California 2019-2020 Regular Session

California Assembly Bill AB112 Compare Versions

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1-Amended IN Senate September 09, 2019 Amended IN Senate September 06, 2019 CALIFORNIA LEGISLATURE 20192020 REGULAR SESSION Assembly Bill No. 112Introduced by Committee on Budget (Assembly Members Ting (Chair), Arambula, Bloom, Chiu, Cooper, Frazier, Cristina Garcia, Jones-Sawyer, Limn, McCarty, Medina, Mullin, Muratsuchi, Nazarian, ODonnell, Ramos, Reyes, Luz Rivas, Blanca Rubio, Mark Stone, Weber, Wicks, and Wood) December 03, 2018An act to amend Section 23320 of the Business and Professions Code, to amend Sections 12815, 16418.8, 19822.3, 20397, and 100002 of, and to repeal Section 100006 of, the Government Code, to amend Section 11495 of the Health and Safety Code, to amend Section 1019.2 of, and to add Section 1019.3 1019.4 to, the Labor Code, to amend Sections 6126, 6126.2, 6126.3, 6126.5, and 6133 of the Penal Code, and to amend Sections 27150.2, 27151, and 40610 of the Vehicle Code, relating to state government, and making an appropriation therefor, to take effect immediately, bill related to the budget.LEGISLATIVE COUNSEL'S DIGESTAB 112, as amended, Committee on Budget. State government.(1) The Alcoholic Beverage Control Act, administered by the Department of Alcoholic Beverage Control, regulates the granting of licenses for the manufacture, distribution, and sale of alcoholic beverages within the state. The act provides for the issuance of licenses for which various fees, including annual fees, are charged depending upon the type of license issued.This bill would make a correction in the provisions that specify annual licensing fees.(2) Existing law creates the Office of Digital Innovation, which is headed by its director, with the mission of delivering better government services to the people of California through technology and design, as specified. Existing law creates the Digital Innovation Services Revolving Fund, which receives all revenues from the sale of services by the office and all other moneys properly credited to the office, for the support of the offices activities. Existing law requires the office to dispose of all records, data, and other documentation in accordance with applicable state law upon completion of each engagement. Existing law requires the director, beginning on or before February 1, 2021, to submit an annual report to the Chairperson of the Joint Legislative Budget Committee or that persons designee that includes a listing and descriptions of all expenditures made from the fund as well as all revenues received by the fund.This bill would delete the requirement that the Office of Digital Innovation dispose of all records, data, and other documentation upon completion of an engagement. The bill would require that the above-described report also include a summary of the activities of the office. The bill also would make technical, nonsubstantive changes to these provisions.(3) Existing provisions of the California Constitution, approved by the electors on November, 4, 2014, establish the Budget Stabilization Account in the General Fund and require the Controller, on or before October 1 of the 201516 fiscal year and each fiscal year thereafter, to transfer from the General Fund to the Budget Stabilization Account amounts that include a sum equal to 1.5% of the estimated amount of General Fund revenues for that fiscal year. These existing provisions prohibit for each fiscal year transfers to the account that would cause the balance in the account to exceed 10% of the amount of General Fund proceeds of taxes for the fiscal year, as estimated by the Department of Finance. These existing provisions authorize, for any fiscal year, General Fund proceeds of taxes that, but for the above prohibition, would have been transferred to the account, to be expended only for infrastructure, as prescribed. Existing law establishes the Budget Deficit Savings Account in the State Treasury and requires deposits to the Budget Stabilization Account for the 201819 fiscal year, above the amounts required by existing provisions of the California Constitution, as defined and appropriated in the 2018 Budget Act, to be transferred from the General Fund to the Budget Deficit Savings Account. Existing law requires the Controller to transfer certain moneys from the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the Budget Stabilization Account, based on an updated projection as calculated by the department, upon order of that department no earlier than May 31, 2019. Existing law requires the Controller, upon order of the department, to transfer 50% of the remaining amounts deposited in the Budget Deficit Savings Account that are not transferred to the Budget Stabilization Account to the Safety Net Reserve Fund in the State Treasury.This bill would specify that the purpose of the Budget Deficit Savings Account is to serve as a supplementary savings account to mitigate the effects of actual or future projected budget deficits in the General Fund or other state funds. The bill would also authorize the Legislature, in any fiscal year, to transfer funds into the Budget Deficit Savings Account or authorize the transfer of some or all of the balance of the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the General Fund or any other state fund.(4) Under existing law and bargaining agreements, the state reimburses employees for all necessary and actual expenses incurred during travel on official state business. Existing law requires state agencies to implement and use the California Automated Travel Expense Reimbursement System (CalATERS) established by the Controller to process travel claims, unless an exemption request is approved. Existing law requires payment for the services of the Controller in implementing these provisions to be made by direct transfer, subject to specified limitations.This bill would repeal the provisions requiring payment for the services of the Controller to state agencies in implementing CalATERS to be made by direct transfer.(5) The Public Employees Retirement Law creates the Public Employees Retirement System (PERS) for the purpose of providing pension benefits to state employees and employees of contracting agencies and prescribes the rights and duties of members of the system and their beneficiaries. PERS provides a defined benefit to members of the system, based on final compensation, credited service, and age at retirement, subject to certain variations. Existing law prescribes the officers and employees of the Assembly and the Senate, including a sergeant at arms for each house. Existing law classifies the sergeants at arms of the houses as peace officers for purposes of making arrests and enforcing the law. Existing law creates different membership categories in PERS for the purpose of prescribing benefits and contributions, including the classification of state peace officer/firefighter member.Existing law generally includes the sergeants at arms of the Assembly and the Senate within the state peace officer/firefighter member classification, but excepts the Chief Sergeant-at-Arms of the Senate from this classification. Existing law creates the Public Employees Retirement Fund as a trust fund to be expended only for purposes related to the system and its administration, as specified, and provides that the fund is continuously appropriated to these ends.This bill would delete the exception for the Chief Sergeant-at-Arms of the Senate, thereby including the Chief Sergeant-at-Arms of the Senate within the state peace officer/firefighter member classification. By increasing moneys deposited in a continuously appropriated fund, the bill would make an appropriation.(6) Existing law, the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Trust Act, establishes the CalSavers Retirement Savings Program to be administered by the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Investment Board. Existing law requires eligible employers to offer a payroll deposit retirement savings arrangement so that eligible employees may contribute a portion of their salary or wages to a retirement savings program account in the program, as specified. Existing law requires a specified percentage of the annual salary or wages of an eligible employee participating in the program to be deposited in the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Trust, which is segregated into a program fund and an administrative fund, both of which are continuously appropriated to the board for purposes of the act. Existing law authorizes the board to establish a Gain and Loss Reserve Account within the program fund to allocate interest at the stated interest rate for program years in which the board determines that the stated interest rate cannot be met from investment earnings.This bill would eliminate the authorization for the board to establish a Gain and Loss Reserve Account within the program fund and would make additional conforming changes. (7) Existing law subjects certain property to forfeiture, including controlled substances and equipment used to process controlled substances. Existing law requires the Attorney General to publish a report on the number of forfeiture actions, the value of the assets forfeited, and the recipients of the forfeited assets. Existing law requires the Attorney Generals report to cover the calendar year and to be made no later than March 1 of each year.This bill would instead require the report to be made no later than July 1 of each year.(8) Existing law imposes various requirements on public and private employers with regard to federal immigration agency worksite enforcement actions. Existing law, except as required by federal law, prohibits an employer from reverifying the employment eligibility of a current employee at a time or in a manner not required by specified federal law. Existing law prescribes a penalty of up to $10,000 for a violation of this prohibition to be recoverable by the Labor Commissioner.This bill would require the above reverification prohibition to be interpreted and applied consistent with federal law and regulations, and would, among other things, specify that the prohibition does not prohibit an employer from taking any lawful action to review the employment authorization of an employee upon knowing that the employee is, or has become, unauthorized to be employed in the United States.(9) Existing law establishes the Office of the Inspector General that is responsible, among other things, for contemporaneous oversight of internal affairs investigations and the disciplinary process of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation. Existing law prohibits the Inspector General from hiring a person known to be directly or indirectly involved in an open internal affairs investigation.This bill would modify the prohibition on hiring to instead prohibit the Inspector General from hiring a person considered a suspect or subject in an investigation. The bill would authorize the Inspector General, among other things, to initiate an audit or review of the departments internal affairs investigations and disciplinary process. The bill would require the Inspector General to provide contemporaneous oversight of grievances that fall within the departments process for reviewing and investigating inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances, examining compliance with regulations, department policy, and best practices. The bill would subject the Inspector General to specified standards of conduct during a confidential interview of an employee of the department. The bill would require the Inspector General to issue specified reports on the oversight, audits, and reviews, as specified.The bill would appropriate $3,499,000 from the General Fund to the Office of the Inspector General to conduct independent audits of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation and to provide oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations process for reviewing and investigating inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances.(10) Existing law requires every motor vehicle subject to registration to be equipped with an adequate muffler in constant operation and properly maintained to prevent any excessive or unusual noise and prohibits a muffler or exhaust system from being equipped with a cutout, bypass, or similar device. Existing law further prohibits the modification of an exhaust system of a motor vehicle in a manner that will amplify or increase the noise emitted by the motor of the vehicle so that the vehicle exceeds existing noise limits when tested in accordance with specified standards. Under existing law, if, after an arrest, accident investigation, or other law enforcement action, it appears that a violation has occurred involving, among other things, vehicle equipment, the arresting officer is required to permit the arrested person to execute a notice containing a promise to correct the violation and to deliver proof of correction to the issuing agency, unless a disqualifying condition exists. Under existing law, a violation of the noise requirements related to mufflers and exhaust systems is a disqualifying condition.This bill would delete a violation of the noise requirements related to mufflers and exhaust systems from the list of disqualifying conditions, thereby making a person who is arrested for one of these offenses eligible to execute the notice described above, except if the violation consists of modifying the exhaust system of a motorcycle in a manner that will cause it to exceed noise limits. The bill would update the noise level testing standards described above to reflect a more recent standard.(11) This bill would declare that it is to take effect immediately as a bill providing for appropriations related to the Budget Bill.Digest Key Vote: MAJORITY Appropriation: YES Fiscal Committee: YES Local Program: NO Bill TextThe people of the State of California do enact as follows:SECTION 1. The Legislature finds and declares the following:(a) Immigrants are valuable and essential members of the California community. Almost one in three Californians is foreign-born and one in two children in California has at least one immigrant parent.(b) California has the fifth largest economy in the world. Californias diverse workforce is critical to Californias vibrant economy.(c) California has a strong interest in ensuring that employers do not discriminate against their employees on the basis of their race, ethnicity, national origin, or citizenship status. Guarding against discrimination or perceived discrimination in the workplace is in the best interest of the health of employees throughout the state and is consistent with state and federal law.(d) Limiting unnecessary reverification reduces the likelihood that reverification will be misused to intimidate, retaliate, or discriminate against employees who are lawfully authorized to be employed in the United States. Limiting unnecessary reverification also fosters trust between employers and their employees, and furthers Californias interest in promoting a diverse workforce.(e) Employers have obligations under federal law to not employ unauthorized workers, with which California law does not interfere. Federal law, however does not intend to impose a continuing verification obligation on employers (see House Report No. 99-682(I), at p. 57).(f) Sections 10 and 11 of this act are intended to clarify that Section 1019.2 of the Labor Code is not in any way intended to interfere with any employers obligations under federal law. Section 1019.2 of the Labor Code is also not intended to prohibit employer actions that may be authorized under federal law.SEC. 2. Section 23320 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:23320. (a) An applicant for a new permanent license, which shall not include duplicate licenses, shall accompany the application with the application fee as specified in this division:(1) The license application fee for a new permanent license shall be nine hundred five dollars ($905), except as otherwise specified.(2) Applicants for a new permanent license of the following types shall accompany the application with a fee of fifteen thousand eight hundred thirty-five dollars ($15,835):(A) Off-sale general (Type 21).(B) On-sale general - eating place (Type 47), on-sale general public premises (Type 48), special on-sale general (Type 57), special on-sale general for-profit theater (Type 71 and Type 72), brewpub-restaurant (Type 75), caterers (Type 83), neighborhood restricted special on-sale (Type 87), and special on-sale general license for historic cemetery (Type 88).(3) Applicants for a new permanent license of the following types shall accompany the application with a fee as indicated:(A) Twelve thousand dollars ($12,000) for a wine, food and art cultural museum (Type 78).(B) Six thousand dollars ($6,000) for an on-sale general - eating place on public property (Type 47) and for an on-sale general restrictive service (Type 70).(C) Two thousand dollars ($2,000) for an on-sale general dockside (Type 62).(D) One thousand dollars ($1,000) for a special on-sale general theater (Type 64).(E) One hundred dollars ($100) for an out-of-state beer manufacturer certificate (Type 26), for a distilled spirits shipper certificate (Type 28), and for a direct shipper permit (Type 82).(F) One hundred dollars ($100) for a still (Type 6).(b) The following are the types of licenses and the annual fees to be charged therefor:(1) (A) For a Type 01 - Beer manufacturer that produces more than 60,000 barrels per year: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one thousand five hundred thirty-one dollars ($1,531) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand eight hundred ninety dollars ($1,890).(B) For a Duplicate Type 01: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(2) (A) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 gallons or less: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-one dollars ($71) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(B) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 - 20,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred thirty-two dollars ($132) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(C) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 20,000 - 100,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(D) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 100,000 - 200,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fourteen dollars ($314) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(E) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 200,000 - 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred sixty-six dollars ($466) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); for each additional 1,000,000 gallons over 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred thirteen dollars ($313) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(G) For a Duplicate Type 02: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(3) (A) For a Type 03 - Brandy manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eleven dollars ($311) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(B) For a Duplicate Type 03: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(4) For a Type 04 - Distilled spirits manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(5) For a Type 05 - Distilled spirits manufacturers agent: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(6) For a Type 06 - Still: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(7) For a Type 07 - Rectifier: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(8) For a Type 08 - Wine rectifier: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(9) For a Type 09 - Beer and wine importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(10) For a Type 10 - Beer and wine importers general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred forty dollars ($340) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(11) For a Type 11 - Brandy importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(12) For a Type 12 - Distilled spirits importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(13) For a Type 13 - Distilled spirits importers general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(14) (A) For a Type 14 - Public warehouse: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(B) For a Duplicate Type 14: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one dollar ($1) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty-five dollars ($25).(15) For a Type 15 - Customs broker: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(16) For a Type 16 - Wine broker: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(17) For a Type 17 - Beer and wine wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred forty dollars ($340) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(18) For a Type 18 - Distilled spirits wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(19) For a Type 19 - Industrial alcohol dealer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(20) For a Type 20 - Off-sale beer and wine: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventy-eight dollars ($278) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(21) For a Type 21 - Off-sale general: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred seventeen dollars ($617) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(22) (A) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 gallons or less: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-one dollars ($71) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(B) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 - 20,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred thirty-two dollars ($132) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(C) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 20,000 gallons - 100,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(D) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 100,000 - 200,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fourteen dollars ($314) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(E) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 200,000 - 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred sixty-six dollars ($466) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); for each additional 1,000,000 gallons over 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred thirteen dollars ($313) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(23) (A) For a Type 23 - Small beer manufacturer that produces 60,000 barrels or less a year: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred eighty-four dollars ($184) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(B) For a Duplicate Type 23: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(24) For a Type 24 - Distilled spirits rectifiers general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(25) For a Type 25 - California brandy wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(26) For a Type 26 - Out-of-state beer manufacturer certificate: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-nine dollars ($79) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(27) For a Type 27 - California winegrowers agent: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(28) For a Type 28 - Out-of-state distilled spirits shipper certificate: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-nine dollars ($79) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(29) For a Type 29 - Winegrape grower storage: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety dollars ($90) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(30) For a Type 40 - On-sale beer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(31) For a Type 41 - On-sale beer and wine eating place: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eighty-four dollars ($384) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(32) For a Type 42 - On-sale beer and wine pub premises: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(33) For a Type 43 - On-sale beer and wine train: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(34) For a Type 44 - On-sale beer and wine fishing party boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(35) For a Type 45 - On-sale beer and wine boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(36) For a Type 46 - On-sale beer and wine airplane: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(37) (A) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 47 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 47 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 47 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(38) (A) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 48 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 48 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 48 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(39) (A) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred forty-seven dollars ($247) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred ninety-four dollars ($494) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(C) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred forty-one dollars ($741) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(D) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred seventy-six dollars ($176) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(E) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fifty dollars ($350) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(F) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred twenty-six dollars ($526) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(G) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fifty-three dollars ($153) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(H) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred six dollars ($306) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(I) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred fifty-eight dollars ($458) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(J) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred seventy-six dollars ($176) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(K) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fifty dollars ($350) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(L) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred twenty-six dollars ($526) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(M) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred twenty-five dollars ($125).(N) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seven dollars ($207) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).(O) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eleven dollars ($311) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred seventy-five dollars ($375).(P) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is eighty-one dollars ($81) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(Q) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-six dollars ($166) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(R) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred forty-seven dollars ($247) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(40) (A) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(41) (A) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(42) (A) For a Type 52 - Veterans club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Type 52 - Veterans club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 52 - Veterans club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(43) (A) For a Type 53 - On-sale general train: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Duplicate Type 53: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(44) For a Type 54 - On-sale general boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty-three dollars ($563) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(45) (A) For a Type 55 - On-sale general license for airplanes: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty-three dollars ($563) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Duplicate Type 55 for air common carriers: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(46) (A) For a Type 56 - On-sale general license for vessels of more than 1,000 tons burden: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Duplicate Type 56: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(47) (A) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 57 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 57 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 57 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(48) (A) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; on-sale general or on-sale beer and wine: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred forty-six dollars ($146) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(B) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; club in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(C) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; club in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(D) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; club in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(49) (A) For a Type 59 - On-sale beer and wine seasonal; operating period 3-9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).(B) For a Type 59 - On-sale beer and wine seasonal; operating period 3-6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-two dollars ($162) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).(50) (A) For a Type 60 - On-sale beer seasonal; operating period 3-9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).(B) For a Type 60 - On-sale beer seasonal; operating period 3-6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-two dollars ($162) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).(51) For a Type 61 - On-sale beer public premises: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(52) For a Type 62 - On-sale general license dockside: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred nine dollars ($609) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(53) For a Type 63 - On-sale special beer and wine hospital: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-six dollars ($96) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(54) (A) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(B) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(55) For a Type 65 - Special on-sale beer and wine symphony: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(56) For a Type 66 - Controlled access cabinet: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred seventeen dollars ($617) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(57) For a Type 67 - Bed and breakfast inn; per room: the fee through September 30, 2019, is eight dollars ($8) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is ten dollars ($10).(58) (A) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(B) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(59) For a Type 69 - Special on-sale beer and wine theater: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(60) (A) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(61) (A) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 71 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 71 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 71 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(62) (A) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 72 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 72 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 72 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(63) For a Type 73 - Special nonprofit sales: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(64) For a Type 74 - Craft distilled spirits manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(65) (A) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 75 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 75 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 75 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(66) (A) For a Type 76 - On-sale general maritime museum: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Duplicate Type 76: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(67) For a Type 77 - Event permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred forty-six dollars ($146) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(68) (A) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 78 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 78 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 78 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(69) For a Type 79 - Certified farmers market: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty-eight dollars ($58) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(70) For a Type 80 - Special on-sale general; per room: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventeen dollars ($17) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty dollars ($20).(71) For a Type 81 - Wine sales event permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty dollars ($50) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(72) For a Type 82 - Direct shipper permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ten dollars ($10) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty-five dollars ($25).(73) (A) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterers permit in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterers permit in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterers permit in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(74) For a Type 84 - Certified farmers market beer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty-eight dollars ($58) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(75) For a Type 85 - Limited off-sale wine license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventy-eight dollars ($278) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(76) For a Type 86 - Instructional tasting license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred dollars ($300) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(77) (A) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 87 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 87 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 87 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(78) (A) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 88 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 88 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 88 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(c) (1) In addition to the application fee for a new permanent license as specified in subdivision (a), an annual renewal fee, as set forth in subdivision (b), shall accompany the application. The application fee shall be nonrefundable up to the amount of the application fee in paragraph (1) of subdivision (a), as adjusted by subdivisions (d) and (e). The annual fee provided at the time of application shall allow the license to be active for one year from the date of issuance and shall be refundable only in the event that the license application is withdrawn or denied.(2) If an application includes multiple new permanent licenses to be issued at the same premises, the application fee shall be required for only one of the applied-for licenses and an application fee shall not be charged for the remainder of the licenses. In situations involving different license types, the application fee to be paid shall be the highest such fee as specified in subdivision (a). Notwithstanding this provision, the annual renewal fee required pursuant to this subdivision shall be payable for each license.(d) Beginning January 1, 2021, and each January 1 thereafter, the department may adjust each of the fees specified in this section by increasing each fee by an amount not to exceed the percentage that the California Consumer Price Index (California Department of Industrial Relations, Division of Labor Statistics and Research, All Items, Base Period 1982-84=100) for the preceding August 2019, and each August annually thereafter, has increased under the same index over the month of August 2018, which shall be the base period. The department shall not adjust fees pursuant to this section if the balance of the Alcohol Beverage Control Fund at the end of the prior fiscal year is greater than one-fourth of the departments appropriation from the Alcohol Beverage Control Fund for the current fiscal year. No fee shall be decreased pursuant to this adjustment below the fee currently in effect on each December 31. If the accumulation of percentage increases is greater than 8 percent, the department shall not adjust fees without the Legislatures approval through the budget process. In the event that this index is discontinued, the department shall consult with the Department of Finance to convert the increase calculations to an index then available. When approved by the Department of Finance, the new index shall replace the discontinued index.(e) When fees are adjusted pursuant to subdivision (d), the department shall calculate the percentage increase as specified in that subdivision and shall apply this increase to each fee. The increase to each fee shall be rounded to the nearest whole five dollars ($5). The adjusted fee list, to be effective on January 1 of the upcoming year, shall be published by the department on its internet website and transmitted in writing to the Chairperson of the Joint Legislative Budget Committee no later than January 10 of the year before it becomes effective. This adjustment of fees and publication of the adjusted fee list is not subject to the requirements of Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.SEC. 3. Section 12815 of the Government Code is amended to read:12815. (a) The Office of Digital Innovation is hereby established on July 1, 2019, within the Government Operations Agency.(b) There shall be a Director of the Office of Digital Innovation.The director shall be appointed by, and serve at the pleasure of, the Governor. The director shall report to the Secretary of Government Operations. The director shall be responsible for managing the affairs of the office and shall perform all duties, exercise all powers and jurisdiction, and assume and discharge all responsibilities necessary to carry out the purposes of this section. The Governor may appoint people to the office who are exempt from civil service. The total number of exempt positions in the office shall not exceed 20.(c) For the purposes of this section:(1) Director means the Director of the Office of Digital Innovation.(2) Fund means the Digital Innovation Services Revolving Fund.(3) Office means the Office of Digital Innovation.(4) Service delivery means the provision of a service or services, product or products, by a state entity or state entities to persons, other state entities, constitutional state entities, independent state entities, local government entities, federal entities, private entities, or nonprofit entities.(5) State entity means an entity within the executive branch that is under the direct authority of the Governor, including, but not limited to, all departments, boards, bureaus, commissions, councils, and agencies.(d) The offices mission shall be to deliver better government services to the people of California through technology and design. The office will fulfill this mission by:(1) Collaborating with state entities to transform government services. The office will focus on measurably improving services using a deliberate, user-focused approach.(2) Investing in state capabilities to put users first, build iteratively, and let data drive decisions.(3) Rethinking and improving how the state buys digital services.(4) Expanding the use of common platforms, services, and tools.(e) The director shall hire staff to assist in the fulfillment of the duties and responsibilities of the office.(f) The director shall establish a program to improve the states service delivery functions, guided by service delivery best practices.(1) The director is hereby authorized to engage with state entities for the purpose of improving the service delivery functions of those state entities.(2) Engagements shall be formalized in writing and shall identify, at minimum, the roles and responsibilities of both the office and the state entity being engaged by the office.(g) The director may create, update, or publish, in consultation with the appropriate control agency, policies, standards, and procedures for state entities in the State Administrative Manual or Statewide Information Management Manual regarding:(1) Service delivery design, implementation, maintenance, and operations.(2) Service delivery assessments.(3) Service delivery improvement and problem mitigation.(h) The director shall train state supervisors, managers, executives, and other staff in leadership positions regarding service delivery best practices. The director is authorized to require state entity staff to attend training deemed necessary by the director. The director may consult or contract with the Department of Human Resources or the Department of Technology for assistance or delivery of training as needed to fulfill the purposes of this section.(i) Any funds appropriated to the office for the purpose of funding various statewide innovation activities are to be administered by the director for the implementation, support, or assessment of state entities existing or proposed service delivery functions.(j) While engaged with a state entity, office staff shall, in the performance of their duties related to the improvement of service delivery functions, have access to, and the authority to examine or reproduce, any and all records, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component related to the service delivery function being improved by the office.(1) The office shall maintain the confidentiality of, and protect from unauthorized access or disclosure, all records, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component received from, or otherwise accessed from, any state entity engaged with the office in accordance with state law, including, but not limited to, the Information Practices Act of 1977.(2) The director, any employee or former employee of the office, any person or business entity that is contracting with or has contracted with the office and the employees and former employees of that person or business entity shall not divulge or make known to any person not employed by the office in any manner not expressly permitted by law any particulars of any record, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component, the disclosure of which is restricted by law from release to the public. This subdivision shall also apply to the officers and employees of, and any person or business entity that is contracting with, or has contracted with, any state or local governmental agency or publicly created entity, that has assisted the office in the course of any engagement.(3) Any officer, employee, or person who discloses the particulars of any record, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component in violation of this section shall be subject to a civil penalty not to exceed five thousand dollars ($5,000), including the release of any information received pursuant to Section 10850 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or that is otherwise prohibited by law to be disclosed.(4) Upon the completion of each engagement, the office shall dispose of all records, data, and other documentation received, copied, or otherwise in the possession of the office as a result of the engagement that contains personally identifiable information in accordance with state law.(k) The adoption, amendment, or repeal of the policies, procedures, guidelines, or other directives consistent with this chapter are exempted from the rulemaking provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1).(l) (1) Effective July 1, 2020, the Digital Innovation Services Revolving Fund is hereby created within the State Treasury. The fund shall be administered by the director to receive all revenues from the sale of services rendered by the office and all other moneys properly credited to the office from any other source. Notwithstanding Section 13340, until July 1, 2024, moneys in the fund are continuously appropriated to the office without regard to fiscal year to pay all costs arising from this section and rendering of services to state entities, including, but not limited to, employment and compensation of necessary personnel and expenses, such as operating and other expenses of the office, and costs associated with approved information technology projects, and to establish reserves. On and after July 1, 2024, moneys in the fund shall be available upon appropriation of the Legislature. At the discretion of the director, segregated, dedicated accounts within the fund may be established.(2) On or before February 1, 2021, and each February 1 thereafter, the director shall submit a report to the Chairperson of the Joint Legislative Budget Committee, or the chairpersons designee, that includes a summary of the activities of the office and a listing and descriptions of all expenditures made from the fund, as well as all revenues received by the fund, for the prior fiscal year.(3) The fund shall consist of all of the following:(A) Moneys appropriated and made available by the Legislature for the purposes of this section.(B) Donations, endowments, or grants of funds from private or public sources for any purposes of this section. The office and the Controller may establish separate accounts in the fund for the purpose of separating deposits according to their origin or intended purpose.(C) Any other moneys that may be made available to the office from any other source, including the return from investments of moneys by the Treasurer.(m) The office may collect payments from state entities for providing services to client entities. The office may require monthly payments by client entities for the services provided. Pursuant to Section 11255, the Controller shall transfer any amounts so authorized by the office, consistent with the annual budget of each department, to the fund. The office shall notify each affected state entity upon requesting the Controller to make the transfer.(n) Notwithstanding any other law, the Controller may use the moneys in the fund for cashflow loans to the General Fund, as provided in Sections 16310 and 16381.SEC. 4. Section 16418.8 of the Government Code is amended to read:16418.8. (a) The Budget Deficit Savings Account is hereby established in the State Treasury to serve as a supplementary savings account to mitigate the effects of actual or future projected budget deficits in the General Fund or other state funds.(b) (1) Deposits to the Budget Stabilization Account for the 201819 fiscal year, above the amounts required by Section 20 of Article XVI of the California Constitution, as defined and appropriated in the 2018 Budget Act, shall be transferred from the General Fund to the Budget Deficit Savings Account. Based on the updated projection as calculated by the Department of Finance during the 201920 May Revision, upon order of the Director of Finance, no earlier than May 31, 2019, the Controller shall transfer the updated amount from the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the Budget Stabilization Account.(2) Upon order of the Director of Finance, the Controller shall transfer 50 percent of the remaining amounts deposited in the Budget Deficit Savings Account that are not transferred to the Budget Stabilization Account pursuant to subdivision (b) to the Safety Net Reserve Fund, created by Section 11011 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. The remaining 50 percent of the balance shall remain in the Budget Deficit Savings Account.(3) In any fiscal year, the Legislature may transfer funds into the Budget Deficit Savings Account or authorize the transfer of some or all of the balance of the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the General Fund or any other state fund.(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the Controller may use the funds in the Budget Deficit Savings Account for cashflow loans to the General Fund as provided in Sections 16310 and 16381.SEC. 5. Section 19822.3 of the Government Code is amended to read:19822.3. All state agencies shall implement and use the California Automated Travel Expense Reimbursement System (CalATERS) to automate processing of employee travel claims by July 1, 2009, unless the Controller recommends, and the Department of Finance approves, an exemption request. To request an exemption, a department or agency shall submit documentation to the Controller no later than July 1, 2007, to substantiate that the implementation of CalATERS is not feasible or cost-effective for that department or agency. The Department of Finance and the Controller shall jointly report to the Joint Legislative Budget Committee, not later than February 1, 2008, on the exemptions that have been approved and the bases for the exemptions.SEC. 6. Section 20397 of the Government Code is amended to read:20397. State peace officer/firefighter member also includes:(a) The Sergeants-at-Arms of each house of the Legislature who have been designated as peace officers in subdivision (a) of Section 830.36 of the Penal Code.(b) Bailiffs and security coordinators of the judicial branch who have been designated as peace officers in subdivision (b) of Section 830.36 of the Penal Code.A member who is reclassified from state miscellaneous to state peace officer/firefighter pursuant to this section may make an irrevocable election in writing to remain subject to the miscellaneous service retirement benefit and the normal rate of contribution by filing a notice of the election with the board within 90 days of notification by the board. A member who so elects shall be subject to the reduced benefit factors specified in Section 21353 or 21354.1, as applicable, only for service included in the federal system.SEC. 7. Section 100002 of the Government Code is amended to read:100002. (a) (1) There is hereby created within state government the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Investment Board, which shall consist of nine members, with the Treasurer serving as chair, as follows:(A) The Treasurer.(B) The Director of Finance, or the directors designee.(C) The Controller.(D) An individual with retirement savings and investment expertise appointed by the Senate Committee on Rules.(E) An employee representative appointed by the Speaker of the Assembly.(F) A small business representative appointed by the Governor.(G) A public member appointed by the Governor.(H) Two additional members appointed by the Governor.(2) Members of the board appointed by the Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, and the Speaker of the Assembly shall serve at the pleasure of the appointing authority.(b) All members of the board shall serve without compensation. Members of the board shall be reimbursed for necessary travel expenses incurred in connection with their board duties.(c) A board member, program administrator, and other staff of the board shall not do any of the following:(1) Directly or indirectly have any interest in the making of any investment made for the program, or in the gains or profits accruing from any investment made for the program.(2) Borrow any funds or deposits of the trust, or use those funds or deposits in any manner, for themselves or as an agent or partner of others.(3) Become an endorser, surety, or obligor on investments by the board.(d) The board and the program administrator and staff, including contracted administrators and consultants, shall discharge their duties as fiduciaries with respect to the trust solely in the interest of the program participants as follows:(1) For the exclusive purposes of providing benefits to program participants and defraying reasonable expenses of administering the program.(2) By investing with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the circumstances then prevailing that a prudent person acting in a like capacity and familiar with those matters would use in the conduct of an enterprise of a like character and with like aims.(e) The board, subject to its authority and fiduciary duty, shall design and implement the CalSavers Retirement Savings Program.(1) (A) For up to three years following the initial implementation of the program, the board shall establish managed accounts invested in United States Treasuries, myRAs, or similar investments.(B) The board shall have the authority to provide for investment in myRAs, provided that, in accordance with the myRA provisions, myRA contributions and investment returns shall only be used for myRA investments and to make distributions to, or for the benefit of, participants and shall not be used to pay any costs of administration.(2) During period described in paragraph (1), the board shall develop and implement an investment policy that defines the programs investment objectives and shall establish policies and procedures enabling investment objectives to be met in a prudent manner. The board shall seek to minimize participant fees and strive to implement program features that provide maximum possible income replacement balanced with appropriate risk in an IRA-based environment. The policy shall describe the investment options available to holders of individual savings accounts established as part of the program. Investment options may encompass a range of risk and return opportunities and allow for a rate of return commensurate with an appropriate level of risk to meet the investment objectives stated in the policy.(3) After the period described in paragraph (1) has expired, the board shall annually prepare and adopt a written statement of investment policy that includes a risk management and oversight program. The board shall consider the statement of investment policy and any changes in the investment policy at a public hearing.(4) The risk management and oversight program shall include an effective risk management system to monitor the risk levels of the CalSavers Retirement Savings Program investment portfolio and ensure that the risks taken are prudent and properly managed. The program shall be managed to provide an integrated process for overall risk management on both a consolidated and disaggregated basis, and to monitor investment returns as well as risk to determine if the risks taken are adequately compensated compared to applicable performance benchmarks and standards.(f) The board shall approve an investment management entity or entities, the costs of which shall be paid out of funds held in the trust and shall not be attributed to the administrative costs of the board in operating the trust. Not later than 30 days after the close of each month, the board shall place on file for public inspection during business hours a report with respect to investments made pursuant to this section and a report of deposits in financial institutions.SEC. 8. Section 100006 of the Government Code is repealed.SEC. 9. Section 11495 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read:11495. (a) The funds received by the law enforcement agencies under Section 11489 shall be deposited into an account maintained by the Controller, county auditor, or city treasurer. These funds shall be distributed to the law enforcement agencies at their request. The Controller, auditor, or treasurer shall maintain a record of these disbursements which records shall be open to public inspection, subject to the privileges contained in Sections 1040, 1041, and 1042 of the Evidence Code.(b) Upon request of the governing body of the jurisdiction in which the distributions are made, the Controller, auditor, or treasurer shall conduct an audit of these funds and their use. In the case of the state, the governing body shall be the Legislature.(c) Each year, the Attorney General shall publish a report that sets forth the following information for the state, each county, each city, and each city and county:(1) The number of forfeiture actions initiated and administered by state or local agencies under California law, the number of cases adopted by the federal government, and the number of cases initiated by a joint federal-state action that were prosecuted under federal law.(2) The number of cases and the administrative number or court docket number of each case for which forfeiture was ordered or declared.(3) The number of suspects charged with a controlled substance violation.(4) The number of alleged criminal offenses that were under federal or state law.(5) The disposition of cases, including no charge, dropped charges, acquittal, plea agreement, jury conviction, or other.(6) The value of the assets forfeited.(7) The recipients of the forfeited assets, the amounts received, and the date of the disbursement.(d) The Attorney General shall develop administrative guidelines for the collection and publication of the information required in subdivision (c).(e) The Attorney Generals report shall cover the calendar year and shall be made no later than July 1 of each year.SEC. 10. Section 1019.2 of the Labor Code is amended to read:1019.2. (a) Except as otherwise required by federal law, a public or private employer, or a person acting on behalf of a public or private employer, shall not reverify the employment eligibility of a current employee at a time or in a manner not required by Section 1324a(b) of Title 8 of the United States Code.(b) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), an employer who violates subdivision (a) shall be subject to a civil penalty of up to ten thousand dollars ($10,000). The penalty shall be recoverable by the Labor Commissioner.(2) The actions of an employer that violate subdivision (a) and result in a civil penalty under paragraph (1) shall not also form the basis for liability or penalty under Section 1019.1.(c) Subdivision (a) shall be interpreted and applied consistent with federal law and regulations. This section does not prohibit an employer from doing any of the following:(1) Reverifying an employees employment authorization in a time and manner consistent with Section 274a.2(b)(1)(vii) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations.(2) Taking any lawful action to review the employment authorization of an employee upon knowing that the employee is, or has become, unauthorized to be employed in the United States, consistent with Section 1324a(a)(2) of Title 8 of the United States Code, including in response to specific and detailed information from any agency within the United States Department of Homeland Security indicating that an employee is not authorized to be employed in the United States.(3) Reminding an employee, at least 90 days before the date reverification is required, that the employee will be required to present a document identified in List A or a combination of one document from List B and one document from List C, as required by the I-9 Employment Eligibility Verification Form, showing continued employment authorization on the date that their current employment authorization will expire or on the date that their current documentation will expire, whichever date is sooner.(4) Taking any lawful action to correct errors or omissions in a missing or incomplete I-9 Employment Eligibility Verification Form.(d) In accordance with state and federal law, nothing in this chapter shall be interpreted, construed, or applied to restrict or limit an employers compliance with a memorandum of understanding governing the use of the federal E-Verify system.(e) For purposes of this section, the term knowing is defined as set forth in Section 274a.1(l) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations and as interpreted by applicable federal rules, regulations, and controlling federal case law. The term knowing includes not only actual knowledge, but also knowledge that may fairly be inferred through notice of certain facts and circumstances that would lead a person, through the exercise of reasonable care, to know about a certain condition. Constructive knowledge may be found under the circumstances described in Section 274a.1(l)(2) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations and may not be inferred from an employees foreign appearance or accent.SEC. 11.Section 1019.3 is added to the Labor Code, to read:1019.3.SEC. 11. Section 1019.4 is added to the Labor Code, to read:1019.4. For purposes of this chapter, the terms reverify or reverifying mean the actions described in Section 274a.2(b)(1)(vii) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations. These terms shall be interpreted consistently with any applicable federal rules, regulations, and controlling federal case law.SEC. 12. Section 6126 of the Penal Code is amended to read:6126. (a) The Inspector General shall be responsible for contemporaneous oversight of internal affairs investigations and the disciplinary process of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, pursuant to Section 6133 under policies to be developed by the Inspector General.(b) When requested by the Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, or the Speaker of the Assembly, the Inspector General shall initiate an audit or review of policies, practices, and procedures of the department. The Inspector General may, under policies developed by the Inspector General, initiate an audit or review on the Inspector Generals own accord. Following a completed audit or review, the Inspector General may perform a followup audit or review to determine what measures the department implemented to address the Inspector Generals findings and to assess the effectiveness of those measures.(c) (1) Upon completion of an audit or review pursuant to subdivision (b), the Inspector General shall prepare a complete written report, which may be held as confidential and disclosed in confidence, along with all underlying materials the Inspector General deems appropriate, to the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation and to the requesting entity in subdivision (b), where applicable.(2) The Inspector General shall also prepare a public report. When necessary, the public report shall differ from the complete written report in the respect that the Inspector General shall have the discretion to redact or otherwise protect the names of individuals, specific locations, or other facts that, if not redacted, might hinder prosecution related to the review, compromise the safety and security of staff, inmates, or members of the public, or where disclosure of the information is otherwise prohibited by law, and to decline to produce any of the underlying materials. Copies of public reports shall be posted on the Office of the Inspector Generals internet website.(d) The Inspector General shall, during the course of an audit or review, identify areas of full and partial compliance, or noncompliance, with departmental policies and procedures, specify deficiencies in the completion and documentation of processes, and recommend corrective actions, including, but not limited to, additional training, additional policies, or changes in policy, as well as any other findings or recommendations that the Inspector General deems appropriate.(e) The Inspector General, pursuant to Section 6126.6, shall review the Governors candidates for appointment to serve as warden for the states adult correctional institutions and as superintendents for the states juvenile facilities.(f) The Inspector General shall conduct an objective, clinically appropriate, and metric-oriented medical inspection program to periodically review delivery of medical care at each state prison.(g) The Inspector General shall conduct an objective, metric-oriented oversight and inspection program to periodically review delivery of the reforms identified in the document released by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation in April 2012, entitled The Future of California Corrections: A Blueprint to Save Billions of Dollars, End Federal Court Oversight, and Improve the Prison System (the blueprint), including, but not limited to, the following specific goals and reforms described by the blueprint:(1) Whether the department has increased the percentage of inmates served in rehabilitative programs to 70 percent of the departments target population prior to their release.(2) The establishment of an adherence to the standardized staffing model at each institution.(3) The establishment of an adherence to the new inmate classification score system.(4) The establishment of and adherence to the new prison gang management system, including changes to the departments current policies for identifying prison-based gang members and associates and the use and conditions associated with the departments security housing units.(5) The implementation of and adherence to the Comprehensive Housing Plan described in the blueprint.(h) The Inspector General shall, in consultation with the Department of Finance, develop a methodology for producing a workload budget to be used for annually adjusting the budget of the Office of the Inspector General, beginning with the budget for the 200506 fiscal year.(i) The Inspector General shall provide contemporaneous oversight of grievances that fall within the departments process for reviewing and investigating inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances, examining compliance with regulations, department policy, and best practices. This contemporaneous oversight shall be completed within the Inspector Generals budget excluding resources that, beginning in the Budget Act of 2019, were provided to restore the Inspector Generals ability to initiate an audit or review pursuant to subdivision (a). The contemporaneous oversight shall be completed in a way that does not unnecessarily slow the departments review and investigation of inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances. The Inspector General shall issue reports annually, beginning in 2021.(j) The Inspector General shall monitor the departments process for reviewing uses of force and shall issue reports annually.SEC. 13. Section 6126.2 of the Penal Code is amended to read:6126.2. The Inspector General shall not hire any person known to be considered a suspect or subject in an investigation being conducted by any federal, state, or local agency.SEC. 14. Section 6126.3 of the Penal Code is amended to read:6126.3. (a) The Inspector General shall not destroy any papers or memoranda used to support a completed review within three years after a report is released.(b) Except as provided in subdivision (c), all books, papers, records, and correspondence of the office pertaining to its work are public records subject to Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code and shall be filed at any of the regularly maintained offices of the Inspector General.(c) The following books, papers, records, and correspondence of the Office of the Inspector General pertaining to its work are not public records subject to Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code, nor shall they be subject to discovery pursuant to any provision of Title 3 (commencing with Section 1985) of Part 4 of the Code of Civil Procedure or Chapter 7 (commencing with Section 19570) of Part 2 of Division 5 of Title 2 of the Government Code in any manner:(1) All reports, papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents that are otherwise exempt from disclosure pursuant to the provisions of subdivision (d) of Section 6126.5, Section 6126.6, subdivision (c) of Section 6128, subdivision (c) of Section 6126, or all other applicable laws regarding confidentiality, including, but not limited to, the California Public Records Act, the Public Safety Officers Procedural Bill of Rights, the Information Practices Act of 1977, the Confidentiality of Medical Information Act of 1977, and the provisions of Section 832.7, relating to the disposition notification for complaints against peace officers.(2) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to any audit or review that has not been completed.(3) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to internal discussions between the Inspector General and the Inspector Generals staff, or between staff members of the Inspector General, or any personal notes of the Inspector General or the Inspector Generals staff.(4) All identifying information, and any personal papers or correspondence from any person requesting assistance from the Inspector General, except in those cases where the Inspector General determines that disclosure of the information is necessary in the interests of justice.(5) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to contemporaneous public oversight pursuant to Section 6133 or subdivision (i) or (j) of Section 6126.SEC. 15. Section 6126.5 of the Penal Code is amended to read:6126.5. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, the Inspector General during regular business hours or at any other time determined necessary by the Inspector General, shall have access to and authority to examine and reproduce any and all books, accounts, reports, vouchers, correspondence files, documents, and other records, and to examine the bank accounts, money, or other property of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation in connection with duties authorized by this chapter. Any officer or employee of any agency or entity having these records or property in their possession or under their control shall permit access to, and examination and reproduction thereof consistent with the provisions of this section, upon the request of the Inspector General or the Inspector Generals authorized representative.(b) In connection with duties authorized by this chapter, the Inspector General or the Inspector Generals authorized representative shall have access to the records and property of any public or private entity or person subject to review or regulation by the public agency or public entity to the same extent that employees or officers of that agency or public entity have access. No provision of law, memorandum of understanding, or any other agreement entered into between the employing entity and the employee or the employees representative providing for the confidentiality or privilege of any records or property shall prevent disclosure pursuant to subdivision (a). Access, examination, and reproduction consistent with the provisions of this section shall not result in the waiver of any confidentiality or privilege regarding any records or property.(c) Any officer or person who fails or refuses to permit access, examination, or reproduction, as required by this section, is guilty of a misdemeanor.(d) The Inspector General may require any employee of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation to be interviewed on a confidential basis. Any employee requested to be interviewed shall comply and shall have time afforded by the appointing authority for the purpose of an interview with the Inspector General or the Inspector Generals designee. The Inspector General shall have the discretion to redact the name or other identifying information of any person interviewed from any public report issued by the Inspector General, where required by law or where the failure to redact the information may hinder prosecution or an action in a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding, or where the Inspector General determines that disclosure of the information is not in the interests of justice. It is not the purpose of these communications to address disciplinary action or grievance procedures that may routinely occur. When conducting an investigation into allegations that an employee of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation engaged in misconduct, the Inspector General shall comply with Sections 3303, 3307, 3307.5, 3308, 3309, and subdivisions (a) to (d), inclusive, of Section 3309.5 of the Government Code, except that the Inspector General shall not be subject to the provisions of any memorandum of understanding or other agreement entered into between the employing entity and the employee or the employees representative that is in conflict with, or adds to the requirements of, Sections 3303, 3307, 3307.5, 3308, 3309, and subdivisions (a) to (d), inclusive, of Section 3309.5 of the Government Code.SEC. 16. Section 6133 of the Penal Code is amended to read:6133. (a) The Office of the Inspector General shall be responsible for contemporaneous public oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation investigations and staff grievance inquiries conducted by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations Office of Internal Affairs. To facilitate oversight of the departments internal affairs investigations, the Office of the Inspector General shall have staff physically colocated with the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations Office of Internal Affairs, within a reasonable timeframe and without any undue delays. The Office of the Inspector General shall also be responsible for advising the public regarding the adequacy of each investigation, and whether discipline of the subject of the investigation is warranted. The Office of the Inspector General shall have discretion to provide public oversight of other Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation personnel investigations as needed.(b) (1) The Office of the Inspector General shall issue regular reports, no less than annually, to the Governor and the Legislature summarizing its recommendations concerning its oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation allegations of internal misconduct and use of force. The Office of the Inspector General shall also issue regular reports, no less than semiannually, summarizing its oversight of Office of Internal Affairs investigations pursuant to subdivision (a). The reports shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:(A) Data on the number, type, and disposition of complaints made against correctional officers and staff.(B) A synopsis of each matter reviewed by the Office of the Inspector General.(C) An assessment of the quality of the investigation, the appropriateness of any disciplinary charges, the Office of the Inspector Generals recommendations regarding the disposition in the case and when founded, the level of discipline afforded, and the degree to which the agencys authorities agreed with the Office of the Inspector General recommendations regarding disposition and level of discipline.(D) The report of any settlement and whether the Office of the Inspector General concurred with the settlement.(E) The extent to which any discipline was modified after imposition.(2) The reports shall be in a form that does not identify the agency employees involved in the alleged misconduct.(3) The reports shall be posted on the Inspector Generals internet website and otherwise made available to the public upon their release to the Governor and the Legislature.SEC. 17. Section 27150.2 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:27150.2. (a) Stations providing referee functions pursuant to Section 44036 of the Health and Safety Code shall provide for the testing of vehicular exhaust systems and the issuance of certificates of compliance only for those vehicles that have received a citation for a violation of Section 27150 or 27151.(b) A certificate of compliance for a vehicular exhaust system shall be issued pursuant to subdivision (a) if the vehicle complies with Sections 27150 and 27151. Exhaust systems installed on motor vehicles, other than motorcycles, with a manufacturers gross vehicle weight rating of less than 6,000 pounds comply with Sections 27150 and 27151 if they emit no more than 95 dbA when tested in accordance with Society of Automotive Engineers Standard J1492 Oct 2008.(c) An exhaust system certificate of compliance issued pursuant to subdivision (a) shall identify, to the extent possible, the make, model, year, license number, and vehicle identification number of the vehicle tested, and the make and model of the exhaust system installed on the vehicle.(d) The station shall charge a fee for the exhaust system certificate of compliance issued pursuant to subdivision (a). The fee charged shall be calculated to recover the costs incurred by the Department of Consumer Affairs to implement this section. The fees charged by the station shall be deposited in the Vehicle Inspection and Repair Fund established by Section 44062 of the Health and Safety Code.(e) Vehicular exhaust systems are exempt from the requirements of Sections 27150 and 27151 if compliance with those sections, or the regulations adopted pursuant thereto, would cause an unreasonable hardship without resulting in a sufficient corresponding benefit with respect to noise level control.SEC. 18. Section 27151 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:27151. (a) A person shall not modify the exhaust system of a motor vehicle in a manner which will amplify or increase the noise emitted by the motor of the vehicle so that the vehicle is not in compliance with the provisions of Section 27150 or exceeds the noise limits established for the type of vehicle in Article 2.5 (commencing with Section 27200). A person shall not operate a motor vehicle with an exhaust system so modified.(b) For the purposes of exhaust systems installed on motor vehicles with a manufacturers gross vehicle weight rating of less than 6,000 pounds, other than motorcycles, a sound level of 95 dbA or less, when tested in accordance with Society of Automotive Engineers Standard J1492 Oct 2008, complies with this section. Motor vehicle exhaust systems or parts thereof include, but are not limited to, nonoriginal exhaust equipment.SEC. 19. Section 40610 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:40610. (a) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), if, after an arrest, accident investigation, or other law enforcement action, it appears that a violation has occurred involving a registration, license, all-terrain vehicle safety certificate, or mechanical requirement of this code, and none of the disqualifying conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist and the investigating officer decides to take enforcement action, the officer shall prepare, in triplicate, and the violator shall sign, a written notice containing the violators promise to correct the alleged violation and to deliver proof of correction of the violation to the issuing agency.(2) If a person is arrested for a violation of Section 4454, and none of the disqualifying conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist, the arresting officer shall prepare, in triplicate, and the violator shall sign, a written notice containing the violators promise to correct the alleged violation and to deliver proof of correction of the violation to the issuing agency. In lieu of issuing a notice to correct violation pursuant to this section, the officer may issue a notice to appear, as specified in Section 40522.(b) Pursuant to subdivision (a), a notice to correct violation shall be issued as provided in this section or a notice to appear shall be issued as provided in Section 40522, unless the officer finds any of the following:(1) Evidence of fraud or persistent neglect.(2) The violation presents an immediate safety hazard.(3) The violator does not agree to, or cannot, promptly correct the violation.(4) The violation cited is of subdivision (a) of Section 27151 for a motorcycle.(c) If any of the conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist, the procedures specified in this section or Section 40522 are inapplicable, and the officer may take other appropriate enforcement action.(d) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision (a), the notice to correct violation shall be on a form approved by the Judicial Council and, in addition to the owners or operators address and identifying information, shall contain an estimate of the reasonable time required for correction and proof of correction of the particular defect, not to exceed 30 days, or 90 days for the all-terrain vehicle safety certificate.SEC. 20. The sum of three million four hundred ninety-nine thousand dollars ($3,499,000) is hereby appropriated from the General Fund to the Office of the Inspector General for expenditure in the 201920 fiscal year in augmentation of Item 0552-001-0001 of Section 2 of the Budget Act of 2019 to fund independent audits of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation and oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations process for reviewing and investigating inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances. SEC. 21. This act is a bill providing for appropriations related to the Budget Bill within the meaning of subdivision (e) of Section 12 of Article IV of the California Constitution, has been identified as related to the budget in the Budget Bill, and shall take effect immediately.
1+Amended IN Senate September 06, 2019 CALIFORNIA LEGISLATURE 20192020 REGULAR SESSION Assembly Bill No. 112Introduced by Assembly Member Ting Committee on Budget (Assembly Members Ting (Chair), Arambula, Bloom, Chiu, Cooper, Frazier, Cristina Garcia, Jones-Sawyer, Limn, McCarty, Medina, Mullin, Muratsuchi, Nazarian, ODonnell, Ramos, Reyes, Luz Rivas, Blanca Rubio, Mark Stone, Weber, Wicks, and Wood) December 03, 2018An act relating to the Budget Act of 2019. An act to amend Section 23320 of the Business and Professions Code, to amend Sections 12815, 16418.8, 19822.3, 20397, and 100002 of, and to repeal Section 100006 of, the Government Code, to amend Section 11495 of the Health and Safety Code, to amend Section 1019.2 of, and to add Section 1019.3 to, the Labor Code, to amend Sections 6126, 6126.2, 6126.3, 6126.5, and 6133 of the Penal Code, and to amend Sections 27150.2, 27151, and 40610 of the Vehicle Code, relating to state government, and making an appropriation therefor, to take effect immediately, bill related to the budget.LEGISLATIVE COUNSEL'S DIGESTAB 112, as amended, Committee on Budget. Budget Act of 2019. State government.(1) The Alcoholic Beverage Control Act, administered by the Department of Alcoholic Beverage Control, regulates the granting of licenses for the manufacture, distribution, and sale of alcoholic beverages within the state. The act provides for the issuance of licenses for which various fees, including annual fees, are charged depending upon the type of license issued.This bill would make a correction in the provisions that specify annual licensing fees.(2) Existing law creates the Office of Digital Innovation, which is headed by its director, with the mission of delivering better government services to the people of California through technology and design, as specified. Existing law creates the Digital Innovation Services Revolving Fund, which receives all revenues from the sale of services by the office and all other moneys properly credited to the office, for the support of the offices activities. Existing law requires the office to dispose of all records, data, and other documentation in accordance with applicable state law upon completion of each engagement. Existing law requires the director, beginning on or before February 1, 2021, to submit an annual report to the Chairperson of the Joint Legislative Budget Committee or that persons designee that includes a listing and descriptions of all expenditures made from the fund as well as all revenues received by the fund.This bill would delete the requirement that the Office of Digital Innovation dispose of all records, data, and other documentation upon completion of an engagement. The bill would require that the above-described report also include a summary of the activities of the office. The bill also would make technical, nonsubstantive changes to these provisions.(3) Existing provisions of the California Constitution, approved by the electors on November, 4, 2014, establish the Budget Stabilization Account in the General Fund and require the Controller, on or before October 1 of the 201516 fiscal year and each fiscal year thereafter, to transfer from the General Fund to the Budget Stabilization Account amounts that include a sum equal to 1.5% of the estimated amount of General Fund revenues for that fiscal year. These existing provisions prohibit for each fiscal year transfers to the account that would cause the balance in the account to exceed 10% of the amount of General Fund proceeds of taxes for the fiscal year, as estimated by the Department of Finance. These existing provisions authorize, for any fiscal year, General Fund proceeds of taxes that, but for the above prohibition, would have been transferred to the account, to be expended only for infrastructure, as prescribed. Existing law establishes the Budget Deficit Savings Account in the State Treasury and requires deposits to the Budget Stabilization Account for the 201819 fiscal year, above the amounts required by existing provisions of the California Constitution, as defined and appropriated in the 2018 Budget Act, to be transferred from the General Fund to the Budget Deficit Savings Account. Existing law requires the Controller to transfer certain moneys from the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the Budget Stabilization Account, based on an updated projection as calculated by the department, upon order of that department no earlier than May 31, 2019. Existing law requires the Controller, upon order of the department, to transfer 50% of the remaining amounts deposited in the Budget Deficit Savings Account that are not transferred to the Budget Stabilization Account to the Safety Net Reserve Fund in the State Treasury.This bill would specify that the purpose of the Budget Deficit Savings Account is to serve as a supplementary savings account to mitigate the effects of actual or future projected budget deficits in the General Fund or other state funds. The bill would also authorize the Legislature, in any fiscal year, to transfer funds into the Budget Deficit Savings Account or authorize the transfer of some or all of the balance of the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the General Fund or any other state fund.(4) Under existing law and bargaining agreements, the state reimburses employees for all necessary and actual expenses incurred during travel on official state business. Existing law requires state agencies to implement and use the California Automated Travel Expense Reimbursement System (CalATERS) established by the Controller to process travel claims, unless an exemption request is approved. Existing law requires payment for the services of the Controller in implementing these provisions to be made by direct transfer, subject to specified limitations.This bill would repeal the provisions requiring payment for the services of the Controller to state agencies in implementing CalATERS to be made by direct transfer.(5) The Public Employees Retirement Law creates the Public Employees Retirement System (PERS) for the purpose of providing pension benefits to state employees and employees of contracting agencies and prescribes the rights and duties of members of the system and their beneficiaries. PERS provides a defined benefit to members of the system, based on final compensation, credited service, and age at retirement, subject to certain variations. Existing law prescribes the officers and employees of the Assembly and the Senate, including a sergeant at arms for each house. Existing law classifies the sergeants at arms of the houses as peace officers for purposes of making arrests and enforcing the law. Existing law creates different membership categories in PERS for the purpose of prescribing benefits and contributions, including the classification of state peace officer/firefighter member.Existing law generally includes the sergeants at arms of the Assembly and the Senate within the state peace officer/firefighter member classification, but excepts the Chief Sergeant-at-Arms of the Senate from this classification. Existing law creates the Public Employees Retirement Fund as a trust fund to be expended only for purposes related to the system and its administration, as specified, and provides that the fund is continuously appropriated to these ends.This bill would delete the exception for the Chief Sergeant-at-Arms of the Senate, thereby including the Chief Sergeant-at-Arms of the Senate within the state peace officer/firefighter member classification. By increasing moneys deposited in a continuously appropriated fund, the bill would make an appropriation.(6) Existing law, the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Trust Act, establishes the CalSavers Retirement Savings Program to be administered by the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Investment Board. Existing law requires eligible employers to offer a payroll deposit retirement savings arrangement so that eligible employees may contribute a portion of their salary or wages to a retirement savings program account in the program, as specified. Existing law requires a specified percentage of the annual salary or wages of an eligible employee participating in the program to be deposited in the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Trust, which is segregated into a program fund and an administrative fund, both of which are continuously appropriated to the board for purposes of the act. Existing law authorizes the board to establish a Gain and Loss Reserve Account within the program fund to allocate interest at the stated interest rate for program years in which the board determines that the stated interest rate cannot be met from investment earnings.This bill would eliminate the authorization for the board to establish a Gain and Loss Reserve Account within the program fund and would make additional conforming changes. (7) Existing law subjects certain property to forfeiture, including controlled substances and equipment used to process controlled substances. Existing law requires the Attorney General to publish a report on the number of forfeiture actions, the value of the assets forfeited, and the recipients of the forfeited assets. Existing law requires the Attorney Generals report to cover the calendar year and to be made no later than March 1 of each year.This bill would instead require the report to be made no later than July 1 of each year.(8) Existing law imposes various requirements on public and private employers with regard to federal immigration agency worksite enforcement actions. Existing law, except as required by federal law, prohibits an employer from reverifying the employment eligibility of a current employee at a time or in a manner not required by specified federal law. Existing law prescribes a penalty of up to $10,000 for a violation of this prohibition to be recoverable by the Labor Commissioner.This bill would require the above reverification prohibition to be interpreted and applied consistent with federal law and regulations, and would, among other things, specify that the prohibition does not prohibit an employer from taking any lawful action to review the employment authorization of an employee upon knowing that the employee is, or has become, unauthorized to be employed in the United States.(9) Existing law establishes the Office of the Inspector General that is responsible, among other things, for contemporaneous oversight of internal affairs investigations and the disciplinary process of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation. Existing law prohibits the Inspector General from hiring a person known to be directly or indirectly involved in an open internal affairs investigation.This bill would modify the prohibition on hiring to instead prohibit the Inspector General from hiring a person considered a suspect or subject in an investigation. The bill would authorize the Inspector General, among other things, to initiate an audit or review of the departments internal affairs investigations and disciplinary process. The bill would require the Inspector General to provide contemporaneous oversight of grievances that fall within the departments process for reviewing and investigating inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances, examining compliance with regulations, department policy, and best practices. The bill would subject the Inspector General to specified standards of conduct during a confidential interview of an employee of the department. The bill would require the Inspector General to issue specified reports on the oversight, audits, and reviews, as specified.The bill would appropriate $3,499,000 from the General Fund to the Office of the Inspector General to conduct independent audits of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation and to provide oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations process for reviewing and investigating inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances.(10) Existing law requires every motor vehicle subject to registration to be equipped with an adequate muffler in constant operation and properly maintained to prevent any excessive or unusual noise and prohibits a muffler or exhaust system from being equipped with a cutout, bypass, or similar device. Existing law further prohibits the modification of an exhaust system of a motor vehicle in a manner that will amplify or increase the noise emitted by the motor of the vehicle so that the vehicle exceeds existing noise limits when tested in accordance with specified standards. Under existing law, if, after an arrest, accident investigation, or other law enforcement action, it appears that a violation has occurred involving, among other things, vehicle equipment, the arresting officer is required to permit the arrested person to execute a notice containing a promise to correct the violation and to deliver proof of correction to the issuing agency, unless a disqualifying condition exists. Under existing law, a violation of the noise requirements related to mufflers and exhaust systems is a disqualifying condition.This bill would delete a violation of the noise requirements related to mufflers and exhaust systems from the list of disqualifying conditions, thereby making a person who is arrested for one of these offenses eligible to execute the notice described above, except if the violation consists of modifying the exhaust system of a motorcycle in a manner that will cause it to exceed noise limits. The bill would update the noise level testing standards described above to reflect a more recent standard.(11) This bill would declare that it is to take effect immediately as a bill providing for appropriations related to the Budget Bill.This bill would express the intent of the Legislature to enact statutory changes relating to the Budget Act of 2019.Digest Key Vote: MAJORITY Appropriation: NOYES Fiscal Committee: NOYES Local Program: NO Bill TextThe people of the State of California do enact as follows:SECTION 1. The Legislature finds and declares the following:(a) Immigrants are valuable and essential members of the California community. Almost one in three Californians is foreign-born and one in two children in California has at least one immigrant parent.(b) California has the fifth largest economy in the world. Californias diverse workforce is critical to Californias vibrant economy.(c) California has a strong interest in ensuring that employers do not discriminate against their employees on the basis of their race, ethnicity, national origin, or citizenship status. Guarding against discrimination or perceived discrimination in the workplace is in the best interest of the health of employees throughout the state and is consistent with state and federal law.(d) Limiting unnecessary reverification reduces the likelihood that reverification will be misused to intimidate, retaliate, or discriminate against employees who are lawfully authorized to be employed in the United States. Limiting unnecessary reverification also fosters trust between employers and their employees, and furthers Californias interest in promoting a diverse workforce.(e) Employers have obligations under federal law to not employ unauthorized workers, with which California law does not interfere. Federal law, however does not intend to impose a continuing verification obligation on employers (see House Report No. 99-682(I), at p. 57).(f) Sections 10 and 11 of this act are intended to clarify that Section 1019.2 of the Labor Code is not in any way intended to interfere with any employers obligations under federal law. Section 1019.2 of the Labor Code is also not intended to prohibit employer actions that may be authorized under federal law.SEC. 2. Section 23320 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:23320. (a) An applicant for a new permanent license, which shall not include duplicate licenses, shall accompany the application with the application fee as specified in this division:(1) The license application fee for a new permanent license shall be nine hundred five dollars ($905), except as otherwise specified.(2) Applicants for a new permanent license of the following types shall accompany the application with a fee of fifteen thousand eight hundred thirty-five dollars ($15,835):(A) Off-sale general (Type 21).(B) On-sale general - eating place (Type 47), on-sale general public premises (Type 48), special on-sale general (Type 57), special on-sale general for-profit theater (Type 71 and Type 72), brewpub-restaurant (Type 75), caterers (Type 83), neighborhood restricted special on-sale (Type 87), and special on-sale general license for historic cemetery (Type 88).(3) Applicants for a new permanent license of the following types shall accompany the application with a fee as indicated:(A) Twelve thousand dollars ($12,000) for a wine, food and art cultural museum (Type 78).(B) Six thousand dollars ($6,000) for an on-sale general - eating place on public property (Type 47) and for an on-sale general restrictive service (Type 70).(C) Two thousand dollars ($2,000) for an on-sale general dockside (Type 62).(D) One thousand dollars ($1,000) for a special on-sale general theater (Type 64).(E) One hundred dollars ($100) for an out-of-state beer manufacturer certificate (Type 26), for a distilled spirits shipper certificate (Type 28), and for a direct shipper permit (Type 82).(F) One hundred dollars ($100) for a still (Type 6).(b) The following are the types of licenses and the annual fees to be charged therefor:(1) (A) For a Type 01 - Beer manufacturer that produces more than 60,000 barrels per year: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one thousand five hundred thirty-one dollars ($1,531) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand eight hundred ninety dollars ($1,890).(B) For a Duplicate Type 01: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(2) (A) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 gallons or less: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-one dollars ($71) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(B) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 - 20,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred thirty-two dollars ($132) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(C) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 20,000 - 100,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(D) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 100,000 - 200,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fourteen dollars ($314) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(E) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 200,000 - 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred sixty-six dollars ($466) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); for each additional 1,000,000 gallons over 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred thirteen dollars ($313) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(G) For a Duplicate Type 02: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(3) (A) For a Type 03 - Brandy manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eleven dollars ($311) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(B) For a Duplicate Type 03: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(4) For a Type 04 - Distilled spirits manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(5) For a Type 05 - Distilled spirits manufacturers agent: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(6) For a Type 06 - Still: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(7) For a Type 07 - Rectifier: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(8) For a Type 08 - Wine rectifier: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(9) For a Type 09 - Beer and wine importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(10) For a Type 10 - Beer and wine importers general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred forty dollars ($340) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(11) For a Type 11 - Brandy importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(12) For a Type 12 - Distilled spirits importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(13) For a Type 13 - Distilled spirits importers general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(14) (A) For a Type 14 - Public warehouse: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(B) For a Duplicate Type 14: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one dollar ($1) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty-five dollars ($25).(15) For a Type 15 - Customs broker: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(16) For a Type 16 - Wine broker: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(17) For a Type 17 - Beer and wine wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred forty dollars ($340) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(18) For a Type 18 - Distilled spirits wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(19) For a Type 19 - Industrial alcohol dealer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(20) For a Type 20 - Off-sale beer and wine: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventy-eight dollars ($278) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(21) For a Type 21 - Off-sale general: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred seventeen dollars ($617) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(22) (A) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 gallons or less: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-one dollars ($71) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(B) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 - 20,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred thirty-two dollars ($132) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(C) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 20,000 gallons - 100,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(D) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 100,000 - 200,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fourteen dollars ($314) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(E) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 200,000 - 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred sixty-six dollars ($466) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); for each additional 1,000,000 gallons over 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred thirteen dollars ($313) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(23) (A) For a Type 23 - Small beer manufacturer that produces 60,000 barrels or less a year: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred eighty-four dollars ($184) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(B) For a Duplicate Type 23: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(24) For a Type 24 - Distilled spirits rectifiers general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(25) For a Type 25 - California brandy wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(26) For a Type 26 - Out-of-state beer manufacturer certificate: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-nine dollars ($79) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(27) For a Type 27 - California winegrowers agent: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(28) For a Type 28 - Out-of-state distilled spirits shipper certificate: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-nine dollars ($79) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(29) For a Type 29 - Winegrape grower storage: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety dollars ($90) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(30) For a Type 40 - On-sale beer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(31) For a Type 41 - On-sale beer and wine eating place: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eighty-four dollars ($384) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(32) For a Type 42 - On-sale beer and wine pub premises: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(33) For a Type 43 - On-sale beer and wine train: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(34) For a Type 44 - On-sale beer and wine fishing party boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(35) For a Type 45 - On-sale beer and wine boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(36) For a Type 46 - On-sale beer and wine airplane: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(37) (A) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 47 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 47 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 47 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(38) (A) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 48 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 48 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 48 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(39) (A) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred forty-seven dollars ($247) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred ninety-four dollars ($494) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(C) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred forty-one dollars ($741) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(D) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred seventy-six dollars ($176) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(E) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fifty dollars ($350) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(F) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred twenty-six dollars ($526) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(G) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fifty-three dollars ($153) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(H) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred six dollars ($306) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(I) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred fifty-eight dollars ($458) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(J) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred seventy-six dollars ($176) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(K) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fifty dollars ($350) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(L) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred twenty-six dollars ($526) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two six hundred fifteen fifty dollars ($650).(M) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred twenty-five dollars ($125).(N) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seven dollars ($207) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).(O) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eleven dollars ($311) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred seventy-five dollars ($375).(P) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is eighty-one dollars ($81) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(Q) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-six dollars ($166) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(R) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred forty-seven dollars ($247) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(40) (A) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(41) (A) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(42) (A) For a Type 52 - Veterans club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Type 52 - Veterans club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 52 - Veterans club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(43) (A) For a Type 53 - On-sale general train: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Duplicate Type 53: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(44) For a Type 54 - On-sale general boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty-three dollars ($563) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(45) (A) For a Type 55 - On-sale general license for airplanes: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty-three dollars ($563) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Duplicate Type 55 for air common carriers: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(46) (A) For a Type 56 - On-sale general license for vessels of more than 1,000 tons burden: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Duplicate Type 56: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(47) (A) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 57 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 57 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 57 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(48) (A) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; on-sale general or on-sale beer and wine: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred forty-six dollars ($146) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(B) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; club in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(C) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; club in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(D) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; club in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(49) (A) For a Type 59 - On-sale beer and wine seasonal; operating period 3-9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).(B) For a Type 59 - On-sale beer and wine seasonal; operating period 3-6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-two dollars ($162) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).(50) (A) For a Type 60 - On-sale beer seasonal; operating period 3-9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).(B) For a Type 60 - On-sale beer seasonal; operating period 3-6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-two dollars ($162) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).(51) For a Type 61 - On-sale beer public premises: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(52) For a Type 62 - On-sale general license dockside: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred nine dollars ($609) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(53) For a Type 63 - On-sale special beer and wine hospital: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-six dollars ($96) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(54) (A) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(B) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(55) For a Type 65 - Special on-sale beer and wine symphony: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(56) For a Type 66 - Controlled access cabinet: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred seventeen dollars ($617) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(57) For a Type 67 - Bed and breakfast inn; per room: the fee through September 30, 2019, is eight dollars ($8) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is ten dollars ($10).(58) (A) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(B) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(59) For a Type 69 - Special on-sale beer and wine theater: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(60) (A) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(61) (A) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 71 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 71 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 71 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(62) (A) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 72 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 72 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 72 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(63) For a Type 73 - Special nonprofit sales: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(64) For a Type 74 - Craft distilled spirits manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(65) (A) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 75 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 75 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 75 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(66) (A) For a Type 76 - On-sale general maritime museum: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Duplicate Type 76: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(67) For a Type 77 - Event permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred forty-six dollars ($146) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(68) (A) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 78 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 78 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 78 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(69) For a Type 79 - Certified farmers market: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty-eight dollars ($58) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(70) For a Type 80 - Special on-sale general; per room: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventeen dollars ($17) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty dollars ($20).(71) For a Type 81 - Wine sales event permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty dollars ($50) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(72) For a Type 82 - Direct shipper permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ten dollars ($10) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty-five dollars ($25).(73) (A) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterers permit in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterers permit in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterers permit in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(74) For a Type 84 - Certified farmers market beer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty-eight dollars ($58) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(75) For a Type 85 - Limited off-sale wine license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventy-eight dollars ($278) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(76) For a Type 86 - Instructional tasting license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred dollars ($300) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(77) (A) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 87 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 87 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 87 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(78) (A) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 88 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 88 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 88 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(c) (1) In addition to the application fee for a new permanent license as specified in subdivision (a), an annual renewal fee, as set forth in subdivision (b), shall accompany the application. The application fee shall be nonrefundable up to the amount of the application fee in paragraph (1) of subdivision (a), as adjusted by subdivisions (d) and (e). The annual fee provided at the time of application shall allow the license to be active for one year from the date of issuance and shall be refundable only in the event that the license application is withdrawn or denied.(2) If an application includes multiple new permanent licenses to be issued at the same premises, the application fee shall be required for only one of the applied-for licenses and an application fee shall not be charged for the remainder of the licenses. In situations involving different license types, the application fee to be paid shall be the highest such fee as specified in subdivision (a). Notwithstanding this provision, the annual renewal fee required pursuant to this subdivision shall be payable for each license.(d) Beginning January 1, 2021, and each January 1 thereafter, the department may adjust each of the fees specified in this section by increasing each fee by an amount not to exceed the percentage that the California Consumer Price Index (California Department of Industrial Relations, Division of Labor Statistics and Research, All Items, Base Period 1982-84=100) for the preceding August 2019, and each August annually thereafter, has increased under the same index over the month of August 2018, which shall be the base period. The department shall not adjust fees pursuant to this section if the balance of the Alcohol Beverage Control Fund at the end of the prior fiscal year is greater than one-fourth of the departments appropriation from the Alcohol Beverage Control Fund for the current fiscal year. No fee shall be decreased pursuant to this adjustment below the fee currently in effect on each December 31. If the accumulation of percentage increases is greater than 8 percent, the department shall not adjust fees without the Legislatures approval through the budget process. In the event that this index is discontinued, the department shall consult with the Department of Finance to convert the increase calculations to an index then available. When approved by the Department of Finance, the new index shall replace the discontinued index.(e) When fees are adjusted pursuant to subdivision (d), the department shall calculate the percentage increase as specified in that subdivision and shall apply this increase to each fee. The increase to each fee shall be rounded to the nearest whole five dollars ($5). The adjusted fee list, to be effective on January 1 of the upcoming year, shall be published by the department on its internet website and transmitted in writing to the Chairperson of the Joint Legislative Budget Committee no later than January 10 of the year before it becomes effective. This adjustment of fees and publication of the adjusted fee list is not subject to the requirements of Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.SEC. 3. Section 12815 of the Government Code is amended to read:12815. (a) The Office of Digital Innovation is hereby established on July 1, 2019, within the Government Operations Agency.(b) There shall be a Director of the Office of Digital Innovation. (1) TheThe director shall be appointed by, and serve at the pleasure of, the Governor. The director shall report to the Secretary of Government Operations. The director shall be responsible for managing the affairs of the office and shall perform all duties, exercise all powers and jurisdiction, and assume and discharge all responsibilities necessary to carry out the purposes of this section. The Governor may appoint people to the office who are exempt from civil service. The total number of exempt positions in the office shall not exceed 20.(c) For the purposes of this section:(1) Director means the Director of the Office of Digital Innovation.(2) Fund means the Digital Innovation Services Revolving Fund.(3) Office means the Office of Digital Innovation.(4) Service delivery means the provision of a service or services, product or products, by a state entity or state entities to persons, other state entities, constitutional state entities, independent state entities, local government entities, federal entities, private entities, or nonprofit entities.(5) State entity means an entity within the executive branch that is under the direct authority of the Governor, including, but not limited to, all departments, boards, bureaus, commissions, councils, and agencies.(d) The offices mission shall be to deliver better government services to the people of California through technology and design. The office will fulfill this mission by:(1) Collaborating with state entities to transform government services. The office will focus on measurably improving services using a deliberate, user-focused approach.(2) Investing in state capabilities to put users first, build iteratively, and let data drive decisions.(3) Rethinking and improving how the state buys digital services.(4) Expanding the use of common platforms, services, and tools.(e) The director shall hire staff to assist in the fulfillment of the duties and responsibilities of the office.(f) The director shall establish a program to improve the states service delivery functions, guided by service delivery best practices.(1) The director is hereby authorized to engage with state entities for the purpose of improving the service delivery functions of those state entities.(2) Engagements shall be formalized in writing and shall identify, at minimum, the roles and responsibilities of both the office and the state entity being engaged by the office.(g) The director may create, update, or publish, in consultation with the appropriate control agency, policies, standards, and procedures for state entities in the State Administrative Manual or Statewide Information Management Manual regarding:(1) Service delivery design, implementation, maintenance, and operations.(2) Service delivery assessments.(3) Service delivery improvement and problem mitigation.(h) The director shall train state supervisors, managers, executives, and other staff in leadership positions regarding service delivery best practices. The director is authorized to require state entity staff to attend training deemed necessary by the director. The director may consult or contract with the Department of Human Resources or the Department of Technology for assistance or delivery of training as needed to fulfill the purposes of this section.(i) Any funds appropriated to the office for the purpose of funding various statewide innovation activities are to be administered by the director for the implementation, support, or assessment of state entities existing or proposed service delivery functions.(j) While engaged with a state entity, office staff shall, in the performance of their duties related to the improvement of service delivery functions, have access to, and the authority to examine or reproduce, any and all records, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component related to the service delivery function being improved by the office.(1) The office shall maintain the confidentiality of, and protect from unauthorized access or disclosure, all records, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component received from, or otherwise accessed from, any state entity engaged with the office in accordance with applicable laws, policies, and regulations, state law, including, but not limited to, the Information Practices Act of 1977.(2) The director, any employee or former employee of the office, any person or business entity that is contracting with or has contracted with the office and the employees and former employees of that person or business entity shall not divulge or make known to any person not employed by the office in any manner not expressly permitted by law any particulars of any record, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component, the disclosure of which is restricted by law from release to the public. This subdivision shall also apply to the officers and employees of, and any person or business entity that is contracting with, or has contracted with, any state or local governmental agency or publicly created entity, that has assisted the office in the course of any engagement.(3) Any officer, employee, or person who discloses the particulars of any record, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component in violation of this section shall be subject to a civil penalty not to exceed five thousand dollars ($5,000), including the release of any information received pursuant to Section 10850 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or that is otherwise prohibited by law to be disclosed. (4)The office shall ensure that all records, data, and other documentation are disposed of in accordance with applicable state laws, policies, and regulations upon completion of each engagement. (5)(4) Upon the completion of each engagement, the office shall dispose of all records, data, and other documentation received, copied, or otherwise in the possession of the office as a result of the engagement that contains personally identifiable information. information in accordance with state law.(k) The adoption, amendment, or repeal of the policies, procedures, guidelines, or other directives consistent with this chapter are exempted from the rulemaking provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1).(l) (1) Effective July 1, 2020, the Digital Innovation Services Revolving Fund is hereby created within the State Treasury. The fund shall be administered by the director to receive all revenues from the sale of services rendered by the office and all other moneys properly credited to the office from any other source. Notwithstanding Section 13340, until July 1, 2024, moneys in the fund are continuously appropriated to the office without regard to fiscal year to pay all costs arising from this section and rendering of services to state entities, including, but not limited to, employment and compensation of necessary personnel and expenses, such as operating and other expenses of the office, and costs associated with approved information technology projects, and to establish reserves. On and after July 1, 2024, moneys in the fund shall be available upon appropriation of the Legislature. At the discretion of the director, segregated, dedicated accounts within the fund may be established.(2) On or before February 1, 2021, and each February 1 thereafter, the director shall submit a report to the Chairperson of the Joint Legislative Budget Committee, or the chairpersons designee, that includes a summary of the activities of the office and a listing and descriptions of all expenditures made from the fund, as well as all revenues received by the fund, for the prior fiscal year.(3) The fund shall consist of all of the following:(A) Moneys appropriated and made available by the Legislature for the purposes of this section.(B) Donations, endowments, or grants of funds from private or public sources for any purposes of this section. The office and the Controller may establish separate accounts in the fund for the purpose of separating deposits according to their origin or intended purpose.(C) Any other moneys that may be made available to the office from any other source, including the return from investments of moneys by the Treasurer.(m) The office may collect payments from state entities for providing services to client entities. The office may require monthly payments by client entities for the services provided. Pursuant to Section 11255, the Controller shall transfer any amounts so authorized by the office, consistent with the annual budget of each department, to the fund. The office shall notify each affected state entity upon requesting the Controller to make the transfer.(n) Notwithstanding any other law, the Controller may use the moneys in the fund for cashflow loans to the General Fund, as provided in Sections 16310 and 16381.SEC. 4. Section 16418.8 of the Government Code is amended to read:16418.8. (a) The Budget Deficit Savings Account is hereby established in the State Treasury. Treasury to serve as a supplementary savings account to mitigate the effects of actual or future projected budget deficits in the General Fund or other state funds.(b) (1) Deposits to the Budget Stabilization Account for the 201819 fiscal year, above the amounts required by Section 20 of Article XVI of the California Constitution, as defined and appropriated in the 2018 Budget Act, shall be transferred from the General Fund to the Budget Deficit Savings Account. Based on the updated projection as calculated by the Department of Finance during the 201920 May Revision, upon order of the Director of the Department of Finance, no earlier than May 31, 2019, the Controller shall transfer the updated amount from the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the Budget Stabilization Account.(c)(2) Upon order of the Director of the Department of Finance, the Controller shall transfer 50 percent of the remaining amounts deposited in the Budget Deficit Savings Account that are not transferred to the Budget Stabilization Account pursuant to subdivision (b) to the Safety Net Reserve Fund, created by Section 11011 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. The remaining 50 percent of the balance shall remain in the Budget Deficit Savings Account.(3) In any fiscal year, the Legislature may transfer funds into the Budget Deficit Savings Account or authorize the transfer of some or all of the balance of the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the General Fund or any other state fund.(d)(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the Controller may use the funds in the Budget Deficit Savings Account for cash flow cashflow loans to the General Fund as provided in Sections 16310 and 16381.SEC. 5. Section 19822.3 of the Government Code is amended to read:19822.3. (a)All state agencies shall implement and use the California Automated Travel Expense Reimbursement System (CalATERS) to automate processing of employee travel claims by July 1, 2009, unless the Controller recommends, and the Department of Finance approves, an exemption request. To request an exemption, a department or agency shall submit documentation to the Controller no later than July 1, 2007, to substantiate that the implementation of CalATERS is not feasible or cost-effective for that department or agency. The Department of Finance and the Controller shall jointly report to the Joint Legislative Budget Committee, not later than February 1, 2008, on the exemptions that have been approved and the bases for the exemptions.(b)Payments for the services of the Controller to implement this section shall be made by direct transfer as described in Section 11255. The total transfer shall not exceed the reimbursement expenditure authority provided to the Controller for CalATERS pursuant to the annual Budget Act, as adjusted by subsequent budget revisions approved by the Department of Finance.SEC. 6. Section 20397 of the Government Code is amended to read:20397. State peace officer/firefighter member also includes:(a) The Sergeants-at-Arms of each house of the Legislature who have been designated as peace officers in subdivision (a) of Section 830.36 of the Penal Code, excluding the Chief Sergeant-at-Arms of the Senate. Code.(b) Bailiffs and security coordinators of the judicial branch who have been designated as peace officers in subdivision (b) of Section 830.36 of the Penal Code.A member who is reclassified from state miscellaneous to state peace officer/firefighter pursuant to this section may make an irrevocable election in writing to remain subject to the miscellaneous service retirement benefit and the normal rate of contribution by filing a notice of the election with the board within 90 days of notification by the board. A member who so elects shall be subject to the reduced benefit factors specified in Section 21353 or 21354.1, as applicable, only for service included in the federal system.SEC. 7. Section 100002 of the Government Code is amended to read:100002. (a) (1) There is hereby created within state government the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Investment Board, which shall consist of nine members, with the Treasurer serving as chair, as follows:(A) The Treasurer.(B) The Director of Finance, or his or her the directors designee.(C) The Controller.(D) An individual with retirement savings and investment expertise appointed by the Senate Committee on Rules.(E) An employee representative appointed by the Speaker of the Assembly.(F) A small business representative appointed by the Governor.(G) A public member appointed by the Governor.(H) Two additional members appointed by the Governor.(2) Members of the board appointed by the Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, and the Speaker of the Assembly shall serve at the pleasure of the appointing authority.(b) All members of the board shall serve without compensation. Members of the board shall be reimbursed for necessary travel expenses incurred in connection with their board duties.(c) A board member, program administrator, and other staff of the board shall not do any of the following:(1) Directly or indirectly have any interest in the making of any investment made for the program, or in the gains or profits accruing from any investment made for the program.(2) Borrow any funds or deposits of the trust, or use those funds or deposits in any manner, for himself themselves or herself or as an agent or partner of others.(3) Become an endorser, surety, or obligor on investments by the board.(d) The board and the program administrator and staff, including contracted administrators and consultants, shall discharge their duties as fiduciaries with respect to the trust solely in the interest of the program participants as follows:(1) For the exclusive purposes of providing benefits to program participants and defraying reasonable expenses of administering the program.(2) By investing with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the circumstances then prevailing that a prudent person acting in a like capacity and familiar with those matters would use in the conduct of an enterprise of a like character and with like aims.(e) The board, subject to its authority and fiduciary duty, shall design and implement the CalSavers Retirement Savings Program.(1) (A) For up to three years following the initial implementation of the program, the board shall establish managed accounts invested in United States Treasuries, myRAs, or similar investments.(B) The board shall have the authority to provide for investment in myRAs, provided that, in accordance with the myRA provisions, myRA contributions and investment returns shall only be used for myRA investments and to make distributions to, or for the benefit of, participants and shall not be used to pay any costs of administration.(2) (A)During period described in paragraph (1), the board shall develop and implement an investment policy that defines the programs investment objectives and shall establish policies and procedures enabling investment objectives to be met in a prudent manner. The board shall seek to minimize participant fees and strive to implement program features that provide maximum possible income replacement balanced with appropriate risk in an IRA-based environment. The policy shall describe the investment options available to holders of individual savings accounts established as part of the program. Investment options may encompass a range of risk and return opportunities and allow for a rate of return commensurate with an appropriate level of risk to meet the investment objectives stated in the policy. (B)The board may also develop investment option recommendations that address risk-sharing and smoothing of market losses and gains. Investment option recommendations may include, but are not limited to, the creation of a reserve fund or the establishment of customized investment products. Implementation of an investment option recommendation pursuant to this subparagraph shall be contingent upon subsequent approval by the Legislature. (3) After the period described in paragraph (1) has expired, the board shall annually prepare and adopt a written statement of investment policy that includes a risk management and oversight program. The board shall consider the statement of investment policy and any changes in the investment policy at a public hearing.(4) The risk management and oversight program shall include an effective risk management system to monitor the risk levels of the CalSavers Retirement Savings Program investment portfolio and ensure that the risks taken are prudent and properly managed. The program shall be managed to provide an integrated process for overall risk management on both a consolidated and disaggregated basis, and to monitor investment returns as well as risk to determine if the risks taken are adequately compensated compared to applicable performance benchmarks and standards.(f) The board shall approve an investment management entity or entities, the costs of which shall be paid out of funds held in the trust and shall not be attributed to the administrative costs of the board in operating the trust. Not later than 30 days after the close of each month, the board shall place on file for public inspection during business hours a report with respect to investments made pursuant to this section and a report of deposits in financial institutions.SEC. 8. Section 100006 of the Government Code is repealed.100006.(a)The board may establish a segregated account within the program fund to be known as the Gain and Loss Reserve Account. The board shall have sole authority over the Gain and Loss Reserve Account, if established. The Gain and Loss Reserve Account may be used to allocate interest at the stated interest rate for program years in which the board determines that the stated interest rate cannot be met from investment earnings.(b)The board shall establish a goal for the balance of the Gain and Loss Reserve Account and shall periodically review the sufficiency of the reserve account based on the recommendations of the boards actuary.(c)The board may allocate excess earnings of the program with respect to assets attributable to the program to the Gain and Loss Reserve Account. In addition, the board may allocate any liability gains and losses to the Gain and Loss Reserve Account. Based on an actuarial valuation following each program year, the board shall determine annually the amount, if any, that is to be allocated to the Gain and Loss Reserve Account for that program year. In determining whether to allocate excess earnings to the Gain and Loss Reserve Account, the board shall consider all of the following:(1)Whether or not the program has excess earnings.(2)The sufficiency of the Gain and Loss Reserve Account in light of the goal established pursuant to subdivision (b).(3)The amount required for the programs administrative costs.(4)The amount required for making allocations to individuals accounts at the stated interest rate.(d)In determining whether to allocate liability gains and losses to the Gain and Loss Reserve Account, the board shall consider the matters described in paragraphs (2), (3), and (4) of subdivision (c).SEC. 9. Section 11495 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read:11495. (a) The funds received by the law enforcement agencies under Section 11489 shall be deposited into an account maintained by the Controller, county auditor, or city treasurer. These funds shall be distributed to the law enforcement agencies at their request. The Controller, auditor, or treasurer shall maintain a record of these disbursements which records shall be open to public inspection, subject to the privileges contained in Sections 1040, 1041, and 1042 of the Evidence Code.(b) Upon request of the governing body of the jurisdiction in which the distributions are made, the Controller, auditor, or treasurer shall conduct an audit of these funds and their use. In the case of the state, the governing body shall be the Legislature.(c) Each year, the Attorney General shall publish a report which that sets forth the following information for the state, each county, each city, and each city and county:(1) The number of forfeiture actions initiated and administered by state or local agencies under California law, the number of cases adopted by the federal government, and the number of cases initiated by a joint federal-state action that were prosecuted under federal law.(2) The number of cases and the administrative number or court docket number of each case for which forfeiture was ordered or declared.(3) The number of suspects charged with a controlled substance violation.(4) The number of alleged criminal offenses that were under federal or state law.(5) The disposition of cases, including no charge, dropped charges, acquittal, plea agreement, jury conviction, or other.(6) The value of the assets forfeited.(7) The recipients of the forfeited assets, the amounts received, and the date of the disbursement.(d) The Attorney General shall develop administrative guidelines for the collection and publication of the information required in subdivision (c).(e) The Attorney Generals report shall cover the calendar year and shall be made no later than March July 1 of each year beginning with the year after the enactment of this law. year.SEC. 10. Section 1019.2 of the Labor Code is amended to read:1019.2. (a) Except as otherwise required by federal law, a public or private employer, or a person acting on behalf of a public or private employer, shall not reverify the employment eligibility of a current employee at a time or in a manner not required by Section 1324a(b) of Title 8 of the United States Code.(b) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), an employer who violates subdivision (a) shall be subject to a civil penalty of up to ten thousand dollars ($10,000). The penalty shall be recoverable by the Labor Commissioner.(2) The actions of an employer that violate subdivision (a) and result in a civil penalty under paragraph (1) shall not also form the basis for liability or penalty under Section 1019.1.(c) Subdivision (a) shall be interpreted and applied consistent with federal law and regulations. This section does not prohibit an employer from doing any of the following:(1) Reverifying an employees employment authorization in a time and manner consistent with Section 274a.2(b)(1)(vii) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations.(2) Taking any lawful action to review the employment authorization of an employee upon knowing that the employee is, or has become, unauthorized to be employed in the United States, consistent with Section 1324a(a)(2) of Title 8 of the United States Code, including in response to specific and detailed information from any agency within the United States Department of Homeland Security indicating that an employee is not authorized to be employed in the United States.(3) Reminding an employee, at least 90 days before the date reverification is required, that the employee will be required to present a document identified in List A or a combination of one document from List B and one document from List C, as required by the I-9 Employment Eligibility Verification Form, showing continued employment authorization on the date that their current employment authorization will expire or on the date that their current documentation will expire, whichever date is sooner.(4) Taking any lawful action to correct errors or omissions in a missing or incomplete I-9 Employment Eligibility Verification Form.(c)(d) In accordance with state and federal law, nothing in this chapter shall be interpreted, construed, or applied to restrict or limit an employers compliance with a memorandum of understanding governing the use of the federal E-Verify system.(e) For purposes of this section, the term knowing is defined as set forth in Section 274a.1(l) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations and as interpreted by applicable federal rules, regulations, and controlling federal case law. The term knowing includes not only actual knowledge, but also knowledge that may fairly be inferred through notice of certain facts and circumstances that would lead a person, through the exercise of reasonable care, to know about a certain condition. Constructive knowledge may be found under the circumstances described in Section 274a.1(l)(2) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations and may not be inferred from an employees foreign appearance or accent.SEC. 11. Section 1019.3 is added to the Labor Code, to read:1019.3. For purposes of this chapter, the terms reverify or reverifying mean the actions described in Section 274a.2(b)(1)(vii) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations. These terms shall be interpreted consistently with any applicable federal rules, regulations, and controlling federal case law.SEC. 12. Section 6126 of the Penal Code is amended to read:6126. (a) The Inspector General shall be responsible for contemporaneous oversight of internal affairs investigations and the disciplinary process of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, pursuant to Section 6133 under policies to be developed by the Inspector General.(b) When requested by the Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, or the Speaker of the Assembly, the Inspector General shall initiate an audit or review of policies, practices, and procedures of the department. The Inspector General, General may, under policies developed by the Inspector General, may recommend that the Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, initiate an audit or the Speaker of the Assembly request a review of a specific departmental policy, practice, or procedure that raises a significant correctional issue relevant to on the effectiveness of the department. When exigent circumstances of unsafe Inspector Generals own accord. Following a completed audit or life threatening situations arise involving inmates, wards, parolees, or staff, review, the Inspector General may, by whatever means is most expeditious, notify may perform a followup audit or review to determine what measures the Governor, Senate Committee on Rules, or department implemented to address the Speaker Inspector Generals findings and to assess the effectiveness of the Assembly. those measures.(c) (1) Upon completion of a review, an audit or review pursuant to subdivision (b), the Inspector General shall prepare a complete written report, which shall may be held as confidential and disclosed in confidence, along with all underlying materials the Inspector General deems appropriate, to the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation and to the requesting entity in subdivision (b) and the appropriate law enforcement agency. (b), where applicable.(2) The Inspector General shall also prepare a public report. When necessary, the public report shall differ from the complete written report in the respect that the Inspector General shall have the discretion to redact or otherwise protect the names of individuals, specific locations, or other facts that, if not redacted, might hinder prosecution related to the review, compromise the safety and security of staff, inmates, or members of the public, or where disclosure of the information is otherwise prohibited by law, and to decline to produce any of the underlying materials. Copies of public reports shall be posted on the Office of the Inspector Generals Internet Web site. internet website.(d) The Inspector General shall, during the course of a an audit or review, identify areas of full and partial compliance, or noncompliance, with departmental policies and procedures, specify deficiencies in the completion and documentation of processes, and recommend corrective actions, including, but not limited to, additional training, additional policies, or changes in policy, as well as any other findings or recommendations that the Inspector General deems appropriate.(e) The Inspector General, pursuant to Section 6126.6, shall review the Governors candidates for appointment to serve as warden for the states adult correctional institutions and as superintendents for the states juvenile facilities.(f) The Inspector General shall conduct an objective, clinically appropriate, and metric-oriented medical inspection program to periodically review delivery of medical care at each state prison.(g) The Inspector General shall conduct an objective, metric-oriented oversight and inspection program to periodically review delivery of the reforms identified in the document released by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation in April 2012, entitled The Future of California Corrections: A Blueprint to Save Billions of Dollars, End Federal Court Oversight, and Improve the Prison System (the blueprint), including, but not limited to, the following specific goals and reforms described by the blueprint:(1) Whether the department has increased the percentage of inmates served in rehabilitative programs to 70 percent of the departments target population prior to their release.(2) The establishment of an adherence to the standardized staffing model at each institution.(3) The establishment of an adherence to the new inmate classification score system.(4) The establishment of and adherence to the new prison gang management system, including changes to the departments current policies for identifying prison-based gang members and associates and the use and conditions associated with the departments security housing units.(5) The implementation of and adherence to the Comprehensive Housing Plan described in the blueprint.(h) The Inspector General shall, in consultation with the Department of Finance, develop a methodology for producing a workload budget to be used for annually adjusting the budget of the Office of the Inspector General, beginning with the budget for the 200506 fiscal year.(i) The Inspector General shall provide contemporaneous oversight of grievances that fall within the departments process for reviewing and investigating inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances, examining compliance with regulations, department policy, and best practices. This contemporaneous oversight shall be completed within the Inspector Generals budget excluding resources that, beginning in the Budget Act of 2019, were provided to restore the Inspector Generals ability to initiate an audit or review pursuant to subdivision (a). The contemporaneous oversight shall be completed in a way that does not unnecessarily slow the departments review and investigation of inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances. The Inspector General shall issue reports annually, beginning in 2021.(j) The Inspector General shall monitor the departments process for reviewing uses of force and shall issue reports annually.SEC. 13. Section 6126.2 of the Penal Code is amended to read:6126.2. The Inspector General shall not hire any person known to be directly considered a suspect or indirectly involved subject in an open internal affairs investigation being conducted by any federal, state, or local agency.SEC. 14. Section 6126.3 of the Penal Code is amended to read:6126.3. (a) The Inspector General shall not destroy any papers or memoranda used to support a completed review within three years after a report is released.(b) Except as provided in subdivision (c), all books, papers, records, and correspondence of the office pertaining to its work are public records subject to Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code and shall be filed at any of the regularly maintained offices of the Inspector General.(c) The following books, papers, records, and correspondence of the Office of the Inspector General pertaining to its work are not public records subject to Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code, nor shall they be subject to discovery pursuant to any provision of Title 3 (commencing with Section 1985) of Part 4 of the Code of Civil Procedure or Chapter 7 (commencing with Section 19570) of Part 2 of Division 5 of Title 2 of the Government Code in any manner:(1) All reports, papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents that are otherwise exempt from disclosure pursuant to the provisions of subdivision (d) of Section 6126.5, Section 6126.6, subdivision (c) of Section 6128, subdivision (c) of Section 6126, or all other applicable laws regarding confidentiality, including, but not limited to, the California Public Records Act, the Public Safety Officers Procedural Bill of Rights, the Information Practices Act of 1977, the Confidentiality of Medical Information Act of 1977, and the provisions of Section 832.7, relating to the disposition notification for complaints against peace officers.(2) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to any audit or review that has not been completed.(3) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to internal discussions between the Inspector General and his or her the Inspector Generals staff, or between staff members of the Inspector General, or any personal notes of the Inspector General or his or her the Inspector Generals staff.(4) All identifying information, and any personal papers or correspondence from any person requesting assistance from the Inspector General, except in those cases where the Inspector General determines that disclosure of the information is necessary in the interests of justice.(5) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to contemporaneous public oversight pursuant to Section 6133. 6133 or subdivision (i) or (j) of Section 6126.SEC. 15. Section 6126.5 of the Penal Code is amended to read:6126.5. (a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the Inspector General during regular business hours or at any other time determined necessary by the Inspector General, shall have access to and authority to examine and reproduce any and all books, accounts, reports, vouchers, correspondence files, documents, and other records, and to examine the bank accounts, money, or other property of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation in connection with duties authorized by this chapter. Any officer or employee of any agency or entity having these records or property in his or her their possession or under his or her their control shall permit access to, and examination and reproduction thereof consistent with the provisions of this section, upon the request of the Inspector General or his or her the Inspector Generals authorized representative.(b) In connection with duties authorized by this chapter, the Inspector General or his or her the Inspector Generals authorized representative shall have access to the records and property of any public or private entity or person subject to review or regulation by the public agency or public entity to the same extent that employees or officers of that agency or public entity have access. No provision of law or any law, memorandum of understanding understanding, or any other agreement entered into between the employing entity and the employee or the employees representative providing for the confidentiality or privilege of any records or property shall prevent disclosure pursuant to subdivision (a). Access, examination, and reproduction consistent with the provisions of this section shall not result in the waiver of any confidentiality or privilege regarding any records or property.(c) Any officer or person who fails or refuses to permit access, examination, or reproduction, as required by this section, is guilty of a misdemeanor.(d) The Inspector General may require any employee of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation to be interviewed on a confidential basis. Any employee requested to be interviewed shall comply and shall have time afforded by the appointing authority for the purpose of an interview with the Inspector General or his or her the Inspector Generals designee. The Inspector General shall have the discretion to redact the name or other identifying information of any person interviewed from any public report issued by the Inspector General, where required by law or where the failure to redact the information may hinder prosecution or an action in a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding, or where the Inspector General determines that disclosure of the information is not in the interests of justice. It is not the purpose of these communications to address disciplinary action or grievance procedures that may routinely occur. If it appears When conducting an investigation into allegations that the facts an employee of the case could lead to punitive action, Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation engaged in misconduct, the Inspector General shall be subject to comply with Sections 3303, 3307, 3307.5, 3308, 3309, and subdivisions (a) to (d), inclusive, of Section 3309.5 of the Government Code as if the Inspector General were the employer, Code, except that the Inspector General shall not be subject to the provisions of any memorandum of understanding or other agreement entered into between the employing entity and the employee or the employees representative that is in conflict with, or adds to the requirements of, Sections 3303, 3307, 3307.5, 3308, 3309, and subdivisions (a) to (d), inclusive, of Section 3309.5 of the Government Code.SEC. 16. Section 6133 of the Penal Code is amended to read:6133. (a) The Office of the Inspector General shall be responsible for contemporaneous public oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation investigations and staff grievance inquiries conducted by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations Office of Internal Affairs. To facilitate oversight, oversight of the departments internal affairs investigations, the Office of the Inspector General shall have staff physically colocated with the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations Office of Internal Affairs, within a reasonable timeframe and without any undue delays. The Office of the Inspector General shall also be responsible for advising the public regarding the adequacy of each investigation, and whether discipline of the subject of the investigation is warranted. The Office of the Inspector General shall have discretion to provide public oversight of other Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation personnel investigations as needed.(b) (1) The Office of the Inspector General shall issue regular reports, no less than annually, to the Governor and the Legislature summarizing its recommendations concerning its oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation allegations of internal misconduct and use of force. The Office of the Inspector General shall also issue regular reports, no less than semiannually, summarizing its oversight of Office of Internal Affairs investigations pursuant to subdivision (a). The reports shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:(A) Data on the number, type, and disposition of complaints made against correctional officers and staff.(B) A synopsis of each matter reviewed by the Office of the Inspector General.(C) An assessment of the quality of the investigation, the appropriateness of any disciplinary charges, the Office of the Inspector Generals recommendations regarding the disposition in the case and when founded, the level of discipline afforded, and the degree to which the agencys authorities agreed with the Office of the Inspector General recommendations regarding disposition and level of discipline.(D) The report of any settlement and whether the Office of the Inspector General concurred with the settlement.(E) The extent to which any discipline was modified after imposition.(2) The reports shall be in a form that does not identify the agency employees involved in the alleged misconduct.(3) The reports shall be posted on the Inspector Generals Internet Web site internet website and otherwise made available to the public upon their release to the Governor and the Legislature.SEC. 17. Section 27150.2 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:27150.2. (a) Stations providing referee functions pursuant to Section 44036 of the Health and Safety Code shall provide for the testing of vehicular exhaust systems and the issuance of certificates of compliance only for those vehicles that have received a citation for a violation of Section 27150 or 27151.(b) A certificate of compliance for a vehicular exhaust system shall be issued pursuant to subdivision (a) if the vehicle complies with Sections 27150 and 27151. Exhaust systems installed on motor vehicles, other than motorcycles, with a manufacturers gross vehicle weight rating of less than 6,000 pounds comply with Sections 27150 and 27151 if they emit no more than 95 dbA when tested in accordance with Society of Automotive Engineers Standard J1169 May 1998. J1492 Oct 2008.(c) An exhaust system certificate of compliance issued pursuant to subdivision (a) shall identify, to the extent possible, the make, model, year, license number, and vehicle identification number of the vehicle tested, and the make and model of the exhaust system installed on the vehicle.(d) The station shall charge a fee for the exhaust system certificate of compliance issued pursuant to subdivision (a). The fee charged shall be calculated to recover the costs incurred by the Department of Consumer Affairs to implement this section. The fees charged by the station shall be deposited in the Vehicle Inspection and Repair Fund established by Section 44062 of the Health and Safety Code.(e) Vehicular exhaust systems are exempt from the requirements of Sections 27150 and 27151 if compliance with those sections, or the regulations adopted pursuant thereto, would cause an unreasonable hardship without resulting in a sufficient corresponding benefit with respect to noise level control.SEC. 18. Section 27151 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:27151. (a) No A person shall not modify the exhaust system of a motor vehicle in a manner which will amplify or increase the noise emitted by the motor of the vehicle so that the vehicle is not in compliance with the provisions of Section 27150 or exceeds the noise limits established for the type of vehicle in Article 2.5 (commencing with Section 27200). No A person shall not operate a motor vehicle with an exhaust system so modified.(b) For the purposes of exhaust systems installed on motor vehicles with a manufacturers gross vehicle weight rating of less than 6,000 pounds, other than motorcycles, a sound level of 95 dbA or less, when tested in accordance with Society of Automotive Engineers Standard J1169 May 1998, J1492 Oct 2008, complies with this section. Motor vehicle exhaust systems or parts thereof include, but are not limited to, nonoriginal exhaust equipment.SEC. 19. Section 40610 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:40610. (a) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), if, after an arrest, accident investigation, or other law enforcement action, it appears that a violation has occurred involving a registration, license, all-terrain vehicle safety certificate, or mechanical requirement of this code, and none of the disqualifying conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist and the investigating officer decides to take enforcement action, the officer shall prepare, in triplicate, and the violator shall sign, a written notice containing the violators promise to correct the alleged violation and to deliver proof of correction of the violation to the issuing agency.(2) If any a person is arrested for a violation of Section 4454, and none of the disqualifying conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist, the arresting officer shall prepare, in triplicate, and the violator shall sign, a written notice containing the violators promise to correct the alleged violation and to deliver proof of correction of the violation to the issuing agency. In lieu of issuing a notice to correct violation pursuant to this section, the officer may issue a notice to appear, as specified in Section 40522.(b) Pursuant to subdivision (a), a notice to correct violation shall be issued as provided in this section or a notice to appear shall be issued as provided in Section 40522, unless the officer finds any of the following:(1) Evidence of fraud or persistent neglect.(2) The violation presents an immediate safety hazard.(3) The violator does not agree to, or cannot, promptly correct the violation.(4) The violation cited is of subdivision (a) of Section 27150 or of subdivision (a) of Section 27151. 27151 for a motorcycle.(c) If any of the conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist, the procedures specified in this section or Section 40522 are inapplicable, and the officer may take other appropriate enforcement action.(d) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision (a), the notice to correct violation shall be on a form approved by the Judicial Council and, in addition to the owners or operators address and identifying information, shall contain an estimate of the reasonable time required for correction and proof of correction of the particular defect, not to exceed 30 days, or 90 days for the all-terrain vehicle safety certificate.SEC. 20. The sum of three million four hundred ninety-nine thousand dollars ($3,499,000) is hereby appropriated from the General Fund to the Office of the Inspector General for expenditure in the 201920 fiscal year in augmentation of Item 0552-001-0001 of Section 2 of the Budget Act of 2019 to fund independent audits of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation and oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations process for reviewing and investigating inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances. SEC. 21. This act is a bill providing for appropriations related to the Budget Bill within the meaning of subdivision (e) of Section 12 of Article IV of the California Constitution, has been identified as related to the budget in the Budget Bill, and shall take effect immediately.SECTION 1.It is the intent of the Legislature to enact statutory changes relating to the Budget Act of 2019.
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3- Amended IN Senate September 09, 2019 Amended IN Senate September 06, 2019 CALIFORNIA LEGISLATURE 20192020 REGULAR SESSION Assembly Bill No. 112Introduced by Committee on Budget (Assembly Members Ting (Chair), Arambula, Bloom, Chiu, Cooper, Frazier, Cristina Garcia, Jones-Sawyer, Limn, McCarty, Medina, Mullin, Muratsuchi, Nazarian, ODonnell, Ramos, Reyes, Luz Rivas, Blanca Rubio, Mark Stone, Weber, Wicks, and Wood) December 03, 2018An act to amend Section 23320 of the Business and Professions Code, to amend Sections 12815, 16418.8, 19822.3, 20397, and 100002 of, and to repeal Section 100006 of, the Government Code, to amend Section 11495 of the Health and Safety Code, to amend Section 1019.2 of, and to add Section 1019.3 1019.4 to, the Labor Code, to amend Sections 6126, 6126.2, 6126.3, 6126.5, and 6133 of the Penal Code, and to amend Sections 27150.2, 27151, and 40610 of the Vehicle Code, relating to state government, and making an appropriation therefor, to take effect immediately, bill related to the budget.LEGISLATIVE COUNSEL'S DIGESTAB 112, as amended, Committee on Budget. State government.(1) The Alcoholic Beverage Control Act, administered by the Department of Alcoholic Beverage Control, regulates the granting of licenses for the manufacture, distribution, and sale of alcoholic beverages within the state. The act provides for the issuance of licenses for which various fees, including annual fees, are charged depending upon the type of license issued.This bill would make a correction in the provisions that specify annual licensing fees.(2) Existing law creates the Office of Digital Innovation, which is headed by its director, with the mission of delivering better government services to the people of California through technology and design, as specified. Existing law creates the Digital Innovation Services Revolving Fund, which receives all revenues from the sale of services by the office and all other moneys properly credited to the office, for the support of the offices activities. Existing law requires the office to dispose of all records, data, and other documentation in accordance with applicable state law upon completion of each engagement. Existing law requires the director, beginning on or before February 1, 2021, to submit an annual report to the Chairperson of the Joint Legislative Budget Committee or that persons designee that includes a listing and descriptions of all expenditures made from the fund as well as all revenues received by the fund.This bill would delete the requirement that the Office of Digital Innovation dispose of all records, data, and other documentation upon completion of an engagement. The bill would require that the above-described report also include a summary of the activities of the office. The bill also would make technical, nonsubstantive changes to these provisions.(3) Existing provisions of the California Constitution, approved by the electors on November, 4, 2014, establish the Budget Stabilization Account in the General Fund and require the Controller, on or before October 1 of the 201516 fiscal year and each fiscal year thereafter, to transfer from the General Fund to the Budget Stabilization Account amounts that include a sum equal to 1.5% of the estimated amount of General Fund revenues for that fiscal year. These existing provisions prohibit for each fiscal year transfers to the account that would cause the balance in the account to exceed 10% of the amount of General Fund proceeds of taxes for the fiscal year, as estimated by the Department of Finance. These existing provisions authorize, for any fiscal year, General Fund proceeds of taxes that, but for the above prohibition, would have been transferred to the account, to be expended only for infrastructure, as prescribed. Existing law establishes the Budget Deficit Savings Account in the State Treasury and requires deposits to the Budget Stabilization Account for the 201819 fiscal year, above the amounts required by existing provisions of the California Constitution, as defined and appropriated in the 2018 Budget Act, to be transferred from the General Fund to the Budget Deficit Savings Account. Existing law requires the Controller to transfer certain moneys from the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the Budget Stabilization Account, based on an updated projection as calculated by the department, upon order of that department no earlier than May 31, 2019. Existing law requires the Controller, upon order of the department, to transfer 50% of the remaining amounts deposited in the Budget Deficit Savings Account that are not transferred to the Budget Stabilization Account to the Safety Net Reserve Fund in the State Treasury.This bill would specify that the purpose of the Budget Deficit Savings Account is to serve as a supplementary savings account to mitigate the effects of actual or future projected budget deficits in the General Fund or other state funds. The bill would also authorize the Legislature, in any fiscal year, to transfer funds into the Budget Deficit Savings Account or authorize the transfer of some or all of the balance of the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the General Fund or any other state fund.(4) Under existing law and bargaining agreements, the state reimburses employees for all necessary and actual expenses incurred during travel on official state business. Existing law requires state agencies to implement and use the California Automated Travel Expense Reimbursement System (CalATERS) established by the Controller to process travel claims, unless an exemption request is approved. Existing law requires payment for the services of the Controller in implementing these provisions to be made by direct transfer, subject to specified limitations.This bill would repeal the provisions requiring payment for the services of the Controller to state agencies in implementing CalATERS to be made by direct transfer.(5) The Public Employees Retirement Law creates the Public Employees Retirement System (PERS) for the purpose of providing pension benefits to state employees and employees of contracting agencies and prescribes the rights and duties of members of the system and their beneficiaries. PERS provides a defined benefit to members of the system, based on final compensation, credited service, and age at retirement, subject to certain variations. Existing law prescribes the officers and employees of the Assembly and the Senate, including a sergeant at arms for each house. Existing law classifies the sergeants at arms of the houses as peace officers for purposes of making arrests and enforcing the law. Existing law creates different membership categories in PERS for the purpose of prescribing benefits and contributions, including the classification of state peace officer/firefighter member.Existing law generally includes the sergeants at arms of the Assembly and the Senate within the state peace officer/firefighter member classification, but excepts the Chief Sergeant-at-Arms of the Senate from this classification. Existing law creates the Public Employees Retirement Fund as a trust fund to be expended only for purposes related to the system and its administration, as specified, and provides that the fund is continuously appropriated to these ends.This bill would delete the exception for the Chief Sergeant-at-Arms of the Senate, thereby including the Chief Sergeant-at-Arms of the Senate within the state peace officer/firefighter member classification. By increasing moneys deposited in a continuously appropriated fund, the bill would make an appropriation.(6) Existing law, the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Trust Act, establishes the CalSavers Retirement Savings Program to be administered by the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Investment Board. Existing law requires eligible employers to offer a payroll deposit retirement savings arrangement so that eligible employees may contribute a portion of their salary or wages to a retirement savings program account in the program, as specified. Existing law requires a specified percentage of the annual salary or wages of an eligible employee participating in the program to be deposited in the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Trust, which is segregated into a program fund and an administrative fund, both of which are continuously appropriated to the board for purposes of the act. Existing law authorizes the board to establish a Gain and Loss Reserve Account within the program fund to allocate interest at the stated interest rate for program years in which the board determines that the stated interest rate cannot be met from investment earnings.This bill would eliminate the authorization for the board to establish a Gain and Loss Reserve Account within the program fund and would make additional conforming changes. (7) Existing law subjects certain property to forfeiture, including controlled substances and equipment used to process controlled substances. Existing law requires the Attorney General to publish a report on the number of forfeiture actions, the value of the assets forfeited, and the recipients of the forfeited assets. Existing law requires the Attorney Generals report to cover the calendar year and to be made no later than March 1 of each year.This bill would instead require the report to be made no later than July 1 of each year.(8) Existing law imposes various requirements on public and private employers with regard to federal immigration agency worksite enforcement actions. Existing law, except as required by federal law, prohibits an employer from reverifying the employment eligibility of a current employee at a time or in a manner not required by specified federal law. Existing law prescribes a penalty of up to $10,000 for a violation of this prohibition to be recoverable by the Labor Commissioner.This bill would require the above reverification prohibition to be interpreted and applied consistent with federal law and regulations, and would, among other things, specify that the prohibition does not prohibit an employer from taking any lawful action to review the employment authorization of an employee upon knowing that the employee is, or has become, unauthorized to be employed in the United States.(9) Existing law establishes the Office of the Inspector General that is responsible, among other things, for contemporaneous oversight of internal affairs investigations and the disciplinary process of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation. Existing law prohibits the Inspector General from hiring a person known to be directly or indirectly involved in an open internal affairs investigation.This bill would modify the prohibition on hiring to instead prohibit the Inspector General from hiring a person considered a suspect or subject in an investigation. The bill would authorize the Inspector General, among other things, to initiate an audit or review of the departments internal affairs investigations and disciplinary process. The bill would require the Inspector General to provide contemporaneous oversight of grievances that fall within the departments process for reviewing and investigating inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances, examining compliance with regulations, department policy, and best practices. The bill would subject the Inspector General to specified standards of conduct during a confidential interview of an employee of the department. The bill would require the Inspector General to issue specified reports on the oversight, audits, and reviews, as specified.The bill would appropriate $3,499,000 from the General Fund to the Office of the Inspector General to conduct independent audits of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation and to provide oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations process for reviewing and investigating inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances.(10) Existing law requires every motor vehicle subject to registration to be equipped with an adequate muffler in constant operation and properly maintained to prevent any excessive or unusual noise and prohibits a muffler or exhaust system from being equipped with a cutout, bypass, or similar device. Existing law further prohibits the modification of an exhaust system of a motor vehicle in a manner that will amplify or increase the noise emitted by the motor of the vehicle so that the vehicle exceeds existing noise limits when tested in accordance with specified standards. Under existing law, if, after an arrest, accident investigation, or other law enforcement action, it appears that a violation has occurred involving, among other things, vehicle equipment, the arresting officer is required to permit the arrested person to execute a notice containing a promise to correct the violation and to deliver proof of correction to the issuing agency, unless a disqualifying condition exists. Under existing law, a violation of the noise requirements related to mufflers and exhaust systems is a disqualifying condition.This bill would delete a violation of the noise requirements related to mufflers and exhaust systems from the list of disqualifying conditions, thereby making a person who is arrested for one of these offenses eligible to execute the notice described above, except if the violation consists of modifying the exhaust system of a motorcycle in a manner that will cause it to exceed noise limits. The bill would update the noise level testing standards described above to reflect a more recent standard.(11) This bill would declare that it is to take effect immediately as a bill providing for appropriations related to the Budget Bill.Digest Key Vote: MAJORITY Appropriation: YES Fiscal Committee: YES Local Program: NO
3+ Amended IN Senate September 06, 2019 CALIFORNIA LEGISLATURE 20192020 REGULAR SESSION Assembly Bill No. 112Introduced by Assembly Member Ting Committee on Budget (Assembly Members Ting (Chair), Arambula, Bloom, Chiu, Cooper, Frazier, Cristina Garcia, Jones-Sawyer, Limn, McCarty, Medina, Mullin, Muratsuchi, Nazarian, ODonnell, Ramos, Reyes, Luz Rivas, Blanca Rubio, Mark Stone, Weber, Wicks, and Wood) December 03, 2018An act relating to the Budget Act of 2019. An act to amend Section 23320 of the Business and Professions Code, to amend Sections 12815, 16418.8, 19822.3, 20397, and 100002 of, and to repeal Section 100006 of, the Government Code, to amend Section 11495 of the Health and Safety Code, to amend Section 1019.2 of, and to add Section 1019.3 to, the Labor Code, to amend Sections 6126, 6126.2, 6126.3, 6126.5, and 6133 of the Penal Code, and to amend Sections 27150.2, 27151, and 40610 of the Vehicle Code, relating to state government, and making an appropriation therefor, to take effect immediately, bill related to the budget.LEGISLATIVE COUNSEL'S DIGESTAB 112, as amended, Committee on Budget. Budget Act of 2019. State government.(1) The Alcoholic Beverage Control Act, administered by the Department of Alcoholic Beverage Control, regulates the granting of licenses for the manufacture, distribution, and sale of alcoholic beverages within the state. The act provides for the issuance of licenses for which various fees, including annual fees, are charged depending upon the type of license issued.This bill would make a correction in the provisions that specify annual licensing fees.(2) Existing law creates the Office of Digital Innovation, which is headed by its director, with the mission of delivering better government services to the people of California through technology and design, as specified. Existing law creates the Digital Innovation Services Revolving Fund, which receives all revenues from the sale of services by the office and all other moneys properly credited to the office, for the support of the offices activities. Existing law requires the office to dispose of all records, data, and other documentation in accordance with applicable state law upon completion of each engagement. Existing law requires the director, beginning on or before February 1, 2021, to submit an annual report to the Chairperson of the Joint Legislative Budget Committee or that persons designee that includes a listing and descriptions of all expenditures made from the fund as well as all revenues received by the fund.This bill would delete the requirement that the Office of Digital Innovation dispose of all records, data, and other documentation upon completion of an engagement. The bill would require that the above-described report also include a summary of the activities of the office. The bill also would make technical, nonsubstantive changes to these provisions.(3) Existing provisions of the California Constitution, approved by the electors on November, 4, 2014, establish the Budget Stabilization Account in the General Fund and require the Controller, on or before October 1 of the 201516 fiscal year and each fiscal year thereafter, to transfer from the General Fund to the Budget Stabilization Account amounts that include a sum equal to 1.5% of the estimated amount of General Fund revenues for that fiscal year. These existing provisions prohibit for each fiscal year transfers to the account that would cause the balance in the account to exceed 10% of the amount of General Fund proceeds of taxes for the fiscal year, as estimated by the Department of Finance. These existing provisions authorize, for any fiscal year, General Fund proceeds of taxes that, but for the above prohibition, would have been transferred to the account, to be expended only for infrastructure, as prescribed. Existing law establishes the Budget Deficit Savings Account in the State Treasury and requires deposits to the Budget Stabilization Account for the 201819 fiscal year, above the amounts required by existing provisions of the California Constitution, as defined and appropriated in the 2018 Budget Act, to be transferred from the General Fund to the Budget Deficit Savings Account. Existing law requires the Controller to transfer certain moneys from the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the Budget Stabilization Account, based on an updated projection as calculated by the department, upon order of that department no earlier than May 31, 2019. Existing law requires the Controller, upon order of the department, to transfer 50% of the remaining amounts deposited in the Budget Deficit Savings Account that are not transferred to the Budget Stabilization Account to the Safety Net Reserve Fund in the State Treasury.This bill would specify that the purpose of the Budget Deficit Savings Account is to serve as a supplementary savings account to mitigate the effects of actual or future projected budget deficits in the General Fund or other state funds. The bill would also authorize the Legislature, in any fiscal year, to transfer funds into the Budget Deficit Savings Account or authorize the transfer of some or all of the balance of the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the General Fund or any other state fund.(4) Under existing law and bargaining agreements, the state reimburses employees for all necessary and actual expenses incurred during travel on official state business. Existing law requires state agencies to implement and use the California Automated Travel Expense Reimbursement System (CalATERS) established by the Controller to process travel claims, unless an exemption request is approved. Existing law requires payment for the services of the Controller in implementing these provisions to be made by direct transfer, subject to specified limitations.This bill would repeal the provisions requiring payment for the services of the Controller to state agencies in implementing CalATERS to be made by direct transfer.(5) The Public Employees Retirement Law creates the Public Employees Retirement System (PERS) for the purpose of providing pension benefits to state employees and employees of contracting agencies and prescribes the rights and duties of members of the system and their beneficiaries. PERS provides a defined benefit to members of the system, based on final compensation, credited service, and age at retirement, subject to certain variations. Existing law prescribes the officers and employees of the Assembly and the Senate, including a sergeant at arms for each house. Existing law classifies the sergeants at arms of the houses as peace officers for purposes of making arrests and enforcing the law. Existing law creates different membership categories in PERS for the purpose of prescribing benefits and contributions, including the classification of state peace officer/firefighter member.Existing law generally includes the sergeants at arms of the Assembly and the Senate within the state peace officer/firefighter member classification, but excepts the Chief Sergeant-at-Arms of the Senate from this classification. Existing law creates the Public Employees Retirement Fund as a trust fund to be expended only for purposes related to the system and its administration, as specified, and provides that the fund is continuously appropriated to these ends.This bill would delete the exception for the Chief Sergeant-at-Arms of the Senate, thereby including the Chief Sergeant-at-Arms of the Senate within the state peace officer/firefighter member classification. By increasing moneys deposited in a continuously appropriated fund, the bill would make an appropriation.(6) Existing law, the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Trust Act, establishes the CalSavers Retirement Savings Program to be administered by the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Investment Board. Existing law requires eligible employers to offer a payroll deposit retirement savings arrangement so that eligible employees may contribute a portion of their salary or wages to a retirement savings program account in the program, as specified. Existing law requires a specified percentage of the annual salary or wages of an eligible employee participating in the program to be deposited in the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Trust, which is segregated into a program fund and an administrative fund, both of which are continuously appropriated to the board for purposes of the act. Existing law authorizes the board to establish a Gain and Loss Reserve Account within the program fund to allocate interest at the stated interest rate for program years in which the board determines that the stated interest rate cannot be met from investment earnings.This bill would eliminate the authorization for the board to establish a Gain and Loss Reserve Account within the program fund and would make additional conforming changes. (7) Existing law subjects certain property to forfeiture, including controlled substances and equipment used to process controlled substances. Existing law requires the Attorney General to publish a report on the number of forfeiture actions, the value of the assets forfeited, and the recipients of the forfeited assets. Existing law requires the Attorney Generals report to cover the calendar year and to be made no later than March 1 of each year.This bill would instead require the report to be made no later than July 1 of each year.(8) Existing law imposes various requirements on public and private employers with regard to federal immigration agency worksite enforcement actions. Existing law, except as required by federal law, prohibits an employer from reverifying the employment eligibility of a current employee at a time or in a manner not required by specified federal law. Existing law prescribes a penalty of up to $10,000 for a violation of this prohibition to be recoverable by the Labor Commissioner.This bill would require the above reverification prohibition to be interpreted and applied consistent with federal law and regulations, and would, among other things, specify that the prohibition does not prohibit an employer from taking any lawful action to review the employment authorization of an employee upon knowing that the employee is, or has become, unauthorized to be employed in the United States.(9) Existing law establishes the Office of the Inspector General that is responsible, among other things, for contemporaneous oversight of internal affairs investigations and the disciplinary process of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation. Existing law prohibits the Inspector General from hiring a person known to be directly or indirectly involved in an open internal affairs investigation.This bill would modify the prohibition on hiring to instead prohibit the Inspector General from hiring a person considered a suspect or subject in an investigation. The bill would authorize the Inspector General, among other things, to initiate an audit or review of the departments internal affairs investigations and disciplinary process. The bill would require the Inspector General to provide contemporaneous oversight of grievances that fall within the departments process for reviewing and investigating inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances, examining compliance with regulations, department policy, and best practices. The bill would subject the Inspector General to specified standards of conduct during a confidential interview of an employee of the department. The bill would require the Inspector General to issue specified reports on the oversight, audits, and reviews, as specified.The bill would appropriate $3,499,000 from the General Fund to the Office of the Inspector General to conduct independent audits of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation and to provide oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations process for reviewing and investigating inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances.(10) Existing law requires every motor vehicle subject to registration to be equipped with an adequate muffler in constant operation and properly maintained to prevent any excessive or unusual noise and prohibits a muffler or exhaust system from being equipped with a cutout, bypass, or similar device. Existing law further prohibits the modification of an exhaust system of a motor vehicle in a manner that will amplify or increase the noise emitted by the motor of the vehicle so that the vehicle exceeds existing noise limits when tested in accordance with specified standards. Under existing law, if, after an arrest, accident investigation, or other law enforcement action, it appears that a violation has occurred involving, among other things, vehicle equipment, the arresting officer is required to permit the arrested person to execute a notice containing a promise to correct the violation and to deliver proof of correction to the issuing agency, unless a disqualifying condition exists. Under existing law, a violation of the noise requirements related to mufflers and exhaust systems is a disqualifying condition.This bill would delete a violation of the noise requirements related to mufflers and exhaust systems from the list of disqualifying conditions, thereby making a person who is arrested for one of these offenses eligible to execute the notice described above, except if the violation consists of modifying the exhaust system of a motorcycle in a manner that will cause it to exceed noise limits. The bill would update the noise level testing standards described above to reflect a more recent standard.(11) This bill would declare that it is to take effect immediately as a bill providing for appropriations related to the Budget Bill.This bill would express the intent of the Legislature to enact statutory changes relating to the Budget Act of 2019.Digest Key Vote: MAJORITY Appropriation: NOYES Fiscal Committee: NOYES Local Program: NO
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5- Amended IN Senate September 09, 2019 Amended IN Senate September 06, 2019
5+ Amended IN Senate September 06, 2019
66
7-Amended IN Senate September 09, 2019
87 Amended IN Senate September 06, 2019
98
109 CALIFORNIA LEGISLATURE 20192020 REGULAR SESSION
1110
1211 Assembly Bill
1312
1413 No. 112
1514
16-Introduced by Committee on Budget (Assembly Members Ting (Chair), Arambula, Bloom, Chiu, Cooper, Frazier, Cristina Garcia, Jones-Sawyer, Limn, McCarty, Medina, Mullin, Muratsuchi, Nazarian, ODonnell, Ramos, Reyes, Luz Rivas, Blanca Rubio, Mark Stone, Weber, Wicks, and Wood) December 03, 2018
15+Introduced by Assembly Member Ting Committee on Budget (Assembly Members Ting (Chair), Arambula, Bloom, Chiu, Cooper, Frazier, Cristina Garcia, Jones-Sawyer, Limn, McCarty, Medina, Mullin, Muratsuchi, Nazarian, ODonnell, Ramos, Reyes, Luz Rivas, Blanca Rubio, Mark Stone, Weber, Wicks, and Wood) December 03, 2018
1716
18-Introduced by Committee on Budget (Assembly Members Ting (Chair), Arambula, Bloom, Chiu, Cooper, Frazier, Cristina Garcia, Jones-Sawyer, Limn, McCarty, Medina, Mullin, Muratsuchi, Nazarian, ODonnell, Ramos, Reyes, Luz Rivas, Blanca Rubio, Mark Stone, Weber, Wicks, and Wood)
17+Introduced by Assembly Member Ting Committee on Budget (Assembly Members Ting (Chair), Arambula, Bloom, Chiu, Cooper, Frazier, Cristina Garcia, Jones-Sawyer, Limn, McCarty, Medina, Mullin, Muratsuchi, Nazarian, ODonnell, Ramos, Reyes, Luz Rivas, Blanca Rubio, Mark Stone, Weber, Wicks, and Wood)
1918 December 03, 2018
2019
21-An act to amend Section 23320 of the Business and Professions Code, to amend Sections 12815, 16418.8, 19822.3, 20397, and 100002 of, and to repeal Section 100006 of, the Government Code, to amend Section 11495 of the Health and Safety Code, to amend Section 1019.2 of, and to add Section 1019.3 1019.4 to, the Labor Code, to amend Sections 6126, 6126.2, 6126.3, 6126.5, and 6133 of the Penal Code, and to amend Sections 27150.2, 27151, and 40610 of the Vehicle Code, relating to state government, and making an appropriation therefor, to take effect immediately, bill related to the budget.
20+An act relating to the Budget Act of 2019. An act to amend Section 23320 of the Business and Professions Code, to amend Sections 12815, 16418.8, 19822.3, 20397, and 100002 of, and to repeal Section 100006 of, the Government Code, to amend Section 11495 of the Health and Safety Code, to amend Section 1019.2 of, and to add Section 1019.3 to, the Labor Code, to amend Sections 6126, 6126.2, 6126.3, 6126.5, and 6133 of the Penal Code, and to amend Sections 27150.2, 27151, and 40610 of the Vehicle Code, relating to state government, and making an appropriation therefor, to take effect immediately, bill related to the budget.
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2322 LEGISLATIVE COUNSEL'S DIGEST
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2524 ## LEGISLATIVE COUNSEL'S DIGEST
2625
27-AB 112, as amended, Committee on Budget. State government.
26+AB 112, as amended, Committee on Budget. Budget Act of 2019. State government.
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29-(1) The Alcoholic Beverage Control Act, administered by the Department of Alcoholic Beverage Control, regulates the granting of licenses for the manufacture, distribution, and sale of alcoholic beverages within the state. The act provides for the issuance of licenses for which various fees, including annual fees, are charged depending upon the type of license issued.This bill would make a correction in the provisions that specify annual licensing fees.(2) Existing law creates the Office of Digital Innovation, which is headed by its director, with the mission of delivering better government services to the people of California through technology and design, as specified. Existing law creates the Digital Innovation Services Revolving Fund, which receives all revenues from the sale of services by the office and all other moneys properly credited to the office, for the support of the offices activities. Existing law requires the office to dispose of all records, data, and other documentation in accordance with applicable state law upon completion of each engagement. Existing law requires the director, beginning on or before February 1, 2021, to submit an annual report to the Chairperson of the Joint Legislative Budget Committee or that persons designee that includes a listing and descriptions of all expenditures made from the fund as well as all revenues received by the fund.This bill would delete the requirement that the Office of Digital Innovation dispose of all records, data, and other documentation upon completion of an engagement. The bill would require that the above-described report also include a summary of the activities of the office. The bill also would make technical, nonsubstantive changes to these provisions.(3) Existing provisions of the California Constitution, approved by the electors on November, 4, 2014, establish the Budget Stabilization Account in the General Fund and require the Controller, on or before October 1 of the 201516 fiscal year and each fiscal year thereafter, to transfer from the General Fund to the Budget Stabilization Account amounts that include a sum equal to 1.5% of the estimated amount of General Fund revenues for that fiscal year. These existing provisions prohibit for each fiscal year transfers to the account that would cause the balance in the account to exceed 10% of the amount of General Fund proceeds of taxes for the fiscal year, as estimated by the Department of Finance. These existing provisions authorize, for any fiscal year, General Fund proceeds of taxes that, but for the above prohibition, would have been transferred to the account, to be expended only for infrastructure, as prescribed. Existing law establishes the Budget Deficit Savings Account in the State Treasury and requires deposits to the Budget Stabilization Account for the 201819 fiscal year, above the amounts required by existing provisions of the California Constitution, as defined and appropriated in the 2018 Budget Act, to be transferred from the General Fund to the Budget Deficit Savings Account. Existing law requires the Controller to transfer certain moneys from the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the Budget Stabilization Account, based on an updated projection as calculated by the department, upon order of that department no earlier than May 31, 2019. Existing law requires the Controller, upon order of the department, to transfer 50% of the remaining amounts deposited in the Budget Deficit Savings Account that are not transferred to the Budget Stabilization Account to the Safety Net Reserve Fund in the State Treasury.This bill would specify that the purpose of the Budget Deficit Savings Account is to serve as a supplementary savings account to mitigate the effects of actual or future projected budget deficits in the General Fund or other state funds. The bill would also authorize the Legislature, in any fiscal year, to transfer funds into the Budget Deficit Savings Account or authorize the transfer of some or all of the balance of the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the General Fund or any other state fund.(4) Under existing law and bargaining agreements, the state reimburses employees for all necessary and actual expenses incurred during travel on official state business. Existing law requires state agencies to implement and use the California Automated Travel Expense Reimbursement System (CalATERS) established by the Controller to process travel claims, unless an exemption request is approved. Existing law requires payment for the services of the Controller in implementing these provisions to be made by direct transfer, subject to specified limitations.This bill would repeal the provisions requiring payment for the services of the Controller to state agencies in implementing CalATERS to be made by direct transfer.(5) The Public Employees Retirement Law creates the Public Employees Retirement System (PERS) for the purpose of providing pension benefits to state employees and employees of contracting agencies and prescribes the rights and duties of members of the system and their beneficiaries. PERS provides a defined benefit to members of the system, based on final compensation, credited service, and age at retirement, subject to certain variations. Existing law prescribes the officers and employees of the Assembly and the Senate, including a sergeant at arms for each house. Existing law classifies the sergeants at arms of the houses as peace officers for purposes of making arrests and enforcing the law. Existing law creates different membership categories in PERS for the purpose of prescribing benefits and contributions, including the classification of state peace officer/firefighter member.Existing law generally includes the sergeants at arms of the Assembly and the Senate within the state peace officer/firefighter member classification, but excepts the Chief Sergeant-at-Arms of the Senate from this classification. Existing law creates the Public Employees Retirement Fund as a trust fund to be expended only for purposes related to the system and its administration, as specified, and provides that the fund is continuously appropriated to these ends.This bill would delete the exception for the Chief Sergeant-at-Arms of the Senate, thereby including the Chief Sergeant-at-Arms of the Senate within the state peace officer/firefighter member classification. By increasing moneys deposited in a continuously appropriated fund, the bill would make an appropriation.(6) Existing law, the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Trust Act, establishes the CalSavers Retirement Savings Program to be administered by the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Investment Board. Existing law requires eligible employers to offer a payroll deposit retirement savings arrangement so that eligible employees may contribute a portion of their salary or wages to a retirement savings program account in the program, as specified. Existing law requires a specified percentage of the annual salary or wages of an eligible employee participating in the program to be deposited in the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Trust, which is segregated into a program fund and an administrative fund, both of which are continuously appropriated to the board for purposes of the act. Existing law authorizes the board to establish a Gain and Loss Reserve Account within the program fund to allocate interest at the stated interest rate for program years in which the board determines that the stated interest rate cannot be met from investment earnings.This bill would eliminate the authorization for the board to establish a Gain and Loss Reserve Account within the program fund and would make additional conforming changes. (7) Existing law subjects certain property to forfeiture, including controlled substances and equipment used to process controlled substances. Existing law requires the Attorney General to publish a report on the number of forfeiture actions, the value of the assets forfeited, and the recipients of the forfeited assets. Existing law requires the Attorney Generals report to cover the calendar year and to be made no later than March 1 of each year.This bill would instead require the report to be made no later than July 1 of each year.(8) Existing law imposes various requirements on public and private employers with regard to federal immigration agency worksite enforcement actions. Existing law, except as required by federal law, prohibits an employer from reverifying the employment eligibility of a current employee at a time or in a manner not required by specified federal law. Existing law prescribes a penalty of up to $10,000 for a violation of this prohibition to be recoverable by the Labor Commissioner.This bill would require the above reverification prohibition to be interpreted and applied consistent with federal law and regulations, and would, among other things, specify that the prohibition does not prohibit an employer from taking any lawful action to review the employment authorization of an employee upon knowing that the employee is, or has become, unauthorized to be employed in the United States.(9) Existing law establishes the Office of the Inspector General that is responsible, among other things, for contemporaneous oversight of internal affairs investigations and the disciplinary process of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation. Existing law prohibits the Inspector General from hiring a person known to be directly or indirectly involved in an open internal affairs investigation.This bill would modify the prohibition on hiring to instead prohibit the Inspector General from hiring a person considered a suspect or subject in an investigation. The bill would authorize the Inspector General, among other things, to initiate an audit or review of the departments internal affairs investigations and disciplinary process. The bill would require the Inspector General to provide contemporaneous oversight of grievances that fall within the departments process for reviewing and investigating inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances, examining compliance with regulations, department policy, and best practices. The bill would subject the Inspector General to specified standards of conduct during a confidential interview of an employee of the department. The bill would require the Inspector General to issue specified reports on the oversight, audits, and reviews, as specified.The bill would appropriate $3,499,000 from the General Fund to the Office of the Inspector General to conduct independent audits of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation and to provide oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations process for reviewing and investigating inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances.(10) Existing law requires every motor vehicle subject to registration to be equipped with an adequate muffler in constant operation and properly maintained to prevent any excessive or unusual noise and prohibits a muffler or exhaust system from being equipped with a cutout, bypass, or similar device. Existing law further prohibits the modification of an exhaust system of a motor vehicle in a manner that will amplify or increase the noise emitted by the motor of the vehicle so that the vehicle exceeds existing noise limits when tested in accordance with specified standards. Under existing law, if, after an arrest, accident investigation, or other law enforcement action, it appears that a violation has occurred involving, among other things, vehicle equipment, the arresting officer is required to permit the arrested person to execute a notice containing a promise to correct the violation and to deliver proof of correction to the issuing agency, unless a disqualifying condition exists. Under existing law, a violation of the noise requirements related to mufflers and exhaust systems is a disqualifying condition.This bill would delete a violation of the noise requirements related to mufflers and exhaust systems from the list of disqualifying conditions, thereby making a person who is arrested for one of these offenses eligible to execute the notice described above, except if the violation consists of modifying the exhaust system of a motorcycle in a manner that will cause it to exceed noise limits. The bill would update the noise level testing standards described above to reflect a more recent standard.(11) This bill would declare that it is to take effect immediately as a bill providing for appropriations related to the Budget Bill.
28+(1) The Alcoholic Beverage Control Act, administered by the Department of Alcoholic Beverage Control, regulates the granting of licenses for the manufacture, distribution, and sale of alcoholic beverages within the state. The act provides for the issuance of licenses for which various fees, including annual fees, are charged depending upon the type of license issued.This bill would make a correction in the provisions that specify annual licensing fees.(2) Existing law creates the Office of Digital Innovation, which is headed by its director, with the mission of delivering better government services to the people of California through technology and design, as specified. Existing law creates the Digital Innovation Services Revolving Fund, which receives all revenues from the sale of services by the office and all other moneys properly credited to the office, for the support of the offices activities. Existing law requires the office to dispose of all records, data, and other documentation in accordance with applicable state law upon completion of each engagement. Existing law requires the director, beginning on or before February 1, 2021, to submit an annual report to the Chairperson of the Joint Legislative Budget Committee or that persons designee that includes a listing and descriptions of all expenditures made from the fund as well as all revenues received by the fund.This bill would delete the requirement that the Office of Digital Innovation dispose of all records, data, and other documentation upon completion of an engagement. The bill would require that the above-described report also include a summary of the activities of the office. The bill also would make technical, nonsubstantive changes to these provisions.(3) Existing provisions of the California Constitution, approved by the electors on November, 4, 2014, establish the Budget Stabilization Account in the General Fund and require the Controller, on or before October 1 of the 201516 fiscal year and each fiscal year thereafter, to transfer from the General Fund to the Budget Stabilization Account amounts that include a sum equal to 1.5% of the estimated amount of General Fund revenues for that fiscal year. These existing provisions prohibit for each fiscal year transfers to the account that would cause the balance in the account to exceed 10% of the amount of General Fund proceeds of taxes for the fiscal year, as estimated by the Department of Finance. These existing provisions authorize, for any fiscal year, General Fund proceeds of taxes that, but for the above prohibition, would have been transferred to the account, to be expended only for infrastructure, as prescribed. Existing law establishes the Budget Deficit Savings Account in the State Treasury and requires deposits to the Budget Stabilization Account for the 201819 fiscal year, above the amounts required by existing provisions of the California Constitution, as defined and appropriated in the 2018 Budget Act, to be transferred from the General Fund to the Budget Deficit Savings Account. Existing law requires the Controller to transfer certain moneys from the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the Budget Stabilization Account, based on an updated projection as calculated by the department, upon order of that department no earlier than May 31, 2019. Existing law requires the Controller, upon order of the department, to transfer 50% of the remaining amounts deposited in the Budget Deficit Savings Account that are not transferred to the Budget Stabilization Account to the Safety Net Reserve Fund in the State Treasury.This bill would specify that the purpose of the Budget Deficit Savings Account is to serve as a supplementary savings account to mitigate the effects of actual or future projected budget deficits in the General Fund or other state funds. The bill would also authorize the Legislature, in any fiscal year, to transfer funds into the Budget Deficit Savings Account or authorize the transfer of some or all of the balance of the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the General Fund or any other state fund.(4) Under existing law and bargaining agreements, the state reimburses employees for all necessary and actual expenses incurred during travel on official state business. Existing law requires state agencies to implement and use the California Automated Travel Expense Reimbursement System (CalATERS) established by the Controller to process travel claims, unless an exemption request is approved. Existing law requires payment for the services of the Controller in implementing these provisions to be made by direct transfer, subject to specified limitations.This bill would repeal the provisions requiring payment for the services of the Controller to state agencies in implementing CalATERS to be made by direct transfer.(5) The Public Employees Retirement Law creates the Public Employees Retirement System (PERS) for the purpose of providing pension benefits to state employees and employees of contracting agencies and prescribes the rights and duties of members of the system and their beneficiaries. PERS provides a defined benefit to members of the system, based on final compensation, credited service, and age at retirement, subject to certain variations. Existing law prescribes the officers and employees of the Assembly and the Senate, including a sergeant at arms for each house. Existing law classifies the sergeants at arms of the houses as peace officers for purposes of making arrests and enforcing the law. Existing law creates different membership categories in PERS for the purpose of prescribing benefits and contributions, including the classification of state peace officer/firefighter member.Existing law generally includes the sergeants at arms of the Assembly and the Senate within the state peace officer/firefighter member classification, but excepts the Chief Sergeant-at-Arms of the Senate from this classification. Existing law creates the Public Employees Retirement Fund as a trust fund to be expended only for purposes related to the system and its administration, as specified, and provides that the fund is continuously appropriated to these ends.This bill would delete the exception for the Chief Sergeant-at-Arms of the Senate, thereby including the Chief Sergeant-at-Arms of the Senate within the state peace officer/firefighter member classification. By increasing moneys deposited in a continuously appropriated fund, the bill would make an appropriation.(6) Existing law, the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Trust Act, establishes the CalSavers Retirement Savings Program to be administered by the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Investment Board. Existing law requires eligible employers to offer a payroll deposit retirement savings arrangement so that eligible employees may contribute a portion of their salary or wages to a retirement savings program account in the program, as specified. Existing law requires a specified percentage of the annual salary or wages of an eligible employee participating in the program to be deposited in the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Trust, which is segregated into a program fund and an administrative fund, both of which are continuously appropriated to the board for purposes of the act. Existing law authorizes the board to establish a Gain and Loss Reserve Account within the program fund to allocate interest at the stated interest rate for program years in which the board determines that the stated interest rate cannot be met from investment earnings.This bill would eliminate the authorization for the board to establish a Gain and Loss Reserve Account within the program fund and would make additional conforming changes. (7) Existing law subjects certain property to forfeiture, including controlled substances and equipment used to process controlled substances. Existing law requires the Attorney General to publish a report on the number of forfeiture actions, the value of the assets forfeited, and the recipients of the forfeited assets. Existing law requires the Attorney Generals report to cover the calendar year and to be made no later than March 1 of each year.This bill would instead require the report to be made no later than July 1 of each year.(8) Existing law imposes various requirements on public and private employers with regard to federal immigration agency worksite enforcement actions. Existing law, except as required by federal law, prohibits an employer from reverifying the employment eligibility of a current employee at a time or in a manner not required by specified federal law. Existing law prescribes a penalty of up to $10,000 for a violation of this prohibition to be recoverable by the Labor Commissioner.This bill would require the above reverification prohibition to be interpreted and applied consistent with federal law and regulations, and would, among other things, specify that the prohibition does not prohibit an employer from taking any lawful action to review the employment authorization of an employee upon knowing that the employee is, or has become, unauthorized to be employed in the United States.(9) Existing law establishes the Office of the Inspector General that is responsible, among other things, for contemporaneous oversight of internal affairs investigations and the disciplinary process of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation. Existing law prohibits the Inspector General from hiring a person known to be directly or indirectly involved in an open internal affairs investigation.This bill would modify the prohibition on hiring to instead prohibit the Inspector General from hiring a person considered a suspect or subject in an investigation. The bill would authorize the Inspector General, among other things, to initiate an audit or review of the departments internal affairs investigations and disciplinary process. The bill would require the Inspector General to provide contemporaneous oversight of grievances that fall within the departments process for reviewing and investigating inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances, examining compliance with regulations, department policy, and best practices. The bill would subject the Inspector General to specified standards of conduct during a confidential interview of an employee of the department. The bill would require the Inspector General to issue specified reports on the oversight, audits, and reviews, as specified.The bill would appropriate $3,499,000 from the General Fund to the Office of the Inspector General to conduct independent audits of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation and to provide oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations process for reviewing and investigating inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances.(10) Existing law requires every motor vehicle subject to registration to be equipped with an adequate muffler in constant operation and properly maintained to prevent any excessive or unusual noise and prohibits a muffler or exhaust system from being equipped with a cutout, bypass, or similar device. Existing law further prohibits the modification of an exhaust system of a motor vehicle in a manner that will amplify or increase the noise emitted by the motor of the vehicle so that the vehicle exceeds existing noise limits when tested in accordance with specified standards. Under existing law, if, after an arrest, accident investigation, or other law enforcement action, it appears that a violation has occurred involving, among other things, vehicle equipment, the arresting officer is required to permit the arrested person to execute a notice containing a promise to correct the violation and to deliver proof of correction to the issuing agency, unless a disqualifying condition exists. Under existing law, a violation of the noise requirements related to mufflers and exhaust systems is a disqualifying condition.This bill would delete a violation of the noise requirements related to mufflers and exhaust systems from the list of disqualifying conditions, thereby making a person who is arrested for one of these offenses eligible to execute the notice described above, except if the violation consists of modifying the exhaust system of a motorcycle in a manner that will cause it to exceed noise limits. The bill would update the noise level testing standards described above to reflect a more recent standard.(11) This bill would declare that it is to take effect immediately as a bill providing for appropriations related to the Budget Bill.This bill would express the intent of the Legislature to enact statutory changes relating to the Budget Act of 2019.
3029
3130 (1) The Alcoholic Beverage Control Act, administered by the Department of Alcoholic Beverage Control, regulates the granting of licenses for the manufacture, distribution, and sale of alcoholic beverages within the state. The act provides for the issuance of licenses for which various fees, including annual fees, are charged depending upon the type of license issued.
3231
3332 This bill would make a correction in the provisions that specify annual licensing fees.
3433
3534 (2) Existing law creates the Office of Digital Innovation, which is headed by its director, with the mission of delivering better government services to the people of California through technology and design, as specified. Existing law creates the Digital Innovation Services Revolving Fund, which receives all revenues from the sale of services by the office and all other moneys properly credited to the office, for the support of the offices activities. Existing law requires the office to dispose of all records, data, and other documentation in accordance with applicable state law upon completion of each engagement. Existing law requires the director, beginning on or before February 1, 2021, to submit an annual report to the Chairperson of the Joint Legislative Budget Committee or that persons designee that includes a listing and descriptions of all expenditures made from the fund as well as all revenues received by the fund.
3635
3736 This bill would delete the requirement that the Office of Digital Innovation dispose of all records, data, and other documentation upon completion of an engagement. The bill would require that the above-described report also include a summary of the activities of the office. The bill also would make technical, nonsubstantive changes to these provisions.
3837
3938 (3) Existing provisions of the California Constitution, approved by the electors on November, 4, 2014, establish the Budget Stabilization Account in the General Fund and require the Controller, on or before October 1 of the 201516 fiscal year and each fiscal year thereafter, to transfer from the General Fund to the Budget Stabilization Account amounts that include a sum equal to 1.5% of the estimated amount of General Fund revenues for that fiscal year. These existing provisions prohibit for each fiscal year transfers to the account that would cause the balance in the account to exceed 10% of the amount of General Fund proceeds of taxes for the fiscal year, as estimated by the Department of Finance. These existing provisions authorize, for any fiscal year, General Fund proceeds of taxes that, but for the above prohibition, would have been transferred to the account, to be expended only for infrastructure, as prescribed. Existing law establishes the Budget Deficit Savings Account in the State Treasury and requires deposits to the Budget Stabilization Account for the 201819 fiscal year, above the amounts required by existing provisions of the California Constitution, as defined and appropriated in the 2018 Budget Act, to be transferred from the General Fund to the Budget Deficit Savings Account. Existing law requires the Controller to transfer certain moneys from the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the Budget Stabilization Account, based on an updated projection as calculated by the department, upon order of that department no earlier than May 31, 2019. Existing law requires the Controller, upon order of the department, to transfer 50% of the remaining amounts deposited in the Budget Deficit Savings Account that are not transferred to the Budget Stabilization Account to the Safety Net Reserve Fund in the State Treasury.
4039
4140 This bill would specify that the purpose of the Budget Deficit Savings Account is to serve as a supplementary savings account to mitigate the effects of actual or future projected budget deficits in the General Fund or other state funds. The bill would also authorize the Legislature, in any fiscal year, to transfer funds into the Budget Deficit Savings Account or authorize the transfer of some or all of the balance of the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the General Fund or any other state fund.
4241
4342 (4) Under existing law and bargaining agreements, the state reimburses employees for all necessary and actual expenses incurred during travel on official state business. Existing law requires state agencies to implement and use the California Automated Travel Expense Reimbursement System (CalATERS) established by the Controller to process travel claims, unless an exemption request is approved. Existing law requires payment for the services of the Controller in implementing these provisions to be made by direct transfer, subject to specified limitations.
4443
4544 This bill would repeal the provisions requiring payment for the services of the Controller to state agencies in implementing CalATERS to be made by direct transfer.
4645
4746 (5) The Public Employees Retirement Law creates the Public Employees Retirement System (PERS) for the purpose of providing pension benefits to state employees and employees of contracting agencies and prescribes the rights and duties of members of the system and their beneficiaries. PERS provides a defined benefit to members of the system, based on final compensation, credited service, and age at retirement, subject to certain variations. Existing law prescribes the officers and employees of the Assembly and the Senate, including a sergeant at arms for each house. Existing law classifies the sergeants at arms of the houses as peace officers for purposes of making arrests and enforcing the law. Existing law creates different membership categories in PERS for the purpose of prescribing benefits and contributions, including the classification of state peace officer/firefighter member.
4847
4948 Existing law generally includes the sergeants at arms of the Assembly and the Senate within the state peace officer/firefighter member classification, but excepts the Chief Sergeant-at-Arms of the Senate from this classification. Existing law creates the Public Employees Retirement Fund as a trust fund to be expended only for purposes related to the system and its administration, as specified, and provides that the fund is continuously appropriated to these ends.
5049
5150 This bill would delete the exception for the Chief Sergeant-at-Arms of the Senate, thereby including the Chief Sergeant-at-Arms of the Senate within the state peace officer/firefighter member classification. By increasing moneys deposited in a continuously appropriated fund, the bill would make an appropriation.
5251
5352 (6) Existing law, the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Trust Act, establishes the CalSavers Retirement Savings Program to be administered by the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Investment Board. Existing law requires eligible employers to offer a payroll deposit retirement savings arrangement so that eligible employees may contribute a portion of their salary or wages to a retirement savings program account in the program, as specified. Existing law requires a specified percentage of the annual salary or wages of an eligible employee participating in the program to be deposited in the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Trust, which is segregated into a program fund and an administrative fund, both of which are continuously appropriated to the board for purposes of the act. Existing law authorizes the board to establish a Gain and Loss Reserve Account within the program fund to allocate interest at the stated interest rate for program years in which the board determines that the stated interest rate cannot be met from investment earnings.
5453
5554 This bill would eliminate the authorization for the board to establish a Gain and Loss Reserve Account within the program fund and would make additional conforming changes.
5655
5756 (7) Existing law subjects certain property to forfeiture, including controlled substances and equipment used to process controlled substances. Existing law requires the Attorney General to publish a report on the number of forfeiture actions, the value of the assets forfeited, and the recipients of the forfeited assets. Existing law requires the Attorney Generals report to cover the calendar year and to be made no later than March 1 of each year.
5857
5958 This bill would instead require the report to be made no later than July 1 of each year.
6059
6160 (8) Existing law imposes various requirements on public and private employers with regard to federal immigration agency worksite enforcement actions. Existing law, except as required by federal law, prohibits an employer from reverifying the employment eligibility of a current employee at a time or in a manner not required by specified federal law. Existing law prescribes a penalty of up to $10,000 for a violation of this prohibition to be recoverable by the Labor Commissioner.
6261
6362 This bill would require the above reverification prohibition to be interpreted and applied consistent with federal law and regulations, and would, among other things, specify that the prohibition does not prohibit an employer from taking any lawful action to review the employment authorization of an employee upon knowing that the employee is, or has become, unauthorized to be employed in the United States.
6463
6564 (9) Existing law establishes the Office of the Inspector General that is responsible, among other things, for contemporaneous oversight of internal affairs investigations and the disciplinary process of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation. Existing law prohibits the Inspector General from hiring a person known to be directly or indirectly involved in an open internal affairs investigation.
6665
6766 This bill would modify the prohibition on hiring to instead prohibit the Inspector General from hiring a person considered a suspect or subject in an investigation. The bill would authorize the Inspector General, among other things, to initiate an audit or review of the departments internal affairs investigations and disciplinary process. The bill would require the Inspector General to provide contemporaneous oversight of grievances that fall within the departments process for reviewing and investigating inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances, examining compliance with regulations, department policy, and best practices. The bill would subject the Inspector General to specified standards of conduct during a confidential interview of an employee of the department. The bill would require the Inspector General to issue specified reports on the oversight, audits, and reviews, as specified.
6867
6968 The bill would appropriate $3,499,000 from the General Fund to the Office of the Inspector General to conduct independent audits of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation and to provide oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations process for reviewing and investigating inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances.
7069
7170 (10) Existing law requires every motor vehicle subject to registration to be equipped with an adequate muffler in constant operation and properly maintained to prevent any excessive or unusual noise and prohibits a muffler or exhaust system from being equipped with a cutout, bypass, or similar device. Existing law further prohibits the modification of an exhaust system of a motor vehicle in a manner that will amplify or increase the noise emitted by the motor of the vehicle so that the vehicle exceeds existing noise limits when tested in accordance with specified standards. Under existing law, if, after an arrest, accident investigation, or other law enforcement action, it appears that a violation has occurred involving, among other things, vehicle equipment, the arresting officer is required to permit the arrested person to execute a notice containing a promise to correct the violation and to deliver proof of correction to the issuing agency, unless a disqualifying condition exists. Under existing law, a violation of the noise requirements related to mufflers and exhaust systems is a disqualifying condition.
7271
7372 This bill would delete a violation of the noise requirements related to mufflers and exhaust systems from the list of disqualifying conditions, thereby making a person who is arrested for one of these offenses eligible to execute the notice described above, except if the violation consists of modifying the exhaust system of a motorcycle in a manner that will cause it to exceed noise limits. The bill would update the noise level testing standards described above to reflect a more recent standard.
7473
7574 (11) This bill would declare that it is to take effect immediately as a bill providing for appropriations related to the Budget Bill.
7675
76+This bill would express the intent of the Legislature to enact statutory changes relating to the Budget Act of 2019.
77+
78+
79+
7780 ## Digest Key
7881
7982 ## Bill Text
8083
81-The people of the State of California do enact as follows:SECTION 1. The Legislature finds and declares the following:(a) Immigrants are valuable and essential members of the California community. Almost one in three Californians is foreign-born and one in two children in California has at least one immigrant parent.(b) California has the fifth largest economy in the world. Californias diverse workforce is critical to Californias vibrant economy.(c) California has a strong interest in ensuring that employers do not discriminate against their employees on the basis of their race, ethnicity, national origin, or citizenship status. Guarding against discrimination or perceived discrimination in the workplace is in the best interest of the health of employees throughout the state and is consistent with state and federal law.(d) Limiting unnecessary reverification reduces the likelihood that reverification will be misused to intimidate, retaliate, or discriminate against employees who are lawfully authorized to be employed in the United States. Limiting unnecessary reverification also fosters trust between employers and their employees, and furthers Californias interest in promoting a diverse workforce.(e) Employers have obligations under federal law to not employ unauthorized workers, with which California law does not interfere. Federal law, however does not intend to impose a continuing verification obligation on employers (see House Report No. 99-682(I), at p. 57).(f) Sections 10 and 11 of this act are intended to clarify that Section 1019.2 of the Labor Code is not in any way intended to interfere with any employers obligations under federal law. Section 1019.2 of the Labor Code is also not intended to prohibit employer actions that may be authorized under federal law.SEC. 2. Section 23320 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:23320. (a) An applicant for a new permanent license, which shall not include duplicate licenses, shall accompany the application with the application fee as specified in this division:(1) The license application fee for a new permanent license shall be nine hundred five dollars ($905), except as otherwise specified.(2) Applicants for a new permanent license of the following types shall accompany the application with a fee of fifteen thousand eight hundred thirty-five dollars ($15,835):(A) Off-sale general (Type 21).(B) On-sale general - eating place (Type 47), on-sale general public premises (Type 48), special on-sale general (Type 57), special on-sale general for-profit theater (Type 71 and Type 72), brewpub-restaurant (Type 75), caterers (Type 83), neighborhood restricted special on-sale (Type 87), and special on-sale general license for historic cemetery (Type 88).(3) Applicants for a new permanent license of the following types shall accompany the application with a fee as indicated:(A) Twelve thousand dollars ($12,000) for a wine, food and art cultural museum (Type 78).(B) Six thousand dollars ($6,000) for an on-sale general - eating place on public property (Type 47) and for an on-sale general restrictive service (Type 70).(C) Two thousand dollars ($2,000) for an on-sale general dockside (Type 62).(D) One thousand dollars ($1,000) for a special on-sale general theater (Type 64).(E) One hundred dollars ($100) for an out-of-state beer manufacturer certificate (Type 26), for a distilled spirits shipper certificate (Type 28), and for a direct shipper permit (Type 82).(F) One hundred dollars ($100) for a still (Type 6).(b) The following are the types of licenses and the annual fees to be charged therefor:(1) (A) For a Type 01 - Beer manufacturer that produces more than 60,000 barrels per year: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one thousand five hundred thirty-one dollars ($1,531) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand eight hundred ninety dollars ($1,890).(B) For a Duplicate Type 01: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(2) (A) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 gallons or less: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-one dollars ($71) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(B) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 - 20,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred thirty-two dollars ($132) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(C) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 20,000 - 100,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(D) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 100,000 - 200,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fourteen dollars ($314) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(E) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 200,000 - 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred sixty-six dollars ($466) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); for each additional 1,000,000 gallons over 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred thirteen dollars ($313) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(G) For a Duplicate Type 02: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(3) (A) For a Type 03 - Brandy manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eleven dollars ($311) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(B) For a Duplicate Type 03: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(4) For a Type 04 - Distilled spirits manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(5) For a Type 05 - Distilled spirits manufacturers agent: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(6) For a Type 06 - Still: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(7) For a Type 07 - Rectifier: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(8) For a Type 08 - Wine rectifier: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(9) For a Type 09 - Beer and wine importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(10) For a Type 10 - Beer and wine importers general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred forty dollars ($340) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(11) For a Type 11 - Brandy importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(12) For a Type 12 - Distilled spirits importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(13) For a Type 13 - Distilled spirits importers general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(14) (A) For a Type 14 - Public warehouse: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(B) For a Duplicate Type 14: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one dollar ($1) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty-five dollars ($25).(15) For a Type 15 - Customs broker: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(16) For a Type 16 - Wine broker: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(17) For a Type 17 - Beer and wine wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred forty dollars ($340) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(18) For a Type 18 - Distilled spirits wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(19) For a Type 19 - Industrial alcohol dealer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(20) For a Type 20 - Off-sale beer and wine: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventy-eight dollars ($278) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(21) For a Type 21 - Off-sale general: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred seventeen dollars ($617) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(22) (A) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 gallons or less: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-one dollars ($71) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(B) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 - 20,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred thirty-two dollars ($132) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(C) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 20,000 gallons - 100,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(D) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 100,000 - 200,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fourteen dollars ($314) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(E) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 200,000 - 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred sixty-six dollars ($466) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); for each additional 1,000,000 gallons over 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred thirteen dollars ($313) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(23) (A) For a Type 23 - Small beer manufacturer that produces 60,000 barrels or less a year: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred eighty-four dollars ($184) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(B) For a Duplicate Type 23: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(24) For a Type 24 - Distilled spirits rectifiers general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(25) For a Type 25 - California brandy wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(26) For a Type 26 - Out-of-state beer manufacturer certificate: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-nine dollars ($79) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(27) For a Type 27 - California winegrowers agent: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(28) For a Type 28 - Out-of-state distilled spirits shipper certificate: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-nine dollars ($79) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(29) For a Type 29 - Winegrape grower storage: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety dollars ($90) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(30) For a Type 40 - On-sale beer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(31) For a Type 41 - On-sale beer and wine eating place: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eighty-four dollars ($384) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(32) For a Type 42 - On-sale beer and wine pub premises: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(33) For a Type 43 - On-sale beer and wine train: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(34) For a Type 44 - On-sale beer and wine fishing party boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(35) For a Type 45 - On-sale beer and wine boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(36) For a Type 46 - On-sale beer and wine airplane: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(37) (A) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 47 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 47 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 47 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(38) (A) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 48 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 48 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 48 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(39) (A) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred forty-seven dollars ($247) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred ninety-four dollars ($494) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(C) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred forty-one dollars ($741) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(D) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred seventy-six dollars ($176) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(E) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fifty dollars ($350) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(F) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred twenty-six dollars ($526) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(G) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fifty-three dollars ($153) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(H) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred six dollars ($306) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(I) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred fifty-eight dollars ($458) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(J) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred seventy-six dollars ($176) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(K) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fifty dollars ($350) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(L) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred twenty-six dollars ($526) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(M) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred twenty-five dollars ($125).(N) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seven dollars ($207) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).(O) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eleven dollars ($311) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred seventy-five dollars ($375).(P) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is eighty-one dollars ($81) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(Q) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-six dollars ($166) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(R) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred forty-seven dollars ($247) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(40) (A) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(41) (A) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(42) (A) For a Type 52 - Veterans club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Type 52 - Veterans club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 52 - Veterans club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(43) (A) For a Type 53 - On-sale general train: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Duplicate Type 53: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(44) For a Type 54 - On-sale general boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty-three dollars ($563) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(45) (A) For a Type 55 - On-sale general license for airplanes: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty-three dollars ($563) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Duplicate Type 55 for air common carriers: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(46) (A) For a Type 56 - On-sale general license for vessels of more than 1,000 tons burden: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Duplicate Type 56: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(47) (A) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 57 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 57 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 57 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(48) (A) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; on-sale general or on-sale beer and wine: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred forty-six dollars ($146) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(B) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; club in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(C) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; club in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(D) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; club in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(49) (A) For a Type 59 - On-sale beer and wine seasonal; operating period 3-9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).(B) For a Type 59 - On-sale beer and wine seasonal; operating period 3-6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-two dollars ($162) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).(50) (A) For a Type 60 - On-sale beer seasonal; operating period 3-9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).(B) For a Type 60 - On-sale beer seasonal; operating period 3-6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-two dollars ($162) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).(51) For a Type 61 - On-sale beer public premises: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(52) For a Type 62 - On-sale general license dockside: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred nine dollars ($609) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(53) For a Type 63 - On-sale special beer and wine hospital: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-six dollars ($96) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(54) (A) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(B) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(55) For a Type 65 - Special on-sale beer and wine symphony: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(56) For a Type 66 - Controlled access cabinet: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred seventeen dollars ($617) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(57) For a Type 67 - Bed and breakfast inn; per room: the fee through September 30, 2019, is eight dollars ($8) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is ten dollars ($10).(58) (A) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(B) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(59) For a Type 69 - Special on-sale beer and wine theater: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(60) (A) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(61) (A) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 71 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 71 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 71 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(62) (A) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 72 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 72 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 72 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(63) For a Type 73 - Special nonprofit sales: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(64) For a Type 74 - Craft distilled spirits manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(65) (A) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 75 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 75 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 75 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(66) (A) For a Type 76 - On-sale general maritime museum: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Duplicate Type 76: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(67) For a Type 77 - Event permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred forty-six dollars ($146) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(68) (A) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 78 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 78 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 78 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(69) For a Type 79 - Certified farmers market: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty-eight dollars ($58) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(70) For a Type 80 - Special on-sale general; per room: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventeen dollars ($17) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty dollars ($20).(71) For a Type 81 - Wine sales event permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty dollars ($50) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(72) For a Type 82 - Direct shipper permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ten dollars ($10) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty-five dollars ($25).(73) (A) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterers permit in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterers permit in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterers permit in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(74) For a Type 84 - Certified farmers market beer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty-eight dollars ($58) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(75) For a Type 85 - Limited off-sale wine license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventy-eight dollars ($278) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(76) For a Type 86 - Instructional tasting license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred dollars ($300) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(77) (A) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 87 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 87 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 87 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(78) (A) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 88 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 88 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 88 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(c) (1) In addition to the application fee for a new permanent license as specified in subdivision (a), an annual renewal fee, as set forth in subdivision (b), shall accompany the application. The application fee shall be nonrefundable up to the amount of the application fee in paragraph (1) of subdivision (a), as adjusted by subdivisions (d) and (e). The annual fee provided at the time of application shall allow the license to be active for one year from the date of issuance and shall be refundable only in the event that the license application is withdrawn or denied.(2) If an application includes multiple new permanent licenses to be issued at the same premises, the application fee shall be required for only one of the applied-for licenses and an application fee shall not be charged for the remainder of the licenses. In situations involving different license types, the application fee to be paid shall be the highest such fee as specified in subdivision (a). Notwithstanding this provision, the annual renewal fee required pursuant to this subdivision shall be payable for each license.(d) Beginning January 1, 2021, and each January 1 thereafter, the department may adjust each of the fees specified in this section by increasing each fee by an amount not to exceed the percentage that the California Consumer Price Index (California Department of Industrial Relations, Division of Labor Statistics and Research, All Items, Base Period 1982-84=100) for the preceding August 2019, and each August annually thereafter, has increased under the same index over the month of August 2018, which shall be the base period. The department shall not adjust fees pursuant to this section if the balance of the Alcohol Beverage Control Fund at the end of the prior fiscal year is greater than one-fourth of the departments appropriation from the Alcohol Beverage Control Fund for the current fiscal year. No fee shall be decreased pursuant to this adjustment below the fee currently in effect on each December 31. If the accumulation of percentage increases is greater than 8 percent, the department shall not adjust fees without the Legislatures approval through the budget process. In the event that this index is discontinued, the department shall consult with the Department of Finance to convert the increase calculations to an index then available. When approved by the Department of Finance, the new index shall replace the discontinued index.(e) When fees are adjusted pursuant to subdivision (d), the department shall calculate the percentage increase as specified in that subdivision and shall apply this increase to each fee. The increase to each fee shall be rounded to the nearest whole five dollars ($5). The adjusted fee list, to be effective on January 1 of the upcoming year, shall be published by the department on its internet website and transmitted in writing to the Chairperson of the Joint Legislative Budget Committee no later than January 10 of the year before it becomes effective. This adjustment of fees and publication of the adjusted fee list is not subject to the requirements of Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.SEC. 3. Section 12815 of the Government Code is amended to read:12815. (a) The Office of Digital Innovation is hereby established on July 1, 2019, within the Government Operations Agency.(b) There shall be a Director of the Office of Digital Innovation.The director shall be appointed by, and serve at the pleasure of, the Governor. The director shall report to the Secretary of Government Operations. The director shall be responsible for managing the affairs of the office and shall perform all duties, exercise all powers and jurisdiction, and assume and discharge all responsibilities necessary to carry out the purposes of this section. The Governor may appoint people to the office who are exempt from civil service. The total number of exempt positions in the office shall not exceed 20.(c) For the purposes of this section:(1) Director means the Director of the Office of Digital Innovation.(2) Fund means the Digital Innovation Services Revolving Fund.(3) Office means the Office of Digital Innovation.(4) Service delivery means the provision of a service or services, product or products, by a state entity or state entities to persons, other state entities, constitutional state entities, independent state entities, local government entities, federal entities, private entities, or nonprofit entities.(5) State entity means an entity within the executive branch that is under the direct authority of the Governor, including, but not limited to, all departments, boards, bureaus, commissions, councils, and agencies.(d) The offices mission shall be to deliver better government services to the people of California through technology and design. The office will fulfill this mission by:(1) Collaborating with state entities to transform government services. The office will focus on measurably improving services using a deliberate, user-focused approach.(2) Investing in state capabilities to put users first, build iteratively, and let data drive decisions.(3) Rethinking and improving how the state buys digital services.(4) Expanding the use of common platforms, services, and tools.(e) The director shall hire staff to assist in the fulfillment of the duties and responsibilities of the office.(f) The director shall establish a program to improve the states service delivery functions, guided by service delivery best practices.(1) The director is hereby authorized to engage with state entities for the purpose of improving the service delivery functions of those state entities.(2) Engagements shall be formalized in writing and shall identify, at minimum, the roles and responsibilities of both the office and the state entity being engaged by the office.(g) The director may create, update, or publish, in consultation with the appropriate control agency, policies, standards, and procedures for state entities in the State Administrative Manual or Statewide Information Management Manual regarding:(1) Service delivery design, implementation, maintenance, and operations.(2) Service delivery assessments.(3) Service delivery improvement and problem mitigation.(h) The director shall train state supervisors, managers, executives, and other staff in leadership positions regarding service delivery best practices. The director is authorized to require state entity staff to attend training deemed necessary by the director. The director may consult or contract with the Department of Human Resources or the Department of Technology for assistance or delivery of training as needed to fulfill the purposes of this section.(i) Any funds appropriated to the office for the purpose of funding various statewide innovation activities are to be administered by the director for the implementation, support, or assessment of state entities existing or proposed service delivery functions.(j) While engaged with a state entity, office staff shall, in the performance of their duties related to the improvement of service delivery functions, have access to, and the authority to examine or reproduce, any and all records, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component related to the service delivery function being improved by the office.(1) The office shall maintain the confidentiality of, and protect from unauthorized access or disclosure, all records, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component received from, or otherwise accessed from, any state entity engaged with the office in accordance with state law, including, but not limited to, the Information Practices Act of 1977.(2) The director, any employee or former employee of the office, any person or business entity that is contracting with or has contracted with the office and the employees and former employees of that person or business entity shall not divulge or make known to any person not employed by the office in any manner not expressly permitted by law any particulars of any record, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component, the disclosure of which is restricted by law from release to the public. This subdivision shall also apply to the officers and employees of, and any person or business entity that is contracting with, or has contracted with, any state or local governmental agency or publicly created entity, that has assisted the office in the course of any engagement.(3) Any officer, employee, or person who discloses the particulars of any record, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component in violation of this section shall be subject to a civil penalty not to exceed five thousand dollars ($5,000), including the release of any information received pursuant to Section 10850 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or that is otherwise prohibited by law to be disclosed.(4) Upon the completion of each engagement, the office shall dispose of all records, data, and other documentation received, copied, or otherwise in the possession of the office as a result of the engagement that contains personally identifiable information in accordance with state law.(k) The adoption, amendment, or repeal of the policies, procedures, guidelines, or other directives consistent with this chapter are exempted from the rulemaking provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1).(l) (1) Effective July 1, 2020, the Digital Innovation Services Revolving Fund is hereby created within the State Treasury. The fund shall be administered by the director to receive all revenues from the sale of services rendered by the office and all other moneys properly credited to the office from any other source. Notwithstanding Section 13340, until July 1, 2024, moneys in the fund are continuously appropriated to the office without regard to fiscal year to pay all costs arising from this section and rendering of services to state entities, including, but not limited to, employment and compensation of necessary personnel and expenses, such as operating and other expenses of the office, and costs associated with approved information technology projects, and to establish reserves. On and after July 1, 2024, moneys in the fund shall be available upon appropriation of the Legislature. At the discretion of the director, segregated, dedicated accounts within the fund may be established.(2) On or before February 1, 2021, and each February 1 thereafter, the director shall submit a report to the Chairperson of the Joint Legislative Budget Committee, or the chairpersons designee, that includes a summary of the activities of the office and a listing and descriptions of all expenditures made from the fund, as well as all revenues received by the fund, for the prior fiscal year.(3) The fund shall consist of all of the following:(A) Moneys appropriated and made available by the Legislature for the purposes of this section.(B) Donations, endowments, or grants of funds from private or public sources for any purposes of this section. The office and the Controller may establish separate accounts in the fund for the purpose of separating deposits according to their origin or intended purpose.(C) Any other moneys that may be made available to the office from any other source, including the return from investments of moneys by the Treasurer.(m) The office may collect payments from state entities for providing services to client entities. The office may require monthly payments by client entities for the services provided. Pursuant to Section 11255, the Controller shall transfer any amounts so authorized by the office, consistent with the annual budget of each department, to the fund. The office shall notify each affected state entity upon requesting the Controller to make the transfer.(n) Notwithstanding any other law, the Controller may use the moneys in the fund for cashflow loans to the General Fund, as provided in Sections 16310 and 16381.SEC. 4. Section 16418.8 of the Government Code is amended to read:16418.8. (a) The Budget Deficit Savings Account is hereby established in the State Treasury to serve as a supplementary savings account to mitigate the effects of actual or future projected budget deficits in the General Fund or other state funds.(b) (1) Deposits to the Budget Stabilization Account for the 201819 fiscal year, above the amounts required by Section 20 of Article XVI of the California Constitution, as defined and appropriated in the 2018 Budget Act, shall be transferred from the General Fund to the Budget Deficit Savings Account. Based on the updated projection as calculated by the Department of Finance during the 201920 May Revision, upon order of the Director of Finance, no earlier than May 31, 2019, the Controller shall transfer the updated amount from the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the Budget Stabilization Account.(2) Upon order of the Director of Finance, the Controller shall transfer 50 percent of the remaining amounts deposited in the Budget Deficit Savings Account that are not transferred to the Budget Stabilization Account pursuant to subdivision (b) to the Safety Net Reserve Fund, created by Section 11011 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. The remaining 50 percent of the balance shall remain in the Budget Deficit Savings Account.(3) In any fiscal year, the Legislature may transfer funds into the Budget Deficit Savings Account or authorize the transfer of some or all of the balance of the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the General Fund or any other state fund.(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the Controller may use the funds in the Budget Deficit Savings Account for cashflow loans to the General Fund as provided in Sections 16310 and 16381.SEC. 5. Section 19822.3 of the Government Code is amended to read:19822.3. All state agencies shall implement and use the California Automated Travel Expense Reimbursement System (CalATERS) to automate processing of employee travel claims by July 1, 2009, unless the Controller recommends, and the Department of Finance approves, an exemption request. To request an exemption, a department or agency shall submit documentation to the Controller no later than July 1, 2007, to substantiate that the implementation of CalATERS is not feasible or cost-effective for that department or agency. The Department of Finance and the Controller shall jointly report to the Joint Legislative Budget Committee, not later than February 1, 2008, on the exemptions that have been approved and the bases for the exemptions.SEC. 6. Section 20397 of the Government Code is amended to read:20397. State peace officer/firefighter member also includes:(a) The Sergeants-at-Arms of each house of the Legislature who have been designated as peace officers in subdivision (a) of Section 830.36 of the Penal Code.(b) Bailiffs and security coordinators of the judicial branch who have been designated as peace officers in subdivision (b) of Section 830.36 of the Penal Code.A member who is reclassified from state miscellaneous to state peace officer/firefighter pursuant to this section may make an irrevocable election in writing to remain subject to the miscellaneous service retirement benefit and the normal rate of contribution by filing a notice of the election with the board within 90 days of notification by the board. A member who so elects shall be subject to the reduced benefit factors specified in Section 21353 or 21354.1, as applicable, only for service included in the federal system.SEC. 7. Section 100002 of the Government Code is amended to read:100002. (a) (1) There is hereby created within state government the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Investment Board, which shall consist of nine members, with the Treasurer serving as chair, as follows:(A) The Treasurer.(B) The Director of Finance, or the directors designee.(C) The Controller.(D) An individual with retirement savings and investment expertise appointed by the Senate Committee on Rules.(E) An employee representative appointed by the Speaker of the Assembly.(F) A small business representative appointed by the Governor.(G) A public member appointed by the Governor.(H) Two additional members appointed by the Governor.(2) Members of the board appointed by the Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, and the Speaker of the Assembly shall serve at the pleasure of the appointing authority.(b) All members of the board shall serve without compensation. Members of the board shall be reimbursed for necessary travel expenses incurred in connection with their board duties.(c) A board member, program administrator, and other staff of the board shall not do any of the following:(1) Directly or indirectly have any interest in the making of any investment made for the program, or in the gains or profits accruing from any investment made for the program.(2) Borrow any funds or deposits of the trust, or use those funds or deposits in any manner, for themselves or as an agent or partner of others.(3) Become an endorser, surety, or obligor on investments by the board.(d) The board and the program administrator and staff, including contracted administrators and consultants, shall discharge their duties as fiduciaries with respect to the trust solely in the interest of the program participants as follows:(1) For the exclusive purposes of providing benefits to program participants and defraying reasonable expenses of administering the program.(2) By investing with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the circumstances then prevailing that a prudent person acting in a like capacity and familiar with those matters would use in the conduct of an enterprise of a like character and with like aims.(e) The board, subject to its authority and fiduciary duty, shall design and implement the CalSavers Retirement Savings Program.(1) (A) For up to three years following the initial implementation of the program, the board shall establish managed accounts invested in United States Treasuries, myRAs, or similar investments.(B) The board shall have the authority to provide for investment in myRAs, provided that, in accordance with the myRA provisions, myRA contributions and investment returns shall only be used for myRA investments and to make distributions to, or for the benefit of, participants and shall not be used to pay any costs of administration.(2) During period described in paragraph (1), the board shall develop and implement an investment policy that defines the programs investment objectives and shall establish policies and procedures enabling investment objectives to be met in a prudent manner. The board shall seek to minimize participant fees and strive to implement program features that provide maximum possible income replacement balanced with appropriate risk in an IRA-based environment. The policy shall describe the investment options available to holders of individual savings accounts established as part of the program. Investment options may encompass a range of risk and return opportunities and allow for a rate of return commensurate with an appropriate level of risk to meet the investment objectives stated in the policy.(3) After the period described in paragraph (1) has expired, the board shall annually prepare and adopt a written statement of investment policy that includes a risk management and oversight program. The board shall consider the statement of investment policy and any changes in the investment policy at a public hearing.(4) The risk management and oversight program shall include an effective risk management system to monitor the risk levels of the CalSavers Retirement Savings Program investment portfolio and ensure that the risks taken are prudent and properly managed. The program shall be managed to provide an integrated process for overall risk management on both a consolidated and disaggregated basis, and to monitor investment returns as well as risk to determine if the risks taken are adequately compensated compared to applicable performance benchmarks and standards.(f) The board shall approve an investment management entity or entities, the costs of which shall be paid out of funds held in the trust and shall not be attributed to the administrative costs of the board in operating the trust. Not later than 30 days after the close of each month, the board shall place on file for public inspection during business hours a report with respect to investments made pursuant to this section and a report of deposits in financial institutions.SEC. 8. Section 100006 of the Government Code is repealed.SEC. 9. Section 11495 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read:11495. (a) The funds received by the law enforcement agencies under Section 11489 shall be deposited into an account maintained by the Controller, county auditor, or city treasurer. These funds shall be distributed to the law enforcement agencies at their request. The Controller, auditor, or treasurer shall maintain a record of these disbursements which records shall be open to public inspection, subject to the privileges contained in Sections 1040, 1041, and 1042 of the Evidence Code.(b) Upon request of the governing body of the jurisdiction in which the distributions are made, the Controller, auditor, or treasurer shall conduct an audit of these funds and their use. In the case of the state, the governing body shall be the Legislature.(c) Each year, the Attorney General shall publish a report that sets forth the following information for the state, each county, each city, and each city and county:(1) The number of forfeiture actions initiated and administered by state or local agencies under California law, the number of cases adopted by the federal government, and the number of cases initiated by a joint federal-state action that were prosecuted under federal law.(2) The number of cases and the administrative number or court docket number of each case for which forfeiture was ordered or declared.(3) The number of suspects charged with a controlled substance violation.(4) The number of alleged criminal offenses that were under federal or state law.(5) The disposition of cases, including no charge, dropped charges, acquittal, plea agreement, jury conviction, or other.(6) The value of the assets forfeited.(7) The recipients of the forfeited assets, the amounts received, and the date of the disbursement.(d) The Attorney General shall develop administrative guidelines for the collection and publication of the information required in subdivision (c).(e) The Attorney Generals report shall cover the calendar year and shall be made no later than July 1 of each year.SEC. 10. Section 1019.2 of the Labor Code is amended to read:1019.2. (a) Except as otherwise required by federal law, a public or private employer, or a person acting on behalf of a public or private employer, shall not reverify the employment eligibility of a current employee at a time or in a manner not required by Section 1324a(b) of Title 8 of the United States Code.(b) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), an employer who violates subdivision (a) shall be subject to a civil penalty of up to ten thousand dollars ($10,000). The penalty shall be recoverable by the Labor Commissioner.(2) The actions of an employer that violate subdivision (a) and result in a civil penalty under paragraph (1) shall not also form the basis for liability or penalty under Section 1019.1.(c) Subdivision (a) shall be interpreted and applied consistent with federal law and regulations. This section does not prohibit an employer from doing any of the following:(1) Reverifying an employees employment authorization in a time and manner consistent with Section 274a.2(b)(1)(vii) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations.(2) Taking any lawful action to review the employment authorization of an employee upon knowing that the employee is, or has become, unauthorized to be employed in the United States, consistent with Section 1324a(a)(2) of Title 8 of the United States Code, including in response to specific and detailed information from any agency within the United States Department of Homeland Security indicating that an employee is not authorized to be employed in the United States.(3) Reminding an employee, at least 90 days before the date reverification is required, that the employee will be required to present a document identified in List A or a combination of one document from List B and one document from List C, as required by the I-9 Employment Eligibility Verification Form, showing continued employment authorization on the date that their current employment authorization will expire or on the date that their current documentation will expire, whichever date is sooner.(4) Taking any lawful action to correct errors or omissions in a missing or incomplete I-9 Employment Eligibility Verification Form.(d) In accordance with state and federal law, nothing in this chapter shall be interpreted, construed, or applied to restrict or limit an employers compliance with a memorandum of understanding governing the use of the federal E-Verify system.(e) For purposes of this section, the term knowing is defined as set forth in Section 274a.1(l) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations and as interpreted by applicable federal rules, regulations, and controlling federal case law. The term knowing includes not only actual knowledge, but also knowledge that may fairly be inferred through notice of certain facts and circumstances that would lead a person, through the exercise of reasonable care, to know about a certain condition. Constructive knowledge may be found under the circumstances described in Section 274a.1(l)(2) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations and may not be inferred from an employees foreign appearance or accent.SEC. 11.Section 1019.3 is added to the Labor Code, to read:1019.3.SEC. 11. Section 1019.4 is added to the Labor Code, to read:1019.4. For purposes of this chapter, the terms reverify or reverifying mean the actions described in Section 274a.2(b)(1)(vii) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations. These terms shall be interpreted consistently with any applicable federal rules, regulations, and controlling federal case law.SEC. 12. Section 6126 of the Penal Code is amended to read:6126. (a) The Inspector General shall be responsible for contemporaneous oversight of internal affairs investigations and the disciplinary process of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, pursuant to Section 6133 under policies to be developed by the Inspector General.(b) When requested by the Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, or the Speaker of the Assembly, the Inspector General shall initiate an audit or review of policies, practices, and procedures of the department. The Inspector General may, under policies developed by the Inspector General, initiate an audit or review on the Inspector Generals own accord. Following a completed audit or review, the Inspector General may perform a followup audit or review to determine what measures the department implemented to address the Inspector Generals findings and to assess the effectiveness of those measures.(c) (1) Upon completion of an audit or review pursuant to subdivision (b), the Inspector General shall prepare a complete written report, which may be held as confidential and disclosed in confidence, along with all underlying materials the Inspector General deems appropriate, to the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation and to the requesting entity in subdivision (b), where applicable.(2) The Inspector General shall also prepare a public report. When necessary, the public report shall differ from the complete written report in the respect that the Inspector General shall have the discretion to redact or otherwise protect the names of individuals, specific locations, or other facts that, if not redacted, might hinder prosecution related to the review, compromise the safety and security of staff, inmates, or members of the public, or where disclosure of the information is otherwise prohibited by law, and to decline to produce any of the underlying materials. Copies of public reports shall be posted on the Office of the Inspector Generals internet website.(d) The Inspector General shall, during the course of an audit or review, identify areas of full and partial compliance, or noncompliance, with departmental policies and procedures, specify deficiencies in the completion and documentation of processes, and recommend corrective actions, including, but not limited to, additional training, additional policies, or changes in policy, as well as any other findings or recommendations that the Inspector General deems appropriate.(e) The Inspector General, pursuant to Section 6126.6, shall review the Governors candidates for appointment to serve as warden for the states adult correctional institutions and as superintendents for the states juvenile facilities.(f) The Inspector General shall conduct an objective, clinically appropriate, and metric-oriented medical inspection program to periodically review delivery of medical care at each state prison.(g) The Inspector General shall conduct an objective, metric-oriented oversight and inspection program to periodically review delivery of the reforms identified in the document released by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation in April 2012, entitled The Future of California Corrections: A Blueprint to Save Billions of Dollars, End Federal Court Oversight, and Improve the Prison System (the blueprint), including, but not limited to, the following specific goals and reforms described by the blueprint:(1) Whether the department has increased the percentage of inmates served in rehabilitative programs to 70 percent of the departments target population prior to their release.(2) The establishment of an adherence to the standardized staffing model at each institution.(3) The establishment of an adherence to the new inmate classification score system.(4) The establishment of and adherence to the new prison gang management system, including changes to the departments current policies for identifying prison-based gang members and associates and the use and conditions associated with the departments security housing units.(5) The implementation of and adherence to the Comprehensive Housing Plan described in the blueprint.(h) The Inspector General shall, in consultation with the Department of Finance, develop a methodology for producing a workload budget to be used for annually adjusting the budget of the Office of the Inspector General, beginning with the budget for the 200506 fiscal year.(i) The Inspector General shall provide contemporaneous oversight of grievances that fall within the departments process for reviewing and investigating inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances, examining compliance with regulations, department policy, and best practices. This contemporaneous oversight shall be completed within the Inspector Generals budget excluding resources that, beginning in the Budget Act of 2019, were provided to restore the Inspector Generals ability to initiate an audit or review pursuant to subdivision (a). The contemporaneous oversight shall be completed in a way that does not unnecessarily slow the departments review and investigation of inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances. The Inspector General shall issue reports annually, beginning in 2021.(j) The Inspector General shall monitor the departments process for reviewing uses of force and shall issue reports annually.SEC. 13. Section 6126.2 of the Penal Code is amended to read:6126.2. The Inspector General shall not hire any person known to be considered a suspect or subject in an investigation being conducted by any federal, state, or local agency.SEC. 14. Section 6126.3 of the Penal Code is amended to read:6126.3. (a) The Inspector General shall not destroy any papers or memoranda used to support a completed review within three years after a report is released.(b) Except as provided in subdivision (c), all books, papers, records, and correspondence of the office pertaining to its work are public records subject to Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code and shall be filed at any of the regularly maintained offices of the Inspector General.(c) The following books, papers, records, and correspondence of the Office of the Inspector General pertaining to its work are not public records subject to Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code, nor shall they be subject to discovery pursuant to any provision of Title 3 (commencing with Section 1985) of Part 4 of the Code of Civil Procedure or Chapter 7 (commencing with Section 19570) of Part 2 of Division 5 of Title 2 of the Government Code in any manner:(1) All reports, papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents that are otherwise exempt from disclosure pursuant to the provisions of subdivision (d) of Section 6126.5, Section 6126.6, subdivision (c) of Section 6128, subdivision (c) of Section 6126, or all other applicable laws regarding confidentiality, including, but not limited to, the California Public Records Act, the Public Safety Officers Procedural Bill of Rights, the Information Practices Act of 1977, the Confidentiality of Medical Information Act of 1977, and the provisions of Section 832.7, relating to the disposition notification for complaints against peace officers.(2) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to any audit or review that has not been completed.(3) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to internal discussions between the Inspector General and the Inspector Generals staff, or between staff members of the Inspector General, or any personal notes of the Inspector General or the Inspector Generals staff.(4) All identifying information, and any personal papers or correspondence from any person requesting assistance from the Inspector General, except in those cases where the Inspector General determines that disclosure of the information is necessary in the interests of justice.(5) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to contemporaneous public oversight pursuant to Section 6133 or subdivision (i) or (j) of Section 6126.SEC. 15. Section 6126.5 of the Penal Code is amended to read:6126.5. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, the Inspector General during regular business hours or at any other time determined necessary by the Inspector General, shall have access to and authority to examine and reproduce any and all books, accounts, reports, vouchers, correspondence files, documents, and other records, and to examine the bank accounts, money, or other property of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation in connection with duties authorized by this chapter. Any officer or employee of any agency or entity having these records or property in their possession or under their control shall permit access to, and examination and reproduction thereof consistent with the provisions of this section, upon the request of the Inspector General or the Inspector Generals authorized representative.(b) In connection with duties authorized by this chapter, the Inspector General or the Inspector Generals authorized representative shall have access to the records and property of any public or private entity or person subject to review or regulation by the public agency or public entity to the same extent that employees or officers of that agency or public entity have access. No provision of law, memorandum of understanding, or any other agreement entered into between the employing entity and the employee or the employees representative providing for the confidentiality or privilege of any records or property shall prevent disclosure pursuant to subdivision (a). Access, examination, and reproduction consistent with the provisions of this section shall not result in the waiver of any confidentiality or privilege regarding any records or property.(c) Any officer or person who fails or refuses to permit access, examination, or reproduction, as required by this section, is guilty of a misdemeanor.(d) The Inspector General may require any employee of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation to be interviewed on a confidential basis. Any employee requested to be interviewed shall comply and shall have time afforded by the appointing authority for the purpose of an interview with the Inspector General or the Inspector Generals designee. The Inspector General shall have the discretion to redact the name or other identifying information of any person interviewed from any public report issued by the Inspector General, where required by law or where the failure to redact the information may hinder prosecution or an action in a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding, or where the Inspector General determines that disclosure of the information is not in the interests of justice. It is not the purpose of these communications to address disciplinary action or grievance procedures that may routinely occur. When conducting an investigation into allegations that an employee of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation engaged in misconduct, the Inspector General shall comply with Sections 3303, 3307, 3307.5, 3308, 3309, and subdivisions (a) to (d), inclusive, of Section 3309.5 of the Government Code, except that the Inspector General shall not be subject to the provisions of any memorandum of understanding or other agreement entered into between the employing entity and the employee or the employees representative that is in conflict with, or adds to the requirements of, Sections 3303, 3307, 3307.5, 3308, 3309, and subdivisions (a) to (d), inclusive, of Section 3309.5 of the Government Code.SEC. 16. Section 6133 of the Penal Code is amended to read:6133. (a) The Office of the Inspector General shall be responsible for contemporaneous public oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation investigations and staff grievance inquiries conducted by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations Office of Internal Affairs. To facilitate oversight of the departments internal affairs investigations, the Office of the Inspector General shall have staff physically colocated with the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations Office of Internal Affairs, within a reasonable timeframe and without any undue delays. The Office of the Inspector General shall also be responsible for advising the public regarding the adequacy of each investigation, and whether discipline of the subject of the investigation is warranted. The Office of the Inspector General shall have discretion to provide public oversight of other Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation personnel investigations as needed.(b) (1) The Office of the Inspector General shall issue regular reports, no less than annually, to the Governor and the Legislature summarizing its recommendations concerning its oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation allegations of internal misconduct and use of force. The Office of the Inspector General shall also issue regular reports, no less than semiannually, summarizing its oversight of Office of Internal Affairs investigations pursuant to subdivision (a). The reports shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:(A) Data on the number, type, and disposition of complaints made against correctional officers and staff.(B) A synopsis of each matter reviewed by the Office of the Inspector General.(C) An assessment of the quality of the investigation, the appropriateness of any disciplinary charges, the Office of the Inspector Generals recommendations regarding the disposition in the case and when founded, the level of discipline afforded, and the degree to which the agencys authorities agreed with the Office of the Inspector General recommendations regarding disposition and level of discipline.(D) The report of any settlement and whether the Office of the Inspector General concurred with the settlement.(E) The extent to which any discipline was modified after imposition.(2) The reports shall be in a form that does not identify the agency employees involved in the alleged misconduct.(3) The reports shall be posted on the Inspector Generals internet website and otherwise made available to the public upon their release to the Governor and the Legislature.SEC. 17. Section 27150.2 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:27150.2. (a) Stations providing referee functions pursuant to Section 44036 of the Health and Safety Code shall provide for the testing of vehicular exhaust systems and the issuance of certificates of compliance only for those vehicles that have received a citation for a violation of Section 27150 or 27151.(b) A certificate of compliance for a vehicular exhaust system shall be issued pursuant to subdivision (a) if the vehicle complies with Sections 27150 and 27151. Exhaust systems installed on motor vehicles, other than motorcycles, with a manufacturers gross vehicle weight rating of less than 6,000 pounds comply with Sections 27150 and 27151 if they emit no more than 95 dbA when tested in accordance with Society of Automotive Engineers Standard J1492 Oct 2008.(c) An exhaust system certificate of compliance issued pursuant to subdivision (a) shall identify, to the extent possible, the make, model, year, license number, and vehicle identification number of the vehicle tested, and the make and model of the exhaust system installed on the vehicle.(d) The station shall charge a fee for the exhaust system certificate of compliance issued pursuant to subdivision (a). The fee charged shall be calculated to recover the costs incurred by the Department of Consumer Affairs to implement this section. The fees charged by the station shall be deposited in the Vehicle Inspection and Repair Fund established by Section 44062 of the Health and Safety Code.(e) Vehicular exhaust systems are exempt from the requirements of Sections 27150 and 27151 if compliance with those sections, or the regulations adopted pursuant thereto, would cause an unreasonable hardship without resulting in a sufficient corresponding benefit with respect to noise level control.SEC. 18. Section 27151 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:27151. (a) A person shall not modify the exhaust system of a motor vehicle in a manner which will amplify or increase the noise emitted by the motor of the vehicle so that the vehicle is not in compliance with the provisions of Section 27150 or exceeds the noise limits established for the type of vehicle in Article 2.5 (commencing with Section 27200). A person shall not operate a motor vehicle with an exhaust system so modified.(b) For the purposes of exhaust systems installed on motor vehicles with a manufacturers gross vehicle weight rating of less than 6,000 pounds, other than motorcycles, a sound level of 95 dbA or less, when tested in accordance with Society of Automotive Engineers Standard J1492 Oct 2008, complies with this section. Motor vehicle exhaust systems or parts thereof include, but are not limited to, nonoriginal exhaust equipment.SEC. 19. Section 40610 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:40610. (a) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), if, after an arrest, accident investigation, or other law enforcement action, it appears that a violation has occurred involving a registration, license, all-terrain vehicle safety certificate, or mechanical requirement of this code, and none of the disqualifying conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist and the investigating officer decides to take enforcement action, the officer shall prepare, in triplicate, and the violator shall sign, a written notice containing the violators promise to correct the alleged violation and to deliver proof of correction of the violation to the issuing agency.(2) If a person is arrested for a violation of Section 4454, and none of the disqualifying conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist, the arresting officer shall prepare, in triplicate, and the violator shall sign, a written notice containing the violators promise to correct the alleged violation and to deliver proof of correction of the violation to the issuing agency. In lieu of issuing a notice to correct violation pursuant to this section, the officer may issue a notice to appear, as specified in Section 40522.(b) Pursuant to subdivision (a), a notice to correct violation shall be issued as provided in this section or a notice to appear shall be issued as provided in Section 40522, unless the officer finds any of the following:(1) Evidence of fraud or persistent neglect.(2) The violation presents an immediate safety hazard.(3) The violator does not agree to, or cannot, promptly correct the violation.(4) The violation cited is of subdivision (a) of Section 27151 for a motorcycle.(c) If any of the conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist, the procedures specified in this section or Section 40522 are inapplicable, and the officer may take other appropriate enforcement action.(d) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision (a), the notice to correct violation shall be on a form approved by the Judicial Council and, in addition to the owners or operators address and identifying information, shall contain an estimate of the reasonable time required for correction and proof of correction of the particular defect, not to exceed 30 days, or 90 days for the all-terrain vehicle safety certificate.SEC. 20. The sum of three million four hundred ninety-nine thousand dollars ($3,499,000) is hereby appropriated from the General Fund to the Office of the Inspector General for expenditure in the 201920 fiscal year in augmentation of Item 0552-001-0001 of Section 2 of the Budget Act of 2019 to fund independent audits of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation and oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations process for reviewing and investigating inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances. SEC. 21. This act is a bill providing for appropriations related to the Budget Bill within the meaning of subdivision (e) of Section 12 of Article IV of the California Constitution, has been identified as related to the budget in the Budget Bill, and shall take effect immediately.
84+The people of the State of California do enact as follows:SECTION 1. The Legislature finds and declares the following:(a) Immigrants are valuable and essential members of the California community. Almost one in three Californians is foreign-born and one in two children in California has at least one immigrant parent.(b) California has the fifth largest economy in the world. Californias diverse workforce is critical to Californias vibrant economy.(c) California has a strong interest in ensuring that employers do not discriminate against their employees on the basis of their race, ethnicity, national origin, or citizenship status. Guarding against discrimination or perceived discrimination in the workplace is in the best interest of the health of employees throughout the state and is consistent with state and federal law.(d) Limiting unnecessary reverification reduces the likelihood that reverification will be misused to intimidate, retaliate, or discriminate against employees who are lawfully authorized to be employed in the United States. Limiting unnecessary reverification also fosters trust between employers and their employees, and furthers Californias interest in promoting a diverse workforce.(e) Employers have obligations under federal law to not employ unauthorized workers, with which California law does not interfere. Federal law, however does not intend to impose a continuing verification obligation on employers (see House Report No. 99-682(I), at p. 57).(f) Sections 10 and 11 of this act are intended to clarify that Section 1019.2 of the Labor Code is not in any way intended to interfere with any employers obligations under federal law. Section 1019.2 of the Labor Code is also not intended to prohibit employer actions that may be authorized under federal law.SEC. 2. Section 23320 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:23320. (a) An applicant for a new permanent license, which shall not include duplicate licenses, shall accompany the application with the application fee as specified in this division:(1) The license application fee for a new permanent license shall be nine hundred five dollars ($905), except as otherwise specified.(2) Applicants for a new permanent license of the following types shall accompany the application with a fee of fifteen thousand eight hundred thirty-five dollars ($15,835):(A) Off-sale general (Type 21).(B) On-sale general - eating place (Type 47), on-sale general public premises (Type 48), special on-sale general (Type 57), special on-sale general for-profit theater (Type 71 and Type 72), brewpub-restaurant (Type 75), caterers (Type 83), neighborhood restricted special on-sale (Type 87), and special on-sale general license for historic cemetery (Type 88).(3) Applicants for a new permanent license of the following types shall accompany the application with a fee as indicated:(A) Twelve thousand dollars ($12,000) for a wine, food and art cultural museum (Type 78).(B) Six thousand dollars ($6,000) for an on-sale general - eating place on public property (Type 47) and for an on-sale general restrictive service (Type 70).(C) Two thousand dollars ($2,000) for an on-sale general dockside (Type 62).(D) One thousand dollars ($1,000) for a special on-sale general theater (Type 64).(E) One hundred dollars ($100) for an out-of-state beer manufacturer certificate (Type 26), for a distilled spirits shipper certificate (Type 28), and for a direct shipper permit (Type 82).(F) One hundred dollars ($100) for a still (Type 6).(b) The following are the types of licenses and the annual fees to be charged therefor:(1) (A) For a Type 01 - Beer manufacturer that produces more than 60,000 barrels per year: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one thousand five hundred thirty-one dollars ($1,531) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand eight hundred ninety dollars ($1,890).(B) For a Duplicate Type 01: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(2) (A) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 gallons or less: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-one dollars ($71) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(B) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 - 20,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred thirty-two dollars ($132) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(C) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 20,000 - 100,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(D) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 100,000 - 200,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fourteen dollars ($314) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(E) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 200,000 - 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred sixty-six dollars ($466) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); for each additional 1,000,000 gallons over 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred thirteen dollars ($313) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(G) For a Duplicate Type 02: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(3) (A) For a Type 03 - Brandy manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eleven dollars ($311) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(B) For a Duplicate Type 03: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(4) For a Type 04 - Distilled spirits manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(5) For a Type 05 - Distilled spirits manufacturers agent: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(6) For a Type 06 - Still: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(7) For a Type 07 - Rectifier: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(8) For a Type 08 - Wine rectifier: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(9) For a Type 09 - Beer and wine importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(10) For a Type 10 - Beer and wine importers general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred forty dollars ($340) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(11) For a Type 11 - Brandy importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(12) For a Type 12 - Distilled spirits importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(13) For a Type 13 - Distilled spirits importers general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(14) (A) For a Type 14 - Public warehouse: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(B) For a Duplicate Type 14: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one dollar ($1) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty-five dollars ($25).(15) For a Type 15 - Customs broker: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(16) For a Type 16 - Wine broker: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(17) For a Type 17 - Beer and wine wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred forty dollars ($340) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(18) For a Type 18 - Distilled spirits wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(19) For a Type 19 - Industrial alcohol dealer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(20) For a Type 20 - Off-sale beer and wine: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventy-eight dollars ($278) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(21) For a Type 21 - Off-sale general: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred seventeen dollars ($617) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(22) (A) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 gallons or less: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-one dollars ($71) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(B) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 - 20,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred thirty-two dollars ($132) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(C) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 20,000 gallons - 100,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(D) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 100,000 - 200,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fourteen dollars ($314) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(E) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 200,000 - 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred sixty-six dollars ($466) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); for each additional 1,000,000 gallons over 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred thirteen dollars ($313) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(23) (A) For a Type 23 - Small beer manufacturer that produces 60,000 barrels or less a year: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred eighty-four dollars ($184) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(B) For a Duplicate Type 23: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(24) For a Type 24 - Distilled spirits rectifiers general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(25) For a Type 25 - California brandy wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(26) For a Type 26 - Out-of-state beer manufacturer certificate: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-nine dollars ($79) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(27) For a Type 27 - California winegrowers agent: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(28) For a Type 28 - Out-of-state distilled spirits shipper certificate: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-nine dollars ($79) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(29) For a Type 29 - Winegrape grower storage: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety dollars ($90) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(30) For a Type 40 - On-sale beer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(31) For a Type 41 - On-sale beer and wine eating place: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eighty-four dollars ($384) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(32) For a Type 42 - On-sale beer and wine pub premises: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(33) For a Type 43 - On-sale beer and wine train: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(34) For a Type 44 - On-sale beer and wine fishing party boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(35) For a Type 45 - On-sale beer and wine boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(36) For a Type 46 - On-sale beer and wine airplane: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(37) (A) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 47 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 47 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 47 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(38) (A) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 48 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 48 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 48 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(39) (A) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred forty-seven dollars ($247) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred ninety-four dollars ($494) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(C) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred forty-one dollars ($741) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(D) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred seventy-six dollars ($176) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(E) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fifty dollars ($350) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(F) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred twenty-six dollars ($526) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(G) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fifty-three dollars ($153) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(H) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred six dollars ($306) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(I) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred fifty-eight dollars ($458) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(J) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred seventy-six dollars ($176) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(K) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fifty dollars ($350) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(L) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred twenty-six dollars ($526) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two six hundred fifteen fifty dollars ($650).(M) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred twenty-five dollars ($125).(N) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seven dollars ($207) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).(O) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eleven dollars ($311) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred seventy-five dollars ($375).(P) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is eighty-one dollars ($81) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(Q) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-six dollars ($166) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(R) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred forty-seven dollars ($247) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(40) (A) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(41) (A) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(42) (A) For a Type 52 - Veterans club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Type 52 - Veterans club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 52 - Veterans club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(43) (A) For a Type 53 - On-sale general train: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Duplicate Type 53: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(44) For a Type 54 - On-sale general boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty-three dollars ($563) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(45) (A) For a Type 55 - On-sale general license for airplanes: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty-three dollars ($563) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Duplicate Type 55 for air common carriers: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(46) (A) For a Type 56 - On-sale general license for vessels of more than 1,000 tons burden: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Duplicate Type 56: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(47) (A) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 57 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 57 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 57 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(48) (A) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; on-sale general or on-sale beer and wine: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred forty-six dollars ($146) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(B) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; club in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(C) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; club in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(D) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; club in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(49) (A) For a Type 59 - On-sale beer and wine seasonal; operating period 3-9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).(B) For a Type 59 - On-sale beer and wine seasonal; operating period 3-6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-two dollars ($162) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).(50) (A) For a Type 60 - On-sale beer seasonal; operating period 3-9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).(B) For a Type 60 - On-sale beer seasonal; operating period 3-6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-two dollars ($162) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).(51) For a Type 61 - On-sale beer public premises: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(52) For a Type 62 - On-sale general license dockside: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred nine dollars ($609) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(53) For a Type 63 - On-sale special beer and wine hospital: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-six dollars ($96) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(54) (A) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(B) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(55) For a Type 65 - Special on-sale beer and wine symphony: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(56) For a Type 66 - Controlled access cabinet: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred seventeen dollars ($617) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(57) For a Type 67 - Bed and breakfast inn; per room: the fee through September 30, 2019, is eight dollars ($8) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is ten dollars ($10).(58) (A) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(B) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(59) For a Type 69 - Special on-sale beer and wine theater: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(60) (A) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(61) (A) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 71 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 71 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 71 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(62) (A) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 72 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 72 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 72 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(63) For a Type 73 - Special nonprofit sales: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(64) For a Type 74 - Craft distilled spirits manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(65) (A) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 75 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 75 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 75 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(66) (A) For a Type 76 - On-sale general maritime museum: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Duplicate Type 76: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(67) For a Type 77 - Event permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred forty-six dollars ($146) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(68) (A) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 78 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 78 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 78 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(69) For a Type 79 - Certified farmers market: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty-eight dollars ($58) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(70) For a Type 80 - Special on-sale general; per room: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventeen dollars ($17) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty dollars ($20).(71) For a Type 81 - Wine sales event permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty dollars ($50) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(72) For a Type 82 - Direct shipper permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ten dollars ($10) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty-five dollars ($25).(73) (A) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterers permit in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterers permit in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterers permit in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(74) For a Type 84 - Certified farmers market beer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty-eight dollars ($58) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(75) For a Type 85 - Limited off-sale wine license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventy-eight dollars ($278) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(76) For a Type 86 - Instructional tasting license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred dollars ($300) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(77) (A) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 87 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 87 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 87 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(78) (A) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 88 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 88 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 88 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(c) (1) In addition to the application fee for a new permanent license as specified in subdivision (a), an annual renewal fee, as set forth in subdivision (b), shall accompany the application. The application fee shall be nonrefundable up to the amount of the application fee in paragraph (1) of subdivision (a), as adjusted by subdivisions (d) and (e). The annual fee provided at the time of application shall allow the license to be active for one year from the date of issuance and shall be refundable only in the event that the license application is withdrawn or denied.(2) If an application includes multiple new permanent licenses to be issued at the same premises, the application fee shall be required for only one of the applied-for licenses and an application fee shall not be charged for the remainder of the licenses. In situations involving different license types, the application fee to be paid shall be the highest such fee as specified in subdivision (a). Notwithstanding this provision, the annual renewal fee required pursuant to this subdivision shall be payable for each license.(d) Beginning January 1, 2021, and each January 1 thereafter, the department may adjust each of the fees specified in this section by increasing each fee by an amount not to exceed the percentage that the California Consumer Price Index (California Department of Industrial Relations, Division of Labor Statistics and Research, All Items, Base Period 1982-84=100) for the preceding August 2019, and each August annually thereafter, has increased under the same index over the month of August 2018, which shall be the base period. The department shall not adjust fees pursuant to this section if the balance of the Alcohol Beverage Control Fund at the end of the prior fiscal year is greater than one-fourth of the departments appropriation from the Alcohol Beverage Control Fund for the current fiscal year. No fee shall be decreased pursuant to this adjustment below the fee currently in effect on each December 31. If the accumulation of percentage increases is greater than 8 percent, the department shall not adjust fees without the Legislatures approval through the budget process. In the event that this index is discontinued, the department shall consult with the Department of Finance to convert the increase calculations to an index then available. When approved by the Department of Finance, the new index shall replace the discontinued index.(e) When fees are adjusted pursuant to subdivision (d), the department shall calculate the percentage increase as specified in that subdivision and shall apply this increase to each fee. The increase to each fee shall be rounded to the nearest whole five dollars ($5). The adjusted fee list, to be effective on January 1 of the upcoming year, shall be published by the department on its internet website and transmitted in writing to the Chairperson of the Joint Legislative Budget Committee no later than January 10 of the year before it becomes effective. This adjustment of fees and publication of the adjusted fee list is not subject to the requirements of Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.SEC. 3. Section 12815 of the Government Code is amended to read:12815. (a) The Office of Digital Innovation is hereby established on July 1, 2019, within the Government Operations Agency.(b) There shall be a Director of the Office of Digital Innovation. (1) TheThe director shall be appointed by, and serve at the pleasure of, the Governor. The director shall report to the Secretary of Government Operations. The director shall be responsible for managing the affairs of the office and shall perform all duties, exercise all powers and jurisdiction, and assume and discharge all responsibilities necessary to carry out the purposes of this section. The Governor may appoint people to the office who are exempt from civil service. The total number of exempt positions in the office shall not exceed 20.(c) For the purposes of this section:(1) Director means the Director of the Office of Digital Innovation.(2) Fund means the Digital Innovation Services Revolving Fund.(3) Office means the Office of Digital Innovation.(4) Service delivery means the provision of a service or services, product or products, by a state entity or state entities to persons, other state entities, constitutional state entities, independent state entities, local government entities, federal entities, private entities, or nonprofit entities.(5) State entity means an entity within the executive branch that is under the direct authority of the Governor, including, but not limited to, all departments, boards, bureaus, commissions, councils, and agencies.(d) The offices mission shall be to deliver better government services to the people of California through technology and design. The office will fulfill this mission by:(1) Collaborating with state entities to transform government services. The office will focus on measurably improving services using a deliberate, user-focused approach.(2) Investing in state capabilities to put users first, build iteratively, and let data drive decisions.(3) Rethinking and improving how the state buys digital services.(4) Expanding the use of common platforms, services, and tools.(e) The director shall hire staff to assist in the fulfillment of the duties and responsibilities of the office.(f) The director shall establish a program to improve the states service delivery functions, guided by service delivery best practices.(1) The director is hereby authorized to engage with state entities for the purpose of improving the service delivery functions of those state entities.(2) Engagements shall be formalized in writing and shall identify, at minimum, the roles and responsibilities of both the office and the state entity being engaged by the office.(g) The director may create, update, or publish, in consultation with the appropriate control agency, policies, standards, and procedures for state entities in the State Administrative Manual or Statewide Information Management Manual regarding:(1) Service delivery design, implementation, maintenance, and operations.(2) Service delivery assessments.(3) Service delivery improvement and problem mitigation.(h) The director shall train state supervisors, managers, executives, and other staff in leadership positions regarding service delivery best practices. The director is authorized to require state entity staff to attend training deemed necessary by the director. The director may consult or contract with the Department of Human Resources or the Department of Technology for assistance or delivery of training as needed to fulfill the purposes of this section.(i) Any funds appropriated to the office for the purpose of funding various statewide innovation activities are to be administered by the director for the implementation, support, or assessment of state entities existing or proposed service delivery functions.(j) While engaged with a state entity, office staff shall, in the performance of their duties related to the improvement of service delivery functions, have access to, and the authority to examine or reproduce, any and all records, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component related to the service delivery function being improved by the office.(1) The office shall maintain the confidentiality of, and protect from unauthorized access or disclosure, all records, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component received from, or otherwise accessed from, any state entity engaged with the office in accordance with applicable laws, policies, and regulations, state law, including, but not limited to, the Information Practices Act of 1977.(2) The director, any employee or former employee of the office, any person or business entity that is contracting with or has contracted with the office and the employees and former employees of that person or business entity shall not divulge or make known to any person not employed by the office in any manner not expressly permitted by law any particulars of any record, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component, the disclosure of which is restricted by law from release to the public. This subdivision shall also apply to the officers and employees of, and any person or business entity that is contracting with, or has contracted with, any state or local governmental agency or publicly created entity, that has assisted the office in the course of any engagement.(3) Any officer, employee, or person who discloses the particulars of any record, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component in violation of this section shall be subject to a civil penalty not to exceed five thousand dollars ($5,000), including the release of any information received pursuant to Section 10850 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or that is otherwise prohibited by law to be disclosed. (4)The office shall ensure that all records, data, and other documentation are disposed of in accordance with applicable state laws, policies, and regulations upon completion of each engagement. (5)(4) Upon the completion of each engagement, the office shall dispose of all records, data, and other documentation received, copied, or otherwise in the possession of the office as a result of the engagement that contains personally identifiable information. information in accordance with state law.(k) The adoption, amendment, or repeal of the policies, procedures, guidelines, or other directives consistent with this chapter are exempted from the rulemaking provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1).(l) (1) Effective July 1, 2020, the Digital Innovation Services Revolving Fund is hereby created within the State Treasury. The fund shall be administered by the director to receive all revenues from the sale of services rendered by the office and all other moneys properly credited to the office from any other source. Notwithstanding Section 13340, until July 1, 2024, moneys in the fund are continuously appropriated to the office without regard to fiscal year to pay all costs arising from this section and rendering of services to state entities, including, but not limited to, employment and compensation of necessary personnel and expenses, such as operating and other expenses of the office, and costs associated with approved information technology projects, and to establish reserves. On and after July 1, 2024, moneys in the fund shall be available upon appropriation of the Legislature. At the discretion of the director, segregated, dedicated accounts within the fund may be established.(2) On or before February 1, 2021, and each February 1 thereafter, the director shall submit a report to the Chairperson of the Joint Legislative Budget Committee, or the chairpersons designee, that includes a summary of the activities of the office and a listing and descriptions of all expenditures made from the fund, as well as all revenues received by the fund, for the prior fiscal year.(3) The fund shall consist of all of the following:(A) Moneys appropriated and made available by the Legislature for the purposes of this section.(B) Donations, endowments, or grants of funds from private or public sources for any purposes of this section. The office and the Controller may establish separate accounts in the fund for the purpose of separating deposits according to their origin or intended purpose.(C) Any other moneys that may be made available to the office from any other source, including the return from investments of moneys by the Treasurer.(m) The office may collect payments from state entities for providing services to client entities. The office may require monthly payments by client entities for the services provided. Pursuant to Section 11255, the Controller shall transfer any amounts so authorized by the office, consistent with the annual budget of each department, to the fund. The office shall notify each affected state entity upon requesting the Controller to make the transfer.(n) Notwithstanding any other law, the Controller may use the moneys in the fund for cashflow loans to the General Fund, as provided in Sections 16310 and 16381.SEC. 4. Section 16418.8 of the Government Code is amended to read:16418.8. (a) The Budget Deficit Savings Account is hereby established in the State Treasury. Treasury to serve as a supplementary savings account to mitigate the effects of actual or future projected budget deficits in the General Fund or other state funds.(b) (1) Deposits to the Budget Stabilization Account for the 201819 fiscal year, above the amounts required by Section 20 of Article XVI of the California Constitution, as defined and appropriated in the 2018 Budget Act, shall be transferred from the General Fund to the Budget Deficit Savings Account. Based on the updated projection as calculated by the Department of Finance during the 201920 May Revision, upon order of the Director of the Department of Finance, no earlier than May 31, 2019, the Controller shall transfer the updated amount from the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the Budget Stabilization Account.(c)(2) Upon order of the Director of the Department of Finance, the Controller shall transfer 50 percent of the remaining amounts deposited in the Budget Deficit Savings Account that are not transferred to the Budget Stabilization Account pursuant to subdivision (b) to the Safety Net Reserve Fund, created by Section 11011 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. The remaining 50 percent of the balance shall remain in the Budget Deficit Savings Account.(3) In any fiscal year, the Legislature may transfer funds into the Budget Deficit Savings Account or authorize the transfer of some or all of the balance of the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the General Fund or any other state fund.(d)(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the Controller may use the funds in the Budget Deficit Savings Account for cash flow cashflow loans to the General Fund as provided in Sections 16310 and 16381.SEC. 5. Section 19822.3 of the Government Code is amended to read:19822.3. (a)All state agencies shall implement and use the California Automated Travel Expense Reimbursement System (CalATERS) to automate processing of employee travel claims by July 1, 2009, unless the Controller recommends, and the Department of Finance approves, an exemption request. To request an exemption, a department or agency shall submit documentation to the Controller no later than July 1, 2007, to substantiate that the implementation of CalATERS is not feasible or cost-effective for that department or agency. The Department of Finance and the Controller shall jointly report to the Joint Legislative Budget Committee, not later than February 1, 2008, on the exemptions that have been approved and the bases for the exemptions.(b)Payments for the services of the Controller to implement this section shall be made by direct transfer as described in Section 11255. The total transfer shall not exceed the reimbursement expenditure authority provided to the Controller for CalATERS pursuant to the annual Budget Act, as adjusted by subsequent budget revisions approved by the Department of Finance.SEC. 6. Section 20397 of the Government Code is amended to read:20397. State peace officer/firefighter member also includes:(a) The Sergeants-at-Arms of each house of the Legislature who have been designated as peace officers in subdivision (a) of Section 830.36 of the Penal Code, excluding the Chief Sergeant-at-Arms of the Senate. Code.(b) Bailiffs and security coordinators of the judicial branch who have been designated as peace officers in subdivision (b) of Section 830.36 of the Penal Code.A member who is reclassified from state miscellaneous to state peace officer/firefighter pursuant to this section may make an irrevocable election in writing to remain subject to the miscellaneous service retirement benefit and the normal rate of contribution by filing a notice of the election with the board within 90 days of notification by the board. A member who so elects shall be subject to the reduced benefit factors specified in Section 21353 or 21354.1, as applicable, only for service included in the federal system.SEC. 7. Section 100002 of the Government Code is amended to read:100002. (a) (1) There is hereby created within state government the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Investment Board, which shall consist of nine members, with the Treasurer serving as chair, as follows:(A) The Treasurer.(B) The Director of Finance, or his or her the directors designee.(C) The Controller.(D) An individual with retirement savings and investment expertise appointed by the Senate Committee on Rules.(E) An employee representative appointed by the Speaker of the Assembly.(F) A small business representative appointed by the Governor.(G) A public member appointed by the Governor.(H) Two additional members appointed by the Governor.(2) Members of the board appointed by the Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, and the Speaker of the Assembly shall serve at the pleasure of the appointing authority.(b) All members of the board shall serve without compensation. Members of the board shall be reimbursed for necessary travel expenses incurred in connection with their board duties.(c) A board member, program administrator, and other staff of the board shall not do any of the following:(1) Directly or indirectly have any interest in the making of any investment made for the program, or in the gains or profits accruing from any investment made for the program.(2) Borrow any funds or deposits of the trust, or use those funds or deposits in any manner, for himself themselves or herself or as an agent or partner of others.(3) Become an endorser, surety, or obligor on investments by the board.(d) The board and the program administrator and staff, including contracted administrators and consultants, shall discharge their duties as fiduciaries with respect to the trust solely in the interest of the program participants as follows:(1) For the exclusive purposes of providing benefits to program participants and defraying reasonable expenses of administering the program.(2) By investing with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the circumstances then prevailing that a prudent person acting in a like capacity and familiar with those matters would use in the conduct of an enterprise of a like character and with like aims.(e) The board, subject to its authority and fiduciary duty, shall design and implement the CalSavers Retirement Savings Program.(1) (A) For up to three years following the initial implementation of the program, the board shall establish managed accounts invested in United States Treasuries, myRAs, or similar investments.(B) The board shall have the authority to provide for investment in myRAs, provided that, in accordance with the myRA provisions, myRA contributions and investment returns shall only be used for myRA investments and to make distributions to, or for the benefit of, participants and shall not be used to pay any costs of administration.(2) (A)During period described in paragraph (1), the board shall develop and implement an investment policy that defines the programs investment objectives and shall establish policies and procedures enabling investment objectives to be met in a prudent manner. The board shall seek to minimize participant fees and strive to implement program features that provide maximum possible income replacement balanced with appropriate risk in an IRA-based environment. The policy shall describe the investment options available to holders of individual savings accounts established as part of the program. Investment options may encompass a range of risk and return opportunities and allow for a rate of return commensurate with an appropriate level of risk to meet the investment objectives stated in the policy. (B)The board may also develop investment option recommendations that address risk-sharing and smoothing of market losses and gains. Investment option recommendations may include, but are not limited to, the creation of a reserve fund or the establishment of customized investment products. Implementation of an investment option recommendation pursuant to this subparagraph shall be contingent upon subsequent approval by the Legislature. (3) After the period described in paragraph (1) has expired, the board shall annually prepare and adopt a written statement of investment policy that includes a risk management and oversight program. The board shall consider the statement of investment policy and any changes in the investment policy at a public hearing.(4) The risk management and oversight program shall include an effective risk management system to monitor the risk levels of the CalSavers Retirement Savings Program investment portfolio and ensure that the risks taken are prudent and properly managed. The program shall be managed to provide an integrated process for overall risk management on both a consolidated and disaggregated basis, and to monitor investment returns as well as risk to determine if the risks taken are adequately compensated compared to applicable performance benchmarks and standards.(f) The board shall approve an investment management entity or entities, the costs of which shall be paid out of funds held in the trust and shall not be attributed to the administrative costs of the board in operating the trust. Not later than 30 days after the close of each month, the board shall place on file for public inspection during business hours a report with respect to investments made pursuant to this section and a report of deposits in financial institutions.SEC. 8. Section 100006 of the Government Code is repealed.100006.(a)The board may establish a segregated account within the program fund to be known as the Gain and Loss Reserve Account. The board shall have sole authority over the Gain and Loss Reserve Account, if established. The Gain and Loss Reserve Account may be used to allocate interest at the stated interest rate for program years in which the board determines that the stated interest rate cannot be met from investment earnings.(b)The board shall establish a goal for the balance of the Gain and Loss Reserve Account and shall periodically review the sufficiency of the reserve account based on the recommendations of the boards actuary.(c)The board may allocate excess earnings of the program with respect to assets attributable to the program to the Gain and Loss Reserve Account. In addition, the board may allocate any liability gains and losses to the Gain and Loss Reserve Account. Based on an actuarial valuation following each program year, the board shall determine annually the amount, if any, that is to be allocated to the Gain and Loss Reserve Account for that program year. In determining whether to allocate excess earnings to the Gain and Loss Reserve Account, the board shall consider all of the following:(1)Whether or not the program has excess earnings.(2)The sufficiency of the Gain and Loss Reserve Account in light of the goal established pursuant to subdivision (b).(3)The amount required for the programs administrative costs.(4)The amount required for making allocations to individuals accounts at the stated interest rate.(d)In determining whether to allocate liability gains and losses to the Gain and Loss Reserve Account, the board shall consider the matters described in paragraphs (2), (3), and (4) of subdivision (c).SEC. 9. Section 11495 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read:11495. (a) The funds received by the law enforcement agencies under Section 11489 shall be deposited into an account maintained by the Controller, county auditor, or city treasurer. These funds shall be distributed to the law enforcement agencies at their request. The Controller, auditor, or treasurer shall maintain a record of these disbursements which records shall be open to public inspection, subject to the privileges contained in Sections 1040, 1041, and 1042 of the Evidence Code.(b) Upon request of the governing body of the jurisdiction in which the distributions are made, the Controller, auditor, or treasurer shall conduct an audit of these funds and their use. In the case of the state, the governing body shall be the Legislature.(c) Each year, the Attorney General shall publish a report which that sets forth the following information for the state, each county, each city, and each city and county:(1) The number of forfeiture actions initiated and administered by state or local agencies under California law, the number of cases adopted by the federal government, and the number of cases initiated by a joint federal-state action that were prosecuted under federal law.(2) The number of cases and the administrative number or court docket number of each case for which forfeiture was ordered or declared.(3) The number of suspects charged with a controlled substance violation.(4) The number of alleged criminal offenses that were under federal or state law.(5) The disposition of cases, including no charge, dropped charges, acquittal, plea agreement, jury conviction, or other.(6) The value of the assets forfeited.(7) The recipients of the forfeited assets, the amounts received, and the date of the disbursement.(d) The Attorney General shall develop administrative guidelines for the collection and publication of the information required in subdivision (c).(e) The Attorney Generals report shall cover the calendar year and shall be made no later than March July 1 of each year beginning with the year after the enactment of this law. year.SEC. 10. Section 1019.2 of the Labor Code is amended to read:1019.2. (a) Except as otherwise required by federal law, a public or private employer, or a person acting on behalf of a public or private employer, shall not reverify the employment eligibility of a current employee at a time or in a manner not required by Section 1324a(b) of Title 8 of the United States Code.(b) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), an employer who violates subdivision (a) shall be subject to a civil penalty of up to ten thousand dollars ($10,000). The penalty shall be recoverable by the Labor Commissioner.(2) The actions of an employer that violate subdivision (a) and result in a civil penalty under paragraph (1) shall not also form the basis for liability or penalty under Section 1019.1.(c) Subdivision (a) shall be interpreted and applied consistent with federal law and regulations. This section does not prohibit an employer from doing any of the following:(1) Reverifying an employees employment authorization in a time and manner consistent with Section 274a.2(b)(1)(vii) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations.(2) Taking any lawful action to review the employment authorization of an employee upon knowing that the employee is, or has become, unauthorized to be employed in the United States, consistent with Section 1324a(a)(2) of Title 8 of the United States Code, including in response to specific and detailed information from any agency within the United States Department of Homeland Security indicating that an employee is not authorized to be employed in the United States.(3) Reminding an employee, at least 90 days before the date reverification is required, that the employee will be required to present a document identified in List A or a combination of one document from List B and one document from List C, as required by the I-9 Employment Eligibility Verification Form, showing continued employment authorization on the date that their current employment authorization will expire or on the date that their current documentation will expire, whichever date is sooner.(4) Taking any lawful action to correct errors or omissions in a missing or incomplete I-9 Employment Eligibility Verification Form.(c)(d) In accordance with state and federal law, nothing in this chapter shall be interpreted, construed, or applied to restrict or limit an employers compliance with a memorandum of understanding governing the use of the federal E-Verify system.(e) For purposes of this section, the term knowing is defined as set forth in Section 274a.1(l) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations and as interpreted by applicable federal rules, regulations, and controlling federal case law. The term knowing includes not only actual knowledge, but also knowledge that may fairly be inferred through notice of certain facts and circumstances that would lead a person, through the exercise of reasonable care, to know about a certain condition. Constructive knowledge may be found under the circumstances described in Section 274a.1(l)(2) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations and may not be inferred from an employees foreign appearance or accent.SEC. 11. Section 1019.3 is added to the Labor Code, to read:1019.3. For purposes of this chapter, the terms reverify or reverifying mean the actions described in Section 274a.2(b)(1)(vii) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations. These terms shall be interpreted consistently with any applicable federal rules, regulations, and controlling federal case law.SEC. 12. Section 6126 of the Penal Code is amended to read:6126. (a) The Inspector General shall be responsible for contemporaneous oversight of internal affairs investigations and the disciplinary process of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, pursuant to Section 6133 under policies to be developed by the Inspector General.(b) When requested by the Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, or the Speaker of the Assembly, the Inspector General shall initiate an audit or review of policies, practices, and procedures of the department. The Inspector General, General may, under policies developed by the Inspector General, may recommend that the Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, initiate an audit or the Speaker of the Assembly request a review of a specific departmental policy, practice, or procedure that raises a significant correctional issue relevant to on the effectiveness of the department. When exigent circumstances of unsafe Inspector Generals own accord. Following a completed audit or life threatening situations arise involving inmates, wards, parolees, or staff, review, the Inspector General may, by whatever means is most expeditious, notify may perform a followup audit or review to determine what measures the Governor, Senate Committee on Rules, or department implemented to address the Speaker Inspector Generals findings and to assess the effectiveness of the Assembly. those measures.(c) (1) Upon completion of a review, an audit or review pursuant to subdivision (b), the Inspector General shall prepare a complete written report, which shall may be held as confidential and disclosed in confidence, along with all underlying materials the Inspector General deems appropriate, to the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation and to the requesting entity in subdivision (b) and the appropriate law enforcement agency. (b), where applicable.(2) The Inspector General shall also prepare a public report. When necessary, the public report shall differ from the complete written report in the respect that the Inspector General shall have the discretion to redact or otherwise protect the names of individuals, specific locations, or other facts that, if not redacted, might hinder prosecution related to the review, compromise the safety and security of staff, inmates, or members of the public, or where disclosure of the information is otherwise prohibited by law, and to decline to produce any of the underlying materials. Copies of public reports shall be posted on the Office of the Inspector Generals Internet Web site. internet website.(d) The Inspector General shall, during the course of a an audit or review, identify areas of full and partial compliance, or noncompliance, with departmental policies and procedures, specify deficiencies in the completion and documentation of processes, and recommend corrective actions, including, but not limited to, additional training, additional policies, or changes in policy, as well as any other findings or recommendations that the Inspector General deems appropriate.(e) The Inspector General, pursuant to Section 6126.6, shall review the Governors candidates for appointment to serve as warden for the states adult correctional institutions and as superintendents for the states juvenile facilities.(f) The Inspector General shall conduct an objective, clinically appropriate, and metric-oriented medical inspection program to periodically review delivery of medical care at each state prison.(g) The Inspector General shall conduct an objective, metric-oriented oversight and inspection program to periodically review delivery of the reforms identified in the document released by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation in April 2012, entitled The Future of California Corrections: A Blueprint to Save Billions of Dollars, End Federal Court Oversight, and Improve the Prison System (the blueprint), including, but not limited to, the following specific goals and reforms described by the blueprint:(1) Whether the department has increased the percentage of inmates served in rehabilitative programs to 70 percent of the departments target population prior to their release.(2) The establishment of an adherence to the standardized staffing model at each institution.(3) The establishment of an adherence to the new inmate classification score system.(4) The establishment of and adherence to the new prison gang management system, including changes to the departments current policies for identifying prison-based gang members and associates and the use and conditions associated with the departments security housing units.(5) The implementation of and adherence to the Comprehensive Housing Plan described in the blueprint.(h) The Inspector General shall, in consultation with the Department of Finance, develop a methodology for producing a workload budget to be used for annually adjusting the budget of the Office of the Inspector General, beginning with the budget for the 200506 fiscal year.(i) The Inspector General shall provide contemporaneous oversight of grievances that fall within the departments process for reviewing and investigating inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances, examining compliance with regulations, department policy, and best practices. This contemporaneous oversight shall be completed within the Inspector Generals budget excluding resources that, beginning in the Budget Act of 2019, were provided to restore the Inspector Generals ability to initiate an audit or review pursuant to subdivision (a). The contemporaneous oversight shall be completed in a way that does not unnecessarily slow the departments review and investigation of inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances. The Inspector General shall issue reports annually, beginning in 2021.(j) The Inspector General shall monitor the departments process for reviewing uses of force and shall issue reports annually.SEC. 13. Section 6126.2 of the Penal Code is amended to read:6126.2. The Inspector General shall not hire any person known to be directly considered a suspect or indirectly involved subject in an open internal affairs investigation being conducted by any federal, state, or local agency.SEC. 14. Section 6126.3 of the Penal Code is amended to read:6126.3. (a) The Inspector General shall not destroy any papers or memoranda used to support a completed review within three years after a report is released.(b) Except as provided in subdivision (c), all books, papers, records, and correspondence of the office pertaining to its work are public records subject to Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code and shall be filed at any of the regularly maintained offices of the Inspector General.(c) The following books, papers, records, and correspondence of the Office of the Inspector General pertaining to its work are not public records subject to Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code, nor shall they be subject to discovery pursuant to any provision of Title 3 (commencing with Section 1985) of Part 4 of the Code of Civil Procedure or Chapter 7 (commencing with Section 19570) of Part 2 of Division 5 of Title 2 of the Government Code in any manner:(1) All reports, papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents that are otherwise exempt from disclosure pursuant to the provisions of subdivision (d) of Section 6126.5, Section 6126.6, subdivision (c) of Section 6128, subdivision (c) of Section 6126, or all other applicable laws regarding confidentiality, including, but not limited to, the California Public Records Act, the Public Safety Officers Procedural Bill of Rights, the Information Practices Act of 1977, the Confidentiality of Medical Information Act of 1977, and the provisions of Section 832.7, relating to the disposition notification for complaints against peace officers.(2) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to any audit or review that has not been completed.(3) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to internal discussions between the Inspector General and his or her the Inspector Generals staff, or between staff members of the Inspector General, or any personal notes of the Inspector General or his or her the Inspector Generals staff.(4) All identifying information, and any personal papers or correspondence from any person requesting assistance from the Inspector General, except in those cases where the Inspector General determines that disclosure of the information is necessary in the interests of justice.(5) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to contemporaneous public oversight pursuant to Section 6133. 6133 or subdivision (i) or (j) of Section 6126.SEC. 15. Section 6126.5 of the Penal Code is amended to read:6126.5. (a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the Inspector General during regular business hours or at any other time determined necessary by the Inspector General, shall have access to and authority to examine and reproduce any and all books, accounts, reports, vouchers, correspondence files, documents, and other records, and to examine the bank accounts, money, or other property of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation in connection with duties authorized by this chapter. Any officer or employee of any agency or entity having these records or property in his or her their possession or under his or her their control shall permit access to, and examination and reproduction thereof consistent with the provisions of this section, upon the request of the Inspector General or his or her the Inspector Generals authorized representative.(b) In connection with duties authorized by this chapter, the Inspector General or his or her the Inspector Generals authorized representative shall have access to the records and property of any public or private entity or person subject to review or regulation by the public agency or public entity to the same extent that employees or officers of that agency or public entity have access. No provision of law or any law, memorandum of understanding understanding, or any other agreement entered into between the employing entity and the employee or the employees representative providing for the confidentiality or privilege of any records or property shall prevent disclosure pursuant to subdivision (a). Access, examination, and reproduction consistent with the provisions of this section shall not result in the waiver of any confidentiality or privilege regarding any records or property.(c) Any officer or person who fails or refuses to permit access, examination, or reproduction, as required by this section, is guilty of a misdemeanor.(d) The Inspector General may require any employee of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation to be interviewed on a confidential basis. Any employee requested to be interviewed shall comply and shall have time afforded by the appointing authority for the purpose of an interview with the Inspector General or his or her the Inspector Generals designee. The Inspector General shall have the discretion to redact the name or other identifying information of any person interviewed from any public report issued by the Inspector General, where required by law or where the failure to redact the information may hinder prosecution or an action in a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding, or where the Inspector General determines that disclosure of the information is not in the interests of justice. It is not the purpose of these communications to address disciplinary action or grievance procedures that may routinely occur. If it appears When conducting an investigation into allegations that the facts an employee of the case could lead to punitive action, Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation engaged in misconduct, the Inspector General shall be subject to comply with Sections 3303, 3307, 3307.5, 3308, 3309, and subdivisions (a) to (d), inclusive, of Section 3309.5 of the Government Code as if the Inspector General were the employer, Code, except that the Inspector General shall not be subject to the provisions of any memorandum of understanding or other agreement entered into between the employing entity and the employee or the employees representative that is in conflict with, or adds to the requirements of, Sections 3303, 3307, 3307.5, 3308, 3309, and subdivisions (a) to (d), inclusive, of Section 3309.5 of the Government Code.SEC. 16. Section 6133 of the Penal Code is amended to read:6133. (a) The Office of the Inspector General shall be responsible for contemporaneous public oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation investigations and staff grievance inquiries conducted by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations Office of Internal Affairs. To facilitate oversight, oversight of the departments internal affairs investigations, the Office of the Inspector General shall have staff physically colocated with the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations Office of Internal Affairs, within a reasonable timeframe and without any undue delays. The Office of the Inspector General shall also be responsible for advising the public regarding the adequacy of each investigation, and whether discipline of the subject of the investigation is warranted. The Office of the Inspector General shall have discretion to provide public oversight of other Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation personnel investigations as needed.(b) (1) The Office of the Inspector General shall issue regular reports, no less than annually, to the Governor and the Legislature summarizing its recommendations concerning its oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation allegations of internal misconduct and use of force. The Office of the Inspector General shall also issue regular reports, no less than semiannually, summarizing its oversight of Office of Internal Affairs investigations pursuant to subdivision (a). The reports shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:(A) Data on the number, type, and disposition of complaints made against correctional officers and staff.(B) A synopsis of each matter reviewed by the Office of the Inspector General.(C) An assessment of the quality of the investigation, the appropriateness of any disciplinary charges, the Office of the Inspector Generals recommendations regarding the disposition in the case and when founded, the level of discipline afforded, and the degree to which the agencys authorities agreed with the Office of the Inspector General recommendations regarding disposition and level of discipline.(D) The report of any settlement and whether the Office of the Inspector General concurred with the settlement.(E) The extent to which any discipline was modified after imposition.(2) The reports shall be in a form that does not identify the agency employees involved in the alleged misconduct.(3) The reports shall be posted on the Inspector Generals Internet Web site internet website and otherwise made available to the public upon their release to the Governor and the Legislature.SEC. 17. Section 27150.2 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:27150.2. (a) Stations providing referee functions pursuant to Section 44036 of the Health and Safety Code shall provide for the testing of vehicular exhaust systems and the issuance of certificates of compliance only for those vehicles that have received a citation for a violation of Section 27150 or 27151.(b) A certificate of compliance for a vehicular exhaust system shall be issued pursuant to subdivision (a) if the vehicle complies with Sections 27150 and 27151. Exhaust systems installed on motor vehicles, other than motorcycles, with a manufacturers gross vehicle weight rating of less than 6,000 pounds comply with Sections 27150 and 27151 if they emit no more than 95 dbA when tested in accordance with Society of Automotive Engineers Standard J1169 May 1998. J1492 Oct 2008.(c) An exhaust system certificate of compliance issued pursuant to subdivision (a) shall identify, to the extent possible, the make, model, year, license number, and vehicle identification number of the vehicle tested, and the make and model of the exhaust system installed on the vehicle.(d) The station shall charge a fee for the exhaust system certificate of compliance issued pursuant to subdivision (a). The fee charged shall be calculated to recover the costs incurred by the Department of Consumer Affairs to implement this section. The fees charged by the station shall be deposited in the Vehicle Inspection and Repair Fund established by Section 44062 of the Health and Safety Code.(e) Vehicular exhaust systems are exempt from the requirements of Sections 27150 and 27151 if compliance with those sections, or the regulations adopted pursuant thereto, would cause an unreasonable hardship without resulting in a sufficient corresponding benefit with respect to noise level control.SEC. 18. Section 27151 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:27151. (a) No A person shall not modify the exhaust system of a motor vehicle in a manner which will amplify or increase the noise emitted by the motor of the vehicle so that the vehicle is not in compliance with the provisions of Section 27150 or exceeds the noise limits established for the type of vehicle in Article 2.5 (commencing with Section 27200). No A person shall not operate a motor vehicle with an exhaust system so modified.(b) For the purposes of exhaust systems installed on motor vehicles with a manufacturers gross vehicle weight rating of less than 6,000 pounds, other than motorcycles, a sound level of 95 dbA or less, when tested in accordance with Society of Automotive Engineers Standard J1169 May 1998, J1492 Oct 2008, complies with this section. Motor vehicle exhaust systems or parts thereof include, but are not limited to, nonoriginal exhaust equipment.SEC. 19. Section 40610 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:40610. (a) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), if, after an arrest, accident investigation, or other law enforcement action, it appears that a violation has occurred involving a registration, license, all-terrain vehicle safety certificate, or mechanical requirement of this code, and none of the disqualifying conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist and the investigating officer decides to take enforcement action, the officer shall prepare, in triplicate, and the violator shall sign, a written notice containing the violators promise to correct the alleged violation and to deliver proof of correction of the violation to the issuing agency.(2) If any a person is arrested for a violation of Section 4454, and none of the disqualifying conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist, the arresting officer shall prepare, in triplicate, and the violator shall sign, a written notice containing the violators promise to correct the alleged violation and to deliver proof of correction of the violation to the issuing agency. In lieu of issuing a notice to correct violation pursuant to this section, the officer may issue a notice to appear, as specified in Section 40522.(b) Pursuant to subdivision (a), a notice to correct violation shall be issued as provided in this section or a notice to appear shall be issued as provided in Section 40522, unless the officer finds any of the following:(1) Evidence of fraud or persistent neglect.(2) The violation presents an immediate safety hazard.(3) The violator does not agree to, or cannot, promptly correct the violation.(4) The violation cited is of subdivision (a) of Section 27150 or of subdivision (a) of Section 27151. 27151 for a motorcycle.(c) If any of the conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist, the procedures specified in this section or Section 40522 are inapplicable, and the officer may take other appropriate enforcement action.(d) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision (a), the notice to correct violation shall be on a form approved by the Judicial Council and, in addition to the owners or operators address and identifying information, shall contain an estimate of the reasonable time required for correction and proof of correction of the particular defect, not to exceed 30 days, or 90 days for the all-terrain vehicle safety certificate.SEC. 20. The sum of three million four hundred ninety-nine thousand dollars ($3,499,000) is hereby appropriated from the General Fund to the Office of the Inspector General for expenditure in the 201920 fiscal year in augmentation of Item 0552-001-0001 of Section 2 of the Budget Act of 2019 to fund independent audits of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation and oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations process for reviewing and investigating inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances. SEC. 21. This act is a bill providing for appropriations related to the Budget Bill within the meaning of subdivision (e) of Section 12 of Article IV of the California Constitution, has been identified as related to the budget in the Budget Bill, and shall take effect immediately.SECTION 1.It is the intent of the Legislature to enact statutory changes relating to the Budget Act of 2019.
8285
8386 The people of the State of California do enact as follows:
8487
8588 ## The people of the State of California do enact as follows:
8689
8790 SECTION 1. The Legislature finds and declares the following:(a) Immigrants are valuable and essential members of the California community. Almost one in three Californians is foreign-born and one in two children in California has at least one immigrant parent.(b) California has the fifth largest economy in the world. Californias diverse workforce is critical to Californias vibrant economy.(c) California has a strong interest in ensuring that employers do not discriminate against their employees on the basis of their race, ethnicity, national origin, or citizenship status. Guarding against discrimination or perceived discrimination in the workplace is in the best interest of the health of employees throughout the state and is consistent with state and federal law.(d) Limiting unnecessary reverification reduces the likelihood that reverification will be misused to intimidate, retaliate, or discriminate against employees who are lawfully authorized to be employed in the United States. Limiting unnecessary reverification also fosters trust between employers and their employees, and furthers Californias interest in promoting a diverse workforce.(e) Employers have obligations under federal law to not employ unauthorized workers, with which California law does not interfere. Federal law, however does not intend to impose a continuing verification obligation on employers (see House Report No. 99-682(I), at p. 57).(f) Sections 10 and 11 of this act are intended to clarify that Section 1019.2 of the Labor Code is not in any way intended to interfere with any employers obligations under federal law. Section 1019.2 of the Labor Code is also not intended to prohibit employer actions that may be authorized under federal law.
8891
8992 SECTION 1. The Legislature finds and declares the following:(a) Immigrants are valuable and essential members of the California community. Almost one in three Californians is foreign-born and one in two children in California has at least one immigrant parent.(b) California has the fifth largest economy in the world. Californias diverse workforce is critical to Californias vibrant economy.(c) California has a strong interest in ensuring that employers do not discriminate against their employees on the basis of their race, ethnicity, national origin, or citizenship status. Guarding against discrimination or perceived discrimination in the workplace is in the best interest of the health of employees throughout the state and is consistent with state and federal law.(d) Limiting unnecessary reverification reduces the likelihood that reverification will be misused to intimidate, retaliate, or discriminate against employees who are lawfully authorized to be employed in the United States. Limiting unnecessary reverification also fosters trust between employers and their employees, and furthers Californias interest in promoting a diverse workforce.(e) Employers have obligations under federal law to not employ unauthorized workers, with which California law does not interfere. Federal law, however does not intend to impose a continuing verification obligation on employers (see House Report No. 99-682(I), at p. 57).(f) Sections 10 and 11 of this act are intended to clarify that Section 1019.2 of the Labor Code is not in any way intended to interfere with any employers obligations under federal law. Section 1019.2 of the Labor Code is also not intended to prohibit employer actions that may be authorized under federal law.
9093
9194 SECTION 1. The Legislature finds and declares the following:
9295
9396 ### SECTION 1.
9497
9598 (a) Immigrants are valuable and essential members of the California community. Almost one in three Californians is foreign-born and one in two children in California has at least one immigrant parent.
9699
97100 (b) California has the fifth largest economy in the world. Californias diverse workforce is critical to Californias vibrant economy.
98101
99102 (c) California has a strong interest in ensuring that employers do not discriminate against their employees on the basis of their race, ethnicity, national origin, or citizenship status. Guarding against discrimination or perceived discrimination in the workplace is in the best interest of the health of employees throughout the state and is consistent with state and federal law.
100103
101104 (d) Limiting unnecessary reverification reduces the likelihood that reverification will be misused to intimidate, retaliate, or discriminate against employees who are lawfully authorized to be employed in the United States. Limiting unnecessary reverification also fosters trust between employers and their employees, and furthers Californias interest in promoting a diverse workforce.
102105
103106 (e) Employers have obligations under federal law to not employ unauthorized workers, with which California law does not interfere. Federal law, however does not intend to impose a continuing verification obligation on employers (see House Report No. 99-682(I), at p. 57).
104107
105108 (f) Sections 10 and 11 of this act are intended to clarify that Section 1019.2 of the Labor Code is not in any way intended to interfere with any employers obligations under federal law. Section 1019.2 of the Labor Code is also not intended to prohibit employer actions that may be authorized under federal law.
106109
107-SEC. 2. Section 23320 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:23320. (a) An applicant for a new permanent license, which shall not include duplicate licenses, shall accompany the application with the application fee as specified in this division:(1) The license application fee for a new permanent license shall be nine hundred five dollars ($905), except as otherwise specified.(2) Applicants for a new permanent license of the following types shall accompany the application with a fee of fifteen thousand eight hundred thirty-five dollars ($15,835):(A) Off-sale general (Type 21).(B) On-sale general - eating place (Type 47), on-sale general public premises (Type 48), special on-sale general (Type 57), special on-sale general for-profit theater (Type 71 and Type 72), brewpub-restaurant (Type 75), caterers (Type 83), neighborhood restricted special on-sale (Type 87), and special on-sale general license for historic cemetery (Type 88).(3) Applicants for a new permanent license of the following types shall accompany the application with a fee as indicated:(A) Twelve thousand dollars ($12,000) for a wine, food and art cultural museum (Type 78).(B) Six thousand dollars ($6,000) for an on-sale general - eating place on public property (Type 47) and for an on-sale general restrictive service (Type 70).(C) Two thousand dollars ($2,000) for an on-sale general dockside (Type 62).(D) One thousand dollars ($1,000) for a special on-sale general theater (Type 64).(E) One hundred dollars ($100) for an out-of-state beer manufacturer certificate (Type 26), for a distilled spirits shipper certificate (Type 28), and for a direct shipper permit (Type 82).(F) One hundred dollars ($100) for a still (Type 6).(b) The following are the types of licenses and the annual fees to be charged therefor:(1) (A) For a Type 01 - Beer manufacturer that produces more than 60,000 barrels per year: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one thousand five hundred thirty-one dollars ($1,531) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand eight hundred ninety dollars ($1,890).(B) For a Duplicate Type 01: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(2) (A) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 gallons or less: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-one dollars ($71) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(B) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 - 20,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred thirty-two dollars ($132) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(C) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 20,000 - 100,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(D) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 100,000 - 200,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fourteen dollars ($314) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(E) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 200,000 - 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred sixty-six dollars ($466) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); for each additional 1,000,000 gallons over 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred thirteen dollars ($313) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(G) For a Duplicate Type 02: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(3) (A) For a Type 03 - Brandy manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eleven dollars ($311) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(B) For a Duplicate Type 03: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(4) For a Type 04 - Distilled spirits manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(5) For a Type 05 - Distilled spirits manufacturers agent: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(6) For a Type 06 - Still: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(7) For a Type 07 - Rectifier: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(8) For a Type 08 - Wine rectifier: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(9) For a Type 09 - Beer and wine importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(10) For a Type 10 - Beer and wine importers general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred forty dollars ($340) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(11) For a Type 11 - Brandy importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(12) For a Type 12 - Distilled spirits importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(13) For a Type 13 - Distilled spirits importers general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(14) (A) For a Type 14 - Public warehouse: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(B) For a Duplicate Type 14: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one dollar ($1) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty-five dollars ($25).(15) For a Type 15 - Customs broker: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(16) For a Type 16 - Wine broker: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(17) For a Type 17 - Beer and wine wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred forty dollars ($340) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(18) For a Type 18 - Distilled spirits wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(19) For a Type 19 - Industrial alcohol dealer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(20) For a Type 20 - Off-sale beer and wine: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventy-eight dollars ($278) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(21) For a Type 21 - Off-sale general: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred seventeen dollars ($617) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(22) (A) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 gallons or less: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-one dollars ($71) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(B) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 - 20,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred thirty-two dollars ($132) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(C) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 20,000 gallons - 100,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(D) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 100,000 - 200,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fourteen dollars ($314) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(E) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 200,000 - 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred sixty-six dollars ($466) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); for each additional 1,000,000 gallons over 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred thirteen dollars ($313) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(23) (A) For a Type 23 - Small beer manufacturer that produces 60,000 barrels or less a year: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred eighty-four dollars ($184) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(B) For a Duplicate Type 23: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(24) For a Type 24 - Distilled spirits rectifiers general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(25) For a Type 25 - California brandy wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(26) For a Type 26 - Out-of-state beer manufacturer certificate: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-nine dollars ($79) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(27) For a Type 27 - California winegrowers agent: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(28) For a Type 28 - Out-of-state distilled spirits shipper certificate: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-nine dollars ($79) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(29) For a Type 29 - Winegrape grower storage: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety dollars ($90) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(30) For a Type 40 - On-sale beer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(31) For a Type 41 - On-sale beer and wine eating place: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eighty-four dollars ($384) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(32) For a Type 42 - On-sale beer and wine pub premises: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(33) For a Type 43 - On-sale beer and wine train: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(34) For a Type 44 - On-sale beer and wine fishing party boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(35) For a Type 45 - On-sale beer and wine boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(36) For a Type 46 - On-sale beer and wine airplane: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(37) (A) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 47 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 47 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 47 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(38) (A) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 48 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 48 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 48 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(39) (A) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred forty-seven dollars ($247) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred ninety-four dollars ($494) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(C) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred forty-one dollars ($741) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(D) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred seventy-six dollars ($176) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(E) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fifty dollars ($350) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(F) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred twenty-six dollars ($526) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(G) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fifty-three dollars ($153) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(H) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred six dollars ($306) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(I) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred fifty-eight dollars ($458) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(J) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred seventy-six dollars ($176) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(K) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fifty dollars ($350) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(L) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred twenty-six dollars ($526) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(M) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred twenty-five dollars ($125).(N) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seven dollars ($207) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).(O) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eleven dollars ($311) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred seventy-five dollars ($375).(P) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is eighty-one dollars ($81) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(Q) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-six dollars ($166) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(R) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred forty-seven dollars ($247) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(40) (A) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(41) (A) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(42) (A) For a Type 52 - Veterans club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Type 52 - Veterans club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 52 - Veterans club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(43) (A) For a Type 53 - On-sale general train: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Duplicate Type 53: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(44) For a Type 54 - On-sale general boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty-three dollars ($563) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(45) (A) For a Type 55 - On-sale general license for airplanes: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty-three dollars ($563) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Duplicate Type 55 for air common carriers: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(46) (A) For a Type 56 - On-sale general license for vessels of more than 1,000 tons burden: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Duplicate Type 56: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(47) (A) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 57 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 57 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 57 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(48) (A) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; on-sale general or on-sale beer and wine: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred forty-six dollars ($146) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(B) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; club in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(C) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; club in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(D) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; club in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(49) (A) For a Type 59 - On-sale beer and wine seasonal; operating period 3-9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).(B) For a Type 59 - On-sale beer and wine seasonal; operating period 3-6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-two dollars ($162) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).(50) (A) For a Type 60 - On-sale beer seasonal; operating period 3-9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).(B) For a Type 60 - On-sale beer seasonal; operating period 3-6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-two dollars ($162) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).(51) For a Type 61 - On-sale beer public premises: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(52) For a Type 62 - On-sale general license dockside: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred nine dollars ($609) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(53) For a Type 63 - On-sale special beer and wine hospital: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-six dollars ($96) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(54) (A) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(B) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(55) For a Type 65 - Special on-sale beer and wine symphony: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(56) For a Type 66 - Controlled access cabinet: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred seventeen dollars ($617) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(57) For a Type 67 - Bed and breakfast inn; per room: the fee through September 30, 2019, is eight dollars ($8) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is ten dollars ($10).(58) (A) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(B) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(59) For a Type 69 - Special on-sale beer and wine theater: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(60) (A) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(61) (A) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 71 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 71 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 71 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(62) (A) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 72 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 72 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 72 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(63) For a Type 73 - Special nonprofit sales: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(64) For a Type 74 - Craft distilled spirits manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(65) (A) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 75 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 75 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 75 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(66) (A) For a Type 76 - On-sale general maritime museum: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Duplicate Type 76: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(67) For a Type 77 - Event permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred forty-six dollars ($146) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(68) (A) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 78 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 78 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 78 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(69) For a Type 79 - Certified farmers market: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty-eight dollars ($58) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(70) For a Type 80 - Special on-sale general; per room: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventeen dollars ($17) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty dollars ($20).(71) For a Type 81 - Wine sales event permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty dollars ($50) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(72) For a Type 82 - Direct shipper permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ten dollars ($10) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty-five dollars ($25).(73) (A) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterers permit in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterers permit in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterers permit in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(74) For a Type 84 - Certified farmers market beer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty-eight dollars ($58) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(75) For a Type 85 - Limited off-sale wine license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventy-eight dollars ($278) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(76) For a Type 86 - Instructional tasting license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred dollars ($300) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(77) (A) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 87 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 87 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 87 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(78) (A) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 88 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 88 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 88 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(c) (1) In addition to the application fee for a new permanent license as specified in subdivision (a), an annual renewal fee, as set forth in subdivision (b), shall accompany the application. The application fee shall be nonrefundable up to the amount of the application fee in paragraph (1) of subdivision (a), as adjusted by subdivisions (d) and (e). The annual fee provided at the time of application shall allow the license to be active for one year from the date of issuance and shall be refundable only in the event that the license application is withdrawn or denied.(2) If an application includes multiple new permanent licenses to be issued at the same premises, the application fee shall be required for only one of the applied-for licenses and an application fee shall not be charged for the remainder of the licenses. In situations involving different license types, the application fee to be paid shall be the highest such fee as specified in subdivision (a). Notwithstanding this provision, the annual renewal fee required pursuant to this subdivision shall be payable for each license.(d) Beginning January 1, 2021, and each January 1 thereafter, the department may adjust each of the fees specified in this section by increasing each fee by an amount not to exceed the percentage that the California Consumer Price Index (California Department of Industrial Relations, Division of Labor Statistics and Research, All Items, Base Period 1982-84=100) for the preceding August 2019, and each August annually thereafter, has increased under the same index over the month of August 2018, which shall be the base period. The department shall not adjust fees pursuant to this section if the balance of the Alcohol Beverage Control Fund at the end of the prior fiscal year is greater than one-fourth of the departments appropriation from the Alcohol Beverage Control Fund for the current fiscal year. No fee shall be decreased pursuant to this adjustment below the fee currently in effect on each December 31. If the accumulation of percentage increases is greater than 8 percent, the department shall not adjust fees without the Legislatures approval through the budget process. In the event that this index is discontinued, the department shall consult with the Department of Finance to convert the increase calculations to an index then available. When approved by the Department of Finance, the new index shall replace the discontinued index.(e) When fees are adjusted pursuant to subdivision (d), the department shall calculate the percentage increase as specified in that subdivision and shall apply this increase to each fee. The increase to each fee shall be rounded to the nearest whole five dollars ($5). The adjusted fee list, to be effective on January 1 of the upcoming year, shall be published by the department on its internet website and transmitted in writing to the Chairperson of the Joint Legislative Budget Committee no later than January 10 of the year before it becomes effective. This adjustment of fees and publication of the adjusted fee list is not subject to the requirements of Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.
110+SEC. 2. Section 23320 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:23320. (a) An applicant for a new permanent license, which shall not include duplicate licenses, shall accompany the application with the application fee as specified in this division:(1) The license application fee for a new permanent license shall be nine hundred five dollars ($905), except as otherwise specified.(2) Applicants for a new permanent license of the following types shall accompany the application with a fee of fifteen thousand eight hundred thirty-five dollars ($15,835):(A) Off-sale general (Type 21).(B) On-sale general - eating place (Type 47), on-sale general public premises (Type 48), special on-sale general (Type 57), special on-sale general for-profit theater (Type 71 and Type 72), brewpub-restaurant (Type 75), caterers (Type 83), neighborhood restricted special on-sale (Type 87), and special on-sale general license for historic cemetery (Type 88).(3) Applicants for a new permanent license of the following types shall accompany the application with a fee as indicated:(A) Twelve thousand dollars ($12,000) for a wine, food and art cultural museum (Type 78).(B) Six thousand dollars ($6,000) for an on-sale general - eating place on public property (Type 47) and for an on-sale general restrictive service (Type 70).(C) Two thousand dollars ($2,000) for an on-sale general dockside (Type 62).(D) One thousand dollars ($1,000) for a special on-sale general theater (Type 64).(E) One hundred dollars ($100) for an out-of-state beer manufacturer certificate (Type 26), for a distilled spirits shipper certificate (Type 28), and for a direct shipper permit (Type 82).(F) One hundred dollars ($100) for a still (Type 6).(b) The following are the types of licenses and the annual fees to be charged therefor:(1) (A) For a Type 01 - Beer manufacturer that produces more than 60,000 barrels per year: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one thousand five hundred thirty-one dollars ($1,531) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand eight hundred ninety dollars ($1,890).(B) For a Duplicate Type 01: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(2) (A) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 gallons or less: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-one dollars ($71) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(B) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 - 20,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred thirty-two dollars ($132) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(C) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 20,000 - 100,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(D) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 100,000 - 200,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fourteen dollars ($314) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(E) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 200,000 - 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred sixty-six dollars ($466) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); for each additional 1,000,000 gallons over 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred thirteen dollars ($313) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(G) For a Duplicate Type 02: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(3) (A) For a Type 03 - Brandy manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eleven dollars ($311) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(B) For a Duplicate Type 03: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(4) For a Type 04 - Distilled spirits manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(5) For a Type 05 - Distilled spirits manufacturers agent: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(6) For a Type 06 - Still: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(7) For a Type 07 - Rectifier: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(8) For a Type 08 - Wine rectifier: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(9) For a Type 09 - Beer and wine importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(10) For a Type 10 - Beer and wine importers general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred forty dollars ($340) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(11) For a Type 11 - Brandy importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(12) For a Type 12 - Distilled spirits importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(13) For a Type 13 - Distilled spirits importers general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(14) (A) For a Type 14 - Public warehouse: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(B) For a Duplicate Type 14: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one dollar ($1) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty-five dollars ($25).(15) For a Type 15 - Customs broker: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(16) For a Type 16 - Wine broker: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(17) For a Type 17 - Beer and wine wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred forty dollars ($340) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(18) For a Type 18 - Distilled spirits wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(19) For a Type 19 - Industrial alcohol dealer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(20) For a Type 20 - Off-sale beer and wine: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventy-eight dollars ($278) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(21) For a Type 21 - Off-sale general: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred seventeen dollars ($617) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(22) (A) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 gallons or less: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-one dollars ($71) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(B) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 - 20,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred thirty-two dollars ($132) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(C) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 20,000 gallons - 100,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(D) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 100,000 - 200,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fourteen dollars ($314) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(E) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 200,000 - 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred sixty-six dollars ($466) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); for each additional 1,000,000 gallons over 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred thirteen dollars ($313) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(23) (A) For a Type 23 - Small beer manufacturer that produces 60,000 barrels or less a year: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred eighty-four dollars ($184) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(B) For a Duplicate Type 23: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(24) For a Type 24 - Distilled spirits rectifiers general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(25) For a Type 25 - California brandy wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(26) For a Type 26 - Out-of-state beer manufacturer certificate: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-nine dollars ($79) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(27) For a Type 27 - California winegrowers agent: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(28) For a Type 28 - Out-of-state distilled spirits shipper certificate: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-nine dollars ($79) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(29) For a Type 29 - Winegrape grower storage: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety dollars ($90) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(30) For a Type 40 - On-sale beer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(31) For a Type 41 - On-sale beer and wine eating place: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eighty-four dollars ($384) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(32) For a Type 42 - On-sale beer and wine pub premises: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(33) For a Type 43 - On-sale beer and wine train: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(34) For a Type 44 - On-sale beer and wine fishing party boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(35) For a Type 45 - On-sale beer and wine boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(36) For a Type 46 - On-sale beer and wine airplane: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(37) (A) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 47 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 47 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 47 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(38) (A) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 48 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 48 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 48 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(39) (A) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred forty-seven dollars ($247) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred ninety-four dollars ($494) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(C) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred forty-one dollars ($741) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(D) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred seventy-six dollars ($176) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(E) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fifty dollars ($350) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(F) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred twenty-six dollars ($526) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(G) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fifty-three dollars ($153) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(H) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred six dollars ($306) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(I) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred fifty-eight dollars ($458) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(J) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred seventy-six dollars ($176) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(K) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fifty dollars ($350) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(L) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred twenty-six dollars ($526) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two six hundred fifteen fifty dollars ($650).(M) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred twenty-five dollars ($125).(N) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seven dollars ($207) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).(O) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eleven dollars ($311) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred seventy-five dollars ($375).(P) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is eighty-one dollars ($81) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(Q) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-six dollars ($166) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(R) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred forty-seven dollars ($247) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(40) (A) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(41) (A) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(42) (A) For a Type 52 - Veterans club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Type 52 - Veterans club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 52 - Veterans club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(43) (A) For a Type 53 - On-sale general train: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Duplicate Type 53: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(44) For a Type 54 - On-sale general boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty-three dollars ($563) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(45) (A) For a Type 55 - On-sale general license for airplanes: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty-three dollars ($563) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Duplicate Type 55 for air common carriers: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(46) (A) For a Type 56 - On-sale general license for vessels of more than 1,000 tons burden: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Duplicate Type 56: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(47) (A) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 57 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 57 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 57 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(48) (A) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; on-sale general or on-sale beer and wine: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred forty-six dollars ($146) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(B) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; club in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(C) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; club in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(D) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; club in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(49) (A) For a Type 59 - On-sale beer and wine seasonal; operating period 3-9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).(B) For a Type 59 - On-sale beer and wine seasonal; operating period 3-6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-two dollars ($162) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).(50) (A) For a Type 60 - On-sale beer seasonal; operating period 3-9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).(B) For a Type 60 - On-sale beer seasonal; operating period 3-6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-two dollars ($162) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).(51) For a Type 61 - On-sale beer public premises: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(52) For a Type 62 - On-sale general license dockside: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred nine dollars ($609) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(53) For a Type 63 - On-sale special beer and wine hospital: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-six dollars ($96) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(54) (A) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(B) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(55) For a Type 65 - Special on-sale beer and wine symphony: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(56) For a Type 66 - Controlled access cabinet: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred seventeen dollars ($617) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(57) For a Type 67 - Bed and breakfast inn; per room: the fee through September 30, 2019, is eight dollars ($8) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is ten dollars ($10).(58) (A) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(B) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(59) For a Type 69 - Special on-sale beer and wine theater: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(60) (A) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(61) (A) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 71 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 71 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 71 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(62) (A) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 72 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 72 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 72 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(63) For a Type 73 - Special nonprofit sales: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(64) For a Type 74 - Craft distilled spirits manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(65) (A) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 75 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 75 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 75 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(66) (A) For a Type 76 - On-sale general maritime museum: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Duplicate Type 76: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(67) For a Type 77 - Event permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred forty-six dollars ($146) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(68) (A) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 78 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 78 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 78 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(69) For a Type 79 - Certified farmers market: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty-eight dollars ($58) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(70) For a Type 80 - Special on-sale general; per room: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventeen dollars ($17) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty dollars ($20).(71) For a Type 81 - Wine sales event permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty dollars ($50) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(72) For a Type 82 - Direct shipper permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ten dollars ($10) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty-five dollars ($25).(73) (A) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterers permit in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterers permit in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterers permit in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(74) For a Type 84 - Certified farmers market beer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty-eight dollars ($58) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(75) For a Type 85 - Limited off-sale wine license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventy-eight dollars ($278) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(76) For a Type 86 - Instructional tasting license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred dollars ($300) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(77) (A) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 87 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 87 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 87 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(78) (A) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 88 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 88 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 88 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(c) (1) In addition to the application fee for a new permanent license as specified in subdivision (a), an annual renewal fee, as set forth in subdivision (b), shall accompany the application. The application fee shall be nonrefundable up to the amount of the application fee in paragraph (1) of subdivision (a), as adjusted by subdivisions (d) and (e). The annual fee provided at the time of application shall allow the license to be active for one year from the date of issuance and shall be refundable only in the event that the license application is withdrawn or denied.(2) If an application includes multiple new permanent licenses to be issued at the same premises, the application fee shall be required for only one of the applied-for licenses and an application fee shall not be charged for the remainder of the licenses. In situations involving different license types, the application fee to be paid shall be the highest such fee as specified in subdivision (a). Notwithstanding this provision, the annual renewal fee required pursuant to this subdivision shall be payable for each license.(d) Beginning January 1, 2021, and each January 1 thereafter, the department may adjust each of the fees specified in this section by increasing each fee by an amount not to exceed the percentage that the California Consumer Price Index (California Department of Industrial Relations, Division of Labor Statistics and Research, All Items, Base Period 1982-84=100) for the preceding August 2019, and each August annually thereafter, has increased under the same index over the month of August 2018, which shall be the base period. The department shall not adjust fees pursuant to this section if the balance of the Alcohol Beverage Control Fund at the end of the prior fiscal year is greater than one-fourth of the departments appropriation from the Alcohol Beverage Control Fund for the current fiscal year. No fee shall be decreased pursuant to this adjustment below the fee currently in effect on each December 31. If the accumulation of percentage increases is greater than 8 percent, the department shall not adjust fees without the Legislatures approval through the budget process. In the event that this index is discontinued, the department shall consult with the Department of Finance to convert the increase calculations to an index then available. When approved by the Department of Finance, the new index shall replace the discontinued index.(e) When fees are adjusted pursuant to subdivision (d), the department shall calculate the percentage increase as specified in that subdivision and shall apply this increase to each fee. The increase to each fee shall be rounded to the nearest whole five dollars ($5). The adjusted fee list, to be effective on January 1 of the upcoming year, shall be published by the department on its internet website and transmitted in writing to the Chairperson of the Joint Legislative Budget Committee no later than January 10 of the year before it becomes effective. This adjustment of fees and publication of the adjusted fee list is not subject to the requirements of Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.
108111
109112 SEC. 2. Section 23320 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:
110113
111114 ### SEC. 2.
112115
113-23320. (a) An applicant for a new permanent license, which shall not include duplicate licenses, shall accompany the application with the application fee as specified in this division:(1) The license application fee for a new permanent license shall be nine hundred five dollars ($905), except as otherwise specified.(2) Applicants for a new permanent license of the following types shall accompany the application with a fee of fifteen thousand eight hundred thirty-five dollars ($15,835):(A) Off-sale general (Type 21).(B) On-sale general - eating place (Type 47), on-sale general public premises (Type 48), special on-sale general (Type 57), special on-sale general for-profit theater (Type 71 and Type 72), brewpub-restaurant (Type 75), caterers (Type 83), neighborhood restricted special on-sale (Type 87), and special on-sale general license for historic cemetery (Type 88).(3) Applicants for a new permanent license of the following types shall accompany the application with a fee as indicated:(A) Twelve thousand dollars ($12,000) for a wine, food and art cultural museum (Type 78).(B) Six thousand dollars ($6,000) for an on-sale general - eating place on public property (Type 47) and for an on-sale general restrictive service (Type 70).(C) Two thousand dollars ($2,000) for an on-sale general dockside (Type 62).(D) One thousand dollars ($1,000) for a special on-sale general theater (Type 64).(E) One hundred dollars ($100) for an out-of-state beer manufacturer certificate (Type 26), for a distilled spirits shipper certificate (Type 28), and for a direct shipper permit (Type 82).(F) One hundred dollars ($100) for a still (Type 6).(b) The following are the types of licenses and the annual fees to be charged therefor:(1) (A) For a Type 01 - Beer manufacturer that produces more than 60,000 barrels per year: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one thousand five hundred thirty-one dollars ($1,531) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand eight hundred ninety dollars ($1,890).(B) For a Duplicate Type 01: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(2) (A) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 gallons or less: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-one dollars ($71) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(B) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 - 20,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred thirty-two dollars ($132) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(C) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 20,000 - 100,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(D) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 100,000 - 200,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fourteen dollars ($314) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(E) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 200,000 - 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred sixty-six dollars ($466) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); for each additional 1,000,000 gallons over 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred thirteen dollars ($313) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(G) For a Duplicate Type 02: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(3) (A) For a Type 03 - Brandy manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eleven dollars ($311) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(B) For a Duplicate Type 03: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(4) For a Type 04 - Distilled spirits manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(5) For a Type 05 - Distilled spirits manufacturers agent: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(6) For a Type 06 - Still: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(7) For a Type 07 - Rectifier: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(8) For a Type 08 - Wine rectifier: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(9) For a Type 09 - Beer and wine importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(10) For a Type 10 - Beer and wine importers general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred forty dollars ($340) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(11) For a Type 11 - Brandy importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(12) For a Type 12 - Distilled spirits importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(13) For a Type 13 - Distilled spirits importers general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(14) (A) For a Type 14 - Public warehouse: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(B) For a Duplicate Type 14: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one dollar ($1) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty-five dollars ($25).(15) For a Type 15 - Customs broker: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(16) For a Type 16 - Wine broker: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(17) For a Type 17 - Beer and wine wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred forty dollars ($340) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(18) For a Type 18 - Distilled spirits wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(19) For a Type 19 - Industrial alcohol dealer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(20) For a Type 20 - Off-sale beer and wine: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventy-eight dollars ($278) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(21) For a Type 21 - Off-sale general: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred seventeen dollars ($617) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(22) (A) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 gallons or less: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-one dollars ($71) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(B) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 - 20,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred thirty-two dollars ($132) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(C) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 20,000 gallons - 100,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(D) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 100,000 - 200,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fourteen dollars ($314) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(E) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 200,000 - 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred sixty-six dollars ($466) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); for each additional 1,000,000 gallons over 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred thirteen dollars ($313) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(23) (A) For a Type 23 - Small beer manufacturer that produces 60,000 barrels or less a year: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred eighty-four dollars ($184) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(B) For a Duplicate Type 23: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(24) For a Type 24 - Distilled spirits rectifiers general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(25) For a Type 25 - California brandy wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(26) For a Type 26 - Out-of-state beer manufacturer certificate: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-nine dollars ($79) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(27) For a Type 27 - California winegrowers agent: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(28) For a Type 28 - Out-of-state distilled spirits shipper certificate: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-nine dollars ($79) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(29) For a Type 29 - Winegrape grower storage: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety dollars ($90) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(30) For a Type 40 - On-sale beer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(31) For a Type 41 - On-sale beer and wine eating place: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eighty-four dollars ($384) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(32) For a Type 42 - On-sale beer and wine pub premises: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(33) For a Type 43 - On-sale beer and wine train: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(34) For a Type 44 - On-sale beer and wine fishing party boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(35) For a Type 45 - On-sale beer and wine boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(36) For a Type 46 - On-sale beer and wine airplane: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(37) (A) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 47 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 47 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 47 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(38) (A) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 48 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 48 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 48 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(39) (A) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred forty-seven dollars ($247) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred ninety-four dollars ($494) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(C) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred forty-one dollars ($741) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(D) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred seventy-six dollars ($176) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(E) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fifty dollars ($350) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(F) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred twenty-six dollars ($526) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(G) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fifty-three dollars ($153) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(H) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred six dollars ($306) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(I) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred fifty-eight dollars ($458) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(J) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred seventy-six dollars ($176) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(K) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fifty dollars ($350) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(L) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred twenty-six dollars ($526) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(M) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred twenty-five dollars ($125).(N) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seven dollars ($207) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).(O) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eleven dollars ($311) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred seventy-five dollars ($375).(P) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is eighty-one dollars ($81) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(Q) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-six dollars ($166) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(R) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred forty-seven dollars ($247) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(40) (A) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(41) (A) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(42) (A) For a Type 52 - Veterans club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Type 52 - Veterans club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 52 - Veterans club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(43) (A) For a Type 53 - On-sale general train: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Duplicate Type 53: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(44) For a Type 54 - On-sale general boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty-three dollars ($563) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(45) (A) For a Type 55 - On-sale general license for airplanes: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty-three dollars ($563) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Duplicate Type 55 for air common carriers: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(46) (A) For a Type 56 - On-sale general license for vessels of more than 1,000 tons burden: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Duplicate Type 56: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(47) (A) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 57 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 57 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 57 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(48) (A) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; on-sale general or on-sale beer and wine: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred forty-six dollars ($146) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(B) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; club in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(C) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; club in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(D) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; club in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(49) (A) For a Type 59 - On-sale beer and wine seasonal; operating period 3-9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).(B) For a Type 59 - On-sale beer and wine seasonal; operating period 3-6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-two dollars ($162) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).(50) (A) For a Type 60 - On-sale beer seasonal; operating period 3-9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).(B) For a Type 60 - On-sale beer seasonal; operating period 3-6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-two dollars ($162) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).(51) For a Type 61 - On-sale beer public premises: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(52) For a Type 62 - On-sale general license dockside: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred nine dollars ($609) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(53) For a Type 63 - On-sale special beer and wine hospital: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-six dollars ($96) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(54) (A) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(B) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(55) For a Type 65 - Special on-sale beer and wine symphony: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(56) For a Type 66 - Controlled access cabinet: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred seventeen dollars ($617) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(57) For a Type 67 - Bed and breakfast inn; per room: the fee through September 30, 2019, is eight dollars ($8) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is ten dollars ($10).(58) (A) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(B) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(59) For a Type 69 - Special on-sale beer and wine theater: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(60) (A) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(61) (A) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 71 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 71 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 71 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(62) (A) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 72 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 72 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 72 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(63) For a Type 73 - Special nonprofit sales: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(64) For a Type 74 - Craft distilled spirits manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(65) (A) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 75 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 75 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 75 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(66) (A) For a Type 76 - On-sale general maritime museum: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Duplicate Type 76: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(67) For a Type 77 - Event permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred forty-six dollars ($146) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(68) (A) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 78 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 78 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 78 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(69) For a Type 79 - Certified farmers market: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty-eight dollars ($58) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(70) For a Type 80 - Special on-sale general; per room: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventeen dollars ($17) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty dollars ($20).(71) For a Type 81 - Wine sales event permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty dollars ($50) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(72) For a Type 82 - Direct shipper permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ten dollars ($10) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty-five dollars ($25).(73) (A) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterers permit in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterers permit in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterers permit in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(74) For a Type 84 - Certified farmers market beer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty-eight dollars ($58) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(75) For a Type 85 - Limited off-sale wine license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventy-eight dollars ($278) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(76) For a Type 86 - Instructional tasting license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred dollars ($300) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(77) (A) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 87 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 87 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 87 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(78) (A) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 88 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 88 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 88 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(c) (1) In addition to the application fee for a new permanent license as specified in subdivision (a), an annual renewal fee, as set forth in subdivision (b), shall accompany the application. The application fee shall be nonrefundable up to the amount of the application fee in paragraph (1) of subdivision (a), as adjusted by subdivisions (d) and (e). The annual fee provided at the time of application shall allow the license to be active for one year from the date of issuance and shall be refundable only in the event that the license application is withdrawn or denied.(2) If an application includes multiple new permanent licenses to be issued at the same premises, the application fee shall be required for only one of the applied-for licenses and an application fee shall not be charged for the remainder of the licenses. In situations involving different license types, the application fee to be paid shall be the highest such fee as specified in subdivision (a). Notwithstanding this provision, the annual renewal fee required pursuant to this subdivision shall be payable for each license.(d) Beginning January 1, 2021, and each January 1 thereafter, the department may adjust each of the fees specified in this section by increasing each fee by an amount not to exceed the percentage that the California Consumer Price Index (California Department of Industrial Relations, Division of Labor Statistics and Research, All Items, Base Period 1982-84=100) for the preceding August 2019, and each August annually thereafter, has increased under the same index over the month of August 2018, which shall be the base period. The department shall not adjust fees pursuant to this section if the balance of the Alcohol Beverage Control Fund at the end of the prior fiscal year is greater than one-fourth of the departments appropriation from the Alcohol Beverage Control Fund for the current fiscal year. No fee shall be decreased pursuant to this adjustment below the fee currently in effect on each December 31. If the accumulation of percentage increases is greater than 8 percent, the department shall not adjust fees without the Legislatures approval through the budget process. In the event that this index is discontinued, the department shall consult with the Department of Finance to convert the increase calculations to an index then available. When approved by the Department of Finance, the new index shall replace the discontinued index.(e) When fees are adjusted pursuant to subdivision (d), the department shall calculate the percentage increase as specified in that subdivision and shall apply this increase to each fee. The increase to each fee shall be rounded to the nearest whole five dollars ($5). The adjusted fee list, to be effective on January 1 of the upcoming year, shall be published by the department on its internet website and transmitted in writing to the Chairperson of the Joint Legislative Budget Committee no later than January 10 of the year before it becomes effective. This adjustment of fees and publication of the adjusted fee list is not subject to the requirements of Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.
116+23320. (a) An applicant for a new permanent license, which shall not include duplicate licenses, shall accompany the application with the application fee as specified in this division:(1) The license application fee for a new permanent license shall be nine hundred five dollars ($905), except as otherwise specified.(2) Applicants for a new permanent license of the following types shall accompany the application with a fee of fifteen thousand eight hundred thirty-five dollars ($15,835):(A) Off-sale general (Type 21).(B) On-sale general - eating place (Type 47), on-sale general public premises (Type 48), special on-sale general (Type 57), special on-sale general for-profit theater (Type 71 and Type 72), brewpub-restaurant (Type 75), caterers (Type 83), neighborhood restricted special on-sale (Type 87), and special on-sale general license for historic cemetery (Type 88).(3) Applicants for a new permanent license of the following types shall accompany the application with a fee as indicated:(A) Twelve thousand dollars ($12,000) for a wine, food and art cultural museum (Type 78).(B) Six thousand dollars ($6,000) for an on-sale general - eating place on public property (Type 47) and for an on-sale general restrictive service (Type 70).(C) Two thousand dollars ($2,000) for an on-sale general dockside (Type 62).(D) One thousand dollars ($1,000) for a special on-sale general theater (Type 64).(E) One hundred dollars ($100) for an out-of-state beer manufacturer certificate (Type 26), for a distilled spirits shipper certificate (Type 28), and for a direct shipper permit (Type 82).(F) One hundred dollars ($100) for a still (Type 6).(b) The following are the types of licenses and the annual fees to be charged therefor:(1) (A) For a Type 01 - Beer manufacturer that produces more than 60,000 barrels per year: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one thousand five hundred thirty-one dollars ($1,531) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand eight hundred ninety dollars ($1,890).(B) For a Duplicate Type 01: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(2) (A) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 gallons or less: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-one dollars ($71) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(B) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 - 20,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred thirty-two dollars ($132) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(C) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 20,000 - 100,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(D) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 100,000 - 200,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fourteen dollars ($314) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(E) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 200,000 - 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred sixty-six dollars ($466) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); for each additional 1,000,000 gallons over 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred thirteen dollars ($313) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(G) For a Duplicate Type 02: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(3) (A) For a Type 03 - Brandy manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eleven dollars ($311) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(B) For a Duplicate Type 03: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(4) For a Type 04 - Distilled spirits manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(5) For a Type 05 - Distilled spirits manufacturers agent: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(6) For a Type 06 - Still: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(7) For a Type 07 - Rectifier: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(8) For a Type 08 - Wine rectifier: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(9) For a Type 09 - Beer and wine importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(10) For a Type 10 - Beer and wine importers general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred forty dollars ($340) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(11) For a Type 11 - Brandy importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(12) For a Type 12 - Distilled spirits importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(13) For a Type 13 - Distilled spirits importers general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(14) (A) For a Type 14 - Public warehouse: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(B) For a Duplicate Type 14: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one dollar ($1) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty-five dollars ($25).(15) For a Type 15 - Customs broker: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(16) For a Type 16 - Wine broker: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(17) For a Type 17 - Beer and wine wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred forty dollars ($340) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(18) For a Type 18 - Distilled spirits wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(19) For a Type 19 - Industrial alcohol dealer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(20) For a Type 20 - Off-sale beer and wine: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventy-eight dollars ($278) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(21) For a Type 21 - Off-sale general: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred seventeen dollars ($617) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(22) (A) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 gallons or less: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-one dollars ($71) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(B) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 - 20,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred thirty-two dollars ($132) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(C) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 20,000 gallons - 100,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(D) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 100,000 - 200,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fourteen dollars ($314) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(E) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 200,000 - 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred sixty-six dollars ($466) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); for each additional 1,000,000 gallons over 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred thirteen dollars ($313) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(23) (A) For a Type 23 - Small beer manufacturer that produces 60,000 barrels or less a year: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred eighty-four dollars ($184) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(B) For a Duplicate Type 23: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(24) For a Type 24 - Distilled spirits rectifiers general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(25) For a Type 25 - California brandy wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(26) For a Type 26 - Out-of-state beer manufacturer certificate: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-nine dollars ($79) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(27) For a Type 27 - California winegrowers agent: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(28) For a Type 28 - Out-of-state distilled spirits shipper certificate: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-nine dollars ($79) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(29) For a Type 29 - Winegrape grower storage: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety dollars ($90) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(30) For a Type 40 - On-sale beer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(31) For a Type 41 - On-sale beer and wine eating place: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eighty-four dollars ($384) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(32) For a Type 42 - On-sale beer and wine pub premises: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(33) For a Type 43 - On-sale beer and wine train: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(34) For a Type 44 - On-sale beer and wine fishing party boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(35) For a Type 45 - On-sale beer and wine boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(36) For a Type 46 - On-sale beer and wine airplane: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(37) (A) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 47 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 47 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 47 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(38) (A) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 48 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 48 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 48 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(39) (A) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred forty-seven dollars ($247) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred ninety-four dollars ($494) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(C) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred forty-one dollars ($741) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(D) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred seventy-six dollars ($176) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(E) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fifty dollars ($350) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(F) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred twenty-six dollars ($526) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(G) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fifty-three dollars ($153) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(H) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred six dollars ($306) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(I) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred fifty-eight dollars ($458) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(J) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred seventy-six dollars ($176) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(K) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fifty dollars ($350) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(L) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred twenty-six dollars ($526) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two six hundred fifteen fifty dollars ($650).(M) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred twenty-five dollars ($125).(N) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seven dollars ($207) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).(O) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eleven dollars ($311) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred seventy-five dollars ($375).(P) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is eighty-one dollars ($81) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(Q) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-six dollars ($166) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(R) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred forty-seven dollars ($247) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(40) (A) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(41) (A) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(42) (A) For a Type 52 - Veterans club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Type 52 - Veterans club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 52 - Veterans club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(43) (A) For a Type 53 - On-sale general train: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Duplicate Type 53: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(44) For a Type 54 - On-sale general boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty-three dollars ($563) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(45) (A) For a Type 55 - On-sale general license for airplanes: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty-three dollars ($563) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Duplicate Type 55 for air common carriers: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(46) (A) For a Type 56 - On-sale general license for vessels of more than 1,000 tons burden: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Duplicate Type 56: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(47) (A) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 57 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 57 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 57 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(48) (A) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; on-sale general or on-sale beer and wine: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred forty-six dollars ($146) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(B) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; club in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(C) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; club in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(D) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; club in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(49) (A) For a Type 59 - On-sale beer and wine seasonal; operating period 3-9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).(B) For a Type 59 - On-sale beer and wine seasonal; operating period 3-6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-two dollars ($162) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).(50) (A) For a Type 60 - On-sale beer seasonal; operating period 3-9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).(B) For a Type 60 - On-sale beer seasonal; operating period 3-6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-two dollars ($162) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).(51) For a Type 61 - On-sale beer public premises: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(52) For a Type 62 - On-sale general license dockside: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred nine dollars ($609) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(53) For a Type 63 - On-sale special beer and wine hospital: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-six dollars ($96) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(54) (A) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(B) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(55) For a Type 65 - Special on-sale beer and wine symphony: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(56) For a Type 66 - Controlled access cabinet: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred seventeen dollars ($617) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(57) For a Type 67 - Bed and breakfast inn; per room: the fee through September 30, 2019, is eight dollars ($8) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is ten dollars ($10).(58) (A) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(B) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(59) For a Type 69 - Special on-sale beer and wine theater: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(60) (A) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(61) (A) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 71 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 71 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 71 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(62) (A) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 72 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 72 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 72 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(63) For a Type 73 - Special nonprofit sales: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(64) For a Type 74 - Craft distilled spirits manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(65) (A) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 75 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 75 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 75 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(66) (A) For a Type 76 - On-sale general maritime museum: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Duplicate Type 76: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(67) For a Type 77 - Event permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred forty-six dollars ($146) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(68) (A) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 78 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 78 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 78 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(69) For a Type 79 - Certified farmers market: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty-eight dollars ($58) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(70) For a Type 80 - Special on-sale general; per room: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventeen dollars ($17) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty dollars ($20).(71) For a Type 81 - Wine sales event permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty dollars ($50) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(72) For a Type 82 - Direct shipper permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ten dollars ($10) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty-five dollars ($25).(73) (A) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterers permit in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterers permit in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterers permit in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(74) For a Type 84 - Certified farmers market beer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty-eight dollars ($58) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(75) For a Type 85 - Limited off-sale wine license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventy-eight dollars ($278) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(76) For a Type 86 - Instructional tasting license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred dollars ($300) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(77) (A) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 87 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 87 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 87 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(78) (A) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 88 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 88 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 88 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(c) (1) In addition to the application fee for a new permanent license as specified in subdivision (a), an annual renewal fee, as set forth in subdivision (b), shall accompany the application. The application fee shall be nonrefundable up to the amount of the application fee in paragraph (1) of subdivision (a), as adjusted by subdivisions (d) and (e). The annual fee provided at the time of application shall allow the license to be active for one year from the date of issuance and shall be refundable only in the event that the license application is withdrawn or denied.(2) If an application includes multiple new permanent licenses to be issued at the same premises, the application fee shall be required for only one of the applied-for licenses and an application fee shall not be charged for the remainder of the licenses. In situations involving different license types, the application fee to be paid shall be the highest such fee as specified in subdivision (a). Notwithstanding this provision, the annual renewal fee required pursuant to this subdivision shall be payable for each license.(d) Beginning January 1, 2021, and each January 1 thereafter, the department may adjust each of the fees specified in this section by increasing each fee by an amount not to exceed the percentage that the California Consumer Price Index (California Department of Industrial Relations, Division of Labor Statistics and Research, All Items, Base Period 1982-84=100) for the preceding August 2019, and each August annually thereafter, has increased under the same index over the month of August 2018, which shall be the base period. The department shall not adjust fees pursuant to this section if the balance of the Alcohol Beverage Control Fund at the end of the prior fiscal year is greater than one-fourth of the departments appropriation from the Alcohol Beverage Control Fund for the current fiscal year. No fee shall be decreased pursuant to this adjustment below the fee currently in effect on each December 31. If the accumulation of percentage increases is greater than 8 percent, the department shall not adjust fees without the Legislatures approval through the budget process. In the event that this index is discontinued, the department shall consult with the Department of Finance to convert the increase calculations to an index then available. When approved by the Department of Finance, the new index shall replace the discontinued index.(e) When fees are adjusted pursuant to subdivision (d), the department shall calculate the percentage increase as specified in that subdivision and shall apply this increase to each fee. The increase to each fee shall be rounded to the nearest whole five dollars ($5). The adjusted fee list, to be effective on January 1 of the upcoming year, shall be published by the department on its internet website and transmitted in writing to the Chairperson of the Joint Legislative Budget Committee no later than January 10 of the year before it becomes effective. This adjustment of fees and publication of the adjusted fee list is not subject to the requirements of Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.
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115-23320. (a) An applicant for a new permanent license, which shall not include duplicate licenses, shall accompany the application with the application fee as specified in this division:(1) The license application fee for a new permanent license shall be nine hundred five dollars ($905), except as otherwise specified.(2) Applicants for a new permanent license of the following types shall accompany the application with a fee of fifteen thousand eight hundred thirty-five dollars ($15,835):(A) Off-sale general (Type 21).(B) On-sale general - eating place (Type 47), on-sale general public premises (Type 48), special on-sale general (Type 57), special on-sale general for-profit theater (Type 71 and Type 72), brewpub-restaurant (Type 75), caterers (Type 83), neighborhood restricted special on-sale (Type 87), and special on-sale general license for historic cemetery (Type 88).(3) Applicants for a new permanent license of the following types shall accompany the application with a fee as indicated:(A) Twelve thousand dollars ($12,000) for a wine, food and art cultural museum (Type 78).(B) Six thousand dollars ($6,000) for an on-sale general - eating place on public property (Type 47) and for an on-sale general restrictive service (Type 70).(C) Two thousand dollars ($2,000) for an on-sale general dockside (Type 62).(D) One thousand dollars ($1,000) for a special on-sale general theater (Type 64).(E) One hundred dollars ($100) for an out-of-state beer manufacturer certificate (Type 26), for a distilled spirits shipper certificate (Type 28), and for a direct shipper permit (Type 82).(F) One hundred dollars ($100) for a still (Type 6).(b) The following are the types of licenses and the annual fees to be charged therefor:(1) (A) For a Type 01 - Beer manufacturer that produces more than 60,000 barrels per year: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one thousand five hundred thirty-one dollars ($1,531) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand eight hundred ninety dollars ($1,890).(B) For a Duplicate Type 01: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(2) (A) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 gallons or less: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-one dollars ($71) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(B) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 - 20,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred thirty-two dollars ($132) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(C) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 20,000 - 100,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(D) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 100,000 - 200,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fourteen dollars ($314) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(E) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 200,000 - 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred sixty-six dollars ($466) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); for each additional 1,000,000 gallons over 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred thirteen dollars ($313) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(G) For a Duplicate Type 02: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(3) (A) For a Type 03 - Brandy manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eleven dollars ($311) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(B) For a Duplicate Type 03: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(4) For a Type 04 - Distilled spirits manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(5) For a Type 05 - Distilled spirits manufacturers agent: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(6) For a Type 06 - Still: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(7) For a Type 07 - Rectifier: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(8) For a Type 08 - Wine rectifier: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(9) For a Type 09 - Beer and wine importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(10) For a Type 10 - Beer and wine importers general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred forty dollars ($340) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(11) For a Type 11 - Brandy importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(12) For a Type 12 - Distilled spirits importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(13) For a Type 13 - Distilled spirits importers general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(14) (A) For a Type 14 - Public warehouse: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(B) For a Duplicate Type 14: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one dollar ($1) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty-five dollars ($25).(15) For a Type 15 - Customs broker: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(16) For a Type 16 - Wine broker: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(17) For a Type 17 - Beer and wine wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred forty dollars ($340) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(18) For a Type 18 - Distilled spirits wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(19) For a Type 19 - Industrial alcohol dealer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(20) For a Type 20 - Off-sale beer and wine: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventy-eight dollars ($278) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(21) For a Type 21 - Off-sale general: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred seventeen dollars ($617) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(22) (A) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 gallons or less: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-one dollars ($71) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(B) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 - 20,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred thirty-two dollars ($132) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(C) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 20,000 gallons - 100,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(D) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 100,000 - 200,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fourteen dollars ($314) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(E) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 200,000 - 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred sixty-six dollars ($466) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); for each additional 1,000,000 gallons over 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred thirteen dollars ($313) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(23) (A) For a Type 23 - Small beer manufacturer that produces 60,000 barrels or less a year: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred eighty-four dollars ($184) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(B) For a Duplicate Type 23: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(24) For a Type 24 - Distilled spirits rectifiers general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(25) For a Type 25 - California brandy wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(26) For a Type 26 - Out-of-state beer manufacturer certificate: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-nine dollars ($79) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(27) For a Type 27 - California winegrowers agent: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(28) For a Type 28 - Out-of-state distilled spirits shipper certificate: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-nine dollars ($79) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(29) For a Type 29 - Winegrape grower storage: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety dollars ($90) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(30) For a Type 40 - On-sale beer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(31) For a Type 41 - On-sale beer and wine eating place: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eighty-four dollars ($384) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(32) For a Type 42 - On-sale beer and wine pub premises: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(33) For a Type 43 - On-sale beer and wine train: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(34) For a Type 44 - On-sale beer and wine fishing party boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(35) For a Type 45 - On-sale beer and wine boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(36) For a Type 46 - On-sale beer and wine airplane: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(37) (A) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 47 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 47 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 47 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(38) (A) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 48 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 48 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 48 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(39) (A) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred forty-seven dollars ($247) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred ninety-four dollars ($494) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(C) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred forty-one dollars ($741) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(D) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred seventy-six dollars ($176) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(E) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fifty dollars ($350) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(F) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred twenty-six dollars ($526) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(G) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fifty-three dollars ($153) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(H) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred six dollars ($306) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(I) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred fifty-eight dollars ($458) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(J) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred seventy-six dollars ($176) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(K) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fifty dollars ($350) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(L) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred twenty-six dollars ($526) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(M) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred twenty-five dollars ($125).(N) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seven dollars ($207) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).(O) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eleven dollars ($311) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred seventy-five dollars ($375).(P) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is eighty-one dollars ($81) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(Q) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-six dollars ($166) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(R) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred forty-seven dollars ($247) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(40) (A) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(41) (A) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(42) (A) For a Type 52 - Veterans club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Type 52 - Veterans club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 52 - Veterans club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(43) (A) For a Type 53 - On-sale general train: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Duplicate Type 53: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(44) For a Type 54 - On-sale general boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty-three dollars ($563) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(45) (A) For a Type 55 - On-sale general license for airplanes: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty-three dollars ($563) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Duplicate Type 55 for air common carriers: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(46) (A) For a Type 56 - On-sale general license for vessels of more than 1,000 tons burden: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Duplicate Type 56: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(47) (A) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 57 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 57 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 57 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(48) (A) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; on-sale general or on-sale beer and wine: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred forty-six dollars ($146) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(B) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; club in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(C) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; club in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(D) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; club in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(49) (A) For a Type 59 - On-sale beer and wine seasonal; operating period 3-9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).(B) For a Type 59 - On-sale beer and wine seasonal; operating period 3-6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-two dollars ($162) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).(50) (A) For a Type 60 - On-sale beer seasonal; operating period 3-9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).(B) For a Type 60 - On-sale beer seasonal; operating period 3-6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-two dollars ($162) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).(51) For a Type 61 - On-sale beer public premises: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(52) For a Type 62 - On-sale general license dockside: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred nine dollars ($609) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(53) For a Type 63 - On-sale special beer and wine hospital: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-six dollars ($96) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(54) (A) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(B) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(55) For a Type 65 - Special on-sale beer and wine symphony: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(56) For a Type 66 - Controlled access cabinet: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred seventeen dollars ($617) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(57) For a Type 67 - Bed and breakfast inn; per room: the fee through September 30, 2019, is eight dollars ($8) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is ten dollars ($10).(58) (A) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(B) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(59) For a Type 69 - Special on-sale beer and wine theater: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(60) (A) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(61) (A) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 71 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 71 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 71 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(62) (A) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 72 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 72 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 72 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(63) For a Type 73 - Special nonprofit sales: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(64) For a Type 74 - Craft distilled spirits manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(65) (A) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 75 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 75 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 75 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(66) (A) For a Type 76 - On-sale general maritime museum: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Duplicate Type 76: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(67) For a Type 77 - Event permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred forty-six dollars ($146) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(68) (A) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 78 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 78 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 78 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(69) For a Type 79 - Certified farmers market: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty-eight dollars ($58) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(70) For a Type 80 - Special on-sale general; per room: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventeen dollars ($17) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty dollars ($20).(71) For a Type 81 - Wine sales event permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty dollars ($50) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(72) For a Type 82 - Direct shipper permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ten dollars ($10) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty-five dollars ($25).(73) (A) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterers permit in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterers permit in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterers permit in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(74) For a Type 84 - Certified farmers market beer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty-eight dollars ($58) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(75) For a Type 85 - Limited off-sale wine license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventy-eight dollars ($278) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(76) For a Type 86 - Instructional tasting license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred dollars ($300) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(77) (A) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 87 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 87 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 87 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(78) (A) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 88 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 88 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 88 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(c) (1) In addition to the application fee for a new permanent license as specified in subdivision (a), an annual renewal fee, as set forth in subdivision (b), shall accompany the application. The application fee shall be nonrefundable up to the amount of the application fee in paragraph (1) of subdivision (a), as adjusted by subdivisions (d) and (e). The annual fee provided at the time of application shall allow the license to be active for one year from the date of issuance and shall be refundable only in the event that the license application is withdrawn or denied.(2) If an application includes multiple new permanent licenses to be issued at the same premises, the application fee shall be required for only one of the applied-for licenses and an application fee shall not be charged for the remainder of the licenses. In situations involving different license types, the application fee to be paid shall be the highest such fee as specified in subdivision (a). Notwithstanding this provision, the annual renewal fee required pursuant to this subdivision shall be payable for each license.(d) Beginning January 1, 2021, and each January 1 thereafter, the department may adjust each of the fees specified in this section by increasing each fee by an amount not to exceed the percentage that the California Consumer Price Index (California Department of Industrial Relations, Division of Labor Statistics and Research, All Items, Base Period 1982-84=100) for the preceding August 2019, and each August annually thereafter, has increased under the same index over the month of August 2018, which shall be the base period. The department shall not adjust fees pursuant to this section if the balance of the Alcohol Beverage Control Fund at the end of the prior fiscal year is greater than one-fourth of the departments appropriation from the Alcohol Beverage Control Fund for the current fiscal year. No fee shall be decreased pursuant to this adjustment below the fee currently in effect on each December 31. If the accumulation of percentage increases is greater than 8 percent, the department shall not adjust fees without the Legislatures approval through the budget process. In the event that this index is discontinued, the department shall consult with the Department of Finance to convert the increase calculations to an index then available. When approved by the Department of Finance, the new index shall replace the discontinued index.(e) When fees are adjusted pursuant to subdivision (d), the department shall calculate the percentage increase as specified in that subdivision and shall apply this increase to each fee. The increase to each fee shall be rounded to the nearest whole five dollars ($5). The adjusted fee list, to be effective on January 1 of the upcoming year, shall be published by the department on its internet website and transmitted in writing to the Chairperson of the Joint Legislative Budget Committee no later than January 10 of the year before it becomes effective. This adjustment of fees and publication of the adjusted fee list is not subject to the requirements of Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.
118+23320. (a) An applicant for a new permanent license, which shall not include duplicate licenses, shall accompany the application with the application fee as specified in this division:(1) The license application fee for a new permanent license shall be nine hundred five dollars ($905), except as otherwise specified.(2) Applicants for a new permanent license of the following types shall accompany the application with a fee of fifteen thousand eight hundred thirty-five dollars ($15,835):(A) Off-sale general (Type 21).(B) On-sale general - eating place (Type 47), on-sale general public premises (Type 48), special on-sale general (Type 57), special on-sale general for-profit theater (Type 71 and Type 72), brewpub-restaurant (Type 75), caterers (Type 83), neighborhood restricted special on-sale (Type 87), and special on-sale general license for historic cemetery (Type 88).(3) Applicants for a new permanent license of the following types shall accompany the application with a fee as indicated:(A) Twelve thousand dollars ($12,000) for a wine, food and art cultural museum (Type 78).(B) Six thousand dollars ($6,000) for an on-sale general - eating place on public property (Type 47) and for an on-sale general restrictive service (Type 70).(C) Two thousand dollars ($2,000) for an on-sale general dockside (Type 62).(D) One thousand dollars ($1,000) for a special on-sale general theater (Type 64).(E) One hundred dollars ($100) for an out-of-state beer manufacturer certificate (Type 26), for a distilled spirits shipper certificate (Type 28), and for a direct shipper permit (Type 82).(F) One hundred dollars ($100) for a still (Type 6).(b) The following are the types of licenses and the annual fees to be charged therefor:(1) (A) For a Type 01 - Beer manufacturer that produces more than 60,000 barrels per year: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one thousand five hundred thirty-one dollars ($1,531) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand eight hundred ninety dollars ($1,890).(B) For a Duplicate Type 01: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(2) (A) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 gallons or less: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-one dollars ($71) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(B) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 - 20,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred thirty-two dollars ($132) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(C) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 20,000 - 100,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(D) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 100,000 - 200,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fourteen dollars ($314) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(E) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 200,000 - 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred sixty-six dollars ($466) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); for each additional 1,000,000 gallons over 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred thirteen dollars ($313) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(G) For a Duplicate Type 02: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(3) (A) For a Type 03 - Brandy manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eleven dollars ($311) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(B) For a Duplicate Type 03: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(4) For a Type 04 - Distilled spirits manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(5) For a Type 05 - Distilled spirits manufacturers agent: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(6) For a Type 06 - Still: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(7) For a Type 07 - Rectifier: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(8) For a Type 08 - Wine rectifier: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(9) For a Type 09 - Beer and wine importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(10) For a Type 10 - Beer and wine importers general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred forty dollars ($340) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(11) For a Type 11 - Brandy importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(12) For a Type 12 - Distilled spirits importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(13) For a Type 13 - Distilled spirits importers general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(14) (A) For a Type 14 - Public warehouse: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(B) For a Duplicate Type 14: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one dollar ($1) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty-five dollars ($25).(15) For a Type 15 - Customs broker: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(16) For a Type 16 - Wine broker: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(17) For a Type 17 - Beer and wine wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred forty dollars ($340) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(18) For a Type 18 - Distilled spirits wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(19) For a Type 19 - Industrial alcohol dealer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(20) For a Type 20 - Off-sale beer and wine: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventy-eight dollars ($278) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(21) For a Type 21 - Off-sale general: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred seventeen dollars ($617) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(22) (A) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 gallons or less: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-one dollars ($71) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(B) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 - 20,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred thirty-two dollars ($132) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(C) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 20,000 gallons - 100,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(D) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 100,000 - 200,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fourteen dollars ($314) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(E) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 200,000 - 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred sixty-six dollars ($466) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); for each additional 1,000,000 gallons over 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred thirteen dollars ($313) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(23) (A) For a Type 23 - Small beer manufacturer that produces 60,000 barrels or less a year: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred eighty-four dollars ($184) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(B) For a Duplicate Type 23: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(24) For a Type 24 - Distilled spirits rectifiers general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(25) For a Type 25 - California brandy wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(26) For a Type 26 - Out-of-state beer manufacturer certificate: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-nine dollars ($79) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(27) For a Type 27 - California winegrowers agent: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(28) For a Type 28 - Out-of-state distilled spirits shipper certificate: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-nine dollars ($79) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(29) For a Type 29 - Winegrape grower storage: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety dollars ($90) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(30) For a Type 40 - On-sale beer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(31) For a Type 41 - On-sale beer and wine eating place: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eighty-four dollars ($384) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(32) For a Type 42 - On-sale beer and wine pub premises: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(33) For a Type 43 - On-sale beer and wine train: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(34) For a Type 44 - On-sale beer and wine fishing party boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(35) For a Type 45 - On-sale beer and wine boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(36) For a Type 46 - On-sale beer and wine airplane: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(37) (A) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 47 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 47 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 47 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(38) (A) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 48 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 48 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 48 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(39) (A) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred forty-seven dollars ($247) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred ninety-four dollars ($494) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(C) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred forty-one dollars ($741) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(D) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred seventy-six dollars ($176) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(E) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fifty dollars ($350) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(F) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred twenty-six dollars ($526) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(G) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fifty-three dollars ($153) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(H) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred six dollars ($306) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(I) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred fifty-eight dollars ($458) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(J) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred seventy-six dollars ($176) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(K) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fifty dollars ($350) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(L) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred twenty-six dollars ($526) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two six hundred fifteen fifty dollars ($650).(M) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred twenty-five dollars ($125).(N) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seven dollars ($207) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).(O) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eleven dollars ($311) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred seventy-five dollars ($375).(P) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is eighty-one dollars ($81) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(Q) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-six dollars ($166) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(R) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred forty-seven dollars ($247) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(40) (A) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(41) (A) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(42) (A) For a Type 52 - Veterans club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Type 52 - Veterans club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 52 - Veterans club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(43) (A) For a Type 53 - On-sale general train: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Duplicate Type 53: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(44) For a Type 54 - On-sale general boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty-three dollars ($563) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(45) (A) For a Type 55 - On-sale general license for airplanes: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty-three dollars ($563) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Duplicate Type 55 for air common carriers: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(46) (A) For a Type 56 - On-sale general license for vessels of more than 1,000 tons burden: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Duplicate Type 56: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(47) (A) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 57 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 57 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 57 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(48) (A) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; on-sale general or on-sale beer and wine: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred forty-six dollars ($146) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(B) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; club in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(C) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; club in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(D) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; club in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(49) (A) For a Type 59 - On-sale beer and wine seasonal; operating period 3-9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).(B) For a Type 59 - On-sale beer and wine seasonal; operating period 3-6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-two dollars ($162) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).(50) (A) For a Type 60 - On-sale beer seasonal; operating period 3-9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).(B) For a Type 60 - On-sale beer seasonal; operating period 3-6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-two dollars ($162) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).(51) For a Type 61 - On-sale beer public premises: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(52) For a Type 62 - On-sale general license dockside: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred nine dollars ($609) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(53) For a Type 63 - On-sale special beer and wine hospital: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-six dollars ($96) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(54) (A) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(B) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(55) For a Type 65 - Special on-sale beer and wine symphony: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(56) For a Type 66 - Controlled access cabinet: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred seventeen dollars ($617) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(57) For a Type 67 - Bed and breakfast inn; per room: the fee through September 30, 2019, is eight dollars ($8) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is ten dollars ($10).(58) (A) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(B) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(59) For a Type 69 - Special on-sale beer and wine theater: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(60) (A) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(61) (A) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 71 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 71 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 71 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(62) (A) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 72 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 72 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 72 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(63) For a Type 73 - Special nonprofit sales: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(64) For a Type 74 - Craft distilled spirits manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(65) (A) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 75 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 75 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 75 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(66) (A) For a Type 76 - On-sale general maritime museum: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Duplicate Type 76: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(67) For a Type 77 - Event permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred forty-six dollars ($146) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(68) (A) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 78 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 78 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 78 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(69) For a Type 79 - Certified farmers market: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty-eight dollars ($58) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(70) For a Type 80 - Special on-sale general; per room: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventeen dollars ($17) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty dollars ($20).(71) For a Type 81 - Wine sales event permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty dollars ($50) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(72) For a Type 82 - Direct shipper permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ten dollars ($10) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty-five dollars ($25).(73) (A) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterers permit in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterers permit in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterers permit in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(74) For a Type 84 - Certified farmers market beer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty-eight dollars ($58) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(75) For a Type 85 - Limited off-sale wine license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventy-eight dollars ($278) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(76) For a Type 86 - Instructional tasting license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred dollars ($300) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(77) (A) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 87 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 87 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 87 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(78) (A) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 88 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 88 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 88 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(c) (1) In addition to the application fee for a new permanent license as specified in subdivision (a), an annual renewal fee, as set forth in subdivision (b), shall accompany the application. The application fee shall be nonrefundable up to the amount of the application fee in paragraph (1) of subdivision (a), as adjusted by subdivisions (d) and (e). The annual fee provided at the time of application shall allow the license to be active for one year from the date of issuance and shall be refundable only in the event that the license application is withdrawn or denied.(2) If an application includes multiple new permanent licenses to be issued at the same premises, the application fee shall be required for only one of the applied-for licenses and an application fee shall not be charged for the remainder of the licenses. In situations involving different license types, the application fee to be paid shall be the highest such fee as specified in subdivision (a). Notwithstanding this provision, the annual renewal fee required pursuant to this subdivision shall be payable for each license.(d) Beginning January 1, 2021, and each January 1 thereafter, the department may adjust each of the fees specified in this section by increasing each fee by an amount not to exceed the percentage that the California Consumer Price Index (California Department of Industrial Relations, Division of Labor Statistics and Research, All Items, Base Period 1982-84=100) for the preceding August 2019, and each August annually thereafter, has increased under the same index over the month of August 2018, which shall be the base period. The department shall not adjust fees pursuant to this section if the balance of the Alcohol Beverage Control Fund at the end of the prior fiscal year is greater than one-fourth of the departments appropriation from the Alcohol Beverage Control Fund for the current fiscal year. No fee shall be decreased pursuant to this adjustment below the fee currently in effect on each December 31. If the accumulation of percentage increases is greater than 8 percent, the department shall not adjust fees without the Legislatures approval through the budget process. In the event that this index is discontinued, the department shall consult with the Department of Finance to convert the increase calculations to an index then available. When approved by the Department of Finance, the new index shall replace the discontinued index.(e) When fees are adjusted pursuant to subdivision (d), the department shall calculate the percentage increase as specified in that subdivision and shall apply this increase to each fee. The increase to each fee shall be rounded to the nearest whole five dollars ($5). The adjusted fee list, to be effective on January 1 of the upcoming year, shall be published by the department on its internet website and transmitted in writing to the Chairperson of the Joint Legislative Budget Committee no later than January 10 of the year before it becomes effective. This adjustment of fees and publication of the adjusted fee list is not subject to the requirements of Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.
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117-23320. (a) An applicant for a new permanent license, which shall not include duplicate licenses, shall accompany the application with the application fee as specified in this division:(1) The license application fee for a new permanent license shall be nine hundred five dollars ($905), except as otherwise specified.(2) Applicants for a new permanent license of the following types shall accompany the application with a fee of fifteen thousand eight hundred thirty-five dollars ($15,835):(A) Off-sale general (Type 21).(B) On-sale general - eating place (Type 47), on-sale general public premises (Type 48), special on-sale general (Type 57), special on-sale general for-profit theater (Type 71 and Type 72), brewpub-restaurant (Type 75), caterers (Type 83), neighborhood restricted special on-sale (Type 87), and special on-sale general license for historic cemetery (Type 88).(3) Applicants for a new permanent license of the following types shall accompany the application with a fee as indicated:(A) Twelve thousand dollars ($12,000) for a wine, food and art cultural museum (Type 78).(B) Six thousand dollars ($6,000) for an on-sale general - eating place on public property (Type 47) and for an on-sale general restrictive service (Type 70).(C) Two thousand dollars ($2,000) for an on-sale general dockside (Type 62).(D) One thousand dollars ($1,000) for a special on-sale general theater (Type 64).(E) One hundred dollars ($100) for an out-of-state beer manufacturer certificate (Type 26), for a distilled spirits shipper certificate (Type 28), and for a direct shipper permit (Type 82).(F) One hundred dollars ($100) for a still (Type 6).(b) The following are the types of licenses and the annual fees to be charged therefor:(1) (A) For a Type 01 - Beer manufacturer that produces more than 60,000 barrels per year: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one thousand five hundred thirty-one dollars ($1,531) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand eight hundred ninety dollars ($1,890).(B) For a Duplicate Type 01: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(2) (A) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 gallons or less: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-one dollars ($71) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(B) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 - 20,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred thirty-two dollars ($132) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(C) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 20,000 - 100,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(D) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 100,000 - 200,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fourteen dollars ($314) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(E) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 200,000 - 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred sixty-six dollars ($466) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); for each additional 1,000,000 gallons over 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred thirteen dollars ($313) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(G) For a Duplicate Type 02: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(3) (A) For a Type 03 - Brandy manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eleven dollars ($311) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(B) For a Duplicate Type 03: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(4) For a Type 04 - Distilled spirits manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(5) For a Type 05 - Distilled spirits manufacturers agent: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(6) For a Type 06 - Still: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(7) For a Type 07 - Rectifier: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(8) For a Type 08 - Wine rectifier: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(9) For a Type 09 - Beer and wine importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(10) For a Type 10 - Beer and wine importers general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred forty dollars ($340) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(11) For a Type 11 - Brandy importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(12) For a Type 12 - Distilled spirits importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(13) For a Type 13 - Distilled spirits importers general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(14) (A) For a Type 14 - Public warehouse: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(B) For a Duplicate Type 14: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one dollar ($1) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty-five dollars ($25).(15) For a Type 15 - Customs broker: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(16) For a Type 16 - Wine broker: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(17) For a Type 17 - Beer and wine wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred forty dollars ($340) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(18) For a Type 18 - Distilled spirits wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(19) For a Type 19 - Industrial alcohol dealer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(20) For a Type 20 - Off-sale beer and wine: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventy-eight dollars ($278) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(21) For a Type 21 - Off-sale general: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred seventeen dollars ($617) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(22) (A) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 gallons or less: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-one dollars ($71) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(B) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 - 20,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred thirty-two dollars ($132) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(C) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 20,000 gallons - 100,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(D) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 100,000 - 200,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fourteen dollars ($314) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(E) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 200,000 - 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred sixty-six dollars ($466) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); for each additional 1,000,000 gallons over 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred thirteen dollars ($313) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(23) (A) For a Type 23 - Small beer manufacturer that produces 60,000 barrels or less a year: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred eighty-four dollars ($184) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(B) For a Duplicate Type 23: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(24) For a Type 24 - Distilled spirits rectifiers general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(25) For a Type 25 - California brandy wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(26) For a Type 26 - Out-of-state beer manufacturer certificate: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-nine dollars ($79) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(27) For a Type 27 - California winegrowers agent: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(28) For a Type 28 - Out-of-state distilled spirits shipper certificate: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-nine dollars ($79) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(29) For a Type 29 - Winegrape grower storage: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety dollars ($90) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(30) For a Type 40 - On-sale beer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(31) For a Type 41 - On-sale beer and wine eating place: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eighty-four dollars ($384) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(32) For a Type 42 - On-sale beer and wine pub premises: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(33) For a Type 43 - On-sale beer and wine train: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(34) For a Type 44 - On-sale beer and wine fishing party boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(35) For a Type 45 - On-sale beer and wine boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(36) For a Type 46 - On-sale beer and wine airplane: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(37) (A) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 47 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 47 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 47 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(38) (A) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 48 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 48 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 48 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(39) (A) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred forty-seven dollars ($247) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred ninety-four dollars ($494) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(C) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred forty-one dollars ($741) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(D) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred seventy-six dollars ($176) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(E) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fifty dollars ($350) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(F) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred twenty-six dollars ($526) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(G) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fifty-three dollars ($153) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(H) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred six dollars ($306) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(I) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred fifty-eight dollars ($458) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(J) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred seventy-six dollars ($176) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(K) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fifty dollars ($350) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(L) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred twenty-six dollars ($526) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(M) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred twenty-five dollars ($125).(N) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seven dollars ($207) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).(O) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eleven dollars ($311) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred seventy-five dollars ($375).(P) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is eighty-one dollars ($81) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(Q) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-six dollars ($166) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(R) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred forty-seven dollars ($247) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(40) (A) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(41) (A) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(42) (A) For a Type 52 - Veterans club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Type 52 - Veterans club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 52 - Veterans club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(43) (A) For a Type 53 - On-sale general train: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Duplicate Type 53: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(44) For a Type 54 - On-sale general boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty-three dollars ($563) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(45) (A) For a Type 55 - On-sale general license for airplanes: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty-three dollars ($563) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Duplicate Type 55 for air common carriers: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(46) (A) For a Type 56 - On-sale general license for vessels of more than 1,000 tons burden: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Duplicate Type 56: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(47) (A) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 57 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 57 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 57 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(48) (A) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; on-sale general or on-sale beer and wine: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred forty-six dollars ($146) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(B) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; club in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(C) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; club in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(D) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; club in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(49) (A) For a Type 59 - On-sale beer and wine seasonal; operating period 3-9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).(B) For a Type 59 - On-sale beer and wine seasonal; operating period 3-6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-two dollars ($162) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).(50) (A) For a Type 60 - On-sale beer seasonal; operating period 3-9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).(B) For a Type 60 - On-sale beer seasonal; operating period 3-6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-two dollars ($162) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).(51) For a Type 61 - On-sale beer public premises: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(52) For a Type 62 - On-sale general license dockside: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred nine dollars ($609) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(53) For a Type 63 - On-sale special beer and wine hospital: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-six dollars ($96) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(54) (A) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(B) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(55) For a Type 65 - Special on-sale beer and wine symphony: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(56) For a Type 66 - Controlled access cabinet: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred seventeen dollars ($617) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(57) For a Type 67 - Bed and breakfast inn; per room: the fee through September 30, 2019, is eight dollars ($8) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is ten dollars ($10).(58) (A) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(B) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(59) For a Type 69 - Special on-sale beer and wine theater: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(60) (A) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(61) (A) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 71 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 71 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 71 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(62) (A) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 72 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 72 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 72 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(63) For a Type 73 - Special nonprofit sales: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(64) For a Type 74 - Craft distilled spirits manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(65) (A) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 75 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 75 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 75 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(66) (A) For a Type 76 - On-sale general maritime museum: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Duplicate Type 76: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(67) For a Type 77 - Event permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred forty-six dollars ($146) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(68) (A) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 78 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 78 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 78 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(69) For a Type 79 - Certified farmers market: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty-eight dollars ($58) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(70) For a Type 80 - Special on-sale general; per room: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventeen dollars ($17) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty dollars ($20).(71) For a Type 81 - Wine sales event permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty dollars ($50) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(72) For a Type 82 - Direct shipper permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ten dollars ($10) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty-five dollars ($25).(73) (A) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterers permit in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterers permit in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterers permit in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(74) For a Type 84 - Certified farmers market beer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty-eight dollars ($58) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(75) For a Type 85 - Limited off-sale wine license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventy-eight dollars ($278) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(76) For a Type 86 - Instructional tasting license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred dollars ($300) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(77) (A) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 87 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 87 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 87 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(78) (A) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 88 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 88 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 88 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(c) (1) In addition to the application fee for a new permanent license as specified in subdivision (a), an annual renewal fee, as set forth in subdivision (b), shall accompany the application. The application fee shall be nonrefundable up to the amount of the application fee in paragraph (1) of subdivision (a), as adjusted by subdivisions (d) and (e). The annual fee provided at the time of application shall allow the license to be active for one year from the date of issuance and shall be refundable only in the event that the license application is withdrawn or denied.(2) If an application includes multiple new permanent licenses to be issued at the same premises, the application fee shall be required for only one of the applied-for licenses and an application fee shall not be charged for the remainder of the licenses. In situations involving different license types, the application fee to be paid shall be the highest such fee as specified in subdivision (a). Notwithstanding this provision, the annual renewal fee required pursuant to this subdivision shall be payable for each license.(d) Beginning January 1, 2021, and each January 1 thereafter, the department may adjust each of the fees specified in this section by increasing each fee by an amount not to exceed the percentage that the California Consumer Price Index (California Department of Industrial Relations, Division of Labor Statistics and Research, All Items, Base Period 1982-84=100) for the preceding August 2019, and each August annually thereafter, has increased under the same index over the month of August 2018, which shall be the base period. The department shall not adjust fees pursuant to this section if the balance of the Alcohol Beverage Control Fund at the end of the prior fiscal year is greater than one-fourth of the departments appropriation from the Alcohol Beverage Control Fund for the current fiscal year. No fee shall be decreased pursuant to this adjustment below the fee currently in effect on each December 31. If the accumulation of percentage increases is greater than 8 percent, the department shall not adjust fees without the Legislatures approval through the budget process. In the event that this index is discontinued, the department shall consult with the Department of Finance to convert the increase calculations to an index then available. When approved by the Department of Finance, the new index shall replace the discontinued index.(e) When fees are adjusted pursuant to subdivision (d), the department shall calculate the percentage increase as specified in that subdivision and shall apply this increase to each fee. The increase to each fee shall be rounded to the nearest whole five dollars ($5). The adjusted fee list, to be effective on January 1 of the upcoming year, shall be published by the department on its internet website and transmitted in writing to the Chairperson of the Joint Legislative Budget Committee no later than January 10 of the year before it becomes effective. This adjustment of fees and publication of the adjusted fee list is not subject to the requirements of Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.
120+23320. (a) An applicant for a new permanent license, which shall not include duplicate licenses, shall accompany the application with the application fee as specified in this division:(1) The license application fee for a new permanent license shall be nine hundred five dollars ($905), except as otherwise specified.(2) Applicants for a new permanent license of the following types shall accompany the application with a fee of fifteen thousand eight hundred thirty-five dollars ($15,835):(A) Off-sale general (Type 21).(B) On-sale general - eating place (Type 47), on-sale general public premises (Type 48), special on-sale general (Type 57), special on-sale general for-profit theater (Type 71 and Type 72), brewpub-restaurant (Type 75), caterers (Type 83), neighborhood restricted special on-sale (Type 87), and special on-sale general license for historic cemetery (Type 88).(3) Applicants for a new permanent license of the following types shall accompany the application with a fee as indicated:(A) Twelve thousand dollars ($12,000) for a wine, food and art cultural museum (Type 78).(B) Six thousand dollars ($6,000) for an on-sale general - eating place on public property (Type 47) and for an on-sale general restrictive service (Type 70).(C) Two thousand dollars ($2,000) for an on-sale general dockside (Type 62).(D) One thousand dollars ($1,000) for a special on-sale general theater (Type 64).(E) One hundred dollars ($100) for an out-of-state beer manufacturer certificate (Type 26), for a distilled spirits shipper certificate (Type 28), and for a direct shipper permit (Type 82).(F) One hundred dollars ($100) for a still (Type 6).(b) The following are the types of licenses and the annual fees to be charged therefor:(1) (A) For a Type 01 - Beer manufacturer that produces more than 60,000 barrels per year: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one thousand five hundred thirty-one dollars ($1,531) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand eight hundred ninety dollars ($1,890).(B) For a Duplicate Type 01: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(2) (A) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 gallons or less: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-one dollars ($71) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(B) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 - 20,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred thirty-two dollars ($132) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(C) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 20,000 - 100,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(D) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 100,000 - 200,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fourteen dollars ($314) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(E) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 200,000 - 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred sixty-six dollars ($466) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); for each additional 1,000,000 gallons over 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred thirteen dollars ($313) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(G) For a Duplicate Type 02: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(3) (A) For a Type 03 - Brandy manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eleven dollars ($311) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(B) For a Duplicate Type 03: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(4) For a Type 04 - Distilled spirits manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(5) For a Type 05 - Distilled spirits manufacturers agent: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(6) For a Type 06 - Still: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(7) For a Type 07 - Rectifier: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(8) For a Type 08 - Wine rectifier: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(9) For a Type 09 - Beer and wine importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(10) For a Type 10 - Beer and wine importers general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred forty dollars ($340) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(11) For a Type 11 - Brandy importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(12) For a Type 12 - Distilled spirits importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(13) For a Type 13 - Distilled spirits importers general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(14) (A) For a Type 14 - Public warehouse: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(B) For a Duplicate Type 14: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one dollar ($1) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty-five dollars ($25).(15) For a Type 15 - Customs broker: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(16) For a Type 16 - Wine broker: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(17) For a Type 17 - Beer and wine wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred forty dollars ($340) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(18) For a Type 18 - Distilled spirits wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(19) For a Type 19 - Industrial alcohol dealer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(20) For a Type 20 - Off-sale beer and wine: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventy-eight dollars ($278) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(21) For a Type 21 - Off-sale general: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred seventeen dollars ($617) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(22) (A) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 gallons or less: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-one dollars ($71) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(B) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 - 20,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred thirty-two dollars ($132) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(C) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 20,000 gallons - 100,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(D) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 100,000 - 200,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fourteen dollars ($314) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(E) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 200,000 - 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred sixty-six dollars ($466) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); for each additional 1,000,000 gallons over 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred thirteen dollars ($313) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(23) (A) For a Type 23 - Small beer manufacturer that produces 60,000 barrels or less a year: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred eighty-four dollars ($184) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(B) For a Duplicate Type 23: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(24) For a Type 24 - Distilled spirits rectifiers general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(25) For a Type 25 - California brandy wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(26) For a Type 26 - Out-of-state beer manufacturer certificate: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-nine dollars ($79) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(27) For a Type 27 - California winegrowers agent: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).(28) For a Type 28 - Out-of-state distilled spirits shipper certificate: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-nine dollars ($79) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(29) For a Type 29 - Winegrape grower storage: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety dollars ($90) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(30) For a Type 40 - On-sale beer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(31) For a Type 41 - On-sale beer and wine eating place: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eighty-four dollars ($384) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(32) For a Type 42 - On-sale beer and wine pub premises: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(33) For a Type 43 - On-sale beer and wine train: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(34) For a Type 44 - On-sale beer and wine fishing party boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(35) For a Type 45 - On-sale beer and wine boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(36) For a Type 46 - On-sale beer and wine airplane: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(37) (A) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 47 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 47 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 47 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(38) (A) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 48 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 48 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 48 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(39) (A) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred forty-seven dollars ($247) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred ninety-four dollars ($494) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(C) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred forty-one dollars ($741) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(D) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred seventy-six dollars ($176) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(E) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fifty dollars ($350) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(F) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred twenty-six dollars ($526) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(G) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fifty-three dollars ($153) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(H) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred six dollars ($306) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(I) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred fifty-eight dollars ($458) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(J) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred seventy-six dollars ($176) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(K) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fifty dollars ($350) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(L) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred twenty-six dollars ($526) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two six hundred fifteen fifty dollars ($650).(M) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred twenty-five dollars ($125).(N) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seven dollars ($207) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).(O) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eleven dollars ($311) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred seventy-five dollars ($375).(P) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is eighty-one dollars ($81) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(Q) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-six dollars ($166) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(R) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred forty-seven dollars ($247) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(40) (A) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(41) (A) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(42) (A) For a Type 52 - Veterans club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Type 52 - Veterans club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 52 - Veterans club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(43) (A) For a Type 53 - On-sale general train: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Duplicate Type 53: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(44) For a Type 54 - On-sale general boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty-three dollars ($563) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(45) (A) For a Type 55 - On-sale general license for airplanes: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty-three dollars ($563) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).(B) For a Duplicate Type 55 for air common carriers: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(46) (A) For a Type 56 - On-sale general license for vessels of more than 1,000 tons burden: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Duplicate Type 56: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(47) (A) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 57 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 57 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 57 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(48) (A) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; on-sale general or on-sale beer and wine: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred forty-six dollars ($146) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(B) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; club in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(C) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; club in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(D) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; club in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(49) (A) For a Type 59 - On-sale beer and wine seasonal; operating period 3-9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).(B) For a Type 59 - On-sale beer and wine seasonal; operating period 3-6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-two dollars ($162) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).(50) (A) For a Type 60 - On-sale beer seasonal; operating period 3-9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).(B) For a Type 60 - On-sale beer seasonal; operating period 3-6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-two dollars ($162) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).(51) For a Type 61 - On-sale beer public premises: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(52) For a Type 62 - On-sale general license dockside: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred nine dollars ($609) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(53) For a Type 63 - On-sale special beer and wine hospital: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-six dollars ($96) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(54) (A) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(B) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(55) For a Type 65 - Special on-sale beer and wine symphony: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(56) For a Type 66 - Controlled access cabinet: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred seventeen dollars ($617) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(57) For a Type 67 - Bed and breakfast inn; per room: the fee through September 30, 2019, is eight dollars ($8) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is ten dollars ($10).(58) (A) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(B) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(C) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(59) For a Type 69 - Special on-sale beer and wine theater: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(60) (A) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(61) (A) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 71 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 71 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 71 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(62) (A) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 72 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 72 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 72 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(63) For a Type 73 - Special nonprofit sales: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(64) For a Type 74 - Craft distilled spirits manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(65) (A) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 75 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 75 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 75 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(66) (A) For a Type 76 - On-sale general maritime museum: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).(B) For a Duplicate Type 76: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(67) For a Type 77 - Event permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred forty-six dollars ($146) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).(68) (A) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 78 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 78 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 78 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(69) For a Type 79 - Certified farmers market: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty-eight dollars ($58) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(70) For a Type 80 - Special on-sale general; per room: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventeen dollars ($17) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty dollars ($20).(71) For a Type 81 - Wine sales event permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty dollars ($50) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(72) For a Type 82 - Direct shipper permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ten dollars ($10) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty-five dollars ($25).(73) (A) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterers permit in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterers permit in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterers permit in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(74) For a Type 84 - Certified farmers market beer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty-eight dollars ($58) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).(75) For a Type 85 - Limited off-sale wine license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventy-eight dollars ($278) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(76) For a Type 86 - Instructional tasting license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred dollars ($300) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).(77) (A) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 87 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 87 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 87 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(78) (A) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).(B) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).(C) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(D) For a Duplicate Type 88 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).(E) For a Duplicate Type 88 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).(F) For a Duplicate Type 88 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).(c) (1) In addition to the application fee for a new permanent license as specified in subdivision (a), an annual renewal fee, as set forth in subdivision (b), shall accompany the application. The application fee shall be nonrefundable up to the amount of the application fee in paragraph (1) of subdivision (a), as adjusted by subdivisions (d) and (e). The annual fee provided at the time of application shall allow the license to be active for one year from the date of issuance and shall be refundable only in the event that the license application is withdrawn or denied.(2) If an application includes multiple new permanent licenses to be issued at the same premises, the application fee shall be required for only one of the applied-for licenses and an application fee shall not be charged for the remainder of the licenses. In situations involving different license types, the application fee to be paid shall be the highest such fee as specified in subdivision (a). Notwithstanding this provision, the annual renewal fee required pursuant to this subdivision shall be payable for each license.(d) Beginning January 1, 2021, and each January 1 thereafter, the department may adjust each of the fees specified in this section by increasing each fee by an amount not to exceed the percentage that the California Consumer Price Index (California Department of Industrial Relations, Division of Labor Statistics and Research, All Items, Base Period 1982-84=100) for the preceding August 2019, and each August annually thereafter, has increased under the same index over the month of August 2018, which shall be the base period. The department shall not adjust fees pursuant to this section if the balance of the Alcohol Beverage Control Fund at the end of the prior fiscal year is greater than one-fourth of the departments appropriation from the Alcohol Beverage Control Fund for the current fiscal year. No fee shall be decreased pursuant to this adjustment below the fee currently in effect on each December 31. If the accumulation of percentage increases is greater than 8 percent, the department shall not adjust fees without the Legislatures approval through the budget process. In the event that this index is discontinued, the department shall consult with the Department of Finance to convert the increase calculations to an index then available. When approved by the Department of Finance, the new index shall replace the discontinued index.(e) When fees are adjusted pursuant to subdivision (d), the department shall calculate the percentage increase as specified in that subdivision and shall apply this increase to each fee. The increase to each fee shall be rounded to the nearest whole five dollars ($5). The adjusted fee list, to be effective on January 1 of the upcoming year, shall be published by the department on its internet website and transmitted in writing to the Chairperson of the Joint Legislative Budget Committee no later than January 10 of the year before it becomes effective. This adjustment of fees and publication of the adjusted fee list is not subject to the requirements of Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.
118121
119122
120123
121124 23320. (a) An applicant for a new permanent license, which shall not include duplicate licenses, shall accompany the application with the application fee as specified in this division:
122125
123126 (1) The license application fee for a new permanent license shall be nine hundred five dollars ($905), except as otherwise specified.
124127
125128 (2) Applicants for a new permanent license of the following types shall accompany the application with a fee of fifteen thousand eight hundred thirty-five dollars ($15,835):
126129
127130 (A) Off-sale general (Type 21).
128131
129132 (B) On-sale general - eating place (Type 47), on-sale general public premises (Type 48), special on-sale general (Type 57), special on-sale general for-profit theater (Type 71 and Type 72), brewpub-restaurant (Type 75), caterers (Type 83), neighborhood restricted special on-sale (Type 87), and special on-sale general license for historic cemetery (Type 88).
130133
131134 (3) Applicants for a new permanent license of the following types shall accompany the application with a fee as indicated:
132135
133136 (A) Twelve thousand dollars ($12,000) for a wine, food and art cultural museum (Type 78).
134137
135138 (B) Six thousand dollars ($6,000) for an on-sale general - eating place on public property (Type 47) and for an on-sale general restrictive service (Type 70).
136139
137140 (C) Two thousand dollars ($2,000) for an on-sale general dockside (Type 62).
138141
139142 (D) One thousand dollars ($1,000) for a special on-sale general theater (Type 64).
140143
141144 (E) One hundred dollars ($100) for an out-of-state beer manufacturer certificate (Type 26), for a distilled spirits shipper certificate (Type 28), and for a direct shipper permit (Type 82).
142145
143146 (F) One hundred dollars ($100) for a still (Type 6).
144147
145148 (b) The following are the types of licenses and the annual fees to be charged therefor:
146149
147150 (1) (A) For a Type 01 - Beer manufacturer that produces more than 60,000 barrels per year: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one thousand five hundred thirty-one dollars ($1,531) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand eight hundred ninety dollars ($1,890).
148151
149152 (B) For a Duplicate Type 01: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).
150153
151154 (2) (A) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 gallons or less: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-one dollars ($71) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
152155
153156 (B) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 - 20,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred thirty-two dollars ($132) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).
154157
155158 (C) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 20,000 - 100,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).
156159
157160 (D) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 100,000 - 200,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fourteen dollars ($314) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).
158161
159162 (E) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 200,000 - 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred sixty-six dollars ($466) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).
160163
161164 (F) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); for each additional 1,000,000 gallons over 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred thirteen dollars ($313) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).
162165
163166 (G) For a Duplicate Type 02: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).
164167
165168 (3) (A) For a Type 03 - Brandy manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eleven dollars ($311) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).
166169
167170 (B) For a Duplicate Type 03: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).
168171
169172 (4) For a Type 04 - Distilled spirits manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).
170173
171174 (5) For a Type 05 - Distilled spirits manufacturers agent: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).
172175
173176 (6) For a Type 06 - Still: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
174177
175178 (7) For a Type 07 - Rectifier: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).
176179
177180 (8) For a Type 08 - Wine rectifier: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).
178181
179182 (9) For a Type 09 - Beer and wine importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
180183
181184 (10) For a Type 10 - Beer and wine importers general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred forty dollars ($340) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).
182185
183186 (11) For a Type 11 - Brandy importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
184187
185188 (12) For a Type 12 - Distilled spirits importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
186189
187190 (13) For a Type 13 - Distilled spirits importers general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).
188191
189192 (14) (A) For a Type 14 - Public warehouse: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
190193
191194 (B) For a Duplicate Type 14: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one dollar ($1) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty-five dollars ($25).
192195
193196 (15) For a Type 15 - Customs broker: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
194197
195198 (16) For a Type 16 - Wine broker: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
196199
197200 (17) For a Type 17 - Beer and wine wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred forty dollars ($340) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).
198201
199202 (18) For a Type 18 - Distilled spirits wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).
200203
201204 (19) For a Type 19 - Industrial alcohol dealer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
202205
203206 (20) For a Type 20 - Off-sale beer and wine: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventy-eight dollars ($278) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).
204207
205208 (21) For a Type 21 - Off-sale general: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred seventeen dollars ($617) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
206209
207210 (22) (A) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 gallons or less: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-one dollars ($71) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
208211
209212 (B) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 - 20,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred thirty-two dollars ($132) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).
210213
211214 (C) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 20,000 gallons - 100,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).
212215
213216 (D) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 100,000 - 200,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fourteen dollars ($314) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).
214217
215218 (E) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 200,000 - 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred sixty-six dollars ($466) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).
216219
217220 (F) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); for each additional 1,000,000 gallons over 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred thirteen dollars ($313) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).
218221
219222 (23) (A) For a Type 23 - Small beer manufacturer that produces 60,000 barrels or less a year: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred eighty-four dollars ($184) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).
220223
221224 (B) For a Duplicate Type 23: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).
222225
223226 (24) For a Type 24 - Distilled spirits rectifiers general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).
224227
225228 (25) For a Type 25 - California brandy wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).
226229
227230 (26) For a Type 26 - Out-of-state beer manufacturer certificate: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-nine dollars ($79) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
228231
229232 (27) For a Type 27 - California winegrowers agent: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).
230233
231234 (28) For a Type 28 - Out-of-state distilled spirits shipper certificate: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-nine dollars ($79) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
232235
233236 (29) For a Type 29 - Winegrape grower storage: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety dollars ($90) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
234237
235238 (30) For a Type 40 - On-sale beer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).
236239
237240 (31) For a Type 41 - On-sale beer and wine eating place: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eighty-four dollars ($384) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).
238241
239242 (32) For a Type 42 - On-sale beer and wine pub premises: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).
240243
241244 (33) For a Type 43 - On-sale beer and wine train: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).
242245
243246 (34) For a Type 44 - On-sale beer and wine fishing party boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).
244247
245248 (35) For a Type 45 - On-sale beer and wine boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).
246249
247250 (36) For a Type 46 - On-sale beer and wine airplane: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).
248251
249252 (37) (A) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).
250253
251254 (B) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).
252255
253256 (C) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
254257
255258 (D) For a Duplicate Type 47 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
256259
257260 (E) For a Duplicate Type 47 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).
258261
259262 (F) For a Duplicate Type 47 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).
260263
261264 (38) (A) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).
262265
263266 (B) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).
264267
265268 (C) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
266269
267270 (D) For a Duplicate Type 48 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
268271
269272 (E) For a Duplicate Type 48 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).
270273
271274 (F) For a Duplicate Type 48 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).
272275
273276 (39) (A) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred forty-seven dollars ($247) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).
274277
275278 (B) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred ninety-four dollars ($494) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).
276279
277280 (C) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred forty-one dollars ($741) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).
278281
279282 (D) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred seventy-six dollars ($176) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).
280283
281284 (E) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fifty dollars ($350) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).
282285
283286 (F) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred twenty-six dollars ($526) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).
284287
285288 (G) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fifty-three dollars ($153) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).
286289
287290 (H) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred six dollars ($306) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).
288291
289292 (I) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred fifty-eight dollars ($458) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).
290293
291294 (J) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred seventy-six dollars ($176) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).
292295
293296 (K) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fifty dollars ($350) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).
294297
295-(L) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred twenty-six dollars ($526) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).
298+(L) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred twenty-six dollars ($526) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two six hundred fifteen fifty dollars ($650).
296299
297300 (M) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred twenty-five dollars ($125).
298301
299302 (N) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seven dollars ($207) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).
300303
301304 (O) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eleven dollars ($311) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred seventy-five dollars ($375).
302305
303306 (P) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is eighty-one dollars ($81) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
304307
305308 (Q) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-six dollars ($166) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).
306309
307310 (R) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred forty-seven dollars ($247) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).
308311
309312 (40) (A) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).
310313
311314 (B) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).
312315
313316 (C) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).
314317
315318 (41) (A) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).
316319
317320 (B) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).
318321
319322 (C) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).
320323
321324 (42) (A) For a Type 52 - Veterans club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).
322325
323326 (B) For a Type 52 - Veterans club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).
324327
325328 (C) For a Type 52 - Veterans club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).
326329
327330 (43) (A) For a Type 53 - On-sale general train: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).
328331
329332 (B) For a Duplicate Type 53: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
330333
331334 (44) For a Type 54 - On-sale general boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty-three dollars ($563) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).
332335
333336 (45) (A) For a Type 55 - On-sale general license for airplanes: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty-three dollars ($563) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).
334337
335338 (B) For a Duplicate Type 55 for air common carriers: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
336339
337340 (46) (A) For a Type 56 - On-sale general license for vessels of more than 1,000 tons burden: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).
338341
339342 (B) For a Duplicate Type 56: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
340343
341344 (47) (A) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).
342345
343346 (B) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).
344347
345348 (C) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
346349
347350 (D) For a Duplicate Type 57 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
348351
349352 (E) For a Duplicate Type 57 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).
350353
351354 (F) For a Duplicate Type 57 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).
352355
353356 (48) (A) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; on-sale general or on-sale beer and wine: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred forty-six dollars ($146) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).
354357
355358 (B) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; club in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).
356359
357360 (C) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; club in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).
358361
359362 (D) For a Type 58 - Caterers permit; club in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
360363
361364 (49) (A) For a Type 59 - On-sale beer and wine seasonal; operating period 3-9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).
362365
363366 (B) For a Type 59 - On-sale beer and wine seasonal; operating period 3-6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-two dollars ($162) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).
364367
365368 (50) (A) For a Type 60 - On-sale beer seasonal; operating period 3-9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).
366369
367370 (B) For a Type 60 - On-sale beer seasonal; operating period 3-6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-two dollars ($162) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).
368371
369372 (51) For a Type 61 - On-sale beer public premises: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).
370373
371374 (52) For a Type 62 - On-sale general license dockside: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred nine dollars ($609) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
372375
373376 (53) For a Type 63 - On-sale special beer and wine hospital: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-six dollars ($96) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
374377
375378 (54) (A) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
376379
377380 (B) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).
378381
379382 (C) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).
380383
381384 (55) For a Type 65 - Special on-sale beer and wine symphony: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).
382385
383386 (56) For a Type 66 - Controlled access cabinet: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred seventeen dollars ($617) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
384387
385388 (57) For a Type 67 - Bed and breakfast inn; per room: the fee through September 30, 2019, is eight dollars ($8) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is ten dollars ($10).
386389
387390 (58) (A) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
388391
389392 (B) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).
390393
391394 (C) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).
392395
393396 (59) For a Type 69 - Special on-sale beer and wine theater: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).
394397
395398 (60) (A) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).
396399
397400 (B) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).
398401
399402 (C) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
400403
401404 (61) (A) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).
402405
403406 (B) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).
404407
405408 (C) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
406409
407410 (D) For a Duplicate Type 71 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
408411
409412 (E) For a Duplicate Type 71 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).
410413
411414 (F) For a Duplicate Type 71 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).
412415
413416 (62) (A) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).
414417
415418 (B) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).
416419
417420 (C) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
418421
419422 (D) For a Duplicate Type 72 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
420423
421424 (E) For a Duplicate Type 72 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).
422425
423426 (F) For a Duplicate Type 72 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).
424427
425428 (63) For a Type 73 - Special nonprofit sales: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).
426429
427430 (64) For a Type 74 - Craft distilled spirits manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
428431
429432 (65) (A) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).
430433
431434 (B) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).
432435
433436 (C) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
434437
435438 (D) For a Duplicate Type 75 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
436439
437440 (E) For a Duplicate Type 75 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).
438441
439442 (F) For a Duplicate Type 75 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).
440443
441444 (66) (A) For a Type 76 - On-sale general maritime museum: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).
442445
443446 (B) For a Duplicate Type 76: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
444447
445448 (67) For a Type 77 - Event permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred forty-six dollars ($146) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).
446449
447450 (68) (A) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).
448451
449452 (B) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).
450453
451454 (C) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
452455
453456 (D) For a Duplicate Type 78 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
454457
455458 (E) For a Duplicate Type 78 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).
456459
457460 (F) For a Duplicate Type 78 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).
458461
459462 (69) For a Type 79 - Certified farmers market: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty-eight dollars ($58) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
460463
461464 (70) For a Type 80 - Special on-sale general; per room: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventeen dollars ($17) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty dollars ($20).
462465
463466 (71) For a Type 81 - Wine sales event permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty dollars ($50) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
464467
465468 (72) For a Type 82 - Direct shipper permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ten dollars ($10) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty-five dollars ($25).
466469
467470 (73) (A) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterers permit in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).
468471
469472 (B) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterers permit in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).
470473
471474 (C) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterers permit in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
472475
473476 (74) For a Type 84 - Certified farmers market beer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty-eight dollars ($58) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
474477
475478 (75) For a Type 85 - Limited off-sale wine license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventy-eight dollars ($278) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).
476479
477480 (76) For a Type 86 - Instructional tasting license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred dollars ($300) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).
478481
479482 (77) (A) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).
480483
481484 (B) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).
482485
483486 (C) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
484487
485488 (D) For a Duplicate Type 87 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
486489
487490 (E) For a Duplicate Type 87 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).
488491
489492 (F) For a Duplicate Type 87 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).
490493
491494 (78) (A) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).
492495
493496 (B) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).
494497
495498 (C) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
496499
497500 (D) For a Duplicate Type 88 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
498501
499502 (E) For a Duplicate Type 88 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).
500503
501504 (F) For a Duplicate Type 88 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).
502505
503506 (c) (1) In addition to the application fee for a new permanent license as specified in subdivision (a), an annual renewal fee, as set forth in subdivision (b), shall accompany the application. The application fee shall be nonrefundable up to the amount of the application fee in paragraph (1) of subdivision (a), as adjusted by subdivisions (d) and (e). The annual fee provided at the time of application shall allow the license to be active for one year from the date of issuance and shall be refundable only in the event that the license application is withdrawn or denied.
504507
505508 (2) If an application includes multiple new permanent licenses to be issued at the same premises, the application fee shall be required for only one of the applied-for licenses and an application fee shall not be charged for the remainder of the licenses. In situations involving different license types, the application fee to be paid shall be the highest such fee as specified in subdivision (a). Notwithstanding this provision, the annual renewal fee required pursuant to this subdivision shall be payable for each license.
506509
507510 (d) Beginning January 1, 2021, and each January 1 thereafter, the department may adjust each of the fees specified in this section by increasing each fee by an amount not to exceed the percentage that the California Consumer Price Index (California Department of Industrial Relations, Division of Labor Statistics and Research, All Items, Base Period 1982-84=100) for the preceding August 2019, and each August annually thereafter, has increased under the same index over the month of August 2018, which shall be the base period. The department shall not adjust fees pursuant to this section if the balance of the Alcohol Beverage Control Fund at the end of the prior fiscal year is greater than one-fourth of the departments appropriation from the Alcohol Beverage Control Fund for the current fiscal year. No fee shall be decreased pursuant to this adjustment below the fee currently in effect on each December 31. If the accumulation of percentage increases is greater than 8 percent, the department shall not adjust fees without the Legislatures approval through the budget process. In the event that this index is discontinued, the department shall consult with the Department of Finance to convert the increase calculations to an index then available. When approved by the Department of Finance, the new index shall replace the discontinued index.
508511
509512 (e) When fees are adjusted pursuant to subdivision (d), the department shall calculate the percentage increase as specified in that subdivision and shall apply this increase to each fee. The increase to each fee shall be rounded to the nearest whole five dollars ($5). The adjusted fee list, to be effective on January 1 of the upcoming year, shall be published by the department on its internet website and transmitted in writing to the Chairperson of the Joint Legislative Budget Committee no later than January 10 of the year before it becomes effective. This adjustment of fees and publication of the adjusted fee list is not subject to the requirements of Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.
510513
511-SEC. 3. Section 12815 of the Government Code is amended to read:12815. (a) The Office of Digital Innovation is hereby established on July 1, 2019, within the Government Operations Agency.(b) There shall be a Director of the Office of Digital Innovation.The director shall be appointed by, and serve at the pleasure of, the Governor. The director shall report to the Secretary of Government Operations. The director shall be responsible for managing the affairs of the office and shall perform all duties, exercise all powers and jurisdiction, and assume and discharge all responsibilities necessary to carry out the purposes of this section. The Governor may appoint people to the office who are exempt from civil service. The total number of exempt positions in the office shall not exceed 20.(c) For the purposes of this section:(1) Director means the Director of the Office of Digital Innovation.(2) Fund means the Digital Innovation Services Revolving Fund.(3) Office means the Office of Digital Innovation.(4) Service delivery means the provision of a service or services, product or products, by a state entity or state entities to persons, other state entities, constitutional state entities, independent state entities, local government entities, federal entities, private entities, or nonprofit entities.(5) State entity means an entity within the executive branch that is under the direct authority of the Governor, including, but not limited to, all departments, boards, bureaus, commissions, councils, and agencies.(d) The offices mission shall be to deliver better government services to the people of California through technology and design. The office will fulfill this mission by:(1) Collaborating with state entities to transform government services. The office will focus on measurably improving services using a deliberate, user-focused approach.(2) Investing in state capabilities to put users first, build iteratively, and let data drive decisions.(3) Rethinking and improving how the state buys digital services.(4) Expanding the use of common platforms, services, and tools.(e) The director shall hire staff to assist in the fulfillment of the duties and responsibilities of the office.(f) The director shall establish a program to improve the states service delivery functions, guided by service delivery best practices.(1) The director is hereby authorized to engage with state entities for the purpose of improving the service delivery functions of those state entities.(2) Engagements shall be formalized in writing and shall identify, at minimum, the roles and responsibilities of both the office and the state entity being engaged by the office.(g) The director may create, update, or publish, in consultation with the appropriate control agency, policies, standards, and procedures for state entities in the State Administrative Manual or Statewide Information Management Manual regarding:(1) Service delivery design, implementation, maintenance, and operations.(2) Service delivery assessments.(3) Service delivery improvement and problem mitigation.(h) The director shall train state supervisors, managers, executives, and other staff in leadership positions regarding service delivery best practices. The director is authorized to require state entity staff to attend training deemed necessary by the director. The director may consult or contract with the Department of Human Resources or the Department of Technology for assistance or delivery of training as needed to fulfill the purposes of this section.(i) Any funds appropriated to the office for the purpose of funding various statewide innovation activities are to be administered by the director for the implementation, support, or assessment of state entities existing or proposed service delivery functions.(j) While engaged with a state entity, office staff shall, in the performance of their duties related to the improvement of service delivery functions, have access to, and the authority to examine or reproduce, any and all records, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component related to the service delivery function being improved by the office.(1) The office shall maintain the confidentiality of, and protect from unauthorized access or disclosure, all records, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component received from, or otherwise accessed from, any state entity engaged with the office in accordance with state law, including, but not limited to, the Information Practices Act of 1977.(2) The director, any employee or former employee of the office, any person or business entity that is contracting with or has contracted with the office and the employees and former employees of that person or business entity shall not divulge or make known to any person not employed by the office in any manner not expressly permitted by law any particulars of any record, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component, the disclosure of which is restricted by law from release to the public. This subdivision shall also apply to the officers and employees of, and any person or business entity that is contracting with, or has contracted with, any state or local governmental agency or publicly created entity, that has assisted the office in the course of any engagement.(3) Any officer, employee, or person who discloses the particulars of any record, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component in violation of this section shall be subject to a civil penalty not to exceed five thousand dollars ($5,000), including the release of any information received pursuant to Section 10850 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or that is otherwise prohibited by law to be disclosed.(4) Upon the completion of each engagement, the office shall dispose of all records, data, and other documentation received, copied, or otherwise in the possession of the office as a result of the engagement that contains personally identifiable information in accordance with state law.(k) The adoption, amendment, or repeal of the policies, procedures, guidelines, or other directives consistent with this chapter are exempted from the rulemaking provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1).(l) (1) Effective July 1, 2020, the Digital Innovation Services Revolving Fund is hereby created within the State Treasury. The fund shall be administered by the director to receive all revenues from the sale of services rendered by the office and all other moneys properly credited to the office from any other source. Notwithstanding Section 13340, until July 1, 2024, moneys in the fund are continuously appropriated to the office without regard to fiscal year to pay all costs arising from this section and rendering of services to state entities, including, but not limited to, employment and compensation of necessary personnel and expenses, such as operating and other expenses of the office, and costs associated with approved information technology projects, and to establish reserves. On and after July 1, 2024, moneys in the fund shall be available upon appropriation of the Legislature. At the discretion of the director, segregated, dedicated accounts within the fund may be established.(2) On or before February 1, 2021, and each February 1 thereafter, the director shall submit a report to the Chairperson of the Joint Legislative Budget Committee, or the chairpersons designee, that includes a summary of the activities of the office and a listing and descriptions of all expenditures made from the fund, as well as all revenues received by the fund, for the prior fiscal year.(3) The fund shall consist of all of the following:(A) Moneys appropriated and made available by the Legislature for the purposes of this section.(B) Donations, endowments, or grants of funds from private or public sources for any purposes of this section. The office and the Controller may establish separate accounts in the fund for the purpose of separating deposits according to their origin or intended purpose.(C) Any other moneys that may be made available to the office from any other source, including the return from investments of moneys by the Treasurer.(m) The office may collect payments from state entities for providing services to client entities. The office may require monthly payments by client entities for the services provided. Pursuant to Section 11255, the Controller shall transfer any amounts so authorized by the office, consistent with the annual budget of each department, to the fund. The office shall notify each affected state entity upon requesting the Controller to make the transfer.(n) Notwithstanding any other law, the Controller may use the moneys in the fund for cashflow loans to the General Fund, as provided in Sections 16310 and 16381.
514+SEC. 3. Section 12815 of the Government Code is amended to read:12815. (a) The Office of Digital Innovation is hereby established on July 1, 2019, within the Government Operations Agency.(b) There shall be a Director of the Office of Digital Innovation. (1) TheThe director shall be appointed by, and serve at the pleasure of, the Governor. The director shall report to the Secretary of Government Operations. The director shall be responsible for managing the affairs of the office and shall perform all duties, exercise all powers and jurisdiction, and assume and discharge all responsibilities necessary to carry out the purposes of this section. The Governor may appoint people to the office who are exempt from civil service. The total number of exempt positions in the office shall not exceed 20.(c) For the purposes of this section:(1) Director means the Director of the Office of Digital Innovation.(2) Fund means the Digital Innovation Services Revolving Fund.(3) Office means the Office of Digital Innovation.(4) Service delivery means the provision of a service or services, product or products, by a state entity or state entities to persons, other state entities, constitutional state entities, independent state entities, local government entities, federal entities, private entities, or nonprofit entities.(5) State entity means an entity within the executive branch that is under the direct authority of the Governor, including, but not limited to, all departments, boards, bureaus, commissions, councils, and agencies.(d) The offices mission shall be to deliver better government services to the people of California through technology and design. The office will fulfill this mission by:(1) Collaborating with state entities to transform government services. The office will focus on measurably improving services using a deliberate, user-focused approach.(2) Investing in state capabilities to put users first, build iteratively, and let data drive decisions.(3) Rethinking and improving how the state buys digital services.(4) Expanding the use of common platforms, services, and tools.(e) The director shall hire staff to assist in the fulfillment of the duties and responsibilities of the office.(f) The director shall establish a program to improve the states service delivery functions, guided by service delivery best practices.(1) The director is hereby authorized to engage with state entities for the purpose of improving the service delivery functions of those state entities.(2) Engagements shall be formalized in writing and shall identify, at minimum, the roles and responsibilities of both the office and the state entity being engaged by the office.(g) The director may create, update, or publish, in consultation with the appropriate control agency, policies, standards, and procedures for state entities in the State Administrative Manual or Statewide Information Management Manual regarding:(1) Service delivery design, implementation, maintenance, and operations.(2) Service delivery assessments.(3) Service delivery improvement and problem mitigation.(h) The director shall train state supervisors, managers, executives, and other staff in leadership positions regarding service delivery best practices. The director is authorized to require state entity staff to attend training deemed necessary by the director. The director may consult or contract with the Department of Human Resources or the Department of Technology for assistance or delivery of training as needed to fulfill the purposes of this section.(i) Any funds appropriated to the office for the purpose of funding various statewide innovation activities are to be administered by the director for the implementation, support, or assessment of state entities existing or proposed service delivery functions.(j) While engaged with a state entity, office staff shall, in the performance of their duties related to the improvement of service delivery functions, have access to, and the authority to examine or reproduce, any and all records, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component related to the service delivery function being improved by the office.(1) The office shall maintain the confidentiality of, and protect from unauthorized access or disclosure, all records, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component received from, or otherwise accessed from, any state entity engaged with the office in accordance with applicable laws, policies, and regulations, state law, including, but not limited to, the Information Practices Act of 1977.(2) The director, any employee or former employee of the office, any person or business entity that is contracting with or has contracted with the office and the employees and former employees of that person or business entity shall not divulge or make known to any person not employed by the office in any manner not expressly permitted by law any particulars of any record, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component, the disclosure of which is restricted by law from release to the public. This subdivision shall also apply to the officers and employees of, and any person or business entity that is contracting with, or has contracted with, any state or local governmental agency or publicly created entity, that has assisted the office in the course of any engagement.(3) Any officer, employee, or person who discloses the particulars of any record, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component in violation of this section shall be subject to a civil penalty not to exceed five thousand dollars ($5,000), including the release of any information received pursuant to Section 10850 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or that is otherwise prohibited by law to be disclosed. (4)The office shall ensure that all records, data, and other documentation are disposed of in accordance with applicable state laws, policies, and regulations upon completion of each engagement. (5)(4) Upon the completion of each engagement, the office shall dispose of all records, data, and other documentation received, copied, or otherwise in the possession of the office as a result of the engagement that contains personally identifiable information. information in accordance with state law.(k) The adoption, amendment, or repeal of the policies, procedures, guidelines, or other directives consistent with this chapter are exempted from the rulemaking provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1).(l) (1) Effective July 1, 2020, the Digital Innovation Services Revolving Fund is hereby created within the State Treasury. The fund shall be administered by the director to receive all revenues from the sale of services rendered by the office and all other moneys properly credited to the office from any other source. Notwithstanding Section 13340, until July 1, 2024, moneys in the fund are continuously appropriated to the office without regard to fiscal year to pay all costs arising from this section and rendering of services to state entities, including, but not limited to, employment and compensation of necessary personnel and expenses, such as operating and other expenses of the office, and costs associated with approved information technology projects, and to establish reserves. On and after July 1, 2024, moneys in the fund shall be available upon appropriation of the Legislature. At the discretion of the director, segregated, dedicated accounts within the fund may be established.(2) On or before February 1, 2021, and each February 1 thereafter, the director shall submit a report to the Chairperson of the Joint Legislative Budget Committee, or the chairpersons designee, that includes a summary of the activities of the office and a listing and descriptions of all expenditures made from the fund, as well as all revenues received by the fund, for the prior fiscal year.(3) The fund shall consist of all of the following:(A) Moneys appropriated and made available by the Legislature for the purposes of this section.(B) Donations, endowments, or grants of funds from private or public sources for any purposes of this section. The office and the Controller may establish separate accounts in the fund for the purpose of separating deposits according to their origin or intended purpose.(C) Any other moneys that may be made available to the office from any other source, including the return from investments of moneys by the Treasurer.(m) The office may collect payments from state entities for providing services to client entities. The office may require monthly payments by client entities for the services provided. Pursuant to Section 11255, the Controller shall transfer any amounts so authorized by the office, consistent with the annual budget of each department, to the fund. The office shall notify each affected state entity upon requesting the Controller to make the transfer.(n) Notwithstanding any other law, the Controller may use the moneys in the fund for cashflow loans to the General Fund, as provided in Sections 16310 and 16381.
512515
513516 SEC. 3. Section 12815 of the Government Code is amended to read:
514517
515518 ### SEC. 3.
516519
517-12815. (a) The Office of Digital Innovation is hereby established on July 1, 2019, within the Government Operations Agency.(b) There shall be a Director of the Office of Digital Innovation.The director shall be appointed by, and serve at the pleasure of, the Governor. The director shall report to the Secretary of Government Operations. The director shall be responsible for managing the affairs of the office and shall perform all duties, exercise all powers and jurisdiction, and assume and discharge all responsibilities necessary to carry out the purposes of this section. The Governor may appoint people to the office who are exempt from civil service. The total number of exempt positions in the office shall not exceed 20.(c) For the purposes of this section:(1) Director means the Director of the Office of Digital Innovation.(2) Fund means the Digital Innovation Services Revolving Fund.(3) Office means the Office of Digital Innovation.(4) Service delivery means the provision of a service or services, product or products, by a state entity or state entities to persons, other state entities, constitutional state entities, independent state entities, local government entities, federal entities, private entities, or nonprofit entities.(5) State entity means an entity within the executive branch that is under the direct authority of the Governor, including, but not limited to, all departments, boards, bureaus, commissions, councils, and agencies.(d) The offices mission shall be to deliver better government services to the people of California through technology and design. The office will fulfill this mission by:(1) Collaborating with state entities to transform government services. The office will focus on measurably improving services using a deliberate, user-focused approach.(2) Investing in state capabilities to put users first, build iteratively, and let data drive decisions.(3) Rethinking and improving how the state buys digital services.(4) Expanding the use of common platforms, services, and tools.(e) The director shall hire staff to assist in the fulfillment of the duties and responsibilities of the office.(f) The director shall establish a program to improve the states service delivery functions, guided by service delivery best practices.(1) The director is hereby authorized to engage with state entities for the purpose of improving the service delivery functions of those state entities.(2) Engagements shall be formalized in writing and shall identify, at minimum, the roles and responsibilities of both the office and the state entity being engaged by the office.(g) The director may create, update, or publish, in consultation with the appropriate control agency, policies, standards, and procedures for state entities in the State Administrative Manual or Statewide Information Management Manual regarding:(1) Service delivery design, implementation, maintenance, and operations.(2) Service delivery assessments.(3) Service delivery improvement and problem mitigation.(h) The director shall train state supervisors, managers, executives, and other staff in leadership positions regarding service delivery best practices. The director is authorized to require state entity staff to attend training deemed necessary by the director. The director may consult or contract with the Department of Human Resources or the Department of Technology for assistance or delivery of training as needed to fulfill the purposes of this section.(i) Any funds appropriated to the office for the purpose of funding various statewide innovation activities are to be administered by the director for the implementation, support, or assessment of state entities existing or proposed service delivery functions.(j) While engaged with a state entity, office staff shall, in the performance of their duties related to the improvement of service delivery functions, have access to, and the authority to examine or reproduce, any and all records, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component related to the service delivery function being improved by the office.(1) The office shall maintain the confidentiality of, and protect from unauthorized access or disclosure, all records, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component received from, or otherwise accessed from, any state entity engaged with the office in accordance with state law, including, but not limited to, the Information Practices Act of 1977.(2) The director, any employee or former employee of the office, any person or business entity that is contracting with or has contracted with the office and the employees and former employees of that person or business entity shall not divulge or make known to any person not employed by the office in any manner not expressly permitted by law any particulars of any record, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component, the disclosure of which is restricted by law from release to the public. This subdivision shall also apply to the officers and employees of, and any person or business entity that is contracting with, or has contracted with, any state or local governmental agency or publicly created entity, that has assisted the office in the course of any engagement.(3) Any officer, employee, or person who discloses the particulars of any record, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component in violation of this section shall be subject to a civil penalty not to exceed five thousand dollars ($5,000), including the release of any information received pursuant to Section 10850 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or that is otherwise prohibited by law to be disclosed.(4) Upon the completion of each engagement, the office shall dispose of all records, data, and other documentation received, copied, or otherwise in the possession of the office as a result of the engagement that contains personally identifiable information in accordance with state law.(k) The adoption, amendment, or repeal of the policies, procedures, guidelines, or other directives consistent with this chapter are exempted from the rulemaking provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1).(l) (1) Effective July 1, 2020, the Digital Innovation Services Revolving Fund is hereby created within the State Treasury. The fund shall be administered by the director to receive all revenues from the sale of services rendered by the office and all other moneys properly credited to the office from any other source. Notwithstanding Section 13340, until July 1, 2024, moneys in the fund are continuously appropriated to the office without regard to fiscal year to pay all costs arising from this section and rendering of services to state entities, including, but not limited to, employment and compensation of necessary personnel and expenses, such as operating and other expenses of the office, and costs associated with approved information technology projects, and to establish reserves. On and after July 1, 2024, moneys in the fund shall be available upon appropriation of the Legislature. At the discretion of the director, segregated, dedicated accounts within the fund may be established.(2) On or before February 1, 2021, and each February 1 thereafter, the director shall submit a report to the Chairperson of the Joint Legislative Budget Committee, or the chairpersons designee, that includes a summary of the activities of the office and a listing and descriptions of all expenditures made from the fund, as well as all revenues received by the fund, for the prior fiscal year.(3) The fund shall consist of all of the following:(A) Moneys appropriated and made available by the Legislature for the purposes of this section.(B) Donations, endowments, or grants of funds from private or public sources for any purposes of this section. The office and the Controller may establish separate accounts in the fund for the purpose of separating deposits according to their origin or intended purpose.(C) Any other moneys that may be made available to the office from any other source, including the return from investments of moneys by the Treasurer.(m) The office may collect payments from state entities for providing services to client entities. The office may require monthly payments by client entities for the services provided. Pursuant to Section 11255, the Controller shall transfer any amounts so authorized by the office, consistent with the annual budget of each department, to the fund. The office shall notify each affected state entity upon requesting the Controller to make the transfer.(n) Notwithstanding any other law, the Controller may use the moneys in the fund for cashflow loans to the General Fund, as provided in Sections 16310 and 16381.
520+12815. (a) The Office of Digital Innovation is hereby established on July 1, 2019, within the Government Operations Agency.(b) There shall be a Director of the Office of Digital Innovation. (1) TheThe director shall be appointed by, and serve at the pleasure of, the Governor. The director shall report to the Secretary of Government Operations. The director shall be responsible for managing the affairs of the office and shall perform all duties, exercise all powers and jurisdiction, and assume and discharge all responsibilities necessary to carry out the purposes of this section. The Governor may appoint people to the office who are exempt from civil service. The total number of exempt positions in the office shall not exceed 20.(c) For the purposes of this section:(1) Director means the Director of the Office of Digital Innovation.(2) Fund means the Digital Innovation Services Revolving Fund.(3) Office means the Office of Digital Innovation.(4) Service delivery means the provision of a service or services, product or products, by a state entity or state entities to persons, other state entities, constitutional state entities, independent state entities, local government entities, federal entities, private entities, or nonprofit entities.(5) State entity means an entity within the executive branch that is under the direct authority of the Governor, including, but not limited to, all departments, boards, bureaus, commissions, councils, and agencies.(d) The offices mission shall be to deliver better government services to the people of California through technology and design. The office will fulfill this mission by:(1) Collaborating with state entities to transform government services. The office will focus on measurably improving services using a deliberate, user-focused approach.(2) Investing in state capabilities to put users first, build iteratively, and let data drive decisions.(3) Rethinking and improving how the state buys digital services.(4) Expanding the use of common platforms, services, and tools.(e) The director shall hire staff to assist in the fulfillment of the duties and responsibilities of the office.(f) The director shall establish a program to improve the states service delivery functions, guided by service delivery best practices.(1) The director is hereby authorized to engage with state entities for the purpose of improving the service delivery functions of those state entities.(2) Engagements shall be formalized in writing and shall identify, at minimum, the roles and responsibilities of both the office and the state entity being engaged by the office.(g) The director may create, update, or publish, in consultation with the appropriate control agency, policies, standards, and procedures for state entities in the State Administrative Manual or Statewide Information Management Manual regarding:(1) Service delivery design, implementation, maintenance, and operations.(2) Service delivery assessments.(3) Service delivery improvement and problem mitigation.(h) The director shall train state supervisors, managers, executives, and other staff in leadership positions regarding service delivery best practices. The director is authorized to require state entity staff to attend training deemed necessary by the director. The director may consult or contract with the Department of Human Resources or the Department of Technology for assistance or delivery of training as needed to fulfill the purposes of this section.(i) Any funds appropriated to the office for the purpose of funding various statewide innovation activities are to be administered by the director for the implementation, support, or assessment of state entities existing or proposed service delivery functions.(j) While engaged with a state entity, office staff shall, in the performance of their duties related to the improvement of service delivery functions, have access to, and the authority to examine or reproduce, any and all records, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component related to the service delivery function being improved by the office.(1) The office shall maintain the confidentiality of, and protect from unauthorized access or disclosure, all records, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component received from, or otherwise accessed from, any state entity engaged with the office in accordance with applicable laws, policies, and regulations, state law, including, but not limited to, the Information Practices Act of 1977.(2) The director, any employee or former employee of the office, any person or business entity that is contracting with or has contracted with the office and the employees and former employees of that person or business entity shall not divulge or make known to any person not employed by the office in any manner not expressly permitted by law any particulars of any record, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component, the disclosure of which is restricted by law from release to the public. This subdivision shall also apply to the officers and employees of, and any person or business entity that is contracting with, or has contracted with, any state or local governmental agency or publicly created entity, that has assisted the office in the course of any engagement.(3) Any officer, employee, or person who discloses the particulars of any record, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component in violation of this section shall be subject to a civil penalty not to exceed five thousand dollars ($5,000), including the release of any information received pursuant to Section 10850 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or that is otherwise prohibited by law to be disclosed. (4)The office shall ensure that all records, data, and other documentation are disposed of in accordance with applicable state laws, policies, and regulations upon completion of each engagement. (5)(4) Upon the completion of each engagement, the office shall dispose of all records, data, and other documentation received, copied, or otherwise in the possession of the office as a result of the engagement that contains personally identifiable information. information in accordance with state law.(k) The adoption, amendment, or repeal of the policies, procedures, guidelines, or other directives consistent with this chapter are exempted from the rulemaking provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1).(l) (1) Effective July 1, 2020, the Digital Innovation Services Revolving Fund is hereby created within the State Treasury. The fund shall be administered by the director to receive all revenues from the sale of services rendered by the office and all other moneys properly credited to the office from any other source. Notwithstanding Section 13340, until July 1, 2024, moneys in the fund are continuously appropriated to the office without regard to fiscal year to pay all costs arising from this section and rendering of services to state entities, including, but not limited to, employment and compensation of necessary personnel and expenses, such as operating and other expenses of the office, and costs associated with approved information technology projects, and to establish reserves. On and after July 1, 2024, moneys in the fund shall be available upon appropriation of the Legislature. At the discretion of the director, segregated, dedicated accounts within the fund may be established.(2) On or before February 1, 2021, and each February 1 thereafter, the director shall submit a report to the Chairperson of the Joint Legislative Budget Committee, or the chairpersons designee, that includes a summary of the activities of the office and a listing and descriptions of all expenditures made from the fund, as well as all revenues received by the fund, for the prior fiscal year.(3) The fund shall consist of all of the following:(A) Moneys appropriated and made available by the Legislature for the purposes of this section.(B) Donations, endowments, or grants of funds from private or public sources for any purposes of this section. The office and the Controller may establish separate accounts in the fund for the purpose of separating deposits according to their origin or intended purpose.(C) Any other moneys that may be made available to the office from any other source, including the return from investments of moneys by the Treasurer.(m) The office may collect payments from state entities for providing services to client entities. The office may require monthly payments by client entities for the services provided. Pursuant to Section 11255, the Controller shall transfer any amounts so authorized by the office, consistent with the annual budget of each department, to the fund. The office shall notify each affected state entity upon requesting the Controller to make the transfer.(n) Notwithstanding any other law, the Controller may use the moneys in the fund for cashflow loans to the General Fund, as provided in Sections 16310 and 16381.
518521
519-12815. (a) The Office of Digital Innovation is hereby established on July 1, 2019, within the Government Operations Agency.(b) There shall be a Director of the Office of Digital Innovation.The director shall be appointed by, and serve at the pleasure of, the Governor. The director shall report to the Secretary of Government Operations. The director shall be responsible for managing the affairs of the office and shall perform all duties, exercise all powers and jurisdiction, and assume and discharge all responsibilities necessary to carry out the purposes of this section. The Governor may appoint people to the office who are exempt from civil service. The total number of exempt positions in the office shall not exceed 20.(c) For the purposes of this section:(1) Director means the Director of the Office of Digital Innovation.(2) Fund means the Digital Innovation Services Revolving Fund.(3) Office means the Office of Digital Innovation.(4) Service delivery means the provision of a service or services, product or products, by a state entity or state entities to persons, other state entities, constitutional state entities, independent state entities, local government entities, federal entities, private entities, or nonprofit entities.(5) State entity means an entity within the executive branch that is under the direct authority of the Governor, including, but not limited to, all departments, boards, bureaus, commissions, councils, and agencies.(d) The offices mission shall be to deliver better government services to the people of California through technology and design. The office will fulfill this mission by:(1) Collaborating with state entities to transform government services. The office will focus on measurably improving services using a deliberate, user-focused approach.(2) Investing in state capabilities to put users first, build iteratively, and let data drive decisions.(3) Rethinking and improving how the state buys digital services.(4) Expanding the use of common platforms, services, and tools.(e) The director shall hire staff to assist in the fulfillment of the duties and responsibilities of the office.(f) The director shall establish a program to improve the states service delivery functions, guided by service delivery best practices.(1) The director is hereby authorized to engage with state entities for the purpose of improving the service delivery functions of those state entities.(2) Engagements shall be formalized in writing and shall identify, at minimum, the roles and responsibilities of both the office and the state entity being engaged by the office.(g) The director may create, update, or publish, in consultation with the appropriate control agency, policies, standards, and procedures for state entities in the State Administrative Manual or Statewide Information Management Manual regarding:(1) Service delivery design, implementation, maintenance, and operations.(2) Service delivery assessments.(3) Service delivery improvement and problem mitigation.(h) The director shall train state supervisors, managers, executives, and other staff in leadership positions regarding service delivery best practices. The director is authorized to require state entity staff to attend training deemed necessary by the director. The director may consult or contract with the Department of Human Resources or the Department of Technology for assistance or delivery of training as needed to fulfill the purposes of this section.(i) Any funds appropriated to the office for the purpose of funding various statewide innovation activities are to be administered by the director for the implementation, support, or assessment of state entities existing or proposed service delivery functions.(j) While engaged with a state entity, office staff shall, in the performance of their duties related to the improvement of service delivery functions, have access to, and the authority to examine or reproduce, any and all records, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component related to the service delivery function being improved by the office.(1) The office shall maintain the confidentiality of, and protect from unauthorized access or disclosure, all records, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component received from, or otherwise accessed from, any state entity engaged with the office in accordance with state law, including, but not limited to, the Information Practices Act of 1977.(2) The director, any employee or former employee of the office, any person or business entity that is contracting with or has contracted with the office and the employees and former employees of that person or business entity shall not divulge or make known to any person not employed by the office in any manner not expressly permitted by law any particulars of any record, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component, the disclosure of which is restricted by law from release to the public. This subdivision shall also apply to the officers and employees of, and any person or business entity that is contracting with, or has contracted with, any state or local governmental agency or publicly created entity, that has assisted the office in the course of any engagement.(3) Any officer, employee, or person who discloses the particulars of any record, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component in violation of this section shall be subject to a civil penalty not to exceed five thousand dollars ($5,000), including the release of any information received pursuant to Section 10850 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or that is otherwise prohibited by law to be disclosed.(4) Upon the completion of each engagement, the office shall dispose of all records, data, and other documentation received, copied, or otherwise in the possession of the office as a result of the engagement that contains personally identifiable information in accordance with state law.(k) The adoption, amendment, or repeal of the policies, procedures, guidelines, or other directives consistent with this chapter are exempted from the rulemaking provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1).(l) (1) Effective July 1, 2020, the Digital Innovation Services Revolving Fund is hereby created within the State Treasury. The fund shall be administered by the director to receive all revenues from the sale of services rendered by the office and all other moneys properly credited to the office from any other source. Notwithstanding Section 13340, until July 1, 2024, moneys in the fund are continuously appropriated to the office without regard to fiscal year to pay all costs arising from this section and rendering of services to state entities, including, but not limited to, employment and compensation of necessary personnel and expenses, such as operating and other expenses of the office, and costs associated with approved information technology projects, and to establish reserves. On and after July 1, 2024, moneys in the fund shall be available upon appropriation of the Legislature. At the discretion of the director, segregated, dedicated accounts within the fund may be established.(2) On or before February 1, 2021, and each February 1 thereafter, the director shall submit a report to the Chairperson of the Joint Legislative Budget Committee, or the chairpersons designee, that includes a summary of the activities of the office and a listing and descriptions of all expenditures made from the fund, as well as all revenues received by the fund, for the prior fiscal year.(3) The fund shall consist of all of the following:(A) Moneys appropriated and made available by the Legislature for the purposes of this section.(B) Donations, endowments, or grants of funds from private or public sources for any purposes of this section. The office and the Controller may establish separate accounts in the fund for the purpose of separating deposits according to their origin or intended purpose.(C) Any other moneys that may be made available to the office from any other source, including the return from investments of moneys by the Treasurer.(m) The office may collect payments from state entities for providing services to client entities. The office may require monthly payments by client entities for the services provided. Pursuant to Section 11255, the Controller shall transfer any amounts so authorized by the office, consistent with the annual budget of each department, to the fund. The office shall notify each affected state entity upon requesting the Controller to make the transfer.(n) Notwithstanding any other law, the Controller may use the moneys in the fund for cashflow loans to the General Fund, as provided in Sections 16310 and 16381.
522+12815. (a) The Office of Digital Innovation is hereby established on July 1, 2019, within the Government Operations Agency.(b) There shall be a Director of the Office of Digital Innovation. (1) TheThe director shall be appointed by, and serve at the pleasure of, the Governor. The director shall report to the Secretary of Government Operations. The director shall be responsible for managing the affairs of the office and shall perform all duties, exercise all powers and jurisdiction, and assume and discharge all responsibilities necessary to carry out the purposes of this section. The Governor may appoint people to the office who are exempt from civil service. The total number of exempt positions in the office shall not exceed 20.(c) For the purposes of this section:(1) Director means the Director of the Office of Digital Innovation.(2) Fund means the Digital Innovation Services Revolving Fund.(3) Office means the Office of Digital Innovation.(4) Service delivery means the provision of a service or services, product or products, by a state entity or state entities to persons, other state entities, constitutional state entities, independent state entities, local government entities, federal entities, private entities, or nonprofit entities.(5) State entity means an entity within the executive branch that is under the direct authority of the Governor, including, but not limited to, all departments, boards, bureaus, commissions, councils, and agencies.(d) The offices mission shall be to deliver better government services to the people of California through technology and design. The office will fulfill this mission by:(1) Collaborating with state entities to transform government services. The office will focus on measurably improving services using a deliberate, user-focused approach.(2) Investing in state capabilities to put users first, build iteratively, and let data drive decisions.(3) Rethinking and improving how the state buys digital services.(4) Expanding the use of common platforms, services, and tools.(e) The director shall hire staff to assist in the fulfillment of the duties and responsibilities of the office.(f) The director shall establish a program to improve the states service delivery functions, guided by service delivery best practices.(1) The director is hereby authorized to engage with state entities for the purpose of improving the service delivery functions of those state entities.(2) Engagements shall be formalized in writing and shall identify, at minimum, the roles and responsibilities of both the office and the state entity being engaged by the office.(g) The director may create, update, or publish, in consultation with the appropriate control agency, policies, standards, and procedures for state entities in the State Administrative Manual or Statewide Information Management Manual regarding:(1) Service delivery design, implementation, maintenance, and operations.(2) Service delivery assessments.(3) Service delivery improvement and problem mitigation.(h) The director shall train state supervisors, managers, executives, and other staff in leadership positions regarding service delivery best practices. The director is authorized to require state entity staff to attend training deemed necessary by the director. The director may consult or contract with the Department of Human Resources or the Department of Technology for assistance or delivery of training as needed to fulfill the purposes of this section.(i) Any funds appropriated to the office for the purpose of funding various statewide innovation activities are to be administered by the director for the implementation, support, or assessment of state entities existing or proposed service delivery functions.(j) While engaged with a state entity, office staff shall, in the performance of their duties related to the improvement of service delivery functions, have access to, and the authority to examine or reproduce, any and all records, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component related to the service delivery function being improved by the office.(1) The office shall maintain the confidentiality of, and protect from unauthorized access or disclosure, all records, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component received from, or otherwise accessed from, any state entity engaged with the office in accordance with applicable laws, policies, and regulations, state law, including, but not limited to, the Information Practices Act of 1977.(2) The director, any employee or former employee of the office, any person or business entity that is contracting with or has contracted with the office and the employees and former employees of that person or business entity shall not divulge or make known to any person not employed by the office in any manner not expressly permitted by law any particulars of any record, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component, the disclosure of which is restricted by law from release to the public. This subdivision shall also apply to the officers and employees of, and any person or business entity that is contracting with, or has contracted with, any state or local governmental agency or publicly created entity, that has assisted the office in the course of any engagement.(3) Any officer, employee, or person who discloses the particulars of any record, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component in violation of this section shall be subject to a civil penalty not to exceed five thousand dollars ($5,000), including the release of any information received pursuant to Section 10850 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or that is otherwise prohibited by law to be disclosed. (4)The office shall ensure that all records, data, and other documentation are disposed of in accordance with applicable state laws, policies, and regulations upon completion of each engagement. (5)(4) Upon the completion of each engagement, the office shall dispose of all records, data, and other documentation received, copied, or otherwise in the possession of the office as a result of the engagement that contains personally identifiable information. information in accordance with state law.(k) The adoption, amendment, or repeal of the policies, procedures, guidelines, or other directives consistent with this chapter are exempted from the rulemaking provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1).(l) (1) Effective July 1, 2020, the Digital Innovation Services Revolving Fund is hereby created within the State Treasury. The fund shall be administered by the director to receive all revenues from the sale of services rendered by the office and all other moneys properly credited to the office from any other source. Notwithstanding Section 13340, until July 1, 2024, moneys in the fund are continuously appropriated to the office without regard to fiscal year to pay all costs arising from this section and rendering of services to state entities, including, but not limited to, employment and compensation of necessary personnel and expenses, such as operating and other expenses of the office, and costs associated with approved information technology projects, and to establish reserves. On and after July 1, 2024, moneys in the fund shall be available upon appropriation of the Legislature. At the discretion of the director, segregated, dedicated accounts within the fund may be established.(2) On or before February 1, 2021, and each February 1 thereafter, the director shall submit a report to the Chairperson of the Joint Legislative Budget Committee, or the chairpersons designee, that includes a summary of the activities of the office and a listing and descriptions of all expenditures made from the fund, as well as all revenues received by the fund, for the prior fiscal year.(3) The fund shall consist of all of the following:(A) Moneys appropriated and made available by the Legislature for the purposes of this section.(B) Donations, endowments, or grants of funds from private or public sources for any purposes of this section. The office and the Controller may establish separate accounts in the fund for the purpose of separating deposits according to their origin or intended purpose.(C) Any other moneys that may be made available to the office from any other source, including the return from investments of moneys by the Treasurer.(m) The office may collect payments from state entities for providing services to client entities. The office may require monthly payments by client entities for the services provided. Pursuant to Section 11255, the Controller shall transfer any amounts so authorized by the office, consistent with the annual budget of each department, to the fund. The office shall notify each affected state entity upon requesting the Controller to make the transfer.(n) Notwithstanding any other law, the Controller may use the moneys in the fund for cashflow loans to the General Fund, as provided in Sections 16310 and 16381.
520523
521-12815. (a) The Office of Digital Innovation is hereby established on July 1, 2019, within the Government Operations Agency.(b) There shall be a Director of the Office of Digital Innovation.The director shall be appointed by, and serve at the pleasure of, the Governor. The director shall report to the Secretary of Government Operations. The director shall be responsible for managing the affairs of the office and shall perform all duties, exercise all powers and jurisdiction, and assume and discharge all responsibilities necessary to carry out the purposes of this section. The Governor may appoint people to the office who are exempt from civil service. The total number of exempt positions in the office shall not exceed 20.(c) For the purposes of this section:(1) Director means the Director of the Office of Digital Innovation.(2) Fund means the Digital Innovation Services Revolving Fund.(3) Office means the Office of Digital Innovation.(4) Service delivery means the provision of a service or services, product or products, by a state entity or state entities to persons, other state entities, constitutional state entities, independent state entities, local government entities, federal entities, private entities, or nonprofit entities.(5) State entity means an entity within the executive branch that is under the direct authority of the Governor, including, but not limited to, all departments, boards, bureaus, commissions, councils, and agencies.(d) The offices mission shall be to deliver better government services to the people of California through technology and design. The office will fulfill this mission by:(1) Collaborating with state entities to transform government services. The office will focus on measurably improving services using a deliberate, user-focused approach.(2) Investing in state capabilities to put users first, build iteratively, and let data drive decisions.(3) Rethinking and improving how the state buys digital services.(4) Expanding the use of common platforms, services, and tools.(e) The director shall hire staff to assist in the fulfillment of the duties and responsibilities of the office.(f) The director shall establish a program to improve the states service delivery functions, guided by service delivery best practices.(1) The director is hereby authorized to engage with state entities for the purpose of improving the service delivery functions of those state entities.(2) Engagements shall be formalized in writing and shall identify, at minimum, the roles and responsibilities of both the office and the state entity being engaged by the office.(g) The director may create, update, or publish, in consultation with the appropriate control agency, policies, standards, and procedures for state entities in the State Administrative Manual or Statewide Information Management Manual regarding:(1) Service delivery design, implementation, maintenance, and operations.(2) Service delivery assessments.(3) Service delivery improvement and problem mitigation.(h) The director shall train state supervisors, managers, executives, and other staff in leadership positions regarding service delivery best practices. The director is authorized to require state entity staff to attend training deemed necessary by the director. The director may consult or contract with the Department of Human Resources or the Department of Technology for assistance or delivery of training as needed to fulfill the purposes of this section.(i) Any funds appropriated to the office for the purpose of funding various statewide innovation activities are to be administered by the director for the implementation, support, or assessment of state entities existing or proposed service delivery functions.(j) While engaged with a state entity, office staff shall, in the performance of their duties related to the improvement of service delivery functions, have access to, and the authority to examine or reproduce, any and all records, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component related to the service delivery function being improved by the office.(1) The office shall maintain the confidentiality of, and protect from unauthorized access or disclosure, all records, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component received from, or otherwise accessed from, any state entity engaged with the office in accordance with state law, including, but not limited to, the Information Practices Act of 1977.(2) The director, any employee or former employee of the office, any person or business entity that is contracting with or has contracted with the office and the employees and former employees of that person or business entity shall not divulge or make known to any person not employed by the office in any manner not expressly permitted by law any particulars of any record, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component, the disclosure of which is restricted by law from release to the public. This subdivision shall also apply to the officers and employees of, and any person or business entity that is contracting with, or has contracted with, any state or local governmental agency or publicly created entity, that has assisted the office in the course of any engagement.(3) Any officer, employee, or person who discloses the particulars of any record, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component in violation of this section shall be subject to a civil penalty not to exceed five thousand dollars ($5,000), including the release of any information received pursuant to Section 10850 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or that is otherwise prohibited by law to be disclosed.(4) Upon the completion of each engagement, the office shall dispose of all records, data, and other documentation received, copied, or otherwise in the possession of the office as a result of the engagement that contains personally identifiable information in accordance with state law.(k) The adoption, amendment, or repeal of the policies, procedures, guidelines, or other directives consistent with this chapter are exempted from the rulemaking provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1).(l) (1) Effective July 1, 2020, the Digital Innovation Services Revolving Fund is hereby created within the State Treasury. The fund shall be administered by the director to receive all revenues from the sale of services rendered by the office and all other moneys properly credited to the office from any other source. Notwithstanding Section 13340, until July 1, 2024, moneys in the fund are continuously appropriated to the office without regard to fiscal year to pay all costs arising from this section and rendering of services to state entities, including, but not limited to, employment and compensation of necessary personnel and expenses, such as operating and other expenses of the office, and costs associated with approved information technology projects, and to establish reserves. On and after July 1, 2024, moneys in the fund shall be available upon appropriation of the Legislature. At the discretion of the director, segregated, dedicated accounts within the fund may be established.(2) On or before February 1, 2021, and each February 1 thereafter, the director shall submit a report to the Chairperson of the Joint Legislative Budget Committee, or the chairpersons designee, that includes a summary of the activities of the office and a listing and descriptions of all expenditures made from the fund, as well as all revenues received by the fund, for the prior fiscal year.(3) The fund shall consist of all of the following:(A) Moneys appropriated and made available by the Legislature for the purposes of this section.(B) Donations, endowments, or grants of funds from private or public sources for any purposes of this section. The office and the Controller may establish separate accounts in the fund for the purpose of separating deposits according to their origin or intended purpose.(C) Any other moneys that may be made available to the office from any other source, including the return from investments of moneys by the Treasurer.(m) The office may collect payments from state entities for providing services to client entities. The office may require monthly payments by client entities for the services provided. Pursuant to Section 11255, the Controller shall transfer any amounts so authorized by the office, consistent with the annual budget of each department, to the fund. The office shall notify each affected state entity upon requesting the Controller to make the transfer.(n) Notwithstanding any other law, the Controller may use the moneys in the fund for cashflow loans to the General Fund, as provided in Sections 16310 and 16381.
524+12815. (a) The Office of Digital Innovation is hereby established on July 1, 2019, within the Government Operations Agency.(b) There shall be a Director of the Office of Digital Innovation. (1) TheThe director shall be appointed by, and serve at the pleasure of, the Governor. The director shall report to the Secretary of Government Operations. The director shall be responsible for managing the affairs of the office and shall perform all duties, exercise all powers and jurisdiction, and assume and discharge all responsibilities necessary to carry out the purposes of this section. The Governor may appoint people to the office who are exempt from civil service. The total number of exempt positions in the office shall not exceed 20.(c) For the purposes of this section:(1) Director means the Director of the Office of Digital Innovation.(2) Fund means the Digital Innovation Services Revolving Fund.(3) Office means the Office of Digital Innovation.(4) Service delivery means the provision of a service or services, product or products, by a state entity or state entities to persons, other state entities, constitutional state entities, independent state entities, local government entities, federal entities, private entities, or nonprofit entities.(5) State entity means an entity within the executive branch that is under the direct authority of the Governor, including, but not limited to, all departments, boards, bureaus, commissions, councils, and agencies.(d) The offices mission shall be to deliver better government services to the people of California through technology and design. The office will fulfill this mission by:(1) Collaborating with state entities to transform government services. The office will focus on measurably improving services using a deliberate, user-focused approach.(2) Investing in state capabilities to put users first, build iteratively, and let data drive decisions.(3) Rethinking and improving how the state buys digital services.(4) Expanding the use of common platforms, services, and tools.(e) The director shall hire staff to assist in the fulfillment of the duties and responsibilities of the office.(f) The director shall establish a program to improve the states service delivery functions, guided by service delivery best practices.(1) The director is hereby authorized to engage with state entities for the purpose of improving the service delivery functions of those state entities.(2) Engagements shall be formalized in writing and shall identify, at minimum, the roles and responsibilities of both the office and the state entity being engaged by the office.(g) The director may create, update, or publish, in consultation with the appropriate control agency, policies, standards, and procedures for state entities in the State Administrative Manual or Statewide Information Management Manual regarding:(1) Service delivery design, implementation, maintenance, and operations.(2) Service delivery assessments.(3) Service delivery improvement and problem mitigation.(h) The director shall train state supervisors, managers, executives, and other staff in leadership positions regarding service delivery best practices. The director is authorized to require state entity staff to attend training deemed necessary by the director. The director may consult or contract with the Department of Human Resources or the Department of Technology for assistance or delivery of training as needed to fulfill the purposes of this section.(i) Any funds appropriated to the office for the purpose of funding various statewide innovation activities are to be administered by the director for the implementation, support, or assessment of state entities existing or proposed service delivery functions.(j) While engaged with a state entity, office staff shall, in the performance of their duties related to the improvement of service delivery functions, have access to, and the authority to examine or reproduce, any and all records, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component related to the service delivery function being improved by the office.(1) The office shall maintain the confidentiality of, and protect from unauthorized access or disclosure, all records, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component received from, or otherwise accessed from, any state entity engaged with the office in accordance with applicable laws, policies, and regulations, state law, including, but not limited to, the Information Practices Act of 1977.(2) The director, any employee or former employee of the office, any person or business entity that is contracting with or has contracted with the office and the employees and former employees of that person or business entity shall not divulge or make known to any person not employed by the office in any manner not expressly permitted by law any particulars of any record, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component, the disclosure of which is restricted by law from release to the public. This subdivision shall also apply to the officers and employees of, and any person or business entity that is contracting with, or has contracted with, any state or local governmental agency or publicly created entity, that has assisted the office in the course of any engagement.(3) Any officer, employee, or person who discloses the particulars of any record, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component in violation of this section shall be subject to a civil penalty not to exceed five thousand dollars ($5,000), including the release of any information received pursuant to Section 10850 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or that is otherwise prohibited by law to be disclosed. (4)The office shall ensure that all records, data, and other documentation are disposed of in accordance with applicable state laws, policies, and regulations upon completion of each engagement. (5)(4) Upon the completion of each engagement, the office shall dispose of all records, data, and other documentation received, copied, or otherwise in the possession of the office as a result of the engagement that contains personally identifiable information. information in accordance with state law.(k) The adoption, amendment, or repeal of the policies, procedures, guidelines, or other directives consistent with this chapter are exempted from the rulemaking provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1).(l) (1) Effective July 1, 2020, the Digital Innovation Services Revolving Fund is hereby created within the State Treasury. The fund shall be administered by the director to receive all revenues from the sale of services rendered by the office and all other moneys properly credited to the office from any other source. Notwithstanding Section 13340, until July 1, 2024, moneys in the fund are continuously appropriated to the office without regard to fiscal year to pay all costs arising from this section and rendering of services to state entities, including, but not limited to, employment and compensation of necessary personnel and expenses, such as operating and other expenses of the office, and costs associated with approved information technology projects, and to establish reserves. On and after July 1, 2024, moneys in the fund shall be available upon appropriation of the Legislature. At the discretion of the director, segregated, dedicated accounts within the fund may be established.(2) On or before February 1, 2021, and each February 1 thereafter, the director shall submit a report to the Chairperson of the Joint Legislative Budget Committee, or the chairpersons designee, that includes a summary of the activities of the office and a listing and descriptions of all expenditures made from the fund, as well as all revenues received by the fund, for the prior fiscal year.(3) The fund shall consist of all of the following:(A) Moneys appropriated and made available by the Legislature for the purposes of this section.(B) Donations, endowments, or grants of funds from private or public sources for any purposes of this section. The office and the Controller may establish separate accounts in the fund for the purpose of separating deposits according to their origin or intended purpose.(C) Any other moneys that may be made available to the office from any other source, including the return from investments of moneys by the Treasurer.(m) The office may collect payments from state entities for providing services to client entities. The office may require monthly payments by client entities for the services provided. Pursuant to Section 11255, the Controller shall transfer any amounts so authorized by the office, consistent with the annual budget of each department, to the fund. The office shall notify each affected state entity upon requesting the Controller to make the transfer.(n) Notwithstanding any other law, the Controller may use the moneys in the fund for cashflow loans to the General Fund, as provided in Sections 16310 and 16381.
522525
523526
524527
525528 12815. (a) The Office of Digital Innovation is hereby established on July 1, 2019, within the Government Operations Agency.
526529
527530 (b) There shall be a Director of the Office of Digital Innovation.
531+
532+ (1) The
533+
534+
528535
529536 The director shall be appointed by, and serve at the pleasure of, the Governor. The director shall report to the Secretary of Government Operations. The director shall be responsible for managing the affairs of the office and shall perform all duties, exercise all powers and jurisdiction, and assume and discharge all responsibilities necessary to carry out the purposes of this section. The Governor may appoint people to the office who are exempt from civil service. The total number of exempt positions in the office shall not exceed 20.
530537
531538 (c) For the purposes of this section:
532539
533540 (1) Director means the Director of the Office of Digital Innovation.
534541
535542 (2) Fund means the Digital Innovation Services Revolving Fund.
536543
537544 (3) Office means the Office of Digital Innovation.
538545
539546 (4) Service delivery means the provision of a service or services, product or products, by a state entity or state entities to persons, other state entities, constitutional state entities, independent state entities, local government entities, federal entities, private entities, or nonprofit entities.
540547
541548 (5) State entity means an entity within the executive branch that is under the direct authority of the Governor, including, but not limited to, all departments, boards, bureaus, commissions, councils, and agencies.
542549
543550 (d) The offices mission shall be to deliver better government services to the people of California through technology and design. The office will fulfill this mission by:
544551
545552 (1) Collaborating with state entities to transform government services. The office will focus on measurably improving services using a deliberate, user-focused approach.
546553
547554 (2) Investing in state capabilities to put users first, build iteratively, and let data drive decisions.
548555
549556 (3) Rethinking and improving how the state buys digital services.
550557
551558 (4) Expanding the use of common platforms, services, and tools.
552559
553560 (e) The director shall hire staff to assist in the fulfillment of the duties and responsibilities of the office.
554561
555562 (f) The director shall establish a program to improve the states service delivery functions, guided by service delivery best practices.
556563
557564 (1) The director is hereby authorized to engage with state entities for the purpose of improving the service delivery functions of those state entities.
558565
559566 (2) Engagements shall be formalized in writing and shall identify, at minimum, the roles and responsibilities of both the office and the state entity being engaged by the office.
560567
561568 (g) The director may create, update, or publish, in consultation with the appropriate control agency, policies, standards, and procedures for state entities in the State Administrative Manual or Statewide Information Management Manual regarding:
562569
563570 (1) Service delivery design, implementation, maintenance, and operations.
564571
565572 (2) Service delivery assessments.
566573
567574 (3) Service delivery improvement and problem mitigation.
568575
569576 (h) The director shall train state supervisors, managers, executives, and other staff in leadership positions regarding service delivery best practices. The director is authorized to require state entity staff to attend training deemed necessary by the director. The director may consult or contract with the Department of Human Resources or the Department of Technology for assistance or delivery of training as needed to fulfill the purposes of this section.
570577
571578 (i) Any funds appropriated to the office for the purpose of funding various statewide innovation activities are to be administered by the director for the implementation, support, or assessment of state entities existing or proposed service delivery functions.
572579
573580 (j) While engaged with a state entity, office staff shall, in the performance of their duties related to the improvement of service delivery functions, have access to, and the authority to examine or reproduce, any and all records, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component related to the service delivery function being improved by the office.
574581
575-(1) The office shall maintain the confidentiality of, and protect from unauthorized access or disclosure, all records, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component received from, or otherwise accessed from, any state entity engaged with the office in accordance with state law, including, but not limited to, the Information Practices Act of 1977.
582+(1) The office shall maintain the confidentiality of, and protect from unauthorized access or disclosure, all records, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component received from, or otherwise accessed from, any state entity engaged with the office in accordance with applicable laws, policies, and regulations, state law, including, but not limited to, the Information Practices Act of 1977.
576583
577584 (2) The director, any employee or former employee of the office, any person or business entity that is contracting with or has contracted with the office and the employees and former employees of that person or business entity shall not divulge or make known to any person not employed by the office in any manner not expressly permitted by law any particulars of any record, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component, the disclosure of which is restricted by law from release to the public. This subdivision shall also apply to the officers and employees of, and any person or business entity that is contracting with, or has contracted with, any state or local governmental agency or publicly created entity, that has assisted the office in the course of any engagement.
578585
579586 (3) Any officer, employee, or person who discloses the particulars of any record, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component in violation of this section shall be subject to a civil penalty not to exceed five thousand dollars ($5,000), including the release of any information received pursuant to Section 10850 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or that is otherwise prohibited by law to be disclosed.
580587
581-(4) Upon the completion of each engagement, the office shall dispose of all records, data, and other documentation received, copied, or otherwise in the possession of the office as a result of the engagement that contains personally identifiable information in accordance with state law.
588+(4)The office shall ensure that all records, data, and other documentation are disposed of in accordance with applicable state laws, policies, and regulations upon completion of each engagement.
589+
590+
591+
592+(5)
593+
594+
595+
596+(4) Upon the completion of each engagement, the office shall dispose of all records, data, and other documentation received, copied, or otherwise in the possession of the office as a result of the engagement that contains personally identifiable information. information in accordance with state law.
582597
583598 (k) The adoption, amendment, or repeal of the policies, procedures, guidelines, or other directives consistent with this chapter are exempted from the rulemaking provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1).
584599
585600 (l) (1) Effective July 1, 2020, the Digital Innovation Services Revolving Fund is hereby created within the State Treasury. The fund shall be administered by the director to receive all revenues from the sale of services rendered by the office and all other moneys properly credited to the office from any other source. Notwithstanding Section 13340, until July 1, 2024, moneys in the fund are continuously appropriated to the office without regard to fiscal year to pay all costs arising from this section and rendering of services to state entities, including, but not limited to, employment and compensation of necessary personnel and expenses, such as operating and other expenses of the office, and costs associated with approved information technology projects, and to establish reserves. On and after July 1, 2024, moneys in the fund shall be available upon appropriation of the Legislature. At the discretion of the director, segregated, dedicated accounts within the fund may be established.
586601
587602 (2) On or before February 1, 2021, and each February 1 thereafter, the director shall submit a report to the Chairperson of the Joint Legislative Budget Committee, or the chairpersons designee, that includes a summary of the activities of the office and a listing and descriptions of all expenditures made from the fund, as well as all revenues received by the fund, for the prior fiscal year.
588603
589604 (3) The fund shall consist of all of the following:
590605
591606 (A) Moneys appropriated and made available by the Legislature for the purposes of this section.
592607
593608 (B) Donations, endowments, or grants of funds from private or public sources for any purposes of this section. The office and the Controller may establish separate accounts in the fund for the purpose of separating deposits according to their origin or intended purpose.
594609
595610 (C) Any other moneys that may be made available to the office from any other source, including the return from investments of moneys by the Treasurer.
596611
597612 (m) The office may collect payments from state entities for providing services to client entities. The office may require monthly payments by client entities for the services provided. Pursuant to Section 11255, the Controller shall transfer any amounts so authorized by the office, consistent with the annual budget of each department, to the fund. The office shall notify each affected state entity upon requesting the Controller to make the transfer.
598613
599614 (n) Notwithstanding any other law, the Controller may use the moneys in the fund for cashflow loans to the General Fund, as provided in Sections 16310 and 16381.
600615
601-SEC. 4. Section 16418.8 of the Government Code is amended to read:16418.8. (a) The Budget Deficit Savings Account is hereby established in the State Treasury to serve as a supplementary savings account to mitigate the effects of actual or future projected budget deficits in the General Fund or other state funds.(b) (1) Deposits to the Budget Stabilization Account for the 201819 fiscal year, above the amounts required by Section 20 of Article XVI of the California Constitution, as defined and appropriated in the 2018 Budget Act, shall be transferred from the General Fund to the Budget Deficit Savings Account. Based on the updated projection as calculated by the Department of Finance during the 201920 May Revision, upon order of the Director of Finance, no earlier than May 31, 2019, the Controller shall transfer the updated amount from the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the Budget Stabilization Account.(2) Upon order of the Director of Finance, the Controller shall transfer 50 percent of the remaining amounts deposited in the Budget Deficit Savings Account that are not transferred to the Budget Stabilization Account pursuant to subdivision (b) to the Safety Net Reserve Fund, created by Section 11011 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. The remaining 50 percent of the balance shall remain in the Budget Deficit Savings Account.(3) In any fiscal year, the Legislature may transfer funds into the Budget Deficit Savings Account or authorize the transfer of some or all of the balance of the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the General Fund or any other state fund.(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the Controller may use the funds in the Budget Deficit Savings Account for cashflow loans to the General Fund as provided in Sections 16310 and 16381.
616+SEC. 4. Section 16418.8 of the Government Code is amended to read:16418.8. (a) The Budget Deficit Savings Account is hereby established in the State Treasury. Treasury to serve as a supplementary savings account to mitigate the effects of actual or future projected budget deficits in the General Fund or other state funds.(b) (1) Deposits to the Budget Stabilization Account for the 201819 fiscal year, above the amounts required by Section 20 of Article XVI of the California Constitution, as defined and appropriated in the 2018 Budget Act, shall be transferred from the General Fund to the Budget Deficit Savings Account. Based on the updated projection as calculated by the Department of Finance during the 201920 May Revision, upon order of the Director of the Department of Finance, no earlier than May 31, 2019, the Controller shall transfer the updated amount from the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the Budget Stabilization Account.(c)(2) Upon order of the Director of the Department of Finance, the Controller shall transfer 50 percent of the remaining amounts deposited in the Budget Deficit Savings Account that are not transferred to the Budget Stabilization Account pursuant to subdivision (b) to the Safety Net Reserve Fund, created by Section 11011 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. The remaining 50 percent of the balance shall remain in the Budget Deficit Savings Account.(3) In any fiscal year, the Legislature may transfer funds into the Budget Deficit Savings Account or authorize the transfer of some or all of the balance of the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the General Fund or any other state fund.(d)(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the Controller may use the funds in the Budget Deficit Savings Account for cash flow cashflow loans to the General Fund as provided in Sections 16310 and 16381.
602617
603618 SEC. 4. Section 16418.8 of the Government Code is amended to read:
604619
605620 ### SEC. 4.
606621
607-16418.8. (a) The Budget Deficit Savings Account is hereby established in the State Treasury to serve as a supplementary savings account to mitigate the effects of actual or future projected budget deficits in the General Fund or other state funds.(b) (1) Deposits to the Budget Stabilization Account for the 201819 fiscal year, above the amounts required by Section 20 of Article XVI of the California Constitution, as defined and appropriated in the 2018 Budget Act, shall be transferred from the General Fund to the Budget Deficit Savings Account. Based on the updated projection as calculated by the Department of Finance during the 201920 May Revision, upon order of the Director of Finance, no earlier than May 31, 2019, the Controller shall transfer the updated amount from the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the Budget Stabilization Account.(2) Upon order of the Director of Finance, the Controller shall transfer 50 percent of the remaining amounts deposited in the Budget Deficit Savings Account that are not transferred to the Budget Stabilization Account pursuant to subdivision (b) to the Safety Net Reserve Fund, created by Section 11011 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. The remaining 50 percent of the balance shall remain in the Budget Deficit Savings Account.(3) In any fiscal year, the Legislature may transfer funds into the Budget Deficit Savings Account or authorize the transfer of some or all of the balance of the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the General Fund or any other state fund.(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the Controller may use the funds in the Budget Deficit Savings Account for cashflow loans to the General Fund as provided in Sections 16310 and 16381.
622+16418.8. (a) The Budget Deficit Savings Account is hereby established in the State Treasury. Treasury to serve as a supplementary savings account to mitigate the effects of actual or future projected budget deficits in the General Fund or other state funds.(b) (1) Deposits to the Budget Stabilization Account for the 201819 fiscal year, above the amounts required by Section 20 of Article XVI of the California Constitution, as defined and appropriated in the 2018 Budget Act, shall be transferred from the General Fund to the Budget Deficit Savings Account. Based on the updated projection as calculated by the Department of Finance during the 201920 May Revision, upon order of the Director of the Department of Finance, no earlier than May 31, 2019, the Controller shall transfer the updated amount from the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the Budget Stabilization Account.(c)(2) Upon order of the Director of the Department of Finance, the Controller shall transfer 50 percent of the remaining amounts deposited in the Budget Deficit Savings Account that are not transferred to the Budget Stabilization Account pursuant to subdivision (b) to the Safety Net Reserve Fund, created by Section 11011 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. The remaining 50 percent of the balance shall remain in the Budget Deficit Savings Account.(3) In any fiscal year, the Legislature may transfer funds into the Budget Deficit Savings Account or authorize the transfer of some or all of the balance of the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the General Fund or any other state fund.(d)(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the Controller may use the funds in the Budget Deficit Savings Account for cash flow cashflow loans to the General Fund as provided in Sections 16310 and 16381.
608623
609-16418.8. (a) The Budget Deficit Savings Account is hereby established in the State Treasury to serve as a supplementary savings account to mitigate the effects of actual or future projected budget deficits in the General Fund or other state funds.(b) (1) Deposits to the Budget Stabilization Account for the 201819 fiscal year, above the amounts required by Section 20 of Article XVI of the California Constitution, as defined and appropriated in the 2018 Budget Act, shall be transferred from the General Fund to the Budget Deficit Savings Account. Based on the updated projection as calculated by the Department of Finance during the 201920 May Revision, upon order of the Director of Finance, no earlier than May 31, 2019, the Controller shall transfer the updated amount from the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the Budget Stabilization Account.(2) Upon order of the Director of Finance, the Controller shall transfer 50 percent of the remaining amounts deposited in the Budget Deficit Savings Account that are not transferred to the Budget Stabilization Account pursuant to subdivision (b) to the Safety Net Reserve Fund, created by Section 11011 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. The remaining 50 percent of the balance shall remain in the Budget Deficit Savings Account.(3) In any fiscal year, the Legislature may transfer funds into the Budget Deficit Savings Account or authorize the transfer of some or all of the balance of the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the General Fund or any other state fund.(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the Controller may use the funds in the Budget Deficit Savings Account for cashflow loans to the General Fund as provided in Sections 16310 and 16381.
624+16418.8. (a) The Budget Deficit Savings Account is hereby established in the State Treasury. Treasury to serve as a supplementary savings account to mitigate the effects of actual or future projected budget deficits in the General Fund or other state funds.(b) (1) Deposits to the Budget Stabilization Account for the 201819 fiscal year, above the amounts required by Section 20 of Article XVI of the California Constitution, as defined and appropriated in the 2018 Budget Act, shall be transferred from the General Fund to the Budget Deficit Savings Account. Based on the updated projection as calculated by the Department of Finance during the 201920 May Revision, upon order of the Director of the Department of Finance, no earlier than May 31, 2019, the Controller shall transfer the updated amount from the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the Budget Stabilization Account.(c)(2) Upon order of the Director of the Department of Finance, the Controller shall transfer 50 percent of the remaining amounts deposited in the Budget Deficit Savings Account that are not transferred to the Budget Stabilization Account pursuant to subdivision (b) to the Safety Net Reserve Fund, created by Section 11011 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. The remaining 50 percent of the balance shall remain in the Budget Deficit Savings Account.(3) In any fiscal year, the Legislature may transfer funds into the Budget Deficit Savings Account or authorize the transfer of some or all of the balance of the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the General Fund or any other state fund.(d)(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the Controller may use the funds in the Budget Deficit Savings Account for cash flow cashflow loans to the General Fund as provided in Sections 16310 and 16381.
610625
611-16418.8. (a) The Budget Deficit Savings Account is hereby established in the State Treasury to serve as a supplementary savings account to mitigate the effects of actual or future projected budget deficits in the General Fund or other state funds.(b) (1) Deposits to the Budget Stabilization Account for the 201819 fiscal year, above the amounts required by Section 20 of Article XVI of the California Constitution, as defined and appropriated in the 2018 Budget Act, shall be transferred from the General Fund to the Budget Deficit Savings Account. Based on the updated projection as calculated by the Department of Finance during the 201920 May Revision, upon order of the Director of Finance, no earlier than May 31, 2019, the Controller shall transfer the updated amount from the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the Budget Stabilization Account.(2) Upon order of the Director of Finance, the Controller shall transfer 50 percent of the remaining amounts deposited in the Budget Deficit Savings Account that are not transferred to the Budget Stabilization Account pursuant to subdivision (b) to the Safety Net Reserve Fund, created by Section 11011 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. The remaining 50 percent of the balance shall remain in the Budget Deficit Savings Account.(3) In any fiscal year, the Legislature may transfer funds into the Budget Deficit Savings Account or authorize the transfer of some or all of the balance of the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the General Fund or any other state fund.(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the Controller may use the funds in the Budget Deficit Savings Account for cashflow loans to the General Fund as provided in Sections 16310 and 16381.
626+16418.8. (a) The Budget Deficit Savings Account is hereby established in the State Treasury. Treasury to serve as a supplementary savings account to mitigate the effects of actual or future projected budget deficits in the General Fund or other state funds.(b) (1) Deposits to the Budget Stabilization Account for the 201819 fiscal year, above the amounts required by Section 20 of Article XVI of the California Constitution, as defined and appropriated in the 2018 Budget Act, shall be transferred from the General Fund to the Budget Deficit Savings Account. Based on the updated projection as calculated by the Department of Finance during the 201920 May Revision, upon order of the Director of the Department of Finance, no earlier than May 31, 2019, the Controller shall transfer the updated amount from the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the Budget Stabilization Account.(c)(2) Upon order of the Director of the Department of Finance, the Controller shall transfer 50 percent of the remaining amounts deposited in the Budget Deficit Savings Account that are not transferred to the Budget Stabilization Account pursuant to subdivision (b) to the Safety Net Reserve Fund, created by Section 11011 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. The remaining 50 percent of the balance shall remain in the Budget Deficit Savings Account.(3) In any fiscal year, the Legislature may transfer funds into the Budget Deficit Savings Account or authorize the transfer of some or all of the balance of the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the General Fund or any other state fund.(d)(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the Controller may use the funds in the Budget Deficit Savings Account for cash flow cashflow loans to the General Fund as provided in Sections 16310 and 16381.
612627
613628
614629
615-16418.8. (a) The Budget Deficit Savings Account is hereby established in the State Treasury to serve as a supplementary savings account to mitigate the effects of actual or future projected budget deficits in the General Fund or other state funds.
630+16418.8. (a) The Budget Deficit Savings Account is hereby established in the State Treasury. Treasury to serve as a supplementary savings account to mitigate the effects of actual or future projected budget deficits in the General Fund or other state funds.
616631
617-(b) (1) Deposits to the Budget Stabilization Account for the 201819 fiscal year, above the amounts required by Section 20 of Article XVI of the California Constitution, as defined and appropriated in the 2018 Budget Act, shall be transferred from the General Fund to the Budget Deficit Savings Account. Based on the updated projection as calculated by the Department of Finance during the 201920 May Revision, upon order of the Director of Finance, no earlier than May 31, 2019, the Controller shall transfer the updated amount from the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the Budget Stabilization Account.
632+(b) (1) Deposits to the Budget Stabilization Account for the 201819 fiscal year, above the amounts required by Section 20 of Article XVI of the California Constitution, as defined and appropriated in the 2018 Budget Act, shall be transferred from the General Fund to the Budget Deficit Savings Account. Based on the updated projection as calculated by the Department of Finance during the 201920 May Revision, upon order of the Director of the Department of Finance, no earlier than May 31, 2019, the Controller shall transfer the updated amount from the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the Budget Stabilization Account.
618633
619-(2) Upon order of the Director of Finance, the Controller shall transfer 50 percent of the remaining amounts deposited in the Budget Deficit Savings Account that are not transferred to the Budget Stabilization Account pursuant to subdivision (b) to the Safety Net Reserve Fund, created by Section 11011 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. The remaining 50 percent of the balance shall remain in the Budget Deficit Savings Account.
634+(c)
635+
636+
637+
638+(2) Upon order of the Director of the Department of Finance, the Controller shall transfer 50 percent of the remaining amounts deposited in the Budget Deficit Savings Account that are not transferred to the Budget Stabilization Account pursuant to subdivision (b) to the Safety Net Reserve Fund, created by Section 11011 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. The remaining 50 percent of the balance shall remain in the Budget Deficit Savings Account.
620639
621640 (3) In any fiscal year, the Legislature may transfer funds into the Budget Deficit Savings Account or authorize the transfer of some or all of the balance of the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the General Fund or any other state fund.
622641
623-(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the Controller may use the funds in the Budget Deficit Savings Account for cashflow loans to the General Fund as provided in Sections 16310 and 16381.
642+(d)
624643
625-SEC. 5. Section 19822.3 of the Government Code is amended to read:19822.3. All state agencies shall implement and use the California Automated Travel Expense Reimbursement System (CalATERS) to automate processing of employee travel claims by July 1, 2009, unless the Controller recommends, and the Department of Finance approves, an exemption request. To request an exemption, a department or agency shall submit documentation to the Controller no later than July 1, 2007, to substantiate that the implementation of CalATERS is not feasible or cost-effective for that department or agency. The Department of Finance and the Controller shall jointly report to the Joint Legislative Budget Committee, not later than February 1, 2008, on the exemptions that have been approved and the bases for the exemptions.
644+
645+
646+(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the Controller may use the funds in the Budget Deficit Savings Account for cash flow cashflow loans to the General Fund as provided in Sections 16310 and 16381.
647+
648+SEC. 5. Section 19822.3 of the Government Code is amended to read:19822.3. (a)All state agencies shall implement and use the California Automated Travel Expense Reimbursement System (CalATERS) to automate processing of employee travel claims by July 1, 2009, unless the Controller recommends, and the Department of Finance approves, an exemption request. To request an exemption, a department or agency shall submit documentation to the Controller no later than July 1, 2007, to substantiate that the implementation of CalATERS is not feasible or cost-effective for that department or agency. The Department of Finance and the Controller shall jointly report to the Joint Legislative Budget Committee, not later than February 1, 2008, on the exemptions that have been approved and the bases for the exemptions.(b)Payments for the services of the Controller to implement this section shall be made by direct transfer as described in Section 11255. The total transfer shall not exceed the reimbursement expenditure authority provided to the Controller for CalATERS pursuant to the annual Budget Act, as adjusted by subsequent budget revisions approved by the Department of Finance.
626649
627650 SEC. 5. Section 19822.3 of the Government Code is amended to read:
628651
629652 ### SEC. 5.
630653
631-19822.3. All state agencies shall implement and use the California Automated Travel Expense Reimbursement System (CalATERS) to automate processing of employee travel claims by July 1, 2009, unless the Controller recommends, and the Department of Finance approves, an exemption request. To request an exemption, a department or agency shall submit documentation to the Controller no later than July 1, 2007, to substantiate that the implementation of CalATERS is not feasible or cost-effective for that department or agency. The Department of Finance and the Controller shall jointly report to the Joint Legislative Budget Committee, not later than February 1, 2008, on the exemptions that have been approved and the bases for the exemptions.
654+19822.3. (a)All state agencies shall implement and use the California Automated Travel Expense Reimbursement System (CalATERS) to automate processing of employee travel claims by July 1, 2009, unless the Controller recommends, and the Department of Finance approves, an exemption request. To request an exemption, a department or agency shall submit documentation to the Controller no later than July 1, 2007, to substantiate that the implementation of CalATERS is not feasible or cost-effective for that department or agency. The Department of Finance and the Controller shall jointly report to the Joint Legislative Budget Committee, not later than February 1, 2008, on the exemptions that have been approved and the bases for the exemptions.(b)Payments for the services of the Controller to implement this section shall be made by direct transfer as described in Section 11255. The total transfer shall not exceed the reimbursement expenditure authority provided to the Controller for CalATERS pursuant to the annual Budget Act, as adjusted by subsequent budget revisions approved by the Department of Finance.
632655
633-19822.3. All state agencies shall implement and use the California Automated Travel Expense Reimbursement System (CalATERS) to automate processing of employee travel claims by July 1, 2009, unless the Controller recommends, and the Department of Finance approves, an exemption request. To request an exemption, a department or agency shall submit documentation to the Controller no later than July 1, 2007, to substantiate that the implementation of CalATERS is not feasible or cost-effective for that department or agency. The Department of Finance and the Controller shall jointly report to the Joint Legislative Budget Committee, not later than February 1, 2008, on the exemptions that have been approved and the bases for the exemptions.
656+19822.3. (a)All state agencies shall implement and use the California Automated Travel Expense Reimbursement System (CalATERS) to automate processing of employee travel claims by July 1, 2009, unless the Controller recommends, and the Department of Finance approves, an exemption request. To request an exemption, a department or agency shall submit documentation to the Controller no later than July 1, 2007, to substantiate that the implementation of CalATERS is not feasible or cost-effective for that department or agency. The Department of Finance and the Controller shall jointly report to the Joint Legislative Budget Committee, not later than February 1, 2008, on the exemptions that have been approved and the bases for the exemptions.(b)Payments for the services of the Controller to implement this section shall be made by direct transfer as described in Section 11255. The total transfer shall not exceed the reimbursement expenditure authority provided to the Controller for CalATERS pursuant to the annual Budget Act, as adjusted by subsequent budget revisions approved by the Department of Finance.
634657
635-19822.3. All state agencies shall implement and use the California Automated Travel Expense Reimbursement System (CalATERS) to automate processing of employee travel claims by July 1, 2009, unless the Controller recommends, and the Department of Finance approves, an exemption request. To request an exemption, a department or agency shall submit documentation to the Controller no later than July 1, 2007, to substantiate that the implementation of CalATERS is not feasible or cost-effective for that department or agency. The Department of Finance and the Controller shall jointly report to the Joint Legislative Budget Committee, not later than February 1, 2008, on the exemptions that have been approved and the bases for the exemptions.
658+19822.3. (a)All state agencies shall implement and use the California Automated Travel Expense Reimbursement System (CalATERS) to automate processing of employee travel claims by July 1, 2009, unless the Controller recommends, and the Department of Finance approves, an exemption request. To request an exemption, a department or agency shall submit documentation to the Controller no later than July 1, 2007, to substantiate that the implementation of CalATERS is not feasible or cost-effective for that department or agency. The Department of Finance and the Controller shall jointly report to the Joint Legislative Budget Committee, not later than February 1, 2008, on the exemptions that have been approved and the bases for the exemptions.(b)Payments for the services of the Controller to implement this section shall be made by direct transfer as described in Section 11255. The total transfer shall not exceed the reimbursement expenditure authority provided to the Controller for CalATERS pursuant to the annual Budget Act, as adjusted by subsequent budget revisions approved by the Department of Finance.
636659
637660
638661
639-19822.3. All state agencies shall implement and use the California Automated Travel Expense Reimbursement System (CalATERS) to automate processing of employee travel claims by July 1, 2009, unless the Controller recommends, and the Department of Finance approves, an exemption request. To request an exemption, a department or agency shall submit documentation to the Controller no later than July 1, 2007, to substantiate that the implementation of CalATERS is not feasible or cost-effective for that department or agency. The Department of Finance and the Controller shall jointly report to the Joint Legislative Budget Committee, not later than February 1, 2008, on the exemptions that have been approved and the bases for the exemptions.
662+19822.3. (a)All state agencies shall implement and use the California Automated Travel Expense Reimbursement System (CalATERS) to automate processing of employee travel claims by July 1, 2009, unless the Controller recommends, and the Department of Finance approves, an exemption request. To request an exemption, a department or agency shall submit documentation to the Controller no later than July 1, 2007, to substantiate that the implementation of CalATERS is not feasible or cost-effective for that department or agency. The Department of Finance and the Controller shall jointly report to the Joint Legislative Budget Committee, not later than February 1, 2008, on the exemptions that have been approved and the bases for the exemptions.
640663
641-SEC. 6. Section 20397 of the Government Code is amended to read:20397. State peace officer/firefighter member also includes:(a) The Sergeants-at-Arms of each house of the Legislature who have been designated as peace officers in subdivision (a) of Section 830.36 of the Penal Code.(b) Bailiffs and security coordinators of the judicial branch who have been designated as peace officers in subdivision (b) of Section 830.36 of the Penal Code.A member who is reclassified from state miscellaneous to state peace officer/firefighter pursuant to this section may make an irrevocable election in writing to remain subject to the miscellaneous service retirement benefit and the normal rate of contribution by filing a notice of the election with the board within 90 days of notification by the board. A member who so elects shall be subject to the reduced benefit factors specified in Section 21353 or 21354.1, as applicable, only for service included in the federal system.
664+(b)Payments for the services of the Controller to implement this section shall be made by direct transfer as described in Section 11255. The total transfer shall not exceed the reimbursement expenditure authority provided to the Controller for CalATERS pursuant to the annual Budget Act, as adjusted by subsequent budget revisions approved by the Department of Finance.
665+
666+
667+
668+SEC. 6. Section 20397 of the Government Code is amended to read:20397. State peace officer/firefighter member also includes:(a) The Sergeants-at-Arms of each house of the Legislature who have been designated as peace officers in subdivision (a) of Section 830.36 of the Penal Code, excluding the Chief Sergeant-at-Arms of the Senate. Code.(b) Bailiffs and security coordinators of the judicial branch who have been designated as peace officers in subdivision (b) of Section 830.36 of the Penal Code.A member who is reclassified from state miscellaneous to state peace officer/firefighter pursuant to this section may make an irrevocable election in writing to remain subject to the miscellaneous service retirement benefit and the normal rate of contribution by filing a notice of the election with the board within 90 days of notification by the board. A member who so elects shall be subject to the reduced benefit factors specified in Section 21353 or 21354.1, as applicable, only for service included in the federal system.
642669
643670 SEC. 6. Section 20397 of the Government Code is amended to read:
644671
645672 ### SEC. 6.
646673
647-20397. State peace officer/firefighter member also includes:(a) The Sergeants-at-Arms of each house of the Legislature who have been designated as peace officers in subdivision (a) of Section 830.36 of the Penal Code.(b) Bailiffs and security coordinators of the judicial branch who have been designated as peace officers in subdivision (b) of Section 830.36 of the Penal Code.A member who is reclassified from state miscellaneous to state peace officer/firefighter pursuant to this section may make an irrevocable election in writing to remain subject to the miscellaneous service retirement benefit and the normal rate of contribution by filing a notice of the election with the board within 90 days of notification by the board. A member who so elects shall be subject to the reduced benefit factors specified in Section 21353 or 21354.1, as applicable, only for service included in the federal system.
674+20397. State peace officer/firefighter member also includes:(a) The Sergeants-at-Arms of each house of the Legislature who have been designated as peace officers in subdivision (a) of Section 830.36 of the Penal Code, excluding the Chief Sergeant-at-Arms of the Senate. Code.(b) Bailiffs and security coordinators of the judicial branch who have been designated as peace officers in subdivision (b) of Section 830.36 of the Penal Code.A member who is reclassified from state miscellaneous to state peace officer/firefighter pursuant to this section may make an irrevocable election in writing to remain subject to the miscellaneous service retirement benefit and the normal rate of contribution by filing a notice of the election with the board within 90 days of notification by the board. A member who so elects shall be subject to the reduced benefit factors specified in Section 21353 or 21354.1, as applicable, only for service included in the federal system.
648675
649-20397. State peace officer/firefighter member also includes:(a) The Sergeants-at-Arms of each house of the Legislature who have been designated as peace officers in subdivision (a) of Section 830.36 of the Penal Code.(b) Bailiffs and security coordinators of the judicial branch who have been designated as peace officers in subdivision (b) of Section 830.36 of the Penal Code.A member who is reclassified from state miscellaneous to state peace officer/firefighter pursuant to this section may make an irrevocable election in writing to remain subject to the miscellaneous service retirement benefit and the normal rate of contribution by filing a notice of the election with the board within 90 days of notification by the board. A member who so elects shall be subject to the reduced benefit factors specified in Section 21353 or 21354.1, as applicable, only for service included in the federal system.
676+20397. State peace officer/firefighter member also includes:(a) The Sergeants-at-Arms of each house of the Legislature who have been designated as peace officers in subdivision (a) of Section 830.36 of the Penal Code, excluding the Chief Sergeant-at-Arms of the Senate. Code.(b) Bailiffs and security coordinators of the judicial branch who have been designated as peace officers in subdivision (b) of Section 830.36 of the Penal Code.A member who is reclassified from state miscellaneous to state peace officer/firefighter pursuant to this section may make an irrevocable election in writing to remain subject to the miscellaneous service retirement benefit and the normal rate of contribution by filing a notice of the election with the board within 90 days of notification by the board. A member who so elects shall be subject to the reduced benefit factors specified in Section 21353 or 21354.1, as applicable, only for service included in the federal system.
650677
651-20397. State peace officer/firefighter member also includes:(a) The Sergeants-at-Arms of each house of the Legislature who have been designated as peace officers in subdivision (a) of Section 830.36 of the Penal Code.(b) Bailiffs and security coordinators of the judicial branch who have been designated as peace officers in subdivision (b) of Section 830.36 of the Penal Code.A member who is reclassified from state miscellaneous to state peace officer/firefighter pursuant to this section may make an irrevocable election in writing to remain subject to the miscellaneous service retirement benefit and the normal rate of contribution by filing a notice of the election with the board within 90 days of notification by the board. A member who so elects shall be subject to the reduced benefit factors specified in Section 21353 or 21354.1, as applicable, only for service included in the federal system.
678+20397. State peace officer/firefighter member also includes:(a) The Sergeants-at-Arms of each house of the Legislature who have been designated as peace officers in subdivision (a) of Section 830.36 of the Penal Code, excluding the Chief Sergeant-at-Arms of the Senate. Code.(b) Bailiffs and security coordinators of the judicial branch who have been designated as peace officers in subdivision (b) of Section 830.36 of the Penal Code.A member who is reclassified from state miscellaneous to state peace officer/firefighter pursuant to this section may make an irrevocable election in writing to remain subject to the miscellaneous service retirement benefit and the normal rate of contribution by filing a notice of the election with the board within 90 days of notification by the board. A member who so elects shall be subject to the reduced benefit factors specified in Section 21353 or 21354.1, as applicable, only for service included in the federal system.
652679
653680
654681
655682 20397. State peace officer/firefighter member also includes:
656683
657-(a) The Sergeants-at-Arms of each house of the Legislature who have been designated as peace officers in subdivision (a) of Section 830.36 of the Penal Code.
684+(a) The Sergeants-at-Arms of each house of the Legislature who have been designated as peace officers in subdivision (a) of Section 830.36 of the Penal Code, excluding the Chief Sergeant-at-Arms of the Senate. Code.
658685
659686 (b) Bailiffs and security coordinators of the judicial branch who have been designated as peace officers in subdivision (b) of Section 830.36 of the Penal Code.
660687
661688 A member who is reclassified from state miscellaneous to state peace officer/firefighter pursuant to this section may make an irrevocable election in writing to remain subject to the miscellaneous service retirement benefit and the normal rate of contribution by filing a notice of the election with the board within 90 days of notification by the board. A member who so elects shall be subject to the reduced benefit factors specified in Section 21353 or 21354.1, as applicable, only for service included in the federal system.
662689
663-SEC. 7. Section 100002 of the Government Code is amended to read:100002. (a) (1) There is hereby created within state government the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Investment Board, which shall consist of nine members, with the Treasurer serving as chair, as follows:(A) The Treasurer.(B) The Director of Finance, or the directors designee.(C) The Controller.(D) An individual with retirement savings and investment expertise appointed by the Senate Committee on Rules.(E) An employee representative appointed by the Speaker of the Assembly.(F) A small business representative appointed by the Governor.(G) A public member appointed by the Governor.(H) Two additional members appointed by the Governor.(2) Members of the board appointed by the Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, and the Speaker of the Assembly shall serve at the pleasure of the appointing authority.(b) All members of the board shall serve without compensation. Members of the board shall be reimbursed for necessary travel expenses incurred in connection with their board duties.(c) A board member, program administrator, and other staff of the board shall not do any of the following:(1) Directly or indirectly have any interest in the making of any investment made for the program, or in the gains or profits accruing from any investment made for the program.(2) Borrow any funds or deposits of the trust, or use those funds or deposits in any manner, for themselves or as an agent or partner of others.(3) Become an endorser, surety, or obligor on investments by the board.(d) The board and the program administrator and staff, including contracted administrators and consultants, shall discharge their duties as fiduciaries with respect to the trust solely in the interest of the program participants as follows:(1) For the exclusive purposes of providing benefits to program participants and defraying reasonable expenses of administering the program.(2) By investing with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the circumstances then prevailing that a prudent person acting in a like capacity and familiar with those matters would use in the conduct of an enterprise of a like character and with like aims.(e) The board, subject to its authority and fiduciary duty, shall design and implement the CalSavers Retirement Savings Program.(1) (A) For up to three years following the initial implementation of the program, the board shall establish managed accounts invested in United States Treasuries, myRAs, or similar investments.(B) The board shall have the authority to provide for investment in myRAs, provided that, in accordance with the myRA provisions, myRA contributions and investment returns shall only be used for myRA investments and to make distributions to, or for the benefit of, participants and shall not be used to pay any costs of administration.(2) During period described in paragraph (1), the board shall develop and implement an investment policy that defines the programs investment objectives and shall establish policies and procedures enabling investment objectives to be met in a prudent manner. The board shall seek to minimize participant fees and strive to implement program features that provide maximum possible income replacement balanced with appropriate risk in an IRA-based environment. The policy shall describe the investment options available to holders of individual savings accounts established as part of the program. Investment options may encompass a range of risk and return opportunities and allow for a rate of return commensurate with an appropriate level of risk to meet the investment objectives stated in the policy.(3) After the period described in paragraph (1) has expired, the board shall annually prepare and adopt a written statement of investment policy that includes a risk management and oversight program. The board shall consider the statement of investment policy and any changes in the investment policy at a public hearing.(4) The risk management and oversight program shall include an effective risk management system to monitor the risk levels of the CalSavers Retirement Savings Program investment portfolio and ensure that the risks taken are prudent and properly managed. The program shall be managed to provide an integrated process for overall risk management on both a consolidated and disaggregated basis, and to monitor investment returns as well as risk to determine if the risks taken are adequately compensated compared to applicable performance benchmarks and standards.(f) The board shall approve an investment management entity or entities, the costs of which shall be paid out of funds held in the trust and shall not be attributed to the administrative costs of the board in operating the trust. Not later than 30 days after the close of each month, the board shall place on file for public inspection during business hours a report with respect to investments made pursuant to this section and a report of deposits in financial institutions.
690+SEC. 7. Section 100002 of the Government Code is amended to read:100002. (a) (1) There is hereby created within state government the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Investment Board, which shall consist of nine members, with the Treasurer serving as chair, as follows:(A) The Treasurer.(B) The Director of Finance, or his or her the directors designee.(C) The Controller.(D) An individual with retirement savings and investment expertise appointed by the Senate Committee on Rules.(E) An employee representative appointed by the Speaker of the Assembly.(F) A small business representative appointed by the Governor.(G) A public member appointed by the Governor.(H) Two additional members appointed by the Governor.(2) Members of the board appointed by the Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, and the Speaker of the Assembly shall serve at the pleasure of the appointing authority.(b) All members of the board shall serve without compensation. Members of the board shall be reimbursed for necessary travel expenses incurred in connection with their board duties.(c) A board member, program administrator, and other staff of the board shall not do any of the following:(1) Directly or indirectly have any interest in the making of any investment made for the program, or in the gains or profits accruing from any investment made for the program.(2) Borrow any funds or deposits of the trust, or use those funds or deposits in any manner, for himself themselves or herself or as an agent or partner of others.(3) Become an endorser, surety, or obligor on investments by the board.(d) The board and the program administrator and staff, including contracted administrators and consultants, shall discharge their duties as fiduciaries with respect to the trust solely in the interest of the program participants as follows:(1) For the exclusive purposes of providing benefits to program participants and defraying reasonable expenses of administering the program.(2) By investing with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the circumstances then prevailing that a prudent person acting in a like capacity and familiar with those matters would use in the conduct of an enterprise of a like character and with like aims.(e) The board, subject to its authority and fiduciary duty, shall design and implement the CalSavers Retirement Savings Program.(1) (A) For up to three years following the initial implementation of the program, the board shall establish managed accounts invested in United States Treasuries, myRAs, or similar investments.(B) The board shall have the authority to provide for investment in myRAs, provided that, in accordance with the myRA provisions, myRA contributions and investment returns shall only be used for myRA investments and to make distributions to, or for the benefit of, participants and shall not be used to pay any costs of administration.(2) (A)During period described in paragraph (1), the board shall develop and implement an investment policy that defines the programs investment objectives and shall establish policies and procedures enabling investment objectives to be met in a prudent manner. The board shall seek to minimize participant fees and strive to implement program features that provide maximum possible income replacement balanced with appropriate risk in an IRA-based environment. The policy shall describe the investment options available to holders of individual savings accounts established as part of the program. Investment options may encompass a range of risk and return opportunities and allow for a rate of return commensurate with an appropriate level of risk to meet the investment objectives stated in the policy. (B)The board may also develop investment option recommendations that address risk-sharing and smoothing of market losses and gains. Investment option recommendations may include, but are not limited to, the creation of a reserve fund or the establishment of customized investment products. Implementation of an investment option recommendation pursuant to this subparagraph shall be contingent upon subsequent approval by the Legislature. (3) After the period described in paragraph (1) has expired, the board shall annually prepare and adopt a written statement of investment policy that includes a risk management and oversight program. The board shall consider the statement of investment policy and any changes in the investment policy at a public hearing.(4) The risk management and oversight program shall include an effective risk management system to monitor the risk levels of the CalSavers Retirement Savings Program investment portfolio and ensure that the risks taken are prudent and properly managed. The program shall be managed to provide an integrated process for overall risk management on both a consolidated and disaggregated basis, and to monitor investment returns as well as risk to determine if the risks taken are adequately compensated compared to applicable performance benchmarks and standards.(f) The board shall approve an investment management entity or entities, the costs of which shall be paid out of funds held in the trust and shall not be attributed to the administrative costs of the board in operating the trust. Not later than 30 days after the close of each month, the board shall place on file for public inspection during business hours a report with respect to investments made pursuant to this section and a report of deposits in financial institutions.
664691
665692 SEC. 7. Section 100002 of the Government Code is amended to read:
666693
667694 ### SEC. 7.
668695
669-100002. (a) (1) There is hereby created within state government the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Investment Board, which shall consist of nine members, with the Treasurer serving as chair, as follows:(A) The Treasurer.(B) The Director of Finance, or the directors designee.(C) The Controller.(D) An individual with retirement savings and investment expertise appointed by the Senate Committee on Rules.(E) An employee representative appointed by the Speaker of the Assembly.(F) A small business representative appointed by the Governor.(G) A public member appointed by the Governor.(H) Two additional members appointed by the Governor.(2) Members of the board appointed by the Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, and the Speaker of the Assembly shall serve at the pleasure of the appointing authority.(b) All members of the board shall serve without compensation. Members of the board shall be reimbursed for necessary travel expenses incurred in connection with their board duties.(c) A board member, program administrator, and other staff of the board shall not do any of the following:(1) Directly or indirectly have any interest in the making of any investment made for the program, or in the gains or profits accruing from any investment made for the program.(2) Borrow any funds or deposits of the trust, or use those funds or deposits in any manner, for themselves or as an agent or partner of others.(3) Become an endorser, surety, or obligor on investments by the board.(d) The board and the program administrator and staff, including contracted administrators and consultants, shall discharge their duties as fiduciaries with respect to the trust solely in the interest of the program participants as follows:(1) For the exclusive purposes of providing benefits to program participants and defraying reasonable expenses of administering the program.(2) By investing with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the circumstances then prevailing that a prudent person acting in a like capacity and familiar with those matters would use in the conduct of an enterprise of a like character and with like aims.(e) The board, subject to its authority and fiduciary duty, shall design and implement the CalSavers Retirement Savings Program.(1) (A) For up to three years following the initial implementation of the program, the board shall establish managed accounts invested in United States Treasuries, myRAs, or similar investments.(B) The board shall have the authority to provide for investment in myRAs, provided that, in accordance with the myRA provisions, myRA contributions and investment returns shall only be used for myRA investments and to make distributions to, or for the benefit of, participants and shall not be used to pay any costs of administration.(2) During period described in paragraph (1), the board shall develop and implement an investment policy that defines the programs investment objectives and shall establish policies and procedures enabling investment objectives to be met in a prudent manner. The board shall seek to minimize participant fees and strive to implement program features that provide maximum possible income replacement balanced with appropriate risk in an IRA-based environment. The policy shall describe the investment options available to holders of individual savings accounts established as part of the program. Investment options may encompass a range of risk and return opportunities and allow for a rate of return commensurate with an appropriate level of risk to meet the investment objectives stated in the policy.(3) After the period described in paragraph (1) has expired, the board shall annually prepare and adopt a written statement of investment policy that includes a risk management and oversight program. The board shall consider the statement of investment policy and any changes in the investment policy at a public hearing.(4) The risk management and oversight program shall include an effective risk management system to monitor the risk levels of the CalSavers Retirement Savings Program investment portfolio and ensure that the risks taken are prudent and properly managed. The program shall be managed to provide an integrated process for overall risk management on both a consolidated and disaggregated basis, and to monitor investment returns as well as risk to determine if the risks taken are adequately compensated compared to applicable performance benchmarks and standards.(f) The board shall approve an investment management entity or entities, the costs of which shall be paid out of funds held in the trust and shall not be attributed to the administrative costs of the board in operating the trust. Not later than 30 days after the close of each month, the board shall place on file for public inspection during business hours a report with respect to investments made pursuant to this section and a report of deposits in financial institutions.
696+100002. (a) (1) There is hereby created within state government the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Investment Board, which shall consist of nine members, with the Treasurer serving as chair, as follows:(A) The Treasurer.(B) The Director of Finance, or his or her the directors designee.(C) The Controller.(D) An individual with retirement savings and investment expertise appointed by the Senate Committee on Rules.(E) An employee representative appointed by the Speaker of the Assembly.(F) A small business representative appointed by the Governor.(G) A public member appointed by the Governor.(H) Two additional members appointed by the Governor.(2) Members of the board appointed by the Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, and the Speaker of the Assembly shall serve at the pleasure of the appointing authority.(b) All members of the board shall serve without compensation. Members of the board shall be reimbursed for necessary travel expenses incurred in connection with their board duties.(c) A board member, program administrator, and other staff of the board shall not do any of the following:(1) Directly or indirectly have any interest in the making of any investment made for the program, or in the gains or profits accruing from any investment made for the program.(2) Borrow any funds or deposits of the trust, or use those funds or deposits in any manner, for himself themselves or herself or as an agent or partner of others.(3) Become an endorser, surety, or obligor on investments by the board.(d) The board and the program administrator and staff, including contracted administrators and consultants, shall discharge their duties as fiduciaries with respect to the trust solely in the interest of the program participants as follows:(1) For the exclusive purposes of providing benefits to program participants and defraying reasonable expenses of administering the program.(2) By investing with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the circumstances then prevailing that a prudent person acting in a like capacity and familiar with those matters would use in the conduct of an enterprise of a like character and with like aims.(e) The board, subject to its authority and fiduciary duty, shall design and implement the CalSavers Retirement Savings Program.(1) (A) For up to three years following the initial implementation of the program, the board shall establish managed accounts invested in United States Treasuries, myRAs, or similar investments.(B) The board shall have the authority to provide for investment in myRAs, provided that, in accordance with the myRA provisions, myRA contributions and investment returns shall only be used for myRA investments and to make distributions to, or for the benefit of, participants and shall not be used to pay any costs of administration.(2) (A)During period described in paragraph (1), the board shall develop and implement an investment policy that defines the programs investment objectives and shall establish policies and procedures enabling investment objectives to be met in a prudent manner. The board shall seek to minimize participant fees and strive to implement program features that provide maximum possible income replacement balanced with appropriate risk in an IRA-based environment. The policy shall describe the investment options available to holders of individual savings accounts established as part of the program. Investment options may encompass a range of risk and return opportunities and allow for a rate of return commensurate with an appropriate level of risk to meet the investment objectives stated in the policy. (B)The board may also develop investment option recommendations that address risk-sharing and smoothing of market losses and gains. Investment option recommendations may include, but are not limited to, the creation of a reserve fund or the establishment of customized investment products. Implementation of an investment option recommendation pursuant to this subparagraph shall be contingent upon subsequent approval by the Legislature. (3) After the period described in paragraph (1) has expired, the board shall annually prepare and adopt a written statement of investment policy that includes a risk management and oversight program. The board shall consider the statement of investment policy and any changes in the investment policy at a public hearing.(4) The risk management and oversight program shall include an effective risk management system to monitor the risk levels of the CalSavers Retirement Savings Program investment portfolio and ensure that the risks taken are prudent and properly managed. The program shall be managed to provide an integrated process for overall risk management on both a consolidated and disaggregated basis, and to monitor investment returns as well as risk to determine if the risks taken are adequately compensated compared to applicable performance benchmarks and standards.(f) The board shall approve an investment management entity or entities, the costs of which shall be paid out of funds held in the trust and shall not be attributed to the administrative costs of the board in operating the trust. Not later than 30 days after the close of each month, the board shall place on file for public inspection during business hours a report with respect to investments made pursuant to this section and a report of deposits in financial institutions.
670697
671-100002. (a) (1) There is hereby created within state government the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Investment Board, which shall consist of nine members, with the Treasurer serving as chair, as follows:(A) The Treasurer.(B) The Director of Finance, or the directors designee.(C) The Controller.(D) An individual with retirement savings and investment expertise appointed by the Senate Committee on Rules.(E) An employee representative appointed by the Speaker of the Assembly.(F) A small business representative appointed by the Governor.(G) A public member appointed by the Governor.(H) Two additional members appointed by the Governor.(2) Members of the board appointed by the Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, and the Speaker of the Assembly shall serve at the pleasure of the appointing authority.(b) All members of the board shall serve without compensation. Members of the board shall be reimbursed for necessary travel expenses incurred in connection with their board duties.(c) A board member, program administrator, and other staff of the board shall not do any of the following:(1) Directly or indirectly have any interest in the making of any investment made for the program, or in the gains or profits accruing from any investment made for the program.(2) Borrow any funds or deposits of the trust, or use those funds or deposits in any manner, for themselves or as an agent or partner of others.(3) Become an endorser, surety, or obligor on investments by the board.(d) The board and the program administrator and staff, including contracted administrators and consultants, shall discharge their duties as fiduciaries with respect to the trust solely in the interest of the program participants as follows:(1) For the exclusive purposes of providing benefits to program participants and defraying reasonable expenses of administering the program.(2) By investing with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the circumstances then prevailing that a prudent person acting in a like capacity and familiar with those matters would use in the conduct of an enterprise of a like character and with like aims.(e) The board, subject to its authority and fiduciary duty, shall design and implement the CalSavers Retirement Savings Program.(1) (A) For up to three years following the initial implementation of the program, the board shall establish managed accounts invested in United States Treasuries, myRAs, or similar investments.(B) The board shall have the authority to provide for investment in myRAs, provided that, in accordance with the myRA provisions, myRA contributions and investment returns shall only be used for myRA investments and to make distributions to, or for the benefit of, participants and shall not be used to pay any costs of administration.(2) During period described in paragraph (1), the board shall develop and implement an investment policy that defines the programs investment objectives and shall establish policies and procedures enabling investment objectives to be met in a prudent manner. The board shall seek to minimize participant fees and strive to implement program features that provide maximum possible income replacement balanced with appropriate risk in an IRA-based environment. The policy shall describe the investment options available to holders of individual savings accounts established as part of the program. Investment options may encompass a range of risk and return opportunities and allow for a rate of return commensurate with an appropriate level of risk to meet the investment objectives stated in the policy.(3) After the period described in paragraph (1) has expired, the board shall annually prepare and adopt a written statement of investment policy that includes a risk management and oversight program. The board shall consider the statement of investment policy and any changes in the investment policy at a public hearing.(4) The risk management and oversight program shall include an effective risk management system to monitor the risk levels of the CalSavers Retirement Savings Program investment portfolio and ensure that the risks taken are prudent and properly managed. The program shall be managed to provide an integrated process for overall risk management on both a consolidated and disaggregated basis, and to monitor investment returns as well as risk to determine if the risks taken are adequately compensated compared to applicable performance benchmarks and standards.(f) The board shall approve an investment management entity or entities, the costs of which shall be paid out of funds held in the trust and shall not be attributed to the administrative costs of the board in operating the trust. Not later than 30 days after the close of each month, the board shall place on file for public inspection during business hours a report with respect to investments made pursuant to this section and a report of deposits in financial institutions.
698+100002. (a) (1) There is hereby created within state government the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Investment Board, which shall consist of nine members, with the Treasurer serving as chair, as follows:(A) The Treasurer.(B) The Director of Finance, or his or her the directors designee.(C) The Controller.(D) An individual with retirement savings and investment expertise appointed by the Senate Committee on Rules.(E) An employee representative appointed by the Speaker of the Assembly.(F) A small business representative appointed by the Governor.(G) A public member appointed by the Governor.(H) Two additional members appointed by the Governor.(2) Members of the board appointed by the Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, and the Speaker of the Assembly shall serve at the pleasure of the appointing authority.(b) All members of the board shall serve without compensation. Members of the board shall be reimbursed for necessary travel expenses incurred in connection with their board duties.(c) A board member, program administrator, and other staff of the board shall not do any of the following:(1) Directly or indirectly have any interest in the making of any investment made for the program, or in the gains or profits accruing from any investment made for the program.(2) Borrow any funds or deposits of the trust, or use those funds or deposits in any manner, for himself themselves or herself or as an agent or partner of others.(3) Become an endorser, surety, or obligor on investments by the board.(d) The board and the program administrator and staff, including contracted administrators and consultants, shall discharge their duties as fiduciaries with respect to the trust solely in the interest of the program participants as follows:(1) For the exclusive purposes of providing benefits to program participants and defraying reasonable expenses of administering the program.(2) By investing with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the circumstances then prevailing that a prudent person acting in a like capacity and familiar with those matters would use in the conduct of an enterprise of a like character and with like aims.(e) The board, subject to its authority and fiduciary duty, shall design and implement the CalSavers Retirement Savings Program.(1) (A) For up to three years following the initial implementation of the program, the board shall establish managed accounts invested in United States Treasuries, myRAs, or similar investments.(B) The board shall have the authority to provide for investment in myRAs, provided that, in accordance with the myRA provisions, myRA contributions and investment returns shall only be used for myRA investments and to make distributions to, or for the benefit of, participants and shall not be used to pay any costs of administration.(2) (A)During period described in paragraph (1), the board shall develop and implement an investment policy that defines the programs investment objectives and shall establish policies and procedures enabling investment objectives to be met in a prudent manner. The board shall seek to minimize participant fees and strive to implement program features that provide maximum possible income replacement balanced with appropriate risk in an IRA-based environment. The policy shall describe the investment options available to holders of individual savings accounts established as part of the program. Investment options may encompass a range of risk and return opportunities and allow for a rate of return commensurate with an appropriate level of risk to meet the investment objectives stated in the policy. (B)The board may also develop investment option recommendations that address risk-sharing and smoothing of market losses and gains. Investment option recommendations may include, but are not limited to, the creation of a reserve fund or the establishment of customized investment products. Implementation of an investment option recommendation pursuant to this subparagraph shall be contingent upon subsequent approval by the Legislature. (3) After the period described in paragraph (1) has expired, the board shall annually prepare and adopt a written statement of investment policy that includes a risk management and oversight program. The board shall consider the statement of investment policy and any changes in the investment policy at a public hearing.(4) The risk management and oversight program shall include an effective risk management system to monitor the risk levels of the CalSavers Retirement Savings Program investment portfolio and ensure that the risks taken are prudent and properly managed. The program shall be managed to provide an integrated process for overall risk management on both a consolidated and disaggregated basis, and to monitor investment returns as well as risk to determine if the risks taken are adequately compensated compared to applicable performance benchmarks and standards.(f) The board shall approve an investment management entity or entities, the costs of which shall be paid out of funds held in the trust and shall not be attributed to the administrative costs of the board in operating the trust. Not later than 30 days after the close of each month, the board shall place on file for public inspection during business hours a report with respect to investments made pursuant to this section and a report of deposits in financial institutions.
672699
673-100002. (a) (1) There is hereby created within state government the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Investment Board, which shall consist of nine members, with the Treasurer serving as chair, as follows:(A) The Treasurer.(B) The Director of Finance, or the directors designee.(C) The Controller.(D) An individual with retirement savings and investment expertise appointed by the Senate Committee on Rules.(E) An employee representative appointed by the Speaker of the Assembly.(F) A small business representative appointed by the Governor.(G) A public member appointed by the Governor.(H) Two additional members appointed by the Governor.(2) Members of the board appointed by the Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, and the Speaker of the Assembly shall serve at the pleasure of the appointing authority.(b) All members of the board shall serve without compensation. Members of the board shall be reimbursed for necessary travel expenses incurred in connection with their board duties.(c) A board member, program administrator, and other staff of the board shall not do any of the following:(1) Directly or indirectly have any interest in the making of any investment made for the program, or in the gains or profits accruing from any investment made for the program.(2) Borrow any funds or deposits of the trust, or use those funds or deposits in any manner, for themselves or as an agent or partner of others.(3) Become an endorser, surety, or obligor on investments by the board.(d) The board and the program administrator and staff, including contracted administrators and consultants, shall discharge their duties as fiduciaries with respect to the trust solely in the interest of the program participants as follows:(1) For the exclusive purposes of providing benefits to program participants and defraying reasonable expenses of administering the program.(2) By investing with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the circumstances then prevailing that a prudent person acting in a like capacity and familiar with those matters would use in the conduct of an enterprise of a like character and with like aims.(e) The board, subject to its authority and fiduciary duty, shall design and implement the CalSavers Retirement Savings Program.(1) (A) For up to three years following the initial implementation of the program, the board shall establish managed accounts invested in United States Treasuries, myRAs, or similar investments.(B) The board shall have the authority to provide for investment in myRAs, provided that, in accordance with the myRA provisions, myRA contributions and investment returns shall only be used for myRA investments and to make distributions to, or for the benefit of, participants and shall not be used to pay any costs of administration.(2) During period described in paragraph (1), the board shall develop and implement an investment policy that defines the programs investment objectives and shall establish policies and procedures enabling investment objectives to be met in a prudent manner. The board shall seek to minimize participant fees and strive to implement program features that provide maximum possible income replacement balanced with appropriate risk in an IRA-based environment. The policy shall describe the investment options available to holders of individual savings accounts established as part of the program. Investment options may encompass a range of risk and return opportunities and allow for a rate of return commensurate with an appropriate level of risk to meet the investment objectives stated in the policy.(3) After the period described in paragraph (1) has expired, the board shall annually prepare and adopt a written statement of investment policy that includes a risk management and oversight program. The board shall consider the statement of investment policy and any changes in the investment policy at a public hearing.(4) The risk management and oversight program shall include an effective risk management system to monitor the risk levels of the CalSavers Retirement Savings Program investment portfolio and ensure that the risks taken are prudent and properly managed. The program shall be managed to provide an integrated process for overall risk management on both a consolidated and disaggregated basis, and to monitor investment returns as well as risk to determine if the risks taken are adequately compensated compared to applicable performance benchmarks and standards.(f) The board shall approve an investment management entity or entities, the costs of which shall be paid out of funds held in the trust and shall not be attributed to the administrative costs of the board in operating the trust. Not later than 30 days after the close of each month, the board shall place on file for public inspection during business hours a report with respect to investments made pursuant to this section and a report of deposits in financial institutions.
700+100002. (a) (1) There is hereby created within state government the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Investment Board, which shall consist of nine members, with the Treasurer serving as chair, as follows:(A) The Treasurer.(B) The Director of Finance, or his or her the directors designee.(C) The Controller.(D) An individual with retirement savings and investment expertise appointed by the Senate Committee on Rules.(E) An employee representative appointed by the Speaker of the Assembly.(F) A small business representative appointed by the Governor.(G) A public member appointed by the Governor.(H) Two additional members appointed by the Governor.(2) Members of the board appointed by the Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, and the Speaker of the Assembly shall serve at the pleasure of the appointing authority.(b) All members of the board shall serve without compensation. Members of the board shall be reimbursed for necessary travel expenses incurred in connection with their board duties.(c) A board member, program administrator, and other staff of the board shall not do any of the following:(1) Directly or indirectly have any interest in the making of any investment made for the program, or in the gains or profits accruing from any investment made for the program.(2) Borrow any funds or deposits of the trust, or use those funds or deposits in any manner, for himself themselves or herself or as an agent or partner of others.(3) Become an endorser, surety, or obligor on investments by the board.(d) The board and the program administrator and staff, including contracted administrators and consultants, shall discharge their duties as fiduciaries with respect to the trust solely in the interest of the program participants as follows:(1) For the exclusive purposes of providing benefits to program participants and defraying reasonable expenses of administering the program.(2) By investing with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the circumstances then prevailing that a prudent person acting in a like capacity and familiar with those matters would use in the conduct of an enterprise of a like character and with like aims.(e) The board, subject to its authority and fiduciary duty, shall design and implement the CalSavers Retirement Savings Program.(1) (A) For up to three years following the initial implementation of the program, the board shall establish managed accounts invested in United States Treasuries, myRAs, or similar investments.(B) The board shall have the authority to provide for investment in myRAs, provided that, in accordance with the myRA provisions, myRA contributions and investment returns shall only be used for myRA investments and to make distributions to, or for the benefit of, participants and shall not be used to pay any costs of administration.(2) (A)During period described in paragraph (1), the board shall develop and implement an investment policy that defines the programs investment objectives and shall establish policies and procedures enabling investment objectives to be met in a prudent manner. The board shall seek to minimize participant fees and strive to implement program features that provide maximum possible income replacement balanced with appropriate risk in an IRA-based environment. The policy shall describe the investment options available to holders of individual savings accounts established as part of the program. Investment options may encompass a range of risk and return opportunities and allow for a rate of return commensurate with an appropriate level of risk to meet the investment objectives stated in the policy. (B)The board may also develop investment option recommendations that address risk-sharing and smoothing of market losses and gains. Investment option recommendations may include, but are not limited to, the creation of a reserve fund or the establishment of customized investment products. Implementation of an investment option recommendation pursuant to this subparagraph shall be contingent upon subsequent approval by the Legislature. (3) After the period described in paragraph (1) has expired, the board shall annually prepare and adopt a written statement of investment policy that includes a risk management and oversight program. The board shall consider the statement of investment policy and any changes in the investment policy at a public hearing.(4) The risk management and oversight program shall include an effective risk management system to monitor the risk levels of the CalSavers Retirement Savings Program investment portfolio and ensure that the risks taken are prudent and properly managed. The program shall be managed to provide an integrated process for overall risk management on both a consolidated and disaggregated basis, and to monitor investment returns as well as risk to determine if the risks taken are adequately compensated compared to applicable performance benchmarks and standards.(f) The board shall approve an investment management entity or entities, the costs of which shall be paid out of funds held in the trust and shall not be attributed to the administrative costs of the board in operating the trust. Not later than 30 days after the close of each month, the board shall place on file for public inspection during business hours a report with respect to investments made pursuant to this section and a report of deposits in financial institutions.
674701
675702
676703
677704 100002. (a) (1) There is hereby created within state government the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Investment Board, which shall consist of nine members, with the Treasurer serving as chair, as follows:
678705
679706 (A) The Treasurer.
680707
681-(B) The Director of Finance, or the directors designee.
708+(B) The Director of Finance, or his or her the directors designee.
682709
683710 (C) The Controller.
684711
685712 (D) An individual with retirement savings and investment expertise appointed by the Senate Committee on Rules.
686713
687714 (E) An employee representative appointed by the Speaker of the Assembly.
688715
689716 (F) A small business representative appointed by the Governor.
690717
691718 (G) A public member appointed by the Governor.
692719
693720 (H) Two additional members appointed by the Governor.
694721
695722 (2) Members of the board appointed by the Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, and the Speaker of the Assembly shall serve at the pleasure of the appointing authority.
696723
697724 (b) All members of the board shall serve without compensation. Members of the board shall be reimbursed for necessary travel expenses incurred in connection with their board duties.
698725
699726 (c) A board member, program administrator, and other staff of the board shall not do any of the following:
700727
701728 (1) Directly or indirectly have any interest in the making of any investment made for the program, or in the gains or profits accruing from any investment made for the program.
702729
703-(2) Borrow any funds or deposits of the trust, or use those funds or deposits in any manner, for themselves or as an agent or partner of others.
730+(2) Borrow any funds or deposits of the trust, or use those funds or deposits in any manner, for himself themselves or herself or as an agent or partner of others.
704731
705732 (3) Become an endorser, surety, or obligor on investments by the board.
706733
707734 (d) The board and the program administrator and staff, including contracted administrators and consultants, shall discharge their duties as fiduciaries with respect to the trust solely in the interest of the program participants as follows:
708735
709736 (1) For the exclusive purposes of providing benefits to program participants and defraying reasonable expenses of administering the program.
710737
711738 (2) By investing with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the circumstances then prevailing that a prudent person acting in a like capacity and familiar with those matters would use in the conduct of an enterprise of a like character and with like aims.
712739
713740 (e) The board, subject to its authority and fiduciary duty, shall design and implement the CalSavers Retirement Savings Program.
714741
715742 (1) (A) For up to three years following the initial implementation of the program, the board shall establish managed accounts invested in United States Treasuries, myRAs, or similar investments.
716743
717744 (B) The board shall have the authority to provide for investment in myRAs, provided that, in accordance with the myRA provisions, myRA contributions and investment returns shall only be used for myRA investments and to make distributions to, or for the benefit of, participants and shall not be used to pay any costs of administration.
718745
719-(2) During period described in paragraph (1), the board shall develop and implement an investment policy that defines the programs investment objectives and shall establish policies and procedures enabling investment objectives to be met in a prudent manner. The board shall seek to minimize participant fees and strive to implement program features that provide maximum possible income replacement balanced with appropriate risk in an IRA-based environment. The policy shall describe the investment options available to holders of individual savings accounts established as part of the program. Investment options may encompass a range of risk and return opportunities and allow for a rate of return commensurate with an appropriate level of risk to meet the investment objectives stated in the policy.
746+(2) (A)During period described in paragraph (1), the board shall develop and implement an investment policy that defines the programs investment objectives and shall establish policies and procedures enabling investment objectives to be met in a prudent manner. The board shall seek to minimize participant fees and strive to implement program features that provide maximum possible income replacement balanced with appropriate risk in an IRA-based environment. The policy shall describe the investment options available to holders of individual savings accounts established as part of the program. Investment options may encompass a range of risk and return opportunities and allow for a rate of return commensurate with an appropriate level of risk to meet the investment objectives stated in the policy.
747+
748+(B)The board may also develop investment option recommendations that address risk-sharing and smoothing of market losses and gains. Investment option recommendations may include, but are not limited to, the creation of a reserve fund or the establishment of customized investment products. Implementation of an investment option recommendation pursuant to this subparagraph shall be contingent upon subsequent approval by the Legislature.
749+
750+
720751
721752 (3) After the period described in paragraph (1) has expired, the board shall annually prepare and adopt a written statement of investment policy that includes a risk management and oversight program. The board shall consider the statement of investment policy and any changes in the investment policy at a public hearing.
722753
723754 (4) The risk management and oversight program shall include an effective risk management system to monitor the risk levels of the CalSavers Retirement Savings Program investment portfolio and ensure that the risks taken are prudent and properly managed. The program shall be managed to provide an integrated process for overall risk management on both a consolidated and disaggregated basis, and to monitor investment returns as well as risk to determine if the risks taken are adequately compensated compared to applicable performance benchmarks and standards.
724755
725756 (f) The board shall approve an investment management entity or entities, the costs of which shall be paid out of funds held in the trust and shall not be attributed to the administrative costs of the board in operating the trust. Not later than 30 days after the close of each month, the board shall place on file for public inspection during business hours a report with respect to investments made pursuant to this section and a report of deposits in financial institutions.
726757
727-SEC. 8. Section 100006 of the Government Code is repealed.
758+SEC. 8. Section 100006 of the Government Code is repealed.100006.(a)The board may establish a segregated account within the program fund to be known as the Gain and Loss Reserve Account. The board shall have sole authority over the Gain and Loss Reserve Account, if established. The Gain and Loss Reserve Account may be used to allocate interest at the stated interest rate for program years in which the board determines that the stated interest rate cannot be met from investment earnings.(b)The board shall establish a goal for the balance of the Gain and Loss Reserve Account and shall periodically review the sufficiency of the reserve account based on the recommendations of the boards actuary.(c)The board may allocate excess earnings of the program with respect to assets attributable to the program to the Gain and Loss Reserve Account. In addition, the board may allocate any liability gains and losses to the Gain and Loss Reserve Account. Based on an actuarial valuation following each program year, the board shall determine annually the amount, if any, that is to be allocated to the Gain and Loss Reserve Account for that program year. In determining whether to allocate excess earnings to the Gain and Loss Reserve Account, the board shall consider all of the following:(1)Whether or not the program has excess earnings.(2)The sufficiency of the Gain and Loss Reserve Account in light of the goal established pursuant to subdivision (b).(3)The amount required for the programs administrative costs.(4)The amount required for making allocations to individuals accounts at the stated interest rate.(d)In determining whether to allocate liability gains and losses to the Gain and Loss Reserve Account, the board shall consider the matters described in paragraphs (2), (3), and (4) of subdivision (c).
728759
729760 SEC. 8. Section 100006 of the Government Code is repealed.
730761
731762 ### SEC. 8.
732763
764+100006.(a)The board may establish a segregated account within the program fund to be known as the Gain and Loss Reserve Account. The board shall have sole authority over the Gain and Loss Reserve Account, if established. The Gain and Loss Reserve Account may be used to allocate interest at the stated interest rate for program years in which the board determines that the stated interest rate cannot be met from investment earnings.(b)The board shall establish a goal for the balance of the Gain and Loss Reserve Account and shall periodically review the sufficiency of the reserve account based on the recommendations of the boards actuary.(c)The board may allocate excess earnings of the program with respect to assets attributable to the program to the Gain and Loss Reserve Account. In addition, the board may allocate any liability gains and losses to the Gain and Loss Reserve Account. Based on an actuarial valuation following each program year, the board shall determine annually the amount, if any, that is to be allocated to the Gain and Loss Reserve Account for that program year. In determining whether to allocate excess earnings to the Gain and Loss Reserve Account, the board shall consider all of the following:(1)Whether or not the program has excess earnings.(2)The sufficiency of the Gain and Loss Reserve Account in light of the goal established pursuant to subdivision (b).(3)The amount required for the programs administrative costs.(4)The amount required for making allocations to individuals accounts at the stated interest rate.(d)In determining whether to allocate liability gains and losses to the Gain and Loss Reserve Account, the board shall consider the matters described in paragraphs (2), (3), and (4) of subdivision (c).
733765
734766
735-SEC. 9. Section 11495 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read:11495. (a) The funds received by the law enforcement agencies under Section 11489 shall be deposited into an account maintained by the Controller, county auditor, or city treasurer. These funds shall be distributed to the law enforcement agencies at their request. The Controller, auditor, or treasurer shall maintain a record of these disbursements which records shall be open to public inspection, subject to the privileges contained in Sections 1040, 1041, and 1042 of the Evidence Code.(b) Upon request of the governing body of the jurisdiction in which the distributions are made, the Controller, auditor, or treasurer shall conduct an audit of these funds and their use. In the case of the state, the governing body shall be the Legislature.(c) Each year, the Attorney General shall publish a report that sets forth the following information for the state, each county, each city, and each city and county:(1) The number of forfeiture actions initiated and administered by state or local agencies under California law, the number of cases adopted by the federal government, and the number of cases initiated by a joint federal-state action that were prosecuted under federal law.(2) The number of cases and the administrative number or court docket number of each case for which forfeiture was ordered or declared.(3) The number of suspects charged with a controlled substance violation.(4) The number of alleged criminal offenses that were under federal or state law.(5) The disposition of cases, including no charge, dropped charges, acquittal, plea agreement, jury conviction, or other.(6) The value of the assets forfeited.(7) The recipients of the forfeited assets, the amounts received, and the date of the disbursement.(d) The Attorney General shall develop administrative guidelines for the collection and publication of the information required in subdivision (c).(e) The Attorney Generals report shall cover the calendar year and shall be made no later than July 1 of each year.
767+
768+(a)The board may establish a segregated account within the program fund to be known as the Gain and Loss Reserve Account. The board shall have sole authority over the Gain and Loss Reserve Account, if established. The Gain and Loss Reserve Account may be used to allocate interest at the stated interest rate for program years in which the board determines that the stated interest rate cannot be met from investment earnings.
769+
770+
771+
772+(b)The board shall establish a goal for the balance of the Gain and Loss Reserve Account and shall periodically review the sufficiency of the reserve account based on the recommendations of the boards actuary.
773+
774+
775+
776+(c)The board may allocate excess earnings of the program with respect to assets attributable to the program to the Gain and Loss Reserve Account. In addition, the board may allocate any liability gains and losses to the Gain and Loss Reserve Account. Based on an actuarial valuation following each program year, the board shall determine annually the amount, if any, that is to be allocated to the Gain and Loss Reserve Account for that program year. In determining whether to allocate excess earnings to the Gain and Loss Reserve Account, the board shall consider all of the following:
777+
778+
779+
780+(1)Whether or not the program has excess earnings.
781+
782+
783+
784+(2)The sufficiency of the Gain and Loss Reserve Account in light of the goal established pursuant to subdivision (b).
785+
786+
787+
788+(3)The amount required for the programs administrative costs.
789+
790+
791+
792+(4)The amount required for making allocations to individuals accounts at the stated interest rate.
793+
794+
795+
796+(d)In determining whether to allocate liability gains and losses to the Gain and Loss Reserve Account, the board shall consider the matters described in paragraphs (2), (3), and (4) of subdivision (c).
797+
798+
799+
800+SEC. 9. Section 11495 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read:11495. (a) The funds received by the law enforcement agencies under Section 11489 shall be deposited into an account maintained by the Controller, county auditor, or city treasurer. These funds shall be distributed to the law enforcement agencies at their request. The Controller, auditor, or treasurer shall maintain a record of these disbursements which records shall be open to public inspection, subject to the privileges contained in Sections 1040, 1041, and 1042 of the Evidence Code.(b) Upon request of the governing body of the jurisdiction in which the distributions are made, the Controller, auditor, or treasurer shall conduct an audit of these funds and their use. In the case of the state, the governing body shall be the Legislature.(c) Each year, the Attorney General shall publish a report which that sets forth the following information for the state, each county, each city, and each city and county:(1) The number of forfeiture actions initiated and administered by state or local agencies under California law, the number of cases adopted by the federal government, and the number of cases initiated by a joint federal-state action that were prosecuted under federal law.(2) The number of cases and the administrative number or court docket number of each case for which forfeiture was ordered or declared.(3) The number of suspects charged with a controlled substance violation.(4) The number of alleged criminal offenses that were under federal or state law.(5) The disposition of cases, including no charge, dropped charges, acquittal, plea agreement, jury conviction, or other.(6) The value of the assets forfeited.(7) The recipients of the forfeited assets, the amounts received, and the date of the disbursement.(d) The Attorney General shall develop administrative guidelines for the collection and publication of the information required in subdivision (c).(e) The Attorney Generals report shall cover the calendar year and shall be made no later than March July 1 of each year beginning with the year after the enactment of this law. year.
736801
737802 SEC. 9. Section 11495 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read:
738803
739804 ### SEC. 9.
740805
741-11495. (a) The funds received by the law enforcement agencies under Section 11489 shall be deposited into an account maintained by the Controller, county auditor, or city treasurer. These funds shall be distributed to the law enforcement agencies at their request. The Controller, auditor, or treasurer shall maintain a record of these disbursements which records shall be open to public inspection, subject to the privileges contained in Sections 1040, 1041, and 1042 of the Evidence Code.(b) Upon request of the governing body of the jurisdiction in which the distributions are made, the Controller, auditor, or treasurer shall conduct an audit of these funds and their use. In the case of the state, the governing body shall be the Legislature.(c) Each year, the Attorney General shall publish a report that sets forth the following information for the state, each county, each city, and each city and county:(1) The number of forfeiture actions initiated and administered by state or local agencies under California law, the number of cases adopted by the federal government, and the number of cases initiated by a joint federal-state action that were prosecuted under federal law.(2) The number of cases and the administrative number or court docket number of each case for which forfeiture was ordered or declared.(3) The number of suspects charged with a controlled substance violation.(4) The number of alleged criminal offenses that were under federal or state law.(5) The disposition of cases, including no charge, dropped charges, acquittal, plea agreement, jury conviction, or other.(6) The value of the assets forfeited.(7) The recipients of the forfeited assets, the amounts received, and the date of the disbursement.(d) The Attorney General shall develop administrative guidelines for the collection and publication of the information required in subdivision (c).(e) The Attorney Generals report shall cover the calendar year and shall be made no later than July 1 of each year.
806+11495. (a) The funds received by the law enforcement agencies under Section 11489 shall be deposited into an account maintained by the Controller, county auditor, or city treasurer. These funds shall be distributed to the law enforcement agencies at their request. The Controller, auditor, or treasurer shall maintain a record of these disbursements which records shall be open to public inspection, subject to the privileges contained in Sections 1040, 1041, and 1042 of the Evidence Code.(b) Upon request of the governing body of the jurisdiction in which the distributions are made, the Controller, auditor, or treasurer shall conduct an audit of these funds and their use. In the case of the state, the governing body shall be the Legislature.(c) Each year, the Attorney General shall publish a report which that sets forth the following information for the state, each county, each city, and each city and county:(1) The number of forfeiture actions initiated and administered by state or local agencies under California law, the number of cases adopted by the federal government, and the number of cases initiated by a joint federal-state action that were prosecuted under federal law.(2) The number of cases and the administrative number or court docket number of each case for which forfeiture was ordered or declared.(3) The number of suspects charged with a controlled substance violation.(4) The number of alleged criminal offenses that were under federal or state law.(5) The disposition of cases, including no charge, dropped charges, acquittal, plea agreement, jury conviction, or other.(6) The value of the assets forfeited.(7) The recipients of the forfeited assets, the amounts received, and the date of the disbursement.(d) The Attorney General shall develop administrative guidelines for the collection and publication of the information required in subdivision (c).(e) The Attorney Generals report shall cover the calendar year and shall be made no later than March July 1 of each year beginning with the year after the enactment of this law. year.
742807
743-11495. (a) The funds received by the law enforcement agencies under Section 11489 shall be deposited into an account maintained by the Controller, county auditor, or city treasurer. These funds shall be distributed to the law enforcement agencies at their request. The Controller, auditor, or treasurer shall maintain a record of these disbursements which records shall be open to public inspection, subject to the privileges contained in Sections 1040, 1041, and 1042 of the Evidence Code.(b) Upon request of the governing body of the jurisdiction in which the distributions are made, the Controller, auditor, or treasurer shall conduct an audit of these funds and their use. In the case of the state, the governing body shall be the Legislature.(c) Each year, the Attorney General shall publish a report that sets forth the following information for the state, each county, each city, and each city and county:(1) The number of forfeiture actions initiated and administered by state or local agencies under California law, the number of cases adopted by the federal government, and the number of cases initiated by a joint federal-state action that were prosecuted under federal law.(2) The number of cases and the administrative number or court docket number of each case for which forfeiture was ordered or declared.(3) The number of suspects charged with a controlled substance violation.(4) The number of alleged criminal offenses that were under federal or state law.(5) The disposition of cases, including no charge, dropped charges, acquittal, plea agreement, jury conviction, or other.(6) The value of the assets forfeited.(7) The recipients of the forfeited assets, the amounts received, and the date of the disbursement.(d) The Attorney General shall develop administrative guidelines for the collection and publication of the information required in subdivision (c).(e) The Attorney Generals report shall cover the calendar year and shall be made no later than July 1 of each year.
808+11495. (a) The funds received by the law enforcement agencies under Section 11489 shall be deposited into an account maintained by the Controller, county auditor, or city treasurer. These funds shall be distributed to the law enforcement agencies at their request. The Controller, auditor, or treasurer shall maintain a record of these disbursements which records shall be open to public inspection, subject to the privileges contained in Sections 1040, 1041, and 1042 of the Evidence Code.(b) Upon request of the governing body of the jurisdiction in which the distributions are made, the Controller, auditor, or treasurer shall conduct an audit of these funds and their use. In the case of the state, the governing body shall be the Legislature.(c) Each year, the Attorney General shall publish a report which that sets forth the following information for the state, each county, each city, and each city and county:(1) The number of forfeiture actions initiated and administered by state or local agencies under California law, the number of cases adopted by the federal government, and the number of cases initiated by a joint federal-state action that were prosecuted under federal law.(2) The number of cases and the administrative number or court docket number of each case for which forfeiture was ordered or declared.(3) The number of suspects charged with a controlled substance violation.(4) The number of alleged criminal offenses that were under federal or state law.(5) The disposition of cases, including no charge, dropped charges, acquittal, plea agreement, jury conviction, or other.(6) The value of the assets forfeited.(7) The recipients of the forfeited assets, the amounts received, and the date of the disbursement.(d) The Attorney General shall develop administrative guidelines for the collection and publication of the information required in subdivision (c).(e) The Attorney Generals report shall cover the calendar year and shall be made no later than March July 1 of each year beginning with the year after the enactment of this law. year.
744809
745-11495. (a) The funds received by the law enforcement agencies under Section 11489 shall be deposited into an account maintained by the Controller, county auditor, or city treasurer. These funds shall be distributed to the law enforcement agencies at their request. The Controller, auditor, or treasurer shall maintain a record of these disbursements which records shall be open to public inspection, subject to the privileges contained in Sections 1040, 1041, and 1042 of the Evidence Code.(b) Upon request of the governing body of the jurisdiction in which the distributions are made, the Controller, auditor, or treasurer shall conduct an audit of these funds and their use. In the case of the state, the governing body shall be the Legislature.(c) Each year, the Attorney General shall publish a report that sets forth the following information for the state, each county, each city, and each city and county:(1) The number of forfeiture actions initiated and administered by state or local agencies under California law, the number of cases adopted by the federal government, and the number of cases initiated by a joint federal-state action that were prosecuted under federal law.(2) The number of cases and the administrative number or court docket number of each case for which forfeiture was ordered or declared.(3) The number of suspects charged with a controlled substance violation.(4) The number of alleged criminal offenses that were under federal or state law.(5) The disposition of cases, including no charge, dropped charges, acquittal, plea agreement, jury conviction, or other.(6) The value of the assets forfeited.(7) The recipients of the forfeited assets, the amounts received, and the date of the disbursement.(d) The Attorney General shall develop administrative guidelines for the collection and publication of the information required in subdivision (c).(e) The Attorney Generals report shall cover the calendar year and shall be made no later than July 1 of each year.
810+11495. (a) The funds received by the law enforcement agencies under Section 11489 shall be deposited into an account maintained by the Controller, county auditor, or city treasurer. These funds shall be distributed to the law enforcement agencies at their request. The Controller, auditor, or treasurer shall maintain a record of these disbursements which records shall be open to public inspection, subject to the privileges contained in Sections 1040, 1041, and 1042 of the Evidence Code.(b) Upon request of the governing body of the jurisdiction in which the distributions are made, the Controller, auditor, or treasurer shall conduct an audit of these funds and their use. In the case of the state, the governing body shall be the Legislature.(c) Each year, the Attorney General shall publish a report which that sets forth the following information for the state, each county, each city, and each city and county:(1) The number of forfeiture actions initiated and administered by state or local agencies under California law, the number of cases adopted by the federal government, and the number of cases initiated by a joint federal-state action that were prosecuted under federal law.(2) The number of cases and the administrative number or court docket number of each case for which forfeiture was ordered or declared.(3) The number of suspects charged with a controlled substance violation.(4) The number of alleged criminal offenses that were under federal or state law.(5) The disposition of cases, including no charge, dropped charges, acquittal, plea agreement, jury conviction, or other.(6) The value of the assets forfeited.(7) The recipients of the forfeited assets, the amounts received, and the date of the disbursement.(d) The Attorney General shall develop administrative guidelines for the collection and publication of the information required in subdivision (c).(e) The Attorney Generals report shall cover the calendar year and shall be made no later than March July 1 of each year beginning with the year after the enactment of this law. year.
746811
747812
748813
749814 11495. (a) The funds received by the law enforcement agencies under Section 11489 shall be deposited into an account maintained by the Controller, county auditor, or city treasurer. These funds shall be distributed to the law enforcement agencies at their request. The Controller, auditor, or treasurer shall maintain a record of these disbursements which records shall be open to public inspection, subject to the privileges contained in Sections 1040, 1041, and 1042 of the Evidence Code.
750815
751816 (b) Upon request of the governing body of the jurisdiction in which the distributions are made, the Controller, auditor, or treasurer shall conduct an audit of these funds and their use. In the case of the state, the governing body shall be the Legislature.
752817
753-(c) Each year, the Attorney General shall publish a report that sets forth the following information for the state, each county, each city, and each city and county:
818+(c) Each year, the Attorney General shall publish a report which that sets forth the following information for the state, each county, each city, and each city and county:
754819
755820 (1) The number of forfeiture actions initiated and administered by state or local agencies under California law, the number of cases adopted by the federal government, and the number of cases initiated by a joint federal-state action that were prosecuted under federal law.
756821
757822 (2) The number of cases and the administrative number or court docket number of each case for which forfeiture was ordered or declared.
758823
759824 (3) The number of suspects charged with a controlled substance violation.
760825
761826 (4) The number of alleged criminal offenses that were under federal or state law.
762827
763828 (5) The disposition of cases, including no charge, dropped charges, acquittal, plea agreement, jury conviction, or other.
764829
765830 (6) The value of the assets forfeited.
766831
767832 (7) The recipients of the forfeited assets, the amounts received, and the date of the disbursement.
768833
769834 (d) The Attorney General shall develop administrative guidelines for the collection and publication of the information required in subdivision (c).
770835
771-(e) The Attorney Generals report shall cover the calendar year and shall be made no later than July 1 of each year.
836+(e) The Attorney Generals report shall cover the calendar year and shall be made no later than March July 1 of each year beginning with the year after the enactment of this law. year.
772837
773-SEC. 10. Section 1019.2 of the Labor Code is amended to read:1019.2. (a) Except as otherwise required by federal law, a public or private employer, or a person acting on behalf of a public or private employer, shall not reverify the employment eligibility of a current employee at a time or in a manner not required by Section 1324a(b) of Title 8 of the United States Code.(b) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), an employer who violates subdivision (a) shall be subject to a civil penalty of up to ten thousand dollars ($10,000). The penalty shall be recoverable by the Labor Commissioner.(2) The actions of an employer that violate subdivision (a) and result in a civil penalty under paragraph (1) shall not also form the basis for liability or penalty under Section 1019.1.(c) Subdivision (a) shall be interpreted and applied consistent with federal law and regulations. This section does not prohibit an employer from doing any of the following:(1) Reverifying an employees employment authorization in a time and manner consistent with Section 274a.2(b)(1)(vii) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations.(2) Taking any lawful action to review the employment authorization of an employee upon knowing that the employee is, or has become, unauthorized to be employed in the United States, consistent with Section 1324a(a)(2) of Title 8 of the United States Code, including in response to specific and detailed information from any agency within the United States Department of Homeland Security indicating that an employee is not authorized to be employed in the United States.(3) Reminding an employee, at least 90 days before the date reverification is required, that the employee will be required to present a document identified in List A or a combination of one document from List B and one document from List C, as required by the I-9 Employment Eligibility Verification Form, showing continued employment authorization on the date that their current employment authorization will expire or on the date that their current documentation will expire, whichever date is sooner.(4) Taking any lawful action to correct errors or omissions in a missing or incomplete I-9 Employment Eligibility Verification Form.(d) In accordance with state and federal law, nothing in this chapter shall be interpreted, construed, or applied to restrict or limit an employers compliance with a memorandum of understanding governing the use of the federal E-Verify system.(e) For purposes of this section, the term knowing is defined as set forth in Section 274a.1(l) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations and as interpreted by applicable federal rules, regulations, and controlling federal case law. The term knowing includes not only actual knowledge, but also knowledge that may fairly be inferred through notice of certain facts and circumstances that would lead a person, through the exercise of reasonable care, to know about a certain condition. Constructive knowledge may be found under the circumstances described in Section 274a.1(l)(2) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations and may not be inferred from an employees foreign appearance or accent.
838+SEC. 10. Section 1019.2 of the Labor Code is amended to read:1019.2. (a) Except as otherwise required by federal law, a public or private employer, or a person acting on behalf of a public or private employer, shall not reverify the employment eligibility of a current employee at a time or in a manner not required by Section 1324a(b) of Title 8 of the United States Code.(b) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), an employer who violates subdivision (a) shall be subject to a civil penalty of up to ten thousand dollars ($10,000). The penalty shall be recoverable by the Labor Commissioner.(2) The actions of an employer that violate subdivision (a) and result in a civil penalty under paragraph (1) shall not also form the basis for liability or penalty under Section 1019.1.(c) Subdivision (a) shall be interpreted and applied consistent with federal law and regulations. This section does not prohibit an employer from doing any of the following:(1) Reverifying an employees employment authorization in a time and manner consistent with Section 274a.2(b)(1)(vii) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations.(2) Taking any lawful action to review the employment authorization of an employee upon knowing that the employee is, or has become, unauthorized to be employed in the United States, consistent with Section 1324a(a)(2) of Title 8 of the United States Code, including in response to specific and detailed information from any agency within the United States Department of Homeland Security indicating that an employee is not authorized to be employed in the United States.(3) Reminding an employee, at least 90 days before the date reverification is required, that the employee will be required to present a document identified in List A or a combination of one document from List B and one document from List C, as required by the I-9 Employment Eligibility Verification Form, showing continued employment authorization on the date that their current employment authorization will expire or on the date that their current documentation will expire, whichever date is sooner.(4) Taking any lawful action to correct errors or omissions in a missing or incomplete I-9 Employment Eligibility Verification Form.(c)(d) In accordance with state and federal law, nothing in this chapter shall be interpreted, construed, or applied to restrict or limit an employers compliance with a memorandum of understanding governing the use of the federal E-Verify system.(e) For purposes of this section, the term knowing is defined as set forth in Section 274a.1(l) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations and as interpreted by applicable federal rules, regulations, and controlling federal case law. The term knowing includes not only actual knowledge, but also knowledge that may fairly be inferred through notice of certain facts and circumstances that would lead a person, through the exercise of reasonable care, to know about a certain condition. Constructive knowledge may be found under the circumstances described in Section 274a.1(l)(2) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations and may not be inferred from an employees foreign appearance or accent.
774839
775840 SEC. 10. Section 1019.2 of the Labor Code is amended to read:
776841
777842 ### SEC. 10.
778843
779-1019.2. (a) Except as otherwise required by federal law, a public or private employer, or a person acting on behalf of a public or private employer, shall not reverify the employment eligibility of a current employee at a time or in a manner not required by Section 1324a(b) of Title 8 of the United States Code.(b) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), an employer who violates subdivision (a) shall be subject to a civil penalty of up to ten thousand dollars ($10,000). The penalty shall be recoverable by the Labor Commissioner.(2) The actions of an employer that violate subdivision (a) and result in a civil penalty under paragraph (1) shall not also form the basis for liability or penalty under Section 1019.1.(c) Subdivision (a) shall be interpreted and applied consistent with federal law and regulations. This section does not prohibit an employer from doing any of the following:(1) Reverifying an employees employment authorization in a time and manner consistent with Section 274a.2(b)(1)(vii) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations.(2) Taking any lawful action to review the employment authorization of an employee upon knowing that the employee is, or has become, unauthorized to be employed in the United States, consistent with Section 1324a(a)(2) of Title 8 of the United States Code, including in response to specific and detailed information from any agency within the United States Department of Homeland Security indicating that an employee is not authorized to be employed in the United States.(3) Reminding an employee, at least 90 days before the date reverification is required, that the employee will be required to present a document identified in List A or a combination of one document from List B and one document from List C, as required by the I-9 Employment Eligibility Verification Form, showing continued employment authorization on the date that their current employment authorization will expire or on the date that their current documentation will expire, whichever date is sooner.(4) Taking any lawful action to correct errors or omissions in a missing or incomplete I-9 Employment Eligibility Verification Form.(d) In accordance with state and federal law, nothing in this chapter shall be interpreted, construed, or applied to restrict or limit an employers compliance with a memorandum of understanding governing the use of the federal E-Verify system.(e) For purposes of this section, the term knowing is defined as set forth in Section 274a.1(l) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations and as interpreted by applicable federal rules, regulations, and controlling federal case law. The term knowing includes not only actual knowledge, but also knowledge that may fairly be inferred through notice of certain facts and circumstances that would lead a person, through the exercise of reasonable care, to know about a certain condition. Constructive knowledge may be found under the circumstances described in Section 274a.1(l)(2) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations and may not be inferred from an employees foreign appearance or accent.
844+1019.2. (a) Except as otherwise required by federal law, a public or private employer, or a person acting on behalf of a public or private employer, shall not reverify the employment eligibility of a current employee at a time or in a manner not required by Section 1324a(b) of Title 8 of the United States Code.(b) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), an employer who violates subdivision (a) shall be subject to a civil penalty of up to ten thousand dollars ($10,000). The penalty shall be recoverable by the Labor Commissioner.(2) The actions of an employer that violate subdivision (a) and result in a civil penalty under paragraph (1) shall not also form the basis for liability or penalty under Section 1019.1.(c) Subdivision (a) shall be interpreted and applied consistent with federal law and regulations. This section does not prohibit an employer from doing any of the following:(1) Reverifying an employees employment authorization in a time and manner consistent with Section 274a.2(b)(1)(vii) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations.(2) Taking any lawful action to review the employment authorization of an employee upon knowing that the employee is, or has become, unauthorized to be employed in the United States, consistent with Section 1324a(a)(2) of Title 8 of the United States Code, including in response to specific and detailed information from any agency within the United States Department of Homeland Security indicating that an employee is not authorized to be employed in the United States.(3) Reminding an employee, at least 90 days before the date reverification is required, that the employee will be required to present a document identified in List A or a combination of one document from List B and one document from List C, as required by the I-9 Employment Eligibility Verification Form, showing continued employment authorization on the date that their current employment authorization will expire or on the date that their current documentation will expire, whichever date is sooner.(4) Taking any lawful action to correct errors or omissions in a missing or incomplete I-9 Employment Eligibility Verification Form.(c)(d) In accordance with state and federal law, nothing in this chapter shall be interpreted, construed, or applied to restrict or limit an employers compliance with a memorandum of understanding governing the use of the federal E-Verify system.(e) For purposes of this section, the term knowing is defined as set forth in Section 274a.1(l) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations and as interpreted by applicable federal rules, regulations, and controlling federal case law. The term knowing includes not only actual knowledge, but also knowledge that may fairly be inferred through notice of certain facts and circumstances that would lead a person, through the exercise of reasonable care, to know about a certain condition. Constructive knowledge may be found under the circumstances described in Section 274a.1(l)(2) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations and may not be inferred from an employees foreign appearance or accent.
780845
781-1019.2. (a) Except as otherwise required by federal law, a public or private employer, or a person acting on behalf of a public or private employer, shall not reverify the employment eligibility of a current employee at a time or in a manner not required by Section 1324a(b) of Title 8 of the United States Code.(b) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), an employer who violates subdivision (a) shall be subject to a civil penalty of up to ten thousand dollars ($10,000). The penalty shall be recoverable by the Labor Commissioner.(2) The actions of an employer that violate subdivision (a) and result in a civil penalty under paragraph (1) shall not also form the basis for liability or penalty under Section 1019.1.(c) Subdivision (a) shall be interpreted and applied consistent with federal law and regulations. This section does not prohibit an employer from doing any of the following:(1) Reverifying an employees employment authorization in a time and manner consistent with Section 274a.2(b)(1)(vii) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations.(2) Taking any lawful action to review the employment authorization of an employee upon knowing that the employee is, or has become, unauthorized to be employed in the United States, consistent with Section 1324a(a)(2) of Title 8 of the United States Code, including in response to specific and detailed information from any agency within the United States Department of Homeland Security indicating that an employee is not authorized to be employed in the United States.(3) Reminding an employee, at least 90 days before the date reverification is required, that the employee will be required to present a document identified in List A or a combination of one document from List B and one document from List C, as required by the I-9 Employment Eligibility Verification Form, showing continued employment authorization on the date that their current employment authorization will expire or on the date that their current documentation will expire, whichever date is sooner.(4) Taking any lawful action to correct errors or omissions in a missing or incomplete I-9 Employment Eligibility Verification Form.(d) In accordance with state and federal law, nothing in this chapter shall be interpreted, construed, or applied to restrict or limit an employers compliance with a memorandum of understanding governing the use of the federal E-Verify system.(e) For purposes of this section, the term knowing is defined as set forth in Section 274a.1(l) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations and as interpreted by applicable federal rules, regulations, and controlling federal case law. The term knowing includes not only actual knowledge, but also knowledge that may fairly be inferred through notice of certain facts and circumstances that would lead a person, through the exercise of reasonable care, to know about a certain condition. Constructive knowledge may be found under the circumstances described in Section 274a.1(l)(2) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations and may not be inferred from an employees foreign appearance or accent.
846+1019.2. (a) Except as otherwise required by federal law, a public or private employer, or a person acting on behalf of a public or private employer, shall not reverify the employment eligibility of a current employee at a time or in a manner not required by Section 1324a(b) of Title 8 of the United States Code.(b) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), an employer who violates subdivision (a) shall be subject to a civil penalty of up to ten thousand dollars ($10,000). The penalty shall be recoverable by the Labor Commissioner.(2) The actions of an employer that violate subdivision (a) and result in a civil penalty under paragraph (1) shall not also form the basis for liability or penalty under Section 1019.1.(c) Subdivision (a) shall be interpreted and applied consistent with federal law and regulations. This section does not prohibit an employer from doing any of the following:(1) Reverifying an employees employment authorization in a time and manner consistent with Section 274a.2(b)(1)(vii) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations.(2) Taking any lawful action to review the employment authorization of an employee upon knowing that the employee is, or has become, unauthorized to be employed in the United States, consistent with Section 1324a(a)(2) of Title 8 of the United States Code, including in response to specific and detailed information from any agency within the United States Department of Homeland Security indicating that an employee is not authorized to be employed in the United States.(3) Reminding an employee, at least 90 days before the date reverification is required, that the employee will be required to present a document identified in List A or a combination of one document from List B and one document from List C, as required by the I-9 Employment Eligibility Verification Form, showing continued employment authorization on the date that their current employment authorization will expire or on the date that their current documentation will expire, whichever date is sooner.(4) Taking any lawful action to correct errors or omissions in a missing or incomplete I-9 Employment Eligibility Verification Form.(c)(d) In accordance with state and federal law, nothing in this chapter shall be interpreted, construed, or applied to restrict or limit an employers compliance with a memorandum of understanding governing the use of the federal E-Verify system.(e) For purposes of this section, the term knowing is defined as set forth in Section 274a.1(l) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations and as interpreted by applicable federal rules, regulations, and controlling federal case law. The term knowing includes not only actual knowledge, but also knowledge that may fairly be inferred through notice of certain facts and circumstances that would lead a person, through the exercise of reasonable care, to know about a certain condition. Constructive knowledge may be found under the circumstances described in Section 274a.1(l)(2) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations and may not be inferred from an employees foreign appearance or accent.
782847
783-1019.2. (a) Except as otherwise required by federal law, a public or private employer, or a person acting on behalf of a public or private employer, shall not reverify the employment eligibility of a current employee at a time or in a manner not required by Section 1324a(b) of Title 8 of the United States Code.(b) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), an employer who violates subdivision (a) shall be subject to a civil penalty of up to ten thousand dollars ($10,000). The penalty shall be recoverable by the Labor Commissioner.(2) The actions of an employer that violate subdivision (a) and result in a civil penalty under paragraph (1) shall not also form the basis for liability or penalty under Section 1019.1.(c) Subdivision (a) shall be interpreted and applied consistent with federal law and regulations. This section does not prohibit an employer from doing any of the following:(1) Reverifying an employees employment authorization in a time and manner consistent with Section 274a.2(b)(1)(vii) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations.(2) Taking any lawful action to review the employment authorization of an employee upon knowing that the employee is, or has become, unauthorized to be employed in the United States, consistent with Section 1324a(a)(2) of Title 8 of the United States Code, including in response to specific and detailed information from any agency within the United States Department of Homeland Security indicating that an employee is not authorized to be employed in the United States.(3) Reminding an employee, at least 90 days before the date reverification is required, that the employee will be required to present a document identified in List A or a combination of one document from List B and one document from List C, as required by the I-9 Employment Eligibility Verification Form, showing continued employment authorization on the date that their current employment authorization will expire or on the date that their current documentation will expire, whichever date is sooner.(4) Taking any lawful action to correct errors or omissions in a missing or incomplete I-9 Employment Eligibility Verification Form.(d) In accordance with state and federal law, nothing in this chapter shall be interpreted, construed, or applied to restrict or limit an employers compliance with a memorandum of understanding governing the use of the federal E-Verify system.(e) For purposes of this section, the term knowing is defined as set forth in Section 274a.1(l) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations and as interpreted by applicable federal rules, regulations, and controlling federal case law. The term knowing includes not only actual knowledge, but also knowledge that may fairly be inferred through notice of certain facts and circumstances that would lead a person, through the exercise of reasonable care, to know about a certain condition. Constructive knowledge may be found under the circumstances described in Section 274a.1(l)(2) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations and may not be inferred from an employees foreign appearance or accent.
848+1019.2. (a) Except as otherwise required by federal law, a public or private employer, or a person acting on behalf of a public or private employer, shall not reverify the employment eligibility of a current employee at a time or in a manner not required by Section 1324a(b) of Title 8 of the United States Code.(b) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), an employer who violates subdivision (a) shall be subject to a civil penalty of up to ten thousand dollars ($10,000). The penalty shall be recoverable by the Labor Commissioner.(2) The actions of an employer that violate subdivision (a) and result in a civil penalty under paragraph (1) shall not also form the basis for liability or penalty under Section 1019.1.(c) Subdivision (a) shall be interpreted and applied consistent with federal law and regulations. This section does not prohibit an employer from doing any of the following:(1) Reverifying an employees employment authorization in a time and manner consistent with Section 274a.2(b)(1)(vii) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations.(2) Taking any lawful action to review the employment authorization of an employee upon knowing that the employee is, or has become, unauthorized to be employed in the United States, consistent with Section 1324a(a)(2) of Title 8 of the United States Code, including in response to specific and detailed information from any agency within the United States Department of Homeland Security indicating that an employee is not authorized to be employed in the United States.(3) Reminding an employee, at least 90 days before the date reverification is required, that the employee will be required to present a document identified in List A or a combination of one document from List B and one document from List C, as required by the I-9 Employment Eligibility Verification Form, showing continued employment authorization on the date that their current employment authorization will expire or on the date that their current documentation will expire, whichever date is sooner.(4) Taking any lawful action to correct errors or omissions in a missing or incomplete I-9 Employment Eligibility Verification Form.(c)(d) In accordance with state and federal law, nothing in this chapter shall be interpreted, construed, or applied to restrict or limit an employers compliance with a memorandum of understanding governing the use of the federal E-Verify system.(e) For purposes of this section, the term knowing is defined as set forth in Section 274a.1(l) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations and as interpreted by applicable federal rules, regulations, and controlling federal case law. The term knowing includes not only actual knowledge, but also knowledge that may fairly be inferred through notice of certain facts and circumstances that would lead a person, through the exercise of reasonable care, to know about a certain condition. Constructive knowledge may be found under the circumstances described in Section 274a.1(l)(2) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations and may not be inferred from an employees foreign appearance or accent.
784849
785850
786851
787852 1019.2. (a) Except as otherwise required by federal law, a public or private employer, or a person acting on behalf of a public or private employer, shall not reverify the employment eligibility of a current employee at a time or in a manner not required by Section 1324a(b) of Title 8 of the United States Code.
788853
789854 (b) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), an employer who violates subdivision (a) shall be subject to a civil penalty of up to ten thousand dollars ($10,000). The penalty shall be recoverable by the Labor Commissioner.
790855
791856 (2) The actions of an employer that violate subdivision (a) and result in a civil penalty under paragraph (1) shall not also form the basis for liability or penalty under Section 1019.1.
792857
793858 (c) Subdivision (a) shall be interpreted and applied consistent with federal law and regulations. This section does not prohibit an employer from doing any of the following:
794859
795860 (1) Reverifying an employees employment authorization in a time and manner consistent with Section 274a.2(b)(1)(vii) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
796861
797862 (2) Taking any lawful action to review the employment authorization of an employee upon knowing that the employee is, or has become, unauthorized to be employed in the United States, consistent with Section 1324a(a)(2) of Title 8 of the United States Code, including in response to specific and detailed information from any agency within the United States Department of Homeland Security indicating that an employee is not authorized to be employed in the United States.
798863
799864 (3) Reminding an employee, at least 90 days before the date reverification is required, that the employee will be required to present a document identified in List A or a combination of one document from List B and one document from List C, as required by the I-9 Employment Eligibility Verification Form, showing continued employment authorization on the date that their current employment authorization will expire or on the date that their current documentation will expire, whichever date is sooner.
800865
801866 (4) Taking any lawful action to correct errors or omissions in a missing or incomplete I-9 Employment Eligibility Verification Form.
802867
868+(c)
869+
870+
871+
803872 (d) In accordance with state and federal law, nothing in this chapter shall be interpreted, construed, or applied to restrict or limit an employers compliance with a memorandum of understanding governing the use of the federal E-Verify system.
804873
805874 (e) For purposes of this section, the term knowing is defined as set forth in Section 274a.1(l) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations and as interpreted by applicable federal rules, regulations, and controlling federal case law. The term knowing includes not only actual knowledge, but also knowledge that may fairly be inferred through notice of certain facts and circumstances that would lead a person, through the exercise of reasonable care, to know about a certain condition. Constructive knowledge may be found under the circumstances described in Section 274a.1(l)(2) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations and may not be inferred from an employees foreign appearance or accent.
806875
876+SEC. 11. Section 1019.3 is added to the Labor Code, to read:1019.3. For purposes of this chapter, the terms reverify or reverifying mean the actions described in Section 274a.2(b)(1)(vii) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations. These terms shall be interpreted consistently with any applicable federal rules, regulations, and controlling federal case law.
877+
878+SEC. 11. Section 1019.3 is added to the Labor Code, to read:
879+
880+### SEC. 11.
881+
882+1019.3. For purposes of this chapter, the terms reverify or reverifying mean the actions described in Section 274a.2(b)(1)(vii) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations. These terms shall be interpreted consistently with any applicable federal rules, regulations, and controlling federal case law.
883+
884+1019.3. For purposes of this chapter, the terms reverify or reverifying mean the actions described in Section 274a.2(b)(1)(vii) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations. These terms shall be interpreted consistently with any applicable federal rules, regulations, and controlling federal case law.
885+
886+1019.3. For purposes of this chapter, the terms reverify or reverifying mean the actions described in Section 274a.2(b)(1)(vii) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations. These terms shall be interpreted consistently with any applicable federal rules, regulations, and controlling federal case law.
807887
808888
809889
890+1019.3. For purposes of this chapter, the terms reverify or reverifying mean the actions described in Section 274a.2(b)(1)(vii) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations. These terms shall be interpreted consistently with any applicable federal rules, regulations, and controlling federal case law.
810891
811-SEC. 11. Section 1019.4 is added to the Labor Code, to read:1019.4. For purposes of this chapter, the terms reverify or reverifying mean the actions described in Section 274a.2(b)(1)(vii) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations. These terms shall be interpreted consistently with any applicable federal rules, regulations, and controlling federal case law.
812-
813-SEC. 11. Section 1019.4 is added to the Labor Code, to read:
814-
815-### SEC. 11.
816-
817-1019.4. For purposes of this chapter, the terms reverify or reverifying mean the actions described in Section 274a.2(b)(1)(vii) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations. These terms shall be interpreted consistently with any applicable federal rules, regulations, and controlling federal case law.
818-
819-1019.4. For purposes of this chapter, the terms reverify or reverifying mean the actions described in Section 274a.2(b)(1)(vii) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations. These terms shall be interpreted consistently with any applicable federal rules, regulations, and controlling federal case law.
820-
821-1019.4. For purposes of this chapter, the terms reverify or reverifying mean the actions described in Section 274a.2(b)(1)(vii) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations. These terms shall be interpreted consistently with any applicable federal rules, regulations, and controlling federal case law.
822-
823-
824-
825-1019.4. For purposes of this chapter, the terms reverify or reverifying mean the actions described in Section 274a.2(b)(1)(vii) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations. These terms shall be interpreted consistently with any applicable federal rules, regulations, and controlling federal case law.
826-
827-SEC. 12. Section 6126 of the Penal Code is amended to read:6126. (a) The Inspector General shall be responsible for contemporaneous oversight of internal affairs investigations and the disciplinary process of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, pursuant to Section 6133 under policies to be developed by the Inspector General.(b) When requested by the Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, or the Speaker of the Assembly, the Inspector General shall initiate an audit or review of policies, practices, and procedures of the department. The Inspector General may, under policies developed by the Inspector General, initiate an audit or review on the Inspector Generals own accord. Following a completed audit or review, the Inspector General may perform a followup audit or review to determine what measures the department implemented to address the Inspector Generals findings and to assess the effectiveness of those measures.(c) (1) Upon completion of an audit or review pursuant to subdivision (b), the Inspector General shall prepare a complete written report, which may be held as confidential and disclosed in confidence, along with all underlying materials the Inspector General deems appropriate, to the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation and to the requesting entity in subdivision (b), where applicable.(2) The Inspector General shall also prepare a public report. When necessary, the public report shall differ from the complete written report in the respect that the Inspector General shall have the discretion to redact or otherwise protect the names of individuals, specific locations, or other facts that, if not redacted, might hinder prosecution related to the review, compromise the safety and security of staff, inmates, or members of the public, or where disclosure of the information is otherwise prohibited by law, and to decline to produce any of the underlying materials. Copies of public reports shall be posted on the Office of the Inspector Generals internet website.(d) The Inspector General shall, during the course of an audit or review, identify areas of full and partial compliance, or noncompliance, with departmental policies and procedures, specify deficiencies in the completion and documentation of processes, and recommend corrective actions, including, but not limited to, additional training, additional policies, or changes in policy, as well as any other findings or recommendations that the Inspector General deems appropriate.(e) The Inspector General, pursuant to Section 6126.6, shall review the Governors candidates for appointment to serve as warden for the states adult correctional institutions and as superintendents for the states juvenile facilities.(f) The Inspector General shall conduct an objective, clinically appropriate, and metric-oriented medical inspection program to periodically review delivery of medical care at each state prison.(g) The Inspector General shall conduct an objective, metric-oriented oversight and inspection program to periodically review delivery of the reforms identified in the document released by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation in April 2012, entitled The Future of California Corrections: A Blueprint to Save Billions of Dollars, End Federal Court Oversight, and Improve the Prison System (the blueprint), including, but not limited to, the following specific goals and reforms described by the blueprint:(1) Whether the department has increased the percentage of inmates served in rehabilitative programs to 70 percent of the departments target population prior to their release.(2) The establishment of an adherence to the standardized staffing model at each institution.(3) The establishment of an adherence to the new inmate classification score system.(4) The establishment of and adherence to the new prison gang management system, including changes to the departments current policies for identifying prison-based gang members and associates and the use and conditions associated with the departments security housing units.(5) The implementation of and adherence to the Comprehensive Housing Plan described in the blueprint.(h) The Inspector General shall, in consultation with the Department of Finance, develop a methodology for producing a workload budget to be used for annually adjusting the budget of the Office of the Inspector General, beginning with the budget for the 200506 fiscal year.(i) The Inspector General shall provide contemporaneous oversight of grievances that fall within the departments process for reviewing and investigating inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances, examining compliance with regulations, department policy, and best practices. This contemporaneous oversight shall be completed within the Inspector Generals budget excluding resources that, beginning in the Budget Act of 2019, were provided to restore the Inspector Generals ability to initiate an audit or review pursuant to subdivision (a). The contemporaneous oversight shall be completed in a way that does not unnecessarily slow the departments review and investigation of inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances. The Inspector General shall issue reports annually, beginning in 2021.(j) The Inspector General shall monitor the departments process for reviewing uses of force and shall issue reports annually.
892+SEC. 12. Section 6126 of the Penal Code is amended to read:6126. (a) The Inspector General shall be responsible for contemporaneous oversight of internal affairs investigations and the disciplinary process of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, pursuant to Section 6133 under policies to be developed by the Inspector General.(b) When requested by the Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, or the Speaker of the Assembly, the Inspector General shall initiate an audit or review of policies, practices, and procedures of the department. The Inspector General, General may, under policies developed by the Inspector General, may recommend that the Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, initiate an audit or the Speaker of the Assembly request a review of a specific departmental policy, practice, or procedure that raises a significant correctional issue relevant to on the effectiveness of the department. When exigent circumstances of unsafe Inspector Generals own accord. Following a completed audit or life threatening situations arise involving inmates, wards, parolees, or staff, review, the Inspector General may, by whatever means is most expeditious, notify may perform a followup audit or review to determine what measures the Governor, Senate Committee on Rules, or department implemented to address the Speaker Inspector Generals findings and to assess the effectiveness of the Assembly. those measures.(c) (1) Upon completion of a review, an audit or review pursuant to subdivision (b), the Inspector General shall prepare a complete written report, which shall may be held as confidential and disclosed in confidence, along with all underlying materials the Inspector General deems appropriate, to the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation and to the requesting entity in subdivision (b) and the appropriate law enforcement agency. (b), where applicable.(2) The Inspector General shall also prepare a public report. When necessary, the public report shall differ from the complete written report in the respect that the Inspector General shall have the discretion to redact or otherwise protect the names of individuals, specific locations, or other facts that, if not redacted, might hinder prosecution related to the review, compromise the safety and security of staff, inmates, or members of the public, or where disclosure of the information is otherwise prohibited by law, and to decline to produce any of the underlying materials. Copies of public reports shall be posted on the Office of the Inspector Generals Internet Web site. internet website.(d) The Inspector General shall, during the course of a an audit or review, identify areas of full and partial compliance, or noncompliance, with departmental policies and procedures, specify deficiencies in the completion and documentation of processes, and recommend corrective actions, including, but not limited to, additional training, additional policies, or changes in policy, as well as any other findings or recommendations that the Inspector General deems appropriate.(e) The Inspector General, pursuant to Section 6126.6, shall review the Governors candidates for appointment to serve as warden for the states adult correctional institutions and as superintendents for the states juvenile facilities.(f) The Inspector General shall conduct an objective, clinically appropriate, and metric-oriented medical inspection program to periodically review delivery of medical care at each state prison.(g) The Inspector General shall conduct an objective, metric-oriented oversight and inspection program to periodically review delivery of the reforms identified in the document released by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation in April 2012, entitled The Future of California Corrections: A Blueprint to Save Billions of Dollars, End Federal Court Oversight, and Improve the Prison System (the blueprint), including, but not limited to, the following specific goals and reforms described by the blueprint:(1) Whether the department has increased the percentage of inmates served in rehabilitative programs to 70 percent of the departments target population prior to their release.(2) The establishment of an adherence to the standardized staffing model at each institution.(3) The establishment of an adherence to the new inmate classification score system.(4) The establishment of and adherence to the new prison gang management system, including changes to the departments current policies for identifying prison-based gang members and associates and the use and conditions associated with the departments security housing units.(5) The implementation of and adherence to the Comprehensive Housing Plan described in the blueprint.(h) The Inspector General shall, in consultation with the Department of Finance, develop a methodology for producing a workload budget to be used for annually adjusting the budget of the Office of the Inspector General, beginning with the budget for the 200506 fiscal year.(i) The Inspector General shall provide contemporaneous oversight of grievances that fall within the departments process for reviewing and investigating inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances, examining compliance with regulations, department policy, and best practices. This contemporaneous oversight shall be completed within the Inspector Generals budget excluding resources that, beginning in the Budget Act of 2019, were provided to restore the Inspector Generals ability to initiate an audit or review pursuant to subdivision (a). The contemporaneous oversight shall be completed in a way that does not unnecessarily slow the departments review and investigation of inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances. The Inspector General shall issue reports annually, beginning in 2021.(j) The Inspector General shall monitor the departments process for reviewing uses of force and shall issue reports annually.
828893
829894 SEC. 12. Section 6126 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
830895
831896 ### SEC. 12.
832897
833-6126. (a) The Inspector General shall be responsible for contemporaneous oversight of internal affairs investigations and the disciplinary process of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, pursuant to Section 6133 under policies to be developed by the Inspector General.(b) When requested by the Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, or the Speaker of the Assembly, the Inspector General shall initiate an audit or review of policies, practices, and procedures of the department. The Inspector General may, under policies developed by the Inspector General, initiate an audit or review on the Inspector Generals own accord. Following a completed audit or review, the Inspector General may perform a followup audit or review to determine what measures the department implemented to address the Inspector Generals findings and to assess the effectiveness of those measures.(c) (1) Upon completion of an audit or review pursuant to subdivision (b), the Inspector General shall prepare a complete written report, which may be held as confidential and disclosed in confidence, along with all underlying materials the Inspector General deems appropriate, to the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation and to the requesting entity in subdivision (b), where applicable.(2) The Inspector General shall also prepare a public report. When necessary, the public report shall differ from the complete written report in the respect that the Inspector General shall have the discretion to redact or otherwise protect the names of individuals, specific locations, or other facts that, if not redacted, might hinder prosecution related to the review, compromise the safety and security of staff, inmates, or members of the public, or where disclosure of the information is otherwise prohibited by law, and to decline to produce any of the underlying materials. Copies of public reports shall be posted on the Office of the Inspector Generals internet website.(d) The Inspector General shall, during the course of an audit or review, identify areas of full and partial compliance, or noncompliance, with departmental policies and procedures, specify deficiencies in the completion and documentation of processes, and recommend corrective actions, including, but not limited to, additional training, additional policies, or changes in policy, as well as any other findings or recommendations that the Inspector General deems appropriate.(e) The Inspector General, pursuant to Section 6126.6, shall review the Governors candidates for appointment to serve as warden for the states adult correctional institutions and as superintendents for the states juvenile facilities.(f) The Inspector General shall conduct an objective, clinically appropriate, and metric-oriented medical inspection program to periodically review delivery of medical care at each state prison.(g) The Inspector General shall conduct an objective, metric-oriented oversight and inspection program to periodically review delivery of the reforms identified in the document released by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation in April 2012, entitled The Future of California Corrections: A Blueprint to Save Billions of Dollars, End Federal Court Oversight, and Improve the Prison System (the blueprint), including, but not limited to, the following specific goals and reforms described by the blueprint:(1) Whether the department has increased the percentage of inmates served in rehabilitative programs to 70 percent of the departments target population prior to their release.(2) The establishment of an adherence to the standardized staffing model at each institution.(3) The establishment of an adherence to the new inmate classification score system.(4) The establishment of and adherence to the new prison gang management system, including changes to the departments current policies for identifying prison-based gang members and associates and the use and conditions associated with the departments security housing units.(5) The implementation of and adherence to the Comprehensive Housing Plan described in the blueprint.(h) The Inspector General shall, in consultation with the Department of Finance, develop a methodology for producing a workload budget to be used for annually adjusting the budget of the Office of the Inspector General, beginning with the budget for the 200506 fiscal year.(i) The Inspector General shall provide contemporaneous oversight of grievances that fall within the departments process for reviewing and investigating inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances, examining compliance with regulations, department policy, and best practices. This contemporaneous oversight shall be completed within the Inspector Generals budget excluding resources that, beginning in the Budget Act of 2019, were provided to restore the Inspector Generals ability to initiate an audit or review pursuant to subdivision (a). The contemporaneous oversight shall be completed in a way that does not unnecessarily slow the departments review and investigation of inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances. The Inspector General shall issue reports annually, beginning in 2021.(j) The Inspector General shall monitor the departments process for reviewing uses of force and shall issue reports annually.
898+6126. (a) The Inspector General shall be responsible for contemporaneous oversight of internal affairs investigations and the disciplinary process of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, pursuant to Section 6133 under policies to be developed by the Inspector General.(b) When requested by the Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, or the Speaker of the Assembly, the Inspector General shall initiate an audit or review of policies, practices, and procedures of the department. The Inspector General, General may, under policies developed by the Inspector General, may recommend that the Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, initiate an audit or the Speaker of the Assembly request a review of a specific departmental policy, practice, or procedure that raises a significant correctional issue relevant to on the effectiveness of the department. When exigent circumstances of unsafe Inspector Generals own accord. Following a completed audit or life threatening situations arise involving inmates, wards, parolees, or staff, review, the Inspector General may, by whatever means is most expeditious, notify may perform a followup audit or review to determine what measures the Governor, Senate Committee on Rules, or department implemented to address the Speaker Inspector Generals findings and to assess the effectiveness of the Assembly. those measures.(c) (1) Upon completion of a review, an audit or review pursuant to subdivision (b), the Inspector General shall prepare a complete written report, which shall may be held as confidential and disclosed in confidence, along with all underlying materials the Inspector General deems appropriate, to the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation and to the requesting entity in subdivision (b) and the appropriate law enforcement agency. (b), where applicable.(2) The Inspector General shall also prepare a public report. When necessary, the public report shall differ from the complete written report in the respect that the Inspector General shall have the discretion to redact or otherwise protect the names of individuals, specific locations, or other facts that, if not redacted, might hinder prosecution related to the review, compromise the safety and security of staff, inmates, or members of the public, or where disclosure of the information is otherwise prohibited by law, and to decline to produce any of the underlying materials. Copies of public reports shall be posted on the Office of the Inspector Generals Internet Web site. internet website.(d) The Inspector General shall, during the course of a an audit or review, identify areas of full and partial compliance, or noncompliance, with departmental policies and procedures, specify deficiencies in the completion and documentation of processes, and recommend corrective actions, including, but not limited to, additional training, additional policies, or changes in policy, as well as any other findings or recommendations that the Inspector General deems appropriate.(e) The Inspector General, pursuant to Section 6126.6, shall review the Governors candidates for appointment to serve as warden for the states adult correctional institutions and as superintendents for the states juvenile facilities.(f) The Inspector General shall conduct an objective, clinically appropriate, and metric-oriented medical inspection program to periodically review delivery of medical care at each state prison.(g) The Inspector General shall conduct an objective, metric-oriented oversight and inspection program to periodically review delivery of the reforms identified in the document released by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation in April 2012, entitled The Future of California Corrections: A Blueprint to Save Billions of Dollars, End Federal Court Oversight, and Improve the Prison System (the blueprint), including, but not limited to, the following specific goals and reforms described by the blueprint:(1) Whether the department has increased the percentage of inmates served in rehabilitative programs to 70 percent of the departments target population prior to their release.(2) The establishment of an adherence to the standardized staffing model at each institution.(3) The establishment of an adherence to the new inmate classification score system.(4) The establishment of and adherence to the new prison gang management system, including changes to the departments current policies for identifying prison-based gang members and associates and the use and conditions associated with the departments security housing units.(5) The implementation of and adherence to the Comprehensive Housing Plan described in the blueprint.(h) The Inspector General shall, in consultation with the Department of Finance, develop a methodology for producing a workload budget to be used for annually adjusting the budget of the Office of the Inspector General, beginning with the budget for the 200506 fiscal year.(i) The Inspector General shall provide contemporaneous oversight of grievances that fall within the departments process for reviewing and investigating inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances, examining compliance with regulations, department policy, and best practices. This contemporaneous oversight shall be completed within the Inspector Generals budget excluding resources that, beginning in the Budget Act of 2019, were provided to restore the Inspector Generals ability to initiate an audit or review pursuant to subdivision (a). The contemporaneous oversight shall be completed in a way that does not unnecessarily slow the departments review and investigation of inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances. The Inspector General shall issue reports annually, beginning in 2021.(j) The Inspector General shall monitor the departments process for reviewing uses of force and shall issue reports annually.
834899
835-6126. (a) The Inspector General shall be responsible for contemporaneous oversight of internal affairs investigations and the disciplinary process of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, pursuant to Section 6133 under policies to be developed by the Inspector General.(b) When requested by the Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, or the Speaker of the Assembly, the Inspector General shall initiate an audit or review of policies, practices, and procedures of the department. The Inspector General may, under policies developed by the Inspector General, initiate an audit or review on the Inspector Generals own accord. Following a completed audit or review, the Inspector General may perform a followup audit or review to determine what measures the department implemented to address the Inspector Generals findings and to assess the effectiveness of those measures.(c) (1) Upon completion of an audit or review pursuant to subdivision (b), the Inspector General shall prepare a complete written report, which may be held as confidential and disclosed in confidence, along with all underlying materials the Inspector General deems appropriate, to the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation and to the requesting entity in subdivision (b), where applicable.(2) The Inspector General shall also prepare a public report. When necessary, the public report shall differ from the complete written report in the respect that the Inspector General shall have the discretion to redact or otherwise protect the names of individuals, specific locations, or other facts that, if not redacted, might hinder prosecution related to the review, compromise the safety and security of staff, inmates, or members of the public, or where disclosure of the information is otherwise prohibited by law, and to decline to produce any of the underlying materials. Copies of public reports shall be posted on the Office of the Inspector Generals internet website.(d) The Inspector General shall, during the course of an audit or review, identify areas of full and partial compliance, or noncompliance, with departmental policies and procedures, specify deficiencies in the completion and documentation of processes, and recommend corrective actions, including, but not limited to, additional training, additional policies, or changes in policy, as well as any other findings or recommendations that the Inspector General deems appropriate.(e) The Inspector General, pursuant to Section 6126.6, shall review the Governors candidates for appointment to serve as warden for the states adult correctional institutions and as superintendents for the states juvenile facilities.(f) The Inspector General shall conduct an objective, clinically appropriate, and metric-oriented medical inspection program to periodically review delivery of medical care at each state prison.(g) The Inspector General shall conduct an objective, metric-oriented oversight and inspection program to periodically review delivery of the reforms identified in the document released by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation in April 2012, entitled The Future of California Corrections: A Blueprint to Save Billions of Dollars, End Federal Court Oversight, and Improve the Prison System (the blueprint), including, but not limited to, the following specific goals and reforms described by the blueprint:(1) Whether the department has increased the percentage of inmates served in rehabilitative programs to 70 percent of the departments target population prior to their release.(2) The establishment of an adherence to the standardized staffing model at each institution.(3) The establishment of an adherence to the new inmate classification score system.(4) The establishment of and adherence to the new prison gang management system, including changes to the departments current policies for identifying prison-based gang members and associates and the use and conditions associated with the departments security housing units.(5) The implementation of and adherence to the Comprehensive Housing Plan described in the blueprint.(h) The Inspector General shall, in consultation with the Department of Finance, develop a methodology for producing a workload budget to be used for annually adjusting the budget of the Office of the Inspector General, beginning with the budget for the 200506 fiscal year.(i) The Inspector General shall provide contemporaneous oversight of grievances that fall within the departments process for reviewing and investigating inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances, examining compliance with regulations, department policy, and best practices. This contemporaneous oversight shall be completed within the Inspector Generals budget excluding resources that, beginning in the Budget Act of 2019, were provided to restore the Inspector Generals ability to initiate an audit or review pursuant to subdivision (a). The contemporaneous oversight shall be completed in a way that does not unnecessarily slow the departments review and investigation of inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances. The Inspector General shall issue reports annually, beginning in 2021.(j) The Inspector General shall monitor the departments process for reviewing uses of force and shall issue reports annually.
900+6126. (a) The Inspector General shall be responsible for contemporaneous oversight of internal affairs investigations and the disciplinary process of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, pursuant to Section 6133 under policies to be developed by the Inspector General.(b) When requested by the Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, or the Speaker of the Assembly, the Inspector General shall initiate an audit or review of policies, practices, and procedures of the department. The Inspector General, General may, under policies developed by the Inspector General, may recommend that the Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, initiate an audit or the Speaker of the Assembly request a review of a specific departmental policy, practice, or procedure that raises a significant correctional issue relevant to on the effectiveness of the department. When exigent circumstances of unsafe Inspector Generals own accord. Following a completed audit or life threatening situations arise involving inmates, wards, parolees, or staff, review, the Inspector General may, by whatever means is most expeditious, notify may perform a followup audit or review to determine what measures the Governor, Senate Committee on Rules, or department implemented to address the Speaker Inspector Generals findings and to assess the effectiveness of the Assembly. those measures.(c) (1) Upon completion of a review, an audit or review pursuant to subdivision (b), the Inspector General shall prepare a complete written report, which shall may be held as confidential and disclosed in confidence, along with all underlying materials the Inspector General deems appropriate, to the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation and to the requesting entity in subdivision (b) and the appropriate law enforcement agency. (b), where applicable.(2) The Inspector General shall also prepare a public report. When necessary, the public report shall differ from the complete written report in the respect that the Inspector General shall have the discretion to redact or otherwise protect the names of individuals, specific locations, or other facts that, if not redacted, might hinder prosecution related to the review, compromise the safety and security of staff, inmates, or members of the public, or where disclosure of the information is otherwise prohibited by law, and to decline to produce any of the underlying materials. Copies of public reports shall be posted on the Office of the Inspector Generals Internet Web site. internet website.(d) The Inspector General shall, during the course of a an audit or review, identify areas of full and partial compliance, or noncompliance, with departmental policies and procedures, specify deficiencies in the completion and documentation of processes, and recommend corrective actions, including, but not limited to, additional training, additional policies, or changes in policy, as well as any other findings or recommendations that the Inspector General deems appropriate.(e) The Inspector General, pursuant to Section 6126.6, shall review the Governors candidates for appointment to serve as warden for the states adult correctional institutions and as superintendents for the states juvenile facilities.(f) The Inspector General shall conduct an objective, clinically appropriate, and metric-oriented medical inspection program to periodically review delivery of medical care at each state prison.(g) The Inspector General shall conduct an objective, metric-oriented oversight and inspection program to periodically review delivery of the reforms identified in the document released by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation in April 2012, entitled The Future of California Corrections: A Blueprint to Save Billions of Dollars, End Federal Court Oversight, and Improve the Prison System (the blueprint), including, but not limited to, the following specific goals and reforms described by the blueprint:(1) Whether the department has increased the percentage of inmates served in rehabilitative programs to 70 percent of the departments target population prior to their release.(2) The establishment of an adherence to the standardized staffing model at each institution.(3) The establishment of an adherence to the new inmate classification score system.(4) The establishment of and adherence to the new prison gang management system, including changes to the departments current policies for identifying prison-based gang members and associates and the use and conditions associated with the departments security housing units.(5) The implementation of and adherence to the Comprehensive Housing Plan described in the blueprint.(h) The Inspector General shall, in consultation with the Department of Finance, develop a methodology for producing a workload budget to be used for annually adjusting the budget of the Office of the Inspector General, beginning with the budget for the 200506 fiscal year.(i) The Inspector General shall provide contemporaneous oversight of grievances that fall within the departments process for reviewing and investigating inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances, examining compliance with regulations, department policy, and best practices. This contemporaneous oversight shall be completed within the Inspector Generals budget excluding resources that, beginning in the Budget Act of 2019, were provided to restore the Inspector Generals ability to initiate an audit or review pursuant to subdivision (a). The contemporaneous oversight shall be completed in a way that does not unnecessarily slow the departments review and investigation of inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances. The Inspector General shall issue reports annually, beginning in 2021.(j) The Inspector General shall monitor the departments process for reviewing uses of force and shall issue reports annually.
836901
837-6126. (a) The Inspector General shall be responsible for contemporaneous oversight of internal affairs investigations and the disciplinary process of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, pursuant to Section 6133 under policies to be developed by the Inspector General.(b) When requested by the Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, or the Speaker of the Assembly, the Inspector General shall initiate an audit or review of policies, practices, and procedures of the department. The Inspector General may, under policies developed by the Inspector General, initiate an audit or review on the Inspector Generals own accord. Following a completed audit or review, the Inspector General may perform a followup audit or review to determine what measures the department implemented to address the Inspector Generals findings and to assess the effectiveness of those measures.(c) (1) Upon completion of an audit or review pursuant to subdivision (b), the Inspector General shall prepare a complete written report, which may be held as confidential and disclosed in confidence, along with all underlying materials the Inspector General deems appropriate, to the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation and to the requesting entity in subdivision (b), where applicable.(2) The Inspector General shall also prepare a public report. When necessary, the public report shall differ from the complete written report in the respect that the Inspector General shall have the discretion to redact or otherwise protect the names of individuals, specific locations, or other facts that, if not redacted, might hinder prosecution related to the review, compromise the safety and security of staff, inmates, or members of the public, or where disclosure of the information is otherwise prohibited by law, and to decline to produce any of the underlying materials. Copies of public reports shall be posted on the Office of the Inspector Generals internet website.(d) The Inspector General shall, during the course of an audit or review, identify areas of full and partial compliance, or noncompliance, with departmental policies and procedures, specify deficiencies in the completion and documentation of processes, and recommend corrective actions, including, but not limited to, additional training, additional policies, or changes in policy, as well as any other findings or recommendations that the Inspector General deems appropriate.(e) The Inspector General, pursuant to Section 6126.6, shall review the Governors candidates for appointment to serve as warden for the states adult correctional institutions and as superintendents for the states juvenile facilities.(f) The Inspector General shall conduct an objective, clinically appropriate, and metric-oriented medical inspection program to periodically review delivery of medical care at each state prison.(g) The Inspector General shall conduct an objective, metric-oriented oversight and inspection program to periodically review delivery of the reforms identified in the document released by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation in April 2012, entitled The Future of California Corrections: A Blueprint to Save Billions of Dollars, End Federal Court Oversight, and Improve the Prison System (the blueprint), including, but not limited to, the following specific goals and reforms described by the blueprint:(1) Whether the department has increased the percentage of inmates served in rehabilitative programs to 70 percent of the departments target population prior to their release.(2) The establishment of an adherence to the standardized staffing model at each institution.(3) The establishment of an adherence to the new inmate classification score system.(4) The establishment of and adherence to the new prison gang management system, including changes to the departments current policies for identifying prison-based gang members and associates and the use and conditions associated with the departments security housing units.(5) The implementation of and adherence to the Comprehensive Housing Plan described in the blueprint.(h) The Inspector General shall, in consultation with the Department of Finance, develop a methodology for producing a workload budget to be used for annually adjusting the budget of the Office of the Inspector General, beginning with the budget for the 200506 fiscal year.(i) The Inspector General shall provide contemporaneous oversight of grievances that fall within the departments process for reviewing and investigating inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances, examining compliance with regulations, department policy, and best practices. This contemporaneous oversight shall be completed within the Inspector Generals budget excluding resources that, beginning in the Budget Act of 2019, were provided to restore the Inspector Generals ability to initiate an audit or review pursuant to subdivision (a). The contemporaneous oversight shall be completed in a way that does not unnecessarily slow the departments review and investigation of inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances. The Inspector General shall issue reports annually, beginning in 2021.(j) The Inspector General shall monitor the departments process for reviewing uses of force and shall issue reports annually.
902+6126. (a) The Inspector General shall be responsible for contemporaneous oversight of internal affairs investigations and the disciplinary process of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, pursuant to Section 6133 under policies to be developed by the Inspector General.(b) When requested by the Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, or the Speaker of the Assembly, the Inspector General shall initiate an audit or review of policies, practices, and procedures of the department. The Inspector General, General may, under policies developed by the Inspector General, may recommend that the Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, initiate an audit or the Speaker of the Assembly request a review of a specific departmental policy, practice, or procedure that raises a significant correctional issue relevant to on the effectiveness of the department. When exigent circumstances of unsafe Inspector Generals own accord. Following a completed audit or life threatening situations arise involving inmates, wards, parolees, or staff, review, the Inspector General may, by whatever means is most expeditious, notify may perform a followup audit or review to determine what measures the Governor, Senate Committee on Rules, or department implemented to address the Speaker Inspector Generals findings and to assess the effectiveness of the Assembly. those measures.(c) (1) Upon completion of a review, an audit or review pursuant to subdivision (b), the Inspector General shall prepare a complete written report, which shall may be held as confidential and disclosed in confidence, along with all underlying materials the Inspector General deems appropriate, to the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation and to the requesting entity in subdivision (b) and the appropriate law enforcement agency. (b), where applicable.(2) The Inspector General shall also prepare a public report. When necessary, the public report shall differ from the complete written report in the respect that the Inspector General shall have the discretion to redact or otherwise protect the names of individuals, specific locations, or other facts that, if not redacted, might hinder prosecution related to the review, compromise the safety and security of staff, inmates, or members of the public, or where disclosure of the information is otherwise prohibited by law, and to decline to produce any of the underlying materials. Copies of public reports shall be posted on the Office of the Inspector Generals Internet Web site. internet website.(d) The Inspector General shall, during the course of a an audit or review, identify areas of full and partial compliance, or noncompliance, with departmental policies and procedures, specify deficiencies in the completion and documentation of processes, and recommend corrective actions, including, but not limited to, additional training, additional policies, or changes in policy, as well as any other findings or recommendations that the Inspector General deems appropriate.(e) The Inspector General, pursuant to Section 6126.6, shall review the Governors candidates for appointment to serve as warden for the states adult correctional institutions and as superintendents for the states juvenile facilities.(f) The Inspector General shall conduct an objective, clinically appropriate, and metric-oriented medical inspection program to periodically review delivery of medical care at each state prison.(g) The Inspector General shall conduct an objective, metric-oriented oversight and inspection program to periodically review delivery of the reforms identified in the document released by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation in April 2012, entitled The Future of California Corrections: A Blueprint to Save Billions of Dollars, End Federal Court Oversight, and Improve the Prison System (the blueprint), including, but not limited to, the following specific goals and reforms described by the blueprint:(1) Whether the department has increased the percentage of inmates served in rehabilitative programs to 70 percent of the departments target population prior to their release.(2) The establishment of an adherence to the standardized staffing model at each institution.(3) The establishment of an adherence to the new inmate classification score system.(4) The establishment of and adherence to the new prison gang management system, including changes to the departments current policies for identifying prison-based gang members and associates and the use and conditions associated with the departments security housing units.(5) The implementation of and adherence to the Comprehensive Housing Plan described in the blueprint.(h) The Inspector General shall, in consultation with the Department of Finance, develop a methodology for producing a workload budget to be used for annually adjusting the budget of the Office of the Inspector General, beginning with the budget for the 200506 fiscal year.(i) The Inspector General shall provide contemporaneous oversight of grievances that fall within the departments process for reviewing and investigating inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances, examining compliance with regulations, department policy, and best practices. This contemporaneous oversight shall be completed within the Inspector Generals budget excluding resources that, beginning in the Budget Act of 2019, were provided to restore the Inspector Generals ability to initiate an audit or review pursuant to subdivision (a). The contemporaneous oversight shall be completed in a way that does not unnecessarily slow the departments review and investigation of inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances. The Inspector General shall issue reports annually, beginning in 2021.(j) The Inspector General shall monitor the departments process for reviewing uses of force and shall issue reports annually.
838903
839904
840905
841906 6126. (a) The Inspector General shall be responsible for contemporaneous oversight of internal affairs investigations and the disciplinary process of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, pursuant to Section 6133 under policies to be developed by the Inspector General.
842907
843-(b) When requested by the Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, or the Speaker of the Assembly, the Inspector General shall initiate an audit or review of policies, practices, and procedures of the department. The Inspector General may, under policies developed by the Inspector General, initiate an audit or review on the Inspector Generals own accord. Following a completed audit or review, the Inspector General may perform a followup audit or review to determine what measures the department implemented to address the Inspector Generals findings and to assess the effectiveness of those measures.
908+(b) When requested by the Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, or the Speaker of the Assembly, the Inspector General shall initiate an audit or review of policies, practices, and procedures of the department. The Inspector General, General may, under policies developed by the Inspector General, may recommend that the Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, initiate an audit or the Speaker of the Assembly request a review of a specific departmental policy, practice, or procedure that raises a significant correctional issue relevant to on the effectiveness of the department. When exigent circumstances of unsafe Inspector Generals own accord. Following a completed audit or life threatening situations arise involving inmates, wards, parolees, or staff, review, the Inspector General may, by whatever means is most expeditious, notify may perform a followup audit or review to determine what measures the Governor, Senate Committee on Rules, or department implemented to address the Speaker Inspector Generals findings and to assess the effectiveness of the Assembly. those measures.
844909
845-(c) (1) Upon completion of an audit or review pursuant to subdivision (b), the Inspector General shall prepare a complete written report, which may be held as confidential and disclosed in confidence, along with all underlying materials the Inspector General deems appropriate, to the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation and to the requesting entity in subdivision (b), where applicable.
910+(c) (1) Upon completion of a review, an audit or review pursuant to subdivision (b), the Inspector General shall prepare a complete written report, which shall may be held as confidential and disclosed in confidence, along with all underlying materials the Inspector General deems appropriate, to the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation and to the requesting entity in subdivision (b) and the appropriate law enforcement agency. (b), where applicable.
846911
847-(2) The Inspector General shall also prepare a public report. When necessary, the public report shall differ from the complete written report in the respect that the Inspector General shall have the discretion to redact or otherwise protect the names of individuals, specific locations, or other facts that, if not redacted, might hinder prosecution related to the review, compromise the safety and security of staff, inmates, or members of the public, or where disclosure of the information is otherwise prohibited by law, and to decline to produce any of the underlying materials. Copies of public reports shall be posted on the Office of the Inspector Generals internet website.
912+(2) The Inspector General shall also prepare a public report. When necessary, the public report shall differ from the complete written report in the respect that the Inspector General shall have the discretion to redact or otherwise protect the names of individuals, specific locations, or other facts that, if not redacted, might hinder prosecution related to the review, compromise the safety and security of staff, inmates, or members of the public, or where disclosure of the information is otherwise prohibited by law, and to decline to produce any of the underlying materials. Copies of public reports shall be posted on the Office of the Inspector Generals Internet Web site. internet website.
848913
849-(d) The Inspector General shall, during the course of an audit or review, identify areas of full and partial compliance, or noncompliance, with departmental policies and procedures, specify deficiencies in the completion and documentation of processes, and recommend corrective actions, including, but not limited to, additional training, additional policies, or changes in policy, as well as any other findings or recommendations that the Inspector General deems appropriate.
914+(d) The Inspector General shall, during the course of a an audit or review, identify areas of full and partial compliance, or noncompliance, with departmental policies and procedures, specify deficiencies in the completion and documentation of processes, and recommend corrective actions, including, but not limited to, additional training, additional policies, or changes in policy, as well as any other findings or recommendations that the Inspector General deems appropriate.
850915
851916 (e) The Inspector General, pursuant to Section 6126.6, shall review the Governors candidates for appointment to serve as warden for the states adult correctional institutions and as superintendents for the states juvenile facilities.
852917
853918 (f) The Inspector General shall conduct an objective, clinically appropriate, and metric-oriented medical inspection program to periodically review delivery of medical care at each state prison.
854919
855920 (g) The Inspector General shall conduct an objective, metric-oriented oversight and inspection program to periodically review delivery of the reforms identified in the document released by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation in April 2012, entitled The Future of California Corrections: A Blueprint to Save Billions of Dollars, End Federal Court Oversight, and Improve the Prison System (the blueprint), including, but not limited to, the following specific goals and reforms described by the blueprint:
856921
857922 (1) Whether the department has increased the percentage of inmates served in rehabilitative programs to 70 percent of the departments target population prior to their release.
858923
859924 (2) The establishment of an adherence to the standardized staffing model at each institution.
860925
861926 (3) The establishment of an adherence to the new inmate classification score system.
862927
863928 (4) The establishment of and adherence to the new prison gang management system, including changes to the departments current policies for identifying prison-based gang members and associates and the use and conditions associated with the departments security housing units.
864929
865930 (5) The implementation of and adherence to the Comprehensive Housing Plan described in the blueprint.
866931
867932 (h) The Inspector General shall, in consultation with the Department of Finance, develop a methodology for producing a workload budget to be used for annually adjusting the budget of the Office of the Inspector General, beginning with the budget for the 200506 fiscal year.
868933
869934 (i) The Inspector General shall provide contemporaneous oversight of grievances that fall within the departments process for reviewing and investigating inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances, examining compliance with regulations, department policy, and best practices. This contemporaneous oversight shall be completed within the Inspector Generals budget excluding resources that, beginning in the Budget Act of 2019, were provided to restore the Inspector Generals ability to initiate an audit or review pursuant to subdivision (a). The contemporaneous oversight shall be completed in a way that does not unnecessarily slow the departments review and investigation of inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances. The Inspector General shall issue reports annually, beginning in 2021.
870935
871936 (j) The Inspector General shall monitor the departments process for reviewing uses of force and shall issue reports annually.
872937
873-SEC. 13. Section 6126.2 of the Penal Code is amended to read:6126.2. The Inspector General shall not hire any person known to be considered a suspect or subject in an investigation being conducted by any federal, state, or local agency.
938+SEC. 13. Section 6126.2 of the Penal Code is amended to read:6126.2. The Inspector General shall not hire any person known to be directly considered a suspect or indirectly involved subject in an open internal affairs investigation being conducted by any federal, state, or local agency.
874939
875940 SEC. 13. Section 6126.2 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
876941
877942 ### SEC. 13.
878943
879-6126.2. The Inspector General shall not hire any person known to be considered a suspect or subject in an investigation being conducted by any federal, state, or local agency.
944+6126.2. The Inspector General shall not hire any person known to be directly considered a suspect or indirectly involved subject in an open internal affairs investigation being conducted by any federal, state, or local agency.
880945
881-6126.2. The Inspector General shall not hire any person known to be considered a suspect or subject in an investigation being conducted by any federal, state, or local agency.
946+6126.2. The Inspector General shall not hire any person known to be directly considered a suspect or indirectly involved subject in an open internal affairs investigation being conducted by any federal, state, or local agency.
882947
883-6126.2. The Inspector General shall not hire any person known to be considered a suspect or subject in an investigation being conducted by any federal, state, or local agency.
948+6126.2. The Inspector General shall not hire any person known to be directly considered a suspect or indirectly involved subject in an open internal affairs investigation being conducted by any federal, state, or local agency.
884949
885950
886951
887-6126.2. The Inspector General shall not hire any person known to be considered a suspect or subject in an investigation being conducted by any federal, state, or local agency.
952+6126.2. The Inspector General shall not hire any person known to be directly considered a suspect or indirectly involved subject in an open internal affairs investigation being conducted by any federal, state, or local agency.
888953
889-SEC. 14. Section 6126.3 of the Penal Code is amended to read:6126.3. (a) The Inspector General shall not destroy any papers or memoranda used to support a completed review within three years after a report is released.(b) Except as provided in subdivision (c), all books, papers, records, and correspondence of the office pertaining to its work are public records subject to Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code and shall be filed at any of the regularly maintained offices of the Inspector General.(c) The following books, papers, records, and correspondence of the Office of the Inspector General pertaining to its work are not public records subject to Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code, nor shall they be subject to discovery pursuant to any provision of Title 3 (commencing with Section 1985) of Part 4 of the Code of Civil Procedure or Chapter 7 (commencing with Section 19570) of Part 2 of Division 5 of Title 2 of the Government Code in any manner:(1) All reports, papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents that are otherwise exempt from disclosure pursuant to the provisions of subdivision (d) of Section 6126.5, Section 6126.6, subdivision (c) of Section 6128, subdivision (c) of Section 6126, or all other applicable laws regarding confidentiality, including, but not limited to, the California Public Records Act, the Public Safety Officers Procedural Bill of Rights, the Information Practices Act of 1977, the Confidentiality of Medical Information Act of 1977, and the provisions of Section 832.7, relating to the disposition notification for complaints against peace officers.(2) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to any audit or review that has not been completed.(3) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to internal discussions between the Inspector General and the Inspector Generals staff, or between staff members of the Inspector General, or any personal notes of the Inspector General or the Inspector Generals staff.(4) All identifying information, and any personal papers or correspondence from any person requesting assistance from the Inspector General, except in those cases where the Inspector General determines that disclosure of the information is necessary in the interests of justice.(5) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to contemporaneous public oversight pursuant to Section 6133 or subdivision (i) or (j) of Section 6126.
954+SEC. 14. Section 6126.3 of the Penal Code is amended to read:6126.3. (a) The Inspector General shall not destroy any papers or memoranda used to support a completed review within three years after a report is released.(b) Except as provided in subdivision (c), all books, papers, records, and correspondence of the office pertaining to its work are public records subject to Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code and shall be filed at any of the regularly maintained offices of the Inspector General.(c) The following books, papers, records, and correspondence of the Office of the Inspector General pertaining to its work are not public records subject to Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code, nor shall they be subject to discovery pursuant to any provision of Title 3 (commencing with Section 1985) of Part 4 of the Code of Civil Procedure or Chapter 7 (commencing with Section 19570) of Part 2 of Division 5 of Title 2 of the Government Code in any manner:(1) All reports, papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents that are otherwise exempt from disclosure pursuant to the provisions of subdivision (d) of Section 6126.5, Section 6126.6, subdivision (c) of Section 6128, subdivision (c) of Section 6126, or all other applicable laws regarding confidentiality, including, but not limited to, the California Public Records Act, the Public Safety Officers Procedural Bill of Rights, the Information Practices Act of 1977, the Confidentiality of Medical Information Act of 1977, and the provisions of Section 832.7, relating to the disposition notification for complaints against peace officers.(2) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to any audit or review that has not been completed.(3) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to internal discussions between the Inspector General and his or her the Inspector Generals staff, or between staff members of the Inspector General, or any personal notes of the Inspector General or his or her the Inspector Generals staff.(4) All identifying information, and any personal papers or correspondence from any person requesting assistance from the Inspector General, except in those cases where the Inspector General determines that disclosure of the information is necessary in the interests of justice.(5) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to contemporaneous public oversight pursuant to Section 6133. 6133 or subdivision (i) or (j) of Section 6126.
890955
891956 SEC. 14. Section 6126.3 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
892957
893958 ### SEC. 14.
894959
895-6126.3. (a) The Inspector General shall not destroy any papers or memoranda used to support a completed review within three years after a report is released.(b) Except as provided in subdivision (c), all books, papers, records, and correspondence of the office pertaining to its work are public records subject to Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code and shall be filed at any of the regularly maintained offices of the Inspector General.(c) The following books, papers, records, and correspondence of the Office of the Inspector General pertaining to its work are not public records subject to Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code, nor shall they be subject to discovery pursuant to any provision of Title 3 (commencing with Section 1985) of Part 4 of the Code of Civil Procedure or Chapter 7 (commencing with Section 19570) of Part 2 of Division 5 of Title 2 of the Government Code in any manner:(1) All reports, papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents that are otherwise exempt from disclosure pursuant to the provisions of subdivision (d) of Section 6126.5, Section 6126.6, subdivision (c) of Section 6128, subdivision (c) of Section 6126, or all other applicable laws regarding confidentiality, including, but not limited to, the California Public Records Act, the Public Safety Officers Procedural Bill of Rights, the Information Practices Act of 1977, the Confidentiality of Medical Information Act of 1977, and the provisions of Section 832.7, relating to the disposition notification for complaints against peace officers.(2) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to any audit or review that has not been completed.(3) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to internal discussions between the Inspector General and the Inspector Generals staff, or between staff members of the Inspector General, or any personal notes of the Inspector General or the Inspector Generals staff.(4) All identifying information, and any personal papers or correspondence from any person requesting assistance from the Inspector General, except in those cases where the Inspector General determines that disclosure of the information is necessary in the interests of justice.(5) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to contemporaneous public oversight pursuant to Section 6133 or subdivision (i) or (j) of Section 6126.
960+6126.3. (a) The Inspector General shall not destroy any papers or memoranda used to support a completed review within three years after a report is released.(b) Except as provided in subdivision (c), all books, papers, records, and correspondence of the office pertaining to its work are public records subject to Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code and shall be filed at any of the regularly maintained offices of the Inspector General.(c) The following books, papers, records, and correspondence of the Office of the Inspector General pertaining to its work are not public records subject to Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code, nor shall they be subject to discovery pursuant to any provision of Title 3 (commencing with Section 1985) of Part 4 of the Code of Civil Procedure or Chapter 7 (commencing with Section 19570) of Part 2 of Division 5 of Title 2 of the Government Code in any manner:(1) All reports, papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents that are otherwise exempt from disclosure pursuant to the provisions of subdivision (d) of Section 6126.5, Section 6126.6, subdivision (c) of Section 6128, subdivision (c) of Section 6126, or all other applicable laws regarding confidentiality, including, but not limited to, the California Public Records Act, the Public Safety Officers Procedural Bill of Rights, the Information Practices Act of 1977, the Confidentiality of Medical Information Act of 1977, and the provisions of Section 832.7, relating to the disposition notification for complaints against peace officers.(2) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to any audit or review that has not been completed.(3) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to internal discussions between the Inspector General and his or her the Inspector Generals staff, or between staff members of the Inspector General, or any personal notes of the Inspector General or his or her the Inspector Generals staff.(4) All identifying information, and any personal papers or correspondence from any person requesting assistance from the Inspector General, except in those cases where the Inspector General determines that disclosure of the information is necessary in the interests of justice.(5) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to contemporaneous public oversight pursuant to Section 6133. 6133 or subdivision (i) or (j) of Section 6126.
896961
897-6126.3. (a) The Inspector General shall not destroy any papers or memoranda used to support a completed review within three years after a report is released.(b) Except as provided in subdivision (c), all books, papers, records, and correspondence of the office pertaining to its work are public records subject to Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code and shall be filed at any of the regularly maintained offices of the Inspector General.(c) The following books, papers, records, and correspondence of the Office of the Inspector General pertaining to its work are not public records subject to Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code, nor shall they be subject to discovery pursuant to any provision of Title 3 (commencing with Section 1985) of Part 4 of the Code of Civil Procedure or Chapter 7 (commencing with Section 19570) of Part 2 of Division 5 of Title 2 of the Government Code in any manner:(1) All reports, papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents that are otherwise exempt from disclosure pursuant to the provisions of subdivision (d) of Section 6126.5, Section 6126.6, subdivision (c) of Section 6128, subdivision (c) of Section 6126, or all other applicable laws regarding confidentiality, including, but not limited to, the California Public Records Act, the Public Safety Officers Procedural Bill of Rights, the Information Practices Act of 1977, the Confidentiality of Medical Information Act of 1977, and the provisions of Section 832.7, relating to the disposition notification for complaints against peace officers.(2) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to any audit or review that has not been completed.(3) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to internal discussions between the Inspector General and the Inspector Generals staff, or between staff members of the Inspector General, or any personal notes of the Inspector General or the Inspector Generals staff.(4) All identifying information, and any personal papers or correspondence from any person requesting assistance from the Inspector General, except in those cases where the Inspector General determines that disclosure of the information is necessary in the interests of justice.(5) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to contemporaneous public oversight pursuant to Section 6133 or subdivision (i) or (j) of Section 6126.
962+6126.3. (a) The Inspector General shall not destroy any papers or memoranda used to support a completed review within three years after a report is released.(b) Except as provided in subdivision (c), all books, papers, records, and correspondence of the office pertaining to its work are public records subject to Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code and shall be filed at any of the regularly maintained offices of the Inspector General.(c) The following books, papers, records, and correspondence of the Office of the Inspector General pertaining to its work are not public records subject to Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code, nor shall they be subject to discovery pursuant to any provision of Title 3 (commencing with Section 1985) of Part 4 of the Code of Civil Procedure or Chapter 7 (commencing with Section 19570) of Part 2 of Division 5 of Title 2 of the Government Code in any manner:(1) All reports, papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents that are otherwise exempt from disclosure pursuant to the provisions of subdivision (d) of Section 6126.5, Section 6126.6, subdivision (c) of Section 6128, subdivision (c) of Section 6126, or all other applicable laws regarding confidentiality, including, but not limited to, the California Public Records Act, the Public Safety Officers Procedural Bill of Rights, the Information Practices Act of 1977, the Confidentiality of Medical Information Act of 1977, and the provisions of Section 832.7, relating to the disposition notification for complaints against peace officers.(2) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to any audit or review that has not been completed.(3) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to internal discussions between the Inspector General and his or her the Inspector Generals staff, or between staff members of the Inspector General, or any personal notes of the Inspector General or his or her the Inspector Generals staff.(4) All identifying information, and any personal papers or correspondence from any person requesting assistance from the Inspector General, except in those cases where the Inspector General determines that disclosure of the information is necessary in the interests of justice.(5) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to contemporaneous public oversight pursuant to Section 6133. 6133 or subdivision (i) or (j) of Section 6126.
898963
899-6126.3. (a) The Inspector General shall not destroy any papers or memoranda used to support a completed review within three years after a report is released.(b) Except as provided in subdivision (c), all books, papers, records, and correspondence of the office pertaining to its work are public records subject to Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code and shall be filed at any of the regularly maintained offices of the Inspector General.(c) The following books, papers, records, and correspondence of the Office of the Inspector General pertaining to its work are not public records subject to Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code, nor shall they be subject to discovery pursuant to any provision of Title 3 (commencing with Section 1985) of Part 4 of the Code of Civil Procedure or Chapter 7 (commencing with Section 19570) of Part 2 of Division 5 of Title 2 of the Government Code in any manner:(1) All reports, papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents that are otherwise exempt from disclosure pursuant to the provisions of subdivision (d) of Section 6126.5, Section 6126.6, subdivision (c) of Section 6128, subdivision (c) of Section 6126, or all other applicable laws regarding confidentiality, including, but not limited to, the California Public Records Act, the Public Safety Officers Procedural Bill of Rights, the Information Practices Act of 1977, the Confidentiality of Medical Information Act of 1977, and the provisions of Section 832.7, relating to the disposition notification for complaints against peace officers.(2) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to any audit or review that has not been completed.(3) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to internal discussions between the Inspector General and the Inspector Generals staff, or between staff members of the Inspector General, or any personal notes of the Inspector General or the Inspector Generals staff.(4) All identifying information, and any personal papers or correspondence from any person requesting assistance from the Inspector General, except in those cases where the Inspector General determines that disclosure of the information is necessary in the interests of justice.(5) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to contemporaneous public oversight pursuant to Section 6133 or subdivision (i) or (j) of Section 6126.
964+6126.3. (a) The Inspector General shall not destroy any papers or memoranda used to support a completed review within three years after a report is released.(b) Except as provided in subdivision (c), all books, papers, records, and correspondence of the office pertaining to its work are public records subject to Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code and shall be filed at any of the regularly maintained offices of the Inspector General.(c) The following books, papers, records, and correspondence of the Office of the Inspector General pertaining to its work are not public records subject to Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code, nor shall they be subject to discovery pursuant to any provision of Title 3 (commencing with Section 1985) of Part 4 of the Code of Civil Procedure or Chapter 7 (commencing with Section 19570) of Part 2 of Division 5 of Title 2 of the Government Code in any manner:(1) All reports, papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents that are otherwise exempt from disclosure pursuant to the provisions of subdivision (d) of Section 6126.5, Section 6126.6, subdivision (c) of Section 6128, subdivision (c) of Section 6126, or all other applicable laws regarding confidentiality, including, but not limited to, the California Public Records Act, the Public Safety Officers Procedural Bill of Rights, the Information Practices Act of 1977, the Confidentiality of Medical Information Act of 1977, and the provisions of Section 832.7, relating to the disposition notification for complaints against peace officers.(2) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to any audit or review that has not been completed.(3) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to internal discussions between the Inspector General and his or her the Inspector Generals staff, or between staff members of the Inspector General, or any personal notes of the Inspector General or his or her the Inspector Generals staff.(4) All identifying information, and any personal papers or correspondence from any person requesting assistance from the Inspector General, except in those cases where the Inspector General determines that disclosure of the information is necessary in the interests of justice.(5) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to contemporaneous public oversight pursuant to Section 6133. 6133 or subdivision (i) or (j) of Section 6126.
900965
901966
902967
903968 6126.3. (a) The Inspector General shall not destroy any papers or memoranda used to support a completed review within three years after a report is released.
904969
905970 (b) Except as provided in subdivision (c), all books, papers, records, and correspondence of the office pertaining to its work are public records subject to Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code and shall be filed at any of the regularly maintained offices of the Inspector General.
906971
907972 (c) The following books, papers, records, and correspondence of the Office of the Inspector General pertaining to its work are not public records subject to Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code, nor shall they be subject to discovery pursuant to any provision of Title 3 (commencing with Section 1985) of Part 4 of the Code of Civil Procedure or Chapter 7 (commencing with Section 19570) of Part 2 of Division 5 of Title 2 of the Government Code in any manner:
908973
909974 (1) All reports, papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents that are otherwise exempt from disclosure pursuant to the provisions of subdivision (d) of Section 6126.5, Section 6126.6, subdivision (c) of Section 6128, subdivision (c) of Section 6126, or all other applicable laws regarding confidentiality, including, but not limited to, the California Public Records Act, the Public Safety Officers Procedural Bill of Rights, the Information Practices Act of 1977, the Confidentiality of Medical Information Act of 1977, and the provisions of Section 832.7, relating to the disposition notification for complaints against peace officers.
910975
911976 (2) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to any audit or review that has not been completed.
912977
913-(3) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to internal discussions between the Inspector General and the Inspector Generals staff, or between staff members of the Inspector General, or any personal notes of the Inspector General or the Inspector Generals staff.
978+(3) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to internal discussions between the Inspector General and his or her the Inspector Generals staff, or between staff members of the Inspector General, or any personal notes of the Inspector General or his or her the Inspector Generals staff.
914979
915980 (4) All identifying information, and any personal papers or correspondence from any person requesting assistance from the Inspector General, except in those cases where the Inspector General determines that disclosure of the information is necessary in the interests of justice.
916981
917-(5) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to contemporaneous public oversight pursuant to Section 6133 or subdivision (i) or (j) of Section 6126.
982+(5) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to contemporaneous public oversight pursuant to Section 6133. 6133 or subdivision (i) or (j) of Section 6126.
918983
919-SEC. 15. Section 6126.5 of the Penal Code is amended to read:6126.5. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, the Inspector General during regular business hours or at any other time determined necessary by the Inspector General, shall have access to and authority to examine and reproduce any and all books, accounts, reports, vouchers, correspondence files, documents, and other records, and to examine the bank accounts, money, or other property of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation in connection with duties authorized by this chapter. Any officer or employee of any agency or entity having these records or property in their possession or under their control shall permit access to, and examination and reproduction thereof consistent with the provisions of this section, upon the request of the Inspector General or the Inspector Generals authorized representative.(b) In connection with duties authorized by this chapter, the Inspector General or the Inspector Generals authorized representative shall have access to the records and property of any public or private entity or person subject to review or regulation by the public agency or public entity to the same extent that employees or officers of that agency or public entity have access. No provision of law, memorandum of understanding, or any other agreement entered into between the employing entity and the employee or the employees representative providing for the confidentiality or privilege of any records or property shall prevent disclosure pursuant to subdivision (a). Access, examination, and reproduction consistent with the provisions of this section shall not result in the waiver of any confidentiality or privilege regarding any records or property.(c) Any officer or person who fails or refuses to permit access, examination, or reproduction, as required by this section, is guilty of a misdemeanor.(d) The Inspector General may require any employee of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation to be interviewed on a confidential basis. Any employee requested to be interviewed shall comply and shall have time afforded by the appointing authority for the purpose of an interview with the Inspector General or the Inspector Generals designee. The Inspector General shall have the discretion to redact the name or other identifying information of any person interviewed from any public report issued by the Inspector General, where required by law or where the failure to redact the information may hinder prosecution or an action in a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding, or where the Inspector General determines that disclosure of the information is not in the interests of justice. It is not the purpose of these communications to address disciplinary action or grievance procedures that may routinely occur. When conducting an investigation into allegations that an employee of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation engaged in misconduct, the Inspector General shall comply with Sections 3303, 3307, 3307.5, 3308, 3309, and subdivisions (a) to (d), inclusive, of Section 3309.5 of the Government Code, except that the Inspector General shall not be subject to the provisions of any memorandum of understanding or other agreement entered into between the employing entity and the employee or the employees representative that is in conflict with, or adds to the requirements of, Sections 3303, 3307, 3307.5, 3308, 3309, and subdivisions (a) to (d), inclusive, of Section 3309.5 of the Government Code.
984+SEC. 15. Section 6126.5 of the Penal Code is amended to read:6126.5. (a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the Inspector General during regular business hours or at any other time determined necessary by the Inspector General, shall have access to and authority to examine and reproduce any and all books, accounts, reports, vouchers, correspondence files, documents, and other records, and to examine the bank accounts, money, or other property of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation in connection with duties authorized by this chapter. Any officer or employee of any agency or entity having these records or property in his or her their possession or under his or her their control shall permit access to, and examination and reproduction thereof consistent with the provisions of this section, upon the request of the Inspector General or his or her the Inspector Generals authorized representative.(b) In connection with duties authorized by this chapter, the Inspector General or his or her the Inspector Generals authorized representative shall have access to the records and property of any public or private entity or person subject to review or regulation by the public agency or public entity to the same extent that employees or officers of that agency or public entity have access. No provision of law or any law, memorandum of understanding understanding, or any other agreement entered into between the employing entity and the employee or the employees representative providing for the confidentiality or privilege of any records or property shall prevent disclosure pursuant to subdivision (a). Access, examination, and reproduction consistent with the provisions of this section shall not result in the waiver of any confidentiality or privilege regarding any records or property.(c) Any officer or person who fails or refuses to permit access, examination, or reproduction, as required by this section, is guilty of a misdemeanor.(d) The Inspector General may require any employee of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation to be interviewed on a confidential basis. Any employee requested to be interviewed shall comply and shall have time afforded by the appointing authority for the purpose of an interview with the Inspector General or his or her the Inspector Generals designee. The Inspector General shall have the discretion to redact the name or other identifying information of any person interviewed from any public report issued by the Inspector General, where required by law or where the failure to redact the information may hinder prosecution or an action in a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding, or where the Inspector General determines that disclosure of the information is not in the interests of justice. It is not the purpose of these communications to address disciplinary action or grievance procedures that may routinely occur. If it appears When conducting an investigation into allegations that the facts an employee of the case could lead to punitive action, Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation engaged in misconduct, the Inspector General shall be subject to comply with Sections 3303, 3307, 3307.5, 3308, 3309, and subdivisions (a) to (d), inclusive, of Section 3309.5 of the Government Code as if the Inspector General were the employer, Code, except that the Inspector General shall not be subject to the provisions of any memorandum of understanding or other agreement entered into between the employing entity and the employee or the employees representative that is in conflict with, or adds to the requirements of, Sections 3303, 3307, 3307.5, 3308, 3309, and subdivisions (a) to (d), inclusive, of Section 3309.5 of the Government Code.
920985
921986 SEC. 15. Section 6126.5 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
922987
923988 ### SEC. 15.
924989
925-6126.5. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, the Inspector General during regular business hours or at any other time determined necessary by the Inspector General, shall have access to and authority to examine and reproduce any and all books, accounts, reports, vouchers, correspondence files, documents, and other records, and to examine the bank accounts, money, or other property of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation in connection with duties authorized by this chapter. Any officer or employee of any agency or entity having these records or property in their possession or under their control shall permit access to, and examination and reproduction thereof consistent with the provisions of this section, upon the request of the Inspector General or the Inspector Generals authorized representative.(b) In connection with duties authorized by this chapter, the Inspector General or the Inspector Generals authorized representative shall have access to the records and property of any public or private entity or person subject to review or regulation by the public agency or public entity to the same extent that employees or officers of that agency or public entity have access. No provision of law, memorandum of understanding, or any other agreement entered into between the employing entity and the employee or the employees representative providing for the confidentiality or privilege of any records or property shall prevent disclosure pursuant to subdivision (a). Access, examination, and reproduction consistent with the provisions of this section shall not result in the waiver of any confidentiality or privilege regarding any records or property.(c) Any officer or person who fails or refuses to permit access, examination, or reproduction, as required by this section, is guilty of a misdemeanor.(d) The Inspector General may require any employee of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation to be interviewed on a confidential basis. Any employee requested to be interviewed shall comply and shall have time afforded by the appointing authority for the purpose of an interview with the Inspector General or the Inspector Generals designee. The Inspector General shall have the discretion to redact the name or other identifying information of any person interviewed from any public report issued by the Inspector General, where required by law or where the failure to redact the information may hinder prosecution or an action in a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding, or where the Inspector General determines that disclosure of the information is not in the interests of justice. It is not the purpose of these communications to address disciplinary action or grievance procedures that may routinely occur. When conducting an investigation into allegations that an employee of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation engaged in misconduct, the Inspector General shall comply with Sections 3303, 3307, 3307.5, 3308, 3309, and subdivisions (a) to (d), inclusive, of Section 3309.5 of the Government Code, except that the Inspector General shall not be subject to the provisions of any memorandum of understanding or other agreement entered into between the employing entity and the employee or the employees representative that is in conflict with, or adds to the requirements of, Sections 3303, 3307, 3307.5, 3308, 3309, and subdivisions (a) to (d), inclusive, of Section 3309.5 of the Government Code.
990+6126.5. (a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the Inspector General during regular business hours or at any other time determined necessary by the Inspector General, shall have access to and authority to examine and reproduce any and all books, accounts, reports, vouchers, correspondence files, documents, and other records, and to examine the bank accounts, money, or other property of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation in connection with duties authorized by this chapter. Any officer or employee of any agency or entity having these records or property in his or her their possession or under his or her their control shall permit access to, and examination and reproduction thereof consistent with the provisions of this section, upon the request of the Inspector General or his or her the Inspector Generals authorized representative.(b) In connection with duties authorized by this chapter, the Inspector General or his or her the Inspector Generals authorized representative shall have access to the records and property of any public or private entity or person subject to review or regulation by the public agency or public entity to the same extent that employees or officers of that agency or public entity have access. No provision of law or any law, memorandum of understanding understanding, or any other agreement entered into between the employing entity and the employee or the employees representative providing for the confidentiality or privilege of any records or property shall prevent disclosure pursuant to subdivision (a). Access, examination, and reproduction consistent with the provisions of this section shall not result in the waiver of any confidentiality or privilege regarding any records or property.(c) Any officer or person who fails or refuses to permit access, examination, or reproduction, as required by this section, is guilty of a misdemeanor.(d) The Inspector General may require any employee of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation to be interviewed on a confidential basis. Any employee requested to be interviewed shall comply and shall have time afforded by the appointing authority for the purpose of an interview with the Inspector General or his or her the Inspector Generals designee. The Inspector General shall have the discretion to redact the name or other identifying information of any person interviewed from any public report issued by the Inspector General, where required by law or where the failure to redact the information may hinder prosecution or an action in a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding, or where the Inspector General determines that disclosure of the information is not in the interests of justice. It is not the purpose of these communications to address disciplinary action or grievance procedures that may routinely occur. If it appears When conducting an investigation into allegations that the facts an employee of the case could lead to punitive action, Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation engaged in misconduct, the Inspector General shall be subject to comply with Sections 3303, 3307, 3307.5, 3308, 3309, and subdivisions (a) to (d), inclusive, of Section 3309.5 of the Government Code as if the Inspector General were the employer, Code, except that the Inspector General shall not be subject to the provisions of any memorandum of understanding or other agreement entered into between the employing entity and the employee or the employees representative that is in conflict with, or adds to the requirements of, Sections 3303, 3307, 3307.5, 3308, 3309, and subdivisions (a) to (d), inclusive, of Section 3309.5 of the Government Code.
926991
927-6126.5. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, the Inspector General during regular business hours or at any other time determined necessary by the Inspector General, shall have access to and authority to examine and reproduce any and all books, accounts, reports, vouchers, correspondence files, documents, and other records, and to examine the bank accounts, money, or other property of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation in connection with duties authorized by this chapter. Any officer or employee of any agency or entity having these records or property in their possession or under their control shall permit access to, and examination and reproduction thereof consistent with the provisions of this section, upon the request of the Inspector General or the Inspector Generals authorized representative.(b) In connection with duties authorized by this chapter, the Inspector General or the Inspector Generals authorized representative shall have access to the records and property of any public or private entity or person subject to review or regulation by the public agency or public entity to the same extent that employees or officers of that agency or public entity have access. No provision of law, memorandum of understanding, or any other agreement entered into between the employing entity and the employee or the employees representative providing for the confidentiality or privilege of any records or property shall prevent disclosure pursuant to subdivision (a). Access, examination, and reproduction consistent with the provisions of this section shall not result in the waiver of any confidentiality or privilege regarding any records or property.(c) Any officer or person who fails or refuses to permit access, examination, or reproduction, as required by this section, is guilty of a misdemeanor.(d) The Inspector General may require any employee of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation to be interviewed on a confidential basis. Any employee requested to be interviewed shall comply and shall have time afforded by the appointing authority for the purpose of an interview with the Inspector General or the Inspector Generals designee. The Inspector General shall have the discretion to redact the name or other identifying information of any person interviewed from any public report issued by the Inspector General, where required by law or where the failure to redact the information may hinder prosecution or an action in a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding, or where the Inspector General determines that disclosure of the information is not in the interests of justice. It is not the purpose of these communications to address disciplinary action or grievance procedures that may routinely occur. When conducting an investigation into allegations that an employee of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation engaged in misconduct, the Inspector General shall comply with Sections 3303, 3307, 3307.5, 3308, 3309, and subdivisions (a) to (d), inclusive, of Section 3309.5 of the Government Code, except that the Inspector General shall not be subject to the provisions of any memorandum of understanding or other agreement entered into between the employing entity and the employee or the employees representative that is in conflict with, or adds to the requirements of, Sections 3303, 3307, 3307.5, 3308, 3309, and subdivisions (a) to (d), inclusive, of Section 3309.5 of the Government Code.
992+6126.5. (a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the Inspector General during regular business hours or at any other time determined necessary by the Inspector General, shall have access to and authority to examine and reproduce any and all books, accounts, reports, vouchers, correspondence files, documents, and other records, and to examine the bank accounts, money, or other property of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation in connection with duties authorized by this chapter. Any officer or employee of any agency or entity having these records or property in his or her their possession or under his or her their control shall permit access to, and examination and reproduction thereof consistent with the provisions of this section, upon the request of the Inspector General or his or her the Inspector Generals authorized representative.(b) In connection with duties authorized by this chapter, the Inspector General or his or her the Inspector Generals authorized representative shall have access to the records and property of any public or private entity or person subject to review or regulation by the public agency or public entity to the same extent that employees or officers of that agency or public entity have access. No provision of law or any law, memorandum of understanding understanding, or any other agreement entered into between the employing entity and the employee or the employees representative providing for the confidentiality or privilege of any records or property shall prevent disclosure pursuant to subdivision (a). Access, examination, and reproduction consistent with the provisions of this section shall not result in the waiver of any confidentiality or privilege regarding any records or property.(c) Any officer or person who fails or refuses to permit access, examination, or reproduction, as required by this section, is guilty of a misdemeanor.(d) The Inspector General may require any employee of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation to be interviewed on a confidential basis. Any employee requested to be interviewed shall comply and shall have time afforded by the appointing authority for the purpose of an interview with the Inspector General or his or her the Inspector Generals designee. The Inspector General shall have the discretion to redact the name or other identifying information of any person interviewed from any public report issued by the Inspector General, where required by law or where the failure to redact the information may hinder prosecution or an action in a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding, or where the Inspector General determines that disclosure of the information is not in the interests of justice. It is not the purpose of these communications to address disciplinary action or grievance procedures that may routinely occur. If it appears When conducting an investigation into allegations that the facts an employee of the case could lead to punitive action, Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation engaged in misconduct, the Inspector General shall be subject to comply with Sections 3303, 3307, 3307.5, 3308, 3309, and subdivisions (a) to (d), inclusive, of Section 3309.5 of the Government Code as if the Inspector General were the employer, Code, except that the Inspector General shall not be subject to the provisions of any memorandum of understanding or other agreement entered into between the employing entity and the employee or the employees representative that is in conflict with, or adds to the requirements of, Sections 3303, 3307, 3307.5, 3308, 3309, and subdivisions (a) to (d), inclusive, of Section 3309.5 of the Government Code.
928993
929-6126.5. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, the Inspector General during regular business hours or at any other time determined necessary by the Inspector General, shall have access to and authority to examine and reproduce any and all books, accounts, reports, vouchers, correspondence files, documents, and other records, and to examine the bank accounts, money, or other property of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation in connection with duties authorized by this chapter. Any officer or employee of any agency or entity having these records or property in their possession or under their control shall permit access to, and examination and reproduction thereof consistent with the provisions of this section, upon the request of the Inspector General or the Inspector Generals authorized representative.(b) In connection with duties authorized by this chapter, the Inspector General or the Inspector Generals authorized representative shall have access to the records and property of any public or private entity or person subject to review or regulation by the public agency or public entity to the same extent that employees or officers of that agency or public entity have access. No provision of law, memorandum of understanding, or any other agreement entered into between the employing entity and the employee or the employees representative providing for the confidentiality or privilege of any records or property shall prevent disclosure pursuant to subdivision (a). Access, examination, and reproduction consistent with the provisions of this section shall not result in the waiver of any confidentiality or privilege regarding any records or property.(c) Any officer or person who fails or refuses to permit access, examination, or reproduction, as required by this section, is guilty of a misdemeanor.(d) The Inspector General may require any employee of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation to be interviewed on a confidential basis. Any employee requested to be interviewed shall comply and shall have time afforded by the appointing authority for the purpose of an interview with the Inspector General or the Inspector Generals designee. The Inspector General shall have the discretion to redact the name or other identifying information of any person interviewed from any public report issued by the Inspector General, where required by law or where the failure to redact the information may hinder prosecution or an action in a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding, or where the Inspector General determines that disclosure of the information is not in the interests of justice. It is not the purpose of these communications to address disciplinary action or grievance procedures that may routinely occur. When conducting an investigation into allegations that an employee of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation engaged in misconduct, the Inspector General shall comply with Sections 3303, 3307, 3307.5, 3308, 3309, and subdivisions (a) to (d), inclusive, of Section 3309.5 of the Government Code, except that the Inspector General shall not be subject to the provisions of any memorandum of understanding or other agreement entered into between the employing entity and the employee or the employees representative that is in conflict with, or adds to the requirements of, Sections 3303, 3307, 3307.5, 3308, 3309, and subdivisions (a) to (d), inclusive, of Section 3309.5 of the Government Code.
994+6126.5. (a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the Inspector General during regular business hours or at any other time determined necessary by the Inspector General, shall have access to and authority to examine and reproduce any and all books, accounts, reports, vouchers, correspondence files, documents, and other records, and to examine the bank accounts, money, or other property of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation in connection with duties authorized by this chapter. Any officer or employee of any agency or entity having these records or property in his or her their possession or under his or her their control shall permit access to, and examination and reproduction thereof consistent with the provisions of this section, upon the request of the Inspector General or his or her the Inspector Generals authorized representative.(b) In connection with duties authorized by this chapter, the Inspector General or his or her the Inspector Generals authorized representative shall have access to the records and property of any public or private entity or person subject to review or regulation by the public agency or public entity to the same extent that employees or officers of that agency or public entity have access. No provision of law or any law, memorandum of understanding understanding, or any other agreement entered into between the employing entity and the employee or the employees representative providing for the confidentiality or privilege of any records or property shall prevent disclosure pursuant to subdivision (a). Access, examination, and reproduction consistent with the provisions of this section shall not result in the waiver of any confidentiality or privilege regarding any records or property.(c) Any officer or person who fails or refuses to permit access, examination, or reproduction, as required by this section, is guilty of a misdemeanor.(d) The Inspector General may require any employee of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation to be interviewed on a confidential basis. Any employee requested to be interviewed shall comply and shall have time afforded by the appointing authority for the purpose of an interview with the Inspector General or his or her the Inspector Generals designee. The Inspector General shall have the discretion to redact the name or other identifying information of any person interviewed from any public report issued by the Inspector General, where required by law or where the failure to redact the information may hinder prosecution or an action in a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding, or where the Inspector General determines that disclosure of the information is not in the interests of justice. It is not the purpose of these communications to address disciplinary action or grievance procedures that may routinely occur. If it appears When conducting an investigation into allegations that the facts an employee of the case could lead to punitive action, Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation engaged in misconduct, the Inspector General shall be subject to comply with Sections 3303, 3307, 3307.5, 3308, 3309, and subdivisions (a) to (d), inclusive, of Section 3309.5 of the Government Code as if the Inspector General were the employer, Code, except that the Inspector General shall not be subject to the provisions of any memorandum of understanding or other agreement entered into between the employing entity and the employee or the employees representative that is in conflict with, or adds to the requirements of, Sections 3303, 3307, 3307.5, 3308, 3309, and subdivisions (a) to (d), inclusive, of Section 3309.5 of the Government Code.
930995
931996
932997
933-6126.5. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, the Inspector General during regular business hours or at any other time determined necessary by the Inspector General, shall have access to and authority to examine and reproduce any and all books, accounts, reports, vouchers, correspondence files, documents, and other records, and to examine the bank accounts, money, or other property of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation in connection with duties authorized by this chapter. Any officer or employee of any agency or entity having these records or property in their possession or under their control shall permit access to, and examination and reproduction thereof consistent with the provisions of this section, upon the request of the Inspector General or the Inspector Generals authorized representative.
998+6126.5. (a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the Inspector General during regular business hours or at any other time determined necessary by the Inspector General, shall have access to and authority to examine and reproduce any and all books, accounts, reports, vouchers, correspondence files, documents, and other records, and to examine the bank accounts, money, or other property of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation in connection with duties authorized by this chapter. Any officer or employee of any agency or entity having these records or property in his or her their possession or under his or her their control shall permit access to, and examination and reproduction thereof consistent with the provisions of this section, upon the request of the Inspector General or his or her the Inspector Generals authorized representative.
934999
935-(b) In connection with duties authorized by this chapter, the Inspector General or the Inspector Generals authorized representative shall have access to the records and property of any public or private entity or person subject to review or regulation by the public agency or public entity to the same extent that employees or officers of that agency or public entity have access. No provision of law, memorandum of understanding, or any other agreement entered into between the employing entity and the employee or the employees representative providing for the confidentiality or privilege of any records or property shall prevent disclosure pursuant to subdivision (a). Access, examination, and reproduction consistent with the provisions of this section shall not result in the waiver of any confidentiality or privilege regarding any records or property.
1000+(b) In connection with duties authorized by this chapter, the Inspector General or his or her the Inspector Generals authorized representative shall have access to the records and property of any public or private entity or person subject to review or regulation by the public agency or public entity to the same extent that employees or officers of that agency or public entity have access. No provision of law or any law, memorandum of understanding understanding, or any other agreement entered into between the employing entity and the employee or the employees representative providing for the confidentiality or privilege of any records or property shall prevent disclosure pursuant to subdivision (a). Access, examination, and reproduction consistent with the provisions of this section shall not result in the waiver of any confidentiality or privilege regarding any records or property.
9361001
9371002 (c) Any officer or person who fails or refuses to permit access, examination, or reproduction, as required by this section, is guilty of a misdemeanor.
9381003
939-(d) The Inspector General may require any employee of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation to be interviewed on a confidential basis. Any employee requested to be interviewed shall comply and shall have time afforded by the appointing authority for the purpose of an interview with the Inspector General or the Inspector Generals designee. The Inspector General shall have the discretion to redact the name or other identifying information of any person interviewed from any public report issued by the Inspector General, where required by law or where the failure to redact the information may hinder prosecution or an action in a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding, or where the Inspector General determines that disclosure of the information is not in the interests of justice. It is not the purpose of these communications to address disciplinary action or grievance procedures that may routinely occur. When conducting an investigation into allegations that an employee of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation engaged in misconduct, the Inspector General shall comply with Sections 3303, 3307, 3307.5, 3308, 3309, and subdivisions (a) to (d), inclusive, of Section 3309.5 of the Government Code, except that the Inspector General shall not be subject to the provisions of any memorandum of understanding or other agreement entered into between the employing entity and the employee or the employees representative that is in conflict with, or adds to the requirements of, Sections 3303, 3307, 3307.5, 3308, 3309, and subdivisions (a) to (d), inclusive, of Section 3309.5 of the Government Code.
1004+(d) The Inspector General may require any employee of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation to be interviewed on a confidential basis. Any employee requested to be interviewed shall comply and shall have time afforded by the appointing authority for the purpose of an interview with the Inspector General or his or her the Inspector Generals designee. The Inspector General shall have the discretion to redact the name or other identifying information of any person interviewed from any public report issued by the Inspector General, where required by law or where the failure to redact the information may hinder prosecution or an action in a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding, or where the Inspector General determines that disclosure of the information is not in the interests of justice. It is not the purpose of these communications to address disciplinary action or grievance procedures that may routinely occur. If it appears When conducting an investigation into allegations that the facts an employee of the case could lead to punitive action, Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation engaged in misconduct, the Inspector General shall be subject to comply with Sections 3303, 3307, 3307.5, 3308, 3309, and subdivisions (a) to (d), inclusive, of Section 3309.5 of the Government Code as if the Inspector General were the employer, Code, except that the Inspector General shall not be subject to the provisions of any memorandum of understanding or other agreement entered into between the employing entity and the employee or the employees representative that is in conflict with, or adds to the requirements of, Sections 3303, 3307, 3307.5, 3308, 3309, and subdivisions (a) to (d), inclusive, of Section 3309.5 of the Government Code.
9401005
941-SEC. 16. Section 6133 of the Penal Code is amended to read:6133. (a) The Office of the Inspector General shall be responsible for contemporaneous public oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation investigations and staff grievance inquiries conducted by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations Office of Internal Affairs. To facilitate oversight of the departments internal affairs investigations, the Office of the Inspector General shall have staff physically colocated with the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations Office of Internal Affairs, within a reasonable timeframe and without any undue delays. The Office of the Inspector General shall also be responsible for advising the public regarding the adequacy of each investigation, and whether discipline of the subject of the investigation is warranted. The Office of the Inspector General shall have discretion to provide public oversight of other Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation personnel investigations as needed.(b) (1) The Office of the Inspector General shall issue regular reports, no less than annually, to the Governor and the Legislature summarizing its recommendations concerning its oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation allegations of internal misconduct and use of force. The Office of the Inspector General shall also issue regular reports, no less than semiannually, summarizing its oversight of Office of Internal Affairs investigations pursuant to subdivision (a). The reports shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:(A) Data on the number, type, and disposition of complaints made against correctional officers and staff.(B) A synopsis of each matter reviewed by the Office of the Inspector General.(C) An assessment of the quality of the investigation, the appropriateness of any disciplinary charges, the Office of the Inspector Generals recommendations regarding the disposition in the case and when founded, the level of discipline afforded, and the degree to which the agencys authorities agreed with the Office of the Inspector General recommendations regarding disposition and level of discipline.(D) The report of any settlement and whether the Office of the Inspector General concurred with the settlement.(E) The extent to which any discipline was modified after imposition.(2) The reports shall be in a form that does not identify the agency employees involved in the alleged misconduct.(3) The reports shall be posted on the Inspector Generals internet website and otherwise made available to the public upon their release to the Governor and the Legislature.
1006+SEC. 16. Section 6133 of the Penal Code is amended to read:6133. (a) The Office of the Inspector General shall be responsible for contemporaneous public oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation investigations and staff grievance inquiries conducted by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations Office of Internal Affairs. To facilitate oversight, oversight of the departments internal affairs investigations, the Office of the Inspector General shall have staff physically colocated with the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations Office of Internal Affairs, within a reasonable timeframe and without any undue delays. The Office of the Inspector General shall also be responsible for advising the public regarding the adequacy of each investigation, and whether discipline of the subject of the investigation is warranted. The Office of the Inspector General shall have discretion to provide public oversight of other Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation personnel investigations as needed.(b) (1) The Office of the Inspector General shall issue regular reports, no less than annually, to the Governor and the Legislature summarizing its recommendations concerning its oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation allegations of internal misconduct and use of force. The Office of the Inspector General shall also issue regular reports, no less than semiannually, summarizing its oversight of Office of Internal Affairs investigations pursuant to subdivision (a). The reports shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:(A) Data on the number, type, and disposition of complaints made against correctional officers and staff.(B) A synopsis of each matter reviewed by the Office of the Inspector General.(C) An assessment of the quality of the investigation, the appropriateness of any disciplinary charges, the Office of the Inspector Generals recommendations regarding the disposition in the case and when founded, the level of discipline afforded, and the degree to which the agencys authorities agreed with the Office of the Inspector General recommendations regarding disposition and level of discipline.(D) The report of any settlement and whether the Office of the Inspector General concurred with the settlement.(E) The extent to which any discipline was modified after imposition.(2) The reports shall be in a form that does not identify the agency employees involved in the alleged misconduct.(3) The reports shall be posted on the Inspector Generals Internet Web site internet website and otherwise made available to the public upon their release to the Governor and the Legislature.
9421007
9431008 SEC. 16. Section 6133 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
9441009
9451010 ### SEC. 16.
9461011
947-6133. (a) The Office of the Inspector General shall be responsible for contemporaneous public oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation investigations and staff grievance inquiries conducted by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations Office of Internal Affairs. To facilitate oversight of the departments internal affairs investigations, the Office of the Inspector General shall have staff physically colocated with the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations Office of Internal Affairs, within a reasonable timeframe and without any undue delays. The Office of the Inspector General shall also be responsible for advising the public regarding the adequacy of each investigation, and whether discipline of the subject of the investigation is warranted. The Office of the Inspector General shall have discretion to provide public oversight of other Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation personnel investigations as needed.(b) (1) The Office of the Inspector General shall issue regular reports, no less than annually, to the Governor and the Legislature summarizing its recommendations concerning its oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation allegations of internal misconduct and use of force. The Office of the Inspector General shall also issue regular reports, no less than semiannually, summarizing its oversight of Office of Internal Affairs investigations pursuant to subdivision (a). The reports shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:(A) Data on the number, type, and disposition of complaints made against correctional officers and staff.(B) A synopsis of each matter reviewed by the Office of the Inspector General.(C) An assessment of the quality of the investigation, the appropriateness of any disciplinary charges, the Office of the Inspector Generals recommendations regarding the disposition in the case and when founded, the level of discipline afforded, and the degree to which the agencys authorities agreed with the Office of the Inspector General recommendations regarding disposition and level of discipline.(D) The report of any settlement and whether the Office of the Inspector General concurred with the settlement.(E) The extent to which any discipline was modified after imposition.(2) The reports shall be in a form that does not identify the agency employees involved in the alleged misconduct.(3) The reports shall be posted on the Inspector Generals internet website and otherwise made available to the public upon their release to the Governor and the Legislature.
1012+6133. (a) The Office of the Inspector General shall be responsible for contemporaneous public oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation investigations and staff grievance inquiries conducted by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations Office of Internal Affairs. To facilitate oversight, oversight of the departments internal affairs investigations, the Office of the Inspector General shall have staff physically colocated with the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations Office of Internal Affairs, within a reasonable timeframe and without any undue delays. The Office of the Inspector General shall also be responsible for advising the public regarding the adequacy of each investigation, and whether discipline of the subject of the investigation is warranted. The Office of the Inspector General shall have discretion to provide public oversight of other Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation personnel investigations as needed.(b) (1) The Office of the Inspector General shall issue regular reports, no less than annually, to the Governor and the Legislature summarizing its recommendations concerning its oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation allegations of internal misconduct and use of force. The Office of the Inspector General shall also issue regular reports, no less than semiannually, summarizing its oversight of Office of Internal Affairs investigations pursuant to subdivision (a). The reports shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:(A) Data on the number, type, and disposition of complaints made against correctional officers and staff.(B) A synopsis of each matter reviewed by the Office of the Inspector General.(C) An assessment of the quality of the investigation, the appropriateness of any disciplinary charges, the Office of the Inspector Generals recommendations regarding the disposition in the case and when founded, the level of discipline afforded, and the degree to which the agencys authorities agreed with the Office of the Inspector General recommendations regarding disposition and level of discipline.(D) The report of any settlement and whether the Office of the Inspector General concurred with the settlement.(E) The extent to which any discipline was modified after imposition.(2) The reports shall be in a form that does not identify the agency employees involved in the alleged misconduct.(3) The reports shall be posted on the Inspector Generals Internet Web site internet website and otherwise made available to the public upon their release to the Governor and the Legislature.
9481013
949-6133. (a) The Office of the Inspector General shall be responsible for contemporaneous public oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation investigations and staff grievance inquiries conducted by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations Office of Internal Affairs. To facilitate oversight of the departments internal affairs investigations, the Office of the Inspector General shall have staff physically colocated with the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations Office of Internal Affairs, within a reasonable timeframe and without any undue delays. The Office of the Inspector General shall also be responsible for advising the public regarding the adequacy of each investigation, and whether discipline of the subject of the investigation is warranted. The Office of the Inspector General shall have discretion to provide public oversight of other Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation personnel investigations as needed.(b) (1) The Office of the Inspector General shall issue regular reports, no less than annually, to the Governor and the Legislature summarizing its recommendations concerning its oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation allegations of internal misconduct and use of force. The Office of the Inspector General shall also issue regular reports, no less than semiannually, summarizing its oversight of Office of Internal Affairs investigations pursuant to subdivision (a). The reports shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:(A) Data on the number, type, and disposition of complaints made against correctional officers and staff.(B) A synopsis of each matter reviewed by the Office of the Inspector General.(C) An assessment of the quality of the investigation, the appropriateness of any disciplinary charges, the Office of the Inspector Generals recommendations regarding the disposition in the case and when founded, the level of discipline afforded, and the degree to which the agencys authorities agreed with the Office of the Inspector General recommendations regarding disposition and level of discipline.(D) The report of any settlement and whether the Office of the Inspector General concurred with the settlement.(E) The extent to which any discipline was modified after imposition.(2) The reports shall be in a form that does not identify the agency employees involved in the alleged misconduct.(3) The reports shall be posted on the Inspector Generals internet website and otherwise made available to the public upon their release to the Governor and the Legislature.
1014+6133. (a) The Office of the Inspector General shall be responsible for contemporaneous public oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation investigations and staff grievance inquiries conducted by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations Office of Internal Affairs. To facilitate oversight, oversight of the departments internal affairs investigations, the Office of the Inspector General shall have staff physically colocated with the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations Office of Internal Affairs, within a reasonable timeframe and without any undue delays. The Office of the Inspector General shall also be responsible for advising the public regarding the adequacy of each investigation, and whether discipline of the subject of the investigation is warranted. The Office of the Inspector General shall have discretion to provide public oversight of other Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation personnel investigations as needed.(b) (1) The Office of the Inspector General shall issue regular reports, no less than annually, to the Governor and the Legislature summarizing its recommendations concerning its oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation allegations of internal misconduct and use of force. The Office of the Inspector General shall also issue regular reports, no less than semiannually, summarizing its oversight of Office of Internal Affairs investigations pursuant to subdivision (a). The reports shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:(A) Data on the number, type, and disposition of complaints made against correctional officers and staff.(B) A synopsis of each matter reviewed by the Office of the Inspector General.(C) An assessment of the quality of the investigation, the appropriateness of any disciplinary charges, the Office of the Inspector Generals recommendations regarding the disposition in the case and when founded, the level of discipline afforded, and the degree to which the agencys authorities agreed with the Office of the Inspector General recommendations regarding disposition and level of discipline.(D) The report of any settlement and whether the Office of the Inspector General concurred with the settlement.(E) The extent to which any discipline was modified after imposition.(2) The reports shall be in a form that does not identify the agency employees involved in the alleged misconduct.(3) The reports shall be posted on the Inspector Generals Internet Web site internet website and otherwise made available to the public upon their release to the Governor and the Legislature.
9501015
951-6133. (a) The Office of the Inspector General shall be responsible for contemporaneous public oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation investigations and staff grievance inquiries conducted by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations Office of Internal Affairs. To facilitate oversight of the departments internal affairs investigations, the Office of the Inspector General shall have staff physically colocated with the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations Office of Internal Affairs, within a reasonable timeframe and without any undue delays. The Office of the Inspector General shall also be responsible for advising the public regarding the adequacy of each investigation, and whether discipline of the subject of the investigation is warranted. The Office of the Inspector General shall have discretion to provide public oversight of other Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation personnel investigations as needed.(b) (1) The Office of the Inspector General shall issue regular reports, no less than annually, to the Governor and the Legislature summarizing its recommendations concerning its oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation allegations of internal misconduct and use of force. The Office of the Inspector General shall also issue regular reports, no less than semiannually, summarizing its oversight of Office of Internal Affairs investigations pursuant to subdivision (a). The reports shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:(A) Data on the number, type, and disposition of complaints made against correctional officers and staff.(B) A synopsis of each matter reviewed by the Office of the Inspector General.(C) An assessment of the quality of the investigation, the appropriateness of any disciplinary charges, the Office of the Inspector Generals recommendations regarding the disposition in the case and when founded, the level of discipline afforded, and the degree to which the agencys authorities agreed with the Office of the Inspector General recommendations regarding disposition and level of discipline.(D) The report of any settlement and whether the Office of the Inspector General concurred with the settlement.(E) The extent to which any discipline was modified after imposition.(2) The reports shall be in a form that does not identify the agency employees involved in the alleged misconduct.(3) The reports shall be posted on the Inspector Generals internet website and otherwise made available to the public upon their release to the Governor and the Legislature.
1016+6133. (a) The Office of the Inspector General shall be responsible for contemporaneous public oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation investigations and staff grievance inquiries conducted by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations Office of Internal Affairs. To facilitate oversight, oversight of the departments internal affairs investigations, the Office of the Inspector General shall have staff physically colocated with the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations Office of Internal Affairs, within a reasonable timeframe and without any undue delays. The Office of the Inspector General shall also be responsible for advising the public regarding the adequacy of each investigation, and whether discipline of the subject of the investigation is warranted. The Office of the Inspector General shall have discretion to provide public oversight of other Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation personnel investigations as needed.(b) (1) The Office of the Inspector General shall issue regular reports, no less than annually, to the Governor and the Legislature summarizing its recommendations concerning its oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation allegations of internal misconduct and use of force. The Office of the Inspector General shall also issue regular reports, no less than semiannually, summarizing its oversight of Office of Internal Affairs investigations pursuant to subdivision (a). The reports shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:(A) Data on the number, type, and disposition of complaints made against correctional officers and staff.(B) A synopsis of each matter reviewed by the Office of the Inspector General.(C) An assessment of the quality of the investigation, the appropriateness of any disciplinary charges, the Office of the Inspector Generals recommendations regarding the disposition in the case and when founded, the level of discipline afforded, and the degree to which the agencys authorities agreed with the Office of the Inspector General recommendations regarding disposition and level of discipline.(D) The report of any settlement and whether the Office of the Inspector General concurred with the settlement.(E) The extent to which any discipline was modified after imposition.(2) The reports shall be in a form that does not identify the agency employees involved in the alleged misconduct.(3) The reports shall be posted on the Inspector Generals Internet Web site internet website and otherwise made available to the public upon their release to the Governor and the Legislature.
9521017
9531018
9541019
955-6133. (a) The Office of the Inspector General shall be responsible for contemporaneous public oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation investigations and staff grievance inquiries conducted by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations Office of Internal Affairs. To facilitate oversight of the departments internal affairs investigations, the Office of the Inspector General shall have staff physically colocated with the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations Office of Internal Affairs, within a reasonable timeframe and without any undue delays. The Office of the Inspector General shall also be responsible for advising the public regarding the adequacy of each investigation, and whether discipline of the subject of the investigation is warranted. The Office of the Inspector General shall have discretion to provide public oversight of other Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation personnel investigations as needed.
1020+6133. (a) The Office of the Inspector General shall be responsible for contemporaneous public oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation investigations and staff grievance inquiries conducted by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations Office of Internal Affairs. To facilitate oversight, oversight of the departments internal affairs investigations, the Office of the Inspector General shall have staff physically colocated with the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations Office of Internal Affairs, within a reasonable timeframe and without any undue delays. The Office of the Inspector General shall also be responsible for advising the public regarding the adequacy of each investigation, and whether discipline of the subject of the investigation is warranted. The Office of the Inspector General shall have discretion to provide public oversight of other Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation personnel investigations as needed.
9561021
9571022 (b) (1) The Office of the Inspector General shall issue regular reports, no less than annually, to the Governor and the Legislature summarizing its recommendations concerning its oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation allegations of internal misconduct and use of force. The Office of the Inspector General shall also issue regular reports, no less than semiannually, summarizing its oversight of Office of Internal Affairs investigations pursuant to subdivision (a). The reports shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:
9581023
9591024 (A) Data on the number, type, and disposition of complaints made against correctional officers and staff.
9601025
9611026 (B) A synopsis of each matter reviewed by the Office of the Inspector General.
9621027
9631028 (C) An assessment of the quality of the investigation, the appropriateness of any disciplinary charges, the Office of the Inspector Generals recommendations regarding the disposition in the case and when founded, the level of discipline afforded, and the degree to which the agencys authorities agreed with the Office of the Inspector General recommendations regarding disposition and level of discipline.
9641029
9651030 (D) The report of any settlement and whether the Office of the Inspector General concurred with the settlement.
9661031
9671032 (E) The extent to which any discipline was modified after imposition.
9681033
9691034 (2) The reports shall be in a form that does not identify the agency employees involved in the alleged misconduct.
9701035
971-(3) The reports shall be posted on the Inspector Generals internet website and otherwise made available to the public upon their release to the Governor and the Legislature.
1036+(3) The reports shall be posted on the Inspector Generals Internet Web site internet website and otherwise made available to the public upon their release to the Governor and the Legislature.
9721037
973-SEC. 17. Section 27150.2 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:27150.2. (a) Stations providing referee functions pursuant to Section 44036 of the Health and Safety Code shall provide for the testing of vehicular exhaust systems and the issuance of certificates of compliance only for those vehicles that have received a citation for a violation of Section 27150 or 27151.(b) A certificate of compliance for a vehicular exhaust system shall be issued pursuant to subdivision (a) if the vehicle complies with Sections 27150 and 27151. Exhaust systems installed on motor vehicles, other than motorcycles, with a manufacturers gross vehicle weight rating of less than 6,000 pounds comply with Sections 27150 and 27151 if they emit no more than 95 dbA when tested in accordance with Society of Automotive Engineers Standard J1492 Oct 2008.(c) An exhaust system certificate of compliance issued pursuant to subdivision (a) shall identify, to the extent possible, the make, model, year, license number, and vehicle identification number of the vehicle tested, and the make and model of the exhaust system installed on the vehicle.(d) The station shall charge a fee for the exhaust system certificate of compliance issued pursuant to subdivision (a). The fee charged shall be calculated to recover the costs incurred by the Department of Consumer Affairs to implement this section. The fees charged by the station shall be deposited in the Vehicle Inspection and Repair Fund established by Section 44062 of the Health and Safety Code.(e) Vehicular exhaust systems are exempt from the requirements of Sections 27150 and 27151 if compliance with those sections, or the regulations adopted pursuant thereto, would cause an unreasonable hardship without resulting in a sufficient corresponding benefit with respect to noise level control.
1038+SEC. 17. Section 27150.2 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:27150.2. (a) Stations providing referee functions pursuant to Section 44036 of the Health and Safety Code shall provide for the testing of vehicular exhaust systems and the issuance of certificates of compliance only for those vehicles that have received a citation for a violation of Section 27150 or 27151.(b) A certificate of compliance for a vehicular exhaust system shall be issued pursuant to subdivision (a) if the vehicle complies with Sections 27150 and 27151. Exhaust systems installed on motor vehicles, other than motorcycles, with a manufacturers gross vehicle weight rating of less than 6,000 pounds comply with Sections 27150 and 27151 if they emit no more than 95 dbA when tested in accordance with Society of Automotive Engineers Standard J1169 May 1998. J1492 Oct 2008.(c) An exhaust system certificate of compliance issued pursuant to subdivision (a) shall identify, to the extent possible, the make, model, year, license number, and vehicle identification number of the vehicle tested, and the make and model of the exhaust system installed on the vehicle.(d) The station shall charge a fee for the exhaust system certificate of compliance issued pursuant to subdivision (a). The fee charged shall be calculated to recover the costs incurred by the Department of Consumer Affairs to implement this section. The fees charged by the station shall be deposited in the Vehicle Inspection and Repair Fund established by Section 44062 of the Health and Safety Code.(e) Vehicular exhaust systems are exempt from the requirements of Sections 27150 and 27151 if compliance with those sections, or the regulations adopted pursuant thereto, would cause an unreasonable hardship without resulting in a sufficient corresponding benefit with respect to noise level control.
9741039
9751040 SEC. 17. Section 27150.2 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:
9761041
9771042 ### SEC. 17.
9781043
979-27150.2. (a) Stations providing referee functions pursuant to Section 44036 of the Health and Safety Code shall provide for the testing of vehicular exhaust systems and the issuance of certificates of compliance only for those vehicles that have received a citation for a violation of Section 27150 or 27151.(b) A certificate of compliance for a vehicular exhaust system shall be issued pursuant to subdivision (a) if the vehicle complies with Sections 27150 and 27151. Exhaust systems installed on motor vehicles, other than motorcycles, with a manufacturers gross vehicle weight rating of less than 6,000 pounds comply with Sections 27150 and 27151 if they emit no more than 95 dbA when tested in accordance with Society of Automotive Engineers Standard J1492 Oct 2008.(c) An exhaust system certificate of compliance issued pursuant to subdivision (a) shall identify, to the extent possible, the make, model, year, license number, and vehicle identification number of the vehicle tested, and the make and model of the exhaust system installed on the vehicle.(d) The station shall charge a fee for the exhaust system certificate of compliance issued pursuant to subdivision (a). The fee charged shall be calculated to recover the costs incurred by the Department of Consumer Affairs to implement this section. The fees charged by the station shall be deposited in the Vehicle Inspection and Repair Fund established by Section 44062 of the Health and Safety Code.(e) Vehicular exhaust systems are exempt from the requirements of Sections 27150 and 27151 if compliance with those sections, or the regulations adopted pursuant thereto, would cause an unreasonable hardship without resulting in a sufficient corresponding benefit with respect to noise level control.
1044+27150.2. (a) Stations providing referee functions pursuant to Section 44036 of the Health and Safety Code shall provide for the testing of vehicular exhaust systems and the issuance of certificates of compliance only for those vehicles that have received a citation for a violation of Section 27150 or 27151.(b) A certificate of compliance for a vehicular exhaust system shall be issued pursuant to subdivision (a) if the vehicle complies with Sections 27150 and 27151. Exhaust systems installed on motor vehicles, other than motorcycles, with a manufacturers gross vehicle weight rating of less than 6,000 pounds comply with Sections 27150 and 27151 if they emit no more than 95 dbA when tested in accordance with Society of Automotive Engineers Standard J1169 May 1998. J1492 Oct 2008.(c) An exhaust system certificate of compliance issued pursuant to subdivision (a) shall identify, to the extent possible, the make, model, year, license number, and vehicle identification number of the vehicle tested, and the make and model of the exhaust system installed on the vehicle.(d) The station shall charge a fee for the exhaust system certificate of compliance issued pursuant to subdivision (a). The fee charged shall be calculated to recover the costs incurred by the Department of Consumer Affairs to implement this section. The fees charged by the station shall be deposited in the Vehicle Inspection and Repair Fund established by Section 44062 of the Health and Safety Code.(e) Vehicular exhaust systems are exempt from the requirements of Sections 27150 and 27151 if compliance with those sections, or the regulations adopted pursuant thereto, would cause an unreasonable hardship without resulting in a sufficient corresponding benefit with respect to noise level control.
9801045
981-27150.2. (a) Stations providing referee functions pursuant to Section 44036 of the Health and Safety Code shall provide for the testing of vehicular exhaust systems and the issuance of certificates of compliance only for those vehicles that have received a citation for a violation of Section 27150 or 27151.(b) A certificate of compliance for a vehicular exhaust system shall be issued pursuant to subdivision (a) if the vehicle complies with Sections 27150 and 27151. Exhaust systems installed on motor vehicles, other than motorcycles, with a manufacturers gross vehicle weight rating of less than 6,000 pounds comply with Sections 27150 and 27151 if they emit no more than 95 dbA when tested in accordance with Society of Automotive Engineers Standard J1492 Oct 2008.(c) An exhaust system certificate of compliance issued pursuant to subdivision (a) shall identify, to the extent possible, the make, model, year, license number, and vehicle identification number of the vehicle tested, and the make and model of the exhaust system installed on the vehicle.(d) The station shall charge a fee for the exhaust system certificate of compliance issued pursuant to subdivision (a). The fee charged shall be calculated to recover the costs incurred by the Department of Consumer Affairs to implement this section. The fees charged by the station shall be deposited in the Vehicle Inspection and Repair Fund established by Section 44062 of the Health and Safety Code.(e) Vehicular exhaust systems are exempt from the requirements of Sections 27150 and 27151 if compliance with those sections, or the regulations adopted pursuant thereto, would cause an unreasonable hardship without resulting in a sufficient corresponding benefit with respect to noise level control.
1046+27150.2. (a) Stations providing referee functions pursuant to Section 44036 of the Health and Safety Code shall provide for the testing of vehicular exhaust systems and the issuance of certificates of compliance only for those vehicles that have received a citation for a violation of Section 27150 or 27151.(b) A certificate of compliance for a vehicular exhaust system shall be issued pursuant to subdivision (a) if the vehicle complies with Sections 27150 and 27151. Exhaust systems installed on motor vehicles, other than motorcycles, with a manufacturers gross vehicle weight rating of less than 6,000 pounds comply with Sections 27150 and 27151 if they emit no more than 95 dbA when tested in accordance with Society of Automotive Engineers Standard J1169 May 1998. J1492 Oct 2008.(c) An exhaust system certificate of compliance issued pursuant to subdivision (a) shall identify, to the extent possible, the make, model, year, license number, and vehicle identification number of the vehicle tested, and the make and model of the exhaust system installed on the vehicle.(d) The station shall charge a fee for the exhaust system certificate of compliance issued pursuant to subdivision (a). The fee charged shall be calculated to recover the costs incurred by the Department of Consumer Affairs to implement this section. The fees charged by the station shall be deposited in the Vehicle Inspection and Repair Fund established by Section 44062 of the Health and Safety Code.(e) Vehicular exhaust systems are exempt from the requirements of Sections 27150 and 27151 if compliance with those sections, or the regulations adopted pursuant thereto, would cause an unreasonable hardship without resulting in a sufficient corresponding benefit with respect to noise level control.
9821047
983-27150.2. (a) Stations providing referee functions pursuant to Section 44036 of the Health and Safety Code shall provide for the testing of vehicular exhaust systems and the issuance of certificates of compliance only for those vehicles that have received a citation for a violation of Section 27150 or 27151.(b) A certificate of compliance for a vehicular exhaust system shall be issued pursuant to subdivision (a) if the vehicle complies with Sections 27150 and 27151. Exhaust systems installed on motor vehicles, other than motorcycles, with a manufacturers gross vehicle weight rating of less than 6,000 pounds comply with Sections 27150 and 27151 if they emit no more than 95 dbA when tested in accordance with Society of Automotive Engineers Standard J1492 Oct 2008.(c) An exhaust system certificate of compliance issued pursuant to subdivision (a) shall identify, to the extent possible, the make, model, year, license number, and vehicle identification number of the vehicle tested, and the make and model of the exhaust system installed on the vehicle.(d) The station shall charge a fee for the exhaust system certificate of compliance issued pursuant to subdivision (a). The fee charged shall be calculated to recover the costs incurred by the Department of Consumer Affairs to implement this section. The fees charged by the station shall be deposited in the Vehicle Inspection and Repair Fund established by Section 44062 of the Health and Safety Code.(e) Vehicular exhaust systems are exempt from the requirements of Sections 27150 and 27151 if compliance with those sections, or the regulations adopted pursuant thereto, would cause an unreasonable hardship without resulting in a sufficient corresponding benefit with respect to noise level control.
1048+27150.2. (a) Stations providing referee functions pursuant to Section 44036 of the Health and Safety Code shall provide for the testing of vehicular exhaust systems and the issuance of certificates of compliance only for those vehicles that have received a citation for a violation of Section 27150 or 27151.(b) A certificate of compliance for a vehicular exhaust system shall be issued pursuant to subdivision (a) if the vehicle complies with Sections 27150 and 27151. Exhaust systems installed on motor vehicles, other than motorcycles, with a manufacturers gross vehicle weight rating of less than 6,000 pounds comply with Sections 27150 and 27151 if they emit no more than 95 dbA when tested in accordance with Society of Automotive Engineers Standard J1169 May 1998. J1492 Oct 2008.(c) An exhaust system certificate of compliance issued pursuant to subdivision (a) shall identify, to the extent possible, the make, model, year, license number, and vehicle identification number of the vehicle tested, and the make and model of the exhaust system installed on the vehicle.(d) The station shall charge a fee for the exhaust system certificate of compliance issued pursuant to subdivision (a). The fee charged shall be calculated to recover the costs incurred by the Department of Consumer Affairs to implement this section. The fees charged by the station shall be deposited in the Vehicle Inspection and Repair Fund established by Section 44062 of the Health and Safety Code.(e) Vehicular exhaust systems are exempt from the requirements of Sections 27150 and 27151 if compliance with those sections, or the regulations adopted pursuant thereto, would cause an unreasonable hardship without resulting in a sufficient corresponding benefit with respect to noise level control.
9841049
9851050
9861051
9871052 27150.2. (a) Stations providing referee functions pursuant to Section 44036 of the Health and Safety Code shall provide for the testing of vehicular exhaust systems and the issuance of certificates of compliance only for those vehicles that have received a citation for a violation of Section 27150 or 27151.
9881053
989-(b) A certificate of compliance for a vehicular exhaust system shall be issued pursuant to subdivision (a) if the vehicle complies with Sections 27150 and 27151. Exhaust systems installed on motor vehicles, other than motorcycles, with a manufacturers gross vehicle weight rating of less than 6,000 pounds comply with Sections 27150 and 27151 if they emit no more than 95 dbA when tested in accordance with Society of Automotive Engineers Standard J1492 Oct 2008.
1054+(b) A certificate of compliance for a vehicular exhaust system shall be issued pursuant to subdivision (a) if the vehicle complies with Sections 27150 and 27151. Exhaust systems installed on motor vehicles, other than motorcycles, with a manufacturers gross vehicle weight rating of less than 6,000 pounds comply with Sections 27150 and 27151 if they emit no more than 95 dbA when tested in accordance with Society of Automotive Engineers Standard J1169 May 1998. J1492 Oct 2008.
9901055
9911056 (c) An exhaust system certificate of compliance issued pursuant to subdivision (a) shall identify, to the extent possible, the make, model, year, license number, and vehicle identification number of the vehicle tested, and the make and model of the exhaust system installed on the vehicle.
9921057
9931058 (d) The station shall charge a fee for the exhaust system certificate of compliance issued pursuant to subdivision (a). The fee charged shall be calculated to recover the costs incurred by the Department of Consumer Affairs to implement this section. The fees charged by the station shall be deposited in the Vehicle Inspection and Repair Fund established by Section 44062 of the Health and Safety Code.
9941059
9951060 (e) Vehicular exhaust systems are exempt from the requirements of Sections 27150 and 27151 if compliance with those sections, or the regulations adopted pursuant thereto, would cause an unreasonable hardship without resulting in a sufficient corresponding benefit with respect to noise level control.
9961061
997-SEC. 18. Section 27151 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:27151. (a) A person shall not modify the exhaust system of a motor vehicle in a manner which will amplify or increase the noise emitted by the motor of the vehicle so that the vehicle is not in compliance with the provisions of Section 27150 or exceeds the noise limits established for the type of vehicle in Article 2.5 (commencing with Section 27200). A person shall not operate a motor vehicle with an exhaust system so modified.(b) For the purposes of exhaust systems installed on motor vehicles with a manufacturers gross vehicle weight rating of less than 6,000 pounds, other than motorcycles, a sound level of 95 dbA or less, when tested in accordance with Society of Automotive Engineers Standard J1492 Oct 2008, complies with this section. Motor vehicle exhaust systems or parts thereof include, but are not limited to, nonoriginal exhaust equipment.
1062+SEC. 18. Section 27151 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:27151. (a) No A person shall not modify the exhaust system of a motor vehicle in a manner which will amplify or increase the noise emitted by the motor of the vehicle so that the vehicle is not in compliance with the provisions of Section 27150 or exceeds the noise limits established for the type of vehicle in Article 2.5 (commencing with Section 27200). No A person shall not operate a motor vehicle with an exhaust system so modified.(b) For the purposes of exhaust systems installed on motor vehicles with a manufacturers gross vehicle weight rating of less than 6,000 pounds, other than motorcycles, a sound level of 95 dbA or less, when tested in accordance with Society of Automotive Engineers Standard J1169 May 1998, J1492 Oct 2008, complies with this section. Motor vehicle exhaust systems or parts thereof include, but are not limited to, nonoriginal exhaust equipment.
9981063
9991064 SEC. 18. Section 27151 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:
10001065
10011066 ### SEC. 18.
10021067
1003-27151. (a) A person shall not modify the exhaust system of a motor vehicle in a manner which will amplify or increase the noise emitted by the motor of the vehicle so that the vehicle is not in compliance with the provisions of Section 27150 or exceeds the noise limits established for the type of vehicle in Article 2.5 (commencing with Section 27200). A person shall not operate a motor vehicle with an exhaust system so modified.(b) For the purposes of exhaust systems installed on motor vehicles with a manufacturers gross vehicle weight rating of less than 6,000 pounds, other than motorcycles, a sound level of 95 dbA or less, when tested in accordance with Society of Automotive Engineers Standard J1492 Oct 2008, complies with this section. Motor vehicle exhaust systems or parts thereof include, but are not limited to, nonoriginal exhaust equipment.
1068+27151. (a) No A person shall not modify the exhaust system of a motor vehicle in a manner which will amplify or increase the noise emitted by the motor of the vehicle so that the vehicle is not in compliance with the provisions of Section 27150 or exceeds the noise limits established for the type of vehicle in Article 2.5 (commencing with Section 27200). No A person shall not operate a motor vehicle with an exhaust system so modified.(b) For the purposes of exhaust systems installed on motor vehicles with a manufacturers gross vehicle weight rating of less than 6,000 pounds, other than motorcycles, a sound level of 95 dbA or less, when tested in accordance with Society of Automotive Engineers Standard J1169 May 1998, J1492 Oct 2008, complies with this section. Motor vehicle exhaust systems or parts thereof include, but are not limited to, nonoriginal exhaust equipment.
10041069
1005-27151. (a) A person shall not modify the exhaust system of a motor vehicle in a manner which will amplify or increase the noise emitted by the motor of the vehicle so that the vehicle is not in compliance with the provisions of Section 27150 or exceeds the noise limits established for the type of vehicle in Article 2.5 (commencing with Section 27200). A person shall not operate a motor vehicle with an exhaust system so modified.(b) For the purposes of exhaust systems installed on motor vehicles with a manufacturers gross vehicle weight rating of less than 6,000 pounds, other than motorcycles, a sound level of 95 dbA or less, when tested in accordance with Society of Automotive Engineers Standard J1492 Oct 2008, complies with this section. Motor vehicle exhaust systems or parts thereof include, but are not limited to, nonoriginal exhaust equipment.
1070+27151. (a) No A person shall not modify the exhaust system of a motor vehicle in a manner which will amplify or increase the noise emitted by the motor of the vehicle so that the vehicle is not in compliance with the provisions of Section 27150 or exceeds the noise limits established for the type of vehicle in Article 2.5 (commencing with Section 27200). No A person shall not operate a motor vehicle with an exhaust system so modified.(b) For the purposes of exhaust systems installed on motor vehicles with a manufacturers gross vehicle weight rating of less than 6,000 pounds, other than motorcycles, a sound level of 95 dbA or less, when tested in accordance with Society of Automotive Engineers Standard J1169 May 1998, J1492 Oct 2008, complies with this section. Motor vehicle exhaust systems or parts thereof include, but are not limited to, nonoriginal exhaust equipment.
10061071
1007-27151. (a) A person shall not modify the exhaust system of a motor vehicle in a manner which will amplify or increase the noise emitted by the motor of the vehicle so that the vehicle is not in compliance with the provisions of Section 27150 or exceeds the noise limits established for the type of vehicle in Article 2.5 (commencing with Section 27200). A person shall not operate a motor vehicle with an exhaust system so modified.(b) For the purposes of exhaust systems installed on motor vehicles with a manufacturers gross vehicle weight rating of less than 6,000 pounds, other than motorcycles, a sound level of 95 dbA or less, when tested in accordance with Society of Automotive Engineers Standard J1492 Oct 2008, complies with this section. Motor vehicle exhaust systems or parts thereof include, but are not limited to, nonoriginal exhaust equipment.
1072+27151. (a) No A person shall not modify the exhaust system of a motor vehicle in a manner which will amplify or increase the noise emitted by the motor of the vehicle so that the vehicle is not in compliance with the provisions of Section 27150 or exceeds the noise limits established for the type of vehicle in Article 2.5 (commencing with Section 27200). No A person shall not operate a motor vehicle with an exhaust system so modified.(b) For the purposes of exhaust systems installed on motor vehicles with a manufacturers gross vehicle weight rating of less than 6,000 pounds, other than motorcycles, a sound level of 95 dbA or less, when tested in accordance with Society of Automotive Engineers Standard J1169 May 1998, J1492 Oct 2008, complies with this section. Motor vehicle exhaust systems or parts thereof include, but are not limited to, nonoriginal exhaust equipment.
10081073
10091074
10101075
1011-27151. (a) A person shall not modify the exhaust system of a motor vehicle in a manner which will amplify or increase the noise emitted by the motor of the vehicle so that the vehicle is not in compliance with the provisions of Section 27150 or exceeds the noise limits established for the type of vehicle in Article 2.5 (commencing with Section 27200). A person shall not operate a motor vehicle with an exhaust system so modified.
1076+27151. (a) No A person shall not modify the exhaust system of a motor vehicle in a manner which will amplify or increase the noise emitted by the motor of the vehicle so that the vehicle is not in compliance with the provisions of Section 27150 or exceeds the noise limits established for the type of vehicle in Article 2.5 (commencing with Section 27200). No A person shall not operate a motor vehicle with an exhaust system so modified.
10121077
1013-(b) For the purposes of exhaust systems installed on motor vehicles with a manufacturers gross vehicle weight rating of less than 6,000 pounds, other than motorcycles, a sound level of 95 dbA or less, when tested in accordance with Society of Automotive Engineers Standard J1492 Oct 2008, complies with this section. Motor vehicle exhaust systems or parts thereof include, but are not limited to, nonoriginal exhaust equipment.
1078+(b) For the purposes of exhaust systems installed on motor vehicles with a manufacturers gross vehicle weight rating of less than 6,000 pounds, other than motorcycles, a sound level of 95 dbA or less, when tested in accordance with Society of Automotive Engineers Standard J1169 May 1998, J1492 Oct 2008, complies with this section. Motor vehicle exhaust systems or parts thereof include, but are not limited to, nonoriginal exhaust equipment.
10141079
1015-SEC. 19. Section 40610 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:40610. (a) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), if, after an arrest, accident investigation, or other law enforcement action, it appears that a violation has occurred involving a registration, license, all-terrain vehicle safety certificate, or mechanical requirement of this code, and none of the disqualifying conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist and the investigating officer decides to take enforcement action, the officer shall prepare, in triplicate, and the violator shall sign, a written notice containing the violators promise to correct the alleged violation and to deliver proof of correction of the violation to the issuing agency.(2) If a person is arrested for a violation of Section 4454, and none of the disqualifying conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist, the arresting officer shall prepare, in triplicate, and the violator shall sign, a written notice containing the violators promise to correct the alleged violation and to deliver proof of correction of the violation to the issuing agency. In lieu of issuing a notice to correct violation pursuant to this section, the officer may issue a notice to appear, as specified in Section 40522.(b) Pursuant to subdivision (a), a notice to correct violation shall be issued as provided in this section or a notice to appear shall be issued as provided in Section 40522, unless the officer finds any of the following:(1) Evidence of fraud or persistent neglect.(2) The violation presents an immediate safety hazard.(3) The violator does not agree to, or cannot, promptly correct the violation.(4) The violation cited is of subdivision (a) of Section 27151 for a motorcycle.(c) If any of the conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist, the procedures specified in this section or Section 40522 are inapplicable, and the officer may take other appropriate enforcement action.(d) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision (a), the notice to correct violation shall be on a form approved by the Judicial Council and, in addition to the owners or operators address and identifying information, shall contain an estimate of the reasonable time required for correction and proof of correction of the particular defect, not to exceed 30 days, or 90 days for the all-terrain vehicle safety certificate.
1080+SEC. 19. Section 40610 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:40610. (a) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), if, after an arrest, accident investigation, or other law enforcement action, it appears that a violation has occurred involving a registration, license, all-terrain vehicle safety certificate, or mechanical requirement of this code, and none of the disqualifying conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist and the investigating officer decides to take enforcement action, the officer shall prepare, in triplicate, and the violator shall sign, a written notice containing the violators promise to correct the alleged violation and to deliver proof of correction of the violation to the issuing agency.(2) If any a person is arrested for a violation of Section 4454, and none of the disqualifying conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist, the arresting officer shall prepare, in triplicate, and the violator shall sign, a written notice containing the violators promise to correct the alleged violation and to deliver proof of correction of the violation to the issuing agency. In lieu of issuing a notice to correct violation pursuant to this section, the officer may issue a notice to appear, as specified in Section 40522.(b) Pursuant to subdivision (a), a notice to correct violation shall be issued as provided in this section or a notice to appear shall be issued as provided in Section 40522, unless the officer finds any of the following:(1) Evidence of fraud or persistent neglect.(2) The violation presents an immediate safety hazard.(3) The violator does not agree to, or cannot, promptly correct the violation.(4) The violation cited is of subdivision (a) of Section 27150 or of subdivision (a) of Section 27151. 27151 for a motorcycle.(c) If any of the conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist, the procedures specified in this section or Section 40522 are inapplicable, and the officer may take other appropriate enforcement action.(d) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision (a), the notice to correct violation shall be on a form approved by the Judicial Council and, in addition to the owners or operators address and identifying information, shall contain an estimate of the reasonable time required for correction and proof of correction of the particular defect, not to exceed 30 days, or 90 days for the all-terrain vehicle safety certificate.
10161081
10171082 SEC. 19. Section 40610 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:
10181083
10191084 ### SEC. 19.
10201085
1021-40610. (a) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), if, after an arrest, accident investigation, or other law enforcement action, it appears that a violation has occurred involving a registration, license, all-terrain vehicle safety certificate, or mechanical requirement of this code, and none of the disqualifying conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist and the investigating officer decides to take enforcement action, the officer shall prepare, in triplicate, and the violator shall sign, a written notice containing the violators promise to correct the alleged violation and to deliver proof of correction of the violation to the issuing agency.(2) If a person is arrested for a violation of Section 4454, and none of the disqualifying conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist, the arresting officer shall prepare, in triplicate, and the violator shall sign, a written notice containing the violators promise to correct the alleged violation and to deliver proof of correction of the violation to the issuing agency. In lieu of issuing a notice to correct violation pursuant to this section, the officer may issue a notice to appear, as specified in Section 40522.(b) Pursuant to subdivision (a), a notice to correct violation shall be issued as provided in this section or a notice to appear shall be issued as provided in Section 40522, unless the officer finds any of the following:(1) Evidence of fraud or persistent neglect.(2) The violation presents an immediate safety hazard.(3) The violator does not agree to, or cannot, promptly correct the violation.(4) The violation cited is of subdivision (a) of Section 27151 for a motorcycle.(c) If any of the conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist, the procedures specified in this section or Section 40522 are inapplicable, and the officer may take other appropriate enforcement action.(d) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision (a), the notice to correct violation shall be on a form approved by the Judicial Council and, in addition to the owners or operators address and identifying information, shall contain an estimate of the reasonable time required for correction and proof of correction of the particular defect, not to exceed 30 days, or 90 days for the all-terrain vehicle safety certificate.
1086+40610. (a) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), if, after an arrest, accident investigation, or other law enforcement action, it appears that a violation has occurred involving a registration, license, all-terrain vehicle safety certificate, or mechanical requirement of this code, and none of the disqualifying conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist and the investigating officer decides to take enforcement action, the officer shall prepare, in triplicate, and the violator shall sign, a written notice containing the violators promise to correct the alleged violation and to deliver proof of correction of the violation to the issuing agency.(2) If any a person is arrested for a violation of Section 4454, and none of the disqualifying conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist, the arresting officer shall prepare, in triplicate, and the violator shall sign, a written notice containing the violators promise to correct the alleged violation and to deliver proof of correction of the violation to the issuing agency. In lieu of issuing a notice to correct violation pursuant to this section, the officer may issue a notice to appear, as specified in Section 40522.(b) Pursuant to subdivision (a), a notice to correct violation shall be issued as provided in this section or a notice to appear shall be issued as provided in Section 40522, unless the officer finds any of the following:(1) Evidence of fraud or persistent neglect.(2) The violation presents an immediate safety hazard.(3) The violator does not agree to, or cannot, promptly correct the violation.(4) The violation cited is of subdivision (a) of Section 27150 or of subdivision (a) of Section 27151. 27151 for a motorcycle.(c) If any of the conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist, the procedures specified in this section or Section 40522 are inapplicable, and the officer may take other appropriate enforcement action.(d) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision (a), the notice to correct violation shall be on a form approved by the Judicial Council and, in addition to the owners or operators address and identifying information, shall contain an estimate of the reasonable time required for correction and proof of correction of the particular defect, not to exceed 30 days, or 90 days for the all-terrain vehicle safety certificate.
10221087
1023-40610. (a) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), if, after an arrest, accident investigation, or other law enforcement action, it appears that a violation has occurred involving a registration, license, all-terrain vehicle safety certificate, or mechanical requirement of this code, and none of the disqualifying conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist and the investigating officer decides to take enforcement action, the officer shall prepare, in triplicate, and the violator shall sign, a written notice containing the violators promise to correct the alleged violation and to deliver proof of correction of the violation to the issuing agency.(2) If a person is arrested for a violation of Section 4454, and none of the disqualifying conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist, the arresting officer shall prepare, in triplicate, and the violator shall sign, a written notice containing the violators promise to correct the alleged violation and to deliver proof of correction of the violation to the issuing agency. In lieu of issuing a notice to correct violation pursuant to this section, the officer may issue a notice to appear, as specified in Section 40522.(b) Pursuant to subdivision (a), a notice to correct violation shall be issued as provided in this section or a notice to appear shall be issued as provided in Section 40522, unless the officer finds any of the following:(1) Evidence of fraud or persistent neglect.(2) The violation presents an immediate safety hazard.(3) The violator does not agree to, or cannot, promptly correct the violation.(4) The violation cited is of subdivision (a) of Section 27151 for a motorcycle.(c) If any of the conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist, the procedures specified in this section or Section 40522 are inapplicable, and the officer may take other appropriate enforcement action.(d) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision (a), the notice to correct violation shall be on a form approved by the Judicial Council and, in addition to the owners or operators address and identifying information, shall contain an estimate of the reasonable time required for correction and proof of correction of the particular defect, not to exceed 30 days, or 90 days for the all-terrain vehicle safety certificate.
1088+40610. (a) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), if, after an arrest, accident investigation, or other law enforcement action, it appears that a violation has occurred involving a registration, license, all-terrain vehicle safety certificate, or mechanical requirement of this code, and none of the disqualifying conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist and the investigating officer decides to take enforcement action, the officer shall prepare, in triplicate, and the violator shall sign, a written notice containing the violators promise to correct the alleged violation and to deliver proof of correction of the violation to the issuing agency.(2) If any a person is arrested for a violation of Section 4454, and none of the disqualifying conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist, the arresting officer shall prepare, in triplicate, and the violator shall sign, a written notice containing the violators promise to correct the alleged violation and to deliver proof of correction of the violation to the issuing agency. In lieu of issuing a notice to correct violation pursuant to this section, the officer may issue a notice to appear, as specified in Section 40522.(b) Pursuant to subdivision (a), a notice to correct violation shall be issued as provided in this section or a notice to appear shall be issued as provided in Section 40522, unless the officer finds any of the following:(1) Evidence of fraud or persistent neglect.(2) The violation presents an immediate safety hazard.(3) The violator does not agree to, or cannot, promptly correct the violation.(4) The violation cited is of subdivision (a) of Section 27150 or of subdivision (a) of Section 27151. 27151 for a motorcycle.(c) If any of the conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist, the procedures specified in this section or Section 40522 are inapplicable, and the officer may take other appropriate enforcement action.(d) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision (a), the notice to correct violation shall be on a form approved by the Judicial Council and, in addition to the owners or operators address and identifying information, shall contain an estimate of the reasonable time required for correction and proof of correction of the particular defect, not to exceed 30 days, or 90 days for the all-terrain vehicle safety certificate.
10241089
1025-40610. (a) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), if, after an arrest, accident investigation, or other law enforcement action, it appears that a violation has occurred involving a registration, license, all-terrain vehicle safety certificate, or mechanical requirement of this code, and none of the disqualifying conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist and the investigating officer decides to take enforcement action, the officer shall prepare, in triplicate, and the violator shall sign, a written notice containing the violators promise to correct the alleged violation and to deliver proof of correction of the violation to the issuing agency.(2) If a person is arrested for a violation of Section 4454, and none of the disqualifying conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist, the arresting officer shall prepare, in triplicate, and the violator shall sign, a written notice containing the violators promise to correct the alleged violation and to deliver proof of correction of the violation to the issuing agency. In lieu of issuing a notice to correct violation pursuant to this section, the officer may issue a notice to appear, as specified in Section 40522.(b) Pursuant to subdivision (a), a notice to correct violation shall be issued as provided in this section or a notice to appear shall be issued as provided in Section 40522, unless the officer finds any of the following:(1) Evidence of fraud or persistent neglect.(2) The violation presents an immediate safety hazard.(3) The violator does not agree to, or cannot, promptly correct the violation.(4) The violation cited is of subdivision (a) of Section 27151 for a motorcycle.(c) If any of the conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist, the procedures specified in this section or Section 40522 are inapplicable, and the officer may take other appropriate enforcement action.(d) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision (a), the notice to correct violation shall be on a form approved by the Judicial Council and, in addition to the owners or operators address and identifying information, shall contain an estimate of the reasonable time required for correction and proof of correction of the particular defect, not to exceed 30 days, or 90 days for the all-terrain vehicle safety certificate.
1090+40610. (a) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), if, after an arrest, accident investigation, or other law enforcement action, it appears that a violation has occurred involving a registration, license, all-terrain vehicle safety certificate, or mechanical requirement of this code, and none of the disqualifying conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist and the investigating officer decides to take enforcement action, the officer shall prepare, in triplicate, and the violator shall sign, a written notice containing the violators promise to correct the alleged violation and to deliver proof of correction of the violation to the issuing agency.(2) If any a person is arrested for a violation of Section 4454, and none of the disqualifying conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist, the arresting officer shall prepare, in triplicate, and the violator shall sign, a written notice containing the violators promise to correct the alleged violation and to deliver proof of correction of the violation to the issuing agency. In lieu of issuing a notice to correct violation pursuant to this section, the officer may issue a notice to appear, as specified in Section 40522.(b) Pursuant to subdivision (a), a notice to correct violation shall be issued as provided in this section or a notice to appear shall be issued as provided in Section 40522, unless the officer finds any of the following:(1) Evidence of fraud or persistent neglect.(2) The violation presents an immediate safety hazard.(3) The violator does not agree to, or cannot, promptly correct the violation.(4) The violation cited is of subdivision (a) of Section 27150 or of subdivision (a) of Section 27151. 27151 for a motorcycle.(c) If any of the conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist, the procedures specified in this section or Section 40522 are inapplicable, and the officer may take other appropriate enforcement action.(d) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision (a), the notice to correct violation shall be on a form approved by the Judicial Council and, in addition to the owners or operators address and identifying information, shall contain an estimate of the reasonable time required for correction and proof of correction of the particular defect, not to exceed 30 days, or 90 days for the all-terrain vehicle safety certificate.
10261091
10271092
10281093
10291094 40610. (a) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), if, after an arrest, accident investigation, or other law enforcement action, it appears that a violation has occurred involving a registration, license, all-terrain vehicle safety certificate, or mechanical requirement of this code, and none of the disqualifying conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist and the investigating officer decides to take enforcement action, the officer shall prepare, in triplicate, and the violator shall sign, a written notice containing the violators promise to correct the alleged violation and to deliver proof of correction of the violation to the issuing agency.
10301095
1031-(2) If a person is arrested for a violation of Section 4454, and none of the disqualifying conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist, the arresting officer shall prepare, in triplicate, and the violator shall sign, a written notice containing the violators promise to correct the alleged violation and to deliver proof of correction of the violation to the issuing agency. In lieu of issuing a notice to correct violation pursuant to this section, the officer may issue a notice to appear, as specified in Section 40522.
1096+(2) If any a person is arrested for a violation of Section 4454, and none of the disqualifying conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist, the arresting officer shall prepare, in triplicate, and the violator shall sign, a written notice containing the violators promise to correct the alleged violation and to deliver proof of correction of the violation to the issuing agency. In lieu of issuing a notice to correct violation pursuant to this section, the officer may issue a notice to appear, as specified in Section 40522.
10321097
10331098 (b) Pursuant to subdivision (a), a notice to correct violation shall be issued as provided in this section or a notice to appear shall be issued as provided in Section 40522, unless the officer finds any of the following:
10341099
10351100 (1) Evidence of fraud or persistent neglect.
10361101
10371102 (2) The violation presents an immediate safety hazard.
10381103
10391104 (3) The violator does not agree to, or cannot, promptly correct the violation.
10401105
1041-(4) The violation cited is of subdivision (a) of Section 27151 for a motorcycle.
1106+(4) The violation cited is of subdivision (a) of Section 27150 or of subdivision (a) of Section 27151. 27151 for a motorcycle.
10421107
10431108 (c) If any of the conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist, the procedures specified in this section or Section 40522 are inapplicable, and the officer may take other appropriate enforcement action.
10441109
10451110 (d) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision (a), the notice to correct violation shall be on a form approved by the Judicial Council and, in addition to the owners or operators address and identifying information, shall contain an estimate of the reasonable time required for correction and proof of correction of the particular defect, not to exceed 30 days, or 90 days for the all-terrain vehicle safety certificate.
10461111
10471112 SEC. 20. The sum of three million four hundred ninety-nine thousand dollars ($3,499,000) is hereby appropriated from the General Fund to the Office of the Inspector General for expenditure in the 201920 fiscal year in augmentation of Item 0552-001-0001 of Section 2 of the Budget Act of 2019 to fund independent audits of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation and oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations process for reviewing and investigating inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances.
10481113
10491114 SEC. 20. The sum of three million four hundred ninety-nine thousand dollars ($3,499,000) is hereby appropriated from the General Fund to the Office of the Inspector General for expenditure in the 201920 fiscal year in augmentation of Item 0552-001-0001 of Section 2 of the Budget Act of 2019 to fund independent audits of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation and oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations process for reviewing and investigating inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances.
10501115
10511116 SEC. 20. The sum of three million four hundred ninety-nine thousand dollars ($3,499,000) is hereby appropriated from the General Fund to the Office of the Inspector General for expenditure in the 201920 fiscal year in augmentation of Item 0552-001-0001 of Section 2 of the Budget Act of 2019 to fund independent audits of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation and oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitations process for reviewing and investigating inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances.
10521117
10531118 ### SEC. 20.
10541119
10551120 SEC. 21. This act is a bill providing for appropriations related to the Budget Bill within the meaning of subdivision (e) of Section 12 of Article IV of the California Constitution, has been identified as related to the budget in the Budget Bill, and shall take effect immediately.
10561121
10571122 SEC. 21. This act is a bill providing for appropriations related to the Budget Bill within the meaning of subdivision (e) of Section 12 of Article IV of the California Constitution, has been identified as related to the budget in the Budget Bill, and shall take effect immediately.
10581123
10591124 SEC. 21. This act is a bill providing for appropriations related to the Budget Bill within the meaning of subdivision (e) of Section 12 of Article IV of the California Constitution, has been identified as related to the budget in the Budget Bill, and shall take effect immediately.
10601125
10611126 ### SEC. 21.
1127+
1128+
1129+
1130+It is the intent of the Legislature to enact statutory changes relating to the Budget Act of 2019.