.1 shall not apply to individuals deemed incompetent to stand trial who are being treated to restore competency within a county jail treatment facility pursuant to this section.(b) If the community-based residential system is selected by the court pursuant to Section 1370, the State Department of State Hospitals shall provide reimbursement to the community-based residential treatment system for the cost of restoration of competency treatment as negotiated with the State Department of State Hospitals.(c) The State Department of State Hospitals may provide payment to either a county jail treatment facility or a community-based residential treatment system directly through invoice, or through a contract, at the discretion of the department in accordance with the terms and conditions of the contract or agreement.SEC. 32. Section 1372 of the Penal Code is amended to read:1372. (a) (1) If the medical director of a state hospital or other facility to which the defendant is committed, or the community program director, county mental health director, or regional center director providing outpatient services, determines that the defendant has regained mental competence, the director shall immediately certify that fact to the court by filing a certificate of restoration with the court by certified mail, return receipt requested. For purposes of this section, the date of filing shall be the date on the return receipt.(2) The courts order committing an individual to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility pursuant to Section 1370 shall include direction that the sheriff shall redeliver the patient to the court without any further order from the court upon receiving from the state hospital or treatment facility a copy of the certificate of restoration.(3) The defendant shall be returned to the committing court in the following manner:(A) A patient who remains confined in a state hospital or other treatment facility shall be redelivered to the sheriff of the county from which the patient was committed. The sheriff shall immediately return the person from the state hospital or other treatment facility to the court for further proceedings.(B) The patient who is on outpatient status shall be returned by the sheriff to court through arrangements made by the outpatient treatment supervisor.(C) In all cases, the patient shall be returned to the committing court no later than 10 days following the filing of a certificate of restoration. The state shall only pay for 10 hospital days for patients following the filing of a certificate of restoration of competency. The State Department of State Hospitals shall report to the fiscal and appropriate policy committees of the Legislature on an annual basis in February, on the number of days that exceed the 10-day limit prescribed in this subparagraph. This report shall include, but not be limited to, a data sheet that itemizes by county the number of days that exceed this 10-day limit during the preceding year.(b) If the defendant becomes mentally competent after a conservatorship has been established pursuant to the applicable provisions of the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act, Part 1 (commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, and Section 1370, the conservator shall certify that fact to the sheriff and district attorney of the county in which the defendants case is pending, defendants attorney of record, and the committing court.(c) When a defendant is returned to court with a certification that competence has been regained, the court shall notify either the community program director, the county mental health director, or the regional center director and the Director of Developmental Services, as appropriate, of the date of any hearing on the defendants competence and whether or not the defendant was found by the court to have recovered competence.(d) If the committing court approves the certificate of restoration to competence as to a person in custody, the court shall hold a hearing to determine whether the person is entitled to be admitted to bail or released on own recognizance status pending conclusion of the proceedings. If the superior court approves the certificate of restoration to competence regarding a person on outpatient status, unless it appears that the person has refused to come to court, that person shall remain released either on own recognizance status, or, in the case of a developmentally disabled person, either on the defendants promise or on the promise of a responsible adult to secure the persons appearance in court for further proceedings. If the person has refused to come to court, the court shall set bail and may place the person in custody until bail is posted.(e) A defendant subject to either subdivision (a) or (b) who is not admitted to bail or released under subdivision (d) may, at the discretion of the court, upon recommendation of the director of the facility where the defendant is receiving treatment, be returned to the hospital or facility of his or her original commitment or other appropriate secure facility approved by the community program director, the county mental health director, or the regional center director. The recommendation submitted to the court shall be based on the opinion that the person will need continued treatment in a hospital or treatment facility in order to maintain competence to stand trial or that placing the person in a jail environment would create a substantial risk that the person would again become incompetent to stand trial before criminal proceedings could be resumed.(f) Notwithstanding subdivision (e), if a defendant is returned by the court to a hospital or other facility for the purpose of maintaining competency to stand trial and that defendant is already under civil commitment to that hospital or facility from another county pursuant to the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act (Part 1 (commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code) or as a developmentally disabled person committed pursuant to Article 2 (commencing with Section 6500) of Chapter 2 of Part 2 of Division 6 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the costs of housing and treating the defendant in that facility following return pursuant to subdivision (e) shall be the responsibility of the original county of civil commitment.SEC. 33. Section 1463.007 of the Penal Code is amended to read:1463.007. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, a county or court that operates a comprehensive collection program may deduct the costs of operating that program, excluding capital expenditures, from any revenues collected under that program. The costs shall be deducted before any distribution of revenues to other governmental entities required by any other law. A county or court operating a comprehensive collection program may establish a minimum base fee, fine, forfeiture, penalty, or assessment amount for inclusion in the program.(b) Once debt becomes delinquent, it continues to be delinquent and may be subject to collection by a comprehensive collection program. Debt is delinquent and subject to collection by a comprehensive collection program if any of the following conditions is met:(1) A defendant does not post bail or appear on or before the date on which he or she promised to appear, or any lawful continuance of that date, if that defendant was eligible to post and forfeit bail.(2) A defendant does not pay the amount imposed by the court on or before the date ordered by the court, or any lawful continuance of that date.(3) A defendant has failed to make an installment payment on the date specified by the court.(c) For the purposes of this section, a comprehensive collection program is a separate and distinct revenue collection activity that meets each of the following criteria:(1) The program identifies and collects amounts arising from delinquent court-ordered debt, whether or not a warrant has been issued against the alleged violator.(2) The program complies with the requirements of subdivision (b) of Section 1463.010.(3) The program engages in each of the following activities:(A) Attempts telephone contact with delinquent debtors for whom the program has a telephone number to inform them of their delinquent status and payment options.(B) Notifies delinquent debtors for whom the program has an address in writing of their outstanding obligation within 95 days of delinquency.(C) Generates internal monthly reports to track collections data, such as age of debt and delinquent amounts outstanding.(D) Uses Department of Motor Vehicles information to locate delinquent debtors.(E) Accepts payment of delinquent debt by credit card.(4) The program engages in at least five of the following activities:(A) Sends delinquent debt to the Franchise Tax Boards Court-Ordered Debt Collections Program.(B) Sends delinquent debt to the Franchise Tax Boards Interagency Intercept Collections Program.(C) Initiates drivers license suspension or hold actions when appropriate for a failure to appear in court.(D) Contracts with one or more private debt collectors to collect delinquent debt.(E) Sends monthly bills or account statements to all delinquent debtors.(F) Contracts with local, regional, state, or national skip tracing or locator resources or services to locate delinquent debtors.(G) Coordinates with the probation department to locate debtors who may be on formal or informal probation.(H) Uses Employment Development Department employment and wage information to collect delinquent debt.(I) Establishes wage and bank account garnishments where appropriate.(J) Places liens on real property owned by delinquent debtors when appropriate.(K) Uses an automated dialer or automatic call distribution system to manage telephone calls.SEC. 34. Section 1464 of the Penal Code is amended to read:1464. (a) (1) Subject to Chapter 12 (commencing with Section 76000) of Title 8 of the Government Code, and except as otherwise provided in this section, there shall be levied a state penalty in the amount of ten dollars ($10) for every ten dollars ($10), or part of ten dollars ($10), upon every fine, penalty, or forfeiture imposed and collected by the courts for all criminal offenses, including all offenses, except parking offenses as defined in subdivision (i) of Section 1463, involving a violation of a section of the Vehicle Code or any local ordinance adopted pursuant to the Vehicle Code.(2) Any bail schedule adopted pursuant to Section 1269b or bail schedule adopted by the Judicial Council pursuant to Section 40310 of the Vehicle Code may include the necessary amount to pay the penalties established by this section and Chapter 12 (commencing with Section 76000) of Title 8 of the Government Code, and the surcharge authorized by Section 1465.7, for all matters where a personal appearance is not mandatory and the bail is posted primarily to guarantee payment of the fine.(3) The penalty imposed by this section does not apply to the following:(A) Any restitution fine.(B) Any penalty authorized by Chapter 12 (commencing with Section 76000) of Title 8 of the Government Code.(C) Any parking offense subject to Article 3 (commencing with Section 40200) of Chapter 1 of Division 17 of the Vehicle Code.(D) The state surcharge authorized by Section 1465.7.(b) Where multiple offenses are involved, the state penalty shall be based upon the total fine or bail for each case. When a fine is suspended, in whole or in part, the state penalty shall be reduced in proportion to the suspension.(c) When any deposited bail is made for an offense to which this section applies, and for which a court appearance is not mandatory, the person making the deposit shall also deposit a sufficient amount to include the state penalty prescribed by this section for forfeited bail. If bail is returned, the state penalty paid thereon pursuant to this section shall also be returned.(d) In any case where a person convicted of any offense, to which this section applies, is in prison until the fine is satisfied, the judge may waive all or any part of the state penalty, the payment of which would work a hardship on the person convicted or his or her immediate family.(e) After a determination by the court of the amount due, the clerk of the court shall collect the penalty and transmit it to the county treasury. The portion thereof attributable to Chapter 12 (commencing with Section 76000) of Title 8 of the Government Code shall be deposited in the appropriate county fund and 70 percent of the balance shall then be transmitted to the State Treasury, to be deposited in the State Penalty Fund, which is hereby created, and 30 percent to remain on deposit in the county general fund. The transmission to the State Treasury shall be carried out in the same manner as fines collected for the state by a county.(f) Notwithstanding any other law, the Director of Finance shall provide a schedule to the Controller for all transfers of funds made available by the Budget Act from the State Penalty Fund in the current fiscal year.(g) Upon the order of the Department of Finance, sufficient funds may be transferred by the Controller from the General Fund for cashflow needs of the State Penalty Fund. A cashflow loan made pursuant to this provision shall be short term and does not constitute a General Fund expenditure. A cashflow loan and the repayment of a cashflow loan does not affect the General Fund reserve.SEC. 35. Section 1464.2 of the Penal Code is repealed.SEC. 36. Section 1557 of the Penal Code is amended to read:1557. (a) This section shall apply when this state or a city, county, or city and county employs a person to travel to a foreign jurisdiction outside this state for the express purpose of returning a fugitive from justice to this state when the Governor of this state, in the exercise of the authority conferred by Section 2 of Article IV of the United States Constitution, or by the laws of this state, has demanded the surrender of the fugitive from the executive authority of any state of the United States, or of any foreign government.(b) Upon the approval of the Governor, the Controller shall audit and pay out of the State Treasury as provided in subdivision (c) or (d) the accounts of the person employed to bring back the fugitive, including any money paid by that person for all of the following:(1) Money paid to the authorities of a sister state for statutory fees in connection with the detention and surrender of the fugitive.(2) Money paid to the authorities of the sister state for the subsistence of the fugitive while detained by the sister state without payment of which the authorities of the sister state refuse to surrender the fugitive.(3) Where it is necessary to present witnesses or evidence in the sister state, without which the sister state would not surrender the fugitive, the cost of producing the witnesses or evidence in the sister state.(4) Where the appearance of witnesses has been authorized in advance by the Governor, who may authorize the appearance in unusual cases where the interests of justice would be served, the cost of producing witnesses to appear in the sister state on behalf of the fugitive in opposition to his or her extradition.(c) No amount shall be paid out of the State Treasury to a city, county, or city and county except as follows:(1) When a warrant has been issued by any magistrate after the filing of a complaint or the finding of an indictment and its presentation to the court and filing by the clerk, and the person named therein as defendant is a fugitive from justice who has been found and arrested in any state of the United States or in any foreign government, the county auditor shall draw his or her warrant and the county treasurer shall pay to the person designated to return the fugitive, the amount of expenses estimated by the district attorney to be incurred in the return of the fugitive.(2) If the person designated to return the fugitive is a city officer, the city officer authorized to draw warrants on the city treasury shall draw his or her warrant and the city treasurer shall pay to that person the amount of expenses estimated by the district attorney to be incurred in the return of the fugitive.(3) The person designated to return the fugitive shall make no disbursements from any funds advanced without a receipt being obtained therefor showing the amount, the purpose for which the sum is expended, the place, the date, and to whom paid.(4) A receipt obtained pursuant to paragraph (3) shall be filed by the person designated to return the fugitive with the county auditor or appropriate city officer or the Controller, as the case may be, together with an affidavit by the person that the expenditures represented by the receipts were necessarily made in the performance of duty, and when the advance has been made by the county or city treasurer to the person designated to return the fugitive, and has thereafter been audited by the Controller, the payment thereof shall be made by the State Treasurer to the county or city treasury that has advanced the funds.(5) If the expenses of the person employed to bring back the fugitive are less than the amount advanced on the recommendation of the district attorney, the person employed to bring back the fugitive shall return to the county or city treasurer, as appropriate, the difference in amount between the aggregate amount of receipts so filed by him or her, and the amount advanced to the person upon the recommendation of the district attorney.(6) When no advance has been made to the person designated to return the fugitive, the sums expended by him or her, when audited by the Controller, shall be paid by the State Treasurer to the person so designated.(7) Any payments made out of the State Treasury pursuant to this section shall be made from appropriations for the fiscal year in which those payments are made.(d) A city, county, or other jurisdiction shall not file, and the state shall not reimburse, a claim pursuant to this section that is presented to the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation or to any other agency or department of the state more than six months after the close of the month in which the costs were incurred. Notwithstanding any other law, a person transporting a fugitive as authorized by the Governor pursuant to this section shall be reimbursed according to the rates in paragraphs (1) to (5), inclusive. Rates and rules for reimbursement of travel claims not specified in paragraphs (1) to (5), inclusive, shall be consistent with the rules of the Department of General Services.(1) Reimbursement for breakfast is up to four dollars ($4).(2) Reimbursement for lunch is up to seven dollars and twenty-five cents ($7.25).(3) Reimbursement for dinner is up to twelve dollars ($12).(4) Reimbursement for incidental expenses is up to three dollars and seventy-five cents ($3.75).(5) Reimbursement for a meal for a prisoner, patient, ward, or fugitive is up to the amounts specified in paragraphs (1) to (3), inclusive.SEC. 37. Section 2801 of the Penal Code is amended to read:2801. The purposes of the authority are:(a) To develop and operate industrial, agricultural, and service enterprises employing prisoners in institutions under the jurisdiction of the Department of Corrections, which enterprises may be located either within those institutions or elsewhere, all as may be determined by the authority.(b) To create and maintain working conditions within the enterprises as much like those which prevail in private industry as possible, to assure prisoners employed therein the opportunity to work productively, to earn funds, and to acquire or improve effective work habits and occupational skills.(c) To operate a work program for prisoners which will ultimately be self-supporting by generating sufficient funds from the sale of products and services to pay all the expenses of the program, and one which will provide goods and services which are or will be used by the Department of Corrections, thereby reducing the cost of its operation.(1) This subdivision does not require immediate cash availability for funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above amounts established in the Budget Act, or as determined by the Board of Administration of the Public Employees Retirement System, or the Director of Finance for the fiscal year.(2) The Prison Industry Authority shall not establish cash reserves to support funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above the amounts specified in paragraph (1).SEC. 38. Section 2808 of the Penal Code is amended to read:2808. The board, in the exercise of its duties, shall have all of the powers and do all of the things that the board of directors of a private corporation would do, except as specifically limited in this article, including, but not limited to, all of the following:(a) To enter into contracts and leases, execute leases, pledge the equipment, inventory and supplies under the control of the authority and the anticipated future receipts of any enterprise under the jurisdiction of the authority as collateral for loans, and execute other necessary instruments and documents.(b) To assure that all funds received by the authority are kept in commercial accounts according to standard accounting practices.(c) To arrange for an independent annual audit.(d) To review and approve the annual budget for the authority, in order to assure that the solvency of the Prison Industries Revolving Fund is maintained.(1) This subdivision does not require immediate cash availability for funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above amounts established in the Budget Act, or as determined by the Board of Administration of the Public Employees Retirement System, or the Director of Finance for the fiscal year.(2) The Prison Industry Authority shall not establish cash reserves to support funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above the amounts specified in paragraph (1).(e) To contract to employ a general manager to serve as the chief administrative officer of the authority. The general manager shall serve at the pleasure of the chairperson. The general manager shall have wide and successful experience with a productive enterprise, and have a demonstrated appreciation of the problems associated with prison management.(f) To apply for and administer grants and contracts of all kinds.(g) To establish, notwithstanding any other provision of law, procedures governing the purchase of raw materials, component parts, and any other goods and services which may be needed by the authority or in the operation of any enterprise under its jurisdiction. Those procedures shall contain provisions for appeal to the board from any action taken in connection with them.(h) To establish, expand, diminish, or discontinue industrial, agricultural and service enterprises under the authoritys jurisdiction to enable it to operate as a self-supporting enterprise, to provide as much employment for inmates as is feasible, and to provide diversified work activities to minimize the impact on existing private industry in the state.(i) To hold public hearings pursuant to subdivision (h) to provide an opportunity for persons or organizations who may be affected to appear and present testimony concerning the plans and activities of the authority. The authority shall assure adequate public notice of those hearings. No new industrial, agricultural, or service enterprise which involves a gross annual production of more than fifty thousand dollars ($50,000) shall be established unless and until a hearing concerning the enterprise has been held by a committee of persons designated by the board including at least two board members. The board shall take into consideration the effect of a proposed enterprise on California industry and shall not approve the establishment of the enterprise if the board determines it would have a comprehensive and substantial adverse impact on California industry which cannot be mitigated.(j) To periodically determine the prices at which activities, supplies, and services shall be sold.(k) To report to the Legislature in writing, on or before February 1 of each year, regarding:(1) The financial activity and condition of each enterprise under its jurisdiction.(2) The plans of the board regarding any significant changes in existing operations.(3) The plans of the board regarding the development of new enterprises.(4) A breakdown, by institution, of the number of prisoners at each institution, working in enterprises under the jurisdiction of the authority, said number to indicate the number of prisoners which are not working full time.SEC. 39. Section 3453 of the Penal Code is amended to read:3453. Postrelease community supervision shall include the following conditions:(a) The person shall be informed of the conditions of release.(b) The person shall obey all laws.(c) The person shall report to the supervising county agency within two working days of release from custody.(d) The person shall follow the directives and instructions of the supervising county agency.(e) The person shall report to the supervising county agency as directed by that agency.(f) The person, and his or her residence and possessions, shall be subject to search at any time of the day or night, with or without a warrant, by an agent of the supervising county agency or by a peace officer.(g) The person shall waive extradition if found outside the state.(h) (1) The person shall inform the supervising county agency of the persons place of residence and shall notify the supervising county agency of any change in residence, or the establishment of a new residence if the person was previously transient, within five working days of the change.(2) For purposes of this section, residence means one or more locations at which a person regularly resides, regardless of the number of days or nights spent there, such as a shelter or structure that can be located by a street address, including, but not limited to, a house, apartment building, motel, hotel, homeless shelter, and recreational or other vehicle. If the person has no residence, he or she shall inform the supervising county agency that he or she is transient.(i) (1) The person shall inform the supervising county agency of the persons place of employment, education, or training. The person shall inform the supervising agency of any pending or anticipated change in employment, education, or training.(2) If the person enters into new employment, he or she shall inform the supervising county agency of the new employment within three business days of that entry.(j) The person shall immediately inform the supervising county agency if he or she is arrested or receives a citation.(k) The person shall obtain the permission of the supervising county agency to travel more than 50 miles from the persons place of residence.(l) The person shall obtain a travel pass from the supervising county agency before he or she may leave the county or state for more than two days.(m) The person shall not be in the presence of a firearm or ammunition, or any item that appears to be a firearm or ammunition.(n) The person shall not possess, use, or have access to any weapon listed in Section 16140, subdivision (c) of Section 16170, Section 16220, 16260, 16320, 16330, or 16340, subdivision (b) of Section 16460, Section 16470, subdivision (f) of Section 16520, or Section 16570, 16740, 16760, 16830, 16920, 16930, 16940, 17090, 17125, 17160, 17170, 17180, 17190, 17200, 17270, 17280, 17330, 17350, 17360, 17700, 17705, 17710, 17715, 17720, 17725, 17730, 17735, 17740, 17745, 19100, 19200, 19205, 20200, 20310, 20410, 20510, 20610, 20611, 20710, 20910, 21110, 21310, 21810, 22010, 22015, 22210, 22215, 22410, 24310, 24410, 24510, 24610, 24680, 24710, 30210, 30215, 31500, 32310, 32400, 32405, 32410, 32415, 32420, 32425, 32430 32435, 32440, 32445, 32450, 32900, 33215, 33220, 33225, or 33600.(o) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2) and subdivision (p), the person shall not possess a knife with a blade longer than two inches.(2) The person may possess a kitchen knife with a blade longer than two inches if the knife is used and kept only in the kitchen of the persons residence.(p) The person may use a knife with a blade longer than two inches, if the use is required for that persons employment, the use has been approved in a document issued by the supervising county agency, and the person possesses the document of approval at all times and makes it available for inspection.(q) The person shall waive any right to a court hearing prior to the imposition of a period of flash incarceration in a city or county jail of not more than 10 consecutive days for any violation of his or her postrelease supervision conditions.(r) The person shall participate in rehabilitation programming as recommended by the supervising county agency.(s) The person shall be subject to arrest with or without a warrant by a peace officer employed by the supervising county agency or, at the direction of the supervising county agency, by any peace officer when there is probable cause to believe the person has violated the terms and conditions of his or her release.(t) The person shall pay court-ordered restitution and restitution fines in the same manner as a person placed on probation.SEC. 40. Section 4032 is added to the Penal Code, to read:4032. (a) For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:(1) In-person visit means an on-site visit that may include barriers. In-person visits include interactions in which an inmate has physical contact with a visitor, the inmate is able to see a visitor through a barrier, or the inmate is otherwise in a room with a visitor without physical contact. In-person visit does not include an interaction between an inmate and a visitor through the use of an on-site, two-way, audio-video terminal.(2) Video visitation means interaction between an inmate and a member of the public through the means of an audio-visual communication device when the member of the public is located at a local detention facility or at a remote location.(3) Local detention facility has the same meaning as defined in Section 6031.4.(b) A local detention facility that offered in-person visitation as of January 1, 2017, may not convert to video visitation only.(c) A local detention facility shall not charge for visitation when visitors are onsite and participating in either in-person or video visitation. For purposes of this subdivision, onsite is defined as at the location where the inmate is housed.(d) If a local detention facility offered video visitation only as of January 1, 2017, on-site video visitation shall be offered free of charge, and the first hour of remote video visitation per week shall be offered free of charge.SEC. 41. Section 5075 of the Penal Code is amended to read:5075. (a) Commencing July 1, 2005, there is hereby created the Board of Parole Hearings. As of July 1, 2005, any reference to the Board of Prison Terms in this or any other code refers to the Board of Parole Hearings. As of that date, the Board of Prison Terms is abolished.(b) (1) The Governor shall appoint 15 commissioners, subject to Senate confirmation, pursuant to this section. These commissioners shall be appointed and trained to hear only adult matters. Except as specified in paragraph (2), commissioners shall hold office for terms of three years, each term to commence on the expiration date of the predecessor. Any appointment to a vacancy that occurs for any reason other than expiration of the term shall be for the remainder of the unexpired term. Commissioners are eligible for reappointment.(2) (A) The term for the commissioner whose position was created by the act that added this paragraph shall begin on July 1, 2017.(B) Two commissioners whose terms begin on July 1, 2017, shall be appointed for a term of one year. One of these commissioners may, but is not required to, be the commissioner whose position was created by the act that added this paragraph.(C) Three commissioners, as selected by the Governor, whose terms began on July 1, 2016, shall serve a reduced term of two years.(D) Terms of office subsequent to those described in subparagraphs (B) and (C) shall be governed by paragraph (1).(3) The selection of persons and their appointment by the Governor and confirmation by the Senate shall reflect as nearly as possible a cross section of the racial, sexual, economic, and geographic features of the population of the state.(c) The chair of the board shall be designated by the Governor periodically. The Governor may appoint an executive officer of the board, subject to Senate confirmation, who shall hold office at the pleasure of the Governor. The executive officer shall be the administrative head of the board and shall exercise all duties and functions necessary to insure that the responsibilities of the board are successfully discharged. The secretary shall be the appointing authority for all civil service positions of employment with the board.(d) Each commissioner shall participate in hearings on each workday, except when it is necessary for a commissioner to attend training, en banc hearings or full board meetings, or other administrative business requiring the participation of the commissioner. For purposes of this subdivision, these hearings shall include parole consideration hearings, parole rescission hearings, and parole progress hearings.SEC. 42. Section 6031 of the Penal Code is amended to read:6031. The Board of State and Community Corrections shall, at a minimum, inspect each local detention facility in the state biennially.SEC. 43. Section 6031.1 of the Penal Code is amended to read:6031.1. (a) Inspections of local detention facilities shall, at a minimum, be made biennially. Inspections of privately operated work furlough facilities and programs shall be made biennially unless the work furlough administrator requests an earlier inspection. Inspections shall include, but not be limited to, the following:(1) Health and safety inspections conducted pursuant to Section 101045 of the Health and Safety Code.(2) Fire suppression preplanning inspections by the local fire department.(3) Security, rehabilitation programs, recreation, treatment of persons confined in the facilities, and personnel training by the staff of the Board of State and Community Corrections.(4) The types and availability of visitation, including, but not limited to, the mode of visitation, visitation hours, time inmates are allowed for visitation, and any restrictions on inmate visitation.(5) Whether the county in which the facility is located received state funding for jail construction pursuant to Chapter 7 of the Statutes of 2007, Chapter 42 of the Statutes of 2012, Chapter 37 of the Statutes of 2014, or Chapter 34 of the Statutes of 2016. For counties that received funding, whether the county and facility are in compliance with the applicable requirements and restrictions of that funding.(b) Reports of each facilitys inspection shall be furnished to the official in charge of the local detention facility or, in the case of a privately operated facility, the work furlough administrator, the local governing body, the grand jury, and the presiding judge of the superior court in the county where the facility is located. These reports shall set forth the areas wherein the facility has complied and has failed to comply with the minimum standards established pursuant to Section 6030.(c) All reports completed pursuant to this section shall be posted on the Board of State and Community Corrections Internet Web site in a manner in which they are accessible to the public.SEC. 44. Section 29800 of the Penal Code is amended to read:29800. (a) (1) Any person who has been convicted of, or has an outstanding warrant for, a felony under the laws of the United States, the State of California, or any other state, government, or country, or of an offense enumerated in subdivision (a), (b), or (d) of Section 23515, or who is addicted to the use of any narcotic drug, and who owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control any firearm is guilty of a felony.(2) Any person who has two or more convictions for violating paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 417 and who owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control any firearm is guilty of a felony.(b) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), any person who has been convicted of a felony or of an offense enumerated in Section 23515, when that conviction results from certification by the juvenile court for prosecution as an adult in an adult court under Section 707 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, and who owns or has in possession or under custody or control any firearm is guilty of a felony.(c) Subdivision (a) shall not apply to a person who has been convicted of a felony under the laws of the United States unless either of the following criteria is satisfied:(1) Conviction of a like offense under California law can only result in imposition of felony punishment.(2) The defendant was sentenced to a federal correctional facility for more than 30 days, or received a fine of more than one thousand dollars ($1,000), or received both punishments.SEC. 45. Section 29805 of the Penal Code, as amended November 8, 2016, by initiative Proposition 63, Section 11.2, is amended to read:29805. Except as provided in Section 29855 or subdivision (a) of Section 29800, any person who has been convicted of, or has an outstanding warrant for, a misdemeanor violation of Section 71, 76, 136.1, 136.5, or 140, subdivision (d) of Section 148, Section 171b, paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 171c, 171d, 186.28, 240, 241, 242, 243, 243.4, 244.5, 245, 245.5, 246.3, 247, 273.5, 273.6, 417, 417.6, 422, 626.9, 646.9, or 830.95, subdivision (a) of former Section 12100, as that section read at any time from when it was enacted by Section 3 of Chapter 1386 of the Statutes of 1988 to when it was repealed by Section 18 of Chapter 23 of the Statutes of 1994, Section 17500, 17510, 25300, 25800, 30315, or 32625, subdivision (b) or (d) of Section 26100, or Section 27510, or Section 8100, 8101, or 8103 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, any firearm-related offense pursuant to Sections 871.5 and 1001.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, Section 490.2 if the property taken was a firearm, or of the conduct punished in subdivision (c) of Section 27590, and who, within 10 years of the conviction, or if the individual has an outstanding warrant, owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control, any firearm is guilty of a public offense, which shall be punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year or in the state prison, by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that imprisonment and fine. The court, on forms prescribed by the Department of Justice, shall notify the department of persons subject to this section. However, the prohibition in this section may be reduced, eliminated, or conditioned as provided in Section 29855 or 29860.SEC. 46. Section 29805 of the Penal Code, as amended by Section 2 of Chapter 47 of the Statutes of 2016, is amended to read:29805. (a) Except as provided in Section 29855 or subdivision (a) of Section 29800, any person who has been convicted of, or has an outstanding warrant for, a misdemeanor violation of Section 71, 76, 136.1, 136.5, or 140, subdivision (d) of Section 148, subdivision (f) of Section 148.5, Section 171b, paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 171c, Section 171d, 186.28, 240, 241, 242, 243, 243.4, 244.5, 245, 245.5, 246.3, 247, 273.5, 273.6, 417, 417.6, 422, 626.9, 646.9, or 830.95, subdivision (a) of former Section 12100, as that section read at any time from when it was enacted by Section 3 of Chapter 1386 of the Statutes of 1988 to when it was repealed by Section 18 of Chapter 23 of the Statutes of 1994, Section 17500, 17510, 25300, 25800, 30315, or 32625, subdivision (b) or (d) of Section 26100, or Section 27510, or Section 8100, 8101, or 8103 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, any firearm-related offense pursuant to Sections 871.5 and 1001.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or of the conduct punished in subdivision (c) of Section 27590, and who, within 10 years of the conviction, or if the individual has an outstanding warrant, owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control, any firearm is guilty of a public offense, which shall be punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year or in the state prison, by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that imprisonment and fine.(b) The court, on forms prescribed by the Department of Justice, shall notify the department of persons subject to this section. However, the prohibition in this section may be reduced, eliminated, or conditioned as provided in Section 29855 or 29860.SEC. 47. Section 30680 of the Penal Code, as added by Section 2 of Chapter 40 of the Statutes of 2016, is amended to read:30680. Section 30605 does not apply to the possession of an assault weapon by a person who has possessed the assault weapon prior to January 1, 2017, if all of the following are applicable:(a) Prior to January 1, 2017, the person would have been eligible to register that assault weapon pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 30900.(b) The person lawfully possessed that assault weapon prior to January 1, 2017.(c) The person registers the assault weapon by July 1, 2018, in accordance with subdivision (b) of Section 30900.SEC. 48. Section 30680 of the Penal Code, as added by Section 2 of Chapter 48 of the Statutes of 2016, is amended to read:30680. Section 30605 does not apply to the possession of an assault weapon by a person who has possessed the assault weapon prior to January 1, 2017, if all of the following are applicable:(a) Prior to January 1, 2017, the person was eligible to register that assault weapon pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 30900.(b) The person lawfully possessed that assault weapon prior to January 1, 2017.(c) The person registers the assault weapon by July 1, 2018, in accordance with subdivision (b) of Section 30900.SEC. 49. Section 30900 of the Penal Code is amended to read:30900. (a) (1) Any person who, prior to June 1, 1989, lawfully possessed an assault weapon, as defined in former Section 12276, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 19 of the Statutes of 1989, shall register the firearm by January 1, 1991, and any person who lawfully possessed an assault weapon prior to the date it was specified as an assault weapon pursuant to former Section 12276.5, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 19 of the Statutes of 1989 or as amended by Section 1 of Chapter 874 of the Statutes of 1990 or Section 3 of Chapter 954 of the Statutes of 1991, shall register the firearm within 90 days with the Department of Justice pursuant to those procedures that the department may establish.(2) Except as provided in Section 30600, any person who lawfully possessed an assault weapon prior to the date it was defined as an assault weapon pursuant to former Section 12276.1, as it read in Section 7 of Chapter 129 of the Statutes of 1999, and which was not specified as an assault weapon under former Section 12276, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 19 of the Statutes of 1989 or as amended at any time before January 1, 2001, or former Section 12276.5, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 19 of the Statutes of 1989 or as amended at any time before January 1, 2001, shall register the firearm by January 1, 2001, with the department pursuant to those procedures that the department may establish.(3) The registration shall contain a description of the firearm that identifies it uniquely, including all identification marks, the full name, address, date of birth, and thumbprint of the owner, and any other information that the department may deem appropriate.(4) The department may charge a fee for registration of up to twenty dollars ($20) per person but not to exceed the reasonable processing costs of the department. After the department establishes fees sufficient to reimburse the department for processing costs, fees charged shall increase at a rate not to exceed the legislatively approved annual cost-of-living adjustment for the departments budget or as otherwise increased through the Budget Act but not to exceed the reasonable costs of the department. The fees shall be deposited into the Dealers Record of Sale Special Account.(b) (1) Any person who, from January 1, 2001, to December 31, 2016, inclusive, lawfully possessed an assault weapon that does not have a fixed magazine, as defined in Section 30515, including those weapons with an ammunition feeding device that can be readily removed from the firearm with the use of a tool, shall register the firearm before July 1, 2018, but not before the effective date of the regulations adopted pursuant to paragraph (5), with the department pursuant to those procedures that the department may establish by regulation pursuant to paragraph (5).(2) Registrations shall be submitted electronically via the Internet utilizing a public-facing application made available by the department.(3) The registration shall contain a description of the firearm that identifies it uniquely, including all identification marks, the date the firearm was acquired, the name and address of the individual from whom, or business from which, the firearm was acquired, as well as the registrants full name, address, telephone number, date of birth, sex, height, weight, eye color, hair color, and California drivers license number or California identification card number.(4) The department may charge a fee in an amount of up to fifteen dollars ($15) per person but not to exceed the reasonable processing costs of the department. The fee shall be paid by debit or credit card at the time that the electronic registration is submitted to the department. The fee shall be deposited in the Dealers Record of Sale Special Account to be used for purposes of this section.(5) The department shall adopt regulations for the purpose of implementing this subdivision. These regulations are exempt from the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code).SEC. 50. Section 10340.1 is added to the Public Contract Code, to read:10340.1. (a) Notwithstanding existing law, the State Department of State Hospitals may enter into an agreement for the purposes of continued operation of the existing central utility plant at the Metropolitan State Hospital without having to go through a competitive bid process.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until June 30, 2018, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 51. Section 13365 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:13365. (a) Upon receipt of notification of a violation of subdivision (a) of Section 40508, the department shall take the following action:(1) If the notice is given pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 40509, if the driving record of the person who is the subject of the notice contains one or more prior notifications of a violation issued pursuant to Section 40509 or 40509.5, and if the persons driving privilege is not currently suspended under this section, the department shall suspend the driving privilege of the person.(2) If the notice is given pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 40509.5, and if the driving privilege of the person who is the subject of the notice is not currently suspended under this section, the department shall suspend the driving privilege of the person.(b) (1) A suspension under this section shall not be effective before a date 60 days after the date of receipt, by the department, of the notice given specified in subdivision (a), and the notice of suspension shall not be mailed by the department before a date 30 days after receipt of the notice given specified in subdivision (a).(2) The suspension shall continue until the suspended persons driving record does not contain any notification of a violation of subdivision (a) of Section 40508.SEC. 52. Section 13365.2 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:13365.2. (a) Upon receipt of the notice required under subdivision (b) of Section 40509.5, the department shall suspend the driving privilege of the person upon whom notice was received and shall continue that suspension until receipt of the certificate required under that subdivision.(b) The suspension required under subdivision (a) shall become effective on the 45th day after the mailing of written notice by the department.SEC. 53. Section 40509 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:40509. (a) Except as required under subdivision (b) of Section 40509.5, if a person has violated a written promise to appear or a lawfully granted continuance of his or her promise to appear in court or before the person authorized to receive a deposit of bail, or violated an order to appear in court, including, but not limited to, a written notice to appear issued in accordance with Section 40518, the magistrate or clerk of the court may give notice of the failure to appear to the department for any violation of this code, or any violation that can be heard by a juvenile traffic hearing referee pursuant to Section 256 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or any violation of any other statute relating to the safe operation of a vehicle, except violations not required to be reported pursuant to paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (6), and (7) of subdivision (b) of Section 1803. If thereafter the case in which the promise was given is adjudicated or the person who has violated the court order appears in court or otherwise satisfies the order of the court, the magistrate or clerk of the court hearing the case shall sign and file with the department a certificate to that effect.(b) (1) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), the court may notify the department of the total amount of bail, fines, assessments, and fees authorized or required by this code, including Section 40508.5, that are unpaid by a person.(2) Once a court has established the amount of bail, fines, assessments, and fees, and notified the department, the court shall not further enhance or modify that amount.(3) This subdivision applies only to violations of this code that do not require a mandatory court appearance, are not contested by the defendant, and do not require proof of correction certified by the court.(c) Any violation subject to Section 40001 that is the responsibility of the owner of the vehicle shall not be reported under this section.SEC. 54. Section 40509.5 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:40509.5. (a) Except as required under subdivision (b), if, with respect to an offense described in subdivision (d), a person has violated his or her written promise to appear or a lawfully granted continuance of his or her promise to appear in court or before the person authorized to receive a deposit of bail, or violated an order to appear in court, including, but not limited to, a written notice to appear issued in accordance with Section 40518, the magistrate or clerk of the court may give notice of the failure to appear to the department for a violation of this code, a violation that can be heard by a juvenile traffic hearing referee pursuant to Section 256 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or a violation of any other statute relating to the safe operation of a vehicle, except violations not required to be reported pursuant to paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (6), and (7) of subdivision (b) of Section 1803. If thereafter the case in which the promise was given is adjudicated or the person who has violated the court order appears in court and satisfies the order of the court, the magistrate or clerk of the court hearing the case shall sign and file with the department a certificate to that effect.(b) If a person charged with a violation of Section 23152 or 23153, or Section 191.5 of the Penal Code, or subdivision (a) of Section 192.5 of that code has violated a lawfully granted continuance of his or her promise to appear in court or is released from custody on his or her own recognizance and fails to appear in court or before the person authorized to receive a deposit of bail, or violated an order to appear in court, the magistrate or clerk of the court shall give notice to the department of the failure to appear. If thereafter the case in which the notice was given is adjudicated or the person who has violated the court order appears in court or otherwise satisfies the order of the court, the magistrate or clerk of the court hearing the case shall prepare and forward to the department a certificate to that effect.(c) Except as required under subdivision (b), the court shall mail a courtesy warning notice to the defendant by first-class mail at the address shown on the notice to appear, at least 10 days before sending a notice to the department under this section.(d) If the court notifies the department of a failure to appear pursuant to subdivision (a), no arrest warrant shall be issued for an alleged violation of subdivision (a) of Section 40508, unless one of the following criteria is met:(1) The alleged underlying offense is a misdemeanor or felony.(2) The alleged underlying offense is a violation of any provision of Division 12 (commencing with Section 24000), Division 13 (commencing with Section 29000), or Division 15 (commencing with Section 35000), required to be reported pursuant to Section 1803.(3) The drivers record does not show that the defendant has a valid California drivers license.(4) The drivers record shows an unresolved charge that the defendant is in violation of his or her written promise to appear for one or more other alleged violations of the law.(e) Except as required under subdivision (b), in addition to the proceedings described in this section, the court may elect to notify the department pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 40509.(f) A violation subject to Section 40001 that is the responsibility of the owner of the vehicle shall not be reported under this section.SEC. 55. Section 209 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:209. (a) (1) The judge of the juvenile court of a county, or, if there is more than one judge, any of the judges of the juvenile court shall, at least annually, inspect any jail, juvenile hall, or special purpose juvenile hall that, in the preceding calendar year, was used for confinement, for more than 24 hours, of any minor.(2) The judge shall promptly notify the operator of the jail, juvenile hall, or special purpose juvenile hall of any observed noncompliance with minimum standards for juvenile facilities adopted by the Board of State and Community Corrections under Section 210. Based on the facilitys subsequent compliance with the provisions of subdivisions (d) and (e), the judge shall thereafter make a finding whether the facility is a suitable place for the confinement of minors and shall note the finding in the minutes of the court.(3) The Board of State and Community Corrections shall conduct a biennial inspection of each jail, juvenile hall, lockup, or special purpose juvenile hall situated in this state that, during the preceding calendar year, was used for confinement, for more than 24 hours, of any minor. The board shall promptly notify the operator of any jail, juvenile hall, lockup, or special purpose juvenile hall of any noncompliance found, upon inspection, with any of the minimum standards for juvenile facilities adopted by the Board of State and Community Corrections under Section 210 or 210.2.(4) If either a judge of the juvenile court or the board, after inspection of a jail, juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, or lockup, finds that it is not being operated and maintained as a suitable place for the confinement of minors, the juvenile court or the board shall give notice of its finding to all persons having authority to confine minors pursuant to this chapter and commencing 60 days thereafter the facility shall not be used for confinement of minors until the time the judge or board, as the case may be, finds, after reinspection of the facility that the conditions that rendered the facility unsuitable have been remedied, and the facility is a suitable place for confinement of minors.(5) The custodian of each jail, juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, and lockup shall make any reports as may be requested by the board or the juvenile court to effectuate the purposes of this section.(b) (1) The Board of State and Community Corrections may inspect any law enforcement facility that contains a lockup for adults and that it has reason to believe may not be in compliance with the requirements of subdivision (d) of Section 207.1 or with the certification requirements or standards adopted under Section 210.2. A judge of the juvenile court shall conduct an annual inspection, either in person or through a delegated member of the appropriate county or regional juvenile justice commission, of any law enforcement facility that contains a lockup for adults which, in the preceding year, was used for the secure detention of any minor. If the law enforcement facility is observed, upon inspection, to be out of compliance with the requirements of subdivision (d) of Section 207.1, or with any standard adopted under Section 210.2, the board or the judge shall promptly notify the operator of the law enforcement facility of the specific points of noncompliance.(2) If either the judge or the board finds after inspection that the facility is not being operated and maintained in conformity with the requirements of subdivision (d) of Section 207.1 or with the certification requirements or standards adopted under Section 210.2, the juvenile court or the board shall give notice of its finding to all persons having authority to securely detain minors in the facility, and, commencing 60 days thereafter, the facility shall not be used for the secure detention of a minor until the time the judge or the board, as the case may be, finds, after reinspection, that the conditions that rendered the facility unsuitable have been remedied, and the facility is a suitable place for the confinement of minors in conformity with all requirements of law.(3) The custodian of each law enforcement facility that contains a lockup for adults shall make any report as may be requested by the board or by the juvenile court to effectuate the purposes of this subdivision.(c) The board shall collect biennial data on the number, place, and duration of confinements of minors in jails and lockups, as defined in subdivision (i) of Section 207.1, and shall publish biennially this information in the form as it deems appropriate for the purpose of providing public information on continuing compliance with the requirements of Section 207.1.(d) Except as provided in subdivision (e), a juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, law enforcement facility, or jail shall be unsuitable for the confinement of minors if it is not in compliance with one or more of the minimum standards for juvenile facilities adopted by the Board of State and Community Corrections under Section 210 or 210.2, and if, within 60 days of having received notice of noncompliance from the board or the judge of the juvenile court, the juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, law enforcement facility, or jail has failed to file an approved corrective action plan with the Board of State and Community Corrections to correct the condition or conditions of noncompliance of which it has been notified. The corrective action plan shall outline how the juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, law enforcement facility, or jail plans to correct the issue of noncompliance and give a reasonable timeframe, not to exceed 90 days, for resolution, that the board shall either approve or deny. In the event the juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, law enforcement facility, or jail fails to meet its commitment to resolve noncompliance issues outlined in its corrective action plan, the board shall make a determination of suitability at its next scheduled meeting.(e) If a juvenile hall is not in compliance with one or more of the minimum standards for juvenile facilities adopted by the Board of State and Community Corrections under Section 210, and where the noncompliance arises from sustained occupancy levels that are above the population capacity permitted by applicable minimum standards, the juvenile hall shall be unsuitable for the confinement of minors if the board or the judge of the juvenile court determines that conditions in the facility pose a serious risk to the health, safety, or welfare of minors confined in the facility. In making its determination of suitability, the board or the judge of the juvenile court shall consider, in addition to the noncompliance with minimum standards, the totality of conditions in the juvenile hall, including the extent and duration of overpopulation as well as staffing, program, physical plant, and medical and mental health care conditions in the facility. The Board of State and Community Corrections may develop guidelines and procedures for its determination of suitability in accordance with this subdivision and to assist counties in bringing their juvenile halls into full compliance with applicable minimum standards. This subdivision shall not be interpreted to exempt a juvenile hall from having to correct, in accordance with the provisions of subdivision (d), any minimum standard violations that are not directly related to overpopulation of the facility.(f) In accordance with the federal Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention Act of 2002 (42 U.S.C. Sec. 5601 et seq.), the Corrections Standards Authority shall inspect and collect relevant data from any facility that may be used for the secure detention of minors.(g) All reports and notices of findings prepared by the Board of State and Community Corrections pursuant to this section shall be posted on the Board of State and Community Corrections Internet Web site in a manner in which they are accessible to the public.SEC. 56. Section 270 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is repealed.SEC. 57. Section 270 is added to the Welfare and Institutions Code, to read:270. The chief probation officer shall be appointed and compensation for the position shall be determined as provided in Chapter 16 (commencing with Section 27770) of Part 3 of Division 2 of Title 3 of the Government Code.SEC. 58. Section 271 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is repealed.SEC. 59. Section 271 is added to the Welfare and Institutions Code, to read:271. In counties having charters that provide a method of appointment and tenure of office for the superintendent, matron, and other employees of the juvenile hall, the charter provisions shall control as to those matters and, in counties that have established or hereafter establish merit or civil service systems governing the methods of appointment and the tenure of office for the superintendent, matrons, and other employees of the juvenile hall, the provisions of the merit or civil service systems shall control as to those matters. In all other counties, these matters shall be controlled exclusively by the provisions of this code.SEC. 60. Section 1982 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:1982. (a) The Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, Division of Juvenile Justice, shall provide an annual report, commencing July 10, 2011, and annually thereafter, for the preceding fiscal year, with information sorted by county, to the Department of Finance that includes, but is not limited to, the following:(1) Identifying information of each ward discharged from a Division of Juvenile Justice facility on or after 90 days after the enactment of this section, excluding parole violators who were originally released to parole on or after 90 days after the enactment of this section, and the date each ward was released to local supervision.(2) The name of each parolee recalled pursuant to Section 731.1 on or after 90 days after the enactment of this section, the remaining term of supervision, and the date each ward was recalled.(b) (1) The Board of State and Community Corrections shall provide an annual report, commencing on July 10, 2011, and annually thereafter, for the preceding fiscal year, with information sorted by county, to the Department of Finance that includes, but is not limited to, the following: identifying information of each discharged ward returned to a local juvenile detention facility for violating a condition of court-ordered supervision that occurred during the first 24 months after the wards initial release to local supervision, and the number of months each violator was housed in a local juvenile detention facility. The Board of State and Community Corrections may audit the information included in the annual report required by this section.(2) A county that does not submit data pursuant to this subdivision may not receive funding pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 1984.(c) For the purposes of this section, identifying information means a unique identifier, which may include the wards initials, that allows the Department of Finance to reconcile information provided by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, Division of Juvenile Justice, pursuant to subdivision (a) with information provided by the Board of State and Community Corrections pursuant to subdivision (b), while preserving the confidentiality of the ward. The reports created pursuant to this section shall not be considered record information within the meaning of Section 11075 of the Penal Code or Section 825 of this code.SEC. 61. Section 4100 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:4100. The department has jurisdiction over the following facilities:(a) Atascadero State Hospital.(b) Coalinga State Hospital.(c) Metropolitan State Hospital.(d) Napa State Hospital.(e) Patton State Hospital.(f) (1) The Admission, Evaluation, and Stabilization (AES) Center in the County of Kern, and other AES Centers as defined by regulation.(2) The Director of State Hospitals may adopt emergency regulations in accordance with the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division of 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code) to implement this subdivision. The adoption of emergency regulations under this paragraph is deemed to address an emergency, for purposes of Sections 11346.1 and 11349.6 of the Government Code, and the Director of State Hospitals is hereby exempted for this purpose from the requirements of subdivision (b) of Section 11346.1 of the Government Code.(g) A county jail treatment facility under contract with the State Department of State Hospitals to provide competency restoration services.(h) Any other State Department of State Hospitals facility subject to available funding by the Legislature.SEC. 62. Section 4358.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:4358.5. Funds deposited into the Traumatic Brain Injury Fund pursuant to subdivision (f) of Section 1464 of the Penal Code may be matched by federal vocational rehabilitation services funds for implementation of the Traumatic Brain Injury program pursuant to this chapter. However, this matching of funds shall occur only to the extent it is permitted by other state and federal law, and to the extent the matching of funds would be consistent with the policies and priorities of the department.SEC. 63. Section 7228 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:7228. Prior to admission, the State Department of State Hospitals shall evaluate each patient committed pursuant to Section 1026 or 1370 of the Penal Code to determine the placement of the patient to the appropriate State Department of State Hospitals facility, as defined in Section 4100. The State Department of State Hospitals shall utilize the documents provided pursuant to subdivision (e) of Section 1026 of the Penal Code and paragraph (2) of subdivision (b) of Section 1370 of the Penal Code to make the appropriate placement. A patient determined to be a high security risk shall be treated in the departments most secure facilities pursuant to Section 7230. A Penal Code patient not needing this level of security shall be treated as near to the patients community as possible if an appropriate treatment program is available.SEC. 64. Section 7234 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:7234. (a) (1) A Patient Management Unit (PMU) shall be established within the State Department of State Hospitals to facilitate patient movement across all facilities under its jurisdiction, as defined in Section 4100, and any psychiatric programs operated by the State Department of State Hospitals pursuant to a memorandum of understanding with the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation.(2) The PMUs responsibilities shall include, but not be limited to, oversight and centralized management of patient admissions, and collection of data for reports and patient population projections.(b) The State Department of State Hospitals shall adopt regulations, consistent with this article, concerning policies and procedures to be implemented by the PMU, including, but not limited to, both of the following:(1) Policies and procedures for patient referral to the State Department of State Hospitals.(2) Screening criteria that ensures that patients are placed in a State Department of State Hospitals facility or psychiatric program closest to their county of residence in the absence of a compelling reason to place the patient in another facility. Compelling reasons may include, but not be limited to, the patients specialized psychiatric, medical, or safety needs, and the availability of beds for his or her commitment type.(c) The Director of State Hospitals may adopt emergency regulations in accordance with the Administrative Procedures Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code) to implement this section. The adoption of an emergency regulation under this paragraph is deemed to address an emergency, for purposes of Sections 11346.1 and 11349.6 of the Government Code, and the Director of State Hospitals is hereby exempted for this purpose from the requirements of subdivision (b) of Section 11346.1 of the Government Code.SEC. 65. The provisions of Section 4 of this act, amending Section 384 of the Code of Civil Procedure, are severable. If any provision of Section 4 of this act or its application is held invalid, that invalidity shall not affect other provisions or applications that can be given effect without the invalid provision or application.SEC. 66. No reimbursement is required by this act pursuant to Section 6 of Article XIIIB of the California Constitution because the only costs that may be incurred by a local agency or school district will be incurred because this act creates a new crime or infraction, eliminates a crime or infraction, or changes the penalty for a crime or infraction, within the meaning of Section 17556 of the Government Code, or changes the definition of a crime within the meaning of Section 6 of Article XIIIB of the California Constitution.SEC. 67. This act is a bill providing for appropriations related to the Budget Bill within the meaning of subdivision (e) of Section 12 of Article IV of the California Constitution, has been identified as related to the budget in the Budget Bill, and shall take effect immediately.
159170
160171 The people of the State of California do enact as follows:
161172
162173 ## The people of the State of California do enact as follows:
163174
164175 SECTION 1. (a) The Legislature finds and declares that the provision of probation services is an essential element in the administration of criminal justice and the juvenile delinquency systems. The safety of the public is enhanced by a research-based approach that promotes positive behavior change while also enforcing laws to provide community safety as outlined in statute. The Legislature recognizes that the role and responsibility of probation departments has enhanced significantly due to public safety reforms, including, but not limited to, the Community Corrections Performance Incentive Grant Program, established in Chapter 608 of the Statutes of 2009, and 2011 Realignment Legislation addressing public safety, established in Chapter 15 of the Statutes of 2011, which made funding investments in local probation departments and increased the responsibility for probation departments to supervise more offenders including those on mandatory supervision and postrelease community supervision. In addition to a core mission of supervising felony probationers, to address the more serious level of offenders probation departments were tasked with supervising, the state made investments in evidence-informed rehabilitation strategies and supervision for probation departments throughout the state. County probation departments have played a critical role in helping the state meet its federally mandated reduction in the prison population by utilizing probations successful track record in supervision, community corrections, effective offender reentry, and evidence-informed rehabilitation services. Further reforms to the justice system which were enacted by the voters in California continue to place emphasis on services to supervised populations in the community, placing probations mission at the center of community corrections.(b) The Legislature additionally recognizes probations instrumental role in Californias juvenile justice system because of its work in supervision and services provided to youth involved in the justice system through supervising juveniles in the community, administering programming to address juveniles criminogenic behavior, providing secure and effective detention services, utilizing evidence-informed strategies that change behavior, and ensuring successful reentry into communities. The Legislature and voters of California have delegated to probation all responsibility and services for juveniles except for the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, Division of Juvenile Justice. This includes historic reforms such as Chapter 175 of the Statutes of 2007, which realigned most of the juvenile system responsibilities to probation.(c) The decisions made in the state budget process have had significant impact on the duties performed by probation. When probation services are unavailable at the local level there is a negative impact on recidivism which can require a more expensive solution at the state level in the form of incarceration. We have also seen more probation services for justice-involved youth as the state realigned the population away from the most expensive part of the system. These factors are not only driven by fiscal realities of state and local budgets but policies that are intended to improve the quality of life in our communities. The Legislature recognizes that such an important role should be clear and articulated with other core county department duties in order to establish the proper function and structure of probation. For these reasons the Legislature delegates the following duties to the chief probation officer to carry out in the county for the purposes of managing local juvenile facilities, preventing crime and delinquency, reducing recidivism, restoring victims, and promoting healthy families and communities through the community supervision and the enforcement of court orders and other criminal statutes. These duties are specific and exclusive to the primary areas of responsibility that exist for probation and are intended to emphasize the important role of probation within the criminal justice system in California. This is not intended to limit or diminish the importance of other duties currently delegated in whole or in part to probation elsewhere in code.
165176
166177 SECTION 1. (a) The Legislature finds and declares that the provision of probation services is an essential element in the administration of criminal justice and the juvenile delinquency systems. The safety of the public is enhanced by a research-based approach that promotes positive behavior change while also enforcing laws to provide community safety as outlined in statute. The Legislature recognizes that the role and responsibility of probation departments has enhanced significantly due to public safety reforms, including, but not limited to, the Community Corrections Performance Incentive Grant Program, established in Chapter 608 of the Statutes of 2009, and 2011 Realignment Legislation addressing public safety, established in Chapter 15 of the Statutes of 2011, which made funding investments in local probation departments and increased the responsibility for probation departments to supervise more offenders including those on mandatory supervision and postrelease community supervision. In addition to a core mission of supervising felony probationers, to address the more serious level of offenders probation departments were tasked with supervising, the state made investments in evidence-informed rehabilitation strategies and supervision for probation departments throughout the state. County probation departments have played a critical role in helping the state meet its federally mandated reduction in the prison population by utilizing probations successful track record in supervision, community corrections, effective offender reentry, and evidence-informed rehabilitation services. Further reforms to the justice system which were enacted by the voters in California continue to place emphasis on services to supervised populations in the community, placing probations mission at the center of community corrections.(b) The Legislature additionally recognizes probations instrumental role in Californias juvenile justice system because of its work in supervision and services provided to youth involved in the justice system through supervising juveniles in the community, administering programming to address juveniles criminogenic behavior, providing secure and effective detention services, utilizing evidence-informed strategies that change behavior, and ensuring successful reentry into communities. The Legislature and voters of California have delegated to probation all responsibility and services for juveniles except for the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, Division of Juvenile Justice. This includes historic reforms such as Chapter 175 of the Statutes of 2007, which realigned most of the juvenile system responsibilities to probation.(c) The decisions made in the state budget process have had significant impact on the duties performed by probation. When probation services are unavailable at the local level there is a negative impact on recidivism which can require a more expensive solution at the state level in the form of incarceration. We have also seen more probation services for justice-involved youth as the state realigned the population away from the most expensive part of the system. These factors are not only driven by fiscal realities of state and local budgets but policies that are intended to improve the quality of life in our communities. The Legislature recognizes that such an important role should be clear and articulated with other core county department duties in order to establish the proper function and structure of probation. For these reasons the Legislature delegates the following duties to the chief probation officer to carry out in the county for the purposes of managing local juvenile facilities, preventing crime and delinquency, reducing recidivism, restoring victims, and promoting healthy families and communities through the community supervision and the enforcement of court orders and other criminal statutes. These duties are specific and exclusive to the primary areas of responsibility that exist for probation and are intended to emphasize the important role of probation within the criminal justice system in California. This is not intended to limit or diminish the importance of other duties currently delegated in whole or in part to probation elsewhere in code.
167178
168179 SECTION 1. (a) The Legislature finds and declares that the provision of probation services is an essential element in the administration of criminal justice and the juvenile delinquency systems. The safety of the public is enhanced by a research-based approach that promotes positive behavior change while also enforcing laws to provide community safety as outlined in statute. The Legislature recognizes that the role and responsibility of probation departments has enhanced significantly due to public safety reforms, including, but not limited to, the Community Corrections Performance Incentive Grant Program, established in Chapter 608 of the Statutes of 2009, and 2011 Realignment Legislation addressing public safety, established in Chapter 15 of the Statutes of 2011, which made funding investments in local probation departments and increased the responsibility for probation departments to supervise more offenders including those on mandatory supervision and postrelease community supervision. In addition to a core mission of supervising felony probationers, to address the more serious level of offenders probation departments were tasked with supervising, the state made investments in evidence-informed rehabilitation strategies and supervision for probation departments throughout the state. County probation departments have played a critical role in helping the state meet its federally mandated reduction in the prison population by utilizing probations successful track record in supervision, community corrections, effective offender reentry, and evidence-informed rehabilitation services. Further reforms to the justice system which were enacted by the voters in California continue to place emphasis on services to supervised populations in the community, placing probations mission at the center of community corrections.
169180
170181 ### SECTION 1.
171182
172183 (b) The Legislature additionally recognizes probations instrumental role in Californias juvenile justice system because of its work in supervision and services provided to youth involved in the justice system through supervising juveniles in the community, administering programming to address juveniles criminogenic behavior, providing secure and effective detention services, utilizing evidence-informed strategies that change behavior, and ensuring successful reentry into communities. The Legislature and voters of California have delegated to probation all responsibility and services for juveniles except for the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, Division of Juvenile Justice. This includes historic reforms such as Chapter 175 of the Statutes of 2007, which realigned most of the juvenile system responsibilities to probation.
173184
174185 (c) The decisions made in the state budget process have had significant impact on the duties performed by probation. When probation services are unavailable at the local level there is a negative impact on recidivism which can require a more expensive solution at the state level in the form of incarceration. We have also seen more probation services for justice-involved youth as the state realigned the population away from the most expensive part of the system. These factors are not only driven by fiscal realities of state and local budgets but policies that are intended to improve the quality of life in our communities. The Legislature recognizes that such an important role should be clear and articulated with other core county department duties in order to establish the proper function and structure of probation. For these reasons the Legislature delegates the following duties to the chief probation officer to carry out in the county for the purposes of managing local juvenile facilities, preventing crime and delinquency, reducing recidivism, restoring victims, and promoting healthy families and communities through the community supervision and the enforcement of court orders and other criminal statutes. These duties are specific and exclusive to the primary areas of responsibility that exist for probation and are intended to emphasize the important role of probation within the criminal justice system in California. This is not intended to limit or diminish the importance of other duties currently delegated in whole or in part to probation elsewhere in code.
175186
176187 SEC. 2. It is the intent of the Legislature in enacting amendments to Section 1170.18 of, and adding Section 1170.127 to, the Penal Code, to allow people who are committed to the State Department of State Hospitals upon a finding of not guilty by reason of insanity pursuant to Section 1026 of the Penal Code for an offense that would otherwise fall within the resentencing provisions of Section 1170.126 or 1170.18 of the Penal Code, as enacted by Proposition 36 of the 2012 statewide general election or Proposition 47 of the 2014 statewide general election, to petition the original committing court for relief under those sections. This act is intended to nullify the holding in People v. Dobson, 245 Cal.App.4th 310 (2016).
177188
178189 SEC. 2. It is the intent of the Legislature in enacting amendments to Section 1170.18 of, and adding Section 1170.127 to, the Penal Code, to allow people who are committed to the State Department of State Hospitals upon a finding of not guilty by reason of insanity pursuant to Section 1026 of the Penal Code for an offense that would otherwise fall within the resentencing provisions of Section 1170.126 or 1170.18 of the Penal Code, as enacted by Proposition 36 of the 2012 statewide general election or Proposition 47 of the 2014 statewide general election, to petition the original committing court for relief under those sections. This act is intended to nullify the holding in People v. Dobson, 245 Cal.App.4th 310 (2016).
179190
180191 SEC. 2. It is the intent of the Legislature in enacting amendments to Section 1170.18 of, and adding Section 1170.127 to, the Penal Code, to allow people who are committed to the State Department of State Hospitals upon a finding of not guilty by reason of insanity pursuant to Section 1026 of the Penal Code for an offense that would otherwise fall within the resentencing provisions of Section 1170.126 or 1170.18 of the Penal Code, as enacted by Proposition 36 of the 2012 statewide general election or Proposition 47 of the 2014 statewide general election, to petition the original committing court for relief under those sections. This act is intended to nullify the holding in People v. Dobson, 245 Cal.App.4th 310 (2016).
181192
182193 ### SEC. 2.
183194
184195 SEC. 3. In enacting amendments to Sections 6031 and 6031.1 of the Penal Code, and Section 209 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, it is the intent of the Legislature that the Board of State and Community Corrections be encouraged to consider adding the maximum number of beds each facility is leasing to the federal government, including the current occupancy rate and the entity to which the beds are being leased, to the Jail Profile Survey.
185196
186197 SEC. 3. In enacting amendments to Sections 6031 and 6031.1 of the Penal Code, and Section 209 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, it is the intent of the Legislature that the Board of State and Community Corrections be encouraged to consider adding the maximum number of beds each facility is leasing to the federal government, including the current occupancy rate and the entity to which the beds are being leased, to the Jail Profile Survey.
187198
188199 SEC. 3. In enacting amendments to Sections 6031 and 6031.1 of the Penal Code, and Section 209 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, it is the intent of the Legislature that the Board of State and Community Corrections be encouraged to consider adding the maximum number of beds each facility is leasing to the federal government, including the current occupancy rate and the entity to which the beds are being leased, to the Jail Profile Survey.
189200
190201 ### SEC. 3.
191202
192203 SEC. 4. Section 384 of the Code of Civil Procedure is amended to read:384. (a) It is the policy of the State of California to ensure that the unpaid cash residue and unclaimed or abandoned funds in class action litigation are distributed, to the fullest extent possible, in a manner designed either to further the purposes of the underlying class action or causes of action, or to promote justice for all Californians. The Legislature finds that the use of funds for these purposes is in the public interest, is a proper use of the funds, and is consistent with essential public and governmental purposes.(b) (1) Except as provided in subdivision (c), whenever a judgment, including any consent judgment, decree, or settlement agreement that has been approved by the court, in a class action established pursuant to Section 382, provides for the payment of money to members of the class, any unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds shall be distributed in accordance with this section unless for good cause shown the court makes a specific finding that an alternative distribution would better serve the public interest or the interest of the class. If not specified in the judgment, the court shall set a date when the parties shall submit a report to the court regarding a plan for the distribution of any moneys pursuant to this section.(2) The court shall make any orders necessary and appropriate for the payment, administration, supervision, and accounting of any unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds.(3) Any unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds generally attributable to California residents, plus any accrued interest that has not otherwise been distributed pursuant to order of the court, shall be transmitted as follows:(A) Twenty-five percent to the State Treasury for deposit in the Trial Court Improvement and Modernization Fund, established in Section 77209 of the Government Code, and subject to appropriation in the annual Budget Act for the Judicial Council to provide grants to trial courts for new or expanded collaborative courts or grants for Sargent Shriver Civil Counsel.(B) Twenty-five percent to the State Treasury for deposit into the Equal Access Fund of the Judicial Branch, to be distributed in accordance with Sections 6216 to 6223, inclusive, of the Business and Professions Code, except that administrative costs shall not be paid to the State Bar or the Judicial Council from this sum.(C) Fifty percent to one or more of the following: nonprofit organizations or foundations, to support projects that will benefit the class or similarly situated persons, further the objectives and purposes of the underlying class action or cause of action, or promote the law consistent with the objectives and purposes of the underlying class action or cause of action; child advocacy programs; or nonprofit organizations providing civil legal services to the indigent. Notwithstanding subparagraph (B), additional funds may be allocated by the court to the Equal Access Fund of the Judicial Branch, to be distributed in accordance with Sections 6216 to 6223, inclusive, of the Business and Professions Code. (4) The court shall ensure that the distribution of the balance of any unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds derived from multistate or national cases shall provide substantial or commensurate benefit to California consumers that is roughly proportional to the number of California class members or amounts available from the judgment to California class members in the multistate or national class.(c) This section shall not apply to any class action or cause of action brought against any public entity, as defined in Section 811.2 of the Government Code, or against any public employee, as defined in Section 811.4 of the Government Code. However, this section shall not be construed to abrogate any equitable cy pres remedy that may be available in any class action with regard to all or part of the cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds.
193204
194205 SEC. 4. Section 384 of the Code of Civil Procedure is amended to read:
195206
196207 ### SEC. 4.
197208
198209 384. (a) It is the policy of the State of California to ensure that the unpaid cash residue and unclaimed or abandoned funds in class action litigation are distributed, to the fullest extent possible, in a manner designed either to further the purposes of the underlying class action or causes of action, or to promote justice for all Californians. The Legislature finds that the use of funds for these purposes is in the public interest, is a proper use of the funds, and is consistent with essential public and governmental purposes.(b) (1) Except as provided in subdivision (c), whenever a judgment, including any consent judgment, decree, or settlement agreement that has been approved by the court, in a class action established pursuant to Section 382, provides for the payment of money to members of the class, any unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds shall be distributed in accordance with this section unless for good cause shown the court makes a specific finding that an alternative distribution would better serve the public interest or the interest of the class. If not specified in the judgment, the court shall set a date when the parties shall submit a report to the court regarding a plan for the distribution of any moneys pursuant to this section.(2) The court shall make any orders necessary and appropriate for the payment, administration, supervision, and accounting of any unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds.(3) Any unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds generally attributable to California residents, plus any accrued interest that has not otherwise been distributed pursuant to order of the court, shall be transmitted as follows:(A) Twenty-five percent to the State Treasury for deposit in the Trial Court Improvement and Modernization Fund, established in Section 77209 of the Government Code, and subject to appropriation in the annual Budget Act for the Judicial Council to provide grants to trial courts for new or expanded collaborative courts or grants for Sargent Shriver Civil Counsel.(B) Twenty-five percent to the State Treasury for deposit into the Equal Access Fund of the Judicial Branch, to be distributed in accordance with Sections 6216 to 6223, inclusive, of the Business and Professions Code, except that administrative costs shall not be paid to the State Bar or the Judicial Council from this sum.(C) Fifty percent to one or more of the following: nonprofit organizations or foundations, to support projects that will benefit the class or similarly situated persons, further the objectives and purposes of the underlying class action or cause of action, or promote the law consistent with the objectives and purposes of the underlying class action or cause of action; child advocacy programs; or nonprofit organizations providing civil legal services to the indigent. Notwithstanding subparagraph (B), additional funds may be allocated by the court to the Equal Access Fund of the Judicial Branch, to be distributed in accordance with Sections 6216 to 6223, inclusive, of the Business and Professions Code. (4) The court shall ensure that the distribution of the balance of any unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds derived from multistate or national cases shall provide substantial or commensurate benefit to California consumers that is roughly proportional to the number of California class members or amounts available from the judgment to California class members in the multistate or national class.(c) This section shall not apply to any class action or cause of action brought against any public entity, as defined in Section 811.2 of the Government Code, or against any public employee, as defined in Section 811.4 of the Government Code. However, this section shall not be construed to abrogate any equitable cy pres remedy that may be available in any class action with regard to all or part of the cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds.
199210
200211 384. (a) It is the policy of the State of California to ensure that the unpaid cash residue and unclaimed or abandoned funds in class action litigation are distributed, to the fullest extent possible, in a manner designed either to further the purposes of the underlying class action or causes of action, or to promote justice for all Californians. The Legislature finds that the use of funds for these purposes is in the public interest, is a proper use of the funds, and is consistent with essential public and governmental purposes.(b) (1) Except as provided in subdivision (c), whenever a judgment, including any consent judgment, decree, or settlement agreement that has been approved by the court, in a class action established pursuant to Section 382, provides for the payment of money to members of the class, any unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds shall be distributed in accordance with this section unless for good cause shown the court makes a specific finding that an alternative distribution would better serve the public interest or the interest of the class. If not specified in the judgment, the court shall set a date when the parties shall submit a report to the court regarding a plan for the distribution of any moneys pursuant to this section.(2) The court shall make any orders necessary and appropriate for the payment, administration, supervision, and accounting of any unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds.(3) Any unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds generally attributable to California residents, plus any accrued interest that has not otherwise been distributed pursuant to order of the court, shall be transmitted as follows:(A) Twenty-five percent to the State Treasury for deposit in the Trial Court Improvement and Modernization Fund, established in Section 77209 of the Government Code, and subject to appropriation in the annual Budget Act for the Judicial Council to provide grants to trial courts for new or expanded collaborative courts or grants for Sargent Shriver Civil Counsel.(B) Twenty-five percent to the State Treasury for deposit into the Equal Access Fund of the Judicial Branch, to be distributed in accordance with Sections 6216 to 6223, inclusive, of the Business and Professions Code, except that administrative costs shall not be paid to the State Bar or the Judicial Council from this sum.(C) Fifty percent to one or more of the following: nonprofit organizations or foundations, to support projects that will benefit the class or similarly situated persons, further the objectives and purposes of the underlying class action or cause of action, or promote the law consistent with the objectives and purposes of the underlying class action or cause of action; child advocacy programs; or nonprofit organizations providing civil legal services to the indigent. Notwithstanding subparagraph (B), additional funds may be allocated by the court to the Equal Access Fund of the Judicial Branch, to be distributed in accordance with Sections 6216 to 6223, inclusive, of the Business and Professions Code. (4) The court shall ensure that the distribution of the balance of any unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds derived from multistate or national cases shall provide substantial or commensurate benefit to California consumers that is roughly proportional to the number of California class members or amounts available from the judgment to California class members in the multistate or national class.(c) This section shall not apply to any class action or cause of action brought against any public entity, as defined in Section 811.2 of the Government Code, or against any public employee, as defined in Section 811.4 of the Government Code. However, this section shall not be construed to abrogate any equitable cy pres remedy that may be available in any class action with regard to all or part of the cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds.
201212
202213 384. (a) It is the policy of the State of California to ensure that the unpaid cash residue and unclaimed or abandoned funds in class action litigation are distributed, to the fullest extent possible, in a manner designed either to further the purposes of the underlying class action or causes of action, or to promote justice for all Californians. The Legislature finds that the use of funds for these purposes is in the public interest, is a proper use of the funds, and is consistent with essential public and governmental purposes.(b) (1) Except as provided in subdivision (c), whenever a judgment, including any consent judgment, decree, or settlement agreement that has been approved by the court, in a class action established pursuant to Section 382, provides for the payment of money to members of the class, any unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds shall be distributed in accordance with this section unless for good cause shown the court makes a specific finding that an alternative distribution would better serve the public interest or the interest of the class. If not specified in the judgment, the court shall set a date when the parties shall submit a report to the court regarding a plan for the distribution of any moneys pursuant to this section.(2) The court shall make any orders necessary and appropriate for the payment, administration, supervision, and accounting of any unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds.(3) Any unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds generally attributable to California residents, plus any accrued interest that has not otherwise been distributed pursuant to order of the court, shall be transmitted as follows:(A) Twenty-five percent to the State Treasury for deposit in the Trial Court Improvement and Modernization Fund, established in Section 77209 of the Government Code, and subject to appropriation in the annual Budget Act for the Judicial Council to provide grants to trial courts for new or expanded collaborative courts or grants for Sargent Shriver Civil Counsel.(B) Twenty-five percent to the State Treasury for deposit into the Equal Access Fund of the Judicial Branch, to be distributed in accordance with Sections 6216 to 6223, inclusive, of the Business and Professions Code, except that administrative costs shall not be paid to the State Bar or the Judicial Council from this sum.(C) Fifty percent to one or more of the following: nonprofit organizations or foundations, to support projects that will benefit the class or similarly situated persons, further the objectives and purposes of the underlying class action or cause of action, or promote the law consistent with the objectives and purposes of the underlying class action or cause of action; child advocacy programs; or nonprofit organizations providing civil legal services to the indigent. Notwithstanding subparagraph (B), additional funds may be allocated by the court to the Equal Access Fund of the Judicial Branch, to be distributed in accordance with Sections 6216 to 6223, inclusive, of the Business and Professions Code. (4) The court shall ensure that the distribution of the balance of any unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds derived from multistate or national cases shall provide substantial or commensurate benefit to California consumers that is roughly proportional to the number of California class members or amounts available from the judgment to California class members in the multistate or national class.(c) This section shall not apply to any class action or cause of action brought against any public entity, as defined in Section 811.2 of the Government Code, or against any public employee, as defined in Section 811.4 of the Government Code. However, this section shall not be construed to abrogate any equitable cy pres remedy that may be available in any class action with regard to all or part of the cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds.
203214
204215
205216
206217 384. (a) It is the policy of the State of California to ensure that the unpaid cash residue and unclaimed or abandoned funds in class action litigation are distributed, to the fullest extent possible, in a manner designed either to further the purposes of the underlying class action or causes of action, or to promote justice for all Californians. The Legislature finds that the use of funds for these purposes is in the public interest, is a proper use of the funds, and is consistent with essential public and governmental purposes.
207218
208219 (b) (1) Except as provided in subdivision (c), whenever a judgment, including any consent judgment, decree, or settlement agreement that has been approved by the court, in a class action established pursuant to Section 382, provides for the payment of money to members of the class, any unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds shall be distributed in accordance with this section unless for good cause shown the court makes a specific finding that an alternative distribution would better serve the public interest or the interest of the class. If not specified in the judgment, the court shall set a date when the parties shall submit a report to the court regarding a plan for the distribution of any moneys pursuant to this section.
209220
210221 (2) The court shall make any orders necessary and appropriate for the payment, administration, supervision, and accounting of any unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds.
211222
212223 (3) Any unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds generally attributable to California residents, plus any accrued interest that has not otherwise been distributed pursuant to order of the court, shall be transmitted as follows:
213224
214225 (A) Twenty-five percent to the State Treasury for deposit in the Trial Court Improvement and Modernization Fund, established in Section 77209 of the Government Code, and subject to appropriation in the annual Budget Act for the Judicial Council to provide grants to trial courts for new or expanded collaborative courts or grants for Sargent Shriver Civil Counsel.
215226
216227 (B) Twenty-five percent to the State Treasury for deposit into the Equal Access Fund of the Judicial Branch, to be distributed in accordance with Sections 6216 to 6223, inclusive, of the Business and Professions Code, except that administrative costs shall not be paid to the State Bar or the Judicial Council from this sum.
217228
218229 (C) Fifty percent to one or more of the following: nonprofit organizations or foundations, to support projects that will benefit the class or similarly situated persons, further the objectives and purposes of the underlying class action or cause of action, or promote the law consistent with the objectives and purposes of the underlying class action or cause of action; child advocacy programs; or nonprofit organizations providing civil legal services to the indigent. Notwithstanding subparagraph (B), additional funds may be allocated by the court to the Equal Access Fund of the Judicial Branch, to be distributed in accordance with Sections 6216 to 6223, inclusive, of the Business and Professions Code.
219230
220231 (4) The court shall ensure that the distribution of the balance of any unpaid cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds derived from multistate or national cases shall provide substantial or commensurate benefit to California consumers that is roughly proportional to the number of California class members or amounts available from the judgment to California class members in the multistate or national class.
221232
222233 (c) This section shall not apply to any class action or cause of action brought against any public entity, as defined in Section 811.2 of the Government Code, or against any public employee, as defined in Section 811.4 of the Government Code. However, this section shall not be construed to abrogate any equitable cy pres remedy that may be available in any class action with regard to all or part of the cash residue or unclaimed or abandoned class member funds.
223234
224235 SEC. 5. Section 1010.6 of the Code of Civil Procedure is amended to read:1010.6. (a) A document may be served electronically in an action filed with the court as provided in this section, in accordance with rules adopted pursuant to subdivision (e).(1) For purposes of this section:(A) Electronic service means service of a document, on a party or other person, by either electronic transmission or electronic notification. Electronic service may be performed directly by a party, by an agent of a party, including the partys attorney, or through an electronic filing service provider.(B) Electronic transmission means the transmission of a document by electronic means to the electronic service address at or through which a party or other person has authorized electronic service.(C) Electronic notification means the notification of the party or other person that a document is served by sending an electronic message to the electronic address at or through which the party or other person has authorized electronic service, specifying the exact name of the document served, and providing a hyperlink at which the served document may be viewed and downloaded.(2) If a document may be served by mail, express mail, overnight delivery, or facsimile transmission, electronic service of the document is authorized when a party has agreed to accept service electronically in that action.(3) In any action in which a party has agreed to accept electronic service under paragraph (2), or in which the court has ordered electronic service under subdivision (c) or (d), the court may electronically serve any document issued by the court that is not required to be personally served in the same manner that parties electronically serve documents. The electronic service of documents by the court shall have the same legal effect as service by mail, except as provided in paragraph (4).(4) (A) Electronic service of a document is complete at the time of the electronic transmission of the document or at the time that the electronic notification of service of the document is sent. However, any period of notice, or any right or duty to do any act or make any response within any period or on a date certain after the service of the document, which time period or date is prescribed by statute or rule of court, shall be extended after service by electronic means by two court days, but the extension shall not apply to extend the time for filing any of the following:(i) A notice of intention to move for new trial.(ii) A notice of intention to move to vacate judgment under Section 663a.(iii) A notice of appeal.(B) This extension applies in the absence of a specific exception provided by any other statute or rule of court.(b) A trial court may adopt local rules permitting electronic filing of documents, subject to rules adopted pursuant to subdivision (e) and the following conditions:(1) A document that is filed electronically shall have the same legal effect as an original paper document.(2) (A) When a document to be filed requires the signature, not under penalty of perjury, of an attorney or a self-represented party, the document shall be deemed to have been signed by that attorney or self-represented party if filed electronically.(B) When a document to be filed requires the signature, under penalty of perjury, of any person, the document shall be deemed to have been signed by that person if filed electronically and if a printed form of the document has been signed by that person before or on the same day as, the date of filing. The attorney or person filing the document represents, by the act of filing, that the declarant has complied with this section. The attorney or person filing the document shall maintain the printed form of the document bearing the original signature and make it available for review and copying upon the request of the court or any party to the action or proceeding in which it is filed.(3) Any document that is electronically filed with the court after the close of business on any day shall be deemed to have been filed on the next court day. Close of business, as used in this paragraph, means 5 p.m. or the time at which the court will not accept filing at the courts filing counter, whichever is earlier.(4) The court receiving a document filed electronically shall issue a confirmation that the document has been received and filed. The confirmation shall serve as proof that the document has been filed.(5) Upon electronic filing of a complaint, petition, or other document that must be served with a summons, a trial court, upon request of the party filing the action, shall issue a summons with the court seal and the case number. The court shall keep the summons in its records and may electronically transmit a copy of the summons to the requesting party. Personal service of a printed form of the electronic summons shall have the same legal effect as personal service of an original summons. If a trial court plans to electronically transmit a summons to the party filing a complaint, the court shall immediately, upon receipt of the complaint, notify the attorney or party that a summons will be electronically transmitted to the electronic address given by the person filing the complaint.(6) The court shall permit a party or attorney to file an application for waiver of court fees and costs, in lieu of requiring the payment of the filing fee, as part of the process involving the electronic filing of a document. The court shall consider and determine the application in accordance with Article 6 (commencing with Section 68630) of Chapter 2 of Title 8 of the Government Code and shall not require the party or attorney to submit any documentation other than that set forth in Article 6 (commencing with Section 68630) of Chapter 2 of Title 8 of the Government Code. Nothing in this section shall require the court to waive a filing fee that is not otherwise waivable.(7) A fee, if any, charged by the court, an electronic filing manager, or an electronic filing service provider to process a payment for filing fees and other court fees shall not exceed the costs incurred in processing the payment.(c) If a trial court adopts rules conforming to subdivision (b), it may provide by order that all parties to an action file and serve documents electronically in a class action, a consolidated action, a group of actions, a coordinated action, or an action that is deemed complex under Judicial Council rules, provided that the trial courts order does not cause undue hardship or significant prejudice to any party in the action.(d) (1) Notwithstanding subdivision (b), the Orange County Superior Court may, by local rule and until July 1, 2014, establish a pilot project to require parties to specified civil actions to electronically file and serve documents, subject to the requirements set forth in paragraphs (1), (2), (4), (5), and (6) of subdivision (b), rules adopted pursuant to subdivision (e), and the following conditions:(A) The court shall have the ability to maintain the official court record in electronic format for all cases where electronic filing is required.(B) The court and the parties shall have access to more than one electronic filing service provider capable of electronically filing documents with the court or to electronic filing access directly through the court. The court may charge fees of no more than the actual cost of the electronic filing and service of the documents. Any fees charged by an electronic filing service provider shall be reasonable. The court, an electronic filing manager, or an electronic filing service provider shall waive any fees charged if the court deems a waiver appropriate, including in instances where a party has received a fee waiver.(C) The court shall have a procedure for the filing of nonelectronic documents in order to prevent the program from causing undue hardship or significant prejudice to any party in an action, including, but not limited to, unrepresented parties.(D) A court that elects to require electronic filing pursuant to this subdivision may permit documents to be filed electronically until 12 a.m. of the day after the court date that the filing is due, and the filing shall be considered timely. However, if same day service of a document is required, the document shall be electronically filed by 5 p.m. on the court date that the filing is due. Ex parte documents shall be electronically filed on the same date and within the same time period as would be required for the filing of a hard copy of the ex parte documents at the clerks window in the participating county. Documents filed on or after 12 a.m., or filed upon a noncourt day, will be deemed filed on the soonest court day following the filing.(2) If a pilot project is established pursuant to paragraph (1), the Judicial Council shall conduct an evaluation of the pilot project and report to the Legislature, on or before December 31, 2013, on the results of the evaluation. The evaluation shall review, among other things, the cost of the program to participants, cost-effectiveness for the court, effect on unrepresented parties and parties with fee waivers, and ease of use for participants.(e) The Judicial Council shall adopt uniform rules for the electronic filing and service of documents in the trial courts of the state, which shall include statewide policies on vendor contracts, privacy, and access to public records, and rules relating to the integrity of electronic service. These rules shall conform to the conditions set forth in this section, as amended from time to time.(f) The Judicial Council shall, on or before July 1, 2014, adopt uniform rules to permit the mandatory electronic filing and service of documents for specified civil actions in the trial courts of the state, which shall be informed by any study performed pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (d) and which shall include statewide policies on vendor contracts, privacy, access to public records, unrepresented parties, parties with fee waivers, hardships, reasonable exceptions to electronic filing, and rules relating to the integrity of electronic service. These rules shall conform to the conditions set forth in this section, as amended from time to time.(g) (1) Upon the adoption of uniform rules by the Judicial Council for mandatory electronic filing and service of documents for specified civil actions in the trial courts of the state, as specified in subdivision (f), a superior court may, by local rule, require mandatory electronic filing, pursuant to paragraph (2).(2) A superior court that elects to adopt mandatory electronic filing shall do so pursuant to the requirements and conditions set forth in this section, including, but not limited to, paragraphs (1), (2), (4), (5), (6), and (7) of subdivision (b), and subparagraphs (A), (B), and (C) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (d), and pursuant to the rules adopted by the Judicial Council, as specified in subdivision (f).(h) (1) The Judicial Council shall adopt uniform rules to implement this subdivision as soon as practicable, but no later than June 30, 2019.(2) Any system for the electronic filing and service of documents, including any information technology applications, Internet Web sites, and Web-based applications, used by an electronic service provider or any other vendor or contractor that provides an electronic filing and service system to a trial court, regardless of the case management system used by the trial court, shall satisfy both of the following requirements:(A) The system shall be accessible to individuals with disabilities, including parties and attorneys with disabilities, in accordance with Section 508 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. Sec. 794d), as amended, the regulations implementing that act set forth in Part 1194 of Title 36 of the Code of Federal Regulations and Appendices A, C, and D of that part, and the federal Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (42 U.S.C. Sec. 12101 et seq.).(B) The system shall comply with the Web Content Accessibility Guidelines 2.0 at a Level AA success criteria.(3) A vendor or contractor that provides an electronic filing and service system to a trial court shall comply with paragraph (2) as soon as practicable, but no later than June 30, 2019. Commencing on the operative date of this subdivision, the vendor or contractor shall provide an accommodation to an individual with a disability in accordance with subparagraph (D) of paragraph (4).(4) A trial court that contracts with an entity for the provision of a system for electronic filing and service of documents shall require the entity, in the trial courts contract with the entity, to do all of the following:(A) Test and verify that the entitys system complies with this subdivision and provide the verification to the Judicial Council no later than June 30, 2019.(B) Respond to, and resolve, any complaints regarding the accessibility of the system that are brought to the attention of the entity.(C) Designate a lead individual to whom any complaints concerning accessibility may be addressed and post the individuals name and contact information on the entitys Internet Web site.(D) Provide to an individual with a disability, upon request, an accommodation to enable the individual to file and serve documents electronically at no additional charge for any time period that the entity is not compliant with paragraph (2) of this subdivision. Exempting an individual with a disability from mandatory electronic filing and service of documents shall not be deemed an accommodation unless the person chooses that as an accommodation. The vendor or contractor shall clearly state in its Internet Web site that an individual with a disability may request an accommodation and the process for submitting a request for an accommodation.(5) A trial court that provides electronic filing and service of documents directly to the public shall comply with this subdivision to the same extent as a vendor or contractor that provides electronic filing and services to a trial court.(6) (A) The Judicial Council shall submit four reports to the appropriate committees of the Legislature relating to the trial courts that have implemented a system of electronic filing and service of documents. The first report is due by June 30, 2018; the second report is due by December 31, 2019; the third report is due by December 31, 2021; and the fourth report is due by December 31, 2023.(B) The Judicial Councils reports shall include all of the following information:(i) The name of each court that has implemented a system of electronic filing and service of documents.(ii) A description of the system of electronic filing and service.(iii) The name of the entity or entities providing the system.(iv) A statement as to whether the system complies with this subdivision and, if the system is not fully compliant, a description of the actions that have been taken to make the system compliant.(7) An entity that contracts with a trial court to provide a system for electronic filing and service of documents shall cooperate with the Judicial Council by providing all information, and by permitting all testing, necessary for the Judicial Council to prepare its reports to the Legislature in a complete and timely manner.
225236
226237 SEC. 5. Section 1010.6 of the Code of Civil Procedure is amended to read:
227238
228239 ### SEC. 5.
229240
230241 1010.6. (a) A document may be served electronically in an action filed with the court as provided in this section, in accordance with rules adopted pursuant to subdivision (e).(1) For purposes of this section:(A) Electronic service means service of a document, on a party or other person, by either electronic transmission or electronic notification. Electronic service may be performed directly by a party, by an agent of a party, including the partys attorney, or through an electronic filing service provider.(B) Electronic transmission means the transmission of a document by electronic means to the electronic service address at or through which a party or other person has authorized electronic service.(C) Electronic notification means the notification of the party or other person that a document is served by sending an electronic message to the electronic address at or through which the party or other person has authorized electronic service, specifying the exact name of the document served, and providing a hyperlink at which the served document may be viewed and downloaded.(2) If a document may be served by mail, express mail, overnight delivery, or facsimile transmission, electronic service of the document is authorized when a party has agreed to accept service electronically in that action.(3) In any action in which a party has agreed to accept electronic service under paragraph (2), or in which the court has ordered electronic service under subdivision (c) or (d), the court may electronically serve any document issued by the court that is not required to be personally served in the same manner that parties electronically serve documents. The electronic service of documents by the court shall have the same legal effect as service by mail, except as provided in paragraph (4).(4) (A) Electronic service of a document is complete at the time of the electronic transmission of the document or at the time that the electronic notification of service of the document is sent. However, any period of notice, or any right or duty to do any act or make any response within any period or on a date certain after the service of the document, which time period or date is prescribed by statute or rule of court, shall be extended after service by electronic means by two court days, but the extension shall not apply to extend the time for filing any of the following:(i) A notice of intention to move for new trial.(ii) A notice of intention to move to vacate judgment under Section 663a.(iii) A notice of appeal.(B) This extension applies in the absence of a specific exception provided by any other statute or rule of court.(b) A trial court may adopt local rules permitting electronic filing of documents, subject to rules adopted pursuant to subdivision (e) and the following conditions:(1) A document that is filed electronically shall have the same legal effect as an original paper document.(2) (A) When a document to be filed requires the signature, not under penalty of perjury, of an attorney or a self-represented party, the document shall be deemed to have been signed by that attorney or self-represented party if filed electronically.(B) When a document to be filed requires the signature, under penalty of perjury, of any person, the document shall be deemed to have been signed by that person if filed electronically and if a printed form of the document has been signed by that person before or on the same day as, the date of filing. The attorney or person filing the document represents, by the act of filing, that the declarant has complied with this section. The attorney or person filing the document shall maintain the printed form of the document bearing the original signature and make it available for review and copying upon the request of the court or any party to the action or proceeding in which it is filed.(3) Any document that is electronically filed with the court after the close of business on any day shall be deemed to have been filed on the next court day. Close of business, as used in this paragraph, means 5 p.m. or the time at which the court will not accept filing at the courts filing counter, whichever is earlier.(4) The court receiving a document filed electronically shall issue a confirmation that the document has been received and filed. The confirmation shall serve as proof that the document has been filed.(5) Upon electronic filing of a complaint, petition, or other document that must be served with a summons, a trial court, upon request of the party filing the action, shall issue a summons with the court seal and the case number. The court shall keep the summons in its records and may electronically transmit a copy of the summons to the requesting party. Personal service of a printed form of the electronic summons shall have the same legal effect as personal service of an original summons. If a trial court plans to electronically transmit a summons to the party filing a complaint, the court shall immediately, upon receipt of the complaint, notify the attorney or party that a summons will be electronically transmitted to the electronic address given by the person filing the complaint.(6) The court shall permit a party or attorney to file an application for waiver of court fees and costs, in lieu of requiring the payment of the filing fee, as part of the process involving the electronic filing of a document. The court shall consider and determine the application in accordance with Article 6 (commencing with Section 68630) of Chapter 2 of Title 8 of the Government Code and shall not require the party or attorney to submit any documentation other than that set forth in Article 6 (commencing with Section 68630) of Chapter 2 of Title 8 of the Government Code. Nothing in this section shall require the court to waive a filing fee that is not otherwise waivable.(7) A fee, if any, charged by the court, an electronic filing manager, or an electronic filing service provider to process a payment for filing fees and other court fees shall not exceed the costs incurred in processing the payment.(c) If a trial court adopts rules conforming to subdivision (b), it may provide by order that all parties to an action file and serve documents electronically in a class action, a consolidated action, a group of actions, a coordinated action, or an action that is deemed complex under Judicial Council rules, provided that the trial courts order does not cause undue hardship or significant prejudice to any party in the action.(d) (1) Notwithstanding subdivision (b), the Orange County Superior Court may, by local rule and until July 1, 2014, establish a pilot project to require parties to specified civil actions to electronically file and serve documents, subject to the requirements set forth in paragraphs (1), (2), (4), (5), and (6) of subdivision (b), rules adopted pursuant to subdivision (e), and the following conditions:(A) The court shall have the ability to maintain the official court record in electronic format for all cases where electronic filing is required.(B) The court and the parties shall have access to more than one electronic filing service provider capable of electronically filing documents with the court or to electronic filing access directly through the court. The court may charge fees of no more than the actual cost of the electronic filing and service of the documents. Any fees charged by an electronic filing service provider shall be reasonable. The court, an electronic filing manager, or an electronic filing service provider shall waive any fees charged if the court deems a waiver appropriate, including in instances where a party has received a fee waiver.(C) The court shall have a procedure for the filing of nonelectronic documents in order to prevent the program from causing undue hardship or significant prejudice to any party in an action, including, but not limited to, unrepresented parties.(D) A court that elects to require electronic filing pursuant to this subdivision may permit documents to be filed electronically until 12 a.m. of the day after the court date that the filing is due, and the filing shall be considered timely. However, if same day service of a document is required, the document shall be electronically filed by 5 p.m. on the court date that the filing is due. Ex parte documents shall be electronically filed on the same date and within the same time period as would be required for the filing of a hard copy of the ex parte documents at the clerks window in the participating county. Documents filed on or after 12 a.m., or filed upon a noncourt day, will be deemed filed on the soonest court day following the filing.(2) If a pilot project is established pursuant to paragraph (1), the Judicial Council shall conduct an evaluation of the pilot project and report to the Legislature, on or before December 31, 2013, on the results of the evaluation. The evaluation shall review, among other things, the cost of the program to participants, cost-effectiveness for the court, effect on unrepresented parties and parties with fee waivers, and ease of use for participants.(e) The Judicial Council shall adopt uniform rules for the electronic filing and service of documents in the trial courts of the state, which shall include statewide policies on vendor contracts, privacy, and access to public records, and rules relating to the integrity of electronic service. These rules shall conform to the conditions set forth in this section, as amended from time to time.(f) The Judicial Council shall, on or before July 1, 2014, adopt uniform rules to permit the mandatory electronic filing and service of documents for specified civil actions in the trial courts of the state, which shall be informed by any study performed pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (d) and which shall include statewide policies on vendor contracts, privacy, access to public records, unrepresented parties, parties with fee waivers, hardships, reasonable exceptions to electronic filing, and rules relating to the integrity of electronic service. These rules shall conform to the conditions set forth in this section, as amended from time to time.(g) (1) Upon the adoption of uniform rules by the Judicial Council for mandatory electronic filing and service of documents for specified civil actions in the trial courts of the state, as specified in subdivision (f), a superior court may, by local rule, require mandatory electronic filing, pursuant to paragraph (2).(2) A superior court that elects to adopt mandatory electronic filing shall do so pursuant to the requirements and conditions set forth in this section, including, but not limited to, paragraphs (1), (2), (4), (5), (6), and (7) of subdivision (b), and subparagraphs (A), (B), and (C) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (d), and pursuant to the rules adopted by the Judicial Council, as specified in subdivision (f).(h) (1) The Judicial Council shall adopt uniform rules to implement this subdivision as soon as practicable, but no later than June 30, 2019.(2) Any system for the electronic filing and service of documents, including any information technology applications, Internet Web sites, and Web-based applications, used by an electronic service provider or any other vendor or contractor that provides an electronic filing and service system to a trial court, regardless of the case management system used by the trial court, shall satisfy both of the following requirements:(A) The system shall be accessible to individuals with disabilities, including parties and attorneys with disabilities, in accordance with Section 508 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. Sec. 794d), as amended, the regulations implementing that act set forth in Part 1194 of Title 36 of the Code of Federal Regulations and Appendices A, C, and D of that part, and the federal Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (42 U.S.C. Sec. 12101 et seq.).(B) The system shall comply with the Web Content Accessibility Guidelines 2.0 at a Level AA success criteria.(3) A vendor or contractor that provides an electronic filing and service system to a trial court shall comply with paragraph (2) as soon as practicable, but no later than June 30, 2019. Commencing on the operative date of this subdivision, the vendor or contractor shall provide an accommodation to an individual with a disability in accordance with subparagraph (D) of paragraph (4).(4) A trial court that contracts with an entity for the provision of a system for electronic filing and service of documents shall require the entity, in the trial courts contract with the entity, to do all of the following:(A) Test and verify that the entitys system complies with this subdivision and provide the verification to the Judicial Council no later than June 30, 2019.(B) Respond to, and resolve, any complaints regarding the accessibility of the system that are brought to the attention of the entity.(C) Designate a lead individual to whom any complaints concerning accessibility may be addressed and post the individuals name and contact information on the entitys Internet Web site.(D) Provide to an individual with a disability, upon request, an accommodation to enable the individual to file and serve documents electronically at no additional charge for any time period that the entity is not compliant with paragraph (2) of this subdivision. Exempting an individual with a disability from mandatory electronic filing and service of documents shall not be deemed an accommodation unless the person chooses that as an accommodation. The vendor or contractor shall clearly state in its Internet Web site that an individual with a disability may request an accommodation and the process for submitting a request for an accommodation.(5) A trial court that provides electronic filing and service of documents directly to the public shall comply with this subdivision to the same extent as a vendor or contractor that provides electronic filing and services to a trial court.(6) (A) The Judicial Council shall submit four reports to the appropriate committees of the Legislature relating to the trial courts that have implemented a system of electronic filing and service of documents. The first report is due by June 30, 2018; the second report is due by December 31, 2019; the third report is due by December 31, 2021; and the fourth report is due by December 31, 2023.(B) The Judicial Councils reports shall include all of the following information:(i) The name of each court that has implemented a system of electronic filing and service of documents.(ii) A description of the system of electronic filing and service.(iii) The name of the entity or entities providing the system.(iv) A statement as to whether the system complies with this subdivision and, if the system is not fully compliant, a description of the actions that have been taken to make the system compliant.(7) An entity that contracts with a trial court to provide a system for electronic filing and service of documents shall cooperate with the Judicial Council by providing all information, and by permitting all testing, necessary for the Judicial Council to prepare its reports to the Legislature in a complete and timely manner.
231242
232243 1010.6. (a) A document may be served electronically in an action filed with the court as provided in this section, in accordance with rules adopted pursuant to subdivision (e).(1) For purposes of this section:(A) Electronic service means service of a document, on a party or other person, by either electronic transmission or electronic notification. Electronic service may be performed directly by a party, by an agent of a party, including the partys attorney, or through an electronic filing service provider.(B) Electronic transmission means the transmission of a document by electronic means to the electronic service address at or through which a party or other person has authorized electronic service.(C) Electronic notification means the notification of the party or other person that a document is served by sending an electronic message to the electronic address at or through which the party or other person has authorized electronic service, specifying the exact name of the document served, and providing a hyperlink at which the served document may be viewed and downloaded.(2) If a document may be served by mail, express mail, overnight delivery, or facsimile transmission, electronic service of the document is authorized when a party has agreed to accept service electronically in that action.(3) In any action in which a party has agreed to accept electronic service under paragraph (2), or in which the court has ordered electronic service under subdivision (c) or (d), the court may electronically serve any document issued by the court that is not required to be personally served in the same manner that parties electronically serve documents. The electronic service of documents by the court shall have the same legal effect as service by mail, except as provided in paragraph (4).(4) (A) Electronic service of a document is complete at the time of the electronic transmission of the document or at the time that the electronic notification of service of the document is sent. However, any period of notice, or any right or duty to do any act or make any response within any period or on a date certain after the service of the document, which time period or date is prescribed by statute or rule of court, shall be extended after service by electronic means by two court days, but the extension shall not apply to extend the time for filing any of the following:(i) A notice of intention to move for new trial.(ii) A notice of intention to move to vacate judgment under Section 663a.(iii) A notice of appeal.(B) This extension applies in the absence of a specific exception provided by any other statute or rule of court.(b) A trial court may adopt local rules permitting electronic filing of documents, subject to rules adopted pursuant to subdivision (e) and the following conditions:(1) A document that is filed electronically shall have the same legal effect as an original paper document.(2) (A) When a document to be filed requires the signature, not under penalty of perjury, of an attorney or a self-represented party, the document shall be deemed to have been signed by that attorney or self-represented party if filed electronically.(B) When a document to be filed requires the signature, under penalty of perjury, of any person, the document shall be deemed to have been signed by that person if filed electronically and if a printed form of the document has been signed by that person before or on the same day as, the date of filing. The attorney or person filing the document represents, by the act of filing, that the declarant has complied with this section. The attorney or person filing the document shall maintain the printed form of the document bearing the original signature and make it available for review and copying upon the request of the court or any party to the action or proceeding in which it is filed.(3) Any document that is electronically filed with the court after the close of business on any day shall be deemed to have been filed on the next court day. Close of business, as used in this paragraph, means 5 p.m. or the time at which the court will not accept filing at the courts filing counter, whichever is earlier.(4) The court receiving a document filed electronically shall issue a confirmation that the document has been received and filed. The confirmation shall serve as proof that the document has been filed.(5) Upon electronic filing of a complaint, petition, or other document that must be served with a summons, a trial court, upon request of the party filing the action, shall issue a summons with the court seal and the case number. The court shall keep the summons in its records and may electronically transmit a copy of the summons to the requesting party. Personal service of a printed form of the electronic summons shall have the same legal effect as personal service of an original summons. If a trial court plans to electronically transmit a summons to the party filing a complaint, the court shall immediately, upon receipt of the complaint, notify the attorney or party that a summons will be electronically transmitted to the electronic address given by the person filing the complaint.(6) The court shall permit a party or attorney to file an application for waiver of court fees and costs, in lieu of requiring the payment of the filing fee, as part of the process involving the electronic filing of a document. The court shall consider and determine the application in accordance with Article 6 (commencing with Section 68630) of Chapter 2 of Title 8 of the Government Code and shall not require the party or attorney to submit any documentation other than that set forth in Article 6 (commencing with Section 68630) of Chapter 2 of Title 8 of the Government Code. Nothing in this section shall require the court to waive a filing fee that is not otherwise waivable.(7) A fee, if any, charged by the court, an electronic filing manager, or an electronic filing service provider to process a payment for filing fees and other court fees shall not exceed the costs incurred in processing the payment.(c) If a trial court adopts rules conforming to subdivision (b), it may provide by order that all parties to an action file and serve documents electronically in a class action, a consolidated action, a group of actions, a coordinated action, or an action that is deemed complex under Judicial Council rules, provided that the trial courts order does not cause undue hardship or significant prejudice to any party in the action.(d) (1) Notwithstanding subdivision (b), the Orange County Superior Court may, by local rule and until July 1, 2014, establish a pilot project to require parties to specified civil actions to electronically file and serve documents, subject to the requirements set forth in paragraphs (1), (2), (4), (5), and (6) of subdivision (b), rules adopted pursuant to subdivision (e), and the following conditions:(A) The court shall have the ability to maintain the official court record in electronic format for all cases where electronic filing is required.(B) The court and the parties shall have access to more than one electronic filing service provider capable of electronically filing documents with the court or to electronic filing access directly through the court. The court may charge fees of no more than the actual cost of the electronic filing and service of the documents. Any fees charged by an electronic filing service provider shall be reasonable. The court, an electronic filing manager, or an electronic filing service provider shall waive any fees charged if the court deems a waiver appropriate, including in instances where a party has received a fee waiver.(C) The court shall have a procedure for the filing of nonelectronic documents in order to prevent the program from causing undue hardship or significant prejudice to any party in an action, including, but not limited to, unrepresented parties.(D) A court that elects to require electronic filing pursuant to this subdivision may permit documents to be filed electronically until 12 a.m. of the day after the court date that the filing is due, and the filing shall be considered timely. However, if same day service of a document is required, the document shall be electronically filed by 5 p.m. on the court date that the filing is due. Ex parte documents shall be electronically filed on the same date and within the same time period as would be required for the filing of a hard copy of the ex parte documents at the clerks window in the participating county. Documents filed on or after 12 a.m., or filed upon a noncourt day, will be deemed filed on the soonest court day following the filing.(2) If a pilot project is established pursuant to paragraph (1), the Judicial Council shall conduct an evaluation of the pilot project and report to the Legislature, on or before December 31, 2013, on the results of the evaluation. The evaluation shall review, among other things, the cost of the program to participants, cost-effectiveness for the court, effect on unrepresented parties and parties with fee waivers, and ease of use for participants.(e) The Judicial Council shall adopt uniform rules for the electronic filing and service of documents in the trial courts of the state, which shall include statewide policies on vendor contracts, privacy, and access to public records, and rules relating to the integrity of electronic service. These rules shall conform to the conditions set forth in this section, as amended from time to time.(f) The Judicial Council shall, on or before July 1, 2014, adopt uniform rules to permit the mandatory electronic filing and service of documents for specified civil actions in the trial courts of the state, which shall be informed by any study performed pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (d) and which shall include statewide policies on vendor contracts, privacy, access to public records, unrepresented parties, parties with fee waivers, hardships, reasonable exceptions to electronic filing, and rules relating to the integrity of electronic service. These rules shall conform to the conditions set forth in this section, as amended from time to time.(g) (1) Upon the adoption of uniform rules by the Judicial Council for mandatory electronic filing and service of documents for specified civil actions in the trial courts of the state, as specified in subdivision (f), a superior court may, by local rule, require mandatory electronic filing, pursuant to paragraph (2).(2) A superior court that elects to adopt mandatory electronic filing shall do so pursuant to the requirements and conditions set forth in this section, including, but not limited to, paragraphs (1), (2), (4), (5), (6), and (7) of subdivision (b), and subparagraphs (A), (B), and (C) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (d), and pursuant to the rules adopted by the Judicial Council, as specified in subdivision (f).(h) (1) The Judicial Council shall adopt uniform rules to implement this subdivision as soon as practicable, but no later than June 30, 2019.(2) Any system for the electronic filing and service of documents, including any information technology applications, Internet Web sites, and Web-based applications, used by an electronic service provider or any other vendor or contractor that provides an electronic filing and service system to a trial court, regardless of the case management system used by the trial court, shall satisfy both of the following requirements:(A) The system shall be accessible to individuals with disabilities, including parties and attorneys with disabilities, in accordance with Section 508 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. Sec. 794d), as amended, the regulations implementing that act set forth in Part 1194 of Title 36 of the Code of Federal Regulations and Appendices A, C, and D of that part, and the federal Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (42 U.S.C. Sec. 12101 et seq.).(B) The system shall comply with the Web Content Accessibility Guidelines 2.0 at a Level AA success criteria.(3) A vendor or contractor that provides an electronic filing and service system to a trial court shall comply with paragraph (2) as soon as practicable, but no later than June 30, 2019. Commencing on the operative date of this subdivision, the vendor or contractor shall provide an accommodation to an individual with a disability in accordance with subparagraph (D) of paragraph (4).(4) A trial court that contracts with an entity for the provision of a system for electronic filing and service of documents shall require the entity, in the trial courts contract with the entity, to do all of the following:(A) Test and verify that the entitys system complies with this subdivision and provide the verification to the Judicial Council no later than June 30, 2019.(B) Respond to, and resolve, any complaints regarding the accessibility of the system that are brought to the attention of the entity.(C) Designate a lead individual to whom any complaints concerning accessibility may be addressed and post the individuals name and contact information on the entitys Internet Web site.(D) Provide to an individual with a disability, upon request, an accommodation to enable the individual to file and serve documents electronically at no additional charge for any time period that the entity is not compliant with paragraph (2) of this subdivision. Exempting an individual with a disability from mandatory electronic filing and service of documents shall not be deemed an accommodation unless the person chooses that as an accommodation. The vendor or contractor shall clearly state in its Internet Web site that an individual with a disability may request an accommodation and the process for submitting a request for an accommodation.(5) A trial court that provides electronic filing and service of documents directly to the public shall comply with this subdivision to the same extent as a vendor or contractor that provides electronic filing and services to a trial court.(6) (A) The Judicial Council shall submit four reports to the appropriate committees of the Legislature relating to the trial courts that have implemented a system of electronic filing and service of documents. The first report is due by June 30, 2018; the second report is due by December 31, 2019; the third report is due by December 31, 2021; and the fourth report is due by December 31, 2023.(B) The Judicial Councils reports shall include all of the following information:(i) The name of each court that has implemented a system of electronic filing and service of documents.(ii) A description of the system of electronic filing and service.(iii) The name of the entity or entities providing the system.(iv) A statement as to whether the system complies with this subdivision and, if the system is not fully compliant, a description of the actions that have been taken to make the system compliant.(7) An entity that contracts with a trial court to provide a system for electronic filing and service of documents shall cooperate with the Judicial Council by providing all information, and by permitting all testing, necessary for the Judicial Council to prepare its reports to the Legislature in a complete and timely manner.
233244
234245 1010.6. (a) A document may be served electronically in an action filed with the court as provided in this section, in accordance with rules adopted pursuant to subdivision (e).(1) For purposes of this section:(A) Electronic service means service of a document, on a party or other person, by either electronic transmission or electronic notification. Electronic service may be performed directly by a party, by an agent of a party, including the partys attorney, or through an electronic filing service provider.(B) Electronic transmission means the transmission of a document by electronic means to the electronic service address at or through which a party or other person has authorized electronic service.(C) Electronic notification means the notification of the party or other person that a document is served by sending an electronic message to the electronic address at or through which the party or other person has authorized electronic service, specifying the exact name of the document served, and providing a hyperlink at which the served document may be viewed and downloaded.(2) If a document may be served by mail, express mail, overnight delivery, or facsimile transmission, electronic service of the document is authorized when a party has agreed to accept service electronically in that action.(3) In any action in which a party has agreed to accept electronic service under paragraph (2), or in which the court has ordered electronic service under subdivision (c) or (d), the court may electronically serve any document issued by the court that is not required to be personally served in the same manner that parties electronically serve documents. The electronic service of documents by the court shall have the same legal effect as service by mail, except as provided in paragraph (4).(4) (A) Electronic service of a document is complete at the time of the electronic transmission of the document or at the time that the electronic notification of service of the document is sent. However, any period of notice, or any right or duty to do any act or make any response within any period or on a date certain after the service of the document, which time period or date is prescribed by statute or rule of court, shall be extended after service by electronic means by two court days, but the extension shall not apply to extend the time for filing any of the following:(i) A notice of intention to move for new trial.(ii) A notice of intention to move to vacate judgment under Section 663a.(iii) A notice of appeal.(B) This extension applies in the absence of a specific exception provided by any other statute or rule of court.(b) A trial court may adopt local rules permitting electronic filing of documents, subject to rules adopted pursuant to subdivision (e) and the following conditions:(1) A document that is filed electronically shall have the same legal effect as an original paper document.(2) (A) When a document to be filed requires the signature, not under penalty of perjury, of an attorney or a self-represented party, the document shall be deemed to have been signed by that attorney or self-represented party if filed electronically.(B) When a document to be filed requires the signature, under penalty of perjury, of any person, the document shall be deemed to have been signed by that person if filed electronically and if a printed form of the document has been signed by that person before or on the same day as, the date of filing. The attorney or person filing the document represents, by the act of filing, that the declarant has complied with this section. The attorney or person filing the document shall maintain the printed form of the document bearing the original signature and make it available for review and copying upon the request of the court or any party to the action or proceeding in which it is filed.(3) Any document that is electronically filed with the court after the close of business on any day shall be deemed to have been filed on the next court day. Close of business, as used in this paragraph, means 5 p.m. or the time at which the court will not accept filing at the courts filing counter, whichever is earlier.(4) The court receiving a document filed electronically shall issue a confirmation that the document has been received and filed. The confirmation shall serve as proof that the document has been filed.(5) Upon electronic filing of a complaint, petition, or other document that must be served with a summons, a trial court, upon request of the party filing the action, shall issue a summons with the court seal and the case number. The court shall keep the summons in its records and may electronically transmit a copy of the summons to the requesting party. Personal service of a printed form of the electronic summons shall have the same legal effect as personal service of an original summons. If a trial court plans to electronically transmit a summons to the party filing a complaint, the court shall immediately, upon receipt of the complaint, notify the attorney or party that a summons will be electronically transmitted to the electronic address given by the person filing the complaint.(6) The court shall permit a party or attorney to file an application for waiver of court fees and costs, in lieu of requiring the payment of the filing fee, as part of the process involving the electronic filing of a document. The court shall consider and determine the application in accordance with Article 6 (commencing with Section 68630) of Chapter 2 of Title 8 of the Government Code and shall not require the party or attorney to submit any documentation other than that set forth in Article 6 (commencing with Section 68630) of Chapter 2 of Title 8 of the Government Code. Nothing in this section shall require the court to waive a filing fee that is not otherwise waivable.(7) A fee, if any, charged by the court, an electronic filing manager, or an electronic filing service provider to process a payment for filing fees and other court fees shall not exceed the costs incurred in processing the payment.(c) If a trial court adopts rules conforming to subdivision (b), it may provide by order that all parties to an action file and serve documents electronically in a class action, a consolidated action, a group of actions, a coordinated action, or an action that is deemed complex under Judicial Council rules, provided that the trial courts order does not cause undue hardship or significant prejudice to any party in the action.(d) (1) Notwithstanding subdivision (b), the Orange County Superior Court may, by local rule and until July 1, 2014, establish a pilot project to require parties to specified civil actions to electronically file and serve documents, subject to the requirements set forth in paragraphs (1), (2), (4), (5), and (6) of subdivision (b), rules adopted pursuant to subdivision (e), and the following conditions:(A) The court shall have the ability to maintain the official court record in electronic format for all cases where electronic filing is required.(B) The court and the parties shall have access to more than one electronic filing service provider capable of electronically filing documents with the court or to electronic filing access directly through the court. The court may charge fees of no more than the actual cost of the electronic filing and service of the documents. Any fees charged by an electronic filing service provider shall be reasonable. The court, an electronic filing manager, or an electronic filing service provider shall waive any fees charged if the court deems a waiver appropriate, including in instances where a party has received a fee waiver.(C) The court shall have a procedure for the filing of nonelectronic documents in order to prevent the program from causing undue hardship or significant prejudice to any party in an action, including, but not limited to, unrepresented parties.(D) A court that elects to require electronic filing pursuant to this subdivision may permit documents to be filed electronically until 12 a.m. of the day after the court date that the filing is due, and the filing shall be considered timely. However, if same day service of a document is required, the document shall be electronically filed by 5 p.m. on the court date that the filing is due. Ex parte documents shall be electronically filed on the same date and within the same time period as would be required for the filing of a hard copy of the ex parte documents at the clerks window in the participating county. Documents filed on or after 12 a.m., or filed upon a noncourt day, will be deemed filed on the soonest court day following the filing.(2) If a pilot project is established pursuant to paragraph (1), the Judicial Council shall conduct an evaluation of the pilot project and report to the Legislature, on or before December 31, 2013, on the results of the evaluation. The evaluation shall review, among other things, the cost of the program to participants, cost-effectiveness for the court, effect on unrepresented parties and parties with fee waivers, and ease of use for participants.(e) The Judicial Council shall adopt uniform rules for the electronic filing and service of documents in the trial courts of the state, which shall include statewide policies on vendor contracts, privacy, and access to public records, and rules relating to the integrity of electronic service. These rules shall conform to the conditions set forth in this section, as amended from time to time.(f) The Judicial Council shall, on or before July 1, 2014, adopt uniform rules to permit the mandatory electronic filing and service of documents for specified civil actions in the trial courts of the state, which shall be informed by any study performed pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (d) and which shall include statewide policies on vendor contracts, privacy, access to public records, unrepresented parties, parties with fee waivers, hardships, reasonable exceptions to electronic filing, and rules relating to the integrity of electronic service. These rules shall conform to the conditions set forth in this section, as amended from time to time.(g) (1) Upon the adoption of uniform rules by the Judicial Council for mandatory electronic filing and service of documents for specified civil actions in the trial courts of the state, as specified in subdivision (f), a superior court may, by local rule, require mandatory electronic filing, pursuant to paragraph (2).(2) A superior court that elects to adopt mandatory electronic filing shall do so pursuant to the requirements and conditions set forth in this section, including, but not limited to, paragraphs (1), (2), (4), (5), (6), and (7) of subdivision (b), and subparagraphs (A), (B), and (C) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (d), and pursuant to the rules adopted by the Judicial Council, as specified in subdivision (f).(h) (1) The Judicial Council shall adopt uniform rules to implement this subdivision as soon as practicable, but no later than June 30, 2019.(2) Any system for the electronic filing and service of documents, including any information technology applications, Internet Web sites, and Web-based applications, used by an electronic service provider or any other vendor or contractor that provides an electronic filing and service system to a trial court, regardless of the case management system used by the trial court, shall satisfy both of the following requirements:(A) The system shall be accessible to individuals with disabilities, including parties and attorneys with disabilities, in accordance with Section 508 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. Sec. 794d), as amended, the regulations implementing that act set forth in Part 1194 of Title 36 of the Code of Federal Regulations and Appendices A, C, and D of that part, and the federal Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (42 U.S.C. Sec. 12101 et seq.).(B) The system shall comply with the Web Content Accessibility Guidelines 2.0 at a Level AA success criteria.(3) A vendor or contractor that provides an electronic filing and service system to a trial court shall comply with paragraph (2) as soon as practicable, but no later than June 30, 2019. Commencing on the operative date of this subdivision, the vendor or contractor shall provide an accommodation to an individual with a disability in accordance with subparagraph (D) of paragraph (4).(4) A trial court that contracts with an entity for the provision of a system for electronic filing and service of documents shall require the entity, in the trial courts contract with the entity, to do all of the following:(A) Test and verify that the entitys system complies with this subdivision and provide the verification to the Judicial Council no later than June 30, 2019.(B) Respond to, and resolve, any complaints regarding the accessibility of the system that are brought to the attention of the entity.(C) Designate a lead individual to whom any complaints concerning accessibility may be addressed and post the individuals name and contact information on the entitys Internet Web site.(D) Provide to an individual with a disability, upon request, an accommodation to enable the individual to file and serve documents electronically at no additional charge for any time period that the entity is not compliant with paragraph (2) of this subdivision. Exempting an individual with a disability from mandatory electronic filing and service of documents shall not be deemed an accommodation unless the person chooses that as an accommodation. The vendor or contractor shall clearly state in its Internet Web site that an individual with a disability may request an accommodation and the process for submitting a request for an accommodation.(5) A trial court that provides electronic filing and service of documents directly to the public shall comply with this subdivision to the same extent as a vendor or contractor that provides electronic filing and services to a trial court.(6) (A) The Judicial Council shall submit four reports to the appropriate committees of the Legislature relating to the trial courts that have implemented a system of electronic filing and service of documents. The first report is due by June 30, 2018; the second report is due by December 31, 2019; the third report is due by December 31, 2021; and the fourth report is due by December 31, 2023.(B) The Judicial Councils reports shall include all of the following information:(i) The name of each court that has implemented a system of electronic filing and service of documents.(ii) A description of the system of electronic filing and service.(iii) The name of the entity or entities providing the system.(iv) A statement as to whether the system complies with this subdivision and, if the system is not fully compliant, a description of the actions that have been taken to make the system compliant.(7) An entity that contracts with a trial court to provide a system for electronic filing and service of documents shall cooperate with the Judicial Council by providing all information, and by permitting all testing, necessary for the Judicial Council to prepare its reports to the Legislature in a complete and timely manner.
235246
236247
237248
238249 1010.6. (a) A document may be served electronically in an action filed with the court as provided in this section, in accordance with rules adopted pursuant to subdivision (e).
239250
240251 (1) For purposes of this section:
241252
242253 (A) Electronic service means service of a document, on a party or other person, by either electronic transmission or electronic notification. Electronic service may be performed directly by a party, by an agent of a party, including the partys attorney, or through an electronic filing service provider.
243254
244255 (B) Electronic transmission means the transmission of a document by electronic means to the electronic service address at or through which a party or other person has authorized electronic service.
245256
246257 (C) Electronic notification means the notification of the party or other person that a document is served by sending an electronic message to the electronic address at or through which the party or other person has authorized electronic service, specifying the exact name of the document served, and providing a hyperlink at which the served document may be viewed and downloaded.
247258
248259 (2) If a document may be served by mail, express mail, overnight delivery, or facsimile transmission, electronic service of the document is authorized when a party has agreed to accept service electronically in that action.
249260
250261 (3) In any action in which a party has agreed to accept electronic service under paragraph (2), or in which the court has ordered electronic service under subdivision (c) or (d), the court may electronically serve any document issued by the court that is not required to be personally served in the same manner that parties electronically serve documents. The electronic service of documents by the court shall have the same legal effect as service by mail, except as provided in paragraph (4).
251262
252263 (4) (A) Electronic service of a document is complete at the time of the electronic transmission of the document or at the time that the electronic notification of service of the document is sent. However, any period of notice, or any right or duty to do any act or make any response within any period or on a date certain after the service of the document, which time period or date is prescribed by statute or rule of court, shall be extended after service by electronic means by two court days, but the extension shall not apply to extend the time for filing any of the following:
253264
254265 (i) A notice of intention to move for new trial.
255266
256267 (ii) A notice of intention to move to vacate judgment under Section 663a.
257268
258269 (iii) A notice of appeal.
259270
260271 (B) This extension applies in the absence of a specific exception provided by any other statute or rule of court.
261272
262273 (b) A trial court may adopt local rules permitting electronic filing of documents, subject to rules adopted pursuant to subdivision (e) and the following conditions:
263274
264275 (1) A document that is filed electronically shall have the same legal effect as an original paper document.
265276
266277 (2) (A) When a document to be filed requires the signature, not under penalty of perjury, of an attorney or a self-represented party, the document shall be deemed to have been signed by that attorney or self-represented party if filed electronically.
267278
268279 (B) When a document to be filed requires the signature, under penalty of perjury, of any person, the document shall be deemed to have been signed by that person if filed electronically and if a printed form of the document has been signed by that person before or on the same day as, the date of filing. The attorney or person filing the document represents, by the act of filing, that the declarant has complied with this section. The attorney or person filing the document shall maintain the printed form of the document bearing the original signature and make it available for review and copying upon the request of the court or any party to the action or proceeding in which it is filed.
269280
270281 (3) Any document that is electronically filed with the court after the close of business on any day shall be deemed to have been filed on the next court day. Close of business, as used in this paragraph, means 5 p.m. or the time at which the court will not accept filing at the courts filing counter, whichever is earlier.
271282
272283 (4) The court receiving a document filed electronically shall issue a confirmation that the document has been received and filed. The confirmation shall serve as proof that the document has been filed.
273284
274285 (5) Upon electronic filing of a complaint, petition, or other document that must be served with a summons, a trial court, upon request of the party filing the action, shall issue a summons with the court seal and the case number. The court shall keep the summons in its records and may electronically transmit a copy of the summons to the requesting party. Personal service of a printed form of the electronic summons shall have the same legal effect as personal service of an original summons. If a trial court plans to electronically transmit a summons to the party filing a complaint, the court shall immediately, upon receipt of the complaint, notify the attorney or party that a summons will be electronically transmitted to the electronic address given by the person filing the complaint.
275286
276287 (6) The court shall permit a party or attorney to file an application for waiver of court fees and costs, in lieu of requiring the payment of the filing fee, as part of the process involving the electronic filing of a document. The court shall consider and determine the application in accordance with Article 6 (commencing with Section 68630) of Chapter 2 of Title 8 of the Government Code and shall not require the party or attorney to submit any documentation other than that set forth in Article 6 (commencing with Section 68630) of Chapter 2 of Title 8 of the Government Code. Nothing in this section shall require the court to waive a filing fee that is not otherwise waivable.
277288
278289 (7) A fee, if any, charged by the court, an electronic filing manager, or an electronic filing service provider to process a payment for filing fees and other court fees shall not exceed the costs incurred in processing the payment.
279290
280291 (c) If a trial court adopts rules conforming to subdivision (b), it may provide by order that all parties to an action file and serve documents electronically in a class action, a consolidated action, a group of actions, a coordinated action, or an action that is deemed complex under Judicial Council rules, provided that the trial courts order does not cause undue hardship or significant prejudice to any party in the action.
281292
282293 (d) (1) Notwithstanding subdivision (b), the Orange County Superior Court may, by local rule and until July 1, 2014, establish a pilot project to require parties to specified civil actions to electronically file and serve documents, subject to the requirements set forth in paragraphs (1), (2), (4), (5), and (6) of subdivision (b), rules adopted pursuant to subdivision (e), and the following conditions:
283294
284295 (A) The court shall have the ability to maintain the official court record in electronic format for all cases where electronic filing is required.
285296
286297 (B) The court and the parties shall have access to more than one electronic filing service provider capable of electronically filing documents with the court or to electronic filing access directly through the court. The court may charge fees of no more than the actual cost of the electronic filing and service of the documents. Any fees charged by an electronic filing service provider shall be reasonable. The court, an electronic filing manager, or an electronic filing service provider shall waive any fees charged if the court deems a waiver appropriate, including in instances where a party has received a fee waiver.
287298
288299 (C) The court shall have a procedure for the filing of nonelectronic documents in order to prevent the program from causing undue hardship or significant prejudice to any party in an action, including, but not limited to, unrepresented parties.
289300
290301 (D) A court that elects to require electronic filing pursuant to this subdivision may permit documents to be filed electronically until 12 a.m. of the day after the court date that the filing is due, and the filing shall be considered timely. However, if same day service of a document is required, the document shall be electronically filed by 5 p.m. on the court date that the filing is due. Ex parte documents shall be electronically filed on the same date and within the same time period as would be required for the filing of a hard copy of the ex parte documents at the clerks window in the participating county. Documents filed on or after 12 a.m., or filed upon a noncourt day, will be deemed filed on the soonest court day following the filing.
291302
292303 (2) If a pilot project is established pursuant to paragraph (1), the Judicial Council shall conduct an evaluation of the pilot project and report to the Legislature, on or before December 31, 2013, on the results of the evaluation. The evaluation shall review, among other things, the cost of the program to participants, cost-effectiveness for the court, effect on unrepresented parties and parties with fee waivers, and ease of use for participants.
293304
294305 (e) The Judicial Council shall adopt uniform rules for the electronic filing and service of documents in the trial courts of the state, which shall include statewide policies on vendor contracts, privacy, and access to public records, and rules relating to the integrity of electronic service. These rules shall conform to the conditions set forth in this section, as amended from time to time.
295306
296307 (f) The Judicial Council shall, on or before July 1, 2014, adopt uniform rules to permit the mandatory electronic filing and service of documents for specified civil actions in the trial courts of the state, which shall be informed by any study performed pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (d) and which shall include statewide policies on vendor contracts, privacy, access to public records, unrepresented parties, parties with fee waivers, hardships, reasonable exceptions to electronic filing, and rules relating to the integrity of electronic service. These rules shall conform to the conditions set forth in this section, as amended from time to time.
297308
298309 (g) (1) Upon the adoption of uniform rules by the Judicial Council for mandatory electronic filing and service of documents for specified civil actions in the trial courts of the state, as specified in subdivision (f), a superior court may, by local rule, require mandatory electronic filing, pursuant to paragraph (2).
299310
300311 (2) A superior court that elects to adopt mandatory electronic filing shall do so pursuant to the requirements and conditions set forth in this section, including, but not limited to, paragraphs (1), (2), (4), (5), (6), and (7) of subdivision (b), and subparagraphs (A), (B), and (C) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (d), and pursuant to the rules adopted by the Judicial Council, as specified in subdivision (f).
301312
302313 (h) (1) The Judicial Council shall adopt uniform rules to implement this subdivision as soon as practicable, but no later than June 30, 2019.
303314
304315 (2) Any system for the electronic filing and service of documents, including any information technology applications, Internet Web sites, and Web-based applications, used by an electronic service provider or any other vendor or contractor that provides an electronic filing and service system to a trial court, regardless of the case management system used by the trial court, shall satisfy both of the following requirements:
305316
306317 (A) The system shall be accessible to individuals with disabilities, including parties and attorneys with disabilities, in accordance with Section 508 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. Sec. 794d), as amended, the regulations implementing that act set forth in Part 1194 of Title 36 of the Code of Federal Regulations and Appendices A, C, and D of that part, and the federal Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (42 U.S.C. Sec. 12101 et seq.).
307318
308319 (B) The system shall comply with the Web Content Accessibility Guidelines 2.0 at a Level AA success criteria.
309320
310321 (3) A vendor or contractor that provides an electronic filing and service system to a trial court shall comply with paragraph (2) as soon as practicable, but no later than June 30, 2019. Commencing on the operative date of this subdivision, the vendor or contractor shall provide an accommodation to an individual with a disability in accordance with subparagraph (D) of paragraph (4).
311322
312323 (4) A trial court that contracts with an entity for the provision of a system for electronic filing and service of documents shall require the entity, in the trial courts contract with the entity, to do all of the following:
313324
314325 (A) Test and verify that the entitys system complies with this subdivision and provide the verification to the Judicial Council no later than June 30, 2019.
315326
316327 (B) Respond to, and resolve, any complaints regarding the accessibility of the system that are brought to the attention of the entity.
317328
318329 (C) Designate a lead individual to whom any complaints concerning accessibility may be addressed and post the individuals name and contact information on the entitys Internet Web site.
319330
320331 (D) Provide to an individual with a disability, upon request, an accommodation to enable the individual to file and serve documents electronically at no additional charge for any time period that the entity is not compliant with paragraph (2) of this subdivision. Exempting an individual with a disability from mandatory electronic filing and service of documents shall not be deemed an accommodation unless the person chooses that as an accommodation. The vendor or contractor shall clearly state in its Internet Web site that an individual with a disability may request an accommodation and the process for submitting a request for an accommodation.
321332
322333 (5) A trial court that provides electronic filing and service of documents directly to the public shall comply with this subdivision to the same extent as a vendor or contractor that provides electronic filing and services to a trial court.
323334
324335 (6) (A) The Judicial Council shall submit four reports to the appropriate committees of the Legislature relating to the trial courts that have implemented a system of electronic filing and service of documents. The first report is due by June 30, 2018; the second report is due by December 31, 2019; the third report is due by December 31, 2021; and the fourth report is due by December 31, 2023.
325336
326337 (B) The Judicial Councils reports shall include all of the following information:
327338
328339 (i) The name of each court that has implemented a system of electronic filing and service of documents.
329340
330341 (ii) A description of the system of electronic filing and service.
331342
332343 (iii) The name of the entity or entities providing the system.
333344
334345 (iv) A statement as to whether the system complies with this subdivision and, if the system is not fully compliant, a description of the actions that have been taken to make the system compliant.
335346
336347 (7) An entity that contracts with a trial court to provide a system for electronic filing and service of documents shall cooperate with the Judicial Council by providing all information, and by permitting all testing, necessary for the Judicial Council to prepare its reports to the Legislature in a complete and timely manner.
337348
338349 SEC. 6. Chapter 17.8 (commencing with Section 7310) is added to Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code, to read: CHAPTER 17.8. Housing Contracts7310. (a) A city, county, city and county, or local law enforcement agency that does not, as of June 15, 2017, have a contract with the federal government or any federal agency to detain adult noncitizens for purposes of civil immigration custody, is prohibited from entering into a contract with the federal government or any federal agency, to house or detain in a locked detention facility noncitizens for purposes of civil immigration custody.(b) A city, county, city and county, or local law enforcement agency that, as of June 15, 2017, has an existing contract with the federal government or any federal agency to detain adult noncitizens for purposes of civil immigration custody, shall not renew or modify that contract in such a way as to expand the maximum number of contract beds that may be utilized to house or detain in a locked detention facility noncitizens for purposes of civil immigration custody.7311. (a) A city, county, city and county, or local law enforcement agency that does not, as of June 15, 2017, have a contract with the federal government or any federal agency to house or detain any accompanied or unaccompanied minor in the custody of or detained by the federal Office of Refugee Resettlement or the United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement is prohibited from entering into a contract with the federal government or any federal agency to house minors in a locked detention facility.(b) A city, county, city and county, or local law enforcement agency that, as of June 15, 2017, has an existing contract with the federal government or any federal agency to house or detain any accompanied or unaccompanied minor in the custody of or detained by the federal Office of Refugee Resettlement or the United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement shall not renew or modify that contract in such a way as to expand the maximum number of contract beds that may be utilized to house minors in a locked detention facility.(c) This section does not apply to temporary housing of any accompanied or unaccompanied minor in less restrictive settings when the State Department of Social Services certifies a necessity for a contract based on changing conditions of the population in need and if the housing contract meets the following requirements:(1) It is temporary in nature and nonrenewable on a long-term or permanent basis.(2) It meets all applicable federal and state standards for that housing.
339350
340351 SEC. 6. Chapter 17.8 (commencing with Section 7310) is added to Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code, to read:
341352
342353 ### SEC. 6.
343354
344355 CHAPTER 17.8. Housing Contracts7310. (a) A city, county, city and county, or local law enforcement agency that does not, as of June 15, 2017, have a contract with the federal government or any federal agency to detain adult noncitizens for purposes of civil immigration custody, is prohibited from entering into a contract with the federal government or any federal agency, to house or detain in a locked detention facility noncitizens for purposes of civil immigration custody.(b) A city, county, city and county, or local law enforcement agency that, as of June 15, 2017, has an existing contract with the federal government or any federal agency to detain adult noncitizens for purposes of civil immigration custody, shall not renew or modify that contract in such a way as to expand the maximum number of contract beds that may be utilized to house or detain in a locked detention facility noncitizens for purposes of civil immigration custody.7311. (a) A city, county, city and county, or local law enforcement agency that does not, as of June 15, 2017, have a contract with the federal government or any federal agency to house or detain any accompanied or unaccompanied minor in the custody of or detained by the federal Office of Refugee Resettlement or the United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement is prohibited from entering into a contract with the federal government or any federal agency to house minors in a locked detention facility.(b) A city, county, city and county, or local law enforcement agency that, as of June 15, 2017, has an existing contract with the federal government or any federal agency to house or detain any accompanied or unaccompanied minor in the custody of or detained by the federal Office of Refugee Resettlement or the United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement shall not renew or modify that contract in such a way as to expand the maximum number of contract beds that may be utilized to house minors in a locked detention facility.(c) This section does not apply to temporary housing of any accompanied or unaccompanied minor in less restrictive settings when the State Department of Social Services certifies a necessity for a contract based on changing conditions of the population in need and if the housing contract meets the following requirements:(1) It is temporary in nature and nonrenewable on a long-term or permanent basis.(2) It meets all applicable federal and state standards for that housing.
345356
346357 CHAPTER 17.8. Housing Contracts7310. (a) A city, county, city and county, or local law enforcement agency that does not, as of June 15, 2017, have a contract with the federal government or any federal agency to detain adult noncitizens for purposes of civil immigration custody, is prohibited from entering into a contract with the federal government or any federal agency, to house or detain in a locked detention facility noncitizens for purposes of civil immigration custody.(b) A city, county, city and county, or local law enforcement agency that, as of June 15, 2017, has an existing contract with the federal government or any federal agency to detain adult noncitizens for purposes of civil immigration custody, shall not renew or modify that contract in such a way as to expand the maximum number of contract beds that may be utilized to house or detain in a locked detention facility noncitizens for purposes of civil immigration custody.7311. (a) A city, county, city and county, or local law enforcement agency that does not, as of June 15, 2017, have a contract with the federal government or any federal agency to house or detain any accompanied or unaccompanied minor in the custody of or detained by the federal Office of Refugee Resettlement or the United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement is prohibited from entering into a contract with the federal government or any federal agency to house minors in a locked detention facility.(b) A city, county, city and county, or local law enforcement agency that, as of June 15, 2017, has an existing contract with the federal government or any federal agency to house or detain any accompanied or unaccompanied minor in the custody of or detained by the federal Office of Refugee Resettlement or the United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement shall not renew or modify that contract in such a way as to expand the maximum number of contract beds that may be utilized to house minors in a locked detention facility.(c) This section does not apply to temporary housing of any accompanied or unaccompanied minor in less restrictive settings when the State Department of Social Services certifies a necessity for a contract based on changing conditions of the population in need and if the housing contract meets the following requirements:(1) It is temporary in nature and nonrenewable on a long-term or permanent basis.(2) It meets all applicable federal and state standards for that housing.
347358
348359 CHAPTER 17.8. Housing Contracts
349360
350361 CHAPTER 17.8. Housing Contracts
351362
352363 7310. (a) A city, county, city and county, or local law enforcement agency that does not, as of June 15, 2017, have a contract with the federal government or any federal agency to detain adult noncitizens for purposes of civil immigration custody, is prohibited from entering into a contract with the federal government or any federal agency, to house or detain in a locked detention facility noncitizens for purposes of civil immigration custody.(b) A city, county, city and county, or local law enforcement agency that, as of June 15, 2017, has an existing contract with the federal government or any federal agency to detain adult noncitizens for purposes of civil immigration custody, shall not renew or modify that contract in such a way as to expand the maximum number of contract beds that may be utilized to house or detain in a locked detention facility noncitizens for purposes of civil immigration custody.
353364
354365
355366
356367 7310. (a) A city, county, city and county, or local law enforcement agency that does not, as of June 15, 2017, have a contract with the federal government or any federal agency to detain adult noncitizens for purposes of civil immigration custody, is prohibited from entering into a contract with the federal government or any federal agency, to house or detain in a locked detention facility noncitizens for purposes of civil immigration custody.
357368
358369 (b) A city, county, city and county, or local law enforcement agency that, as of June 15, 2017, has an existing contract with the federal government or any federal agency to detain adult noncitizens for purposes of civil immigration custody, shall not renew or modify that contract in such a way as to expand the maximum number of contract beds that may be utilized to house or detain in a locked detention facility noncitizens for purposes of civil immigration custody.
359370
360371 7311. (a) A city, county, city and county, or local law enforcement agency that does not, as of June 15, 2017, have a contract with the federal government or any federal agency to house or detain any accompanied or unaccompanied minor in the custody of or detained by the federal Office of Refugee Resettlement or the United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement is prohibited from entering into a contract with the federal government or any federal agency to house minors in a locked detention facility.(b) A city, county, city and county, or local law enforcement agency that, as of June 15, 2017, has an existing contract with the federal government or any federal agency to house or detain any accompanied or unaccompanied minor in the custody of or detained by the federal Office of Refugee Resettlement or the United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement shall not renew or modify that contract in such a way as to expand the maximum number of contract beds that may be utilized to house minors in a locked detention facility.(c) This section does not apply to temporary housing of any accompanied or unaccompanied minor in less restrictive settings when the State Department of Social Services certifies a necessity for a contract based on changing conditions of the population in need and if the housing contract meets the following requirements:(1) It is temporary in nature and nonrenewable on a long-term or permanent basis.(2) It meets all applicable federal and state standards for that housing.
361372
362373
363374
364375 7311. (a) A city, county, city and county, or local law enforcement agency that does not, as of June 15, 2017, have a contract with the federal government or any federal agency to house or detain any accompanied or unaccompanied minor in the custody of or detained by the federal Office of Refugee Resettlement or the United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement is prohibited from entering into a contract with the federal government or any federal agency to house minors in a locked detention facility.
365376
366377 (b) A city, county, city and county, or local law enforcement agency that, as of June 15, 2017, has an existing contract with the federal government or any federal agency to house or detain any accompanied or unaccompanied minor in the custody of or detained by the federal Office of Refugee Resettlement or the United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement shall not renew or modify that contract in such a way as to expand the maximum number of contract beds that may be utilized to house minors in a locked detention facility.
367378
368379 (c) This section does not apply to temporary housing of any accompanied or unaccompanied minor in less restrictive settings when the State Department of Social Services certifies a necessity for a contract based on changing conditions of the population in need and if the housing contract meets the following requirements:
369380
370381 (1) It is temporary in nature and nonrenewable on a long-term or permanent basis.
371382
372383 (2) It meets all applicable federal and state standards for that housing.
373384
374385 SEC. 7. Section 11040 of the Government Code is amended to read:11040. (a) It is the intent of the Legislature that overall efficiency and economy in state government be enhanced by employment of the Attorney General as counsel for the representation of state agencies and employees in judicial and administrative adjudicative proceedings.The Legislature finds that it is in the best interests of the people of the State of California that the Attorney General be provided with the resources needed to develop and maintain the Attorney Generals capability to provide competent legal representation of state agencies and employees in any judicial or administrative adjudicative proceeding.(b) As used in this article:(1) In-house counsel means an attorney authorized to practice law in the State of California who is a state employee, including an excluded or exempt employee, other than an employee of the Office of the Attorney General.(2) Outside counsel means an attorney authorized to practice law in the State of California who is not a state employee, including an excluded or exempt employee.(c) Except with respect to employment by the state officers and agencies specified by title or name in Section 11041 or when specifically waived by statute other than Section 11041, a state agency shall obtain the written consent of the Attorney General before doing either of the following:(1) Employing in-house counsel to represent a state agency or employee in any judicial or administrative adjudicative proceeding.(2) Contracting with outside counsel.(d) Except as limited by paragraph (1) of subdivision (c), a state agency may employ in-house counsel for any purpose. This subdivision shall apply retroactively to the employment of any in-house counsel by any state agency before the operative date of the act adding this subdivision.(e) This article does not prohibit a state agency from obtaining legal services from the Attorney General for any purpose.(f) Consistent with subdivision (d), and except as may conflict with contrary authorization by statute, a state agency may employ in-house counsel for advice or other legal work related to bonds or other evidences of indebtedness, but shall engage the Attorney General, alone or with other counsel as may be authorized by statute, for the purpose of delivering any approving legal opinion on bonds or other evidences of indebtedness and advice related to the approving legal opinion. The Attorney General may waive the requirement under this subdivision.
375386
376387 SEC. 7. Section 11040 of the Government Code is amended to read:
377388
378389 ### SEC. 7.
379390
380391 11040. (a) It is the intent of the Legislature that overall efficiency and economy in state government be enhanced by employment of the Attorney General as counsel for the representation of state agencies and employees in judicial and administrative adjudicative proceedings.The Legislature finds that it is in the best interests of the people of the State of California that the Attorney General be provided with the resources needed to develop and maintain the Attorney Generals capability to provide competent legal representation of state agencies and employees in any judicial or administrative adjudicative proceeding.(b) As used in this article:(1) In-house counsel means an attorney authorized to practice law in the State of California who is a state employee, including an excluded or exempt employee, other than an employee of the Office of the Attorney General.(2) Outside counsel means an attorney authorized to practice law in the State of California who is not a state employee, including an excluded or exempt employee.(c) Except with respect to employment by the state officers and agencies specified by title or name in Section 11041 or when specifically waived by statute other than Section 11041, a state agency shall obtain the written consent of the Attorney General before doing either of the following:(1) Employing in-house counsel to represent a state agency or employee in any judicial or administrative adjudicative proceeding.(2) Contracting with outside counsel.(d) Except as limited by paragraph (1) of subdivision (c), a state agency may employ in-house counsel for any purpose. This subdivision shall apply retroactively to the employment of any in-house counsel by any state agency before the operative date of the act adding this subdivision.(e) This article does not prohibit a state agency from obtaining legal services from the Attorney General for any purpose.(f) Consistent with subdivision (d), and except as may conflict with contrary authorization by statute, a state agency may employ in-house counsel for advice or other legal work related to bonds or other evidences of indebtedness, but shall engage the Attorney General, alone or with other counsel as may be authorized by statute, for the purpose of delivering any approving legal opinion on bonds or other evidences of indebtedness and advice related to the approving legal opinion. The Attorney General may waive the requirement under this subdivision.
381392
382393 11040. (a) It is the intent of the Legislature that overall efficiency and economy in state government be enhanced by employment of the Attorney General as counsel for the representation of state agencies and employees in judicial and administrative adjudicative proceedings.The Legislature finds that it is in the best interests of the people of the State of California that the Attorney General be provided with the resources needed to develop and maintain the Attorney Generals capability to provide competent legal representation of state agencies and employees in any judicial or administrative adjudicative proceeding.(b) As used in this article:(1) In-house counsel means an attorney authorized to practice law in the State of California who is a state employee, including an excluded or exempt employee, other than an employee of the Office of the Attorney General.(2) Outside counsel means an attorney authorized to practice law in the State of California who is not a state employee, including an excluded or exempt employee.(c) Except with respect to employment by the state officers and agencies specified by title or name in Section 11041 or when specifically waived by statute other than Section 11041, a state agency shall obtain the written consent of the Attorney General before doing either of the following:(1) Employing in-house counsel to represent a state agency or employee in any judicial or administrative adjudicative proceeding.(2) Contracting with outside counsel.(d) Except as limited by paragraph (1) of subdivision (c), a state agency may employ in-house counsel for any purpose. This subdivision shall apply retroactively to the employment of any in-house counsel by any state agency before the operative date of the act adding this subdivision.(e) This article does not prohibit a state agency from obtaining legal services from the Attorney General for any purpose.(f) Consistent with subdivision (d), and except as may conflict with contrary authorization by statute, a state agency may employ in-house counsel for advice or other legal work related to bonds or other evidences of indebtedness, but shall engage the Attorney General, alone or with other counsel as may be authorized by statute, for the purpose of delivering any approving legal opinion on bonds or other evidences of indebtedness and advice related to the approving legal opinion. The Attorney General may waive the requirement under this subdivision.
383394
384395 11040. (a) It is the intent of the Legislature that overall efficiency and economy in state government be enhanced by employment of the Attorney General as counsel for the representation of state agencies and employees in judicial and administrative adjudicative proceedings.The Legislature finds that it is in the best interests of the people of the State of California that the Attorney General be provided with the resources needed to develop and maintain the Attorney Generals capability to provide competent legal representation of state agencies and employees in any judicial or administrative adjudicative proceeding.(b) As used in this article:(1) In-house counsel means an attorney authorized to practice law in the State of California who is a state employee, including an excluded or exempt employee, other than an employee of the Office of the Attorney General.(2) Outside counsel means an attorney authorized to practice law in the State of California who is not a state employee, including an excluded or exempt employee.(c) Except with respect to employment by the state officers and agencies specified by title or name in Section 11041 or when specifically waived by statute other than Section 11041, a state agency shall obtain the written consent of the Attorney General before doing either of the following:(1) Employing in-house counsel to represent a state agency or employee in any judicial or administrative adjudicative proceeding.(2) Contracting with outside counsel.(d) Except as limited by paragraph (1) of subdivision (c), a state agency may employ in-house counsel for any purpose. This subdivision shall apply retroactively to the employment of any in-house counsel by any state agency before the operative date of the act adding this subdivision.(e) This article does not prohibit a state agency from obtaining legal services from the Attorney General for any purpose.(f) Consistent with subdivision (d), and except as may conflict with contrary authorization by statute, a state agency may employ in-house counsel for advice or other legal work related to bonds or other evidences of indebtedness, but shall engage the Attorney General, alone or with other counsel as may be authorized by statute, for the purpose of delivering any approving legal opinion on bonds or other evidences of indebtedness and advice related to the approving legal opinion. The Attorney General may waive the requirement under this subdivision.
385396
386397
387398
388399 11040. (a) It is the intent of the Legislature that overall efficiency and economy in state government be enhanced by employment of the Attorney General as counsel for the representation of state agencies and employees in judicial and administrative adjudicative proceedings.
389400
390401 The Legislature finds that it is in the best interests of the people of the State of California that the Attorney General be provided with the resources needed to develop and maintain the Attorney Generals capability to provide competent legal representation of state agencies and employees in any judicial or administrative adjudicative proceeding.
391402
392403 (b) As used in this article:
393404
394405 (1) In-house counsel means an attorney authorized to practice law in the State of California who is a state employee, including an excluded or exempt employee, other than an employee of the Office of the Attorney General.
395406
396407 (2) Outside counsel means an attorney authorized to practice law in the State of California who is not a state employee, including an excluded or exempt employee.
397408
398409 (c) Except with respect to employment by the state officers and agencies specified by title or name in Section 11041 or when specifically waived by statute other than Section 11041, a state agency shall obtain the written consent of the Attorney General before doing either of the following:
399410
400411 (1) Employing in-house counsel to represent a state agency or employee in any judicial or administrative adjudicative proceeding.
401412
402413 (2) Contracting with outside counsel.
403414
404415 (d) Except as limited by paragraph (1) of subdivision (c), a state agency may employ in-house counsel for any purpose. This subdivision shall apply retroactively to the employment of any in-house counsel by any state agency before the operative date of the act adding this subdivision.
405416
406417 (e) This article does not prohibit a state agency from obtaining legal services from the Attorney General for any purpose.
407418
408419 (f) Consistent with subdivision (d), and except as may conflict with contrary authorization by statute, a state agency may employ in-house counsel for advice or other legal work related to bonds or other evidences of indebtedness, but shall engage the Attorney General, alone or with other counsel as may be authorized by statute, for the purpose of delivering any approving legal opinion on bonds or other evidences of indebtedness and advice related to the approving legal opinion. The Attorney General may waive the requirement under this subdivision.
409420
410421 SEC. 8. Section 11041 of the Government Code is amended to read:11041. (a) Section 11042 does not apply to the Regents of the University of California, the Trustees of the California State University, Legal Division of the Department of Transportation, Division of Labor Standards Enforcement of the Department of Industrial Relations, Workers Compensation Appeals Board, Public Utilities Commission, State Compensation Insurance Fund, Legislative Counsel Bureau, Inheritance Tax Department, Secretary of State, State Lands Commission, Alcoholic Beverage Control Appeals Board (except when the board affirms the decision of the Department of Alcoholic Beverage Control), State Department of Education, and Treasurer with respect to bonds, nor to any other state agency which, by law enacted after Chapter 213 of the Statutes of 1933, is authorized to employ legal counsel.(b) The Trustees of the California State University shall pay the cost of employing legal counsel from their existing resources.
411422
412423 SEC. 8. Section 11041 of the Government Code is amended to read:
413424
414425 ### SEC. 8.
415426
416427 11041. (a) Section 11042 does not apply to the Regents of the University of California, the Trustees of the California State University, Legal Division of the Department of Transportation, Division of Labor Standards Enforcement of the Department of Industrial Relations, Workers Compensation Appeals Board, Public Utilities Commission, State Compensation Insurance Fund, Legislative Counsel Bureau, Inheritance Tax Department, Secretary of State, State Lands Commission, Alcoholic Beverage Control Appeals Board (except when the board affirms the decision of the Department of Alcoholic Beverage Control), State Department of Education, and Treasurer with respect to bonds, nor to any other state agency which, by law enacted after Chapter 213 of the Statutes of 1933, is authorized to employ legal counsel.(b) The Trustees of the California State University shall pay the cost of employing legal counsel from their existing resources.
417428
418429 11041. (a) Section 11042 does not apply to the Regents of the University of California, the Trustees of the California State University, Legal Division of the Department of Transportation, Division of Labor Standards Enforcement of the Department of Industrial Relations, Workers Compensation Appeals Board, Public Utilities Commission, State Compensation Insurance Fund, Legislative Counsel Bureau, Inheritance Tax Department, Secretary of State, State Lands Commission, Alcoholic Beverage Control Appeals Board (except when the board affirms the decision of the Department of Alcoholic Beverage Control), State Department of Education, and Treasurer with respect to bonds, nor to any other state agency which, by law enacted after Chapter 213 of the Statutes of 1933, is authorized to employ legal counsel.(b) The Trustees of the California State University shall pay the cost of employing legal counsel from their existing resources.
419430
420431 11041. (a) Section 11042 does not apply to the Regents of the University of California, the Trustees of the California State University, Legal Division of the Department of Transportation, Division of Labor Standards Enforcement of the Department of Industrial Relations, Workers Compensation Appeals Board, Public Utilities Commission, State Compensation Insurance Fund, Legislative Counsel Bureau, Inheritance Tax Department, Secretary of State, State Lands Commission, Alcoholic Beverage Control Appeals Board (except when the board affirms the decision of the Department of Alcoholic Beverage Control), State Department of Education, and Treasurer with respect to bonds, nor to any other state agency which, by law enacted after Chapter 213 of the Statutes of 1933, is authorized to employ legal counsel.(b) The Trustees of the California State University shall pay the cost of employing legal counsel from their existing resources.
421432
422433
423434
424435 11041. (a) Section 11042 does not apply to the Regents of the University of California, the Trustees of the California State University, Legal Division of the Department of Transportation, Division of Labor Standards Enforcement of the Department of Industrial Relations, Workers Compensation Appeals Board, Public Utilities Commission, State Compensation Insurance Fund, Legislative Counsel Bureau, Inheritance Tax Department, Secretary of State, State Lands Commission, Alcoholic Beverage Control Appeals Board (except when the board affirms the decision of the Department of Alcoholic Beverage Control), State Department of Education, and Treasurer with respect to bonds, nor to any other state agency which, by law enacted after Chapter 213 of the Statutes of 1933, is authorized to employ legal counsel.
425436
426437 (b) The Trustees of the California State University shall pay the cost of employing legal counsel from their existing resources.
427438
428439 SEC. 9. Section 11042 of the Government Code is amended to read:11042. (a) No state agency shall employ any in-house counsel to act on behalf of the state agency or its employees in any judicial or administrative adjudicative proceeding in which the agency is interested, or is a party as a result of office or official duties, or contract with outside counsel for any purpose, unless the agency has first obtained the written consent of the Attorney General pursuant to Section 11040.(b) The Attorney General may provide written consent for a state agency to employ in-house counsel to represent the agency or its employees in any judicial or administrative adjudicative proceeding in whatever manner the Attorney General deems most effective and consistent with the intent of this article. However, a state agency shall obtain written consent for the use of outside counsel for a matter or matters for which the outside counsel is to be engaged before the execution of each contract with the outside counsel for the matter or matters.
429440
430441 SEC. 9. Section 11042 of the Government Code is amended to read:
431442
432443 ### SEC. 9.
433444
434445 11042. (a) No state agency shall employ any in-house counsel to act on behalf of the state agency or its employees in any judicial or administrative adjudicative proceeding in which the agency is interested, or is a party as a result of office or official duties, or contract with outside counsel for any purpose, unless the agency has first obtained the written consent of the Attorney General pursuant to Section 11040.(b) The Attorney General may provide written consent for a state agency to employ in-house counsel to represent the agency or its employees in any judicial or administrative adjudicative proceeding in whatever manner the Attorney General deems most effective and consistent with the intent of this article. However, a state agency shall obtain written consent for the use of outside counsel for a matter or matters for which the outside counsel is to be engaged before the execution of each contract with the outside counsel for the matter or matters.
435446
436447 11042. (a) No state agency shall employ any in-house counsel to act on behalf of the state agency or its employees in any judicial or administrative adjudicative proceeding in which the agency is interested, or is a party as a result of office or official duties, or contract with outside counsel for any purpose, unless the agency has first obtained the written consent of the Attorney General pursuant to Section 11040.(b) The Attorney General may provide written consent for a state agency to employ in-house counsel to represent the agency or its employees in any judicial or administrative adjudicative proceeding in whatever manner the Attorney General deems most effective and consistent with the intent of this article. However, a state agency shall obtain written consent for the use of outside counsel for a matter or matters for which the outside counsel is to be engaged before the execution of each contract with the outside counsel for the matter or matters.
437448
438449 11042. (a) No state agency shall employ any in-house counsel to act on behalf of the state agency or its employees in any judicial or administrative adjudicative proceeding in which the agency is interested, or is a party as a result of office or official duties, or contract with outside counsel for any purpose, unless the agency has first obtained the written consent of the Attorney General pursuant to Section 11040.(b) The Attorney General may provide written consent for a state agency to employ in-house counsel to represent the agency or its employees in any judicial or administrative adjudicative proceeding in whatever manner the Attorney General deems most effective and consistent with the intent of this article. However, a state agency shall obtain written consent for the use of outside counsel for a matter or matters for which the outside counsel is to be engaged before the execution of each contract with the outside counsel for the matter or matters.
439450
440451
441452
442453 11042. (a) No state agency shall employ any in-house counsel to act on behalf of the state agency or its employees in any judicial or administrative adjudicative proceeding in which the agency is interested, or is a party as a result of office or official duties, or contract with outside counsel for any purpose, unless the agency has first obtained the written consent of the Attorney General pursuant to Section 11040.
443454
444455 (b) The Attorney General may provide written consent for a state agency to employ in-house counsel to represent the agency or its employees in any judicial or administrative adjudicative proceeding in whatever manner the Attorney General deems most effective and consistent with the intent of this article. However, a state agency shall obtain written consent for the use of outside counsel for a matter or matters for which the outside counsel is to be engaged before the execution of each contract with the outside counsel for the matter or matters.
445456
446457 SEC. 10. Section 11043 of the Government Code is repealed.
447458
448459 SEC. 10. Section 11043 of the Government Code is repealed.
449460
450461 ### SEC. 10.
451462
452463
453464
454465 SEC. 11. Section 11045 of the Government Code is amended to read:11045. (a) (1) Whenever a state agency requests the consent of the Attorney General to contract with outside counsel, as required by Sections 11040 and 11042, the state agency shall within five business days of the date the request is transmitted to the Attorney General provide the designated representative of State Employees Bargaining Unit 2 with written notification of the request. The notice shall include the items enumerated in subdivision (d).(2) All state agencies, other than the office of the Attorney General, that are not required to obtain the consent to contract with outside counsel required by paragraph (2) of subdivision (c) of Section 11040 and Section 11042, shall provide written notice of any proposed contract for outside counsel to the designated representative of State Employees Bargaining Unit 2 five business days before execution of the contract by the state agency. The notice shall include the items required by subdivision (d). In the event of an emergency that requires the immediate employment of outside counsel, the state agency shall provide the written notice no later than five business days after the contract with outside counsel is signed.(3) Whenever the Attorney General determines the need to employ outside counsel pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 12520, the Attorney General shall give written notice to the designated representative of State Employees Bargaining Unit 2 within 10 days of that determination. The notice shall include the items enumerated in subdivision (d).(b) The Attorney General shall provide the designated representative of State Employees Bargaining Unit 2 with a written report, at least monthly, of all consents granted to every state agency pursuant to Section 11040.(c) Notwithstanding the above notice requirements, whenever any state agency submits a proposed contract for outside counsel to the Department of General Services pursuant to Section 10335 of the Public Contract Code, the agency shall provide a copy of the contract to the designated representative of State Employees Bargaining Unit 2.(d) Written notice within the meaning of this section shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:(1) A copy of the complaint or other pleadings, if any, that gave rise to the litigation or matter for which a contract is being sought, or other identifying information.(2) The justification for the contract, pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 19130.(3) The nature of the legal services to be performed.(4) The estimated hourly wage to be paid under the contract.(5) The estimated length of the contract.(6) The identity of the person or entity that is entering into the contract with the state.(e) State agency, as used in this section, means every state office, department, division, bureau, board, or commission, including the Board of Directors of the State Compensation Insurance Fund, but does not include the Regents of the University of California, the Trustees of the California State University, the Legislature, the courts, or any agency in the judicial branch of government.(f) (1) The notice requirements of this section do not apply to contracts for expert witnesses or consultations in connection with a confidential investigation or to any confidential component of a pending or active legal action.(2) The exemption authorized in paragraph (1) shall only apply as long as necessary to protect the confidentiality of the investigation or the confidential component of a pending or active legal action.(3) Disclosures made pursuant to this section are deemed to be privileged communications for purposes of subdivision (c) of Section 912 of the Evidence Code, and shall not be construed to be a waiver of any privilege or exemption provided by law, including, but not limited to, the lawyer-client privilege, as described in Section 952 of the Evidence Code, or attorney work product, as described in Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 2018.010) of Title 4 of Part 4 of the Code of Civil Procedure.(g) If the provisions of this section are in conflict with the provisions of a memorandum of understanding or other written agreement reached pursuant to Section 3517 or 3517.5, the memorandum of understanding or agreement shall be controlling without further legislative action, except that if any provision of the memorandum of understanding or other agreement requires the expenditure of funds, the provisions may not become effective unless approved by the Legislature.
455466
456467 SEC. 11. Section 11045 of the Government Code is amended to read:
457468
458469 ### SEC. 11.
459470
460471 11045. (a) (1) Whenever a state agency requests the consent of the Attorney General to contract with outside counsel, as required by Sections 11040 and 11042, the state agency shall within five business days of the date the request is transmitted to the Attorney General provide the designated representative of State Employees Bargaining Unit 2 with written notification of the request. The notice shall include the items enumerated in subdivision (d).(2) All state agencies, other than the office of the Attorney General, that are not required to obtain the consent to contract with outside counsel required by paragraph (2) of subdivision (c) of Section 11040 and Section 11042, shall provide written notice of any proposed contract for outside counsel to the designated representative of State Employees Bargaining Unit 2 five business days before execution of the contract by the state agency. The notice shall include the items required by subdivision (d). In the event of an emergency that requires the immediate employment of outside counsel, the state agency shall provide the written notice no later than five business days after the contract with outside counsel is signed.(3) Whenever the Attorney General determines the need to employ outside counsel pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 12520, the Attorney General shall give written notice to the designated representative of State Employees Bargaining Unit 2 within 10 days of that determination. The notice shall include the items enumerated in subdivision (d).(b) The Attorney General shall provide the designated representative of State Employees Bargaining Unit 2 with a written report, at least monthly, of all consents granted to every state agency pursuant to Section 11040.(c) Notwithstanding the above notice requirements, whenever any state agency submits a proposed contract for outside counsel to the Department of General Services pursuant to Section 10335 of the Public Contract Code, the agency shall provide a copy of the contract to the designated representative of State Employees Bargaining Unit 2.(d) Written notice within the meaning of this section shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:(1) A copy of the complaint or other pleadings, if any, that gave rise to the litigation or matter for which a contract is being sought, or other identifying information.(2) The justification for the contract, pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 19130.(3) The nature of the legal services to be performed.(4) The estimated hourly wage to be paid under the contract.(5) The estimated length of the contract.(6) The identity of the person or entity that is entering into the contract with the state.(e) State agency, as used in this section, means every state office, department, division, bureau, board, or commission, including the Board of Directors of the State Compensation Insurance Fund, but does not include the Regents of the University of California, the Trustees of the California State University, the Legislature, the courts, or any agency in the judicial branch of government.(f) (1) The notice requirements of this section do not apply to contracts for expert witnesses or consultations in connection with a confidential investigation or to any confidential component of a pending or active legal action.(2) The exemption authorized in paragraph (1) shall only apply as long as necessary to protect the confidentiality of the investigation or the confidential component of a pending or active legal action.(3) Disclosures made pursuant to this section are deemed to be privileged communications for purposes of subdivision (c) of Section 912 of the Evidence Code, and shall not be construed to be a waiver of any privilege or exemption provided by law, including, but not limited to, the lawyer-client privilege, as described in Section 952 of the Evidence Code, or attorney work product, as described in Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 2018.010) of Title 4 of Part 4 of the Code of Civil Procedure.(g) If the provisions of this section are in conflict with the provisions of a memorandum of understanding or other written agreement reached pursuant to Section 3517 or 3517.5, the memorandum of understanding or agreement shall be controlling without further legislative action, except that if any provision of the memorandum of understanding or other agreement requires the expenditure of funds, the provisions may not become effective unless approved by the Legislature.
461472
462473 11045. (a) (1) Whenever a state agency requests the consent of the Attorney General to contract with outside counsel, as required by Sections 11040 and 11042, the state agency shall within five business days of the date the request is transmitted to the Attorney General provide the designated representative of State Employees Bargaining Unit 2 with written notification of the request. The notice shall include the items enumerated in subdivision (d).(2) All state agencies, other than the office of the Attorney General, that are not required to obtain the consent to contract with outside counsel required by paragraph (2) of subdivision (c) of Section 11040 and Section 11042, shall provide written notice of any proposed contract for outside counsel to the designated representative of State Employees Bargaining Unit 2 five business days before execution of the contract by the state agency. The notice shall include the items required by subdivision (d). In the event of an emergency that requires the immediate employment of outside counsel, the state agency shall provide the written notice no later than five business days after the contract with outside counsel is signed.(3) Whenever the Attorney General determines the need to employ outside counsel pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 12520, the Attorney General shall give written notice to the designated representative of State Employees Bargaining Unit 2 within 10 days of that determination. The notice shall include the items enumerated in subdivision (d).(b) The Attorney General shall provide the designated representative of State Employees Bargaining Unit 2 with a written report, at least monthly, of all consents granted to every state agency pursuant to Section 11040.(c) Notwithstanding the above notice requirements, whenever any state agency submits a proposed contract for outside counsel to the Department of General Services pursuant to Section 10335 of the Public Contract Code, the agency shall provide a copy of the contract to the designated representative of State Employees Bargaining Unit 2.(d) Written notice within the meaning of this section shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:(1) A copy of the complaint or other pleadings, if any, that gave rise to the litigation or matter for which a contract is being sought, or other identifying information.(2) The justification for the contract, pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 19130.(3) The nature of the legal services to be performed.(4) The estimated hourly wage to be paid under the contract.(5) The estimated length of the contract.(6) The identity of the person or entity that is entering into the contract with the state.(e) State agency, as used in this section, means every state office, department, division, bureau, board, or commission, including the Board of Directors of the State Compensation Insurance Fund, but does not include the Regents of the University of California, the Trustees of the California State University, the Legislature, the courts, or any agency in the judicial branch of government.(f) (1) The notice requirements of this section do not apply to contracts for expert witnesses or consultations in connection with a confidential investigation or to any confidential component of a pending or active legal action.(2) The exemption authorized in paragraph (1) shall only apply as long as necessary to protect the confidentiality of the investigation or the confidential component of a pending or active legal action.(3) Disclosures made pursuant to this section are deemed to be privileged communications for purposes of subdivision (c) of Section 912 of the Evidence Code, and shall not be construed to be a waiver of any privilege or exemption provided by law, including, but not limited to, the lawyer-client privilege, as described in Section 952 of the Evidence Code, or attorney work product, as described in Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 2018.010) of Title 4 of Part 4 of the Code of Civil Procedure.(g) If the provisions of this section are in conflict with the provisions of a memorandum of understanding or other written agreement reached pursuant to Section 3517 or 3517.5, the memorandum of understanding or agreement shall be controlling without further legislative action, except that if any provision of the memorandum of understanding or other agreement requires the expenditure of funds, the provisions may not become effective unless approved by the Legislature.
463474
464475 11045. (a) (1) Whenever a state agency requests the consent of the Attorney General to contract with outside counsel, as required by Sections 11040 and 11042, the state agency shall within five business days of the date the request is transmitted to the Attorney General provide the designated representative of State Employees Bargaining Unit 2 with written notification of the request. The notice shall include the items enumerated in subdivision (d).(2) All state agencies, other than the office of the Attorney General, that are not required to obtain the consent to contract with outside counsel required by paragraph (2) of subdivision (c) of Section 11040 and Section 11042, shall provide written notice of any proposed contract for outside counsel to the designated representative of State Employees Bargaining Unit 2 five business days before execution of the contract by the state agency. The notice shall include the items required by subdivision (d). In the event of an emergency that requires the immediate employment of outside counsel, the state agency shall provide the written notice no later than five business days after the contract with outside counsel is signed.(3) Whenever the Attorney General determines the need to employ outside counsel pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 12520, the Attorney General shall give written notice to the designated representative of State Employees Bargaining Unit 2 within 10 days of that determination. The notice shall include the items enumerated in subdivision (d).(b) The Attorney General shall provide the designated representative of State Employees Bargaining Unit 2 with a written report, at least monthly, of all consents granted to every state agency pursuant to Section 11040.(c) Notwithstanding the above notice requirements, whenever any state agency submits a proposed contract for outside counsel to the Department of General Services pursuant to Section 10335 of the Public Contract Code, the agency shall provide a copy of the contract to the designated representative of State Employees Bargaining Unit 2.(d) Written notice within the meaning of this section shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:(1) A copy of the complaint or other pleadings, if any, that gave rise to the litigation or matter for which a contract is being sought, or other identifying information.(2) The justification for the contract, pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 19130.(3) The nature of the legal services to be performed.(4) The estimated hourly wage to be paid under the contract.(5) The estimated length of the contract.(6) The identity of the person or entity that is entering into the contract with the state.(e) State agency, as used in this section, means every state office, department, division, bureau, board, or commission, including the Board of Directors of the State Compensation Insurance Fund, but does not include the Regents of the University of California, the Trustees of the California State University, the Legislature, the courts, or any agency in the judicial branch of government.(f) (1) The notice requirements of this section do not apply to contracts for expert witnesses or consultations in connection with a confidential investigation or to any confidential component of a pending or active legal action.(2) The exemption authorized in paragraph (1) shall only apply as long as necessary to protect the confidentiality of the investigation or the confidential component of a pending or active legal action.(3) Disclosures made pursuant to this section are deemed to be privileged communications for purposes of subdivision (c) of Section 912 of the Evidence Code, and shall not be construed to be a waiver of any privilege or exemption provided by law, including, but not limited to, the lawyer-client privilege, as described in Section 952 of the Evidence Code, or attorney work product, as described in Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 2018.010) of Title 4 of Part 4 of the Code of Civil Procedure.(g) If the provisions of this section are in conflict with the provisions of a memorandum of understanding or other written agreement reached pursuant to Section 3517 or 3517.5, the memorandum of understanding or agreement shall be controlling without further legislative action, except that if any provision of the memorandum of understanding or other agreement requires the expenditure of funds, the provisions may not become effective unless approved by the Legislature.
465476
466477
467478
468479 11045. (a) (1) Whenever a state agency requests the consent of the Attorney General to contract with outside counsel, as required by Sections 11040 and 11042, the state agency shall within five business days of the date the request is transmitted to the Attorney General provide the designated representative of State Employees Bargaining Unit 2 with written notification of the request. The notice shall include the items enumerated in subdivision (d).
469480
470481 (2) All state agencies, other than the office of the Attorney General, that are not required to obtain the consent to contract with outside counsel required by paragraph (2) of subdivision (c) of Section 11040 and Section 11042, shall provide written notice of any proposed contract for outside counsel to the designated representative of State Employees Bargaining Unit 2 five business days before execution of the contract by the state agency. The notice shall include the items required by subdivision (d). In the event of an emergency that requires the immediate employment of outside counsel, the state agency shall provide the written notice no later than five business days after the contract with outside counsel is signed.
471482
472483 (3) Whenever the Attorney General determines the need to employ outside counsel pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 12520, the Attorney General shall give written notice to the designated representative of State Employees Bargaining Unit 2 within 10 days of that determination. The notice shall include the items enumerated in subdivision (d).
473484
474485 (b) The Attorney General shall provide the designated representative of State Employees Bargaining Unit 2 with a written report, at least monthly, of all consents granted to every state agency pursuant to Section 11040.
475486
476487 (c) Notwithstanding the above notice requirements, whenever any state agency submits a proposed contract for outside counsel to the Department of General Services pursuant to Section 10335 of the Public Contract Code, the agency shall provide a copy of the contract to the designated representative of State Employees Bargaining Unit 2.
477488
478489 (d) Written notice within the meaning of this section shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:
479490
480491 (1) A copy of the complaint or other pleadings, if any, that gave rise to the litigation or matter for which a contract is being sought, or other identifying information.
481492
482493 (2) The justification for the contract, pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 19130.
483494
484495 (3) The nature of the legal services to be performed.
485496
486497 (4) The estimated hourly wage to be paid under the contract.
487498
488499 (5) The estimated length of the contract.
489500
490501 (6) The identity of the person or entity that is entering into the contract with the state.
491502
492503 (e) State agency, as used in this section, means every state office, department, division, bureau, board, or commission, including the Board of Directors of the State Compensation Insurance Fund, but does not include the Regents of the University of California, the Trustees of the California State University, the Legislature, the courts, or any agency in the judicial branch of government.
493504
494505 (f) (1) The notice requirements of this section do not apply to contracts for expert witnesses or consultations in connection with a confidential investigation or to any confidential component of a pending or active legal action.
495506
496507 (2) The exemption authorized in paragraph (1) shall only apply as long as necessary to protect the confidentiality of the investigation or the confidential component of a pending or active legal action.
497508
498509 (3) Disclosures made pursuant to this section are deemed to be privileged communications for purposes of subdivision (c) of Section 912 of the Evidence Code, and shall not be construed to be a waiver of any privilege or exemption provided by law, including, but not limited to, the lawyer-client privilege, as described in Section 952 of the Evidence Code, or attorney work product, as described in Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 2018.010) of Title 4 of Part 4 of the Code of Civil Procedure.
499510
500511 (g) If the provisions of this section are in conflict with the provisions of a memorandum of understanding or other written agreement reached pursuant to Section 3517 or 3517.5, the memorandum of understanding or agreement shall be controlling without further legislative action, except that if any provision of the memorandum of understanding or other agreement requires the expenditure of funds, the provisions may not become effective unless approved by the Legislature.
501512
502513 SEC. 12. Section 12532 is added to the Government Code, to read:12532. (a) Until July 1, 2027, the Attorney General, or his or her designee, shall engage in reviews of county, local, or private locked detention facilities in which noncitizens are being housed or detained for purposes of civil immigration proceedings in California, including any county, local, or private locked detention facility in which an accompanied or unaccompanied minor is housed or detained on behalf of, or pursuant to a contract with, the federal Office of Refugee Resettlement or the United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement. The order and number of facilities to be reviewed shall be determined by the Department of Justice. The Attorney General, or his or her designee, shall have authority over which facilities may be reviewed and when. The Department of Justice shall provide, during the budget process, updates and information to the Legislature and the Governor, including a written summary of findings, if appropriate, regarding the progress of these reviews and any relevant findings.(b) The Attorney General, or his or her designee, shall, on or before March 1, 2019, conduct a review of county, local, or private locked detention facilities in which noncitizens are being housed or detained for purposes of civil immigration proceedings in California, including any county, local, or private locked detention facility in which an accompanied or unaccompanied minor is housed or detained on behalf of, or pursuant to a contract with, the federal Office of Refugee Resettlement or the United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement. The order and number of facilities to be reviewed shall be determined by the Department of Justice.(1) This review shall include, but not be limited to, the following:(A) A review of the conditions of confinement.(B) A review of the standard of care and due process provided to the individuals described in subdivision (a).(C) A review of the circumstances around their apprehension and transfer to the facility.(2) The Attorney General, or his or her designee, shall provide, on or before March 1, 2019, the Legislature and the Governor with a comprehensive report outlining the findings of the review described in this subdivision, which shall be posted on the Attorney Generals Internet Web site and otherwise made available to the public upon its release to the Legislature and the Governor. The Department of Justice shall provide, during the budget process, updates and information to the Legislature and the Governor, including a written summary of findings, if appropriate, regarding the progress of the review described in this subdivision and any relevant findings.(c) The Attorney General, or his or her designee, shall be provided all necessary access for the observations necessary to effectuate reviews required pursuant to this section, including, but not limited to, access to detainees, officials, personnel, and records.(d) This section shall become inoperative on July 1, 2027, and, as of January 1, 2028, is repealed.
503514
504515 SEC. 12. Section 12532 is added to the Government Code, to read:
505516
506517 ### SEC. 12.
507518
508519 12532. (a) Until July 1, 2027, the Attorney General, or his or her designee, shall engage in reviews of county, local, or private locked detention facilities in which noncitizens are being housed or detained for purposes of civil immigration proceedings in California, including any county, local, or private locked detention facility in which an accompanied or unaccompanied minor is housed or detained on behalf of, or pursuant to a contract with, the federal Office of Refugee Resettlement or the United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement. The order and number of facilities to be reviewed shall be determined by the Department of Justice. The Attorney General, or his or her designee, shall have authority over which facilities may be reviewed and when. The Department of Justice shall provide, during the budget process, updates and information to the Legislature and the Governor, including a written summary of findings, if appropriate, regarding the progress of these reviews and any relevant findings.(b) The Attorney General, or his or her designee, shall, on or before March 1, 2019, conduct a review of county, local, or private locked detention facilities in which noncitizens are being housed or detained for purposes of civil immigration proceedings in California, including any county, local, or private locked detention facility in which an accompanied or unaccompanied minor is housed or detained on behalf of, or pursuant to a contract with, the federal Office of Refugee Resettlement or the United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement. The order and number of facilities to be reviewed shall be determined by the Department of Justice.(1) This review shall include, but not be limited to, the following:(A) A review of the conditions of confinement.(B) A review of the standard of care and due process provided to the individuals described in subdivision (a).(C) A review of the circumstances around their apprehension and transfer to the facility.(2) The Attorney General, or his or her designee, shall provide, on or before March 1, 2019, the Legislature and the Governor with a comprehensive report outlining the findings of the review described in this subdivision, which shall be posted on the Attorney Generals Internet Web site and otherwise made available to the public upon its release to the Legislature and the Governor. The Department of Justice shall provide, during the budget process, updates and information to the Legislature and the Governor, including a written summary of findings, if appropriate, regarding the progress of the review described in this subdivision and any relevant findings.(c) The Attorney General, or his or her designee, shall be provided all necessary access for the observations necessary to effectuate reviews required pursuant to this section, including, but not limited to, access to detainees, officials, personnel, and records.(d) This section shall become inoperative on July 1, 2027, and, as of January 1, 2028, is repealed.
509520
510521 12532. (a) Until July 1, 2027, the Attorney General, or his or her designee, shall engage in reviews of county, local, or private locked detention facilities in which noncitizens are being housed or detained for purposes of civil immigration proceedings in California, including any county, local, or private locked detention facility in which an accompanied or unaccompanied minor is housed or detained on behalf of, or pursuant to a contract with, the federal Office of Refugee Resettlement or the United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement. The order and number of facilities to be reviewed shall be determined by the Department of Justice. The Attorney General, or his or her designee, shall have authority over which facilities may be reviewed and when. The Department of Justice shall provide, during the budget process, updates and information to the Legislature and the Governor, including a written summary of findings, if appropriate, regarding the progress of these reviews and any relevant findings.(b) The Attorney General, or his or her designee, shall, on or before March 1, 2019, conduct a review of county, local, or private locked detention facilities in which noncitizens are being housed or detained for purposes of civil immigration proceedings in California, including any county, local, or private locked detention facility in which an accompanied or unaccompanied minor is housed or detained on behalf of, or pursuant to a contract with, the federal Office of Refugee Resettlement or the United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement. The order and number of facilities to be reviewed shall be determined by the Department of Justice.(1) This review shall include, but not be limited to, the following:(A) A review of the conditions of confinement.(B) A review of the standard of care and due process provided to the individuals described in subdivision (a).(C) A review of the circumstances around their apprehension and transfer to the facility.(2) The Attorney General, or his or her designee, shall provide, on or before March 1, 2019, the Legislature and the Governor with a comprehensive report outlining the findings of the review described in this subdivision, which shall be posted on the Attorney Generals Internet Web site and otherwise made available to the public upon its release to the Legislature and the Governor. The Department of Justice shall provide, during the budget process, updates and information to the Legislature and the Governor, including a written summary of findings, if appropriate, regarding the progress of the review described in this subdivision and any relevant findings.(c) The Attorney General, or his or her designee, shall be provided all necessary access for the observations necessary to effectuate reviews required pursuant to this section, including, but not limited to, access to detainees, officials, personnel, and records.(d) This section shall become inoperative on July 1, 2027, and, as of January 1, 2028, is repealed.
511522
512523 12532. (a) Until July 1, 2027, the Attorney General, or his or her designee, shall engage in reviews of county, local, or private locked detention facilities in which noncitizens are being housed or detained for purposes of civil immigration proceedings in California, including any county, local, or private locked detention facility in which an accompanied or unaccompanied minor is housed or detained on behalf of, or pursuant to a contract with, the federal Office of Refugee Resettlement or the United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement. The order and number of facilities to be reviewed shall be determined by the Department of Justice. The Attorney General, or his or her designee, shall have authority over which facilities may be reviewed and when. The Department of Justice shall provide, during the budget process, updates and information to the Legislature and the Governor, including a written summary of findings, if appropriate, regarding the progress of these reviews and any relevant findings.(b) The Attorney General, or his or her designee, shall, on or before March 1, 2019, conduct a review of county, local, or private locked detention facilities in which noncitizens are being housed or detained for purposes of civil immigration proceedings in California, including any county, local, or private locked detention facility in which an accompanied or unaccompanied minor is housed or detained on behalf of, or pursuant to a contract with, the federal Office of Refugee Resettlement or the United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement. The order and number of facilities to be reviewed shall be determined by the Department of Justice.(1) This review shall include, but not be limited to, the following:(A) A review of the conditions of confinement.(B) A review of the standard of care and due process provided to the individuals described in subdivision (a).(C) A review of the circumstances around their apprehension and transfer to the facility.(2) The Attorney General, or his or her designee, shall provide, on or before March 1, 2019, the Legislature and the Governor with a comprehensive report outlining the findings of the review described in this subdivision, which shall be posted on the Attorney Generals Internet Web site and otherwise made available to the public upon its release to the Legislature and the Governor. The Department of Justice shall provide, during the budget process, updates and information to the Legislature and the Governor, including a written summary of findings, if appropriate, regarding the progress of the review described in this subdivision and any relevant findings.(c) The Attorney General, or his or her designee, shall be provided all necessary access for the observations necessary to effectuate reviews required pursuant to this section, including, but not limited to, access to detainees, officials, personnel, and records.(d) This section shall become inoperative on July 1, 2027, and, as of January 1, 2028, is repealed.
513524
514525
515526
516527 12532. (a) Until July 1, 2027, the Attorney General, or his or her designee, shall engage in reviews of county, local, or private locked detention facilities in which noncitizens are being housed or detained for purposes of civil immigration proceedings in California, including any county, local, or private locked detention facility in which an accompanied or unaccompanied minor is housed or detained on behalf of, or pursuant to a contract with, the federal Office of Refugee Resettlement or the United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement. The order and number of facilities to be reviewed shall be determined by the Department of Justice. The Attorney General, or his or her designee, shall have authority over which facilities may be reviewed and when. The Department of Justice shall provide, during the budget process, updates and information to the Legislature and the Governor, including a written summary of findings, if appropriate, regarding the progress of these reviews and any relevant findings.
517528
518529 (b) The Attorney General, or his or her designee, shall, on or before March 1, 2019, conduct a review of county, local, or private locked detention facilities in which noncitizens are being housed or detained for purposes of civil immigration proceedings in California, including any county, local, or private locked detention facility in which an accompanied or unaccompanied minor is housed or detained on behalf of, or pursuant to a contract with, the federal Office of Refugee Resettlement or the United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement. The order and number of facilities to be reviewed shall be determined by the Department of Justice.
519530
520531 (1) This review shall include, but not be limited to, the following:
521532
522533 (A) A review of the conditions of confinement.
523534
524535 (B) A review of the standard of care and due process provided to the individuals described in subdivision (a).
525536
526537 (C) A review of the circumstances around their apprehension and transfer to the facility.
527538
528539 (2) The Attorney General, or his or her designee, shall provide, on or before March 1, 2019, the Legislature and the Governor with a comprehensive report outlining the findings of the review described in this subdivision, which shall be posted on the Attorney Generals Internet Web site and otherwise made available to the public upon its release to the Legislature and the Governor. The Department of Justice shall provide, during the budget process, updates and information to the Legislature and the Governor, including a written summary of findings, if appropriate, regarding the progress of the review described in this subdivision and any relevant findings.
529540
530541 (c) The Attorney General, or his or her designee, shall be provided all necessary access for the observations necessary to effectuate reviews required pursuant to this section, including, but not limited to, access to detainees, officials, personnel, and records.
531542
532543 (d) This section shall become inoperative on July 1, 2027, and, as of January 1, 2028, is repealed.
533544
534545 SEC. 13. Section 15007 is added to the Government Code, to read:15007. For potential litigation involving the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Program (Title 21 (commencing with Section 100000), the state shall be represented by attorneys who possess a comprehensive knowledge of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. Sec. 1001 et seq.) (ERISA) and have at least 10 years of experience litigating claims related to ERISA in federal trial and appellate courts. If the Department of Justice does not have sufficient attorneys who possess these characteristics, it shall enter into contracts with qualified attorneys to secure their services.
535546
536547 SEC. 13. Section 15007 is added to the Government Code, to read:
537548
538549 ### SEC. 13.
539550
540551 15007. For potential litigation involving the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Program (Title 21 (commencing with Section 100000), the state shall be represented by attorneys who possess a comprehensive knowledge of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. Sec. 1001 et seq.) (ERISA) and have at least 10 years of experience litigating claims related to ERISA in federal trial and appellate courts. If the Department of Justice does not have sufficient attorneys who possess these characteristics, it shall enter into contracts with qualified attorneys to secure their services.
541552
542553 15007. For potential litigation involving the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Program (Title 21 (commencing with Section 100000), the state shall be represented by attorneys who possess a comprehensive knowledge of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. Sec. 1001 et seq.) (ERISA) and have at least 10 years of experience litigating claims related to ERISA in federal trial and appellate courts. If the Department of Justice does not have sufficient attorneys who possess these characteristics, it shall enter into contracts with qualified attorneys to secure their services.
543554
544555 15007. For potential litigation involving the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Program (Title 21 (commencing with Section 100000), the state shall be represented by attorneys who possess a comprehensive knowledge of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. Sec. 1001 et seq.) (ERISA) and have at least 10 years of experience litigating claims related to ERISA in federal trial and appellate courts. If the Department of Justice does not have sufficient attorneys who possess these characteristics, it shall enter into contracts with qualified attorneys to secure their services.
545556
546557
547558
548559 15007. For potential litigation involving the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Program (Title 21 (commencing with Section 100000), the state shall be represented by attorneys who possess a comprehensive knowledge of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. Sec. 1001 et seq.) (ERISA) and have at least 10 years of experience litigating claims related to ERISA in federal trial and appellate courts. If the Department of Justice does not have sufficient attorneys who possess these characteristics, it shall enter into contracts with qualified attorneys to secure their services.
549560
550561 SEC. 14. Section 15820.948 is added to the Government Code, to read:15820.948. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, any funding conditionally awarded by the Board of State and Community Corrections pursuant to Chapter 3.11 (commencing with Section 15820.90), Chapter 3.12 (commencing with Section 15820.91), Chapter 3.13 (commencing with Section 15820.92), or Chapter 3.131 (commencing with Section 15820.93), to a participating county for the construction or renovation of a local jail facility or adult local criminal justice facility after the effective date of the legislation that added this section, shall be used to construct or renovate a facility that meets or surpasses the minimum number of weekly visits as specified by Section 1062 of Title 15 of the California Code of Regulations through the use of in-person visitation space.(b) For any proposals previously submitted to the board pursuant to the funding authority referenced in subdivision (a) that only provided for video visitation, the board shall require the participating county to submit a scope change to include in-person visitation prior to the boards approval of the conditional award.(c) For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:(1) In-person visit means an on-site visit that may include barriers. In-person visits include interactions in which an inmate has physical contact with a visitor, the inmate is able to see a visitor through a barrier, or the inmate is otherwise in a room with a visitor without physical contact. In-person visit does not include an interaction between an inmate and a visitor through the use of an on-site, two-way, audio-video terminal.(2) Video visitation means interaction between an inmate and a member of the public through the means of an audio-visual communication device when the member of the public is located at a local detention facility or at a remote location.
551562
552563 SEC. 14. Section 15820.948 is added to the Government Code, to read:
553564
554565 ### SEC. 14.
555566
556567 15820.948. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, any funding conditionally awarded by the Board of State and Community Corrections pursuant to Chapter 3.11 (commencing with Section 15820.90), Chapter 3.12 (commencing with Section 15820.91), Chapter 3.13 (commencing with Section 15820.92), or Chapter 3.131 (commencing with Section 15820.93), to a participating county for the construction or renovation of a local jail facility or adult local criminal justice facility after the effective date of the legislation that added this section, shall be used to construct or renovate a facility that meets or surpasses the minimum number of weekly visits as specified by Section 1062 of Title 15 of the California Code of Regulations through the use of in-person visitation space.(b) For any proposals previously submitted to the board pursuant to the funding authority referenced in subdivision (a) that only provided for video visitation, the board shall require the participating county to submit a scope change to include in-person visitation prior to the boards approval of the conditional award.(c) For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:(1) In-person visit means an on-site visit that may include barriers. In-person visits include interactions in which an inmate has physical contact with a visitor, the inmate is able to see a visitor through a barrier, or the inmate is otherwise in a room with a visitor without physical contact. In-person visit does not include an interaction between an inmate and a visitor through the use of an on-site, two-way, audio-video terminal.(2) Video visitation means interaction between an inmate and a member of the public through the means of an audio-visual communication device when the member of the public is located at a local detention facility or at a remote location.
557568
558569 15820.948. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, any funding conditionally awarded by the Board of State and Community Corrections pursuant to Chapter 3.11 (commencing with Section 15820.90), Chapter 3.12 (commencing with Section 15820.91), Chapter 3.13 (commencing with Section 15820.92), or Chapter 3.131 (commencing with Section 15820.93), to a participating county for the construction or renovation of a local jail facility or adult local criminal justice facility after the effective date of the legislation that added this section, shall be used to construct or renovate a facility that meets or surpasses the minimum number of weekly visits as specified by Section 1062 of Title 15 of the California Code of Regulations through the use of in-person visitation space.(b) For any proposals previously submitted to the board pursuant to the funding authority referenced in subdivision (a) that only provided for video visitation, the board shall require the participating county to submit a scope change to include in-person visitation prior to the boards approval of the conditional award.(c) For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:(1) In-person visit means an on-site visit that may include barriers. In-person visits include interactions in which an inmate has physical contact with a visitor, the inmate is able to see a visitor through a barrier, or the inmate is otherwise in a room with a visitor without physical contact. In-person visit does not include an interaction between an inmate and a visitor through the use of an on-site, two-way, audio-video terminal.(2) Video visitation means interaction between an inmate and a member of the public through the means of an audio-visual communication device when the member of the public is located at a local detention facility or at a remote location.
559570
560571 15820.948. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, any funding conditionally awarded by the Board of State and Community Corrections pursuant to Chapter 3.11 (commencing with Section 15820.90), Chapter 3.12 (commencing with Section 15820.91), Chapter 3.13 (commencing with Section 15820.92), or Chapter 3.131 (commencing with Section 15820.93), to a participating county for the construction or renovation of a local jail facility or adult local criminal justice facility after the effective date of the legislation that added this section, shall be used to construct or renovate a facility that meets or surpasses the minimum number of weekly visits as specified by Section 1062 of Title 15 of the California Code of Regulations through the use of in-person visitation space.(b) For any proposals previously submitted to the board pursuant to the funding authority referenced in subdivision (a) that only provided for video visitation, the board shall require the participating county to submit a scope change to include in-person visitation prior to the boards approval of the conditional award.(c) For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:(1) In-person visit means an on-site visit that may include barriers. In-person visits include interactions in which an inmate has physical contact with a visitor, the inmate is able to see a visitor through a barrier, or the inmate is otherwise in a room with a visitor without physical contact. In-person visit does not include an interaction between an inmate and a visitor through the use of an on-site, two-way, audio-video terminal.(2) Video visitation means interaction between an inmate and a member of the public through the means of an audio-visual communication device when the member of the public is located at a local detention facility or at a remote location.
561572
562573
563574
564575 15820.948. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, any funding conditionally awarded by the Board of State and Community Corrections pursuant to Chapter 3.11 (commencing with Section 15820.90), Chapter 3.12 (commencing with Section 15820.91), Chapter 3.13 (commencing with Section 15820.92), or Chapter 3.131 (commencing with Section 15820.93), to a participating county for the construction or renovation of a local jail facility or adult local criminal justice facility after the effective date of the legislation that added this section, shall be used to construct or renovate a facility that meets or surpasses the minimum number of weekly visits as specified by Section 1062 of Title 15 of the California Code of Regulations through the use of in-person visitation space.
565576
566577 (b) For any proposals previously submitted to the board pursuant to the funding authority referenced in subdivision (a) that only provided for video visitation, the board shall require the participating county to submit a scope change to include in-person visitation prior to the boards approval of the conditional award.
567578
568579 (c) For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:
569580
570581 (1) In-person visit means an on-site visit that may include barriers. In-person visits include interactions in which an inmate has physical contact with a visitor, the inmate is able to see a visitor through a barrier, or the inmate is otherwise in a room with a visitor without physical contact. In-person visit does not include an interaction between an inmate and a visitor through the use of an on-site, two-way, audio-video terminal.
571582
572583 (2) Video visitation means interaction between an inmate and a member of the public through the means of an audio-visual communication device when the member of the public is located at a local detention facility or at a remote location.
573584
574585 SEC. 15. Section 24000 of the Government Code is amended to read:24000. The officers of a county are:(a) A district attorney.(b) A sheriff.(c) A county clerk.(d) A controller.(e) An auditor, who shall be ex officio controller.(f) A treasurer.(g) A recorder.(h) A license collector.(i) A tax collector, who shall be ex officio license collector.(j) An assessor.(k) A superintendent of schools.(l) A public administrator.(m) A coroner.(n) A surveyor.(o) Members of the board of supervisors.(p) A county veterinarian.(q) A fish and game warden.(r) A county librarian.(s) A county health officer.(t) An administrative officer.(u) A director of finance.(v) A road commissioner.(w) A public guardian.(x) A chief probation officer.(y) Such other officers as are provided by law.
575586
576587 SEC. 15. Section 24000 of the Government Code is amended to read:
577588
578589 ### SEC. 15.
579590
580591 24000. The officers of a county are:(a) A district attorney.(b) A sheriff.(c) A county clerk.(d) A controller.(e) An auditor, who shall be ex officio controller.(f) A treasurer.(g) A recorder.(h) A license collector.(i) A tax collector, who shall be ex officio license collector.(j) An assessor.(k) A superintendent of schools.(l) A public administrator.(m) A coroner.(n) A surveyor.(o) Members of the board of supervisors.(p) A county veterinarian.(q) A fish and game warden.(r) A county librarian.(s) A county health officer.(t) An administrative officer.(u) A director of finance.(v) A road commissioner.(w) A public guardian.(x) A chief probation officer.(y) Such other officers as are provided by law.
581592
582593 24000. The officers of a county are:(a) A district attorney.(b) A sheriff.(c) A county clerk.(d) A controller.(e) An auditor, who shall be ex officio controller.(f) A treasurer.(g) A recorder.(h) A license collector.(i) A tax collector, who shall be ex officio license collector.(j) An assessor.(k) A superintendent of schools.(l) A public administrator.(m) A coroner.(n) A surveyor.(o) Members of the board of supervisors.(p) A county veterinarian.(q) A fish and game warden.(r) A county librarian.(s) A county health officer.(t) An administrative officer.(u) A director of finance.(v) A road commissioner.(w) A public guardian.(x) A chief probation officer.(y) Such other officers as are provided by law.
583594
584595 24000. The officers of a county are:(a) A district attorney.(b) A sheriff.(c) A county clerk.(d) A controller.(e) An auditor, who shall be ex officio controller.(f) A treasurer.(g) A recorder.(h) A license collector.(i) A tax collector, who shall be ex officio license collector.(j) An assessor.(k) A superintendent of schools.(l) A public administrator.(m) A coroner.(n) A surveyor.(o) Members of the board of supervisors.(p) A county veterinarian.(q) A fish and game warden.(r) A county librarian.(s) A county health officer.(t) An administrative officer.(u) A director of finance.(v) A road commissioner.(w) A public guardian.(x) A chief probation officer.(y) Such other officers as are provided by law.
585596
586597
587598
588599 24000. The officers of a county are:
589600
590601 (a) A district attorney.
591602
592603 (b) A sheriff.
593604
594605 (c) A county clerk.
595606
596607 (d) A controller.
597608
598609 (e) An auditor, who shall be ex officio controller.
599610
600611 (f) A treasurer.
601612
602613 (g) A recorder.
603614
604615 (h) A license collector.
605616
606617 (i) A tax collector, who shall be ex officio license collector.
607618
608619 (j) An assessor.
609620
610621 (k) A superintendent of schools.
611622
612623 (l) A public administrator.
613624
614625 (m) A coroner.
615626
616627 (n) A surveyor.
617628
618629 (o) Members of the board of supervisors.
619630
620631 (p) A county veterinarian.
621632
622633 (q) A fish and game warden.
623634
624635 (r) A county librarian.
625636
626637 (s) A county health officer.
627638
628639 (t) An administrative officer.
629640
630641 (u) A director of finance.
631642
632643 (v) A road commissioner.
633644
634645 (w) A public guardian.
635646
636647 (x) A chief probation officer.
637648
638649 (y) Such other officers as are provided by law.
639650
640651 SEC. 16. Chapter 16 (commencing with Section 27770) is added to Part 3 of Division 2 of Title 3 of the Government Code, to read: CHAPTER 16. Chief Probation Officer27770. (a) A chief probation officer shall be appointed in every county. He or she shall be nominated by the juvenile justice commission or regional juvenile justice commission of the county in the same manner as the presiding judge, in a county with two judges, or a majority of the judges, in a county with more than two judges, shall prescribe, and shall thereafter be appointed by the presiding judge or majority of judges. The salary for the position shall be established by the board of supervisors of the county. He or she may be removed for good cause as determined by the presiding judge or majority of judges.(b) In counties with charters that provide for appointment and tenure of office for the chief probation officer, the provisions of the charter shall control as to those matters and, in counties that have established or hereafter establish merit or civil service systems governing the methods of appointment and the tenure for the chief probation officer, the provisions of the merit or civil service systems shall control as to those matters. In all other counties, appointment and tenure of the chief probation officer shall be controlled exclusively by the provisions of this code.27771. (a) The chief probation officer shall perform the duties and discharge the obligations imposed on the office by law or by order of the superior court, including the following:(1) Community supervision of offenders subject to the jurisdiction of the juvenile court pursuant to Section 602 or 1766 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(2) Operation of juvenile halls pursuant to Section 852 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(3) Operation of juvenile camps and ranches established under Section 880 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(4) Community supervision of individuals subject to probation pursuant to conditions imposed under Section 1203 of the Penal Code.(5) Community supervision of individuals subject to mandatory supervision pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (5) of subdivision (h) of Section 1170 of the Penal Code.(6) Community supervision of individuals subject to postrelease community supervision pursuant to Section 3451 of the Penal Code.(7) Administration of community-based corrections programming, including, but not limited to, programs authorized by Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 1228) of Title 8 of Part 2 of the Penal Code.(8) Serving as chair of the Community Corrections Partnership pursuant to Section 1230 of the Penal Code.(9) Making recommendations to the court, including, but not limited to, pre-sentence investigative reports pursuant to Sections 1203.7 and 1203.10 of the Penal Code.(b) The chief probation officer may perform other duties that are consistent with those enumerated in subdivision (a) and may accept appointment to the Board of State and Community Corrections and collect the per diem authorized by Section 6025.1 of the Penal Code.27772. (a) Except as provided in Section 69906.5, the chief probation officer may appoint deputies, assistants, and other persons, and their compensation shall be established according to the provisions of the countys merit systems or civil service systems. If no merit systems or civil service systems exist in the county, the board of supervisors shall provide for appointment, removal, and compensation of this personnel.(b) A deputy or assistant to the chief probation officer shall not have authority to act until his or her appointment has been approved by the juvenile justice commission or regional juvenile justice commission and by the presiding judge or majority of judges. The term of office of a deputy or assistant shall expire with the term of the chief probation officer who appointed the deputy or assistant, but the chief probation officer may revoke and terminate the appointment at any time.(c) This section applies in any charter county with a charter establishing the office of chief probation officer or adult probation officer and provides for the appointment of the officer in accordance with general law, subject to the merit system provisions of the charter.27773. The office of chief probation officer shall not be consolidated with any other office, nor shall the services provided by the chief probation officer be integrated with or reorganized into any other office or department of the county.
641652
642653 SEC. 16. Chapter 16 (commencing with Section 27770) is added to Part 3 of Division 2 of Title 3 of the Government Code, to read:
643654
644655 ### SEC. 16.
645656
646657 CHAPTER 16. Chief Probation Officer27770. (a) A chief probation officer shall be appointed in every county. He or she shall be nominated by the juvenile justice commission or regional juvenile justice commission of the county in the same manner as the presiding judge, in a county with two judges, or a majority of the judges, in a county with more than two judges, shall prescribe, and shall thereafter be appointed by the presiding judge or majority of judges. The salary for the position shall be established by the board of supervisors of the county. He or she may be removed for good cause as determined by the presiding judge or majority of judges.(b) In counties with charters that provide for appointment and tenure of office for the chief probation officer, the provisions of the charter shall control as to those matters and, in counties that have established or hereafter establish merit or civil service systems governing the methods of appointment and the tenure for the chief probation officer, the provisions of the merit or civil service systems shall control as to those matters. In all other counties, appointment and tenure of the chief probation officer shall be controlled exclusively by the provisions of this code.27771. (a) The chief probation officer shall perform the duties and discharge the obligations imposed on the office by law or by order of the superior court, including the following:(1) Community supervision of offenders subject to the jurisdiction of the juvenile court pursuant to Section 602 or 1766 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(2) Operation of juvenile halls pursuant to Section 852 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(3) Operation of juvenile camps and ranches established under Section 880 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(4) Community supervision of individuals subject to probation pursuant to conditions imposed under Section 1203 of the Penal Code.(5) Community supervision of individuals subject to mandatory supervision pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (5) of subdivision (h) of Section 1170 of the Penal Code.(6) Community supervision of individuals subject to postrelease community supervision pursuant to Section 3451 of the Penal Code.(7) Administration of community-based corrections programming, including, but not limited to, programs authorized by Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 1228) of Title 8 of Part 2 of the Penal Code.(8) Serving as chair of the Community Corrections Partnership pursuant to Section 1230 of the Penal Code.(9) Making recommendations to the court, including, but not limited to, pre-sentence investigative reports pursuant to Sections 1203.7 and 1203.10 of the Penal Code.(b) The chief probation officer may perform other duties that are consistent with those enumerated in subdivision (a) and may accept appointment to the Board of State and Community Corrections and collect the per diem authorized by Section 6025.1 of the Penal Code.27772. (a) Except as provided in Section 69906.5, the chief probation officer may appoint deputies, assistants, and other persons, and their compensation shall be established according to the provisions of the countys merit systems or civil service systems. If no merit systems or civil service systems exist in the county, the board of supervisors shall provide for appointment, removal, and compensation of this personnel.(b) A deputy or assistant to the chief probation officer shall not have authority to act until his or her appointment has been approved by the juvenile justice commission or regional juvenile justice commission and by the presiding judge or majority of judges. The term of office of a deputy or assistant shall expire with the term of the chief probation officer who appointed the deputy or assistant, but the chief probation officer may revoke and terminate the appointment at any time.(c) This section applies in any charter county with a charter establishing the office of chief probation officer or adult probation officer and provides for the appointment of the officer in accordance with general law, subject to the merit system provisions of the charter.27773. The office of chief probation officer shall not be consolidated with any other office, nor shall the services provided by the chief probation officer be integrated with or reorganized into any other office or department of the county.
647658
648659 CHAPTER 16. Chief Probation Officer27770. (a) A chief probation officer shall be appointed in every county. He or she shall be nominated by the juvenile justice commission or regional juvenile justice commission of the county in the same manner as the presiding judge, in a county with two judges, or a majority of the judges, in a county with more than two judges, shall prescribe, and shall thereafter be appointed by the presiding judge or majority of judges. The salary for the position shall be established by the board of supervisors of the county. He or she may be removed for good cause as determined by the presiding judge or majority of judges.(b) In counties with charters that provide for appointment and tenure of office for the chief probation officer, the provisions of the charter shall control as to those matters and, in counties that have established or hereafter establish merit or civil service systems governing the methods of appointment and the tenure for the chief probation officer, the provisions of the merit or civil service systems shall control as to those matters. In all other counties, appointment and tenure of the chief probation officer shall be controlled exclusively by the provisions of this code.27771. (a) The chief probation officer shall perform the duties and discharge the obligations imposed on the office by law or by order of the superior court, including the following:(1) Community supervision of offenders subject to the jurisdiction of the juvenile court pursuant to Section 602 or 1766 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(2) Operation of juvenile halls pursuant to Section 852 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(3) Operation of juvenile camps and ranches established under Section 880 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(4) Community supervision of individuals subject to probation pursuant to conditions imposed under Section 1203 of the Penal Code.(5) Community supervision of individuals subject to mandatory supervision pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (5) of subdivision (h) of Section 1170 of the Penal Code.(6) Community supervision of individuals subject to postrelease community supervision pursuant to Section 3451 of the Penal Code.(7) Administration of community-based corrections programming, including, but not limited to, programs authorized by Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 1228) of Title 8 of Part 2 of the Penal Code.(8) Serving as chair of the Community Corrections Partnership pursuant to Section 1230 of the Penal Code.(9) Making recommendations to the court, including, but not limited to, pre-sentence investigative reports pursuant to Sections 1203.7 and 1203.10 of the Penal Code.(b) The chief probation officer may perform other duties that are consistent with those enumerated in subdivision (a) and may accept appointment to the Board of State and Community Corrections and collect the per diem authorized by Section 6025.1 of the Penal Code.27772. (a) Except as provided in Section 69906.5, the chief probation officer may appoint deputies, assistants, and other persons, and their compensation shall be established according to the provisions of the countys merit systems or civil service systems. If no merit systems or civil service systems exist in the county, the board of supervisors shall provide for appointment, removal, and compensation of this personnel.(b) A deputy or assistant to the chief probation officer shall not have authority to act until his or her appointment has been approved by the juvenile justice commission or regional juvenile justice commission and by the presiding judge or majority of judges. The term of office of a deputy or assistant shall expire with the term of the chief probation officer who appointed the deputy or assistant, but the chief probation officer may revoke and terminate the appointment at any time.(c) This section applies in any charter county with a charter establishing the office of chief probation officer or adult probation officer and provides for the appointment of the officer in accordance with general law, subject to the merit system provisions of the charter.27773. The office of chief probation officer shall not be consolidated with any other office, nor shall the services provided by the chief probation officer be integrated with or reorganized into any other office or department of the county.
649660
650661 CHAPTER 16. Chief Probation Officer
651662
652663 CHAPTER 16. Chief Probation Officer
653664
654665 27770. (a) A chief probation officer shall be appointed in every county. He or she shall be nominated by the juvenile justice commission or regional juvenile justice commission of the county in the same manner as the presiding judge, in a county with two judges, or a majority of the judges, in a county with more than two judges, shall prescribe, and shall thereafter be appointed by the presiding judge or majority of judges. The salary for the position shall be established by the board of supervisors of the county. He or she may be removed for good cause as determined by the presiding judge or majority of judges.(b) In counties with charters that provide for appointment and tenure of office for the chief probation officer, the provisions of the charter shall control as to those matters and, in counties that have established or hereafter establish merit or civil service systems governing the methods of appointment and the tenure for the chief probation officer, the provisions of the merit or civil service systems shall control as to those matters. In all other counties, appointment and tenure of the chief probation officer shall be controlled exclusively by the provisions of this code.
655666
656667
657668
658669 27770. (a) A chief probation officer shall be appointed in every county. He or she shall be nominated by the juvenile justice commission or regional juvenile justice commission of the county in the same manner as the presiding judge, in a county with two judges, or a majority of the judges, in a county with more than two judges, shall prescribe, and shall thereafter be appointed by the presiding judge or majority of judges. The salary for the position shall be established by the board of supervisors of the county. He or she may be removed for good cause as determined by the presiding judge or majority of judges.
659670
660671 (b) In counties with charters that provide for appointment and tenure of office for the chief probation officer, the provisions of the charter shall control as to those matters and, in counties that have established or hereafter establish merit or civil service systems governing the methods of appointment and the tenure for the chief probation officer, the provisions of the merit or civil service systems shall control as to those matters. In all other counties, appointment and tenure of the chief probation officer shall be controlled exclusively by the provisions of this code.
661672
662673 27771. (a) The chief probation officer shall perform the duties and discharge the obligations imposed on the office by law or by order of the superior court, including the following:(1) Community supervision of offenders subject to the jurisdiction of the juvenile court pursuant to Section 602 or 1766 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(2) Operation of juvenile halls pursuant to Section 852 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(3) Operation of juvenile camps and ranches established under Section 880 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(4) Community supervision of individuals subject to probation pursuant to conditions imposed under Section 1203 of the Penal Code.(5) Community supervision of individuals subject to mandatory supervision pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (5) of subdivision (h) of Section 1170 of the Penal Code.(6) Community supervision of individuals subject to postrelease community supervision pursuant to Section 3451 of the Penal Code.(7) Administration of community-based corrections programming, including, but not limited to, programs authorized by Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 1228) of Title 8 of Part 2 of the Penal Code.(8) Serving as chair of the Community Corrections Partnership pursuant to Section 1230 of the Penal Code.(9) Making recommendations to the court, including, but not limited to, pre-sentence investigative reports pursuant to Sections 1203.7 and 1203.10 of the Penal Code.(b) The chief probation officer may perform other duties that are consistent with those enumerated in subdivision (a) and may accept appointment to the Board of State and Community Corrections and collect the per diem authorized by Section 6025.1 of the Penal Code.
663674
664675
665676
666677 27771. (a) The chief probation officer shall perform the duties and discharge the obligations imposed on the office by law or by order of the superior court, including the following:
667678
668679 (1) Community supervision of offenders subject to the jurisdiction of the juvenile court pursuant to Section 602 or 1766 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.
669680
670681 (2) Operation of juvenile halls pursuant to Section 852 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.
671682
672683 (3) Operation of juvenile camps and ranches established under Section 880 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.
673684
674685 (4) Community supervision of individuals subject to probation pursuant to conditions imposed under Section 1203 of the Penal Code.
675686
676687 (5) Community supervision of individuals subject to mandatory supervision pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (5) of subdivision (h) of Section 1170 of the Penal Code.
677688
678689 (6) Community supervision of individuals subject to postrelease community supervision pursuant to Section 3451 of the Penal Code.
679690
680691 (7) Administration of community-based corrections programming, including, but not limited to, programs authorized by Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 1228) of Title 8 of Part 2 of the Penal Code.
681692
682693 (8) Serving as chair of the Community Corrections Partnership pursuant to Section 1230 of the Penal Code.
683694
684695 (9) Making recommendations to the court, including, but not limited to, pre-sentence investigative reports pursuant to Sections 1203.7 and 1203.10 of the Penal Code.
685696
686697 (b) The chief probation officer may perform other duties that are consistent with those enumerated in subdivision (a) and may accept appointment to the Board of State and Community Corrections and collect the per diem authorized by Section 6025.1 of the Penal Code.
687698
688699 27772. (a) Except as provided in Section 69906.5, the chief probation officer may appoint deputies, assistants, and other persons, and their compensation shall be established according to the provisions of the countys merit systems or civil service systems. If no merit systems or civil service systems exist in the county, the board of supervisors shall provide for appointment, removal, and compensation of this personnel.(b) A deputy or assistant to the chief probation officer shall not have authority to act until his or her appointment has been approved by the juvenile justice commission or regional juvenile justice commission and by the presiding judge or majority of judges. The term of office of a deputy or assistant shall expire with the term of the chief probation officer who appointed the deputy or assistant, but the chief probation officer may revoke and terminate the appointment at any time.(c) This section applies in any charter county with a charter establishing the office of chief probation officer or adult probation officer and provides for the appointment of the officer in accordance with general law, subject to the merit system provisions of the charter.
689700
690701
691702
692703 27772. (a) Except as provided in Section 69906.5, the chief probation officer may appoint deputies, assistants, and other persons, and their compensation shall be established according to the provisions of the countys merit systems or civil service systems. If no merit systems or civil service systems exist in the county, the board of supervisors shall provide for appointment, removal, and compensation of this personnel.
693704
694705 (b) A deputy or assistant to the chief probation officer shall not have authority to act until his or her appointment has been approved by the juvenile justice commission or regional juvenile justice commission and by the presiding judge or majority of judges. The term of office of a deputy or assistant shall expire with the term of the chief probation officer who appointed the deputy or assistant, but the chief probation officer may revoke and terminate the appointment at any time.
695706
696707 (c) This section applies in any charter county with a charter establishing the office of chief probation officer or adult probation officer and provides for the appointment of the officer in accordance with general law, subject to the merit system provisions of the charter.
697708
698709 27773. The office of chief probation officer shall not be consolidated with any other office, nor shall the services provided by the chief probation officer be integrated with or reorganized into any other office or department of the county.
699710
700711
701712
702713 27773. The office of chief probation officer shall not be consolidated with any other office, nor shall the services provided by the chief probation officer be integrated with or reorganized into any other office or department of the county.
703714
704715 SEC. 17. Section 68514 is added to the Government Code, to read:68514. (a) Beginning October 1, 2018, and annually thereafter, the Judicial Council shall report to the Department of Finance and to the Joint Legislative Budget Committee, the total amount of revenue collected in the prior fiscal year, by each court and county, from criminal fines and fees assessed related to infractions and misdemeanors. The report shall include, but not be limited to, the following information:(1) Total nondelinquent revenue collected and the number of cases associated with those collections.(2) Total delinquent revenue collected and the number of cases associated with those collections, as reported by each superior court and county pursuant to Section 1463.010 of the Penal Code.(3) Total amount of fines and fees dismissed, discharged, or satisfied by means other than payment.(4) A description of the collection activities used pursuant to Section 1463.007 of the Penal Code.(5) The total amount collected per collection activity.(6) The total number of cases by collection activity and the total number of individuals associated with those cases.(7) Total administrative costs per collection activity.(8) The percentage of fines or fees that are defaulted on.(b) Judicial Council shall separately list the information required in subdivision (a) for fines and fees assessed in a year prior to the current reporting year that had outstanding balances in the current reporting year.(c) To the extent a court or county cannot provide the information listed in subdivisions (a) and (b), the Judicial Council shall notify the Department of Finance and the Joint Legislative Budget Committee and shall provide a plan for how to obtain this information in the future. The Department of Finance may approve alternate metrics if a court or county does not have this information.
705716
706717 SEC. 17. Section 68514 is added to the Government Code, to read:
707718
708719 ### SEC. 17.
709720
710721 68514. (a) Beginning October 1, 2018, and annually thereafter, the Judicial Council shall report to the Department of Finance and to the Joint Legislative Budget Committee, the total amount of revenue collected in the prior fiscal year, by each court and county, from criminal fines and fees assessed related to infractions and misdemeanors. The report shall include, but not be limited to, the following information:(1) Total nondelinquent revenue collected and the number of cases associated with those collections.(2) Total delinquent revenue collected and the number of cases associated with those collections, as reported by each superior court and county pursuant to Section 1463.010 of the Penal Code.(3) Total amount of fines and fees dismissed, discharged, or satisfied by means other than payment.(4) A description of the collection activities used pursuant to Section 1463.007 of the Penal Code.(5) The total amount collected per collection activity.(6) The total number of cases by collection activity and the total number of individuals associated with those cases.(7) Total administrative costs per collection activity.(8) The percentage of fines or fees that are defaulted on.(b) Judicial Council shall separately list the information required in subdivision (a) for fines and fees assessed in a year prior to the current reporting year that had outstanding balances in the current reporting year.(c) To the extent a court or county cannot provide the information listed in subdivisions (a) and (b), the Judicial Council shall notify the Department of Finance and the Joint Legislative Budget Committee and shall provide a plan for how to obtain this information in the future. The Department of Finance may approve alternate metrics if a court or county does not have this information.
711722
712723 68514. (a) Beginning October 1, 2018, and annually thereafter, the Judicial Council shall report to the Department of Finance and to the Joint Legislative Budget Committee, the total amount of revenue collected in the prior fiscal year, by each court and county, from criminal fines and fees assessed related to infractions and misdemeanors. The report shall include, but not be limited to, the following information:(1) Total nondelinquent revenue collected and the number of cases associated with those collections.(2) Total delinquent revenue collected and the number of cases associated with those collections, as reported by each superior court and county pursuant to Section 1463.010 of the Penal Code.(3) Total amount of fines and fees dismissed, discharged, or satisfied by means other than payment.(4) A description of the collection activities used pursuant to Section 1463.007 of the Penal Code.(5) The total amount collected per collection activity.(6) The total number of cases by collection activity and the total number of individuals associated with those cases.(7) Total administrative costs per collection activity.(8) The percentage of fines or fees that are defaulted on.(b) Judicial Council shall separately list the information required in subdivision (a) for fines and fees assessed in a year prior to the current reporting year that had outstanding balances in the current reporting year.(c) To the extent a court or county cannot provide the information listed in subdivisions (a) and (b), the Judicial Council shall notify the Department of Finance and the Joint Legislative Budget Committee and shall provide a plan for how to obtain this information in the future. The Department of Finance may approve alternate metrics if a court or county does not have this information.
713724
714725 68514. (a) Beginning October 1, 2018, and annually thereafter, the Judicial Council shall report to the Department of Finance and to the Joint Legislative Budget Committee, the total amount of revenue collected in the prior fiscal year, by each court and county, from criminal fines and fees assessed related to infractions and misdemeanors. The report shall include, but not be limited to, the following information:(1) Total nondelinquent revenue collected and the number of cases associated with those collections.(2) Total delinquent revenue collected and the number of cases associated with those collections, as reported by each superior court and county pursuant to Section 1463.010 of the Penal Code.(3) Total amount of fines and fees dismissed, discharged, or satisfied by means other than payment.(4) A description of the collection activities used pursuant to Section 1463.007 of the Penal Code.(5) The total amount collected per collection activity.(6) The total number of cases by collection activity and the total number of individuals associated with those cases.(7) Total administrative costs per collection activity.(8) The percentage of fines or fees that are defaulted on.(b) Judicial Council shall separately list the information required in subdivision (a) for fines and fees assessed in a year prior to the current reporting year that had outstanding balances in the current reporting year.(c) To the extent a court or county cannot provide the information listed in subdivisions (a) and (b), the Judicial Council shall notify the Department of Finance and the Joint Legislative Budget Committee and shall provide a plan for how to obtain this information in the future. The Department of Finance may approve alternate metrics if a court or county does not have this information.
715726
716727
717728
718729 68514. (a) Beginning October 1, 2018, and annually thereafter, the Judicial Council shall report to the Department of Finance and to the Joint Legislative Budget Committee, the total amount of revenue collected in the prior fiscal year, by each court and county, from criminal fines and fees assessed related to infractions and misdemeanors. The report shall include, but not be limited to, the following information:
719730
720731 (1) Total nondelinquent revenue collected and the number of cases associated with those collections.
721732
722733 (2) Total delinquent revenue collected and the number of cases associated with those collections, as reported by each superior court and county pursuant to Section 1463.010 of the Penal Code.
723734
724735 (3) Total amount of fines and fees dismissed, discharged, or satisfied by means other than payment.
725736
726737 (4) A description of the collection activities used pursuant to Section 1463.007 of the Penal Code.
727738
728739 (5) The total amount collected per collection activity.
729740
730741 (6) The total number of cases by collection activity and the total number of individuals associated with those cases.
731742
732743 (7) Total administrative costs per collection activity.
733744
734745 (8) The percentage of fines or fees that are defaulted on.
735746
736747 (b) Judicial Council shall separately list the information required in subdivision (a) for fines and fees assessed in a year prior to the current reporting year that had outstanding balances in the current reporting year.
737748
738749 (c) To the extent a court or county cannot provide the information listed in subdivisions (a) and (b), the Judicial Council shall notify the Department of Finance and the Joint Legislative Budget Committee and shall provide a plan for how to obtain this information in the future. The Department of Finance may approve alternate metrics if a court or county does not have this information.
739750
740751 SEC. 18. Section 69580 of the Government Code is amended to read:69580. In the County of Alameda there are 67 judges of the superior court.
741752
742753 SEC. 18. Section 69580 of the Government Code is amended to read:
743754
744755 ### SEC. 18.
745756
746757 69580. In the County of Alameda there are 67 judges of the superior court.
747758
748759 69580. In the County of Alameda there are 67 judges of the superior court.
749760
750761 69580. In the County of Alameda there are 67 judges of the superior court.
751762
752763
753764
754765 69580. In the County of Alameda there are 67 judges of the superior court.
755766
756767 SEC. 19. Section 69592 of the Government Code is amended to read:69592. In the County of Riverside there are 51 judges of the superior court.
757768
758769 SEC. 19. Section 69592 of the Government Code is amended to read:
759770
760771 ### SEC. 19.
761772
762773 69592. In the County of Riverside there are 51 judges of the superior court.
763774
764775 69592. In the County of Riverside there are 51 judges of the superior court.
765776
766777 69592. In the County of Riverside there are 51 judges of the superior court.
767778
768779
769780
770781 69592. In the County of Riverside there are 51 judges of the superior court.
771782
772783 SEC. 20. Section 69594 of the Government Code is amended to read:69594. In the County of San Bernardino there are 65 judges of the superior court.
773784
774785 SEC. 20. Section 69594 of the Government Code is amended to read:
775786
776787 ### SEC. 20.
777788
778789 69594. In the County of San Bernardino there are 65 judges of the superior court.
779790
780791 69594. In the County of San Bernardino there are 65 judges of the superior court.
781792
782793 69594. In the County of San Bernardino there are 65 judges of the superior court.
783794
784795
785796
786797 69594. In the County of San Bernardino there are 65 judges of the superior court.
787798
788799 SEC. 21. Section 69600 of the Government Code is amended to read:69600. In the County of Santa Clara there are 77 judges of the superior court.
789800
790801 SEC. 21. Section 69600 of the Government Code is amended to read:
791802
792803 ### SEC. 21.
793804
794805 69600. In the County of Santa Clara there are 77 judges of the superior court.
795806
796807 69600. In the County of Santa Clara there are 77 judges of the superior court.
797808
798809 69600. In the County of Santa Clara there are 77 judges of the superior court.
799810
800811
801812
802813 69600. In the County of Santa Clara there are 77 judges of the superior court.
803814
804815 SEC. 22. Section 69614.4 is added to the Government Code, to read:69614.4. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, two vacant judgeships from the Superior Court of the County of Santa Clara shall be reallocated to the Superior Court of the County of Riverside, and two vacant judgeships from the Superior Court of the County of Alameda shall be reallocated to the Superior Court of the County of San Bernardino.(b) The Judicial Council shall determine which specific vacancies shall be transferred between counties pursuant to this section and take all necessary steps to effectuate each transfer.(c) The term of the judgeships specified in this section shall begin on January 2, 2018.(d) A court in which a vacant judgeship is reallocated shall not have the courts funding allocation reduced or any of its funding shifted or transferred as a result of, or in connection with, the reallocation of a vacant judgeship pursuant to this section.
805816
806817 SEC. 22. Section 69614.4 is added to the Government Code, to read:
807818
808819 ### SEC. 22.
809820
810821 69614.4. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, two vacant judgeships from the Superior Court of the County of Santa Clara shall be reallocated to the Superior Court of the County of Riverside, and two vacant judgeships from the Superior Court of the County of Alameda shall be reallocated to the Superior Court of the County of San Bernardino.(b) The Judicial Council shall determine which specific vacancies shall be transferred between counties pursuant to this section and take all necessary steps to effectuate each transfer.(c) The term of the judgeships specified in this section shall begin on January 2, 2018.(d) A court in which a vacant judgeship is reallocated shall not have the courts funding allocation reduced or any of its funding shifted or transferred as a result of, or in connection with, the reallocation of a vacant judgeship pursuant to this section.
811822
812823 69614.4. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, two vacant judgeships from the Superior Court of the County of Santa Clara shall be reallocated to the Superior Court of the County of Riverside, and two vacant judgeships from the Superior Court of the County of Alameda shall be reallocated to the Superior Court of the County of San Bernardino.(b) The Judicial Council shall determine which specific vacancies shall be transferred between counties pursuant to this section and take all necessary steps to effectuate each transfer.(c) The term of the judgeships specified in this section shall begin on January 2, 2018.(d) A court in which a vacant judgeship is reallocated shall not have the courts funding allocation reduced or any of its funding shifted or transferred as a result of, or in connection with, the reallocation of a vacant judgeship pursuant to this section.
813824
814825 69614.4. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, two vacant judgeships from the Superior Court of the County of Santa Clara shall be reallocated to the Superior Court of the County of Riverside, and two vacant judgeships from the Superior Court of the County of Alameda shall be reallocated to the Superior Court of the County of San Bernardino.(b) The Judicial Council shall determine which specific vacancies shall be transferred between counties pursuant to this section and take all necessary steps to effectuate each transfer.(c) The term of the judgeships specified in this section shall begin on January 2, 2018.(d) A court in which a vacant judgeship is reallocated shall not have the courts funding allocation reduced or any of its funding shifted or transferred as a result of, or in connection with, the reallocation of a vacant judgeship pursuant to this section.
815826
816827
817828
818829 69614.4. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, two vacant judgeships from the Superior Court of the County of Santa Clara shall be reallocated to the Superior Court of the County of Riverside, and two vacant judgeships from the Superior Court of the County of Alameda shall be reallocated to the Superior Court of the County of San Bernardino.
819830
820831 (b) The Judicial Council shall determine which specific vacancies shall be transferred between counties pursuant to this section and take all necessary steps to effectuate each transfer.
821832
822833 (c) The term of the judgeships specified in this section shall begin on January 2, 2018.
823834
824835 (d) A court in which a vacant judgeship is reallocated shall not have the courts funding allocation reduced or any of its funding shifted or transferred as a result of, or in connection with, the reallocation of a vacant judgeship pursuant to this section.
825836
826837 SEC. 23. Article 9 (commencing with Section 70500) is added to Chapter 5.7 of Title 8 of the Government Code, to read: Article 9. Conveyance: Court Facility Property: County of San Diego70500. For purposes of this article, the following definitions shall apply:(a) Central courthouse project means the project analyzed in the Judicial Council EIR to construct the San Diego Central Courthouse and perform the demolition project.(b) Central jail means the county-owned central jail located at 1173 Front Street in the City of San Diego.(c) City EIRs means both the March 2008 City of San Diego Program Environmental Impact Report for the City of San Diegos General Plan (State Clearinghouse No. 200691032), as updated, and the March 2006 Final Environmental Impact Report for the San Diego Downtown Community Plan (State Clearinghouse No. 2003041001), as updated.(d) County property means the county-owned city block in the City of San Diego bounded by West A Street to the north, Union Street to the west, West B Street to the south, and Front Street to the east.(e) Demolition project means the demolition of any or all improvements on the San Diego property or the county property, and the construction of the inmate tunnel.(f) Development project means the disposition and development of all or a portion of the San Diego property and the county property by the County of San Diego, or its successors, lessees, or agents, including any agreements therefor, in a manner consistent with the City of San Diegos General Plan and the San Diego Downtown Community Plan.(g) Improvements means the existing courthouse building located on the San Diego property and the county property and the former county jail facility located on the San Diego property.(h) Inmate tunnel means a tunnel that will transport inmates between the central jail and the San Diego Central Courthouse.(i) Judicial Council EIR means the Environmental Impact Report dated December 2010, State Clearinghouse No. 2000021015, certified by the Judicial Council in December 2010, as amended.(j) San Diego Central Courthouse means the real property and improvements described in subdivision (d) of Section 70501.(k) San Diego property means both the real property described in subdivision (a) of Section 70501 and the improvements.70501. The Legislature finds and declares all of the following:(a) The state owns two contiguous parcels of real property consisting of approximately 2.59 acres located in the City of San Diego on two city blocks bounded by West B Street on the north, Union Street on the west, Broadway on the south, and Front Street on the east. Two buildings are located on the real property. One of the buildings is a courthouse building that is used by the Superior Court of California, County of San Diego, as a trial court facility and by the County of San Diego for county offices. Only a portion of the existing courthouse building is located on the state property. The other building is a former county jail facility.(b) A portion of the existing courthouse building is located on the adjacent county property. The state owns the portion of the existing courthouse building that is located on the county property, but the County of San Diego owns fee title to the county property.(c) The existing courthouse building will be replaced as part of an overall plan for consolidation and upgrade of the court facilities in the County of San Diego.(d) The Judicial Council has constructed the new San Diego Central Courthouse on state-owned property in the downtown area of the City of San Diego that is bounded by West B Street on the north, State Street on the west, West C Street on the south, and Union Street on the east. The new San Diego Central Courthouse will fully replace all space occupied by the superior court in the existing courthouse building located on the San Diego property and the county property, and will improve and enhance the safety and efficiency of superior court operations.(e) The Administrative Director of the Courts may, pursuant to Section 70502, convey the San Diego property to the County of San Diego for the public purpose of promoting public safety by facilitating the construction of the inmate tunnel.(f) After acquisition of the San Diego property, the County of San Diego intends to perform the demolition project on all or a portion of the San Diego property and the county property, and perform the development project on all or a portion of the San Diego property and the county property.70502. (a) (1) Notwithstanding any other law, the Administrative Director of the Courts is hereby authorized, on behalf of the state, to convey to the County of San Diego fee title to the San Diego property in exchange for the countys release of the Judicial Council and the state from all obligations related to the demolition project, the countys agreement to the condition in paragraph (2), and otherwise upon the terms and conditions, and subject to the reservations, the Judicial Council deems to be in the best interests of the state, for the public purpose of promoting public safety by facilitating the construction of the inmate tunnel.(2) The Administrative Director of the Courts shall not convey any interest in the San Diego property to the County of San Diego unless the County of San Diego agrees that no new detention facility, or an expansion of the currently leased or contracted beds in a detention facility, will be constructed on any parcel of the San Diego property.(b) Any sale, exchange, or lease of the San Diego property or the county property by the County of San Diego as part of a development project shall not constitute a disposition of surplus property under Article 8 (commencing with Section 54220) of Chapter 5 of Part 1 of Division 2 of Title 5.(c) In connection with any conveyance of the San Diego property pursuant to the authority granted in subdivision (a), the Administrative Director of the Courts shall have the right and authority to enter into amendments of the existing written agreements in effect as of the operative date of this article, between the County of San Diego and the Judicial Council, that are necessary to reflect the terms of the conveyance described in subdivision (a).(d) The conveyance of the San Diego property to the County of San Diego, on behalf of the state, shall not cause or result in any obligation of the County of San Diego to provide necessary and suitable facilities under Section 70311.70503. The Board of Supervisors of the County of San Diego is authorized to approve a lease for any or all of the San Diego property and the county property, which actions shall not be subject to Article 8 (commencing with Section 25520) of Chapter 5 of Part 2 of Division 2 of Title 3.70504. (a) With respect to the Judicial Council EIR of the central courthouse project, the Legislature finds and declares all of the following:(1) The County of San Diegos approval of the acquisition of the San Diego property or approval of the demolition project does not propose any substantial changes to the central courthouse project.(2) The Judicial Councils approval of the conveyance of the San Diego property to the County of San Diego in exchange for the countys release of the Judicial Council and the state from all obligations related to the demolition project does not propose any substantial changes to the central courthouse project.(3) There are no substantial changes in the circumstances under which approval of the conveyance of the San Diego property to the County of San Diego, the countys acquisition of the San Diego property, or approval of the demolition project will be undertaken that will require major revisions to the Judicial Council EIR due to the involvement of significant new environmental effects or a substantial increase in the severity of previously identified significant effects.(4) There is no new information of substantial importance, as that phrase is described and used in Section 21166 of the Public Resources Code or Section 15162 of Title 14 of the California Code of Regulations, affecting the central courthouse project.(b) Pursuant to subdivision (a), both of the following shall apply:(1) The previously-certified Judicial Council EIR is hereby deemed adequate and approved for the Judicial Councils conveyance of the San Diego property to the County of San Diego and the County of San Diegos approval of the acquisition of the San Diego property and the demolition project.(2) No subsequent or supplemental environmental impact report, addendum, or environmental documentation shall be required pursuant to the California Environmental Quality Act (CEQA)(Division 13 (commencing with Section 21000) of the Public Resources Code).70505. (a) With respect to the city EIRs of the City of San Diegos General Plan and the San Diego Downtown Community Plan, which were conducted in compliance with CEQA, the Legislature finds and declares all of the following:(1) Section 21083.3 of the Public Resources Code and Section 15183 of Title 14 of the California Code of Regulations, for development projects consistent with a community plan, general plan, or zoning, shall be deemed to apply to any development project.(2) There are no project-specific significant effects that are peculiar to a development project, the San Diego property, or the county property, there are no significant effects, including offsite and cumulative impacts, that were not analyzed in the city EIRs, and there are no new or more severe adverse effects than those discussed in the city EIRs.(b) Pursuant to subdivision (a), the previously certified city EIRs are hereby deemed adequate and approved under CEQA for any development project, and no further environmental review shall be required pursuant to CEQA and its implementing regulations.70506. The exemption from CEQA for existing facilities identified in Section 15301 of Title 14 of the California Code of Regulations shall be deemed to apply to any lease authorized by the Board of Supervisors of the County of San Diego for any or all of the improvements on the San Diego property and the county property.70507. The demolition project shall be deemed to be a project that is separate and distinct from the development project. The demolition project and development project serve different purposes, have independent utility, and can be implemented independently.70508. Any legal challenge that is brought against the County of San Diego with regard to the demolition project or the development project shall not result in a reconveyance of the San Diego property to the state.
827838
828839 SEC. 23. Article 9 (commencing with Section 70500) is added to Chapter 5.7 of Title 8 of the Government Code, to read:
829840
830841 ### SEC. 23.
831842
832843 Article 9. Conveyance: Court Facility Property: County of San Diego70500. For purposes of this article, the following definitions shall apply:(a) Central courthouse project means the project analyzed in the Judicial Council EIR to construct the San Diego Central Courthouse and perform the demolition project.(b) Central jail means the county-owned central jail located at 1173 Front Street in the City of San Diego.(c) City EIRs means both the March 2008 City of San Diego Program Environmental Impact Report for the City of San Diegos General Plan (State Clearinghouse No. 200691032), as updated, and the March 2006 Final Environmental Impact Report for the San Diego Downtown Community Plan (State Clearinghouse No. 2003041001), as updated.(d) County property means the county-owned city block in the City of San Diego bounded by West A Street to the north, Union Street to the west, West B Street to the south, and Front Street to the east.(e) Demolition project means the demolition of any or all improvements on the San Diego property or the county property, and the construction of the inmate tunnel.(f) Development project means the disposition and development of all or a portion of the San Diego property and the county property by the County of San Diego, or its successors, lessees, or agents, including any agreements therefor, in a manner consistent with the City of San Diegos General Plan and the San Diego Downtown Community Plan.(g) Improvements means the existing courthouse building located on the San Diego property and the county property and the former county jail facility located on the San Diego property.(h) Inmate tunnel means a tunnel that will transport inmates between the central jail and the San Diego Central Courthouse.(i) Judicial Council EIR means the Environmental Impact Report dated December 2010, State Clearinghouse No. 2000021015, certified by the Judicial Council in December 2010, as amended.(j) San Diego Central Courthouse means the real property and improvements described in subdivision (d) of Section 70501.(k) San Diego property means both the real property described in subdivision (a) of Section 70501 and the improvements.70501. The Legislature finds and declares all of the following:(a) The state owns two contiguous parcels of real property consisting of approximately 2.59 acres located in the City of San Diego on two city blocks bounded by West B Street on the north, Union Street on the west, Broadway on the south, and Front Street on the east. Two buildings are located on the real property. One of the buildings is a courthouse building that is used by the Superior Court of California, County of San Diego, as a trial court facility and by the County of San Diego for county offices. Only a portion of the existing courthouse building is located on the state property. The other building is a former county jail facility.(b) A portion of the existing courthouse building is located on the adjacent county property. The state owns the portion of the existing courthouse building that is located on the county property, but the County of San Diego owns fee title to the county property.(c) The existing courthouse building will be replaced as part of an overall plan for consolidation and upgrade of the court facilities in the County of San Diego.(d) The Judicial Council has constructed the new San Diego Central Courthouse on state-owned property in the downtown area of the City of San Diego that is bounded by West B Street on the north, State Street on the west, West C Street on the south, and Union Street on the east. The new San Diego Central Courthouse will fully replace all space occupied by the superior court in the existing courthouse building located on the San Diego property and the county property, and will improve and enhance the safety and efficiency of superior court operations.(e) The Administrative Director of the Courts may, pursuant to Section 70502, convey the San Diego property to the County of San Diego for the public purpose of promoting public safety by facilitating the construction of the inmate tunnel.(f) After acquisition of the San Diego property, the County of San Diego intends to perform the demolition project on all or a portion of the San Diego property and the county property, and perform the development project on all or a portion of the San Diego property and the county property.70502. (a) (1) Notwithstanding any other law, the Administrative Director of the Courts is hereby authorized, on behalf of the state, to convey to the County of San Diego fee title to the San Diego property in exchange for the countys release of the Judicial Council and the state from all obligations related to the demolition project, the countys agreement to the condition in paragraph (2), and otherwise upon the terms and conditions, and subject to the reservations, the Judicial Council deems to be in the best interests of the state, for the public purpose of promoting public safety by facilitating the construction of the inmate tunnel.(2) The Administrative Director of the Courts shall not convey any interest in the San Diego property to the County of San Diego unless the County of San Diego agrees that no new detention facility, or an expansion of the currently leased or contracted beds in a detention facility, will be constructed on any parcel of the San Diego property.(b) Any sale, exchange, or lease of the San Diego property or the county property by the County of San Diego as part of a development project shall not constitute a disposition of surplus property under Article 8 (commencing with Section 54220) of Chapter 5 of Part 1 of Division 2 of Title 5.(c) In connection with any conveyance of the San Diego property pursuant to the authority granted in subdivision (a), the Administrative Director of the Courts shall have the right and authority to enter into amendments of the existing written agreements in effect as of the operative date of this article, between the County of San Diego and the Judicial Council, that are necessary to reflect the terms of the conveyance described in subdivision (a).(d) The conveyance of the San Diego property to the County of San Diego, on behalf of the state, shall not cause or result in any obligation of the County of San Diego to provide necessary and suitable facilities under Section 70311.70503. The Board of Supervisors of the County of San Diego is authorized to approve a lease for any or all of the San Diego property and the county property, which actions shall not be subject to Article 8 (commencing with Section 25520) of Chapter 5 of Part 2 of Division 2 of Title 3.70504. (a) With respect to the Judicial Council EIR of the central courthouse project, the Legislature finds and declares all of the following:(1) The County of San Diegos approval of the acquisition of the San Diego property or approval of the demolition project does not propose any substantial changes to the central courthouse project.(2) The Judicial Councils approval of the conveyance of the San Diego property to the County of San Diego in exchange for the countys release of the Judicial Council and the state from all obligations related to the demolition project does not propose any substantial changes to the central courthouse project.(3) There are no substantial changes in the circumstances under which approval of the conveyance of the San Diego property to the County of San Diego, the countys acquisition of the San Diego property, or approval of the demolition project will be undertaken that will require major revisions to the Judicial Council EIR due to the involvement of significant new environmental effects or a substantial increase in the severity of previously identified significant effects.(4) There is no new information of substantial importance, as that phrase is described and used in Section 21166 of the Public Resources Code or Section 15162 of Title 14 of the California Code of Regulations, affecting the central courthouse project.(b) Pursuant to subdivision (a), both of the following shall apply:(1) The previously-certified Judicial Council EIR is hereby deemed adequate and approved for the Judicial Councils conveyance of the San Diego property to the County of San Diego and the County of San Diegos approval of the acquisition of the San Diego property and the demolition project.(2) No subsequent or supplemental environmental impact report, addendum, or environmental documentation shall be required pursuant to the California Environmental Quality Act (CEQA)(Division 13 (commencing with Section 21000) of the Public Resources Code).70505. (a) With respect to the city EIRs of the City of San Diegos General Plan and the San Diego Downtown Community Plan, which were conducted in compliance with CEQA, the Legislature finds and declares all of the following:(1) Section 21083.3 of the Public Resources Code and Section 15183 of Title 14 of the California Code of Regulations, for development projects consistent with a community plan, general plan, or zoning, shall be deemed to apply to any development project.(2) There are no project-specific significant effects that are peculiar to a development project, the San Diego property, or the county property, there are no significant effects, including offsite and cumulative impacts, that were not analyzed in the city EIRs, and there are no new or more severe adverse effects than those discussed in the city EIRs.(b) Pursuant to subdivision (a), the previously certified city EIRs are hereby deemed adequate and approved under CEQA for any development project, and no further environmental review shall be required pursuant to CEQA and its implementing regulations.70506. The exemption from CEQA for existing facilities identified in Section 15301 of Title 14 of the California Code of Regulations shall be deemed to apply to any lease authorized by the Board of Supervisors of the County of San Diego for any or all of the improvements on the San Diego property and the county property.70507. The demolition project shall be deemed to be a project that is separate and distinct from the development project. The demolition project and development project serve different purposes, have independent utility, and can be implemented independently.70508. Any legal challenge that is brought against the County of San Diego with regard to the demolition project or the development project shall not result in a reconveyance of the San Diego property to the state.
833844
834845 Article 9. Conveyance: Court Facility Property: County of San Diego70500. For purposes of this article, the following definitions shall apply:(a) Central courthouse project means the project analyzed in the Judicial Council EIR to construct the San Diego Central Courthouse and perform the demolition project.(b) Central jail means the county-owned central jail located at 1173 Front Street in the City of San Diego.(c) City EIRs means both the March 2008 City of San Diego Program Environmental Impact Report for the City of San Diegos General Plan (State Clearinghouse No. 200691032), as updated, and the March 2006 Final Environmental Impact Report for the San Diego Downtown Community Plan (State Clearinghouse No. 2003041001), as updated.(d) County property means the county-owned city block in the City of San Diego bounded by West A Street to the north, Union Street to the west, West B Street to the south, and Front Street to the east.(e) Demolition project means the demolition of any or all improvements on the San Diego property or the county property, and the construction of the inmate tunnel.(f) Development project means the disposition and development of all or a portion of the San Diego property and the county property by the County of San Diego, or its successors, lessees, or agents, including any agreements therefor, in a manner consistent with the City of San Diegos General Plan and the San Diego Downtown Community Plan.(g) Improvements means the existing courthouse building located on the San Diego property and the county property and the former county jail facility located on the San Diego property.(h) Inmate tunnel means a tunnel that will transport inmates between the central jail and the San Diego Central Courthouse.(i) Judicial Council EIR means the Environmental Impact Report dated December 2010, State Clearinghouse No. 2000021015, certified by the Judicial Council in December 2010, as amended.(j) San Diego Central Courthouse means the real property and improvements described in subdivision (d) of Section 70501.(k) San Diego property means both the real property described in subdivision (a) of Section 70501 and the improvements.70501. The Legislature finds and declares all of the following:(a) The state owns two contiguous parcels of real property consisting of approximately 2.59 acres located in the City of San Diego on two city blocks bounded by West B Street on the north, Union Street on the west, Broadway on the south, and Front Street on the east. Two buildings are located on the real property. One of the buildings is a courthouse building that is used by the Superior Court of California, County of San Diego, as a trial court facility and by the County of San Diego for county offices. Only a portion of the existing courthouse building is located on the state property. The other building is a former county jail facility.(b) A portion of the existing courthouse building is located on the adjacent county property. The state owns the portion of the existing courthouse building that is located on the county property, but the County of San Diego owns fee title to the county property.(c) The existing courthouse building will be replaced as part of an overall plan for consolidation and upgrade of the court facilities in the County of San Diego.(d) The Judicial Council has constructed the new San Diego Central Courthouse on state-owned property in the downtown area of the City of San Diego that is bounded by West B Street on the north, State Street on the west, West C Street on the south, and Union Street on the east. The new San Diego Central Courthouse will fully replace all space occupied by the superior court in the existing courthouse building located on the San Diego property and the county property, and will improve and enhance the safety and efficiency of superior court operations.(e) The Administrative Director of the Courts may, pursuant to Section 70502, convey the San Diego property to the County of San Diego for the public purpose of promoting public safety by facilitating the construction of the inmate tunnel.(f) After acquisition of the San Diego property, the County of San Diego intends to perform the demolition project on all or a portion of the San Diego property and the county property, and perform the development project on all or a portion of the San Diego property and the county property.70502. (a) (1) Notwithstanding any other law, the Administrative Director of the Courts is hereby authorized, on behalf of the state, to convey to the County of San Diego fee title to the San Diego property in exchange for the countys release of the Judicial Council and the state from all obligations related to the demolition project, the countys agreement to the condition in paragraph (2), and otherwise upon the terms and conditions, and subject to the reservations, the Judicial Council deems to be in the best interests of the state, for the public purpose of promoting public safety by facilitating the construction of the inmate tunnel.(2) The Administrative Director of the Courts shall not convey any interest in the San Diego property to the County of San Diego unless the County of San Diego agrees that no new detention facility, or an expansion of the currently leased or contracted beds in a detention facility, will be constructed on any parcel of the San Diego property.(b) Any sale, exchange, or lease of the San Diego property or the county property by the County of San Diego as part of a development project shall not constitute a disposition of surplus property under Article 8 (commencing with Section 54220) of Chapter 5 of Part 1 of Division 2 of Title 5.(c) In connection with any conveyance of the San Diego property pursuant to the authority granted in subdivision (a), the Administrative Director of the Courts shall have the right and authority to enter into amendments of the existing written agreements in effect as of the operative date of this article, between the County of San Diego and the Judicial Council, that are necessary to reflect the terms of the conveyance described in subdivision (a).(d) The conveyance of the San Diego property to the County of San Diego, on behalf of the state, shall not cause or result in any obligation of the County of San Diego to provide necessary and suitable facilities under Section 70311.70503. The Board of Supervisors of the County of San Diego is authorized to approve a lease for any or all of the San Diego property and the county property, which actions shall not be subject to Article 8 (commencing with Section 25520) of Chapter 5 of Part 2 of Division 2 of Title 3.70504. (a) With respect to the Judicial Council EIR of the central courthouse project, the Legislature finds and declares all of the following:(1) The County of San Diegos approval of the acquisition of the San Diego property or approval of the demolition project does not propose any substantial changes to the central courthouse project.(2) The Judicial Councils approval of the conveyance of the San Diego property to the County of San Diego in exchange for the countys release of the Judicial Council and the state from all obligations related to the demolition project does not propose any substantial changes to the central courthouse project.(3) There are no substantial changes in the circumstances under which approval of the conveyance of the San Diego property to the County of San Diego, the countys acquisition of the San Diego property, or approval of the demolition project will be undertaken that will require major revisions to the Judicial Council EIR due to the involvement of significant new environmental effects or a substantial increase in the severity of previously identified significant effects.(4) There is no new information of substantial importance, as that phrase is described and used in Section 21166 of the Public Resources Code or Section 15162 of Title 14 of the California Code of Regulations, affecting the central courthouse project.(b) Pursuant to subdivision (a), both of the following shall apply:(1) The previously-certified Judicial Council EIR is hereby deemed adequate and approved for the Judicial Councils conveyance of the San Diego property to the County of San Diego and the County of San Diegos approval of the acquisition of the San Diego property and the demolition project.(2) No subsequent or supplemental environmental impact report, addendum, or environmental documentation shall be required pursuant to the California Environmental Quality Act (CEQA)(Division 13 (commencing with Section 21000) of the Public Resources Code).70505. (a) With respect to the city EIRs of the City of San Diegos General Plan and the San Diego Downtown Community Plan, which were conducted in compliance with CEQA, the Legislature finds and declares all of the following:(1) Section 21083.3 of the Public Resources Code and Section 15183 of Title 14 of the California Code of Regulations, for development projects consistent with a community plan, general plan, or zoning, shall be deemed to apply to any development project.(2) There are no project-specific significant effects that are peculiar to a development project, the San Diego property, or the county property, there are no significant effects, including offsite and cumulative impacts, that were not analyzed in the city EIRs, and there are no new or more severe adverse effects than those discussed in the city EIRs.(b) Pursuant to subdivision (a), the previously certified city EIRs are hereby deemed adequate and approved under CEQA for any development project, and no further environmental review shall be required pursuant to CEQA and its implementing regulations.70506. The exemption from CEQA for existing facilities identified in Section 15301 of Title 14 of the California Code of Regulations shall be deemed to apply to any lease authorized by the Board of Supervisors of the County of San Diego for any or all of the improvements on the San Diego property and the county property.70507. The demolition project shall be deemed to be a project that is separate and distinct from the development project. The demolition project and development project serve different purposes, have independent utility, and can be implemented independently.70508. Any legal challenge that is brought against the County of San Diego with regard to the demolition project or the development project shall not result in a reconveyance of the San Diego property to the state.
835846
836847 Article 9. Conveyance: Court Facility Property: County of San Diego
837848
838849 Article 9. Conveyance: Court Facility Property: County of San Diego
839850
840851 70500. For purposes of this article, the following definitions shall apply:(a) Central courthouse project means the project analyzed in the Judicial Council EIR to construct the San Diego Central Courthouse and perform the demolition project.(b) Central jail means the county-owned central jail located at 1173 Front Street in the City of San Diego.(c) City EIRs means both the March 2008 City of San Diego Program Environmental Impact Report for the City of San Diegos General Plan (State Clearinghouse No. 200691032), as updated, and the March 2006 Final Environmental Impact Report for the San Diego Downtown Community Plan (State Clearinghouse No. 2003041001), as updated.(d) County property means the county-owned city block in the City of San Diego bounded by West A Street to the north, Union Street to the west, West B Street to the south, and Front Street to the east.(e) Demolition project means the demolition of any or all improvements on the San Diego property or the county property, and the construction of the inmate tunnel.(f) Development project means the disposition and development of all or a portion of the San Diego property and the county property by the County of San Diego, or its successors, lessees, or agents, including any agreements therefor, in a manner consistent with the City of San Diegos General Plan and the San Diego Downtown Community Plan.(g) Improvements means the existing courthouse building located on the San Diego property and the county property and the former county jail facility located on the San Diego property.(h) Inmate tunnel means a tunnel that will transport inmates between the central jail and the San Diego Central Courthouse.(i) Judicial Council EIR means the Environmental Impact Report dated December 2010, State Clearinghouse No. 2000021015, certified by the Judicial Council in December 2010, as amended.(j) San Diego Central Courthouse means the real property and improvements described in subdivision (d) of Section 70501.(k) San Diego property means both the real property described in subdivision (a) of Section 70501 and the improvements.
841852
842853
843854
844855 70500. For purposes of this article, the following definitions shall apply:
845856
846857 (a) Central courthouse project means the project analyzed in the Judicial Council EIR to construct the San Diego Central Courthouse and perform the demolition project.
847858
848859 (b) Central jail means the county-owned central jail located at 1173 Front Street in the City of San Diego.
849860
850861 (c) City EIRs means both the March 2008 City of San Diego Program Environmental Impact Report for the City of San Diegos General Plan (State Clearinghouse No. 200691032), as updated, and the March 2006 Final Environmental Impact Report for the San Diego Downtown Community Plan (State Clearinghouse No. 2003041001), as updated.
851862
852863 (d) County property means the county-owned city block in the City of San Diego bounded by West A Street to the north, Union Street to the west, West B Street to the south, and Front Street to the east.
853864
854865 (e) Demolition project means the demolition of any or all improvements on the San Diego property or the county property, and the construction of the inmate tunnel.
855866
856867 (f) Development project means the disposition and development of all or a portion of the San Diego property and the county property by the County of San Diego, or its successors, lessees, or agents, including any agreements therefor, in a manner consistent with the City of San Diegos General Plan and the San Diego Downtown Community Plan.
857868
858869 (g) Improvements means the existing courthouse building located on the San Diego property and the county property and the former county jail facility located on the San Diego property.
859870
860871 (h) Inmate tunnel means a tunnel that will transport inmates between the central jail and the San Diego Central Courthouse.
861872
862873 (i) Judicial Council EIR means the Environmental Impact Report dated December 2010, State Clearinghouse No. 2000021015, certified by the Judicial Council in December 2010, as amended.
863874
864875 (j) San Diego Central Courthouse means the real property and improvements described in subdivision (d) of Section 70501.
865876
866877 (k) San Diego property means both the real property described in subdivision (a) of Section 70501 and the improvements.
867878
868879 70501. The Legislature finds and declares all of the following:(a) The state owns two contiguous parcels of real property consisting of approximately 2.59 acres located in the City of San Diego on two city blocks bounded by West B Street on the north, Union Street on the west, Broadway on the south, and Front Street on the east. Two buildings are located on the real property. One of the buildings is a courthouse building that is used by the Superior Court of California, County of San Diego, as a trial court facility and by the County of San Diego for county offices. Only a portion of the existing courthouse building is located on the state property. The other building is a former county jail facility.(b) A portion of the existing courthouse building is located on the adjacent county property. The state owns the portion of the existing courthouse building that is located on the county property, but the County of San Diego owns fee title to the county property.(c) The existing courthouse building will be replaced as part of an overall plan for consolidation and upgrade of the court facilities in the County of San Diego.(d) The Judicial Council has constructed the new San Diego Central Courthouse on state-owned property in the downtown area of the City of San Diego that is bounded by West B Street on the north, State Street on the west, West C Street on the south, and Union Street on the east. The new San Diego Central Courthouse will fully replace all space occupied by the superior court in the existing courthouse building located on the San Diego property and the county property, and will improve and enhance the safety and efficiency of superior court operations.(e) The Administrative Director of the Courts may, pursuant to Section 70502, convey the San Diego property to the County of San Diego for the public purpose of promoting public safety by facilitating the construction of the inmate tunnel.(f) After acquisition of the San Diego property, the County of San Diego intends to perform the demolition project on all or a portion of the San Diego property and the county property, and perform the development project on all or a portion of the San Diego property and the county property.
869880
870881
871882
872883 70501. The Legislature finds and declares all of the following:
873884
874885 (a) The state owns two contiguous parcels of real property consisting of approximately 2.59 acres located in the City of San Diego on two city blocks bounded by West B Street on the north, Union Street on the west, Broadway on the south, and Front Street on the east. Two buildings are located on the real property. One of the buildings is a courthouse building that is used by the Superior Court of California, County of San Diego, as a trial court facility and by the County of San Diego for county offices. Only a portion of the existing courthouse building is located on the state property. The other building is a former county jail facility.
875886
876887 (b) A portion of the existing courthouse building is located on the adjacent county property. The state owns the portion of the existing courthouse building that is located on the county property, but the County of San Diego owns fee title to the county property.
877888
878889 (c) The existing courthouse building will be replaced as part of an overall plan for consolidation and upgrade of the court facilities in the County of San Diego.
879890
880891 (d) The Judicial Council has constructed the new San Diego Central Courthouse on state-owned property in the downtown area of the City of San Diego that is bounded by West B Street on the north, State Street on the west, West C Street on the south, and Union Street on the east. The new San Diego Central Courthouse will fully replace all space occupied by the superior court in the existing courthouse building located on the San Diego property and the county property, and will improve and enhance the safety and efficiency of superior court operations.
881892
882893 (e) The Administrative Director of the Courts may, pursuant to Section 70502, convey the San Diego property to the County of San Diego for the public purpose of promoting public safety by facilitating the construction of the inmate tunnel.
883894
884895 (f) After acquisition of the San Diego property, the County of San Diego intends to perform the demolition project on all or a portion of the San Diego property and the county property, and perform the development project on all or a portion of the San Diego property and the county property.
885896
886897 70502. (a) (1) Notwithstanding any other law, the Administrative Director of the Courts is hereby authorized, on behalf of the state, to convey to the County of San Diego fee title to the San Diego property in exchange for the countys release of the Judicial Council and the state from all obligations related to the demolition project, the countys agreement to the condition in paragraph (2), and otherwise upon the terms and conditions, and subject to the reservations, the Judicial Council deems to be in the best interests of the state, for the public purpose of promoting public safety by facilitating the construction of the inmate tunnel.(2) The Administrative Director of the Courts shall not convey any interest in the San Diego property to the County of San Diego unless the County of San Diego agrees that no new detention facility, or an expansion of the currently leased or contracted beds in a detention facility, will be constructed on any parcel of the San Diego property.(b) Any sale, exchange, or lease of the San Diego property or the county property by the County of San Diego as part of a development project shall not constitute a disposition of surplus property under Article 8 (commencing with Section 54220) of Chapter 5 of Part 1 of Division 2 of Title 5.(c) In connection with any conveyance of the San Diego property pursuant to the authority granted in subdivision (a), the Administrative Director of the Courts shall have the right and authority to enter into amendments of the existing written agreements in effect as of the operative date of this article, between the County of San Diego and the Judicial Council, that are necessary to reflect the terms of the conveyance described in subdivision (a).(d) The conveyance of the San Diego property to the County of San Diego, on behalf of the state, shall not cause or result in any obligation of the County of San Diego to provide necessary and suitable facilities under Section 70311.
887898
888899
889900
890901 70502. (a) (1) Notwithstanding any other law, the Administrative Director of the Courts is hereby authorized, on behalf of the state, to convey to the County of San Diego fee title to the San Diego property in exchange for the countys release of the Judicial Council and the state from all obligations related to the demolition project, the countys agreement to the condition in paragraph (2), and otherwise upon the terms and conditions, and subject to the reservations, the Judicial Council deems to be in the best interests of the state, for the public purpose of promoting public safety by facilitating the construction of the inmate tunnel.
891902
892903 (2) The Administrative Director of the Courts shall not convey any interest in the San Diego property to the County of San Diego unless the County of San Diego agrees that no new detention facility, or an expansion of the currently leased or contracted beds in a detention facility, will be constructed on any parcel of the San Diego property.
893904
894905 (b) Any sale, exchange, or lease of the San Diego property or the county property by the County of San Diego as part of a development project shall not constitute a disposition of surplus property under Article 8 (commencing with Section 54220) of Chapter 5 of Part 1 of Division 2 of Title 5.
895906
896907 (c) In connection with any conveyance of the San Diego property pursuant to the authority granted in subdivision (a), the Administrative Director of the Courts shall have the right and authority to enter into amendments of the existing written agreements in effect as of the operative date of this article, between the County of San Diego and the Judicial Council, that are necessary to reflect the terms of the conveyance described in subdivision (a).
897908
898909 (d) The conveyance of the San Diego property to the County of San Diego, on behalf of the state, shall not cause or result in any obligation of the County of San Diego to provide necessary and suitable facilities under Section 70311.
899910
900911 70503. The Board of Supervisors of the County of San Diego is authorized to approve a lease for any or all of the San Diego property and the county property, which actions shall not be subject to Article 8 (commencing with Section 25520) of Chapter 5 of Part 2 of Division 2 of Title 3.
901912
902913
903914
904915 70503. The Board of Supervisors of the County of San Diego is authorized to approve a lease for any or all of the San Diego property and the county property, which actions shall not be subject to Article 8 (commencing with Section 25520) of Chapter 5 of Part 2 of Division 2 of Title 3.
905916
906917 70504. (a) With respect to the Judicial Council EIR of the central courthouse project, the Legislature finds and declares all of the following:(1) The County of San Diegos approval of the acquisition of the San Diego property or approval of the demolition project does not propose any substantial changes to the central courthouse project.(2) The Judicial Councils approval of the conveyance of the San Diego property to the County of San Diego in exchange for the countys release of the Judicial Council and the state from all obligations related to the demolition project does not propose any substantial changes to the central courthouse project.(3) There are no substantial changes in the circumstances under which approval of the conveyance of the San Diego property to the County of San Diego, the countys acquisition of the San Diego property, or approval of the demolition project will be undertaken that will require major revisions to the Judicial Council EIR due to the involvement of significant new environmental effects or a substantial increase in the severity of previously identified significant effects.(4) There is no new information of substantial importance, as that phrase is described and used in Section 21166 of the Public Resources Code or Section 15162 of Title 14 of the California Code of Regulations, affecting the central courthouse project.(b) Pursuant to subdivision (a), both of the following shall apply:(1) The previously-certified Judicial Council EIR is hereby deemed adequate and approved for the Judicial Councils conveyance of the San Diego property to the County of San Diego and the County of San Diegos approval of the acquisition of the San Diego property and the demolition project.(2) No subsequent or supplemental environmental impact report, addendum, or environmental documentation shall be required pursuant to the California Environmental Quality Act (CEQA)(Division 13 (commencing with Section 21000) of the Public Resources Code).
907918
908919
909920
910921 70504. (a) With respect to the Judicial Council EIR of the central courthouse project, the Legislature finds and declares all of the following:
911922
912923 (1) The County of San Diegos approval of the acquisition of the San Diego property or approval of the demolition project does not propose any substantial changes to the central courthouse project.
913924
914925 (2) The Judicial Councils approval of the conveyance of the San Diego property to the County of San Diego in exchange for the countys release of the Judicial Council and the state from all obligations related to the demolition project does not propose any substantial changes to the central courthouse project.
915926
916927 (3) There are no substantial changes in the circumstances under which approval of the conveyance of the San Diego property to the County of San Diego, the countys acquisition of the San Diego property, or approval of the demolition project will be undertaken that will require major revisions to the Judicial Council EIR due to the involvement of significant new environmental effects or a substantial increase in the severity of previously identified significant effects.
917928
918929 (4) There is no new information of substantial importance, as that phrase is described and used in Section 21166 of the Public Resources Code or Section 15162 of Title 14 of the California Code of Regulations, affecting the central courthouse project.
919930
920931 (b) Pursuant to subdivision (a), both of the following shall apply:
921932
922933 (1) The previously-certified Judicial Council EIR is hereby deemed adequate and approved for the Judicial Councils conveyance of the San Diego property to the County of San Diego and the County of San Diegos approval of the acquisition of the San Diego property and the demolition project.
923934
924935 (2) No subsequent or supplemental environmental impact report, addendum, or environmental documentation shall be required pursuant to the California Environmental Quality Act (CEQA)(Division 13 (commencing with Section 21000) of the Public Resources Code).
925936
926937 70505. (a) With respect to the city EIRs of the City of San Diegos General Plan and the San Diego Downtown Community Plan, which were conducted in compliance with CEQA, the Legislature finds and declares all of the following:(1) Section 21083.3 of the Public Resources Code and Section 15183 of Title 14 of the California Code of Regulations, for development projects consistent with a community plan, general plan, or zoning, shall be deemed to apply to any development project.(2) There are no project-specific significant effects that are peculiar to a development project, the San Diego property, or the county property, there are no significant effects, including offsite and cumulative impacts, that were not analyzed in the city EIRs, and there are no new or more severe adverse effects than those discussed in the city EIRs.(b) Pursuant to subdivision (a), the previously certified city EIRs are hereby deemed adequate and approved under CEQA for any development project, and no further environmental review shall be required pursuant to CEQA and its implementing regulations.
927938
928939
929940
930941 70505. (a) With respect to the city EIRs of the City of San Diegos General Plan and the San Diego Downtown Community Plan, which were conducted in compliance with CEQA, the Legislature finds and declares all of the following:
931942
932943 (1) Section 21083.3 of the Public Resources Code and Section 15183 of Title 14 of the California Code of Regulations, for development projects consistent with a community plan, general plan, or zoning, shall be deemed to apply to any development project.
933944
934945 (2) There are no project-specific significant effects that are peculiar to a development project, the San Diego property, or the county property, there are no significant effects, including offsite and cumulative impacts, that were not analyzed in the city EIRs, and there are no new or more severe adverse effects than those discussed in the city EIRs.
935946
936947 (b) Pursuant to subdivision (a), the previously certified city EIRs are hereby deemed adequate and approved under CEQA for any development project, and no further environmental review shall be required pursuant to CEQA and its implementing regulations.
937948
938949 70506. The exemption from CEQA for existing facilities identified in Section 15301 of Title 14 of the California Code of Regulations shall be deemed to apply to any lease authorized by the Board of Supervisors of the County of San Diego for any or all of the improvements on the San Diego property and the county property.
939950
940951
941952
942953 70506. The exemption from CEQA for existing facilities identified in Section 15301 of Title 14 of the California Code of Regulations shall be deemed to apply to any lease authorized by the Board of Supervisors of the County of San Diego for any or all of the improvements on the San Diego property and the county property.
943954
944955 70507. The demolition project shall be deemed to be a project that is separate and distinct from the development project. The demolition project and development project serve different purposes, have independent utility, and can be implemented independently.
945956
946957
947958
948959 70507. The demolition project shall be deemed to be a project that is separate and distinct from the development project. The demolition project and development project serve different purposes, have independent utility, and can be implemented independently.
949960
950961 70508. Any legal challenge that is brought against the County of San Diego with regard to the demolition project or the development project shall not result in a reconveyance of the San Diego property to the state.
951962
952963
953964
954965 70508. Any legal challenge that is brought against the County of San Diego with regard to the demolition project or the development project shall not result in a reconveyance of the San Diego property to the state.
955966
956967 SEC. 24. Section 329 is added to the Military and Veterans Code, to read:329. The Military Department Workers Compensation Fund is hereby created within the State Treasury. Notwithstanding Section 13340 of the Government Code, all moneys in the fund are continuously appropriated to the Military Department for purposes of subdivision (a).(a) The moneys in the fund shall be expended for workers compensation claims that are wholly or partially reimbursed by the federal government for personnel within the Military Department.(b) The fund may receive and deposit any moneys received from the federal government for the sole purpose of paying workers compensation claims of current employees or service members.(c) Moneys in the fund may only be expended by the Military Department for workers compensation claims.
957968
958969 SEC. 24. Section 329 is added to the Military and Veterans Code, to read:
959970
960971 ### SEC. 24.
961972
962973 329. The Military Department Workers Compensation Fund is hereby created within the State Treasury. Notwithstanding Section 13340 of the Government Code, all moneys in the fund are continuously appropriated to the Military Department for purposes of subdivision (a).(a) The moneys in the fund shall be expended for workers compensation claims that are wholly or partially reimbursed by the federal government for personnel within the Military Department.(b) The fund may receive and deposit any moneys received from the federal government for the sole purpose of paying workers compensation claims of current employees or service members.(c) Moneys in the fund may only be expended by the Military Department for workers compensation claims.
963974
964975 329. The Military Department Workers Compensation Fund is hereby created within the State Treasury. Notwithstanding Section 13340 of the Government Code, all moneys in the fund are continuously appropriated to the Military Department for purposes of subdivision (a).(a) The moneys in the fund shall be expended for workers compensation claims that are wholly or partially reimbursed by the federal government for personnel within the Military Department.(b) The fund may receive and deposit any moneys received from the federal government for the sole purpose of paying workers compensation claims of current employees or service members.(c) Moneys in the fund may only be expended by the Military Department for workers compensation claims.
965976
966977 329. The Military Department Workers Compensation Fund is hereby created within the State Treasury. Notwithstanding Section 13340 of the Government Code, all moneys in the fund are continuously appropriated to the Military Department for purposes of subdivision (a).(a) The moneys in the fund shall be expended for workers compensation claims that are wholly or partially reimbursed by the federal government for personnel within the Military Department.(b) The fund may receive and deposit any moneys received from the federal government for the sole purpose of paying workers compensation claims of current employees or service members.(c) Moneys in the fund may only be expended by the Military Department for workers compensation claims.
967978
968979
969980
970981 329. The Military Department Workers Compensation Fund is hereby created within the State Treasury. Notwithstanding Section 13340 of the Government Code, all moneys in the fund are continuously appropriated to the Military Department for purposes of subdivision (a).
971982
972983 (a) The moneys in the fund shall be expended for workers compensation claims that are wholly or partially reimbursed by the federal government for personnel within the Military Department.
973984
974985 (b) The fund may receive and deposit any moneys received from the federal government for the sole purpose of paying workers compensation claims of current employees or service members.
975986
976987 (c) Moneys in the fund may only be expended by the Military Department for workers compensation claims.
977988
978989 SEC. 25. Section 1170.127 is added to the Penal Code, to read:1170.127. (a) A person who is committed to a state hospital after being found not guilty by reason of insanity pursuant to Section 1026 may petition the court to have his or her maximum term of commitment, as established by Section 1026.5, reduced to the length it would have been had Section 1170.126 been in effect at the time of the original determination. Both of the following conditions are required for the maximum term of commitment to be reduced:(1) The person would have met all of the criteria for a reduction in sentence pursuant to Section 1170.126 had he or she been found guilty.(2) The person files the petition for a reduction of the maximum term of commitment before January 1, 2021, or on a later date upon a showing of good cause.(b) If a petitioners maximum term of confinement is ordered reduced under this section, the new term of confinement must provide opportunity to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5. If a petitioners new maximum term of confinement ordered under this section does not provide sufficient time to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5, the new maximum term of confinement may be extended, not more than 240 days from the date the petition is granted, in order to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5.
979990
980991 SEC. 25. Section 1170.127 is added to the Penal Code, to read:
981992
982993 ### SEC. 25.
983994
984995 1170.127. (a) A person who is committed to a state hospital after being found not guilty by reason of insanity pursuant to Section 1026 may petition the court to have his or her maximum term of commitment, as established by Section 1026.5, reduced to the length it would have been had Section 1170.126 been in effect at the time of the original determination. Both of the following conditions are required for the maximum term of commitment to be reduced:(1) The person would have met all of the criteria for a reduction in sentence pursuant to Section 1170.126 had he or she been found guilty.(2) The person files the petition for a reduction of the maximum term of commitment before January 1, 2021, or on a later date upon a showing of good cause.(b) If a petitioners maximum term of confinement is ordered reduced under this section, the new term of confinement must provide opportunity to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5. If a petitioners new maximum term of confinement ordered under this section does not provide sufficient time to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5, the new maximum term of confinement may be extended, not more than 240 days from the date the petition is granted, in order to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5.
985996
986997 1170.127. (a) A person who is committed to a state hospital after being found not guilty by reason of insanity pursuant to Section 1026 may petition the court to have his or her maximum term of commitment, as established by Section 1026.5, reduced to the length it would have been had Section 1170.126 been in effect at the time of the original determination. Both of the following conditions are required for the maximum term of commitment to be reduced:(1) The person would have met all of the criteria for a reduction in sentence pursuant to Section 1170.126 had he or she been found guilty.(2) The person files the petition for a reduction of the maximum term of commitment before January 1, 2021, or on a later date upon a showing of good cause.(b) If a petitioners maximum term of confinement is ordered reduced under this section, the new term of confinement must provide opportunity to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5. If a petitioners new maximum term of confinement ordered under this section does not provide sufficient time to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5, the new maximum term of confinement may be extended, not more than 240 days from the date the petition is granted, in order to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5.
987998
988999 1170.127. (a) A person who is committed to a state hospital after being found not guilty by reason of insanity pursuant to Section 1026 may petition the court to have his or her maximum term of commitment, as established by Section 1026.5, reduced to the length it would have been had Section 1170.126 been in effect at the time of the original determination. Both of the following conditions are required for the maximum term of commitment to be reduced:(1) The person would have met all of the criteria for a reduction in sentence pursuant to Section 1170.126 had he or she been found guilty.(2) The person files the petition for a reduction of the maximum term of commitment before January 1, 2021, or on a later date upon a showing of good cause.(b) If a petitioners maximum term of confinement is ordered reduced under this section, the new term of confinement must provide opportunity to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5. If a petitioners new maximum term of confinement ordered under this section does not provide sufficient time to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5, the new maximum term of confinement may be extended, not more than 240 days from the date the petition is granted, in order to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5.
9891000
9901001
9911002
9921003 1170.127. (a) A person who is committed to a state hospital after being found not guilty by reason of insanity pursuant to Section 1026 may petition the court to have his or her maximum term of commitment, as established by Section 1026.5, reduced to the length it would have been had Section 1170.126 been in effect at the time of the original determination. Both of the following conditions are required for the maximum term of commitment to be reduced:
9931004
9941005 (1) The person would have met all of the criteria for a reduction in sentence pursuant to Section 1170.126 had he or she been found guilty.
9951006
9961007 (2) The person files the petition for a reduction of the maximum term of commitment before January 1, 2021, or on a later date upon a showing of good cause.
9971008
9981009 (b) If a petitioners maximum term of confinement is ordered reduced under this section, the new term of confinement must provide opportunity to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5. If a petitioners new maximum term of confinement ordered under this section does not provide sufficient time to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5, the new maximum term of confinement may be extended, not more than 240 days from the date the petition is granted, in order to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5.
9991010
10001011 SEC. 26. Section 1170.18 of the Penal Code is amended to read:1170.18. (a) A person who, on November 5, 2014, was serving a sentence for a conviction, whether by trial or plea, of a felony or felonies who would have been guilty of a misdemeanor under the act that added this section (this act) had this act been in effect at the time of the offense may petition for a recall of sentence before the trial court that entered the judgment of conviction in his or her case to request resentencing in accordance with Sections 11350, 11357, or 11377 of the Health and Safety Code, or Section 459.5, 473, 476a, 490.2, 496, or 666 of the Penal Code, as those sections have been amended or added by this act.(b) Upon receiving a petition under subdivision (a), the court shall determine whether the petitioner satisfies the criteria in subdivision (a). If the petitioner satisfies the criteria in subdivision (a), the petitioners felony sentence shall be recalled and the petitioner resentenced to a misdemeanor pursuant to Sections 11350, 11357, or 11377 of the Health and Safety Code, or Section 459.5, 473, 476a, 490.2, 496, or 666 of the Penal Code, as those sections have been amended or added by this act, unless the court, in its discretion, determines that resentencing the petitioner would pose an unreasonable risk of danger to public safety. In exercising its discretion, the court may consider all of the following:(1) The petitioners criminal conviction history, including the type of crimes committed, the extent of injury to victims, the length of prior prison commitments, and the remoteness of the crimes.(2) The petitioners disciplinary record and record of rehabilitation while incarcerated.(3) Any other evidence the court, within its discretion, determines to be relevant in deciding whether a new sentence would result in an unreasonable risk of danger to public safety.(c) As used throughout this code, unreasonable risk of danger to public safety means an unreasonable risk that the petitioner will commit a new violent felony within the meaning of clause (iv) of subparagraph (C) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (e) of Section 667.(d) A person who is resentenced pursuant to subdivision (b) shall be given credit for time served and shall be subject to parole for one year following completion of his or her sentence, unless the court, in its discretion, as part of its resentencing order, releases the person from parole. The person is subject to parole supervision by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation pursuant to Section 3000.08 and the jurisdiction of the court in the county in which the parolee is released or resides, or in which an alleged violation of supervision has occurred, for the purpose of hearing petitions to revoke parole and impose a term of custody.(e) Resentencing pursuant to this section shall not result in the imposition of a term longer than the original sentence.(f) A person who has completed his or her sentence for a conviction, whether by trial or plea, of a felony or felonies who would have been guilty of a misdemeanor under this act had this act been in effect at the time of the offense, may file an application before the trial court that entered the judgment of conviction in his or her case to have the felony conviction or convictions designated as misdemeanors.(g) If the application satisfies the criteria in subdivision (f), the court shall designate the felony offense or offenses as a misdemeanor.(h) Unless the applicant requests a hearing, a hearing is not necessary to grant or deny an application filed under subdivision (f).(i) This section does not apply to a person who has one or more prior convictions for an offense specified in clause (iv) of subparagraph (C) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (e) of Section 667 or for an offense requiring registration pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 290.(j) Except as specified in subdivision (p), a petition or application under this section shall be filed on or before November 4, 2022, or at a later date upon showing of good cause.(k) A felony conviction that is recalled and resentenced under subdivision (b) or designated as a misdemeanor under subdivision (g) shall be considered a misdemeanor for all purposes, except that resentencing shall not permit that person to own, possess, or have in his or her custody or control a firearm or prevent his or her conviction under Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 29800) of Division 9 of Title 4 of Part 6.(l) If the court that originally sentenced the petitioner is not available, the presiding judge shall designate another judge to rule on the petition or application.(m) This section does not diminish or abrogate any rights or remedies otherwise available to the petitioner or applicant.(n) Resentencing pursuant to this section does not diminish or abrogate the finality of judgments in any case that does not come within the purview of this section.(o) A resentencing hearing ordered under this section shall constitute a postconviction release proceeding under paragraph (7) of subdivision (b) of Section 28 of Article I of the California Constitution (Marsys Law).(p) (1) A person who is committed to a state hospital after being found not guilty by reason of insanity pursuant to Section 1026 may petition the court to have his or her maximum term of commitment, as established by Section 1026.5, reduced to the length it would have been had the act that added this section been in effect at the time of the original determination. Both of the following conditions are required for the maximum term of commitment to be reduced.(A) The person would have met all of the criteria for a reduction in sentence pursuant to this section had he or she been found guilty.(B) The person files the petition for a reduction of the maximum term of commitment before January 1, 2021, or on a later date upon a showing of good cause.(2) If a petitioners maximum term of confinement is ordered reduced under this subdivision, the new term of confinement must provide opportunity to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5. If a petitioners new maximum term of confinement ordered under this section does not provide sufficient time to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5, the new maximum term of confinement may be extended, not more than 240 days from the date the petition is granted, in order to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5.
10011012
10021013 SEC. 26. Section 1170.18 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
10031014
10041015 ### SEC. 26.
10051016
10061017 1170.18. (a) A person who, on November 5, 2014, was serving a sentence for a conviction, whether by trial or plea, of a felony or felonies who would have been guilty of a misdemeanor under the act that added this section (this act) had this act been in effect at the time of the offense may petition for a recall of sentence before the trial court that entered the judgment of conviction in his or her case to request resentencing in accordance with Sections 11350, 11357, or 11377 of the Health and Safety Code, or Section 459.5, 473, 476a, 490.2, 496, or 666 of the Penal Code, as those sections have been amended or added by this act.(b) Upon receiving a petition under subdivision (a), the court shall determine whether the petitioner satisfies the criteria in subdivision (a). If the petitioner satisfies the criteria in subdivision (a), the petitioners felony sentence shall be recalled and the petitioner resentenced to a misdemeanor pursuant to Sections 11350, 11357, or 11377 of the Health and Safety Code, or Section 459.5, 473, 476a, 490.2, 496, or 666 of the Penal Code, as those sections have been amended or added by this act, unless the court, in its discretion, determines that resentencing the petitioner would pose an unreasonable risk of danger to public safety. In exercising its discretion, the court may consider all of the following:(1) The petitioners criminal conviction history, including the type of crimes committed, the extent of injury to victims, the length of prior prison commitments, and the remoteness of the crimes.(2) The petitioners disciplinary record and record of rehabilitation while incarcerated.(3) Any other evidence the court, within its discretion, determines to be relevant in deciding whether a new sentence would result in an unreasonable risk of danger to public safety.(c) As used throughout this code, unreasonable risk of danger to public safety means an unreasonable risk that the petitioner will commit a new violent felony within the meaning of clause (iv) of subparagraph (C) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (e) of Section 667.(d) A person who is resentenced pursuant to subdivision (b) shall be given credit for time served and shall be subject to parole for one year following completion of his or her sentence, unless the court, in its discretion, as part of its resentencing order, releases the person from parole. The person is subject to parole supervision by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation pursuant to Section 3000.08 and the jurisdiction of the court in the county in which the parolee is released or resides, or in which an alleged violation of supervision has occurred, for the purpose of hearing petitions to revoke parole and impose a term of custody.(e) Resentencing pursuant to this section shall not result in the imposition of a term longer than the original sentence.(f) A person who has completed his or her sentence for a conviction, whether by trial or plea, of a felony or felonies who would have been guilty of a misdemeanor under this act had this act been in effect at the time of the offense, may file an application before the trial court that entered the judgment of conviction in his or her case to have the felony conviction or convictions designated as misdemeanors.(g) If the application satisfies the criteria in subdivision (f), the court shall designate the felony offense or offenses as a misdemeanor.(h) Unless the applicant requests a hearing, a hearing is not necessary to grant or deny an application filed under subdivision (f).(i) This section does not apply to a person who has one or more prior convictions for an offense specified in clause (iv) of subparagraph (C) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (e) of Section 667 or for an offense requiring registration pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 290.(j) Except as specified in subdivision (p), a petition or application under this section shall be filed on or before November 4, 2022, or at a later date upon showing of good cause.(k) A felony conviction that is recalled and resentenced under subdivision (b) or designated as a misdemeanor under subdivision (g) shall be considered a misdemeanor for all purposes, except that resentencing shall not permit that person to own, possess, or have in his or her custody or control a firearm or prevent his or her conviction under Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 29800) of Division 9 of Title 4 of Part 6.(l) If the court that originally sentenced the petitioner is not available, the presiding judge shall designate another judge to rule on the petition or application.(m) This section does not diminish or abrogate any rights or remedies otherwise available to the petitioner or applicant.(n) Resentencing pursuant to this section does not diminish or abrogate the finality of judgments in any case that does not come within the purview of this section.(o) A resentencing hearing ordered under this section shall constitute a postconviction release proceeding under paragraph (7) of subdivision (b) of Section 28 of Article I of the California Constitution (Marsys Law).(p) (1) A person who is committed to a state hospital after being found not guilty by reason of insanity pursuant to Section 1026 may petition the court to have his or her maximum term of commitment, as established by Section 1026.5, reduced to the length it would have been had the act that added this section been in effect at the time of the original determination. Both of the following conditions are required for the maximum term of commitment to be reduced.(A) The person would have met all of the criteria for a reduction in sentence pursuant to this section had he or she been found guilty.(B) The person files the petition for a reduction of the maximum term of commitment before January 1, 2021, or on a later date upon a showing of good cause.(2) If a petitioners maximum term of confinement is ordered reduced under this subdivision, the new term of confinement must provide opportunity to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5. If a petitioners new maximum term of confinement ordered under this section does not provide sufficient time to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5, the new maximum term of confinement may be extended, not more than 240 days from the date the petition is granted, in order to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5.
10071018
10081019 1170.18. (a) A person who, on November 5, 2014, was serving a sentence for a conviction, whether by trial or plea, of a felony or felonies who would have been guilty of a misdemeanor under the act that added this section (this act) had this act been in effect at the time of the offense may petition for a recall of sentence before the trial court that entered the judgment of conviction in his or her case to request resentencing in accordance with Sections 11350, 11357, or 11377 of the Health and Safety Code, or Section 459.5, 473, 476a, 490.2, 496, or 666 of the Penal Code, as those sections have been amended or added by this act.(b) Upon receiving a petition under subdivision (a), the court shall determine whether the petitioner satisfies the criteria in subdivision (a). If the petitioner satisfies the criteria in subdivision (a), the petitioners felony sentence shall be recalled and the petitioner resentenced to a misdemeanor pursuant to Sections 11350, 11357, or 11377 of the Health and Safety Code, or Section 459.5, 473, 476a, 490.2, 496, or 666 of the Penal Code, as those sections have been amended or added by this act, unless the court, in its discretion, determines that resentencing the petitioner would pose an unreasonable risk of danger to public safety. In exercising its discretion, the court may consider all of the following:(1) The petitioners criminal conviction history, including the type of crimes committed, the extent of injury to victims, the length of prior prison commitments, and the remoteness of the crimes.(2) The petitioners disciplinary record and record of rehabilitation while incarcerated.(3) Any other evidence the court, within its discretion, determines to be relevant in deciding whether a new sentence would result in an unreasonable risk of danger to public safety.(c) As used throughout this code, unreasonable risk of danger to public safety means an unreasonable risk that the petitioner will commit a new violent felony within the meaning of clause (iv) of subparagraph (C) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (e) of Section 667.(d) A person who is resentenced pursuant to subdivision (b) shall be given credit for time served and shall be subject to parole for one year following completion of his or her sentence, unless the court, in its discretion, as part of its resentencing order, releases the person from parole. The person is subject to parole supervision by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation pursuant to Section 3000.08 and the jurisdiction of the court in the county in which the parolee is released or resides, or in which an alleged violation of supervision has occurred, for the purpose of hearing petitions to revoke parole and impose a term of custody.(e) Resentencing pursuant to this section shall not result in the imposition of a term longer than the original sentence.(f) A person who has completed his or her sentence for a conviction, whether by trial or plea, of a felony or felonies who would have been guilty of a misdemeanor under this act had this act been in effect at the time of the offense, may file an application before the trial court that entered the judgment of conviction in his or her case to have the felony conviction or convictions designated as misdemeanors.(g) If the application satisfies the criteria in subdivision (f), the court shall designate the felony offense or offenses as a misdemeanor.(h) Unless the applicant requests a hearing, a hearing is not necessary to grant or deny an application filed under subdivision (f).(i) This section does not apply to a person who has one or more prior convictions for an offense specified in clause (iv) of subparagraph (C) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (e) of Section 667 or for an offense requiring registration pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 290.(j) Except as specified in subdivision (p), a petition or application under this section shall be filed on or before November 4, 2022, or at a later date upon showing of good cause.(k) A felony conviction that is recalled and resentenced under subdivision (b) or designated as a misdemeanor under subdivision (g) shall be considered a misdemeanor for all purposes, except that resentencing shall not permit that person to own, possess, or have in his or her custody or control a firearm or prevent his or her conviction under Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 29800) of Division 9 of Title 4 of Part 6.(l) If the court that originally sentenced the petitioner is not available, the presiding judge shall designate another judge to rule on the petition or application.(m) This section does not diminish or abrogate any rights or remedies otherwise available to the petitioner or applicant.(n) Resentencing pursuant to this section does not diminish or abrogate the finality of judgments in any case that does not come within the purview of this section.(o) A resentencing hearing ordered under this section shall constitute a postconviction release proceeding under paragraph (7) of subdivision (b) of Section 28 of Article I of the California Constitution (Marsys Law).(p) (1) A person who is committed to a state hospital after being found not guilty by reason of insanity pursuant to Section 1026 may petition the court to have his or her maximum term of commitment, as established by Section 1026.5, reduced to the length it would have been had the act that added this section been in effect at the time of the original determination. Both of the following conditions are required for the maximum term of commitment to be reduced.(A) The person would have met all of the criteria for a reduction in sentence pursuant to this section had he or she been found guilty.(B) The person files the petition for a reduction of the maximum term of commitment before January 1, 2021, or on a later date upon a showing of good cause.(2) If a petitioners maximum term of confinement is ordered reduced under this subdivision, the new term of confinement must provide opportunity to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5. If a petitioners new maximum term of confinement ordered under this section does not provide sufficient time to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5, the new maximum term of confinement may be extended, not more than 240 days from the date the petition is granted, in order to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5.
10091020
10101021 1170.18. (a) A person who, on November 5, 2014, was serving a sentence for a conviction, whether by trial or plea, of a felony or felonies who would have been guilty of a misdemeanor under the act that added this section (this act) had this act been in effect at the time of the offense may petition for a recall of sentence before the trial court that entered the judgment of conviction in his or her case to request resentencing in accordance with Sections 11350, 11357, or 11377 of the Health and Safety Code, or Section 459.5, 473, 476a, 490.2, 496, or 666 of the Penal Code, as those sections have been amended or added by this act.(b) Upon receiving a petition under subdivision (a), the court shall determine whether the petitioner satisfies the criteria in subdivision (a). If the petitioner satisfies the criteria in subdivision (a), the petitioners felony sentence shall be recalled and the petitioner resentenced to a misdemeanor pursuant to Sections 11350, 11357, or 11377 of the Health and Safety Code, or Section 459.5, 473, 476a, 490.2, 496, or 666 of the Penal Code, as those sections have been amended or added by this act, unless the court, in its discretion, determines that resentencing the petitioner would pose an unreasonable risk of danger to public safety. In exercising its discretion, the court may consider all of the following:(1) The petitioners criminal conviction history, including the type of crimes committed, the extent of injury to victims, the length of prior prison commitments, and the remoteness of the crimes.(2) The petitioners disciplinary record and record of rehabilitation while incarcerated.(3) Any other evidence the court, within its discretion, determines to be relevant in deciding whether a new sentence would result in an unreasonable risk of danger to public safety.(c) As used throughout this code, unreasonable risk of danger to public safety means an unreasonable risk that the petitioner will commit a new violent felony within the meaning of clause (iv) of subparagraph (C) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (e) of Section 667.(d) A person who is resentenced pursuant to subdivision (b) shall be given credit for time served and shall be subject to parole for one year following completion of his or her sentence, unless the court, in its discretion, as part of its resentencing order, releases the person from parole. The person is subject to parole supervision by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation pursuant to Section 3000.08 and the jurisdiction of the court in the county in which the parolee is released or resides, or in which an alleged violation of supervision has occurred, for the purpose of hearing petitions to revoke parole and impose a term of custody.(e) Resentencing pursuant to this section shall not result in the imposition of a term longer than the original sentence.(f) A person who has completed his or her sentence for a conviction, whether by trial or plea, of a felony or felonies who would have been guilty of a misdemeanor under this act had this act been in effect at the time of the offense, may file an application before the trial court that entered the judgment of conviction in his or her case to have the felony conviction or convictions designated as misdemeanors.(g) If the application satisfies the criteria in subdivision (f), the court shall designate the felony offense or offenses as a misdemeanor.(h) Unless the applicant requests a hearing, a hearing is not necessary to grant or deny an application filed under subdivision (f).(i) This section does not apply to a person who has one or more prior convictions for an offense specified in clause (iv) of subparagraph (C) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (e) of Section 667 or for an offense requiring registration pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 290.(j) Except as specified in subdivision (p), a petition or application under this section shall be filed on or before November 4, 2022, or at a later date upon showing of good cause.(k) A felony conviction that is recalled and resentenced under subdivision (b) or designated as a misdemeanor under subdivision (g) shall be considered a misdemeanor for all purposes, except that resentencing shall not permit that person to own, possess, or have in his or her custody or control a firearm or prevent his or her conviction under Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 29800) of Division 9 of Title 4 of Part 6.(l) If the court that originally sentenced the petitioner is not available, the presiding judge shall designate another judge to rule on the petition or application.(m) This section does not diminish or abrogate any rights or remedies otherwise available to the petitioner or applicant.(n) Resentencing pursuant to this section does not diminish or abrogate the finality of judgments in any case that does not come within the purview of this section.(o) A resentencing hearing ordered under this section shall constitute a postconviction release proceeding under paragraph (7) of subdivision (b) of Section 28 of Article I of the California Constitution (Marsys Law).(p) (1) A person who is committed to a state hospital after being found not guilty by reason of insanity pursuant to Section 1026 may petition the court to have his or her maximum term of commitment, as established by Section 1026.5, reduced to the length it would have been had the act that added this section been in effect at the time of the original determination. Both of the following conditions are required for the maximum term of commitment to be reduced.(A) The person would have met all of the criteria for a reduction in sentence pursuant to this section had he or she been found guilty.(B) The person files the petition for a reduction of the maximum term of commitment before January 1, 2021, or on a later date upon a showing of good cause.(2) If a petitioners maximum term of confinement is ordered reduced under this subdivision, the new term of confinement must provide opportunity to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5. If a petitioners new maximum term of confinement ordered under this section does not provide sufficient time to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5, the new maximum term of confinement may be extended, not more than 240 days from the date the petition is granted, in order to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5.
10111022
10121023
10131024
10141025 1170.18. (a) A person who, on November 5, 2014, was serving a sentence for a conviction, whether by trial or plea, of a felony or felonies who would have been guilty of a misdemeanor under the act that added this section (this act) had this act been in effect at the time of the offense may petition for a recall of sentence before the trial court that entered the judgment of conviction in his or her case to request resentencing in accordance with Sections 11350, 11357, or 11377 of the Health and Safety Code, or Section 459.5, 473, 476a, 490.2, 496, or 666 of the Penal Code, as those sections have been amended or added by this act.
10151026
10161027 (b) Upon receiving a petition under subdivision (a), the court shall determine whether the petitioner satisfies the criteria in subdivision (a). If the petitioner satisfies the criteria in subdivision (a), the petitioners felony sentence shall be recalled and the petitioner resentenced to a misdemeanor pursuant to Sections 11350, 11357, or 11377 of the Health and Safety Code, or Section 459.5, 473, 476a, 490.2, 496, or 666 of the Penal Code, as those sections have been amended or added by this act, unless the court, in its discretion, determines that resentencing the petitioner would pose an unreasonable risk of danger to public safety. In exercising its discretion, the court may consider all of the following:
10171028
10181029 (1) The petitioners criminal conviction history, including the type of crimes committed, the extent of injury to victims, the length of prior prison commitments, and the remoteness of the crimes.
10191030
10201031 (2) The petitioners disciplinary record and record of rehabilitation while incarcerated.
10211032
10221033 (3) Any other evidence the court, within its discretion, determines to be relevant in deciding whether a new sentence would result in an unreasonable risk of danger to public safety.
10231034
10241035 (c) As used throughout this code, unreasonable risk of danger to public safety means an unreasonable risk that the petitioner will commit a new violent felony within the meaning of clause (iv) of subparagraph (C) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (e) of Section 667.
10251036
10261037 (d) A person who is resentenced pursuant to subdivision (b) shall be given credit for time served and shall be subject to parole for one year following completion of his or her sentence, unless the court, in its discretion, as part of its resentencing order, releases the person from parole. The person is subject to parole supervision by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation pursuant to Section 3000.08 and the jurisdiction of the court in the county in which the parolee is released or resides, or in which an alleged violation of supervision has occurred, for the purpose of hearing petitions to revoke parole and impose a term of custody.
10271038
10281039 (e) Resentencing pursuant to this section shall not result in the imposition of a term longer than the original sentence.
10291040
10301041 (f) A person who has completed his or her sentence for a conviction, whether by trial or plea, of a felony or felonies who would have been guilty of a misdemeanor under this act had this act been in effect at the time of the offense, may file an application before the trial court that entered the judgment of conviction in his or her case to have the felony conviction or convictions designated as misdemeanors.
10311042
10321043 (g) If the application satisfies the criteria in subdivision (f), the court shall designate the felony offense or offenses as a misdemeanor.
10331044
10341045 (h) Unless the applicant requests a hearing, a hearing is not necessary to grant or deny an application filed under subdivision (f).
10351046
10361047 (i) This section does not apply to a person who has one or more prior convictions for an offense specified in clause (iv) of subparagraph (C) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (e) of Section 667 or for an offense requiring registration pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 290.
10371048
10381049 (j) Except as specified in subdivision (p), a petition or application under this section shall be filed on or before November 4, 2022, or at a later date upon showing of good cause.
10391050
10401051 (k) A felony conviction that is recalled and resentenced under subdivision (b) or designated as a misdemeanor under subdivision (g) shall be considered a misdemeanor for all purposes, except that resentencing shall not permit that person to own, possess, or have in his or her custody or control a firearm or prevent his or her conviction under Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 29800) of Division 9 of Title 4 of Part 6.
10411052
10421053 (l) If the court that originally sentenced the petitioner is not available, the presiding judge shall designate another judge to rule on the petition or application.
10431054
10441055 (m) This section does not diminish or abrogate any rights or remedies otherwise available to the petitioner or applicant.
10451056
10461057 (n) Resentencing pursuant to this section does not diminish or abrogate the finality of judgments in any case that does not come within the purview of this section.
10471058
10481059 (o) A resentencing hearing ordered under this section shall constitute a postconviction release proceeding under paragraph (7) of subdivision (b) of Section 28 of Article I of the California Constitution (Marsys Law).
10491060
10501061 (p) (1) A person who is committed to a state hospital after being found not guilty by reason of insanity pursuant to Section 1026 may petition the court to have his or her maximum term of commitment, as established by Section 1026.5, reduced to the length it would have been had the act that added this section been in effect at the time of the original determination. Both of the following conditions are required for the maximum term of commitment to be reduced.
10511062
10521063 (A) The person would have met all of the criteria for a reduction in sentence pursuant to this section had he or she been found guilty.
10531064
10541065 (B) The person files the petition for a reduction of the maximum term of commitment before January 1, 2021, or on a later date upon a showing of good cause.
10551066
10561067 (2) If a petitioners maximum term of confinement is ordered reduced under this subdivision, the new term of confinement must provide opportunity to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5. If a petitioners new maximum term of confinement ordered under this section does not provide sufficient time to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5, the new maximum term of confinement may be extended, not more than 240 days from the date the petition is granted, in order to meet requirements provided in subdivision (b) of Section 1026.5.
10571068
10581069 SEC. 27. Section 1203.5 of the Penal Code is repealed.
10591070
10601071 SEC. 27. Section 1203.5 of the Penal Code is repealed.
10611072
10621073 ### SEC. 27.
10631074
10641075
10651076
10661077 SEC. 28. Section 1203.5 is added to the Penal Code, to read:1203.5. The chief probation officers, assistant probation officers, and deputy probation officers appointed in accordance with Chapter 16 (commencing with Section 27770) of Part 3 of Division 2 of Title 3 of the Government Code shall be ex officio adult chief probation officers, assistant adult probation officers, and deputy adult probation officers except in any county or city and county whose charter provides for the separate office of adult probation officer. When the separate office of adult probation officer has been established he or she shall perform all the duties of probation officers except for matters under the jurisdiction of the juvenile court.
10671078
10681079 SEC. 28. Section 1203.5 is added to the Penal Code, to read:
10691080
10701081 ### SEC. 28.
10711082
10721083 1203.5. The chief probation officers, assistant probation officers, and deputy probation officers appointed in accordance with Chapter 16 (commencing with Section 27770) of Part 3 of Division 2 of Title 3 of the Government Code shall be ex officio adult chief probation officers, assistant adult probation officers, and deputy adult probation officers except in any county or city and county whose charter provides for the separate office of adult probation officer. When the separate office of adult probation officer has been established he or she shall perform all the duties of probation officers except for matters under the jurisdiction of the juvenile court.
10731084
10741085 1203.5. The chief probation officers, assistant probation officers, and deputy probation officers appointed in accordance with Chapter 16 (commencing with Section 27770) of Part 3 of Division 2 of Title 3 of the Government Code shall be ex officio adult chief probation officers, assistant adult probation officers, and deputy adult probation officers except in any county or city and county whose charter provides for the separate office of adult probation officer. When the separate office of adult probation officer has been established he or she shall perform all the duties of probation officers except for matters under the jurisdiction of the juvenile court.
10751086
10761087 1203.5. The chief probation officers, assistant probation officers, and deputy probation officers appointed in accordance with Chapter 16 (commencing with Section 27770) of Part 3 of Division 2 of Title 3 of the Government Code shall be ex officio adult chief probation officers, assistant adult probation officers, and deputy adult probation officers except in any county or city and county whose charter provides for the separate office of adult probation officer. When the separate office of adult probation officer has been established he or she shall perform all the duties of probation officers except for matters under the jurisdiction of the juvenile court.
10771088
10781089
10791090
10801091 1203.5. The chief probation officers, assistant probation officers, and deputy probation officers appointed in accordance with Chapter 16 (commencing with Section 27770) of Part 3 of Division 2 of Title 3 of the Government Code shall be ex officio adult chief probation officers, assistant adult probation officers, and deputy adult probation officers except in any county or city and county whose charter provides for the separate office of adult probation officer. When the separate office of adult probation officer has been established he or she shall perform all the duties of probation officers except for matters under the jurisdiction of the juvenile court.
10811092
10821093 SEC. 29. Section 1203.6 of the Penal Code is repealed.
10831094
10841095 SEC. 29. Section 1203.6 of the Penal Code is repealed.
10851096
10861097 ### SEC. 29.
10871098
10881099
10891100
10901101 SEC. 30. Section 1370 of the Penal Code is amended to read:1370. (a) (1) (A) If the defendant is found mentally competent, the criminal process shall resume, the trial on the offense charged or hearing on the alleged violation shall proceed, and judgment may be pronounced.(B) If the defendant is found mentally incompetent, the trial, the hearing on the alleged violation, or the judgment shall be suspended until the person becomes mentally competent.(i) In the meantime, the court shall order that the mentally incompetent defendant be delivered by the sheriff to a State Department of State Hospitals facility, as defined in Section 4100 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, for the care and treatment of the mentally disordered, as directed by the State Department of State Hospitals, or to any other available public or private treatment facility, including a community-based residential treatment system established pursuant to Article 1 (commencing with Section 5670) of Chapter 2.5 of Part 2 of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code if the facility has a secured perimeter or a locked and controlled treatment facility, approved by the community program director that will promote the defendants speedy restoration to mental competence, or placed on outpatient status as specified in Section 1600.(ii) However, if the action against the defendant who has been found mentally incompetent is on a complaint charging a felony offense specified in Section 290, the prosecutor shall determine whether the defendant previously has been found mentally incompetent to stand trial pursuant to this chapter on a charge of a Section 290 offense, or whether the defendant is currently the subject of a pending Section 1368 proceeding arising out of a charge of a Section 290 offense. If either determination is made, the prosecutor shall so notify the court and defendant in writing. After this notification, and opportunity for hearing, the court shall order that the defendant be delivered by the sheriff to a State Department of State Hospitals facility, as directed by the State Department of State Hospitals, or other secure treatment facility for the care and treatment of the mentally disordered unless the court makes specific findings on the record that an alternative placement would provide more appropriate treatment for the defendant and would not pose a danger to the health and safety of others.(iii) If the action against the defendant who has been found mentally incompetent is on a complaint charging a felony offense specified in Section 290 and the defendant has been denied bail pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 12 of Article I of the California Constitution because the court has found, based upon clear and convincing evidence, a substantial likelihood that the persons release would result in great bodily harm to others, the court shall order that the defendant be delivered by the sheriff to a State Department of State Hospitals facility, for the care and treatment of the mentally disordered, as directed by the State Department of State Hospitals, unless the court makes specific findings on the record that an alternative placement would provide more appropriate treatment for the defendant and would not pose a danger to the health and safety of others.(iv) The clerk of the court shall notify the Department of Justice in writing of a finding of mental incompetence with respect to a defendant who is subject to clause (ii) or (iii) for inclusion in his or her state summary criminal history information.(C) Upon the filing of a certificate of restoration to competence, the court shall order that the defendant be returned to court in accordance with Section 1372. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the community program director or a designee.(D) A defendant charged with a violent felony may not be delivered to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or treatment facility pursuant to this subdivision unless the State Department of State Hospitals facility or treatment facility has a secured perimeter or a locked and controlled treatment facility, and the judge determines that the public safety will be protected.(E) For purposes of this paragraph, violent felony means an offense specified in subdivision (c) of Section 667.5.(F) A defendant charged with a violent felony may be placed on outpatient status, as specified in Section 1600, only if the court finds that the placement will not pose a danger to the health or safety of others. If the court places a defendant charged with a violent felony on outpatient status, as specified in Section 1600, the court shall serve copies of the placement order on defense counsel, the sheriff in the county where the defendant will be placed, and the district attorney for the county in which the violent felony charges are pending against the defendant.(2) Prior to making the order directing that the defendant be committed to the State Department of State Hospitals or other treatment facility or placed on outpatient status, the court shall proceed as follows:(A) The court shall order the community program director or a designee to evaluate the defendant and to submit to the court within 15 judicial days of the order a written recommendation as to whether the defendant should be required to undergo outpatient treatment, or be committed to the State Department of State Hospitals or to any other treatment facility. A person shall not be admitted to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility or placed on outpatient status under this section without having been evaluated by the community program director or a designee. The community program director or designee shall evaluate the appropriate placement for the defendant between a State Department of State Hospitals facility or the community-based residential treatment system based upon guidelines provided by the State Department of State Hospitals.(B) The court shall hear and determine whether the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding the administration of antipsychotic medication. The court shall consider opinions in the reports prepared pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 1369, as applicable to the issue of whether the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding the administration of antipsychotic medication, and shall proceed as follows:(i) The court shall hear and determine whether any of the following is true:(I) The defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication, the defendants mental disorder requires medical treatment with antipsychotic medication, and, if the defendants mental disorder is not treated with antipsychotic medication, it is probable that serious harm to the physical or mental health of the patient will result. Probability of serious harm to the physical or mental health of the defendant requires evidence that the defendant is presently suffering adverse effects to his or her physical or mental health, or the defendant has previously suffered these effects as a result of a mental disorder and his or her condition is substantially deteriorating. The fact that a defendant has a diagnosis of a mental disorder does not alone establish probability of serious harm to the physical or mental health of the defendant.(II) The defendant is a danger to others, in that the defendant has inflicted, attempted to inflict, or made a serious threat of inflicting substantial physical harm on another while in custody, or the defendant had inflicted, attempted to inflict, or made a serious threat of inflicting substantial physical harm on another that resulted in his or her being taken into custody, and the defendant presents, as a result of mental disorder or mental defect, a demonstrated danger of inflicting substantial physical harm on others. Demonstrated danger may be based on an assessment of the defendants present mental condition, including a consideration of past behavior of the defendant within six years prior to the time the defendant last attempted to inflict, inflicted, or threatened to inflict substantial physical harm on another, and other relevant evidence.(III) The people have charged the defendant with a serious crime against the person or property, involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication is substantially likely to render the defendant competent to stand trial, the medication is unlikely to have side effects that interfere with the defendants ability to understand the nature of the criminal proceedings or to assist counsel in the conduct of a defense in a reasonable manner, less intrusive treatments are unlikely to have substantially the same results, and antipsychotic medication is in the patients best medical interest in light of his or her medical condition.(ii) If the court finds any of the conditions described in clause (i) to be true, the court shall issue an order authorizing involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication to the defendant when and as prescribed by the defendants treating psychiatrist at any facility housing the defendant for purposes of this chapter. The order shall be valid for no more than one year, pursuant to subparagraph (A) of paragraph (7). The court shall not order involuntary administration of psychotropic medication under subclause (III) of clause (i) unless the court has first found that the defendant does not meet the criteria for involuntary administration of psychotropic medication under subclause (I) of clause (i) and does not meet the criteria under subclause (II) of clause (i).(iii) In all cases, the treating hospital, facility, or program may administer medically appropriate antipsychotic medication prescribed by a psychiatrist in an emergency as described in subdivision (m) of Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(iv) If the court has determined that the defendant has the capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication, and if the defendant, with advice of his or her counsel, consents, the court order of commitment shall include confirmation that antipsychotic medication may be given to the defendant as prescribed by a treating psychiatrist pursuant to the defendants consent. The commitment order shall also indicate that, if the defendant withdraws consent for antipsychotic medication, after the treating psychiatrist complies with the provisions of subparagraph (C), the defendant shall be returned to court for a hearing in accordance with subparagraphs (C) and (D) regarding whether antipsychotic medication shall be administered involuntarily.(v) If the court has determined that the defendant has the capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication and if the defendant, with advice from his or her counsel, does not consent, the court order for commitment shall indicate that, after the treating psychiatrist complies with the provisions of subparagraph (C), the defendant shall be returned to court for a hearing in accordance with subparagraphs (C) and (D) regarding whether antipsychotic medication shall be administered involuntarily.(vi) A report made pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) shall include a description of antipsychotic medication administered to the defendant and its effects and side effects, including effects on the defendants appearance or behavior that would affect the defendants ability to understand the nature of the criminal proceedings or to assist counsel in the conduct of a defense in a reasonable manner. During the time the defendant is confined in a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility or placed on outpatient status, either the defendant or the people may request that the court review any order made pursuant to this subdivision. The defendant, to the same extent enjoyed by other patients in the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility, shall have the right to contact the patients rights advocate regarding his or her rights under this section.(C) If the defendant consented to antipsychotic medication as described in clause (iv) of subparagraph (B), but subsequently withdraws his or her consent, or, if involuntary antipsychotic medication was not ordered pursuant to clause (v) of subparagraph (B), and the treating psychiatrist determines that antipsychotic medication has become medically necessary and appropriate, the treating psychiatrist shall make efforts to obtain informed consent from the defendant for antipsychotic medication. If informed consent is not obtained from the defendant, and the treating psychiatrist is of the opinion that the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication based on the conditions described in subclause (I) or (II) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B), the treating psychiatrist shall certify whether the lack of capacity and any applicable conditions described above exist. That certification shall contain an assessment of the current mental status of the defendant and the opinion of the treating psychiatrist that involuntary antipsychotic medication has become medically necessary and appropriate.(D) (i) If the treating psychiatrist certifies that antipsychotic medication has become medically necessary and appropriate pursuant to subparagraph (C), antipsychotic medication may be administered to the defendant for not more than 21 days, provided, however, that, within 72 hours of the certification, the defendant is provided a medication review hearing before an administrative law judge to be conducted at the facility where the defendant is receiving treatment. The treating psychiatrist shall present the case for the certification for involuntary treatment and the defendant shall be represented by an attorney or a patients rights advocate. The attorney or patients rights advocate shall be appointed to meet with the defendant no later than one day prior to the medication review hearing to review the defendants rights at the medication review hearing, discuss the process, answer questions or concerns regarding involuntary medication or the hearing, assist the defendant in preparing for the hearing and advocating for his or her interests at the hearing, review the panels final determination following the hearing, advise the defendant of his or her right to judicial review of the panels decision, and provide the defendant with referral information for legal advice on the subject. The defendant shall also have the following rights with respect to the medication review hearing:(I) To be given timely access to the defendants records.(II) To be present at the hearing, unless the defendant waives that right.(III) To present evidence at the hearing.(IV) To question persons presenting evidence supporting involuntary medication.(V) To make reasonable requests for attendance of witnesses on the defendants behalf.(VI) To a hearing conducted in an impartial and informal manner.(ii) If the administrative law judge determines that the defendant either meets the criteria specified in subclause (I) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B), or meets the criteria specified in subclause (II) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B), then antipsychotic medication may continue to be administered to the defendant for the 21-day certification period. Concurrently with the treating psychiatrists certification, the treating psychiatrist shall file a copy of the certification and a petition with the court for issuance of an order to administer antipsychotic medication beyond the 21-day certification period. For purposes of this subparagraph, the treating psychiatrist shall not be required to pay or deposit any fee for the filing of the petition or other document or paper related to the petition.(iii) If the administrative law judge disagrees with the certification, medication may not be administered involuntarily until the court determines that antipsychotic medication should be administered pursuant to this section.(iv) The court shall provide notice to the prosecuting attorney and to the attorney representing the defendant, and shall hold a hearing, no later than 18 days from the date of the certification, to determine whether antipsychotic medication should be ordered beyond the certification period.(v) If, as a result of the hearing, the court determines that antipsychotic medication should be administered beyond the certification period, the court shall issue an order authorizing the administration of that medication.(vi) The court shall render its decision on the petition and issue its order no later than three calendar days after the hearing and, in any event, no later than the expiration of the 21-day certification period.(vii) If the administrative law judge upholds the certification pursuant to clause (ii), the court may, for a period not to exceed 14 days, extend the certification and continue the hearing pursuant to stipulation between the parties or upon a finding of good cause. In determining good cause, the court may review the petition filed with the court, the administrative law judges order, and any additional testimony needed by the court to determine if it is appropriate to continue medication beyond the 21-day certification and for a period of up to 14 days.(viii) The district attorney, county counsel, or representative of a facility where a defendant found incompetent to stand trial is committed may petition the court for an order to administer involuntary medication pursuant to the criteria set forth in subclauses (II) and (III) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B). The order is reviewable as provided in paragraph (7).(3) When the court orders that the defendant be committed to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other public or private treatment facility, the court shall provide copies of the following documents prior to the admission of the defendant to the State Department of State Hospitals or other treatment facility where the defendant is to be committed:(A) The commitment order, including a specification of the charges.(B) A computation or statement setting forth the maximum term of commitment in accordance with subdivision (c).(C) A computation or statement setting forth the amount of credit for time served, if any, to be deducted from the maximum term of commitment.(D) State summary criminal history information.(E) Arrest reports prepared by the police department or other law enforcement agency.(F) Court-ordered psychiatric examination or evaluation reports.(G) The community program directors placement recommendation report.(H) Records of a finding of mental incompetence pursuant to this chapter arising out of a complaint charging a felony offense specified in Section 290 or a pending Section 1368 proceeding arising out of a charge of a Section 290 offense.(I) Medical records.(4) When the defendant is committed to a treatment facility pursuant to clause (i) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) or the court makes the findings specified in clause (ii) or (iii) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) to assign the defendant to a treatment facility other than a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other secure treatment facility, the court shall order that notice be given to the appropriate law enforcement agency or agencies having local jurisdiction at the site of the placement facility of any finding of mental incompetence pursuant to this chapter arising out of a charge of a Section 290 offense.(5) When directing that the defendant be confined in a State Department of State Hospitals facility pursuant to this subdivision, the court shall commit the patient to the State Department of State Hospitals.(6) (A) If the defendant is committed or transferred to the State Department of State Hospitals pursuant to this section, the court may, upon receiving the written recommendation of the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility and the community program director that the defendant be transferred to a public or private treatment facility approved by the community program director, order the defendant transferred to that facility. If the defendant is committed or transferred to a public or private treatment facility approved by the community program director, the court may, upon receiving the written recommendation of the community program director, transfer the defendant to the State Department of State Hospitals or to another public or private treatment facility approved by the community program director. In the event of dismissal of the criminal charges before the defendant recovers competence, the person shall be subject to the applicable provisions of the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act (Part 1 (commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code). If either the defendant or the prosecutor chooses to contest either kind of order of transfer, a petition may be filed in the court for a hearing, which shall be held if the court determines that sufficient grounds exist. At the hearing, the prosecuting attorney or the defendant may present evidence bearing on the order of transfer. The court shall use the same standards as are used in conducting probation revocation hearings pursuant to Section 1203.2.Prior to making an order for transfer under this section, the court shall notify the defendant, the attorney of record for the defendant, the prosecuting attorney, and the community program director or a designee.(B) If the defendant is initially committed to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or secure treatment facility pursuant to clause (ii) or (iii) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) and is subsequently transferred to any other facility, copies of the documents specified in paragraph (3) shall be taken with the defendant to each subsequent facility to which the defendant is transferred. The transferring facility shall also notify the appropriate law enforcement agency or agencies having local jurisdiction at the site of the new facility that the defendant is a person subject to clause (ii) or (iii) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1).(7) (A) An order by the court authorizing involuntary medication of the defendant shall be valid for no more than one year. The court shall review the order at the time of the review of the initial report and the six-month progress reports pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) to determine if the grounds for the authorization remain. In the review, the court shall consider the reports of the treating psychiatrist or psychiatrists and the defendants patients rights advocate or attorney. The court may require testimony from the treating psychiatrist and the patients rights advocate or attorney, if necessary. The court may continue the order authorizing involuntary medication for up to another six months, or vacate the order, or make any other appropriate order.(B) Within 60 days before the expiration of the one-year involuntary medication order, the district attorney, county counsel, or representative of any facility where a defendant found incompetent to stand trial is committed may petition the committing court for a renewal, subject to the same conditions and requirements as in subparagraph (A). The petition shall include the basis for involuntary medication set forth in clause (i) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2). Notice of the petition shall be provided to the defendant, the defendants attorney, and the district attorney. The court shall hear and determine whether the defendant continues to meet the criteria set forth in clause (i) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2). The hearing on any petition to renew an order for involuntary medication shall be conducted prior to the expiration of the current order.(8) For purposes of subparagraph (D) of paragraph (2) and paragraph (7), if the treating psychiatrist determines that there is a need, based on preserving his or her rapport with the patient or preventing harm, the treating psychiatrist may request that the facility medical director designate another psychiatrist to act in the place of the treating psychiatrist. If the medical director of the facility designates another psychiatrist to act pursuant to this paragraph, the treating psychiatrist shall brief the acting psychiatrist of the relevant facts of the case and the acting psychiatrist shall examine the patient prior to the hearing.(b) (1) Within 90 days of a commitment made pursuant to subdivision (a), the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility to which the defendant is confined shall make a written report to the court and the community program director for the county or region of commitment, or a designee, concerning the defendants progress toward recovery of mental competence and whether the administration of antipsychotic medication remains necessary. If the defendant is on outpatient status, the outpatient treatment staff shall make a written report to the community program director concerning the defendants progress toward recovery of mental competence. Within 90 days of placement on outpatient status, the community program director shall report to the court on this matter. If the defendant has not recovered mental competence, but the report discloses a substantial likelihood that the defendant will regain mental competence in the foreseeable future, the defendant shall remain in the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility or on outpatient status. Thereafter, at six-month intervals or until the defendant becomes mentally competent, if the defendant is confined in a treatment facility, the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility or person in charge of the facility shall report in writing to the court and the community program director or a designee regarding the defendants progress toward recovery of mental competence and whether the administration of antipsychotic medication remains necessary. If the defendant is on outpatient status, after the initial 90-day report, the outpatient treatment staff shall report to the community program director on the defendants progress toward recovery, and the community program director shall report to the court on this matter at six-month intervals. A copy of these reports shall be provided to the prosecutor and defense counsel by the court.(A) If the report indicates that there is no substantial likelihood that the defendant will regain mental competence in the foreseeable future, the committing court shall order the defendant to be returned to the court for proceedings pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (c) no later than 10 days following receipt of the report. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the community program director or a designee.(B) If the report indicates that there is no substantial likelihood that the defendant will regain mental competence in the foreseeable future, the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility to which the defendant is confined shall do both of the following:(i) Promptly notify and provide a copy of the report to the defense counsel and the district attorney.(ii) Provide a separate notification, in compliance with applicable privacy laws, to the committing countys sheriff that transportation will be needed for the patient.(2) If the court has issued an order authorizing the treating facility to involuntarily administer antipsychotic medication to the defendant, the reports made pursuant to paragraph (1) concerning the defendants progress toward regaining competency shall also consider the issue of involuntary medication. Each report shall include, but is not limited to, all of the following:(A) Whether or not the defendant has the capacity to make decisions concerning antipsychotic medication.(B) If the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions concerning antipsychotic medication, whether the defendant risks serious harm to his or her physical or mental health if not treated with antipsychotic medication.(C) Whether or not the defendant presents a danger to others if he or she is not treated with antipsychotic medication.(D) Whether the defendant has a mental illness for which medications are the only effective treatment.(E) Whether there are any side effects from the medication currently being experienced by the defendant that would interfere with the defendants ability to collaborate with counsel.(F) Whether there are any effective alternatives to medication.(G) How quickly the medication is likely to bring the defendant to competency.(H) Whether the treatment plan includes methods other than medication to restore the defendant to competency.(I) A statement, if applicable, that no medication is likely to restore the defendant to competency.(3) After reviewing the reports, the court shall determine whether or not grounds for the order authorizing involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication still exist and shall do one of the following:(A) If the original grounds for involuntary medication still exist, the order authorizing the treating facility to involuntarily administer antipsychotic medication to the defendant shall remain in effect.(B) If the original grounds for involuntary medication no longer exist, and there is no other basis for involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication, the order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication shall be vacated.(C) If the original grounds for involuntary medication no longer exist, and the report states that there is another basis for involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication, the court shall set a hearing within 21 days to determine whether the order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication shall be vacated or whether a new order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication shall be issued. The hearing shall proceed as set forth in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a).(4) Any defendant who has been committed or has been on outpatient status for 18 months and is still hospitalized or on outpatient status shall be returned to the committing court where a hearing shall be held pursuant to the procedures set forth in Section 1369. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the community program director or a designee.(5) If it is determined by the court that no treatment for the defendants mental impairment is being conducted, the defendant shall be returned to the committing court. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the community program director or a designee.(6) At each review by the court specified in this subdivision, the court shall determine if the security level of housing and treatment is appropriate and may make an order in accordance with its determination. If the court determines that the defendant shall continue to be treated in the State Department of State Hospitals facility or on an outpatient basis, the court shall determine issues concerning administration of antipsychotic medication, as set forth in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a).(c) (1) At the end of three years from the date of commitment or a period of commitment equal to the maximum term of imprisonment provided by law for the most serious offense charged in the information, indictment, or misdemeanor complaint, or the maximum term of imprisonment provided by law for a violation of probation or mandatory supervision, whichever is shorter, but no later than 90 days prior to the expiration of the defendants term of commitment, a defendant who has not recovered mental competence shall be returned to the committing court. The court shall notify the community program director or a designee of the return and of any resulting court orders.(2) Whenever a defendant is returned to the court pursuant to paragraph (1) or (4) of subdivision (b) or paragraph (1) of this subdivision and it appears to the court that the defendant is gravely disabled, as defined in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (h) of Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the court shall order the conservatorship investigator of the county of commitment of the defendant to initiate conservatorship proceedings for the defendant pursuant to Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 5350) of Part 1 of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. Hearings required in the conservatorship proceedings shall be held in the superior court in the county that ordered the commitment. The court shall transmit a copy of the order directing initiation of conservatorship proceedings to the community program director or a designee, the sheriff and the district attorney of the county in which criminal charges are pending, and the defendants counsel of record. The court shall notify the community program director or a designee, the sheriff and district attorney of the county in which criminal charges are pending, and the defendants counsel of record of the outcome of the conservatorship proceedings.(3) If a change in placement is proposed for a defendant who is committed pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (h) of Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the court shall provide notice and an opportunity to be heard with respect to the proposed placement of the defendant to the sheriff and the district attorney of the county in which the criminal charges or revocation proceedings are pending.(4) If the defendant is confined in a treatment facility, a copy of any report to the committing court regarding the defendants progress toward recovery of mental competence shall be provided by the committing court to the prosecutor and to the defense counsel.(d) With the exception of proceedings alleging a violation of mandatory supervision, the criminal action remains subject to dismissal pursuant to Section 1385. If the criminal action is dismissed, the court shall transmit a copy of the order of dismissal to the community program director or a designee. In a proceeding alleging a violation of mandatory supervision, if the person is not placed under a conservatorship as described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (c), or if a conservatorship is terminated, the court shall reinstate mandatory supervision and may modify the terms and conditions of supervision to include appropriate mental health treatment or refer the matter to a local mental health court, reentry court, or other collaborative justice court available for improving the mental health of the defendant.(e) If the criminal action against the defendant is dismissed, the defendant shall be released from commitment ordered under this section, but without prejudice to the initiation of any proceedings that may be appropriate under the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act (Part 1 (commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code).(f) As used in this chapter, community program director means the person, agency, or entity designated by the State Department of State Hospitals pursuant to Section 1605 of this code and Section 4360 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(g) For the purpose of this section, secure treatment facility shall not include, except for State Department of State Hospitals facilities, state developmental centers, and correctional treatment facilities, any facility licensed pursuant to Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 1250) of, Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 1500) of, or Chapter 3.2 (commencing with Section 1569) of, Division 2 of the Health and Safety Code, or any community board and care facility.(h) Nothing in this section shall preclude a defendant from filing a petition for habeas corpus to challenge the continuing validity of an order authorizing a treatment facility or outpatient program to involuntarily administer antipsychotic medication to a person being treated as incompetent to stand trial.
10911102
10921103 SEC. 30. Section 1370 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
10931104
10941105 ### SEC. 30.
10951106
10961107 1370. (a) (1) (A) If the defendant is found mentally competent, the criminal process shall resume, the trial on the offense charged or hearing on the alleged violation shall proceed, and judgment may be pronounced.(B) If the defendant is found mentally incompetent, the trial, the hearing on the alleged violation, or the judgment shall be suspended until the person becomes mentally competent.(i) In the meantime, the court shall order that the mentally incompetent defendant be delivered by the sheriff to a State Department of State Hospitals facility, as defined in Section 4100 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, for the care and treatment of the mentally disordered, as directed by the State Department of State Hospitals, or to any other available public or private treatment facility, including a community-based residential treatment system established pursuant to Article 1 (commencing with Section 5670) of Chapter 2.5 of Part 2 of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code if the facility has a secured perimeter or a locked and controlled treatment facility, approved by the community program director that will promote the defendants speedy restoration to mental competence, or placed on outpatient status as specified in Section 1600.(ii) However, if the action against the defendant who has been found mentally incompetent is on a complaint charging a felony offense specified in Section 290, the prosecutor shall determine whether the defendant previously has been found mentally incompetent to stand trial pursuant to this chapter on a charge of a Section 290 offense, or whether the defendant is currently the subject of a pending Section 1368 proceeding arising out of a charge of a Section 290 offense. If either determination is made, the prosecutor shall so notify the court and defendant in writing. After this notification, and opportunity for hearing, the court shall order that the defendant be delivered by the sheriff to a State Department of State Hospitals facility, as directed by the State Department of State Hospitals, or other secure treatment facility for the care and treatment of the mentally disordered unless the court makes specific findings on the record that an alternative placement would provide more appropriate treatment for the defendant and would not pose a danger to the health and safety of others.(iii) If the action against the defendant who has been found mentally incompetent is on a complaint charging a felony offense specified in Section 290 and the defendant has been denied bail pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 12 of Article I of the California Constitution because the court has found, based upon clear and convincing evidence, a substantial likelihood that the persons release would result in great bodily harm to others, the court shall order that the defendant be delivered by the sheriff to a State Department of State Hospitals facility, for the care and treatment of the mentally disordered, as directed by the State Department of State Hospitals, unless the court makes specific findings on the record that an alternative placement would provide more appropriate treatment for the defendant and would not pose a danger to the health and safety of others.(iv) The clerk of the court shall notify the Department of Justice in writing of a finding of mental incompetence with respect to a defendant who is subject to clause (ii) or (iii) for inclusion in his or her state summary criminal history information.(C) Upon the filing of a certificate of restoration to competence, the court shall order that the defendant be returned to court in accordance with Section 1372. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the community program director or a designee.(D) A defendant charged with a violent felony may not be delivered to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or treatment facility pursuant to this subdivision unless the State Department of State Hospitals facility or treatment facility has a secured perimeter or a locked and controlled treatment facility, and the judge determines that the public safety will be protected.(E) For purposes of this paragraph, violent felony means an offense specified in subdivision (c) of Section 667.5.(F) A defendant charged with a violent felony may be placed on outpatient status, as specified in Section 1600, only if the court finds that the placement will not pose a danger to the health or safety of others. If the court places a defendant charged with a violent felony on outpatient status, as specified in Section 1600, the court shall serve copies of the placement order on defense counsel, the sheriff in the county where the defendant will be placed, and the district attorney for the county in which the violent felony charges are pending against the defendant.(2) Prior to making the order directing that the defendant be committed to the State Department of State Hospitals or other treatment facility or placed on outpatient status, the court shall proceed as follows:(A) The court shall order the community program director or a designee to evaluate the defendant and to submit to the court within 15 judicial days of the order a written recommendation as to whether the defendant should be required to undergo outpatient treatment, or be committed to the State Department of State Hospitals or to any other treatment facility. A person shall not be admitted to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility or placed on outpatient status under this section without having been evaluated by the community program director or a designee. The community program director or designee shall evaluate the appropriate placement for the defendant between a State Department of State Hospitals facility or the community-based residential treatment system based upon guidelines provided by the State Department of State Hospitals.(B) The court shall hear and determine whether the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding the administration of antipsychotic medication. The court shall consider opinions in the reports prepared pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 1369, as applicable to the issue of whether the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding the administration of antipsychotic medication, and shall proceed as follows:(i) The court shall hear and determine whether any of the following is true:(I) The defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication, the defendants mental disorder requires medical treatment with antipsychotic medication, and, if the defendants mental disorder is not treated with antipsychotic medication, it is probable that serious harm to the physical or mental health of the patient will result. Probability of serious harm to the physical or mental health of the defendant requires evidence that the defendant is presently suffering adverse effects to his or her physical or mental health, or the defendant has previously suffered these effects as a result of a mental disorder and his or her condition is substantially deteriorating. The fact that a defendant has a diagnosis of a mental disorder does not alone establish probability of serious harm to the physical or mental health of the defendant.(II) The defendant is a danger to others, in that the defendant has inflicted, attempted to inflict, or made a serious threat of inflicting substantial physical harm on another while in custody, or the defendant had inflicted, attempted to inflict, or made a serious threat of inflicting substantial physical harm on another that resulted in his or her being taken into custody, and the defendant presents, as a result of mental disorder or mental defect, a demonstrated danger of inflicting substantial physical harm on others. Demonstrated danger may be based on an assessment of the defendants present mental condition, including a consideration of past behavior of the defendant within six years prior to the time the defendant last attempted to inflict, inflicted, or threatened to inflict substantial physical harm on another, and other relevant evidence.(III) The people have charged the defendant with a serious crime against the person or property, involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication is substantially likely to render the defendant competent to stand trial, the medication is unlikely to have side effects that interfere with the defendants ability to understand the nature of the criminal proceedings or to assist counsel in the conduct of a defense in a reasonable manner, less intrusive treatments are unlikely to have substantially the same results, and antipsychotic medication is in the patients best medical interest in light of his or her medical condition.(ii) If the court finds any of the conditions described in clause (i) to be true, the court shall issue an order authorizing involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication to the defendant when and as prescribed by the defendants treating psychiatrist at any facility housing the defendant for purposes of this chapter. The order shall be valid for no more than one year, pursuant to subparagraph (A) of paragraph (7). The court shall not order involuntary administration of psychotropic medication under subclause (III) of clause (i) unless the court has first found that the defendant does not meet the criteria for involuntary administration of psychotropic medication under subclause (I) of clause (i) and does not meet the criteria under subclause (II) of clause (i).(iii) In all cases, the treating hospital, facility, or program may administer medically appropriate antipsychotic medication prescribed by a psychiatrist in an emergency as described in subdivision (m) of Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(iv) If the court has determined that the defendant has the capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication, and if the defendant, with advice of his or her counsel, consents, the court order of commitment shall include confirmation that antipsychotic medication may be given to the defendant as prescribed by a treating psychiatrist pursuant to the defendants consent. The commitment order shall also indicate that, if the defendant withdraws consent for antipsychotic medication, after the treating psychiatrist complies with the provisions of subparagraph (C), the defendant shall be returned to court for a hearing in accordance with subparagraphs (C) and (D) regarding whether antipsychotic medication shall be administered involuntarily.(v) If the court has determined that the defendant has the capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication and if the defendant, with advice from his or her counsel, does not consent, the court order for commitment shall indicate that, after the treating psychiatrist complies with the provisions of subparagraph (C), the defendant shall be returned to court for a hearing in accordance with subparagraphs (C) and (D) regarding whether antipsychotic medication shall be administered involuntarily.(vi) A report made pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) shall include a description of antipsychotic medication administered to the defendant and its effects and side effects, including effects on the defendants appearance or behavior that would affect the defendants ability to understand the nature of the criminal proceedings or to assist counsel in the conduct of a defense in a reasonable manner. During the time the defendant is confined in a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility or placed on outpatient status, either the defendant or the people may request that the court review any order made pursuant to this subdivision. The defendant, to the same extent enjoyed by other patients in the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility, shall have the right to contact the patients rights advocate regarding his or her rights under this section.(C) If the defendant consented to antipsychotic medication as described in clause (iv) of subparagraph (B), but subsequently withdraws his or her consent, or, if involuntary antipsychotic medication was not ordered pursuant to clause (v) of subparagraph (B), and the treating psychiatrist determines that antipsychotic medication has become medically necessary and appropriate, the treating psychiatrist shall make efforts to obtain informed consent from the defendant for antipsychotic medication. If informed consent is not obtained from the defendant, and the treating psychiatrist is of the opinion that the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication based on the conditions described in subclause (I) or (II) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B), the treating psychiatrist shall certify whether the lack of capacity and any applicable conditions described above exist. That certification shall contain an assessment of the current mental status of the defendant and the opinion of the treating psychiatrist that involuntary antipsychotic medication has become medically necessary and appropriate.(D) (i) If the treating psychiatrist certifies that antipsychotic medication has become medically necessary and appropriate pursuant to subparagraph (C), antipsychotic medication may be administered to the defendant for not more than 21 days, provided, however, that, within 72 hours of the certification, the defendant is provided a medication review hearing before an administrative law judge to be conducted at the facility where the defendant is receiving treatment. The treating psychiatrist shall present the case for the certification for involuntary treatment and the defendant shall be represented by an attorney or a patients rights advocate. The attorney or patients rights advocate shall be appointed to meet with the defendant no later than one day prior to the medication review hearing to review the defendants rights at the medication review hearing, discuss the process, answer questions or concerns regarding involuntary medication or the hearing, assist the defendant in preparing for the hearing and advocating for his or her interests at the hearing, review the panels final determination following the hearing, advise the defendant of his or her right to judicial review of the panels decision, and provide the defendant with referral information for legal advice on the subject. The defendant shall also have the following rights with respect to the medication review hearing:(I) To be given timely access to the defendants records.(II) To be present at the hearing, unless the defendant waives that right.(III) To present evidence at the hearing.(IV) To question persons presenting evidence supporting involuntary medication.(V) To make reasonable requests for attendance of witnesses on the defendants behalf.(VI) To a hearing conducted in an impartial and informal manner.(ii) If the administrative law judge determines that the defendant either meets the criteria specified in subclause (I) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B), or meets the criteria specified in subclause (II) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B), then antipsychotic medication may continue to be administered to the defendant for the 21-day certification period. Concurrently with the treating psychiatrists certification, the treating psychiatrist shall file a copy of the certification and a petition with the court for issuance of an order to administer antipsychotic medication beyond the 21-day certification period. For purposes of this subparagraph, the treating psychiatrist shall not be required to pay or deposit any fee for the filing of the petition or other document or paper related to the petition.(iii) If the administrative law judge disagrees with the certification, medication may not be administered involuntarily until the court determines that antipsychotic medication should be administered pursuant to this section.(iv) The court shall provide notice to the prosecuting attorney and to the attorney representing the defendant, and shall hold a hearing, no later than 18 days from the date of the certification, to determine whether antipsychotic medication should be ordered beyond the certification period.(v) If, as a result of the hearing, the court determines that antipsychotic medication should be administered beyond the certification period, the court shall issue an order authorizing the administration of that medication.(vi) The court shall render its decision on the petition and issue its order no later than three calendar days after the hearing and, in any event, no later than the expiration of the 21-day certification period.(vii) If the administrative law judge upholds the certification pursuant to clause (ii), the court may, for a period not to exceed 14 days, extend the certification and continue the hearing pursuant to stipulation between the parties or upon a finding of good cause. In determining good cause, the court may review the petition filed with the court, the administrative law judges order, and any additional testimony needed by the court to determine if it is appropriate to continue medication beyond the 21-day certification and for a period of up to 14 days.(viii) The district attorney, county counsel, or representative of a facility where a defendant found incompetent to stand trial is committed may petition the court for an order to administer involuntary medication pursuant to the criteria set forth in subclauses (II) and (III) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B). The order is reviewable as provided in paragraph (7).(3) When the court orders that the defendant be committed to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other public or private treatment facility, the court shall provide copies of the following documents prior to the admission of the defendant to the State Department of State Hospitals or other treatment facility where the defendant is to be committed:(A) The commitment order, including a specification of the charges.(B) A computation or statement setting forth the maximum term of commitment in accordance with subdivision (c).(C) A computation or statement setting forth the amount of credit for time served, if any, to be deducted from the maximum term of commitment.(D) State summary criminal history information.(E) Arrest reports prepared by the police department or other law enforcement agency.(F) Court-ordered psychiatric examination or evaluation reports.(G) The community program directors placement recommendation report.(H) Records of a finding of mental incompetence pursuant to this chapter arising out of a complaint charging a felony offense specified in Section 290 or a pending Section 1368 proceeding arising out of a charge of a Section 290 offense.(I) Medical records.(4) When the defendant is committed to a treatment facility pursuant to clause (i) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) or the court makes the findings specified in clause (ii) or (iii) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) to assign the defendant to a treatment facility other than a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other secure treatment facility, the court shall order that notice be given to the appropriate law enforcement agency or agencies having local jurisdiction at the site of the placement facility of any finding of mental incompetence pursuant to this chapter arising out of a charge of a Section 290 offense.(5) When directing that the defendant be confined in a State Department of State Hospitals facility pursuant to this subdivision, the court shall commit the patient to the State Department of State Hospitals.(6) (A) If the defendant is committed or transferred to the State Department of State Hospitals pursuant to this section, the court may, upon receiving the written recommendation of the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility and the community program director that the defendant be transferred to a public or private treatment facility approved by the community program director, order the defendant transferred to that facility. If the defendant is committed or transferred to a public or private treatment facility approved by the community program director, the court may, upon receiving the written recommendation of the community program director, transfer the defendant to the State Department of State Hospitals or to another public or private treatment facility approved by the community program director. In the event of dismissal of the criminal charges before the defendant recovers competence, the person shall be subject to the applicable provisions of the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act (Part 1 (commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code). If either the defendant or the prosecutor chooses to contest either kind of order of transfer, a petition may be filed in the court for a hearing, which shall be held if the court determines that sufficient grounds exist. At the hearing, the prosecuting attorney or the defendant may present evidence bearing on the order of transfer. The court shall use the same standards as are used in conducting probation revocation hearings pursuant to Section 1203.2.Prior to making an order for transfer under this section, the court shall notify the defendant, the attorney of record for the defendant, the prosecuting attorney, and the community program director or a designee.(B) If the defendant is initially committed to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or secure treatment facility pursuant to clause (ii) or (iii) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) and is subsequently transferred to any other facility, copies of the documents specified in paragraph (3) shall be taken with the defendant to each subsequent facility to which the defendant is transferred. The transferring facility shall also notify the appropriate law enforcement agency or agencies having local jurisdiction at the site of the new facility that the defendant is a person subject to clause (ii) or (iii) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1).(7) (A) An order by the court authorizing involuntary medication of the defendant shall be valid for no more than one year. The court shall review the order at the time of the review of the initial report and the six-month progress reports pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) to determine if the grounds for the authorization remain. In the review, the court shall consider the reports of the treating psychiatrist or psychiatrists and the defendants patients rights advocate or attorney. The court may require testimony from the treating psychiatrist and the patients rights advocate or attorney, if necessary. The court may continue the order authorizing involuntary medication for up to another six months, or vacate the order, or make any other appropriate order.(B) Within 60 days before the expiration of the one-year involuntary medication order, the district attorney, county counsel, or representative of any facility where a defendant found incompetent to stand trial is committed may petition the committing court for a renewal, subject to the same conditions and requirements as in subparagraph (A). The petition shall include the basis for involuntary medication set forth in clause (i) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2). Notice of the petition shall be provided to the defendant, the defendants attorney, and the district attorney. The court shall hear and determine whether the defendant continues to meet the criteria set forth in clause (i) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2). The hearing on any petition to renew an order for involuntary medication shall be conducted prior to the expiration of the current order.(8) For purposes of subparagraph (D) of paragraph (2) and paragraph (7), if the treating psychiatrist determines that there is a need, based on preserving his or her rapport with the patient or preventing harm, the treating psychiatrist may request that the facility medical director designate another psychiatrist to act in the place of the treating psychiatrist. If the medical director of the facility designates another psychiatrist to act pursuant to this paragraph, the treating psychiatrist shall brief the acting psychiatrist of the relevant facts of the case and the acting psychiatrist shall examine the patient prior to the hearing.(b) (1) Within 90 days of a commitment made pursuant to subdivision (a), the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility to which the defendant is confined shall make a written report to the court and the community program director for the county or region of commitment, or a designee, concerning the defendants progress toward recovery of mental competence and whether the administration of antipsychotic medication remains necessary. If the defendant is on outpatient status, the outpatient treatment staff shall make a written report to the community program director concerning the defendants progress toward recovery of mental competence. Within 90 days of placement on outpatient status, the community program director shall report to the court on this matter. If the defendant has not recovered mental competence, but the report discloses a substantial likelihood that the defendant will regain mental competence in the foreseeable future, the defendant shall remain in the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility or on outpatient status. Thereafter, at six-month intervals or until the defendant becomes mentally competent, if the defendant is confined in a treatment facility, the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility or person in charge of the facility shall report in writing to the court and the community program director or a designee regarding the defendants progress toward recovery of mental competence and whether the administration of antipsychotic medication remains necessary. If the defendant is on outpatient status, after the initial 90-day report, the outpatient treatment staff shall report to the community program director on the defendants progress toward recovery, and the community program director shall report to the court on this matter at six-month intervals. A copy of these reports shall be provided to the prosecutor and defense counsel by the court.(A) If the report indicates that there is no substantial likelihood that the defendant will regain mental competence in the foreseeable future, the committing court shall order the defendant to be returned to the court for proceedings pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (c) no later than 10 days following receipt of the report. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the community program director or a designee.(B) If the report indicates that there is no substantial likelihood that the defendant will regain mental competence in the foreseeable future, the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility to which the defendant is confined shall do both of the following:(i) Promptly notify and provide a copy of the report to the defense counsel and the district attorney.(ii) Provide a separate notification, in compliance with applicable privacy laws, to the committing countys sheriff that transportation will be needed for the patient.(2) If the court has issued an order authorizing the treating facility to involuntarily administer antipsychotic medication to the defendant, the reports made pursuant to paragraph (1) concerning the defendants progress toward regaining competency shall also consider the issue of involuntary medication. Each report shall include, but is not limited to, all of the following:(A) Whether or not the defendant has the capacity to make decisions concerning antipsychotic medication.(B) If the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions concerning antipsychotic medication, whether the defendant risks serious harm to his or her physical or mental health if not treated with antipsychotic medication.(C) Whether or not the defendant presents a danger to others if he or she is not treated with antipsychotic medication.(D) Whether the defendant has a mental illness for which medications are the only effective treatment.(E) Whether there are any side effects from the medication currently being experienced by the defendant that would interfere with the defendants ability to collaborate with counsel.(F) Whether there are any effective alternatives to medication.(G) How quickly the medication is likely to bring the defendant to competency.(H) Whether the treatment plan includes methods other than medication to restore the defendant to competency.(I) A statement, if applicable, that no medication is likely to restore the defendant to competency.(3) After reviewing the reports, the court shall determine whether or not grounds for the order authorizing involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication still exist and shall do one of the following:(A) If the original grounds for involuntary medication still exist, the order authorizing the treating facility to involuntarily administer antipsychotic medication to the defendant shall remain in effect.(B) If the original grounds for involuntary medication no longer exist, and there is no other basis for involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication, the order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication shall be vacated.(C) If the original grounds for involuntary medication no longer exist, and the report states that there is another basis for involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication, the court shall set a hearing within 21 days to determine whether the order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication shall be vacated or whether a new order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication shall be issued. The hearing shall proceed as set forth in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a).(4) Any defendant who has been committed or has been on outpatient status for 18 months and is still hospitalized or on outpatient status shall be returned to the committing court where a hearing shall be held pursuant to the procedures set forth in Section 1369. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the community program director or a designee.(5) If it is determined by the court that no treatment for the defendants mental impairment is being conducted, the defendant shall be returned to the committing court. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the community program director or a designee.(6) At each review by the court specified in this subdivision, the court shall determine if the security level of housing and treatment is appropriate and may make an order in accordance with its determination. If the court determines that the defendant shall continue to be treated in the State Department of State Hospitals facility or on an outpatient basis, the court shall determine issues concerning administration of antipsychotic medication, as set forth in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a).(c) (1) At the end of three years from the date of commitment or a period of commitment equal to the maximum term of imprisonment provided by law for the most serious offense charged in the information, indictment, or misdemeanor complaint, or the maximum term of imprisonment provided by law for a violation of probation or mandatory supervision, whichever is shorter, but no later than 90 days prior to the expiration of the defendants term of commitment, a defendant who has not recovered mental competence shall be returned to the committing court. The court shall notify the community program director or a designee of the return and of any resulting court orders.(2) Whenever a defendant is returned to the court pursuant to paragraph (1) or (4) of subdivision (b) or paragraph (1) of this subdivision and it appears to the court that the defendant is gravely disabled, as defined in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (h) of Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the court shall order the conservatorship investigator of the county of commitment of the defendant to initiate conservatorship proceedings for the defendant pursuant to Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 5350) of Part 1 of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. Hearings required in the conservatorship proceedings shall be held in the superior court in the county that ordered the commitment. The court shall transmit a copy of the order directing initiation of conservatorship proceedings to the community program director or a designee, the sheriff and the district attorney of the county in which criminal charges are pending, and the defendants counsel of record. The court shall notify the community program director or a designee, the sheriff and district attorney of the county in which criminal charges are pending, and the defendants counsel of record of the outcome of the conservatorship proceedings.(3) If a change in placement is proposed for a defendant who is committed pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (h) of Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the court shall provide notice and an opportunity to be heard with respect to the proposed placement of the defendant to the sheriff and the district attorney of the county in which the criminal charges or revocation proceedings are pending.(4) If the defendant is confined in a treatment facility, a copy of any report to the committing court regarding the defendants progress toward recovery of mental competence shall be provided by the committing court to the prosecutor and to the defense counsel.(d) With the exception of proceedings alleging a violation of mandatory supervision, the criminal action remains subject to dismissal pursuant to Section 1385. If the criminal action is dismissed, the court shall transmit a copy of the order of dismissal to the community program director or a designee. In a proceeding alleging a violation of mandatory supervision, if the person is not placed under a conservatorship as described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (c), or if a conservatorship is terminated, the court shall reinstate mandatory supervision and may modify the terms and conditions of supervision to include appropriate mental health treatment or refer the matter to a local mental health court, reentry court, or other collaborative justice court available for improving the mental health of the defendant.(e) If the criminal action against the defendant is dismissed, the defendant shall be released from commitment ordered under this section, but without prejudice to the initiation of any proceedings that may be appropriate under the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act (Part 1 (commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code).(f) As used in this chapter, community program director means the person, agency, or entity designated by the State Department of State Hospitals pursuant to Section 1605 of this code and Section 4360 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(g) For the purpose of this section, secure treatment facility shall not include, except for State Department of State Hospitals facilities, state developmental centers, and correctional treatment facilities, any facility licensed pursuant to Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 1250) of, Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 1500) of, or Chapter 3.2 (commencing with Section 1569) of, Division 2 of the Health and Safety Code, or any community board and care facility.(h) Nothing in this section shall preclude a defendant from filing a petition for habeas corpus to challenge the continuing validity of an order authorizing a treatment facility or outpatient program to involuntarily administer antipsychotic medication to a person being treated as incompetent to stand trial.
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10981109 1370. (a) (1) (A) If the defendant is found mentally competent, the criminal process shall resume, the trial on the offense charged or hearing on the alleged violation shall proceed, and judgment may be pronounced.(B) If the defendant is found mentally incompetent, the trial, the hearing on the alleged violation, or the judgment shall be suspended until the person becomes mentally competent.(i) In the meantime, the court shall order that the mentally incompetent defendant be delivered by the sheriff to a State Department of State Hospitals facility, as defined in Section 4100 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, for the care and treatment of the mentally disordered, as directed by the State Department of State Hospitals, or to any other available public or private treatment facility, including a community-based residential treatment system established pursuant to Article 1 (commencing with Section 5670) of Chapter 2.5 of Part 2 of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code if the facility has a secured perimeter or a locked and controlled treatment facility, approved by the community program director that will promote the defendants speedy restoration to mental competence, or placed on outpatient status as specified in Section 1600.(ii) However, if the action against the defendant who has been found mentally incompetent is on a complaint charging a felony offense specified in Section 290, the prosecutor shall determine whether the defendant previously has been found mentally incompetent to stand trial pursuant to this chapter on a charge of a Section 290 offense, or whether the defendant is currently the subject of a pending Section 1368 proceeding arising out of a charge of a Section 290 offense. If either determination is made, the prosecutor shall so notify the court and defendant in writing. After this notification, and opportunity for hearing, the court shall order that the defendant be delivered by the sheriff to a State Department of State Hospitals facility, as directed by the State Department of State Hospitals, or other secure treatment facility for the care and treatment of the mentally disordered unless the court makes specific findings on the record that an alternative placement would provide more appropriate treatment for the defendant and would not pose a danger to the health and safety of others.(iii) If the action against the defendant who has been found mentally incompetent is on a complaint charging a felony offense specified in Section 290 and the defendant has been denied bail pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 12 of Article I of the California Constitution because the court has found, based upon clear and convincing evidence, a substantial likelihood that the persons release would result in great bodily harm to others, the court shall order that the defendant be delivered by the sheriff to a State Department of State Hospitals facility, for the care and treatment of the mentally disordered, as directed by the State Department of State Hospitals, unless the court makes specific findings on the record that an alternative placement would provide more appropriate treatment for the defendant and would not pose a danger to the health and safety of others.(iv) The clerk of the court shall notify the Department of Justice in writing of a finding of mental incompetence with respect to a defendant who is subject to clause (ii) or (iii) for inclusion in his or her state summary criminal history information.(C) Upon the filing of a certificate of restoration to competence, the court shall order that the defendant be returned to court in accordance with Section 1372. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the community program director or a designee.(D) A defendant charged with a violent felony may not be delivered to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or treatment facility pursuant to this subdivision unless the State Department of State Hospitals facility or treatment facility has a secured perimeter or a locked and controlled treatment facility, and the judge determines that the public safety will be protected.(E) For purposes of this paragraph, violent felony means an offense specified in subdivision (c) of Section 667.5.(F) A defendant charged with a violent felony may be placed on outpatient status, as specified in Section 1600, only if the court finds that the placement will not pose a danger to the health or safety of others. If the court places a defendant charged with a violent felony on outpatient status, as specified in Section 1600, the court shall serve copies of the placement order on defense counsel, the sheriff in the county where the defendant will be placed, and the district attorney for the county in which the violent felony charges are pending against the defendant.(2) Prior to making the order directing that the defendant be committed to the State Department of State Hospitals or other treatment facility or placed on outpatient status, the court shall proceed as follows:(A) The court shall order the community program director or a designee to evaluate the defendant and to submit to the court within 15 judicial days of the order a written recommendation as to whether the defendant should be required to undergo outpatient treatment, or be committed to the State Department of State Hospitals or to any other treatment facility. A person shall not be admitted to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility or placed on outpatient status under this section without having been evaluated by the community program director or a designee. The community program director or designee shall evaluate the appropriate placement for the defendant between a State Department of State Hospitals facility or the community-based residential treatment system based upon guidelines provided by the State Department of State Hospitals.(B) The court shall hear and determine whether the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding the administration of antipsychotic medication. The court shall consider opinions in the reports prepared pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 1369, as applicable to the issue of whether the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding the administration of antipsychotic medication, and shall proceed as follows:(i) The court shall hear and determine whether any of the following is true:(I) The defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication, the defendants mental disorder requires medical treatment with antipsychotic medication, and, if the defendants mental disorder is not treated with antipsychotic medication, it is probable that serious harm to the physical or mental health of the patient will result. Probability of serious harm to the physical or mental health of the defendant requires evidence that the defendant is presently suffering adverse effects to his or her physical or mental health, or the defendant has previously suffered these effects as a result of a mental disorder and his or her condition is substantially deteriorating. The fact that a defendant has a diagnosis of a mental disorder does not alone establish probability of serious harm to the physical or mental health of the defendant.(II) The defendant is a danger to others, in that the defendant has inflicted, attempted to inflict, or made a serious threat of inflicting substantial physical harm on another while in custody, or the defendant had inflicted, attempted to inflict, or made a serious threat of inflicting substantial physical harm on another that resulted in his or her being taken into custody, and the defendant presents, as a result of mental disorder or mental defect, a demonstrated danger of inflicting substantial physical harm on others. Demonstrated danger may be based on an assessment of the defendants present mental condition, including a consideration of past behavior of the defendant within six years prior to the time the defendant last attempted to inflict, inflicted, or threatened to inflict substantial physical harm on another, and other relevant evidence.(III) The people have charged the defendant with a serious crime against the person or property, involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication is substantially likely to render the defendant competent to stand trial, the medication is unlikely to have side effects that interfere with the defendants ability to understand the nature of the criminal proceedings or to assist counsel in the conduct of a defense in a reasonable manner, less intrusive treatments are unlikely to have substantially the same results, and antipsychotic medication is in the patients best medical interest in light of his or her medical condition.(ii) If the court finds any of the conditions described in clause (i) to be true, the court shall issue an order authorizing involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication to the defendant when and as prescribed by the defendants treating psychiatrist at any facility housing the defendant for purposes of this chapter. The order shall be valid for no more than one year, pursuant to subparagraph (A) of paragraph (7). The court shall not order involuntary administration of psychotropic medication under subclause (III) of clause (i) unless the court has first found that the defendant does not meet the criteria for involuntary administration of psychotropic medication under subclause (I) of clause (i) and does not meet the criteria under subclause (II) of clause (i).(iii) In all cases, the treating hospital, facility, or program may administer medically appropriate antipsychotic medication prescribed by a psychiatrist in an emergency as described in subdivision (m) of Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(iv) If the court has determined that the defendant has the capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication, and if the defendant, with advice of his or her counsel, consents, the court order of commitment shall include confirmation that antipsychotic medication may be given to the defendant as prescribed by a treating psychiatrist pursuant to the defendants consent. The commitment order shall also indicate that, if the defendant withdraws consent for antipsychotic medication, after the treating psychiatrist complies with the provisions of subparagraph (C), the defendant shall be returned to court for a hearing in accordance with subparagraphs (C) and (D) regarding whether antipsychotic medication shall be administered involuntarily.(v) If the court has determined that the defendant has the capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication and if the defendant, with advice from his or her counsel, does not consent, the court order for commitment shall indicate that, after the treating psychiatrist complies with the provisions of subparagraph (C), the defendant shall be returned to court for a hearing in accordance with subparagraphs (C) and (D) regarding whether antipsychotic medication shall be administered involuntarily.(vi) A report made pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) shall include a description of antipsychotic medication administered to the defendant and its effects and side effects, including effects on the defendants appearance or behavior that would affect the defendants ability to understand the nature of the criminal proceedings or to assist counsel in the conduct of a defense in a reasonable manner. During the time the defendant is confined in a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility or placed on outpatient status, either the defendant or the people may request that the court review any order made pursuant to this subdivision. The defendant, to the same extent enjoyed by other patients in the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility, shall have the right to contact the patients rights advocate regarding his or her rights under this section.(C) If the defendant consented to antipsychotic medication as described in clause (iv) of subparagraph (B), but subsequently withdraws his or her consent, or, if involuntary antipsychotic medication was not ordered pursuant to clause (v) of subparagraph (B), and the treating psychiatrist determines that antipsychotic medication has become medically necessary and appropriate, the treating psychiatrist shall make efforts to obtain informed consent from the defendant for antipsychotic medication. If informed consent is not obtained from the defendant, and the treating psychiatrist is of the opinion that the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication based on the conditions described in subclause (I) or (II) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B), the treating psychiatrist shall certify whether the lack of capacity and any applicable conditions described above exist. That certification shall contain an assessment of the current mental status of the defendant and the opinion of the treating psychiatrist that involuntary antipsychotic medication has become medically necessary and appropriate.(D) (i) If the treating psychiatrist certifies that antipsychotic medication has become medically necessary and appropriate pursuant to subparagraph (C), antipsychotic medication may be administered to the defendant for not more than 21 days, provided, however, that, within 72 hours of the certification, the defendant is provided a medication review hearing before an administrative law judge to be conducted at the facility where the defendant is receiving treatment. The treating psychiatrist shall present the case for the certification for involuntary treatment and the defendant shall be represented by an attorney or a patients rights advocate. The attorney or patients rights advocate shall be appointed to meet with the defendant no later than one day prior to the medication review hearing to review the defendants rights at the medication review hearing, discuss the process, answer questions or concerns regarding involuntary medication or the hearing, assist the defendant in preparing for the hearing and advocating for his or her interests at the hearing, review the panels final determination following the hearing, advise the defendant of his or her right to judicial review of the panels decision, and provide the defendant with referral information for legal advice on the subject. The defendant shall also have the following rights with respect to the medication review hearing:(I) To be given timely access to the defendants records.(II) To be present at the hearing, unless the defendant waives that right.(III) To present evidence at the hearing.(IV) To question persons presenting evidence supporting involuntary medication.(V) To make reasonable requests for attendance of witnesses on the defendants behalf.(VI) To a hearing conducted in an impartial and informal manner.(ii) If the administrative law judge determines that the defendant either meets the criteria specified in subclause (I) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B), or meets the criteria specified in subclause (II) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B), then antipsychotic medication may continue to be administered to the defendant for the 21-day certification period. Concurrently with the treating psychiatrists certification, the treating psychiatrist shall file a copy of the certification and a petition with the court for issuance of an order to administer antipsychotic medication beyond the 21-day certification period. For purposes of this subparagraph, the treating psychiatrist shall not be required to pay or deposit any fee for the filing of the petition or other document or paper related to the petition.(iii) If the administrative law judge disagrees with the certification, medication may not be administered involuntarily until the court determines that antipsychotic medication should be administered pursuant to this section.(iv) The court shall provide notice to the prosecuting attorney and to the attorney representing the defendant, and shall hold a hearing, no later than 18 days from the date of the certification, to determine whether antipsychotic medication should be ordered beyond the certification period.(v) If, as a result of the hearing, the court determines that antipsychotic medication should be administered beyond the certification period, the court shall issue an order authorizing the administration of that medication.(vi) The court shall render its decision on the petition and issue its order no later than three calendar days after the hearing and, in any event, no later than the expiration of the 21-day certification period.(vii) If the administrative law judge upholds the certification pursuant to clause (ii), the court may, for a period not to exceed 14 days, extend the certification and continue the hearing pursuant to stipulation between the parties or upon a finding of good cause. In determining good cause, the court may review the petition filed with the court, the administrative law judges order, and any additional testimony needed by the court to determine if it is appropriate to continue medication beyond the 21-day certification and for a period of up to 14 days.(viii) The district attorney, county counsel, or representative of a facility where a defendant found incompetent to stand trial is committed may petition the court for an order to administer involuntary medication pursuant to the criteria set forth in subclauses (II) and (III) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B). The order is reviewable as provided in paragraph (7).(3) When the court orders that the defendant be committed to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other public or private treatment facility, the court shall provide copies of the following documents prior to the admission of the defendant to the State Department of State Hospitals or other treatment facility where the defendant is to be committed:(A) The commitment order, including a specification of the charges.(B) A computation or statement setting forth the maximum term of commitment in accordance with subdivision (c).(C) A computation or statement setting forth the amount of credit for time served, if any, to be deducted from the maximum term of commitment.(D) State summary criminal history information.(E) Arrest reports prepared by the police department or other law enforcement agency.(F) Court-ordered psychiatric examination or evaluation reports.(G) The community program directors placement recommendation report.(H) Records of a finding of mental incompetence pursuant to this chapter arising out of a complaint charging a felony offense specified in Section 290 or a pending Section 1368 proceeding arising out of a charge of a Section 290 offense.(I) Medical records.(4) When the defendant is committed to a treatment facility pursuant to clause (i) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) or the court makes the findings specified in clause (ii) or (iii) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) to assign the defendant to a treatment facility other than a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other secure treatment facility, the court shall order that notice be given to the appropriate law enforcement agency or agencies having local jurisdiction at the site of the placement facility of any finding of mental incompetence pursuant to this chapter arising out of a charge of a Section 290 offense.(5) When directing that the defendant be confined in a State Department of State Hospitals facility pursuant to this subdivision, the court shall commit the patient to the State Department of State Hospitals.(6) (A) If the defendant is committed or transferred to the State Department of State Hospitals pursuant to this section, the court may, upon receiving the written recommendation of the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility and the community program director that the defendant be transferred to a public or private treatment facility approved by the community program director, order the defendant transferred to that facility. If the defendant is committed or transferred to a public or private treatment facility approved by the community program director, the court may, upon receiving the written recommendation of the community program director, transfer the defendant to the State Department of State Hospitals or to another public or private treatment facility approved by the community program director. In the event of dismissal of the criminal charges before the defendant recovers competence, the person shall be subject to the applicable provisions of the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act (Part 1 (commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code). If either the defendant or the prosecutor chooses to contest either kind of order of transfer, a petition may be filed in the court for a hearing, which shall be held if the court determines that sufficient grounds exist. At the hearing, the prosecuting attorney or the defendant may present evidence bearing on the order of transfer. The court shall use the same standards as are used in conducting probation revocation hearings pursuant to Section 1203.2.Prior to making an order for transfer under this section, the court shall notify the defendant, the attorney of record for the defendant, the prosecuting attorney, and the community program director or a designee.(B) If the defendant is initially committed to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or secure treatment facility pursuant to clause (ii) or (iii) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) and is subsequently transferred to any other facility, copies of the documents specified in paragraph (3) shall be taken with the defendant to each subsequent facility to which the defendant is transferred. The transferring facility shall also notify the appropriate law enforcement agency or agencies having local jurisdiction at the site of the new facility that the defendant is a person subject to clause (ii) or (iii) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1).(7) (A) An order by the court authorizing involuntary medication of the defendant shall be valid for no more than one year. The court shall review the order at the time of the review of the initial report and the six-month progress reports pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) to determine if the grounds for the authorization remain. In the review, the court shall consider the reports of the treating psychiatrist or psychiatrists and the defendants patients rights advocate or attorney. The court may require testimony from the treating psychiatrist and the patients rights advocate or attorney, if necessary. The court may continue the order authorizing involuntary medication for up to another six months, or vacate the order, or make any other appropriate order.(B) Within 60 days before the expiration of the one-year involuntary medication order, the district attorney, county counsel, or representative of any facility where a defendant found incompetent to stand trial is committed may petition the committing court for a renewal, subject to the same conditions and requirements as in subparagraph (A). The petition shall include the basis for involuntary medication set forth in clause (i) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2). Notice of the petition shall be provided to the defendant, the defendants attorney, and the district attorney. The court shall hear and determine whether the defendant continues to meet the criteria set forth in clause (i) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2). The hearing on any petition to renew an order for involuntary medication shall be conducted prior to the expiration of the current order.(8) For purposes of subparagraph (D) of paragraph (2) and paragraph (7), if the treating psychiatrist determines that there is a need, based on preserving his or her rapport with the patient or preventing harm, the treating psychiatrist may request that the facility medical director designate another psychiatrist to act in the place of the treating psychiatrist. If the medical director of the facility designates another psychiatrist to act pursuant to this paragraph, the treating psychiatrist shall brief the acting psychiatrist of the relevant facts of the case and the acting psychiatrist shall examine the patient prior to the hearing.(b) (1) Within 90 days of a commitment made pursuant to subdivision (a), the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility to which the defendant is confined shall make a written report to the court and the community program director for the county or region of commitment, or a designee, concerning the defendants progress toward recovery of mental competence and whether the administration of antipsychotic medication remains necessary. If the defendant is on outpatient status, the outpatient treatment staff shall make a written report to the community program director concerning the defendants progress toward recovery of mental competence. Within 90 days of placement on outpatient status, the community program director shall report to the court on this matter. If the defendant has not recovered mental competence, but the report discloses a substantial likelihood that the defendant will regain mental competence in the foreseeable future, the defendant shall remain in the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility or on outpatient status. Thereafter, at six-month intervals or until the defendant becomes mentally competent, if the defendant is confined in a treatment facility, the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility or person in charge of the facility shall report in writing to the court and the community program director or a designee regarding the defendants progress toward recovery of mental competence and whether the administration of antipsychotic medication remains necessary. If the defendant is on outpatient status, after the initial 90-day report, the outpatient treatment staff shall report to the community program director on the defendants progress toward recovery, and the community program director shall report to the court on this matter at six-month intervals. A copy of these reports shall be provided to the prosecutor and defense counsel by the court.(A) If the report indicates that there is no substantial likelihood that the defendant will regain mental competence in the foreseeable future, the committing court shall order the defendant to be returned to the court for proceedings pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (c) no later than 10 days following receipt of the report. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the community program director or a designee.(B) If the report indicates that there is no substantial likelihood that the defendant will regain mental competence in the foreseeable future, the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility to which the defendant is confined shall do both of the following:(i) Promptly notify and provide a copy of the report to the defense counsel and the district attorney.(ii) Provide a separate notification, in compliance with applicable privacy laws, to the committing countys sheriff that transportation will be needed for the patient.(2) If the court has issued an order authorizing the treating facility to involuntarily administer antipsychotic medication to the defendant, the reports made pursuant to paragraph (1) concerning the defendants progress toward regaining competency shall also consider the issue of involuntary medication. Each report shall include, but is not limited to, all of the following:(A) Whether or not the defendant has the capacity to make decisions concerning antipsychotic medication.(B) If the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions concerning antipsychotic medication, whether the defendant risks serious harm to his or her physical or mental health if not treated with antipsychotic medication.(C) Whether or not the defendant presents a danger to others if he or she is not treated with antipsychotic medication.(D) Whether the defendant has a mental illness for which medications are the only effective treatment.(E) Whether there are any side effects from the medication currently being experienced by the defendant that would interfere with the defendants ability to collaborate with counsel.(F) Whether there are any effective alternatives to medication.(G) How quickly the medication is likely to bring the defendant to competency.(H) Whether the treatment plan includes methods other than medication to restore the defendant to competency.(I) A statement, if applicable, that no medication is likely to restore the defendant to competency.(3) After reviewing the reports, the court shall determine whether or not grounds for the order authorizing involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication still exist and shall do one of the following:(A) If the original grounds for involuntary medication still exist, the order authorizing the treating facility to involuntarily administer antipsychotic medication to the defendant shall remain in effect.(B) If the original grounds for involuntary medication no longer exist, and there is no other basis for involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication, the order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication shall be vacated.(C) If the original grounds for involuntary medication no longer exist, and the report states that there is another basis for involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication, the court shall set a hearing within 21 days to determine whether the order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication shall be vacated or whether a new order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication shall be issued. The hearing shall proceed as set forth in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a).(4) Any defendant who has been committed or has been on outpatient status for 18 months and is still hospitalized or on outpatient status shall be returned to the committing court where a hearing shall be held pursuant to the procedures set forth in Section 1369. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the community program director or a designee.(5) If it is determined by the court that no treatment for the defendants mental impairment is being conducted, the defendant shall be returned to the committing court. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the community program director or a designee.(6) At each review by the court specified in this subdivision, the court shall determine if the security level of housing and treatment is appropriate and may make an order in accordance with its determination. If the court determines that the defendant shall continue to be treated in the State Department of State Hospitals facility or on an outpatient basis, the court shall determine issues concerning administration of antipsychotic medication, as set forth in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a).(c) (1) At the end of three years from the date of commitment or a period of commitment equal to the maximum term of imprisonment provided by law for the most serious offense charged in the information, indictment, or misdemeanor complaint, or the maximum term of imprisonment provided by law for a violation of probation or mandatory supervision, whichever is shorter, but no later than 90 days prior to the expiration of the defendants term of commitment, a defendant who has not recovered mental competence shall be returned to the committing court. The court shall notify the community program director or a designee of the return and of any resulting court orders.(2) Whenever a defendant is returned to the court pursuant to paragraph (1) or (4) of subdivision (b) or paragraph (1) of this subdivision and it appears to the court that the defendant is gravely disabled, as defined in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (h) of Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the court shall order the conservatorship investigator of the county of commitment of the defendant to initiate conservatorship proceedings for the defendant pursuant to Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 5350) of Part 1 of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. Hearings required in the conservatorship proceedings shall be held in the superior court in the county that ordered the commitment. The court shall transmit a copy of the order directing initiation of conservatorship proceedings to the community program director or a designee, the sheriff and the district attorney of the county in which criminal charges are pending, and the defendants counsel of record. The court shall notify the community program director or a designee, the sheriff and district attorney of the county in which criminal charges are pending, and the defendants counsel of record of the outcome of the conservatorship proceedings.(3) If a change in placement is proposed for a defendant who is committed pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (h) of Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the court shall provide notice and an opportunity to be heard with respect to the proposed placement of the defendant to the sheriff and the district attorney of the county in which the criminal charges or revocation proceedings are pending.(4) If the defendant is confined in a treatment facility, a copy of any report to the committing court regarding the defendants progress toward recovery of mental competence shall be provided by the committing court to the prosecutor and to the defense counsel.(d) With the exception of proceedings alleging a violation of mandatory supervision, the criminal action remains subject to dismissal pursuant to Section 1385. If the criminal action is dismissed, the court shall transmit a copy of the order of dismissal to the community program director or a designee. In a proceeding alleging a violation of mandatory supervision, if the person is not placed under a conservatorship as described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (c), or if a conservatorship is terminated, the court shall reinstate mandatory supervision and may modify the terms and conditions of supervision to include appropriate mental health treatment or refer the matter to a local mental health court, reentry court, or other collaborative justice court available for improving the mental health of the defendant.(e) If the criminal action against the defendant is dismissed, the defendant shall be released from commitment ordered under this section, but without prejudice to the initiation of any proceedings that may be appropriate under the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act (Part 1 (commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code).(f) As used in this chapter, community program director means the person, agency, or entity designated by the State Department of State Hospitals pursuant to Section 1605 of this code and Section 4360 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(g) For the purpose of this section, secure treatment facility shall not include, except for State Department of State Hospitals facilities, state developmental centers, and correctional treatment facilities, any facility licensed pursuant to Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 1250) of, Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 1500) of, or Chapter 3.2 (commencing with Section 1569) of, Division 2 of the Health and Safety Code, or any community board and care facility.(h) Nothing in this section shall preclude a defendant from filing a petition for habeas corpus to challenge the continuing validity of an order authorizing a treatment facility or outpatient program to involuntarily administer antipsychotic medication to a person being treated as incompetent to stand trial.
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11001111 1370. (a) (1) (A) If the defendant is found mentally competent, the criminal process shall resume, the trial on the offense charged or hearing on the alleged violation shall proceed, and judgment may be pronounced.(B) If the defendant is found mentally incompetent, the trial, the hearing on the alleged violation, or the judgment shall be suspended until the person becomes mentally competent.(i) In the meantime, the court shall order that the mentally incompetent defendant be delivered by the sheriff to a State Department of State Hospitals facility, as defined in Section 4100 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, for the care and treatment of the mentally disordered, as directed by the State Department of State Hospitals, or to any other available public or private treatment facility, including a community-based residential treatment system established pursuant to Article 1 (commencing with Section 5670) of Chapter 2.5 of Part 2 of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code if the facility has a secured perimeter or a locked and controlled treatment facility, approved by the community program director that will promote the defendants speedy restoration to mental competence, or placed on outpatient status as specified in Section 1600.(ii) However, if the action against the defendant who has been found mentally incompetent is on a complaint charging a felony offense specified in Section 290, the prosecutor shall determine whether the defendant previously has been found mentally incompetent to stand trial pursuant to this chapter on a charge of a Section 290 offense, or whether the defendant is currently the subject of a pending Section 1368 proceeding arising out of a charge of a Section 290 offense. If either determination is made, the prosecutor shall so notify the court and defendant in writing. After this notification, and opportunity for hearing, the court shall order that the defendant be delivered by the sheriff to a State Department of State Hospitals facility, as directed by the State Department of State Hospitals, or other secure treatment facility for the care and treatment of the mentally disordered unless the court makes specific findings on the record that an alternative placement would provide more appropriate treatment for the defendant and would not pose a danger to the health and safety of others.(iii) If the action against the defendant who has been found mentally incompetent is on a complaint charging a felony offense specified in Section 290 and the defendant has been denied bail pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 12 of Article I of the California Constitution because the court has found, based upon clear and convincing evidence, a substantial likelihood that the persons release would result in great bodily harm to others, the court shall order that the defendant be delivered by the sheriff to a State Department of State Hospitals facility, for the care and treatment of the mentally disordered, as directed by the State Department of State Hospitals, unless the court makes specific findings on the record that an alternative placement would provide more appropriate treatment for the defendant and would not pose a danger to the health and safety of others.(iv) The clerk of the court shall notify the Department of Justice in writing of a finding of mental incompetence with respect to a defendant who is subject to clause (ii) or (iii) for inclusion in his or her state summary criminal history information.(C) Upon the filing of a certificate of restoration to competence, the court shall order that the defendant be returned to court in accordance with Section 1372. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the community program director or a designee.(D) A defendant charged with a violent felony may not be delivered to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or treatment facility pursuant to this subdivision unless the State Department of State Hospitals facility or treatment facility has a secured perimeter or a locked and controlled treatment facility, and the judge determines that the public safety will be protected.(E) For purposes of this paragraph, violent felony means an offense specified in subdivision (c) of Section 667.5.(F) A defendant charged with a violent felony may be placed on outpatient status, as specified in Section 1600, only if the court finds that the placement will not pose a danger to the health or safety of others. If the court places a defendant charged with a violent felony on outpatient status, as specified in Section 1600, the court shall serve copies of the placement order on defense counsel, the sheriff in the county where the defendant will be placed, and the district attorney for the county in which the violent felony charges are pending against the defendant.(2) Prior to making the order directing that the defendant be committed to the State Department of State Hospitals or other treatment facility or placed on outpatient status, the court shall proceed as follows:(A) The court shall order the community program director or a designee to evaluate the defendant and to submit to the court within 15 judicial days of the order a written recommendation as to whether the defendant should be required to undergo outpatient treatment, or be committed to the State Department of State Hospitals or to any other treatment facility. A person shall not be admitted to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility or placed on outpatient status under this section without having been evaluated by the community program director or a designee. The community program director or designee shall evaluate the appropriate placement for the defendant between a State Department of State Hospitals facility or the community-based residential treatment system based upon guidelines provided by the State Department of State Hospitals.(B) The court shall hear and determine whether the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding the administration of antipsychotic medication. The court shall consider opinions in the reports prepared pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 1369, as applicable to the issue of whether the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding the administration of antipsychotic medication, and shall proceed as follows:(i) The court shall hear and determine whether any of the following is true:(I) The defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication, the defendants mental disorder requires medical treatment with antipsychotic medication, and, if the defendants mental disorder is not treated with antipsychotic medication, it is probable that serious harm to the physical or mental health of the patient will result. Probability of serious harm to the physical or mental health of the defendant requires evidence that the defendant is presently suffering adverse effects to his or her physical or mental health, or the defendant has previously suffered these effects as a result of a mental disorder and his or her condition is substantially deteriorating. The fact that a defendant has a diagnosis of a mental disorder does not alone establish probability of serious harm to the physical or mental health of the defendant.(II) The defendant is a danger to others, in that the defendant has inflicted, attempted to inflict, or made a serious threat of inflicting substantial physical harm on another while in custody, or the defendant had inflicted, attempted to inflict, or made a serious threat of inflicting substantial physical harm on another that resulted in his or her being taken into custody, and the defendant presents, as a result of mental disorder or mental defect, a demonstrated danger of inflicting substantial physical harm on others. Demonstrated danger may be based on an assessment of the defendants present mental condition, including a consideration of past behavior of the defendant within six years prior to the time the defendant last attempted to inflict, inflicted, or threatened to inflict substantial physical harm on another, and other relevant evidence.(III) The people have charged the defendant with a serious crime against the person or property, involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication is substantially likely to render the defendant competent to stand trial, the medication is unlikely to have side effects that interfere with the defendants ability to understand the nature of the criminal proceedings or to assist counsel in the conduct of a defense in a reasonable manner, less intrusive treatments are unlikely to have substantially the same results, and antipsychotic medication is in the patients best medical interest in light of his or her medical condition.(ii) If the court finds any of the conditions described in clause (i) to be true, the court shall issue an order authorizing involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication to the defendant when and as prescribed by the defendants treating psychiatrist at any facility housing the defendant for purposes of this chapter. The order shall be valid for no more than one year, pursuant to subparagraph (A) of paragraph (7). The court shall not order involuntary administration of psychotropic medication under subclause (III) of clause (i) unless the court has first found that the defendant does not meet the criteria for involuntary administration of psychotropic medication under subclause (I) of clause (i) and does not meet the criteria under subclause (II) of clause (i).(iii) In all cases, the treating hospital, facility, or program may administer medically appropriate antipsychotic medication prescribed by a psychiatrist in an emergency as described in subdivision (m) of Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(iv) If the court has determined that the defendant has the capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication, and if the defendant, with advice of his or her counsel, consents, the court order of commitment shall include confirmation that antipsychotic medication may be given to the defendant as prescribed by a treating psychiatrist pursuant to the defendants consent. The commitment order shall also indicate that, if the defendant withdraws consent for antipsychotic medication, after the treating psychiatrist complies with the provisions of subparagraph (C), the defendant shall be returned to court for a hearing in accordance with subparagraphs (C) and (D) regarding whether antipsychotic medication shall be administered involuntarily.(v) If the court has determined that the defendant has the capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication and if the defendant, with advice from his or her counsel, does not consent, the court order for commitment shall indicate that, after the treating psychiatrist complies with the provisions of subparagraph (C), the defendant shall be returned to court for a hearing in accordance with subparagraphs (C) and (D) regarding whether antipsychotic medication shall be administered involuntarily.(vi) A report made pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) shall include a description of antipsychotic medication administered to the defendant and its effects and side effects, including effects on the defendants appearance or behavior that would affect the defendants ability to understand the nature of the criminal proceedings or to assist counsel in the conduct of a defense in a reasonable manner. During the time the defendant is confined in a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility or placed on outpatient status, either the defendant or the people may request that the court review any order made pursuant to this subdivision. The defendant, to the same extent enjoyed by other patients in the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility, shall have the right to contact the patients rights advocate regarding his or her rights under this section.(C) If the defendant consented to antipsychotic medication as described in clause (iv) of subparagraph (B), but subsequently withdraws his or her consent, or, if involuntary antipsychotic medication was not ordered pursuant to clause (v) of subparagraph (B), and the treating psychiatrist determines that antipsychotic medication has become medically necessary and appropriate, the treating psychiatrist shall make efforts to obtain informed consent from the defendant for antipsychotic medication. If informed consent is not obtained from the defendant, and the treating psychiatrist is of the opinion that the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication based on the conditions described in subclause (I) or (II) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B), the treating psychiatrist shall certify whether the lack of capacity and any applicable conditions described above exist. That certification shall contain an assessment of the current mental status of the defendant and the opinion of the treating psychiatrist that involuntary antipsychotic medication has become medically necessary and appropriate.(D) (i) If the treating psychiatrist certifies that antipsychotic medication has become medically necessary and appropriate pursuant to subparagraph (C), antipsychotic medication may be administered to the defendant for not more than 21 days, provided, however, that, within 72 hours of the certification, the defendant is provided a medication review hearing before an administrative law judge to be conducted at the facility where the defendant is receiving treatment. The treating psychiatrist shall present the case for the certification for involuntary treatment and the defendant shall be represented by an attorney or a patients rights advocate. The attorney or patients rights advocate shall be appointed to meet with the defendant no later than one day prior to the medication review hearing to review the defendants rights at the medication review hearing, discuss the process, answer questions or concerns regarding involuntary medication or the hearing, assist the defendant in preparing for the hearing and advocating for his or her interests at the hearing, review the panels final determination following the hearing, advise the defendant of his or her right to judicial review of the panels decision, and provide the defendant with referral information for legal advice on the subject. The defendant shall also have the following rights with respect to the medication review hearing:(I) To be given timely access to the defendants records.(II) To be present at the hearing, unless the defendant waives that right.(III) To present evidence at the hearing.(IV) To question persons presenting evidence supporting involuntary medication.(V) To make reasonable requests for attendance of witnesses on the defendants behalf.(VI) To a hearing conducted in an impartial and informal manner.(ii) If the administrative law judge determines that the defendant either meets the criteria specified in subclause (I) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B), or meets the criteria specified in subclause (II) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B), then antipsychotic medication may continue to be administered to the defendant for the 21-day certification period. Concurrently with the treating psychiatrists certification, the treating psychiatrist shall file a copy of the certification and a petition with the court for issuance of an order to administer antipsychotic medication beyond the 21-day certification period. For purposes of this subparagraph, the treating psychiatrist shall not be required to pay or deposit any fee for the filing of the petition or other document or paper related to the petition.(iii) If the administrative law judge disagrees with the certification, medication may not be administered involuntarily until the court determines that antipsychotic medication should be administered pursuant to this section.(iv) The court shall provide notice to the prosecuting attorney and to the attorney representing the defendant, and shall hold a hearing, no later than 18 days from the date of the certification, to determine whether antipsychotic medication should be ordered beyond the certification period.(v) If, as a result of the hearing, the court determines that antipsychotic medication should be administered beyond the certification period, the court shall issue an order authorizing the administration of that medication.(vi) The court shall render its decision on the petition and issue its order no later than three calendar days after the hearing and, in any event, no later than the expiration of the 21-day certification period.(vii) If the administrative law judge upholds the certification pursuant to clause (ii), the court may, for a period not to exceed 14 days, extend the certification and continue the hearing pursuant to stipulation between the parties or upon a finding of good cause. In determining good cause, the court may review the petition filed with the court, the administrative law judges order, and any additional testimony needed by the court to determine if it is appropriate to continue medication beyond the 21-day certification and for a period of up to 14 days.(viii) The district attorney, county counsel, or representative of a facility where a defendant found incompetent to stand trial is committed may petition the court for an order to administer involuntary medication pursuant to the criteria set forth in subclauses (II) and (III) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B). The order is reviewable as provided in paragraph (7).(3) When the court orders that the defendant be committed to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other public or private treatment facility, the court shall provide copies of the following documents prior to the admission of the defendant to the State Department of State Hospitals or other treatment facility where the defendant is to be committed:(A) The commitment order, including a specification of the charges.(B) A computation or statement setting forth the maximum term of commitment in accordance with subdivision (c).(C) A computation or statement setting forth the amount of credit for time served, if any, to be deducted from the maximum term of commitment.(D) State summary criminal history information.(E) Arrest reports prepared by the police department or other law enforcement agency.(F) Court-ordered psychiatric examination or evaluation reports.(G) The community program directors placement recommendation report.(H) Records of a finding of mental incompetence pursuant to this chapter arising out of a complaint charging a felony offense specified in Section 290 or a pending Section 1368 proceeding arising out of a charge of a Section 290 offense.(I) Medical records.(4) When the defendant is committed to a treatment facility pursuant to clause (i) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) or the court makes the findings specified in clause (ii) or (iii) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) to assign the defendant to a treatment facility other than a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other secure treatment facility, the court shall order that notice be given to the appropriate law enforcement agency or agencies having local jurisdiction at the site of the placement facility of any finding of mental incompetence pursuant to this chapter arising out of a charge of a Section 290 offense.(5) When directing that the defendant be confined in a State Department of State Hospitals facility pursuant to this subdivision, the court shall commit the patient to the State Department of State Hospitals.(6) (A) If the defendant is committed or transferred to the State Department of State Hospitals pursuant to this section, the court may, upon receiving the written recommendation of the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility and the community program director that the defendant be transferred to a public or private treatment facility approved by the community program director, order the defendant transferred to that facility. If the defendant is committed or transferred to a public or private treatment facility approved by the community program director, the court may, upon receiving the written recommendation of the community program director, transfer the defendant to the State Department of State Hospitals or to another public or private treatment facility approved by the community program director. In the event of dismissal of the criminal charges before the defendant recovers competence, the person shall be subject to the applicable provisions of the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act (Part 1 (commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code). If either the defendant or the prosecutor chooses to contest either kind of order of transfer, a petition may be filed in the court for a hearing, which shall be held if the court determines that sufficient grounds exist. At the hearing, the prosecuting attorney or the defendant may present evidence bearing on the order of transfer. The court shall use the same standards as are used in conducting probation revocation hearings pursuant to Section 1203.2.Prior to making an order for transfer under this section, the court shall notify the defendant, the attorney of record for the defendant, the prosecuting attorney, and the community program director or a designee.(B) If the defendant is initially committed to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or secure treatment facility pursuant to clause (ii) or (iii) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) and is subsequently transferred to any other facility, copies of the documents specified in paragraph (3) shall be taken with the defendant to each subsequent facility to which the defendant is transferred. The transferring facility shall also notify the appropriate law enforcement agency or agencies having local jurisdiction at the site of the new facility that the defendant is a person subject to clause (ii) or (iii) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1).(7) (A) An order by the court authorizing involuntary medication of the defendant shall be valid for no more than one year. The court shall review the order at the time of the review of the initial report and the six-month progress reports pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) to determine if the grounds for the authorization remain. In the review, the court shall consider the reports of the treating psychiatrist or psychiatrists and the defendants patients rights advocate or attorney. The court may require testimony from the treating psychiatrist and the patients rights advocate or attorney, if necessary. The court may continue the order authorizing involuntary medication for up to another six months, or vacate the order, or make any other appropriate order.(B) Within 60 days before the expiration of the one-year involuntary medication order, the district attorney, county counsel, or representative of any facility where a defendant found incompetent to stand trial is committed may petition the committing court for a renewal, subject to the same conditions and requirements as in subparagraph (A). The petition shall include the basis for involuntary medication set forth in clause (i) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2). Notice of the petition shall be provided to the defendant, the defendants attorney, and the district attorney. The court shall hear and determine whether the defendant continues to meet the criteria set forth in clause (i) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2). The hearing on any petition to renew an order for involuntary medication shall be conducted prior to the expiration of the current order.(8) For purposes of subparagraph (D) of paragraph (2) and paragraph (7), if the treating psychiatrist determines that there is a need, based on preserving his or her rapport with the patient or preventing harm, the treating psychiatrist may request that the facility medical director designate another psychiatrist to act in the place of the treating psychiatrist. If the medical director of the facility designates another psychiatrist to act pursuant to this paragraph, the treating psychiatrist shall brief the acting psychiatrist of the relevant facts of the case and the acting psychiatrist shall examine the patient prior to the hearing.(b) (1) Within 90 days of a commitment made pursuant to subdivision (a), the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility to which the defendant is confined shall make a written report to the court and the community program director for the county or region of commitment, or a designee, concerning the defendants progress toward recovery of mental competence and whether the administration of antipsychotic medication remains necessary. If the defendant is on outpatient status, the outpatient treatment staff shall make a written report to the community program director concerning the defendants progress toward recovery of mental competence. Within 90 days of placement on outpatient status, the community program director shall report to the court on this matter. If the defendant has not recovered mental competence, but the report discloses a substantial likelihood that the defendant will regain mental competence in the foreseeable future, the defendant shall remain in the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility or on outpatient status. Thereafter, at six-month intervals or until the defendant becomes mentally competent, if the defendant is confined in a treatment facility, the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility or person in charge of the facility shall report in writing to the court and the community program director or a designee regarding the defendants progress toward recovery of mental competence and whether the administration of antipsychotic medication remains necessary. If the defendant is on outpatient status, after the initial 90-day report, the outpatient treatment staff shall report to the community program director on the defendants progress toward recovery, and the community program director shall report to the court on this matter at six-month intervals. A copy of these reports shall be provided to the prosecutor and defense counsel by the court.(A) If the report indicates that there is no substantial likelihood that the defendant will regain mental competence in the foreseeable future, the committing court shall order the defendant to be returned to the court for proceedings pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (c) no later than 10 days following receipt of the report. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the community program director or a designee.(B) If the report indicates that there is no substantial likelihood that the defendant will regain mental competence in the foreseeable future, the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility to which the defendant is confined shall do both of the following:(i) Promptly notify and provide a copy of the report to the defense counsel and the district attorney.(ii) Provide a separate notification, in compliance with applicable privacy laws, to the committing countys sheriff that transportation will be needed for the patient.(2) If the court has issued an order authorizing the treating facility to involuntarily administer antipsychotic medication to the defendant, the reports made pursuant to paragraph (1) concerning the defendants progress toward regaining competency shall also consider the issue of involuntary medication. Each report shall include, but is not limited to, all of the following:(A) Whether or not the defendant has the capacity to make decisions concerning antipsychotic medication.(B) If the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions concerning antipsychotic medication, whether the defendant risks serious harm to his or her physical or mental health if not treated with antipsychotic medication.(C) Whether or not the defendant presents a danger to others if he or she is not treated with antipsychotic medication.(D) Whether the defendant has a mental illness for which medications are the only effective treatment.(E) Whether there are any side effects from the medication currently being experienced by the defendant that would interfere with the defendants ability to collaborate with counsel.(F) Whether there are any effective alternatives to medication.(G) How quickly the medication is likely to bring the defendant to competency.(H) Whether the treatment plan includes methods other than medication to restore the defendant to competency.(I) A statement, if applicable, that no medication is likely to restore the defendant to competency.(3) After reviewing the reports, the court shall determine whether or not grounds for the order authorizing involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication still exist and shall do one of the following:(A) If the original grounds for involuntary medication still exist, the order authorizing the treating facility to involuntarily administer antipsychotic medication to the defendant shall remain in effect.(B) If the original grounds for involuntary medication no longer exist, and there is no other basis for involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication, the order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication shall be vacated.(C) If the original grounds for involuntary medication no longer exist, and the report states that there is another basis for involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication, the court shall set a hearing within 21 days to determine whether the order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication shall be vacated or whether a new order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication shall be issued. The hearing shall proceed as set forth in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a).(4) Any defendant who has been committed or has been on outpatient status for 18 months and is still hospitalized or on outpatient status shall be returned to the committing court where a hearing shall be held pursuant to the procedures set forth in Section 1369. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the community program director or a designee.(5) If it is determined by the court that no treatment for the defendants mental impairment is being conducted, the defendant shall be returned to the committing court. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the community program director or a designee.(6) At each review by the court specified in this subdivision, the court shall determine if the security level of housing and treatment is appropriate and may make an order in accordance with its determination. If the court determines that the defendant shall continue to be treated in the State Department of State Hospitals facility or on an outpatient basis, the court shall determine issues concerning administration of antipsychotic medication, as set forth in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a).(c) (1) At the end of three years from the date of commitment or a period of commitment equal to the maximum term of imprisonment provided by law for the most serious offense charged in the information, indictment, or misdemeanor complaint, or the maximum term of imprisonment provided by law for a violation of probation or mandatory supervision, whichever is shorter, but no later than 90 days prior to the expiration of the defendants term of commitment, a defendant who has not recovered mental competence shall be returned to the committing court. The court shall notify the community program director or a designee of the return and of any resulting court orders.(2) Whenever a defendant is returned to the court pursuant to paragraph (1) or (4) of subdivision (b) or paragraph (1) of this subdivision and it appears to the court that the defendant is gravely disabled, as defined in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (h) of Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the court shall order the conservatorship investigator of the county of commitment of the defendant to initiate conservatorship proceedings for the defendant pursuant to Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 5350) of Part 1 of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. Hearings required in the conservatorship proceedings shall be held in the superior court in the county that ordered the commitment. The court shall transmit a copy of the order directing initiation of conservatorship proceedings to the community program director or a designee, the sheriff and the district attorney of the county in which criminal charges are pending, and the defendants counsel of record. The court shall notify the community program director or a designee, the sheriff and district attorney of the county in which criminal charges are pending, and the defendants counsel of record of the outcome of the conservatorship proceedings.(3) If a change in placement is proposed for a defendant who is committed pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (h) of Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the court shall provide notice and an opportunity to be heard with respect to the proposed placement of the defendant to the sheriff and the district attorney of the county in which the criminal charges or revocation proceedings are pending.(4) If the defendant is confined in a treatment facility, a copy of any report to the committing court regarding the defendants progress toward recovery of mental competence shall be provided by the committing court to the prosecutor and to the defense counsel.(d) With the exception of proceedings alleging a violation of mandatory supervision, the criminal action remains subject to dismissal pursuant to Section 1385. If the criminal action is dismissed, the court shall transmit a copy of the order of dismissal to the community program director or a designee. In a proceeding alleging a violation of mandatory supervision, if the person is not placed under a conservatorship as described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (c), or if a conservatorship is terminated, the court shall reinstate mandatory supervision and may modify the terms and conditions of supervision to include appropriate mental health treatment or refer the matter to a local mental health court, reentry court, or other collaborative justice court available for improving the mental health of the defendant.(e) If the criminal action against the defendant is dismissed, the defendant shall be released from commitment ordered under this section, but without prejudice to the initiation of any proceedings that may be appropriate under the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act (Part 1 (commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code).(f) As used in this chapter, community program director means the person, agency, or entity designated by the State Department of State Hospitals pursuant to Section 1605 of this code and Section 4360 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(g) For the purpose of this section, secure treatment facility shall not include, except for State Department of State Hospitals facilities, state developmental centers, and correctional treatment facilities, any facility licensed pursuant to Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 1250) of, Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 1500) of, or Chapter 3.2 (commencing with Section 1569) of, Division 2 of the Health and Safety Code, or any community board and care facility.(h) Nothing in this section shall preclude a defendant from filing a petition for habeas corpus to challenge the continuing validity of an order authorizing a treatment facility or outpatient program to involuntarily administer antipsychotic medication to a person being treated as incompetent to stand trial.
11011112
11021113
11031114
11041115 1370. (a) (1) (A) If the defendant is found mentally competent, the criminal process shall resume, the trial on the offense charged or hearing on the alleged violation shall proceed, and judgment may be pronounced.
11051116
11061117 (B) If the defendant is found mentally incompetent, the trial, the hearing on the alleged violation, or the judgment shall be suspended until the person becomes mentally competent.
11071118
11081119 (i) In the meantime, the court shall order that the mentally incompetent defendant be delivered by the sheriff to a State Department of State Hospitals facility, as defined in Section 4100 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, for the care and treatment of the mentally disordered, as directed by the State Department of State Hospitals, or to any other available public or private treatment facility, including a community-based residential treatment system established pursuant to Article 1 (commencing with Section 5670) of Chapter 2.5 of Part 2 of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code if the facility has a secured perimeter or a locked and controlled treatment facility, approved by the community program director that will promote the defendants speedy restoration to mental competence, or placed on outpatient status as specified in Section 1600.
11091120
11101121 (ii) However, if the action against the defendant who has been found mentally incompetent is on a complaint charging a felony offense specified in Section 290, the prosecutor shall determine whether the defendant previously has been found mentally incompetent to stand trial pursuant to this chapter on a charge of a Section 290 offense, or whether the defendant is currently the subject of a pending Section 1368 proceeding arising out of a charge of a Section 290 offense. If either determination is made, the prosecutor shall so notify the court and defendant in writing. After this notification, and opportunity for hearing, the court shall order that the defendant be delivered by the sheriff to a State Department of State Hospitals facility, as directed by the State Department of State Hospitals, or other secure treatment facility for the care and treatment of the mentally disordered unless the court makes specific findings on the record that an alternative placement would provide more appropriate treatment for the defendant and would not pose a danger to the health and safety of others.
11111122
11121123 (iii) If the action against the defendant who has been found mentally incompetent is on a complaint charging a felony offense specified in Section 290 and the defendant has been denied bail pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 12 of Article I of the California Constitution because the court has found, based upon clear and convincing evidence, a substantial likelihood that the persons release would result in great bodily harm to others, the court shall order that the defendant be delivered by the sheriff to a State Department of State Hospitals facility, for the care and treatment of the mentally disordered, as directed by the State Department of State Hospitals, unless the court makes specific findings on the record that an alternative placement would provide more appropriate treatment for the defendant and would not pose a danger to the health and safety of others.
11131124
11141125 (iv) The clerk of the court shall notify the Department of Justice in writing of a finding of mental incompetence with respect to a defendant who is subject to clause (ii) or (iii) for inclusion in his or her state summary criminal history information.
11151126
11161127 (C) Upon the filing of a certificate of restoration to competence, the court shall order that the defendant be returned to court in accordance with Section 1372. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the community program director or a designee.
11171128
11181129 (D) A defendant charged with a violent felony may not be delivered to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or treatment facility pursuant to this subdivision unless the State Department of State Hospitals facility or treatment facility has a secured perimeter or a locked and controlled treatment facility, and the judge determines that the public safety will be protected.
11191130
11201131 (E) For purposes of this paragraph, violent felony means an offense specified in subdivision (c) of Section 667.5.
11211132
11221133 (F) A defendant charged with a violent felony may be placed on outpatient status, as specified in Section 1600, only if the court finds that the placement will not pose a danger to the health or safety of others. If the court places a defendant charged with a violent felony on outpatient status, as specified in Section 1600, the court shall serve copies of the placement order on defense counsel, the sheriff in the county where the defendant will be placed, and the district attorney for the county in which the violent felony charges are pending against the defendant.
11231134
11241135 (2) Prior to making the order directing that the defendant be committed to the State Department of State Hospitals or other treatment facility or placed on outpatient status, the court shall proceed as follows:
11251136
11261137 (A) The court shall order the community program director or a designee to evaluate the defendant and to submit to the court within 15 judicial days of the order a written recommendation as to whether the defendant should be required to undergo outpatient treatment, or be committed to the State Department of State Hospitals or to any other treatment facility. A person shall not be admitted to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility or placed on outpatient status under this section without having been evaluated by the community program director or a designee. The community program director or designee shall evaluate the appropriate placement for the defendant between a State Department of State Hospitals facility or the community-based residential treatment system based upon guidelines provided by the State Department of State Hospitals.
11271138
11281139 (B) The court shall hear and determine whether the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding the administration of antipsychotic medication. The court shall consider opinions in the reports prepared pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 1369, as applicable to the issue of whether the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding the administration of antipsychotic medication, and shall proceed as follows:
11291140
11301141 (i) The court shall hear and determine whether any of the following is true:
11311142
11321143 (I) The defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication, the defendants mental disorder requires medical treatment with antipsychotic medication, and, if the defendants mental disorder is not treated with antipsychotic medication, it is probable that serious harm to the physical or mental health of the patient will result. Probability of serious harm to the physical or mental health of the defendant requires evidence that the defendant is presently suffering adverse effects to his or her physical or mental health, or the defendant has previously suffered these effects as a result of a mental disorder and his or her condition is substantially deteriorating. The fact that a defendant has a diagnosis of a mental disorder does not alone establish probability of serious harm to the physical or mental health of the defendant.
11331144
11341145 (II) The defendant is a danger to others, in that the defendant has inflicted, attempted to inflict, or made a serious threat of inflicting substantial physical harm on another while in custody, or the defendant had inflicted, attempted to inflict, or made a serious threat of inflicting substantial physical harm on another that resulted in his or her being taken into custody, and the defendant presents, as a result of mental disorder or mental defect, a demonstrated danger of inflicting substantial physical harm on others. Demonstrated danger may be based on an assessment of the defendants present mental condition, including a consideration of past behavior of the defendant within six years prior to the time the defendant last attempted to inflict, inflicted, or threatened to inflict substantial physical harm on another, and other relevant evidence.
11351146
11361147 (III) The people have charged the defendant with a serious crime against the person or property, involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication is substantially likely to render the defendant competent to stand trial, the medication is unlikely to have side effects that interfere with the defendants ability to understand the nature of the criminal proceedings or to assist counsel in the conduct of a defense in a reasonable manner, less intrusive treatments are unlikely to have substantially the same results, and antipsychotic medication is in the patients best medical interest in light of his or her medical condition.
11371148
11381149 (ii) If the court finds any of the conditions described in clause (i) to be true, the court shall issue an order authorizing involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication to the defendant when and as prescribed by the defendants treating psychiatrist at any facility housing the defendant for purposes of this chapter. The order shall be valid for no more than one year, pursuant to subparagraph (A) of paragraph (7). The court shall not order involuntary administration of psychotropic medication under subclause (III) of clause (i) unless the court has first found that the defendant does not meet the criteria for involuntary administration of psychotropic medication under subclause (I) of clause (i) and does not meet the criteria under subclause (II) of clause (i).
11391150
11401151 (iii) In all cases, the treating hospital, facility, or program may administer medically appropriate antipsychotic medication prescribed by a psychiatrist in an emergency as described in subdivision (m) of Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.
11411152
11421153 (iv) If the court has determined that the defendant has the capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication, and if the defendant, with advice of his or her counsel, consents, the court order of commitment shall include confirmation that antipsychotic medication may be given to the defendant as prescribed by a treating psychiatrist pursuant to the defendants consent. The commitment order shall also indicate that, if the defendant withdraws consent for antipsychotic medication, after the treating psychiatrist complies with the provisions of subparagraph (C), the defendant shall be returned to court for a hearing in accordance with subparagraphs (C) and (D) regarding whether antipsychotic medication shall be administered involuntarily.
11431154
11441155 (v) If the court has determined that the defendant has the capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication and if the defendant, with advice from his or her counsel, does not consent, the court order for commitment shall indicate that, after the treating psychiatrist complies with the provisions of subparagraph (C), the defendant shall be returned to court for a hearing in accordance with subparagraphs (C) and (D) regarding whether antipsychotic medication shall be administered involuntarily.
11451156
11461157 (vi) A report made pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) shall include a description of antipsychotic medication administered to the defendant and its effects and side effects, including effects on the defendants appearance or behavior that would affect the defendants ability to understand the nature of the criminal proceedings or to assist counsel in the conduct of a defense in a reasonable manner. During the time the defendant is confined in a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility or placed on outpatient status, either the defendant or the people may request that the court review any order made pursuant to this subdivision. The defendant, to the same extent enjoyed by other patients in the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility, shall have the right to contact the patients rights advocate regarding his or her rights under this section.
11471158
11481159 (C) If the defendant consented to antipsychotic medication as described in clause (iv) of subparagraph (B), but subsequently withdraws his or her consent, or, if involuntary antipsychotic medication was not ordered pursuant to clause (v) of subparagraph (B), and the treating psychiatrist determines that antipsychotic medication has become medically necessary and appropriate, the treating psychiatrist shall make efforts to obtain informed consent from the defendant for antipsychotic medication. If informed consent is not obtained from the defendant, and the treating psychiatrist is of the opinion that the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding antipsychotic medication based on the conditions described in subclause (I) or (II) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B), the treating psychiatrist shall certify whether the lack of capacity and any applicable conditions described above exist. That certification shall contain an assessment of the current mental status of the defendant and the opinion of the treating psychiatrist that involuntary antipsychotic medication has become medically necessary and appropriate.
11491160
11501161 (D) (i) If the treating psychiatrist certifies that antipsychotic medication has become medically necessary and appropriate pursuant to subparagraph (C), antipsychotic medication may be administered to the defendant for not more than 21 days, provided, however, that, within 72 hours of the certification, the defendant is provided a medication review hearing before an administrative law judge to be conducted at the facility where the defendant is receiving treatment. The treating psychiatrist shall present the case for the certification for involuntary treatment and the defendant shall be represented by an attorney or a patients rights advocate. The attorney or patients rights advocate shall be appointed to meet with the defendant no later than one day prior to the medication review hearing to review the defendants rights at the medication review hearing, discuss the process, answer questions or concerns regarding involuntary medication or the hearing, assist the defendant in preparing for the hearing and advocating for his or her interests at the hearing, review the panels final determination following the hearing, advise the defendant of his or her right to judicial review of the panels decision, and provide the defendant with referral information for legal advice on the subject. The defendant shall also have the following rights with respect to the medication review hearing:
11511162
11521163 (I) To be given timely access to the defendants records.
11531164
11541165 (II) To be present at the hearing, unless the defendant waives that right.
11551166
11561167 (III) To present evidence at the hearing.
11571168
11581169 (IV) To question persons presenting evidence supporting involuntary medication.
11591170
11601171 (V) To make reasonable requests for attendance of witnesses on the defendants behalf.
11611172
11621173 (VI) To a hearing conducted in an impartial and informal manner.
11631174
11641175 (ii) If the administrative law judge determines that the defendant either meets the criteria specified in subclause (I) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B), or meets the criteria specified in subclause (II) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B), then antipsychotic medication may continue to be administered to the defendant for the 21-day certification period. Concurrently with the treating psychiatrists certification, the treating psychiatrist shall file a copy of the certification and a petition with the court for issuance of an order to administer antipsychotic medication beyond the 21-day certification period. For purposes of this subparagraph, the treating psychiatrist shall not be required to pay or deposit any fee for the filing of the petition or other document or paper related to the petition.
11651176
11661177 (iii) If the administrative law judge disagrees with the certification, medication may not be administered involuntarily until the court determines that antipsychotic medication should be administered pursuant to this section.
11671178
11681179 (iv) The court shall provide notice to the prosecuting attorney and to the attorney representing the defendant, and shall hold a hearing, no later than 18 days from the date of the certification, to determine whether antipsychotic medication should be ordered beyond the certification period.
11691180
11701181 (v) If, as a result of the hearing, the court determines that antipsychotic medication should be administered beyond the certification period, the court shall issue an order authorizing the administration of that medication.
11711182
11721183 (vi) The court shall render its decision on the petition and issue its order no later than three calendar days after the hearing and, in any event, no later than the expiration of the 21-day certification period.
11731184
11741185 (vii) If the administrative law judge upholds the certification pursuant to clause (ii), the court may, for a period not to exceed 14 days, extend the certification and continue the hearing pursuant to stipulation between the parties or upon a finding of good cause. In determining good cause, the court may review the petition filed with the court, the administrative law judges order, and any additional testimony needed by the court to determine if it is appropriate to continue medication beyond the 21-day certification and for a period of up to 14 days.
11751186
11761187 (viii) The district attorney, county counsel, or representative of a facility where a defendant found incompetent to stand trial is committed may petition the court for an order to administer involuntary medication pursuant to the criteria set forth in subclauses (II) and (III) of clause (i) of subparagraph (B). The order is reviewable as provided in paragraph (7).
11771188
11781189 (3) When the court orders that the defendant be committed to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other public or private treatment facility, the court shall provide copies of the following documents prior to the admission of the defendant to the State Department of State Hospitals or other treatment facility where the defendant is to be committed:
11791190
11801191 (A) The commitment order, including a specification of the charges.
11811192
11821193 (B) A computation or statement setting forth the maximum term of commitment in accordance with subdivision (c).
11831194
11841195 (C) A computation or statement setting forth the amount of credit for time served, if any, to be deducted from the maximum term of commitment.
11851196
11861197 (D) State summary criminal history information.
11871198
11881199 (E) Arrest reports prepared by the police department or other law enforcement agency.
11891200
11901201 (F) Court-ordered psychiatric examination or evaluation reports.
11911202
11921203 (G) The community program directors placement recommendation report.
11931204
11941205 (H) Records of a finding of mental incompetence pursuant to this chapter arising out of a complaint charging a felony offense specified in Section 290 or a pending Section 1368 proceeding arising out of a charge of a Section 290 offense.
11951206
11961207 (I) Medical records.
11971208
11981209 (4) When the defendant is committed to a treatment facility pursuant to clause (i) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) or the court makes the findings specified in clause (ii) or (iii) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) to assign the defendant to a treatment facility other than a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other secure treatment facility, the court shall order that notice be given to the appropriate law enforcement agency or agencies having local jurisdiction at the site of the placement facility of any finding of mental incompetence pursuant to this chapter arising out of a charge of a Section 290 offense.
11991210
12001211 (5) When directing that the defendant be confined in a State Department of State Hospitals facility pursuant to this subdivision, the court shall commit the patient to the State Department of State Hospitals.
12011212
12021213 (6) (A) If the defendant is committed or transferred to the State Department of State Hospitals pursuant to this section, the court may, upon receiving the written recommendation of the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility and the community program director that the defendant be transferred to a public or private treatment facility approved by the community program director, order the defendant transferred to that facility. If the defendant is committed or transferred to a public or private treatment facility approved by the community program director, the court may, upon receiving the written recommendation of the community program director, transfer the defendant to the State Department of State Hospitals or to another public or private treatment facility approved by the community program director. In the event of dismissal of the criminal charges before the defendant recovers competence, the person shall be subject to the applicable provisions of the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act (Part 1 (commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code). If either the defendant or the prosecutor chooses to contest either kind of order of transfer, a petition may be filed in the court for a hearing, which shall be held if the court determines that sufficient grounds exist. At the hearing, the prosecuting attorney or the defendant may present evidence bearing on the order of transfer. The court shall use the same standards as are used in conducting probation revocation hearings pursuant to Section 1203.2.
12031214
12041215 Prior to making an order for transfer under this section, the court shall notify the defendant, the attorney of record for the defendant, the prosecuting attorney, and the community program director or a designee.
12051216
12061217 (B) If the defendant is initially committed to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or secure treatment facility pursuant to clause (ii) or (iii) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) and is subsequently transferred to any other facility, copies of the documents specified in paragraph (3) shall be taken with the defendant to each subsequent facility to which the defendant is transferred. The transferring facility shall also notify the appropriate law enforcement agency or agencies having local jurisdiction at the site of the new facility that the defendant is a person subject to clause (ii) or (iii) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1).
12071218
12081219 (7) (A) An order by the court authorizing involuntary medication of the defendant shall be valid for no more than one year. The court shall review the order at the time of the review of the initial report and the six-month progress reports pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) to determine if the grounds for the authorization remain. In the review, the court shall consider the reports of the treating psychiatrist or psychiatrists and the defendants patients rights advocate or attorney. The court may require testimony from the treating psychiatrist and the patients rights advocate or attorney, if necessary. The court may continue the order authorizing involuntary medication for up to another six months, or vacate the order, or make any other appropriate order.
12091220
12101221 (B) Within 60 days before the expiration of the one-year involuntary medication order, the district attorney, county counsel, or representative of any facility where a defendant found incompetent to stand trial is committed may petition the committing court for a renewal, subject to the same conditions and requirements as in subparagraph (A). The petition shall include the basis for involuntary medication set forth in clause (i) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2). Notice of the petition shall be provided to the defendant, the defendants attorney, and the district attorney. The court shall hear and determine whether the defendant continues to meet the criteria set forth in clause (i) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2). The hearing on any petition to renew an order for involuntary medication shall be conducted prior to the expiration of the current order.
12111222
12121223 (8) For purposes of subparagraph (D) of paragraph (2) and paragraph (7), if the treating psychiatrist determines that there is a need, based on preserving his or her rapport with the patient or preventing harm, the treating psychiatrist may request that the facility medical director designate another psychiatrist to act in the place of the treating psychiatrist. If the medical director of the facility designates another psychiatrist to act pursuant to this paragraph, the treating psychiatrist shall brief the acting psychiatrist of the relevant facts of the case and the acting psychiatrist shall examine the patient prior to the hearing.
12131224
12141225 (b) (1) Within 90 days of a commitment made pursuant to subdivision (a), the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility to which the defendant is confined shall make a written report to the court and the community program director for the county or region of commitment, or a designee, concerning the defendants progress toward recovery of mental competence and whether the administration of antipsychotic medication remains necessary. If the defendant is on outpatient status, the outpatient treatment staff shall make a written report to the community program director concerning the defendants progress toward recovery of mental competence. Within 90 days of placement on outpatient status, the community program director shall report to the court on this matter. If the defendant has not recovered mental competence, but the report discloses a substantial likelihood that the defendant will regain mental competence in the foreseeable future, the defendant shall remain in the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility or on outpatient status. Thereafter, at six-month intervals or until the defendant becomes mentally competent, if the defendant is confined in a treatment facility, the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility or person in charge of the facility shall report in writing to the court and the community program director or a designee regarding the defendants progress toward recovery of mental competence and whether the administration of antipsychotic medication remains necessary. If the defendant is on outpatient status, after the initial 90-day report, the outpatient treatment staff shall report to the community program director on the defendants progress toward recovery, and the community program director shall report to the court on this matter at six-month intervals. A copy of these reports shall be provided to the prosecutor and defense counsel by the court.
12151226
12161227 (A) If the report indicates that there is no substantial likelihood that the defendant will regain mental competence in the foreseeable future, the committing court shall order the defendant to be returned to the court for proceedings pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (c) no later than 10 days following receipt of the report. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the community program director or a designee.
12171228
12181229 (B) If the report indicates that there is no substantial likelihood that the defendant will regain mental competence in the foreseeable future, the medical director of the State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility to which the defendant is confined shall do both of the following:
12191230
12201231 (i) Promptly notify and provide a copy of the report to the defense counsel and the district attorney.
12211232
12221233 (ii) Provide a separate notification, in compliance with applicable privacy laws, to the committing countys sheriff that transportation will be needed for the patient.
12231234
12241235 (2) If the court has issued an order authorizing the treating facility to involuntarily administer antipsychotic medication to the defendant, the reports made pursuant to paragraph (1) concerning the defendants progress toward regaining competency shall also consider the issue of involuntary medication. Each report shall include, but is not limited to, all of the following:
12251236
12261237 (A) Whether or not the defendant has the capacity to make decisions concerning antipsychotic medication.
12271238
12281239 (B) If the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions concerning antipsychotic medication, whether the defendant risks serious harm to his or her physical or mental health if not treated with antipsychotic medication.
12291240
12301241 (C) Whether or not the defendant presents a danger to others if he or she is not treated with antipsychotic medication.
12311242
12321243 (D) Whether the defendant has a mental illness for which medications are the only effective treatment.
12331244
12341245 (E) Whether there are any side effects from the medication currently being experienced by the defendant that would interfere with the defendants ability to collaborate with counsel.
12351246
12361247 (F) Whether there are any effective alternatives to medication.
12371248
12381249 (G) How quickly the medication is likely to bring the defendant to competency.
12391250
12401251 (H) Whether the treatment plan includes methods other than medication to restore the defendant to competency.
12411252
12421253 (I) A statement, if applicable, that no medication is likely to restore the defendant to competency.
12431254
12441255 (3) After reviewing the reports, the court shall determine whether or not grounds for the order authorizing involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication still exist and shall do one of the following:
12451256
12461257 (A) If the original grounds for involuntary medication still exist, the order authorizing the treating facility to involuntarily administer antipsychotic medication to the defendant shall remain in effect.
12471258
12481259 (B) If the original grounds for involuntary medication no longer exist, and there is no other basis for involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication, the order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication shall be vacated.
12491260
12501261 (C) If the original grounds for involuntary medication no longer exist, and the report states that there is another basis for involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication, the court shall set a hearing within 21 days to determine whether the order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication shall be vacated or whether a new order for the involuntary administration of antipsychotic medication shall be issued. The hearing shall proceed as set forth in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a).
12511262
12521263 (4) Any defendant who has been committed or has been on outpatient status for 18 months and is still hospitalized or on outpatient status shall be returned to the committing court where a hearing shall be held pursuant to the procedures set forth in Section 1369. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the community program director or a designee.
12531264
12541265 (5) If it is determined by the court that no treatment for the defendants mental impairment is being conducted, the defendant shall be returned to the committing court. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the community program director or a designee.
12551266
12561267 (6) At each review by the court specified in this subdivision, the court shall determine if the security level of housing and treatment is appropriate and may make an order in accordance with its determination. If the court determines that the defendant shall continue to be treated in the State Department of State Hospitals facility or on an outpatient basis, the court shall determine issues concerning administration of antipsychotic medication, as set forth in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a).
12571268
12581269 (c) (1) At the end of three years from the date of commitment or a period of commitment equal to the maximum term of imprisonment provided by law for the most serious offense charged in the information, indictment, or misdemeanor complaint, or the maximum term of imprisonment provided by law for a violation of probation or mandatory supervision, whichever is shorter, but no later than 90 days prior to the expiration of the defendants term of commitment, a defendant who has not recovered mental competence shall be returned to the committing court. The court shall notify the community program director or a designee of the return and of any resulting court orders.
12591270
12601271 (2) Whenever a defendant is returned to the court pursuant to paragraph (1) or (4) of subdivision (b) or paragraph (1) of this subdivision and it appears to the court that the defendant is gravely disabled, as defined in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (h) of Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the court shall order the conservatorship investigator of the county of commitment of the defendant to initiate conservatorship proceedings for the defendant pursuant to Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 5350) of Part 1 of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. Hearings required in the conservatorship proceedings shall be held in the superior court in the county that ordered the commitment. The court shall transmit a copy of the order directing initiation of conservatorship proceedings to the community program director or a designee, the sheriff and the district attorney of the county in which criminal charges are pending, and the defendants counsel of record. The court shall notify the community program director or a designee, the sheriff and district attorney of the county in which criminal charges are pending, and the defendants counsel of record of the outcome of the conservatorship proceedings.
12611272
12621273 (3) If a change in placement is proposed for a defendant who is committed pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (h) of Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the court shall provide notice and an opportunity to be heard with respect to the proposed placement of the defendant to the sheriff and the district attorney of the county in which the criminal charges or revocation proceedings are pending.
12631274
12641275 (4) If the defendant is confined in a treatment facility, a copy of any report to the committing court regarding the defendants progress toward recovery of mental competence shall be provided by the committing court to the prosecutor and to the defense counsel.
12651276
12661277 (d) With the exception of proceedings alleging a violation of mandatory supervision, the criminal action remains subject to dismissal pursuant to Section 1385. If the criminal action is dismissed, the court shall transmit a copy of the order of dismissal to the community program director or a designee. In a proceeding alleging a violation of mandatory supervision, if the person is not placed under a conservatorship as described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (c), or if a conservatorship is terminated, the court shall reinstate mandatory supervision and may modify the terms and conditions of supervision to include appropriate mental health treatment or refer the matter to a local mental health court, reentry court, or other collaborative justice court available for improving the mental health of the defendant.
12671278
12681279 (e) If the criminal action against the defendant is dismissed, the defendant shall be released from commitment ordered under this section, but without prejudice to the initiation of any proceedings that may be appropriate under the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act (Part 1 (commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code).
12691280
12701281 (f) As used in this chapter, community program director means the person, agency, or entity designated by the State Department of State Hospitals pursuant to Section 1605 of this code and Section 4360 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.
12711282
12721283 (g) For the purpose of this section, secure treatment facility shall not include, except for State Department of State Hospitals facilities, state developmental centers, and correctional treatment facilities, any facility licensed pursuant to Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 1250) of, Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 1500) of, or Chapter 3.2 (commencing with Section 1569) of, Division 2 of the Health and Safety Code, or any community board and care facility.
12731284
12741285 (h) Nothing in this section shall preclude a defendant from filing a petition for habeas corpus to challenge the continuing validity of an order authorizing a treatment facility or outpatient program to involuntarily administer antipsychotic medication to a person being treated as incompetent to stand trial.
12751286
12761287 SEC. 31. Section 1370.6 of the Penal Code is amended to read:1370.6. (a) If a mentally incompetent defendant is admitted to a county jail treatment facility pursuant to Section 1370, the department shall provide restoration of competency treatment at the county jail treatment facility and shall provide payment to the county jail treatment facility for the reasonable costs of the bed during the restoration of competency treatment as well as for the reasonable costs of any necessary medical treatment not provided within the county jail treatment facility, unless otherwise agreed to by the department and the facility.(1) If the county jail treatment facility is able to provide restoration of competency services, upon approval by the department and subject to funding appropriated in the annual Budget Act, the county jail treatment facility may provide those services and the State Department of State Hospitals may provide payment to the county jail treatment facility for the reasonable costs of the bed during the restoration of competency treatment as well as the reasonable costs of providing restoration of competency services and for any necessary medical treatment not provided within the county jail treatment facility, unless otherwise agreed to by the department and the facility.(2) Transportation to a county jail treatment facility for admission and from the facility upon the filing of a certificate of restoration of competency, or for transfer of a person to another county jail treatment facility or to a state hospital, shall be provided by the committing county unless otherwise agreed to by the department and the facility.(3) In the event the State Department of State Hospitals and a county jail treatment facility are determined to be comparatively at fault for any claim, action, loss, or damage which results from their respective obligations under such a contract, each shall indemnify the other to the extent of its comparative fault.(4) The six-month limitation in Section 1369.1 shall not apply to individuals deemed incompetent to stand trial who are being treated to restore competency within a county jail treatment facility pursuant to this section.(b) If the community-based residential system is selected by the court pursuant to Section 1370, the State Department of State Hospitals shall provide reimbursement to the community-based residential treatment system for the cost of restoration of competency treatment as negotiated with the State Department of State Hospitals.(c) The State Department of State Hospitals may provide payment to either a county jail treatment facility or a community-based residential treatment system directly through invoice, or through a contract, at the discretion of the department in accordance with the terms and conditions of the contract or agreement.
12771288
12781289 SEC. 31. Section 1370.6 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
12791290
12801291 ### SEC. 31.
12811292
12821293 1370.6. (a) If a mentally incompetent defendant is admitted to a county jail treatment facility pursuant to Section 1370, the department shall provide restoration of competency treatment at the county jail treatment facility and shall provide payment to the county jail treatment facility for the reasonable costs of the bed during the restoration of competency treatment as well as for the reasonable costs of any necessary medical treatment not provided within the county jail treatment facility, unless otherwise agreed to by the department and the facility.(1) If the county jail treatment facility is able to provide restoration of competency services, upon approval by the department and subject to funding appropriated in the annual Budget Act, the county jail treatment facility may provide those services and the State Department of State Hospitals may provide payment to the county jail treatment facility for the reasonable costs of the bed during the restoration of competency treatment as well as the reasonable costs of providing restoration of competency services and for any necessary medical treatment not provided within the county jail treatment facility, unless otherwise agreed to by the department and the facility.(2) Transportation to a county jail treatment facility for admission and from the facility upon the filing of a certificate of restoration of competency, or for transfer of a person to another county jail treatment facility or to a state hospital, shall be provided by the committing county unless otherwise agreed to by the department and the facility.(3) In the event the State Department of State Hospitals and a county jail treatment facility are determined to be comparatively at fault for any claim, action, loss, or damage which results from their respective obligations under such a contract, each shall indemnify the other to the extent of its comparative fault.(4) The six-month limitation in Section 1369.1 shall not apply to individuals deemed incompetent to stand trial who are being treated to restore competency within a county jail treatment facility pursuant to this section.(b) If the community-based residential system is selected by the court pursuant to Section 1370, the State Department of State Hospitals shall provide reimbursement to the community-based residential treatment system for the cost of restoration of competency treatment as negotiated with the State Department of State Hospitals.(c) The State Department of State Hospitals may provide payment to either a county jail treatment facility or a community-based residential treatment system directly through invoice, or through a contract, at the discretion of the department in accordance with the terms and conditions of the contract or agreement.
12831294
12841295 1370.6. (a) If a mentally incompetent defendant is admitted to a county jail treatment facility pursuant to Section 1370, the department shall provide restoration of competency treatment at the county jail treatment facility and shall provide payment to the county jail treatment facility for the reasonable costs of the bed during the restoration of competency treatment as well as for the reasonable costs of any necessary medical treatment not provided within the county jail treatment facility, unless otherwise agreed to by the department and the facility.(1) If the county jail treatment facility is able to provide restoration of competency services, upon approval by the department and subject to funding appropriated in the annual Budget Act, the county jail treatment facility may provide those services and the State Department of State Hospitals may provide payment to the county jail treatment facility for the reasonable costs of the bed during the restoration of competency treatment as well as the reasonable costs of providing restoration of competency services and for any necessary medical treatment not provided within the county jail treatment facility, unless otherwise agreed to by the department and the facility.(2) Transportation to a county jail treatment facility for admission and from the facility upon the filing of a certificate of restoration of competency, or for transfer of a person to another county jail treatment facility or to a state hospital, shall be provided by the committing county unless otherwise agreed to by the department and the facility.(3) In the event the State Department of State Hospitals and a county jail treatment facility are determined to be comparatively at fault for any claim, action, loss, or damage which results from their respective obligations under such a contract, each shall indemnify the other to the extent of its comparative fault.(4) The six-month limitation in Section 1369.1 shall not apply to individuals deemed incompetent to stand trial who are being treated to restore competency within a county jail treatment facility pursuant to this section.(b) If the community-based residential system is selected by the court pursuant to Section 1370, the State Department of State Hospitals shall provide reimbursement to the community-based residential treatment system for the cost of restoration of competency treatment as negotiated with the State Department of State Hospitals.(c) The State Department of State Hospitals may provide payment to either a county jail treatment facility or a community-based residential treatment system directly through invoice, or through a contract, at the discretion of the department in accordance with the terms and conditions of the contract or agreement.
12851296
12861297 1370.6. (a) If a mentally incompetent defendant is admitted to a county jail treatment facility pursuant to Section 1370, the department shall provide restoration of competency treatment at the county jail treatment facility and shall provide payment to the county jail treatment facility for the reasonable costs of the bed during the restoration of competency treatment as well as for the reasonable costs of any necessary medical treatment not provided within the county jail treatment facility, unless otherwise agreed to by the department and the facility.(1) If the county jail treatment facility is able to provide restoration of competency services, upon approval by the department and subject to funding appropriated in the annual Budget Act, the county jail treatment facility may provide those services and the State Department of State Hospitals may provide payment to the county jail treatment facility for the reasonable costs of the bed during the restoration of competency treatment as well as the reasonable costs of providing restoration of competency services and for any necessary medical treatment not provided within the county jail treatment facility, unless otherwise agreed to by the department and the facility.(2) Transportation to a county jail treatment facility for admission and from the facility upon the filing of a certificate of restoration of competency, or for transfer of a person to another county jail treatment facility or to a state hospital, shall be provided by the committing county unless otherwise agreed to by the department and the facility.(3) In the event the State Department of State Hospitals and a county jail treatment facility are determined to be comparatively at fault for any claim, action, loss, or damage which results from their respective obligations under such a contract, each shall indemnify the other to the extent of its comparative fault.(4) The six-month limitation in Section 1369.1 shall not apply to individuals deemed incompetent to stand trial who are being treated to restore competency within a county jail treatment facility pursuant to this section.(b) If the community-based residential system is selected by the court pursuant to Section 1370, the State Department of State Hospitals shall provide reimbursement to the community-based residential treatment system for the cost of restoration of competency treatment as negotiated with the State Department of State Hospitals.(c) The State Department of State Hospitals may provide payment to either a county jail treatment facility or a community-based residential treatment system directly through invoice, or through a contract, at the discretion of the department in accordance with the terms and conditions of the contract or agreement.
12871298
12881299
12891300
12901301 1370.6. (a) If a mentally incompetent defendant is admitted to a county jail treatment facility pursuant to Section 1370, the department shall provide restoration of competency treatment at the county jail treatment facility and shall provide payment to the county jail treatment facility for the reasonable costs of the bed during the restoration of competency treatment as well as for the reasonable costs of any necessary medical treatment not provided within the county jail treatment facility, unless otherwise agreed to by the department and the facility.
12911302
12921303 (1) If the county jail treatment facility is able to provide restoration of competency services, upon approval by the department and subject to funding appropriated in the annual Budget Act, the county jail treatment facility may provide those services and the State Department of State Hospitals may provide payment to the county jail treatment facility for the reasonable costs of the bed during the restoration of competency treatment as well as the reasonable costs of providing restoration of competency services and for any necessary medical treatment not provided within the county jail treatment facility, unless otherwise agreed to by the department and the facility.
12931304
12941305 (2) Transportation to a county jail treatment facility for admission and from the facility upon the filing of a certificate of restoration of competency, or for transfer of a person to another county jail treatment facility or to a state hospital, shall be provided by the committing county unless otherwise agreed to by the department and the facility.
12951306
12961307 (3) In the event the State Department of State Hospitals and a county jail treatment facility are determined to be comparatively at fault for any claim, action, loss, or damage which results from their respective obligations under such a contract, each shall indemnify the other to the extent of its comparative fault.
12971308
12981309 (4) The six-month limitation in Section 1369.1 shall not apply to individuals deemed incompetent to stand trial who are being treated to restore competency within a county jail treatment facility pursuant to this section.
12991310
13001311 (b) If the community-based residential system is selected by the court pursuant to Section 1370, the State Department of State Hospitals shall provide reimbursement to the community-based residential treatment system for the cost of restoration of competency treatment as negotiated with the State Department of State Hospitals.
13011312
13021313 (c) The State Department of State Hospitals may provide payment to either a county jail treatment facility or a community-based residential treatment system directly through invoice, or through a contract, at the discretion of the department in accordance with the terms and conditions of the contract or agreement.
13031314
13041315 SEC. 32. Section 1372 of the Penal Code is amended to read:1372. (a) (1) If the medical director of a state hospital or other facility to which the defendant is committed, or the community program director, county mental health director, or regional center director providing outpatient services, determines that the defendant has regained mental competence, the director shall immediately certify that fact to the court by filing a certificate of restoration with the court by certified mail, return receipt requested. For purposes of this section, the date of filing shall be the date on the return receipt.(2) The courts order committing an individual to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility pursuant to Section 1370 shall include direction that the sheriff shall redeliver the patient to the court without any further order from the court upon receiving from the state hospital or treatment facility a copy of the certificate of restoration.(3) The defendant shall be returned to the committing court in the following manner:(A) A patient who remains confined in a state hospital or other treatment facility shall be redelivered to the sheriff of the county from which the patient was committed. The sheriff shall immediately return the person from the state hospital or other treatment facility to the court for further proceedings.(B) The patient who is on outpatient status shall be returned by the sheriff to court through arrangements made by the outpatient treatment supervisor.(C) In all cases, the patient shall be returned to the committing court no later than 10 days following the filing of a certificate of restoration. The state shall only pay for 10 hospital days for patients following the filing of a certificate of restoration of competency. The State Department of State Hospitals shall report to the fiscal and appropriate policy committees of the Legislature on an annual basis in February, on the number of days that exceed the 10-day limit prescribed in this subparagraph. This report shall include, but not be limited to, a data sheet that itemizes by county the number of days that exceed this 10-day limit during the preceding year.(b) If the defendant becomes mentally competent after a conservatorship has been established pursuant to the applicable provisions of the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act, Part 1 (commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, and Section 1370, the conservator shall certify that fact to the sheriff and district attorney of the county in which the defendants case is pending, defendants attorney of record, and the committing court.(c) When a defendant is returned to court with a certification that competence has been regained, the court shall notify either the community program director, the county mental health director, or the regional center director and the Director of Developmental Services, as appropriate, of the date of any hearing on the defendants competence and whether or not the defendant was found by the court to have recovered competence.(d) If the committing court approves the certificate of restoration to competence as to a person in custody, the court shall hold a hearing to determine whether the person is entitled to be admitted to bail or released on own recognizance status pending conclusion of the proceedings. If the superior court approves the certificate of restoration to competence regarding a person on outpatient status, unless it appears that the person has refused to come to court, that person shall remain released either on own recognizance status, or, in the case of a developmentally disabled person, either on the defendants promise or on the promise of a responsible adult to secure the persons appearance in court for further proceedings. If the person has refused to come to court, the court shall set bail and may place the person in custody until bail is posted.(e) A defendant subject to either subdivision (a) or (b) who is not admitted to bail or released under subdivision (d) may, at the discretion of the court, upon recommendation of the director of the facility where the defendant is receiving treatment, be returned to the hospital or facility of his or her original commitment or other appropriate secure facility approved by the community program director, the county mental health director, or the regional center director. The recommendation submitted to the court shall be based on the opinion that the person will need continued treatment in a hospital or treatment facility in order to maintain competence to stand trial or that placing the person in a jail environment would create a substantial risk that the person would again become incompetent to stand trial before criminal proceedings could be resumed.(f) Notwithstanding subdivision (e), if a defendant is returned by the court to a hospital or other facility for the purpose of maintaining competency to stand trial and that defendant is already under civil commitment to that hospital or facility from another county pursuant to the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act (Part 1 (commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code) or as a developmentally disabled person committed pursuant to Article 2 (commencing with Section 6500) of Chapter 2 of Part 2 of Division 6 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the costs of housing and treating the defendant in that facility following return pursuant to subdivision (e) shall be the responsibility of the original county of civil commitment.
13051316
13061317 SEC. 32. Section 1372 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
13071318
13081319 ### SEC. 32.
13091320
13101321 1372. (a) (1) If the medical director of a state hospital or other facility to which the defendant is committed, or the community program director, county mental health director, or regional center director providing outpatient services, determines that the defendant has regained mental competence, the director shall immediately certify that fact to the court by filing a certificate of restoration with the court by certified mail, return receipt requested. For purposes of this section, the date of filing shall be the date on the return receipt.(2) The courts order committing an individual to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility pursuant to Section 1370 shall include direction that the sheriff shall redeliver the patient to the court without any further order from the court upon receiving from the state hospital or treatment facility a copy of the certificate of restoration.(3) The defendant shall be returned to the committing court in the following manner:(A) A patient who remains confined in a state hospital or other treatment facility shall be redelivered to the sheriff of the county from which the patient was committed. The sheriff shall immediately return the person from the state hospital or other treatment facility to the court for further proceedings.(B) The patient who is on outpatient status shall be returned by the sheriff to court through arrangements made by the outpatient treatment supervisor.(C) In all cases, the patient shall be returned to the committing court no later than 10 days following the filing of a certificate of restoration. The state shall only pay for 10 hospital days for patients following the filing of a certificate of restoration of competency. The State Department of State Hospitals shall report to the fiscal and appropriate policy committees of the Legislature on an annual basis in February, on the number of days that exceed the 10-day limit prescribed in this subparagraph. This report shall include, but not be limited to, a data sheet that itemizes by county the number of days that exceed this 10-day limit during the preceding year.(b) If the defendant becomes mentally competent after a conservatorship has been established pursuant to the applicable provisions of the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act, Part 1 (commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, and Section 1370, the conservator shall certify that fact to the sheriff and district attorney of the county in which the defendants case is pending, defendants attorney of record, and the committing court.(c) When a defendant is returned to court with a certification that competence has been regained, the court shall notify either the community program director, the county mental health director, or the regional center director and the Director of Developmental Services, as appropriate, of the date of any hearing on the defendants competence and whether or not the defendant was found by the court to have recovered competence.(d) If the committing court approves the certificate of restoration to competence as to a person in custody, the court shall hold a hearing to determine whether the person is entitled to be admitted to bail or released on own recognizance status pending conclusion of the proceedings. If the superior court approves the certificate of restoration to competence regarding a person on outpatient status, unless it appears that the person has refused to come to court, that person shall remain released either on own recognizance status, or, in the case of a developmentally disabled person, either on the defendants promise or on the promise of a responsible adult to secure the persons appearance in court for further proceedings. If the person has refused to come to court, the court shall set bail and may place the person in custody until bail is posted.(e) A defendant subject to either subdivision (a) or (b) who is not admitted to bail or released under subdivision (d) may, at the discretion of the court, upon recommendation of the director of the facility where the defendant is receiving treatment, be returned to the hospital or facility of his or her original commitment or other appropriate secure facility approved by the community program director, the county mental health director, or the regional center director. The recommendation submitted to the court shall be based on the opinion that the person will need continued treatment in a hospital or treatment facility in order to maintain competence to stand trial or that placing the person in a jail environment would create a substantial risk that the person would again become incompetent to stand trial before criminal proceedings could be resumed.(f) Notwithstanding subdivision (e), if a defendant is returned by the court to a hospital or other facility for the purpose of maintaining competency to stand trial and that defendant is already under civil commitment to that hospital or facility from another county pursuant to the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act (Part 1 (commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code) or as a developmentally disabled person committed pursuant to Article 2 (commencing with Section 6500) of Chapter 2 of Part 2 of Division 6 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the costs of housing and treating the defendant in that facility following return pursuant to subdivision (e) shall be the responsibility of the original county of civil commitment.
13111322
13121323 1372. (a) (1) If the medical director of a state hospital or other facility to which the defendant is committed, or the community program director, county mental health director, or regional center director providing outpatient services, determines that the defendant has regained mental competence, the director shall immediately certify that fact to the court by filing a certificate of restoration with the court by certified mail, return receipt requested. For purposes of this section, the date of filing shall be the date on the return receipt.(2) The courts order committing an individual to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility pursuant to Section 1370 shall include direction that the sheriff shall redeliver the patient to the court without any further order from the court upon receiving from the state hospital or treatment facility a copy of the certificate of restoration.(3) The defendant shall be returned to the committing court in the following manner:(A) A patient who remains confined in a state hospital or other treatment facility shall be redelivered to the sheriff of the county from which the patient was committed. The sheriff shall immediately return the person from the state hospital or other treatment facility to the court for further proceedings.(B) The patient who is on outpatient status shall be returned by the sheriff to court through arrangements made by the outpatient treatment supervisor.(C) In all cases, the patient shall be returned to the committing court no later than 10 days following the filing of a certificate of restoration. The state shall only pay for 10 hospital days for patients following the filing of a certificate of restoration of competency. The State Department of State Hospitals shall report to the fiscal and appropriate policy committees of the Legislature on an annual basis in February, on the number of days that exceed the 10-day limit prescribed in this subparagraph. This report shall include, but not be limited to, a data sheet that itemizes by county the number of days that exceed this 10-day limit during the preceding year.(b) If the defendant becomes mentally competent after a conservatorship has been established pursuant to the applicable provisions of the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act, Part 1 (commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, and Section 1370, the conservator shall certify that fact to the sheriff and district attorney of the county in which the defendants case is pending, defendants attorney of record, and the committing court.(c) When a defendant is returned to court with a certification that competence has been regained, the court shall notify either the community program director, the county mental health director, or the regional center director and the Director of Developmental Services, as appropriate, of the date of any hearing on the defendants competence and whether or not the defendant was found by the court to have recovered competence.(d) If the committing court approves the certificate of restoration to competence as to a person in custody, the court shall hold a hearing to determine whether the person is entitled to be admitted to bail or released on own recognizance status pending conclusion of the proceedings. If the superior court approves the certificate of restoration to competence regarding a person on outpatient status, unless it appears that the person has refused to come to court, that person shall remain released either on own recognizance status, or, in the case of a developmentally disabled person, either on the defendants promise or on the promise of a responsible adult to secure the persons appearance in court for further proceedings. If the person has refused to come to court, the court shall set bail and may place the person in custody until bail is posted.(e) A defendant subject to either subdivision (a) or (b) who is not admitted to bail or released under subdivision (d) may, at the discretion of the court, upon recommendation of the director of the facility where the defendant is receiving treatment, be returned to the hospital or facility of his or her original commitment or other appropriate secure facility approved by the community program director, the county mental health director, or the regional center director. The recommendation submitted to the court shall be based on the opinion that the person will need continued treatment in a hospital or treatment facility in order to maintain competence to stand trial or that placing the person in a jail environment would create a substantial risk that the person would again become incompetent to stand trial before criminal proceedings could be resumed.(f) Notwithstanding subdivision (e), if a defendant is returned by the court to a hospital or other facility for the purpose of maintaining competency to stand trial and that defendant is already under civil commitment to that hospital or facility from another county pursuant to the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act (Part 1 (commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code) or as a developmentally disabled person committed pursuant to Article 2 (commencing with Section 6500) of Chapter 2 of Part 2 of Division 6 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the costs of housing and treating the defendant in that facility following return pursuant to subdivision (e) shall be the responsibility of the original county of civil commitment.
13131324
13141325 1372. (a) (1) If the medical director of a state hospital or other facility to which the defendant is committed, or the community program director, county mental health director, or regional center director providing outpatient services, determines that the defendant has regained mental competence, the director shall immediately certify that fact to the court by filing a certificate of restoration with the court by certified mail, return receipt requested. For purposes of this section, the date of filing shall be the date on the return receipt.(2) The courts order committing an individual to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility pursuant to Section 1370 shall include direction that the sheriff shall redeliver the patient to the court without any further order from the court upon receiving from the state hospital or treatment facility a copy of the certificate of restoration.(3) The defendant shall be returned to the committing court in the following manner:(A) A patient who remains confined in a state hospital or other treatment facility shall be redelivered to the sheriff of the county from which the patient was committed. The sheriff shall immediately return the person from the state hospital or other treatment facility to the court for further proceedings.(B) The patient who is on outpatient status shall be returned by the sheriff to court through arrangements made by the outpatient treatment supervisor.(C) In all cases, the patient shall be returned to the committing court no later than 10 days following the filing of a certificate of restoration. The state shall only pay for 10 hospital days for patients following the filing of a certificate of restoration of competency. The State Department of State Hospitals shall report to the fiscal and appropriate policy committees of the Legislature on an annual basis in February, on the number of days that exceed the 10-day limit prescribed in this subparagraph. This report shall include, but not be limited to, a data sheet that itemizes by county the number of days that exceed this 10-day limit during the preceding year.(b) If the defendant becomes mentally competent after a conservatorship has been established pursuant to the applicable provisions of the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act, Part 1 (commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, and Section 1370, the conservator shall certify that fact to the sheriff and district attorney of the county in which the defendants case is pending, defendants attorney of record, and the committing court.(c) When a defendant is returned to court with a certification that competence has been regained, the court shall notify either the community program director, the county mental health director, or the regional center director and the Director of Developmental Services, as appropriate, of the date of any hearing on the defendants competence and whether or not the defendant was found by the court to have recovered competence.(d) If the committing court approves the certificate of restoration to competence as to a person in custody, the court shall hold a hearing to determine whether the person is entitled to be admitted to bail or released on own recognizance status pending conclusion of the proceedings. If the superior court approves the certificate of restoration to competence regarding a person on outpatient status, unless it appears that the person has refused to come to court, that person shall remain released either on own recognizance status, or, in the case of a developmentally disabled person, either on the defendants promise or on the promise of a responsible adult to secure the persons appearance in court for further proceedings. If the person has refused to come to court, the court shall set bail and may place the person in custody until bail is posted.(e) A defendant subject to either subdivision (a) or (b) who is not admitted to bail or released under subdivision (d) may, at the discretion of the court, upon recommendation of the director of the facility where the defendant is receiving treatment, be returned to the hospital or facility of his or her original commitment or other appropriate secure facility approved by the community program director, the county mental health director, or the regional center director. The recommendation submitted to the court shall be based on the opinion that the person will need continued treatment in a hospital or treatment facility in order to maintain competence to stand trial or that placing the person in a jail environment would create a substantial risk that the person would again become incompetent to stand trial before criminal proceedings could be resumed.(f) Notwithstanding subdivision (e), if a defendant is returned by the court to a hospital or other facility for the purpose of maintaining competency to stand trial and that defendant is already under civil commitment to that hospital or facility from another county pursuant to the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act (Part 1 (commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code) or as a developmentally disabled person committed pursuant to Article 2 (commencing with Section 6500) of Chapter 2 of Part 2 of Division 6 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the costs of housing and treating the defendant in that facility following return pursuant to subdivision (e) shall be the responsibility of the original county of civil commitment.
13151326
13161327
13171328
13181329 1372. (a) (1) If the medical director of a state hospital or other facility to which the defendant is committed, or the community program director, county mental health director, or regional center director providing outpatient services, determines that the defendant has regained mental competence, the director shall immediately certify that fact to the court by filing a certificate of restoration with the court by certified mail, return receipt requested. For purposes of this section, the date of filing shall be the date on the return receipt.
13191330
13201331 (2) The courts order committing an individual to a State Department of State Hospitals facility or other treatment facility pursuant to Section 1370 shall include direction that the sheriff shall redeliver the patient to the court without any further order from the court upon receiving from the state hospital or treatment facility a copy of the certificate of restoration.
13211332
13221333 (3) The defendant shall be returned to the committing court in the following manner:
13231334
13241335 (A) A patient who remains confined in a state hospital or other treatment facility shall be redelivered to the sheriff of the county from which the patient was committed. The sheriff shall immediately return the person from the state hospital or other treatment facility to the court for further proceedings.
13251336
13261337 (B) The patient who is on outpatient status shall be returned by the sheriff to court through arrangements made by the outpatient treatment supervisor.
13271338
13281339 (C) In all cases, the patient shall be returned to the committing court no later than 10 days following the filing of a certificate of restoration. The state shall only pay for 10 hospital days for patients following the filing of a certificate of restoration of competency. The State Department of State Hospitals shall report to the fiscal and appropriate policy committees of the Legislature on an annual basis in February, on the number of days that exceed the 10-day limit prescribed in this subparagraph. This report shall include, but not be limited to, a data sheet that itemizes by county the number of days that exceed this 10-day limit during the preceding year.
13291340
13301341 (b) If the defendant becomes mentally competent after a conservatorship has been established pursuant to the applicable provisions of the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act, Part 1 (commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, and Section 1370, the conservator shall certify that fact to the sheriff and district attorney of the county in which the defendants case is pending, defendants attorney of record, and the committing court.
13311342
13321343 (c) When a defendant is returned to court with a certification that competence has been regained, the court shall notify either the community program director, the county mental health director, or the regional center director and the Director of Developmental Services, as appropriate, of the date of any hearing on the defendants competence and whether or not the defendant was found by the court to have recovered competence.
13331344
13341345 (d) If the committing court approves the certificate of restoration to competence as to a person in custody, the court shall hold a hearing to determine whether the person is entitled to be admitted to bail or released on own recognizance status pending conclusion of the proceedings. If the superior court approves the certificate of restoration to competence regarding a person on outpatient status, unless it appears that the person has refused to come to court, that person shall remain released either on own recognizance status, or, in the case of a developmentally disabled person, either on the defendants promise or on the promise of a responsible adult to secure the persons appearance in court for further proceedings. If the person has refused to come to court, the court shall set bail and may place the person in custody until bail is posted.
13351346
13361347 (e) A defendant subject to either subdivision (a) or (b) who is not admitted to bail or released under subdivision (d) may, at the discretion of the court, upon recommendation of the director of the facility where the defendant is receiving treatment, be returned to the hospital or facility of his or her original commitment or other appropriate secure facility approved by the community program director, the county mental health director, or the regional center director. The recommendation submitted to the court shall be based on the opinion that the person will need continued treatment in a hospital or treatment facility in order to maintain competence to stand trial or that placing the person in a jail environment would create a substantial risk that the person would again become incompetent to stand trial before criminal proceedings could be resumed.
13371348
13381349 (f) Notwithstanding subdivision (e), if a defendant is returned by the court to a hospital or other facility for the purpose of maintaining competency to stand trial and that defendant is already under civil commitment to that hospital or facility from another county pursuant to the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act (Part 1 (commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code) or as a developmentally disabled person committed pursuant to Article 2 (commencing with Section 6500) of Chapter 2 of Part 2 of Division 6 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the costs of housing and treating the defendant in that facility following return pursuant to subdivision (e) shall be the responsibility of the original county of civil commitment.
13391350
13401351 SEC. 33. Section 1463.007 of the Penal Code is amended to read:1463.007. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, a county or court that operates a comprehensive collection program may deduct the costs of operating that program, excluding capital expenditures, from any revenues collected under that program. The costs shall be deducted before any distribution of revenues to other governmental entities required by any other law. A county or court operating a comprehensive collection program may establish a minimum base fee, fine, forfeiture, penalty, or assessment amount for inclusion in the program.(b) Once debt becomes delinquent, it continues to be delinquent and may be subject to collection by a comprehensive collection program. Debt is delinquent and subject to collection by a comprehensive collection program if any of the following conditions is met:(1) A defendant does not post bail or appear on or before the date on which he or she promised to appear, or any lawful continuance of that date, if that defendant was eligible to post and forfeit bail.(2) A defendant does not pay the amount imposed by the court on or before the date ordered by the court, or any lawful continuance of that date.(3) A defendant has failed to make an installment payment on the date specified by the court.(c) For the purposes of this section, a comprehensive collection program is a separate and distinct revenue collection activity that meets each of the following criteria:(1) The program identifies and collects amounts arising from delinquent court-ordered debt, whether or not a warrant has been issued against the alleged violator.(2) The program complies with the requirements of subdivision (b) of Section 1463.010.(3) The program engages in each of the following activities:(A) Attempts telephone contact with delinquent debtors for whom the program has a telephone number to inform them of their delinquent status and payment options.(B) Notifies delinquent debtors for whom the program has an address in writing of their outstanding obligation within 95 days of delinquency.(C) Generates internal monthly reports to track collections data, such as age of debt and delinquent amounts outstanding.(D) Uses Department of Motor Vehicles information to locate delinquent debtors.(E) Accepts payment of delinquent debt by credit card.(4) The program engages in at least five of the following activities:(A) Sends delinquent debt to the Franchise Tax Boards Court-Ordered Debt Collections Program.(B) Sends delinquent debt to the Franchise Tax Boards Interagency Intercept Collections Program.(C) Initiates drivers license suspension or hold actions when appropriate for a failure to appear in court.(D) Contracts with one or more private debt collectors to collect delinquent debt.(E) Sends monthly bills or account statements to all delinquent debtors.(F) Contracts with local, regional, state, or national skip tracing or locator resources or services to locate delinquent debtors.(G) Coordinates with the probation department to locate debtors who may be on formal or informal probation.(H) Uses Employment Development Department employment and wage information to collect delinquent debt.(I) Establishes wage and bank account garnishments where appropriate.(J) Places liens on real property owned by delinquent debtors when appropriate.(K) Uses an automated dialer or automatic call distribution system to manage telephone calls.
13411352
13421353 SEC. 33. Section 1463.007 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
13431354
13441355 ### SEC. 33.
13451356
13461357 1463.007. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, a county or court that operates a comprehensive collection program may deduct the costs of operating that program, excluding capital expenditures, from any revenues collected under that program. The costs shall be deducted before any distribution of revenues to other governmental entities required by any other law. A county or court operating a comprehensive collection program may establish a minimum base fee, fine, forfeiture, penalty, or assessment amount for inclusion in the program.(b) Once debt becomes delinquent, it continues to be delinquent and may be subject to collection by a comprehensive collection program. Debt is delinquent and subject to collection by a comprehensive collection program if any of the following conditions is met:(1) A defendant does not post bail or appear on or before the date on which he or she promised to appear, or any lawful continuance of that date, if that defendant was eligible to post and forfeit bail.(2) A defendant does not pay the amount imposed by the court on or before the date ordered by the court, or any lawful continuance of that date.(3) A defendant has failed to make an installment payment on the date specified by the court.(c) For the purposes of this section, a comprehensive collection program is a separate and distinct revenue collection activity that meets each of the following criteria:(1) The program identifies and collects amounts arising from delinquent court-ordered debt, whether or not a warrant has been issued against the alleged violator.(2) The program complies with the requirements of subdivision (b) of Section 1463.010.(3) The program engages in each of the following activities:(A) Attempts telephone contact with delinquent debtors for whom the program has a telephone number to inform them of their delinquent status and payment options.(B) Notifies delinquent debtors for whom the program has an address in writing of their outstanding obligation within 95 days of delinquency.(C) Generates internal monthly reports to track collections data, such as age of debt and delinquent amounts outstanding.(D) Uses Department of Motor Vehicles information to locate delinquent debtors.(E) Accepts payment of delinquent debt by credit card.(4) The program engages in at least five of the following activities:(A) Sends delinquent debt to the Franchise Tax Boards Court-Ordered Debt Collections Program.(B) Sends delinquent debt to the Franchise Tax Boards Interagency Intercept Collections Program.(C) Initiates drivers license suspension or hold actions when appropriate for a failure to appear in court.(D) Contracts with one or more private debt collectors to collect delinquent debt.(E) Sends monthly bills or account statements to all delinquent debtors.(F) Contracts with local, regional, state, or national skip tracing or locator resources or services to locate delinquent debtors.(G) Coordinates with the probation department to locate debtors who may be on formal or informal probation.(H) Uses Employment Development Department employment and wage information to collect delinquent debt.(I) Establishes wage and bank account garnishments where appropriate.(J) Places liens on real property owned by delinquent debtors when appropriate.(K) Uses an automated dialer or automatic call distribution system to manage telephone calls.
13471358
13481359 1463.007. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, a county or court that operates a comprehensive collection program may deduct the costs of operating that program, excluding capital expenditures, from any revenues collected under that program. The costs shall be deducted before any distribution of revenues to other governmental entities required by any other law. A county or court operating a comprehensive collection program may establish a minimum base fee, fine, forfeiture, penalty, or assessment amount for inclusion in the program.(b) Once debt becomes delinquent, it continues to be delinquent and may be subject to collection by a comprehensive collection program. Debt is delinquent and subject to collection by a comprehensive collection program if any of the following conditions is met:(1) A defendant does not post bail or appear on or before the date on which he or she promised to appear, or any lawful continuance of that date, if that defendant was eligible to post and forfeit bail.(2) A defendant does not pay the amount imposed by the court on or before the date ordered by the court, or any lawful continuance of that date.(3) A defendant has failed to make an installment payment on the date specified by the court.(c) For the purposes of this section, a comprehensive collection program is a separate and distinct revenue collection activity that meets each of the following criteria:(1) The program identifies and collects amounts arising from delinquent court-ordered debt, whether or not a warrant has been issued against the alleged violator.(2) The program complies with the requirements of subdivision (b) of Section 1463.010.(3) The program engages in each of the following activities:(A) Attempts telephone contact with delinquent debtors for whom the program has a telephone number to inform them of their delinquent status and payment options.(B) Notifies delinquent debtors for whom the program has an address in writing of their outstanding obligation within 95 days of delinquency.(C) Generates internal monthly reports to track collections data, such as age of debt and delinquent amounts outstanding.(D) Uses Department of Motor Vehicles information to locate delinquent debtors.(E) Accepts payment of delinquent debt by credit card.(4) The program engages in at least five of the following activities:(A) Sends delinquent debt to the Franchise Tax Boards Court-Ordered Debt Collections Program.(B) Sends delinquent debt to the Franchise Tax Boards Interagency Intercept Collections Program.(C) Initiates drivers license suspension or hold actions when appropriate for a failure to appear in court.(D) Contracts with one or more private debt collectors to collect delinquent debt.(E) Sends monthly bills or account statements to all delinquent debtors.(F) Contracts with local, regional, state, or national skip tracing or locator resources or services to locate delinquent debtors.(G) Coordinates with the probation department to locate debtors who may be on formal or informal probation.(H) Uses Employment Development Department employment and wage information to collect delinquent debt.(I) Establishes wage and bank account garnishments where appropriate.(J) Places liens on real property owned by delinquent debtors when appropriate.(K) Uses an automated dialer or automatic call distribution system to manage telephone calls.
13491360
13501361 1463.007. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, a county or court that operates a comprehensive collection program may deduct the costs of operating that program, excluding capital expenditures, from any revenues collected under that program. The costs shall be deducted before any distribution of revenues to other governmental entities required by any other law. A county or court operating a comprehensive collection program may establish a minimum base fee, fine, forfeiture, penalty, or assessment amount for inclusion in the program.(b) Once debt becomes delinquent, it continues to be delinquent and may be subject to collection by a comprehensive collection program. Debt is delinquent and subject to collection by a comprehensive collection program if any of the following conditions is met:(1) A defendant does not post bail or appear on or before the date on which he or she promised to appear, or any lawful continuance of that date, if that defendant was eligible to post and forfeit bail.(2) A defendant does not pay the amount imposed by the court on or before the date ordered by the court, or any lawful continuance of that date.(3) A defendant has failed to make an installment payment on the date specified by the court.(c) For the purposes of this section, a comprehensive collection program is a separate and distinct revenue collection activity that meets each of the following criteria:(1) The program identifies and collects amounts arising from delinquent court-ordered debt, whether or not a warrant has been issued against the alleged violator.(2) The program complies with the requirements of subdivision (b) of Section 1463.010.(3) The program engages in each of the following activities:(A) Attempts telephone contact with delinquent debtors for whom the program has a telephone number to inform them of their delinquent status and payment options.(B) Notifies delinquent debtors for whom the program has an address in writing of their outstanding obligation within 95 days of delinquency.(C) Generates internal monthly reports to track collections data, such as age of debt and delinquent amounts outstanding.(D) Uses Department of Motor Vehicles information to locate delinquent debtors.(E) Accepts payment of delinquent debt by credit card.(4) The program engages in at least five of the following activities:(A) Sends delinquent debt to the Franchise Tax Boards Court-Ordered Debt Collections Program.(B) Sends delinquent debt to the Franchise Tax Boards Interagency Intercept Collections Program.(C) Initiates drivers license suspension or hold actions when appropriate for a failure to appear in court.(D) Contracts with one or more private debt collectors to collect delinquent debt.(E) Sends monthly bills or account statements to all delinquent debtors.(F) Contracts with local, regional, state, or national skip tracing or locator resources or services to locate delinquent debtors.(G) Coordinates with the probation department to locate debtors who may be on formal or informal probation.(H) Uses Employment Development Department employment and wage information to collect delinquent debt.(I) Establishes wage and bank account garnishments where appropriate.(J) Places liens on real property owned by delinquent debtors when appropriate.(K) Uses an automated dialer or automatic call distribution system to manage telephone calls.
13511362
13521363
13531364
13541365 1463.007. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, a county or court that operates a comprehensive collection program may deduct the costs of operating that program, excluding capital expenditures, from any revenues collected under that program. The costs shall be deducted before any distribution of revenues to other governmental entities required by any other law. A county or court operating a comprehensive collection program may establish a minimum base fee, fine, forfeiture, penalty, or assessment amount for inclusion in the program.
13551366
13561367 (b) Once debt becomes delinquent, it continues to be delinquent and may be subject to collection by a comprehensive collection program. Debt is delinquent and subject to collection by a comprehensive collection program if any of the following conditions is met:
13571368
13581369 (1) A defendant does not post bail or appear on or before the date on which he or she promised to appear, or any lawful continuance of that date, if that defendant was eligible to post and forfeit bail.
13591370
13601371 (2) A defendant does not pay the amount imposed by the court on or before the date ordered by the court, or any lawful continuance of that date.
13611372
13621373 (3) A defendant has failed to make an installment payment on the date specified by the court.
13631374
13641375 (c) For the purposes of this section, a comprehensive collection program is a separate and distinct revenue collection activity that meets each of the following criteria:
13651376
13661377 (1) The program identifies and collects amounts arising from delinquent court-ordered debt, whether or not a warrant has been issued against the alleged violator.
13671378
13681379 (2) The program complies with the requirements of subdivision (b) of Section 1463.010.
13691380
13701381 (3) The program engages in each of the following activities:
13711382
13721383 (A) Attempts telephone contact with delinquent debtors for whom the program has a telephone number to inform them of their delinquent status and payment options.
13731384
13741385 (B) Notifies delinquent debtors for whom the program has an address in writing of their outstanding obligation within 95 days of delinquency.
13751386
13761387 (C) Generates internal monthly reports to track collections data, such as age of debt and delinquent amounts outstanding.
13771388
13781389 (D) Uses Department of Motor Vehicles information to locate delinquent debtors.
13791390
13801391 (E) Accepts payment of delinquent debt by credit card.
13811392
13821393 (4) The program engages in at least five of the following activities:
13831394
13841395 (A) Sends delinquent debt to the Franchise Tax Boards Court-Ordered Debt Collections Program.
13851396
13861397 (B) Sends delinquent debt to the Franchise Tax Boards Interagency Intercept Collections Program.
13871398
13881399 (C) Initiates drivers license suspension or hold actions when appropriate for a failure to appear in court.
13891400
13901401 (D) Contracts with one or more private debt collectors to collect delinquent debt.
13911402
13921403 (E) Sends monthly bills or account statements to all delinquent debtors.
13931404
13941405 (F) Contracts with local, regional, state, or national skip tracing or locator resources or services to locate delinquent debtors.
13951406
13961407 (G) Coordinates with the probation department to locate debtors who may be on formal or informal probation.
13971408
13981409 (H) Uses Employment Development Department employment and wage information to collect delinquent debt.
13991410
14001411 (I) Establishes wage and bank account garnishments where appropriate.
14011412
14021413 (J) Places liens on real property owned by delinquent debtors when appropriate.
14031414
14041415 (K) Uses an automated dialer or automatic call distribution system to manage telephone calls.
14051416
14061417 SEC. 34. Section 1464 of the Penal Code is amended to read:1464. (a) (1) Subject to Chapter 12 (commencing with Section 76000) of Title 8 of the Government Code, and except as otherwise provided in this section, there shall be levied a state penalty in the amount of ten dollars ($10) for every ten dollars ($10), or part of ten dollars ($10), upon every fine, penalty, or forfeiture imposed and collected by the courts for all criminal offenses, including all offenses, except parking offenses as defined in subdivision (i) of Section 1463, involving a violation of a section of the Vehicle Code or any local ordinance adopted pursuant to the Vehicle Code.(2) Any bail schedule adopted pursuant to Section 1269b or bail schedule adopted by the Judicial Council pursuant to Section 40310 of the Vehicle Code may include the necessary amount to pay the penalties established by this section and Chapter 12 (commencing with Section 76000) of Title 8 of the Government Code, and the surcharge authorized by Section 1465.7, for all matters where a personal appearance is not mandatory and the bail is posted primarily to guarantee payment of the fine.(3) The penalty imposed by this section does not apply to the following:(A) Any restitution fine.(B) Any penalty authorized by Chapter 12 (commencing with Section 76000) of Title 8 of the Government Code.(C) Any parking offense subject to Article 3 (commencing with Section 40200) of Chapter 1 of Division 17 of the Vehicle Code.(D) The state surcharge authorized by Section 1465.7.(b) Where multiple offenses are involved, the state penalty shall be based upon the total fine or bail for each case. When a fine is suspended, in whole or in part, the state penalty shall be reduced in proportion to the suspension.(c) When any deposited bail is made for an offense to which this section applies, and for which a court appearance is not mandatory, the person making the deposit shall also deposit a sufficient amount to include the state penalty prescribed by this section for forfeited bail. If bail is returned, the state penalty paid thereon pursuant to this section shall also be returned.(d) In any case where a person convicted of any offense, to which this section applies, is in prison until the fine is satisfied, the judge may waive all or any part of the state penalty, the payment of which would work a hardship on the person convicted or his or her immediate family.(e) After a determination by the court of the amount due, the clerk of the court shall collect the penalty and transmit it to the county treasury. The portion thereof attributable to Chapter 12 (commencing with Section 76000) of Title 8 of the Government Code shall be deposited in the appropriate county fund and 70 percent of the balance shall then be transmitted to the State Treasury, to be deposited in the State Penalty Fund, which is hereby created, and 30 percent to remain on deposit in the county general fund. The transmission to the State Treasury shall be carried out in the same manner as fines collected for the state by a county.(f) Notwithstanding any other law, the Director of Finance shall provide a schedule to the Controller for all transfers of funds made available by the Budget Act from the State Penalty Fund in the current fiscal year.(g) Upon the order of the Department of Finance, sufficient funds may be transferred by the Controller from the General Fund for cashflow needs of the State Penalty Fund. A cashflow loan made pursuant to this provision shall be short term and does not constitute a General Fund expenditure. A cashflow loan and the repayment of a cashflow loan does not affect the General Fund reserve.
14071418
14081419 SEC. 34. Section 1464 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
14091420
14101421 ### SEC. 34.
14111422
14121423 1464. (a) (1) Subject to Chapter 12 (commencing with Section 76000) of Title 8 of the Government Code, and except as otherwise provided in this section, there shall be levied a state penalty in the amount of ten dollars ($10) for every ten dollars ($10), or part of ten dollars ($10), upon every fine, penalty, or forfeiture imposed and collected by the courts for all criminal offenses, including all offenses, except parking offenses as defined in subdivision (i) of Section 1463, involving a violation of a section of the Vehicle Code or any local ordinance adopted pursuant to the Vehicle Code.(2) Any bail schedule adopted pursuant to Section 1269b or bail schedule adopted by the Judicial Council pursuant to Section 40310 of the Vehicle Code may include the necessary amount to pay the penalties established by this section and Chapter 12 (commencing with Section 76000) of Title 8 of the Government Code, and the surcharge authorized by Section 1465.7, for all matters where a personal appearance is not mandatory and the bail is posted primarily to guarantee payment of the fine.(3) The penalty imposed by this section does not apply to the following:(A) Any restitution fine.(B) Any penalty authorized by Chapter 12 (commencing with Section 76000) of Title 8 of the Government Code.(C) Any parking offense subject to Article 3 (commencing with Section 40200) of Chapter 1 of Division 17 of the Vehicle Code.(D) The state surcharge authorized by Section 1465.7.(b) Where multiple offenses are involved, the state penalty shall be based upon the total fine or bail for each case. When a fine is suspended, in whole or in part, the state penalty shall be reduced in proportion to the suspension.(c) When any deposited bail is made for an offense to which this section applies, and for which a court appearance is not mandatory, the person making the deposit shall also deposit a sufficient amount to include the state penalty prescribed by this section for forfeited bail. If bail is returned, the state penalty paid thereon pursuant to this section shall also be returned.(d) In any case where a person convicted of any offense, to which this section applies, is in prison until the fine is satisfied, the judge may waive all or any part of the state penalty, the payment of which would work a hardship on the person convicted or his or her immediate family.(e) After a determination by the court of the amount due, the clerk of the court shall collect the penalty and transmit it to the county treasury. The portion thereof attributable to Chapter 12 (commencing with Section 76000) of Title 8 of the Government Code shall be deposited in the appropriate county fund and 70 percent of the balance shall then be transmitted to the State Treasury, to be deposited in the State Penalty Fund, which is hereby created, and 30 percent to remain on deposit in the county general fund. The transmission to the State Treasury shall be carried out in the same manner as fines collected for the state by a county.(f) Notwithstanding any other law, the Director of Finance shall provide a schedule to the Controller for all transfers of funds made available by the Budget Act from the State Penalty Fund in the current fiscal year.(g) Upon the order of the Department of Finance, sufficient funds may be transferred by the Controller from the General Fund for cashflow needs of the State Penalty Fund. A cashflow loan made pursuant to this provision shall be short term and does not constitute a General Fund expenditure. A cashflow loan and the repayment of a cashflow loan does not affect the General Fund reserve.
14131424
14141425 1464. (a) (1) Subject to Chapter 12 (commencing with Section 76000) of Title 8 of the Government Code, and except as otherwise provided in this section, there shall be levied a state penalty in the amount of ten dollars ($10) for every ten dollars ($10), or part of ten dollars ($10), upon every fine, penalty, or forfeiture imposed and collected by the courts for all criminal offenses, including all offenses, except parking offenses as defined in subdivision (i) of Section 1463, involving a violation of a section of the Vehicle Code or any local ordinance adopted pursuant to the Vehicle Code.(2) Any bail schedule adopted pursuant to Section 1269b or bail schedule adopted by the Judicial Council pursuant to Section 40310 of the Vehicle Code may include the necessary amount to pay the penalties established by this section and Chapter 12 (commencing with Section 76000) of Title 8 of the Government Code, and the surcharge authorized by Section 1465.7, for all matters where a personal appearance is not mandatory and the bail is posted primarily to guarantee payment of the fine.(3) The penalty imposed by this section does not apply to the following:(A) Any restitution fine.(B) Any penalty authorized by Chapter 12 (commencing with Section 76000) of Title 8 of the Government Code.(C) Any parking offense subject to Article 3 (commencing with Section 40200) of Chapter 1 of Division 17 of the Vehicle Code.(D) The state surcharge authorized by Section 1465.7.(b) Where multiple offenses are involved, the state penalty shall be based upon the total fine or bail for each case. When a fine is suspended, in whole or in part, the state penalty shall be reduced in proportion to the suspension.(c) When any deposited bail is made for an offense to which this section applies, and for which a court appearance is not mandatory, the person making the deposit shall also deposit a sufficient amount to include the state penalty prescribed by this section for forfeited bail. If bail is returned, the state penalty paid thereon pursuant to this section shall also be returned.(d) In any case where a person convicted of any offense, to which this section applies, is in prison until the fine is satisfied, the judge may waive all or any part of the state penalty, the payment of which would work a hardship on the person convicted or his or her immediate family.(e) After a determination by the court of the amount due, the clerk of the court shall collect the penalty and transmit it to the county treasury. The portion thereof attributable to Chapter 12 (commencing with Section 76000) of Title 8 of the Government Code shall be deposited in the appropriate county fund and 70 percent of the balance shall then be transmitted to the State Treasury, to be deposited in the State Penalty Fund, which is hereby created, and 30 percent to remain on deposit in the county general fund. The transmission to the State Treasury shall be carried out in the same manner as fines collected for the state by a county.(f) Notwithstanding any other law, the Director of Finance shall provide a schedule to the Controller for all transfers of funds made available by the Budget Act from the State Penalty Fund in the current fiscal year.(g) Upon the order of the Department of Finance, sufficient funds may be transferred by the Controller from the General Fund for cashflow needs of the State Penalty Fund. A cashflow loan made pursuant to this provision shall be short term and does not constitute a General Fund expenditure. A cashflow loan and the repayment of a cashflow loan does not affect the General Fund reserve.
14151426
14161427 1464. (a) (1) Subject to Chapter 12 (commencing with Section 76000) of Title 8 of the Government Code, and except as otherwise provided in this section, there shall be levied a state penalty in the amount of ten dollars ($10) for every ten dollars ($10), or part of ten dollars ($10), upon every fine, penalty, or forfeiture imposed and collected by the courts for all criminal offenses, including all offenses, except parking offenses as defined in subdivision (i) of Section 1463, involving a violation of a section of the Vehicle Code or any local ordinance adopted pursuant to the Vehicle Code.(2) Any bail schedule adopted pursuant to Section 1269b or bail schedule adopted by the Judicial Council pursuant to Section 40310 of the Vehicle Code may include the necessary amount to pay the penalties established by this section and Chapter 12 (commencing with Section 76000) of Title 8 of the Government Code, and the surcharge authorized by Section 1465.7, for all matters where a personal appearance is not mandatory and the bail is posted primarily to guarantee payment of the fine.(3) The penalty imposed by this section does not apply to the following:(A) Any restitution fine.(B) Any penalty authorized by Chapter 12 (commencing with Section 76000) of Title 8 of the Government Code.(C) Any parking offense subject to Article 3 (commencing with Section 40200) of Chapter 1 of Division 17 of the Vehicle Code.(D) The state surcharge authorized by Section 1465.7.(b) Where multiple offenses are involved, the state penalty shall be based upon the total fine or bail for each case. When a fine is suspended, in whole or in part, the state penalty shall be reduced in proportion to the suspension.(c) When any deposited bail is made for an offense to which this section applies, and for which a court appearance is not mandatory, the person making the deposit shall also deposit a sufficient amount to include the state penalty prescribed by this section for forfeited bail. If bail is returned, the state penalty paid thereon pursuant to this section shall also be returned.(d) In any case where a person convicted of any offense, to which this section applies, is in prison until the fine is satisfied, the judge may waive all or any part of the state penalty, the payment of which would work a hardship on the person convicted or his or her immediate family.(e) After a determination by the court of the amount due, the clerk of the court shall collect the penalty and transmit it to the county treasury. The portion thereof attributable to Chapter 12 (commencing with Section 76000) of Title 8 of the Government Code shall be deposited in the appropriate county fund and 70 percent of the balance shall then be transmitted to the State Treasury, to be deposited in the State Penalty Fund, which is hereby created, and 30 percent to remain on deposit in the county general fund. The transmission to the State Treasury shall be carried out in the same manner as fines collected for the state by a county.(f) Notwithstanding any other law, the Director of Finance shall provide a schedule to the Controller for all transfers of funds made available by the Budget Act from the State Penalty Fund in the current fiscal year.(g) Upon the order of the Department of Finance, sufficient funds may be transferred by the Controller from the General Fund for cashflow needs of the State Penalty Fund. A cashflow loan made pursuant to this provision shall be short term and does not constitute a General Fund expenditure. A cashflow loan and the repayment of a cashflow loan does not affect the General Fund reserve.
14171428
14181429
14191430
14201431 1464. (a) (1) Subject to Chapter 12 (commencing with Section 76000) of Title 8 of the Government Code, and except as otherwise provided in this section, there shall be levied a state penalty in the amount of ten dollars ($10) for every ten dollars ($10), or part of ten dollars ($10), upon every fine, penalty, or forfeiture imposed and collected by the courts for all criminal offenses, including all offenses, except parking offenses as defined in subdivision (i) of Section 1463, involving a violation of a section of the Vehicle Code or any local ordinance adopted pursuant to the Vehicle Code.
14211432
14221433 (2) Any bail schedule adopted pursuant to Section 1269b or bail schedule adopted by the Judicial Council pursuant to Section 40310 of the Vehicle Code may include the necessary amount to pay the penalties established by this section and Chapter 12 (commencing with Section 76000) of Title 8 of the Government Code, and the surcharge authorized by Section 1465.7, for all matters where a personal appearance is not mandatory and the bail is posted primarily to guarantee payment of the fine.
14231434
14241435 (3) The penalty imposed by this section does not apply to the following:
14251436
14261437 (A) Any restitution fine.
14271438
14281439 (B) Any penalty authorized by Chapter 12 (commencing with Section 76000) of Title 8 of the Government Code.
14291440
14301441 (C) Any parking offense subject to Article 3 (commencing with Section 40200) of Chapter 1 of Division 17 of the Vehicle Code.
14311442
14321443 (D) The state surcharge authorized by Section 1465.7.
14331444
14341445 (b) Where multiple offenses are involved, the state penalty shall be based upon the total fine or bail for each case. When a fine is suspended, in whole or in part, the state penalty shall be reduced in proportion to the suspension.
14351446
14361447 (c) When any deposited bail is made for an offense to which this section applies, and for which a court appearance is not mandatory, the person making the deposit shall also deposit a sufficient amount to include the state penalty prescribed by this section for forfeited bail. If bail is returned, the state penalty paid thereon pursuant to this section shall also be returned.
14371448
14381449 (d) In any case where a person convicted of any offense, to which this section applies, is in prison until the fine is satisfied, the judge may waive all or any part of the state penalty, the payment of which would work a hardship on the person convicted or his or her immediate family.
14391450
14401451 (e) After a determination by the court of the amount due, the clerk of the court shall collect the penalty and transmit it to the county treasury. The portion thereof attributable to Chapter 12 (commencing with Section 76000) of Title 8 of the Government Code shall be deposited in the appropriate county fund and 70 percent of the balance shall then be transmitted to the State Treasury, to be deposited in the State Penalty Fund, which is hereby created, and 30 percent to remain on deposit in the county general fund. The transmission to the State Treasury shall be carried out in the same manner as fines collected for the state by a county.
14411452
14421453 (f) Notwithstanding any other law, the Director of Finance shall provide a schedule to the Controller for all transfers of funds made available by the Budget Act from the State Penalty Fund in the current fiscal year.
14431454
14441455 (g) Upon the order of the Department of Finance, sufficient funds may be transferred by the Controller from the General Fund for cashflow needs of the State Penalty Fund. A cashflow loan made pursuant to this provision shall be short term and does not constitute a General Fund expenditure. A cashflow loan and the repayment of a cashflow loan does not affect the General Fund reserve.
14451456
14461457 SEC. 35. Section 1464.2 of the Penal Code is repealed.
14471458
14481459 SEC. 35. Section 1464.2 of the Penal Code is repealed.
14491460
14501461 ### SEC. 35.
14511462
14521463
14531464
14541465 SEC. 36. Section 1557 of the Penal Code is amended to read:1557. (a) This section shall apply when this state or a city, county, or city and county employs a person to travel to a foreign jurisdiction outside this state for the express purpose of returning a fugitive from justice to this state when the Governor of this state, in the exercise of the authority conferred by Section 2 of Article IV of the United States Constitution, or by the laws of this state, has demanded the surrender of the fugitive from the executive authority of any state of the United States, or of any foreign government.(b) Upon the approval of the Governor, the Controller shall audit and pay out of the State Treasury as provided in subdivision (c) or (d) the accounts of the person employed to bring back the fugitive, including any money paid by that person for all of the following:(1) Money paid to the authorities of a sister state for statutory fees in connection with the detention and surrender of the fugitive.(2) Money paid to the authorities of the sister state for the subsistence of the fugitive while detained by the sister state without payment of which the authorities of the sister state refuse to surrender the fugitive.(3) Where it is necessary to present witnesses or evidence in the sister state, without which the sister state would not surrender the fugitive, the cost of producing the witnesses or evidence in the sister state.(4) Where the appearance of witnesses has been authorized in advance by the Governor, who may authorize the appearance in unusual cases where the interests of justice would be served, the cost of producing witnesses to appear in the sister state on behalf of the fugitive in opposition to his or her extradition.(c) No amount shall be paid out of the State Treasury to a city, county, or city and county except as follows:(1) When a warrant has been issued by any magistrate after the filing of a complaint or the finding of an indictment and its presentation to the court and filing by the clerk, and the person named therein as defendant is a fugitive from justice who has been found and arrested in any state of the United States or in any foreign government, the county auditor shall draw his or her warrant and the county treasurer shall pay to the person designated to return the fugitive, the amount of expenses estimated by the district attorney to be incurred in the return of the fugitive.(2) If the person designated to return the fugitive is a city officer, the city officer authorized to draw warrants on the city treasury shall draw his or her warrant and the city treasurer shall pay to that person the amount of expenses estimated by the district attorney to be incurred in the return of the fugitive.(3) The person designated to return the fugitive shall make no disbursements from any funds advanced without a receipt being obtained therefor showing the amount, the purpose for which the sum is expended, the place, the date, and to whom paid.(4) A receipt obtained pursuant to paragraph (3) shall be filed by the person designated to return the fugitive with the county auditor or appropriate city officer or the Controller, as the case may be, together with an affidavit by the person that the expenditures represented by the receipts were necessarily made in the performance of duty, and when the advance has been made by the county or city treasurer to the person designated to return the fugitive, and has thereafter been audited by the Controller, the payment thereof shall be made by the State Treasurer to the county or city treasury that has advanced the funds.(5) If the expenses of the person employed to bring back the fugitive are less than the amount advanced on the recommendation of the district attorney, the person employed to bring back the fugitive shall return to the county or city treasurer, as appropriate, the difference in amount between the aggregate amount of receipts so filed by him or her, and the amount advanced to the person upon the recommendation of the district attorney.(6) When no advance has been made to the person designated to return the fugitive, the sums expended by him or her, when audited by the Controller, shall be paid by the State Treasurer to the person so designated.(7) Any payments made out of the State Treasury pursuant to this section shall be made from appropriations for the fiscal year in which those payments are made.(d) A city, county, or other jurisdiction shall not file, and the state shall not reimburse, a claim pursuant to this section that is presented to the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation or to any other agency or department of the state more than six months after the close of the month in which the costs were incurred. Notwithstanding any other law, a person transporting a fugitive as authorized by the Governor pursuant to this section shall be reimbursed according to the rates in paragraphs (1) to (5), inclusive. Rates and rules for reimbursement of travel claims not specified in paragraphs (1) to (5), inclusive, shall be consistent with the rules of the Department of General Services.(1) Reimbursement for breakfast is up to four dollars ($4).(2) Reimbursement for lunch is up to seven dollars and twenty-five cents ($7.25).(3) Reimbursement for dinner is up to twelve dollars ($12).(4) Reimbursement for incidental expenses is up to three dollars and seventy-five cents ($3.75).(5) Reimbursement for a meal for a prisoner, patient, ward, or fugitive is up to the amounts specified in paragraphs (1) to (3), inclusive.
14551466
14561467 SEC. 36. Section 1557 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
14571468
14581469 ### SEC. 36.
14591470
14601471 1557. (a) This section shall apply when this state or a city, county, or city and county employs a person to travel to a foreign jurisdiction outside this state for the express purpose of returning a fugitive from justice to this state when the Governor of this state, in the exercise of the authority conferred by Section 2 of Article IV of the United States Constitution, or by the laws of this state, has demanded the surrender of the fugitive from the executive authority of any state of the United States, or of any foreign government.(b) Upon the approval of the Governor, the Controller shall audit and pay out of the State Treasury as provided in subdivision (c) or (d) the accounts of the person employed to bring back the fugitive, including any money paid by that person for all of the following:(1) Money paid to the authorities of a sister state for statutory fees in connection with the detention and surrender of the fugitive.(2) Money paid to the authorities of the sister state for the subsistence of the fugitive while detained by the sister state without payment of which the authorities of the sister state refuse to surrender the fugitive.(3) Where it is necessary to present witnesses or evidence in the sister state, without which the sister state would not surrender the fugitive, the cost of producing the witnesses or evidence in the sister state.(4) Where the appearance of witnesses has been authorized in advance by the Governor, who may authorize the appearance in unusual cases where the interests of justice would be served, the cost of producing witnesses to appear in the sister state on behalf of the fugitive in opposition to his or her extradition.(c) No amount shall be paid out of the State Treasury to a city, county, or city and county except as follows:(1) When a warrant has been issued by any magistrate after the filing of a complaint or the finding of an indictment and its presentation to the court and filing by the clerk, and the person named therein as defendant is a fugitive from justice who has been found and arrested in any state of the United States or in any foreign government, the county auditor shall draw his or her warrant and the county treasurer shall pay to the person designated to return the fugitive, the amount of expenses estimated by the district attorney to be incurred in the return of the fugitive.(2) If the person designated to return the fugitive is a city officer, the city officer authorized to draw warrants on the city treasury shall draw his or her warrant and the city treasurer shall pay to that person the amount of expenses estimated by the district attorney to be incurred in the return of the fugitive.(3) The person designated to return the fugitive shall make no disbursements from any funds advanced without a receipt being obtained therefor showing the amount, the purpose for which the sum is expended, the place, the date, and to whom paid.(4) A receipt obtained pursuant to paragraph (3) shall be filed by the person designated to return the fugitive with the county auditor or appropriate city officer or the Controller, as the case may be, together with an affidavit by the person that the expenditures represented by the receipts were necessarily made in the performance of duty, and when the advance has been made by the county or city treasurer to the person designated to return the fugitive, and has thereafter been audited by the Controller, the payment thereof shall be made by the State Treasurer to the county or city treasury that has advanced the funds.(5) If the expenses of the person employed to bring back the fugitive are less than the amount advanced on the recommendation of the district attorney, the person employed to bring back the fugitive shall return to the county or city treasurer, as appropriate, the difference in amount between the aggregate amount of receipts so filed by him or her, and the amount advanced to the person upon the recommendation of the district attorney.(6) When no advance has been made to the person designated to return the fugitive, the sums expended by him or her, when audited by the Controller, shall be paid by the State Treasurer to the person so designated.(7) Any payments made out of the State Treasury pursuant to this section shall be made from appropriations for the fiscal year in which those payments are made.(d) A city, county, or other jurisdiction shall not file, and the state shall not reimburse, a claim pursuant to this section that is presented to the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation or to any other agency or department of the state more than six months after the close of the month in which the costs were incurred. Notwithstanding any other law, a person transporting a fugitive as authorized by the Governor pursuant to this section shall be reimbursed according to the rates in paragraphs (1) to (5), inclusive. Rates and rules for reimbursement of travel claims not specified in paragraphs (1) to (5), inclusive, shall be consistent with the rules of the Department of General Services.(1) Reimbursement for breakfast is up to four dollars ($4).(2) Reimbursement for lunch is up to seven dollars and twenty-five cents ($7.25).(3) Reimbursement for dinner is up to twelve dollars ($12).(4) Reimbursement for incidental expenses is up to three dollars and seventy-five cents ($3.75).(5) Reimbursement for a meal for a prisoner, patient, ward, or fugitive is up to the amounts specified in paragraphs (1) to (3), inclusive.
14611472
14621473 1557. (a) This section shall apply when this state or a city, county, or city and county employs a person to travel to a foreign jurisdiction outside this state for the express purpose of returning a fugitive from justice to this state when the Governor of this state, in the exercise of the authority conferred by Section 2 of Article IV of the United States Constitution, or by the laws of this state, has demanded the surrender of the fugitive from the executive authority of any state of the United States, or of any foreign government.(b) Upon the approval of the Governor, the Controller shall audit and pay out of the State Treasury as provided in subdivision (c) or (d) the accounts of the person employed to bring back the fugitive, including any money paid by that person for all of the following:(1) Money paid to the authorities of a sister state for statutory fees in connection with the detention and surrender of the fugitive.(2) Money paid to the authorities of the sister state for the subsistence of the fugitive while detained by the sister state without payment of which the authorities of the sister state refuse to surrender the fugitive.(3) Where it is necessary to present witnesses or evidence in the sister state, without which the sister state would not surrender the fugitive, the cost of producing the witnesses or evidence in the sister state.(4) Where the appearance of witnesses has been authorized in advance by the Governor, who may authorize the appearance in unusual cases where the interests of justice would be served, the cost of producing witnesses to appear in the sister state on behalf of the fugitive in opposition to his or her extradition.(c) No amount shall be paid out of the State Treasury to a city, county, or city and county except as follows:(1) When a warrant has been issued by any magistrate after the filing of a complaint or the finding of an indictment and its presentation to the court and filing by the clerk, and the person named therein as defendant is a fugitive from justice who has been found and arrested in any state of the United States or in any foreign government, the county auditor shall draw his or her warrant and the county treasurer shall pay to the person designated to return the fugitive, the amount of expenses estimated by the district attorney to be incurred in the return of the fugitive.(2) If the person designated to return the fugitive is a city officer, the city officer authorized to draw warrants on the city treasury shall draw his or her warrant and the city treasurer shall pay to that person the amount of expenses estimated by the district attorney to be incurred in the return of the fugitive.(3) The person designated to return the fugitive shall make no disbursements from any funds advanced without a receipt being obtained therefor showing the amount, the purpose for which the sum is expended, the place, the date, and to whom paid.(4) A receipt obtained pursuant to paragraph (3) shall be filed by the person designated to return the fugitive with the county auditor or appropriate city officer or the Controller, as the case may be, together with an affidavit by the person that the expenditures represented by the receipts were necessarily made in the performance of duty, and when the advance has been made by the county or city treasurer to the person designated to return the fugitive, and has thereafter been audited by the Controller, the payment thereof shall be made by the State Treasurer to the county or city treasury that has advanced the funds.(5) If the expenses of the person employed to bring back the fugitive are less than the amount advanced on the recommendation of the district attorney, the person employed to bring back the fugitive shall return to the county or city treasurer, as appropriate, the difference in amount between the aggregate amount of receipts so filed by him or her, and the amount advanced to the person upon the recommendation of the district attorney.(6) When no advance has been made to the person designated to return the fugitive, the sums expended by him or her, when audited by the Controller, shall be paid by the State Treasurer to the person so designated.(7) Any payments made out of the State Treasury pursuant to this section shall be made from appropriations for the fiscal year in which those payments are made.(d) A city, county, or other jurisdiction shall not file, and the state shall not reimburse, a claim pursuant to this section that is presented to the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation or to any other agency or department of the state more than six months after the close of the month in which the costs were incurred. Notwithstanding any other law, a person transporting a fugitive as authorized by the Governor pursuant to this section shall be reimbursed according to the rates in paragraphs (1) to (5), inclusive. Rates and rules for reimbursement of travel claims not specified in paragraphs (1) to (5), inclusive, shall be consistent with the rules of the Department of General Services.(1) Reimbursement for breakfast is up to four dollars ($4).(2) Reimbursement for lunch is up to seven dollars and twenty-five cents ($7.25).(3) Reimbursement for dinner is up to twelve dollars ($12).(4) Reimbursement for incidental expenses is up to three dollars and seventy-five cents ($3.75).(5) Reimbursement for a meal for a prisoner, patient, ward, or fugitive is up to the amounts specified in paragraphs (1) to (3), inclusive.
14631474
14641475 1557. (a) This section shall apply when this state or a city, county, or city and county employs a person to travel to a foreign jurisdiction outside this state for the express purpose of returning a fugitive from justice to this state when the Governor of this state, in the exercise of the authority conferred by Section 2 of Article IV of the United States Constitution, or by the laws of this state, has demanded the surrender of the fugitive from the executive authority of any state of the United States, or of any foreign government.(b) Upon the approval of the Governor, the Controller shall audit and pay out of the State Treasury as provided in subdivision (c) or (d) the accounts of the person employed to bring back the fugitive, including any money paid by that person for all of the following:(1) Money paid to the authorities of a sister state for statutory fees in connection with the detention and surrender of the fugitive.(2) Money paid to the authorities of the sister state for the subsistence of the fugitive while detained by the sister state without payment of which the authorities of the sister state refuse to surrender the fugitive.(3) Where it is necessary to present witnesses or evidence in the sister state, without which the sister state would not surrender the fugitive, the cost of producing the witnesses or evidence in the sister state.(4) Where the appearance of witnesses has been authorized in advance by the Governor, who may authorize the appearance in unusual cases where the interests of justice would be served, the cost of producing witnesses to appear in the sister state on behalf of the fugitive in opposition to his or her extradition.(c) No amount shall be paid out of the State Treasury to a city, county, or city and county except as follows:(1) When a warrant has been issued by any magistrate after the filing of a complaint or the finding of an indictment and its presentation to the court and filing by the clerk, and the person named therein as defendant is a fugitive from justice who has been found and arrested in any state of the United States or in any foreign government, the county auditor shall draw his or her warrant and the county treasurer shall pay to the person designated to return the fugitive, the amount of expenses estimated by the district attorney to be incurred in the return of the fugitive.(2) If the person designated to return the fugitive is a city officer, the city officer authorized to draw warrants on the city treasury shall draw his or her warrant and the city treasurer shall pay to that person the amount of expenses estimated by the district attorney to be incurred in the return of the fugitive.(3) The person designated to return the fugitive shall make no disbursements from any funds advanced without a receipt being obtained therefor showing the amount, the purpose for which the sum is expended, the place, the date, and to whom paid.(4) A receipt obtained pursuant to paragraph (3) shall be filed by the person designated to return the fugitive with the county auditor or appropriate city officer or the Controller, as the case may be, together with an affidavit by the person that the expenditures represented by the receipts were necessarily made in the performance of duty, and when the advance has been made by the county or city treasurer to the person designated to return the fugitive, and has thereafter been audited by the Controller, the payment thereof shall be made by the State Treasurer to the county or city treasury that has advanced the funds.(5) If the expenses of the person employed to bring back the fugitive are less than the amount advanced on the recommendation of the district attorney, the person employed to bring back the fugitive shall return to the county or city treasurer, as appropriate, the difference in amount between the aggregate amount of receipts so filed by him or her, and the amount advanced to the person upon the recommendation of the district attorney.(6) When no advance has been made to the person designated to return the fugitive, the sums expended by him or her, when audited by the Controller, shall be paid by the State Treasurer to the person so designated.(7) Any payments made out of the State Treasury pursuant to this section shall be made from appropriations for the fiscal year in which those payments are made.(d) A city, county, or other jurisdiction shall not file, and the state shall not reimburse, a claim pursuant to this section that is presented to the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation or to any other agency or department of the state more than six months after the close of the month in which the costs were incurred. Notwithstanding any other law, a person transporting a fugitive as authorized by the Governor pursuant to this section shall be reimbursed according to the rates in paragraphs (1) to (5), inclusive. Rates and rules for reimbursement of travel claims not specified in paragraphs (1) to (5), inclusive, shall be consistent with the rules of the Department of General Services.(1) Reimbursement for breakfast is up to four dollars ($4).(2) Reimbursement for lunch is up to seven dollars and twenty-five cents ($7.25).(3) Reimbursement for dinner is up to twelve dollars ($12).(4) Reimbursement for incidental expenses is up to three dollars and seventy-five cents ($3.75).(5) Reimbursement for a meal for a prisoner, patient, ward, or fugitive is up to the amounts specified in paragraphs (1) to (3), inclusive.
14651476
14661477
14671478
14681479 1557. (a) This section shall apply when this state or a city, county, or city and county employs a person to travel to a foreign jurisdiction outside this state for the express purpose of returning a fugitive from justice to this state when the Governor of this state, in the exercise of the authority conferred by Section 2 of Article IV of the United States Constitution, or by the laws of this state, has demanded the surrender of the fugitive from the executive authority of any state of the United States, or of any foreign government.
14691480
14701481 (b) Upon the approval of the Governor, the Controller shall audit and pay out of the State Treasury as provided in subdivision (c) or (d) the accounts of the person employed to bring back the fugitive, including any money paid by that person for all of the following:
14711482
14721483 (1) Money paid to the authorities of a sister state for statutory fees in connection with the detention and surrender of the fugitive.
14731484
14741485 (2) Money paid to the authorities of the sister state for the subsistence of the fugitive while detained by the sister state without payment of which the authorities of the sister state refuse to surrender the fugitive.
14751486
14761487 (3) Where it is necessary to present witnesses or evidence in the sister state, without which the sister state would not surrender the fugitive, the cost of producing the witnesses or evidence in the sister state.
14771488
14781489 (4) Where the appearance of witnesses has been authorized in advance by the Governor, who may authorize the appearance in unusual cases where the interests of justice would be served, the cost of producing witnesses to appear in the sister state on behalf of the fugitive in opposition to his or her extradition.
14791490
14801491 (c) No amount shall be paid out of the State Treasury to a city, county, or city and county except as follows:
14811492
14821493 (1) When a warrant has been issued by any magistrate after the filing of a complaint or the finding of an indictment and its presentation to the court and filing by the clerk, and the person named therein as defendant is a fugitive from justice who has been found and arrested in any state of the United States or in any foreign government, the county auditor shall draw his or her warrant and the county treasurer shall pay to the person designated to return the fugitive, the amount of expenses estimated by the district attorney to be incurred in the return of the fugitive.
14831494
14841495 (2) If the person designated to return the fugitive is a city officer, the city officer authorized to draw warrants on the city treasury shall draw his or her warrant and the city treasurer shall pay to that person the amount of expenses estimated by the district attorney to be incurred in the return of the fugitive.
14851496
14861497 (3) The person designated to return the fugitive shall make no disbursements from any funds advanced without a receipt being obtained therefor showing the amount, the purpose for which the sum is expended, the place, the date, and to whom paid.
14871498
14881499 (4) A receipt obtained pursuant to paragraph (3) shall be filed by the person designated to return the fugitive with the county auditor or appropriate city officer or the Controller, as the case may be, together with an affidavit by the person that the expenditures represented by the receipts were necessarily made in the performance of duty, and when the advance has been made by the county or city treasurer to the person designated to return the fugitive, and has thereafter been audited by the Controller, the payment thereof shall be made by the State Treasurer to the county or city treasury that has advanced the funds.
14891500
14901501 (5) If the expenses of the person employed to bring back the fugitive are less than the amount advanced on the recommendation of the district attorney, the person employed to bring back the fugitive shall return to the county or city treasurer, as appropriate, the difference in amount between the aggregate amount of receipts so filed by him or her, and the amount advanced to the person upon the recommendation of the district attorney.
14911502
14921503 (6) When no advance has been made to the person designated to return the fugitive, the sums expended by him or her, when audited by the Controller, shall be paid by the State Treasurer to the person so designated.
14931504
14941505 (7) Any payments made out of the State Treasury pursuant to this section shall be made from appropriations for the fiscal year in which those payments are made.
14951506
14961507 (d) A city, county, or other jurisdiction shall not file, and the state shall not reimburse, a claim pursuant to this section that is presented to the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation or to any other agency or department of the state more than six months after the close of the month in which the costs were incurred. Notwithstanding any other law, a person transporting a fugitive as authorized by the Governor pursuant to this section shall be reimbursed according to the rates in paragraphs (1) to (5), inclusive. Rates and rules for reimbursement of travel claims not specified in paragraphs (1) to (5), inclusive, shall be consistent with the rules of the Department of General Services.
14971508
14981509 (1) Reimbursement for breakfast is up to four dollars ($4).
14991510
15001511 (2) Reimbursement for lunch is up to seven dollars and twenty-five cents ($7.25).
15011512
15021513 (3) Reimbursement for dinner is up to twelve dollars ($12).
15031514
15041515 (4) Reimbursement for incidental expenses is up to three dollars and seventy-five cents ($3.75).
15051516
15061517 (5) Reimbursement for a meal for a prisoner, patient, ward, or fugitive is up to the amounts specified in paragraphs (1) to (3), inclusive.
15071518
15081519 SEC. 37. Section 2801 of the Penal Code is amended to read:2801. The purposes of the authority are:(a) To develop and operate industrial, agricultural, and service enterprises employing prisoners in institutions under the jurisdiction of the Department of Corrections, which enterprises may be located either within those institutions or elsewhere, all as may be determined by the authority.(b) To create and maintain working conditions within the enterprises as much like those which prevail in private industry as possible, to assure prisoners employed therein the opportunity to work productively, to earn funds, and to acquire or improve effective work habits and occupational skills.(c) To operate a work program for prisoners which will ultimately be self-supporting by generating sufficient funds from the sale of products and services to pay all the expenses of the program, and one which will provide goods and services which are or will be used by the Department of Corrections, thereby reducing the cost of its operation.(1) This subdivision does not require immediate cash availability for funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above amounts established in the Budget Act, or as determined by the Board of Administration of the Public Employees Retirement System, or the Director of Finance for the fiscal year.(2) The Prison Industry Authority shall not establish cash reserves to support funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above the amounts specified in paragraph (1).
15091520
15101521 SEC. 37. Section 2801 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
15111522
15121523 ### SEC. 37.
15131524
15141525 2801. The purposes of the authority are:(a) To develop and operate industrial, agricultural, and service enterprises employing prisoners in institutions under the jurisdiction of the Department of Corrections, which enterprises may be located either within those institutions or elsewhere, all as may be determined by the authority.(b) To create and maintain working conditions within the enterprises as much like those which prevail in private industry as possible, to assure prisoners employed therein the opportunity to work productively, to earn funds, and to acquire or improve effective work habits and occupational skills.(c) To operate a work program for prisoners which will ultimately be self-supporting by generating sufficient funds from the sale of products and services to pay all the expenses of the program, and one which will provide goods and services which are or will be used by the Department of Corrections, thereby reducing the cost of its operation.(1) This subdivision does not require immediate cash availability for funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above amounts established in the Budget Act, or as determined by the Board of Administration of the Public Employees Retirement System, or the Director of Finance for the fiscal year.(2) The Prison Industry Authority shall not establish cash reserves to support funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above the amounts specified in paragraph (1).
15151526
15161527 2801. The purposes of the authority are:(a) To develop and operate industrial, agricultural, and service enterprises employing prisoners in institutions under the jurisdiction of the Department of Corrections, which enterprises may be located either within those institutions or elsewhere, all as may be determined by the authority.(b) To create and maintain working conditions within the enterprises as much like those which prevail in private industry as possible, to assure prisoners employed therein the opportunity to work productively, to earn funds, and to acquire or improve effective work habits and occupational skills.(c) To operate a work program for prisoners which will ultimately be self-supporting by generating sufficient funds from the sale of products and services to pay all the expenses of the program, and one which will provide goods and services which are or will be used by the Department of Corrections, thereby reducing the cost of its operation.(1) This subdivision does not require immediate cash availability for funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above amounts established in the Budget Act, or as determined by the Board of Administration of the Public Employees Retirement System, or the Director of Finance for the fiscal year.(2) The Prison Industry Authority shall not establish cash reserves to support funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above the amounts specified in paragraph (1).
15171528
15181529 2801. The purposes of the authority are:(a) To develop and operate industrial, agricultural, and service enterprises employing prisoners in institutions under the jurisdiction of the Department of Corrections, which enterprises may be located either within those institutions or elsewhere, all as may be determined by the authority.(b) To create and maintain working conditions within the enterprises as much like those which prevail in private industry as possible, to assure prisoners employed therein the opportunity to work productively, to earn funds, and to acquire or improve effective work habits and occupational skills.(c) To operate a work program for prisoners which will ultimately be self-supporting by generating sufficient funds from the sale of products and services to pay all the expenses of the program, and one which will provide goods and services which are or will be used by the Department of Corrections, thereby reducing the cost of its operation.(1) This subdivision does not require immediate cash availability for funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above amounts established in the Budget Act, or as determined by the Board of Administration of the Public Employees Retirement System, or the Director of Finance for the fiscal year.(2) The Prison Industry Authority shall not establish cash reserves to support funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above the amounts specified in paragraph (1).
15191530
15201531
15211532
15221533 2801. The purposes of the authority are:
15231534
15241535 (a) To develop and operate industrial, agricultural, and service enterprises employing prisoners in institutions under the jurisdiction of the Department of Corrections, which enterprises may be located either within those institutions or elsewhere, all as may be determined by the authority.
15251536
15261537 (b) To create and maintain working conditions within the enterprises as much like those which prevail in private industry as possible, to assure prisoners employed therein the opportunity to work productively, to earn funds, and to acquire or improve effective work habits and occupational skills.
15271538
15281539 (c) To operate a work program for prisoners which will ultimately be self-supporting by generating sufficient funds from the sale of products and services to pay all the expenses of the program, and one which will provide goods and services which are or will be used by the Department of Corrections, thereby reducing the cost of its operation.
15291540
15301541 (1) This subdivision does not require immediate cash availability for funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above amounts established in the Budget Act, or as determined by the Board of Administration of the Public Employees Retirement System, or the Director of Finance for the fiscal year.
15311542
15321543 (2) The Prison Industry Authority shall not establish cash reserves to support funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above the amounts specified in paragraph (1).
15331544
15341545 SEC. 38. Section 2808 of the Penal Code is amended to read:2808. The board, in the exercise of its duties, shall have all of the powers and do all of the things that the board of directors of a private corporation would do, except as specifically limited in this article, including, but not limited to, all of the following:(a) To enter into contracts and leases, execute leases, pledge the equipment, inventory and supplies under the control of the authority and the anticipated future receipts of any enterprise under the jurisdiction of the authority as collateral for loans, and execute other necessary instruments and documents.(b) To assure that all funds received by the authority are kept in commercial accounts according to standard accounting practices.(c) To arrange for an independent annual audit.(d) To review and approve the annual budget for the authority, in order to assure that the solvency of the Prison Industries Revolving Fund is maintained.(1) This subdivision does not require immediate cash availability for funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above amounts established in the Budget Act, or as determined by the Board of Administration of the Public Employees Retirement System, or the Director of Finance for the fiscal year.(2) The Prison Industry Authority shall not establish cash reserves to support funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above the amounts specified in paragraph (1).(e) To contract to employ a general manager to serve as the chief administrative officer of the authority. The general manager shall serve at the pleasure of the chairperson. The general manager shall have wide and successful experience with a productive enterprise, and have a demonstrated appreciation of the problems associated with prison management.(f) To apply for and administer grants and contracts of all kinds.(g) To establish, notwithstanding any other provision of law, procedures governing the purchase of raw materials, component parts, and any other goods and services which may be needed by the authority or in the operation of any enterprise under its jurisdiction. Those procedures shall contain provisions for appeal to the board from any action taken in connection with them.(h) To establish, expand, diminish, or discontinue industrial, agricultural and service enterprises under the authoritys jurisdiction to enable it to operate as a self-supporting enterprise, to provide as much employment for inmates as is feasible, and to provide diversified work activities to minimize the impact on existing private industry in the state.(i) To hold public hearings pursuant to subdivision (h) to provide an opportunity for persons or organizations who may be affected to appear and present testimony concerning the plans and activities of the authority. The authority shall assure adequate public notice of those hearings. No new industrial, agricultural, or service enterprise which involves a gross annual production of more than fifty thousand dollars ($50,000) shall be established unless and until a hearing concerning the enterprise has been held by a committee of persons designated by the board including at least two board members. The board shall take into consideration the effect of a proposed enterprise on California industry and shall not approve the establishment of the enterprise if the board determines it would have a comprehensive and substantial adverse impact on California industry which cannot be mitigated.(j) To periodically determine the prices at which activities, supplies, and services shall be sold.(k) To report to the Legislature in writing, on or before February 1 of each year, regarding:(1) The financial activity and condition of each enterprise under its jurisdiction.(2) The plans of the board regarding any significant changes in existing operations.(3) The plans of the board regarding the development of new enterprises.(4) A breakdown, by institution, of the number of prisoners at each institution, working in enterprises under the jurisdiction of the authority, said number to indicate the number of prisoners which are not working full time.
15351546
15361547 SEC. 38. Section 2808 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
15371548
15381549 ### SEC. 38.
15391550
15401551 2808. The board, in the exercise of its duties, shall have all of the powers and do all of the things that the board of directors of a private corporation would do, except as specifically limited in this article, including, but not limited to, all of the following:(a) To enter into contracts and leases, execute leases, pledge the equipment, inventory and supplies under the control of the authority and the anticipated future receipts of any enterprise under the jurisdiction of the authority as collateral for loans, and execute other necessary instruments and documents.(b) To assure that all funds received by the authority are kept in commercial accounts according to standard accounting practices.(c) To arrange for an independent annual audit.(d) To review and approve the annual budget for the authority, in order to assure that the solvency of the Prison Industries Revolving Fund is maintained.(1) This subdivision does not require immediate cash availability for funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above amounts established in the Budget Act, or as determined by the Board of Administration of the Public Employees Retirement System, or the Director of Finance for the fiscal year.(2) The Prison Industry Authority shall not establish cash reserves to support funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above the amounts specified in paragraph (1).(e) To contract to employ a general manager to serve as the chief administrative officer of the authority. The general manager shall serve at the pleasure of the chairperson. The general manager shall have wide and successful experience with a productive enterprise, and have a demonstrated appreciation of the problems associated with prison management.(f) To apply for and administer grants and contracts of all kinds.(g) To establish, notwithstanding any other provision of law, procedures governing the purchase of raw materials, component parts, and any other goods and services which may be needed by the authority or in the operation of any enterprise under its jurisdiction. Those procedures shall contain provisions for appeal to the board from any action taken in connection with them.(h) To establish, expand, diminish, or discontinue industrial, agricultural and service enterprises under the authoritys jurisdiction to enable it to operate as a self-supporting enterprise, to provide as much employment for inmates as is feasible, and to provide diversified work activities to minimize the impact on existing private industry in the state.(i) To hold public hearings pursuant to subdivision (h) to provide an opportunity for persons or organizations who may be affected to appear and present testimony concerning the plans and activities of the authority. The authority shall assure adequate public notice of those hearings. No new industrial, agricultural, or service enterprise which involves a gross annual production of more than fifty thousand dollars ($50,000) shall be established unless and until a hearing concerning the enterprise has been held by a committee of persons designated by the board including at least two board members. The board shall take into consideration the effect of a proposed enterprise on California industry and shall not approve the establishment of the enterprise if the board determines it would have a comprehensive and substantial adverse impact on California industry which cannot be mitigated.(j) To periodically determine the prices at which activities, supplies, and services shall be sold.(k) To report to the Legislature in writing, on or before February 1 of each year, regarding:(1) The financial activity and condition of each enterprise under its jurisdiction.(2) The plans of the board regarding any significant changes in existing operations.(3) The plans of the board regarding the development of new enterprises.(4) A breakdown, by institution, of the number of prisoners at each institution, working in enterprises under the jurisdiction of the authority, said number to indicate the number of prisoners which are not working full time.
15411552
15421553 2808. The board, in the exercise of its duties, shall have all of the powers and do all of the things that the board of directors of a private corporation would do, except as specifically limited in this article, including, but not limited to, all of the following:(a) To enter into contracts and leases, execute leases, pledge the equipment, inventory and supplies under the control of the authority and the anticipated future receipts of any enterprise under the jurisdiction of the authority as collateral for loans, and execute other necessary instruments and documents.(b) To assure that all funds received by the authority are kept in commercial accounts according to standard accounting practices.(c) To arrange for an independent annual audit.(d) To review and approve the annual budget for the authority, in order to assure that the solvency of the Prison Industries Revolving Fund is maintained.(1) This subdivision does not require immediate cash availability for funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above amounts established in the Budget Act, or as determined by the Board of Administration of the Public Employees Retirement System, or the Director of Finance for the fiscal year.(2) The Prison Industry Authority shall not establish cash reserves to support funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above the amounts specified in paragraph (1).(e) To contract to employ a general manager to serve as the chief administrative officer of the authority. The general manager shall serve at the pleasure of the chairperson. The general manager shall have wide and successful experience with a productive enterprise, and have a demonstrated appreciation of the problems associated with prison management.(f) To apply for and administer grants and contracts of all kinds.(g) To establish, notwithstanding any other provision of law, procedures governing the purchase of raw materials, component parts, and any other goods and services which may be needed by the authority or in the operation of any enterprise under its jurisdiction. Those procedures shall contain provisions for appeal to the board from any action taken in connection with them.(h) To establish, expand, diminish, or discontinue industrial, agricultural and service enterprises under the authoritys jurisdiction to enable it to operate as a self-supporting enterprise, to provide as much employment for inmates as is feasible, and to provide diversified work activities to minimize the impact on existing private industry in the state.(i) To hold public hearings pursuant to subdivision (h) to provide an opportunity for persons or organizations who may be affected to appear and present testimony concerning the plans and activities of the authority. The authority shall assure adequate public notice of those hearings. No new industrial, agricultural, or service enterprise which involves a gross annual production of more than fifty thousand dollars ($50,000) shall be established unless and until a hearing concerning the enterprise has been held by a committee of persons designated by the board including at least two board members. The board shall take into consideration the effect of a proposed enterprise on California industry and shall not approve the establishment of the enterprise if the board determines it would have a comprehensive and substantial adverse impact on California industry which cannot be mitigated.(j) To periodically determine the prices at which activities, supplies, and services shall be sold.(k) To report to the Legislature in writing, on or before February 1 of each year, regarding:(1) The financial activity and condition of each enterprise under its jurisdiction.(2) The plans of the board regarding any significant changes in existing operations.(3) The plans of the board regarding the development of new enterprises.(4) A breakdown, by institution, of the number of prisoners at each institution, working in enterprises under the jurisdiction of the authority, said number to indicate the number of prisoners which are not working full time.
15431554
15441555 2808. The board, in the exercise of its duties, shall have all of the powers and do all of the things that the board of directors of a private corporation would do, except as specifically limited in this article, including, but not limited to, all of the following:(a) To enter into contracts and leases, execute leases, pledge the equipment, inventory and supplies under the control of the authority and the anticipated future receipts of any enterprise under the jurisdiction of the authority as collateral for loans, and execute other necessary instruments and documents.(b) To assure that all funds received by the authority are kept in commercial accounts according to standard accounting practices.(c) To arrange for an independent annual audit.(d) To review and approve the annual budget for the authority, in order to assure that the solvency of the Prison Industries Revolving Fund is maintained.(1) This subdivision does not require immediate cash availability for funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above amounts established in the Budget Act, or as determined by the Board of Administration of the Public Employees Retirement System, or the Director of Finance for the fiscal year.(2) The Prison Industry Authority shall not establish cash reserves to support funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above the amounts specified in paragraph (1).(e) To contract to employ a general manager to serve as the chief administrative officer of the authority. The general manager shall serve at the pleasure of the chairperson. The general manager shall have wide and successful experience with a productive enterprise, and have a demonstrated appreciation of the problems associated with prison management.(f) To apply for and administer grants and contracts of all kinds.(g) To establish, notwithstanding any other provision of law, procedures governing the purchase of raw materials, component parts, and any other goods and services which may be needed by the authority or in the operation of any enterprise under its jurisdiction. Those procedures shall contain provisions for appeal to the board from any action taken in connection with them.(h) To establish, expand, diminish, or discontinue industrial, agricultural and service enterprises under the authoritys jurisdiction to enable it to operate as a self-supporting enterprise, to provide as much employment for inmates as is feasible, and to provide diversified work activities to minimize the impact on existing private industry in the state.(i) To hold public hearings pursuant to subdivision (h) to provide an opportunity for persons or organizations who may be affected to appear and present testimony concerning the plans and activities of the authority. The authority shall assure adequate public notice of those hearings. No new industrial, agricultural, or service enterprise which involves a gross annual production of more than fifty thousand dollars ($50,000) shall be established unless and until a hearing concerning the enterprise has been held by a committee of persons designated by the board including at least two board members. The board shall take into consideration the effect of a proposed enterprise on California industry and shall not approve the establishment of the enterprise if the board determines it would have a comprehensive and substantial adverse impact on California industry which cannot be mitigated.(j) To periodically determine the prices at which activities, supplies, and services shall be sold.(k) To report to the Legislature in writing, on or before February 1 of each year, regarding:(1) The financial activity and condition of each enterprise under its jurisdiction.(2) The plans of the board regarding any significant changes in existing operations.(3) The plans of the board regarding the development of new enterprises.(4) A breakdown, by institution, of the number of prisoners at each institution, working in enterprises under the jurisdiction of the authority, said number to indicate the number of prisoners which are not working full time.
15451556
15461557
15471558
15481559 2808. The board, in the exercise of its duties, shall have all of the powers and do all of the things that the board of directors of a private corporation would do, except as specifically limited in this article, including, but not limited to, all of the following:
15491560
15501561 (a) To enter into contracts and leases, execute leases, pledge the equipment, inventory and supplies under the control of the authority and the anticipated future receipts of any enterprise under the jurisdiction of the authority as collateral for loans, and execute other necessary instruments and documents.
15511562
15521563 (b) To assure that all funds received by the authority are kept in commercial accounts according to standard accounting practices.
15531564
15541565 (c) To arrange for an independent annual audit.
15551566
15561567 (d) To review and approve the annual budget for the authority, in order to assure that the solvency of the Prison Industries Revolving Fund is maintained.
15571568
15581569 (1) This subdivision does not require immediate cash availability for funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above amounts established in the Budget Act, or as determined by the Board of Administration of the Public Employees Retirement System, or the Director of Finance for the fiscal year.
15591570
15601571 (2) The Prison Industry Authority shall not establish cash reserves to support funding retiree health care and pension liabilities above the amounts specified in paragraph (1).
15611572
15621573 (e) To contract to employ a general manager to serve as the chief administrative officer of the authority. The general manager shall serve at the pleasure of the chairperson. The general manager shall have wide and successful experience with a productive enterprise, and have a demonstrated appreciation of the problems associated with prison management.
15631574
15641575 (f) To apply for and administer grants and contracts of all kinds.
15651576
15661577 (g) To establish, notwithstanding any other provision of law, procedures governing the purchase of raw materials, component parts, and any other goods and services which may be needed by the authority or in the operation of any enterprise under its jurisdiction. Those procedures shall contain provisions for appeal to the board from any action taken in connection with them.
15671578
15681579 (h) To establish, expand, diminish, or discontinue industrial, agricultural and service enterprises under the authoritys jurisdiction to enable it to operate as a self-supporting enterprise, to provide as much employment for inmates as is feasible, and to provide diversified work activities to minimize the impact on existing private industry in the state.
15691580
15701581 (i) To hold public hearings pursuant to subdivision (h) to provide an opportunity for persons or organizations who may be affected to appear and present testimony concerning the plans and activities of the authority. The authority shall assure adequate public notice of those hearings. No new industrial, agricultural, or service enterprise which involves a gross annual production of more than fifty thousand dollars ($50,000) shall be established unless and until a hearing concerning the enterprise has been held by a committee of persons designated by the board including at least two board members. The board shall take into consideration the effect of a proposed enterprise on California industry and shall not approve the establishment of the enterprise if the board determines it would have a comprehensive and substantial adverse impact on California industry which cannot be mitigated.
15711582
15721583 (j) To periodically determine the prices at which activities, supplies, and services shall be sold.
15731584
15741585 (k) To report to the Legislature in writing, on or before February 1 of each year, regarding:
15751586
15761587 (1) The financial activity and condition of each enterprise under its jurisdiction.
15771588
15781589 (2) The plans of the board regarding any significant changes in existing operations.
15791590
15801591 (3) The plans of the board regarding the development of new enterprises.
15811592
15821593 (4) A breakdown, by institution, of the number of prisoners at each institution, working in enterprises under the jurisdiction of the authority, said number to indicate the number of prisoners which are not working full time.
15831594
15841595 SEC. 39. Section 3453 of the Penal Code is amended to read:3453. Postrelease community supervision shall include the following conditions:(a) The person shall be informed of the conditions of release.(b) The person shall obey all laws.(c) The person shall report to the supervising county agency within two working days of release from custody.(d) The person shall follow the directives and instructions of the supervising county agency.(e) The person shall report to the supervising county agency as directed by that agency.(f) The person, and his or her residence and possessions, shall be subject to search at any time of the day or night, with or without a warrant, by an agent of the supervising county agency or by a peace officer.(g) The person shall waive extradition if found outside the state.(h) (1) The person shall inform the supervising county agency of the persons place of residence and shall notify the supervising county agency of any change in residence, or the establishment of a new residence if the person was previously transient, within five working days of the change.(2) For purposes of this section, residence means one or more locations at which a person regularly resides, regardless of the number of days or nights spent there, such as a shelter or structure that can be located by a street address, including, but not limited to, a house, apartment building, motel, hotel, homeless shelter, and recreational or other vehicle. If the person has no residence, he or she shall inform the supervising county agency that he or she is transient.(i) (1) The person shall inform the supervising county agency of the persons place of employment, education, or training. The person shall inform the supervising agency of any pending or anticipated change in employment, education, or training.(2) If the person enters into new employment, he or she shall inform the supervising county agency of the new employment within three business days of that entry.(j) The person shall immediately inform the supervising county agency if he or she is arrested or receives a citation.(k) The person shall obtain the permission of the supervising county agency to travel more than 50 miles from the persons place of residence.(l) The person shall obtain a travel pass from the supervising county agency before he or she may leave the county or state for more than two days.(m) The person shall not be in the presence of a firearm or ammunition, or any item that appears to be a firearm or ammunition.(n) The person shall not possess, use, or have access to any weapon listed in Section 16140, subdivision (c) of Section 16170, Section 16220, 16260, 16320, 16330, or 16340, subdivision (b) of Section 16460, Section 16470, subdivision (f) of Section 16520, or Section 16570, 16740, 16760, 16830, 16920, 16930, 16940, 17090, 17125, 17160, 17170, 17180, 17190, 17200, 17270, 17280, 17330, 17350, 17360, 17700, 17705, 17710, 17715, 17720, 17725, 17730, 17735, 17740, 17745, 19100, 19200, 19205, 20200, 20310, 20410, 20510, 20610, 20611, 20710, 20910, 21110, 21310, 21810, 22010, 22015, 22210, 22215, 22410, 24310, 24410, 24510, 24610, 24680, 24710, 30210, 30215, 31500, 32310, 32400, 32405, 32410, 32415, 32420, 32425, 32430 32435, 32440, 32445, 32450, 32900, 33215, 33220, 33225, or 33600.(o) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2) and subdivision (p), the person shall not possess a knife with a blade longer than two inches.(2) The person may possess a kitchen knife with a blade longer than two inches if the knife is used and kept only in the kitchen of the persons residence.(p) The person may use a knife with a blade longer than two inches, if the use is required for that persons employment, the use has been approved in a document issued by the supervising county agency, and the person possesses the document of approval at all times and makes it available for inspection.(q) The person shall waive any right to a court hearing prior to the imposition of a period of flash incarceration in a city or county jail of not more than 10 consecutive days for any violation of his or her postrelease supervision conditions.(r) The person shall participate in rehabilitation programming as recommended by the supervising county agency.(s) The person shall be subject to arrest with or without a warrant by a peace officer employed by the supervising county agency or, at the direction of the supervising county agency, by any peace officer when there is probable cause to believe the person has violated the terms and conditions of his or her release.(t) The person shall pay court-ordered restitution and restitution fines in the same manner as a person placed on probation.
15851596
15861597 SEC. 39. Section 3453 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
15871598
15881599 ### SEC. 39.
15891600
15901601 3453. Postrelease community supervision shall include the following conditions:(a) The person shall be informed of the conditions of release.(b) The person shall obey all laws.(c) The person shall report to the supervising county agency within two working days of release from custody.(d) The person shall follow the directives and instructions of the supervising county agency.(e) The person shall report to the supervising county agency as directed by that agency.(f) The person, and his or her residence and possessions, shall be subject to search at any time of the day or night, with or without a warrant, by an agent of the supervising county agency or by a peace officer.(g) The person shall waive extradition if found outside the state.(h) (1) The person shall inform the supervising county agency of the persons place of residence and shall notify the supervising county agency of any change in residence, or the establishment of a new residence if the person was previously transient, within five working days of the change.(2) For purposes of this section, residence means one or more locations at which a person regularly resides, regardless of the number of days or nights spent there, such as a shelter or structure that can be located by a street address, including, but not limited to, a house, apartment building, motel, hotel, homeless shelter, and recreational or other vehicle. If the person has no residence, he or she shall inform the supervising county agency that he or she is transient.(i) (1) The person shall inform the supervising county agency of the persons place of employment, education, or training. The person shall inform the supervising agency of any pending or anticipated change in employment, education, or training.(2) If the person enters into new employment, he or she shall inform the supervising county agency of the new employment within three business days of that entry.(j) The person shall immediately inform the supervising county agency if he or she is arrested or receives a citation.(k) The person shall obtain the permission of the supervising county agency to travel more than 50 miles from the persons place of residence.(l) The person shall obtain a travel pass from the supervising county agency before he or she may leave the county or state for more than two days.(m) The person shall not be in the presence of a firearm or ammunition, or any item that appears to be a firearm or ammunition.(n) The person shall not possess, use, or have access to any weapon listed in Section 16140, subdivision (c) of Section 16170, Section 16220, 16260, 16320, 16330, or 16340, subdivision (b) of Section 16460, Section 16470, subdivision (f) of Section 16520, or Section 16570, 16740, 16760, 16830, 16920, 16930, 16940, 17090, 17125, 17160, 17170, 17180, 17190, 17200, 17270, 17280, 17330, 17350, 17360, 17700, 17705, 17710, 17715, 17720, 17725, 17730, 17735, 17740, 17745, 19100, 19200, 19205, 20200, 20310, 20410, 20510, 20610, 20611, 20710, 20910, 21110, 21310, 21810, 22010, 22015, 22210, 22215, 22410, 24310, 24410, 24510, 24610, 24680, 24710, 30210, 30215, 31500, 32310, 32400, 32405, 32410, 32415, 32420, 32425, 32430 32435, 32440, 32445, 32450, 32900, 33215, 33220, 33225, or 33600.(o) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2) and subdivision (p), the person shall not possess a knife with a blade longer than two inches.(2) The person may possess a kitchen knife with a blade longer than two inches if the knife is used and kept only in the kitchen of the persons residence.(p) The person may use a knife with a blade longer than two inches, if the use is required for that persons employment, the use has been approved in a document issued by the supervising county agency, and the person possesses the document of approval at all times and makes it available for inspection.(q) The person shall waive any right to a court hearing prior to the imposition of a period of flash incarceration in a city or county jail of not more than 10 consecutive days for any violation of his or her postrelease supervision conditions.(r) The person shall participate in rehabilitation programming as recommended by the supervising county agency.(s) The person shall be subject to arrest with or without a warrant by a peace officer employed by the supervising county agency or, at the direction of the supervising county agency, by any peace officer when there is probable cause to believe the person has violated the terms and conditions of his or her release.(t) The person shall pay court-ordered restitution and restitution fines in the same manner as a person placed on probation.
15911602
15921603 3453. Postrelease community supervision shall include the following conditions:(a) The person shall be informed of the conditions of release.(b) The person shall obey all laws.(c) The person shall report to the supervising county agency within two working days of release from custody.(d) The person shall follow the directives and instructions of the supervising county agency.(e) The person shall report to the supervising county agency as directed by that agency.(f) The person, and his or her residence and possessions, shall be subject to search at any time of the day or night, with or without a warrant, by an agent of the supervising county agency or by a peace officer.(g) The person shall waive extradition if found outside the state.(h) (1) The person shall inform the supervising county agency of the persons place of residence and shall notify the supervising county agency of any change in residence, or the establishment of a new residence if the person was previously transient, within five working days of the change.(2) For purposes of this section, residence means one or more locations at which a person regularly resides, regardless of the number of days or nights spent there, such as a shelter or structure that can be located by a street address, including, but not limited to, a house, apartment building, motel, hotel, homeless shelter, and recreational or other vehicle. If the person has no residence, he or she shall inform the supervising county agency that he or she is transient.(i) (1) The person shall inform the supervising county agency of the persons place of employment, education, or training. The person shall inform the supervising agency of any pending or anticipated change in employment, education, or training.(2) If the person enters into new employment, he or she shall inform the supervising county agency of the new employment within three business days of that entry.(j) The person shall immediately inform the supervising county agency if he or she is arrested or receives a citation.(k) The person shall obtain the permission of the supervising county agency to travel more than 50 miles from the persons place of residence.(l) The person shall obtain a travel pass from the supervising county agency before he or she may leave the county or state for more than two days.(m) The person shall not be in the presence of a firearm or ammunition, or any item that appears to be a firearm or ammunition.(n) The person shall not possess, use, or have access to any weapon listed in Section 16140, subdivision (c) of Section 16170, Section 16220, 16260, 16320, 16330, or 16340, subdivision (b) of Section 16460, Section 16470, subdivision (f) of Section 16520, or Section 16570, 16740, 16760, 16830, 16920, 16930, 16940, 17090, 17125, 17160, 17170, 17180, 17190, 17200, 17270, 17280, 17330, 17350, 17360, 17700, 17705, 17710, 17715, 17720, 17725, 17730, 17735, 17740, 17745, 19100, 19200, 19205, 20200, 20310, 20410, 20510, 20610, 20611, 20710, 20910, 21110, 21310, 21810, 22010, 22015, 22210, 22215, 22410, 24310, 24410, 24510, 24610, 24680, 24710, 30210, 30215, 31500, 32310, 32400, 32405, 32410, 32415, 32420, 32425, 32430 32435, 32440, 32445, 32450, 32900, 33215, 33220, 33225, or 33600.(o) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2) and subdivision (p), the person shall not possess a knife with a blade longer than two inches.(2) The person may possess a kitchen knife with a blade longer than two inches if the knife is used and kept only in the kitchen of the persons residence.(p) The person may use a knife with a blade longer than two inches, if the use is required for that persons employment, the use has been approved in a document issued by the supervising county agency, and the person possesses the document of approval at all times and makes it available for inspection.(q) The person shall waive any right to a court hearing prior to the imposition of a period of flash incarceration in a city or county jail of not more than 10 consecutive days for any violation of his or her postrelease supervision conditions.(r) The person shall participate in rehabilitation programming as recommended by the supervising county agency.(s) The person shall be subject to arrest with or without a warrant by a peace officer employed by the supervising county agency or, at the direction of the supervising county agency, by any peace officer when there is probable cause to believe the person has violated the terms and conditions of his or her release.(t) The person shall pay court-ordered restitution and restitution fines in the same manner as a person placed on probation.
15931604
15941605 3453. Postrelease community supervision shall include the following conditions:(a) The person shall be informed of the conditions of release.(b) The person shall obey all laws.(c) The person shall report to the supervising county agency within two working days of release from custody.(d) The person shall follow the directives and instructions of the supervising county agency.(e) The person shall report to the supervising county agency as directed by that agency.(f) The person, and his or her residence and possessions, shall be subject to search at any time of the day or night, with or without a warrant, by an agent of the supervising county agency or by a peace officer.(g) The person shall waive extradition if found outside the state.(h) (1) The person shall inform the supervising county agency of the persons place of residence and shall notify the supervising county agency of any change in residence, or the establishment of a new residence if the person was previously transient, within five working days of the change.(2) For purposes of this section, residence means one or more locations at which a person regularly resides, regardless of the number of days or nights spent there, such as a shelter or structure that can be located by a street address, including, but not limited to, a house, apartment building, motel, hotel, homeless shelter, and recreational or other vehicle. If the person has no residence, he or she shall inform the supervising county agency that he or she is transient.(i) (1) The person shall inform the supervising county agency of the persons place of employment, education, or training. The person shall inform the supervising agency of any pending or anticipated change in employment, education, or training.(2) If the person enters into new employment, he or she shall inform the supervising county agency of the new employment within three business days of that entry.(j) The person shall immediately inform the supervising county agency if he or she is arrested or receives a citation.(k) The person shall obtain the permission of the supervising county agency to travel more than 50 miles from the persons place of residence.(l) The person shall obtain a travel pass from the supervising county agency before he or she may leave the county or state for more than two days.(m) The person shall not be in the presence of a firearm or ammunition, or any item that appears to be a firearm or ammunition.(n) The person shall not possess, use, or have access to any weapon listed in Section 16140, subdivision (c) of Section 16170, Section 16220, 16260, 16320, 16330, or 16340, subdivision (b) of Section 16460, Section 16470, subdivision (f) of Section 16520, or Section 16570, 16740, 16760, 16830, 16920, 16930, 16940, 17090, 17125, 17160, 17170, 17180, 17190, 17200, 17270, 17280, 17330, 17350, 17360, 17700, 17705, 17710, 17715, 17720, 17725, 17730, 17735, 17740, 17745, 19100, 19200, 19205, 20200, 20310, 20410, 20510, 20610, 20611, 20710, 20910, 21110, 21310, 21810, 22010, 22015, 22210, 22215, 22410, 24310, 24410, 24510, 24610, 24680, 24710, 30210, 30215, 31500, 32310, 32400, 32405, 32410, 32415, 32420, 32425, 32430 32435, 32440, 32445, 32450, 32900, 33215, 33220, 33225, or 33600.(o) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2) and subdivision (p), the person shall not possess a knife with a blade longer than two inches.(2) The person may possess a kitchen knife with a blade longer than two inches if the knife is used and kept only in the kitchen of the persons residence.(p) The person may use a knife with a blade longer than two inches, if the use is required for that persons employment, the use has been approved in a document issued by the supervising county agency, and the person possesses the document of approval at all times and makes it available for inspection.(q) The person shall waive any right to a court hearing prior to the imposition of a period of flash incarceration in a city or county jail of not more than 10 consecutive days for any violation of his or her postrelease supervision conditions.(r) The person shall participate in rehabilitation programming as recommended by the supervising county agency.(s) The person shall be subject to arrest with or without a warrant by a peace officer employed by the supervising county agency or, at the direction of the supervising county agency, by any peace officer when there is probable cause to believe the person has violated the terms and conditions of his or her release.(t) The person shall pay court-ordered restitution and restitution fines in the same manner as a person placed on probation.
15951606
15961607
15971608
15981609 3453. Postrelease community supervision shall include the following conditions:
15991610
16001611 (a) The person shall be informed of the conditions of release.
16011612
16021613 (b) The person shall obey all laws.
16031614
16041615 (c) The person shall report to the supervising county agency within two working days of release from custody.
16051616
16061617 (d) The person shall follow the directives and instructions of the supervising county agency.
16071618
16081619 (e) The person shall report to the supervising county agency as directed by that agency.
16091620
16101621 (f) The person, and his or her residence and possessions, shall be subject to search at any time of the day or night, with or without a warrant, by an agent of the supervising county agency or by a peace officer.
16111622
16121623 (g) The person shall waive extradition if found outside the state.
16131624
16141625 (h) (1) The person shall inform the supervising county agency of the persons place of residence and shall notify the supervising county agency of any change in residence, or the establishment of a new residence if the person was previously transient, within five working days of the change.
16151626
16161627 (2) For purposes of this section, residence means one or more locations at which a person regularly resides, regardless of the number of days or nights spent there, such as a shelter or structure that can be located by a street address, including, but not limited to, a house, apartment building, motel, hotel, homeless shelter, and recreational or other vehicle. If the person has no residence, he or she shall inform the supervising county agency that he or she is transient.
16171628
16181629 (i) (1) The person shall inform the supervising county agency of the persons place of employment, education, or training. The person shall inform the supervising agency of any pending or anticipated change in employment, education, or training.
16191630
16201631 (2) If the person enters into new employment, he or she shall inform the supervising county agency of the new employment within three business days of that entry.
16211632
16221633 (j) The person shall immediately inform the supervising county agency if he or she is arrested or receives a citation.
16231634
16241635 (k) The person shall obtain the permission of the supervising county agency to travel more than 50 miles from the persons place of residence.
16251636
16261637 (l) The person shall obtain a travel pass from the supervising county agency before he or she may leave the county or state for more than two days.
16271638
16281639 (m) The person shall not be in the presence of a firearm or ammunition, or any item that appears to be a firearm or ammunition.
16291640
16301641 (n) The person shall not possess, use, or have access to any weapon listed in Section 16140, subdivision (c) of Section 16170, Section 16220, 16260, 16320, 16330, or 16340, subdivision (b) of Section 16460, Section 16470, subdivision (f) of Section 16520, or Section 16570, 16740, 16760, 16830, 16920, 16930, 16940, 17090, 17125, 17160, 17170, 17180, 17190, 17200, 17270, 17280, 17330, 17350, 17360, 17700, 17705, 17710, 17715, 17720, 17725, 17730, 17735, 17740, 17745, 19100, 19200, 19205, 20200, 20310, 20410, 20510, 20610, 20611, 20710, 20910, 21110, 21310, 21810, 22010, 22015, 22210, 22215, 22410, 24310, 24410, 24510, 24610, 24680, 24710, 30210, 30215, 31500, 32310, 32400, 32405, 32410, 32415, 32420, 32425, 32430 32435, 32440, 32445, 32450, 32900, 33215, 33220, 33225, or 33600.
16311642
16321643 (o) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2) and subdivision (p), the person shall not possess a knife with a blade longer than two inches.
16331644
16341645 (2) The person may possess a kitchen knife with a blade longer than two inches if the knife is used and kept only in the kitchen of the persons residence.
16351646
16361647 (p) The person may use a knife with a blade longer than two inches, if the use is required for that persons employment, the use has been approved in a document issued by the supervising county agency, and the person possesses the document of approval at all times and makes it available for inspection.
16371648
16381649 (q) The person shall waive any right to a court hearing prior to the imposition of a period of flash incarceration in a city or county jail of not more than 10 consecutive days for any violation of his or her postrelease supervision conditions.
16391650
16401651 (r) The person shall participate in rehabilitation programming as recommended by the supervising county agency.
16411652
16421653 (s) The person shall be subject to arrest with or without a warrant by a peace officer employed by the supervising county agency or, at the direction of the supervising county agency, by any peace officer when there is probable cause to believe the person has violated the terms and conditions of his or her release.
16431654
16441655 (t) The person shall pay court-ordered restitution and restitution fines in the same manner as a person placed on probation.
16451656
16461657 SEC. 40. Section 4032 is added to the Penal Code, to read:4032. (a) For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:(1) In-person visit means an on-site visit that may include barriers. In-person visits include interactions in which an inmate has physical contact with a visitor, the inmate is able to see a visitor through a barrier, or the inmate is otherwise in a room with a visitor without physical contact. In-person visit does not include an interaction between an inmate and a visitor through the use of an on-site, two-way, audio-video terminal.(2) Video visitation means interaction between an inmate and a member of the public through the means of an audio-visual communication device when the member of the public is located at a local detention facility or at a remote location.(3) Local detention facility has the same meaning as defined in Section 6031.4.(b) A local detention facility that offered in-person visitation as of January 1, 2017, may not convert to video visitation only.(c) A local detention facility shall not charge for visitation when visitors are onsite and participating in either in-person or video visitation. For purposes of this subdivision, onsite is defined as at the location where the inmate is housed.(d) If a local detention facility offered video visitation only as of January 1, 2017, on-site video visitation shall be offered free of charge, and the first hour of remote video visitation per week shall be offered free of charge.
16471658
16481659 SEC. 40. Section 4032 is added to the Penal Code, to read:
16491660
16501661 ### SEC. 40.
16511662
16521663 4032. (a) For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:(1) In-person visit means an on-site visit that may include barriers. In-person visits include interactions in which an inmate has physical contact with a visitor, the inmate is able to see a visitor through a barrier, or the inmate is otherwise in a room with a visitor without physical contact. In-person visit does not include an interaction between an inmate and a visitor through the use of an on-site, two-way, audio-video terminal.(2) Video visitation means interaction between an inmate and a member of the public through the means of an audio-visual communication device when the member of the public is located at a local detention facility or at a remote location.(3) Local detention facility has the same meaning as defined in Section 6031.4.(b) A local detention facility that offered in-person visitation as of January 1, 2017, may not convert to video visitation only.(c) A local detention facility shall not charge for visitation when visitors are onsite and participating in either in-person or video visitation. For purposes of this subdivision, onsite is defined as at the location where the inmate is housed.(d) If a local detention facility offered video visitation only as of January 1, 2017, on-site video visitation shall be offered free of charge, and the first hour of remote video visitation per week shall be offered free of charge.
16531664
16541665 4032. (a) For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:(1) In-person visit means an on-site visit that may include barriers. In-person visits include interactions in which an inmate has physical contact with a visitor, the inmate is able to see a visitor through a barrier, or the inmate is otherwise in a room with a visitor without physical contact. In-person visit does not include an interaction between an inmate and a visitor through the use of an on-site, two-way, audio-video terminal.(2) Video visitation means interaction between an inmate and a member of the public through the means of an audio-visual communication device when the member of the public is located at a local detention facility or at a remote location.(3) Local detention facility has the same meaning as defined in Section 6031.4.(b) A local detention facility that offered in-person visitation as of January 1, 2017, may not convert to video visitation only.(c) A local detention facility shall not charge for visitation when visitors are onsite and participating in either in-person or video visitation. For purposes of this subdivision, onsite is defined as at the location where the inmate is housed.(d) If a local detention facility offered video visitation only as of January 1, 2017, on-site video visitation shall be offered free of charge, and the first hour of remote video visitation per week shall be offered free of charge.
16551666
16561667 4032. (a) For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:(1) In-person visit means an on-site visit that may include barriers. In-person visits include interactions in which an inmate has physical contact with a visitor, the inmate is able to see a visitor through a barrier, or the inmate is otherwise in a room with a visitor without physical contact. In-person visit does not include an interaction between an inmate and a visitor through the use of an on-site, two-way, audio-video terminal.(2) Video visitation means interaction between an inmate and a member of the public through the means of an audio-visual communication device when the member of the public is located at a local detention facility or at a remote location.(3) Local detention facility has the same meaning as defined in Section 6031.4.(b) A local detention facility that offered in-person visitation as of January 1, 2017, may not convert to video visitation only.(c) A local detention facility shall not charge for visitation when visitors are onsite and participating in either in-person or video visitation. For purposes of this subdivision, onsite is defined as at the location where the inmate is housed.(d) If a local detention facility offered video visitation only as of January 1, 2017, on-site video visitation shall be offered free of charge, and the first hour of remote video visitation per week shall be offered free of charge.
16571668
16581669
16591670
16601671 4032. (a) For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:
16611672
16621673 (1) In-person visit means an on-site visit that may include barriers. In-person visits include interactions in which an inmate has physical contact with a visitor, the inmate is able to see a visitor through a barrier, or the inmate is otherwise in a room with a visitor without physical contact. In-person visit does not include an interaction between an inmate and a visitor through the use of an on-site, two-way, audio-video terminal.
16631674
16641675 (2) Video visitation means interaction between an inmate and a member of the public through the means of an audio-visual communication device when the member of the public is located at a local detention facility or at a remote location.
16651676
16661677 (3) Local detention facility has the same meaning as defined in Section 6031.4.
16671678
16681679 (b) A local detention facility that offered in-person visitation as of January 1, 2017, may not convert to video visitation only.
16691680
16701681 (c) A local detention facility shall not charge for visitation when visitors are onsite and participating in either in-person or video visitation. For purposes of this subdivision, onsite is defined as at the location where the inmate is housed.
16711682
16721683 (d) If a local detention facility offered video visitation only as of January 1, 2017, on-site video visitation shall be offered free of charge, and the first hour of remote video visitation per week shall be offered free of charge.
16731684
16741685 SEC. 41. Section 5075 of the Penal Code is amended to read:5075. (a) Commencing July 1, 2005, there is hereby created the Board of Parole Hearings. As of July 1, 2005, any reference to the Board of Prison Terms in this or any other code refers to the Board of Parole Hearings. As of that date, the Board of Prison Terms is abolished.(b) (1) The Governor shall appoint 15 commissioners, subject to Senate confirmation, pursuant to this section. These commissioners shall be appointed and trained to hear only adult matters. Except as specified in paragraph (2), commissioners shall hold office for terms of three years, each term to commence on the expiration date of the predecessor. Any appointment to a vacancy that occurs for any reason other than expiration of the term shall be for the remainder of the unexpired term. Commissioners are eligible for reappointment.(2) (A) The term for the commissioner whose position was created by the act that added this paragraph shall begin on July 1, 2017.(B) Two commissioners whose terms begin on July 1, 2017, shall be appointed for a term of one year. One of these commissioners may, but is not required to, be the commissioner whose position was created by the act that added this paragraph.(C) Three commissioners, as selected by the Governor, whose terms began on July 1, 2016, shall serve a reduced term of two years.(D) Terms of office subsequent to those described in subparagraphs (B) and (C) shall be governed by paragraph (1).(3) The selection of persons and their appointment by the Governor and confirmation by the Senate shall reflect as nearly as possible a cross section of the racial, sexual, economic, and geographic features of the population of the state.(c) The chair of the board shall be designated by the Governor periodically. The Governor may appoint an executive officer of the board, subject to Senate confirmation, who shall hold office at the pleasure of the Governor. The executive officer shall be the administrative head of the board and shall exercise all duties and functions necessary to insure that the responsibilities of the board are successfully discharged. The secretary shall be the appointing authority for all civil service positions of employment with the board.(d) Each commissioner shall participate in hearings on each workday, except when it is necessary for a commissioner to attend training, en banc hearings or full board meetings, or other administrative business requiring the participation of the commissioner. For purposes of this subdivision, these hearings shall include parole consideration hearings, parole rescission hearings, and parole progress hearings.
16751686
16761687 SEC. 41. Section 5075 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
16771688
16781689 ### SEC. 41.
16791690
16801691 5075. (a) Commencing July 1, 2005, there is hereby created the Board of Parole Hearings. As of July 1, 2005, any reference to the Board of Prison Terms in this or any other code refers to the Board of Parole Hearings. As of that date, the Board of Prison Terms is abolished.(b) (1) The Governor shall appoint 15 commissioners, subject to Senate confirmation, pursuant to this section. These commissioners shall be appointed and trained to hear only adult matters. Except as specified in paragraph (2), commissioners shall hold office for terms of three years, each term to commence on the expiration date of the predecessor. Any appointment to a vacancy that occurs for any reason other than expiration of the term shall be for the remainder of the unexpired term. Commissioners are eligible for reappointment.(2) (A) The term for the commissioner whose position was created by the act that added this paragraph shall begin on July 1, 2017.(B) Two commissioners whose terms begin on July 1, 2017, shall be appointed for a term of one year. One of these commissioners may, but is not required to, be the commissioner whose position was created by the act that added this paragraph.(C) Three commissioners, as selected by the Governor, whose terms began on July 1, 2016, shall serve a reduced term of two years.(D) Terms of office subsequent to those described in subparagraphs (B) and (C) shall be governed by paragraph (1).(3) The selection of persons and their appointment by the Governor and confirmation by the Senate shall reflect as nearly as possible a cross section of the racial, sexual, economic, and geographic features of the population of the state.(c) The chair of the board shall be designated by the Governor periodically. The Governor may appoint an executive officer of the board, subject to Senate confirmation, who shall hold office at the pleasure of the Governor. The executive officer shall be the administrative head of the board and shall exercise all duties and functions necessary to insure that the responsibilities of the board are successfully discharged. The secretary shall be the appointing authority for all civil service positions of employment with the board.(d) Each commissioner shall participate in hearings on each workday, except when it is necessary for a commissioner to attend training, en banc hearings or full board meetings, or other administrative business requiring the participation of the commissioner. For purposes of this subdivision, these hearings shall include parole consideration hearings, parole rescission hearings, and parole progress hearings.
16811692
16821693 5075. (a) Commencing July 1, 2005, there is hereby created the Board of Parole Hearings. As of July 1, 2005, any reference to the Board of Prison Terms in this or any other code refers to the Board of Parole Hearings. As of that date, the Board of Prison Terms is abolished.(b) (1) The Governor shall appoint 15 commissioners, subject to Senate confirmation, pursuant to this section. These commissioners shall be appointed and trained to hear only adult matters. Except as specified in paragraph (2), commissioners shall hold office for terms of three years, each term to commence on the expiration date of the predecessor. Any appointment to a vacancy that occurs for any reason other than expiration of the term shall be for the remainder of the unexpired term. Commissioners are eligible for reappointment.(2) (A) The term for the commissioner whose position was created by the act that added this paragraph shall begin on July 1, 2017.(B) Two commissioners whose terms begin on July 1, 2017, shall be appointed for a term of one year. One of these commissioners may, but is not required to, be the commissioner whose position was created by the act that added this paragraph.(C) Three commissioners, as selected by the Governor, whose terms began on July 1, 2016, shall serve a reduced term of two years.(D) Terms of office subsequent to those described in subparagraphs (B) and (C) shall be governed by paragraph (1).(3) The selection of persons and their appointment by the Governor and confirmation by the Senate shall reflect as nearly as possible a cross section of the racial, sexual, economic, and geographic features of the population of the state.(c) The chair of the board shall be designated by the Governor periodically. The Governor may appoint an executive officer of the board, subject to Senate confirmation, who shall hold office at the pleasure of the Governor. The executive officer shall be the administrative head of the board and shall exercise all duties and functions necessary to insure that the responsibilities of the board are successfully discharged. The secretary shall be the appointing authority for all civil service positions of employment with the board.(d) Each commissioner shall participate in hearings on each workday, except when it is necessary for a commissioner to attend training, en banc hearings or full board meetings, or other administrative business requiring the participation of the commissioner. For purposes of this subdivision, these hearings shall include parole consideration hearings, parole rescission hearings, and parole progress hearings.
16831694
16841695 5075. (a) Commencing July 1, 2005, there is hereby created the Board of Parole Hearings. As of July 1, 2005, any reference to the Board of Prison Terms in this or any other code refers to the Board of Parole Hearings. As of that date, the Board of Prison Terms is abolished.(b) (1) The Governor shall appoint 15 commissioners, subject to Senate confirmation, pursuant to this section. These commissioners shall be appointed and trained to hear only adult matters. Except as specified in paragraph (2), commissioners shall hold office for terms of three years, each term to commence on the expiration date of the predecessor. Any appointment to a vacancy that occurs for any reason other than expiration of the term shall be for the remainder of the unexpired term. Commissioners are eligible for reappointment.(2) (A) The term for the commissioner whose position was created by the act that added this paragraph shall begin on July 1, 2017.(B) Two commissioners whose terms begin on July 1, 2017, shall be appointed for a term of one year. One of these commissioners may, but is not required to, be the commissioner whose position was created by the act that added this paragraph.(C) Three commissioners, as selected by the Governor, whose terms began on July 1, 2016, shall serve a reduced term of two years.(D) Terms of office subsequent to those described in subparagraphs (B) and (C) shall be governed by paragraph (1).(3) The selection of persons and their appointment by the Governor and confirmation by the Senate shall reflect as nearly as possible a cross section of the racial, sexual, economic, and geographic features of the population of the state.(c) The chair of the board shall be designated by the Governor periodically. The Governor may appoint an executive officer of the board, subject to Senate confirmation, who shall hold office at the pleasure of the Governor. The executive officer shall be the administrative head of the board and shall exercise all duties and functions necessary to insure that the responsibilities of the board are successfully discharged. The secretary shall be the appointing authority for all civil service positions of employment with the board.(d) Each commissioner shall participate in hearings on each workday, except when it is necessary for a commissioner to attend training, en banc hearings or full board meetings, or other administrative business requiring the participation of the commissioner. For purposes of this subdivision, these hearings shall include parole consideration hearings, parole rescission hearings, and parole progress hearings.
16851696
16861697
16871698
16881699 5075. (a) Commencing July 1, 2005, there is hereby created the Board of Parole Hearings. As of July 1, 2005, any reference to the Board of Prison Terms in this or any other code refers to the Board of Parole Hearings. As of that date, the Board of Prison Terms is abolished.
16891700
16901701 (b) (1) The Governor shall appoint 15 commissioners, subject to Senate confirmation, pursuant to this section. These commissioners shall be appointed and trained to hear only adult matters. Except as specified in paragraph (2), commissioners shall hold office for terms of three years, each term to commence on the expiration date of the predecessor. Any appointment to a vacancy that occurs for any reason other than expiration of the term shall be for the remainder of the unexpired term. Commissioners are eligible for reappointment.
16911702
16921703 (2) (A) The term for the commissioner whose position was created by the act that added this paragraph shall begin on July 1, 2017.
16931704
16941705 (B) Two commissioners whose terms begin on July 1, 2017, shall be appointed for a term of one year. One of these commissioners may, but is not required to, be the commissioner whose position was created by the act that added this paragraph.
16951706
16961707 (C) Three commissioners, as selected by the Governor, whose terms began on July 1, 2016, shall serve a reduced term of two years.
16971708
16981709 (D) Terms of office subsequent to those described in subparagraphs (B) and (C) shall be governed by paragraph (1).
16991710
17001711 (3) The selection of persons and their appointment by the Governor and confirmation by the Senate shall reflect as nearly as possible a cross section of the racial, sexual, economic, and geographic features of the population of the state.
17011712
17021713 (c) The chair of the board shall be designated by the Governor periodically. The Governor may appoint an executive officer of the board, subject to Senate confirmation, who shall hold office at the pleasure of the Governor. The executive officer shall be the administrative head of the board and shall exercise all duties and functions necessary to insure that the responsibilities of the board are successfully discharged. The secretary shall be the appointing authority for all civil service positions of employment with the board.
17031714
17041715 (d) Each commissioner shall participate in hearings on each workday, except when it is necessary for a commissioner to attend training, en banc hearings or full board meetings, or other administrative business requiring the participation of the commissioner. For purposes of this subdivision, these hearings shall include parole consideration hearings, parole rescission hearings, and parole progress hearings.
17051716
17061717 SEC. 42. Section 6031 of the Penal Code is amended to read:6031. The Board of State and Community Corrections shall, at a minimum, inspect each local detention facility in the state biennially.
17071718
17081719 SEC. 42. Section 6031 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
17091720
17101721 ### SEC. 42.
17111722
17121723 6031. The Board of State and Community Corrections shall, at a minimum, inspect each local detention facility in the state biennially.
17131724
17141725 6031. The Board of State and Community Corrections shall, at a minimum, inspect each local detention facility in the state biennially.
17151726
17161727 6031. The Board of State and Community Corrections shall, at a minimum, inspect each local detention facility in the state biennially.
17171728
17181729
17191730
17201731 6031. The Board of State and Community Corrections shall, at a minimum, inspect each local detention facility in the state biennially.
17211732
17221733 SEC. 43. Section 6031.1 of the Penal Code is amended to read:6031.1. (a) Inspections of local detention facilities shall, at a minimum, be made biennially. Inspections of privately operated work furlough facilities and programs shall be made biennially unless the work furlough administrator requests an earlier inspection. Inspections shall include, but not be limited to, the following:(1) Health and safety inspections conducted pursuant to Section 101045 of the Health and Safety Code.(2) Fire suppression preplanning inspections by the local fire department.(3) Security, rehabilitation programs, recreation, treatment of persons confined in the facilities, and personnel training by the staff of the Board of State and Community Corrections.(4) The types and availability of visitation, including, but not limited to, the mode of visitation, visitation hours, time inmates are allowed for visitation, and any restrictions on inmate visitation.(5) Whether the county in which the facility is located received state funding for jail construction pursuant to Chapter 7 of the Statutes of 2007, Chapter 42 of the Statutes of 2012, Chapter 37 of the Statutes of 2014, or Chapter 34 of the Statutes of 2016. For counties that received funding, whether the county and facility are in compliance with the applicable requirements and restrictions of that funding.(b) Reports of each facilitys inspection shall be furnished to the official in charge of the local detention facility or, in the case of a privately operated facility, the work furlough administrator, the local governing body, the grand jury, and the presiding judge of the superior court in the county where the facility is located. These reports shall set forth the areas wherein the facility has complied and has failed to comply with the minimum standards established pursuant to Section 6030.(c) All reports completed pursuant to this section shall be posted on the Board of State and Community Corrections Internet Web site in a manner in which they are accessible to the public.
17231734
17241735 SEC. 43. Section 6031.1 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
17251736
17261737 ### SEC. 43.
17271738
17281739 6031.1. (a) Inspections of local detention facilities shall, at a minimum, be made biennially. Inspections of privately operated work furlough facilities and programs shall be made biennially unless the work furlough administrator requests an earlier inspection. Inspections shall include, but not be limited to, the following:(1) Health and safety inspections conducted pursuant to Section 101045 of the Health and Safety Code.(2) Fire suppression preplanning inspections by the local fire department.(3) Security, rehabilitation programs, recreation, treatment of persons confined in the facilities, and personnel training by the staff of the Board of State and Community Corrections.(4) The types and availability of visitation, including, but not limited to, the mode of visitation, visitation hours, time inmates are allowed for visitation, and any restrictions on inmate visitation.(5) Whether the county in which the facility is located received state funding for jail construction pursuant to Chapter 7 of the Statutes of 2007, Chapter 42 of the Statutes of 2012, Chapter 37 of the Statutes of 2014, or Chapter 34 of the Statutes of 2016. For counties that received funding, whether the county and facility are in compliance with the applicable requirements and restrictions of that funding.(b) Reports of each facilitys inspection shall be furnished to the official in charge of the local detention facility or, in the case of a privately operated facility, the work furlough administrator, the local governing body, the grand jury, and the presiding judge of the superior court in the county where the facility is located. These reports shall set forth the areas wherein the facility has complied and has failed to comply with the minimum standards established pursuant to Section 6030.(c) All reports completed pursuant to this section shall be posted on the Board of State and Community Corrections Internet Web site in a manner in which they are accessible to the public.
17291740
17301741 6031.1. (a) Inspections of local detention facilities shall, at a minimum, be made biennially. Inspections of privately operated work furlough facilities and programs shall be made biennially unless the work furlough administrator requests an earlier inspection. Inspections shall include, but not be limited to, the following:(1) Health and safety inspections conducted pursuant to Section 101045 of the Health and Safety Code.(2) Fire suppression preplanning inspections by the local fire department.(3) Security, rehabilitation programs, recreation, treatment of persons confined in the facilities, and personnel training by the staff of the Board of State and Community Corrections.(4) The types and availability of visitation, including, but not limited to, the mode of visitation, visitation hours, time inmates are allowed for visitation, and any restrictions on inmate visitation.(5) Whether the county in which the facility is located received state funding for jail construction pursuant to Chapter 7 of the Statutes of 2007, Chapter 42 of the Statutes of 2012, Chapter 37 of the Statutes of 2014, or Chapter 34 of the Statutes of 2016. For counties that received funding, whether the county and facility are in compliance with the applicable requirements and restrictions of that funding.(b) Reports of each facilitys inspection shall be furnished to the official in charge of the local detention facility or, in the case of a privately operated facility, the work furlough administrator, the local governing body, the grand jury, and the presiding judge of the superior court in the county where the facility is located. These reports shall set forth the areas wherein the facility has complied and has failed to comply with the minimum standards established pursuant to Section 6030.(c) All reports completed pursuant to this section shall be posted on the Board of State and Community Corrections Internet Web site in a manner in which they are accessible to the public.
17311742
17321743 6031.1. (a) Inspections of local detention facilities shall, at a minimum, be made biennially. Inspections of privately operated work furlough facilities and programs shall be made biennially unless the work furlough administrator requests an earlier inspection. Inspections shall include, but not be limited to, the following:(1) Health and safety inspections conducted pursuant to Section 101045 of the Health and Safety Code.(2) Fire suppression preplanning inspections by the local fire department.(3) Security, rehabilitation programs, recreation, treatment of persons confined in the facilities, and personnel training by the staff of the Board of State and Community Corrections.(4) The types and availability of visitation, including, but not limited to, the mode of visitation, visitation hours, time inmates are allowed for visitation, and any restrictions on inmate visitation.(5) Whether the county in which the facility is located received state funding for jail construction pursuant to Chapter 7 of the Statutes of 2007, Chapter 42 of the Statutes of 2012, Chapter 37 of the Statutes of 2014, or Chapter 34 of the Statutes of 2016. For counties that received funding, whether the county and facility are in compliance with the applicable requirements and restrictions of that funding.(b) Reports of each facilitys inspection shall be furnished to the official in charge of the local detention facility or, in the case of a privately operated facility, the work furlough administrator, the local governing body, the grand jury, and the presiding judge of the superior court in the county where the facility is located. These reports shall set forth the areas wherein the facility has complied and has failed to comply with the minimum standards established pursuant to Section 6030.(c) All reports completed pursuant to this section shall be posted on the Board of State and Community Corrections Internet Web site in a manner in which they are accessible to the public.
17331744
17341745
17351746
17361747 6031.1. (a) Inspections of local detention facilities shall, at a minimum, be made biennially. Inspections of privately operated work furlough facilities and programs shall be made biennially unless the work furlough administrator requests an earlier inspection. Inspections shall include, but not be limited to, the following:
17371748
17381749 (1) Health and safety inspections conducted pursuant to Section 101045 of the Health and Safety Code.
17391750
17401751 (2) Fire suppression preplanning inspections by the local fire department.
17411752
17421753 (3) Security, rehabilitation programs, recreation, treatment of persons confined in the facilities, and personnel training by the staff of the Board of State and Community Corrections.
17431754
17441755 (4) The types and availability of visitation, including, but not limited to, the mode of visitation, visitation hours, time inmates are allowed for visitation, and any restrictions on inmate visitation.
17451756
17461757 (5) Whether the county in which the facility is located received state funding for jail construction pursuant to Chapter 7 of the Statutes of 2007, Chapter 42 of the Statutes of 2012, Chapter 37 of the Statutes of 2014, or Chapter 34 of the Statutes of 2016. For counties that received funding, whether the county and facility are in compliance with the applicable requirements and restrictions of that funding.
17471758
17481759 (b) Reports of each facilitys inspection shall be furnished to the official in charge of the local detention facility or, in the case of a privately operated facility, the work furlough administrator, the local governing body, the grand jury, and the presiding judge of the superior court in the county where the facility is located. These reports shall set forth the areas wherein the facility has complied and has failed to comply with the minimum standards established pursuant to Section 6030.
17491760
17501761 (c) All reports completed pursuant to this section shall be posted on the Board of State and Community Corrections Internet Web site in a manner in which they are accessible to the public.
17511762
17521763 SEC. 44. Section 29800 of the Penal Code is amended to read:29800. (a) (1) Any person who has been convicted of, or has an outstanding warrant for, a felony under the laws of the United States, the State of California, or any other state, government, or country, or of an offense enumerated in subdivision (a), (b), or (d) of Section 23515, or who is addicted to the use of any narcotic drug, and who owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control any firearm is guilty of a felony.(2) Any person who has two or more convictions for violating paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 417 and who owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control any firearm is guilty of a felony.(b) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), any person who has been convicted of a felony or of an offense enumerated in Section 23515, when that conviction results from certification by the juvenile court for prosecution as an adult in an adult court under Section 707 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, and who owns or has in possession or under custody or control any firearm is guilty of a felony.(c) Subdivision (a) shall not apply to a person who has been convicted of a felony under the laws of the United States unless either of the following criteria is satisfied:(1) Conviction of a like offense under California law can only result in imposition of felony punishment.(2) The defendant was sentenced to a federal correctional facility for more than 30 days, or received a fine of more than one thousand dollars ($1,000), or received both punishments.
17531764
17541765 SEC. 44. Section 29800 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
17551766
17561767 ### SEC. 44.
17571768
17581769 29800. (a) (1) Any person who has been convicted of, or has an outstanding warrant for, a felony under the laws of the United States, the State of California, or any other state, government, or country, or of an offense enumerated in subdivision (a), (b), or (d) of Section 23515, or who is addicted to the use of any narcotic drug, and who owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control any firearm is guilty of a felony.(2) Any person who has two or more convictions for violating paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 417 and who owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control any firearm is guilty of a felony.(b) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), any person who has been convicted of a felony or of an offense enumerated in Section 23515, when that conviction results from certification by the juvenile court for prosecution as an adult in an adult court under Section 707 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, and who owns or has in possession or under custody or control any firearm is guilty of a felony.(c) Subdivision (a) shall not apply to a person who has been convicted of a felony under the laws of the United States unless either of the following criteria is satisfied:(1) Conviction of a like offense under California law can only result in imposition of felony punishment.(2) The defendant was sentenced to a federal correctional facility for more than 30 days, or received a fine of more than one thousand dollars ($1,000), or received both punishments.
17591770
17601771 29800. (a) (1) Any person who has been convicted of, or has an outstanding warrant for, a felony under the laws of the United States, the State of California, or any other state, government, or country, or of an offense enumerated in subdivision (a), (b), or (d) of Section 23515, or who is addicted to the use of any narcotic drug, and who owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control any firearm is guilty of a felony.(2) Any person who has two or more convictions for violating paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 417 and who owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control any firearm is guilty of a felony.(b) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), any person who has been convicted of a felony or of an offense enumerated in Section 23515, when that conviction results from certification by the juvenile court for prosecution as an adult in an adult court under Section 707 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, and who owns or has in possession or under custody or control any firearm is guilty of a felony.(c) Subdivision (a) shall not apply to a person who has been convicted of a felony under the laws of the United States unless either of the following criteria is satisfied:(1) Conviction of a like offense under California law can only result in imposition of felony punishment.(2) The defendant was sentenced to a federal correctional facility for more than 30 days, or received a fine of more than one thousand dollars ($1,000), or received both punishments.
17611772
17621773 29800. (a) (1) Any person who has been convicted of, or has an outstanding warrant for, a felony under the laws of the United States, the State of California, or any other state, government, or country, or of an offense enumerated in subdivision (a), (b), or (d) of Section 23515, or who is addicted to the use of any narcotic drug, and who owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control any firearm is guilty of a felony.(2) Any person who has two or more convictions for violating paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 417 and who owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control any firearm is guilty of a felony.(b) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), any person who has been convicted of a felony or of an offense enumerated in Section 23515, when that conviction results from certification by the juvenile court for prosecution as an adult in an adult court under Section 707 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, and who owns or has in possession or under custody or control any firearm is guilty of a felony.(c) Subdivision (a) shall not apply to a person who has been convicted of a felony under the laws of the United States unless either of the following criteria is satisfied:(1) Conviction of a like offense under California law can only result in imposition of felony punishment.(2) The defendant was sentenced to a federal correctional facility for more than 30 days, or received a fine of more than one thousand dollars ($1,000), or received both punishments.
17631774
17641775
17651776
17661777 29800. (a) (1) Any person who has been convicted of, or has an outstanding warrant for, a felony under the laws of the United States, the State of California, or any other state, government, or country, or of an offense enumerated in subdivision (a), (b), or (d) of Section 23515, or who is addicted to the use of any narcotic drug, and who owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control any firearm is guilty of a felony.
17671778
17681779 (2) Any person who has two or more convictions for violating paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 417 and who owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control any firearm is guilty of a felony.
17691780
17701781 (b) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), any person who has been convicted of a felony or of an offense enumerated in Section 23515, when that conviction results from certification by the juvenile court for prosecution as an adult in an adult court under Section 707 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, and who owns or has in possession or under custody or control any firearm is guilty of a felony.
17711782
17721783 (c) Subdivision (a) shall not apply to a person who has been convicted of a felony under the laws of the United States unless either of the following criteria is satisfied:
17731784
17741785 (1) Conviction of a like offense under California law can only result in imposition of felony punishment.
17751786
17761787 (2) The defendant was sentenced to a federal correctional facility for more than 30 days, or received a fine of more than one thousand dollars ($1,000), or received both punishments.
17771788
17781789 SEC. 45. Section 29805 of the Penal Code, as amended November 8, 2016, by initiative Proposition 63, Section 11.2, is amended to read:29805. Except as provided in Section 29855 or subdivision (a) of Section 29800, any person who has been convicted of, or has an outstanding warrant for, a misdemeanor violation of Section 71, 76, 136.1, 136.5, or 140, subdivision (d) of Section 148, Section 171b, paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 171c, 171d, 186.28, 240, 241, 242, 243, 243.4, 244.5, 245, 245.5, 246.3, 247, 273.5, 273.6, 417, 417.6, 422, 626.9, 646.9, or 830.95, subdivision (a) of former Section 12100, as that section read at any time from when it was enacted by Section 3 of Chapter 1386 of the Statutes of 1988 to when it was repealed by Section 18 of Chapter 23 of the Statutes of 1994, Section 17500, 17510, 25300, 25800, 30315, or 32625, subdivision (b) or (d) of Section 26100, or Section 27510, or Section 8100, 8101, or 8103 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, any firearm-related offense pursuant to Sections 871.5 and 1001.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, Section 490.2 if the property taken was a firearm, or of the conduct punished in subdivision (c) of Section 27590, and who, within 10 years of the conviction, or if the individual has an outstanding warrant, owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control, any firearm is guilty of a public offense, which shall be punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year or in the state prison, by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that imprisonment and fine. The court, on forms prescribed by the Department of Justice, shall notify the department of persons subject to this section. However, the prohibition in this section may be reduced, eliminated, or conditioned as provided in Section 29855 or 29860.
17791790
17801791 SEC. 45. Section 29805 of the Penal Code, as amended November 8, 2016, by initiative Proposition 63, Section 11.2, is amended to read:
17811792
17821793 ### SEC. 45.
17831794
17841795 29805. Except as provided in Section 29855 or subdivision (a) of Section 29800, any person who has been convicted of, or has an outstanding warrant for, a misdemeanor violation of Section 71, 76, 136.1, 136.5, or 140, subdivision (d) of Section 148, Section 171b, paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 171c, 171d, 186.28, 240, 241, 242, 243, 243.4, 244.5, 245, 245.5, 246.3, 247, 273.5, 273.6, 417, 417.6, 422, 626.9, 646.9, or 830.95, subdivision (a) of former Section 12100, as that section read at any time from when it was enacted by Section 3 of Chapter 1386 of the Statutes of 1988 to when it was repealed by Section 18 of Chapter 23 of the Statutes of 1994, Section 17500, 17510, 25300, 25800, 30315, or 32625, subdivision (b) or (d) of Section 26100, or Section 27510, or Section 8100, 8101, or 8103 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, any firearm-related offense pursuant to Sections 871.5 and 1001.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, Section 490.2 if the property taken was a firearm, or of the conduct punished in subdivision (c) of Section 27590, and who, within 10 years of the conviction, or if the individual has an outstanding warrant, owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control, any firearm is guilty of a public offense, which shall be punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year or in the state prison, by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that imprisonment and fine. The court, on forms prescribed by the Department of Justice, shall notify the department of persons subject to this section. However, the prohibition in this section may be reduced, eliminated, or conditioned as provided in Section 29855 or 29860.
17851796
17861797 29805. Except as provided in Section 29855 or subdivision (a) of Section 29800, any person who has been convicted of, or has an outstanding warrant for, a misdemeanor violation of Section 71, 76, 136.1, 136.5, or 140, subdivision (d) of Section 148, Section 171b, paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 171c, 171d, 186.28, 240, 241, 242, 243, 243.4, 244.5, 245, 245.5, 246.3, 247, 273.5, 273.6, 417, 417.6, 422, 626.9, 646.9, or 830.95, subdivision (a) of former Section 12100, as that section read at any time from when it was enacted by Section 3 of Chapter 1386 of the Statutes of 1988 to when it was repealed by Section 18 of Chapter 23 of the Statutes of 1994, Section 17500, 17510, 25300, 25800, 30315, or 32625, subdivision (b) or (d) of Section 26100, or Section 27510, or Section 8100, 8101, or 8103 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, any firearm-related offense pursuant to Sections 871.5 and 1001.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, Section 490.2 if the property taken was a firearm, or of the conduct punished in subdivision (c) of Section 27590, and who, within 10 years of the conviction, or if the individual has an outstanding warrant, owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control, any firearm is guilty of a public offense, which shall be punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year or in the state prison, by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that imprisonment and fine. The court, on forms prescribed by the Department of Justice, shall notify the department of persons subject to this section. However, the prohibition in this section may be reduced, eliminated, or conditioned as provided in Section 29855 or 29860.
17871798
17881799 29805. Except as provided in Section 29855 or subdivision (a) of Section 29800, any person who has been convicted of, or has an outstanding warrant for, a misdemeanor violation of Section 71, 76, 136.1, 136.5, or 140, subdivision (d) of Section 148, Section 171b, paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 171c, 171d, 186.28, 240, 241, 242, 243, 243.4, 244.5, 245, 245.5, 246.3, 247, 273.5, 273.6, 417, 417.6, 422, 626.9, 646.9, or 830.95, subdivision (a) of former Section 12100, as that section read at any time from when it was enacted by Section 3 of Chapter 1386 of the Statutes of 1988 to when it was repealed by Section 18 of Chapter 23 of the Statutes of 1994, Section 17500, 17510, 25300, 25800, 30315, or 32625, subdivision (b) or (d) of Section 26100, or Section 27510, or Section 8100, 8101, or 8103 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, any firearm-related offense pursuant to Sections 871.5 and 1001.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, Section 490.2 if the property taken was a firearm, or of the conduct punished in subdivision (c) of Section 27590, and who, within 10 years of the conviction, or if the individual has an outstanding warrant, owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control, any firearm is guilty of a public offense, which shall be punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year or in the state prison, by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that imprisonment and fine. The court, on forms prescribed by the Department of Justice, shall notify the department of persons subject to this section. However, the prohibition in this section may be reduced, eliminated, or conditioned as provided in Section 29855 or 29860.
17891800
17901801
17911802
17921803 29805. Except as provided in Section 29855 or subdivision (a) of Section 29800, any person who has been convicted of, or has an outstanding warrant for, a misdemeanor violation of Section 71, 76, 136.1, 136.5, or 140, subdivision (d) of Section 148, Section 171b, paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 171c, 171d, 186.28, 240, 241, 242, 243, 243.4, 244.5, 245, 245.5, 246.3, 247, 273.5, 273.6, 417, 417.6, 422, 626.9, 646.9, or 830.95, subdivision (a) of former Section 12100, as that section read at any time from when it was enacted by Section 3 of Chapter 1386 of the Statutes of 1988 to when it was repealed by Section 18 of Chapter 23 of the Statutes of 1994, Section 17500, 17510, 25300, 25800, 30315, or 32625, subdivision (b) or (d) of Section 26100, or Section 27510, or Section 8100, 8101, or 8103 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, any firearm-related offense pursuant to Sections 871.5 and 1001.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, Section 490.2 if the property taken was a firearm, or of the conduct punished in subdivision (c) of Section 27590, and who, within 10 years of the conviction, or if the individual has an outstanding warrant, owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control, any firearm is guilty of a public offense, which shall be punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year or in the state prison, by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that imprisonment and fine. The court, on forms prescribed by the Department of Justice, shall notify the department of persons subject to this section. However, the prohibition in this section may be reduced, eliminated, or conditioned as provided in Section 29855 or 29860.
17931804
17941805 SEC. 46. Section 29805 of the Penal Code, as amended by Section 2 of Chapter 47 of the Statutes of 2016, is amended to read:29805. (a) Except as provided in Section 29855 or subdivision (a) of Section 29800, any person who has been convicted of, or has an outstanding warrant for, a misdemeanor violation of Section 71, 76, 136.1, 136.5, or 140, subdivision (d) of Section 148, subdivision (f) of Section 148.5, Section 171b, paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 171c, Section 171d, 186.28, 240, 241, 242, 243, 243.4, 244.5, 245, 245.5, 246.3, 247, 273.5, 273.6, 417, 417.6, 422, 626.9, 646.9, or 830.95, subdivision (a) of former Section 12100, as that section read at any time from when it was enacted by Section 3 of Chapter 1386 of the Statutes of 1988 to when it was repealed by Section 18 of Chapter 23 of the Statutes of 1994, Section 17500, 17510, 25300, 25800, 30315, or 32625, subdivision (b) or (d) of Section 26100, or Section 27510, or Section 8100, 8101, or 8103 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, any firearm-related offense pursuant to Sections 871.5 and 1001.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or of the conduct punished in subdivision (c) of Section 27590, and who, within 10 years of the conviction, or if the individual has an outstanding warrant, owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control, any firearm is guilty of a public offense, which shall be punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year or in the state prison, by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that imprisonment and fine.(b) The court, on forms prescribed by the Department of Justice, shall notify the department of persons subject to this section. However, the prohibition in this section may be reduced, eliminated, or conditioned as provided in Section 29855 or 29860.
17951806
17961807 SEC. 46. Section 29805 of the Penal Code, as amended by Section 2 of Chapter 47 of the Statutes of 2016, is amended to read:
17971808
17981809 ### SEC. 46.
17991810
18001811 29805. (a) Except as provided in Section 29855 or subdivision (a) of Section 29800, any person who has been convicted of, or has an outstanding warrant for, a misdemeanor violation of Section 71, 76, 136.1, 136.5, or 140, subdivision (d) of Section 148, subdivision (f) of Section 148.5, Section 171b, paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 171c, Section 171d, 186.28, 240, 241, 242, 243, 243.4, 244.5, 245, 245.5, 246.3, 247, 273.5, 273.6, 417, 417.6, 422, 626.9, 646.9, or 830.95, subdivision (a) of former Section 12100, as that section read at any time from when it was enacted by Section 3 of Chapter 1386 of the Statutes of 1988 to when it was repealed by Section 18 of Chapter 23 of the Statutes of 1994, Section 17500, 17510, 25300, 25800, 30315, or 32625, subdivision (b) or (d) of Section 26100, or Section 27510, or Section 8100, 8101, or 8103 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, any firearm-related offense pursuant to Sections 871.5 and 1001.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or of the conduct punished in subdivision (c) of Section 27590, and who, within 10 years of the conviction, or if the individual has an outstanding warrant, owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control, any firearm is guilty of a public offense, which shall be punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year or in the state prison, by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that imprisonment and fine.(b) The court, on forms prescribed by the Department of Justice, shall notify the department of persons subject to this section. However, the prohibition in this section may be reduced, eliminated, or conditioned as provided in Section 29855 or 29860.
18011812
18021813 29805. (a) Except as provided in Section 29855 or subdivision (a) of Section 29800, any person who has been convicted of, or has an outstanding warrant for, a misdemeanor violation of Section 71, 76, 136.1, 136.5, or 140, subdivision (d) of Section 148, subdivision (f) of Section 148.5, Section 171b, paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 171c, Section 171d, 186.28, 240, 241, 242, 243, 243.4, 244.5, 245, 245.5, 246.3, 247, 273.5, 273.6, 417, 417.6, 422, 626.9, 646.9, or 830.95, subdivision (a) of former Section 12100, as that section read at any time from when it was enacted by Section 3 of Chapter 1386 of the Statutes of 1988 to when it was repealed by Section 18 of Chapter 23 of the Statutes of 1994, Section 17500, 17510, 25300, 25800, 30315, or 32625, subdivision (b) or (d) of Section 26100, or Section 27510, or Section 8100, 8101, or 8103 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, any firearm-related offense pursuant to Sections 871.5 and 1001.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or of the conduct punished in subdivision (c) of Section 27590, and who, within 10 years of the conviction, or if the individual has an outstanding warrant, owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control, any firearm is guilty of a public offense, which shall be punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year or in the state prison, by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that imprisonment and fine.(b) The court, on forms prescribed by the Department of Justice, shall notify the department of persons subject to this section. However, the prohibition in this section may be reduced, eliminated, or conditioned as provided in Section 29855 or 29860.
18031814
18041815 29805. (a) Except as provided in Section 29855 or subdivision (a) of Section 29800, any person who has been convicted of, or has an outstanding warrant for, a misdemeanor violation of Section 71, 76, 136.1, 136.5, or 140, subdivision (d) of Section 148, subdivision (f) of Section 148.5, Section 171b, paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 171c, Section 171d, 186.28, 240, 241, 242, 243, 243.4, 244.5, 245, 245.5, 246.3, 247, 273.5, 273.6, 417, 417.6, 422, 626.9, 646.9, or 830.95, subdivision (a) of former Section 12100, as that section read at any time from when it was enacted by Section 3 of Chapter 1386 of the Statutes of 1988 to when it was repealed by Section 18 of Chapter 23 of the Statutes of 1994, Section 17500, 17510, 25300, 25800, 30315, or 32625, subdivision (b) or (d) of Section 26100, or Section 27510, or Section 8100, 8101, or 8103 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, any firearm-related offense pursuant to Sections 871.5 and 1001.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or of the conduct punished in subdivision (c) of Section 27590, and who, within 10 years of the conviction, or if the individual has an outstanding warrant, owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control, any firearm is guilty of a public offense, which shall be punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year or in the state prison, by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that imprisonment and fine.(b) The court, on forms prescribed by the Department of Justice, shall notify the department of persons subject to this section. However, the prohibition in this section may be reduced, eliminated, or conditioned as provided in Section 29855 or 29860.
18051816
18061817
18071818
18081819 29805. (a) Except as provided in Section 29855 or subdivision (a) of Section 29800, any person who has been convicted of, or has an outstanding warrant for, a misdemeanor violation of Section 71, 76, 136.1, 136.5, or 140, subdivision (d) of Section 148, subdivision (f) of Section 148.5, Section 171b, paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 171c, Section 171d, 186.28, 240, 241, 242, 243, 243.4, 244.5, 245, 245.5, 246.3, 247, 273.5, 273.6, 417, 417.6, 422, 626.9, 646.9, or 830.95, subdivision (a) of former Section 12100, as that section read at any time from when it was enacted by Section 3 of Chapter 1386 of the Statutes of 1988 to when it was repealed by Section 18 of Chapter 23 of the Statutes of 1994, Section 17500, 17510, 25300, 25800, 30315, or 32625, subdivision (b) or (d) of Section 26100, or Section 27510, or Section 8100, 8101, or 8103 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, any firearm-related offense pursuant to Sections 871.5 and 1001.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or of the conduct punished in subdivision (c) of Section 27590, and who, within 10 years of the conviction, or if the individual has an outstanding warrant, owns, purchases, receives, or has in possession or under custody or control, any firearm is guilty of a public offense, which shall be punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year or in the state prison, by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that imprisonment and fine.
18091820
18101821 (b) The court, on forms prescribed by the Department of Justice, shall notify the department of persons subject to this section. However, the prohibition in this section may be reduced, eliminated, or conditioned as provided in Section 29855 or 29860.
18111822
18121823 SEC. 47. Section 30680 of the Penal Code, as added by Section 2 of Chapter 40 of the Statutes of 2016, is amended to read:30680. Section 30605 does not apply to the possession of an assault weapon by a person who has possessed the assault weapon prior to January 1, 2017, if all of the following are applicable:(a) Prior to January 1, 2017, the person would have been eligible to register that assault weapon pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 30900.(b) The person lawfully possessed that assault weapon prior to January 1, 2017.(c) The person registers the assault weapon by July 1, 2018, in accordance with subdivision (b) of Section 30900.
18131824
18141825 SEC. 47. Section 30680 of the Penal Code, as added by Section 2 of Chapter 40 of the Statutes of 2016, is amended to read:
18151826
18161827 ### SEC. 47.
18171828
18181829 30680. Section 30605 does not apply to the possession of an assault weapon by a person who has possessed the assault weapon prior to January 1, 2017, if all of the following are applicable:(a) Prior to January 1, 2017, the person would have been eligible to register that assault weapon pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 30900.(b) The person lawfully possessed that assault weapon prior to January 1, 2017.(c) The person registers the assault weapon by July 1, 2018, in accordance with subdivision (b) of Section 30900.
18191830
18201831 30680. Section 30605 does not apply to the possession of an assault weapon by a person who has possessed the assault weapon prior to January 1, 2017, if all of the following are applicable:(a) Prior to January 1, 2017, the person would have been eligible to register that assault weapon pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 30900.(b) The person lawfully possessed that assault weapon prior to January 1, 2017.(c) The person registers the assault weapon by July 1, 2018, in accordance with subdivision (b) of Section 30900.
18211832
18221833 30680. Section 30605 does not apply to the possession of an assault weapon by a person who has possessed the assault weapon prior to January 1, 2017, if all of the following are applicable:(a) Prior to January 1, 2017, the person would have been eligible to register that assault weapon pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 30900.(b) The person lawfully possessed that assault weapon prior to January 1, 2017.(c) The person registers the assault weapon by July 1, 2018, in accordance with subdivision (b) of Section 30900.
18231834
18241835
18251836
18261837 30680. Section 30605 does not apply to the possession of an assault weapon by a person who has possessed the assault weapon prior to January 1, 2017, if all of the following are applicable:
18271838
18281839 (a) Prior to January 1, 2017, the person would have been eligible to register that assault weapon pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 30900.
18291840
18301841 (b) The person lawfully possessed that assault weapon prior to January 1, 2017.
18311842
18321843 (c) The person registers the assault weapon by July 1, 2018, in accordance with subdivision (b) of Section 30900.
18331844
18341845 SEC. 48. Section 30680 of the Penal Code, as added by Section 2 of Chapter 48 of the Statutes of 2016, is amended to read:30680. Section 30605 does not apply to the possession of an assault weapon by a person who has possessed the assault weapon prior to January 1, 2017, if all of the following are applicable:(a) Prior to January 1, 2017, the person was eligible to register that assault weapon pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 30900.(b) The person lawfully possessed that assault weapon prior to January 1, 2017.(c) The person registers the assault weapon by July 1, 2018, in accordance with subdivision (b) of Section 30900.
18351846
18361847 SEC. 48. Section 30680 of the Penal Code, as added by Section 2 of Chapter 48 of the Statutes of 2016, is amended to read:
18371848
18381849 ### SEC. 48.
18391850
18401851 30680. Section 30605 does not apply to the possession of an assault weapon by a person who has possessed the assault weapon prior to January 1, 2017, if all of the following are applicable:(a) Prior to January 1, 2017, the person was eligible to register that assault weapon pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 30900.(b) The person lawfully possessed that assault weapon prior to January 1, 2017.(c) The person registers the assault weapon by July 1, 2018, in accordance with subdivision (b) of Section 30900.
18411852
18421853 30680. Section 30605 does not apply to the possession of an assault weapon by a person who has possessed the assault weapon prior to January 1, 2017, if all of the following are applicable:(a) Prior to January 1, 2017, the person was eligible to register that assault weapon pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 30900.(b) The person lawfully possessed that assault weapon prior to January 1, 2017.(c) The person registers the assault weapon by July 1, 2018, in accordance with subdivision (b) of Section 30900.
18431854
18441855 30680. Section 30605 does not apply to the possession of an assault weapon by a person who has possessed the assault weapon prior to January 1, 2017, if all of the following are applicable:(a) Prior to January 1, 2017, the person was eligible to register that assault weapon pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 30900.(b) The person lawfully possessed that assault weapon prior to January 1, 2017.(c) The person registers the assault weapon by July 1, 2018, in accordance with subdivision (b) of Section 30900.
18451856
18461857
18471858
18481859 30680. Section 30605 does not apply to the possession of an assault weapon by a person who has possessed the assault weapon prior to January 1, 2017, if all of the following are applicable:
18491860
18501861 (a) Prior to January 1, 2017, the person was eligible to register that assault weapon pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 30900.
18511862
18521863 (b) The person lawfully possessed that assault weapon prior to January 1, 2017.
18531864
18541865 (c) The person registers the assault weapon by July 1, 2018, in accordance with subdivision (b) of Section 30900.
18551866
18561867 SEC. 49. Section 30900 of the Penal Code is amended to read:30900. (a) (1) Any person who, prior to June 1, 1989, lawfully possessed an assault weapon, as defined in former Section 12276, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 19 of the Statutes of 1989, shall register the firearm by January 1, 1991, and any person who lawfully possessed an assault weapon prior to the date it was specified as an assault weapon pursuant to former Section 12276.5, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 19 of the Statutes of 1989 or as amended by Section 1 of Chapter 874 of the Statutes of 1990 or Section 3 of Chapter 954 of the Statutes of 1991, shall register the firearm within 90 days with the Department of Justice pursuant to those procedures that the department may establish.(2) Except as provided in Section 30600, any person who lawfully possessed an assault weapon prior to the date it was defined as an assault weapon pursuant to former Section 12276.1, as it read in Section 7 of Chapter 129 of the Statutes of 1999, and which was not specified as an assault weapon under former Section 12276, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 19 of the Statutes of 1989 or as amended at any time before January 1, 2001, or former Section 12276.5, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 19 of the Statutes of 1989 or as amended at any time before January 1, 2001, shall register the firearm by January 1, 2001, with the department pursuant to those procedures that the department may establish.(3) The registration shall contain a description of the firearm that identifies it uniquely, including all identification marks, the full name, address, date of birth, and thumbprint of the owner, and any other information that the department may deem appropriate.(4) The department may charge a fee for registration of up to twenty dollars ($20) per person but not to exceed the reasonable processing costs of the department. After the department establishes fees sufficient to reimburse the department for processing costs, fees charged shall increase at a rate not to exceed the legislatively approved annual cost-of-living adjustment for the departments budget or as otherwise increased through the Budget Act but not to exceed the reasonable costs of the department. The fees shall be deposited into the Dealers Record of Sale Special Account.(b) (1) Any person who, from January 1, 2001, to December 31, 2016, inclusive, lawfully possessed an assault weapon that does not have a fixed magazine, as defined in Section 30515, including those weapons with an ammunition feeding device that can be readily removed from the firearm with the use of a tool, shall register the firearm before July 1, 2018, but not before the effective date of the regulations adopted pursuant to paragraph (5), with the department pursuant to those procedures that the department may establish by regulation pursuant to paragraph (5).(2) Registrations shall be submitted electronically via the Internet utilizing a public-facing application made available by the department.(3) The registration shall contain a description of the firearm that identifies it uniquely, including all identification marks, the date the firearm was acquired, the name and address of the individual from whom, or business from which, the firearm was acquired, as well as the registrants full name, address, telephone number, date of birth, sex, height, weight, eye color, hair color, and California drivers license number or California identification card number.(4) The department may charge a fee in an amount of up to fifteen dollars ($15) per person but not to exceed the reasonable processing costs of the department. The fee shall be paid by debit or credit card at the time that the electronic registration is submitted to the department. The fee shall be deposited in the Dealers Record of Sale Special Account to be used for purposes of this section.(5) The department shall adopt regulations for the purpose of implementing this subdivision. These regulations are exempt from the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code).
18571868
18581869 SEC. 49. Section 30900 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
18591870
18601871 ### SEC. 49.
18611872
18621873 30900. (a) (1) Any person who, prior to June 1, 1989, lawfully possessed an assault weapon, as defined in former Section 12276, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 19 of the Statutes of 1989, shall register the firearm by January 1, 1991, and any person who lawfully possessed an assault weapon prior to the date it was specified as an assault weapon pursuant to former Section 12276.5, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 19 of the Statutes of 1989 or as amended by Section 1 of Chapter 874 of the Statutes of 1990 or Section 3 of Chapter 954 of the Statutes of 1991, shall register the firearm within 90 days with the Department of Justice pursuant to those procedures that the department may establish.(2) Except as provided in Section 30600, any person who lawfully possessed an assault weapon prior to the date it was defined as an assault weapon pursuant to former Section 12276.1, as it read in Section 7 of Chapter 129 of the Statutes of 1999, and which was not specified as an assault weapon under former Section 12276, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 19 of the Statutes of 1989 or as amended at any time before January 1, 2001, or former Section 12276.5, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 19 of the Statutes of 1989 or as amended at any time before January 1, 2001, shall register the firearm by January 1, 2001, with the department pursuant to those procedures that the department may establish.(3) The registration shall contain a description of the firearm that identifies it uniquely, including all identification marks, the full name, address, date of birth, and thumbprint of the owner, and any other information that the department may deem appropriate.(4) The department may charge a fee for registration of up to twenty dollars ($20) per person but not to exceed the reasonable processing costs of the department. After the department establishes fees sufficient to reimburse the department for processing costs, fees charged shall increase at a rate not to exceed the legislatively approved annual cost-of-living adjustment for the departments budget or as otherwise increased through the Budget Act but not to exceed the reasonable costs of the department. The fees shall be deposited into the Dealers Record of Sale Special Account.(b) (1) Any person who, from January 1, 2001, to December 31, 2016, inclusive, lawfully possessed an assault weapon that does not have a fixed magazine, as defined in Section 30515, including those weapons with an ammunition feeding device that can be readily removed from the firearm with the use of a tool, shall register the firearm before July 1, 2018, but not before the effective date of the regulations adopted pursuant to paragraph (5), with the department pursuant to those procedures that the department may establish by regulation pursuant to paragraph (5).(2) Registrations shall be submitted electronically via the Internet utilizing a public-facing application made available by the department.(3) The registration shall contain a description of the firearm that identifies it uniquely, including all identification marks, the date the firearm was acquired, the name and address of the individual from whom, or business from which, the firearm was acquired, as well as the registrants full name, address, telephone number, date of birth, sex, height, weight, eye color, hair color, and California drivers license number or California identification card number.(4) The department may charge a fee in an amount of up to fifteen dollars ($15) per person but not to exceed the reasonable processing costs of the department. The fee shall be paid by debit or credit card at the time that the electronic registration is submitted to the department. The fee shall be deposited in the Dealers Record of Sale Special Account to be used for purposes of this section.(5) The department shall adopt regulations for the purpose of implementing this subdivision. These regulations are exempt from the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code).
18631874
18641875 30900. (a) (1) Any person who, prior to June 1, 1989, lawfully possessed an assault weapon, as defined in former Section 12276, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 19 of the Statutes of 1989, shall register the firearm by January 1, 1991, and any person who lawfully possessed an assault weapon prior to the date it was specified as an assault weapon pursuant to former Section 12276.5, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 19 of the Statutes of 1989 or as amended by Section 1 of Chapter 874 of the Statutes of 1990 or Section 3 of Chapter 954 of the Statutes of 1991, shall register the firearm within 90 days with the Department of Justice pursuant to those procedures that the department may establish.(2) Except as provided in Section 30600, any person who lawfully possessed an assault weapon prior to the date it was defined as an assault weapon pursuant to former Section 12276.1, as it read in Section 7 of Chapter 129 of the Statutes of 1999, and which was not specified as an assault weapon under former Section 12276, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 19 of the Statutes of 1989 or as amended at any time before January 1, 2001, or former Section 12276.5, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 19 of the Statutes of 1989 or as amended at any time before January 1, 2001, shall register the firearm by January 1, 2001, with the department pursuant to those procedures that the department may establish.(3) The registration shall contain a description of the firearm that identifies it uniquely, including all identification marks, the full name, address, date of birth, and thumbprint of the owner, and any other information that the department may deem appropriate.(4) The department may charge a fee for registration of up to twenty dollars ($20) per person but not to exceed the reasonable processing costs of the department. After the department establishes fees sufficient to reimburse the department for processing costs, fees charged shall increase at a rate not to exceed the legislatively approved annual cost-of-living adjustment for the departments budget or as otherwise increased through the Budget Act but not to exceed the reasonable costs of the department. The fees shall be deposited into the Dealers Record of Sale Special Account.(b) (1) Any person who, from January 1, 2001, to December 31, 2016, inclusive, lawfully possessed an assault weapon that does not have a fixed magazine, as defined in Section 30515, including those weapons with an ammunition feeding device that can be readily removed from the firearm with the use of a tool, shall register the firearm before July 1, 2018, but not before the effective date of the regulations adopted pursuant to paragraph (5), with the department pursuant to those procedures that the department may establish by regulation pursuant to paragraph (5).(2) Registrations shall be submitted electronically via the Internet utilizing a public-facing application made available by the department.(3) The registration shall contain a description of the firearm that identifies it uniquely, including all identification marks, the date the firearm was acquired, the name and address of the individual from whom, or business from which, the firearm was acquired, as well as the registrants full name, address, telephone number, date of birth, sex, height, weight, eye color, hair color, and California drivers license number or California identification card number.(4) The department may charge a fee in an amount of up to fifteen dollars ($15) per person but not to exceed the reasonable processing costs of the department. The fee shall be paid by debit or credit card at the time that the electronic registration is submitted to the department. The fee shall be deposited in the Dealers Record of Sale Special Account to be used for purposes of this section.(5) The department shall adopt regulations for the purpose of implementing this subdivision. These regulations are exempt from the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code).
18651876
18661877 30900. (a) (1) Any person who, prior to June 1, 1989, lawfully possessed an assault weapon, as defined in former Section 12276, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 19 of the Statutes of 1989, shall register the firearm by January 1, 1991, and any person who lawfully possessed an assault weapon prior to the date it was specified as an assault weapon pursuant to former Section 12276.5, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 19 of the Statutes of 1989 or as amended by Section 1 of Chapter 874 of the Statutes of 1990 or Section 3 of Chapter 954 of the Statutes of 1991, shall register the firearm within 90 days with the Department of Justice pursuant to those procedures that the department may establish.(2) Except as provided in Section 30600, any person who lawfully possessed an assault weapon prior to the date it was defined as an assault weapon pursuant to former Section 12276.1, as it read in Section 7 of Chapter 129 of the Statutes of 1999, and which was not specified as an assault weapon under former Section 12276, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 19 of the Statutes of 1989 or as amended at any time before January 1, 2001, or former Section 12276.5, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 19 of the Statutes of 1989 or as amended at any time before January 1, 2001, shall register the firearm by January 1, 2001, with the department pursuant to those procedures that the department may establish.(3) The registration shall contain a description of the firearm that identifies it uniquely, including all identification marks, the full name, address, date of birth, and thumbprint of the owner, and any other information that the department may deem appropriate.(4) The department may charge a fee for registration of up to twenty dollars ($20) per person but not to exceed the reasonable processing costs of the department. After the department establishes fees sufficient to reimburse the department for processing costs, fees charged shall increase at a rate not to exceed the legislatively approved annual cost-of-living adjustment for the departments budget or as otherwise increased through the Budget Act but not to exceed the reasonable costs of the department. The fees shall be deposited into the Dealers Record of Sale Special Account.(b) (1) Any person who, from January 1, 2001, to December 31, 2016, inclusive, lawfully possessed an assault weapon that does not have a fixed magazine, as defined in Section 30515, including those weapons with an ammunition feeding device that can be readily removed from the firearm with the use of a tool, shall register the firearm before July 1, 2018, but not before the effective date of the regulations adopted pursuant to paragraph (5), with the department pursuant to those procedures that the department may establish by regulation pursuant to paragraph (5).(2) Registrations shall be submitted electronically via the Internet utilizing a public-facing application made available by the department.(3) The registration shall contain a description of the firearm that identifies it uniquely, including all identification marks, the date the firearm was acquired, the name and address of the individual from whom, or business from which, the firearm was acquired, as well as the registrants full name, address, telephone number, date of birth, sex, height, weight, eye color, hair color, and California drivers license number or California identification card number.(4) The department may charge a fee in an amount of up to fifteen dollars ($15) per person but not to exceed the reasonable processing costs of the department. The fee shall be paid by debit or credit card at the time that the electronic registration is submitted to the department. The fee shall be deposited in the Dealers Record of Sale Special Account to be used for purposes of this section.(5) The department shall adopt regulations for the purpose of implementing this subdivision. These regulations are exempt from the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code).
18671878
18681879
18691880
18701881 30900. (a) (1) Any person who, prior to June 1, 1989, lawfully possessed an assault weapon, as defined in former Section 12276, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 19 of the Statutes of 1989, shall register the firearm by January 1, 1991, and any person who lawfully possessed an assault weapon prior to the date it was specified as an assault weapon pursuant to former Section 12276.5, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 19 of the Statutes of 1989 or as amended by Section 1 of Chapter 874 of the Statutes of 1990 or Section 3 of Chapter 954 of the Statutes of 1991, shall register the firearm within 90 days with the Department of Justice pursuant to those procedures that the department may establish.
18711882
18721883 (2) Except as provided in Section 30600, any person who lawfully possessed an assault weapon prior to the date it was defined as an assault weapon pursuant to former Section 12276.1, as it read in Section 7 of Chapter 129 of the Statutes of 1999, and which was not specified as an assault weapon under former Section 12276, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 19 of the Statutes of 1989 or as amended at any time before January 1, 2001, or former Section 12276.5, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 19 of the Statutes of 1989 or as amended at any time before January 1, 2001, shall register the firearm by January 1, 2001, with the department pursuant to those procedures that the department may establish.
18731884
18741885 (3) The registration shall contain a description of the firearm that identifies it uniquely, including all identification marks, the full name, address, date of birth, and thumbprint of the owner, and any other information that the department may deem appropriate.
18751886
18761887 (4) The department may charge a fee for registration of up to twenty dollars ($20) per person but not to exceed the reasonable processing costs of the department. After the department establishes fees sufficient to reimburse the department for processing costs, fees charged shall increase at a rate not to exceed the legislatively approved annual cost-of-living adjustment for the departments budget or as otherwise increased through the Budget Act but not to exceed the reasonable costs of the department. The fees shall be deposited into the Dealers Record of Sale Special Account.
18771888
18781889 (b) (1) Any person who, from January 1, 2001, to December 31, 2016, inclusive, lawfully possessed an assault weapon that does not have a fixed magazine, as defined in Section 30515, including those weapons with an ammunition feeding device that can be readily removed from the firearm with the use of a tool, shall register the firearm before July 1, 2018, but not before the effective date of the regulations adopted pursuant to paragraph (5), with the department pursuant to those procedures that the department may establish by regulation pursuant to paragraph (5).
18791890
18801891 (2) Registrations shall be submitted electronically via the Internet utilizing a public-facing application made available by the department.
18811892
18821893 (3) The registration shall contain a description of the firearm that identifies it uniquely, including all identification marks, the date the firearm was acquired, the name and address of the individual from whom, or business from which, the firearm was acquired, as well as the registrants full name, address, telephone number, date of birth, sex, height, weight, eye color, hair color, and California drivers license number or California identification card number.
18831894
18841895 (4) The department may charge a fee in an amount of up to fifteen dollars ($15) per person but not to exceed the reasonable processing costs of the department. The fee shall be paid by debit or credit card at the time that the electronic registration is submitted to the department. The fee shall be deposited in the Dealers Record of Sale Special Account to be used for purposes of this section.
18851896
18861897 (5) The department shall adopt regulations for the purpose of implementing this subdivision. These regulations are exempt from the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code).
18871898
18881899 SEC. 50. Section 10340.1 is added to the Public Contract Code, to read:10340.1. (a) Notwithstanding existing law, the State Department of State Hospitals may enter into an agreement for the purposes of continued operation of the existing central utility plant at the Metropolitan State Hospital without having to go through a competitive bid process.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until June 30, 2018, and as of that date is repealed.
18891900
18901901 SEC. 50. Section 10340.1 is added to the Public Contract Code, to read:
18911902
18921903 ### SEC. 50.
18931904
18941905 10340.1. (a) Notwithstanding existing law, the State Department of State Hospitals may enter into an agreement for the purposes of continued operation of the existing central utility plant at the Metropolitan State Hospital without having to go through a competitive bid process.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until June 30, 2018, and as of that date is repealed.
18951906
18961907 10340.1. (a) Notwithstanding existing law, the State Department of State Hospitals may enter into an agreement for the purposes of continued operation of the existing central utility plant at the Metropolitan State Hospital without having to go through a competitive bid process.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until June 30, 2018, and as of that date is repealed.
18971908
18981909 10340.1. (a) Notwithstanding existing law, the State Department of State Hospitals may enter into an agreement for the purposes of continued operation of the existing central utility plant at the Metropolitan State Hospital without having to go through a competitive bid process.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until June 30, 2018, and as of that date is repealed.
18991910
19001911
19011912
19021913 10340.1. (a) Notwithstanding existing law, the State Department of State Hospitals may enter into an agreement for the purposes of continued operation of the existing central utility plant at the Metropolitan State Hospital without having to go through a competitive bid process.
19031914
19041915 (b) This section shall remain in effect only until June 30, 2018, and as of that date is repealed.
19051916
19061917 SEC. 51. Section 13365 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:13365. (a) Upon receipt of notification of a violation of subdivision (a) of Section 40508, the department shall take the following action:(1) If the notice is given pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 40509, if the driving record of the person who is the subject of the notice contains one or more prior notifications of a violation issued pursuant to Section 40509 or 40509.5, and if the persons driving privilege is not currently suspended under this section, the department shall suspend the driving privilege of the person.(2) If the notice is given pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 40509.5, and if the driving privilege of the person who is the subject of the notice is not currently suspended under this section, the department shall suspend the driving privilege of the person.(b) (1) A suspension under this section shall not be effective before a date 60 days after the date of receipt, by the department, of the notice given specified in subdivision (a), and the notice of suspension shall not be mailed by the department before a date 30 days after receipt of the notice given specified in subdivision (a).(2) The suspension shall continue until the suspended persons driving record does not contain any notification of a violation of subdivision (a) of Section 40508.
19071918
19081919 SEC. 51. Section 13365 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:
19091920
19101921 ### SEC. 51.
19111922
19121923 13365. (a) Upon receipt of notification of a violation of subdivision (a) of Section 40508, the department shall take the following action:(1) If the notice is given pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 40509, if the driving record of the person who is the subject of the notice contains one or more prior notifications of a violation issued pursuant to Section 40509 or 40509.5, and if the persons driving privilege is not currently suspended under this section, the department shall suspend the driving privilege of the person.(2) If the notice is given pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 40509.5, and if the driving privilege of the person who is the subject of the notice is not currently suspended under this section, the department shall suspend the driving privilege of the person.(b) (1) A suspension under this section shall not be effective before a date 60 days after the date of receipt, by the department, of the notice given specified in subdivision (a), and the notice of suspension shall not be mailed by the department before a date 30 days after receipt of the notice given specified in subdivision (a).(2) The suspension shall continue until the suspended persons driving record does not contain any notification of a violation of subdivision (a) of Section 40508.
19131924
19141925 13365. (a) Upon receipt of notification of a violation of subdivision (a) of Section 40508, the department shall take the following action:(1) If the notice is given pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 40509, if the driving record of the person who is the subject of the notice contains one or more prior notifications of a violation issued pursuant to Section 40509 or 40509.5, and if the persons driving privilege is not currently suspended under this section, the department shall suspend the driving privilege of the person.(2) If the notice is given pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 40509.5, and if the driving privilege of the person who is the subject of the notice is not currently suspended under this section, the department shall suspend the driving privilege of the person.(b) (1) A suspension under this section shall not be effective before a date 60 days after the date of receipt, by the department, of the notice given specified in subdivision (a), and the notice of suspension shall not be mailed by the department before a date 30 days after receipt of the notice given specified in subdivision (a).(2) The suspension shall continue until the suspended persons driving record does not contain any notification of a violation of subdivision (a) of Section 40508.
19151926
19161927 13365. (a) Upon receipt of notification of a violation of subdivision (a) of Section 40508, the department shall take the following action:(1) If the notice is given pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 40509, if the driving record of the person who is the subject of the notice contains one or more prior notifications of a violation issued pursuant to Section 40509 or 40509.5, and if the persons driving privilege is not currently suspended under this section, the department shall suspend the driving privilege of the person.(2) If the notice is given pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 40509.5, and if the driving privilege of the person who is the subject of the notice is not currently suspended under this section, the department shall suspend the driving privilege of the person.(b) (1) A suspension under this section shall not be effective before a date 60 days after the date of receipt, by the department, of the notice given specified in subdivision (a), and the notice of suspension shall not be mailed by the department before a date 30 days after receipt of the notice given specified in subdivision (a).(2) The suspension shall continue until the suspended persons driving record does not contain any notification of a violation of subdivision (a) of Section 40508.
19171928
19181929
19191930
19201931 13365. (a) Upon receipt of notification of a violation of subdivision (a) of Section 40508, the department shall take the following action:
19211932
19221933 (1) If the notice is given pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 40509, if the driving record of the person who is the subject of the notice contains one or more prior notifications of a violation issued pursuant to Section 40509 or 40509.5, and if the persons driving privilege is not currently suspended under this section, the department shall suspend the driving privilege of the person.
19231934
19241935 (2) If the notice is given pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 40509.5, and if the driving privilege of the person who is the subject of the notice is not currently suspended under this section, the department shall suspend the driving privilege of the person.
19251936
19261937 (b) (1) A suspension under this section shall not be effective before a date 60 days after the date of receipt, by the department, of the notice given specified in subdivision (a), and the notice of suspension shall not be mailed by the department before a date 30 days after receipt of the notice given specified in subdivision (a).
19271938
19281939 (2) The suspension shall continue until the suspended persons driving record does not contain any notification of a violation of subdivision (a) of Section 40508.
19291940
19301941 SEC. 52. Section 13365.2 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:13365.2. (a) Upon receipt of the notice required under subdivision (b) of Section 40509.5, the department shall suspend the driving privilege of the person upon whom notice was received and shall continue that suspension until receipt of the certificate required under that subdivision.(b) The suspension required under subdivision (a) shall become effective on the 45th day after the mailing of written notice by the department.
19311942
19321943 SEC. 52. Section 13365.2 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:
19331944
19341945 ### SEC. 52.
19351946
19361947 13365.2. (a) Upon receipt of the notice required under subdivision (b) of Section 40509.5, the department shall suspend the driving privilege of the person upon whom notice was received and shall continue that suspension until receipt of the certificate required under that subdivision.(b) The suspension required under subdivision (a) shall become effective on the 45th day after the mailing of written notice by the department.
19371948
19381949 13365.2. (a) Upon receipt of the notice required under subdivision (b) of Section 40509.5, the department shall suspend the driving privilege of the person upon whom notice was received and shall continue that suspension until receipt of the certificate required under that subdivision.(b) The suspension required under subdivision (a) shall become effective on the 45th day after the mailing of written notice by the department.
19391950
19401951 13365.2. (a) Upon receipt of the notice required under subdivision (b) of Section 40509.5, the department shall suspend the driving privilege of the person upon whom notice was received and shall continue that suspension until receipt of the certificate required under that subdivision.(b) The suspension required under subdivision (a) shall become effective on the 45th day after the mailing of written notice by the department.
19411952
19421953
19431954
19441955 13365.2. (a) Upon receipt of the notice required under subdivision (b) of Section 40509.5, the department shall suspend the driving privilege of the person upon whom notice was received and shall continue that suspension until receipt of the certificate required under that subdivision.
19451956
19461957 (b) The suspension required under subdivision (a) shall become effective on the 45th day after the mailing of written notice by the department.
19471958
19481959 SEC. 53. Section 40509 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:40509. (a) Except as required under subdivision (b) of Section 40509.5, if a person has violated a written promise to appear or a lawfully granted continuance of his or her promise to appear in court or before the person authorized to receive a deposit of bail, or violated an order to appear in court, including, but not limited to, a written notice to appear issued in accordance with Section 40518, the magistrate or clerk of the court may give notice of the failure to appear to the department for any violation of this code, or any violation that can be heard by a juvenile traffic hearing referee pursuant to Section 256 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or any violation of any other statute relating to the safe operation of a vehicle, except violations not required to be reported pursuant to paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (6), and (7) of subdivision (b) of Section 1803. If thereafter the case in which the promise was given is adjudicated or the person who has violated the court order appears in court or otherwise satisfies the order of the court, the magistrate or clerk of the court hearing the case shall sign and file with the department a certificate to that effect.(b) (1) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), the court may notify the department of the total amount of bail, fines, assessments, and fees authorized or required by this code, including Section 40508.5, that are unpaid by a person.(2) Once a court has established the amount of bail, fines, assessments, and fees, and notified the department, the court shall not further enhance or modify that amount.(3) This subdivision applies only to violations of this code that do not require a mandatory court appearance, are not contested by the defendant, and do not require proof of correction certified by the court.(c) Any violation subject to Section 40001 that is the responsibility of the owner of the vehicle shall not be reported under this section.
19491960
19501961 SEC. 53. Section 40509 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:
19511962
19521963 ### SEC. 53.
19531964
19541965 40509. (a) Except as required under subdivision (b) of Section 40509.5, if a person has violated a written promise to appear or a lawfully granted continuance of his or her promise to appear in court or before the person authorized to receive a deposit of bail, or violated an order to appear in court, including, but not limited to, a written notice to appear issued in accordance with Section 40518, the magistrate or clerk of the court may give notice of the failure to appear to the department for any violation of this code, or any violation that can be heard by a juvenile traffic hearing referee pursuant to Section 256 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or any violation of any other statute relating to the safe operation of a vehicle, except violations not required to be reported pursuant to paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (6), and (7) of subdivision (b) of Section 1803. If thereafter the case in which the promise was given is adjudicated or the person who has violated the court order appears in court or otherwise satisfies the order of the court, the magistrate or clerk of the court hearing the case shall sign and file with the department a certificate to that effect.(b) (1) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), the court may notify the department of the total amount of bail, fines, assessments, and fees authorized or required by this code, including Section 40508.5, that are unpaid by a person.(2) Once a court has established the amount of bail, fines, assessments, and fees, and notified the department, the court shall not further enhance or modify that amount.(3) This subdivision applies only to violations of this code that do not require a mandatory court appearance, are not contested by the defendant, and do not require proof of correction certified by the court.(c) Any violation subject to Section 40001 that is the responsibility of the owner of the vehicle shall not be reported under this section.
19551966
19561967 40509. (a) Except as required under subdivision (b) of Section 40509.5, if a person has violated a written promise to appear or a lawfully granted continuance of his or her promise to appear in court or before the person authorized to receive a deposit of bail, or violated an order to appear in court, including, but not limited to, a written notice to appear issued in accordance with Section 40518, the magistrate or clerk of the court may give notice of the failure to appear to the department for any violation of this code, or any violation that can be heard by a juvenile traffic hearing referee pursuant to Section 256 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or any violation of any other statute relating to the safe operation of a vehicle, except violations not required to be reported pursuant to paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (6), and (7) of subdivision (b) of Section 1803. If thereafter the case in which the promise was given is adjudicated or the person who has violated the court order appears in court or otherwise satisfies the order of the court, the magistrate or clerk of the court hearing the case shall sign and file with the department a certificate to that effect.(b) (1) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), the court may notify the department of the total amount of bail, fines, assessments, and fees authorized or required by this code, including Section 40508.5, that are unpaid by a person.(2) Once a court has established the amount of bail, fines, assessments, and fees, and notified the department, the court shall not further enhance or modify that amount.(3) This subdivision applies only to violations of this code that do not require a mandatory court appearance, are not contested by the defendant, and do not require proof of correction certified by the court.(c) Any violation subject to Section 40001 that is the responsibility of the owner of the vehicle shall not be reported under this section.
19571968
19581969 40509. (a) Except as required under subdivision (b) of Section 40509.5, if a person has violated a written promise to appear or a lawfully granted continuance of his or her promise to appear in court or before the person authorized to receive a deposit of bail, or violated an order to appear in court, including, but not limited to, a written notice to appear issued in accordance with Section 40518, the magistrate or clerk of the court may give notice of the failure to appear to the department for any violation of this code, or any violation that can be heard by a juvenile traffic hearing referee pursuant to Section 256 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or any violation of any other statute relating to the safe operation of a vehicle, except violations not required to be reported pursuant to paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (6), and (7) of subdivision (b) of Section 1803. If thereafter the case in which the promise was given is adjudicated or the person who has violated the court order appears in court or otherwise satisfies the order of the court, the magistrate or clerk of the court hearing the case shall sign and file with the department a certificate to that effect.(b) (1) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), the court may notify the department of the total amount of bail, fines, assessments, and fees authorized or required by this code, including Section 40508.5, that are unpaid by a person.(2) Once a court has established the amount of bail, fines, assessments, and fees, and notified the department, the court shall not further enhance or modify that amount.(3) This subdivision applies only to violations of this code that do not require a mandatory court appearance, are not contested by the defendant, and do not require proof of correction certified by the court.(c) Any violation subject to Section 40001 that is the responsibility of the owner of the vehicle shall not be reported under this section.
19591970
19601971
19611972
19621973 40509. (a) Except as required under subdivision (b) of Section 40509.5, if a person has violated a written promise to appear or a lawfully granted continuance of his or her promise to appear in court or before the person authorized to receive a deposit of bail, or violated an order to appear in court, including, but not limited to, a written notice to appear issued in accordance with Section 40518, the magistrate or clerk of the court may give notice of the failure to appear to the department for any violation of this code, or any violation that can be heard by a juvenile traffic hearing referee pursuant to Section 256 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or any violation of any other statute relating to the safe operation of a vehicle, except violations not required to be reported pursuant to paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (6), and (7) of subdivision (b) of Section 1803. If thereafter the case in which the promise was given is adjudicated or the person who has violated the court order appears in court or otherwise satisfies the order of the court, the magistrate or clerk of the court hearing the case shall sign and file with the department a certificate to that effect.
19631974
19641975 (b) (1) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), the court may notify the department of the total amount of bail, fines, assessments, and fees authorized or required by this code, including Section 40508.5, that are unpaid by a person.
19651976
19661977 (2) Once a court has established the amount of bail, fines, assessments, and fees, and notified the department, the court shall not further enhance or modify that amount.
19671978
19681979 (3) This subdivision applies only to violations of this code that do not require a mandatory court appearance, are not contested by the defendant, and do not require proof of correction certified by the court.
19691980
19701981 (c) Any violation subject to Section 40001 that is the responsibility of the owner of the vehicle shall not be reported under this section.
19711982
19721983 SEC. 54. Section 40509.5 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:40509.5. (a) Except as required under subdivision (b), if, with respect to an offense described in subdivision (d), a person has violated his or her written promise to appear or a lawfully granted continuance of his or her promise to appear in court or before the person authorized to receive a deposit of bail, or violated an order to appear in court, including, but not limited to, a written notice to appear issued in accordance with Section 40518, the magistrate or clerk of the court may give notice of the failure to appear to the department for a violation of this code, a violation that can be heard by a juvenile traffic hearing referee pursuant to Section 256 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or a violation of any other statute relating to the safe operation of a vehicle, except violations not required to be reported pursuant to paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (6), and (7) of subdivision (b) of Section 1803. If thereafter the case in which the promise was given is adjudicated or the person who has violated the court order appears in court and satisfies the order of the court, the magistrate or clerk of the court hearing the case shall sign and file with the department a certificate to that effect.(b) If a person charged with a violation of Section 23152 or 23153, or Section 191.5 of the Penal Code, or subdivision (a) of Section 192.5 of that code has violated a lawfully granted continuance of his or her promise to appear in court or is released from custody on his or her own recognizance and fails to appear in court or before the person authorized to receive a deposit of bail, or violated an order to appear in court, the magistrate or clerk of the court shall give notice to the department of the failure to appear. If thereafter the case in which the notice was given is adjudicated or the person who has violated the court order appears in court or otherwise satisfies the order of the court, the magistrate or clerk of the court hearing the case shall prepare and forward to the department a certificate to that effect.(c) Except as required under subdivision (b), the court shall mail a courtesy warning notice to the defendant by first-class mail at the address shown on the notice to appear, at least 10 days before sending a notice to the department under this section.(d) If the court notifies the department of a failure to appear pursuant to subdivision (a), no arrest warrant shall be issued for an alleged violation of subdivision (a) of Section 40508, unless one of the following criteria is met:(1) The alleged underlying offense is a misdemeanor or felony.(2) The alleged underlying offense is a violation of any provision of Division 12 (commencing with Section 24000), Division 13 (commencing with Section 29000), or Division 15 (commencing with Section 35000), required to be reported pursuant to Section 1803.(3) The drivers record does not show that the defendant has a valid California drivers license.(4) The drivers record shows an unresolved charge that the defendant is in violation of his or her written promise to appear for one or more other alleged violations of the law.(e) Except as required under subdivision (b), in addition to the proceedings described in this section, the court may elect to notify the department pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 40509.(f) A violation subject to Section 40001 that is the responsibility of the owner of the vehicle shall not be reported under this section.
19731984
19741985 SEC. 54. Section 40509.5 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:
19751986
19761987 ### SEC. 54.
19771988
19781989 40509.5. (a) Except as required under subdivision (b), if, with respect to an offense described in subdivision (d), a person has violated his or her written promise to appear or a lawfully granted continuance of his or her promise to appear in court or before the person authorized to receive a deposit of bail, or violated an order to appear in court, including, but not limited to, a written notice to appear issued in accordance with Section 40518, the magistrate or clerk of the court may give notice of the failure to appear to the department for a violation of this code, a violation that can be heard by a juvenile traffic hearing referee pursuant to Section 256 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or a violation of any other statute relating to the safe operation of a vehicle, except violations not required to be reported pursuant to paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (6), and (7) of subdivision (b) of Section 1803. If thereafter the case in which the promise was given is adjudicated or the person who has violated the court order appears in court and satisfies the order of the court, the magistrate or clerk of the court hearing the case shall sign and file with the department a certificate to that effect.(b) If a person charged with a violation of Section 23152 or 23153, or Section 191.5 of the Penal Code, or subdivision (a) of Section 192.5 of that code has violated a lawfully granted continuance of his or her promise to appear in court or is released from custody on his or her own recognizance and fails to appear in court or before the person authorized to receive a deposit of bail, or violated an order to appear in court, the magistrate or clerk of the court shall give notice to the department of the failure to appear. If thereafter the case in which the notice was given is adjudicated or the person who has violated the court order appears in court or otherwise satisfies the order of the court, the magistrate or clerk of the court hearing the case shall prepare and forward to the department a certificate to that effect.(c) Except as required under subdivision (b), the court shall mail a courtesy warning notice to the defendant by first-class mail at the address shown on the notice to appear, at least 10 days before sending a notice to the department under this section.(d) If the court notifies the department of a failure to appear pursuant to subdivision (a), no arrest warrant shall be issued for an alleged violation of subdivision (a) of Section 40508, unless one of the following criteria is met:(1) The alleged underlying offense is a misdemeanor or felony.(2) The alleged underlying offense is a violation of any provision of Division 12 (commencing with Section 24000), Division 13 (commencing with Section 29000), or Division 15 (commencing with Section 35000), required to be reported pursuant to Section 1803.(3) The drivers record does not show that the defendant has a valid California drivers license.(4) The drivers record shows an unresolved charge that the defendant is in violation of his or her written promise to appear for one or more other alleged violations of the law.(e) Except as required under subdivision (b), in addition to the proceedings described in this section, the court may elect to notify the department pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 40509.(f) A violation subject to Section 40001 that is the responsibility of the owner of the vehicle shall not be reported under this section.
19791990
19801991 40509.5. (a) Except as required under subdivision (b), if, with respect to an offense described in subdivision (d), a person has violated his or her written promise to appear or a lawfully granted continuance of his or her promise to appear in court or before the person authorized to receive a deposit of bail, or violated an order to appear in court, including, but not limited to, a written notice to appear issued in accordance with Section 40518, the magistrate or clerk of the court may give notice of the failure to appear to the department for a violation of this code, a violation that can be heard by a juvenile traffic hearing referee pursuant to Section 256 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or a violation of any other statute relating to the safe operation of a vehicle, except violations not required to be reported pursuant to paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (6), and (7) of subdivision (b) of Section 1803. If thereafter the case in which the promise was given is adjudicated or the person who has violated the court order appears in court and satisfies the order of the court, the magistrate or clerk of the court hearing the case shall sign and file with the department a certificate to that effect.(b) If a person charged with a violation of Section 23152 or 23153, or Section 191.5 of the Penal Code, or subdivision (a) of Section 192.5 of that code has violated a lawfully granted continuance of his or her promise to appear in court or is released from custody on his or her own recognizance and fails to appear in court or before the person authorized to receive a deposit of bail, or violated an order to appear in court, the magistrate or clerk of the court shall give notice to the department of the failure to appear. If thereafter the case in which the notice was given is adjudicated or the person who has violated the court order appears in court or otherwise satisfies the order of the court, the magistrate or clerk of the court hearing the case shall prepare and forward to the department a certificate to that effect.(c) Except as required under subdivision (b), the court shall mail a courtesy warning notice to the defendant by first-class mail at the address shown on the notice to appear, at least 10 days before sending a notice to the department under this section.(d) If the court notifies the department of a failure to appear pursuant to subdivision (a), no arrest warrant shall be issued for an alleged violation of subdivision (a) of Section 40508, unless one of the following criteria is met:(1) The alleged underlying offense is a misdemeanor or felony.(2) The alleged underlying offense is a violation of any provision of Division 12 (commencing with Section 24000), Division 13 (commencing with Section 29000), or Division 15 (commencing with Section 35000), required to be reported pursuant to Section 1803.(3) The drivers record does not show that the defendant has a valid California drivers license.(4) The drivers record shows an unresolved charge that the defendant is in violation of his or her written promise to appear for one or more other alleged violations of the law.(e) Except as required under subdivision (b), in addition to the proceedings described in this section, the court may elect to notify the department pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 40509.(f) A violation subject to Section 40001 that is the responsibility of the owner of the vehicle shall not be reported under this section.
19811992
19821993 40509.5. (a) Except as required under subdivision (b), if, with respect to an offense described in subdivision (d), a person has violated his or her written promise to appear or a lawfully granted continuance of his or her promise to appear in court or before the person authorized to receive a deposit of bail, or violated an order to appear in court, including, but not limited to, a written notice to appear issued in accordance with Section 40518, the magistrate or clerk of the court may give notice of the failure to appear to the department for a violation of this code, a violation that can be heard by a juvenile traffic hearing referee pursuant to Section 256 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or a violation of any other statute relating to the safe operation of a vehicle, except violations not required to be reported pursuant to paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (6), and (7) of subdivision (b) of Section 1803. If thereafter the case in which the promise was given is adjudicated or the person who has violated the court order appears in court and satisfies the order of the court, the magistrate or clerk of the court hearing the case shall sign and file with the department a certificate to that effect.(b) If a person charged with a violation of Section 23152 or 23153, or Section 191.5 of the Penal Code, or subdivision (a) of Section 192.5 of that code has violated a lawfully granted continuance of his or her promise to appear in court or is released from custody on his or her own recognizance and fails to appear in court or before the person authorized to receive a deposit of bail, or violated an order to appear in court, the magistrate or clerk of the court shall give notice to the department of the failure to appear. If thereafter the case in which the notice was given is adjudicated or the person who has violated the court order appears in court or otherwise satisfies the order of the court, the magistrate or clerk of the court hearing the case shall prepare and forward to the department a certificate to that effect.(c) Except as required under subdivision (b), the court shall mail a courtesy warning notice to the defendant by first-class mail at the address shown on the notice to appear, at least 10 days before sending a notice to the department under this section.(d) If the court notifies the department of a failure to appear pursuant to subdivision (a), no arrest warrant shall be issued for an alleged violation of subdivision (a) of Section 40508, unless one of the following criteria is met:(1) The alleged underlying offense is a misdemeanor or felony.(2) The alleged underlying offense is a violation of any provision of Division 12 (commencing with Section 24000), Division 13 (commencing with Section 29000), or Division 15 (commencing with Section 35000), required to be reported pursuant to Section 1803.(3) The drivers record does not show that the defendant has a valid California drivers license.(4) The drivers record shows an unresolved charge that the defendant is in violation of his or her written promise to appear for one or more other alleged violations of the law.(e) Except as required under subdivision (b), in addition to the proceedings described in this section, the court may elect to notify the department pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 40509.(f) A violation subject to Section 40001 that is the responsibility of the owner of the vehicle shall not be reported under this section.
19831994
19841995
19851996
19861997 40509.5. (a) Except as required under subdivision (b), if, with respect to an offense described in subdivision (d), a person has violated his or her written promise to appear or a lawfully granted continuance of his or her promise to appear in court or before the person authorized to receive a deposit of bail, or violated an order to appear in court, including, but not limited to, a written notice to appear issued in accordance with Section 40518, the magistrate or clerk of the court may give notice of the failure to appear to the department for a violation of this code, a violation that can be heard by a juvenile traffic hearing referee pursuant to Section 256 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or a violation of any other statute relating to the safe operation of a vehicle, except violations not required to be reported pursuant to paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (6), and (7) of subdivision (b) of Section 1803. If thereafter the case in which the promise was given is adjudicated or the person who has violated the court order appears in court and satisfies the order of the court, the magistrate or clerk of the court hearing the case shall sign and file with the department a certificate to that effect.
19871998
19881999 (b) If a person charged with a violation of Section 23152 or 23153, or Section 191.5 of the Penal Code, or subdivision (a) of Section 192.5 of that code has violated a lawfully granted continuance of his or her promise to appear in court or is released from custody on his or her own recognizance and fails to appear in court or before the person authorized to receive a deposit of bail, or violated an order to appear in court, the magistrate or clerk of the court shall give notice to the department of the failure to appear. If thereafter the case in which the notice was given is adjudicated or the person who has violated the court order appears in court or otherwise satisfies the order of the court, the magistrate or clerk of the court hearing the case shall prepare and forward to the department a certificate to that effect.
19892000
19902001 (c) Except as required under subdivision (b), the court shall mail a courtesy warning notice to the defendant by first-class mail at the address shown on the notice to appear, at least 10 days before sending a notice to the department under this section.
19912002
19922003 (d) If the court notifies the department of a failure to appear pursuant to subdivision (a), no arrest warrant shall be issued for an alleged violation of subdivision (a) of Section 40508, unless one of the following criteria is met:
19932004
19942005 (1) The alleged underlying offense is a misdemeanor or felony.
19952006
19962007 (2) The alleged underlying offense is a violation of any provision of Division 12 (commencing with Section 24000), Division 13 (commencing with Section 29000), or Division 15 (commencing with Section 35000), required to be reported pursuant to Section 1803.
19972008
19982009 (3) The drivers record does not show that the defendant has a valid California drivers license.
19992010
20002011 (4) The drivers record shows an unresolved charge that the defendant is in violation of his or her written promise to appear for one or more other alleged violations of the law.
20012012
20022013 (e) Except as required under subdivision (b), in addition to the proceedings described in this section, the court may elect to notify the department pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 40509.
20032014
20042015 (f) A violation subject to Section 40001 that is the responsibility of the owner of the vehicle shall not be reported under this section.
20052016
20062017 SEC. 55. Section 209 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:209. (a) (1) The judge of the juvenile court of a county, or, if there is more than one judge, any of the judges of the juvenile court shall, at least annually, inspect any jail, juvenile hall, or special purpose juvenile hall that, in the preceding calendar year, was used for confinement, for more than 24 hours, of any minor.(2) The judge shall promptly notify the operator of the jail, juvenile hall, or special purpose juvenile hall of any observed noncompliance with minimum standards for juvenile facilities adopted by the Board of State and Community Corrections under Section 210. Based on the facilitys subsequent compliance with the provisions of subdivisions (d) and (e), the judge shall thereafter make a finding whether the facility is a suitable place for the confinement of minors and shall note the finding in the minutes of the court.(3) The Board of State and Community Corrections shall conduct a biennial inspection of each jail, juvenile hall, lockup, or special purpose juvenile hall situated in this state that, during the preceding calendar year, was used for confinement, for more than 24 hours, of any minor. The board shall promptly notify the operator of any jail, juvenile hall, lockup, or special purpose juvenile hall of any noncompliance found, upon inspection, with any of the minimum standards for juvenile facilities adopted by the Board of State and Community Corrections under Section 210 or 210.2.(4) If either a judge of the juvenile court or the board, after inspection of a jail, juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, or lockup, finds that it is not being operated and maintained as a suitable place for the confinement of minors, the juvenile court or the board shall give notice of its finding to all persons having authority to confine minors pursuant to this chapter and commencing 60 days thereafter the facility shall not be used for confinement of minors until the time the judge or board, as the case may be, finds, after reinspection of the facility that the conditions that rendered the facility unsuitable have been remedied, and the facility is a suitable place for confinement of minors.(5) The custodian of each jail, juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, and lockup shall make any reports as may be requested by the board or the juvenile court to effectuate the purposes of this section.(b) (1) The Board of State and Community Corrections may inspect any law enforcement facility that contains a lockup for adults and that it has reason to believe may not be in compliance with the requirements of subdivision (d) of Section 207.1 or with the certification requirements or standards adopted under Section 210.2. A judge of the juvenile court shall conduct an annual inspection, either in person or through a delegated member of the appropriate county or regional juvenile justice commission, of any law enforcement facility that contains a lockup for adults which, in the preceding year, was used for the secure detention of any minor. If the law enforcement facility is observed, upon inspection, to be out of compliance with the requirements of subdivision (d) of Section 207.1, or with any standard adopted under Section 210.2, the board or the judge shall promptly notify the operator of the law enforcement facility of the specific points of noncompliance.(2) If either the judge or the board finds after inspection that the facility is not being operated and maintained in conformity with the requirements of subdivision (d) of Section 207.1 or with the certification requirements or standards adopted under Section 210.2, the juvenile court or the board shall give notice of its finding to all persons having authority to securely detain minors in the facility, and, commencing 60 days thereafter, the facility shall not be used for the secure detention of a minor until the time the judge or the board, as the case may be, finds, after reinspection, that the conditions that rendered the facility unsuitable have been remedied, and the facility is a suitable place for the confinement of minors in conformity with all requirements of law.(3) The custodian of each law enforcement facility that contains a lockup for adults shall make any report as may be requested by the board or by the juvenile court to effectuate the purposes of this subdivision.(c) The board shall collect biennial data on the number, place, and duration of confinements of minors in jails and lockups, as defined in subdivision (i) of Section 207.1, and shall publish biennially this information in the form as it deems appropriate for the purpose of providing public information on continuing compliance with the requirements of Section 207.1.(d) Except as provided in subdivision (e), a juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, law enforcement facility, or jail shall be unsuitable for the confinement of minors if it is not in compliance with one or more of the minimum standards for juvenile facilities adopted by the Board of State and Community Corrections under Section 210 or 210.2, and if, within 60 days of having received notice of noncompliance from the board or the judge of the juvenile court, the juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, law enforcement facility, or jail has failed to file an approved corrective action plan with the Board of State and Community Corrections to correct the condition or conditions of noncompliance of which it has been notified. The corrective action plan shall outline how the juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, law enforcement facility, or jail plans to correct the issue of noncompliance and give a reasonable timeframe, not to exceed 90 days, for resolution, that the board shall either approve or deny. In the event the juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, law enforcement facility, or jail fails to meet its commitment to resolve noncompliance issues outlined in its corrective action plan, the board shall make a determination of suitability at its next scheduled meeting.(e) If a juvenile hall is not in compliance with one or more of the minimum standards for juvenile facilities adopted by the Board of State and Community Corrections under Section 210, and where the noncompliance arises from sustained occupancy levels that are above the population capacity permitted by applicable minimum standards, the juvenile hall shall be unsuitable for the confinement of minors if the board or the judge of the juvenile court determines that conditions in the facility pose a serious risk to the health, safety, or welfare of minors confined in the facility. In making its determination of suitability, the board or the judge of the juvenile court shall consider, in addition to the noncompliance with minimum standards, the totality of conditions in the juvenile hall, including the extent and duration of overpopulation as well as staffing, program, physical plant, and medical and mental health care conditions in the facility. The Board of State and Community Corrections may develop guidelines and procedures for its determination of suitability in accordance with this subdivision and to assist counties in bringing their juvenile halls into full compliance with applicable minimum standards. This subdivision shall not be interpreted to exempt a juvenile hall from having to correct, in accordance with the provisions of subdivision (d), any minimum standard violations that are not directly related to overpopulation of the facility.(f) In accordance with the federal Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention Act of 2002 (42 U.S.C. Sec. 5601 et seq.), the Corrections Standards Authority shall inspect and collect relevant data from any facility that may be used for the secure detention of minors.(g) All reports and notices of findings prepared by the Board of State and Community Corrections pursuant to this section shall be posted on the Board of State and Community Corrections Internet Web site in a manner in which they are accessible to the public.
20072018
20082019 SEC. 55. Section 209 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:
20092020
20102021 ### SEC. 55.
20112022
20122023 209. (a) (1) The judge of the juvenile court of a county, or, if there is more than one judge, any of the judges of the juvenile court shall, at least annually, inspect any jail, juvenile hall, or special purpose juvenile hall that, in the preceding calendar year, was used for confinement, for more than 24 hours, of any minor.(2) The judge shall promptly notify the operator of the jail, juvenile hall, or special purpose juvenile hall of any observed noncompliance with minimum standards for juvenile facilities adopted by the Board of State and Community Corrections under Section 210. Based on the facilitys subsequent compliance with the provisions of subdivisions (d) and (e), the judge shall thereafter make a finding whether the facility is a suitable place for the confinement of minors and shall note the finding in the minutes of the court.(3) The Board of State and Community Corrections shall conduct a biennial inspection of each jail, juvenile hall, lockup, or special purpose juvenile hall situated in this state that, during the preceding calendar year, was used for confinement, for more than 24 hours, of any minor. The board shall promptly notify the operator of any jail, juvenile hall, lockup, or special purpose juvenile hall of any noncompliance found, upon inspection, with any of the minimum standards for juvenile facilities adopted by the Board of State and Community Corrections under Section 210 or 210.2.(4) If either a judge of the juvenile court or the board, after inspection of a jail, juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, or lockup, finds that it is not being operated and maintained as a suitable place for the confinement of minors, the juvenile court or the board shall give notice of its finding to all persons having authority to confine minors pursuant to this chapter and commencing 60 days thereafter the facility shall not be used for confinement of minors until the time the judge or board, as the case may be, finds, after reinspection of the facility that the conditions that rendered the facility unsuitable have been remedied, and the facility is a suitable place for confinement of minors.(5) The custodian of each jail, juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, and lockup shall make any reports as may be requested by the board or the juvenile court to effectuate the purposes of this section.(b) (1) The Board of State and Community Corrections may inspect any law enforcement facility that contains a lockup for adults and that it has reason to believe may not be in compliance with the requirements of subdivision (d) of Section 207.1 or with the certification requirements or standards adopted under Section 210.2. A judge of the juvenile court shall conduct an annual inspection, either in person or through a delegated member of the appropriate county or regional juvenile justice commission, of any law enforcement facility that contains a lockup for adults which, in the preceding year, was used for the secure detention of any minor. If the law enforcement facility is observed, upon inspection, to be out of compliance with the requirements of subdivision (d) of Section 207.1, or with any standard adopted under Section 210.2, the board or the judge shall promptly notify the operator of the law enforcement facility of the specific points of noncompliance.(2) If either the judge or the board finds after inspection that the facility is not being operated and maintained in conformity with the requirements of subdivision (d) of Section 207.1 or with the certification requirements or standards adopted under Section 210.2, the juvenile court or the board shall give notice of its finding to all persons having authority to securely detain minors in the facility, and, commencing 60 days thereafter, the facility shall not be used for the secure detention of a minor until the time the judge or the board, as the case may be, finds, after reinspection, that the conditions that rendered the facility unsuitable have been remedied, and the facility is a suitable place for the confinement of minors in conformity with all requirements of law.(3) The custodian of each law enforcement facility that contains a lockup for adults shall make any report as may be requested by the board or by the juvenile court to effectuate the purposes of this subdivision.(c) The board shall collect biennial data on the number, place, and duration of confinements of minors in jails and lockups, as defined in subdivision (i) of Section 207.1, and shall publish biennially this information in the form as it deems appropriate for the purpose of providing public information on continuing compliance with the requirements of Section 207.1.(d) Except as provided in subdivision (e), a juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, law enforcement facility, or jail shall be unsuitable for the confinement of minors if it is not in compliance with one or more of the minimum standards for juvenile facilities adopted by the Board of State and Community Corrections under Section 210 or 210.2, and if, within 60 days of having received notice of noncompliance from the board or the judge of the juvenile court, the juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, law enforcement facility, or jail has failed to file an approved corrective action plan with the Board of State and Community Corrections to correct the condition or conditions of noncompliance of which it has been notified. The corrective action plan shall outline how the juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, law enforcement facility, or jail plans to correct the issue of noncompliance and give a reasonable timeframe, not to exceed 90 days, for resolution, that the board shall either approve or deny. In the event the juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, law enforcement facility, or jail fails to meet its commitment to resolve noncompliance issues outlined in its corrective action plan, the board shall make a determination of suitability at its next scheduled meeting.(e) If a juvenile hall is not in compliance with one or more of the minimum standards for juvenile facilities adopted by the Board of State and Community Corrections under Section 210, and where the noncompliance arises from sustained occupancy levels that are above the population capacity permitted by applicable minimum standards, the juvenile hall shall be unsuitable for the confinement of minors if the board or the judge of the juvenile court determines that conditions in the facility pose a serious risk to the health, safety, or welfare of minors confined in the facility. In making its determination of suitability, the board or the judge of the juvenile court shall consider, in addition to the noncompliance with minimum standards, the totality of conditions in the juvenile hall, including the extent and duration of overpopulation as well as staffing, program, physical plant, and medical and mental health care conditions in the facility. The Board of State and Community Corrections may develop guidelines and procedures for its determination of suitability in accordance with this subdivision and to assist counties in bringing their juvenile halls into full compliance with applicable minimum standards. This subdivision shall not be interpreted to exempt a juvenile hall from having to correct, in accordance with the provisions of subdivision (d), any minimum standard violations that are not directly related to overpopulation of the facility.(f) In accordance with the federal Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention Act of 2002 (42 U.S.C. Sec. 5601 et seq.), the Corrections Standards Authority shall inspect and collect relevant data from any facility that may be used for the secure detention of minors.(g) All reports and notices of findings prepared by the Board of State and Community Corrections pursuant to this section shall be posted on the Board of State and Community Corrections Internet Web site in a manner in which they are accessible to the public.
20132024
20142025 209. (a) (1) The judge of the juvenile court of a county, or, if there is more than one judge, any of the judges of the juvenile court shall, at least annually, inspect any jail, juvenile hall, or special purpose juvenile hall that, in the preceding calendar year, was used for confinement, for more than 24 hours, of any minor.(2) The judge shall promptly notify the operator of the jail, juvenile hall, or special purpose juvenile hall of any observed noncompliance with minimum standards for juvenile facilities adopted by the Board of State and Community Corrections under Section 210. Based on the facilitys subsequent compliance with the provisions of subdivisions (d) and (e), the judge shall thereafter make a finding whether the facility is a suitable place for the confinement of minors and shall note the finding in the minutes of the court.(3) The Board of State and Community Corrections shall conduct a biennial inspection of each jail, juvenile hall, lockup, or special purpose juvenile hall situated in this state that, during the preceding calendar year, was used for confinement, for more than 24 hours, of any minor. The board shall promptly notify the operator of any jail, juvenile hall, lockup, or special purpose juvenile hall of any noncompliance found, upon inspection, with any of the minimum standards for juvenile facilities adopted by the Board of State and Community Corrections under Section 210 or 210.2.(4) If either a judge of the juvenile court or the board, after inspection of a jail, juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, or lockup, finds that it is not being operated and maintained as a suitable place for the confinement of minors, the juvenile court or the board shall give notice of its finding to all persons having authority to confine minors pursuant to this chapter and commencing 60 days thereafter the facility shall not be used for confinement of minors until the time the judge or board, as the case may be, finds, after reinspection of the facility that the conditions that rendered the facility unsuitable have been remedied, and the facility is a suitable place for confinement of minors.(5) The custodian of each jail, juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, and lockup shall make any reports as may be requested by the board or the juvenile court to effectuate the purposes of this section.(b) (1) The Board of State and Community Corrections may inspect any law enforcement facility that contains a lockup for adults and that it has reason to believe may not be in compliance with the requirements of subdivision (d) of Section 207.1 or with the certification requirements or standards adopted under Section 210.2. A judge of the juvenile court shall conduct an annual inspection, either in person or through a delegated member of the appropriate county or regional juvenile justice commission, of any law enforcement facility that contains a lockup for adults which, in the preceding year, was used for the secure detention of any minor. If the law enforcement facility is observed, upon inspection, to be out of compliance with the requirements of subdivision (d) of Section 207.1, or with any standard adopted under Section 210.2, the board or the judge shall promptly notify the operator of the law enforcement facility of the specific points of noncompliance.(2) If either the judge or the board finds after inspection that the facility is not being operated and maintained in conformity with the requirements of subdivision (d) of Section 207.1 or with the certification requirements or standards adopted under Section 210.2, the juvenile court or the board shall give notice of its finding to all persons having authority to securely detain minors in the facility, and, commencing 60 days thereafter, the facility shall not be used for the secure detention of a minor until the time the judge or the board, as the case may be, finds, after reinspection, that the conditions that rendered the facility unsuitable have been remedied, and the facility is a suitable place for the confinement of minors in conformity with all requirements of law.(3) The custodian of each law enforcement facility that contains a lockup for adults shall make any report as may be requested by the board or by the juvenile court to effectuate the purposes of this subdivision.(c) The board shall collect biennial data on the number, place, and duration of confinements of minors in jails and lockups, as defined in subdivision (i) of Section 207.1, and shall publish biennially this information in the form as it deems appropriate for the purpose of providing public information on continuing compliance with the requirements of Section 207.1.(d) Except as provided in subdivision (e), a juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, law enforcement facility, or jail shall be unsuitable for the confinement of minors if it is not in compliance with one or more of the minimum standards for juvenile facilities adopted by the Board of State and Community Corrections under Section 210 or 210.2, and if, within 60 days of having received notice of noncompliance from the board or the judge of the juvenile court, the juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, law enforcement facility, or jail has failed to file an approved corrective action plan with the Board of State and Community Corrections to correct the condition or conditions of noncompliance of which it has been notified. The corrective action plan shall outline how the juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, law enforcement facility, or jail plans to correct the issue of noncompliance and give a reasonable timeframe, not to exceed 90 days, for resolution, that the board shall either approve or deny. In the event the juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, law enforcement facility, or jail fails to meet its commitment to resolve noncompliance issues outlined in its corrective action plan, the board shall make a determination of suitability at its next scheduled meeting.(e) If a juvenile hall is not in compliance with one or more of the minimum standards for juvenile facilities adopted by the Board of State and Community Corrections under Section 210, and where the noncompliance arises from sustained occupancy levels that are above the population capacity permitted by applicable minimum standards, the juvenile hall shall be unsuitable for the confinement of minors if the board or the judge of the juvenile court determines that conditions in the facility pose a serious risk to the health, safety, or welfare of minors confined in the facility. In making its determination of suitability, the board or the judge of the juvenile court shall consider, in addition to the noncompliance with minimum standards, the totality of conditions in the juvenile hall, including the extent and duration of overpopulation as well as staffing, program, physical plant, and medical and mental health care conditions in the facility. The Board of State and Community Corrections may develop guidelines and procedures for its determination of suitability in accordance with this subdivision and to assist counties in bringing their juvenile halls into full compliance with applicable minimum standards. This subdivision shall not be interpreted to exempt a juvenile hall from having to correct, in accordance with the provisions of subdivision (d), any minimum standard violations that are not directly related to overpopulation of the facility.(f) In accordance with the federal Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention Act of 2002 (42 U.S.C. Sec. 5601 et seq.), the Corrections Standards Authority shall inspect and collect relevant data from any facility that may be used for the secure detention of minors.(g) All reports and notices of findings prepared by the Board of State and Community Corrections pursuant to this section shall be posted on the Board of State and Community Corrections Internet Web site in a manner in which they are accessible to the public.
20152026
20162027 209. (a) (1) The judge of the juvenile court of a county, or, if there is more than one judge, any of the judges of the juvenile court shall, at least annually, inspect any jail, juvenile hall, or special purpose juvenile hall that, in the preceding calendar year, was used for confinement, for more than 24 hours, of any minor.(2) The judge shall promptly notify the operator of the jail, juvenile hall, or special purpose juvenile hall of any observed noncompliance with minimum standards for juvenile facilities adopted by the Board of State and Community Corrections under Section 210. Based on the facilitys subsequent compliance with the provisions of subdivisions (d) and (e), the judge shall thereafter make a finding whether the facility is a suitable place for the confinement of minors and shall note the finding in the minutes of the court.(3) The Board of State and Community Corrections shall conduct a biennial inspection of each jail, juvenile hall, lockup, or special purpose juvenile hall situated in this state that, during the preceding calendar year, was used for confinement, for more than 24 hours, of any minor. The board shall promptly notify the operator of any jail, juvenile hall, lockup, or special purpose juvenile hall of any noncompliance found, upon inspection, with any of the minimum standards for juvenile facilities adopted by the Board of State and Community Corrections under Section 210 or 210.2.(4) If either a judge of the juvenile court or the board, after inspection of a jail, juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, or lockup, finds that it is not being operated and maintained as a suitable place for the confinement of minors, the juvenile court or the board shall give notice of its finding to all persons having authority to confine minors pursuant to this chapter and commencing 60 days thereafter the facility shall not be used for confinement of minors until the time the judge or board, as the case may be, finds, after reinspection of the facility that the conditions that rendered the facility unsuitable have been remedied, and the facility is a suitable place for confinement of minors.(5) The custodian of each jail, juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, and lockup shall make any reports as may be requested by the board or the juvenile court to effectuate the purposes of this section.(b) (1) The Board of State and Community Corrections may inspect any law enforcement facility that contains a lockup for adults and that it has reason to believe may not be in compliance with the requirements of subdivision (d) of Section 207.1 or with the certification requirements or standards adopted under Section 210.2. A judge of the juvenile court shall conduct an annual inspection, either in person or through a delegated member of the appropriate county or regional juvenile justice commission, of any law enforcement facility that contains a lockup for adults which, in the preceding year, was used for the secure detention of any minor. If the law enforcement facility is observed, upon inspection, to be out of compliance with the requirements of subdivision (d) of Section 207.1, or with any standard adopted under Section 210.2, the board or the judge shall promptly notify the operator of the law enforcement facility of the specific points of noncompliance.(2) If either the judge or the board finds after inspection that the facility is not being operated and maintained in conformity with the requirements of subdivision (d) of Section 207.1 or with the certification requirements or standards adopted under Section 210.2, the juvenile court or the board shall give notice of its finding to all persons having authority to securely detain minors in the facility, and, commencing 60 days thereafter, the facility shall not be used for the secure detention of a minor until the time the judge or the board, as the case may be, finds, after reinspection, that the conditions that rendered the facility unsuitable have been remedied, and the facility is a suitable place for the confinement of minors in conformity with all requirements of law.(3) The custodian of each law enforcement facility that contains a lockup for adults shall make any report as may be requested by the board or by the juvenile court to effectuate the purposes of this subdivision.(c) The board shall collect biennial data on the number, place, and duration of confinements of minors in jails and lockups, as defined in subdivision (i) of Section 207.1, and shall publish biennially this information in the form as it deems appropriate for the purpose of providing public information on continuing compliance with the requirements of Section 207.1.(d) Except as provided in subdivision (e), a juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, law enforcement facility, or jail shall be unsuitable for the confinement of minors if it is not in compliance with one or more of the minimum standards for juvenile facilities adopted by the Board of State and Community Corrections under Section 210 or 210.2, and if, within 60 days of having received notice of noncompliance from the board or the judge of the juvenile court, the juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, law enforcement facility, or jail has failed to file an approved corrective action plan with the Board of State and Community Corrections to correct the condition or conditions of noncompliance of which it has been notified. The corrective action plan shall outline how the juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, law enforcement facility, or jail plans to correct the issue of noncompliance and give a reasonable timeframe, not to exceed 90 days, for resolution, that the board shall either approve or deny. In the event the juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, law enforcement facility, or jail fails to meet its commitment to resolve noncompliance issues outlined in its corrective action plan, the board shall make a determination of suitability at its next scheduled meeting.(e) If a juvenile hall is not in compliance with one or more of the minimum standards for juvenile facilities adopted by the Board of State and Community Corrections under Section 210, and where the noncompliance arises from sustained occupancy levels that are above the population capacity permitted by applicable minimum standards, the juvenile hall shall be unsuitable for the confinement of minors if the board or the judge of the juvenile court determines that conditions in the facility pose a serious risk to the health, safety, or welfare of minors confined in the facility. In making its determination of suitability, the board or the judge of the juvenile court shall consider, in addition to the noncompliance with minimum standards, the totality of conditions in the juvenile hall, including the extent and duration of overpopulation as well as staffing, program, physical plant, and medical and mental health care conditions in the facility. The Board of State and Community Corrections may develop guidelines and procedures for its determination of suitability in accordance with this subdivision and to assist counties in bringing their juvenile halls into full compliance with applicable minimum standards. This subdivision shall not be interpreted to exempt a juvenile hall from having to correct, in accordance with the provisions of subdivision (d), any minimum standard violations that are not directly related to overpopulation of the facility.(f) In accordance with the federal Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention Act of 2002 (42 U.S.C. Sec. 5601 et seq.), the Corrections Standards Authority shall inspect and collect relevant data from any facility that may be used for the secure detention of minors.(g) All reports and notices of findings prepared by the Board of State and Community Corrections pursuant to this section shall be posted on the Board of State and Community Corrections Internet Web site in a manner in which they are accessible to the public.
20172028
20182029
20192030
20202031 209. (a) (1) The judge of the juvenile court of a county, or, if there is more than one judge, any of the judges of the juvenile court shall, at least annually, inspect any jail, juvenile hall, or special purpose juvenile hall that, in the preceding calendar year, was used for confinement, for more than 24 hours, of any minor.
20212032
20222033 (2) The judge shall promptly notify the operator of the jail, juvenile hall, or special purpose juvenile hall of any observed noncompliance with minimum standards for juvenile facilities adopted by the Board of State and Community Corrections under Section 210. Based on the facilitys subsequent compliance with the provisions of subdivisions (d) and (e), the judge shall thereafter make a finding whether the facility is a suitable place for the confinement of minors and shall note the finding in the minutes of the court.
20232034
20242035 (3) The Board of State and Community Corrections shall conduct a biennial inspection of each jail, juvenile hall, lockup, or special purpose juvenile hall situated in this state that, during the preceding calendar year, was used for confinement, for more than 24 hours, of any minor. The board shall promptly notify the operator of any jail, juvenile hall, lockup, or special purpose juvenile hall of any noncompliance found, upon inspection, with any of the minimum standards for juvenile facilities adopted by the Board of State and Community Corrections under Section 210 or 210.2.
20252036
20262037 (4) If either a judge of the juvenile court or the board, after inspection of a jail, juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, or lockup, finds that it is not being operated and maintained as a suitable place for the confinement of minors, the juvenile court or the board shall give notice of its finding to all persons having authority to confine minors pursuant to this chapter and commencing 60 days thereafter the facility shall not be used for confinement of minors until the time the judge or board, as the case may be, finds, after reinspection of the facility that the conditions that rendered the facility unsuitable have been remedied, and the facility is a suitable place for confinement of minors.
20272038
20282039 (5) The custodian of each jail, juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, and lockup shall make any reports as may be requested by the board or the juvenile court to effectuate the purposes of this section.
20292040
20302041 (b) (1) The Board of State and Community Corrections may inspect any law enforcement facility that contains a lockup for adults and that it has reason to believe may not be in compliance with the requirements of subdivision (d) of Section 207.1 or with the certification requirements or standards adopted under Section 210.2. A judge of the juvenile court shall conduct an annual inspection, either in person or through a delegated member of the appropriate county or regional juvenile justice commission, of any law enforcement facility that contains a lockup for adults which, in the preceding year, was used for the secure detention of any minor. If the law enforcement facility is observed, upon inspection, to be out of compliance with the requirements of subdivision (d) of Section 207.1, or with any standard adopted under Section 210.2, the board or the judge shall promptly notify the operator of the law enforcement facility of the specific points of noncompliance.
20312042
20322043 (2) If either the judge or the board finds after inspection that the facility is not being operated and maintained in conformity with the requirements of subdivision (d) of Section 207.1 or with the certification requirements or standards adopted under Section 210.2, the juvenile court or the board shall give notice of its finding to all persons having authority to securely detain minors in the facility, and, commencing 60 days thereafter, the facility shall not be used for the secure detention of a minor until the time the judge or the board, as the case may be, finds, after reinspection, that the conditions that rendered the facility unsuitable have been remedied, and the facility is a suitable place for the confinement of minors in conformity with all requirements of law.
20332044
20342045 (3) The custodian of each law enforcement facility that contains a lockup for adults shall make any report as may be requested by the board or by the juvenile court to effectuate the purposes of this subdivision.
20352046
20362047 (c) The board shall collect biennial data on the number, place, and duration of confinements of minors in jails and lockups, as defined in subdivision (i) of Section 207.1, and shall publish biennially this information in the form as it deems appropriate for the purpose of providing public information on continuing compliance with the requirements of Section 207.1.
20372048
20382049 (d) Except as provided in subdivision (e), a juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, law enforcement facility, or jail shall be unsuitable for the confinement of minors if it is not in compliance with one or more of the minimum standards for juvenile facilities adopted by the Board of State and Community Corrections under Section 210 or 210.2, and if, within 60 days of having received notice of noncompliance from the board or the judge of the juvenile court, the juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, law enforcement facility, or jail has failed to file an approved corrective action plan with the Board of State and Community Corrections to correct the condition or conditions of noncompliance of which it has been notified. The corrective action plan shall outline how the juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, law enforcement facility, or jail plans to correct the issue of noncompliance and give a reasonable timeframe, not to exceed 90 days, for resolution, that the board shall either approve or deny. In the event the juvenile hall, special purpose juvenile hall, law enforcement facility, or jail fails to meet its commitment to resolve noncompliance issues outlined in its corrective action plan, the board shall make a determination of suitability at its next scheduled meeting.
20392050
20402051 (e) If a juvenile hall is not in compliance with one or more of the minimum standards for juvenile facilities adopted by the Board of State and Community Corrections under Section 210, and where the noncompliance arises from sustained occupancy levels that are above the population capacity permitted by applicable minimum standards, the juvenile hall shall be unsuitable for the confinement of minors if the board or the judge of the juvenile court determines that conditions in the facility pose a serious risk to the health, safety, or welfare of minors confined in the facility. In making its determination of suitability, the board or the judge of the juvenile court shall consider, in addition to the noncompliance with minimum standards, the totality of conditions in the juvenile hall, including the extent and duration of overpopulation as well as staffing, program, physical plant, and medical and mental health care conditions in the facility. The Board of State and Community Corrections may develop guidelines and procedures for its determination of suitability in accordance with this subdivision and to assist counties in bringing their juvenile halls into full compliance with applicable minimum standards. This subdivision shall not be interpreted to exempt a juvenile hall from having to correct, in accordance with the provisions of subdivision (d), any minimum standard violations that are not directly related to overpopulation of the facility.
20412052
20422053 (f) In accordance with the federal Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention Act of 2002 (42 U.S.C. Sec. 5601 et seq.), the Corrections Standards Authority shall inspect and collect relevant data from any facility that may be used for the secure detention of minors.
20432054
20442055 (g) All reports and notices of findings prepared by the Board of State and Community Corrections pursuant to this section shall be posted on the Board of State and Community Corrections Internet Web site in a manner in which they are accessible to the public.
20452056
20462057 SEC. 56. Section 270 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is repealed.
20472058
20482059 SEC. 56. Section 270 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is repealed.
20492060
20502061 ### SEC. 56.
20512062
20522063
20532064
20542065 SEC. 57. Section 270 is added to the Welfare and Institutions Code, to read:270. The chief probation officer shall be appointed and compensation for the position shall be determined as provided in Chapter 16 (commencing with Section 27770) of Part 3 of Division 2 of Title 3 of the Government Code.
20552066
20562067 SEC. 57. Section 270 is added to the Welfare and Institutions Code, to read:
20572068
20582069 ### SEC. 57.
20592070
20602071 270. The chief probation officer shall be appointed and compensation for the position shall be determined as provided in Chapter 16 (commencing with Section 27770) of Part 3 of Division 2 of Title 3 of the Government Code.
20612072
20622073 270. The chief probation officer shall be appointed and compensation for the position shall be determined as provided in Chapter 16 (commencing with Section 27770) of Part 3 of Division 2 of Title 3 of the Government Code.
20632074
20642075 270. The chief probation officer shall be appointed and compensation for the position shall be determined as provided in Chapter 16 (commencing with Section 27770) of Part 3 of Division 2 of Title 3 of the Government Code.
20652076
20662077
20672078
20682079 270. The chief probation officer shall be appointed and compensation for the position shall be determined as provided in Chapter 16 (commencing with Section 27770) of Part 3 of Division 2 of Title 3 of the Government Code.
20692080
20702081 SEC. 58. Section 271 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is repealed.
20712082
20722083 SEC. 58. Section 271 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is repealed.
20732084
20742085 ### SEC. 58.
20752086
20762087
20772088
20782089 SEC. 59. Section 271 is added to the Welfare and Institutions Code, to read:271. In counties having charters that provide a method of appointment and tenure of office for the superintendent, matron, and other employees of the juvenile hall, the charter provisions shall control as to those matters and, in counties that have established or hereafter establish merit or civil service systems governing the methods of appointment and the tenure of office for the superintendent, matrons, and other employees of the juvenile hall, the provisions of the merit or civil service systems shall control as to those matters. In all other counties, these matters shall be controlled exclusively by the provisions of this code.
20792090
20802091 SEC. 59. Section 271 is added to the Welfare and Institutions Code, to read:
20812092
20822093 ### SEC. 59.
20832094
20842095 271. In counties having charters that provide a method of appointment and tenure of office for the superintendent, matron, and other employees of the juvenile hall, the charter provisions shall control as to those matters and, in counties that have established or hereafter establish merit or civil service systems governing the methods of appointment and the tenure of office for the superintendent, matrons, and other employees of the juvenile hall, the provisions of the merit or civil service systems shall control as to those matters. In all other counties, these matters shall be controlled exclusively by the provisions of this code.
20852096
20862097 271. In counties having charters that provide a method of appointment and tenure of office for the superintendent, matron, and other employees of the juvenile hall, the charter provisions shall control as to those matters and, in counties that have established or hereafter establish merit or civil service systems governing the methods of appointment and the tenure of office for the superintendent, matrons, and other employees of the juvenile hall, the provisions of the merit or civil service systems shall control as to those matters. In all other counties, these matters shall be controlled exclusively by the provisions of this code.
20872098
20882099 271. In counties having charters that provide a method of appointment and tenure of office for the superintendent, matron, and other employees of the juvenile hall, the charter provisions shall control as to those matters and, in counties that have established or hereafter establish merit or civil service systems governing the methods of appointment and the tenure of office for the superintendent, matrons, and other employees of the juvenile hall, the provisions of the merit or civil service systems shall control as to those matters. In all other counties, these matters shall be controlled exclusively by the provisions of this code.
20892100
20902101
20912102
20922103 271. In counties having charters that provide a method of appointment and tenure of office for the superintendent, matron, and other employees of the juvenile hall, the charter provisions shall control as to those matters and, in counties that have established or hereafter establish merit or civil service systems governing the methods of appointment and the tenure of office for the superintendent, matrons, and other employees of the juvenile hall, the provisions of the merit or civil service systems shall control as to those matters. In all other counties, these matters shall be controlled exclusively by the provisions of this code.
20932104
20942105 SEC. 60. Section 1982 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:1982. (a) The Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, Division of Juvenile Justice, shall provide an annual report, commencing July 10, 2011, and annually thereafter, for the preceding fiscal year, with information sorted by county, to the Department of Finance that includes, but is not limited to, the following:(1) Identifying information of each ward discharged from a Division of Juvenile Justice facility on or after 90 days after the enactment of this section, excluding parole violators who were originally released to parole on or after 90 days after the enactment of this section, and the date each ward was released to local supervision.(2) The name of each parolee recalled pursuant to Section 731.1 on or after 90 days after the enactment of this section, the remaining term of supervision, and the date each ward was recalled.(b) (1) The Board of State and Community Corrections shall provide an annual report, commencing on July 10, 2011, and annually thereafter, for the preceding fiscal year, with information sorted by county, to the Department of Finance that includes, but is not limited to, the following: identifying information of each discharged ward returned to a local juvenile detention facility for violating a condition of court-ordered supervision that occurred during the first 24 months after the wards initial release to local supervision, and the number of months each violator was housed in a local juvenile detention facility. The Board of State and Community Corrections may audit the information included in the annual report required by this section.(2) A county that does not submit data pursuant to this subdivision may not receive funding pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 1984.(c) For the purposes of this section, identifying information means a unique identifier, which may include the wards initials, that allows the Department of Finance to reconcile information provided by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, Division of Juvenile Justice, pursuant to subdivision (a) with information provided by the Board of State and Community Corrections pursuant to subdivision (b), while preserving the confidentiality of the ward. The reports created pursuant to this section shall not be considered record information within the meaning of Section 11075 of the Penal Code or Section 825 of this code.
20952106
20962107 SEC. 60. Section 1982 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:
20972108
20982109 ### SEC. 60.
20992110
21002111 1982. (a) The Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, Division of Juvenile Justice, shall provide an annual report, commencing July 10, 2011, and annually thereafter, for the preceding fiscal year, with information sorted by county, to the Department of Finance that includes, but is not limited to, the following:(1) Identifying information of each ward discharged from a Division of Juvenile Justice facility on or after 90 days after the enactment of this section, excluding parole violators who were originally released to parole on or after 90 days after the enactment of this section, and the date each ward was released to local supervision.(2) The name of each parolee recalled pursuant to Section 731.1 on or after 90 days after the enactment of this section, the remaining term of supervision, and the date each ward was recalled.(b) (1) The Board of State and Community Corrections shall provide an annual report, commencing on July 10, 2011, and annually thereafter, for the preceding fiscal year, with information sorted by county, to the Department of Finance that includes, but is not limited to, the following: identifying information of each discharged ward returned to a local juvenile detention facility for violating a condition of court-ordered supervision that occurred during the first 24 months after the wards initial release to local supervision, and the number of months each violator was housed in a local juvenile detention facility. The Board of State and Community Corrections may audit the information included in the annual report required by this section.(2) A county that does not submit data pursuant to this subdivision may not receive funding pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 1984.(c) For the purposes of this section, identifying information means a unique identifier, which may include the wards initials, that allows the Department of Finance to reconcile information provided by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, Division of Juvenile Justice, pursuant to subdivision (a) with information provided by the Board of State and Community Corrections pursuant to subdivision (b), while preserving the confidentiality of the ward. The reports created pursuant to this section shall not be considered record information within the meaning of Section 11075 of the Penal Code or Section 825 of this code.
21012112
21022113 1982. (a) The Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, Division of Juvenile Justice, shall provide an annual report, commencing July 10, 2011, and annually thereafter, for the preceding fiscal year, with information sorted by county, to the Department of Finance that includes, but is not limited to, the following:(1) Identifying information of each ward discharged from a Division of Juvenile Justice facility on or after 90 days after the enactment of this section, excluding parole violators who were originally released to parole on or after 90 days after the enactment of this section, and the date each ward was released to local supervision.(2) The name of each parolee recalled pursuant to Section 731.1 on or after 90 days after the enactment of this section, the remaining term of supervision, and the date each ward was recalled.(b) (1) The Board of State and Community Corrections shall provide an annual report, commencing on July 10, 2011, and annually thereafter, for the preceding fiscal year, with information sorted by county, to the Department of Finance that includes, but is not limited to, the following: identifying information of each discharged ward returned to a local juvenile detention facility for violating a condition of court-ordered supervision that occurred during the first 24 months after the wards initial release to local supervision, and the number of months each violator was housed in a local juvenile detention facility. The Board of State and Community Corrections may audit the information included in the annual report required by this section.(2) A county that does not submit data pursuant to this subdivision may not receive funding pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 1984.(c) For the purposes of this section, identifying information means a unique identifier, which may include the wards initials, that allows the Department of Finance to reconcile information provided by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, Division of Juvenile Justice, pursuant to subdivision (a) with information provided by the Board of State and Community Corrections pursuant to subdivision (b), while preserving the confidentiality of the ward. The reports created pursuant to this section shall not be considered record information within the meaning of Section 11075 of the Penal Code or Section 825 of this code.
21032114
21042115 1982. (a) The Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, Division of Juvenile Justice, shall provide an annual report, commencing July 10, 2011, and annually thereafter, for the preceding fiscal year, with information sorted by county, to the Department of Finance that includes, but is not limited to, the following:(1) Identifying information of each ward discharged from a Division of Juvenile Justice facility on or after 90 days after the enactment of this section, excluding parole violators who were originally released to parole on or after 90 days after the enactment of this section, and the date each ward was released to local supervision.(2) The name of each parolee recalled pursuant to Section 731.1 on or after 90 days after the enactment of this section, the remaining term of supervision, and the date each ward was recalled.(b) (1) The Board of State and Community Corrections shall provide an annual report, commencing on July 10, 2011, and annually thereafter, for the preceding fiscal year, with information sorted by county, to the Department of Finance that includes, but is not limited to, the following: identifying information of each discharged ward returned to a local juvenile detention facility for violating a condition of court-ordered supervision that occurred during the first 24 months after the wards initial release to local supervision, and the number of months each violator was housed in a local juvenile detention facility. The Board of State and Community Corrections may audit the information included in the annual report required by this section.(2) A county that does not submit data pursuant to this subdivision may not receive funding pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 1984.(c) For the purposes of this section, identifying information means a unique identifier, which may include the wards initials, that allows the Department of Finance to reconcile information provided by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, Division of Juvenile Justice, pursuant to subdivision (a) with information provided by the Board of State and Community Corrections pursuant to subdivision (b), while preserving the confidentiality of the ward. The reports created pursuant to this section shall not be considered record information within the meaning of Section 11075 of the Penal Code or Section 825 of this code.
21052116
21062117
21072118
21082119 1982. (a) The Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, Division of Juvenile Justice, shall provide an annual report, commencing July 10, 2011, and annually thereafter, for the preceding fiscal year, with information sorted by county, to the Department of Finance that includes, but is not limited to, the following:
21092120
21102121 (1) Identifying information of each ward discharged from a Division of Juvenile Justice facility on or after 90 days after the enactment of this section, excluding parole violators who were originally released to parole on or after 90 days after the enactment of this section, and the date each ward was released to local supervision.
21112122
21122123 (2) The name of each parolee recalled pursuant to Section 731.1 on or after 90 days after the enactment of this section, the remaining term of supervision, and the date each ward was recalled.
21132124
21142125 (b) (1) The Board of State and Community Corrections shall provide an annual report, commencing on July 10, 2011, and annually thereafter, for the preceding fiscal year, with information sorted by county, to the Department of Finance that includes, but is not limited to, the following: identifying information of each discharged ward returned to a local juvenile detention facility for violating a condition of court-ordered supervision that occurred during the first 24 months after the wards initial release to local supervision, and the number of months each violator was housed in a local juvenile detention facility. The Board of State and Community Corrections may audit the information included in the annual report required by this section.
21152126
21162127 (2) A county that does not submit data pursuant to this subdivision may not receive funding pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 1984.
21172128
21182129 (c) For the purposes of this section, identifying information means a unique identifier, which may include the wards initials, that allows the Department of Finance to reconcile information provided by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, Division of Juvenile Justice, pursuant to subdivision (a) with information provided by the Board of State and Community Corrections pursuant to subdivision (b), while preserving the confidentiality of the ward. The reports created pursuant to this section shall not be considered record information within the meaning of Section 11075 of the Penal Code or Section 825 of this code.
21192130
21202131 SEC. 61. Section 4100 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:4100. The department has jurisdiction over the following facilities:(a) Atascadero State Hospital.(b) Coalinga State Hospital.(c) Metropolitan State Hospital.(d) Napa State Hospital.(e) Patton State Hospital.(f) (1) The Admission, Evaluation, and Stabilization (AES) Center in the County of Kern, and other AES Centers as defined by regulation.(2) The Director of State Hospitals may adopt emergency regulations in accordance with the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division of 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code) to implement this subdivision. The adoption of emergency regulations under this paragraph is deemed to address an emergency, for purposes of Sections 11346.1 and 11349.6 of the Government Code, and the Director of State Hospitals is hereby exempted for this purpose from the requirements of subdivision (b) of Section 11346.1 of the Government Code.(g) A county jail treatment facility under contract with the State Department of State Hospitals to provide competency restoration services.(h) Any other State Department of State Hospitals facility subject to available funding by the Legislature.
21212132
21222133 SEC. 61. Section 4100 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:
21232134
21242135 ### SEC. 61.
21252136
21262137 4100. The department has jurisdiction over the following facilities:(a) Atascadero State Hospital.(b) Coalinga State Hospital.(c) Metropolitan State Hospital.(d) Napa State Hospital.(e) Patton State Hospital.(f) (1) The Admission, Evaluation, and Stabilization (AES) Center in the County of Kern, and other AES Centers as defined by regulation.(2) The Director of State Hospitals may adopt emergency regulations in accordance with the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division of 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code) to implement this subdivision. The adoption of emergency regulations under this paragraph is deemed to address an emergency, for purposes of Sections 11346.1 and 11349.6 of the Government Code, and the Director of State Hospitals is hereby exempted for this purpose from the requirements of subdivision (b) of Section 11346.1 of the Government Code.(g) A county jail treatment facility under contract with the State Department of State Hospitals to provide competency restoration services.(h) Any other State Department of State Hospitals facility subject to available funding by the Legislature.
21272138
21282139 4100. The department has jurisdiction over the following facilities:(a) Atascadero State Hospital.(b) Coalinga State Hospital.(c) Metropolitan State Hospital.(d) Napa State Hospital.(e) Patton State Hospital.(f) (1) The Admission, Evaluation, and Stabilization (AES) Center in the County of Kern, and other AES Centers as defined by regulation.(2) The Director of State Hospitals may adopt emergency regulations in accordance with the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division of 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code) to implement this subdivision. The adoption of emergency regulations under this paragraph is deemed to address an emergency, for purposes of Sections 11346.1 and 11349.6 of the Government Code, and the Director of State Hospitals is hereby exempted for this purpose from the requirements of subdivision (b) of Section 11346.1 of the Government Code.(g) A county jail treatment facility under contract with the State Department of State Hospitals to provide competency restoration services.(h) Any other State Department of State Hospitals facility subject to available funding by the Legislature.
21292140
21302141 4100. The department has jurisdiction over the following facilities:(a) Atascadero State Hospital.(b) Coalinga State Hospital.(c) Metropolitan State Hospital.(d) Napa State Hospital.(e) Patton State Hospital.(f) (1) The Admission, Evaluation, and Stabilization (AES) Center in the County of Kern, and other AES Centers as defined by regulation.(2) The Director of State Hospitals may adopt emergency regulations in accordance with the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division of 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code) to implement this subdivision. The adoption of emergency regulations under this paragraph is deemed to address an emergency, for purposes of Sections 11346.1 and 11349.6 of the Government Code, and the Director of State Hospitals is hereby exempted for this purpose from the requirements of subdivision (b) of Section 11346.1 of the Government Code.(g) A county jail treatment facility under contract with the State Department of State Hospitals to provide competency restoration services.(h) Any other State Department of State Hospitals facility subject to available funding by the Legislature.
21312142
21322143
21332144
21342145 4100. The department has jurisdiction over the following facilities:
21352146
21362147 (a) Atascadero State Hospital.
21372148
21382149 (b) Coalinga State Hospital.
21392150
21402151 (c) Metropolitan State Hospital.
21412152
21422153 (d) Napa State Hospital.
21432154
21442155 (e) Patton State Hospital.
21452156
21462157 (f) (1) The Admission, Evaluation, and Stabilization (AES) Center in the County of Kern, and other AES Centers as defined by regulation.
21472158
21482159 (2) The Director of State Hospitals may adopt emergency regulations in accordance with the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division of 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code) to implement this subdivision. The adoption of emergency regulations under this paragraph is deemed to address an emergency, for purposes of Sections 11346.1 and 11349.6 of the Government Code, and the Director of State Hospitals is hereby exempted for this purpose from the requirements of subdivision (b) of Section 11346.1 of the Government Code.
21492160
21502161 (g) A county jail treatment facility under contract with the State Department of State Hospitals to provide competency restoration services.
21512162
21522163 (h) Any other State Department of State Hospitals facility subject to available funding by the Legislature.
21532164
21542165 SEC. 62. Section 4358.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:4358.5. Funds deposited into the Traumatic Brain Injury Fund pursuant to subdivision (f) of Section 1464 of the Penal Code may be matched by federal vocational rehabilitation services funds for implementation of the Traumatic Brain Injury program pursuant to this chapter. However, this matching of funds shall occur only to the extent it is permitted by other state and federal law, and to the extent the matching of funds would be consistent with the policies and priorities of the department.
21552166
21562167 SEC. 62. Section 4358.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:
21572168
21582169 ### SEC. 62.
21592170
21602171 4358.5. Funds deposited into the Traumatic Brain Injury Fund pursuant to subdivision (f) of Section 1464 of the Penal Code may be matched by federal vocational rehabilitation services funds for implementation of the Traumatic Brain Injury program pursuant to this chapter. However, this matching of funds shall occur only to the extent it is permitted by other state and federal law, and to the extent the matching of funds would be consistent with the policies and priorities of the department.
21612172
21622173 4358.5. Funds deposited into the Traumatic Brain Injury Fund pursuant to subdivision (f) of Section 1464 of the Penal Code may be matched by federal vocational rehabilitation services funds for implementation of the Traumatic Brain Injury program pursuant to this chapter. However, this matching of funds shall occur only to the extent it is permitted by other state and federal law, and to the extent the matching of funds would be consistent with the policies and priorities of the department.
21632174
21642175 4358.5. Funds deposited into the Traumatic Brain Injury Fund pursuant to subdivision (f) of Section 1464 of the Penal Code may be matched by federal vocational rehabilitation services funds for implementation of the Traumatic Brain Injury program pursuant to this chapter. However, this matching of funds shall occur only to the extent it is permitted by other state and federal law, and to the extent the matching of funds would be consistent with the policies and priorities of the department.
21652176
21662177
21672178
21682179 4358.5. Funds deposited into the Traumatic Brain Injury Fund pursuant to subdivision (f) of Section 1464 of the Penal Code may be matched by federal vocational rehabilitation services funds for implementation of the Traumatic Brain Injury program pursuant to this chapter. However, this matching of funds shall occur only to the extent it is permitted by other state and federal law, and to the extent the matching of funds would be consistent with the policies and priorities of the department.
21692180
21702181 SEC. 63. Section 7228 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:7228. Prior to admission, the State Department of State Hospitals shall evaluate each patient committed pursuant to Section 1026 or 1370 of the Penal Code to determine the placement of the patient to the appropriate State Department of State Hospitals facility, as defined in Section 4100. The State Department of State Hospitals shall utilize the documents provided pursuant to subdivision (e) of Section 1026 of the Penal Code and paragraph (2) of subdivision (b) of Section 1370 of the Penal Code to make the appropriate placement. A patient determined to be a high security risk shall be treated in the departments most secure facilities pursuant to Section 7230. A Penal Code patient not needing this level of security shall be treated as near to the patients community as possible if an appropriate treatment program is available.
21712182
21722183 SEC. 63. Section 7228 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:
21732184
21742185 ### SEC. 63.
21752186
21762187 7228. Prior to admission, the State Department of State Hospitals shall evaluate each patient committed pursuant to Section 1026 or 1370 of the Penal Code to determine the placement of the patient to the appropriate State Department of State Hospitals facility, as defined in Section 4100. The State Department of State Hospitals shall utilize the documents provided pursuant to subdivision (e) of Section 1026 of the Penal Code and paragraph (2) of subdivision (b) of Section 1370 of the Penal Code to make the appropriate placement. A patient determined to be a high security risk shall be treated in the departments most secure facilities pursuant to Section 7230. A Penal Code patient not needing this level of security shall be treated as near to the patients community as possible if an appropriate treatment program is available.
21772188
21782189 7228. Prior to admission, the State Department of State Hospitals shall evaluate each patient committed pursuant to Section 1026 or 1370 of the Penal Code to determine the placement of the patient to the appropriate State Department of State Hospitals facility, as defined in Section 4100. The State Department of State Hospitals shall utilize the documents provided pursuant to subdivision (e) of Section 1026 of the Penal Code and paragraph (2) of subdivision (b) of Section 1370 of the Penal Code to make the appropriate placement. A patient determined to be a high security risk shall be treated in the departments most secure facilities pursuant to Section 7230. A Penal Code patient not needing this level of security shall be treated as near to the patients community as possible if an appropriate treatment program is available.
21792190
21802191 7228. Prior to admission, the State Department of State Hospitals shall evaluate each patient committed pursuant to Section 1026 or 1370 of the Penal Code to determine the placement of the patient to the appropriate State Department of State Hospitals facility, as defined in Section 4100. The State Department of State Hospitals shall utilize the documents provided pursuant to subdivision (e) of Section 1026 of the Penal Code and paragraph (2) of subdivision (b) of Section 1370 of the Penal Code to make the appropriate placement. A patient determined to be a high security risk shall be treated in the departments most secure facilities pursuant to Section 7230. A Penal Code patient not needing this level of security shall be treated as near to the patients community as possible if an appropriate treatment program is available.
21812192
21822193
21832194
21842195 7228. Prior to admission, the State Department of State Hospitals shall evaluate each patient committed pursuant to Section 1026 or 1370 of the Penal Code to determine the placement of the patient to the appropriate State Department of State Hospitals facility, as defined in Section 4100. The State Department of State Hospitals shall utilize the documents provided pursuant to subdivision (e) of Section 1026 of the Penal Code and paragraph (2) of subdivision (b) of Section 1370 of the Penal Code to make the appropriate placement. A patient determined to be a high security risk shall be treated in the departments most secure facilities pursuant to Section 7230. A Penal Code patient not needing this level of security shall be treated as near to the patients community as possible if an appropriate treatment program is available.
21852196
21862197 SEC. 64. Section 7234 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:7234. (a) (1) A Patient Management Unit (PMU) shall be established within the State Department of State Hospitals to facilitate patient movement across all facilities under its jurisdiction, as defined in Section 4100, and any psychiatric programs operated by the State Department of State Hospitals pursuant to a memorandum of understanding with the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation.(2) The PMUs responsibilities shall include, but not be limited to, oversight and centralized management of patient admissions, and collection of data for reports and patient population projections.(b) The State Department of State Hospitals shall adopt regulations, consistent with this article, concerning policies and procedures to be implemented by the PMU, including, but not limited to, both of the following:(1) Policies and procedures for patient referral to the State Department of State Hospitals.(2) Screening criteria that ensures that patients are placed in a State Department of State Hospitals facility or psychiatric program closest to their county of residence in the absence of a compelling reason to place the patient in another facility. Compelling reasons may include, but not be limited to, the patients specialized psychiatric, medical, or safety needs, and the availability of beds for his or her commitment type.(c) The Director of State Hospitals may adopt emergency regulations in accordance with the Administrative Procedures Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code) to implement this section. The adoption of an emergency regulation under this paragraph is deemed to address an emergency, for purposes of Sections 11346.1 and 11349.6 of the Government Code, and the Director of State Hospitals is hereby exempted for this purpose from the requirements of subdivision (b) of Section 11346.1 of the Government Code.
21872198
21882199 SEC. 64. Section 7234 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:
21892200
21902201 ### SEC. 64.
21912202
21922203 7234. (a) (1) A Patient Management Unit (PMU) shall be established within the State Department of State Hospitals to facilitate patient movement across all facilities under its jurisdiction, as defined in Section 4100, and any psychiatric programs operated by the State Department of State Hospitals pursuant to a memorandum of understanding with the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation.(2) The PMUs responsibilities shall include, but not be limited to, oversight and centralized management of patient admissions, and collection of data for reports and patient population projections.(b) The State Department of State Hospitals shall adopt regulations, consistent with this article, concerning policies and procedures to be implemented by the PMU, including, but not limited to, both of the following:(1) Policies and procedures for patient referral to the State Department of State Hospitals.(2) Screening criteria that ensures that patients are placed in a State Department of State Hospitals facility or psychiatric program closest to their county of residence in the absence of a compelling reason to place the patient in another facility. Compelling reasons may include, but not be limited to, the patients specialized psychiatric, medical, or safety needs, and the availability of beds for his or her commitment type.(c) The Director of State Hospitals may adopt emergency regulations in accordance with the Administrative Procedures Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code) to implement this section. The adoption of an emergency regulation under this paragraph is deemed to address an emergency, for purposes of Sections 11346.1 and 11349.6 of the Government Code, and the Director of State Hospitals is hereby exempted for this purpose from the requirements of subdivision (b) of Section 11346.1 of the Government Code.
21932204
21942205 7234. (a) (1) A Patient Management Unit (PMU) shall be established within the State Department of State Hospitals to facilitate patient movement across all facilities under its jurisdiction, as defined in Section 4100, and any psychiatric programs operated by the State Department of State Hospitals pursuant to a memorandum of understanding with the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation.(2) The PMUs responsibilities shall include, but not be limited to, oversight and centralized management of patient admissions, and collection of data for reports and patient population projections.(b) The State Department of State Hospitals shall adopt regulations, consistent with this article, concerning policies and procedures to be implemented by the PMU, including, but not limited to, both of the following:(1) Policies and procedures for patient referral to the State Department of State Hospitals.(2) Screening criteria that ensures that patients are placed in a State Department of State Hospitals facility or psychiatric program closest to their county of residence in the absence of a compelling reason to place the patient in another facility. Compelling reasons may include, but not be limited to, the patients specialized psychiatric, medical, or safety needs, and the availability of beds for his or her commitment type.(c) The Director of State Hospitals may adopt emergency regulations in accordance with the Administrative Procedures Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code) to implement this section. The adoption of an emergency regulation under this paragraph is deemed to address an emergency, for purposes of Sections 11346.1 and 11349.6 of the Government Code, and the Director of State Hospitals is hereby exempted for this purpose from the requirements of subdivision (b) of Section 11346.1 of the Government Code.
21952206
21962207 7234. (a) (1) A Patient Management Unit (PMU) shall be established within the State Department of State Hospitals to facilitate patient movement across all facilities under its jurisdiction, as defined in Section 4100, and any psychiatric programs operated by the State Department of State Hospitals pursuant to a memorandum of understanding with the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation.(2) The PMUs responsibilities shall include, but not be limited to, oversight and centralized management of patient admissions, and collection of data for reports and patient population projections.(b) The State Department of State Hospitals shall adopt regulations, consistent with this article, concerning policies and procedures to be implemented by the PMU, including, but not limited to, both of the following:(1) Policies and procedures for patient referral to the State Department of State Hospitals.(2) Screening criteria that ensures that patients are placed in a State Department of State Hospitals facility or psychiatric program closest to their county of residence in the absence of a compelling reason to place the patient in another facility. Compelling reasons may include, but not be limited to, the patients specialized psychiatric, medical, or safety needs, and the availability of beds for his or her commitment type.(c) The Director of State Hospitals may adopt emergency regulations in accordance with the Administrative Procedures Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code) to implement this section. The adoption of an emergency regulation under this paragraph is deemed to address an emergency, for purposes of Sections 11346.1 and 11349.6 of the Government Code, and the Director of State Hospitals is hereby exempted for this purpose from the requirements of subdivision (b) of Section 11346.1 of the Government Code.
21972208
21982209
21992210
22002211 7234. (a) (1) A Patient Management Unit (PMU) shall be established within the State Department of State Hospitals to facilitate patient movement across all facilities under its jurisdiction, as defined in Section 4100, and any psychiatric programs operated by the State Department of State Hospitals pursuant to a memorandum of understanding with the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation.
22012212
22022213 (2) The PMUs responsibilities shall include, but not be limited to, oversight and centralized management of patient admissions, and collection of data for reports and patient population projections.
22032214
22042215 (b) The State Department of State Hospitals shall adopt regulations, consistent with this article, concerning policies and procedures to be implemented by the PMU, including, but not limited to, both of the following:
22052216
22062217 (1) Policies and procedures for patient referral to the State Department of State Hospitals.
22072218
22082219 (2) Screening criteria that ensures that patients are placed in a State Department of State Hospitals facility or psychiatric program closest to their county of residence in the absence of a compelling reason to place the patient in another facility. Compelling reasons may include, but not be limited to, the patients specialized psychiatric, medical, or safety needs, and the availability of beds for his or her commitment type.
22092220
22102221 (c) The Director of State Hospitals may adopt emergency regulations in accordance with the Administrative Procedures Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code) to implement this section. The adoption of an emergency regulation under this paragraph is deemed to address an emergency, for purposes of Sections 11346.1 and 11349.6 of the Government Code, and the Director of State Hospitals is hereby exempted for this purpose from the requirements of subdivision (b) of Section 11346.1 of the Government Code.
22112222
22122223 SEC. 65. The provisions of Section 4 of this act, amending Section 384 of the Code of Civil Procedure, are severable. If any provision of Section 4 of this act or its application is held invalid, that invalidity shall not affect other provisions or applications that can be given effect without the invalid provision or application.
22132224
22142225 SEC. 65. The provisions of Section 4 of this act, amending Section 384 of the Code of Civil Procedure, are severable. If any provision of Section 4 of this act or its application is held invalid, that invalidity shall not affect other provisions or applications that can be given effect without the invalid provision or application.
22152226
22162227 SEC. 65. The provisions of Section 4 of this act, amending Section 384 of the Code of Civil Procedure, are severable. If any provision of Section 4 of this act or its application is held invalid, that invalidity shall not affect other provisions or applications that can be given effect without the invalid provision or application.
22172228
22182229 ### SEC. 65.
22192230
22202231 SEC. 66. No reimbursement is required by this act pursuant to Section 6 of Article XIIIB of the California Constitution because the only costs that may be incurred by a local agency or school district will be incurred because this act creates a new crime or infraction, eliminates a crime or infraction, or changes the penalty for a crime or infraction, within the meaning of Section 17556 of the Government Code, or changes the definition of a crime within the meaning of Section 6 of Article XIIIB of the California Constitution.
22212232
22222233 SEC. 66. No reimbursement is required by this act pursuant to Section 6 of Article XIIIB of the California Constitution because the only costs that may be incurred by a local agency or school district will be incurred because this act creates a new crime or infraction, eliminates a crime or infraction, or changes the penalty for a crime or infraction, within the meaning of Section 17556 of the Government Code, or changes the definition of a crime within the meaning of Section 6 of Article XIIIB of the California Constitution.
22232234
22242235 SEC. 66. No reimbursement is required by this act pursuant to Section 6 of Article XIIIB of the California Constitution because the only costs that may be incurred by a local agency or school district will be incurred because this act creates a new crime or infraction, eliminates a crime or infraction, or changes the penalty for a crime or infraction, within the meaning of Section 17556 of the Government Code, or changes the definition of a crime within the meaning of Section 6 of Article XIIIB of the California Constitution.
22252236
22262237 ### SEC. 66.
22272238
22282239 SEC. 67. This act is a bill providing for appropriations related to the Budget Bill within the meaning of subdivision (e) of Section 12 of Article IV of the California Constitution, has been identified as related to the budget in the Budget Bill, and shall take effect immediately.
22292240
22302241 SEC. 67. This act is a bill providing for appropriations related to the Budget Bill within the meaning of subdivision (e) of Section 12 of Article IV of the California Constitution, has been identified as related to the budget in the Budget Bill, and shall take effect immediately.
22312242
22322243 SEC. 67. This act is a bill providing for appropriations related to the Budget Bill within the meaning of subdivision (e) of Section 12 of Article IV of the California Constitution, has been identified as related to the budget in the Budget Bill, and shall take effect immediately.
22332244
22342245 ### SEC. 67.