| 1 | | - | Senate Bill No. 1474 CHAPTER 312 An act to amend Sections 27, 101, 125.9, 130, 144, 200.1, 205, 494.5, 1000, 1913, 1917, 1917.1, 1922, 2065, 2113, 2135.5, 2460, 2531, 2531.75, 2570.19, 2602, 2607.5, 2841, 2847.1, 2847.3, 2920, 2933, 3504, 3512, 3686, 3710, 3716, 4001, 4003, 4501, 4503, 4604, 4621, 4800, 4804.5, 4990, 4990.04, 5600.4, 5810, 7000, 7000.5, 7000.6, 7011.4, 7011.5, 7011.8, 7015, 7017.3, 7028.7, 7030, 7031, 7058.7, 7071.4, 7080.5, 7085.5, 7099.2, 7123.5, 7135, 7136, 7137, 7137.5, 7138, 7139.1, 7139.2, 7141.5, 7145.5, 7159, 7170, 7303, 7512.3, 7512.14, 7512.15, 7520.3, 7525.1, 7529, 7533.5, 7538, 7538.5, 7539, 8516, 10050, 11301, 16100, and 19164 of, and to add Section 7099.9 to, the Business and Professions Code, to add Section 1670.8.5 to the Civil Code, and to amend Section 94950 of the Education Code, relating to business and professions, and making an appropriation therefor. [ Approved by Governor September 29, 2020. Filed with Secretary of State September 29, 2020. ] LEGISLATIVE COUNSEL'S DIGESTSB 1474, Committee on Business, Professions and Economic Development. Business and professions.(1) Existing law, the Contractors State License Law, provides for the licensure and regulation of contractors by the Contractors State License Board in the Department of Consumer Affairs. Existing law requires fees and penalties received pursuant to the law to be deposited in the Contractors License Fund, a continuously appropriated fund, except that certain service fees for the deposit of money in lieu of paying a bond are required to be deposited in the Contractors Deposit Fund. This bill would rename the Contractors State license Law as the Contractors State License Law, would rename the Contractors State License Board as the Contractors State License Board, and would rename the Contractors License Fund as the Contractors License Fund. The bill would delete the provision establishing the Contractors Deposit Fund, and would therefore require those service fees to be deposited in the Contractors License Fund. By authorizing a new source of revenue to be deposited into a continuously appropriated fund, the bill would make an appropriation. Existing law authorizes a licensee who is subject to a bonding provision under the law, in lieu of giving a bond, to deposit money or a cashiers check with the registrar of contractors.This bill would prohibit the deposit from being released if the board is notified of a civil action against the deposit and, if the amount of the deposit is insufficient to pay all claims, would require the deposit to be distributed to claimants in proportion to the amount of the claims.Existing law authorizes the registrar of contractors to grant the retroactive renewal of a license if, within 90 days from the due date, the licensee requests the retroactive renewal in a petition to the registrar, shows that the failure to renew was due to circumstances beyond their control, files an application for renewal on a form prescribed by the registrar, and pays the appropriate renewal and delinquency fees.This bill, instead, would require the registrar to grant the retroactive renewal of a license if, within 90 days of the expiration of the license, the otherwise eligible licensee submits a completed application for renewal and pays the renewal and delinquency fees. The bill would delete the requirement that the licensee demonstrate that the delay was due to circumstances beyond the licensees control, and would deem an application for renewal submitted for purposes of these provisions if it is delivered to the boards headquarters or postmarked within 90 days of the expiration of the license.(2) Existing law establishes the Landscape Architects Technical Committee to assist the California Architects Board in examining candidates for a landscape architects license. Existing law, on and after January 1, 2021, requires an applicant to furnish to the committee a full set of fingerprints for purposes of conducting criminal history record checks.This bill would revise the date on which this requirement becomes effective to January 1, 2022. (3) Existing law, the Chiropractic Act, enacted by an initiative measure, provides for the licensure and regulation of chiropractors in this state by the State Board of Chiropractic Examiners. Existing law requires that the powers and duties of the board, as provided, be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature as if that act were scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022.This bill would require that the powers and duties of the board, as provided, be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature as if that act were scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2023.(4) Existing law authorizes the State Board of Chiropractic Examiners and the Osteopathic Medical Board of California and any board within the Department of Consumer Affairs to issue a citation that may contain an order of abatement or an order to pay an administrative fine, and provides that a failure to pay a fine within 30 days of the date of assessment may result in disciplinary action. This bill would also make a failure to comply with the order of abatement within 30 days of the date of the order subject to disciplinary action. (5) Existing law provides for the licensure and regulation of registered dental hygienists by the Dental Hygiene Board of California. Existing law authorizes a registered dental hygienist to perform a procedure or provide a service within the scope of their practice under the appropriate level of supervision, as specified.This bill would also require a registered dental hygienist to have completed the appropriate education and training required to perform the procedure or provide the service.Existing law requires a person to have satisfactorily completed a specified examination within the preceding 2 years as a condition of licensure as a registered dental hygienist.This bill would instead require completion of the dental hygiene examination within the preceding 3 years.Existing law requires a person, as a condition for licensure as a registered dental hygienist in alternative practice, to successfully complete a bachelors degree or its equivalent from an accredited college or institution of higher education, among other requirements.This bill would specify that the equivalent of a bachelors degree is recognized as a minimum of 120 semester credit hours or 180 quarter credit hours in postsecondary education.(6) Existing law, the Medical Practice Act, provides for the licensure and regulation of physicians and surgeons by the Medical Board of California, and requires an applicant for a physicians and surgeons license who has completed 36 months of approved postgraduate training in another state or Canada and who is accepted into an approved postgraduate training in another state or Canada and who is accepted into an approved postgraduate training program in California to obtain their physicians and surgeons license within 90 days after beginning the postgraduate training program. This bill would delete the requirement that the person be accepted into an approved postgraduate training in another state or Canada.Existing law authorizes the Medical Board of California, in its discretion, to waive certain examination and certification requirements for licensure for a graduate of a foreign medical school who holds a certificate of registration issued by the board to practice medicine as a full-time faculty member at a medical school.This bill would also authorize the board to accept clinical practice in an appointment as qualifying time to meet specified postgraduate training requirements for licensure for those registrants.Existing law authorizes the Medical Board of California, upon and review and recommendation, to determine that an applicant for a physician and surgeons certificate has satisfied the medical education and examination requirements for an applicant who holds an unlimited and unrestricted license as a physician and surgeon in another state and has held the license continuously for a minimum of 4 years, subject to satisfaction of specified requirements. This bill would also require the applicant to meet specified postgraduate training requirements.(7) Existing law, the Architects Practice Act, provides for the licensure and regulation of architects by the California Architects Board. Existing law requires the board to issue a retired license to an architect who meets specified requirements, and also provides for the restoration of a retired license to active status upon satisfaction of specified requirements applicable to licenses that are not renewed within 5 years of its expiration. This bill would also authorize the restoration of a retired license to active status upon satisfaction of specified requirements applicable to licenses that are renewed within 5 years of its expiration. (8) Existing law provides for the January 1, 2021, repeal of provisions creating the Podiatric Medical Board of California, the Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians of the State of California, the Board of Psychology, the Physician Assistant Board, the California State Board of Pharmacy, the Veterinary Medical Board, the Board of Behavioral Sciences, and the State Board of Barbering and Cosmetology.This bill would extend the operation of those provisions to January 1, 2022, and make conforming changes relating to the appointment of an executive officer, as applicable.(9) Existing law provides for the January 1, 2022, repeal of provisions regulating naturopathic medicine and interior design and provisions creating the California Board of Occupational Therapy, the Physical Therapy Board of California, the Respiratory Care Board of California, and the Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board.This bill would extend the operation of those provisions to January 1, 2023, and make conforming changes relating to the appointment of an executive officer, as applicable.(10) Existing law, the Massage Therapy Act, until January 1, 2021, provides for the certification and regulation of massage therapists by the California Massage Therapy Council.This bill would extend the operation of the Massage Therapy Act to January 1, 2022, and make conforming changes relating to massage therapist certification requirements.(11) Existing law, the Private Investigator Act, provides for the licensure and regulation of private investigators by the Bureau of Security and Investigative Services. Existing law, until January 1, 2021, authorizes the bureau to issue a private investigator license to a limited liability company. A violation of the act is a crime.This bill would extend that date to January 1, 2024. By extending the operation of these provisions, the bill would impose a state-mandated local program.(12) Existing law, the Real Estate Law, provides for the licensure and regulation of real estate brokers by the Real Estate Commissioner, the chief officer of the Department of Real Estate within the Business, Consumer Services, and Housing Agency. The Real Estate Law subjects the powers and duties of the department, under specified provisions of law, to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature, performed as if those provisions were scheduled to be repealed as of January 1, 2021. This bill would extend that date to January 1, 2022.(13) Existing law, the Real Estate Appraisers Licensing and Certification Law, creates a Bureau of Real Estate Appraisers within the Department of Consumer Affairs to administer and enforce that law. The Real Estate Appraisers Licensing and Certification Law subjects the powers and duties of the bureau to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature, performed as if that law were scheduled to be repealed as of January 1, 2021.This bill would extend that date to January 1, 2022.(14) Existing law regulates the formation and enforcement of contracts, including what constitutes an unlawful contract. Under existing law, a contract is unlawful if it is contrary to an express provision of law, contrary to the policy of express law, though not expressly prohibited, or otherwise contrary to good morals.Existing law regulates licensees who are subject to the jurisdiction of a state licensing entity, including the State Bar of California, the Department of Real Estate, the Department of Consumer Affairs, or any other state agency that issues a license, certificate, or registration authorizing a person to engage in a business or profession.This bill would prohibit a contract or proposed contract for the provision of a consumer service by a licensee regulated by a licensing board from including a provision limiting the consumers ability to file a complaint with that board or to participate in the boards investigation into the licensee. The bill would specify that a waiver of these provisions is contrary to public policy and is void and unenforceable. The bill would provide that a violation of these provisions by a licensee constitutes unprofessional conduct subject to discipline by the licensees regulatory board.(15) Existing law, the California Private Postsecondary Education Act of 2009, until January 1, 2021, provides, among other things, for student protections and regulatory oversight of private postsecondary institutions in the state, enforced by the Bureau for Private Postsecondary Education within the Department of Consumer Affairs.This bill would extend the operation of the California Private Postsecondary Education Act of 2009 to January 1, 2022.(16) This bill would make other conforming, technical, and nonsubstantive changes.(17) This bill would incorporate additional changes to Section 205 of the Business and Professions Code proposed by AB 896 to be operative only if this bill and AB 896 are enacted and this bill is enacted last.(18) This bill would incorporate additional changes to Section 2113 of the Business and Professions Code proposed by AB 2273 to be operative only if this bill and AB 2273 are enacted and this bill is enacted last.(19) This bill would incorporate additional changes to Section 7159 of the Business and Professions Code proposed by AB 2471 to be operative only if this bill and AB 2471 are enacted and this bill is enacted last.(20) The California Constitution requires the state to reimburse local agencies and school districts for certain costs mandated by the state. Statutory provisions establish procedures for making that reimbursement.This bill would provide that no reimbursement is required by this act for a specified reason.Digest Key Vote: MAJORITY Appropriation: YES Fiscal Committee: YES Local Program: YES Bill TextThe people of the State of California do enact as follows:SECTION 1. Section 27 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:27. (a) Each entity specified in subdivisions (c), (d), and (e) shall provide on the internet information regarding the status of every license issued by that entity in accordance with the California Public Records Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code) and the Information Practices Act of 1977 (Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 1798) of Title 1.8 of Part 4 of Division 3 of the Civil Code). The public information to be provided on the internet shall include information on suspensions and revocations of licenses issued by the entity and other related enforcement action, including accusations filed pursuant to the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code) taken by the entity relative to persons, businesses, or facilities subject to licensure or regulation by the entity. The information may not include personal information, including home telephone number, date of birth, or social security number. Each entity shall disclose a licensees address of record. However, each entity shall allow a licensee to provide a post office box number or other alternate address, instead of the licensees home address, as the address of record. This section shall not preclude an entity from also requiring a licensee, who has provided a post office box number or other alternative mailing address as the licensees address of record, to provide a physical business address or residence address only for the entitys internal administrative use and not for disclosure as the licensees address of record or disclosure on the internet.(b) In providing information on the internet, each entity specified in subdivisions (c) and (d) shall comply with the Department of Consumer Affairs guidelines for access to public records.(c) Each of the following entities within the Department of Consumer Affairs shall comply with the requirements of this section:(1) The Board for Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists shall disclose information on its registrants and licensees.(2) The Bureau of Automotive Repair shall disclose information on its licensees, including auto repair dealers, smog stations, lamp and brake stations, smog check technicians, and smog inspection certification stations.(3) The Bureau of Household Goods and Services shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants, including major appliance repair dealers, combination dealers (electronic and appliance), electronic repair dealers, service contract sellers, service contract administrators, and household movers.(4) The Cemetery and Funeral Bureau shall disclose information on its licensees, including cemetery brokers, cemetery salespersons, cemetery managers, crematory managers, cemetery authorities, crematories, cremated remains disposers, embalmers, funeral establishments, and funeral directors.(5) The Professional Fiduciaries Bureau shall disclose information on its licensees.(6) The Contractors State License Board shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants in accordance with Chapter 9 (commencing with Section 7000) of Division 3. In addition to information related to licenses as specified in subdivision (a), the board shall also disclose information provided to the board by the Labor Commissioner pursuant to Section 98.9 of the Labor Code.(7) The Bureau for Private Postsecondary Education shall disclose information on private postsecondary institutions under its jurisdiction, including disclosure of notices to comply issued pursuant to Section 94935 of the Education Code.(8) The California Board of Accountancy shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants.(9) The California Architects Board shall disclose information on its licensees, including architects and landscape architects.(10) The State Athletic Commission shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants.(11) The State Board of Barbering and Cosmetology shall disclose information on its licensees.(12) The Acupuncture Board shall disclose information on its licensees.(13) The Board of Behavioral Sciences shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants.(14) The Dental Board of California shall disclose information on its licensees.(15) The State Board of Optometry shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants.(16) The Board of Psychology shall disclose information on its licensees, including psychologists, psychological assistants, and registered psychologists.(17) The Veterinary Medical Board shall disclose information on its licensees, registrants, and permitholders.(d) The State Board of Chiropractic Examiners shall disclose information on its licensees.(e) The Structural Pest Control Board shall disclose information on its licensees, including applicators, field representatives, and operators in the areas of fumigation, general pest and wood destroying pests and organisms, and wood roof cleaning and treatment.(f) The Bureau of Cannabis Control shall disclose information on its licensees.(g) Internet for the purposes of this section has the meaning set forth in paragraph (6) of subdivision (f) of Section 17538.SEC. 2. Section 101 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:101. The department is comprised of the following:(a) The Dental Board of California.(b) The Medical Board of California.(c) The State Board of Optometry.(d) The California State Board of Pharmacy.(e) The Veterinary Medical Board.(f) The California Board of Accountancy.(g) The California Architects Board.(h) The State Board of Barbering and Cosmetology.(i) The Board for Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists.(j) The Contractors State License Board.(k) The Bureau for Private Postsecondary Education.(l) The Bureau of Household Goods and Services.(m) The Board of Registered Nursing.(n) The Board of Behavioral Sciences.(o) The State Athletic Commission.(p) The Cemetery and Funeral Bureau.(q) The Bureau of Security and Investigative Services.(r) The Court Reporters Board of California.(s) The Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians.(t) The Landscape Architects Technical Committee.(u) The Division of Investigation.(v) The Bureau of Automotive Repair.(w) The Respiratory Care Board of California.(x) The Acupuncture Board.(y) The Board of Psychology.(z) The Podiatric Medical Board of California.(aa) The Physical Therapy Board of California.(ab) The Arbitration Review Program.(ac) The Physician Assistant Board.(ad) The Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board.(ae) The California Board of Occupational Therapy.(af) The Osteopathic Medical Board of California.(ag) The Naturopathic Medicine Committee.(ah) The Dental Hygiene Board of California.(ai) The Professional Fiduciaries Bureau.(aj) The State Board of Chiropractic Examiners.(ak) The Bureau of Real Estate Appraisers.(al) The Structural Pest Control Board.(am) The Bureau of Cannabis Control.(an) Any other boards, offices, or officers subject to its jurisdiction by law.(ao) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2018.SEC. 3. Section 125.9 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:125.9. (a) Except with respect to persons regulated under Chapter 11 (commencing with Section 7500), any board, bureau, or commission within the department, the State Board of Chiropractic Examiners, and the Osteopathic Medical Board of California, may establish, by regulation, a system for the issuance to a licensee of a citation which may contain an order of abatement or an order to pay an administrative fine assessed by the board, bureau, or commission where the licensee is in violation of the applicable licensing act or any regulation adopted pursuant thereto.(b) The system shall contain the following provisions:(1) Citations shall be in writing and shall describe with particularity the nature of the violation, including specific reference to the provision of law determined to have been violated.(2) Whenever appropriate, the citation shall contain an order of abatement fixing a reasonable time for abatement of the violation.(3) In no event shall the administrative fine assessed by the board, bureau, or commission exceed five thousand dollars ($5,000) for each inspection or each investigation made with respect to the violation, or five thousand dollars ($5,000) for each violation or count if the violation involves fraudulent billing submitted to an insurance company, the Medi-Cal program, or Medicare. In assessing a fine, the board, bureau, or commission shall give due consideration to the appropriateness of the amount of the fine with respect to factors such as the gravity of the violation, the good faith of the licensee, and the history of previous violations.(4) A citation or fine assessment issued pursuant to a citation shall inform the licensee that if the licensee desires a hearing to contest the finding of a violation, that hearing shall be requested by written notice to the board, bureau, or commission within 30 days of the date of issuance of the citation or assessment. If a hearing is not requested pursuant to this section, payment of any fine shall not constitute an admission of the violation charged. Hearings shall be held pursuant to Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.(5) Failure of a licensee to pay a fine or comply with an order of abatement, or both, within 30 days of the date of assessment or order, unless the citation is being appealed, may result in disciplinary action being taken by the board, bureau, or commission. Where a citation is not contested and a fine is not paid, the full amount of the assessed fine shall be added to the fee for renewal of the license. A license shall not be renewed without payment of the renewal fee and fine.(c) The system may contain the following provisions:(1) A citation may be issued without the assessment of an administrative fine.(2) Assessment of administrative fines may be limited to only particular violations of the applicable licensing act.(d) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, if a fine is paid to satisfy an assessment based on the finding of a violation, payment of the fine and compliance with the order of abatement, if applicable, shall be represented as satisfactory resolution of the matter for purposes of public disclosure.(e) Administrative fines collected pursuant to this section shall be deposited in the special fund of the particular board, bureau, or commission.SEC. 4. Section 130 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:130. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, the term of office of any member of an agency designated in subdivision (b) shall be for a term of four years expiring on June 1.(b) Subdivision (a) applies to the following boards or committees:(1) The Medical Board of California.(2) The Podiatric Medical Board of California.(3) The Physical Therapy Board of California.(4) The Board of Registered Nursing, except as provided in subdivision (c) of Section 2703.(5) The Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians.(6) The State Board of Optometry.(7) The California State Board of Pharmacy.(8) The Veterinary Medical Board.(9) The California Architects Board.(10) The Landscape Architect Technical Committee.(11) The Board for Professional Engineers and Land Surveyors.(12) The Contractors State License Board.(13) The Board of Behavioral Sciences.(14) The Court Reporters Board of California.(15) The State Athletic Commission.(16) The Osteopathic Medical Board of California.(17) The Respiratory Care Board of California.(18) The Acupuncture Board.(19) The Board of Psychology.(20) The Structural Pest Control Board.SEC. 5. Section 144 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:144. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, an agency designated in subdivision (b) shall require an applicant to furnish to the agency a full set of fingerprints for purposes of conducting criminal history record checks. Any agency designated in subdivision (b) may obtain and receive, at its discretion, criminal history information from the Department of Justice and the United States Federal Bureau of Investigation.(b) Subdivision (a) applies to the following:(1) California Board of Accountancy.(2) State Athletic Commission.(3) Board of Behavioral Sciences.(4) Court Reporters Board of California.(5) Dental Board of California.(6) California State Board of Pharmacy.(7) Board of Registered Nursing.(8) Veterinary Medical Board.(9) Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians.(10) Respiratory Care Board of California.(11) Physical Therapy Board of California.(12) Physician Assistant Committee.(13) Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board.(14) Medical Board of California.(15) State Board of Optometry.(16) Acupuncture Board.(17) Cemetery and Funeral Bureau.(18) Bureau of Security and Investigative Services.(19) Division of Investigation.(20) Board of Psychology.(21) California Board of Occupational Therapy.(22) Structural Pest Control Board.(23) Contractors State License Board.(24) Naturopathic Medicine Committee.(25) Professional Fiduciaries Bureau.(26) Board for Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists.(27) Bureau of Cannabis Control.(28) Podiatric Medical Board of California.(29) Osteopathic Medical Board of California.(30) California Architects Board, beginning January 1, 2021.(31) Landscape Architects Technical Committee, beginning January 1, 2022.(c) For purposes of paragraph (26) of subdivision (b), the term applicant shall be limited to an initial applicant who has never been registered or licensed by the board or to an applicant for a new licensure or registration category.SEC. 6. Section 200.1 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:200.1. (a) Any accruals that occur on or after September 11, 1993, to any funds or accounts within the Professions and Vocations Fund that realize increased revenues to that fund or account as a result of legislation enacted on or after September 11, 1993, and that have not been transferred pursuant to Sections 13.50, 13.60, and 13.70 of the Budget Act of 1993 on the effective date of the act that enacted this section, shall be exempt from the transfers contained in Sections 13.50, 13.60, and 13.70 of the Budget Act of 1993. These funds shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:(1) Athletic Commission Fund.(2) Bureau of Home Furnishings and Thermal Insulation Fund.(3) Contractors License Fund.(4) Private Investigator Fund.(5) Respiratory Care Fund.(6) Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians Fund.(b) Subdivision (a) shall not apply to the Contingent Fund of the Medical Board of California.SEC. 7. Section 205 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 2 of Chapter 865 of the Statutes of 2019, is amended to read:205. (a) There is in the State Treasury the Professions and Vocations Fund. The fund shall consist of the following special funds:(1) Accountancy Fund.(2) California Architects Board Fund.(3) Athletic Commission Fund.(4) Barbering and Cosmetology Contingent Fund.(5) Cemetery and Funeral Fund.(6) Contractors License Fund.(7) State Dentistry Fund.(8) Home Furnishings and Thermal Insulation Fund.(9) California Architects Board-Landscape Architects Fund.(10) Contingent Fund of the Medical Board of California.(11) Optometry Fund.(12) Pharmacy Board Contingent Fund.(13) Physical Therapy Fund.(14) Private Investigator Fund.(15) Private Security Services Fund.(16) Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists Fund.(17) Consumer Affairs Fund.(18) Behavioral Sciences Fund.(19) Licensed Midwifery Fund.(20) Court Reporters Fund.(21) Veterinary Medical Board Contingent Fund.(22) Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians Fund.(23) Electronic and Appliance Repair Fund.(24) Dispensing Opticians Fund.(25) Acupuncture Fund.(26) Physician Assistant Fund.(27) Board of Podiatric Medicine Fund.(28) Psychology Fund.(29) Respiratory Care Fund.(30) Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Fund.(31) Board of Registered Nursing Fund.(32) Animal Health Technician Examining Committee Fund.(33) State Dental Hygiene Fund.(34) State Dental Assistant Fund.(35) Structural Pest Control Fund.(36) Structural Pest Control Eradication and Enforcement Fund.(37) Structural Pest Control Research Fund.(38) Household Movers Fund.(b) For accounting and recordkeeping purposes, the Professions and Vocations Fund shall be deemed to be a single special fund, and each of the several special funds therein shall constitute and be deemed to be a separate account in the Professions and Vocations Fund. Each account or fund shall be available for expenditure only for the purposes as are now or may hereafter be provided by law.(c) This section shall be repealed on July 1, 2022.SEC. 8. Section 205 of the Business and Professions Code, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 865 of the Statutes of 2019, is amended to read:205. (a) There is in the State Treasury the Professions and Vocations Fund. The fund shall consist of the following special funds:(1) Accountancy Fund.(2) California Architects Board Fund.(3) Athletic Commission Fund.(4) Barbering and Cosmetology Contingent Fund.(5) Cemetery and Funeral Fund.(6) Contractors License Fund.(7) State Dentistry Fund.(8) Home Furnishings and Thermal Insulation Fund.(9) California Architects Board-Landscape Architects Fund.(10) Contingent Fund of the Medical Board of California.(11) Optometry Fund.(12) Pharmacy Board Contingent Fund.(13) Physical Therapy Fund.(14) Private Investigator Fund.(15) Private Security Services Fund.(16) Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists Fund.(17) Consumer Affairs Fund.(18) Behavioral Sciences Fund.(19) Licensed Midwifery Fund.(20) Court Reporters Fund.(21) Veterinary Medical Board Contingent Fund.(22) Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians Fund.(23) Electronic and Appliance Repair Fund.(24) Dispensing Opticians Fund.(25) Acupuncture Fund.(26) Physician Assistant Fund.(27) Board of Podiatric Medicine Fund.(28) Psychology Fund.(29) Respiratory Care Fund.(30) Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Fund.(31) Board of Registered Nursing Fund.(32) Animal Health Technician Examining Committee Fund.(33) State Dental Hygiene Fund.(34) Structural Pest Control Fund.(35) Structural Pest Control Eradication and Enforcement Fund.(36) Structural Pest Control Research Fund.(37) Household Movers Fund.(b) For accounting and recordkeeping purposes, the Professions and Vocations Fund shall be deemed to be a single special fund, and each of the several special funds therein shall constitute and be deemed to be a separate account in the Professions and Vocations Fund. Each account or fund shall be available for expenditure only for the purposes as are now or may hereafter be provided by law.(c) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2022.SEC. 8.5. Section 205 of the Business and Professions Code, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 865 of the Statutes of 2019, is amended to read:205. (a) There is in the State Treasury the Professions and Vocations Fund. The fund shall consist of the following special funds:(1) Accountancy Fund.(2) California Architects Board Fund.(3) Athletic Commission Fund.(4) Barbering and Cosmetology Contingent Fund.(5) Cemetery and Funeral Fund.(6) Contractors License Fund.(7) State Dentistry Fund.(8) Home Furnishings and Thermal Insulation Fund.(9) California Architects Board-Landscape Architects Fund.(10) Contingent Fund of the Medical Board of California.(11) Optometry Fund.(12) Pharmacy Board Contingent Fund.(13) Physical Therapy Fund.(14) Private Investigator Fund.(15) Private Security Services Fund.(16) Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists Fund.(17) Consumer Affairs Fund.(18) Behavioral Sciences Fund.(19) Licensed Midwifery Fund.(20) Court Reporters Fund.(21) Veterinary Medical Board Contingent Fund.(22) Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians Fund.(23) Electronic and Appliance Repair Fund.(24) Acupuncture Fund.(25) Physician Assistant Fund.(26) Board of Podiatric Medicine Fund.(27) Psychology Fund.(28) Respiratory Care Fund.(29) Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Fund.(30) Board of Registered Nursing Fund.(31) Animal Health Technician Examining Committee Fund.(32) State Dental Hygiene Fund.(33) Structural Pest Control Fund.(34) Structural Pest Control Eradication and Enforcement Fund.(35) Structural Pest Control Research Fund.(36) Household Movers Fund.(b) For accounting and recordkeeping purposes, the Professions and Vocations Fund shall be deemed to be a single special fund, and each of the several special funds therein shall constitute and be deemed to be a separate account in the Professions and Vocations Fund. Each account or fund shall be available for expenditure only for the purposes as are now or may hereafter be provided by law.(c) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2022.SEC. 9. Section 494.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:494.5. (a) (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (2), (3), and (4), a state governmental licensing entity shall refuse to issue, reactivate, reinstate, or renew a license and shall suspend a license if a licensees name is included on a certified list.(2) The Department of Motor Vehicles shall suspend a license if a licensees name is included on a certified list. Any reference in this section to the issuance, reactivation, reinstatement, renewal, or denial of a license shall not apply to the Department of Motor Vehicles.(3) The State Bar of California may recommend to refuse to issue, reactivate, reinstate, or renew a license and may recommend to suspend a license if a licensees name is included on a certified list. The word may shall be substituted for the word shall relating to the issuance of a temporary license, refusal to issue, reactivate, reinstate, renew, or suspend a license in this section for licenses under the jurisdiction of the California Supreme Court.(4) The Department of Alcoholic Beverage Control may refuse to issue, reactivate, reinstate, or renew a license, and may suspend a license, if a licensees name is included on a certified list.(b) For purposes of this section:(1) Certified list means either the list provided by the State Board of Equalization or the list provided by the Franchise Tax Board of persons whose names appear on the lists of the 500 largest tax delinquencies pursuant to Section 7063 or 19195 of the Revenue and Taxation Code, as applicable.(2) License includes a certificate, registration, or any other authorization to engage in a profession or occupation issued by a state governmental licensing entity. License includes a drivers license issued pursuant to Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 12500) of Division 6 of the Vehicle Code. License excludes a vehicle registration issued pursuant to Division 3 (commencing with Section 4000) of the Vehicle Code.(3) Licensee means an individual authorized by a license to drive a motor vehicle or authorized by a license, certificate, registration, or other authorization to engage in a profession or occupation issued by a state governmental licensing entity.(4) State governmental licensing entity means any entity listed in Section 101, 1000, or 19420, the office of the Attorney General, the Department of Insurance, the Department of Motor Vehicles, the State Bar of California, the Department of Real Estate, and any other state agency, board, or commission that issues a license, certificate, or registration authorizing an individual to engage in a profession or occupation, including any certificate, business or occupational license, or permit or license issued by the Department of Motor Vehicles or the Department of the California Highway Patrol. State governmental licensing entity shall not include the Contractors State License Board.(c) The State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board shall each submit its respective certified list to every state governmental licensing entity. The certified lists shall include the name, social security number or taxpayer identification number, and the last known address of the persons identified on the certified lists.(d) Notwithstanding any other law, each state governmental licensing entity shall collect the social security number or the federal taxpayer identification number from all applicants for the purposes of matching the names of the certified lists provided by the State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board to applicants and licensees.(e) (1) Each state governmental licensing entity shall determine whether an applicant or licensee is on the most recent certified list provided by the State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board.(2) If an applicant or licensee is on either of the certified lists, the state governmental licensing entity shall immediately provide a preliminary notice to the applicant or licensee of the entitys intent to suspend or withhold issuance or renewal of the license. The preliminary notice shall be delivered personally or by mail to the applicants or licensees last known mailing address on file with the state governmental licensing entity within 30 days of receipt of the certified list. Service by mail shall be completed in accordance with Section 1013 of the Code of Civil Procedure.(A) The state governmental licensing entity shall issue a temporary license valid for a period of 90 days to any applicant whose name is on a certified list if the applicant is otherwise eligible for a license.(B) The 90-day time period for a temporary license shall not be extended. Only one temporary license shall be issued during a regular license term and the term of the temporary license shall coincide with the first 90 days of the regular license term. A license for the full term or the remainder of the license term may be issued or renewed only upon compliance with this section.(C) In the event that a license is suspended or an application for a license or the renewal of a license is denied pursuant to this section, any funds paid by the applicant or licensee shall not be refunded by the state governmental licensing entity.(f) (1) A state governmental licensing entity shall refuse to issue or shall suspend a license pursuant to this section no sooner than 90 days and no later than 120 days of the mailing of the preliminary notice described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (e), unless the state governmental licensing entity has received a release pursuant to subdivision (h). The procedures in the administrative adjudication provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 11400) and Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code) shall not apply to the denial or suspension of, or refusal to renew, a license or the issuance of a temporary license pursuant to this section.(2) Notwithstanding any other law, if a board, bureau, or commission listed in Section 101, other than the Contractors State License Board, fails to take action in accordance with this section, the Department of Consumer Affairs shall issue a temporary license or suspend or refuse to issue, reactivate, reinstate, or renew a license, as appropriate.(g) Notices shall be developed by each state governmental licensing entity. For an applicant or licensee on the State Board of Equalizations certified list, the notice shall include the address and telephone number of the State Board of Equalization, and shall emphasize the necessity of obtaining a release from the State Board of Equalization as a condition for the issuance, renewal, or continued valid status of a license or licenses. For an applicant or licensee on the Franchise Tax Boards certified list, the notice shall include the address and telephone number of the Franchise Tax Board, and shall emphasize the necessity of obtaining a release from the Franchise Tax Board as a condition for the issuance, renewal, or continued valid status of a license or licenses.(1) The notice shall inform the applicant that the state governmental licensing entity shall issue a temporary license, as provided in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (e), for 90 calendar days if the applicant is otherwise eligible and that upon expiration of that time period, the license will be denied unless the state governmental licensing entity has received a release from the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable.(2) The notice shall inform the licensee that any license suspended under this section will remain suspended until the state governmental licensing entity receives a release along with applications and fees, if applicable, to reinstate the license.(3) The notice shall also inform the applicant or licensee that if an application is denied or a license is suspended pursuant to this section, any moneys paid by the applicant or licensee shall not be refunded by the state governmental licensing entity. The state governmental licensing entity shall also develop a form that the applicant or licensee shall use to request a release by the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board. A copy of this form shall be included with every notice sent pursuant to this subdivision.(h) If the applicant or licensee wishes to challenge the submission of their name on a certified list, the applicant or licensee shall make a timely written request for release to the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable. The State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board shall immediately send a release to the appropriate state governmental licensing entity and the applicant or licensee, if any of the following conditions are met:(1) The applicant or licensee has complied with the tax obligation, either by payment of the unpaid taxes or entry into an installment payment agreement, as described in Section 6832 or 19008 of the Revenue and Taxation Code, to satisfy the unpaid taxes.(2) The applicant or licensee has submitted a request for release not later than 45 days after the applicants or licensees receipt of a preliminary notice described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (e), but the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, will be unable to complete the release review and send notice of its findings to the applicant or licensee and state governmental licensing entity within 45 days after the State Board of Equalizations or the Franchise Tax Boards receipt of the applicants or licensees request for release. Whenever a release is granted under this paragraph, and, notwithstanding that release, the applicable license or licenses have been suspended erroneously, the state governmental licensing entity shall reinstate the applicable licenses with retroactive effect back to the date of the erroneous suspension and that suspension shall not be reflected on any license record.(3) The applicant or licensee is unable to pay the outstanding tax obligation due to a current financial hardship. Financial hardship means financial hardship as determined by the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, where the applicant or licensee is unable to pay any part of the outstanding liability and the applicant or licensee is unable to qualify for an installment payment arrangement as provided for by Section 6832 or Section 19008 of the Revenue and Taxation Code. In order to establish the existence of a financial hardship, the applicant or licensee shall submit any information, including information related to reasonable business and personal expenses, requested by the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, for purposes of making that determination.(i) An applicant or licensee is required to act with diligence in responding to notices from the state governmental licensing entity and the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board with the recognition that the temporary license will lapse or the license suspension will go into effect after 90 days and that the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board must have time to act within that period. An applicants or licensees delay in acting, without good cause, which directly results in the inability of the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, to complete a review of the applicants or licensees request for release shall not constitute the diligence required under this section which would justify the issuance of a release. An applicant or licensee shall have the burden of establishing that they diligently responded to notices from the state governmental licensing entity or the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board and that any delay was not without good cause.(j) The State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board shall create release forms for use pursuant to this section. When the applicant or licensee has complied with the tax obligation by payment of the unpaid taxes, or entry into an installment payment agreement, or establishing the existence of a current financial hardship as defined in paragraph (3) of subdivision (h), the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, shall mail a release form to the applicant or licensee and provide a release to the appropriate state governmental licensing entity. Any state governmental licensing entity that has received a release from the State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board pursuant to this subdivision shall process the release within five business days of its receipt. If the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board determines subsequent to the issuance of a release that the licensee has not complied with their installment payment agreement, the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, shall notify the state governmental licensing entity and the licensee in a format prescribed by the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, that the licensee is not in compliance and the release shall be rescinded. The State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board may, when it is economically feasible for the state governmental licensing entity to develop an automated process for complying with this subdivision, notify the state governmental licensing entity in a manner prescribed by the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, that the licensee has not complied with the installment payment agreement. Upon receipt of this notice, the state governmental licensing entity shall immediately notify the licensee on a form prescribed by the state governmental licensing entity that the licensees license will be suspended on a specific date, and this date shall be no longer than 30 days from the date the form is mailed. The licensee shall be further notified that the license will remain suspended until a new release is issued in accordance with this subdivision.(k) The State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board may enter into interagency agreements with the state governmental licensing entities necessary to implement this section.(l) Notwithstanding any other law, a state governmental licensing entity, with the approval of the appropriate department director or governing body, may impose a fee on a licensee whose license has been suspended pursuant to this section. The fee shall not exceed the amount necessary for the state governmental licensing entity to cover its costs in carrying out the provisions of this section. Fees imposed pursuant to this section shall be deposited in the fund in which other fees imposed by the state governmental licensing entity are deposited and shall be available to that entity upon appropriation in the annual Budget Act.(m) The process described in subdivision (h) shall constitute the sole administrative remedy for contesting the issuance of a temporary license or the denial or suspension of a license under this section.(n) Any state governmental licensing entity receiving an inquiry as to the licensed status of an applicant or licensee who has had a license denied or suspended under this section or who has been granted a temporary license under this section shall respond that the license was denied or suspended or the temporary license was issued only because the licensee appeared on a list of the 500 largest tax delinquencies pursuant to Section 7063 or 19195 of the Revenue and Taxation Code. Information collected pursuant to this section by any state agency, board, or department shall be subject to the Information Practices Act of 1977 (Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 1798) of Title 1.8 of Part 4 of Division 3 of the Civil Code). Any state governmental licensing entity that discloses on its internet website or other publication that the licensee has had a license denied or suspended under this section or has been granted a temporary license under this section shall prominently disclose, in bold and adjacent to the information regarding the status of the license, that the only reason the license was denied, suspended, or temporarily issued is because the licensee failed to pay taxes.(o) Any rules and regulations issued pursuant to this section by any state agency, board, or department may be adopted as emergency regulations in accordance with the rulemaking provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code). The adoption of these regulations shall be deemed an emergency and necessary for the immediate preservation of the public peace, health, and safety, or general welfare. The regulations shall become effective immediately upon filing with the Secretary of State.(p) The State Board of Equalization, the Franchise Tax Board, and state governmental licensing entities, as appropriate, shall adopt regulations as necessary to implement this section.(q) (1) Neither the state governmental licensing entity, nor any officer, employee, or agent, or former officer, employee, or agent of a state governmental licensing entity, may disclose or use any information obtained from the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, pursuant to this section, except to inform the public of the denial, refusal to renew, or suspension of a license or the issuance of a temporary license pursuant to this section. The release or other use of information received by a state governmental licensing entity pursuant to this section, except as authorized by this section, is punishable as a misdemeanor. This subdivision may not be interpreted to prevent the State Bar of California from filing a request with the Supreme Court of California to suspend a member of the bar pursuant to this section.(2) A suspension of, or refusal to renew, a license or issuance of a temporary license pursuant to this section does not constitute denial or discipline of a licensee for purposes of any reporting requirements to the National Practitioner Data Bank and shall not be reported to the National Practitioner Data Bank or the Healthcare Integrity and Protection Data Bank.(3) Upon release from the certified list, the suspension or revocation of the applicants or licensees license shall be purged from the state governmental licensing entitys internet website or other publication within three business days. This paragraph shall not apply to the State Bar of California.(r) If any provision of this section or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, that invalidity shall not affect other provisions or applications of this section that can be given effect without the invalid provision or application, and to this end the provisions of this section are severable.(s) All rights to review afforded by this section to an applicant shall also be afforded to a licensee.(t) Unless otherwise provided in this section, the policies, practices, and procedures of a state governmental licensing entity with respect to license suspensions under this section shall be the same as those applicable with respect to suspensions pursuant to Section 17520 of the Family Code.(u) No provision of this section shall be interpreted to allow a court to review and prevent the collection of taxes prior to the payment of those taxes in violation of the California Constitution.(v) This section shall apply to any licensee whose name appears on a list of the 500 largest tax delinquencies pursuant to Section 7063 or 19195 of the Revenue and Taxation Code on or after July 1, 2012.SEC. 10. Section 1000 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:1000. (a) The law governing practitioners of chiropractic is found in an initiative act entitled An act prescribing the terms upon which licenses may be issued to practitioners of chiropractic, creating the State Board of Chiropractic Examiners and declaring its powers and duties, prescribing penalties for violation hereof, and repealing all acts and parts of acts inconsistent herewith, adopted by the electors November 7, 1922.(b) The State Board of Chiropractic Examiners is within the Department of Consumer Affairs.(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the powers and duties of the State Board of Chiropractic Examiners, as set forth in this article and under the act creating the board, shall be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. The review shall be performed as if this chapter were scheduled to be repealed as of January 1, 2023.SEC. 11. Section 1913 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:1913. Unless otherwise specified in this chapter, a registered dental hygienist may perform any procedure or provide any service within the scope of their practice in any setting under the appropriate level of supervision required by this article, if the registered dental hygienist has completed the appropriate education and training required to perform the procedure or provide the service.SEC. 12. Section 1917 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:1917. The dental hygiene board shall grant initial licensure as a registered dental hygienist to a person who satisfies all of the following requirements:(a) Completion of an educational program for registered dental hygienists, approved by the dental hygiene board, accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation, and conducted by a degree-granting, postsecondary institution.(b) Within the preceding three years, satisfactory completion of the dental hygiene examination given by the Western Regional Examining Board or any other clinical or dental hygiene examination approved by the dental hygiene board.(c) Satisfactory completion of the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination.(d) Satisfactory completion of the examination in California law and ethics as prescribed by the dental hygiene board.(e) Submission of a completed application form and all fees required by the dental hygiene board.(f) Satisfactory completion of dental hygiene board-approved instruction in gingival soft-tissue curettage, nitrous oxide-oxygen analgesia, and local anesthesia.SEC. 13. Section 1917.1 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:1917.1. (a) The dental hygiene board may grant a license as a registered dental hygienist to an applicant who has not taken a clinical examination before the dental hygiene board, if the applicant submits all of the following to the dental hygiene board:(1) A completed application form and all fees required by the dental hygiene board.(2) Proof of a current license as a registered dental hygienist issued by another state that is not revoked, suspended, or otherwise restricted.(3) Proof that the applicant has been in clinical practice as a registered dental hygienist or has been a full-time faculty member in an accredited dental hygiene education program for a minimum of 750 hours per year for at least five years immediately preceding the date of application under this section. The clinical practice requirement shall be deemed met if the applicant provides proof of at least three years of clinical practice and commits to completing the remaining two years of clinical practice by filing with the dental hygiene board a copy of a pending contract to practice dental hygiene in any of the following facilities:(A) A primary care clinic licensed under subdivision (a) of Section 1204 of the Health and Safety Code.(B) A primary care clinic exempt from licensure pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 1206 of the Health and Safety Code.(C) A clinic owned or operated by a public hospital or health system.(D) A clinic owned and operated by a hospital that maintains the primary contract with a county government to fill the countys role under Section 17000 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(4) Satisfactory performance on a California law and ethics examination and any examination that may be required by the dental hygiene board.(5) Proof that the applicant has not been subject to disciplinary action by any state in which the applicant is or has been previously issued any professional or vocational license. If the applicant has been subject to disciplinary action, the dental hygiene board shall review that action to determine if it warrants refusal to issue a license to the applicant.(6) Proof of graduation from a school of dental hygiene accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation.(7) Proof of satisfactory completion of the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination and of a state clinical examination, regional clinical licensure examination, or any other clinical dental hygiene examination approved by the dental hygiene board.(8) Proof that the applicant has not failed the state clinical examination, the examination given by the Western Regional Examining Board, or any other clinical dental hygiene examination approved by the dental hygiene board for licensure to practice dental hygiene under this chapter more than once or once within five years prior to the date of application for a license under this section.(9) Documentation of completion of a minimum of 25 units of continuing education earned in the two years preceding application, including completion of any continuing education requirements imposed by the dental hygiene board on registered dental hygienists licensed in this state at the time of application.(10) Any other information as specified by the dental hygiene board to the extent that it is required of applicants for licensure by examination under this article.(b) The dental hygiene board may periodically request verification of compliance with the requirements of paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) and may revoke the license upon a finding that the employment requirement or any other requirement of paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) has not been met.(c) The dental hygiene board shall provide in the application packet to each out-of-state dental hygienist pursuant to this section the following information:(1) The location of dental manpower shortage areas in the state.(2) Any nonprofit clinics, public hospitals, and accredited dental hygiene education programs seeking to contract with licensees for dental hygiene service delivery or training purposes.SEC. 14. Section 1922 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:1922. The dental hygiene board shall license as a registered dental hygienist in alternative practice a person who demonstrates satisfactory performance on an examination in California law and ethics required by the dental hygiene board and who completes an application form and pays all application fees required by the dental hygiene board and meets either of the following requirements:(a) Holds a current California license as a registered dental hygienist and meets the following requirements:(1) Has been engaged in the practice of dental hygiene, as defined in Section 1908, as a registered dental hygienist in any setting, including, but not limited to, educational settings and public health settings, for a minimum of 2,000 hours during the immediately preceding 36 months.(2) Has successfully completed a bachelors degree or its equivalent, recognized as a minimum of 120 semester credit hours or 180 quarter credit hours in postsecondary education, from a college or institution of higher education that is accredited by a national or regional accrediting agency recognized by the United States Department of Education, and a minimum of 150 hours of additional educational requirements, as prescribed by the dental hygiene board by regulation, that are consistent with good dental and dental hygiene practice, including, but not necessarily limited to, dental hygiene technique and theory including gerontology and medical emergencies, and business administration and practice management.(b) Has received a letter of acceptance into the employment utilization phase of the Health Workforce Pilot Project No. 155 established by the Office of Statewide Health Planning and Development pursuant to Article 1 (commencing with Section 128125) of Chapter 3 of Part 3 of Division 107 of the Health and Safety Code.SEC. 15. Section 2065 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2065. (a) Unless otherwise provided by law, no postgraduate trainee, intern, resident, postdoctoral fellow, or instructor may engage in the practice of medicine, or receive compensation therefor, or offer to engage in the practice of medicine unless they hold a valid, unrevoked, and unsuspended physicians and surgeons certificate issued by the board. However, a graduate of an approved medical school may engage in the practice of medicine whenever and wherever required as a part of a postgraduate training program under the following conditions:(1) The medical school graduate has taken and passed the board-approved medical licensing examinations required to qualify the applicant to participate in an approved postgraduate training program.(2) If the medical school graduate graduated from a foreign medical school approved by the board pursuant to Section 2084, the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates (ECFMG) has submitted an official ECFMG Certification Status Report directly to the board confirming the graduate is ECFMG certified.(3) The medical school graduate is enrolled in a postgraduate training program approved by the board.(4) The board-approved postgraduate training program has submitted the required board-approved form to the board documenting the medical school graduate is enrolled in an approved postgraduate training program.(5) The medical school graduate obtains a physicians and surgeons postgraduate training license in accordance with Section 2064.5.(b) A medical school graduate enrolled in an approved first-year postgraduate training program in accordance with this section may engage in the practice of medicine whenever and wherever required as a part of the training program, and may receive compensation for that practice.(c) A graduate who has completed the first year of postgraduate training may, in an approved residency or fellowship, engage in the practice of medicine whenever and wherever required as part of that residency or fellowship, and may receive compensation for that practice. The resident or fellow shall qualify for, take, and pass the next succeeding written examination for licensure. If the resident or fellow fails to receive a license to practice medicine under this chapter within 27 months from the commencement of the residency or fellowship, except as otherwise allowed under subdivision (g) or (h), or if the board denies their application for licensure, all privileges and exemptions under this section shall automatically cease.(d) All approved postgraduate training the medical school graduate has successfully completed in the United States or Canada shall count toward the 39-month license exemption, except as otherwise allowed under subdivision (h).(e) A medical school graduate from a medical school approved by the board shall have successfully completed a minimum of 36 months of approved postgraduate training, which includes successful progression through 24 months in the same program, to be eligible for a California physicians and surgeons certificate.(f) The program director for an approved postgraduate training program in California shall report to the board, on a form approved by the board, and provide any supporting documents as required by the board, the following actions within 30 days of the action:(1) A postgraduate trainee is notified that they have received partial or no credit for a period of postgraduate training, and their postgraduate training period is extended.(2) A postgraduate trainee takes a leave of absence or any break from their postgraduate training, and they are notified that their postgraduate training period is extended.(3) A postgraduate trainee is terminated from the postgraduate training program.(4) A postgraduate trainee resigns, dies, or otherwise leaves the postgraduate training program.(5) A postgraduate trainee has completed a one-year contract approved by the postgraduate training program.(g) Upon review of supporting documentation, the board, in its discretion, may grant an extension beyond 39 months to a postgraduate training licensee to successfully complete the 36 months of required approved postgraduate training.(h) An applicant for a physicians and surgeons license who has successfully completed 36 months of approved postgraduate training in another state or in Canada and who is accepted into an approved postgraduate training program in California shall obtain their physicians and surgeons license within 90 days after beginning that postgraduate training program or all privileges and exemptions under this section shall automatically cease.(i) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2020.SEC. 16. Section 2113 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2113. (a) Any person who does not immediately qualify for a physicians and surgeons certificate under this chapter and who is offered by the dean of an approved medical school in this state a full-time faculty position may, after application to and approval by the board, be granted a certificate of registration to engage in the practice of medicine only to the extent that the practice is incident to and a necessary part of their duties as approved by the board in connection with the faculty position. A certificate of registration does not authorize a registrant to admit patients to a nursing or a skilled or assisted living facility unless that facility is formally affiliated with the sponsoring medical school. A clinical fellowship shall not be submitted as a faculty service appointment.(b) Application for a certificate of registration shall be made on a form prescribed by the board and shall be accompanied by a registration fee fixed by the board in an amount necessary to recover the actual application processing costs of the program. To qualify for the certificate, an applicant shall submit all of the following:(1) If the applicant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, documentary evidence satisfactory to the board that they have been licensed to practice medicine and surgery for not less than four years in another state or country whose requirements for licensure are satisfactory to the board, or has been engaged in the practice of medicine in the United States for at least four years in approved facilities, or has completed a combination of that licensure and training.(2) If the applicant is a graduate of a medical school in the United States or Canada, documentary evidence that the medical school is approved by the board.(3) Written certification by the head of the department in which the applicant is to be appointed of all of the following:(A) The applicant will be under their direction.(B) The applicant will not be permitted to practice medicine unless incident to and a necessary part of their duties as approved by the board in subdivision (a).(C) The applicant will be accountable to the medical schools department chair or division chief for the specialty in which the applicant will practice.(D) The applicant will be proctored in the same manner as other new faculty members, including, as appropriate, review by the medical staff of the schools medical center.(E) The applicant will not be appointed to a supervisory position at the level of a medical school department chair or division chief.(4) Demonstration by the dean of the medical school that the applicant has the requisite qualifications to assume the position to which they are to be appointed and that shall include a written statement of the recruitment procedures followed by the medical school before offering the faculty position to the applicant.(c) A certificate of registration shall be issued only for a faculty position at one approved medical school, and no person shall be issued more than one certificate of registration for the same period of time.(d) (1) A certificate of registration is valid for one year from its date of issuance and may be renewed twice.A request for renewal shall be submitted on a form prescribed by the board and shall be accompanied by a renewal fee fixed by the board in an amount necessary to recover the actual application processing costs of the program.(2) The dean of the medical school may request renewal of the registration by submitting a plan at the beginning of the third year of the registrants appointment demonstrating the registrants continued progress toward licensure and, if the registrant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, that the registrant has been issued a certificate by the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates. The board may, in its discretion, extend the registration for a two-year period to facilitate the registrants completion of the licensure process.(e) If the registrant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, they shall meet the requirements of Section 2065 or 2135, as appropriate, in order to obtain a physicians and surgeons certificate. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the board may accept clinical practice in an appointment pursuant to this section as qualifying time to meet the postgraduate training requirements in Section 2065, and, in its discretion, waive the examination and the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates certification requirements specified in paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) of Section 2065 in the event the registrant applies for a physicians and surgeons certificate. As a condition to waiving any examination or the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates certification requirement, the board in its discretion, may require an applicant to pass a clinical competency examination approved by the board. The board shall not waive any examination for an applicant who has not completed at least one year in the faculty position.(f) Except to the extent authorized by this section, the registrant shall not engage in the practice of medicine, bill individually for medical services provided by the registrant, or receive compensation therefor, unless they are issued a physicians and surgeons certificate.(g) When providing clinical services, the registrant shall wear a visible name tag containing the title visiting professor or visiting faculty member, as appropriate, and the institution at which the services are provided shall obtain a signed statement from each patient to whom the registrant provides services acknowledging that the patient understands that the services are provided by a person who does not hold a physicians and surgeons certificate but who is qualified to participate in a special program as a visiting professor or faculty member.(h) The board shall notify both the registrant and the dean of the medical school of a complaint made about the registrant. The board may terminate a registration for any act that would be grounds for discipline if done by a licensee. The board shall provide both the registrant and the dean of the medical school with written notice of the termination and the basis for that termination. The registrant may, within 30 days after the date of the notice of termination, file a written appeal to the board. The appeal shall include any documentation the registrant wishes to present to the board.(i) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2020.SEC. 16.5. Section 2113 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2113. (a) Any person who does not immediately qualify for a physicians and surgeons certificate under this chapter and who is offered by the dean of an approved medical school, or dean or chief medical officer of an academic medical center, in this state a full-time faculty position may, after application to and approval by the board, be granted a certificate of registration to engage in the practice of medicine only to the extent that the practice is incident to and a necessary part of that persons duties as approved by the board in connection with the faculty position. A certificate of registration does not authorize a registrant to admit patients to a nursing or a skilled or assisted living facility unless that facility is formally affiliated with the sponsoring medical school. A clinical fellowship shall not be submitted as a faculty service appointment.(b) Application for a certificate of registration shall be made on a form prescribed by the board and shall be accompanied by a registration fee fixed by the board in an amount necessary to recover the actual application processing costs of the program. To qualify for the certificate, an applicant shall submit all of the following:(1) If the applicant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, documentary evidence satisfactory to the board that the applicant has been licensed to practice medicine and surgery for not less than four years in another state or country whose requirements for licensure are satisfactory to the board, or has been engaged in the practice of medicine in the United States for at least four years in approved facilities, or has completed a combination of that licensure and training.(2) If the applicant is a graduate of a medical school in the United States or Canada, documentary evidence that the medical school is approved by the board.(3) Written certification by the head of the department in which the applicant is to be appointed of all of the following:(A) The applicant will be under the head of the departments direction.(B) The applicant will not be permitted to practice medicine unless incident to and a necessary part of the applicants duties as approved by the board in subdivision (a).(C) The applicant will be accountable to the medical schools or academic medical centers chair or division chief for the specialty in which the applicant will practice.(D) The applicant will be proctored in the same manner as other new faculty members, including, as appropriate, review by the medical staff of the sponsoring medical school or academic medical center.(E) The applicant will not be appointed to a supervisory position at the level of a medical school or academic medical centers department chair or division chief.(4) Demonstration by the dean of the medical school, or dean or chief medical officer or an academic medical center, that the applicant has the requisite qualifications to assume the position to which the applicant is to be appointed and that shall include a written statement of the recruitment procedures followed by the medical school or academic medical center before offering the faculty position to the applicant.(c) A certificate of registration shall be issued only for a faculty position at one approved medical school, or academic medical center, and a person shall not be issued more than one certificate of registration for the same period of time.(d) (1) A certificate of registration is valid for one year from its date of issuance and may be renewed twice.A request for renewal shall be submitted on a form prescribed by the board and shall be accompanied by a renewal fee fixed by the board in an amount necessary to recover the actual application processing costs of the program.(2) The dean of the medical school, or the dean or chief medical officer of an academic medical center, may request renewal of the registration by submitting a plan at the beginning of the third year of the registrants appointment demonstrating the registrants continued progress toward licensure and, if the registrant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, that the registrant has been issued a certificate by the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates. The board may, in its discretion, extend the registration for a two-year period to facilitate the registrants completion of the licensure process.(e) If the registrant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, the registrant shall meet the requirements of Section 2065 or 2135, as appropriate, in order to obtain a physicians and surgeons certificate. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the board may accept clinical practice in an appointment pursuant to this section as qualifying time to meet the postgraduate training requirements in Section 2065, and, in its discretion, waive the examination and the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates certification requirements specified in paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) of Section 2065 in the event the registrant applies for a physicians and surgeons certificate. As a condition to waiving any examination or the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates certification requirement, the board in its discretion, may require an applicant to pass a clinical competency examination approved by the board. The board shall not waive any examination for an applicant who has not completed at least one year in the faculty position.(f) Except to the extent authorized by this section, the registrant shall not engage in the practice of medicine, bill individually for medical services provided by the registrant, or receive compensation therefor, unless the registrant is issued a physicians and surgeons certificate.(g) When providing clinical services, the registrant shall wear a visible name tag containing the title visiting professor or visiting faculty member, as appropriate, and the institution at which the services are provided shall obtain a signed statement from each patient to whom the registrant provides services acknowledging that the patient understands that the services are provided by a person who does not hold a physicians and surgeons certificate but who is qualified to participate in a special program as a visiting professor or faculty member.(h) The board shall notify both the registrant and the dean of the medical school, or the dean or chief medical officer of an academic medical center, of a complaint made about the registrant. The board may terminate a registration for any act that would be grounds for discipline if done by a licensee. The board shall provide both the registrant and the dean of the medical school, or the dean or chief medical officer of an academic medical center, with written notice of the termination and the basis for that termination. The registrant may, within 30 days after the date of the notice of termination, file a written appeal to the board. The appeal shall include any documentation the registrant wishes to present to the board.(i) A registrant granted a certificate of registration before January 1, 2021, to engage in the practice of medicine pursuant to this section at an academic medical center shall be deemed to be authorized at that academic medical center as though the initial application had been sponsored by the academic medical center.(j) As used in this section, academic medical center has the same meaning as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 2168.SEC. 17. Section 2135.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2135.5. Upon review and recommendation, the board may determine that an applicant for a physicians and surgeons certificate has satisfied the medical education requirements of Sections 2084 and 2135 and the examination requirements of Section 2170 if the applicant meets all of the following criteria:(a) They hold an unlimited and unrestricted license as a physician and surgeon in another state and has held that license continuously for a minimum of four years prior to the date of application.(b) They meet the postgraduate training requirements in Section 2096 and are certified by a specialty board that is a member board of the American Board of Medical Specialties.(c) They are not subject to denial of licensure under Division 1.5 (commencing with Section 475) or Article 12 (commencing with Section 2220).(d) They have not been the subject of a disciplinary action by a medical licensing authority or of an adverse judgment or settlement resulting from the practice of medicine that, as determined by the board, constitutes a pattern of negligence or incompetence.(e) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2020.SEC. 18. Section 2460 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2460. (a) There is created in the Department of Consumer Affairs the California Board of Podiatric Medicine. Commencing July 1, 2019, the California Board of Podiatric Medicine is renamed the Podiatric Medical Board of California. Any reference in any provision of law to the California Board of Podiatric Medicine shall, commencing July 1, 2019, be deemed to refer to the Podiatric Medical Board of California.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the California Board of Podiatric Medicine subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.(c) The amendments made by Chapter 775 of the Statutes of 2017 relating to podiatrists shall not be construed to change any rights or privileges held by podiatrists prior to the enactment of that act.SEC. 19. Section 2531 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2531. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs the Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board in which the enforcement and administration of this chapter are vested. The Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board shall consist of nine members, three of whom shall be public members.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.SEC. 20. Section 2531.75 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2531.75. (a) The board may appoint a person exempt from civil service who shall be designated as an executive officer and who shall exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated by the board and vested in them by this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 21. Section 2570.19 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2570.19. (a) There is hereby created a California Board of Occupational Therapy, hereafter referred to as the board. The board shall enforce and administer this chapter.(b) The members of the board shall consist of the following:(1) Three occupational therapists who shall have practiced occupational therapy for five years.(2) One occupational therapy assistant who shall have assisted in the practice of occupational therapy for five years.(3) Three public members who shall not be licentiates of the board, of any other board under this division, or of any board referred to in Section 1000 or 3600.(c) The Governor shall appoint the three occupational therapists and one occupational therapy assistant to be members of the board. The Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, and the Speaker of the Assembly shall each appoint a public member. Not more than one member of the board shall be appointed from the full-time faculty of any university, college, or other educational institution.(d) All members shall be residents of California at the time of their appointment. The occupational therapist and occupational therapy assistant members shall have been engaged in rendering occupational therapy services to the public, teaching, or research in occupational therapy for at least five years preceding their appointments.(e) The public members may not be or have ever been occupational therapists or occupational therapy assistants or in training to become occupational therapists or occupational therapy assistants. The public members may not be related to, or have a household member who is, an occupational therapist or an occupational therapy assistant, and may not have had, within two years of the appointment, a substantial financial interest in a person regulated by the board.(f) The Governor shall appoint two board members for a term of one year, two board members for a term of two years, and one board member for a term of three years. Appointments made thereafter shall be for four-year terms, but no person shall be appointed to serve more than two consecutive terms. Terms shall begin on the first day of the calendar year and end on the last day of the calendar year or until successors are appointed, except for the first appointed members who shall serve through the last calendar day of the year in which they are appointed, before commencing the terms prescribed by this section. Vacancies shall be filled by appointment for the unexpired term. The board shall annually elect one of its members as president.(g) The board shall meet and hold at least one regular meeting annually in the Cities of Sacramento, Los Angeles, and San Francisco. The board may convene from time to time until its business is concluded. Special meetings of the board may be held at any time and place designated by the board.(h) Notice of each meeting of the board shall be given in accordance with the Bagley-Keene Open Meeting Act (Article 9 (commencing with Section 11120) of Chapter 1 of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code).(i) Members of the board shall receive no compensation for their services, but shall be entitled to reasonable travel and other expenses incurred in the execution of their powers and duties in accordance with Section 103.(j) The appointing power shall have the power to remove any member of the board from office for neglect of any duty imposed by state law, for incompetency, or for unprofessional or dishonorable conduct.(k) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.(l) Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.SEC. 22. Section 2602 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2602. (a) The Physical Therapy Board of California, hereafter referred to as the board, shall enforce and administer this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.SEC. 23. Section 2607.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2607.5. (a) The board may employ an executive officer exempt from the provisions of the State Civil Service Act (Part 2 (commencing with Section 18500) of Division 5 of Title 2 of the Government Code) and may also employ investigators, legal counsel, physical therapist consultants, and other assistance as it may deem necessary to carry out this chapter. The board may fix the compensation to be paid for services and may incur other expenses as it may deem necessary. Investigators employed by the board shall be provided special training in investigating physical therapy practice activities.(b) The Attorney General shall act as legal counsel for the board for any judicial and administrative proceedings and their services shall be a charge against it.(c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 24. Section 2841 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2841. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs a Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians of the State of California, which consists of 11 members.(b) Within the meaning of this chapter, board, or the board, refers to the Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians of the State of California.(c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 25. Section 2847.1 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2847.1. (a) The board shall select an executive officer who shall perform duties as are delegated by the board and who shall be responsible to it for the accomplishment of those duties. The executive officer shall not be a member of the board.(b) With the approval of the Director of Finance, the board shall fix the salary of the executive officer.(c) The executive officer shall be entitled to traveling and other necessary expenses in the performance of their duties. The executive officer shall make a statement, certified before a duly authorized person, that the expenses have been actually incurred.(d) Commencing January 1, 2018, the executive officer appointed by the board pursuant to subdivision (a) is abolished. Thereafter, until January 1, 2022, the executive officer shall be appointed as set forth in Section 2847.3. Commencing January 1, 2022, the executive officer shall, again, be appointed by the board as set forth in subdivision (a).(e) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 26. Section 2847.3 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2847.3. (a) Commencing January 1, 2018, the executive officer position established pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 2847.1 is temporarily abolished. Commencing January 1, 2018, the Governor shall appoint an executive officer who shall perform duties as are delegated by the board and who shall be responsible for the accomplishment of those duties. The executive officer shall exercise all powers, discharge all responsibilities, and administer and enforce all laws pursuant to this chapter and Chapter 10 (commencing with Section 4500) of Division 2 that are necessary to perform the duties delegated by the board.(b) The executive officer shall serve at the pleasure of the Governor and the Governor shall fix the salary of the executive officer. The executive officer shall not be a member of the board.(c) The executive officer shall be entitled to traveling and other necessary expenses in the performance of their duties.(d) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2018, and shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 27. Section 2920 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2920. (a) The Board of Psychology shall enforce and administer this chapter. The board shall consist of nine members, four of whom shall be public members.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.SEC. 28. Section 2933 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2933. (a) Except as provided by Section 159.5, the board shall employ and shall make available to the board within the limits of the funds received by the board all personnel necessary to carry out this chapter. The board may employ, exempt from the State Civil Service Act, an executive officer to the Board of Psychology. The board shall make all expenditures to carry out this chapter. The board may accept contributions to effectuate the purposes of this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 29. Section 3504 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:3504. There is established a Physician Assistant Board within the jurisdiction of the Medical Board of California. The board consists of nine members. This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.SEC. 30. Section 3512 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:3512. (a) Except as provided in Sections 159.5 and 2020, the board shall employ within the limits of the Physician Assistant Fund all personnel necessary to carry out this chapter including an executive officer who shall be exempt from civil service. The Medical Board of California and board shall make all necessary expenditures to carry out this chapter from the funds established by Section 3520. The board may accept contributions to effect the purposes of this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 31. Section 3686 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:3686. This chapter shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 32. Section 3710 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:3710. (a) The Respiratory Care Board of California, hereafter referred to as the board, shall enforce and administer this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed. Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.SEC. 33. Section 3716 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:3716. (a) The board may employ an executive officer exempt from civil service and, subject to the provisions of law relating to civil service, clerical assistants and, except as provided in Section 159.5, other employees as it may deem necessary to carry out its powers and duties.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 34. Section 4001 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:4001. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs a California State Board of Pharmacy in which the administration and enforcement of this chapter is vested. The board consists of 13 members.(b) The Governor shall appoint seven competent pharmacists who reside in different parts of the state to serve as members of the board. The Governor shall appoint four public members, and the Senate Committee on Rules and the Speaker of the Assembly shall each appoint a public member who shall not be a licensee of the board, any other board under this division, or any board referred to in Section 1000 or 3600.(c) At least five of the seven pharmacist appointees to the board shall be pharmacists who are actively engaged in the practice of pharmacy. Additionally, the membership of the board shall include at least one pharmacist representative from each of the following practice settings: an acute care hospital, an independent community pharmacy, a chain community pharmacy, and a long-term health care or skilled nursing facility. The pharmacist appointees shall also include a pharmacist who is a member of a labor union that represents pharmacists. For the purposes of this subdivision, a chain community pharmacy means a chain of 75 or more stores in California under the same ownership, and an independent community pharmacy means a pharmacy owned by a person or entity who owns no more than four pharmacies in California.(d) Members of the board shall be appointed for a term of four years. No person shall serve as a member of the board for more than two consecutive terms. Each member shall hold office until the appointment and qualification of their successor or until one year shall have elapsed since the expiration of the term for which the member was appointed, whichever first occurs. Vacancies occurring shall be filled by appointment for the unexpired term.(e) Each member of the board shall receive a per diem and expenses as provided in Section 103.(f) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.SEC. 35. Section 4003 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:4003. (a) The board, with the approval of the director, may appoint a person exempt from civil service who shall be designated as an executive officer and who shall exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated by the board and vested in them by this chapter. The executive officer may or may not be a member of the board as the board may determine.(b) The executive officer shall receive the compensation as established by the board with the approval of the Director of Finance. The executive officer shall also be entitled to travel and other expenses necessary in the performance of their duties.(c) The executive officer shall maintain and update in a timely fashion records containing the names, titles, qualifications, and places of business of all persons subject to this chapter.(d) The executive officer shall give receipts for all money received by them and pay it to the department, taking its receipt therefor. Besides the duties required by this chapter, the executive officer shall perform other duties pertaining to the office as may be required of them by the board.(e) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 36. Section 4501 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:4501. (a) Board, as used in this chapter, means the Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians of the State of California.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 37. Section 4503 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:4503. (a) The board shall administer and enforce this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 38. Section 4604 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:4604. (a) In order to obtain certification as a massage therapist, an applicant shall submit a written application and provide the council with satisfactory evidence that the applicant meets all of the following requirements:(1) The applicant is 18 years of age or older.(2) The applicant has successfully completed the curricula in massage and related subjects totaling a minimum of 500 hours, or the credit unit equivalent, that incorporates appropriate school assessment of student knowledge and skills.(A) Of the 500 hours, a minimum of 100 hours of instruction shall address anatomy and physiology, contraindications, health and hygiene, and business and ethics.(B) All of the 500 hours shall be from approved schools. The council shall accept the 500 hours if, at the time all of the hours were completed, the school or schools were approved. The 500 hours may be completed at more than one approved school. Notwithstanding any other law, pursuant to its policies and procedures for approval of schools, the council shall accept hours earned by an applicant for certification as a massage therapist if those hours were completed before July 1, 2016, and were earned from a school providing education in this state that was unapproved by the council after July 1, 2016, based solely on the fact that the National Certification Board for Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork took denial or disciplinary action against the school. For purposes of this section, unapproved means that the council determined that it will not accept hours from a school toward certification.(3) The applicant has passed a massage and bodywork competency assessment examination that meets generally recognized psychometric principles and standards and that is approved by the council. The successful completion of this examination may have been accomplished before the date the council is authorized by this chapter to begin issuing certificates. This paragraph shall be inoperative commencing on January 1, 2019, and shall become operative on January 1, 2022.(4) The applicant has successfully passed a background investigation pursuant to Section 4606, and has not violated any of the provisions of this chapter.(5) All fees required by the council have been paid.(6) The council may issue a certificate to an applicant who meets the qualifications of this chapter if the applicant holds a current and valid registration, certification, or license from any other state whose licensure requirements meet or exceed those defined within this chapter. If an applicant has received education at a school that is not approved by the council, the council shall have the discretion to give credit for comparable academic work completed by an applicant in a program outside of California.(b) A certificate issued pursuant to this chapter and any identification card issued by the council shall be surrendered to the council by any certificate holder whose certificate is suspended or revoked.SEC. 39. Section 4621 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:4621. (a) This chapter shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.(b) Notwithstanding any other law, the powers and duties of the council shall be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.SEC. 40. Section 4800 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:4800. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs a Veterinary Medical Board in which the administration of this chapter is vested. The board consists of the following members:(1) Four licensed veterinarians.(2) One registered veterinary technician.(3) Three public members.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. However, the review of the board shall be limited to those issues identified by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature and shall not involve the preparation or submission of a sunset review document or evaluative questionnaire.SEC. 41. Section 4804.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:4804.5. The board may appoint a person exempt from civil service who shall be designated as an executive officer and who shall exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated by the board and vested in them by this chapter.This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 42. Section 4990 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:4990. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs, a Board of Behavioral Sciences that consists of the following members:(1) Two state licensed clinical social workers.(2) One state licensed educational psychologist.(3) Two state licensed marriage and family therapists.(4) One state licensed professional clinical counselor.(5) Seven public members.(b) Each member, except the seven public members, shall have at least two years of experience in their profession.(c) Each member shall reside in the State of California.(d) The Governor shall appoint five of the public members and the six licensed members with the advice and consent of the Senate. The Senate Committee on Rules and the Speaker of the Assembly shall each appoint a public member.(e) Each member of the board shall be appointed for a term of four years. A member appointed by the Senate Committee on Rules or the Speaker of the Assembly shall hold office until the appointment and qualification of their successor or until one year from the expiration date of the term for which they were appointed, whichever first occurs. Pursuant to Section 1774 of the Government Code, a member appointed by the Governor shall hold office until the appointment and qualification of their successor or until 60 days from the expiration date of the term for which they were appointed, whichever first occurs.(f) A vacancy on the board shall be filled by appointment for the unexpired term by the authority who appointed the member whose membership was vacated.(g) Not later than the first of June of each calendar year, the board shall elect a chairperson and a vice chairperson from its membership.(h) Each member of the board shall receive a per diem and reimbursement of expenses as provided in Section 103.(i) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.(j) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.SEC. 43. Section 4990.04 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:4990.04. (a) The board shall appoint an executive officer. This position is designated as a confidential position and is exempt from civil service under subdivision (e) of Section 4 of Article VII of the California Constitution.(b) The executive officer serves at the pleasure of the board.(c) The executive officer shall exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated by the board and vested in them by this chapter.(d) With the approval of the director, the board shall fix the salary of the executive officer.(e) The chairperson and executive officer may call meetings of the board and any duly appointed committee at a specified time and place. For purposes of this section, call meetings means setting the agenda, time, date, or place for any meeting of the board or any committee.(f) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 44. Section 5600.4 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:5600.4. (a) The board shall issue, upon application and payment of the fee fixed by this chapter, a retired license to an architect who holds a license that is current and active or capable of being renewed pursuant to Section 5600.2 and whose license is not suspended, revoked, or otherwise punitively restricted by the board or subject to disciplinary action under this chapter.(b) The holder of a retired license issued pursuant to this section shall not engage in any activity for which an active architects license is required. An architect holding a retired license shall be permitted to use the title architect retired or retired architect.(c) The holder of a retired license shall not be required to renew that license.(d) In order for the holder of a retired license issued pursuant to this section to restore their license to active status, the holder of a retired license shall comply with Section 5600.2 or 5600.3, as applicable.SEC. 45. Section 5810 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:5810. (a) This chapter shall be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.(b) This chapter shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 46. Section 7000 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7000. This chapter constitutes, and may be cited as, the Contractors State License Law.SEC. 47. Section 7000.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7000.5. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs a Contractors State License Board, which consists of 15 members.(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.(c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 48. Section 7000.6 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7000.6. Protection of the public shall be the highest priority for the Contractors State License Board in exercising its licensing, regulatory, and disciplinary functions. Whenever the protection of the public is inconsistent with other interests sought to be promoted, the protection of the public shall be paramount.SEC. 49. Section 7011.4 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7011.4. (a) Notwithstanding Section 7011, there is in the Contractors State License Board, a separate enforcement division that shall rigorously enforce this chapter prohibiting all forms of unlicensed activity and shall enforce the obligation to secure the payment of valid and current workers compensation insurance in accordance with Section 3700.5 of the Labor Code.(b) Persons employed as enforcement representatives of the Contractors State License Board and designated by the Director of Consumer Affairs shall have the authority to issue a written notice to appear in court pursuant to Chapter 5C (commencing with Section 853.5) of Title 3 of Part 2 of the Penal Code. An employee so designated is not a peace officer and is not entitled to safety member retirement benefits as a result of that designation. They do not have the power of arrest.(c) When participating in the activities of the Joint Enforcement Strike Force on the Underground Economy pursuant to Section 329 of the Unemployment Insurance Code, the enforcement division shall have free access to all places of labor.SEC. 50. Section 7011.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7011.5. Persons employed as investigators of the Special Investigations Unit of the Contractors State License Board and designated by the Director of Consumer Affairs have the authority of peace officers while engaged in exercising the powers granted or performing the duties imposed upon them in investigating the laws administered by the Contractors State License Board or commencing directly or indirectly any criminal prosecution arising from any investigation conducted under these laws. All persons herein referred to shall be deemed to be acting within the scope of employment with respect to all acts and matters in this section set forth.SEC. 51. Section 7011.8 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7011.8. (a) Any person subject to licensure under this chapter who reports to, or causes a complaint to be filed with, the Contractors State License Board that a person licensed by that entity has engaged in professional misconduct, knowing the report or complaint to be false, may be issued a citation by the registrar.(b) The board may notify the appropriate district attorney or city attorney that a person subject to licensure under this chapter has made or filed what the entity believes to be a false report or complaint against a licensee.SEC. 52. Section 7015 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7015. The board shall adopt a seal for its own use. The seal shall have the words Contractors State License Board, State of California, Department of Consumer Affairs, and the care and custody thereof shall be in the hands of the registrar.SEC. 53. Section 7017.3 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7017.3. The Contractors State License Board shall report annually to the Legislature, not later than October 1 of each year, the following statistical information for the prior fiscal year. The following data shall be reported on complaints filed with the board against licensed contractors, registered home improvement salespersons, and unlicensed persons acting as licensees or registrants:(a) The number of complaints received by the board categorized by source, such as public, trade, profession, government agency, or board-initiated, and by type of complaint, such as licensee or nonlicensee.(b) The number of complaints closed prior to referral for field investigation, categorized by the reason for the closure, such as settled, referred for mandatory arbitration, or referred for voluntary arbitration.(c) The number of complaints referred for field investigation categorized by the type of complaint, such as licensee or nonlicensee.(d) The number of complaints closed after referral for field investigation categorized by the reason for the closure, such as settled, referred for mandatory arbitration, or referred for voluntary arbitration.(e) For the boards Intake/Mediation Center and the boards Investigation Center closures, respectively, the total number of complaints closed prior to a field investigation per consumer services representative, and the total number of complaints closed after referral for a field investigation per enforcement representative. Additionally, the board shall report the total number of complaints closed by other board staff during the year.(f) The number of complaints pending at the end of the fiscal year grouped in 90-day increments, and the percentage of total complaints pending, represented by the number of complaints in each grouping.(g) The number of citations issued to licensees categorized by the type of citation such as order of correction only or order of correction and fine, and the number of citations issued to licensees that were vacated or withdrawn.(h) The number of citations issued to nonlicensees and the number of these citations that were vacated or withdrawn.(i) The number of complaints referred to a local prosecutor for criminal investigation or prosecution, the number of complaints referred to the Attorney General for the filing of an accusation, and the number of complaints referred to both a local prosecutor and the Attorney General, categorized by type of complaint, such as licensee and nonlicensee.(j) Actions taken by the board, including, but not limited to, the following:(1) The number of disciplinary actions categorized by type, such as revocations or suspensions, categorized by whether the disciplinary action resulted from an accusation, failure to comply with a citation, or failure to comply with an arbitration award.(2) The number of accusations dismissed or withdrawn.(k) For subdivisions (g) and (j), the number of cases containing violations of Sections 7121 and 7121.5, and paragraph (5) of subdivision (a) of Section 7159.5, categorized by section.(l) The number of interim suspension orders sought, the number of interim suspension orders granted, the number of temporary restraining orders sought, and the number of temporary restraining orders granted.(m) The amount of cost recovery ordered and the amount collected.(n) Case aging data, including data for each major stage of the enforcement process, including the following:(1) The average number of days from the filing of a complaint to its closure by the boards Intake/Mediation Center prior to the referral for an investigation categorized by the type of complaint, such as licensee or nonlicensee.(2) The average number of days from the referral of a complaint for an investigation to its closure by the Investigation Center categorized by the type of complaint, such as licensee or nonlicensee.(3) The average number of days from the filing of a complaint to the referral of the completed investigation to the Attorney General.(4) The average number of days from the referral of a completed investigation to the Attorney General to the filing of an accusation by the Attorney General.(5) The average number of days from the filing of an accusation to the first hearing date or date of a stipulated settlement.(6) The average number of days from the receipt of the Administrative Law Judges proposed decision to the registrars final decision.SEC. 54. Section 7028.7 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7028.7. (a) If upon inspection or investigation, either upon complaint or otherwise, the registrar has probable cause to believe that a person is acting in the capacity of or engaging in the business of a contractor or salesperson within this state without having a license or registration in good standing to so act or engage, and the person is not otherwise exempted from this chapter, the registrar shall issue a citation to that person.(b) Within 72 hours of receiving notice that a public entity is intending to award, or has awarded, a contract to an unlicensed contractor, the registrar shall give written notice to the public entity that a citation may be issued if a contract is awarded to an unlicensed contractor. If after receiving the written notice from the registrar that the public entity has awarded or awards the contract to an unlicensed contractor, the registrar may issue a citation to the responsible officer or employee of the public entity as specified in Section 7028.15.(c) Each citation shall be in writing and shall describe with particularity the basis of the citation. Notwithstanding Sections 125.9 and 148, each citation shall contain an order of abatement and an assessment of a civil penalty in an amount not less than two hundred dollars ($200) nor more than fifteen thousand dollars ($15,000).(d) With the approval of the Contractors State License Board, the registrar shall prescribe procedures for the issuance of a citation under this section. The board shall adopt regulations covering the assessment of a civil penalty that shall give due consideration to the gravity of the violation, and any history of previous violations.(e) The sanctions authorized under this section shall be separate from, and in addition to, all other remedies either civil or criminal.SEC. 55. Section 7030 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7030. (a) Except for contractors writing home improvement contracts pursuant to Section 7151.2 and contractors writing service and repair contracts pursuant to Section 7159.10, every person licensed pursuant to this chapter shall include the following statement in at least 10-point type on all written contracts with respect to which the person is a prime contractor: Contractors are required by law to be licensed and regulated by the Contractors State License Board which has jurisdiction to investigate complaints against contractors if a complaint regarding a patent act or omission is filed within four years of the date of the alleged violation. A complaint regarding a latent act or omission pertaining to structural defects must be filed within 10 years of the date of the alleged violation. Any questions concerning a contractor may be referred to the Registrar, Contractors State License Board, P.O. Box 26000, Sacramento, CA 95826. (b) Every person licensed pursuant to this chapter shall include the following statement in at least 12-point type in all home improvement contracts written pursuant to Section 7151.2 and service and repair contracts written pursuant to Section 7159.10: Information about the Contractors State License Board (CSLB): CSLB is the state consumer protection agency that licenses and regulates construction contractors.Contact CSLB for information about the licensed contractor you are considering, including information about disclosable complaints, disciplinary actions and civil judgments that are reported to CSLB.Use only licensed contractors. If you file a complaint against a licensed contractor within the legal deadline (usually four years), CSLB has authority to investigate the complaint. If you use an unlicensed contractor, CSLB may not be able to help you resolve your complaint. Your only remedy may be in civil court, and you may be liable for damages arising out of any injuries to the unlicensed contractor or the unlicensed contractors employees.For more information:Visit CSLBs internet website at www.cslb.ca.govCall CSLB at 800-321-CSLB (2752)Write CSLB at P.O. Box 26000, Sacramento, CA 95826. (c) Failure to comply with the notice requirements set forth in subdivision (a) or (b) of this section is cause for disciplinary action.SEC. 56. Section 7031 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7031. (a) Except as provided in subdivision (e), no person engaged in the business or acting in the capacity of a contractor, may bring or maintain any action, or recover in law or equity in any action, in any court of this state for the collection of compensation for the performance of any act or contract where a license is required by this chapter without alleging that they were a duly licensed contractor at all times during the performance of that act or contract regardless of the merits of the cause of action brought by the person, except that this prohibition shall not apply to contractors who are each individually licensed under this chapter but who fail to comply with Section 7029.(b) Except as provided in subdivision (e), a person who utilizes the services of an unlicensed contractor may bring an action in any court of competent jurisdiction in this state to recover all compensation paid to the unlicensed contractor for performance of any act or contract.(c) A security interest taken to secure any payment for the performance of any act or contract for which a license is required by this chapter is unenforceable if the person performing the act or contract was not a duly licensed contractor at all times during the performance of the act or contract.(d) If licensure or proper licensure is controverted, then proof of licensure pursuant to this section shall be made by production of a verified certificate of licensure from the Contractors State License Board which establishes that the individual or entity bringing the action was duly licensed in the proper classification of contractors at all times during the performance of any act or contract covered by the action. Nothing in this subdivision shall require any person or entity controverting licensure or proper licensure to produce a verified certificate. When licensure or proper licensure is controverted, the burden of proof to establish licensure or proper licensure shall be on the licensee.(e) The judicial doctrine of substantial compliance shall not apply under this section where the person who engaged in the business or acted in the capacity of a contractor has never been a duly licensed contractor in this state. However, notwithstanding subdivision (b) of Section 143, the court may determine that there has been substantial compliance with licensure requirements under this section if it is shown at an evidentiary hearing that the person who engaged in the business or acted in the capacity of a contractor (1) had been duly licensed as a contractor in this state prior to the performance of the act or contract, (2) acted reasonably and in good faith to maintain proper licensure, and (3) acted promptly and in good faith to remedy the failure to comply with the licensure requirements upon learning of the failure.(f) The exceptions to the prohibition against the application of the judicial doctrine of substantial compliance found in subdivision (e) shall apply to all contracts entered into on or after January 1, 1992, and to all actions or arbitrations arising therefrom, except that the amendments to subdivisions (e) and (f) enacted during the 1994 portion of the 199394 Regular Session of the Legislature shall not apply to either of the following:(1) Any legal action or arbitration commenced prior to January 1, 1995, regardless of the date on which the parties entered into the contract.(2) Any legal action or arbitration commenced on or after January 1, 1995, if the legal action or arbitration was commenced prior to January 1, 1995, and was subsequently dismissed.SEC. 57. Section 7058.7 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7058.7. (a) No contractor may engage in a removal or remedial action, as defined in subdivision (d), unless the qualifier for the license has passed an approved hazardous substance certification examination.(b) (1) The Contractors State License Board, the Division of Occupational Safety and Health of the Department of Industrial Relations, and the Department of Toxic Substances Control shall jointly select an advisory committee, which shall be composed of two representatives of hazardous substance removal workers in California, two general engineering contractors in California, and two representatives of insurance companies in California who shall be selected by the Insurance Commissioner.(2) The Contractors State License Board shall develop a written test for the certification of contractors engaged in hazardous substance removal or remedial action, in consultation with the Division of Occupational Safety and Health, the State Water Resources Control Board, the Department of Toxic Substances Control, and the advisory committee.(c) The Contractors State License Board may require additional updated approved hazardous substance certification examinations of licensees currently certified based on new public or occupational health and safety information. The Contractors State License Board, in consultation with the Department of Toxic Substances Control and the State Water Resources Control Board, shall approve other initial and updated hazardous substance certification examinations and determine whether to require an updated certification examination of all current certificate holders.(d) For purposes of this section removal or remedial action has the same meaning as found in Chapter 6.8 (commencing with Section 25300) of Division 20 of the Health and Safety Code, if the action requires the contractor to dig into the surface of the earth and remove the dug material and the action is at a site listed pursuant to Section 25356 of the Health and Safety Code or any other site listed as a hazardous substance release site by the Department of Toxic Substances Control or a site listed on the National Priorities List compiled pursuant to the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980 (42 U.S.C. Sec. 9601 et seq.). Removal or remedial action does not include asbestos-related work, as defined in Section 6501.8 of the Labor Code, or work related to a hazardous substance spill on a highway.(e) (1) A contractor may not install or remove an underground storage tank, unless the contractor has passed the hazardous substance certification examination developed pursuant to this section.(2) A contractor who is not certified may bid on or contract for the installation or removal of an underground tank, if the work is performed by a contractor who is certified pursuant to this section.(3) For purposes of this subdivision, underground storage tank has the same meaning as defined in subdivision (y) of Section 25281 of the Health and Safety Code.SEC. 58. Section 7071.4 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7071.4. (a) Each person licensed under the provisions of this chapter and subject to any of the bonding provisions of this article shall maintain the requisite bond as executed by an admitted surety insurer or as deposited with the registrar pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 995.710 of the Code of Civil Procedure in the appropriate amount. Notwithstanding Article 7 (commencing with Section 995.710) of Chapter 2 of Title 14 of Part 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure, no other method of deposit, including, but not limited to, a certificate of deposit, shall satisfy a bond requirement under this article.(b) All existing alternatives in lieu of a bond currently filed with the registrar shall be replaced for a surety bond or the deposit prescribed by paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 995.710 of the Code of Civil Procedure by January 1, 2020.(c) (1) If the board is notified, in writing, of a civil action against the deposit authorized under this section, the deposit or any portion thereof shall not be released for any purpose, except as determined by the court.(2) If any deposit authorized under this section is insufficient to pay, in full, all claims that have been adjudicated under any action filed in accordance with this section, the amount of the deposit shall be distributed to all claimants in proportion to the amount of their respective claims. (d) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), this section shall not apply to the bond equivalents described in Section 7159.5 of this chapter.(e) (1) This section shall be operative on and after January 1, 2019, upon which date the registrar shall thereafter no longer accept alternatives in lieu of a bond, other than as provided in this section.(2) Notwithstanding any other law, in order to comply with the bonding provisions of this article, a person shall only be required to provide information consistent with the requirements for an applicant under Section 30.(f) All alternatives in lieu of a bond filed with the registrar before January 1, 2019, and any lawful money or cashiers check deposited pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 995.710 of the Code of Civil Procedure after January 1, 2019, shall be subject to the following limitations periods:(1) Any action, other than an action to recover wages or fringe benefits, against a deposit given in lieu of a contractors bond or bond of a qualifying individual filed by an active licensee shall be brought within three years after the expiration of the license period during which the act or omission occurred, or within three years of the date the license of the active licensee was inactivated, canceled, or revoked by the board, whichever occurs first.(2) Any action, other than an action to recover wages or fringe benefits, against a deposit given in lieu of a disciplinary bond filed by an active licensee pursuant to Section 7071.8 shall be brought within three years after the expiration of the license period during which the act or omission occurred, or within three years of the date the license of the active licensee was inactivated, canceled, or revoked by the board, or within three years after the last date for which a deposit given in lieu of a disciplinary bond filed pursuant to Section 7071.8 was required, whichever date is first.(3) A claim to recover wages or fringe benefits shall be brought within six months from the date that the wage or fringe benefit delinquencies were discovered, but in no event shall a civil action thereon be brought later than two years from the date the wage or fringe benefit contributions were due.(g) In any case in which a claim is filed against an alternative given in lieu of a bond filed with the registrar before January 1, 2019, or deposited with the registrar pursuant to subdivision (a), by any employee or by an employee organization on behalf of an employee, concerning wages or fringe benefits based upon the employees employment, claims for the nonpayment shall be filed with the Labor Commissioner. The Labor Commissioner shall, pursuant to the authority vested by Section 96.5 of the Labor Code, conduct hearings to determine whether or not the wages or fringe benefits should be paid to the complainant. Upon a finding by the commissioner that the wages or fringe benefits should be paid to the complainant, the commissioner shall notify the registrar of the findings. The registrar shall not make payment from the deposit on the basis of findings by the commissioner for a period of 10 days following determination of the findings. If, within the period, the complainant or the contractor files written notice with the registrar and the commissioner of an intention to seek judicial review of the findings pursuant to Section 11523 of the Government Code, the registrar shall not make payment if an action is actually filed, except as determined by the court. If, thereafter, no action is filed within 60 days following determination of findings by the commissioner, the registrar shall make payment from the deposit to the complainant.(h) Legal fees may not be charged by the board against any alternative given in lieu of a bond filed with the registrar before January 1, 2019, or deposited with the registrar pursuant to subdivision (a).SEC. 59. Section 7080.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7080.5. When an application has been accepted by the registrar, the name and address of the applicant, every classification for which the applicant has applied, and the names and titles of all personnel who have signed the application shall be publicly posted by the registrar, on the day following acceptance, in the office of the Contractors State License Board in Sacramento.SEC. 60. Section 7085.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7085.5. Arbitrations of disputes arising out of cases filed with or by the board shall be conducted in accordance with the following rules:(a) All agreements to arbitrate shall include the names, addresses, and telephone numbers of the parties to the dispute, the issue in dispute, and the amount in dollars or any other remedy sought. The appropriate fee shall be paid by the board from the Contractors License Fund.(b) (1) The board or appointed arbitration association shall appoint an arbitrator in the following manner: immediately after the filing of the agreement to arbitrate, the board or appointed arbitration association shall submit simultaneously to each party to the dispute, an identical list of names of persons chosen from the panel. Each party to the dispute shall have seven days from the mailing date in which to cross off any names to which it objects, number the remaining names to indicate the order of preference, and return the list to the board or appointed arbitration association. If a party does not return the list within the time specified, all persons named in the list are acceptable. From among the persons who have been approved on both lists, and in accordance with the designated order of mutual preference, the board or appointed arbitration association shall appoint an arbitrator to serve. If the parties fail to agree on any of the parties named, if acceptable arbitrators are unable to act, or if, for any other reason, the appointment cannot be made from the submitted lists, the board or appointed arbitration association shall have the power to make the appointment from among other members of the panel without the submission of any additional lists. Each dispute shall be heard and determined by one arbitrator unless the board or appointed arbitration association, in its discretion, directs that a greater number of arbitrators be appointed.(2) In all cases in which a complaint has been referred to arbitration pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 7085, the board or the appointed arbitration association shall have the power to appoint an arbitrator to hear the matter.(3) The board shall adopt regulations setting minimum qualification standards for listed arbitrators based upon relevant training, experience, and performance.(c) No person shall serve as an arbitrator in any arbitration in which that person has any financial or personal interest in the result of the arbitration. Prior to accepting an appointment, the prospective arbitrator shall disclose any circumstances likely to prevent a prompt hearing or to create a presumption of bias. Upon receipt of that information, the board or appointed arbitration association shall immediately replace the arbitrator or communicate the information to the parties for their comments. Thereafter, the board or appointed arbitration association shall determine whether the arbitrator should be disqualified and shall inform the parties of its decision, which shall be conclusive.(d) The board or appointed arbitration association may appoint another arbitrator if a vacancy occurs, or if an appointed arbitrator is unable to serve in a timely manner.(e) (1) The board or appointed arbitration association shall provide the parties with a list of the times and dates, and locations of the hearing to be held. The parties shall notify the arbitrator, within seven calendar days of the mailing of the list, of the times and dates convenient to each party. If the parties fail to respond to the arbitrator within the seven-day period, the arbitrator shall fix the time, place, and location of the hearing. An arbitrator may, at the arbitrators sole discretion, make an inspection of the construction site which is the subject of the arbitration. The arbitrator shall notify the parties of the time and date set for the inspection. Any party who so desires may be present at the inspection.(2) The board or appointed arbitration association shall fix the time, place, and location of the hearing for all cases referred to arbitration pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 7085. An arbitrator may, at the arbitrators sole discretion, make an inspection of the construction site which is the subject of the arbitration. The arbitrator shall notify the parties of the time and date set for the inspection. Any party who desires may be present at the inspection.(f) Any person having a direct interest in the arbitration is entitled to attend the hearing. The arbitrator shall otherwise have the power to require the exclusion of any witness, other than a party or other essential person, during the testimony of any other witness. It shall be discretionary with the arbitrator to determine the propriety of the attendance of any other person.(g) Hearings shall be adjourned by the arbitrator only for good cause.(h) A record is not required to be taken of the proceedings. However, any party to the proceeding may have a record made at its own expense. The parties may make appropriate notes of the proceedings.(i) The hearing shall be conducted by the arbitrator in any manner which will permit full and expeditious presentation of the case by both parties. Consistent with the expedited nature of arbitration, the arbitrator shall establish the extent of, and schedule for, the production of relevant documents and other information, the identification of any witnesses to be called, and a schedule for any hearings to elicit facts solely within the knowledge of one party. The complaining party shall present its claims, proofs, and witnesses, who shall submit to questions or other examination. The defending party shall then present its defenses, proofs, and witnesses, who shall submit to questions or other examination. The arbitrator has discretion to vary this procedure but shall afford full and equal opportunity to the parties for the presentation of any material or relevant proofs.(j) The arbitration may proceed in the absence of any party who, after due notice, fails to be present. The arbitrator shall require the attending party to submit supporting evidence in order to make an award. An award for the attending party shall not be based solely on the fact that the other party has failed to appear at the arbitration hearing.(k) The arbitrator shall be the sole judge of the relevancy and materiality of the evidence offered and conformity to legal rules of evidence shall not be required.(l) The arbitrator may receive and consider documentary evidence. Documents to be considered by the arbitrator may be submitted prior to the hearing. However, a copy shall be simultaneously transmitted to all other parties and to the board or appointed arbitration association for transmittal to the arbitrator or board appointed arbitrator.(m) The arbitrator shall specifically inquire of the parties whether they have any further proofs to offer or witnesses to be heard. Upon receiving negative replies, the arbitrator shall declare the hearing closed and minutes thereof shall be recorded. If briefs are to be filed, the hearing shall be declared closed as of the final date set by the arbitrator for the receipt of briefs. If documents are to be filed as requested by the arbitrator and the date set for their receipt is later than that set for the receipt of briefs, the later date shall be the date of closing the hearings. The time limit within which the arbitrator is required to make the award shall commence to run, in the absence of other agreements by the parties, upon the closing of the hearings.(n) The hearing may be reopened on the arbitrators own motion.(o) Any party who proceeds with the arbitration after knowledge that any provision or requirement of these rules has not been complied with, and who fails to state their objections to the arbitrator in writing, within 10 calendar days of close of hearing, shall be deemed to have waived their right to object.(p) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), any papers or process necessary or proper for the initiation or continuation of an arbitration under these rules and for any court action in connection therewith, or for the entry of judgment on an award made thereunder, may be served upon any party (A) by regular mail addressed to that party or their attorney at the partys last known address, or (B) by personal service.(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), in all cases referred to arbitration pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 7085 in which the contractor fails or refuses to return an executed copy of the notice to arbitrate within the time specified, any papers or process specified in paragraph (1) to be sent to the contractor, including the notice of hearing, shall be mailed by certified mail to the contractors address of record.(q) The award shall be made promptly by the arbitrator, and unless otherwise agreed by the parties, no later than 30 calendar days from the date of closing the hearing, closing a reopened hearing, or if oral hearing has been waived, from the date of transmitting the final statements and proofs to the arbitrator.The arbitrator may for good cause extend any period of time established by these rules, except the time for making the award. The arbitrator shall notify the parties of any extension and the reason therefor.(r) (1) The arbitrator may grant any remedy or relief that the arbitrator deems just and equitable and within the scope of the boards referral and the requirements of the board. The arbitrator, in their sole discretion, may award costs or expenses.(2) The amendments made in paragraph (1) during the 200304 Regular Session shall not be interpreted to prevent an arbitrator from awarding a complainant all direct costs and expenses for the completion or repair of the project.(s) The award shall become final 30 calendar days from the date the arbitration award is issued. The arbitrator, upon written application of a party to the arbitration, may correct the award upon the following grounds:(1) There was an evident miscalculation of figures or an evident mistake in the description of any person, things, or property referred to in the award.(2) There is any other clerical error in the award, not affecting the merits of the controversy.An application for correction of the award shall be made within 10 calendar days of the date of service of the award by serving a copy of the application on the arbitrator, and all other parties to the arbitration. Any party to the arbitration may make a written objection to the application for correction by serving a copy of the written objection on the arbitrator, the board, and all other parties to the arbitration, within 10 calendar days of the date of service of the application for correction.The arbitrator shall either deny the application or correct the award within 30 calendar days of the date of service of the original award by mailing a copy of the denial or correction to all parties to the arbitration. Any appeal from the denial or correction shall be filed with a court of competent jurisdiction and a true copy thereof shall be filed with the arbitrator or appointed arbitration association within 30 calendar days after the award has become final. The award shall be in writing, and shall be signed by the arbitrator or a majority of them. If no appeal is filed within the 30-calendar day period, it shall become a final order of the registrar.(t) Service of the award by certified mail shall be effective if a certified letter containing the award, or a true copy thereof, is mailed by the arbitrator or arbitration association to each party or to a partys attorney of record at their last known address, address of record, or by personally serving any party. Service may be proved in the manner authorized in civil actions.(u) The board shall pay the expenses of one expert witness appointed by the board when the services of an expert witness are requested by either party involved in arbitration pursuant to this article and the case involves workmanship issues that are itemized in the complaint and have not been repaired or replaced. Parties who choose to present the findings of another expert witness as evidence shall pay for those services. Payment for expert witnesses appointed by the board shall be limited to the expert witness costs for inspection of the problem at the construction site, preparation of the expert witness report, and expert witness fees for appearing or testifying at a hearing. All requests for payment to an expert witness shall be submitted on a form that has been approved by the registrar. All requests for payment to an expert witness shall be reviewed and approved by the board prior to payment. The registrar shall advise the parties that names of industry experts may be obtained by requesting this information from the registrar.(v) The arbitrator shall interpret and apply these rules insofar as they relate to their powers and duties.(w) The following shall apply as to court procedure and exclusion of liability:(1) The board, the appointed arbitration association, or any arbitrator in a proceeding under these rules is not a necessary party in judicial proceedings relating to the arbitration.(2) Parties to these rules shall be deemed to have consented that judgment upon the arbitration award may be entered in any federal or state court having jurisdiction thereof.(3) The board, the appointed arbitration association, or any arbitrator is not liable to any party for any act or omission in connection with any arbitration conducted under these rules.SEC. 61. Section 7099.2 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7099.2. (a) The board shall promulgate regulations covering the assessment of civil penalties under this article that give due consideration to the appropriateness of the penalty with respect to the following factors:(1) The gravity of the violation.(2) The good faith of the licensee or applicant for licensure being charged.(3) The history of previous violations.(b) Except as otherwise provided by this chapter, no civil penalty shall be assessed in an amount greater than five thousand dollars ($5,000). Notwithstanding Section 125.9, a civil penalty not to exceed fifteen thousand dollars ($15,000) may be assessed for a violation of Section 7114 or 7118.SEC. 62. Section 7099.9 is added to the Business and Professions Code, to read:7099.9. (a) If, upon investigation, the registrar has probable cause to believe that a licensee, registrant, or applicant has committed acts or omissions that are grounds for denial, suspension, or revocation of a license or registration, the registrar, or their designee, may issue a letter of admonishment to an applicant, licensee, or registrant in lieu of issuing a citation. Nothing in this article shall in any way limit the registrars discretionary authority or ability to issue a letter of admonishment as prescribed by this subdivision.(b) The letter of admonishment shall be in writing and shall describe in detail the nature and facts of the violation, including a reference to the statutes or regulations violated. The letter of admonishment shall inform the licensee, registrant, or applicant that within 30 days of service of the letter of admonishment the licensee, registrant, or applicant may do either of the following:(1) Submit a written request for an office conference to the registrar to contest the letter of admonishment. Upon a timely request, the registrar, or their designee, shall hold an office conference with the licensee, registrant, or applicant and, if applicable, their legal counsel or authorized representative.(A) No individual other than the legal counsel or authorized representative of the licensee, registrant, or applicant may accompany the licensee, registrant, or applicant to the office conference.(B) Prior to or at the office conference, the licensee, registrant, or applicant may submit to the registrar declarations and documents pertinent to the subject matter of the letter of admonishment.(C) The office conference is intended to be informal and shall not be subject to the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 11400) or Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code).(D) After the office conference, the registrar, or their designee, may affirm, modify, or withdraw the letter of admonishment. Within 14 calendar days from the date of the office conference, the registrar, or their designee, shall personally serve or send the written decision by certified mail to the licensees, registrants, or applicants address of record. This decision shall be deemed the final administrative decision concerning the letter of admonishment.(E) Judicial review of the decision may be had by filing a petition for a writ of mandate in accordance with the provisions of Section 1094.5 of the Code of Civil Procedure within 30 days after the date the decision was personally served or sent by certified mail. The judicial review shall extend to the question of whether or not there was a prejudicial abuse of discretion in the issuance of the letter of admonishment or in the decision after the office conference.(2) Comply with the letter of admonishment and, if required, submit a written corrective action plan to the registrar documenting compliance. If an office conference is not requested pursuant to this section, compliance with the letter of admonishment shall not constitute an admission of the violation noted in the letter of admonishment.(c) The letter of admonishment shall be served upon the licensee, registrant, or applicant personally or by certified mail at their address of record with the board. If the licensee, registrant, or applicant is served by certified mail, service shall be effective upon deposit in the United States mail.(d) The licensee, registrant, or applicant shall maintain and have readily available a copy of the letter of admonishment and corrective action plan, if any, for at least one year from the date of issuance of the letter of admonishment.(e) Nothing in this subdivision shall in any way limit the boards authority or ability to do either of the following:(1) Issue a citation pursuant to Section 125.9, 148, or 7099.(2) Institute disciplinary proceedings pursuant to this article.(f) The issuance of a letter of admonishment shall not be construed as a disciplinary action or discipline for purposes of licensure or the reporting of discipline for licensure.(g) The board shall not issue a letter of admonishment when any one of the following factors is present:(1) The licensee, registrant, or applicant was unlicensed at the time of the violation.(2) Multiple violations have been established.(3) The licensee, registrant, or applicant has a history of the same or similar violations.(4) The violation resulted in financial harm to another.(5) The victim is an elder or dependent adult as defined in Section 368 of the Penal Code.(6) The violation is related to the repair of damage caused by a natural disaster.(h) The board may adopt regulations to further define the circumstances under which a letter of admonishment may be issued.SEC. 63. Section 7123.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7123.5. If a contractor is convicted of violating Section 396 of the Penal Code or any substantially similar local ordinance in connection with the sale, or offer for sale, of repair or reconstruction services, as defined in Section 396 of the Penal Code, the Contractors State License Board shall take disciplinary action against the contractor, which shall include a suspension of at least six months or the permanent revocation of the contractors license.SEC. 64. Section 7135 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7135. (a) The fees and civil penalties received under this chapter shall be deposited in the Contractors License Fund. All moneys in the fund are hereby appropriated for the purposes of this chapter.(b) It is the intent of the Legislature that the board shall use moneys appropriated from the fund to improve its administrative and investigative oversight activities and capacity.SEC. 65. Section 7136 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7136. The director shall designate a sum not to exceed 10 percent of the total income of the Contractors State License Board for each fiscal year to be transferred to the Consumer Affairs Fund as the boards share of the cost of administration of the department.SEC. 66. Section 7137 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7137. The board may set fees by regulation. These fees shall be set according to the following schedule:(a) (1) The application fee for an original license in a single classification shall be three hundred thirty dollars ($330) and may be increased to not more than three hundred seventy-five dollars ($375).(2) The application fee for each additional classification applied for in connection with an original license shall not be more than eighty-five dollars ($85).(3) The application fee for each additional classification pursuant to Section 7059 shall be one hundred fifty dollars ($150) and may be increased to not more than one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).(4) The application fee to replace a responsible managing officer, responsible managing manager, responsible managing member, or responsible managing employee pursuant to Section 7068.2 shall be one hundred fifty dollars ($150) and may be increased to not more than one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).(5) The application fee to add personnel, other than a qualifying individual, to an existing license shall be one hundred dollars ($100) and may be increased to not more than one hundred fifteen dollars ($115).(b) The fee for rescheduling an examination for an applicant who has applied for an original license, additional classification, a change of responsible managing officer, responsible managing manager, responsible managing member, or responsible managing employee, or for an asbestos certification or hazardous substance removal certification, shall not be more than seventy dollars ($70).(c) The fee for scheduling or rescheduling an examination for a licensee who is required to take the examination as a condition of probation shall not be more than seventy dollars ($70).(d) The initial license fee for an active or inactive license shall be two hundred dollars ($200) and may be increased to not more than two hundred twenty-five dollars ($225).(e) (1) The renewal fee for an active license shall be four hundred dollars ($400) and may be increased to not more than four hundred fifty dollars ($450).(2) The renewal fee for an inactive license shall be two hundred dollars ($200) and may be increased to not more than two hundred twenty-five dollars ($225).(f) The delinquency fee is an amount equal to 50 percent of the renewal fee, if the license is renewed after its expiration.(g) The registration fee for a home improvement salesperson shall be eighty-three dollars ($83) and may be increased to not more than ninety-five dollars ($95).(h) The renewal fee for a home improvement salesperson registration shall be eighty-three dollars ($83) and may be increased to not more than ninety-five dollars ($95).(i) The application fee for an asbestos certification examination shall be eighty-three dollars ($83) and may be increased to not more than ninety-five dollars ($95).(j) The application fee for a hazardous substance removal or remedial action certification examination shall be eighty-three dollars ($83) and may be increased to not more than ninety-five dollars ($95).(k) In addition to any other fees charged to C-10 contractors, the board shall charge a fee of twenty dollars ($20), to be assessed with the renewal fee for an active license, which shall be used by the board to enforce provisions of the Labor Code related to electrician certification.(l) The service fee to deposit with the registrar lawful money or cashiers check pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 995.710 of the Code of Civil Procedure for purposes of compliance with any provision of Article 5 (commencing with Section 7065) shall be one hundred dollars ($100), which shall be used by the board only to process each deposit filed with the registrar, to cover the reasonable costs to the registrar for holding money or cashiers checks in trust in interest bearing deposit or share accounts, and to offset the costs of processing payment of lawful claims against a deposit in a civil action.(m) The board shall, by regulation, establish criteria for the approval of expedited processing of applications. Approved expedited processing of applications for licensure or registration, as required by other provisions of law, shall not be subject to this subdivision.SEC. 67. Section 7137.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7137.5. The sum of ten thousand dollars ($10,000) shall be transferred from the Contractors License Fund to the Controller for the exclusive use of the California Uniform Construction Cost Accounting Commission.The commission shall prepare a recommendation to the Legislature for a local public agency source to fund the commission beginning July 1, 1991, which will provide revenue supported by the contract activities represented by the commissions authority.Upon adoption of this funding program, the commission shall reimburse the Contractors License Fund in the amount of ten thousand dollars ($10,000).SEC. 68. Section 7138 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7138. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a fee paid in connection with a service or application covered by Section 7137 shall accrue to the Contractors License Fund as an earned fee and shall not be refunded.SEC. 69. Section 7139.1 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7139.1. The Legislature hereby finds and declares all of the following:(a) There is a demand and increasing need for construction management education programs and resources within the postsecondary education system that prepare graduates for the management of construction operations and companies regulated by the Contractors State License Law and enforced by the Contractors State License Board.(b) Although construction management programs do exist within the state university system, these programs are woefully underfunded and insufficiently funded to provide training on state-of-the-art management information systems for either graduates or extension programs for continuing education of licensed contractors. Construction industry associations have provided some assistance through direct grants and scholarships, but the industrywide service of these programs and the need for additional assistance mandates broad based industrywide support.(c) It is the intent of the Legislature that by enabling contractors to designate a portion of their licensure fee and providing a format for contractors to contribute funds to construction management education, this article will receive broad based industry support. In addition, this article allows the contractor to demonstrate the importance of construction management education. This assistance will enable greater development of construction management curricula and will improve the overall quality of construction by providing construction management training to California licensed contractors and their current and future management personnel.SEC. 70. Section 7139.2 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7139.2. (a) There is hereby created the Construction Management Education Account (CMEA) as a separate account in the Contractors License Fund for the purposes of construction management education. Funds in the account shall be available for the purposes of this article upon appropriation by the Legislature.(b) The Contractors State License Board shall allow a contractor to make a contribution to the Construction Management Education Account at the time of the contractor license fee payment. The license fee form shall clearly display this alternative on its face and shall clearly inform the licensee that this provision is a contribution to the Construction Management Education Account and is in addition to the fees.(c) The board may accept grants from federal, state, or local public agencies, or from private foundations or individuals, in order to assist it in carrying out its duties, functions, and powers under this article. Grant moneys shall be deposited into the Construction Management Education Account.SEC. 71. Section 7141.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7141.5. The registrar shall grant the retroactive renewal of a license if, within 90 days of the expiration of the license, the otherwise eligible licensee submits a completed application for renewal on a form prescribed by the registrar, and pays the appropriate renewal fee and delinquency fee prescribed by this chapter. For the purposes of this section, an application shall be deemed submitted if it is delivered to the boards headquarters or postmarked within 90 days of the expiration of the license.SEC. 72. Section 7145.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7145.5. (a) The registrar may refuse to issue, reinstate, reactivate, or renew a license or may suspend a license for the failure of a licensee to resolve all outstanding final liabilities, which include taxes, additions to tax, penalties, interest, and any fees that may be assessed by the board, the Department of Industrial Relations, the Employment Development Department, the Franchise Tax Board, or the State Board of Equalization.(1) Until the debts covered by this section are satisfied, the qualifying person and any other personnel of record named on a license that has been suspended under this section shall be prohibited from serving in any capacity that is subject to licensure under this chapter, but shall be permitted to act in the capacity of a nonsupervising bona fide employee.(2) The license of any other renewable licensed entity with any of the same personnel of record that have been assessed an outstanding liability covered by this section shall be suspended until the debt has been satisfied or until the same personnel of record disassociate themselves from the renewable licensed entity.(b) The refusal to issue a license or the suspension of a license as provided by this section shall be applicable only if the registrar has mailed a notice preliminary to the refusal or suspension that indicates that the license will be refused or suspended by a date certain. This preliminary notice shall be mailed to the licensee at least 60 days before the date certain.(c) In the case of outstanding final liabilities assessed by the Franchise Tax Board, this section shall be operative within 60 days after the Contractors State License Board has provided the Franchise Tax Board with the information required under Section 30, relating to licensing information that includes the federal employer identification number, individual taxpayer identification number, or social security number.(d) All versions of the application for a contractors license shall include, as part of the application, an authorization by the applicant, in the form and manner mutually agreeable to the Franchise Tax Board and the board, for the Franchise Tax Board to disclose the tax information that is required for the registrar to administer this section. The Franchise Tax Board may from time to time audit these authorizations.(e) In the case of outstanding final liabilities assessed by the State Board of Equalization, this section shall not apply to any outstanding final liability if the licensee has entered into an installment payment agreement for that liability with the State Board of Equalization and is in compliance with the terms of that agreement.SEC. 73. Section 7159 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7159. (a) (1) This section identifies the projects for which a home improvement contract is required, outlines the contract requirements, and lists the items that shall be included in the contract, or may be provided as an attachment.(2) This section does not apply to service and repair contracts that are subject to Section 7159.10, if the contract for the applicable services complies with Sections 7159.10 to 7159.14, inclusive.(3) This section does not apply to the sale, installation, and servicing of a fire alarm sold in conjunction with an alarm system, as defined in Section 7590.1, if all costs attributable to making the fire alarm system operable, including sale and installation costs, do not exceed five hundred dollars ($500), and the licensee complies with the requirements set forth in Section 7159.9.(4) This section does not apply to any costs associated with monitoring a burglar or fire alarm system.(5) Failure by the licensee, their agent or salesperson, or by a person subject to be licensed under this chapter, to provide the specified information, notices, and disclosures in the contract, or to otherwise fail to comply with any provision of this section, is cause for discipline.(b) For purposes of this section, home improvement contract means an agreement, whether oral or written, or contained in one or more documents, between a contractor and an owner or between a contractor and a tenant, regardless of the number of residence or dwelling units contained in the building in which the tenant resides, if the work is to be performed in, to, or upon the residence or dwelling unit of the tenant, for the performance of a home improvement, as defined in Section 7151, and includes all labor, services, and materials to be furnished and performed thereunder, if the aggregate contract price specified in one or more improvement contracts, including all labor, services, and materials to be furnished by the contractor, exceeds five hundred dollars ($500). Home improvement contract also means an agreement, whether oral or written, or contained in one or more documents, between a salesperson, whether or not they are a home improvement salesperson, and an owner or a tenant, regardless of the number of residence or dwelling units contained in the building in which the tenant resides, which provides for the sale, installation, or furnishing of home improvement goods or services.(c) In addition to the specific requirements listed under this section, every home improvement contract and any person subject to licensure under this chapter or their agent or salesperson shall comply with all of the following:(1) The writing shall be legible.(2) Any printed form shall be readable. Unless a larger typeface is specified in this article, text in any printed form shall be in at least 10-point typeface and the headings shall be in at least 10-point boldface type.(3) (A) Before any work is started, the contractor shall give the buyer a copy of the contract signed and dated by both the contractor and the buyer. The buyers receipt of the copy of the contract initiates the buyers rights to cancel the contract pursuant to Sections 1689.5 to 1689.14, inclusive, of the Civil Code.(B) The contract shall contain on the first page, in a typeface no smaller than that generally used in the body of the document, both of the following:(i) The date the buyer signed the contract.(ii) The name and address of the contractor to which the applicable Notice of Cancellation is to be mailed, immediately preceded by a statement advising the buyer that the Notice of Cancellation may be sent to the contractor at the address noted on the contract.(4) The contract shall include a statement that, upon satisfactory payment being made for any portion of the work performed, the contractor, prior to any further payment being made, shall furnish to the person contracting for the home improvement or swimming pool work a full and unconditional release from any potential lien claimant claim or mechanics lien authorized pursuant to Sections 8400 and 8404 of the Civil Code for that portion of the work for which payment has been made.(5) A change-order form for changes or extra work shall be incorporated into the contract and shall become part of the contract only if it is in writing and signed by the parties prior to the commencement of any work covered by a change order.(6) The contract shall contain, in close proximity to the signatures of the owner and contractor, a notice stating that the owner or tenant has the right to require the contractor to have a performance and payment bond.(7) If the contract provides for a contractor to furnish joint control, the contractor shall not have any financial or other interest in the joint control.(8) The provisions of this section are not exclusive and do not relieve the contractor from compliance with any other applicable provision of law.(d) A home improvement contract and any changes to the contract shall be in writing and signed by the parties to the contract prior to the commencement of work covered by the contract or an applicable change order and, except as provided in paragraph (8) of subdivision (a) of Section 7159.5, shall include or comply with all of the following:(1) The name, business address, and license number of the contractor.(2) If applicable, the name and registration number of the home improvement salesperson that solicited or negotiated the contract.(3) The following heading on the contract form that identifies the type of contract in at least 10-point boldface type: Home Improvement.(4) The following statement in at least 12-point boldface type: You are entitled to a completely filled in copy of this agreement, signed by both you and the contractor, before any work may be started.(5) The heading: Contract Price, followed by the amount of the contract in dollars and cents.(6) If a finance charge will be charged, the heading: Finance Charge, followed by the amount in dollars and cents. The finance charge is to be set out separately from the contract amount.(7) The heading: Description of the Project and Description of the Significant Materials to be Used and Equipment to be Installed, followed by a description of the project and a description of the significant materials to be used and equipment to be installed. For swimming pools, the project description required under this paragraph also shall include a plan and scale drawing showing the shape, size, dimensions, and the construction and equipment specifications.(8) If a downpayment will be charged, the details of the downpayment shall be expressed in substantially the following form, and shall include the text of the notice as specified in subparagraph (C):(A) The heading: Downpayment.(B) A space where the actual downpayment appears.(C) The following statement in at least 12-point boldface type:THE DOWNPAYMENT MAY NOT EXCEED $1,000 OR 10 PERCENT OF THE CONTRACT PRICE, WHICHEVER IS LESS.(9) If payments, other than the downpayment, are to be made before the project is completed, the details of these payments, known as progress payments, shall be expressed in substantially the following form, and shall include the text of the statement as specified in subparagraph (C):(A) A schedule of progress payments shall be preceded by the heading: Schedule of Progress Payments.(B) Each progress payment shall be stated in dollars and cents and specifically reference the amount of work or services to be performed and materials and equipment to be supplied.(C) The section of the contract reserved for the progress payments shall include the following statement in at least 12-point boldface type:The schedule of progress payments must specifically describe each phase of work, including the type and amount of work or services scheduled to be supplied in each phase, along with the amount of each proposed progress payment. IT IS AGAINST THE LAW FOR A CONTRACTOR TO COLLECT PAYMENT FOR WORK NOT YET COMPLETED, OR FOR MATERIALS NOT YET DELIVERED. HOWEVER, A CONTRACTOR MAY REQUIRE A DOWNPAYMENT.(10) The contract shall address the commencement of work to be performed in substantially the following form:(A) A statement that describes what constitutes substantial commencement of work under the contract.(B) The heading: Approximate Start Date.(C) The approximate date on which work will be commenced.(11) The estimated completion date of the work shall be referenced in the contract in substantially the following form:(A) The heading: Approximate Completion Date.(B) The approximate date of completion.(12) If applicable, the heading: List of Documents to be Incorporated into the Contract, followed by the list of documents incorporated into the contract.(13) The heading: Note About Extra Work and Change Orders, followed by the following statement:Extra Work and Change Orders become part of the contract once the order is prepared in writing and signed by the parties prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order. The order must describe the scope of the extra work or change, the cost to be added or subtracted from the contract, and the effect the order will have on the schedule of progress payments.(e) Except as provided in paragraph (8) of subdivision (a) of Section 7159.5, all of the following notices shall be provided to the owner as part of the contract form as specified or, if otherwise authorized under this subdivision, may be provided as an attachment to the contract:(1) A notice concerning commercial general liability insurance. This notice may be provided as an attachment to the contract if the contract includes the following statement: A notice concerning commercial general liability insurance is attached to this contract. The notice shall include the heading Commercial General Liability Insurance (CGL), followed by whichever of the following statements is both relevant and correct:(A) (The name on the license or This contractor) does not carry commercial general liability insurance.(B) (The name on the license or This contractor) carries commercial general liability insurance written by (the insurance company). You may call (the insurance company) at __________ to check the contractors insurance coverage.(C) (The name on the license or This contractor) is self-insured.(D) (The name on the license or This contractor) is a limited liability company that carries liability insurance or maintains other security as required by law. You may call (the insurance company or trust company or bank) at ____ to check on the contractors insurance coverage or security.(2) A notice concerning workers compensation insurance. This notice may be provided as an attachment to the contract if the contract includes the statement: A notice concerning workers compensation insurance is attached to this contract. The notice shall include the heading Workers Compensation Insurance followed by whichever of the following statements is correct:(A) (The name on the license or This contractor) has no employees and is exempt from workers compensation requirements.(B) (The name on the license or This contractor) carries workers compensation insurance for all employees.(3) A notice that provides the buyer with the following information about the performance of extra or change-order work:(A) A statement that the buyer may not require a contractor to perform extra or change-order work without providing written authorization prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order.(B) A statement informing the buyer that extra work or a change order is not enforceable against a buyer unless the change order also identifies all of the following in writing prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order:(i) The scope of work encompassed by the order.(ii) The amount to be added or subtracted from the contract.(iii) The effect the order will make in the progress payments or the completion date.(C) A statement informing the buyer that the contractors failure to comply with the requirements of this paragraph does not preclude the recovery of compensation for work performed based upon legal or equitable remedies designed to prevent unjust enrichment.(4) A notice with the heading Mechanics Lien Warning written as follows:MECHANICS LIEN WARNING:Anyone who helps improve your property, but who is not paid, may record what is called a mechanics lien on your property. A mechanics lien is a claim, like a mortgage or home equity loan, made against your property and recorded with the county recorder.Even if you pay your contractor in full, unpaid subcontractors, suppliers, and laborers who helped to improve your property may record mechanics liens and sue you in court to foreclose the lien. If a court finds the lien is valid, you could be forced to pay twice or have a court officer sell your home to pay the lien. Liens can also affect your credit.To preserve their right to record a lien, each subcontractor and material supplier must provide you with a document called a Preliminary Notice. This notice is not a lien. The purpose of the notice is to let you know that the person who sends you the notice has the right to record a lien on your property if they are not paid.BE CAREFUL. The Preliminary Notice can be sent up to 20 days after the subcontractor starts work or the supplier provides material. This can be a big problem if you pay your contractor before you have received the Preliminary Notices.You will not get Preliminary Notices from your prime contractor or from laborers who work on your project. The law assumes that you already know they are improving your property.PROTECT YOURSELF FROM LIENS. You can protect yourself from liens by getting a list from your contractor of all the subcontractors and material suppliers that work on your project. Find out from your contractor when these subcontractors started work and when these suppliers delivered goods or materials. Then wait 20 days, paying attention to the Preliminary Notices you receive.PAY WITH JOINT CHECKS. One way to protect yourself is to pay with a joint check. When your contractor tells you it is time to pay for the work of a subcontractor or supplier who has provided you with a Preliminary Notice, write a joint check payable to both the contractor and the subcontractor or material supplier.For other ways to prevent liens, visit CSLBs internet website at www.cslb.ca.gov or call CSLB at 800-321-CSLB (2752).REMEMBER, IF YOU DO NOTHING, YOU RISK HAVING A LIEN PLACED ON YOUR HOME. This can mean that you may have to pay twice, or face the forced sale of your home to pay what you owe.(5) The following notice shall be provided in at least 12-point typeface:Information about the Contractors State License Board (CSLB): CSLB is the state consumer protection agency that licenses and regulates construction contractors.Contact CSLB for information about the licensed contractor you are considering, including information about disclosable complaints, disciplinary actions, and civil judgments that are reported to CSLB.Use only licensed contractors. If you file a complaint against a licensed contractor within the legal deadline (usually four years), CSLB has authority to investigate the complaint. If you use an unlicensed contractor, CSLB may not be able to help you resolve your complaint. Your only remedy may be in civil court, and you may be liable for damages arising out of any injuries to the unlicensed contractor or the unlicensed contractors employees.For more information:Visit CSLBs internet website at www.cslb.ca.govCall CSLB at 800-321-CSLB (2752)Write CSLB at P.O. Box 26000, Sacramento, CA 95826.(6) (A) The notice set forth in subparagraph (B) and entitled Three-Day Right to Cancel, shall be provided to the buyer unless the contract is:(i) Negotiated at the contractors place of business.(ii) Subject to the Seven-Day Right to Cancel, as set forth in paragraph (7).(iii) Subject to licensure under the Alarm Company Act (Chapter 11.6 (commencing with Section 7590)), provided the alarm company licensee complies with Sections 1689.5, 1689.6, and 1689.7 of the Civil Code, as applicable.(B) Three-Day Right to CancelYou, the buyer, have the right to cancel this contract within three business days. You may cancel by emailing, mailing, faxing, or delivering a written notice to the contractor at the contractors place of business by midnight of the third business day after you received a signed and dated copy of the contract that includes this notice. Include your name, your address, and the date you received the signed copy of the contract and this notice.If you cancel, the contractor must return to you anything you paid within 10 days of receiving the notice of cancellation. For your part, you must make available to the contractor at your residence, in substantially as good condition as you received them, goods delivered to you under this contract or sale. Or, you may, if you wish, comply with the contractors instructions on how to return the goods at the contractors expense and risk. If you do make the goods available to the contractor and the contractor does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may keep them without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the contractor, or if you agree to return the goods to the contractor and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.(C) The Three-Day Right to Cancel notice required by this paragraph shall comply with all of the following:(i) The text of the notice is at least 12-point boldface type.(ii) The notice is in immediate proximity to a space reserved for the owners signature.(iii) The owner acknowledges receipt of the notice by signing and dating the notice form in the signature space.(iv) The notice is written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as that principally used in any oral sales presentation.(v) The notice may be attached to the contract if the contract includes, in at least 12-point boldface type, a checkbox with the following statement: The law requires that the contractor give you a notice explaining your right to cancel. Initial the checkbox if the contractor has given you a Notice of the Three-Day Right to Cancel.(vi) The notice shall be accompanied by a completed form in duplicate, captioned Notice of Cancellation, which also shall be attached to the agreement or offer to purchase and be easily detachable, and which shall contain the following statement written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as used in the contract:Notice of Cancellation/enter date of transaction/(Date)You may cancel this transaction, without any penalty or obligation, within three business days from the above date.If you cancel, any property traded in, any payments made by you under the contract or sale, and any negotiable instrument executed by you will be returned within 10 days following receipt by the seller of your cancellation notice, and any security interest arising out of the transaction will be canceled.If you cancel, you must make available to the seller at your residence, in substantially as good condition as when received, any goods delivered to you under this contract or sale, or you may, if you wish, comply with the instructions of the seller regarding the return shipment of the goods at the sellers expense and risk.If you do make the goods available to the seller and the seller does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may retain or dispose of the goods without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the seller, or if you agree to return the goods to the seller and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.To cancel this transaction, mail or deliver a signed and dated copy of this cancellation notice, or any other written notice, or send a telegramto ,/name of seller/at /address of sellers place of business/not later than midnight of .(Date)I hereby cancel this transaction.(Date)(Buyers signature)(7) (A) The following notice entitled Seven-Day Right to Cancel shall be provided to the buyer for any contract that is written for the repair or restoration of residential premises damaged by any sudden or catastrophic event for which a state of emergency has been declared by the President of the United States or the Governor, or for which a local emergency has been declared by the executive officer or governing body of any city, county, or city and county:Seven-Day Right to CancelYou, the buyer, have the right to cancel this contract within seven business days. You may cancel by emailing, mailing, faxing, or delivering a written notice to the contractor at the contractors place of business by midnight of the seventh business day after you received a signed and dated copy of the contract that includes this notice. Include your name, your address, and the date you received the signed copy of the contract and this notice.If you cancel, the contractor must return to you anything you paid within 10 days of receiving the notice of cancellation. For your part, you must make available to the contractor at your residence, in substantially as good condition as you received them, goods delivered to you under this contract or sale. Or, you may, if you wish, comply with the contractors instructions on how to return the goods at the contractors expense and risk. If you do make the goods available to the contractor and the contractor does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may keep them without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the contractor, or if you agree to return the goods to the contractor and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.(B) The Seven-Day Right to Cancel notice required by this subdivision shall comply with all of the following:(i) The text of the notice is at least 12-point boldface type.(ii) The notice is in immediate proximity to a space reserved for the owners signature.(iii) The owner acknowledges receipt of the notice by signing and dating the notice form in the signature space.(iv) The notice is written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as that principally used in any oral sales presentation.(v) The notice may be attached to the contract if the contract includes, in at least 12-point boldface type, a checkbox with the following statement: The law requires that the contractor give you a notice explaining your right to cancel. Initial the checkbox if the contractor has given you a Notice of the Seven-Day Right to Cancel.(vi) The notice shall be accompanied by a completed form in duplicate, captioned Notice of Cancellation, which shall also be attached to the agreement or offer to purchase and be easily detachable, and which shall contain the following statement written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as used in the contract:Notice of Cancellation/enter date of transaction/(Date)You may cancel this transaction, without any penalty or obligation, within seven business days from the above date.If you cancel, any property traded in, any payments made by you under the contract or sale, and any negotiable instrument executed by you will be returned within 10 days following receipt by the seller of your cancellation notice, and any security interest arising out of the transaction will be canceled.If you cancel, you must make available to the seller at your residence, in substantially as good condition as when received, any goods delivered to you under this contract or sale, or you may, if you wish, comply with the instructions of the seller regarding the return shipment of the goods at the sellers expense and risk.If you do make the goods available to the seller and the seller does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may retain or dispose of the goods without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the seller, or if you agree to return the goods to the seller and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.To cancel this transaction, mail or deliver a signed and dated copy of this cancellation notice, or any other written notice, or send a telegramto ,/name of seller/at /address of sellers place of business/not later than midnight of .(Date)I hereby cancel this transaction.(Date)(Buyers signature)SEC. 73.5. Section 7159 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7159. (a) (1) This section identifies the projects for which a home improvement contract is required, outlines the contract requirements, and lists the items that shall be included in the contract, or may be provided as an attachment.(2) This section does not apply to service and repair contracts that are subject to Section 7159.10, if the contract for the applicable services complies with Sections 7159.10 to 7159.14, inclusive.(3) This section does not apply to the sale, installation, and servicing of a fire alarm sold in conjunction with an alarm system, as defined in Section 7590.1, if all costs attributable to making the fire alarm system operable, including sale and installation costs, do not exceed five hundred dollars ($500), and the licensee complies with the requirements set forth in Section 7159.9.(4) This section does not apply to any costs associated with monitoring a burglar or fire alarm system.(5) Failure by the licensee, their agent or salesperson, or by a person subject to be licensed under this chapter, to provide the specified information, notices, and disclosures in the contract, or to otherwise fail to comply with any provision of this section, is cause for discipline.(b) For purposes of this section, home improvement contract means an agreement, whether oral or written, or contained in one or more documents, between a contractor and an owner or between a contractor and a tenant, regardless of the number of residence or dwelling units contained in the building in which the tenant resides, if the work is to be performed in, to, or upon the residence or dwelling unit of the tenant, for the performance of a home improvement, as defined in Section 7151, and includes all labor, services, and materials to be furnished and performed thereunder, if the aggregate contract price specified in one or more improvement contracts, including all labor, services, and materials to be furnished by the contractor, exceeds five hundred dollars ($500). Home improvement contract also means an agreement, whether oral or written, or contained in one or more documents, between a salesperson, whether or not they are a home improvement salesperson, and an owner or a tenant, regardless of the number of residence or dwelling units contained in the building in which the tenant resides, which provides for the sale, installation, or furnishing of home improvement goods or services.(c) In addition to the specific requirements listed under this section, every home improvement contract and any person subject to licensure under this chapter or their agent or salesperson shall comply with all of the following:(1) The writing shall be legible.(2) Any printed form shall be readable. Unless a larger typeface is specified in this article, text in any printed form shall be in at least 10-point typeface and the headings shall be in at least 10-point boldface type.(3) (A) Before any work is started, the contractor shall give the buyer a copy of the contract signed and dated by both the contractor and the buyer. The buyers receipt of the copy of the contract initiates the buyers rights to cancel the contract pursuant to Sections 1689.5 to 1689.14, inclusive, of the Civil Code.(B) The contract shall contain on the first page, in a typeface no smaller than that generally used in the body of the document, both of the following:(i) The date the buyer signed the contract.(ii) The name and address of the contractor to which the applicable Notice of Cancellation is to be mailed, immediately preceded by a statement advising the buyer that the Notice of Cancellation may be sent to the contractor at the address noted on the contract.(4) The contract shall include a statement that, upon satisfactory payment being made for any portion of the work performed, the contractor, prior to any further payment being made, shall furnish to the person contracting for the home improvement or swimming pool work a full and unconditional release from any potential lien claimant claim or mechanics lien authorized pursuant to Sections 8400 and 8404 of the Civil Code for that portion of the work for which payment has been made.(5) A change-order form for changes or extra work shall be incorporated into the contract and shall become part of the contract only if it is in writing and signed by the parties prior to the commencement of any work covered by a change order.(6) The contract shall contain, in close proximity to the signatures of the owner and contractor, a notice stating that the owner or tenant has the right to require the contractor to have a performance and payment bond.(7) If the contract provides for a contractor to furnish joint control, the contractor shall not have any financial or other interest in the joint control.(8) The provisions of this section are not exclusive and do not relieve the contractor from compliance with any other applicable provision of law.(d) A home improvement contract and any changes to the contract shall be in writing and signed by the parties to the contract prior to the commencement of work covered by the contract or an applicable change order and, except as provided in paragraph (8) of subdivision (a) of Section 7159.5, shall include or comply with all of the following:(1) The name, business address, and license number of the contractor.(2) If applicable, the name and registration number of the home improvement salesperson that solicited or negotiated the contract.(3) The following heading on the contract form that identifies the type of contract in at least 10-point boldface type: Home Improvement.(4) The following statement in at least 12-point boldface type: You are entitled to a completely filled in copy of this agreement, signed by both you and the contractor, before any work may be started.(5) The heading: Contract Price, followed by the amount of the contract in dollars and cents.(6) If a finance charge will be charged, the heading: Finance Charge, followed by the amount in dollars and cents. The finance charge is to be set out separately from the contract amount.(7) The heading: Description of the Project and Description of the Significant Materials to be Used and Equipment to be Installed, followed by a description of the project and a description of the significant materials to be used and equipment to be installed. For swimming pools, the project description required under this paragraph also shall include a plan and scale drawing showing the shape, size, dimensions, and the construction and equipment specifications.(8) If a downpayment will be charged, the details of the downpayment shall be expressed in substantially the following form, and shall include the text of the notice as specified in subparagraph (C):(A) The heading: Downpayment.(B) A space where the actual downpayment appears.(C) The following statement in at least 12-point boldface type:THE DOWNPAYMENT MAY NOT EXCEED $1,000 OR 10 PERCENT OF THE CONTRACT PRICE, WHICHEVER IS LESS.(9) If payments, other than the downpayment, are to be made before the project is completed, the details of these payments, known as progress payments, shall be expressed in substantially the following form, and shall include the text of the statement as specified in subparagraph (C):(A) A schedule of progress payments shall be preceded by the heading: Schedule of Progress Payments.(B) Each progress payment shall be stated in dollars and cents and specifically reference the amount of work or services to be performed and materials and equipment to be supplied.(C) The section of the contract reserved for the progress payments shall include the following statement in at least 12-point boldface type:The schedule of progress payments must specifically describe each phase of work, including the type and amount of work or services scheduled to be supplied in each phase, along with the amount of each proposed progress payment. IT IS AGAINST THE LAW FOR A CONTRACTOR TO COLLECT PAYMENT FOR WORK NOT YET COMPLETED, OR FOR MATERIALS NOT YET DELIVERED. HOWEVER, A CONTRACTOR MAY REQUIRE A DOWNPAYMENT.(10) The contract shall address the commencement of work to be performed in substantially the following form:(A) A statement that describes what constitutes substantial commencement of work under the contract.(B) The heading: Approximate Start Date.(C) The approximate date on which work will be commenced.(11) The estimated completion date of the work shall be referenced in the contract in substantially the following form:(A) The heading: Approximate Completion Date.(B) The approximate date of completion.(12) If applicable, the heading: List of Documents to be Incorporated into the Contract, followed by the list of documents incorporated into the contract.(13) The heading: Note About Extra Work and Change Orders, followed by the following statement:Extra Work and Change Orders become part of the contract once the order is prepared in writing and signed by the parties prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order. The order must describe the scope of the extra work or change, the cost to be added or subtracted from the contract, and the effect the order will have on the schedule of progress payments.(e) Except as provided in paragraph (8) of subdivision (a) of Section 7159.5, all of the following notices shall be provided to the owner as part of the contract form as specified or, if otherwise authorized under this subdivision, may be provided as an attachment to the contract:(1) A notice concerning commercial general liability insurance. This notice may be provided as an attachment to the contract if the contract includes the following statement: A notice concerning commercial general liability insurance is attached to this contract. The notice shall include the heading Commercial General Liability Insurance (CGL), followed by whichever of the following statements is both relevant and correct:(A) (The name on the license or This contractor) does not carry commercial general liability insurance.(B) (The name on the license or This contractor) carries commercial general liability insurance written by (the insurance company). You may call (the insurance company) at __________ to check the contractors insurance coverage.(C) (The name on the license or This contractor) is self-insured.(D) (The name on the license or This contractor) is a limited liability company that carries liability insurance or maintains other security as required by law. You may call (the insurance company or trust company or bank) at ____ to check on the contractors insurance coverage or security.(2) A notice concerning workers compensation insurance. This notice may be provided as an attachment to the contract if the contract includes the statement: A notice concerning workers compensation insurance is attached to this contract. The notice shall include the heading Workers Compensation Insurance followed by whichever of the following statements is correct:(A) (The name on the license or This contractor) has no employees and is exempt from workers compensation requirements.(B) (The name on the license or This contractor) carries workers compensation insurance for all employees.(3) A notice that provides the buyer with the following information about the performance of extra or change-order work:(A) A statement that the buyer may not require a contractor to perform extra or change-order work without providing written authorization prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order.(B) A statement informing the buyer that extra work or a change order is not enforceable against a buyer unless the change order also identifies all of the following in writing prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order:(i) The scope of work encompassed by the order.(ii) The amount to be added or subtracted from the contract.(iii) The effect the order will make in the progress payments or the completion date.(C) A statement informing the buyer that the contractors failure to comply with the requirements of this paragraph does not preclude the recovery of compensation for work performed based upon legal or equitable remedies designed to prevent unjust enrichment.(4) A notice with the heading Mechanics Lien Warning written as follows:MECHANICS LIEN WARNING:Anyone who helps improve your property, but who is not paid, may record what is called a mechanics lien on your property. A mechanics lien is a claim, like a mortgage or home equity loan, made against your property and recorded with the county recorder.Even if you pay your contractor in full, unpaid subcontractors, suppliers, and laborers who helped to improve your property may record mechanics liens and sue you in court to foreclose the lien. If a court finds the lien is valid, you could be forced to pay twice or have a court officer sell your home to pay the lien. Liens can also affect your credit.To preserve their right to record a lien, each subcontractor and material supplier must provide you with a document called a Preliminary Notice. This notice is not a lien. The purpose of the notice is to let you know that the person who sends you the notice has the right to record a lien on your property if they are not paid.BE CAREFUL. The Preliminary Notice can be sent up to 20 days after the subcontractor starts work or the supplier provides material. This can be a big problem if you pay your contractor before you have received the Preliminary Notices.You will not get Preliminary Notices from your prime contractor or from laborers who work on your project. The law assumes that you already know they are improving your property.PROTECT YOURSELF FROM LIENS. You can protect yourself from liens by getting a list from your contractor of all the subcontractors and material suppliers that work on your project. Find out from your contractor when these subcontractors started work and when these suppliers delivered goods or materials. Then wait 20 days, paying attention to the Preliminary Notices you receive.PAY WITH JOINT CHECKS. One way to protect yourself is to pay with a joint check. When your contractor tells you it is time to pay for the work of a subcontractor or supplier who has provided you with a Preliminary Notice, write a joint check payable to both the contractor and the subcontractor or material supplier.For other ways to prevent liens, visit CSLBs internet website at www.cslb.ca.gov or call CSLB at 800-321-CSLB (2752).REMEMBER, IF YOU DO NOTHING, YOU RISK HAVING A LIEN PLACED ON YOUR HOME. This can mean that you may have to pay twice, or face the forced sale of your home to pay what you owe.(5) The following notice shall be provided in at least 12-point typeface:Information about the Contractors State License Board (CSLB): CSLB is the state consumer protection agency that licenses and regulates construction contractors.Contact CSLB for information about the licensed contractor you are considering, including information about disclosable complaints, disciplinary actions, and civil judgments that are reported to CSLB.Use only licensed contractors. If you file a complaint against a licensed contractor within the legal deadline (usually four years), CSLB has authority to investigate the complaint. If you use an unlicensed contractor, CSLB may not be able to help you resolve your complaint. Your only remedy may be in civil court, and you may be liable for damages arising out of any injuries to the unlicensed contractor or the unlicensed contractors employees.For more information:Visit CSLBs internet website at www.cslb.ca.govCall CSLB at 800-321-CSLB (2752)Write CSLB at P.O. Box 26000, Sacramento, CA 95826.(6) (A) The notice set forth in subparagraph (B) and entitled Three-Day Right to Cancel, or entitled Five-Day Right to Cancel for contracts with a senior citizen, shall be provided to the buyer unless the contract is:(i) Negotiated at the contractors place of business.(ii) Subject to the Seven-Day Right to Cancel, as set forth in paragraph (7).(iii) Subject to licensure under the Alarm Company Act (Chapter 11.6 (commencing with Section 7590)), provided the alarm company licensee complies with Sections 1689.5, 1689.6, and 1689.7 of the Civil Code, as applicable.(B) (i) Three-Day Right to CancelYou, the buyer, have the right to cancel this contract within three business days. You may cancel by emailing, mailing, faxing, or delivering a written notice to the contractor at the contractors place of business by midnight of the third business day after you received a signed and dated copy of the contract that includes this notice. Include your name, your address, and the date you received the signed copy of the contract and this notice.If you cancel, the contractor must return to you anything you paid within 10 days of receiving the notice of cancellation. For your part, you must make available to the contractor at your residence, in substantially as good condition as you received them, goods delivered to you under this contract or sale. Or, you may, if you wish, comply with the contractors instructions on how to return the goods at the contractors expense and risk. If you do make the goods available to the contractor and the contractor does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may keep them without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the contractor, or if you agree to return the goods to the contractor and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.(ii) References to three and third in the notice set forth in clause (i) shall be changed to five and fifth, respectively, for a buyer who is a senior citizen.(C) The notice required by this paragraph shall comply with all of the following:(i) The text of the notice is at least 12-point boldface type.(ii) The notice is in immediate proximity to a space reserved for the owners signature.(iii) The owner acknowledges receipt of the notice by signing and dating the notice form in the signature space.(iv) The notice is written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as that principally used in any oral sales presentation.(v) The notice may be attached to the contract if the contract includes, in at least 12-point boldface type, a checkbox with one of the following statements, as applicable:(I) For a contract with a senior citizen: The law requires that the contractor give you a notice explaining your right to cancel. Initial the checkbox if the contractor has given you a Notice of the Five-Day Right to Cancel.(II) For all other contracts: The law requires that the contractor give you a notice explaining your right to cancel. Initial the checkbox if the contractor has given you a Notice of the Three-Day Right to Cancel.(vi) (I) The notice shall be accompanied by a completed form in duplicate, captioned Notice of Cancellation, which also shall be attached to the agreement or offer to purchase and be easily detachable, and which shall contain the following statement written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as used in the contract:Notice of Cancellation/enter date of transaction/(Date)You may cancel this transaction, without any penalty or obligation, within three business days from the above date.If you cancel, any property traded in, any payments made by you under the contract or sale, and any negotiable instrument executed by you will be returned within 10 days following receipt by the seller of your cancellation notice, and any security interest arising out of the transaction will be canceled.If you cancel, you must make available to the seller at your residence, in substantially as good condition as when received, any goods delivered to you under this contract or sale, or you may, if you wish, comply with the instructions of the seller regarding the return shipment of the goods at the sellers expense and risk.If you do make the goods available to the seller and the seller does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may retain or dispose of the goods without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the seller, or if you agree to return the goods to the seller and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.To cancel this transaction, mail or deliver a signed and dated copy of this cancellation notice, or any other written notice, or send a telegramto ,/name of seller/at /address of sellers place of business/not later than midnight of .(Date)I hereby cancel this transaction.(Date)(Buyers signature)(II) The reference to three in the statement set forth in subclause (I) shall be changed to five for a buyer who is a senior citizen.(7) (A) The following notice entitled Seven-Day Right to Cancel shall be provided to the buyer for any contract that is written for the repair or restoration of residential premises damaged by any sudden or catastrophic event for which a state of emergency has been declared by the President of the United States or the Governor, or for which a local emergency has been declared by the executive officer or governing body of any city, county, or city and county:Seven-Day Right to CancelYou, the buyer, have the right to cancel this contract within seven business days. You may cancel by emailing, mailing, faxing, or delivering a written notice to the contractor at the contractors place of business by midnight of the seventh business day after you received a signed and dated copy of the contract that includes this notice. Include your name, your address, and the date you received the signed copy of the contract and this notice.If you cancel, the contractor must return to you anything you paid within 10 days of receiving the notice of cancellation. For your part, you must make available to the contractor at your residence, in substantially as good condition as you received them, goods delivered to you under this contract or sale. Or, you may, if you wish, comply with the contractors instructions on how to return the goods at the contractors expense and risk. If you do make the goods available to the contractor and the contractor does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may keep them without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the contractor, or if you agree to return the goods to the contractor and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.(B) The Seven-Day Right to Cancel notice required by this subdivision shall comply with all of the following:(i) The text of the notice is at least 12-point boldface type.(ii) The notice is in immediate proximity to a space reserved for the owners signature.(iii) The owner acknowledges receipt of the notice by signing and dating the notice form in the signature space.(iv) The notice is written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as that principally used in any oral sales presentation.(v) The notice may be attached to the contract if the contract includes, in at least 12-point boldface type, a checkbox with the following statement: The law requires that the contractor give you a notice explaining your right to cancel. Initial the checkbox if the contractor has given you a Notice of the Seven-Day Right to Cancel.(vi) The notice shall be accompanied by a completed form in duplicate, captioned Notice of Cancellation, which shall also be attached to the agreement or offer to purchase and be easily detachable, and which shall contain the following statement written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as used in the contract:Notice of Cancellation/enter date of transaction/(Date)You may cancel this transaction, without any penalty or obligation, within seven business days from the above date.If you cancel, any property traded in, any payments made by you under the contract or sale, and any negotiable instrument executed by you will be returned within 10 days following receipt by the seller of your cancellation notice, and any security interest arising out of the transaction will be canceled.If you cancel, you must make available to the seller at your residence, in substantially as good condition as when received, any goods delivered to you under this contract or sale, or you may, if you wish, comply with the instructions of the seller regarding the return shipment of the goods at the sellers expense and risk.If you do make the goods available to the seller and the seller does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may retain or dispose of the goods without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the seller, or if you agree to return the goods to the seller and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.To cancel this transaction, mail or deliver a signed and dated copy of this cancellation notice, or any other written notice, or send a telegramto ,/name of seller/at /address of sellers place of business/not later than midnight of .(Date)I hereby cancel this transaction.(Date)(Buyers signature)(f) The five-day right to cancel added by the act that amended paragraph (6) of subdivision (e) shall apply to contracts entered into on or after January 1, 2021.SEC. 74. Section 7170 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7170. (a) The Contractors State License Board shall receive and review complaints and consumer questions regarding solar energy systems companies and solar contractors. The board shall also receive complaints received from state agencies regarding solar energy systems companies and solar contractors.(b) Beginning on July 1, 2019, the board annually shall compile a report documenting consumer complaints relating to solar contractors. The report shall be made available publicly on the boards and the Public Utilities Commissions internet websites. The report shall contain all of the following:(1) The number and types of complaints.(2) The ZIP Code where the consumer complaint originated.(3) The disposition of all complaints received against a solar contractor.(c) For purposes of this section, solar energy system means a solar energy device to be installed on a residential building that has the primary purpose of providing for the collection and distribution of solar energy for the generation of electricity, that produces at least one kW, and not more than five MW, alternating current rated peak electricity, and that meets or exceeds the eligibility criteria established pursuant to Section 25782 of the Public Resources Code.SEC. 75. Section 7303 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7303. (a) Notwithstanding Article 8 (commencing with Section 9148) of Chapter 1.5 of Part 1 of Division 2 of Title 2 of the Government Code, there is in the Department of Consumer Affairs the State Board of Barbering and Cosmetology in which the administration of this chapter is vested.(b) The board shall consist of nine members. Five members shall be public members, and four members shall represent the professions. The Governor shall appoint three of the public members and the four professional members. The Senate Committee on Rules and the Speaker of the Assembly shall each appoint one public member. Members of the board shall be appointed for a term of four years, except that of the members appointed by the Governor, two of the public members and two of the professions members shall be appointed for an initial term of two years. No board member may serve longer than two consecutive terms.(c) The board may appoint an executive officer who is exempt from civil service. The executive officer shall exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated by the board and vested in the executive officer by this chapter. The appointment of the executive officer is subject to the approval of the director. In the event that a newly authorized board replaces an existing or previous bureau, the director may appoint an interim executive officer for the board who shall serve temporarily until the new board appoints a permanent executive officer.(d) The executive officer shall provide examiners, inspectors, and other personnel necessary to carry out the provisions of this chapter.(e) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.SEC. 76. Section 7512.3 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 1 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:7512.3. (a) As used in this chapter, person includes any individual, firm, company, limited liability company, association, organization, partnership, and corporation.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 77. Section 7512.3 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 2 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:7512.3. (a) As used in this chapter, person includes any individual, firm, company, association, organization, partnership, and corporation.(b) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024.SEC. 78. Section 7512.14 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7512.14. (a) As used in this chapter, member means an individual who is a member of a limited liability company as specified in Section 17704.01 of the Corporations Code.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 79. Section 7512.15 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7512.15. (a) As used in this chapter, manager means an individual designated under an operating agreement of a manager-managed limited liability company who is responsible for performing the management functions for the limited liability company specified in subdivision (c) of Section 17704.07 of the Corporations Code.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 80. Section 7520.3 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7520.3. (a) As a condition of the issuance, reinstatement, reactivation, or continued valid use of a license under this chapter, a limited liability company shall, in accordance with this section, maintain a policy or policies of insurance against liability imposed on or against it by law for damages arising out of claims based upon acts, errors, or omissions arising out of the private investigator services it provides.(b) The total aggregate limit of liability under the policy or policies of insurance required under this section shall be as follows:(1) For a limited liability company licensee with five or fewer persons named as members pursuant to subdivision (i) of Section 7525.1, the aggregate limit shall not be less than one million dollars ($1,000,000).(2) For a limited liability company licensee with more than five persons named as members pursuant to subdivision (i) of Section 7525.1, an additional one hundred thousand dollars ($100,000) of insurance shall be obtained for each person named as members of the licensee except that the maximum amount of insurance is not required to exceed five million dollars ($5,000,000) in any one designated period, less amounts paid in defending, settling, or discharging claims as set forth under this section.(c) Prior to the issuance, reinstatement, or reactivation of a limited liability company license as provided under this chapter, the applicant or licensee shall, in the manner prescribed by the bureau, submit the information and documentation required by this section and requested by the bureau, demonstrating compliance with the financial security requirements specified by this section.(d) For any insurance policy secured by a licensee in satisfaction of this section, a Certificate of Liability Insurance, signed by an authorized agent or employee of the insurer, shall be submitted electronically or otherwise to the bureau. The insurer issuing the certificate shall report to the bureau the following information for any policy required under this section: name, license number, policy number, dates that coverage is scheduled to commence and lapse, and cancellation date if applicable. The insurer shall list the bureau as the certificate holder for the purposes of receiving notifications related to the policys status.(e) (1) If a licensee fails to maintain sufficient insurance as required by this section, or fails to provide proof of the required insurance upon request by the bureau, the license is subject to suspension and shall be automatically suspended pursuant to this subdivision until the date that the licensee provides proof to the bureau of compliance with the insurance coverage requirement.(2) Prior to an automatic suspension, the bureau shall notify the licensee, in writing, that it has 30 days to provide proof to the bureau of having the required insurance or the license shall be automatically suspended.(3) If the licensee fails to provide proof of insurance coverage within this period, the bureau may automatically suspend the license.(f) If the license of a limited liability company is suspended pursuant to subdivision (e), each member of the limited liability company shall be personally liable up to one million dollars ($1,000,000) each for damages resulting to third parties in connection with the companys performance, during the period of suspension, of any act or contract when a license is required by this chapter.(g) On and after July 1, 2018, a licensee organized as a limited liability company shall report a paid or pending claim against its liability insurance to the bureau, which shall post a notice of the claim on the Department of Consumer Affairs BreEZe License Verification Internet Web page.(h) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 81. Section 7525.1 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 11 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:7525.1. An application shall be verified and shall include:(a) The full name and business address of the applicant.(b) The name under which the applicant intends to do business.(c) A statement as to the general nature of the business in which the applicant intends to engage.(d) A verified statement of their experience qualifications.(e) (1) If the applicant is an individual, a qualified manager, a partner of a partnership, an officer of a corporation designated in subdivision (h), or a member, officer, or manager of a limited liability company designated in subdivision (i), one personal identification form provided by the bureau upon which shall appear a photograph taken within one year immediately preceding the date of the filing of the application together with two legible sets of fingerprints, one set of which shall be forwarded to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for purposes of a background check, on a form approved by the Department of Justice, and a personal description of each person, respectively. The identification form shall include residence addresses and employment history for the previous five years and be signed under penalty of perjury.(2) The bureau may impose a fee not to exceed three dollars ($3) for processing classifiable fingerprint cards submitted by applicants, excluding those submitted into an electronic fingerprint system using electronic fingerprint technology.(f) In addition, if the applicant for a license is an individual, the application shall list all other names known as or used during the past 10 years and shall state that the applicant is to be personally and actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought. If any other qualified manager is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by the applicant, under penalty of perjury. If any other person is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall also be subscribed, verified, and signed by that person under penalty of perjury.(g) If the applicants for a license are copartners, the application shall state the true names and addresses of all partners and the name of the partner to be actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought and list all other names known as or used during the past 10 years. If a qualified manager other than a partner is to be actively in charge of the business, then the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by all of the partners under penalty of perjury. If any other person is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall also be subscribed, verified, and signed by that person, under penalty of perjury, under penalty of perjury by all of the partners and the qualified manager, or by all of the partners or the qualified manager.(h) If the applicant for a license is a corporation, the application shall state the true names and complete residence addresses of the chief executive officer, secretary, chief financial officer, and any other corporate officer who will be active in the business to be licensed. The application shall also state the name and address of the designated person to be actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought. The application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by a duly authorized officer of the applicant and by the qualified manager thereof, under penalty of perjury.(i) If the applicant for a license is a limited liability company, the application shall state the true name and complete residence address of each member, manager, and any officer who will be active in the business to be licensed. A certified copy of the articles of organization, as filed by the Secretary of State, shall be supplied to the bureau upon request. In the case of a manager-managed limited liability company, the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by a manager; otherwise, in the case of a member-managed limited liability company, the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by a duly authorized member of the applicant and by the qualified manager thereof. The application shall also state whether any of the members, managers, officers, or the qualified manager has ever used an alias.(j) Any other information, evidence, statements, or documents as may be required by the director.(k) At the discretion of the applicant, a valid email address.(l) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 82. Section 7525.1 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 12 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:7525.1. An application shall be verified and shall include:(a) The full name and business address of the applicant.(b) The name under which the applicant intends to do business.(c) A statement as to the general nature of the business in which the applicant intends to engage.(d) A verified statement of their experience qualifications.(e) (1) If the applicant is an individual, a qualified manager, a partner of a partnership, or an officer of a corporation designated in subdivision (h), one personal identification form provided by the bureau upon which shall appear a photograph taken within one year immediately preceding the date of the filing of the application together with two legible sets of fingerprints, one set of which shall be forwarded to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for purposes of a background check, on a form approved by the Department of Justice, and a personal description of each person, respectively. The identification form shall include residence addresses and employment history for the previous five years and be signed under penalty of perjury.(2) The bureau may impose a fee not to exceed three dollars ($3) for processing classifiable fingerprint cards submitted by applicants, excluding those submitted into an electronic fingerprint system using electronic fingerprint technology.(f) In addition, if the applicant for a license is an individual, the application shall list all other names known as or used during the past 10 years and shall state that the applicant is to be personally and actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought. If any other qualified manager is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by the applicant, under penalty of perjury. If any other person is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall also be subscribed, verified, and signed by that person under penalty of perjury.(g) If the applicants for a license are copartners, the application shall state the true names and addresses of all partners and the name of the partner to be actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought and list all other names known as or used during the past 10 years. If a qualified manager other than a partner is to be actively in charge of the business, then the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by all of the partners under penalty of perjury. If any other person is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall also be subscribed, verified, and signed under penalty of perjury by that person, by all of the partners and the qualified manager, or by all of the partners or the qualified manager.(h) If the applicant for a license is a corporation, the application shall state the true names and complete residence addresses of the chief executive officer, secretary, chief financial officer, and any other corporate officer who will be active in the business to be licensed. The application shall also state the name and address of the designated person to be actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought. The application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by a duly authorized officer of the applicant and by the qualified manager thereof, under penalty of perjury.(i) Any other information, evidence, statements, or documents as may be required by the director.(j) At the discretion of the applicant, a valid email address.(k) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024.SEC. 83. Section 7529 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 2 of Chapter 326 of the Statutes of 2019, is amended to read:7529. (a) (1) Upon the issuance of and with each biennial renewal of a license, a license in the form of an enhanced photo identification card of the size, design, and content as may be determined by the director or the directors designee shall be issued by the bureau to each licensee, as follows:(A) If the licensee is an individual, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to the licensee and to the licensees qualified manager.(B) If the licensee is a partnership, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to each partner of the partnership licensee active in the business and to the licensees qualified manager.(C) If the licensee is a corporation, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to each officer active in the business and to the licensees qualified manager.(D) If the licensee is a limited liability company, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to each member, officer, and manager of the licensee active in the business and to the licensees qualified manager.(2) The enhanced photo identification card is evidence that the licensee is licensed pursuant to this chapter. The card shall contain the name of the licensee, license expiration date, and a photograph of the licensee. The enhanced photo identification card shall clearly state that the person is licensed as a private investigator or is the qualified manager or officer of the licensee. The enhanced photo identification card is to be composed of a durable material and may incorporate technologically advanced security features. The bureau may recover its costs in an amount sufficient to reimburse the departments costs for furnishing the enhanced photo identification card. The fee charged shall not exceed the actual direct costs for system development, maintenance, and processing necessary to provide this service. The total amount of costs shall be recovered by including that amount in the fee charged for the initial application of and renewal of licensure. When the position, office, or association with a licensee belonging to a person to whom a card is issued is terminated, the person shall surrender the card to the licensee and, within five days thereafter, the licensee shall mail or deliver the card to the bureau for cancellation. Every person, while engaged in any activity for which licensure is required, shall display the persons valid enhanced photo identification card as provided by regulation. (b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 84. Section 7529 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 3 of Chapter 326 of the Statutes of 2019, is amended to read:7529. (a) Upon the issuance of and with each biennial renewal of a license, a license in the form of an enhanced photo identification card of the size, design, and content as may be determined by the director or the directors designee shall be issued by the bureau to each licensee, as follows:(1) If the licensee is an individual, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to the licensee and to the licensees qualified manager.(2) If the licensee is a partnership, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to each partner of the partnership licensee active in the business and to the licensees qualified manager.(3) If the licensee is a corporation, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to each officer active in the business and to the licensees qualified manager.(b) The enhanced photo identification card is evidence that the licensee is licensed pursuant to this chapter. The card shall contain the name of the licensee, license expiration date, and a photograph of the licensee. The enhanced photo identification card shall clearly state that the person is licensed as a private investigator or is the qualified manager or officer of the licensee. The enhanced photo identification card is to be composed of a durable material and may incorporate technologically advanced security features. The bureau may recover its costs in an amount sufficient to reimburse the departments costs for furnishing the enhanced photo identification card. The fee charged shall not exceed the actual direct costs for system development, maintenance, and processing necessary to provide this service. The total amount of costs shall be recovered by including that amount in the fee charged for the initial application of and renewal of licensure. When the position, office, or association with a licensee belonging to a person to whom a card is issued is terminated, the person shall surrender the card to the licensee and, within five days thereafter, the licensee shall mail or deliver the card to the bureau for cancellation. Every person, while engaged in any activity for which licensure is required, shall display the persons valid enhanced photo identification card as provided by regulation.(c) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024.SEC. 85. Section 7533.5 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 21 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:7533.5. (a) A licensee shall notify the bureau within 30 days of any change in its corporate officers required to be named pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 7525.1 or members or managers required to be named pursuant to subdivision (i) of Section 7525.1, and of any addition of a new partner.(b) Applications, on forms prescribed by the director, shall be submitted by all new officers, members or managers, and partners. The director may suspend or revoke a license issued under this chapter if the director determines that the new officer, member or manager, or partner of a licensee has committed any of the acts constituting grounds to deny an application for a license or to take disciplinary action against a licensee pursuant to Section 7538 or 7538.5, respectively.(c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 86. Section 7533.5 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 22 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:7533.5. (a) A licensee shall notify the bureau within 30 days of any change in its corporate officers required to be named pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 7525.1, and of any addition of a new partner.(b) Applications, on forms prescribed by the director, shall be submitted by all new officers and partners. The director may suspend or revoke a license issued under this chapter if the director determines that the new officer or partner of a licensee has committed any of the acts constituting grounds to deny an application for a license or to take disciplinary action against a licensee pursuant to Section 7538 or 7538.5, respectively.(c) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024.SEC. 87. Section 7538 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 25 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:7538. (a) After a hearing the director may deny a license unless the applicant makes a showing satisfactory to the director that the applicant, if an individual, and the applicants qualified manager have not, or, if the applicant is a person other than an individual, that its qualified manager and each of its officers, partners, members, or managers have not:(1) Committed any act that, if committed by a licensee, would be a ground for the suspension or revocation of a license under this chapter.(2) Committed any act constituting dishonesty or fraud.(3) Committed any act or crime constituting grounds for denial of licensure under Section 480, including illegally using, carrying, or possessing a deadly weapon.(4) Been refused a license under this chapter or had a license revoked.(5) Been an officer, partner, qualified manager, member, or manager of any person who has been refused a license under this chapter or whose license has been revoked.(6) While unlicensed committed, or aided and abetted the commission of, any act for which a license is required by this chapter.(7) Knowingly made any false statement in their application.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 88. Section 7538 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 26 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:7538. (a) After a hearing the director may deny a license unless the applicant makes a showing satisfactory to the director that the applicant, if an individual, and the applicants qualified manager have not, or, if the applicant is a person other than an individual, that its qualified manager and each of its officers and partners have not:(1) Committed any act that, if committed by a licensee, would be a ground for the suspension or revocation of a license under this chapter.(2) Committed any act constituting dishonesty or fraud.(3) Committed any act or crime constituting grounds for denial of licensure under Section 480, including illegally using, carrying, or possessing a deadly weapon.(4) Been refused a license under this chapter or had a license revoked.(5) Been an officer, partner, or qualified manager of any person who has been refused a license under this chapter or whose license has been revoked.(6) While unlicensed committed, or aided and abetted the commission of, any act for which a license is required by this chapter.(7) Knowingly made any false statement in their application.(b) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024.SEC. 89. Section 7538.5 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 27 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:7538.5. (a) The director may refuse to issue any license provided for in this chapter to any of the following:(1) An individual who has had any license revoked, has a license currently under suspension, or failed to renew their license while under suspension.(2) An individual who, while acting as a partner of a partnership, an officer or director of a corporation, or a member, manager, or officer of a limited liability company, had their license revoked, has a license currently under suspension, or failed to renew their license while under suspension.(3) An individual who, while acting as a partner of the partnership, an officer, director of the corporation, or a member, manager, or officer of a limited liability company meets both of the following conditions:(A) The individual was a partner of any partnership, an officer or director of any corporation, or a member, manager, or officer of any limited liability company whose license was revoked, is currently under suspension, or was not renewed while under suspension.(B) While acting as a partner, officer, director, member, or manager, they participated in any of the prohibited acts for which the license was revoked or suspended.(4) An individual who is serving or has served as the qualified manager for any licensee that has had its license revoked, is currently under suspension, or failed to renew while under suspension.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 90. Section 7538.5 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 8 of Chapter 92 of the Statutes of 2018, is amended to read:7538.5. (a) The director may refuse to issue any license provided for in this chapter to any of the following:(1) An individual who has had any license revoked, has a license currently under suspension, or failed to renew their license while under suspension.(2) An individual who, while acting as a partner of a partnership, or an officer or director of a corporation, had their license revoked, has a license currently under suspension, or failed to renew their license while under suspension.(3) An individual, who, while acting as a partner of the partnership, or an officer or director of the corporation, meets both of the following conditions:(A) The individual was a partner of any partnership, or an officer or director of any corporation, whose license was revoked, is currently under suspension, or was not renewed while under suspension.(B) The individual, while acting as a partner, officer, or director, participated in any of the prohibited acts for which the license was revoked or suspended.(4) An individual who is serving or has served as the qualified manager for any licensee that has had its license revoked, is currently under suspension, or failed to renew while under suspension.(b) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024.SEC. 91. Section 7539 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 29 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:7539. (a) Any licensee or officer, director, partner, member, manager, or qualified manager of a licensee may divulge to any law enforcement officer or district attorney, or their representative, any information they may acquire as to any criminal offense, but they shall not divulge to any other person, except as otherwise required by law, any information acquired by them except at the direction of the employer or client for whom the information was obtained.(b) A licensee or officer, director, partner, member, manager, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not knowingly make any false report to their employer or client for whom information was being obtained.(c) A written report shall not be submitted to a client except by the licensee, qualified manager, or a person authorized by one or either of them, and the person submitting the report shall exercise diligence in ascertaining whether or not the facts and information in the report are true and correct.(d) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, manager, member, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not use a badge in connection with the official activities of the licensees business.(e) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, manager, member, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee, shall not use a title, or wear a uniform, or use an insignia, or use an identification card, or make any statement with the intent to give an impression that they are connected in any way with the federal government, a state government, or any political subdivision of a state government.(f) A licensee, or officer, partner, manager, member, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not use any identification to indicate that they are licensed as a private investigator other than the official identification card issued by the bureau or the business card regularly used by the business. However, a licensee may issue an employer identification card.(g) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, manager, member, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee, shall not enter any private building or portion thereof, except premises commonly accessible to the public, without the consent of the owner or of the person in legal possession thereof.(h) A licensee shall not permit an employee or agent in their own name to advertise, engage clients, furnish reports or present bills to clients, or in any manner conduct business for which a license is required under this chapter. All business of the licensee shall be conducted in the name of and under the control of the licensee.(i) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, manager, member, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not knowingly and directly solicit employment from any person who has directly sustained bodily injury or from that persons spouse or other family member to obtain authorization on behalf of the injured person as an investigator to investigate the accident or act that resulted in injury or death to that person or damage to the property of that person. Nothing in this subdivision shall prohibit the soliciting of employment from that injured persons attorney, insurance company, self-insured administrator, insurance adjuster, employer, or any other person having an indirect interest in the investigation of the injury. This subdivision shall not apply to any business agent or attorney employed by a labor organization. A licensee, or officer, director, partner, manager, member, or qualified manager of a licensee shall not pay or compensate any of their employees or agents on the basis of a bonus, bounty, or quota system whereby a premium is placed on the number of employer or client rule violations or infractions purportedly discovered as a result of any investigation made by a licensee.(j) A licensee shall not use a fictitious business name in connection with the official activities of the licensees business, except as provided by the bureau.(k) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 92. Section 7539 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 9 of Chapter 92 of the Statutes of 2018, is amended to read:7539. (a) A licensee or officer, director, partner, or qualified manager of a licensee may divulge to any law enforcement officer or district attorney, or their representative, any information they may acquire as to any criminal offense, but they shall not divulge to any other person, except as otherwise required by law, any information acquired by them except at the direction of the employer or client for whom the information was obtained.(b) A licensee or officer, director, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not knowingly make any false report to their employer or client for whom information was being obtained.(c) A written report shall not be submitted to a client except by the licensee, qualified manager, or a person authorized by one or either of them, and the person submitting the report shall exercise diligence in ascertaining whether or not the facts and information in the report are true and correct.(d) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not use a badge in connection with the official activities of the licensees business.(e) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee, shall not use a title, or wear a uniform, or use an insignia, or use an identification card, or make any statement with the intent to give an impression that they are connected in any way with the federal government, a state government, or any political subdivision of a state government.(f) A licensee, or officer, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not use any identification to indicate that they are licensed as a private investigator other than the official identification card issued by the bureau or the business card regularly used by the business. However, a licensee may issue an employer identification card.(g) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee, shall not enter any private building or portion thereof, except premises commonly accessible to the public, without the consent of the owner or of the person in legal possession thereof.(h) A licensee shall not permit an employee or agent in their own name to advertise, engage clients, furnish reports or present bills to clients, or in any manner conduct business for which a license is required under this chapter. All business of the licensee shall be conducted in the name of and under the control of the licensee.(i) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee, shall not knowingly and directly solicit employment from any person who has directly sustained bodily injury or from that persons spouse or other family member to obtain authorization on behalf of the injured person as an investigator to investigate the accident or act that resulted in injury or death to that person or damage to the property of that person. This subdivision does not prohibit the soliciting of employment from that injured persons attorney, insurance company, self-insured administrator, insurance adjuster, employer, or any other person having an indirect interest in the investigation of the injury. This subdivision does not apply to any business agent or attorney employed by a labor organization. A licensee, officer, director, partner, or qualified manager of a licensee shall not pay or compensate any of their employees or agents on the basis of a bonus, bounty, or quota system whereby a premium is placed on the number of employer or client rule violations or infractions purportedly discovered as a result of any investigation made by a licensee.(j) A licensee shall not use a fictitious business name in connection with the official activities of the licensees business, except as provided by the bureau.(k) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024.SEC. 93. Section 8516 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:8516. (a) This section, and Section 8519, apply only to wood destroying pests or organisms.(b) A registered company or licensee shall not commence work on a contract, or sign, issue, or deliver any documents expressing an opinion or statement relating to the absence or presence of wood destroying pests or organisms until an inspection has been made by a licensed Branch 3 field representative or operator employed by a registered company, except as provided in Section 8519.5. The address of each property inspected or upon which work is completed shall be reported on a form prescribed by the board and shall be filed with the board no later than 10 business days after the commencement of an inspection or upon completed work.Every property inspected pursuant to this subdivision or Section 8518 shall be assessed a filing fee pursuant to Section 8674.Failure of a registered company to report and file with the board the address of any property inspected or work completed pursuant to Section 8518 or this section is grounds for disciplinary action and shall subject the registered company to a fine of not more than two thousand five hundred dollars ($2,500). The address of an inspection report prepared for use by an attorney for litigation purposes shall not be required to be reported to the board and shall not be assessed a filing fee.A written inspection report conforming to this section and a form approved by the board shall be prepared and delivered to the person requesting the inspection and the property owner, or to the property owners designated agent, within 10 business days from the start of the inspection, except that an inspection report prepared for use by an attorney for litigation purposes is not required to be reported to the board or the property owner. An inspection report may be a complete, limited, supplemental, or reinspection report, as defined by Section 1993 of Title 16 of the California Code of Regulations. The report shall be delivered before work is commenced on any property. The registered company shall retain for three years all inspection reports, field notes, and activity forms.Reports shall be made available for inspection and reproduction to the executive officer of the board or their duly authorized representative during business hours. All inspection reports or copies thereof shall be submitted to the board upon demand within two business days. The following shall be set forth in the report:(1) The start date of the inspection and the name of the licensed field representative or operator making the inspection.(2) The name and address of the person or firm ordering the report.(3) The name and address of the property owner and any person who is a party in interest.(4) The address or location of the property.(5) A general description of the building or premises inspected.(6) A foundation diagram or sketch of the structure or structures or portions of the structure or structures inspected, including the approximate location of any infested or infected areas evident, and the parts of the structure where conditions that would ordinarily subject those parts to attack by wood destroying pests or organisms exist. Reporting of the infested or infected wood members, or parts of the structure identified, shall be listed in the inspection report to clearly identify them, as is typical in standard construction components, including, but not limited to, siding, studs, rafters, floor joists, fascia, subfloor, sheathing, and trim boards.(7) Information regarding the substructure, foundation walls and footings, porches, patios and steps, air vents, abutments, attic spaces, roof framing that includes the eaves, rafters, fascias, exposed timbers, exposed sheathing, ceiling joists, and attic walls, or other parts subject to attack by wood destroying pests or organisms. Conditions usually deemed likely to lead to infestation or infection, such as earth-wood contacts, excessive cellulose debris, faulty grade levels, excessive moisture conditions, evidence of roof leaks, and insufficient ventilation are to be reported.(8) One of the following statements, as appropriate, printed in bold type:(A) The exterior surface of the roof was not inspected. If you want the water tightness of the roof determined, you should contact a roofing contractor who is licensed by the Contractors State License Board.(B) The exterior surface of the roof was inspected to determine whether or not wood destroying pests or organisms are present.(9) Indication or description of any areas that are inaccessible or not inspected with recommendation for further inspection if practicable. If, after the report has been made in compliance with this section, authority is given later to open inaccessible areas, a supplemental report on conditions in these areas shall be made.(10) Recommendations for corrective measures.(11) Information regarding the pesticide or pesticides to be used for their control or prevention as set forth in subdivision (a) of Section 8538.(12) The inspection report shall clearly disclose that if requested by the person ordering the original report, a reinspection of the structure will be performed if an estimate or bid for making repairs was given with the original inspection report, or thereafter.An estimate or bid shall be given separately allocating the costs to perform each and every recommendation for corrective measures as specified in subdivision (c) with the original inspection report if the person who ordered the original inspection report so requests, and if the registered company is regularly in the business of performing each corrective measure.If no estimate or bid was given with the original inspection report, or thereafter, then the registered company shall not be required to perform a reinspection.A reinspection shall be an inspection of those items previously listed on an original report to determine if the recommendations have been completed. Each reinspection shall be reported on an original inspection report form and shall be labeled Reinspection. Each reinspection shall also identify the original report by date.After four months from an original inspection, all inspections shall be original inspections and not reinspections.Any reinspection shall be performed for not more than the price of the registered companys original inspection price and shall be completed within 10 business days after a reinspection has been ordered.(13) The inspection report shall contain the following statement, printed in boldface type:NOTICE: Reports on this structure prepared by various registered companies should list the same findings (i.e. termite infestations, termite damage, fungus damage, etc.). However, recommendations to correct these findings may vary from company to company. You have a right to seek a second opinion from another company.(c) At the time a report is ordered, the registered company or licensee shall inform the person or entity ordering the report, that a separate report is available pursuant to this subdivision. If a separate report is requested at the time the inspection report is ordered, the registered company or licensee shall separately identify on the report each recommendation for corrective measures as follows:(1) The infestation or infection that is evident.(2) The conditions that are present that are deemed likely to lead to infestation or infection.If a registered company or licensee fails to inform as required by this subdivision and a dispute arises, or if any other dispute arises as to whether this subdivision has been complied with, a separate report shall be provided within 24 hours of the request but, in no event, later than the next business day, and at no additional cost.(d) When a corrective condition is identified, either as paragraph (1) or (2) of subdivision (c), and the property owner or the property owners designated agent chooses not to correct those conditions, the registered company or licensee shall not be liable for damages resulting from a failure to correct those conditions or subject to any disciplinary action by the board. Nothing in this subdivision, however, shall relieve a registered company or a licensee of any liability resulting from negligence, fraud, dishonest dealing, other violations pursuant to this chapter, or contractual obligations between the registered company or licensee and the responsible parties.(e) The inspection report form prescribed by the board shall separately identify the infestation or infection that is evident and the conditions that are present that are deemed likely to lead to infestation or infection. If a separate form is requested, the form shall explain the infestation or infection that is evident and the conditions that are present that are deemed likely to lead to infestation or infection and the difference between those conditions. In no event, however, shall conditions deemed likely to lead to infestation or infection be characterized as actual defects or as actual active infestations or infections or in need of correction as a precondition to issuing a certification pursuant to Section 8519.(f) The report and any contract entered into shall also state specifically when any guarantee for the work is made, and if so, the specific terms of the guarantee and the period of time for which the guarantee shall be in effect. If a guarantee extends beyond three years, the registered company shall maintain all original inspection reports, field notes, activity forms, and notices of completion for the duration of the guarantee period and for one year after the guarantee expires.(g) For purposes of this section, control service agreement means an agreement, including extended warranties, to have a licensee conduct over a period of time regular inspections and other activities related to the control or eradication of wood destroying pests and organisms. Under a control service agreement a registered company shall refer to the original report and contract in a manner as to identify them clearly, and the report shall be assumed to be a true report of conditions as originally issued, except it may be modified after a control service inspection. A registered company is not required to issue a report as outlined in paragraphs (1) to (11), inclusive, of subdivision (b) after each control service inspection. If after control service inspection, no modification of the original report is made in writing, then it will be assumed that conditions are as originally reported. A control service contract shall state specifically the particular wood destroying pests or organisms and the portions of the buildings or structures covered by the contract.(h) A registered company or licensee may enter into and maintain a control service agreement provided the following requirements are met:(1) The control service agreement shall be in writing, signed by both parties, and shall specifically include the following:(A) The wood destroying pests and organisms covered by the control service agreement.(B) Any wood destroying pest or organism that is not covered must be specifically listed.(C) The type and manner of treatment to be used to correct the infestations or infections.(D) The structures or buildings, or portions thereof, covered by the agreement, including a statement specifying whether the coverage for purposes of periodic inspections is limited or full. Any exclusions from those described in the original report must be specifically listed.(E) A reference to the original inspection report.(F) The frequency of the inspections to be provided, the fee to be charged for each renewal, and the duration of the agreement.(G) Whether the fee includes structural repairs.(H) If the services provided are guaranteed, and, if so, the terms of the guarantee.(I) A statement that all corrections of infestations or infections covered by the control service agreement shall be completed within six months of discovery, unless otherwise agreed to in writing by both parties.(2) The original inspection report, the control service agreement, and completion report shall be maintained for three years after the cancellation of the control service agreement.(3) Inspections made pursuant to a control service agreement shall be conducted by a Branch 3 licensee. Section 8506.1 does not modify this provision.(4) A full inspection of the property covered by the control service agreement shall be conducted and a report filed pursuant to subdivision (b) at least once every three years from the date that the agreement was entered into, unless the consumer cancels the contract within three years from the date the agreement was entered into.(5) Under a control service agreement, a written report shall be required for the correction of any infestation or infection unless all of the following conditions are met:(A) The infestation or infection has been previously reported.(B) The infestation or infection is covered by the control service agreement.(C) There is no additional charge for correcting the infestation or infection.(D) Correction of the infestation or infection takes place within 45 days of its discovery.(E) Correction of the infestation or infection does not include fumigation.(6) All notice requirements pursuant to Section 8538 shall apply to all pesticide treatments conducted under control service agreements.(i) All work recommended by a registered company, where an estimate or bid for making repairs was given with the original inspection report, or thereafter, shall be recorded on this report or a separate work agreement and shall specify a price for each recommendation. This information shall be provided to the person requesting the inspection, and shall be retained by the registered company with the inspection report copy for three years.SEC. 94. Section 10050 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:10050. (a) (1) There is in the Business, Consumer Services, and Housing Agency a Department of Real Estate, the chief officer of which department is named the Real Estate Commissioner.(2) Notwithstanding any other law, the powers and duties of the department, as set forth in this part and Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 11000) of Part 2, shall be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. The review shall be performed as if this part and that chapter were scheduled to be repealed as of January 1, 2022.(b) It shall be the principal responsibility of the commissioner to enforce all laws in this part and Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 11000) of Part 2 in a manner that achieves the maximum protection for the buyers of real property and those persons dealing with real estate licensees.(c) Wherever the term commissioner is used in this division, it means the Real Estate Commissioner.(d) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2018.SEC. 95. Section 11301 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:11301. (a) (1) There is hereby created within the Department of Consumer Affairs a Bureau of Real Estate Appraisers to administer and enforce this part.(2) Notwithstanding any other law, the powers and duties of the bureau, as set forth in this part, shall be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. The review shall be performed as if this part were scheduled to be repealed as of January 1, 2022.(b) Whenever the term Office of Real Estate Appraisers appears in any other law, it means the Bureau of Real Estate Appraisers.SEC. 96. Section 16100 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:16100. (a) The board of supervisors may in the exercise of its police powers, and for the purpose of regulation, as herein provided, and not otherwise, license any kind of business not prohibited by law, transacted and carried on within the limits of its jurisdiction, including all shows, exhibitions, and lawful games, and may fix the rate of the license fee and provide for its collection by suit or otherwise.(b) No license fee levied pursuant to subdivision (a) that is measured by the licensees income or gross receipts, whether levied by a charter or general law county, shall apply to any nonprofit organization that is exempted from taxes by Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 23701) of Part 11 of Division 2 of the Revenue and Taxation Code or Subchapter F (commencing with Section 501) of Chapter 1 of Subtitle A of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, or the successor of either, or to any minister, clergyman, Christian Science practitioner, rabbi, or priest of any religious organization that has been granted an exemption from federal income tax by the United States Commissioner of Internal Revenue as an organization described in Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code or a successor to that section.(c) Before a county issues a business license to a person to conduct business as a contractor, as defined by Section 7026, the county shall verify that the person is licensed by the Contractors State License Board.SEC. 97. Section 19164 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:19164. The bureau may, by regulation, establish insulation material standards governing the quality of all insulation material sold or installed within this state, including those properties that affect the safety and thermal performance of insulation material during application and in the use intended. The standards shall specify the initial performance of the insulation material and the performance expected during the design life of the insulation material. Until the bureau has adopted these regulations, the regulations of the State Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission in effect on the effective date of this section relating to those standards shall remain in full force and effect. However, wherever those regulations specify that the commission shall perform an act, the bureau instead shall perform the act.Prior to establishing the standards and procedures required by this chapter, the bureau shall conduct at least two public hearings, and shall invite the State Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission, the State Fire Marshal, manufacturers, distributors, and licensed installers of insulation materials, and appropriate members of the public to participate in the hearings. Immediately upon adoption of the standards and procedures, the bureau shall provide a copy of the standards to the State Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission, and the Contractors State License Board. Within 30 days after receipt of the bureaus standards, the Contractors State License Board shall notify all state licensed contractors who install insulation of the standards.Insulation standards adopted by the bureau, pursuant to this section, and by the State Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission, pursuant to Section 25402 of the Public Resources Code, which are building standards, as defined in Section 25488.5 of the Public Resources Code, shall be submitted to the California Building Standards Commission for approval pursuant to, and are governed by, the California Building Standards Law (Part 2.5 (commencing with Section 18901) of Division 13 of the Health and Safety Code). The building standards adopted by the bureau and published in the California Building Standards Code shall comply with, and be enforced as provided in, this section.SEC. 98. Section 1670.8.5 is added to the Civil Code, to read:1670.8.5. (a) A contract or proposed contract for the provision of a consumer service by a licensee regulated by a licensing board shall not include a provision limiting the consumers ability to file a complaint with that board or to participate in the boards investigation into the licensee.(b) Any waiver of the provisions of this section is contrary to public policy, and is void and unenforceable.(c) For purposes of this section, the following terms apply:(1) Consumer service means any service that is obtained for use primarily for personal, family, or household purposes.(2) Licensing board means any entity described in Section 101 of the Business and Professions Code, the State Bar of California, the Department of Real Estate, or any other state agency that issues a license, certificate, or registration authorizing a person to engage in a business or profession.(d) Violation of this section by a licensee shall constitute unprofessional conduct subject to discipline by the licensees licensing board.SEC. 99. Section 94950 of the Education Code is amended to read:94950. This chapter shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. SEC. 100. Section 8.5 of this bill incorporates amendments to Section 205 of the Business and Professions Code, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 865 of the Statutes of 2019, proposed by this bill and Assembly Bill 896. That section of this bill shall only become operative if (1) both bills are enacted and become effective on or before January 1, 2021, (2) each bill amends Section 205 of the Business and Professions Code, and (3) this bill is enacted after Assembly Bill 896, in which case Section 205 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Assembly Bill 896, shall remain operative only until the operative date of this bill, at which time Section 8.5 of this bill shall become operative, and Section 8 of this bill shall not become operative.SEC. 101. Section 16.5 of this bill incorporates amendments to Section 2113 of the Business and Professions Code proposed by both this bill and Assembly Bill 2273. That section of this bill shall only become operative if (1) both bills are enacted and become effective on or before January 1, 2021, (2) each bill amends Section 2113 of the Business and Professions Code, and (3) this bill is enacted after Assembly Bill 2273, in which case Section 16 of this bill shall not become operative.SEC. 102. Section 73.5 of this bill incorporates amendments to Section 7159 of the Business and Professions Code proposed by both this bill and Assembly Bill 2471. That section of this bill shall only become operative if (1) both bills are enacted and become effective on or before January 1, 2021, (2) each bill amends Section 7159 of the Business and Professions Code, and (3) this bill is enacted after Assembly Bill 2471, in which case Section 73 of this bill shall not become operative.SEC. 103. No reimbursement is required by this act pursuant to Section 6 of Article XIIIB of the California Constitution because the only costs that may be incurred by a local agency or school district will be incurred because this act creates a new crime or infraction, eliminates a crime or infraction, or changes the penalty for a crime or infraction, within the meaning of Section 17556 of the Government Code, or changes the definition of a crime within the meaning of Section 6 of Article XIIIB of the California Constitution. |
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| 3 | | - | Senate Bill No. 1474 CHAPTER 312 An act to amend Sections 27, 101, 125.9, 130, 144, 200.1, 205, 494.5, 1000, 1913, 1917, 1917.1, 1922, 2065, 2113, 2135.5, 2460, 2531, 2531.75, 2570.19, 2602, 2607.5, 2841, 2847.1, 2847.3, 2920, 2933, 3504, 3512, 3686, 3710, 3716, 4001, 4003, 4501, 4503, 4604, 4621, 4800, 4804.5, 4990, 4990.04, 5600.4, 5810, 7000, 7000.5, 7000.6, 7011.4, 7011.5, 7011.8, 7015, 7017.3, 7028.7, 7030, 7031, 7058.7, 7071.4, 7080.5, 7085.5, 7099.2, 7123.5, 7135, 7136, 7137, 7137.5, 7138, 7139.1, 7139.2, 7141.5, 7145.5, 7159, 7170, 7303, 7512.3, 7512.14, 7512.15, 7520.3, 7525.1, 7529, 7533.5, 7538, 7538.5, 7539, 8516, 10050, 11301, 16100, and 19164 of, and to add Section 7099.9 to, the Business and Professions Code, to add Section 1670.8.5 to the Civil Code, and to amend Section 94950 of the Education Code, relating to business and professions, and making an appropriation therefor. [ Approved by Governor September 29, 2020. Filed with Secretary of State September 29, 2020. ] LEGISLATIVE COUNSEL'S DIGESTSB 1474, Committee on Business, Professions and Economic Development. Business and professions.(1) Existing law, the Contractors State License Law, provides for the licensure and regulation of contractors by the Contractors State License Board in the Department of Consumer Affairs. Existing law requires fees and penalties received pursuant to the law to be deposited in the Contractors License Fund, a continuously appropriated fund, except that certain service fees for the deposit of money in lieu of paying a bond are required to be deposited in the Contractors Deposit Fund. This bill would rename the Contractors State license Law as the Contractors State License Law, would rename the Contractors State License Board as the Contractors State License Board, and would rename the Contractors License Fund as the Contractors License Fund. The bill would delete the provision establishing the Contractors Deposit Fund, and would therefore require those service fees to be deposited in the Contractors License Fund. By authorizing a new source of revenue to be deposited into a continuously appropriated fund, the bill would make an appropriation. Existing law authorizes a licensee who is subject to a bonding provision under the law, in lieu of giving a bond, to deposit money or a cashiers check with the registrar of contractors.This bill would prohibit the deposit from being released if the board is notified of a civil action against the deposit and, if the amount of the deposit is insufficient to pay all claims, would require the deposit to be distributed to claimants in proportion to the amount of the claims.Existing law authorizes the registrar of contractors to grant the retroactive renewal of a license if, within 90 days from the due date, the licensee requests the retroactive renewal in a petition to the registrar, shows that the failure to renew was due to circumstances beyond their control, files an application for renewal on a form prescribed by the registrar, and pays the appropriate renewal and delinquency fees.This bill, instead, would require the registrar to grant the retroactive renewal of a license if, within 90 days of the expiration of the license, the otherwise eligible licensee submits a completed application for renewal and pays the renewal and delinquency fees. The bill would delete the requirement that the licensee demonstrate that the delay was due to circumstances beyond the licensees control, and would deem an application for renewal submitted for purposes of these provisions if it is delivered to the boards headquarters or postmarked within 90 days of the expiration of the license.(2) Existing law establishes the Landscape Architects Technical Committee to assist the California Architects Board in examining candidates for a landscape architects license. Existing law, on and after January 1, 2021, requires an applicant to furnish to the committee a full set of fingerprints for purposes of conducting criminal history record checks.This bill would revise the date on which this requirement becomes effective to January 1, 2022. (3) Existing law, the Chiropractic Act, enacted by an initiative measure, provides for the licensure and regulation of chiropractors in this state by the State Board of Chiropractic Examiners. Existing law requires that the powers and duties of the board, as provided, be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature as if that act were scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022.This bill would require that the powers and duties of the board, as provided, be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature as if that act were scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2023.(4) Existing law authorizes the State Board of Chiropractic Examiners and the Osteopathic Medical Board of California and any board within the Department of Consumer Affairs to issue a citation that may contain an order of abatement or an order to pay an administrative fine, and provides that a failure to pay a fine within 30 days of the date of assessment may result in disciplinary action. This bill would also make a failure to comply with the order of abatement within 30 days of the date of the order subject to disciplinary action. (5) Existing law provides for the licensure and regulation of registered dental hygienists by the Dental Hygiene Board of California. Existing law authorizes a registered dental hygienist to perform a procedure or provide a service within the scope of their practice under the appropriate level of supervision, as specified.This bill would also require a registered dental hygienist to have completed the appropriate education and training required to perform the procedure or provide the service.Existing law requires a person to have satisfactorily completed a specified examination within the preceding 2 years as a condition of licensure as a registered dental hygienist.This bill would instead require completion of the dental hygiene examination within the preceding 3 years.Existing law requires a person, as a condition for licensure as a registered dental hygienist in alternative practice, to successfully complete a bachelors degree or its equivalent from an accredited college or institution of higher education, among other requirements.This bill would specify that the equivalent of a bachelors degree is recognized as a minimum of 120 semester credit hours or 180 quarter credit hours in postsecondary education.(6) Existing law, the Medical Practice Act, provides for the licensure and regulation of physicians and surgeons by the Medical Board of California, and requires an applicant for a physicians and surgeons license who has completed 36 months of approved postgraduate training in another state or Canada and who is accepted into an approved postgraduate training in another state or Canada and who is accepted into an approved postgraduate training program in California to obtain their physicians and surgeons license within 90 days after beginning the postgraduate training program. This bill would delete the requirement that the person be accepted into an approved postgraduate training in another state or Canada.Existing law authorizes the Medical Board of California, in its discretion, to waive certain examination and certification requirements for licensure for a graduate of a foreign medical school who holds a certificate of registration issued by the board to practice medicine as a full-time faculty member at a medical school.This bill would also authorize the board to accept clinical practice in an appointment as qualifying time to meet specified postgraduate training requirements for licensure for those registrants.Existing law authorizes the Medical Board of California, upon and review and recommendation, to determine that an applicant for a physician and surgeons certificate has satisfied the medical education and examination requirements for an applicant who holds an unlimited and unrestricted license as a physician and surgeon in another state and has held the license continuously for a minimum of 4 years, subject to satisfaction of specified requirements. This bill would also require the applicant to meet specified postgraduate training requirements.(7) Existing law, the Architects Practice Act, provides for the licensure and regulation of architects by the California Architects Board. Existing law requires the board to issue a retired license to an architect who meets specified requirements, and also provides for the restoration of a retired license to active status upon satisfaction of specified requirements applicable to licenses that are not renewed within 5 years of its expiration. This bill would also authorize the restoration of a retired license to active status upon satisfaction of specified requirements applicable to licenses that are renewed within 5 years of its expiration. (8) Existing law provides for the January 1, 2021, repeal of provisions creating the Podiatric Medical Board of California, the Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians of the State of California, the Board of Psychology, the Physician Assistant Board, the California State Board of Pharmacy, the Veterinary Medical Board, the Board of Behavioral Sciences, and the State Board of Barbering and Cosmetology.This bill would extend the operation of those provisions to January 1, 2022, and make conforming changes relating to the appointment of an executive officer, as applicable.(9) Existing law provides for the January 1, 2022, repeal of provisions regulating naturopathic medicine and interior design and provisions creating the California Board of Occupational Therapy, the Physical Therapy Board of California, the Respiratory Care Board of California, and the Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board.This bill would extend the operation of those provisions to January 1, 2023, and make conforming changes relating to the appointment of an executive officer, as applicable.(10) Existing law, the Massage Therapy Act, until January 1, 2021, provides for the certification and regulation of massage therapists by the California Massage Therapy Council.This bill would extend the operation of the Massage Therapy Act to January 1, 2022, and make conforming changes relating to massage therapist certification requirements.(11) Existing law, the Private Investigator Act, provides for the licensure and regulation of private investigators by the Bureau of Security and Investigative Services. Existing law, until January 1, 2021, authorizes the bureau to issue a private investigator license to a limited liability company. A violation of the act is a crime.This bill would extend that date to January 1, 2024. By extending the operation of these provisions, the bill would impose a state-mandated local program.(12) Existing law, the Real Estate Law, provides for the licensure and regulation of real estate brokers by the Real Estate Commissioner, the chief officer of the Department of Real Estate within the Business, Consumer Services, and Housing Agency. The Real Estate Law subjects the powers and duties of the department, under specified provisions of law, to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature, performed as if those provisions were scheduled to be repealed as of January 1, 2021. This bill would extend that date to January 1, 2022.(13) Existing law, the Real Estate Appraisers Licensing and Certification Law, creates a Bureau of Real Estate Appraisers within the Department of Consumer Affairs to administer and enforce that law. The Real Estate Appraisers Licensing and Certification Law subjects the powers and duties of the bureau to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature, performed as if that law were scheduled to be repealed as of January 1, 2021.This bill would extend that date to January 1, 2022.(14) Existing law regulates the formation and enforcement of contracts, including what constitutes an unlawful contract. Under existing law, a contract is unlawful if it is contrary to an express provision of law, contrary to the policy of express law, though not expressly prohibited, or otherwise contrary to good morals.Existing law regulates licensees who are subject to the jurisdiction of a state licensing entity, including the State Bar of California, the Department of Real Estate, the Department of Consumer Affairs, or any other state agency that issues a license, certificate, or registration authorizing a person to engage in a business or profession.This bill would prohibit a contract or proposed contract for the provision of a consumer service by a licensee regulated by a licensing board from including a provision limiting the consumers ability to file a complaint with that board or to participate in the boards investigation into the licensee. The bill would specify that a waiver of these provisions is contrary to public policy and is void and unenforceable. The bill would provide that a violation of these provisions by a licensee constitutes unprofessional conduct subject to discipline by the licensees regulatory board.(15) Existing law, the California Private Postsecondary Education Act of 2009, until January 1, 2021, provides, among other things, for student protections and regulatory oversight of private postsecondary institutions in the state, enforced by the Bureau for Private Postsecondary Education within the Department of Consumer Affairs.This bill would extend the operation of the California Private Postsecondary Education Act of 2009 to January 1, 2022.(16) This bill would make other conforming, technical, and nonsubstantive changes.(17) This bill would incorporate additional changes to Section 205 of the Business and Professions Code proposed by AB 896 to be operative only if this bill and AB 896 are enacted and this bill is enacted last.(18) This bill would incorporate additional changes to Section 2113 of the Business and Professions Code proposed by AB 2273 to be operative only if this bill and AB 2273 are enacted and this bill is enacted last.(19) This bill would incorporate additional changes to Section 7159 of the Business and Professions Code proposed by AB 2471 to be operative only if this bill and AB 2471 are enacted and this bill is enacted last.(20) The California Constitution requires the state to reimburse local agencies and school districts for certain costs mandated by the state. Statutory provisions establish procedures for making that reimbursement.This bill would provide that no reimbursement is required by this act for a specified reason.Digest Key Vote: MAJORITY Appropriation: YES Fiscal Committee: YES Local Program: YES |
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| 1 | + | Enrolled September 04, 2020 Passed IN Senate August 31, 2020 Passed IN Assembly August 30, 2020 Amended IN Assembly August 26, 2020 Amended IN Assembly August 24, 2020 Amended IN Assembly August 10, 2020 Amended IN Assembly July 27, 2020 Amended IN Senate June 18, 2020 Amended IN Senate May 14, 2020 CALIFORNIA LEGISLATURE 20192020 REGULAR SESSION Senate Bill No. 1474Introduced by Committee on Business, Professions and Economic Development (Senators Glazer (Chair), Archuleta, Chang, Dodd, Galgiani, Hill, Leyva, Pan, and Wilk)(Principal coauthor: Assembly Member Low)(Coauthor: Senator Morrell)March 16, 2020 An act to amend Sections 27, 101, 125.9, 130, 144, 200.1, 205, 494.5, 1000, 1913, 1917, 1917.1, 1922, 2065, 2113, 2135.5, 2460, 2531, 2531.75, 2570.19, 2602, 2607.5, 2841, 2847.1, 2847.3, 2920, 2933, 3504, 3512, 3686, 3710, 3716, 4001, 4003, 4501, 4503, 4604, 4621, 4800, 4804.5, 4990, 4990.04, 5600.4, 5810, 7000, 7000.5, 7000.6, 7011.4, 7011.5, 7011.8, 7015, 7017.3, 7028.7, 7030, 7031, 7058.7, 7071.4, 7080.5, 7085.5, 7099.2, 7123.5, 7135, 7136, 7137, 7137.5, 7138, 7139.1, 7139.2, 7141.5, 7145.5, 7159, 7170, 7303, 7512.3, 7512.14, 7512.15, 7520.3, 7525.1, 7529, 7533.5, 7538, 7538.5, 7539, 8516, 10050, 11301, 16100, and 19164 of, and to add Section 7099.9 to, the Business and Professions Code, to add Section 1670.8.5 to the Civil Code, and to amend Section 94950 of the Education Code, relating to business and professions, and making an appropriation therefor. LEGISLATIVE COUNSEL'S DIGESTSB 1474, Committee on Business, Professions and Economic Development. Business and professions.(1) Existing law, the Contractors State License Law, provides for the licensure and regulation of contractors by the Contractors State License Board in the Department of Consumer Affairs. Existing law requires fees and penalties received pursuant to the law to be deposited in the Contractors License Fund, a continuously appropriated fund, except that certain service fees for the deposit of money in lieu of paying a bond are required to be deposited in the Contractors Deposit Fund. This bill would rename the Contractors State license Law as the Contractors State License Law, would rename the Contractors State License Board as the Contractors State License Board, and would rename the Contractors License Fund as the Contractors License Fund. The bill would delete the provision establishing the Contractors Deposit Fund, and would therefore require those service fees to be deposited in the Contractors License Fund. By authorizing a new source of revenue to be deposited into a continuously appropriated fund, the bill would make an appropriation. Existing law authorizes a licensee who is subject to a bonding provision under the law, in lieu of giving a bond, to deposit money or a cashiers check with the registrar of contractors.This bill would prohibit the deposit from being released if the board is notified of a civil action against the deposit and, if the amount of the deposit is insufficient to pay all claims, would require the deposit to be distributed to claimants in proportion to the amount of the claims.Existing law authorizes the registrar of contractors to grant the retroactive renewal of a license if, within 90 days from the due date, the licensee requests the retroactive renewal in a petition to the registrar, shows that the failure to renew was due to circumstances beyond their control, files an application for renewal on a form prescribed by the registrar, and pays the appropriate renewal and delinquency fees.This bill, instead, would require the registrar to grant the retroactive renewal of a license if, within 90 days of the expiration of the license, the otherwise eligible licensee submits a completed application for renewal and pays the renewal and delinquency fees. The bill would delete the requirement that the licensee demonstrate that the delay was due to circumstances beyond the licensees control, and would deem an application for renewal submitted for purposes of these provisions if it is delivered to the boards headquarters or postmarked within 90 days of the expiration of the license.(2) Existing law establishes the Landscape Architects Technical Committee to assist the California Architects Board in examining candidates for a landscape architects license. Existing law, on and after January 1, 2021, requires an applicant to furnish to the committee a full set of fingerprints for purposes of conducting criminal history record checks.This bill would revise the date on which this requirement becomes effective to January 1, 2022. (3) Existing law, the Chiropractic Act, enacted by an initiative measure, provides for the licensure and regulation of chiropractors in this state by the State Board of Chiropractic Examiners. Existing law requires that the powers and duties of the board, as provided, be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature as if that act were scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022.This bill would require that the powers and duties of the board, as provided, be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature as if that act were scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2023.(4) Existing law authorizes the State Board of Chiropractic Examiners and the Osteopathic Medical Board of California and any board within the Department of Consumer Affairs to issue a citation that may contain an order of abatement or an order to pay an administrative fine, and provides that a failure to pay a fine within 30 days of the date of assessment may result in disciplinary action. This bill would also make a failure to comply with the order of abatement within 30 days of the date of the order subject to disciplinary action. (5) Existing law provides for the licensure and regulation of registered dental hygienists by the Dental Hygiene Board of California. Existing law authorizes a registered dental hygienist to perform a procedure or provide a service within the scope of their practice under the appropriate level of supervision, as specified.This bill would also require a registered dental hygienist to have completed the appropriate education and training required to perform the procedure or provide the service.Existing law requires a person to have satisfactorily completed a specified examination within the preceding 2 years as a condition of licensure as a registered dental hygienist.This bill would instead require completion of the dental hygiene examination within the preceding 3 years.Existing law requires a person, as a condition for licensure as a registered dental hygienist in alternative practice, to successfully complete a bachelors degree or its equivalent from an accredited college or institution of higher education, among other requirements.This bill would specify that the equivalent of a bachelors degree is recognized as a minimum of 120 semester credit hours or 180 quarter credit hours in postsecondary education.(6) Existing law, the Medical Practice Act, provides for the licensure and regulation of physicians and surgeons by the Medical Board of California, and requires an applicant for a physicians and surgeons license who has completed 36 months of approved postgraduate training in another state or Canada and who is accepted into an approved postgraduate training in another state or Canada and who is accepted into an approved postgraduate training program in California to obtain their physicians and surgeons license within 90 days after beginning the postgraduate training program. This bill would delete the requirement that the person be accepted into an approved postgraduate training in another state or Canada.Existing law authorizes the Medical Board of California, in its discretion, to waive certain examination and certification requirements for licensure for a graduate of a foreign medical school who holds a certificate of registration issued by the board to practice medicine as a full-time faculty member at a medical school.This bill would also authorize the board to accept clinical practice in an appointment as qualifying time to meet specified postgraduate training requirements for licensure for those registrants.Existing law authorizes the Medical Board of California, upon and review and recommendation, to determine that an applicant for a physician and surgeons certificate has satisfied the medical education and examination requirements for an applicant who holds an unlimited and unrestricted license as a physician and surgeon in another state and has held the license continuously for a minimum of 4 years, subject to satisfaction of specified requirements. This bill would also require the applicant to meet specified postgraduate training requirements.(7) Existing law, the Architects Practice Act, provides for the licensure and regulation of architects by the California Architects Board. Existing law requires the board to issue a retired license to an architect who meets specified requirements, and also provides for the restoration of a retired license to active status upon satisfaction of specified requirements applicable to licenses that are not renewed within 5 years of its expiration. This bill would also authorize the restoration of a retired license to active status upon satisfaction of specified requirements applicable to licenses that are renewed within 5 years of its expiration. (8) Existing law provides for the January 1, 2021, repeal of provisions creating the Podiatric Medical Board of California, the Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians of the State of California, the Board of Psychology, the Physician Assistant Board, the California State Board of Pharmacy, the Veterinary Medical Board, the Board of Behavioral Sciences, and the State Board of Barbering and Cosmetology.This bill would extend the operation of those provisions to January 1, 2022, and make conforming changes relating to the appointment of an executive officer, as applicable.(9) Existing law provides for the January 1, 2022, repeal of provisions regulating naturopathic medicine and interior design and provisions creating the California Board of Occupational Therapy, the Physical Therapy Board of California, the Respiratory Care Board of California, and the Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board.This bill would extend the operation of those provisions to January 1, 2023, and make conforming changes relating to the appointment of an executive officer, as applicable.(10) Existing law, the Massage Therapy Act, until January 1, 2021, provides for the certification and regulation of massage therapists by the California Massage Therapy Council.This bill would extend the operation of the Massage Therapy Act to January 1, 2022, and make conforming changes relating to massage therapist certification requirements.(11) Existing law, the Private Investigator Act, provides for the licensure and regulation of private investigators by the Bureau of Security and Investigative Services. Existing law, until January 1, 2021, authorizes the bureau to issue a private investigator license to a limited liability company. A violation of the act is a crime.This bill would extend that date to January 1, 2024. By extending the operation of these provisions, the bill would impose a state-mandated local program.(12) Existing law, the Real Estate Law, provides for the licensure and regulation of real estate brokers by the Real Estate Commissioner, the chief officer of the Department of Real Estate within the Business, Consumer Services, and Housing Agency. The Real Estate Law subjects the powers and duties of the department, under specified provisions of law, to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature, performed as if those provisions were scheduled to be repealed as of January 1, 2021. This bill would extend that date to January 1, 2022.(13) Existing law, the Real Estate Appraisers Licensing and Certification Law, creates a Bureau of Real Estate Appraisers within the Department of Consumer Affairs to administer and enforce that law. The Real Estate Appraisers Licensing and Certification Law subjects the powers and duties of the bureau to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature, performed as if that law were scheduled to be repealed as of January 1, 2021.This bill would extend that date to January 1, 2022.(14) Existing law regulates the formation and enforcement of contracts, including what constitutes an unlawful contract. Under existing law, a contract is unlawful if it is contrary to an express provision of law, contrary to the policy of express law, though not expressly prohibited, or otherwise contrary to good morals.Existing law regulates licensees who are subject to the jurisdiction of a state licensing entity, including the State Bar of California, the Department of Real Estate, the Department of Consumer Affairs, or any other state agency that issues a license, certificate, or registration authorizing a person to engage in a business or profession.This bill would prohibit a contract or proposed contract for the provision of a consumer service by a licensee regulated by a licensing board from including a provision limiting the consumers ability to file a complaint with that board or to participate in the boards investigation into the licensee. The bill would specify that a waiver of these provisions is contrary to public policy and is void and unenforceable. The bill would provide that a violation of these provisions by a licensee constitutes unprofessional conduct subject to discipline by the licensees regulatory board.(15) Existing law, the California Private Postsecondary Education Act of 2009, until January 1, 2021, provides, among other things, for student protections and regulatory oversight of private postsecondary institutions in the state, enforced by the Bureau for Private Postsecondary Education within the Department of Consumer Affairs.This bill would extend the operation of the California Private Postsecondary Education Act of 2009 to January 1, 2022.(16) This bill would make other conforming, technical, and nonsubstantive changes.(17) This bill would incorporate additional changes to Section 205 of the Business and Professions Code proposed by AB 896 to be operative only if this bill and AB 896 are enacted and this bill is enacted last.(18) This bill would incorporate additional changes to Section 2113 of the Business and Professions Code proposed by AB 2273 to be operative only if this bill and AB 2273 are enacted and this bill is enacted last.(19) This bill would incorporate additional changes to Section 7159 of the Business and Professions Code proposed by AB 2471 to be operative only if this bill and AB 2471 are enacted and this bill is enacted last.(20) The California Constitution requires the state to reimburse local agencies and school districts for certain costs mandated by the state. Statutory provisions establish procedures for making that reimbursement.This bill would provide that no reimbursement is required by this act for a specified reason.Digest Key Vote: MAJORITY Appropriation: YES Fiscal Committee: YES Local Program: YES Bill TextThe people of the State of California do enact as follows:SECTION 1. Section 27 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:27. (a) Each entity specified in subdivisions (c), (d), and (e) shall provide on the internet information regarding the status of every license issued by that entity in accordance with the California Public Records Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code) and the Information Practices Act of 1977 (Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 1798) of Title 1.8 of Part 4 of Division 3 of the Civil Code). The public information to be provided on the internet shall include information on suspensions and revocations of licenses issued by the entity and other related enforcement action, including accusations filed pursuant to the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code) taken by the entity relative to persons, businesses, or facilities subject to licensure or regulation by the entity. The information may not include personal information, including home telephone number, date of birth, or social security number. Each entity shall disclose a licensees address of record. However, each entity shall allow a licensee to provide a post office box number or other alternate address, instead of the licensees home address, as the address of record. This section shall not preclude an entity from also requiring a licensee, who has provided a post office box number or other alternative mailing address as the licensees address of record, to provide a physical business address or residence address only for the entitys internal administrative use and not for disclosure as the licensees address of record or disclosure on the internet.(b) In providing information on the internet, each entity specified in subdivisions (c) and (d) shall comply with the Department of Consumer Affairs guidelines for access to public records.(c) Each of the following entities within the Department of Consumer Affairs shall comply with the requirements of this section:(1) The Board for Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists shall disclose information on its registrants and licensees.(2) The Bureau of Automotive Repair shall disclose information on its licensees, including auto repair dealers, smog stations, lamp and brake stations, smog check technicians, and smog inspection certification stations.(3) The Bureau of Household Goods and Services shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants, including major appliance repair dealers, combination dealers (electronic and appliance), electronic repair dealers, service contract sellers, service contract administrators, and household movers.(4) The Cemetery and Funeral Bureau shall disclose information on its licensees, including cemetery brokers, cemetery salespersons, cemetery managers, crematory managers, cemetery authorities, crematories, cremated remains disposers, embalmers, funeral establishments, and funeral directors.(5) The Professional Fiduciaries Bureau shall disclose information on its licensees.(6) The Contractors State License Board shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants in accordance with Chapter 9 (commencing with Section 7000) of Division 3. In addition to information related to licenses as specified in subdivision (a), the board shall also disclose information provided to the board by the Labor Commissioner pursuant to Section 98.9 of the Labor Code.(7) The Bureau for Private Postsecondary Education shall disclose information on private postsecondary institutions under its jurisdiction, including disclosure of notices to comply issued pursuant to Section 94935 of the Education Code.(8) The California Board of Accountancy shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants.(9) The California Architects Board shall disclose information on its licensees, including architects and landscape architects.(10) The State Athletic Commission shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants.(11) The State Board of Barbering and Cosmetology shall disclose information on its licensees.(12) The Acupuncture Board shall disclose information on its licensees.(13) The Board of Behavioral Sciences shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants.(14) The Dental Board of California shall disclose information on its licensees.(15) The State Board of Optometry shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants.(16) The Board of Psychology shall disclose information on its licensees, including psychologists, psychological assistants, and registered psychologists.(17) The Veterinary Medical Board shall disclose information on its licensees, registrants, and permitholders.(d) The State Board of Chiropractic Examiners shall disclose information on its licensees.(e) The Structural Pest Control Board shall disclose information on its licensees, including applicators, field representatives, and operators in the areas of fumigation, general pest and wood destroying pests and organisms, and wood roof cleaning and treatment.(f) The Bureau of Cannabis Control shall disclose information on its licensees.(g) Internet for the purposes of this section has the meaning set forth in paragraph (6) of subdivision (f) of Section 17538.SEC. 2. Section 101 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:101. The department is comprised of the following:(a) The Dental Board of California.(b) The Medical Board of California.(c) The State Board of Optometry.(d) The California State Board of Pharmacy.(e) The Veterinary Medical Board.(f) The California Board of Accountancy.(g) The California Architects Board.(h) The State Board of Barbering and Cosmetology.(i) The Board for Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists.(j) The Contractors State License Board.(k) The Bureau for Private Postsecondary Education.(l) The Bureau of Household Goods and Services.(m) The Board of Registered Nursing.(n) The Board of Behavioral Sciences.(o) The State Athletic Commission.(p) The Cemetery and Funeral Bureau.(q) The Bureau of Security and Investigative Services.(r) The Court Reporters Board of California.(s) The Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians.(t) The Landscape Architects Technical Committee.(u) The Division of Investigation.(v) The Bureau of Automotive Repair.(w) The Respiratory Care Board of California.(x) The Acupuncture Board.(y) The Board of Psychology.(z) The Podiatric Medical Board of California.(aa) The Physical Therapy Board of California.(ab) The Arbitration Review Program.(ac) The Physician Assistant Board.(ad) The Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board.(ae) The California Board of Occupational Therapy.(af) The Osteopathic Medical Board of California.(ag) The Naturopathic Medicine Committee.(ah) The Dental Hygiene Board of California.(ai) The Professional Fiduciaries Bureau.(aj) The State Board of Chiropractic Examiners.(ak) The Bureau of Real Estate Appraisers.(al) The Structural Pest Control Board.(am) The Bureau of Cannabis Control.(an) Any other boards, offices, or officers subject to its jurisdiction by law.(ao) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2018.SEC. 3. Section 125.9 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:125.9. (a) Except with respect to persons regulated under Chapter 11 (commencing with Section 7500), any board, bureau, or commission within the department, the State Board of Chiropractic Examiners, and the Osteopathic Medical Board of California, may establish, by regulation, a system for the issuance to a licensee of a citation which may contain an order of abatement or an order to pay an administrative fine assessed by the board, bureau, or commission where the licensee is in violation of the applicable licensing act or any regulation adopted pursuant thereto.(b) The system shall contain the following provisions:(1) Citations shall be in writing and shall describe with particularity the nature of the violation, including specific reference to the provision of law determined to have been violated.(2) Whenever appropriate, the citation shall contain an order of abatement fixing a reasonable time for abatement of the violation.(3) In no event shall the administrative fine assessed by the board, bureau, or commission exceed five thousand dollars ($5,000) for each inspection or each investigation made with respect to the violation, or five thousand dollars ($5,000) for each violation or count if the violation involves fraudulent billing submitted to an insurance company, the Medi-Cal program, or Medicare. In assessing a fine, the board, bureau, or commission shall give due consideration to the appropriateness of the amount of the fine with respect to factors such as the gravity of the violation, the good faith of the licensee, and the history of previous violations.(4) A citation or fine assessment issued pursuant to a citation shall inform the licensee that if the licensee desires a hearing to contest the finding of a violation, that hearing shall be requested by written notice to the board, bureau, or commission within 30 days of the date of issuance of the citation or assessment. If a hearing is not requested pursuant to this section, payment of any fine shall not constitute an admission of the violation charged. Hearings shall be held pursuant to Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.(5) Failure of a licensee to pay a fine or comply with an order of abatement, or both, within 30 days of the date of assessment or order, unless the citation is being appealed, may result in disciplinary action being taken by the board, bureau, or commission. Where a citation is not contested and a fine is not paid, the full amount of the assessed fine shall be added to the fee for renewal of the license. A license shall not be renewed without payment of the renewal fee and fine.(c) The system may contain the following provisions:(1) A citation may be issued without the assessment of an administrative fine.(2) Assessment of administrative fines may be limited to only particular violations of the applicable licensing act.(d) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, if a fine is paid to satisfy an assessment based on the finding of a violation, payment of the fine and compliance with the order of abatement, if applicable, shall be represented as satisfactory resolution of the matter for purposes of public disclosure.(e) Administrative fines collected pursuant to this section shall be deposited in the special fund of the particular board, bureau, or commission.SEC. 4. Section 130 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:130. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, the term of office of any member of an agency designated in subdivision (b) shall be for a term of four years expiring on June 1.(b) Subdivision (a) applies to the following boards or committees:(1) The Medical Board of California.(2) The Podiatric Medical Board of California.(3) The Physical Therapy Board of California.(4) The Board of Registered Nursing, except as provided in subdivision (c) of Section 2703.(5) The Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians.(6) The State Board of Optometry.(7) The California State Board of Pharmacy.(8) The Veterinary Medical Board.(9) The California Architects Board.(10) The Landscape Architect Technical Committee.(11) The Board for Professional Engineers and Land Surveyors.(12) The Contractors State License Board.(13) The Board of Behavioral Sciences.(14) The Court Reporters Board of California.(15) The State Athletic Commission.(16) The Osteopathic Medical Board of California.(17) The Respiratory Care Board of California.(18) The Acupuncture Board.(19) The Board of Psychology.(20) The Structural Pest Control Board.SEC. 5. Section 144 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:144. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, an agency designated in subdivision (b) shall require an applicant to furnish to the agency a full set of fingerprints for purposes of conducting criminal history record checks. Any agency designated in subdivision (b) may obtain and receive, at its discretion, criminal history information from the Department of Justice and the United States Federal Bureau of Investigation.(b) Subdivision (a) applies to the following:(1) California Board of Accountancy.(2) State Athletic Commission.(3) Board of Behavioral Sciences.(4) Court Reporters Board of California.(5) Dental Board of California.(6) California State Board of Pharmacy.(7) Board of Registered Nursing.(8) Veterinary Medical Board.(9) Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians.(10) Respiratory Care Board of California.(11) Physical Therapy Board of California.(12) Physician Assistant Committee.(13) Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board.(14) Medical Board of California.(15) State Board of Optometry.(16) Acupuncture Board.(17) Cemetery and Funeral Bureau.(18) Bureau of Security and Investigative Services.(19) Division of Investigation.(20) Board of Psychology.(21) California Board of Occupational Therapy.(22) Structural Pest Control Board.(23) Contractors State License Board.(24) Naturopathic Medicine Committee.(25) Professional Fiduciaries Bureau.(26) Board for Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists.(27) Bureau of Cannabis Control.(28) Podiatric Medical Board of California.(29) Osteopathic Medical Board of California.(30) California Architects Board, beginning January 1, 2021.(31) Landscape Architects Technical Committee, beginning January 1, 2022.(c) For purposes of paragraph (26) of subdivision (b), the term applicant shall be limited to an initial applicant who has never been registered or licensed by the board or to an applicant for a new licensure or registration category.SEC. 6. Section 200.1 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:200.1. (a) Any accruals that occur on or after September 11, 1993, to any funds or accounts within the Professions and Vocations Fund that realize increased revenues to that fund or account as a result of legislation enacted on or after September 11, 1993, and that have not been transferred pursuant to Sections 13.50, 13.60, and 13.70 of the Budget Act of 1993 on the effective date of the act that enacted this section, shall be exempt from the transfers contained in Sections 13.50, 13.60, and 13.70 of the Budget Act of 1993. These funds shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:(1) Athletic Commission Fund.(2) Bureau of Home Furnishings and Thermal Insulation Fund.(3) Contractors License Fund.(4) Private Investigator Fund.(5) Respiratory Care Fund.(6) Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians Fund.(b) Subdivision (a) shall not apply to the Contingent Fund of the Medical Board of California.SEC. 7. Section 205 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 2 of Chapter 865 of the Statutes of 2019, is amended to read:205. (a) There is in the State Treasury the Professions and Vocations Fund. The fund shall consist of the following special funds:(1) Accountancy Fund.(2) California Architects Board Fund.(3) Athletic Commission Fund.(4) Barbering and Cosmetology Contingent Fund.(5) Cemetery and Funeral Fund.(6) Contractors License Fund.(7) State Dentistry Fund.(8) Home Furnishings and Thermal Insulation Fund.(9) California Architects Board-Landscape Architects Fund.(10) Contingent Fund of the Medical Board of California.(11) Optometry Fund.(12) Pharmacy Board Contingent Fund.(13) Physical Therapy Fund.(14) Private Investigator Fund.(15) Private Security Services Fund.(16) Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists Fund.(17) Consumer Affairs Fund.(18) Behavioral Sciences Fund.(19) Licensed Midwifery Fund.(20) Court Reporters Fund.(21) Veterinary Medical Board Contingent Fund.(22) Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians Fund.(23) Electronic and Appliance Repair Fund.(24) Dispensing Opticians Fund.(25) Acupuncture Fund.(26) Physician Assistant Fund.(27) Board of Podiatric Medicine Fund.(28) Psychology Fund.(29) Respiratory Care Fund.(30) Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Fund.(31) Board of Registered Nursing Fund.(32) Animal Health Technician Examining Committee Fund.(33) State Dental Hygiene Fund.(34) State Dental Assistant Fund.(35) Structural Pest Control Fund.(36) Structural Pest Control Eradication and Enforcement Fund.(37) Structural Pest Control Research Fund.(38) Household Movers Fund.(b) For accounting and recordkeeping purposes, the Professions and Vocations Fund shall be deemed to be a single special fund, and each of the several special funds therein shall constitute and be deemed to be a separate account in the Professions and Vocations Fund. Each account or fund shall be available for expenditure only for the purposes as are now or may hereafter be provided by law.(c) This section shall be repealed on July 1, 2022.SEC. 8. Section 205 of the Business and Professions Code, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 865 of the Statutes of 2019, is amended to read:205. (a) There is in the State Treasury the Professions and Vocations Fund. The fund shall consist of the following special funds:(1) Accountancy Fund.(2) California Architects Board Fund.(3) Athletic Commission Fund.(4) Barbering and Cosmetology Contingent Fund.(5) Cemetery and Funeral Fund.(6) Contractors License Fund.(7) State Dentistry Fund.(8) Home Furnishings and Thermal Insulation Fund.(9) California Architects Board-Landscape Architects Fund.(10) Contingent Fund of the Medical Board of California.(11) Optometry Fund.(12) Pharmacy Board Contingent Fund.(13) Physical Therapy Fund.(14) Private Investigator Fund.(15) Private Security Services Fund.(16) Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists Fund.(17) Consumer Affairs Fund.(18) Behavioral Sciences Fund.(19) Licensed Midwifery Fund.(20) Court Reporters Fund.(21) Veterinary Medical Board Contingent Fund.(22) Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians Fund.(23) Electronic and Appliance Repair Fund.(24) Dispensing Opticians Fund.(25) Acupuncture Fund.(26) Physician Assistant Fund.(27) Board of Podiatric Medicine Fund.(28) Psychology Fund.(29) Respiratory Care Fund.(30) Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Fund.(31) Board of Registered Nursing Fund.(32) Animal Health Technician Examining Committee Fund.(33) State Dental Hygiene Fund.(34) Structural Pest Control Fund.(35) Structural Pest Control Eradication and Enforcement Fund.(36) Structural Pest Control Research Fund.(37) Household Movers Fund.(b) For accounting and recordkeeping purposes, the Professions and Vocations Fund shall be deemed to be a single special fund, and each of the several special funds therein shall constitute and be deemed to be a separate account in the Professions and Vocations Fund. Each account or fund shall be available for expenditure only for the purposes as are now or may hereafter be provided by law.(c) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2022.SEC. 8.5. Section 205 of the Business and Professions Code, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 865 of the Statutes of 2019, is amended to read:205. (a) There is in the State Treasury the Professions and Vocations Fund. The fund shall consist of the following special funds:(1) Accountancy Fund.(2) California Architects Board Fund.(3) Athletic Commission Fund.(4) Barbering and Cosmetology Contingent Fund.(5) Cemetery and Funeral Fund.(6) Contractors License Fund.(7) State Dentistry Fund.(8) Home Furnishings and Thermal Insulation Fund.(9) California Architects Board-Landscape Architects Fund.(10) Contingent Fund of the Medical Board of California.(11) Optometry Fund.(12) Pharmacy Board Contingent Fund.(13) Physical Therapy Fund.(14) Private Investigator Fund.(15) Private Security Services Fund.(16) Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists Fund.(17) Consumer Affairs Fund.(18) Behavioral Sciences Fund.(19) Licensed Midwifery Fund.(20) Court Reporters Fund.(21) Veterinary Medical Board Contingent Fund.(22) Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians Fund.(23) Electronic and Appliance Repair Fund.(24) Acupuncture Fund.(25) Physician Assistant Fund.(26) Board of Podiatric Medicine Fund.(27) Psychology Fund.(28) Respiratory Care Fund.(29) Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Fund.(30) Board of Registered Nursing Fund.(31) Animal Health Technician Examining Committee Fund.(32) State Dental Hygiene Fund.(33) Structural Pest Control Fund.(34) Structural Pest Control Eradication and Enforcement Fund.(35) Structural Pest Control Research Fund.(36) Household Movers Fund.(b) For accounting and recordkeeping purposes, the Professions and Vocations Fund shall be deemed to be a single special fund, and each of the several special funds therein shall constitute and be deemed to be a separate account in the Professions and Vocations Fund. Each account or fund shall be available for expenditure only for the purposes as are now or may hereafter be provided by law.(c) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2022.SEC. 9. Section 494.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:494.5. (a) (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (2), (3), and (4), a state governmental licensing entity shall refuse to issue, reactivate, reinstate, or renew a license and shall suspend a license if a licensees name is included on a certified list.(2) The Department of Motor Vehicles shall suspend a license if a licensees name is included on a certified list. Any reference in this section to the issuance, reactivation, reinstatement, renewal, or denial of a license shall not apply to the Department of Motor Vehicles.(3) The State Bar of California may recommend to refuse to issue, reactivate, reinstate, or renew a license and may recommend to suspend a license if a licensees name is included on a certified list. The word may shall be substituted for the word shall relating to the issuance of a temporary license, refusal to issue, reactivate, reinstate, renew, or suspend a license in this section for licenses under the jurisdiction of the California Supreme Court.(4) The Department of Alcoholic Beverage Control may refuse to issue, reactivate, reinstate, or renew a license, and may suspend a license, if a licensees name is included on a certified list.(b) For purposes of this section:(1) Certified list means either the list provided by the State Board of Equalization or the list provided by the Franchise Tax Board of persons whose names appear on the lists of the 500 largest tax delinquencies pursuant to Section 7063 or 19195 of the Revenue and Taxation Code, as applicable.(2) License includes a certificate, registration, or any other authorization to engage in a profession or occupation issued by a state governmental licensing entity. License includes a drivers license issued pursuant to Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 12500) of Division 6 of the Vehicle Code. License excludes a vehicle registration issued pursuant to Division 3 (commencing with Section 4000) of the Vehicle Code.(3) Licensee means an individual authorized by a license to drive a motor vehicle or authorized by a license, certificate, registration, or other authorization to engage in a profession or occupation issued by a state governmental licensing entity.(4) State governmental licensing entity means any entity listed in Section 101, 1000, or 19420, the office of the Attorney General, the Department of Insurance, the Department of Motor Vehicles, the State Bar of California, the Department of Real Estate, and any other state agency, board, or commission that issues a license, certificate, or registration authorizing an individual to engage in a profession or occupation, including any certificate, business or occupational license, or permit or license issued by the Department of Motor Vehicles or the Department of the California Highway Patrol. State governmental licensing entity shall not include the Contractors State License Board.(c) The State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board shall each submit its respective certified list to every state governmental licensing entity. The certified lists shall include the name, social security number or taxpayer identification number, and the last known address of the persons identified on the certified lists.(d) Notwithstanding any other law, each state governmental licensing entity shall collect the social security number or the federal taxpayer identification number from all applicants for the purposes of matching the names of the certified lists provided by the State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board to applicants and licensees.(e) (1) Each state governmental licensing entity shall determine whether an applicant or licensee is on the most recent certified list provided by the State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board.(2) If an applicant or licensee is on either of the certified lists, the state governmental licensing entity shall immediately provide a preliminary notice to the applicant or licensee of the entitys intent to suspend or withhold issuance or renewal of the license. The preliminary notice shall be delivered personally or by mail to the applicants or licensees last known mailing address on file with the state governmental licensing entity within 30 days of receipt of the certified list. Service by mail shall be completed in accordance with Section 1013 of the Code of Civil Procedure.(A) The state governmental licensing entity shall issue a temporary license valid for a period of 90 days to any applicant whose name is on a certified list if the applicant is otherwise eligible for a license.(B) The 90-day time period for a temporary license shall not be extended. Only one temporary license shall be issued during a regular license term and the term of the temporary license shall coincide with the first 90 days of the regular license term. A license for the full term or the remainder of the license term may be issued or renewed only upon compliance with this section.(C) In the event that a license is suspended or an application for a license or the renewal of a license is denied pursuant to this section, any funds paid by the applicant or licensee shall not be refunded by the state governmental licensing entity.(f) (1) A state governmental licensing entity shall refuse to issue or shall suspend a license pursuant to this section no sooner than 90 days and no later than 120 days of the mailing of the preliminary notice described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (e), unless the state governmental licensing entity has received a release pursuant to subdivision (h). The procedures in the administrative adjudication provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 11400) and Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code) shall not apply to the denial or suspension of, or refusal to renew, a license or the issuance of a temporary license pursuant to this section.(2) Notwithstanding any other law, if a board, bureau, or commission listed in Section 101, other than the Contractors State License Board, fails to take action in accordance with this section, the Department of Consumer Affairs shall issue a temporary license or suspend or refuse to issue, reactivate, reinstate, or renew a license, as appropriate.(g) Notices shall be developed by each state governmental licensing entity. For an applicant or licensee on the State Board of Equalizations certified list, the notice shall include the address and telephone number of the State Board of Equalization, and shall emphasize the necessity of obtaining a release from the State Board of Equalization as a condition for the issuance, renewal, or continued valid status of a license or licenses. For an applicant or licensee on the Franchise Tax Boards certified list, the notice shall include the address and telephone number of the Franchise Tax Board, and shall emphasize the necessity of obtaining a release from the Franchise Tax Board as a condition for the issuance, renewal, or continued valid status of a license or licenses.(1) The notice shall inform the applicant that the state governmental licensing entity shall issue a temporary license, as provided in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (e), for 90 calendar days if the applicant is otherwise eligible and that upon expiration of that time period, the license will be denied unless the state governmental licensing entity has received a release from the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable.(2) The notice shall inform the licensee that any license suspended under this section will remain suspended until the state governmental licensing entity receives a release along with applications and fees, if applicable, to reinstate the license.(3) The notice shall also inform the applicant or licensee that if an application is denied or a license is suspended pursuant to this section, any moneys paid by the applicant or licensee shall not be refunded by the state governmental licensing entity. The state governmental licensing entity shall also develop a form that the applicant or licensee shall use to request a release by the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board. A copy of this form shall be included with every notice sent pursuant to this subdivision.(h) If the applicant or licensee wishes to challenge the submission of their name on a certified list, the applicant or licensee shall make a timely written request for release to the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable. The State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board shall immediately send a release to the appropriate state governmental licensing entity and the applicant or licensee, if any of the following conditions are met:(1) The applicant or licensee has complied with the tax obligation, either by payment of the unpaid taxes or entry into an installment payment agreement, as described in Section 6832 or 19008 of the Revenue and Taxation Code, to satisfy the unpaid taxes.(2) The applicant or licensee has submitted a request for release not later than 45 days after the applicants or licensees receipt of a preliminary notice described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (e), but the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, will be unable to complete the release review and send notice of its findings to the applicant or licensee and state governmental licensing entity within 45 days after the State Board of Equalizations or the Franchise Tax Boards receipt of the applicants or licensees request for release. Whenever a release is granted under this paragraph, and, notwithstanding that release, the applicable license or licenses have been suspended erroneously, the state governmental licensing entity shall reinstate the applicable licenses with retroactive effect back to the date of the erroneous suspension and that suspension shall not be reflected on any license record.(3) The applicant or licensee is unable to pay the outstanding tax obligation due to a current financial hardship. Financial hardship means financial hardship as determined by the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, where the applicant or licensee is unable to pay any part of the outstanding liability and the applicant or licensee is unable to qualify for an installment payment arrangement as provided for by Section 6832 or Section 19008 of the Revenue and Taxation Code. In order to establish the existence of a financial hardship, the applicant or licensee shall submit any information, including information related to reasonable business and personal expenses, requested by the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, for purposes of making that determination.(i) An applicant or licensee is required to act with diligence in responding to notices from the state governmental licensing entity and the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board with the recognition that the temporary license will lapse or the license suspension will go into effect after 90 days and that the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board must have time to act within that period. An applicants or licensees delay in acting, without good cause, which directly results in the inability of the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, to complete a review of the applicants or licensees request for release shall not constitute the diligence required under this section which would justify the issuance of a release. An applicant or licensee shall have the burden of establishing that they diligently responded to notices from the state governmental licensing entity or the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board and that any delay was not without good cause.(j) The State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board shall create release forms for use pursuant to this section. When the applicant or licensee has complied with the tax obligation by payment of the unpaid taxes, or entry into an installment payment agreement, or establishing the existence of a current financial hardship as defined in paragraph (3) of subdivision (h), the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, shall mail a release form to the applicant or licensee and provide a release to the appropriate state governmental licensing entity. Any state governmental licensing entity that has received a release from the State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board pursuant to this subdivision shall process the release within five business days of its receipt. If the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board determines subsequent to the issuance of a release that the licensee has not complied with their installment payment agreement, the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, shall notify the state governmental licensing entity and the licensee in a format prescribed by the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, that the licensee is not in compliance and the release shall be rescinded. The State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board may, when it is economically feasible for the state governmental licensing entity to develop an automated process for complying with this subdivision, notify the state governmental licensing entity in a manner prescribed by the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, that the licensee has not complied with the installment payment agreement. Upon receipt of this notice, the state governmental licensing entity shall immediately notify the licensee on a form prescribed by the state governmental licensing entity that the licensees license will be suspended on a specific date, and this date shall be no longer than 30 days from the date the form is mailed. The licensee shall be further notified that the license will remain suspended until a new release is issued in accordance with this subdivision.(k) The State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board may enter into interagency agreements with the state governmental licensing entities necessary to implement this section.(l) Notwithstanding any other law, a state governmental licensing entity, with the approval of the appropriate department director or governing body, may impose a fee on a licensee whose license has been suspended pursuant to this section. The fee shall not exceed the amount necessary for the state governmental licensing entity to cover its costs in carrying out the provisions of this section. Fees imposed pursuant to this section shall be deposited in the fund in which other fees imposed by the state governmental licensing entity are deposited and shall be available to that entity upon appropriation in the annual Budget Act.(m) The process described in subdivision (h) shall constitute the sole administrative remedy for contesting the issuance of a temporary license or the denial or suspension of a license under this section.(n) Any state governmental licensing entity receiving an inquiry as to the licensed status of an applicant or licensee who has had a license denied or suspended under this section or who has been granted a temporary license under this section shall respond that the license was denied or suspended or the temporary license was issued only because the licensee appeared on a list of the 500 largest tax delinquencies pursuant to Section 7063 or 19195 of the Revenue and Taxation Code. Information collected pursuant to this section by any state agency, board, or department shall be subject to the Information Practices Act of 1977 (Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 1798) of Title 1.8 of Part 4 of Division 3 of the Civil Code). Any state governmental licensing entity that discloses on its internet website or other publication that the licensee has had a license denied or suspended under this section or has been granted a temporary license under this section shall prominently disclose, in bold and adjacent to the information regarding the status of the license, that the only reason the license was denied, suspended, or temporarily issued is because the licensee failed to pay taxes.(o) Any rules and regulations issued pursuant to this section by any state agency, board, or department may be adopted as emergency regulations in accordance with the rulemaking provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code). The adoption of these regulations shall be deemed an emergency and necessary for the immediate preservation of the public peace, health, and safety, or general welfare. The regulations shall become effective immediately upon filing with the Secretary of State.(p) The State Board of Equalization, the Franchise Tax Board, and state governmental licensing entities, as appropriate, shall adopt regulations as necessary to implement this section.(q) (1) Neither the state governmental licensing entity, nor any officer, employee, or agent, or former officer, employee, or agent of a state governmental licensing entity, may disclose or use any information obtained from the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, pursuant to this section, except to inform the public of the denial, refusal to renew, or suspension of a license or the issuance of a temporary license pursuant to this section. The release or other use of information received by a state governmental licensing entity pursuant to this section, except as authorized by this section, is punishable as a misdemeanor. This subdivision may not be interpreted to prevent the State Bar of California from filing a request with the Supreme Court of California to suspend a member of the bar pursuant to this section.(2) A suspension of, or refusal to renew, a license or issuance of a temporary license pursuant to this section does not constitute denial or discipline of a licensee for purposes of any reporting requirements to the National Practitioner Data Bank and shall not be reported to the National Practitioner Data Bank or the Healthcare Integrity and Protection Data Bank.(3) Upon release from the certified list, the suspension or revocation of the applicants or licensees license shall be purged from the state governmental licensing entitys internet website or other publication within three business days. This paragraph shall not apply to the State Bar of California.(r) If any provision of this section or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, that invalidity shall not affect other provisions or applications of this section that can be given effect without the invalid provision or application, and to this end the provisions of this section are severable.(s) All rights to review afforded by this section to an applicant shall also be afforded to a licensee.(t) Unless otherwise provided in this section, the policies, practices, and procedures of a state governmental licensing entity with respect to license suspensions under this section shall be the same as those applicable with respect to suspensions pursuant to Section 17520 of the Family Code.(u) No provision of this section shall be interpreted to allow a court to review and prevent the collection of taxes prior to the payment of those taxes in violation of the California Constitution.(v) This section shall apply to any licensee whose name appears on a list of the 500 largest tax delinquencies pursuant to Section 7063 or 19195 of the Revenue and Taxation Code on or after July 1, 2012.SEC. 10. Section 1000 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:1000. (a) The law governing practitioners of chiropractic is found in an initiative act entitled An act prescribing the terms upon which licenses may be issued to practitioners of chiropractic, creating the State Board of Chiropractic Examiners and declaring its powers and duties, prescribing penalties for violation hereof, and repealing all acts and parts of acts inconsistent herewith, adopted by the electors November 7, 1922.(b) The State Board of Chiropractic Examiners is within the Department of Consumer Affairs.(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the powers and duties of the State Board of Chiropractic Examiners, as set forth in this article and under the act creating the board, shall be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. The review shall be performed as if this chapter were scheduled to be repealed as of January 1, 2023.SEC. 11. Section 1913 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:1913. Unless otherwise specified in this chapter, a registered dental hygienist may perform any procedure or provide any service within the scope of their practice in any setting under the appropriate level of supervision required by this article, if the registered dental hygienist has completed the appropriate education and training required to perform the procedure or provide the service.SEC. 12. Section 1917 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:1917. The dental hygiene board shall grant initial licensure as a registered dental hygienist to a person who satisfies all of the following requirements:(a) Completion of an educational program for registered dental hygienists, approved by the dental hygiene board, accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation, and conducted by a degree-granting, postsecondary institution.(b) Within the preceding three years, satisfactory completion of the dental hygiene examination given by the Western Regional Examining Board or any other clinical or dental hygiene examination approved by the dental hygiene board.(c) Satisfactory completion of the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination.(d) Satisfactory completion of the examination in California law and ethics as prescribed by the dental hygiene board.(e) Submission of a completed application form and all fees required by the dental hygiene board.(f) Satisfactory completion of dental hygiene board-approved instruction in gingival soft-tissue curettage, nitrous oxide-oxygen analgesia, and local anesthesia.SEC. 13. Section 1917.1 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:1917.1. (a) The dental hygiene board may grant a license as a registered dental hygienist to an applicant who has not taken a clinical examination before the dental hygiene board, if the applicant submits all of the following to the dental hygiene board:(1) A completed application form and all fees required by the dental hygiene board.(2) Proof of a current license as a registered dental hygienist issued by another state that is not revoked, suspended, or otherwise restricted.(3) Proof that the applicant has been in clinical practice as a registered dental hygienist or has been a full-time faculty member in an accredited dental hygiene education program for a minimum of 750 hours per year for at least five years immediately preceding the date of application under this section. The clinical practice requirement shall be deemed met if the applicant provides proof of at least three years of clinical practice and commits to completing the remaining two years of clinical practice by filing with the dental hygiene board a copy of a pending contract to practice dental hygiene in any of the following facilities:(A) A primary care clinic licensed under subdivision (a) of Section 1204 of the Health and Safety Code.(B) A primary care clinic exempt from licensure pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 1206 of the Health and Safety Code.(C) A clinic owned or operated by a public hospital or health system.(D) A clinic owned and operated by a hospital that maintains the primary contract with a county government to fill the countys role under Section 17000 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(4) Satisfactory performance on a California law and ethics examination and any examination that may be required by the dental hygiene board.(5) Proof that the applicant has not been subject to disciplinary action by any state in which the applicant is or has been previously issued any professional or vocational license. If the applicant has been subject to disciplinary action, the dental hygiene board shall review that action to determine if it warrants refusal to issue a license to the applicant.(6) Proof of graduation from a school of dental hygiene accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation.(7) Proof of satisfactory completion of the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination and of a state clinical examination, regional clinical licensure examination, or any other clinical dental hygiene examination approved by the dental hygiene board.(8) Proof that the applicant has not failed the state clinical examination, the examination given by the Western Regional Examining Board, or any other clinical dental hygiene examination approved by the dental hygiene board for licensure to practice dental hygiene under this chapter more than once or once within five years prior to the date of application for a license under this section.(9) Documentation of completion of a minimum of 25 units of continuing education earned in the two years preceding application, including completion of any continuing education requirements imposed by the dental hygiene board on registered dental hygienists licensed in this state at the time of application.(10) Any other information as specified by the dental hygiene board to the extent that it is required of applicants for licensure by examination under this article.(b) The dental hygiene board may periodically request verification of compliance with the requirements of paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) and may revoke the license upon a finding that the employment requirement or any other requirement of paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) has not been met.(c) The dental hygiene board shall provide in the application packet to each out-of-state dental hygienist pursuant to this section the following information:(1) The location of dental manpower shortage areas in the state.(2) Any nonprofit clinics, public hospitals, and accredited dental hygiene education programs seeking to contract with licensees for dental hygiene service delivery or training purposes.SEC. 14. Section 1922 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:1922. The dental hygiene board shall license as a registered dental hygienist in alternative practice a person who demonstrates satisfactory performance on an examination in California law and ethics required by the dental hygiene board and who completes an application form and pays all application fees required by the dental hygiene board and meets either of the following requirements:(a) Holds a current California license as a registered dental hygienist and meets the following requirements:(1) Has been engaged in the practice of dental hygiene, as defined in Section 1908, as a registered dental hygienist in any setting, including, but not limited to, educational settings and public health settings, for a minimum of 2,000 hours during the immediately preceding 36 months.(2) Has successfully completed a bachelors degree or its equivalent, recognized as a minimum of 120 semester credit hours or 180 quarter credit hours in postsecondary education, from a college or institution of higher education that is accredited by a national or regional accrediting agency recognized by the United States Department of Education, and a minimum of 150 hours of additional educational requirements, as prescribed by the dental hygiene board by regulation, that are consistent with good dental and dental hygiene practice, including, but not necessarily limited to, dental hygiene technique and theory including gerontology and medical emergencies, and business administration and practice management.(b) Has received a letter of acceptance into the employment utilization phase of the Health Workforce Pilot Project No. 155 established by the Office of Statewide Health Planning and Development pursuant to Article 1 (commencing with Section 128125) of Chapter 3 of Part 3 of Division 107 of the Health and Safety Code.SEC. 15. Section 2065 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2065. (a) Unless otherwise provided by law, no postgraduate trainee, intern, resident, postdoctoral fellow, or instructor may engage in the practice of medicine, or receive compensation therefor, or offer to engage in the practice of medicine unless they hold a valid, unrevoked, and unsuspended physicians and surgeons certificate issued by the board. However, a graduate of an approved medical school may engage in the practice of medicine whenever and wherever required as a part of a postgraduate training program under the following conditions:(1) The medical school graduate has taken and passed the board-approved medical licensing examinations required to qualify the applicant to participate in an approved postgraduate training program.(2) If the medical school graduate graduated from a foreign medical school approved by the board pursuant to Section 2084, the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates (ECFMG) has submitted an official ECFMG Certification Status Report directly to the board confirming the graduate is ECFMG certified.(3) The medical school graduate is enrolled in a postgraduate training program approved by the board.(4) The board-approved postgraduate training program has submitted the required board-approved form to the board documenting the medical school graduate is enrolled in an approved postgraduate training program.(5) The medical school graduate obtains a physicians and surgeons postgraduate training license in accordance with Section 2064.5.(b) A medical school graduate enrolled in an approved first-year postgraduate training program in accordance with this section may engage in the practice of medicine whenever and wherever required as a part of the training program, and may receive compensation for that practice.(c) A graduate who has completed the first year of postgraduate training may, in an approved residency or fellowship, engage in the practice of medicine whenever and wherever required as part of that residency or fellowship, and may receive compensation for that practice. The resident or fellow shall qualify for, take, and pass the next succeeding written examination for licensure. If the resident or fellow fails to receive a license to practice medicine under this chapter within 27 months from the commencement of the residency or fellowship, except as otherwise allowed under subdivision (g) or (h), or if the board denies their application for licensure, all privileges and exemptions under this section shall automatically cease.(d) All approved postgraduate training the medical school graduate has successfully completed in the United States or Canada shall count toward the 39-month license exemption, except as otherwise allowed under subdivision (h).(e) A medical school graduate from a medical school approved by the board shall have successfully completed a minimum of 36 months of approved postgraduate training, which includes successful progression through 24 months in the same program, to be eligible for a California physicians and surgeons certificate.(f) The program director for an approved postgraduate training program in California shall report to the board, on a form approved by the board, and provide any supporting documents as required by the board, the following actions within 30 days of the action:(1) A postgraduate trainee is notified that they have received partial or no credit for a period of postgraduate training, and their postgraduate training period is extended.(2) A postgraduate trainee takes a leave of absence or any break from their postgraduate training, and they are notified that their postgraduate training period is extended.(3) A postgraduate trainee is terminated from the postgraduate training program.(4) A postgraduate trainee resigns, dies, or otherwise leaves the postgraduate training program.(5) A postgraduate trainee has completed a one-year contract approved by the postgraduate training program.(g) Upon review of supporting documentation, the board, in its discretion, may grant an extension beyond 39 months to a postgraduate training licensee to successfully complete the 36 months of required approved postgraduate training.(h) An applicant for a physicians and surgeons license who has successfully completed 36 months of approved postgraduate training in another state or in Canada and who is accepted into an approved postgraduate training program in California shall obtain their physicians and surgeons license within 90 days after beginning that postgraduate training program or all privileges and exemptions under this section shall automatically cease.(i) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2020.SEC. 16. Section 2113 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2113. (a) Any person who does not immediately qualify for a physicians and surgeons certificate under this chapter and who is offered by the dean of an approved medical school in this state a full-time faculty position may, after application to and approval by the board, be granted a certificate of registration to engage in the practice of medicine only to the extent that the practice is incident to and a necessary part of their duties as approved by the board in connection with the faculty position. A certificate of registration does not authorize a registrant to admit patients to a nursing or a skilled or assisted living facility unless that facility is formally affiliated with the sponsoring medical school. A clinical fellowship shall not be submitted as a faculty service appointment.(b) Application for a certificate of registration shall be made on a form prescribed by the board and shall be accompanied by a registration fee fixed by the board in an amount necessary to recover the actual application processing costs of the program. To qualify for the certificate, an applicant shall submit all of the following:(1) If the applicant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, documentary evidence satisfactory to the board that they have been licensed to practice medicine and surgery for not less than four years in another state or country whose requirements for licensure are satisfactory to the board, or has been engaged in the practice of medicine in the United States for at least four years in approved facilities, or has completed a combination of that licensure and training.(2) If the applicant is a graduate of a medical school in the United States or Canada, documentary evidence that the medical school is approved by the board.(3) Written certification by the head of the department in which the applicant is to be appointed of all of the following:(A) The applicant will be under their direction.(B) The applicant will not be permitted to practice medicine unless incident to and a necessary part of their duties as approved by the board in subdivision (a).(C) The applicant will be accountable to the medical schools department chair or division chief for the specialty in which the applicant will practice.(D) The applicant will be proctored in the same manner as other new faculty members, including, as appropriate, review by the medical staff of the schools medical center.(E) The applicant will not be appointed to a supervisory position at the level of a medical school department chair or division chief.(4) Demonstration by the dean of the medical school that the applicant has the requisite qualifications to assume the position to which they are to be appointed and that shall include a written statement of the recruitment procedures followed by the medical school before offering the faculty position to the applicant.(c) A certificate of registration shall be issued only for a faculty position at one approved medical school, and no person shall be issued more than one certificate of registration for the same period of time.(d) (1) A certificate of registration is valid for one year from its date of issuance and may be renewed twice.A request for renewal shall be submitted on a form prescribed by the board and shall be accompanied by a renewal fee fixed by the board in an amount necessary to recover the actual application processing costs of the program.(2) The dean of the medical school may request renewal of the registration by submitting a plan at the beginning of the third year of the registrants appointment demonstrating the registrants continued progress toward licensure and, if the registrant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, that the registrant has been issued a certificate by the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates. The board may, in its discretion, extend the registration for a two-year period to facilitate the registrants completion of the licensure process.(e) If the registrant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, they shall meet the requirements of Section 2065 or 2135, as appropriate, in order to obtain a physicians and surgeons certificate. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the board may accept clinical practice in an appointment pursuant to this section as qualifying time to meet the postgraduate training requirements in Section 2065, and, in its discretion, waive the examination and the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates certification requirements specified in paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) of Section 2065 in the event the registrant applies for a physicians and surgeons certificate. As a condition to waiving any examination or the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates certification requirement, the board in its discretion, may require an applicant to pass a clinical competency examination approved by the board. The board shall not waive any examination for an applicant who has not completed at least one year in the faculty position.(f) Except to the extent authorized by this section, the registrant shall not engage in the practice of medicine, bill individually for medical services provided by the registrant, or receive compensation therefor, unless they are issued a physicians and surgeons certificate.(g) When providing clinical services, the registrant shall wear a visible name tag containing the title visiting professor or visiting faculty member, as appropriate, and the institution at which the services are provided shall obtain a signed statement from each patient to whom the registrant provides services acknowledging that the patient understands that the services are provided by a person who does not hold a physicians and surgeons certificate but who is qualified to participate in a special program as a visiting professor or faculty member.(h) The board shall notify both the registrant and the dean of the medical school of a complaint made about the registrant. The board may terminate a registration for any act that would be grounds for discipline if done by a licensee. The board shall provide both the registrant and the dean of the medical school with written notice of the termination and the basis for that termination. The registrant may, within 30 days after the date of the notice of termination, file a written appeal to the board. The appeal shall include any documentation the registrant wishes to present to the board.(i) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2020.SEC. 16.5. Section 2113 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2113. (a) Any person who does not immediately qualify for a physicians and surgeons certificate under this chapter and who is offered by the dean of an approved medical school, or dean or chief medical officer of an academic medical center, in this state a full-time faculty position may, after application to and approval by the board, be granted a certificate of registration to engage in the practice of medicine only to the extent that the practice is incident to and a necessary part of that persons duties as approved by the board in connection with the faculty position. A certificate of registration does not authorize a registrant to admit patients to a nursing or a skilled or assisted living facility unless that facility is formally affiliated with the sponsoring medical school. A clinical fellowship shall not be submitted as a faculty service appointment.(b) Application for a certificate of registration shall be made on a form prescribed by the board and shall be accompanied by a registration fee fixed by the board in an amount necessary to recover the actual application processing costs of the program. To qualify for the certificate, an applicant shall submit all of the following:(1) If the applicant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, documentary evidence satisfactory to the board that the applicant has been licensed to practice medicine and surgery for not less than four years in another state or country whose requirements for licensure are satisfactory to the board, or has been engaged in the practice of medicine in the United States for at least four years in approved facilities, or has completed a combination of that licensure and training.(2) If the applicant is a graduate of a medical school in the United States or Canada, documentary evidence that the medical school is approved by the board.(3) Written certification by the head of the department in which the applicant is to be appointed of all of the following:(A) The applicant will be under the head of the departments direction.(B) The applicant will not be permitted to practice medicine unless incident to and a necessary part of the applicants duties as approved by the board in subdivision (a).(C) The applicant will be accountable to the medical schools or academic medical centers chair or division chief for the specialty in which the applicant will practice.(D) The applicant will be proctored in the same manner as other new faculty members, including, as appropriate, review by the medical staff of the sponsoring medical school or academic medical center.(E) The applicant will not be appointed to a supervisory position at the level of a medical school or academic medical centers department chair or division chief.(4) Demonstration by the dean of the medical school, or dean or chief medical officer or an academic medical center, that the applicant has the requisite qualifications to assume the position to which the applicant is to be appointed and that shall include a written statement of the recruitment procedures followed by the medical school or academic medical center before offering the faculty position to the applicant.(c) A certificate of registration shall be issued only for a faculty position at one approved medical school, or academic medical center, and a person shall not be issued more than one certificate of registration for the same period of time.(d) (1) A certificate of registration is valid for one year from its date of issuance and may be renewed twice.A request for renewal shall be submitted on a form prescribed by the board and shall be accompanied by a renewal fee fixed by the board in an amount necessary to recover the actual application processing costs of the program.(2) The dean of the medical school, or the dean or chief medical officer of an academic medical center, may request renewal of the registration by submitting a plan at the beginning of the third year of the registrants appointment demonstrating the registrants continued progress toward licensure and, if the registrant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, that the registrant has been issued a certificate by the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates. The board may, in its discretion, extend the registration for a two-year period to facilitate the registrants completion of the licensure process.(e) If the registrant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, the registrant shall meet the requirements of Section 2065 or 2135, as appropriate, in order to obtain a physicians and surgeons certificate. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the board may accept clinical practice in an appointment pursuant to this section as qualifying time to meet the postgraduate training requirements in Section 2065, and, in its discretion, waive the examination and the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates certification requirements specified in paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) of Section 2065 in the event the registrant applies for a physicians and surgeons certificate. As a condition to waiving any examination or the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates certification requirement, the board in its discretion, may require an applicant to pass a clinical competency examination approved by the board. The board shall not waive any examination for an applicant who has not completed at least one year in the faculty position.(f) Except to the extent authorized by this section, the registrant shall not engage in the practice of medicine, bill individually for medical services provided by the registrant, or receive compensation therefor, unless the registrant is issued a physicians and surgeons certificate.(g) When providing clinical services, the registrant shall wear a visible name tag containing the title visiting professor or visiting faculty member, as appropriate, and the institution at which the services are provided shall obtain a signed statement from each patient to whom the registrant provides services acknowledging that the patient understands that the services are provided by a person who does not hold a physicians and surgeons certificate but who is qualified to participate in a special program as a visiting professor or faculty member.(h) The board shall notify both the registrant and the dean of the medical school, or the dean or chief medical officer of an academic medical center, of a complaint made about the registrant. The board may terminate a registration for any act that would be grounds for discipline if done by a licensee. The board shall provide both the registrant and the dean of the medical school, or the dean or chief medical officer of an academic medical center, with written notice of the termination and the basis for that termination. The registrant may, within 30 days after the date of the notice of termination, file a written appeal to the board. The appeal shall include any documentation the registrant wishes to present to the board.(i) A registrant granted a certificate of registration before January 1, 2021, to engage in the practice of medicine pursuant to this section at an academic medical center shall be deemed to be authorized at that academic medical center as though the initial application had been sponsored by the academic medical center.(j) As used in this section, academic medical center has the same meaning as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 2168.SEC. 17. Section 2135.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2135.5. Upon review and recommendation, the board may determine that an applicant for a physicians and surgeons certificate has satisfied the medical education requirements of Sections 2084 and 2135 and the examination requirements of Section 2170 if the applicant meets all of the following criteria:(a) They hold an unlimited and unrestricted license as a physician and surgeon in another state and has held that license continuously for a minimum of four years prior to the date of application.(b) They meet the postgraduate training requirements in Section 2096 and are certified by a specialty board that is a member board of the American Board of Medical Specialties.(c) They are not subject to denial of licensure under Division 1.5 (commencing with Section 475) or Article 12 (commencing with Section 2220).(d) They have not been the subject of a disciplinary action by a medical licensing authority or of an adverse judgment or settlement resulting from the practice of medicine that, as determined by the board, constitutes a pattern of negligence or incompetence.(e) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2020.SEC. 18. Section 2460 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2460. (a) There is created in the Department of Consumer Affairs the California Board of Podiatric Medicine. Commencing July 1, 2019, the California Board of Podiatric Medicine is renamed the Podiatric Medical Board of California. Any reference in any provision of law to the California Board of Podiatric Medicine shall, commencing July 1, 2019, be deemed to refer to the Podiatric Medical Board of California.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the California Board of Podiatric Medicine subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.(c) The amendments made by Chapter 775 of the Statutes of 2017 relating to podiatrists shall not be construed to change any rights or privileges held by podiatrists prior to the enactment of that act.SEC. 19. Section 2531 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2531. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs the Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board in which the enforcement and administration of this chapter are vested. The Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board shall consist of nine members, three of whom shall be public members.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.SEC. 20. Section 2531.75 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2531.75. (a) The board may appoint a person exempt from civil service who shall be designated as an executive officer and who shall exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated by the board and vested in them by this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 21. Section 2570.19 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2570.19. (a) There is hereby created a California Board of Occupational Therapy, hereafter referred to as the board. The board shall enforce and administer this chapter.(b) The members of the board shall consist of the following:(1) Three occupational therapists who shall have practiced occupational therapy for five years.(2) One occupational therapy assistant who shall have assisted in the practice of occupational therapy for five years.(3) Three public members who shall not be licentiates of the board, of any other board under this division, or of any board referred to in Section 1000 or 3600.(c) The Governor shall appoint the three occupational therapists and one occupational therapy assistant to be members of the board. The Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, and the Speaker of the Assembly shall each appoint a public member. Not more than one member of the board shall be appointed from the full-time faculty of any university, college, or other educational institution.(d) All members shall be residents of California at the time of their appointment. The occupational therapist and occupational therapy assistant members shall have been engaged in rendering occupational therapy services to the public, teaching, or research in occupational therapy for at least five years preceding their appointments.(e) The public members may not be or have ever been occupational therapists or occupational therapy assistants or in training to become occupational therapists or occupational therapy assistants. The public members may not be related to, or have a household member who is, an occupational therapist or an occupational therapy assistant, and may not have had, within two years of the appointment, a substantial financial interest in a person regulated by the board.(f) The Governor shall appoint two board members for a term of one year, two board members for a term of two years, and one board member for a term of three years. Appointments made thereafter shall be for four-year terms, but no person shall be appointed to serve more than two consecutive terms. Terms shall begin on the first day of the calendar year and end on the last day of the calendar year or until successors are appointed, except for the first appointed members who shall serve through the last calendar day of the year in which they are appointed, before commencing the terms prescribed by this section. Vacancies shall be filled by appointment for the unexpired term. The board shall annually elect one of its members as president.(g) The board shall meet and hold at least one regular meeting annually in the Cities of Sacramento, Los Angeles, and San Francisco. The board may convene from time to time until its business is concluded. Special meetings of the board may be held at any time and place designated by the board.(h) Notice of each meeting of the board shall be given in accordance with the Bagley-Keene Open Meeting Act (Article 9 (commencing with Section 11120) of Chapter 1 of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code).(i) Members of the board shall receive no compensation for their services, but shall be entitled to reasonable travel and other expenses incurred in the execution of their powers and duties in accordance with Section 103.(j) The appointing power shall have the power to remove any member of the board from office for neglect of any duty imposed by state law, for incompetency, or for unprofessional or dishonorable conduct.(k) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.(l) Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.SEC. 22. Section 2602 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2602. (a) The Physical Therapy Board of California, hereafter referred to as the board, shall enforce and administer this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.SEC. 23. Section 2607.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2607.5. (a) The board may employ an executive officer exempt from the provisions of the State Civil Service Act (Part 2 (commencing with Section 18500) of Division 5 of Title 2 of the Government Code) and may also employ investigators, legal counsel, physical therapist consultants, and other assistance as it may deem necessary to carry out this chapter. The board may fix the compensation to be paid for services and may incur other expenses as it may deem necessary. Investigators employed by the board shall be provided special training in investigating physical therapy practice activities.(b) The Attorney General shall act as legal counsel for the board for any judicial and administrative proceedings and their services shall be a charge against it.(c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 24. Section 2841 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2841. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs a Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians of the State of California, which consists of 11 members.(b) Within the meaning of this chapter, board, or the board, refers to the Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians of the State of California.(c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 25. Section 2847.1 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2847.1. (a) The board shall select an executive officer who shall perform duties as are delegated by the board and who shall be responsible to it for the accomplishment of those duties. The executive officer shall not be a member of the board.(b) With the approval of the Director of Finance, the board shall fix the salary of the executive officer.(c) The executive officer shall be entitled to traveling and other necessary expenses in the performance of their duties. The executive officer shall make a statement, certified before a duly authorized person, that the expenses have been actually incurred.(d) Commencing January 1, 2018, the executive officer appointed by the board pursuant to subdivision (a) is abolished. Thereafter, until January 1, 2022, the executive officer shall be appointed as set forth in Section 2847.3. Commencing January 1, 2022, the executive officer shall, again, be appointed by the board as set forth in subdivision (a).(e) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 26. Section 2847.3 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2847.3. (a) Commencing January 1, 2018, the executive officer position established pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 2847.1 is temporarily abolished. Commencing January 1, 2018, the Governor shall appoint an executive officer who shall perform duties as are delegated by the board and who shall be responsible for the accomplishment of those duties. The executive officer shall exercise all powers, discharge all responsibilities, and administer and enforce all laws pursuant to this chapter and Chapter 10 (commencing with Section 4500) of Division 2 that are necessary to perform the duties delegated by the board.(b) The executive officer shall serve at the pleasure of the Governor and the Governor shall fix the salary of the executive officer. The executive officer shall not be a member of the board.(c) The executive officer shall be entitled to traveling and other necessary expenses in the performance of their duties.(d) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2018, and shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 27. Section 2920 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2920. (a) The Board of Psychology shall enforce and administer this chapter. The board shall consist of nine members, four of whom shall be public members.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.SEC. 28. Section 2933 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2933. (a) Except as provided by Section 159.5, the board shall employ and shall make available to the board within the limits of the funds received by the board all personnel necessary to carry out this chapter. The board may employ, exempt from the State Civil Service Act, an executive officer to the Board of Psychology. The board shall make all expenditures to carry out this chapter. The board may accept contributions to effectuate the purposes of this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 29. Section 3504 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:3504. There is established a Physician Assistant Board within the jurisdiction of the Medical Board of California. The board consists of nine members. This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.SEC. 30. Section 3512 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:3512. (a) Except as provided in Sections 159.5 and 2020, the board shall employ within the limits of the Physician Assistant Fund all personnel necessary to carry out this chapter including an executive officer who shall be exempt from civil service. The Medical Board of California and board shall make all necessary expenditures to carry out this chapter from the funds established by Section 3520. The board may accept contributions to effect the purposes of this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 31. Section 3686 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:3686. This chapter shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 32. Section 3710 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:3710. (a) The Respiratory Care Board of California, hereafter referred to as the board, shall enforce and administer this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed. Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.SEC. 33. Section 3716 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:3716. (a) The board may employ an executive officer exempt from civil service and, subject to the provisions of law relating to civil service, clerical assistants and, except as provided in Section 159.5, other employees as it may deem necessary to carry out its powers and duties.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 34. Section 4001 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:4001. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs a California State Board of Pharmacy in which the administration and enforcement of this chapter is vested. The board consists of 13 members.(b) The Governor shall appoint seven competent pharmacists who reside in different parts of the state to serve as members of the board. The Governor shall appoint four public members, and the Senate Committee on Rules and the Speaker of the Assembly shall each appoint a public member who shall not be a licensee of the board, any other board under this division, or any board referred to in Section 1000 or 3600.(c) At least five of the seven pharmacist appointees to the board shall be pharmacists who are actively engaged in the practice of pharmacy. Additionally, the membership of the board shall include at least one pharmacist representative from each of the following practice settings: an acute care hospital, an independent community pharmacy, a chain community pharmacy, and a long-term health care or skilled nursing facility. The pharmacist appointees shall also include a pharmacist who is a member of a labor union that represents pharmacists. For the purposes of this subdivision, a chain community pharmacy means a chain of 75 or more stores in California under the same ownership, and an independent community pharmacy means a pharmacy owned by a person or entity who owns no more than four pharmacies in California.(d) Members of the board shall be appointed for a term of four years. No person shall serve as a member of the board for more than two consecutive terms. Each member shall hold office until the appointment and qualification of their successor or until one year shall have elapsed since the expiration of the term for which the member was appointed, whichever first occurs. Vacancies occurring shall be filled by appointment for the unexpired term.(e) Each member of the board shall receive a per diem and expenses as provided in Section 103.(f) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.SEC. 35. Section 4003 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:4003. (a) The board, with the approval of the director, may appoint a person exempt from civil service who shall be designated as an executive officer and who shall exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated by the board and vested in them by this chapter. The executive officer may or may not be a member of the board as the board may determine.(b) The executive officer shall receive the compensation as established by the board with the approval of the Director of Finance. The executive officer shall also be entitled to travel and other expenses necessary in the performance of their duties.(c) The executive officer shall maintain and update in a timely fashion records containing the names, titles, qualifications, and places of business of all persons subject to this chapter.(d) The executive officer shall give receipts for all money received by them and pay it to the department, taking its receipt therefor. Besides the duties required by this chapter, the executive officer shall perform other duties pertaining to the office as may be required of them by the board.(e) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 36. Section 4501 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:4501. (a) Board, as used in this chapter, means the Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians of the State of California.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 37. Section 4503 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:4503. (a) The board shall administer and enforce this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 38. Section 4604 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:4604. (a) In order to obtain certification as a massage therapist, an applicant shall submit a written application and provide the council with satisfactory evidence that the applicant meets all of the following requirements:(1) The applicant is 18 years of age or older.(2) The applicant has successfully completed the curricula in massage and related subjects totaling a minimum of 500 hours, or the credit unit equivalent, that incorporates appropriate school assessment of student knowledge and skills.(A) Of the 500 hours, a minimum of 100 hours of instruction shall address anatomy and physiology, contraindications, health and hygiene, and business and ethics.(B) All of the 500 hours shall be from approved schools. The council shall accept the 500 hours if, at the time all of the hours were completed, the school or schools were approved. The 500 hours may be completed at more than one approved school. Notwithstanding any other law, pursuant to its policies and procedures for approval of schools, the council shall accept hours earned by an applicant for certification as a massage therapist if those hours were completed before July 1, 2016, and were earned from a school providing education in this state that was unapproved by the council after July 1, 2016, based solely on the fact that the National Certification Board for Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork took denial or disciplinary action against the school. For purposes of this section, unapproved means that the council determined that it will not accept hours from a school toward certification.(3) The applicant has passed a massage and bodywork competency assessment examination that meets generally recognized psychometric principles and standards and that is approved by the council. The successful completion of this examination may have been accomplished before the date the council is authorized by this chapter to begin issuing certificates. This paragraph shall be inoperative commencing on January 1, 2019, and shall become operative on January 1, 2022.(4) The applicant has successfully passed a background investigation pursuant to Section 4606, and has not violated any of the provisions of this chapter.(5) All fees required by the council have been paid.(6) The council may issue a certificate to an applicant who meets the qualifications of this chapter if the applicant holds a current and valid registration, certification, or license from any other state whose licensure requirements meet or exceed those defined within this chapter. If an applicant has received education at a school that is not approved by the council, the council shall have the discretion to give credit for comparable academic work completed by an applicant in a program outside of California.(b) A certificate issued pursuant to this chapter and any identification card issued by the council shall be surrendered to the council by any certificate holder whose certificate is suspended or revoked.SEC. 39. Section 4621 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:4621. (a) This chapter shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.(b) Notwithstanding any other law, the powers and duties of the council shall be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.SEC. 40. Section 4800 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:4800. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs a Veterinary Medical Board in which the administration of this chapter is vested. The board consists of the following members:(1) Four licensed veterinarians.(2) One registered veterinary technician.(3) Three public members.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. However, the review of the board shall be limited to those issues identified by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature and shall not involve the preparation or submission of a sunset review document or evaluative questionnaire.SEC. 41. Section 4804.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:4804.5. The board may appoint a person exempt from civil service who shall be designated as an executive officer and who shall exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated by the board and vested in them by this chapter.This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 42. Section 4990 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:4990. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs, a Board of Behavioral Sciences that consists of the following members:(1) Two state licensed clinical social workers.(2) One state licensed educational psychologist.(3) Two state licensed marriage and family therapists.(4) One state licensed professional clinical counselor.(5) Seven public members.(b) Each member, except the seven public members, shall have at least two years of experience in their profession.(c) Each member shall reside in the State of California.(d) The Governor shall appoint five of the public members and the six licensed members with the advice and consent of the Senate. The Senate Committee on Rules and the Speaker of the Assembly shall each appoint a public member.(e) Each member of the board shall be appointed for a term of four years. A member appointed by the Senate Committee on Rules or the Speaker of the Assembly shall hold office until the appointment and qualification of their successor or until one year from the expiration date of the term for which they were appointed, whichever first occurs. Pursuant to Section 1774 of the Government Code, a member appointed by the Governor shall hold office until the appointment and qualification of their successor or until 60 days from the expiration date of the term for which they were appointed, whichever first occurs.(f) A vacancy on the board shall be filled by appointment for the unexpired term by the authority who appointed the member whose membership was vacated.(g) Not later than the first of June of each calendar year, the board shall elect a chairperson and a vice chairperson from its membership.(h) Each member of the board shall receive a per diem and reimbursement of expenses as provided in Section 103.(i) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.(j) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.SEC. 43. Section 4990.04 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:4990.04. (a) The board shall appoint an executive officer. This position is designated as a confidential position and is exempt from civil service under subdivision (e) of Section 4 of Article VII of the California Constitution.(b) The executive officer serves at the pleasure of the board.(c) The executive officer shall exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated by the board and vested in them by this chapter.(d) With the approval of the director, the board shall fix the salary of the executive officer.(e) The chairperson and executive officer may call meetings of the board and any duly appointed committee at a specified time and place. For purposes of this section, call meetings means setting the agenda, time, date, or place for any meeting of the board or any committee.(f) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 44. Section 5600.4 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:5600.4. (a) The board shall issue, upon application and payment of the fee fixed by this chapter, a retired license to an architect who holds a license that is current and active or capable of being renewed pursuant to Section 5600.2 and whose license is not suspended, revoked, or otherwise punitively restricted by the board or subject to disciplinary action under this chapter.(b) The holder of a retired license issued pursuant to this section shall not engage in any activity for which an active architects license is required. An architect holding a retired license shall be permitted to use the title architect retired or retired architect.(c) The holder of a retired license shall not be required to renew that license.(d) In order for the holder of a retired license issued pursuant to this section to restore their license to active status, the holder of a retired license shall comply with Section 5600.2 or 5600.3, as applicable.SEC. 45. Section 5810 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:5810. (a) This chapter shall be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.(b) This chapter shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 46. Section 7000 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7000. This chapter constitutes, and may be cited as, the Contractors State License Law.SEC. 47. Section 7000.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7000.5. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs a Contractors State License Board, which consists of 15 members.(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.(c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 48. Section 7000.6 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7000.6. Protection of the public shall be the highest priority for the Contractors State License Board in exercising its licensing, regulatory, and disciplinary functions. Whenever the protection of the public is inconsistent with other interests sought to be promoted, the protection of the public shall be paramount.SEC. 49. Section 7011.4 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7011.4. (a) Notwithstanding Section 7011, there is in the Contractors State License Board, a separate enforcement division that shall rigorously enforce this chapter prohibiting all forms of unlicensed activity and shall enforce the obligation to secure the payment of valid and current workers compensation insurance in accordance with Section 3700.5 of the Labor Code.(b) Persons employed as enforcement representatives of the Contractors State License Board and designated by the Director of Consumer Affairs shall have the authority to issue a written notice to appear in court pursuant to Chapter 5C (commencing with Section 853.5) of Title 3 of Part 2 of the Penal Code. An employee so designated is not a peace officer and is not entitled to safety member retirement benefits as a result of that designation. They do not have the power of arrest.(c) When participating in the activities of the Joint Enforcement Strike Force on the Underground Economy pursuant to Section 329 of the Unemployment Insurance Code, the enforcement division shall have free access to all places of labor.SEC. 50. Section 7011.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7011.5. Persons employed as investigators of the Special Investigations Unit of the Contractors State License Board and designated by the Director of Consumer Affairs have the authority of peace officers while engaged in exercising the powers granted or performing the duties imposed upon them in investigating the laws administered by the Contractors State License Board or commencing directly or indirectly any criminal prosecution arising from any investigation conducted under these laws. All persons herein referred to shall be deemed to be acting within the scope of employment with respect to all acts and matters in this section set forth.SEC. 51. Section 7011.8 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7011.8. (a) Any person subject to licensure under this chapter who reports to, or causes a complaint to be filed with, the Contractors State License Board that a person licensed by that entity has engaged in professional misconduct, knowing the report or complaint to be false, may be issued a citation by the registrar.(b) The board may notify the appropriate district attorney or city attorney that a person subject to licensure under this chapter has made or filed what the entity believes to be a false report or complaint against a licensee.SEC. 52. Section 7015 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7015. The board shall adopt a seal for its own use. The seal shall have the words Contractors State License Board, State of California, Department of Consumer Affairs, and the care and custody thereof shall be in the hands of the registrar.SEC. 53. Section 7017.3 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7017.3. The Contractors State License Board shall report annually to the Legislature, not later than October 1 of each year, the following statistical information for the prior fiscal year. The following data shall be reported on complaints filed with the board against licensed contractors, registered home improvement salespersons, and unlicensed persons acting as licensees or registrants:(a) The number of complaints received by the board categorized by source, such as public, trade, profession, government agency, or board-initiated, and by type of complaint, such as licensee or nonlicensee.(b) The number of complaints closed prior to referral for field investigation, categorized by the reason for the closure, such as settled, referred for mandatory arbitration, or referred for voluntary arbitration.(c) The number of complaints referred for field investigation categorized by the type of complaint, such as licensee or nonlicensee.(d) The number of complaints closed after referral for field investigation categorized by the reason for the closure, such as settled, referred for mandatory arbitration, or referred for voluntary arbitration.(e) For the boards Intake/Mediation Center and the boards Investigation Center closures, respectively, the total number of complaints closed prior to a field investigation per consumer services representative, and the total number of complaints closed after referral for a field investigation per enforcement representative. Additionally, the board shall report the total number of complaints closed by other board staff during the year.(f) The number of complaints pending at the end of the fiscal year grouped in 90-day increments, and the percentage of total complaints pending, represented by the number of complaints in each grouping.(g) The number of citations issued to licensees categorized by the type of citation such as order of correction only or order of correction and fine, and the number of citations issued to licensees that were vacated or withdrawn.(h) The number of citations issued to nonlicensees and the number of these citations that were vacated or withdrawn.(i) The number of complaints referred to a local prosecutor for criminal investigation or prosecution, the number of complaints referred to the Attorney General for the filing of an accusation, and the number of complaints referred to both a local prosecutor and the Attorney General, categorized by type of complaint, such as licensee and nonlicensee.(j) Actions taken by the board, including, but not limited to, the following:(1) The number of disciplinary actions categorized by type, such as revocations or suspensions, categorized by whether the disciplinary action resulted from an accusation, failure to comply with a citation, or failure to comply with an arbitration award.(2) The number of accusations dismissed or withdrawn.(k) For subdivisions (g) and (j), the number of cases containing violations of Sections 7121 and 7121.5, and paragraph (5) of subdivision (a) of Section 7159.5, categorized by section.(l) The number of interim suspension orders sought, the number of interim suspension orders granted, the number of temporary restraining orders sought, and the number of temporary restraining orders granted.(m) The amount of cost recovery ordered and the amount collected.(n) Case aging data, including data for each major stage of the enforcement process, including the following:(1) The average number of days from the filing of a complaint to its closure by the boards Intake/Mediation Center prior to the referral for an investigation categorized by the type of complaint, such as licensee or nonlicensee.(2) The average number of days from the referral of a complaint for an investigation to its closure by the Investigation Center categorized by the type of complaint, such as licensee or nonlicensee.(3) The average number of days from the filing of a complaint to the referral of the completed investigation to the Attorney General.(4) The average number of days from the referral of a completed investigation to the Attorney General to the filing of an accusation by the Attorney General.(5) The average number of days from the filing of an accusation to the first hearing date or date of a stipulated settlement.(6) The average number of days from the receipt of the Administrative Law Judges proposed decision to the registrars final decision.SEC. 54. Section 7028.7 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7028.7. (a) If upon inspection or investigation, either upon complaint or otherwise, the registrar has probable cause to believe that a person is acting in the capacity of or engaging in the business of a contractor or salesperson within this state without having a license or registration in good standing to so act or engage, and the person is not otherwise exempted from this chapter, the registrar shall issue a citation to that person.(b) Within 72 hours of receiving notice that a public entity is intending to award, or has awarded, a contract to an unlicensed contractor, the registrar shall give written notice to the public entity that a citation may be issued if a contract is awarded to an unlicensed contractor. If after receiving the written notice from the registrar that the public entity has awarded or awards the contract to an unlicensed contractor, the registrar may issue a citation to the responsible officer or employee of the public entity as specified in Section 7028.15.(c) Each citation shall be in writing and shall describe with particularity the basis of the citation. Notwithstanding Sections 125.9 and 148, each citation shall contain an order of abatement and an assessment of a civil penalty in an amount not less than two hundred dollars ($200) nor more than fifteen thousand dollars ($15,000).(d) With the approval of the Contractors State License Board, the registrar shall prescribe procedures for the issuance of a citation under this section. The board shall adopt regulations covering the assessment of a civil penalty that shall give due consideration to the gravity of the violation, and any history of previous violations.(e) The sanctions authorized under this section shall be separate from, and in addition to, all other remedies either civil or criminal.SEC. 55. Section 7030 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7030. (a) Except for contractors writing home improvement contracts pursuant to Section 7151.2 and contractors writing service and repair contracts pursuant to Section 7159.10, every person licensed pursuant to this chapter shall include the following statement in at least 10-point type on all written contracts with respect to which the person is a prime contractor: Contractors are required by law to be licensed and regulated by the Contractors State License Board which has jurisdiction to investigate complaints against contractors if a complaint regarding a patent act or omission is filed within four years of the date of the alleged violation. A complaint regarding a latent act or omission pertaining to structural defects must be filed within 10 years of the date of the alleged violation. Any questions concerning a contractor may be referred to the Registrar, Contractors State License Board, P.O. Box 26000, Sacramento, CA 95826. (b) Every person licensed pursuant to this chapter shall include the following statement in at least 12-point type in all home improvement contracts written pursuant to Section 7151.2 and service and repair contracts written pursuant to Section 7159.10: Information about the Contractors State License Board (CSLB): CSLB is the state consumer protection agency that licenses and regulates construction contractors.Contact CSLB for information about the licensed contractor you are considering, including information about disclosable complaints, disciplinary actions and civil judgments that are reported to CSLB.Use only licensed contractors. If you file a complaint against a licensed contractor within the legal deadline (usually four years), CSLB has authority to investigate the complaint. If you use an unlicensed contractor, CSLB may not be able to help you resolve your complaint. Your only remedy may be in civil court, and you may be liable for damages arising out of any injuries to the unlicensed contractor or the unlicensed contractors employees.For more information:Visit CSLBs internet website at www.cslb.ca.govCall CSLB at 800-321-CSLB (2752)Write CSLB at P.O. Box 26000, Sacramento, CA 95826. (c) Failure to comply with the notice requirements set forth in subdivision (a) or (b) of this section is cause for disciplinary action.SEC. 56. Section 7031 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7031. (a) Except as provided in subdivision (e), no person engaged in the business or acting in the capacity of a contractor, may bring or maintain any action, or recover in law or equity in any action, in any court of this state for the collection of compensation for the performance of any act or contract where a license is required by this chapter without alleging that they were a duly licensed contractor at all times during the performance of that act or contract regardless of the merits of the cause of action brought by the person, except that this prohibition shall not apply to contractors who are each individually licensed under this chapter but who fail to comply with Section 7029.(b) Except as provided in subdivision (e), a person who utilizes the services of an unlicensed contractor may bring an action in any court of competent jurisdiction in this state to recover all compensation paid to the unlicensed contractor for performance of any act or contract.(c) A security interest taken to secure any payment for the performance of any act or contract for which a license is required by this chapter is unenforceable if the person performing the act or contract was not a duly licensed contractor at all times during the performance of the act or contract.(d) If licensure or proper licensure is controverted, then proof of licensure pursuant to this section shall be made by production of a verified certificate of licensure from the Contractors State License Board which establishes that the individual or entity bringing the action was duly licensed in the proper classification of contractors at all times during the performance of any act or contract covered by the action. Nothing in this subdivision shall require any person or entity controverting licensure or proper licensure to produce a verified certificate. When licensure or proper licensure is controverted, the burden of proof to establish licensure or proper licensure shall be on the licensee.(e) The judicial doctrine of substantial compliance shall not apply under this section where the person who engaged in the business or acted in the capacity of a contractor has never been a duly licensed contractor in this state. However, notwithstanding subdivision (b) of Section 143, the court may determine that there has been substantial compliance with licensure requirements under this section if it is shown at an evidentiary hearing that the person who engaged in the business or acted in the capacity of a contractor (1) had been duly licensed as a contractor in this state prior to the performance of the act or contract, (2) acted reasonably and in good faith to maintain proper licensure, and (3) acted promptly and in good faith to remedy the failure to comply with the licensure requirements upon learning of the failure.(f) The exceptions to the prohibition against the application of the judicial doctrine of substantial compliance found in subdivision (e) shall apply to all contracts entered into on or after January 1, 1992, and to all actions or arbitrations arising therefrom, except that the amendments to subdivisions (e) and (f) enacted during the 1994 portion of the 199394 Regular Session of the Legislature shall not apply to either of the following:(1) Any legal action or arbitration commenced prior to January 1, 1995, regardless of the date on which the parties entered into the contract.(2) Any legal action or arbitration commenced on or after January 1, 1995, if the legal action or arbitration was commenced prior to January 1, 1995, and was subsequently dismissed.SEC. 57. Section 7058.7 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7058.7. (a) No contractor may engage in a removal or remedial action, as defined in subdivision (d), unless the qualifier for the license has passed an approved hazardous substance certification examination.(b) (1) The Contractors State License Board, the Division of Occupational Safety and Health of the Department of Industrial Relations, and the Department of Toxic Substances Control shall jointly select an advisory committee, which shall be composed of two representatives of hazardous substance removal workers in California, two general engineering contractors in California, and two representatives of insurance companies in California who shall be selected by the Insurance Commissioner.(2) The Contractors State License Board shall develop a written test for the certification of contractors engaged in hazardous substance removal or remedial action, in consultation with the Division of Occupational Safety and Health, the State Water Resources Control Board, the Department of Toxic Substances Control, and the advisory committee.(c) The Contractors State License Board may require additional updated approved hazardous substance certification examinations of licensees currently certified based on new public or occupational health and safety information. The Contractors State License Board, in consultation with the Department of Toxic Substances Control and the State Water Resources Control Board, shall approve other initial and updated hazardous substance certification examinations and determine whether to require an updated certification examination of all current certificate holders.(d) For purposes of this section removal or remedial action has the same meaning as found in Chapter 6.8 (commencing with Section 25300) of Division 20 of the Health and Safety Code, if the action requires the contractor to dig into the surface of the earth and remove the dug material and the action is at a site listed pursuant to Section 25356 of the Health and Safety Code or any other site listed as a hazardous substance release site by the Department of Toxic Substances Control or a site listed on the National Priorities List compiled pursuant to the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980 (42 U.S.C. Sec. 9601 et seq.). Removal or remedial action does not include asbestos-related work, as defined in Section 6501.8 of the Labor Code, or work related to a hazardous substance spill on a highway.(e) (1) A contractor may not install or remove an underground storage tank, unless the contractor has passed the hazardous substance certification examination developed pursuant to this section.(2) A contractor who is not certified may bid on or contract for the installation or removal of an underground tank, if the work is performed by a contractor who is certified pursuant to this section.(3) For purposes of this subdivision, underground storage tank has the same meaning as defined in subdivision (y) of Section 25281 of the Health and Safety Code.SEC. 58. Section 7071.4 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7071.4. (a) Each person licensed under the provisions of this chapter and subject to any of the bonding provisions of this article shall maintain the requisite bond as executed by an admitted surety insurer or as deposited with the registrar pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 995.710 of the Code of Civil Procedure in the appropriate amount. Notwithstanding Article 7 (commencing with Section 995.710) of Chapter 2 of Title 14 of Part 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure, no other method of deposit, including, but not limited to, a certificate of deposit, shall satisfy a bond requirement under this article.(b) All existing alternatives in lieu of a bond currently filed with the registrar shall be replaced for a surety bond or the deposit prescribed by paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 995.710 of the Code of Civil Procedure by January 1, 2020.(c) (1) If the board is notified, in writing, of a civil action against the deposit authorized under this section, the deposit or any portion thereof shall not be released for any purpose, except as determined by the court.(2) If any deposit authorized under this section is insufficient to pay, in full, all claims that have been adjudicated under any action filed in accordance with this section, the amount of the deposit shall be distributed to all claimants in proportion to the amount of their respective claims. (d) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), this section shall not apply to the bond equivalents described in Section 7159.5 of this chapter.(e) (1) This section shall be operative on and after January 1, 2019, upon which date the registrar shall thereafter no longer accept alternatives in lieu of a bond, other than as provided in this section.(2) Notwithstanding any other law, in order to comply with the bonding provisions of this article, a person shall only be required to provide information consistent with the requirements for an applicant under Section 30.(f) All alternatives in lieu of a bond filed with the registrar before January 1, 2019, and any lawful money or cashiers check deposited pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 995.710 of the Code of Civil Procedure after January 1, 2019, shall be subject to the following limitations periods:(1) Any action, other than an action to recover wages or fringe benefits, against a deposit given in lieu of a contractors bond or bond of a qualifying individual filed by an active licensee shall be brought within three years after the expiration of the license period during which the act or omission occurred, or within three years of the date the license of the active licensee was inactivated, canceled, or revoked by the board, whichever occurs first.(2) Any action, other than an action to recover wages or fringe benefits, against a deposit given in lieu of a disciplinary bond filed by an active licensee pursuant to Section 7071.8 shall be brought within three years after the expiration of the license period during which the act or omission occurred, or within three years of the date the license of the active licensee was inactivated, canceled, or revoked by the board, or within three years after the last date for which a deposit given in lieu of a disciplinary bond filed pursuant to Section 7071.8 was required, whichever date is first.(3) A claim to recover wages or fringe benefits shall be brought within six months from the date that the wage or fringe benefit delinquencies were discovered, but in no event shall a civil action thereon be brought later than two years from the date the wage or fringe benefit contributions were due.(g) In any case in which a claim is filed against an alternative given in lieu of a bond filed with the registrar before January 1, 2019, or deposited with the registrar pursuant to subdivision (a), by any employee or by an employee organization on behalf of an employee, concerning wages or fringe benefits based upon the employees employment, claims for the nonpayment shall be filed with the Labor Commissioner. The Labor Commissioner shall, pursuant to the authority vested by Section 96.5 of the Labor Code, conduct hearings to determine whether or not the wages or fringe benefits should be paid to the complainant. Upon a finding by the commissioner that the wages or fringe benefits should be paid to the complainant, the commissioner shall notify the registrar of the findings. The registrar shall not make payment from the deposit on the basis of findings by the commissioner for a period of 10 days following determination of the findings. If, within the period, the complainant or the contractor files written notice with the registrar and the commissioner of an intention to seek judicial review of the findings pursuant to Section 11523 of the Government Code, the registrar shall not make payment if an action is actually filed, except as determined by the court. If, thereafter, no action is filed within 60 days following determination of findings by the commissioner, the registrar shall make payment from the deposit to the complainant.(h) Legal fees may not be charged by the board against any alternative given in lieu of a bond filed with the registrar before January 1, 2019, or deposited with the registrar pursuant to subdivision (a).SEC. 59. Section 7080.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7080.5. When an application has been accepted by the registrar, the name and address of the applicant, every classification for which the applicant has applied, and the names and titles of all personnel who have signed the application shall be publicly posted by the registrar, on the day following acceptance, in the office of the Contractors State License Board in Sacramento.SEC. 60. Section 7085.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7085.5. Arbitrations of disputes arising out of cases filed with or by the board shall be conducted in accordance with the following rules:(a) All agreements to arbitrate shall include the names, addresses, and telephone numbers of the parties to the dispute, the issue in dispute, and the amount in dollars or any other remedy sought. The appropriate fee shall be paid by the board from the Contractors License Fund.(b) (1) The board or appointed arbitration association shall appoint an arbitrator in the following manner: immediately after the filing of the agreement to arbitrate, the board or appointed arbitration association shall submit simultaneously to each party to the dispute, an identical list of names of persons chosen from the panel. Each party to the dispute shall have seven days from the mailing date in which to cross off any names to which it objects, number the remaining names to indicate the order of preference, and return the list to the board or appointed arbitration association. If a party does not return the list within the time specified, all persons named in the list are acceptable. From among the persons who have been approved on both lists, and in accordance with the designated order of mutual preference, the board or appointed arbitration association shall appoint an arbitrator to serve. If the parties fail to agree on any of the parties named, if acceptable arbitrators are unable to act, or if, for any other reason, the appointment cannot be made from the submitted lists, the board or appointed arbitration association shall have the power to make the appointment from among other members of the panel without the submission of any additional lists. Each dispute shall be heard and determined by one arbitrator unless the board or appointed arbitration association, in its discretion, directs that a greater number of arbitrators be appointed.(2) In all cases in which a complaint has been referred to arbitration pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 7085, the board or the appointed arbitration association shall have the power to appoint an arbitrator to hear the matter.(3) The board shall adopt regulations setting minimum qualification standards for listed arbitrators based upon relevant training, experience, and performance.(c) No person shall serve as an arbitrator in any arbitration in which that person has any financial or personal interest in the result of the arbitration. Prior to accepting an appointment, the prospective arbitrator shall disclose any circumstances likely to prevent a prompt hearing or to create a presumption of bias. Upon receipt of that information, the board or appointed arbitration association shall immediately replace the arbitrator or communicate the information to the parties for their comments. Thereafter, the board or appointed arbitration association shall determine whether the arbitrator should be disqualified and shall inform the parties of its decision, which shall be conclusive.(d) The board or appointed arbitration association may appoint another arbitrator if a vacancy occurs, or if an appointed arbitrator is unable to serve in a timely manner.(e) (1) The board or appointed arbitration association shall provide the parties with a list of the times and dates, and locations of the hearing to be held. The parties shall notify the arbitrator, within seven calendar days of the mailing of the list, of the times and dates convenient to each party. If the parties fail to respond to the arbitrator within the seven-day period, the arbitrator shall fix the time, place, and location of the hearing. An arbitrator may, at the arbitrators sole discretion, make an inspection of the construction site which is the subject of the arbitration. The arbitrator shall notify the parties of the time and date set for the inspection. Any party who so desires may be present at the inspection.(2) The board or appointed arbitration association shall fix the time, place, and location of the hearing for all cases referred to arbitration pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 7085. An arbitrator may, at the arbitrators sole discretion, make an inspection of the construction site which is the subject of the arbitration. The arbitrator shall notify the parties of the time and date set for the inspection. Any party who desires may be present at the inspection.(f) Any person having a direct interest in the arbitration is entitled to attend the hearing. The arbitrator shall otherwise have the power to require the exclusion of any witness, other than a party or other essential person, during the testimony of any other witness. It shall be discretionary with the arbitrator to determine the propriety of the attendance of any other person.(g) Hearings shall be adjourned by the arbitrator only for good cause.(h) A record is not required to be taken of the proceedings. However, any party to the proceeding may have a record made at its own expense. The parties may make appropriate notes of the proceedings.(i) The hearing shall be conducted by the arbitrator in any manner which will permit full and expeditious presentation of the case by both parties. Consistent with the expedited nature of arbitration, the arbitrator shall establish the extent of, and schedule for, the production of relevant documents and other information, the identification of any witnesses to be called, and a schedule for any hearings to elicit facts solely within the knowledge of one party. The complaining party shall present its claims, proofs, and witnesses, who shall submit to questions or other examination. The defending party shall then present its defenses, proofs, and witnesses, who shall submit to questions or other examination. The arbitrator has discretion to vary this procedure but shall afford full and equal opportunity to the parties for the presentation of any material or relevant proofs.(j) The arbitration may proceed in the absence of any party who, after due notice, fails to be present. The arbitrator shall require the attending party to submit supporting evidence in order to make an award. An award for the attending party shall not be based solely on the fact that the other party has failed to appear at the arbitration hearing.(k) The arbitrator shall be the sole judge of the relevancy and materiality of the evidence offered and conformity to legal rules of evidence shall not be required.(l) The arbitrator may receive and consider documentary evidence. Documents to be considered by the arbitrator may be submitted prior to the hearing. However, a copy shall be simultaneously transmitted to all other parties and to the board or appointed arbitration association for transmittal to the arbitrator or board appointed arbitrator.(m) The arbitrator shall specifically inquire of the parties whether they have any further proofs to offer or witnesses to be heard. Upon receiving negative replies, the arbitrator shall declare the hearing closed and minutes thereof shall be recorded. If briefs are to be filed, the hearing shall be declared closed as of the final date set by the arbitrator for the receipt of briefs. If documents are to be filed as requested by the arbitrator and the date set for their receipt is later than that set for the receipt of briefs, the later date shall be the date of closing the hearings. The time limit within which the arbitrator is required to make the award shall commence to run, in the absence of other agreements by the parties, upon the closing of the hearings.(n) The hearing may be reopened on the arbitrators own motion.(o) Any party who proceeds with the arbitration after knowledge that any provision or requirement of these rules has not been complied with, and who fails to state their objections to the arbitrator in writing, within 10 calendar days of close of hearing, shall be deemed to have waived their right to object.(p) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), any papers or process necessary or proper for the initiation or continuation of an arbitration under these rules and for any court action in connection therewith, or for the entry of judgment on an award made thereunder, may be served upon any party (A) by regular mail addressed to that party or their attorney at the partys last known address, or (B) by personal service.(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), in all cases referred to arbitration pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 7085 in which the contractor fails or refuses to return an executed copy of the notice to arbitrate within the time specified, any papers or process specified in paragraph (1) to be sent to the contractor, including the notice of hearing, shall be mailed by certified mail to the contractors address of record.(q) The award shall be made promptly by the arbitrator, and unless otherwise agreed by the parties, no later than 30 calendar days from the date of closing the hearing, closing a reopened hearing, or if oral hearing has been waived, from the date of transmitting the final statements and proofs to the arbitrator.The arbitrator may for good cause extend any period of time established by these rules, except the time for making the award. The arbitrator shall notify the parties of any extension and the reason therefor.(r) (1) The arbitrator may grant any remedy or relief that the arbitrator deems just and equitable and within the scope of the boards referral and the requirements of the board. The arbitrator, in their sole discretion, may award costs or expenses.(2) The amendments made in paragraph (1) during the 200304 Regular Session shall not be interpreted to prevent an arbitrator from awarding a complainant all direct costs and expenses for the completion or repair of the project.(s) The award shall become final 30 calendar days from the date the arbitration award is issued. The arbitrator, upon written application of a party to the arbitration, may correct the award upon the following grounds:(1) There was an evident miscalculation of figures or an evident mistake in the description of any person, things, or property referred to in the award.(2) There is any other clerical error in the award, not affecting the merits of the controversy.An application for correction of the award shall be made within 10 calendar days of the date of service of the award by serving a copy of the application on the arbitrator, and all other parties to the arbitration. Any party to the arbitration may make a written objection to the application for correction by serving a copy of the written objection on the arbitrator, the board, and all other parties to the arbitration, within 10 calendar days of the date of service of the application for correction.The arbitrator shall either deny the application or correct the award within 30 calendar days of the date of service of the original award by mailing a copy of the denial or correction to all parties to the arbitration. Any appeal from the denial or correction shall be filed with a court of competent jurisdiction and a true copy thereof shall be filed with the arbitrator or appointed arbitration association within 30 calendar days after the award has become final. The award shall be in writing, and shall be signed by the arbitrator or a majority of them. If no appeal is filed within the 30-calendar day period, it shall become a final order of the registrar.(t) Service of the award by certified mail shall be effective if a certified letter containing the award, or a true copy thereof, is mailed by the arbitrator or arbitration association to each party or to a partys attorney of record at their last known address, address of record, or by personally serving any party. Service may be proved in the manner authorized in civil actions.(u) The board shall pay the expenses of one expert witness appointed by the board when the services of an expert witness are requested by either party involved in arbitration pursuant to this article and the case involves workmanship issues that are itemized in the complaint and have not been repaired or replaced. Parties who choose to present the findings of another expert witness as evidence shall pay for those services. Payment for expert witnesses appointed by the board shall be limited to the expert witness costs for inspection of the problem at the construction site, preparation of the expert witness report, and expert witness fees for appearing or testifying at a hearing. All requests for payment to an expert witness shall be submitted on a form that has been approved by the registrar. All requests for payment to an expert witness shall be reviewed and approved by the board prior to payment. The registrar shall advise the parties that names of industry experts may be obtained by requesting this information from the registrar.(v) The arbitrator shall interpret and apply these rules insofar as they relate to their powers and duties.(w) The following shall apply as to court procedure and exclusion of liability:(1) The board, the appointed arbitration association, or any arbitrator in a proceeding under these rules is not a necessary party in judicial proceedings relating to the arbitration.(2) Parties to these rules shall be deemed to have consented that judgment upon the arbitration award may be entered in any federal or state court having jurisdiction thereof.(3) The board, the appointed arbitration association, or any arbitrator is not liable to any party for any act or omission in connection with any arbitration conducted under these rules.SEC. 61. Section 7099.2 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7099.2. (a) The board shall promulgate regulations covering the assessment of civil penalties under this article that give due consideration to the appropriateness of the penalty with respect to the following factors:(1) The gravity of the violation.(2) The good faith of the licensee or applicant for licensure being charged.(3) The history of previous violations.(b) Except as otherwise provided by this chapter, no civil penalty shall be assessed in an amount greater than five thousand dollars ($5,000). Notwithstanding Section 125.9, a civil penalty not to exceed fifteen thousand dollars ($15,000) may be assessed for a violation of Section 7114 or 7118.SEC. 62. Section 7099.9 is added to the Business and Professions Code, to read:7099.9. (a) If, upon investigation, the registrar has probable cause to believe that a licensee, registrant, or applicant has committed acts or omissions that are grounds for denial, suspension, or revocation of a license or registration, the registrar, or their designee, may issue a letter of admonishment to an applicant, licensee, or registrant in lieu of issuing a citation. Nothing in this article shall in any way limit the registrars discretionary authority or ability to issue a letter of admonishment as prescribed by this subdivision.(b) The letter of admonishment shall be in writing and shall describe in detail the nature and facts of the violation, including a reference to the statutes or regulations violated. The letter of admonishment shall inform the licensee, registrant, or applicant that within 30 days of service of the letter of admonishment the licensee, registrant, or applicant may do either of the following:(1) Submit a written request for an office conference to the registrar to contest the letter of admonishment. Upon a timely request, the registrar, or their designee, shall hold an office conference with the licensee, registrant, or applicant and, if applicable, their legal counsel or authorized representative.(A) No individual other than the legal counsel or authorized representative of the licensee, registrant, or applicant may accompany the licensee, registrant, or applicant to the office conference.(B) Prior to or at the office conference, the licensee, registrant, or applicant may submit to the registrar declarations and documents pertinent to the subject matter of the letter of admonishment.(C) The office conference is intended to be informal and shall not be subject to the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 11400) or Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code).(D) After the office conference, the registrar, or their designee, may affirm, modify, or withdraw the letter of admonishment. Within 14 calendar days from the date of the office conference, the registrar, or their designee, shall personally serve or send the written decision by certified mail to the licensees, registrants, or applicants address of record. This decision shall be deemed the final administrative decision concerning the letter of admonishment.(E) Judicial review of the decision may be had by filing a petition for a writ of mandate in accordance with the provisions of Section 1094.5 of the Code of Civil Procedure within 30 days after the date the decision was personally served or sent by certified mail. The judicial review shall extend to the question of whether or not there was a prejudicial abuse of discretion in the issuance of the letter of admonishment or in the decision after the office conference.(2) Comply with the letter of admonishment and, if required, submit a written corrective action plan to the registrar documenting compliance. If an office conference is not requested pursuant to this section, compliance with the letter of admonishment shall not constitute an admission of the violation noted in the letter of admonishment.(c) The letter of admonishment shall be served upon the licensee, registrant, or applicant personally or by certified mail at their address of record with the board. If the licensee, registrant, or applicant is served by certified mail, service shall be effective upon deposit in the United States mail.(d) The licensee, registrant, or applicant shall maintain and have readily available a copy of the letter of admonishment and corrective action plan, if any, for at least one year from the date of issuance of the letter of admonishment.(e) Nothing in this subdivision shall in any way limit the boards authority or ability to do either of the following:(1) Issue a citation pursuant to Section 125.9, 148, or 7099.(2) Institute disciplinary proceedings pursuant to this article.(f) The issuance of a letter of admonishment shall not be construed as a disciplinary action or discipline for purposes of licensure or the reporting of discipline for licensure.(g) The board shall not issue a letter of admonishment when any one of the following factors is present:(1) The licensee, registrant, or applicant was unlicensed at the time of the violation.(2) Multiple violations have been established.(3) The licensee, registrant, or applicant has a history of the same or similar violations.(4) The violation resulted in financial harm to another.(5) The victim is an elder or dependent adult as defined in Section 368 of the Penal Code.(6) The violation is related to the repair of damage caused by a natural disaster.(h) The board may adopt regulations to further define the circumstances under which a letter of admonishment may be issued.SEC. 63. Section 7123.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7123.5. If a contractor is convicted of violating Section 396 of the Penal Code or any substantially similar local ordinance in connection with the sale, or offer for sale, of repair or reconstruction services, as defined in Section 396 of the Penal Code, the Contractors State License Board shall take disciplinary action against the contractor, which shall include a suspension of at least six months or the permanent revocation of the contractors license.SEC. 64. Section 7135 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7135. (a) The fees and civil penalties received under this chapter shall be deposited in the Contractors License Fund. All moneys in the fund are hereby appropriated for the purposes of this chapter.(b) It is the intent of the Legislature that the board shall use moneys appropriated from the fund to improve its administrative and investigative oversight activities and capacity.SEC. 65. Section 7136 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7136. The director shall designate a sum not to exceed 10 percent of the total income of the Contractors State License Board for each fiscal year to be transferred to the Consumer Affairs Fund as the boards share of the cost of administration of the department.SEC. 66. Section 7137 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7137. The board may set fees by regulation. These fees shall be set according to the following schedule:(a) (1) The application fee for an original license in a single classification shall be three hundred thirty dollars ($330) and may be increased to not more than three hundred seventy-five dollars ($375).(2) The application fee for each additional classification applied for in connection with an original license shall not be more than eighty-five dollars ($85).(3) The application fee for each additional classification pursuant to Section 7059 shall be one hundred fifty dollars ($150) and may be increased to not more than one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).(4) The application fee to replace a responsible managing officer, responsible managing manager, responsible managing member, or responsible managing employee pursuant to Section 7068.2 shall be one hundred fifty dollars ($150) and may be increased to not more than one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).(5) The application fee to add personnel, other than a qualifying individual, to an existing license shall be one hundred dollars ($100) and may be increased to not more than one hundred fifteen dollars ($115).(b) The fee for rescheduling an examination for an applicant who has applied for an original license, additional classification, a change of responsible managing officer, responsible managing manager, responsible managing member, or responsible managing employee, or for an asbestos certification or hazardous substance removal certification, shall not be more than seventy dollars ($70).(c) The fee for scheduling or rescheduling an examination for a licensee who is required to take the examination as a condition of probation shall not be more than seventy dollars ($70).(d) The initial license fee for an active or inactive license shall be two hundred dollars ($200) and may be increased to not more than two hundred twenty-five dollars ($225).(e) (1) The renewal fee for an active license shall be four hundred dollars ($400) and may be increased to not more than four hundred fifty dollars ($450).(2) The renewal fee for an inactive license shall be two hundred dollars ($200) and may be increased to not more than two hundred twenty-five dollars ($225).(f) The delinquency fee is an amount equal to 50 percent of the renewal fee, if the license is renewed after its expiration.(g) The registration fee for a home improvement salesperson shall be eighty-three dollars ($83) and may be increased to not more than ninety-five dollars ($95).(h) The renewal fee for a home improvement salesperson registration shall be eighty-three dollars ($83) and may be increased to not more than ninety-five dollars ($95).(i) The application fee for an asbestos certification examination shall be eighty-three dollars ($83) and may be increased to not more than ninety-five dollars ($95).(j) The application fee for a hazardous substance removal or remedial action certification examination shall be eighty-three dollars ($83) and may be increased to not more than ninety-five dollars ($95).(k) In addition to any other fees charged to C-10 contractors, the board shall charge a fee of twenty dollars ($20), to be assessed with the renewal fee for an active license, which shall be used by the board to enforce provisions of the Labor Code related to electrician certification.(l) The service fee to deposit with the registrar lawful money or cashiers check pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 995.710 of the Code of Civil Procedure for purposes of compliance with any provision of Article 5 (commencing with Section 7065) shall be one hundred dollars ($100), which shall be used by the board only to process each deposit filed with the registrar, to cover the reasonable costs to the registrar for holding money or cashiers checks in trust in interest bearing deposit or share accounts, and to offset the costs of processing payment of lawful claims against a deposit in a civil action.(m) The board shall, by regulation, establish criteria for the approval of expedited processing of applications. Approved expedited processing of applications for licensure or registration, as required by other provisions of law, shall not be subject to this subdivision.SEC. 67. Section 7137.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7137.5. The sum of ten thousand dollars ($10,000) shall be transferred from the Contractors License Fund to the Controller for the exclusive use of the California Uniform Construction Cost Accounting Commission.The commission shall prepare a recommendation to the Legislature for a local public agency source to fund the commission beginning July 1, 1991, which will provide revenue supported by the contract activities represented by the commissions authority.Upon adoption of this funding program, the commission shall reimburse the Contractors License Fund in the amount of ten thousand dollars ($10,000).SEC. 68. Section 7138 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7138. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a fee paid in connection with a service or application covered by Section 7137 shall accrue to the Contractors License Fund as an earned fee and shall not be refunded.SEC. 69. Section 7139.1 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7139.1. The Legislature hereby finds and declares all of the following:(a) There is a demand and increasing need for construction management education programs and resources within the postsecondary education system that prepare graduates for the management of construction operations and companies regulated by the Contractors State License Law and enforced by the Contractors State License Board.(b) Although construction management programs do exist within the state university system, these programs are woefully underfunded and insufficiently funded to provide training on state-of-the-art management information systems for either graduates or extension programs for continuing education of licensed contractors. Construction industry associations have provided some assistance through direct grants and scholarships, but the industrywide service of these programs and the need for additional assistance mandates broad based industrywide support.(c) It is the intent of the Legislature that by enabling contractors to designate a portion of their licensure fee and providing a format for contractors to contribute funds to construction management education, this article will receive broad based industry support. In addition, this article allows the contractor to demonstrate the importance of construction management education. This assistance will enable greater development of construction management curricula and will improve the overall quality of construction by providing construction management training to California licensed contractors and their current and future management personnel.SEC. 70. Section 7139.2 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7139.2. (a) There is hereby created the Construction Management Education Account (CMEA) as a separate account in the Contractors License Fund for the purposes of construction management education. Funds in the account shall be available for the purposes of this article upon appropriation by the Legislature.(b) The Contractors State License Board shall allow a contractor to make a contribution to the Construction Management Education Account at the time of the contractor license fee payment. The license fee form shall clearly display this alternative on its face and shall clearly inform the licensee that this provision is a contribution to the Construction Management Education Account and is in addition to the fees.(c) The board may accept grants from federal, state, or local public agencies, or from private foundations or individuals, in order to assist it in carrying out its duties, functions, and powers under this article. Grant moneys shall be deposited into the Construction Management Education Account.SEC. 71. Section 7141.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7141.5. The registrar shall grant the retroactive renewal of a license if, within 90 days of the expiration of the license, the otherwise eligible licensee submits a completed application for renewal on a form prescribed by the registrar, and pays the appropriate renewal fee and delinquency fee prescribed by this chapter. For the purposes of this section, an application shall be deemed submitted if it is delivered to the boards headquarters or postmarked within 90 days of the expiration of the license.SEC. 72. Section 7145.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7145.5. (a) The registrar may refuse to issue, reinstate, reactivate, or renew a license or may suspend a license for the failure of a licensee to resolve all outstanding final liabilities, which include taxes, additions to tax, penalties, interest, and any fees that may be assessed by the board, the Department of Industrial Relations, the Employment Development Department, the Franchise Tax Board, or the State Board of Equalization.(1) Until the debts covered by this section are satisfied, the qualifying person and any other personnel of record named on a license that has been suspended under this section shall be prohibited from serving in any capacity that is subject to licensure under this chapter, but shall be permitted to act in the capacity of a nonsupervising bona fide employee.(2) The license of any other renewable licensed entity with any of the same personnel of record that have been assessed an outstanding liability covered by this section shall be suspended until the debt has been satisfied or until the same personnel of record disassociate themselves from the renewable licensed entity.(b) The refusal to issue a license or the suspension of a license as provided by this section shall be applicable only if the registrar has mailed a notice preliminary to the refusal or suspension that indicates that the license will be refused or suspended by a date certain. This preliminary notice shall be mailed to the licensee at least 60 days before the date certain.(c) In the case of outstanding final liabilities assessed by the Franchise Tax Board, this section shall be operative within 60 days after the Contractors State License Board has provided the Franchise Tax Board with the information required under Section 30, relating to licensing information that includes the federal employer identification number, individual taxpayer identification number, or social security number.(d) All versions of the application for a contractors license shall include, as part of the application, an authorization by the applicant, in the form and manner mutually agreeable to the Franchise Tax Board and the board, for the Franchise Tax Board to disclose the tax information that is required for the registrar to administer this section. The Franchise Tax Board may from time to time audit these authorizations.(e) In the case of outstanding final liabilities assessed by the State Board of Equalization, this section shall not apply to any outstanding final liability if the licensee has entered into an installment payment agreement for that liability with the State Board of Equalization and is in compliance with the terms of that agreement.SEC. 73. Section 7159 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7159. (a) (1) This section identifies the projects for which a home improvement contract is required, outlines the contract requirements, and lists the items that shall be included in the contract, or may be provided as an attachment.(2) This section does not apply to service and repair contracts that are subject to Section 7159.10, if the contract for the applicable services complies with Sections 7159.10 to 7159.14, inclusive.(3) This section does not apply to the sale, installation, and servicing of a fire alarm sold in conjunction with an alarm system, as defined in Section 7590.1, if all costs attributable to making the fire alarm system operable, including sale and installation costs, do not exceed five hundred dollars ($500), and the licensee complies with the requirements set forth in Section 7159.9.(4) This section does not apply to any costs associated with monitoring a burglar or fire alarm system.(5) Failure by the licensee, their agent or salesperson, or by a person subject to be licensed under this chapter, to provide the specified information, notices, and disclosures in the contract, or to otherwise fail to comply with any provision of this section, is cause for discipline.(b) For purposes of this section, home improvement contract means an agreement, whether oral or written, or contained in one or more documents, between a contractor and an owner or between a contractor and a tenant, regardless of the number of residence or dwelling units contained in the building in which the tenant resides, if the work is to be performed in, to, or upon the residence or dwelling unit of the tenant, for the performance of a home improvement, as defined in Section 7151, and includes all labor, services, and materials to be furnished and performed thereunder, if the aggregate contract price specified in one or more improvement contracts, including all labor, services, and materials to be furnished by the contractor, exceeds five hundred dollars ($500). Home improvement contract also means an agreement, whether oral or written, or contained in one or more documents, between a salesperson, whether or not they are a home improvement salesperson, and an owner or a tenant, regardless of the number of residence or dwelling units contained in the building in which the tenant resides, which provides for the sale, installation, or furnishing of home improvement goods or services.(c) In addition to the specific requirements listed under this section, every home improvement contract and any person subject to licensure under this chapter or their agent or salesperson shall comply with all of the following:(1) The writing shall be legible.(2) Any printed form shall be readable. Unless a larger typeface is specified in this article, text in any printed form shall be in at least 10-point typeface and the headings shall be in at least 10-point boldface type.(3) (A) Before any work is started, the contractor shall give the buyer a copy of the contract signed and dated by both the contractor and the buyer. The buyers receipt of the copy of the contract initiates the buyers rights to cancel the contract pursuant to Sections 1689.5 to 1689.14, inclusive, of the Civil Code.(B) The contract shall contain on the first page, in a typeface no smaller than that generally used in the body of the document, both of the following:(i) The date the buyer signed the contract.(ii) The name and address of the contractor to which the applicable Notice of Cancellation is to be mailed, immediately preceded by a statement advising the buyer that the Notice of Cancellation may be sent to the contractor at the address noted on the contract.(4) The contract shall include a statement that, upon satisfactory payment being made for any portion of the work performed, the contractor, prior to any further payment being made, shall furnish to the person contracting for the home improvement or swimming pool work a full and unconditional release from any potential lien claimant claim or mechanics lien authorized pursuant to Sections 8400 and 8404 of the Civil Code for that portion of the work for which payment has been made.(5) A change-order form for changes or extra work shall be incorporated into the contract and shall become part of the contract only if it is in writing and signed by the parties prior to the commencement of any work covered by a change order.(6) The contract shall contain, in close proximity to the signatures of the owner and contractor, a notice stating that the owner or tenant has the right to require the contractor to have a performance and payment bond.(7) If the contract provides for a contractor to furnish joint control, the contractor shall not have any financial or other interest in the joint control.(8) The provisions of this section are not exclusive and do not relieve the contractor from compliance with any other applicable provision of law.(d) A home improvement contract and any changes to the contract shall be in writing and signed by the parties to the contract prior to the commencement of work covered by the contract or an applicable change order and, except as provided in paragraph (8) of subdivision (a) of Section 7159.5, shall include or comply with all of the following:(1) The name, business address, and license number of the contractor.(2) If applicable, the name and registration number of the home improvement salesperson that solicited or negotiated the contract.(3) The following heading on the contract form that identifies the type of contract in at least 10-point boldface type: Home Improvement.(4) The following statement in at least 12-point boldface type: You are entitled to a completely filled in copy of this agreement, signed by both you and the contractor, before any work may be started.(5) The heading: Contract Price, followed by the amount of the contract in dollars and cents.(6) If a finance charge will be charged, the heading: Finance Charge, followed by the amount in dollars and cents. The finance charge is to be set out separately from the contract amount.(7) The heading: Description of the Project and Description of the Significant Materials to be Used and Equipment to be Installed, followed by a description of the project and a description of the significant materials to be used and equipment to be installed. For swimming pools, the project description required under this paragraph also shall include a plan and scale drawing showing the shape, size, dimensions, and the construction and equipment specifications.(8) If a downpayment will be charged, the details of the downpayment shall be expressed in substantially the following form, and shall include the text of the notice as specified in subparagraph (C):(A) The heading: Downpayment.(B) A space where the actual downpayment appears.(C) The following statement in at least 12-point boldface type:THE DOWNPAYMENT MAY NOT EXCEED $1,000 OR 10 PERCENT OF THE CONTRACT PRICE, WHICHEVER IS LESS.(9) If payments, other than the downpayment, are to be made before the project is completed, the details of these payments, known as progress payments, shall be expressed in substantially the following form, and shall include the text of the statement as specified in subparagraph (C):(A) A schedule of progress payments shall be preceded by the heading: Schedule of Progress Payments.(B) Each progress payment shall be stated in dollars and cents and specifically reference the amount of work or services to be performed and materials and equipment to be supplied.(C) The section of the contract reserved for the progress payments shall include the following statement in at least 12-point boldface type:The schedule of progress payments must specifically describe each phase of work, including the type and amount of work or services scheduled to be supplied in each phase, along with the amount of each proposed progress payment. IT IS AGAINST THE LAW FOR A CONTRACTOR TO COLLECT PAYMENT FOR WORK NOT YET COMPLETED, OR FOR MATERIALS NOT YET DELIVERED. HOWEVER, A CONTRACTOR MAY REQUIRE A DOWNPAYMENT.(10) The contract shall address the commencement of work to be performed in substantially the following form:(A) A statement that describes what constitutes substantial commencement of work under the contract.(B) The heading: Approximate Start Date.(C) The approximate date on which work will be commenced.(11) The estimated completion date of the work shall be referenced in the contract in substantially the following form:(A) The heading: Approximate Completion Date.(B) The approximate date of completion.(12) If applicable, the heading: List of Documents to be Incorporated into the Contract, followed by the list of documents incorporated into the contract.(13) The heading: Note About Extra Work and Change Orders, followed by the following statement:Extra Work and Change Orders become part of the contract once the order is prepared in writing and signed by the parties prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order. The order must describe the scope of the extra work or change, the cost to be added or subtracted from the contract, and the effect the order will have on the schedule of progress payments.(e) Except as provided in paragraph (8) of subdivision (a) of Section 7159.5, all of the following notices shall be provided to the owner as part of the contract form as specified or, if otherwise authorized under this subdivision, may be provided as an attachment to the contract:(1) A notice concerning commercial general liability insurance. This notice may be provided as an attachment to the contract if the contract includes the following statement: A notice concerning commercial general liability insurance is attached to this contract. The notice shall include the heading Commercial General Liability Insurance (CGL), followed by whichever of the following statements is both relevant and correct:(A) (The name on the license or This contractor) does not carry commercial general liability insurance.(B) (The name on the license or This contractor) carries commercial general liability insurance written by (the insurance company). You may call (the insurance company) at __________ to check the contractors insurance coverage.(C) (The name on the license or This contractor) is self-insured.(D) (The name on the license or This contractor) is a limited liability company that carries liability insurance or maintains other security as required by law. You may call (the insurance company or trust company or bank) at ____ to check on the contractors insurance coverage or security.(2) A notice concerning workers compensation insurance. This notice may be provided as an attachment to the contract if the contract includes the statement: A notice concerning workers compensation insurance is attached to this contract. The notice shall include the heading Workers Compensation Insurance followed by whichever of the following statements is correct:(A) (The name on the license or This contractor) has no employees and is exempt from workers compensation requirements.(B) (The name on the license or This contractor) carries workers compensation insurance for all employees.(3) A notice that provides the buyer with the following information about the performance of extra or change-order work:(A) A statement that the buyer may not require a contractor to perform extra or change-order work without providing written authorization prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order.(B) A statement informing the buyer that extra work or a change order is not enforceable against a buyer unless the change order also identifies all of the following in writing prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order:(i) The scope of work encompassed by the order.(ii) The amount to be added or subtracted from the contract.(iii) The effect the order will make in the progress payments or the completion date.(C) A statement informing the buyer that the contractors failure to comply with the requirements of this paragraph does not preclude the recovery of compensation for work performed based upon legal or equitable remedies designed to prevent unjust enrichment.(4) A notice with the heading Mechanics Lien Warning written as follows:MECHANICS LIEN WARNING:Anyone who helps improve your property, but who is not paid, may record what is called a mechanics lien on your property. A mechanics lien is a claim, like a mortgage or home equity loan, made against your property and recorded with the county recorder.Even if you pay your contractor in full, unpaid subcontractors, suppliers, and laborers who helped to improve your property may record mechanics liens and sue you in court to foreclose the lien. If a court finds the lien is valid, you could be forced to pay twice or have a court officer sell your home to pay the lien. Liens can also affect your credit.To preserve their right to record a lien, each subcontractor and material supplier must provide you with a document called a Preliminary Notice. This notice is not a lien. The purpose of the notice is to let you know that the person who sends you the notice has the right to record a lien on your property if they are not paid.BE CAREFUL. The Preliminary Notice can be sent up to 20 days after the subcontractor starts work or the supplier provides material. This can be a big problem if you pay your contractor before you have received the Preliminary Notices.You will not get Preliminary Notices from your prime contractor or from laborers who work on your project. The law assumes that you already know they are improving your property.PROTECT YOURSELF FROM LIENS. You can protect yourself from liens by getting a list from your contractor of all the subcontractors and material suppliers that work on your project. Find out from your contractor when these subcontractors started work and when these suppliers delivered goods or materials. Then wait 20 days, paying attention to the Preliminary Notices you receive.PAY WITH JOINT CHECKS. One way to protect yourself is to pay with a joint check. When your contractor tells you it is time to pay for the work of a subcontractor or supplier who has provided you with a Preliminary Notice, write a joint check payable to both the contractor and the subcontractor or material supplier.For other ways to prevent liens, visit CSLBs internet website at www.cslb.ca.gov or call CSLB at 800-321-CSLB (2752).REMEMBER, IF YOU DO NOTHING, YOU RISK HAVING A LIEN PLACED ON YOUR HOME. This can mean that you may have to pay twice, or face the forced sale of your home to pay what you owe.(5) The following notice shall be provided in at least 12-point typeface:Information about the Contractors State License Board (CSLB): CSLB is the state consumer protection agency that licenses and regulates construction contractors.Contact CSLB for information about the licensed contractor you are considering, including information about disclosable complaints, disciplinary actions, and civil judgments that are reported to CSLB.Use only licensed contractors. If you file a complaint against a licensed contractor within the legal deadline (usually four years), CSLB has authority to investigate the complaint. If you use an unlicensed contractor, CSLB may not be able to help you resolve your complaint. Your only remedy may be in civil court, and you may be liable for damages arising out of any injuries to the unlicensed contractor or the unlicensed contractors employees.For more information:Visit CSLBs internet website at www.cslb.ca.govCall CSLB at 800-321-CSLB (2752)Write CSLB at P.O. Box 26000, Sacramento, CA 95826.(6) (A) The notice set forth in subparagraph (B) and entitled Three-Day Right to Cancel, shall be provided to the buyer unless the contract is:(i) Negotiated at the contractors place of business.(ii) Subject to the Seven-Day Right to Cancel, as set forth in paragraph (7).(iii) Subject to licensure under the Alarm Company Act (Chapter 11.6 (commencing with Section 7590)), provided the alarm company licensee complies with Sections 1689.5, 1689.6, and 1689.7 of the Civil Code, as applicable.(B) Three-Day Right to CancelYou, the buyer, have the right to cancel this contract within three business days. You may cancel by emailing, mailing, faxing, or delivering a written notice to the contractor at the contractors place of business by midnight of the third business day after you received a signed and dated copy of the contract that includes this notice. Include your name, your address, and the date you received the signed copy of the contract and this notice.If you cancel, the contractor must return to you anything you paid within 10 days of receiving the notice of cancellation. For your part, you must make available to the contractor at your residence, in substantially as good condition as you received them, goods delivered to you under this contract or sale. Or, you may, if you wish, comply with the contractors instructions on how to return the goods at the contractors expense and risk. If you do make the goods available to the contractor and the contractor does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may keep them without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the contractor, or if you agree to return the goods to the contractor and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.(C) The Three-Day Right to Cancel notice required by this paragraph shall comply with all of the following:(i) The text of the notice is at least 12-point boldface type.(ii) The notice is in immediate proximity to a space reserved for the owners signature.(iii) The owner acknowledges receipt of the notice by signing and dating the notice form in the signature space.(iv) The notice is written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as that principally used in any oral sales presentation.(v) The notice may be attached to the contract if the contract includes, in at least 12-point boldface type, a checkbox with the following statement: The law requires that the contractor give you a notice explaining your right to cancel. Initial the checkbox if the contractor has given you a Notice of the Three-Day Right to Cancel.(vi) The notice shall be accompanied by a completed form in duplicate, captioned Notice of Cancellation, which also shall be attached to the agreement or offer to purchase and be easily detachable, and which shall contain the following statement written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as used in the contract:Notice of Cancellation/enter date of transaction/(Date)You may cancel this transaction, without any penalty or obligation, within three business days from the above date.If you cancel, any property traded in, any payments made by you under the contract or sale, and any negotiable instrument executed by you will be returned within 10 days following receipt by the seller of your cancellation notice, and any security interest arising out of the transaction will be canceled.If you cancel, you must make available to the seller at your residence, in substantially as good condition as when received, any goods delivered to you under this contract or sale, or you may, if you wish, comply with the instructions of the seller regarding the return shipment of the goods at the sellers expense and risk.If you do make the goods available to the seller and the seller does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may retain or dispose of the goods without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the seller, or if you agree to return the goods to the seller and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.To cancel this transaction, mail or deliver a signed and dated copy of this cancellation notice, or any other written notice, or send a telegramto ,/name of seller/at /address of sellers place of business/not later than midnight of .(Date)I hereby cancel this transaction.(Date)(Buyers signature)(7) (A) The following notice entitled Seven-Day Right to Cancel shall be provided to the buyer for any contract that is written for the repair or restoration of residential premises damaged by any sudden or catastrophic event for which a state of emergency has been declared by the President of the United States or the Governor, or for which a local emergency has been declared by the executive officer or governing body of any city, county, or city and county:Seven-Day Right to CancelYou, the buyer, have the right to cancel this contract within seven business days. You may cancel by emailing, mailing, faxing, or delivering a written notice to the contractor at the contractors place of business by midnight of the seventh business day after you received a signed and dated copy of the contract that includes this notice. Include your name, your address, and the date you received the signed copy of the contract and this notice.If you cancel, the contractor must return to you anything you paid within 10 days of receiving the notice of cancellation. For your part, you must make available to the contractor at your residence, in substantially as good condition as you received them, goods delivered to you under this contract or sale. Or, you may, if you wish, comply with the contractors instructions on how to return the goods at the contractors expense and risk. If you do make the goods available to the contractor and the contractor does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may keep them without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the contractor, or if you agree to return the goods to the contractor and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.(B) The Seven-Day Right to Cancel notice required by this subdivision shall comply with all of the following:(i) The text of the notice is at least 12-point boldface type.(ii) The notice is in immediate proximity to a space reserved for the owners signature.(iii) The owner acknowledges receipt of the notice by signing and dating the notice form in the signature space.(iv) The notice is written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as that principally used in any oral sales presentation.(v) The notice may be attached to the contract if the contract includes, in at least 12-point boldface type, a checkbox with the following statement: The law requires that the contractor give you a notice explaining your right to cancel. Initial the checkbox if the contractor has given you a Notice of the Seven-Day Right to Cancel.(vi) The notice shall be accompanied by a completed form in duplicate, captioned Notice of Cancellation, which shall also be attached to the agreement or offer to purchase and be easily detachable, and which shall contain the following statement written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as used in the contract:Notice of Cancellation/enter date of transaction/(Date)You may cancel this transaction, without any penalty or obligation, within seven business days from the above date.If you cancel, any property traded in, any payments made by you under the contract or sale, and any negotiable instrument executed by you will be returned within 10 days following receipt by the seller of your cancellation notice, and any security interest arising out of the transaction will be canceled.If you cancel, you must make available to the seller at your residence, in substantially as good condition as when received, any goods delivered to you under this contract or sale, or you may, if you wish, comply with the instructions of the seller regarding the return shipment of the goods at the sellers expense and risk.If you do make the goods available to the seller and the seller does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may retain or dispose of the goods without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the seller, or if you agree to return the goods to the seller and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.To cancel this transaction, mail or deliver a signed and dated copy of this cancellation notice, or any other written notice, or send a telegramto ,/name of seller/at /address of sellers place of business/not later than midnight of .(Date)I hereby cancel this transaction.(Date)(Buyers signature)SEC. 73.5. Section 7159 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7159. (a) (1) This section identifies the projects for which a home improvement contract is required, outlines the contract requirements, and lists the items that shall be included in the contract, or may be provided as an attachment.(2) This section does not apply to service and repair contracts that are subject to Section 7159.10, if the contract for the applicable services complies with Sections 7159.10 to 7159.14, inclusive.(3) This section does not apply to the sale, installation, and servicing of a fire alarm sold in conjunction with an alarm system, as defined in Section 7590.1, if all costs attributable to making the fire alarm system operable, including sale and installation costs, do not exceed five hundred dollars ($500), and the licensee complies with the requirements set forth in Section 7159.9.(4) This section does not apply to any costs associated with monitoring a burglar or fire alarm system.(5) Failure by the licensee, their agent or salesperson, or by a person subject to be licensed under this chapter, to provide the specified information, notices, and disclosures in the contract, or to otherwise fail to comply with any provision of this section, is cause for discipline.(b) For purposes of this section, home improvement contract means an agreement, whether oral or written, or contained in one or more documents, between a contractor and an owner or between a contractor and a tenant, regardless of the number of residence or dwelling units contained in the building in which the tenant resides, if the work is to be performed in, to, or upon the residence or dwelling unit of the tenant, for the performance of a home improvement, as defined in Section 7151, and includes all labor, services, and materials to be furnished and performed thereunder, if the aggregate contract price specified in one or more improvement contracts, including all labor, services, and materials to be furnished by the contractor, exceeds five hundred dollars ($500). Home improvement contract also means an agreement, whether oral or written, or contained in one or more documents, between a salesperson, whether or not they are a home improvement salesperson, and an owner or a tenant, regardless of the number of residence or dwelling units contained in the building in which the tenant resides, which provides for the sale, installation, or furnishing of home improvement goods or services.(c) In addition to the specific requirements listed under this section, every home improvement contract and any person subject to licensure under this chapter or their agent or salesperson shall comply with all of the following:(1) The writing shall be legible.(2) Any printed form shall be readable. Unless a larger typeface is specified in this article, text in any printed form shall be in at least 10-point typeface and the headings shall be in at least 10-point boldface type.(3) (A) Before any work is started, the contractor shall give the buyer a copy of the contract signed and dated by both the contractor and the buyer. The buyers receipt of the copy of the contract initiates the buyers rights to cancel the contract pursuant to Sections 1689.5 to 1689.14, inclusive, of the Civil Code.(B) The contract shall contain on the first page, in a typeface no smaller than that generally used in the body of the document, both of the following:(i) The date the buyer signed the contract.(ii) The name and address of the contractor to which the applicable Notice of Cancellation is to be mailed, immediately preceded by a statement advising the buyer that the Notice of Cancellation may be sent to the contractor at the address noted on the contract.(4) The contract shall include a statement that, upon satisfactory payment being made for any portion of the work performed, the contractor, prior to any further payment being made, shall furnish to the person contracting for the home improvement or swimming pool work a full and unconditional release from any potential lien claimant claim or mechanics lien authorized pursuant to Sections 8400 and 8404 of the Civil Code for that portion of the work for which payment has been made.(5) A change-order form for changes or extra work shall be incorporated into the contract and shall become part of the contract only if it is in writing and signed by the parties prior to the commencement of any work covered by a change order.(6) The contract shall contain, in close proximity to the signatures of the owner and contractor, a notice stating that the owner or tenant has the right to require the contractor to have a performance and payment bond.(7) If the contract provides for a contractor to furnish joint control, the contractor shall not have any financial or other interest in the joint control.(8) The provisions of this section are not exclusive and do not relieve the contractor from compliance with any other applicable provision of law.(d) A home improvement contract and any changes to the contract shall be in writing and signed by the parties to the contract prior to the commencement of work covered by the contract or an applicable change order and, except as provided in paragraph (8) of subdivision (a) of Section 7159.5, shall include or comply with all of the following:(1) The name, business address, and license number of the contractor.(2) If applicable, the name and registration number of the home improvement salesperson that solicited or negotiated the contract.(3) The following heading on the contract form that identifies the type of contract in at least 10-point boldface type: Home Improvement.(4) The following statement in at least 12-point boldface type: You are entitled to a completely filled in copy of this agreement, signed by both you and the contractor, before any work may be started.(5) The heading: Contract Price, followed by the amount of the contract in dollars and cents.(6) If a finance charge will be charged, the heading: Finance Charge, followed by the amount in dollars and cents. The finance charge is to be set out separately from the contract amount.(7) The heading: Description of the Project and Description of the Significant Materials to be Used and Equipment to be Installed, followed by a description of the project and a description of the significant materials to be used and equipment to be installed. For swimming pools, the project description required under this paragraph also shall include a plan and scale drawing showing the shape, size, dimensions, and the construction and equipment specifications.(8) If a downpayment will be charged, the details of the downpayment shall be expressed in substantially the following form, and shall include the text of the notice as specified in subparagraph (C):(A) The heading: Downpayment.(B) A space where the actual downpayment appears.(C) The following statement in at least 12-point boldface type:THE DOWNPAYMENT MAY NOT EXCEED $1,000 OR 10 PERCENT OF THE CONTRACT PRICE, WHICHEVER IS LESS.(9) If payments, other than the downpayment, are to be made before the project is completed, the details of these payments, known as progress payments, shall be expressed in substantially the following form, and shall include the text of the statement as specified in subparagraph (C):(A) A schedule of progress payments shall be preceded by the heading: Schedule of Progress Payments.(B) Each progress payment shall be stated in dollars and cents and specifically reference the amount of work or services to be performed and materials and equipment to be supplied.(C) The section of the contract reserved for the progress payments shall include the following statement in at least 12-point boldface type:The schedule of progress payments must specifically describe each phase of work, including the type and amount of work or services scheduled to be supplied in each phase, along with the amount of each proposed progress payment. IT IS AGAINST THE LAW FOR A CONTRACTOR TO COLLECT PAYMENT FOR WORK NOT YET COMPLETED, OR FOR MATERIALS NOT YET DELIVERED. HOWEVER, A CONTRACTOR MAY REQUIRE A DOWNPAYMENT.(10) The contract shall address the commencement of work to be performed in substantially the following form:(A) A statement that describes what constitutes substantial commencement of work under the contract.(B) The heading: Approximate Start Date.(C) The approximate date on which work will be commenced.(11) The estimated completion date of the work shall be referenced in the contract in substantially the following form:(A) The heading: Approximate Completion Date.(B) The approximate date of completion.(12) If applicable, the heading: List of Documents to be Incorporated into the Contract, followed by the list of documents incorporated into the contract.(13) The heading: Note About Extra Work and Change Orders, followed by the following statement:Extra Work and Change Orders become part of the contract once the order is prepared in writing and signed by the parties prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order. The order must describe the scope of the extra work or change, the cost to be added or subtracted from the contract, and the effect the order will have on the schedule of progress payments.(e) Except as provided in paragraph (8) of subdivision (a) of Section 7159.5, all of the following notices shall be provided to the owner as part of the contract form as specified or, if otherwise authorized under this subdivision, may be provided as an attachment to the contract:(1) A notice concerning commercial general liability insurance. This notice may be provided as an attachment to the contract if the contract includes the following statement: A notice concerning commercial general liability insurance is attached to this contract. The notice shall include the heading Commercial General Liability Insurance (CGL), followed by whichever of the following statements is both relevant and correct:(A) (The name on the license or This contractor) does not carry commercial general liability insurance.(B) (The name on the license or This contractor) carries commercial general liability insurance written by (the insurance company). You may call (the insurance company) at __________ to check the contractors insurance coverage.(C) (The name on the license or This contractor) is self-insured.(D) (The name on the license or This contractor) is a limited liability company that carries liability insurance or maintains other security as required by law. You may call (the insurance company or trust company or bank) at ____ to check on the contractors insurance coverage or security.(2) A notice concerning workers compensation insurance. This notice may be provided as an attachment to the contract if the contract includes the statement: A notice concerning workers compensation insurance is attached to this contract. The notice shall include the heading Workers Compensation Insurance followed by whichever of the following statements is correct:(A) (The name on the license or This contractor) has no employees and is exempt from workers compensation requirements.(B) (The name on the license or This contractor) carries workers compensation insurance for all employees.(3) A notice that provides the buyer with the following information about the performance of extra or change-order work:(A) A statement that the buyer may not require a contractor to perform extra or change-order work without providing written authorization prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order.(B) A statement informing the buyer that extra work or a change order is not enforceable against a buyer unless the change order also identifies all of the following in writing prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order:(i) The scope of work encompassed by the order.(ii) The amount to be added or subtracted from the contract.(iii) The effect the order will make in the progress payments or the completion date.(C) A statement informing the buyer that the contractors failure to comply with the requirements of this paragraph does not preclude the recovery of compensation for work performed based upon legal or equitable remedies designed to prevent unjust enrichment.(4) A notice with the heading Mechanics Lien Warning written as follows:MECHANICS LIEN WARNING:Anyone who helps improve your property, but who is not paid, may record what is called a mechanics lien on your property. A mechanics lien is a claim, like a mortgage or home equity loan, made against your property and recorded with the county recorder.Even if you pay your contractor in full, unpaid subcontractors, suppliers, and laborers who helped to improve your property may record mechanics liens and sue you in court to foreclose the lien. If a court finds the lien is valid, you could be forced to pay twice or have a court officer sell your home to pay the lien. Liens can also affect your credit.To preserve their right to record a lien, each subcontractor and material supplier must provide you with a document called a Preliminary Notice. This notice is not a lien. The purpose of the notice is to let you know that the person who sends you the notice has the right to record a lien on your property if they are not paid.BE CAREFUL. The Preliminary Notice can be sent up to 20 days after the subcontractor starts work or the supplier provides material. This can be a big problem if you pay your contractor before you have received the Preliminary Notices.You will not get Preliminary Notices from your prime contractor or from laborers who work on your project. The law assumes that you already know they are improving your property.PROTECT YOURSELF FROM LIENS. You can protect yourself from liens by getting a list from your contractor of all the subcontractors and material suppliers that work on your project. Find out from your contractor when these subcontractors started work and when these suppliers delivered goods or materials. Then wait 20 days, paying attention to the Preliminary Notices you receive.PAY WITH JOINT CHECKS. One way to protect yourself is to pay with a joint check. When your contractor tells you it is time to pay for the work of a subcontractor or supplier who has provided you with a Preliminary Notice, write a joint check payable to both the contractor and the subcontractor or material supplier.For other ways to prevent liens, visit CSLBs internet website at www.cslb.ca.gov or call CSLB at 800-321-CSLB (2752).REMEMBER, IF YOU DO NOTHING, YOU RISK HAVING A LIEN PLACED ON YOUR HOME. This can mean that you may have to pay twice, or face the forced sale of your home to pay what you owe.(5) The following notice shall be provided in at least 12-point typeface:Information about the Contractors State License Board (CSLB): CSLB is the state consumer protection agency that licenses and regulates construction contractors.Contact CSLB for information about the licensed contractor you are considering, including information about disclosable complaints, disciplinary actions, and civil judgments that are reported to CSLB.Use only licensed contractors. If you file a complaint against a licensed contractor within the legal deadline (usually four years), CSLB has authority to investigate the complaint. If you use an unlicensed contractor, CSLB may not be able to help you resolve your complaint. Your only remedy may be in civil court, and you may be liable for damages arising out of any injuries to the unlicensed contractor or the unlicensed contractors employees.For more information:Visit CSLBs internet website at www.cslb.ca.govCall CSLB at 800-321-CSLB (2752)Write CSLB at P.O. Box 26000, Sacramento, CA 95826.(6) (A) The notice set forth in subparagraph (B) and entitled Three-Day Right to Cancel, or entitled Five-Day Right to Cancel for contracts with a senior citizen, shall be provided to the buyer unless the contract is:(i) Negotiated at the contractors place of business.(ii) Subject to the Seven-Day Right to Cancel, as set forth in paragraph (7).(iii) Subject to licensure under the Alarm Company Act (Chapter 11.6 (commencing with Section 7590)), provided the alarm company licensee complies with Sections 1689.5, 1689.6, and 1689.7 of the Civil Code, as applicable.(B) (i) Three-Day Right to CancelYou, the buyer, have the right to cancel this contract within three business days. You may cancel by emailing, mailing, faxing, or delivering a written notice to the contractor at the contractors place of business by midnight of the third business day after you received a signed and dated copy of the contract that includes this notice. Include your name, your address, and the date you received the signed copy of the contract and this notice.If you cancel, the contractor must return to you anything you paid within 10 days of receiving the notice of cancellation. For your part, you must make available to the contractor at your residence, in substantially as good condition as you received them, goods delivered to you under this contract or sale. Or, you may, if you wish, comply with the contractors instructions on how to return the goods at the contractors expense and risk. If you do make the goods available to the contractor and the contractor does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may keep them without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the contractor, or if you agree to return the goods to the contractor and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.(ii) References to three and third in the notice set forth in clause (i) shall be changed to five and fifth, respectively, for a buyer who is a senior citizen.(C) The notice required by this paragraph shall comply with all of the following:(i) The text of the notice is at least 12-point boldface type.(ii) The notice is in immediate proximity to a space reserved for the owners signature.(iii) The owner acknowledges receipt of the notice by signing and dating the notice form in the signature space.(iv) The notice is written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as that principally used in any oral sales presentation.(v) The notice may be attached to the contract if the contract includes, in at least 12-point boldface type, a checkbox with one of the following statements, as applicable:(I) For a contract with a senior citizen: The law requires that the contractor give you a notice explaining your right to cancel. Initial the checkbox if the contractor has given you a Notice of the Five-Day Right to Cancel.(II) For all other contracts: The law requires that the contractor give you a notice explaining your right to cancel. Initial the checkbox if the contractor has given you a Notice of the Three-Day Right to Cancel.(vi) (I) The notice shall be accompanied by a completed form in duplicate, captioned Notice of Cancellation, which also shall be attached to the agreement or offer to purchase and be easily detachable, and which shall contain the following statement written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as used in the contract:Notice of Cancellation/enter date of transaction/(Date)You may cancel this transaction, without any penalty or obligation, within three business days from the above date.If you cancel, any property traded in, any payments made by you under the contract or sale, and any negotiable instrument executed by you will be returned within 10 days following receipt by the seller of your cancellation notice, and any security interest arising out of the transaction will be canceled.If you cancel, you must make available to the seller at your residence, in substantially as good condition as when received, any goods delivered to you under this contract or sale, or you may, if you wish, comply with the instructions of the seller regarding the return shipment of the goods at the sellers expense and risk.If you do make the goods available to the seller and the seller does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may retain or dispose of the goods without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the seller, or if you agree to return the goods to the seller and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.To cancel this transaction, mail or deliver a signed and dated copy of this cancellation notice, or any other written notice, or send a telegramto ,/name of seller/at /address of sellers place of business/not later than midnight of .(Date)I hereby cancel this transaction.(Date)(Buyers signature)(II) The reference to three in the statement set forth in subclause (I) shall be changed to five for a buyer who is a senior citizen.(7) (A) The following notice entitled Seven-Day Right to Cancel shall be provided to the buyer for any contract that is written for the repair or restoration of residential premises damaged by any sudden or catastrophic event for which a state of emergency has been declared by the President of the United States or the Governor, or for which a local emergency has been declared by the executive officer or governing body of any city, county, or city and county:Seven-Day Right to CancelYou, the buyer, have the right to cancel this contract within seven business days. You may cancel by emailing, mailing, faxing, or delivering a written notice to the contractor at the contractors place of business by midnight of the seventh business day after you received a signed and dated copy of the contract that includes this notice. Include your name, your address, and the date you received the signed copy of the contract and this notice.If you cancel, the contractor must return to you anything you paid within 10 days of receiving the notice of cancellation. For your part, you must make available to the contractor at your residence, in substantially as good condition as you received them, goods delivered to you under this contract or sale. Or, you may, if you wish, comply with the contractors instructions on how to return the goods at the contractors expense and risk. If you do make the goods available to the contractor and the contractor does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may keep them without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the contractor, or if you agree to return the goods to the contractor and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.(B) The Seven-Day Right to Cancel notice required by this subdivision shall comply with all of the following:(i) The text of the notice is at least 12-point boldface type.(ii) The notice is in immediate proximity to a space reserved for the owners signature.(iii) The owner acknowledges receipt of the notice by signing and dating the notice form in the signature space.(iv) The notice is written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as that principally used in any oral sales presentation.(v) The notice may be attached to the contract if the contract includes, in at least 12-point boldface type, a checkbox with the following statement: The law requires that the contractor give you a notice explaining your right to cancel. Initial the checkbox if the contractor has given you a Notice of the Seven-Day Right to Cancel.(vi) The notice shall be accompanied by a completed form in duplicate, captioned Notice of Cancellation, which shall also be attached to the agreement or offer to purchase and be easily detachable, and which shall contain the following statement written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as used in the contract:Notice of Cancellation/enter date of transaction/(Date)You may cancel this transaction, without any penalty or obligation, within seven business days from the above date.If you cancel, any property traded in, any payments made by you under the contract or sale, and any negotiable instrument executed by you will be returned within 10 days following receipt by the seller of your cancellation notice, and any security interest arising out of the transaction will be canceled.If you cancel, you must make available to the seller at your residence, in substantially as good condition as when received, any goods delivered to you under this contract or sale, or you may, if you wish, comply with the instructions of the seller regarding the return shipment of the goods at the sellers expense and risk.If you do make the goods available to the seller and the seller does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may retain or dispose of the goods without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the seller, or if you agree to return the goods to the seller and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.To cancel this transaction, mail or deliver a signed and dated copy of this cancellation notice, or any other written notice, or send a telegramto ,/name of seller/at /address of sellers place of business/not later than midnight of .(Date)I hereby cancel this transaction.(Date)(Buyers signature)(f) The five-day right to cancel added by the act that amended paragraph (6) of subdivision (e) shall apply to contracts entered into on or after January 1, 2021.SEC. 74. Section 7170 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7170. (a) The Contractors State License Board shall receive and review complaints and consumer questions regarding solar energy systems companies and solar contractors. The board shall also receive complaints received from state agencies regarding solar energy systems companies and solar contractors.(b) Beginning on July 1, 2019, the board annually shall compile a report documenting consumer complaints relating to solar contractors. The report shall be made available publicly on the boards and the Public Utilities Commissions internet websites. The report shall contain all of the following:(1) The number and types of complaints.(2) The ZIP Code where the consumer complaint originated.(3) The disposition of all complaints received against a solar contractor.(c) For purposes of this section, solar energy system means a solar energy device to be installed on a residential building that has the primary purpose of providing for the collection and distribution of solar energy for the generation of electricity, that produces at least one kW, and not more than five MW, alternating current rated peak electricity, and that meets or exceeds the eligibility criteria established pursuant to Section 25782 of the Public Resources Code.SEC. 75. Section 7303 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7303. (a) Notwithstanding Article 8 (commencing with Section 9148) of Chapter 1.5 of Part 1 of Division 2 of Title 2 of the Government Code, there is in the Department of Consumer Affairs the State Board of Barbering and Cosmetology in which the administration of this chapter is vested.(b) The board shall consist of nine members. Five members shall be public members, and four members shall represent the professions. The Governor shall appoint three of the public members and the four professional members. The Senate Committee on Rules and the Speaker of the Assembly shall each appoint one public member. Members of the board shall be appointed for a term of four years, except that of the members appointed by the Governor, two of the public members and two of the professions members shall be appointed for an initial term of two years. No board member may serve longer than two consecutive terms.(c) The board may appoint an executive officer who is exempt from civil service. The executive officer shall exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated by the board and vested in the executive officer by this chapter. The appointment of the executive officer is subject to the approval of the director. In the event that a newly authorized board replaces an existing or previous bureau, the director may appoint an interim executive officer for the board who shall serve temporarily until the new board appoints a permanent executive officer.(d) The executive officer shall provide examiners, inspectors, and other personnel necessary to carry out the provisions of this chapter.(e) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.SEC. 76. Section 7512.3 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 1 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:7512.3. (a) As used in this chapter, person includes any individual, firm, company, limited liability company, association, organization, partnership, and corporation.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 77. Section 7512.3 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 2 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:7512.3. (a) As used in this chapter, person includes any individual, firm, company, association, organization, partnership, and corporation.(b) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024.SEC. 78. Section 7512.14 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7512.14. (a) As used in this chapter, member means an individual who is a member of a limited liability company as specified in Section 17704.01 of the Corporations Code.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 79. Section 7512.15 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7512.15. (a) As used in this chapter, manager means an individual designated under an operating agreement of a manager-managed limited liability company who is responsible for performing the management functions for the limited liability company specified in subdivision (c) of Section 17704.07 of the Corporations Code.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 80. Section 7520.3 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7520.3. (a) As a condition of the issuance, reinstatement, reactivation, or continued valid use of a license under this chapter, a limited liability company shall, in accordance with this section, maintain a policy or policies of insurance against liability imposed on or against it by law for damages arising out of claims based upon acts, errors, or omissions arising out of the private investigator services it provides.(b) The total aggregate limit of liability under the policy or policies of insurance required under this section shall be as follows:(1) For a limited liability company licensee with five or fewer persons named as members pursuant to subdivision (i) of Section 7525.1, the aggregate limit shall not be less than one million dollars ($1,000,000).(2) For a limited liability company licensee with more than five persons named as members pursuant to subdivision (i) of Section 7525.1, an additional one hundred thousand dollars ($100,000) of insurance shall be obtained for each person named as members of the licensee except that the maximum amount of insurance is not required to exceed five million dollars ($5,000,000) in any one designated period, less amounts paid in defending, settling, or discharging claims as set forth under this section.(c) Prior to the issuance, reinstatement, or reactivation of a limited liability company license as provided under this chapter, the applicant or licensee shall, in the manner prescribed by the bureau, submit the information and documentation required by this section and requested by the bureau, demonstrating compliance with the financial security requirements specified by this section.(d) For any insurance policy secured by a licensee in satisfaction of this section, a Certificate of Liability Insurance, signed by an authorized agent or employee of the insurer, shall be submitted electronically or otherwise to the bureau. The insurer issuing the certificate shall report to the bureau the following information for any policy required under this section: name, license number, policy number, dates that coverage is scheduled to commence and lapse, and cancellation date if applicable. The insurer shall list the bureau as the certificate holder for the purposes of receiving notifications related to the policys status.(e) (1) If a licensee fails to maintain sufficient insurance as required by this section, or fails to provide proof of the required insurance upon request by the bureau, the license is subject to suspension and shall be automatically suspended pursuant to this subdivision until the date that the licensee provides proof to the bureau of compliance with the insurance coverage requirement.(2) Prior to an automatic suspension, the bureau shall notify the licensee, in writing, that it has 30 days to provide proof to the bureau of having the required insurance or the license shall be automatically suspended.(3) If the licensee fails to provide proof of insurance coverage within this period, the bureau may automatically suspend the license.(f) If the license of a limited liability company is suspended pursuant to subdivision (e), each member of the limited liability company shall be personally liable up to one million dollars ($1,000,000) each for damages resulting to third parties in connection with the companys performance, during the period of suspension, of any act or contract when a license is required by this chapter.(g) On and after July 1, 2018, a licensee organized as a limited liability company shall report a paid or pending claim against its liability insurance to the bureau, which shall post a notice of the claim on the Department of Consumer Affairs BreEZe License Verification Internet Web page.(h) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 81. Section 7525.1 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 11 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:7525.1. An application shall be verified and shall include:(a) The full name and business address of the applicant.(b) The name under which the applicant intends to do business.(c) A statement as to the general nature of the business in which the applicant intends to engage.(d) A verified statement of their experience qualifications.(e) (1) If the applicant is an individual, a qualified manager, a partner of a partnership, an officer of a corporation designated in subdivision (h), or a member, officer, or manager of a limited liability company designated in subdivision (i), one personal identification form provided by the bureau upon which shall appear a photograph taken within one year immediately preceding the date of the filing of the application together with two legible sets of fingerprints, one set of which shall be forwarded to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for purposes of a background check, on a form approved by the Department of Justice, and a personal description of each person, respectively. The identification form shall include residence addresses and employment history for the previous five years and be signed under penalty of perjury.(2) The bureau may impose a fee not to exceed three dollars ($3) for processing classifiable fingerprint cards submitted by applicants, excluding those submitted into an electronic fingerprint system using electronic fingerprint technology.(f) In addition, if the applicant for a license is an individual, the application shall list all other names known as or used during the past 10 years and shall state that the applicant is to be personally and actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought. If any other qualified manager is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by the applicant, under penalty of perjury. If any other person is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall also be subscribed, verified, and signed by that person under penalty of perjury.(g) If the applicants for a license are copartners, the application shall state the true names and addresses of all partners and the name of the partner to be actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought and list all other names known as or used during the past 10 years. If a qualified manager other than a partner is to be actively in charge of the business, then the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by all of the partners under penalty of perjury. If any other person is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall also be subscribed, verified, and signed by that person, under penalty of perjury, under penalty of perjury by all of the partners and the qualified manager, or by all of the partners or the qualified manager.(h) If the applicant for a license is a corporation, the application shall state the true names and complete residence addresses of the chief executive officer, secretary, chief financial officer, and any other corporate officer who will be active in the business to be licensed. The application shall also state the name and address of the designated person to be actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought. The application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by a duly authorized officer of the applicant and by the qualified manager thereof, under penalty of perjury.(i) If the applicant for a license is a limited liability company, the application shall state the true name and complete residence address of each member, manager, and any officer who will be active in the business to be licensed. A certified copy of the articles of organization, as filed by the Secretary of State, shall be supplied to the bureau upon request. In the case of a manager-managed limited liability company, the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by a manager; otherwise, in the case of a member-managed limited liability company, the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by a duly authorized member of the applicant and by the qualified manager thereof. The application shall also state whether any of the members, managers, officers, or the qualified manager has ever used an alias.(j) Any other information, evidence, statements, or documents as may be required by the director.(k) At the discretion of the applicant, a valid email address.(l) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 82. Section 7525.1 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 12 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:7525.1. An application shall be verified and shall include:(a) The full name and business address of the applicant.(b) The name under which the applicant intends to do business.(c) A statement as to the general nature of the business in which the applicant intends to engage.(d) A verified statement of their experience qualifications.(e) (1) If the applicant is an individual, a qualified manager, a partner of a partnership, or an officer of a corporation designated in subdivision (h), one personal identification form provided by the bureau upon which shall appear a photograph taken within one year immediately preceding the date of the filing of the application together with two legible sets of fingerprints, one set of which shall be forwarded to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for purposes of a background check, on a form approved by the Department of Justice, and a personal description of each person, respectively. The identification form shall include residence addresses and employment history for the previous five years and be signed under penalty of perjury.(2) The bureau may impose a fee not to exceed three dollars ($3) for processing classifiable fingerprint cards submitted by applicants, excluding those submitted into an electronic fingerprint system using electronic fingerprint technology.(f) In addition, if the applicant for a license is an individual, the application shall list all other names known as or used during the past 10 years and shall state that the applicant is to be personally and actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought. If any other qualified manager is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by the applicant, under penalty of perjury. If any other person is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall also be subscribed, verified, and signed by that person under penalty of perjury.(g) If the applicants for a license are copartners, the application shall state the true names and addresses of all partners and the name of the partner to be actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought and list all other names known as or used during the past 10 years. If a qualified manager other than a partner is to be actively in charge of the business, then the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by all of the partners under penalty of perjury. If any other person is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall also be subscribed, verified, and signed under penalty of perjury by that person, by all of the partners and the qualified manager, or by all of the partners or the qualified manager.(h) If the applicant for a license is a corporation, the application shall state the true names and complete residence addresses of the chief executive officer, secretary, chief financial officer, and any other corporate officer who will be active in the business to be licensed. The application shall also state the name and address of the designated person to be actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought. The application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by a duly authorized officer of the applicant and by the qualified manager thereof, under penalty of perjury.(i) Any other information, evidence, statements, or documents as may be required by the director.(j) At the discretion of the applicant, a valid email address.(k) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024.SEC. 83. Section 7529 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 2 of Chapter 326 of the Statutes of 2019, is amended to read:7529. (a) (1) Upon the issuance of and with each biennial renewal of a license, a license in the form of an enhanced photo identification card of the size, design, and content as may be determined by the director or the directors designee shall be issued by the bureau to each licensee, as follows:(A) If the licensee is an individual, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to the licensee and to the licensees qualified manager.(B) If the licensee is a partnership, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to each partner of the partnership licensee active in the business and to the licensees qualified manager.(C) If the licensee is a corporation, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to each officer active in the business and to the licensees qualified manager.(D) If the licensee is a limited liability company, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to each member, officer, and manager of the licensee active in the business and to the licensees qualified manager.(2) The enhanced photo identification card is evidence that the licensee is licensed pursuant to this chapter. The card shall contain the name of the licensee, license expiration date, and a photograph of the licensee. The enhanced photo identification card shall clearly state that the person is licensed as a private investigator or is the qualified manager or officer of the licensee. The enhanced photo identification card is to be composed of a durable material and may incorporate technologically advanced security features. The bureau may recover its costs in an amount sufficient to reimburse the departments costs for furnishing the enhanced photo identification card. The fee charged shall not exceed the actual direct costs for system development, maintenance, and processing necessary to provide this service. The total amount of costs shall be recovered by including that amount in the fee charged for the initial application of and renewal of licensure. When the position, office, or association with a licensee belonging to a person to whom a card is issued is terminated, the person shall surrender the card to the licensee and, within five days thereafter, the licensee shall mail or deliver the card to the bureau for cancellation. Every person, while engaged in any activity for which licensure is required, shall display the persons valid enhanced photo identification card as provided by regulation. (b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 84. Section 7529 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 3 of Chapter 326 of the Statutes of 2019, is amended to read:7529. (a) Upon the issuance of and with each biennial renewal of a license, a license in the form of an enhanced photo identification card of the size, design, and content as may be determined by the director or the directors designee shall be issued by the bureau to each licensee, as follows:(1) If the licensee is an individual, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to the licensee and to the licensees qualified manager.(2) If the licensee is a partnership, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to each partner of the partnership licensee active in the business and to the licensees qualified manager.(3) If the licensee is a corporation, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to each officer active in the business and to the licensees qualified manager.(b) The enhanced photo identification card is evidence that the licensee is licensed pursuant to this chapter. The card shall contain the name of the licensee, license expiration date, and a photograph of the licensee. The enhanced photo identification card shall clearly state that the person is licensed as a private investigator or is the qualified manager or officer of the licensee. The enhanced photo identification card is to be composed of a durable material and may incorporate technologically advanced security features. The bureau may recover its costs in an amount sufficient to reimburse the departments costs for furnishing the enhanced photo identification card. The fee charged shall not exceed the actual direct costs for system development, maintenance, and processing necessary to provide this service. The total amount of costs shall be recovered by including that amount in the fee charged for the initial application of and renewal of licensure. When the position, office, or association with a licensee belonging to a person to whom a card is issued is terminated, the person shall surrender the card to the licensee and, within five days thereafter, the licensee shall mail or deliver the card to the bureau for cancellation. Every person, while engaged in any activity for which licensure is required, shall display the persons valid enhanced photo identification card as provided by regulation.(c) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024.SEC. 85. Section 7533.5 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 21 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:7533.5. (a) A licensee shall notify the bureau within 30 days of any change in its corporate officers required to be named pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 7525.1 or members or managers required to be named pursuant to subdivision (i) of Section 7525.1, and of any addition of a new partner.(b) Applications, on forms prescribed by the director, shall be submitted by all new officers, members or managers, and partners. The director may suspend or revoke a license issued under this chapter if the director determines that the new officer, member or manager, or partner of a licensee has committed any of the acts constituting grounds to deny an application for a license or to take disciplinary action against a licensee pursuant to Section 7538 or 7538.5, respectively.(c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 86. Section 7533.5 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 22 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:7533.5. (a) A licensee shall notify the bureau within 30 days of any change in its corporate officers required to be named pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 7525.1, and of any addition of a new partner.(b) Applications, on forms prescribed by the director, shall be submitted by all new officers and partners. The director may suspend or revoke a license issued under this chapter if the director determines that the new officer or partner of a licensee has committed any of the acts constituting grounds to deny an application for a license or to take disciplinary action against a licensee pursuant to Section 7538 or 7538.5, respectively.(c) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024.SEC. 87. Section 7538 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 25 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:7538. (a) After a hearing the director may deny a license unless the applicant makes a showing satisfactory to the director that the applicant, if an individual, and the applicants qualified manager have not, or, if the applicant is a person other than an individual, that its qualified manager and each of its officers, partners, members, or managers have not:(1) Committed any act that, if committed by a licensee, would be a ground for the suspension or revocation of a license under this chapter.(2) Committed any act constituting dishonesty or fraud.(3) Committed any act or crime constituting grounds for denial of licensure under Section 480, including illegally using, carrying, or possessing a deadly weapon.(4) Been refused a license under this chapter or had a license revoked.(5) Been an officer, partner, qualified manager, member, or manager of any person who has been refused a license under this chapter or whose license has been revoked.(6) While unlicensed committed, or aided and abetted the commission of, any act for which a license is required by this chapter.(7) Knowingly made any false statement in their application.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 88. Section 7538 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 26 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:7538. (a) After a hearing the director may deny a license unless the applicant makes a showing satisfactory to the director that the applicant, if an individual, and the applicants qualified manager have not, or, if the applicant is a person other than an individual, that its qualified manager and each of its officers and partners have not:(1) Committed any act that, if committed by a licensee, would be a ground for the suspension or revocation of a license under this chapter.(2) Committed any act constituting dishonesty or fraud.(3) Committed any act or crime constituting grounds for denial of licensure under Section 480, including illegally using, carrying, or possessing a deadly weapon.(4) Been refused a license under this chapter or had a license revoked.(5) Been an officer, partner, or qualified manager of any person who has been refused a license under this chapter or whose license has been revoked.(6) While unlicensed committed, or aided and abetted the commission of, any act for which a license is required by this chapter.(7) Knowingly made any false statement in their application.(b) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024.SEC. 89. Section 7538.5 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 27 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:7538.5. (a) The director may refuse to issue any license provided for in this chapter to any of the following:(1) An individual who has had any license revoked, has a license currently under suspension, or failed to renew their license while under suspension.(2) An individual who, while acting as a partner of a partnership, an officer or director of a corporation, or a member, manager, or officer of a limited liability company, had their license revoked, has a license currently under suspension, or failed to renew their license while under suspension.(3) An individual who, while acting as a partner of the partnership, an officer, director of the corporation, or a member, manager, or officer of a limited liability company meets both of the following conditions:(A) The individual was a partner of any partnership, an officer or director of any corporation, or a member, manager, or officer of any limited liability company whose license was revoked, is currently under suspension, or was not renewed while under suspension.(B) While acting as a partner, officer, director, member, or manager, they participated in any of the prohibited acts for which the license was revoked or suspended.(4) An individual who is serving or has served as the qualified manager for any licensee that has had its license revoked, is currently under suspension, or failed to renew while under suspension.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 90. Section 7538.5 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 8 of Chapter 92 of the Statutes of 2018, is amended to read:7538.5. (a) The director may refuse to issue any license provided for in this chapter to any of the following:(1) An individual who has had any license revoked, has a license currently under suspension, or failed to renew their license while under suspension.(2) An individual who, while acting as a partner of a partnership, or an officer or director of a corporation, had their license revoked, has a license currently under suspension, or failed to renew their license while under suspension.(3) An individual, who, while acting as a partner of the partnership, or an officer or director of the corporation, meets both of the following conditions:(A) The individual was a partner of any partnership, or an officer or director of any corporation, whose license was revoked, is currently under suspension, or was not renewed while under suspension.(B) The individual, while acting as a partner, officer, or director, participated in any of the prohibited acts for which the license was revoked or suspended.(4) An individual who is serving or has served as the qualified manager for any licensee that has had its license revoked, is currently under suspension, or failed to renew while under suspension.(b) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024.SEC. 91. Section 7539 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 29 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:7539. (a) Any licensee or officer, director, partner, member, manager, or qualified manager of a licensee may divulge to any law enforcement officer or district attorney, or their representative, any information they may acquire as to any criminal offense, but they shall not divulge to any other person, except as otherwise required by law, any information acquired by them except at the direction of the employer or client for whom the information was obtained.(b) A licensee or officer, director, partner, member, manager, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not knowingly make any false report to their employer or client for whom information was being obtained.(c) A written report shall not be submitted to a client except by the licensee, qualified manager, or a person authorized by one or either of them, and the person submitting the report shall exercise diligence in ascertaining whether or not the facts and information in the report are true and correct.(d) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, manager, member, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not use a badge in connection with the official activities of the licensees business.(e) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, manager, member, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee, shall not use a title, or wear a uniform, or use an insignia, or use an identification card, or make any statement with the intent to give an impression that they are connected in any way with the federal government, a state government, or any political subdivision of a state government.(f) A licensee, or officer, partner, manager, member, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not use any identification to indicate that they are licensed as a private investigator other than the official identification card issued by the bureau or the business card regularly used by the business. However, a licensee may issue an employer identification card.(g) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, manager, member, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee, shall not enter any private building or portion thereof, except premises commonly accessible to the public, without the consent of the owner or of the person in legal possession thereof.(h) A licensee shall not permit an employee or agent in their own name to advertise, engage clients, furnish reports or present bills to clients, or in any manner conduct business for which a license is required under this chapter. All business of the licensee shall be conducted in the name of and under the control of the licensee.(i) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, manager, member, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not knowingly and directly solicit employment from any person who has directly sustained bodily injury or from that persons spouse or other family member to obtain authorization on behalf of the injured person as an investigator to investigate the accident or act that resulted in injury or death to that person or damage to the property of that person. Nothing in this subdivision shall prohibit the soliciting of employment from that injured persons attorney, insurance company, self-insured administrator, insurance adjuster, employer, or any other person having an indirect interest in the investigation of the injury. This subdivision shall not apply to any business agent or attorney employed by a labor organization. A licensee, or officer, director, partner, manager, member, or qualified manager of a licensee shall not pay or compensate any of their employees or agents on the basis of a bonus, bounty, or quota system whereby a premium is placed on the number of employer or client rule violations or infractions purportedly discovered as a result of any investigation made by a licensee.(j) A licensee shall not use a fictitious business name in connection with the official activities of the licensees business, except as provided by the bureau.(k) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 92. Section 7539 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 9 of Chapter 92 of the Statutes of 2018, is amended to read:7539. (a) A licensee or officer, director, partner, or qualified manager of a licensee may divulge to any law enforcement officer or district attorney, or their representative, any information they may acquire as to any criminal offense, but they shall not divulge to any other person, except as otherwise required by law, any information acquired by them except at the direction of the employer or client for whom the information was obtained.(b) A licensee or officer, director, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not knowingly make any false report to their employer or client for whom information was being obtained.(c) A written report shall not be submitted to a client except by the licensee, qualified manager, or a person authorized by one or either of them, and the person submitting the report shall exercise diligence in ascertaining whether or not the facts and information in the report are true and correct.(d) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not use a badge in connection with the official activities of the licensees business.(e) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee, shall not use a title, or wear a uniform, or use an insignia, or use an identification card, or make any statement with the intent to give an impression that they are connected in any way with the federal government, a state government, or any political subdivision of a state government.(f) A licensee, or officer, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not use any identification to indicate that they are licensed as a private investigator other than the official identification card issued by the bureau or the business card regularly used by the business. However, a licensee may issue an employer identification card.(g) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee, shall not enter any private building or portion thereof, except premises commonly accessible to the public, without the consent of the owner or of the person in legal possession thereof.(h) A licensee shall not permit an employee or agent in their own name to advertise, engage clients, furnish reports or present bills to clients, or in any manner conduct business for which a license is required under this chapter. All business of the licensee shall be conducted in the name of and under the control of the licensee.(i) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee, shall not knowingly and directly solicit employment from any person who has directly sustained bodily injury or from that persons spouse or other family member to obtain authorization on behalf of the injured person as an investigator to investigate the accident or act that resulted in injury or death to that person or damage to the property of that person. This subdivision does not prohibit the soliciting of employment from that injured persons attorney, insurance company, self-insured administrator, insurance adjuster, employer, or any other person having an indirect interest in the investigation of the injury. This subdivision does not apply to any business agent or attorney employed by a labor organization. A licensee, officer, director, partner, or qualified manager of a licensee shall not pay or compensate any of their employees or agents on the basis of a bonus, bounty, or quota system whereby a premium is placed on the number of employer or client rule violations or infractions purportedly discovered as a result of any investigation made by a licensee.(j) A licensee shall not use a fictitious business name in connection with the official activities of the licensees business, except as provided by the bureau.(k) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024.SEC. 93. Section 8516 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:8516. (a) This section, and Section 8519, apply only to wood destroying pests or organisms.(b) A registered company or licensee shall not commence work on a contract, or sign, issue, or deliver any documents expressing an opinion or statement relating to the absence or presence of wood destroying pests or organisms until an inspection has been made by a licensed Branch 3 field representative or operator employed by a registered company, except as provided in Section 8519.5. The address of each property inspected or upon which work is completed shall be reported on a form prescribed by the board and shall be filed with the board no later than 10 business days after the commencement of an inspection or upon completed work.Every property inspected pursuant to this subdivision or Section 8518 shall be assessed a filing fee pursuant to Section 8674.Failure of a registered company to report and file with the board the address of any property inspected or work completed pursuant to Section 8518 or this section is grounds for disciplinary action and shall subject the registered company to a fine of not more than two thousand five hundred dollars ($2,500). The address of an inspection report prepared for use by an attorney for litigation purposes shall not be required to be reported to the board and shall not be assessed a filing fee.A written inspection report conforming to this section and a form approved by the board shall be prepared and delivered to the person requesting the inspection and the property owner, or to the property owners designated agent, within 10 business days from the start of the inspection, except that an inspection report prepared for use by an attorney for litigation purposes is not required to be reported to the board or the property owner. An inspection report may be a complete, limited, supplemental, or reinspection report, as defined by Section 1993 of Title 16 of the California Code of Regulations. The report shall be delivered before work is commenced on any property. The registered company shall retain for three years all inspection reports, field notes, and activity forms.Reports shall be made available for inspection and reproduction to the executive officer of the board or their duly authorized representative during business hours. All inspection reports or copies thereof shall be submitted to the board upon demand within two business days. The following shall be set forth in the report:(1) The start date of the inspection and the name of the licensed field representative or operator making the inspection.(2) The name and address of the person or firm ordering the report.(3) The name and address of the property owner and any person who is a party in interest.(4) The address or location of the property.(5) A general description of the building or premises inspected.(6) A foundation diagram or sketch of the structure or structures or portions of the structure or structures inspected, including the approximate location of any infested or infected areas evident, and the parts of the structure where conditions that would ordinarily subject those parts to attack by wood destroying pests or organisms exist. Reporting of the infested or infected wood members, or parts of the structure identified, shall be listed in the inspection report to clearly identify them, as is typical in standard construction components, including, but not limited to, siding, studs, rafters, floor joists, fascia, subfloor, sheathing, and trim boards.(7) Information regarding the substructure, foundation walls and footings, porches, patios and steps, air vents, abutments, attic spaces, roof framing that includes the eaves, rafters, fascias, exposed timbers, exposed sheathing, ceiling joists, and attic walls, or other parts subject to attack by wood destroying pests or organisms. Conditions usually deemed likely to lead to infestation or infection, such as earth-wood contacts, excessive cellulose debris, faulty grade levels, excessive moisture conditions, evidence of roof leaks, and insufficient ventilation are to be reported.(8) One of the following statements, as appropriate, printed in bold type:(A) The exterior surface of the roof was not inspected. If you want the water tightness of the roof determined, you should contact a roofing contractor who is licensed by the Contractors State License Board.(B) The exterior surface of the roof was inspected to determine whether or not wood destroying pests or organisms are present.(9) Indication or description of any areas that are inaccessible or not inspected with recommendation for further inspection if practicable. If, after the report has been made in compliance with this section, authority is given later to open inaccessible areas, a supplemental report on conditions in these areas shall be made.(10) Recommendations for corrective measures.(11) Information regarding the pesticide or pesticides to be used for their control or prevention as set forth in subdivision (a) of Section 8538.(12) The inspection report shall clearly disclose that if requested by the person ordering the original report, a reinspection of the structure will be performed if an estimate or bid for making repairs was given with the original inspection report, or thereafter.An estimate or bid shall be given separately allocating the costs to perform each and every recommendation for corrective measures as specified in subdivision (c) with the original inspection report if the person who ordered the original inspection report so requests, and if the registered company is regularly in the business of performing each corrective measure.If no estimate or bid was given with the original inspection report, or thereafter, then the registered company shall not be required to perform a reinspection.A reinspection shall be an inspection of those items previously listed on an original report to determine if the recommendations have been completed. Each reinspection shall be reported on an original inspection report form and shall be labeled Reinspection. Each reinspection shall also identify the original report by date.After four months from an original inspection, all inspections shall be original inspections and not reinspections.Any reinspection shall be performed for not more than the price of the registered companys original inspection price and shall be completed within 10 business days after a reinspection has been ordered.(13) The inspection report shall contain the following statement, printed in boldface type:NOTICE: Reports on this structure prepared by various registered companies should list the same findings (i.e. termite infestations, termite damage, fungus damage, etc.). However, recommendations to correct these findings may vary from company to company. You have a right to seek a second opinion from another company.(c) At the time a report is ordered, the registered company or licensee shall inform the person or entity ordering the report, that a separate report is available pursuant to this subdivision. If a separate report is requested at the time the inspection report is ordered, the registered company or licensee shall separately identify on the report each recommendation for corrective measures as follows:(1) The infestation or infection that is evident.(2) The conditions that are present that are deemed likely to lead to infestation or infection.If a registered company or licensee fails to inform as required by this subdivision and a dispute arises, or if any other dispute arises as to whether this subdivision has been complied with, a separate report shall be provided within 24 hours of the request but, in no event, later than the next business day, and at no additional cost.(d) When a corrective condition is identified, either as paragraph (1) or (2) of subdivision (c), and the property owner or the property owners designated agent chooses not to correct those conditions, the registered company or licensee shall not be liable for damages resulting from a failure to correct those conditions or subject to any disciplinary action by the board. Nothing in this subdivision, however, shall relieve a registered company or a licensee of any liability resulting from negligence, fraud, dishonest dealing, other violations pursuant to this chapter, or contractual obligations between the registered company or licensee and the responsible parties.(e) The inspection report form prescribed by the board shall separately identify the infestation or infection that is evident and the conditions that are present that are deemed likely to lead to infestation or infection. If a separate form is requested, the form shall explain the infestation or infection that is evident and the conditions that are present that are deemed likely to lead to infestation or infection and the difference between those conditions. In no event, however, shall conditions deemed likely to lead to infestation or infection be characterized as actual defects or as actual active infestations or infections or in need of correction as a precondition to issuing a certification pursuant to Section 8519.(f) The report and any contract entered into shall also state specifically when any guarantee for the work is made, and if so, the specific terms of the guarantee and the period of time for which the guarantee shall be in effect. If a guarantee extends beyond three years, the registered company shall maintain all original inspection reports, field notes, activity forms, and notices of completion for the duration of the guarantee period and for one year after the guarantee expires.(g) For purposes of this section, control service agreement means an agreement, including extended warranties, to have a licensee conduct over a period of time regular inspections and other activities related to the control or eradication of wood destroying pests and organisms. Under a control service agreement a registered company shall refer to the original report and contract in a manner as to identify them clearly, and the report shall be assumed to be a true report of conditions as originally issued, except it may be modified after a control service inspection. A registered company is not required to issue a report as outlined in paragraphs (1) to (11), inclusive, of subdivision (b) after each control service inspection. If after control service inspection, no modification of the original report is made in writing, then it will be assumed that conditions are as originally reported. A control service contract shall state specifically the particular wood destroying pests or organisms and the portions of the buildings or structures covered by the contract.(h) A registered company or licensee may enter into and maintain a control service agreement provided the following requirements are met:(1) The control service agreement shall be in writing, signed by both parties, and shall specifically include the following:(A) The wood destroying pests and organisms covered by the control service agreement.(B) Any wood destroying pest or organism that is not covered must be specifically listed.(C) The type and manner of treatment to be used to correct the infestations or infections.(D) The structures or buildings, or portions thereof, covered by the agreement, including a statement specifying whether the coverage for purposes of periodic inspections is limited or full. Any exclusions from those described in the original report must be specifically listed.(E) A reference to the original inspection report.(F) The frequency of the inspections to be provided, the fee to be charged for each renewal, and the duration of the agreement.(G) Whether the fee includes structural repairs.(H) If the services provided are guaranteed, and, if so, the terms of the guarantee.(I) A statement that all corrections of infestations or infections covered by the control service agreement shall be completed within six months of discovery, unless otherwise agreed to in writing by both parties.(2) The original inspection report, the control service agreement, and completion report shall be maintained for three years after the cancellation of the control service agreement.(3) Inspections made pursuant to a control service agreement shall be conducted by a Branch 3 licensee. Section 8506.1 does not modify this provision.(4) A full inspection of the property covered by the control service agreement shall be conducted and a report filed pursuant to subdivision (b) at least once every three years from the date that the agreement was entered into, unless the consumer cancels the contract within three years from the date the agreement was entered into.(5) Under a control service agreement, a written report shall be required for the correction of any infestation or infection unless all of the following conditions are met:(A) The infestation or infection has been previously reported.(B) The infestation or infection is covered by the control service agreement.(C) There is no additional charge for correcting the infestation or infection.(D) Correction of the infestation or infection takes place within 45 days of its discovery.(E) Correction of the infestation or infection does not include fumigation.(6) All notice requirements pursuant to Section 8538 shall apply to all pesticide treatments conducted under control service agreements.(i) All work recommended by a registered company, where an estimate or bid for making repairs was given with the original inspection report, or thereafter, shall be recorded on this report or a separate work agreement and shall specify a price for each recommendation. This information shall be provided to the person requesting the inspection, and shall be retained by the registered company with the inspection report copy for three years.SEC. 94. Section 10050 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:10050. (a) (1) There is in the Business, Consumer Services, and Housing Agency a Department of Real Estate, the chief officer of which department is named the Real Estate Commissioner.(2) Notwithstanding any other law, the powers and duties of the department, as set forth in this part and Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 11000) of Part 2, shall be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. The review shall be performed as if this part and that chapter were scheduled to be repealed as of January 1, 2022.(b) It shall be the principal responsibility of the commissioner to enforce all laws in this part and Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 11000) of Part 2 in a manner that achieves the maximum protection for the buyers of real property and those persons dealing with real estate licensees.(c) Wherever the term commissioner is used in this division, it means the Real Estate Commissioner.(d) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2018.SEC. 95. Section 11301 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:11301. (a) (1) There is hereby created within the Department of Consumer Affairs a Bureau of Real Estate Appraisers to administer and enforce this part.(2) Notwithstanding any other law, the powers and duties of the bureau, as set forth in this part, shall be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. The review shall be performed as if this part were scheduled to be repealed as of January 1, 2022.(b) Whenever the term Office of Real Estate Appraisers appears in any other law, it means the Bureau of Real Estate Appraisers.SEC. 96. Section 16100 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:16100. (a) The board of supervisors may in the exercise of its police powers, and for the purpose of regulation, as herein provided, and not otherwise, license any kind of business not prohibited by law, transacted and carried on within the limits of its jurisdiction, including all shows, exhibitions, and lawful games, and may fix the rate of the license fee and provide for its collection by suit or otherwise.(b) No license fee levied pursuant to subdivision (a) that is measured by the licensees income or gross receipts, whether levied by a charter or general law county, shall apply to any nonprofit organization that is exempted from taxes by Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 23701) of Part 11 of Division 2 of the Revenue and Taxation Code or Subchapter F (commencing with Section 501) of Chapter 1 of Subtitle A of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, or the successor of either, or to any minister, clergyman, Christian Science practitioner, rabbi, or priest of any religious organization that has been granted an exemption from federal income tax by the United States Commissioner of Internal Revenue as an organization described in Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code or a successor to that section.(c) Before a county issues a business license to a person to conduct business as a contractor, as defined by Section 7026, the county shall verify that the person is licensed by the Contractors State License Board.SEC. 97. Section 19164 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:19164. The bureau may, by regulation, establish insulation material standards governing the quality of all insulation material sold or installed within this state, including those properties that affect the safety and thermal performance of insulation material during application and in the use intended. The standards shall specify the initial performance of the insulation material and the performance expected during the design life of the insulation material. Until the bureau has adopted these regulations, the regulations of the State Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission in effect on the effective date of this section relating to those standards shall remain in full force and effect. However, wherever those regulations specify that the commission shall perform an act, the bureau instead shall perform the act.Prior to establishing the standards and procedures required by this chapter, the bureau shall conduct at least two public hearings, and shall invite the State Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission, the State Fire Marshal, manufacturers, distributors, and licensed installers of insulation materials, and appropriate members of the public to participate in the hearings. Immediately upon adoption of the standards and procedures, the bureau shall provide a copy of the standards to the State Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission, and the Contractors State License Board. Within 30 days after receipt of the bureaus standards, the Contractors State License Board shall notify all state licensed contractors who install insulation of the standards.Insulation standards adopted by the bureau, pursuant to this section, and by the State Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission, pursuant to Section 25402 of the Public Resources Code, which are building standards, as defined in Section 25488.5 of the Public Resources Code, shall be submitted to the California Building Standards Commission for approval pursuant to, and are governed by, the California Building Standards Law (Part 2.5 (commencing with Section 18901) of Division 13 of the Health and Safety Code). The building standards adopted by the bureau and published in the California Building Standards Code shall comply with, and be enforced as provided in, this section.SEC. 98. Section 1670.8.5 is added to the Civil Code, to read:1670.8.5. (a) A contract or proposed contract for the provision of a consumer service by a licensee regulated by a licensing board shall not include a provision limiting the consumers ability to file a complaint with that board or to participate in the boards investigation into the licensee.(b) Any waiver of the provisions of this section is contrary to public policy, and is void and unenforceable.(c) For purposes of this section, the following terms apply:(1) Consumer service means any service that is obtained for use primarily for personal, family, or household purposes.(2) Licensing board means any entity described in Section 101 of the Business and Professions Code, the State Bar of California, the Department of Real Estate, or any other state agency that issues a license, certificate, or registration authorizing a person to engage in a business or profession.(d) Violation of this section by a licensee shall constitute unprofessional conduct subject to discipline by the licensees licensing board.SEC. 99. Section 94950 of the Education Code is amended to read:94950. This chapter shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. SEC. 100. Section 8.5 of this bill incorporates amendments to Section 205 of the Business and Professions Code, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 865 of the Statutes of 2019, proposed by this bill and Assembly Bill 896. That section of this bill shall only become operative if (1) both bills are enacted and become effective on or before January 1, 2021, (2) each bill amends Section 205 of the Business and Professions Code, and (3) this bill is enacted after Assembly Bill 896, in which case Section 205 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Assembly Bill 896, shall remain operative only until the operative date of this bill, at which time Section 8.5 of this bill shall become operative, and Section 8 of this bill shall not become operative.SEC. 101. Section 16.5 of this bill incorporates amendments to Section 2113 of the Business and Professions Code proposed by both this bill and Assembly Bill 2273. That section of this bill shall only become operative if (1) both bills are enacted and become effective on or before January 1, 2021, (2) each bill amends Section 2113 of the Business and Professions Code, and (3) this bill is enacted after Assembly Bill 2273, in which case Section 16 of this bill shall not become operative.SEC. 102. Section 73.5 of this bill incorporates amendments to Section 7159 of the Business and Professions Code proposed by both this bill and Assembly Bill 2471. That section of this bill shall only become operative if (1) both bills are enacted and become effective on or before January 1, 2021, (2) each bill amends Section 7159 of the Business and Professions Code, and (3) this bill is enacted after Assembly Bill 2471, in which case Section 73 of this bill shall not become operative.SEC. 103. No reimbursement is required by this act pursuant to Section 6 of Article XIIIB of the California Constitution because the only costs that may be incurred by a local agency or school district will be incurred because this act creates a new crime or infraction, eliminates a crime or infraction, or changes the penalty for a crime or infraction, within the meaning of Section 17556 of the Government Code, or changes the definition of a crime within the meaning of Section 6 of Article XIIIB of the California Constitution. |
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| 3 | + | Enrolled September 04, 2020 Passed IN Senate August 31, 2020 Passed IN Assembly August 30, 2020 Amended IN Assembly August 26, 2020 Amended IN Assembly August 24, 2020 Amended IN Assembly August 10, 2020 Amended IN Assembly July 27, 2020 Amended IN Senate June 18, 2020 Amended IN Senate May 14, 2020 CALIFORNIA LEGISLATURE 20192020 REGULAR SESSION Senate Bill No. 1474Introduced by Committee on Business, Professions and Economic Development (Senators Glazer (Chair), Archuleta, Chang, Dodd, Galgiani, Hill, Leyva, Pan, and Wilk)(Principal coauthor: Assembly Member Low)(Coauthor: Senator Morrell)March 16, 2020 An act to amend Sections 27, 101, 125.9, 130, 144, 200.1, 205, 494.5, 1000, 1913, 1917, 1917.1, 1922, 2065, 2113, 2135.5, 2460, 2531, 2531.75, 2570.19, 2602, 2607.5, 2841, 2847.1, 2847.3, 2920, 2933, 3504, 3512, 3686, 3710, 3716, 4001, 4003, 4501, 4503, 4604, 4621, 4800, 4804.5, 4990, 4990.04, 5600.4, 5810, 7000, 7000.5, 7000.6, 7011.4, 7011.5, 7011.8, 7015, 7017.3, 7028.7, 7030, 7031, 7058.7, 7071.4, 7080.5, 7085.5, 7099.2, 7123.5, 7135, 7136, 7137, 7137.5, 7138, 7139.1, 7139.2, 7141.5, 7145.5, 7159, 7170, 7303, 7512.3, 7512.14, 7512.15, 7520.3, 7525.1, 7529, 7533.5, 7538, 7538.5, 7539, 8516, 10050, 11301, 16100, and 19164 of, and to add Section 7099.9 to, the Business and Professions Code, to add Section 1670.8.5 to the Civil Code, and to amend Section 94950 of the Education Code, relating to business and professions, and making an appropriation therefor. LEGISLATIVE COUNSEL'S DIGESTSB 1474, Committee on Business, Professions and Economic Development. Business and professions.(1) Existing law, the Contractors State License Law, provides for the licensure and regulation of contractors by the Contractors State License Board in the Department of Consumer Affairs. Existing law requires fees and penalties received pursuant to the law to be deposited in the Contractors License Fund, a continuously appropriated fund, except that certain service fees for the deposit of money in lieu of paying a bond are required to be deposited in the Contractors Deposit Fund. This bill would rename the Contractors State license Law as the Contractors State License Law, would rename the Contractors State License Board as the Contractors State License Board, and would rename the Contractors License Fund as the Contractors License Fund. The bill would delete the provision establishing the Contractors Deposit Fund, and would therefore require those service fees to be deposited in the Contractors License Fund. By authorizing a new source of revenue to be deposited into a continuously appropriated fund, the bill would make an appropriation. Existing law authorizes a licensee who is subject to a bonding provision under the law, in lieu of giving a bond, to deposit money or a cashiers check with the registrar of contractors.This bill would prohibit the deposit from being released if the board is notified of a civil action against the deposit and, if the amount of the deposit is insufficient to pay all claims, would require the deposit to be distributed to claimants in proportion to the amount of the claims.Existing law authorizes the registrar of contractors to grant the retroactive renewal of a license if, within 90 days from the due date, the licensee requests the retroactive renewal in a petition to the registrar, shows that the failure to renew was due to circumstances beyond their control, files an application for renewal on a form prescribed by the registrar, and pays the appropriate renewal and delinquency fees.This bill, instead, would require the registrar to grant the retroactive renewal of a license if, within 90 days of the expiration of the license, the otherwise eligible licensee submits a completed application for renewal and pays the renewal and delinquency fees. The bill would delete the requirement that the licensee demonstrate that the delay was due to circumstances beyond the licensees control, and would deem an application for renewal submitted for purposes of these provisions if it is delivered to the boards headquarters or postmarked within 90 days of the expiration of the license.(2) Existing law establishes the Landscape Architects Technical Committee to assist the California Architects Board in examining candidates for a landscape architects license. Existing law, on and after January 1, 2021, requires an applicant to furnish to the committee a full set of fingerprints for purposes of conducting criminal history record checks.This bill would revise the date on which this requirement becomes effective to January 1, 2022. (3) Existing law, the Chiropractic Act, enacted by an initiative measure, provides for the licensure and regulation of chiropractors in this state by the State Board of Chiropractic Examiners. Existing law requires that the powers and duties of the board, as provided, be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature as if that act were scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022.This bill would require that the powers and duties of the board, as provided, be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature as if that act were scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2023.(4) Existing law authorizes the State Board of Chiropractic Examiners and the Osteopathic Medical Board of California and any board within the Department of Consumer Affairs to issue a citation that may contain an order of abatement or an order to pay an administrative fine, and provides that a failure to pay a fine within 30 days of the date of assessment may result in disciplinary action. This bill would also make a failure to comply with the order of abatement within 30 days of the date of the order subject to disciplinary action. (5) Existing law provides for the licensure and regulation of registered dental hygienists by the Dental Hygiene Board of California. Existing law authorizes a registered dental hygienist to perform a procedure or provide a service within the scope of their practice under the appropriate level of supervision, as specified.This bill would also require a registered dental hygienist to have completed the appropriate education and training required to perform the procedure or provide the service.Existing law requires a person to have satisfactorily completed a specified examination within the preceding 2 years as a condition of licensure as a registered dental hygienist.This bill would instead require completion of the dental hygiene examination within the preceding 3 years.Existing law requires a person, as a condition for licensure as a registered dental hygienist in alternative practice, to successfully complete a bachelors degree or its equivalent from an accredited college or institution of higher education, among other requirements.This bill would specify that the equivalent of a bachelors degree is recognized as a minimum of 120 semester credit hours or 180 quarter credit hours in postsecondary education.(6) Existing law, the Medical Practice Act, provides for the licensure and regulation of physicians and surgeons by the Medical Board of California, and requires an applicant for a physicians and surgeons license who has completed 36 months of approved postgraduate training in another state or Canada and who is accepted into an approved postgraduate training in another state or Canada and who is accepted into an approved postgraduate training program in California to obtain their physicians and surgeons license within 90 days after beginning the postgraduate training program. This bill would delete the requirement that the person be accepted into an approved postgraduate training in another state or Canada.Existing law authorizes the Medical Board of California, in its discretion, to waive certain examination and certification requirements for licensure for a graduate of a foreign medical school who holds a certificate of registration issued by the board to practice medicine as a full-time faculty member at a medical school.This bill would also authorize the board to accept clinical practice in an appointment as qualifying time to meet specified postgraduate training requirements for licensure for those registrants.Existing law authorizes the Medical Board of California, upon and review and recommendation, to determine that an applicant for a physician and surgeons certificate has satisfied the medical education and examination requirements for an applicant who holds an unlimited and unrestricted license as a physician and surgeon in another state and has held the license continuously for a minimum of 4 years, subject to satisfaction of specified requirements. This bill would also require the applicant to meet specified postgraduate training requirements.(7) Existing law, the Architects Practice Act, provides for the licensure and regulation of architects by the California Architects Board. Existing law requires the board to issue a retired license to an architect who meets specified requirements, and also provides for the restoration of a retired license to active status upon satisfaction of specified requirements applicable to licenses that are not renewed within 5 years of its expiration. This bill would also authorize the restoration of a retired license to active status upon satisfaction of specified requirements applicable to licenses that are renewed within 5 years of its expiration. (8) Existing law provides for the January 1, 2021, repeal of provisions creating the Podiatric Medical Board of California, the Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians of the State of California, the Board of Psychology, the Physician Assistant Board, the California State Board of Pharmacy, the Veterinary Medical Board, the Board of Behavioral Sciences, and the State Board of Barbering and Cosmetology.This bill would extend the operation of those provisions to January 1, 2022, and make conforming changes relating to the appointment of an executive officer, as applicable.(9) Existing law provides for the January 1, 2022, repeal of provisions regulating naturopathic medicine and interior design and provisions creating the California Board of Occupational Therapy, the Physical Therapy Board of California, the Respiratory Care Board of California, and the Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board.This bill would extend the operation of those provisions to January 1, 2023, and make conforming changes relating to the appointment of an executive officer, as applicable.(10) Existing law, the Massage Therapy Act, until January 1, 2021, provides for the certification and regulation of massage therapists by the California Massage Therapy Council.This bill would extend the operation of the Massage Therapy Act to January 1, 2022, and make conforming changes relating to massage therapist certification requirements.(11) Existing law, the Private Investigator Act, provides for the licensure and regulation of private investigators by the Bureau of Security and Investigative Services. Existing law, until January 1, 2021, authorizes the bureau to issue a private investigator license to a limited liability company. A violation of the act is a crime.This bill would extend that date to January 1, 2024. By extending the operation of these provisions, the bill would impose a state-mandated local program.(12) Existing law, the Real Estate Law, provides for the licensure and regulation of real estate brokers by the Real Estate Commissioner, the chief officer of the Department of Real Estate within the Business, Consumer Services, and Housing Agency. The Real Estate Law subjects the powers and duties of the department, under specified provisions of law, to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature, performed as if those provisions were scheduled to be repealed as of January 1, 2021. This bill would extend that date to January 1, 2022.(13) Existing law, the Real Estate Appraisers Licensing and Certification Law, creates a Bureau of Real Estate Appraisers within the Department of Consumer Affairs to administer and enforce that law. The Real Estate Appraisers Licensing and Certification Law subjects the powers and duties of the bureau to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature, performed as if that law were scheduled to be repealed as of January 1, 2021.This bill would extend that date to January 1, 2022.(14) Existing law regulates the formation and enforcement of contracts, including what constitutes an unlawful contract. Under existing law, a contract is unlawful if it is contrary to an express provision of law, contrary to the policy of express law, though not expressly prohibited, or otherwise contrary to good morals.Existing law regulates licensees who are subject to the jurisdiction of a state licensing entity, including the State Bar of California, the Department of Real Estate, the Department of Consumer Affairs, or any other state agency that issues a license, certificate, or registration authorizing a person to engage in a business or profession.This bill would prohibit a contract or proposed contract for the provision of a consumer service by a licensee regulated by a licensing board from including a provision limiting the consumers ability to file a complaint with that board or to participate in the boards investigation into the licensee. The bill would specify that a waiver of these provisions is contrary to public policy and is void and unenforceable. The bill would provide that a violation of these provisions by a licensee constitutes unprofessional conduct subject to discipline by the licensees regulatory board.(15) Existing law, the California Private Postsecondary Education Act of 2009, until January 1, 2021, provides, among other things, for student protections and regulatory oversight of private postsecondary institutions in the state, enforced by the Bureau for Private Postsecondary Education within the Department of Consumer Affairs.This bill would extend the operation of the California Private Postsecondary Education Act of 2009 to January 1, 2022.(16) This bill would make other conforming, technical, and nonsubstantive changes.(17) This bill would incorporate additional changes to Section 205 of the Business and Professions Code proposed by AB 896 to be operative only if this bill and AB 896 are enacted and this bill is enacted last.(18) This bill would incorporate additional changes to Section 2113 of the Business and Professions Code proposed by AB 2273 to be operative only if this bill and AB 2273 are enacted and this bill is enacted last.(19) This bill would incorporate additional changes to Section 7159 of the Business and Professions Code proposed by AB 2471 to be operative only if this bill and AB 2471 are enacted and this bill is enacted last.(20) The California Constitution requires the state to reimburse local agencies and school districts for certain costs mandated by the state. Statutory provisions establish procedures for making that reimbursement.This bill would provide that no reimbursement is required by this act for a specified reason.Digest Key Vote: MAJORITY Appropriation: YES Fiscal Committee: YES Local Program: YES |
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| 4 | + | |
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| 5 | + | Enrolled September 04, 2020 Passed IN Senate August 31, 2020 Passed IN Assembly August 30, 2020 Amended IN Assembly August 26, 2020 Amended IN Assembly August 24, 2020 Amended IN Assembly August 10, 2020 Amended IN Assembly July 27, 2020 Amended IN Senate June 18, 2020 Amended IN Senate May 14, 2020 |
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| 6 | + | |
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| 7 | + | Enrolled September 04, 2020 |
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| 8 | + | Passed IN Senate August 31, 2020 |
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| 9 | + | Passed IN Assembly August 30, 2020 |
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| 10 | + | Amended IN Assembly August 26, 2020 |
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| 11 | + | Amended IN Assembly August 24, 2020 |
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| 12 | + | Amended IN Assembly August 10, 2020 |
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| 13 | + | Amended IN Assembly July 27, 2020 |
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| 14 | + | Amended IN Senate June 18, 2020 |
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| 15 | + | Amended IN Senate May 14, 2020 |
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| 16 | + | |
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| 17 | + | CALIFORNIA LEGISLATURE 20192020 REGULAR SESSION |
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| 18 | + | |
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| 19 | + | Senate Bill |
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| 20 | + | |
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| 21 | + | No. 1474 |
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| 22 | + | |
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| 23 | + | Introduced by Committee on Business, Professions and Economic Development (Senators Glazer (Chair), Archuleta, Chang, Dodd, Galgiani, Hill, Leyva, Pan, and Wilk)(Principal coauthor: Assembly Member Low)(Coauthor: Senator Morrell)March 16, 2020 |
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| 24 | + | |
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| 25 | + | Introduced by Committee on Business, Professions and Economic Development (Senators Glazer (Chair), Archuleta, Chang, Dodd, Galgiani, Hill, Leyva, Pan, and Wilk)(Principal coauthor: Assembly Member Low)(Coauthor: Senator Morrell) |
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| 26 | + | March 16, 2020 |
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| 14 | 29 | | |
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| 15 | 30 | | LEGISLATIVE COUNSEL'S DIGEST |
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| 16 | 31 | | |
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| 17 | 32 | | ## LEGISLATIVE COUNSEL'S DIGEST |
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| 18 | 33 | | |
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| 19 | 34 | | SB 1474, Committee on Business, Professions and Economic Development. Business and professions. |
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| 20 | 35 | | |
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| 21 | 36 | | (1) Existing law, the Contractors State License Law, provides for the licensure and regulation of contractors by the Contractors State License Board in the Department of Consumer Affairs. Existing law requires fees and penalties received pursuant to the law to be deposited in the Contractors License Fund, a continuously appropriated fund, except that certain service fees for the deposit of money in lieu of paying a bond are required to be deposited in the Contractors Deposit Fund. This bill would rename the Contractors State license Law as the Contractors State License Law, would rename the Contractors State License Board as the Contractors State License Board, and would rename the Contractors License Fund as the Contractors License Fund. The bill would delete the provision establishing the Contractors Deposit Fund, and would therefore require those service fees to be deposited in the Contractors License Fund. By authorizing a new source of revenue to be deposited into a continuously appropriated fund, the bill would make an appropriation. Existing law authorizes a licensee who is subject to a bonding provision under the law, in lieu of giving a bond, to deposit money or a cashiers check with the registrar of contractors.This bill would prohibit the deposit from being released if the board is notified of a civil action against the deposit and, if the amount of the deposit is insufficient to pay all claims, would require the deposit to be distributed to claimants in proportion to the amount of the claims.Existing law authorizes the registrar of contractors to grant the retroactive renewal of a license if, within 90 days from the due date, the licensee requests the retroactive renewal in a petition to the registrar, shows that the failure to renew was due to circumstances beyond their control, files an application for renewal on a form prescribed by the registrar, and pays the appropriate renewal and delinquency fees.This bill, instead, would require the registrar to grant the retroactive renewal of a license if, within 90 days of the expiration of the license, the otherwise eligible licensee submits a completed application for renewal and pays the renewal and delinquency fees. The bill would delete the requirement that the licensee demonstrate that the delay was due to circumstances beyond the licensees control, and would deem an application for renewal submitted for purposes of these provisions if it is delivered to the boards headquarters or postmarked within 90 days of the expiration of the license.(2) Existing law establishes the Landscape Architects Technical Committee to assist the California Architects Board in examining candidates for a landscape architects license. Existing law, on and after January 1, 2021, requires an applicant to furnish to the committee a full set of fingerprints for purposes of conducting criminal history record checks.This bill would revise the date on which this requirement becomes effective to January 1, 2022. (3) Existing law, the Chiropractic Act, enacted by an initiative measure, provides for the licensure and regulation of chiropractors in this state by the State Board of Chiropractic Examiners. Existing law requires that the powers and duties of the board, as provided, be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature as if that act were scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022.This bill would require that the powers and duties of the board, as provided, be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature as if that act were scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2023.(4) Existing law authorizes the State Board of Chiropractic Examiners and the Osteopathic Medical Board of California and any board within the Department of Consumer Affairs to issue a citation that may contain an order of abatement or an order to pay an administrative fine, and provides that a failure to pay a fine within 30 days of the date of assessment may result in disciplinary action. This bill would also make a failure to comply with the order of abatement within 30 days of the date of the order subject to disciplinary action. (5) Existing law provides for the licensure and regulation of registered dental hygienists by the Dental Hygiene Board of California. Existing law authorizes a registered dental hygienist to perform a procedure or provide a service within the scope of their practice under the appropriate level of supervision, as specified.This bill would also require a registered dental hygienist to have completed the appropriate education and training required to perform the procedure or provide the service.Existing law requires a person to have satisfactorily completed a specified examination within the preceding 2 years as a condition of licensure as a registered dental hygienist.This bill would instead require completion of the dental hygiene examination within the preceding 3 years.Existing law requires a person, as a condition for licensure as a registered dental hygienist in alternative practice, to successfully complete a bachelors degree or its equivalent from an accredited college or institution of higher education, among other requirements.This bill would specify that the equivalent of a bachelors degree is recognized as a minimum of 120 semester credit hours or 180 quarter credit hours in postsecondary education.(6) Existing law, the Medical Practice Act, provides for the licensure and regulation of physicians and surgeons by the Medical Board of California, and requires an applicant for a physicians and surgeons license who has completed 36 months of approved postgraduate training in another state or Canada and who is accepted into an approved postgraduate training in another state or Canada and who is accepted into an approved postgraduate training program in California to obtain their physicians and surgeons license within 90 days after beginning the postgraduate training program. This bill would delete the requirement that the person be accepted into an approved postgraduate training in another state or Canada.Existing law authorizes the Medical Board of California, in its discretion, to waive certain examination and certification requirements for licensure for a graduate of a foreign medical school who holds a certificate of registration issued by the board to practice medicine as a full-time faculty member at a medical school.This bill would also authorize the board to accept clinical practice in an appointment as qualifying time to meet specified postgraduate training requirements for licensure for those registrants.Existing law authorizes the Medical Board of California, upon and review and recommendation, to determine that an applicant for a physician and surgeons certificate has satisfied the medical education and examination requirements for an applicant who holds an unlimited and unrestricted license as a physician and surgeon in another state and has held the license continuously for a minimum of 4 years, subject to satisfaction of specified requirements. This bill would also require the applicant to meet specified postgraduate training requirements.(7) Existing law, the Architects Practice Act, provides for the licensure and regulation of architects by the California Architects Board. Existing law requires the board to issue a retired license to an architect who meets specified requirements, and also provides for the restoration of a retired license to active status upon satisfaction of specified requirements applicable to licenses that are not renewed within 5 years of its expiration. This bill would also authorize the restoration of a retired license to active status upon satisfaction of specified requirements applicable to licenses that are renewed within 5 years of its expiration. (8) Existing law provides for the January 1, 2021, repeal of provisions creating the Podiatric Medical Board of California, the Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians of the State of California, the Board of Psychology, the Physician Assistant Board, the California State Board of Pharmacy, the Veterinary Medical Board, the Board of Behavioral Sciences, and the State Board of Barbering and Cosmetology.This bill would extend the operation of those provisions to January 1, 2022, and make conforming changes relating to the appointment of an executive officer, as applicable.(9) Existing law provides for the January 1, 2022, repeal of provisions regulating naturopathic medicine and interior design and provisions creating the California Board of Occupational Therapy, the Physical Therapy Board of California, the Respiratory Care Board of California, and the Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board.This bill would extend the operation of those provisions to January 1, 2023, and make conforming changes relating to the appointment of an executive officer, as applicable.(10) Existing law, the Massage Therapy Act, until January 1, 2021, provides for the certification and regulation of massage therapists by the California Massage Therapy Council.This bill would extend the operation of the Massage Therapy Act to January 1, 2022, and make conforming changes relating to massage therapist certification requirements.(11) Existing law, the Private Investigator Act, provides for the licensure and regulation of private investigators by the Bureau of Security and Investigative Services. Existing law, until January 1, 2021, authorizes the bureau to issue a private investigator license to a limited liability company. A violation of the act is a crime.This bill would extend that date to January 1, 2024. By extending the operation of these provisions, the bill would impose a state-mandated local program.(12) Existing law, the Real Estate Law, provides for the licensure and regulation of real estate brokers by the Real Estate Commissioner, the chief officer of the Department of Real Estate within the Business, Consumer Services, and Housing Agency. The Real Estate Law subjects the powers and duties of the department, under specified provisions of law, to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature, performed as if those provisions were scheduled to be repealed as of January 1, 2021. This bill would extend that date to January 1, 2022.(13) Existing law, the Real Estate Appraisers Licensing and Certification Law, creates a Bureau of Real Estate Appraisers within the Department of Consumer Affairs to administer and enforce that law. The Real Estate Appraisers Licensing and Certification Law subjects the powers and duties of the bureau to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature, performed as if that law were scheduled to be repealed as of January 1, 2021.This bill would extend that date to January 1, 2022.(14) Existing law regulates the formation and enforcement of contracts, including what constitutes an unlawful contract. Under existing law, a contract is unlawful if it is contrary to an express provision of law, contrary to the policy of express law, though not expressly prohibited, or otherwise contrary to good morals.Existing law regulates licensees who are subject to the jurisdiction of a state licensing entity, including the State Bar of California, the Department of Real Estate, the Department of Consumer Affairs, or any other state agency that issues a license, certificate, or registration authorizing a person to engage in a business or profession.This bill would prohibit a contract or proposed contract for the provision of a consumer service by a licensee regulated by a licensing board from including a provision limiting the consumers ability to file a complaint with that board or to participate in the boards investigation into the licensee. The bill would specify that a waiver of these provisions is contrary to public policy and is void and unenforceable. The bill would provide that a violation of these provisions by a licensee constitutes unprofessional conduct subject to discipline by the licensees regulatory board.(15) Existing law, the California Private Postsecondary Education Act of 2009, until January 1, 2021, provides, among other things, for student protections and regulatory oversight of private postsecondary institutions in the state, enforced by the Bureau for Private Postsecondary Education within the Department of Consumer Affairs.This bill would extend the operation of the California Private Postsecondary Education Act of 2009 to January 1, 2022.(16) This bill would make other conforming, technical, and nonsubstantive changes.(17) This bill would incorporate additional changes to Section 205 of the Business and Professions Code proposed by AB 896 to be operative only if this bill and AB 896 are enacted and this bill is enacted last.(18) This bill would incorporate additional changes to Section 2113 of the Business and Professions Code proposed by AB 2273 to be operative only if this bill and AB 2273 are enacted and this bill is enacted last.(19) This bill would incorporate additional changes to Section 7159 of the Business and Professions Code proposed by AB 2471 to be operative only if this bill and AB 2471 are enacted and this bill is enacted last.(20) The California Constitution requires the state to reimburse local agencies and school districts for certain costs mandated by the state. Statutory provisions establish procedures for making that reimbursement.This bill would provide that no reimbursement is required by this act for a specified reason. |
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| 22 | 37 | | |
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| 23 | 38 | | (1) Existing law, the Contractors State License Law, provides for the licensure and regulation of contractors by the Contractors State License Board in the Department of Consumer Affairs. Existing law requires fees and penalties received pursuant to the law to be deposited in the Contractors License Fund, a continuously appropriated fund, except that certain service fees for the deposit of money in lieu of paying a bond are required to be deposited in the Contractors Deposit Fund. |
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| 24 | 39 | | |
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| 25 | 40 | | This bill would rename the Contractors State license Law as the Contractors State License Law, would rename the Contractors State License Board as the Contractors State License Board, and would rename the Contractors License Fund as the Contractors License Fund. The bill would delete the provision establishing the Contractors Deposit Fund, and would therefore require those service fees to be deposited in the Contractors License Fund. By authorizing a new source of revenue to be deposited into a continuously appropriated fund, the bill would make an appropriation. |
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| 26 | 41 | | |
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| 27 | 42 | | Existing law authorizes a licensee who is subject to a bonding provision under the law, in lieu of giving a bond, to deposit money or a cashiers check with the registrar of contractors. |
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| 28 | 43 | | |
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| 29 | 44 | | This bill would prohibit the deposit from being released if the board is notified of a civil action against the deposit and, if the amount of the deposit is insufficient to pay all claims, would require the deposit to be distributed to claimants in proportion to the amount of the claims. |
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| 30 | 45 | | |
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| 31 | 46 | | Existing law authorizes the registrar of contractors to grant the retroactive renewal of a license if, within 90 days from the due date, the licensee requests the retroactive renewal in a petition to the registrar, shows that the failure to renew was due to circumstances beyond their control, files an application for renewal on a form prescribed by the registrar, and pays the appropriate renewal and delinquency fees. |
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| 32 | 47 | | |
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| 33 | 48 | | This bill, instead, would require the registrar to grant the retroactive renewal of a license if, within 90 days of the expiration of the license, the otherwise eligible licensee submits a completed application for renewal and pays the renewal and delinquency fees. The bill would delete the requirement that the licensee demonstrate that the delay was due to circumstances beyond the licensees control, and would deem an application for renewal submitted for purposes of these provisions if it is delivered to the boards headquarters or postmarked within 90 days of the expiration of the license. |
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| 34 | 49 | | |
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| 35 | 50 | | (2) Existing law establishes the Landscape Architects Technical Committee to assist the California Architects Board in examining candidates for a landscape architects license. Existing law, on and after January 1, 2021, requires an applicant to furnish to the committee a full set of fingerprints for purposes of conducting criminal history record checks. |
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| 36 | 51 | | |
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| 37 | 52 | | This bill would revise the date on which this requirement becomes effective to January 1, 2022. |
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| 38 | 53 | | |
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| 39 | 54 | | (3) Existing law, the Chiropractic Act, enacted by an initiative measure, provides for the licensure and regulation of chiropractors in this state by the State Board of Chiropractic Examiners. Existing law requires that the powers and duties of the board, as provided, be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature as if that act were scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022. |
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| 40 | 55 | | |
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| 41 | 56 | | This bill would require that the powers and duties of the board, as provided, be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature as if that act were scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2023. |
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| 42 | 57 | | |
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| 43 | 58 | | (4) Existing law authorizes the State Board of Chiropractic Examiners and the Osteopathic Medical Board of California and any board within the Department of Consumer Affairs to issue a citation that may contain an order of abatement or an order to pay an administrative fine, and provides that a failure to pay a fine within 30 days of the date of assessment may result in disciplinary action. |
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| 44 | 59 | | |
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| 45 | 60 | | This bill would also make a failure to comply with the order of abatement within 30 days of the date of the order subject to disciplinary action. |
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| 46 | 61 | | |
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| 47 | 62 | | (5) Existing law provides for the licensure and regulation of registered dental hygienists by the Dental Hygiene Board of California. Existing law authorizes a registered dental hygienist to perform a procedure or provide a service within the scope of their practice under the appropriate level of supervision, as specified. |
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| 48 | 63 | | |
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| 49 | 64 | | This bill would also require a registered dental hygienist to have completed the appropriate education and training required to perform the procedure or provide the service. |
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| 50 | 65 | | |
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| 51 | 66 | | Existing law requires a person to have satisfactorily completed a specified examination within the preceding 2 years as a condition of licensure as a registered dental hygienist. |
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| 52 | 67 | | |
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| 53 | 68 | | This bill would instead require completion of the dental hygiene examination within the preceding 3 years. |
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| 54 | 69 | | |
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| 55 | 70 | | Existing law requires a person, as a condition for licensure as a registered dental hygienist in alternative practice, to successfully complete a bachelors degree or its equivalent from an accredited college or institution of higher education, among other requirements. |
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| 56 | 71 | | |
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| 57 | 72 | | This bill would specify that the equivalent of a bachelors degree is recognized as a minimum of 120 semester credit hours or 180 quarter credit hours in postsecondary education. |
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| 58 | 73 | | |
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| 59 | 74 | | (6) Existing law, the Medical Practice Act, provides for the licensure and regulation of physicians and surgeons by the Medical Board of California, and requires an applicant for a physicians and surgeons license who has completed 36 months of approved postgraduate training in another state or Canada and who is accepted into an approved postgraduate training in another state or Canada and who is accepted into an approved postgraduate training program in California to obtain their physicians and surgeons license within 90 days after beginning the postgraduate training program. |
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| 60 | 75 | | |
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| 61 | 76 | | This bill would delete the requirement that the person be accepted into an approved postgraduate training in another state or Canada. |
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| 62 | 77 | | |
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| 63 | 78 | | Existing law authorizes the Medical Board of California, in its discretion, to waive certain examination and certification requirements for licensure for a graduate of a foreign medical school who holds a certificate of registration issued by the board to practice medicine as a full-time faculty member at a medical school. |
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| 64 | 79 | | |
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| 65 | 80 | | This bill would also authorize the board to accept clinical practice in an appointment as qualifying time to meet specified postgraduate training requirements for licensure for those registrants. |
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| 66 | 81 | | |
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| 67 | 82 | | Existing law authorizes the Medical Board of California, upon and review and recommendation, to determine that an applicant for a physician and surgeons certificate has satisfied the medical education and examination requirements for an applicant who holds an unlimited and unrestricted license as a physician and surgeon in another state and has held the license continuously for a minimum of 4 years, subject to satisfaction of specified requirements. |
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| 68 | 83 | | |
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| 69 | 84 | | This bill would also require the applicant to meet specified postgraduate training requirements. |
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| 70 | 85 | | |
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| 71 | 86 | | (7) Existing law, the Architects Practice Act, provides for the licensure and regulation of architects by the California Architects Board. Existing law requires the board to issue a retired license to an architect who meets specified requirements, and also provides for the restoration of a retired license to active status upon satisfaction of specified requirements applicable to licenses that are not renewed within 5 years of its expiration. |
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| 72 | 87 | | |
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| 73 | 88 | | This bill would also authorize the restoration of a retired license to active status upon satisfaction of specified requirements applicable to licenses that are renewed within 5 years of its expiration. |
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| 74 | 89 | | |
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| 75 | 90 | | (8) Existing law provides for the January 1, 2021, repeal of provisions creating the Podiatric Medical Board of California, the Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians of the State of California, the Board of Psychology, the Physician Assistant Board, the California State Board of Pharmacy, the Veterinary Medical Board, the Board of Behavioral Sciences, and the State Board of Barbering and Cosmetology. |
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| 76 | 91 | | |
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| 77 | 92 | | This bill would extend the operation of those provisions to January 1, 2022, and make conforming changes relating to the appointment of an executive officer, as applicable. |
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| 78 | 93 | | |
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| 79 | 94 | | (9) Existing law provides for the January 1, 2022, repeal of provisions regulating naturopathic medicine and interior design and provisions creating the California Board of Occupational Therapy, the Physical Therapy Board of California, the Respiratory Care Board of California, and the Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board. |
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| 80 | 95 | | |
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| 81 | 96 | | This bill would extend the operation of those provisions to January 1, 2023, and make conforming changes relating to the appointment of an executive officer, as applicable. |
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| 82 | 97 | | |
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| 83 | 98 | | (10) Existing law, the Massage Therapy Act, until January 1, 2021, provides for the certification and regulation of massage therapists by the California Massage Therapy Council. |
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| 84 | 99 | | |
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| 85 | 100 | | This bill would extend the operation of the Massage Therapy Act to January 1, 2022, and make conforming changes relating to massage therapist certification requirements. |
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| 86 | 101 | | |
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| 87 | 102 | | (11) Existing law, the Private Investigator Act, provides for the licensure and regulation of private investigators by the Bureau of Security and Investigative Services. Existing law, until January 1, 2021, authorizes the bureau to issue a private investigator license to a limited liability company. A violation of the act is a crime. |
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| 88 | 103 | | |
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| 89 | 104 | | This bill would extend that date to January 1, 2024. By extending the operation of these provisions, the bill would impose a state-mandated local program. |
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| 90 | 105 | | |
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| 91 | 106 | | (12) Existing law, the Real Estate Law, provides for the licensure and regulation of real estate brokers by the Real Estate Commissioner, the chief officer of the Department of Real Estate within the Business, Consumer Services, and Housing Agency. The Real Estate Law subjects the powers and duties of the department, under specified provisions of law, to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature, performed as if those provisions were scheduled to be repealed as of January 1, 2021. |
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| 92 | 107 | | |
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| 93 | 108 | | This bill would extend that date to January 1, 2022. |
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| 94 | 109 | | |
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| 95 | 110 | | (13) Existing law, the Real Estate Appraisers Licensing and Certification Law, creates a Bureau of Real Estate Appraisers within the Department of Consumer Affairs to administer and enforce that law. The Real Estate Appraisers Licensing and Certification Law subjects the powers and duties of the bureau to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature, performed as if that law were scheduled to be repealed as of January 1, 2021. |
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| 96 | 111 | | |
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| 97 | 112 | | This bill would extend that date to January 1, 2022. |
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| 98 | 113 | | |
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| 99 | 114 | | (14) Existing law regulates the formation and enforcement of contracts, including what constitutes an unlawful contract. Under existing law, a contract is unlawful if it is contrary to an express provision of law, contrary to the policy of express law, though not expressly prohibited, or otherwise contrary to good morals. |
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| 100 | 115 | | |
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| 101 | 116 | | Existing law regulates licensees who are subject to the jurisdiction of a state licensing entity, including the State Bar of California, the Department of Real Estate, the Department of Consumer Affairs, or any other state agency that issues a license, certificate, or registration authorizing a person to engage in a business or profession. |
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| 102 | 117 | | |
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| 103 | 118 | | This bill would prohibit a contract or proposed contract for the provision of a consumer service by a licensee regulated by a licensing board from including a provision limiting the consumers ability to file a complaint with that board or to participate in the boards investigation into the licensee. The bill would specify that a waiver of these provisions is contrary to public policy and is void and unenforceable. The bill would provide that a violation of these provisions by a licensee constitutes unprofessional conduct subject to discipline by the licensees regulatory board. |
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| 104 | 119 | | |
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| 105 | 120 | | (15) Existing law, the California Private Postsecondary Education Act of 2009, until January 1, 2021, provides, among other things, for student protections and regulatory oversight of private postsecondary institutions in the state, enforced by the Bureau for Private Postsecondary Education within the Department of Consumer Affairs. |
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| 106 | 121 | | |
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| 107 | 122 | | This bill would extend the operation of the California Private Postsecondary Education Act of 2009 to January 1, 2022. |
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| 108 | 123 | | |
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| 109 | 124 | | (16) This bill would make other conforming, technical, and nonsubstantive changes. |
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| 110 | 125 | | |
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| 111 | 126 | | (17) This bill would incorporate additional changes to Section 205 of the Business and Professions Code proposed by AB 896 to be operative only if this bill and AB 896 are enacted and this bill is enacted last. |
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| 112 | 127 | | |
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| 113 | 128 | | (18) This bill would incorporate additional changes to Section 2113 of the Business and Professions Code proposed by AB 2273 to be operative only if this bill and AB 2273 are enacted and this bill is enacted last. |
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| 114 | 129 | | |
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| 115 | 130 | | (19) This bill would incorporate additional changes to Section 7159 of the Business and Professions Code proposed by AB 2471 to be operative only if this bill and AB 2471 are enacted and this bill is enacted last. |
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| 116 | 131 | | |
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| 117 | 132 | | (20) The California Constitution requires the state to reimburse local agencies and school districts for certain costs mandated by the state. Statutory provisions establish procedures for making that reimbursement. |
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| 118 | 133 | | |
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| 119 | 134 | | This bill would provide that no reimbursement is required by this act for a specified reason. |
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| 120 | 135 | | |
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| 121 | 136 | | ## Digest Key |
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| 122 | 137 | | |
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| 123 | 138 | | ## Bill Text |
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| 124 | 139 | | |
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| 125 | 140 | | The people of the State of California do enact as follows:SECTION 1. Section 27 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:27. (a) Each entity specified in subdivisions (c), (d), and (e) shall provide on the internet information regarding the status of every license issued by that entity in accordance with the California Public Records Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code) and the Information Practices Act of 1977 (Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 1798) of Title 1.8 of Part 4 of Division 3 of the Civil Code). The public information to be provided on the internet shall include information on suspensions and revocations of licenses issued by the entity and other related enforcement action, including accusations filed pursuant to the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code) taken by the entity relative to persons, businesses, or facilities subject to licensure or regulation by the entity. The information may not include personal information, including home telephone number, date of birth, or social security number. Each entity shall disclose a licensees address of record. However, each entity shall allow a licensee to provide a post office box number or other alternate address, instead of the licensees home address, as the address of record. This section shall not preclude an entity from also requiring a licensee, who has provided a post office box number or other alternative mailing address as the licensees address of record, to provide a physical business address or residence address only for the entitys internal administrative use and not for disclosure as the licensees address of record or disclosure on the internet.(b) In providing information on the internet, each entity specified in subdivisions (c) and (d) shall comply with the Department of Consumer Affairs guidelines for access to public records.(c) Each of the following entities within the Department of Consumer Affairs shall comply with the requirements of this section:(1) The Board for Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists shall disclose information on its registrants and licensees.(2) The Bureau of Automotive Repair shall disclose information on its licensees, including auto repair dealers, smog stations, lamp and brake stations, smog check technicians, and smog inspection certification stations.(3) The Bureau of Household Goods and Services shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants, including major appliance repair dealers, combination dealers (electronic and appliance), electronic repair dealers, service contract sellers, service contract administrators, and household movers.(4) The Cemetery and Funeral Bureau shall disclose information on its licensees, including cemetery brokers, cemetery salespersons, cemetery managers, crematory managers, cemetery authorities, crematories, cremated remains disposers, embalmers, funeral establishments, and funeral directors.(5) The Professional Fiduciaries Bureau shall disclose information on its licensees.(6) The Contractors State License Board shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants in accordance with Chapter 9 (commencing with Section 7000) of Division 3. In addition to information related to licenses as specified in subdivision (a), the board shall also disclose information provided to the board by the Labor Commissioner pursuant to Section 98.9 of the Labor Code.(7) The Bureau for Private Postsecondary Education shall disclose information on private postsecondary institutions under its jurisdiction, including disclosure of notices to comply issued pursuant to Section 94935 of the Education Code.(8) The California Board of Accountancy shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants.(9) The California Architects Board shall disclose information on its licensees, including architects and landscape architects.(10) The State Athletic Commission shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants.(11) The State Board of Barbering and Cosmetology shall disclose information on its licensees.(12) The Acupuncture Board shall disclose information on its licensees.(13) The Board of Behavioral Sciences shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants.(14) The Dental Board of California shall disclose information on its licensees.(15) The State Board of Optometry shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants.(16) The Board of Psychology shall disclose information on its licensees, including psychologists, psychological assistants, and registered psychologists.(17) The Veterinary Medical Board shall disclose information on its licensees, registrants, and permitholders.(d) The State Board of Chiropractic Examiners shall disclose information on its licensees.(e) The Structural Pest Control Board shall disclose information on its licensees, including applicators, field representatives, and operators in the areas of fumigation, general pest and wood destroying pests and organisms, and wood roof cleaning and treatment.(f) The Bureau of Cannabis Control shall disclose information on its licensees.(g) Internet for the purposes of this section has the meaning set forth in paragraph (6) of subdivision (f) of Section 17538.SEC. 2. Section 101 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:101. The department is comprised of the following:(a) The Dental Board of California.(b) The Medical Board of California.(c) The State Board of Optometry.(d) The California State Board of Pharmacy.(e) The Veterinary Medical Board.(f) The California Board of Accountancy.(g) The California Architects Board.(h) The State Board of Barbering and Cosmetology.(i) The Board for Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists.(j) The Contractors State License Board.(k) The Bureau for Private Postsecondary Education.(l) The Bureau of Household Goods and Services.(m) The Board of Registered Nursing.(n) The Board of Behavioral Sciences.(o) The State Athletic Commission.(p) The Cemetery and Funeral Bureau.(q) The Bureau of Security and Investigative Services.(r) The Court Reporters Board of California.(s) The Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians.(t) The Landscape Architects Technical Committee.(u) The Division of Investigation.(v) The Bureau of Automotive Repair.(w) The Respiratory Care Board of California.(x) The Acupuncture Board.(y) The Board of Psychology.(z) The Podiatric Medical Board of California.(aa) The Physical Therapy Board of California.(ab) The Arbitration Review Program.(ac) The Physician Assistant Board.(ad) The Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board.(ae) The California Board of Occupational Therapy.(af) The Osteopathic Medical Board of California.(ag) The Naturopathic Medicine Committee.(ah) The Dental Hygiene Board of California.(ai) The Professional Fiduciaries Bureau.(aj) The State Board of Chiropractic Examiners.(ak) The Bureau of Real Estate Appraisers.(al) The Structural Pest Control Board.(am) The Bureau of Cannabis Control.(an) Any other boards, offices, or officers subject to its jurisdiction by law.(ao) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2018.SEC. 3. Section 125.9 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:125.9. (a) Except with respect to persons regulated under Chapter 11 (commencing with Section 7500), any board, bureau, or commission within the department, the State Board of Chiropractic Examiners, and the Osteopathic Medical Board of California, may establish, by regulation, a system for the issuance to a licensee of a citation which may contain an order of abatement or an order to pay an administrative fine assessed by the board, bureau, or commission where the licensee is in violation of the applicable licensing act or any regulation adopted pursuant thereto.(b) The system shall contain the following provisions:(1) Citations shall be in writing and shall describe with particularity the nature of the violation, including specific reference to the provision of law determined to have been violated.(2) Whenever appropriate, the citation shall contain an order of abatement fixing a reasonable time for abatement of the violation.(3) In no event shall the administrative fine assessed by the board, bureau, or commission exceed five thousand dollars ($5,000) for each inspection or each investigation made with respect to the violation, or five thousand dollars ($5,000) for each violation or count if the violation involves fraudulent billing submitted to an insurance company, the Medi-Cal program, or Medicare. In assessing a fine, the board, bureau, or commission shall give due consideration to the appropriateness of the amount of the fine with respect to factors such as the gravity of the violation, the good faith of the licensee, and the history of previous violations.(4) A citation or fine assessment issued pursuant to a citation shall inform the licensee that if the licensee desires a hearing to contest the finding of a violation, that hearing shall be requested by written notice to the board, bureau, or commission within 30 days of the date of issuance of the citation or assessment. If a hearing is not requested pursuant to this section, payment of any fine shall not constitute an admission of the violation charged. Hearings shall be held pursuant to Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.(5) Failure of a licensee to pay a fine or comply with an order of abatement, or both, within 30 days of the date of assessment or order, unless the citation is being appealed, may result in disciplinary action being taken by the board, bureau, or commission. Where a citation is not contested and a fine is not paid, the full amount of the assessed fine shall be added to the fee for renewal of the license. A license shall not be renewed without payment of the renewal fee and fine.(c) The system may contain the following provisions:(1) A citation may be issued without the assessment of an administrative fine.(2) Assessment of administrative fines may be limited to only particular violations of the applicable licensing act.(d) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, if a fine is paid to satisfy an assessment based on the finding of a violation, payment of the fine and compliance with the order of abatement, if applicable, shall be represented as satisfactory resolution of the matter for purposes of public disclosure.(e) Administrative fines collected pursuant to this section shall be deposited in the special fund of the particular board, bureau, or commission.SEC. 4. Section 130 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:130. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, the term of office of any member of an agency designated in subdivision (b) shall be for a term of four years expiring on June 1.(b) Subdivision (a) applies to the following boards or committees:(1) The Medical Board of California.(2) The Podiatric Medical Board of California.(3) The Physical Therapy Board of California.(4) The Board of Registered Nursing, except as provided in subdivision (c) of Section 2703.(5) The Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians.(6) The State Board of Optometry.(7) The California State Board of Pharmacy.(8) The Veterinary Medical Board.(9) The California Architects Board.(10) The Landscape Architect Technical Committee.(11) The Board for Professional Engineers and Land Surveyors.(12) The Contractors State License Board.(13) The Board of Behavioral Sciences.(14) The Court Reporters Board of California.(15) The State Athletic Commission.(16) The Osteopathic Medical Board of California.(17) The Respiratory Care Board of California.(18) The Acupuncture Board.(19) The Board of Psychology.(20) The Structural Pest Control Board.SEC. 5. Section 144 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:144. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, an agency designated in subdivision (b) shall require an applicant to furnish to the agency a full set of fingerprints for purposes of conducting criminal history record checks. Any agency designated in subdivision (b) may obtain and receive, at its discretion, criminal history information from the Department of Justice and the United States Federal Bureau of Investigation.(b) Subdivision (a) applies to the following:(1) California Board of Accountancy.(2) State Athletic Commission.(3) Board of Behavioral Sciences.(4) Court Reporters Board of California.(5) Dental Board of California.(6) California State Board of Pharmacy.(7) Board of Registered Nursing.(8) Veterinary Medical Board.(9) Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians.(10) Respiratory Care Board of California.(11) Physical Therapy Board of California.(12) Physician Assistant Committee.(13) Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board.(14) Medical Board of California.(15) State Board of Optometry.(16) Acupuncture Board.(17) Cemetery and Funeral Bureau.(18) Bureau of Security and Investigative Services.(19) Division of Investigation.(20) Board of Psychology.(21) California Board of Occupational Therapy.(22) Structural Pest Control Board.(23) Contractors State License Board.(24) Naturopathic Medicine Committee.(25) Professional Fiduciaries Bureau.(26) Board for Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists.(27) Bureau of Cannabis Control.(28) Podiatric Medical Board of California.(29) Osteopathic Medical Board of California.(30) California Architects Board, beginning January 1, 2021.(31) Landscape Architects Technical Committee, beginning January 1, 2022.(c) For purposes of paragraph (26) of subdivision (b), the term applicant shall be limited to an initial applicant who has never been registered or licensed by the board or to an applicant for a new licensure or registration category.SEC. 6. Section 200.1 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:200.1. (a) Any accruals that occur on or after September 11, 1993, to any funds or accounts within the Professions and Vocations Fund that realize increased revenues to that fund or account as a result of legislation enacted on or after September 11, 1993, and that have not been transferred pursuant to Sections 13.50, 13.60, and 13.70 of the Budget Act of 1993 on the effective date of the act that enacted this section, shall be exempt from the transfers contained in Sections 13.50, 13.60, and 13.70 of the Budget Act of 1993. These funds shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:(1) Athletic Commission Fund.(2) Bureau of Home Furnishings and Thermal Insulation Fund.(3) Contractors License Fund.(4) Private Investigator Fund.(5) Respiratory Care Fund.(6) Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians Fund.(b) Subdivision (a) shall not apply to the Contingent Fund of the Medical Board of California.SEC. 7. Section 205 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 2 of Chapter 865 of the Statutes of 2019, is amended to read:205. (a) There is in the State Treasury the Professions and Vocations Fund. The fund shall consist of the following special funds:(1) Accountancy Fund.(2) California Architects Board Fund.(3) Athletic Commission Fund.(4) Barbering and Cosmetology Contingent Fund.(5) Cemetery and Funeral Fund.(6) Contractors License Fund.(7) State Dentistry Fund.(8) Home Furnishings and Thermal Insulation Fund.(9) California Architects Board-Landscape Architects Fund.(10) Contingent Fund of the Medical Board of California.(11) Optometry Fund.(12) Pharmacy Board Contingent Fund.(13) Physical Therapy Fund.(14) Private Investigator Fund.(15) Private Security Services Fund.(16) Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists Fund.(17) Consumer Affairs Fund.(18) Behavioral Sciences Fund.(19) Licensed Midwifery Fund.(20) Court Reporters Fund.(21) Veterinary Medical Board Contingent Fund.(22) Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians Fund.(23) Electronic and Appliance Repair Fund.(24) Dispensing Opticians Fund.(25) Acupuncture Fund.(26) Physician Assistant Fund.(27) Board of Podiatric Medicine Fund.(28) Psychology Fund.(29) Respiratory Care Fund.(30) Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Fund.(31) Board of Registered Nursing Fund.(32) Animal Health Technician Examining Committee Fund.(33) State Dental Hygiene Fund.(34) State Dental Assistant Fund.(35) Structural Pest Control Fund.(36) Structural Pest Control Eradication and Enforcement Fund.(37) Structural Pest Control Research Fund.(38) Household Movers Fund.(b) For accounting and recordkeeping purposes, the Professions and Vocations Fund shall be deemed to be a single special fund, and each of the several special funds therein shall constitute and be deemed to be a separate account in the Professions and Vocations Fund. Each account or fund shall be available for expenditure only for the purposes as are now or may hereafter be provided by law.(c) This section shall be repealed on July 1, 2022.SEC. 8. Section 205 of the Business and Professions Code, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 865 of the Statutes of 2019, is amended to read:205. (a) There is in the State Treasury the Professions and Vocations Fund. The fund shall consist of the following special funds:(1) Accountancy Fund.(2) California Architects Board Fund.(3) Athletic Commission Fund.(4) Barbering and Cosmetology Contingent Fund.(5) Cemetery and Funeral Fund.(6) Contractors License Fund.(7) State Dentistry Fund.(8) Home Furnishings and Thermal Insulation Fund.(9) California Architects Board-Landscape Architects Fund.(10) Contingent Fund of the Medical Board of California.(11) Optometry Fund.(12) Pharmacy Board Contingent Fund.(13) Physical Therapy Fund.(14) Private Investigator Fund.(15) Private Security Services Fund.(16) Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists Fund.(17) Consumer Affairs Fund.(18) Behavioral Sciences Fund.(19) Licensed Midwifery Fund.(20) Court Reporters Fund.(21) Veterinary Medical Board Contingent Fund.(22) Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians Fund.(23) Electronic and Appliance Repair Fund.(24) Dispensing Opticians Fund.(25) Acupuncture Fund.(26) Physician Assistant Fund.(27) Board of Podiatric Medicine Fund.(28) Psychology Fund.(29) Respiratory Care Fund.(30) Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Fund.(31) Board of Registered Nursing Fund.(32) Animal Health Technician Examining Committee Fund.(33) State Dental Hygiene Fund.(34) Structural Pest Control Fund.(35) Structural Pest Control Eradication and Enforcement Fund.(36) Structural Pest Control Research Fund.(37) Household Movers Fund.(b) For accounting and recordkeeping purposes, the Professions and Vocations Fund shall be deemed to be a single special fund, and each of the several special funds therein shall constitute and be deemed to be a separate account in the Professions and Vocations Fund. Each account or fund shall be available for expenditure only for the purposes as are now or may hereafter be provided by law.(c) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2022.SEC. 8.5. Section 205 of the Business and Professions Code, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 865 of the Statutes of 2019, is amended to read:205. (a) There is in the State Treasury the Professions and Vocations Fund. The fund shall consist of the following special funds:(1) Accountancy Fund.(2) California Architects Board Fund.(3) Athletic Commission Fund.(4) Barbering and Cosmetology Contingent Fund.(5) Cemetery and Funeral Fund.(6) Contractors License Fund.(7) State Dentistry Fund.(8) Home Furnishings and Thermal Insulation Fund.(9) California Architects Board-Landscape Architects Fund.(10) Contingent Fund of the Medical Board of California.(11) Optometry Fund.(12) Pharmacy Board Contingent Fund.(13) Physical Therapy Fund.(14) Private Investigator Fund.(15) Private Security Services Fund.(16) Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists Fund.(17) Consumer Affairs Fund.(18) Behavioral Sciences Fund.(19) Licensed Midwifery Fund.(20) Court Reporters Fund.(21) Veterinary Medical Board Contingent Fund.(22) Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians Fund.(23) Electronic and Appliance Repair Fund.(24) Acupuncture Fund.(25) Physician Assistant Fund.(26) Board of Podiatric Medicine Fund.(27) Psychology Fund.(28) Respiratory Care Fund.(29) Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Fund.(30) Board of Registered Nursing Fund.(31) Animal Health Technician Examining Committee Fund.(32) State Dental Hygiene Fund.(33) Structural Pest Control Fund.(34) Structural Pest Control Eradication and Enforcement Fund.(35) Structural Pest Control Research Fund.(36) Household Movers Fund.(b) For accounting and recordkeeping purposes, the Professions and Vocations Fund shall be deemed to be a single special fund, and each of the several special funds therein shall constitute and be deemed to be a separate account in the Professions and Vocations Fund. Each account or fund shall be available for expenditure only for the purposes as are now or may hereafter be provided by law.(c) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2022.SEC. 9. Section 494.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:494.5. (a) (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (2), (3), and (4), a state governmental licensing entity shall refuse to issue, reactivate, reinstate, or renew a license and shall suspend a license if a licensees name is included on a certified list.(2) The Department of Motor Vehicles shall suspend a license if a licensees name is included on a certified list. Any reference in this section to the issuance, reactivation, reinstatement, renewal, or denial of a license shall not apply to the Department of Motor Vehicles.(3) The State Bar of California may recommend to refuse to issue, reactivate, reinstate, or renew a license and may recommend to suspend a license if a licensees name is included on a certified list. The word may shall be substituted for the word shall relating to the issuance of a temporary license, refusal to issue, reactivate, reinstate, renew, or suspend a license in this section for licenses under the jurisdiction of the California Supreme Court.(4) The Department of Alcoholic Beverage Control may refuse to issue, reactivate, reinstate, or renew a license, and may suspend a license, if a licensees name is included on a certified list.(b) For purposes of this section:(1) Certified list means either the list provided by the State Board of Equalization or the list provided by the Franchise Tax Board of persons whose names appear on the lists of the 500 largest tax delinquencies pursuant to Section 7063 or 19195 of the Revenue and Taxation Code, as applicable.(2) License includes a certificate, registration, or any other authorization to engage in a profession or occupation issued by a state governmental licensing entity. License includes a drivers license issued pursuant to Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 12500) of Division 6 of the Vehicle Code. License excludes a vehicle registration issued pursuant to Division 3 (commencing with Section 4000) of the Vehicle Code.(3) Licensee means an individual authorized by a license to drive a motor vehicle or authorized by a license, certificate, registration, or other authorization to engage in a profession or occupation issued by a state governmental licensing entity.(4) State governmental licensing entity means any entity listed in Section 101, 1000, or 19420, the office of the Attorney General, the Department of Insurance, the Department of Motor Vehicles, the State Bar of California, the Department of Real Estate, and any other state agency, board, or commission that issues a license, certificate, or registration authorizing an individual to engage in a profession or occupation, including any certificate, business or occupational license, or permit or license issued by the Department of Motor Vehicles or the Department of the California Highway Patrol. State governmental licensing entity shall not include the Contractors State License Board.(c) The State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board shall each submit its respective certified list to every state governmental licensing entity. The certified lists shall include the name, social security number or taxpayer identification number, and the last known address of the persons identified on the certified lists.(d) Notwithstanding any other law, each state governmental licensing entity shall collect the social security number or the federal taxpayer identification number from all applicants for the purposes of matching the names of the certified lists provided by the State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board to applicants and licensees.(e) (1) Each state governmental licensing entity shall determine whether an applicant or licensee is on the most recent certified list provided by the State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board.(2) If an applicant or licensee is on either of the certified lists, the state governmental licensing entity shall immediately provide a preliminary notice to the applicant or licensee of the entitys intent to suspend or withhold issuance or renewal of the license. The preliminary notice shall be delivered personally or by mail to the applicants or licensees last known mailing address on file with the state governmental licensing entity within 30 days of receipt of the certified list. Service by mail shall be completed in accordance with Section 1013 of the Code of Civil Procedure.(A) The state governmental licensing entity shall issue a temporary license valid for a period of 90 days to any applicant whose name is on a certified list if the applicant is otherwise eligible for a license.(B) The 90-day time period for a temporary license shall not be extended. Only one temporary license shall be issued during a regular license term and the term of the temporary license shall coincide with the first 90 days of the regular license term. A license for the full term or the remainder of the license term may be issued or renewed only upon compliance with this section.(C) In the event that a license is suspended or an application for a license or the renewal of a license is denied pursuant to this section, any funds paid by the applicant or licensee shall not be refunded by the state governmental licensing entity.(f) (1) A state governmental licensing entity shall refuse to issue or shall suspend a license pursuant to this section no sooner than 90 days and no later than 120 days of the mailing of the preliminary notice described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (e), unless the state governmental licensing entity has received a release pursuant to subdivision (h). The procedures in the administrative adjudication provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 11400) and Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code) shall not apply to the denial or suspension of, or refusal to renew, a license or the issuance of a temporary license pursuant to this section.(2) Notwithstanding any other law, if a board, bureau, or commission listed in Section 101, other than the Contractors State License Board, fails to take action in accordance with this section, the Department of Consumer Affairs shall issue a temporary license or suspend or refuse to issue, reactivate, reinstate, or renew a license, as appropriate.(g) Notices shall be developed by each state governmental licensing entity. For an applicant or licensee on the State Board of Equalizations certified list, the notice shall include the address and telephone number of the State Board of Equalization, and shall emphasize the necessity of obtaining a release from the State Board of Equalization as a condition for the issuance, renewal, or continued valid status of a license or licenses. For an applicant or licensee on the Franchise Tax Boards certified list, the notice shall include the address and telephone number of the Franchise Tax Board, and shall emphasize the necessity of obtaining a release from the Franchise Tax Board as a condition for the issuance, renewal, or continued valid status of a license or licenses.(1) The notice shall inform the applicant that the state governmental licensing entity shall issue a temporary license, as provided in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (e), for 90 calendar days if the applicant is otherwise eligible and that upon expiration of that time period, the license will be denied unless the state governmental licensing entity has received a release from the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable.(2) The notice shall inform the licensee that any license suspended under this section will remain suspended until the state governmental licensing entity receives a release along with applications and fees, if applicable, to reinstate the license.(3) The notice shall also inform the applicant or licensee that if an application is denied or a license is suspended pursuant to this section, any moneys paid by the applicant or licensee shall not be refunded by the state governmental licensing entity. The state governmental licensing entity shall also develop a form that the applicant or licensee shall use to request a release by the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board. A copy of this form shall be included with every notice sent pursuant to this subdivision.(h) If the applicant or licensee wishes to challenge the submission of their name on a certified list, the applicant or licensee shall make a timely written request for release to the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable. The State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board shall immediately send a release to the appropriate state governmental licensing entity and the applicant or licensee, if any of the following conditions are met:(1) The applicant or licensee has complied with the tax obligation, either by payment of the unpaid taxes or entry into an installment payment agreement, as described in Section 6832 or 19008 of the Revenue and Taxation Code, to satisfy the unpaid taxes.(2) The applicant or licensee has submitted a request for release not later than 45 days after the applicants or licensees receipt of a preliminary notice described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (e), but the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, will be unable to complete the release review and send notice of its findings to the applicant or licensee and state governmental licensing entity within 45 days after the State Board of Equalizations or the Franchise Tax Boards receipt of the applicants or licensees request for release. Whenever a release is granted under this paragraph, and, notwithstanding that release, the applicable license or licenses have been suspended erroneously, the state governmental licensing entity shall reinstate the applicable licenses with retroactive effect back to the date of the erroneous suspension and that suspension shall not be reflected on any license record.(3) The applicant or licensee is unable to pay the outstanding tax obligation due to a current financial hardship. Financial hardship means financial hardship as determined by the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, where the applicant or licensee is unable to pay any part of the outstanding liability and the applicant or licensee is unable to qualify for an installment payment arrangement as provided for by Section 6832 or Section 19008 of the Revenue and Taxation Code. In order to establish the existence of a financial hardship, the applicant or licensee shall submit any information, including information related to reasonable business and personal expenses, requested by the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, for purposes of making that determination.(i) An applicant or licensee is required to act with diligence in responding to notices from the state governmental licensing entity and the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board with the recognition that the temporary license will lapse or the license suspension will go into effect after 90 days and that the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board must have time to act within that period. An applicants or licensees delay in acting, without good cause, which directly results in the inability of the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, to complete a review of the applicants or licensees request for release shall not constitute the diligence required under this section which would justify the issuance of a release. An applicant or licensee shall have the burden of establishing that they diligently responded to notices from the state governmental licensing entity or the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board and that any delay was not without good cause.(j) The State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board shall create release forms for use pursuant to this section. When the applicant or licensee has complied with the tax obligation by payment of the unpaid taxes, or entry into an installment payment agreement, or establishing the existence of a current financial hardship as defined in paragraph (3) of subdivision (h), the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, shall mail a release form to the applicant or licensee and provide a release to the appropriate state governmental licensing entity. Any state governmental licensing entity that has received a release from the State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board pursuant to this subdivision shall process the release within five business days of its receipt. If the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board determines subsequent to the issuance of a release that the licensee has not complied with their installment payment agreement, the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, shall notify the state governmental licensing entity and the licensee in a format prescribed by the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, that the licensee is not in compliance and the release shall be rescinded. The State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board may, when it is economically feasible for the state governmental licensing entity to develop an automated process for complying with this subdivision, notify the state governmental licensing entity in a manner prescribed by the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, that the licensee has not complied with the installment payment agreement. Upon receipt of this notice, the state governmental licensing entity shall immediately notify the licensee on a form prescribed by the state governmental licensing entity that the licensees license will be suspended on a specific date, and this date shall be no longer than 30 days from the date the form is mailed. The licensee shall be further notified that the license will remain suspended until a new release is issued in accordance with this subdivision.(k) The State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board may enter into interagency agreements with the state governmental licensing entities necessary to implement this section.(l) Notwithstanding any other law, a state governmental licensing entity, with the approval of the appropriate department director or governing body, may impose a fee on a licensee whose license has been suspended pursuant to this section. The fee shall not exceed the amount necessary for the state governmental licensing entity to cover its costs in carrying out the provisions of this section. Fees imposed pursuant to this section shall be deposited in the fund in which other fees imposed by the state governmental licensing entity are deposited and shall be available to that entity upon appropriation in the annual Budget Act.(m) The process described in subdivision (h) shall constitute the sole administrative remedy for contesting the issuance of a temporary license or the denial or suspension of a license under this section.(n) Any state governmental licensing entity receiving an inquiry as to the licensed status of an applicant or licensee who has had a license denied or suspended under this section or who has been granted a temporary license under this section shall respond that the license was denied or suspended or the temporary license was issued only because the licensee appeared on a list of the 500 largest tax delinquencies pursuant to Section 7063 or 19195 of the Revenue and Taxation Code. Information collected pursuant to this section by any state agency, board, or department shall be subject to the Information Practices Act of 1977 (Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 1798) of Title 1.8 of Part 4 of Division 3 of the Civil Code). Any state governmental licensing entity that discloses on its internet website or other publication that the licensee has had a license denied or suspended under this section or has been granted a temporary license under this section shall prominently disclose, in bold and adjacent to the information regarding the status of the license, that the only reason the license was denied, suspended, or temporarily issued is because the licensee failed to pay taxes.(o) Any rules and regulations issued pursuant to this section by any state agency, board, or department may be adopted as emergency regulations in accordance with the rulemaking provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code). The adoption of these regulations shall be deemed an emergency and necessary for the immediate preservation of the public peace, health, and safety, or general welfare. The regulations shall become effective immediately upon filing with the Secretary of State.(p) The State Board of Equalization, the Franchise Tax Board, and state governmental licensing entities, as appropriate, shall adopt regulations as necessary to implement this section.(q) (1) Neither the state governmental licensing entity, nor any officer, employee, or agent, or former officer, employee, or agent of a state governmental licensing entity, may disclose or use any information obtained from the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, pursuant to this section, except to inform the public of the denial, refusal to renew, or suspension of a license or the issuance of a temporary license pursuant to this section. The release or other use of information received by a state governmental licensing entity pursuant to this section, except as authorized by this section, is punishable as a misdemeanor. This subdivision may not be interpreted to prevent the State Bar of California from filing a request with the Supreme Court of California to suspend a member of the bar pursuant to this section.(2) A suspension of, or refusal to renew, a license or issuance of a temporary license pursuant to this section does not constitute denial or discipline of a licensee for purposes of any reporting requirements to the National Practitioner Data Bank and shall not be reported to the National Practitioner Data Bank or the Healthcare Integrity and Protection Data Bank.(3) Upon release from the certified list, the suspension or revocation of the applicants or licensees license shall be purged from the state governmental licensing entitys internet website or other publication within three business days. This paragraph shall not apply to the State Bar of California.(r) If any provision of this section or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, that invalidity shall not affect other provisions or applications of this section that can be given effect without the invalid provision or application, and to this end the provisions of this section are severable.(s) All rights to review afforded by this section to an applicant shall also be afforded to a licensee.(t) Unless otherwise provided in this section, the policies, practices, and procedures of a state governmental licensing entity with respect to license suspensions under this section shall be the same as those applicable with respect to suspensions pursuant to Section 17520 of the Family Code.(u) No provision of this section shall be interpreted to allow a court to review and prevent the collection of taxes prior to the payment of those taxes in violation of the California Constitution.(v) This section shall apply to any licensee whose name appears on a list of the 500 largest tax delinquencies pursuant to Section 7063 or 19195 of the Revenue and Taxation Code on or after July 1, 2012.SEC. 10. Section 1000 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:1000. (a) The law governing practitioners of chiropractic is found in an initiative act entitled An act prescribing the terms upon which licenses may be issued to practitioners of chiropractic, creating the State Board of Chiropractic Examiners and declaring its powers and duties, prescribing penalties for violation hereof, and repealing all acts and parts of acts inconsistent herewith, adopted by the electors November 7, 1922.(b) The State Board of Chiropractic Examiners is within the Department of Consumer Affairs.(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the powers and duties of the State Board of Chiropractic Examiners, as set forth in this article and under the act creating the board, shall be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. The review shall be performed as if this chapter were scheduled to be repealed as of January 1, 2023.SEC. 11. Section 1913 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:1913. Unless otherwise specified in this chapter, a registered dental hygienist may perform any procedure or provide any service within the scope of their practice in any setting under the appropriate level of supervision required by this article, if the registered dental hygienist has completed the appropriate education and training required to perform the procedure or provide the service.SEC. 12. Section 1917 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:1917. The dental hygiene board shall grant initial licensure as a registered dental hygienist to a person who satisfies all of the following requirements:(a) Completion of an educational program for registered dental hygienists, approved by the dental hygiene board, accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation, and conducted by a degree-granting, postsecondary institution.(b) Within the preceding three years, satisfactory completion of the dental hygiene examination given by the Western Regional Examining Board or any other clinical or dental hygiene examination approved by the dental hygiene board.(c) Satisfactory completion of the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination.(d) Satisfactory completion of the examination in California law and ethics as prescribed by the dental hygiene board.(e) Submission of a completed application form and all fees required by the dental hygiene board.(f) Satisfactory completion of dental hygiene board-approved instruction in gingival soft-tissue curettage, nitrous oxide-oxygen analgesia, and local anesthesia.SEC. 13. Section 1917.1 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:1917.1. (a) The dental hygiene board may grant a license as a registered dental hygienist to an applicant who has not taken a clinical examination before the dental hygiene board, if the applicant submits all of the following to the dental hygiene board:(1) A completed application form and all fees required by the dental hygiene board.(2) Proof of a current license as a registered dental hygienist issued by another state that is not revoked, suspended, or otherwise restricted.(3) Proof that the applicant has been in clinical practice as a registered dental hygienist or has been a full-time faculty member in an accredited dental hygiene education program for a minimum of 750 hours per year for at least five years immediately preceding the date of application under this section. The clinical practice requirement shall be deemed met if the applicant provides proof of at least three years of clinical practice and commits to completing the remaining two years of clinical practice by filing with the dental hygiene board a copy of a pending contract to practice dental hygiene in any of the following facilities:(A) A primary care clinic licensed under subdivision (a) of Section 1204 of the Health and Safety Code.(B) A primary care clinic exempt from licensure pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 1206 of the Health and Safety Code.(C) A clinic owned or operated by a public hospital or health system.(D) A clinic owned and operated by a hospital that maintains the primary contract with a county government to fill the countys role under Section 17000 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(4) Satisfactory performance on a California law and ethics examination and any examination that may be required by the dental hygiene board.(5) Proof that the applicant has not been subject to disciplinary action by any state in which the applicant is or has been previously issued any professional or vocational license. If the applicant has been subject to disciplinary action, the dental hygiene board shall review that action to determine if it warrants refusal to issue a license to the applicant.(6) Proof of graduation from a school of dental hygiene accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation.(7) Proof of satisfactory completion of the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination and of a state clinical examination, regional clinical licensure examination, or any other clinical dental hygiene examination approved by the dental hygiene board.(8) Proof that the applicant has not failed the state clinical examination, the examination given by the Western Regional Examining Board, or any other clinical dental hygiene examination approved by the dental hygiene board for licensure to practice dental hygiene under this chapter more than once or once within five years prior to the date of application for a license under this section.(9) Documentation of completion of a minimum of 25 units of continuing education earned in the two years preceding application, including completion of any continuing education requirements imposed by the dental hygiene board on registered dental hygienists licensed in this state at the time of application.(10) Any other information as specified by the dental hygiene board to the extent that it is required of applicants for licensure by examination under this article.(b) The dental hygiene board may periodically request verification of compliance with the requirements of paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) and may revoke the license upon a finding that the employment requirement or any other requirement of paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) has not been met.(c) The dental hygiene board shall provide in the application packet to each out-of-state dental hygienist pursuant to this section the following information:(1) The location of dental manpower shortage areas in the state.(2) Any nonprofit clinics, public hospitals, and accredited dental hygiene education programs seeking to contract with licensees for dental hygiene service delivery or training purposes.SEC. 14. Section 1922 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:1922. The dental hygiene board shall license as a registered dental hygienist in alternative practice a person who demonstrates satisfactory performance on an examination in California law and ethics required by the dental hygiene board and who completes an application form and pays all application fees required by the dental hygiene board and meets either of the following requirements:(a) Holds a current California license as a registered dental hygienist and meets the following requirements:(1) Has been engaged in the practice of dental hygiene, as defined in Section 1908, as a registered dental hygienist in any setting, including, but not limited to, educational settings and public health settings, for a minimum of 2,000 hours during the immediately preceding 36 months.(2) Has successfully completed a bachelors degree or its equivalent, recognized as a minimum of 120 semester credit hours or 180 quarter credit hours in postsecondary education, from a college or institution of higher education that is accredited by a national or regional accrediting agency recognized by the United States Department of Education, and a minimum of 150 hours of additional educational requirements, as prescribed by the dental hygiene board by regulation, that are consistent with good dental and dental hygiene practice, including, but not necessarily limited to, dental hygiene technique and theory including gerontology and medical emergencies, and business administration and practice management.(b) Has received a letter of acceptance into the employment utilization phase of the Health Workforce Pilot Project No. 155 established by the Office of Statewide Health Planning and Development pursuant to Article 1 (commencing with Section 128125) of Chapter 3 of Part 3 of Division 107 of the Health and Safety Code.SEC. 15. Section 2065 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2065. (a) Unless otherwise provided by law, no postgraduate trainee, intern, resident, postdoctoral fellow, or instructor may engage in the practice of medicine, or receive compensation therefor, or offer to engage in the practice of medicine unless they hold a valid, unrevoked, and unsuspended physicians and surgeons certificate issued by the board. However, a graduate of an approved medical school may engage in the practice of medicine whenever and wherever required as a part of a postgraduate training program under the following conditions:(1) The medical school graduate has taken and passed the board-approved medical licensing examinations required to qualify the applicant to participate in an approved postgraduate training program.(2) If the medical school graduate graduated from a foreign medical school approved by the board pursuant to Section 2084, the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates (ECFMG) has submitted an official ECFMG Certification Status Report directly to the board confirming the graduate is ECFMG certified.(3) The medical school graduate is enrolled in a postgraduate training program approved by the board.(4) The board-approved postgraduate training program has submitted the required board-approved form to the board documenting the medical school graduate is enrolled in an approved postgraduate training program.(5) The medical school graduate obtains a physicians and surgeons postgraduate training license in accordance with Section 2064.5.(b) A medical school graduate enrolled in an approved first-year postgraduate training program in accordance with this section may engage in the practice of medicine whenever and wherever required as a part of the training program, and may receive compensation for that practice.(c) A graduate who has completed the first year of postgraduate training may, in an approved residency or fellowship, engage in the practice of medicine whenever and wherever required as part of that residency or fellowship, and may receive compensation for that practice. The resident or fellow shall qualify for, take, and pass the next succeeding written examination for licensure. If the resident or fellow fails to receive a license to practice medicine under this chapter within 27 months from the commencement of the residency or fellowship, except as otherwise allowed under subdivision (g) or (h), or if the board denies their application for licensure, all privileges and exemptions under this section shall automatically cease.(d) All approved postgraduate training the medical school graduate has successfully completed in the United States or Canada shall count toward the 39-month license exemption, except as otherwise allowed under subdivision (h).(e) A medical school graduate from a medical school approved by the board shall have successfully completed a minimum of 36 months of approved postgraduate training, which includes successful progression through 24 months in the same program, to be eligible for a California physicians and surgeons certificate.(f) The program director for an approved postgraduate training program in California shall report to the board, on a form approved by the board, and provide any supporting documents as required by the board, the following actions within 30 days of the action:(1) A postgraduate trainee is notified that they have received partial or no credit for a period of postgraduate training, and their postgraduate training period is extended.(2) A postgraduate trainee takes a leave of absence or any break from their postgraduate training, and they are notified that their postgraduate training period is extended.(3) A postgraduate trainee is terminated from the postgraduate training program.(4) A postgraduate trainee resigns, dies, or otherwise leaves the postgraduate training program.(5) A postgraduate trainee has completed a one-year contract approved by the postgraduate training program.(g) Upon review of supporting documentation, the board, in its discretion, may grant an extension beyond 39 months to a postgraduate training licensee to successfully complete the 36 months of required approved postgraduate training.(h) An applicant for a physicians and surgeons license who has successfully completed 36 months of approved postgraduate training in another state or in Canada and who is accepted into an approved postgraduate training program in California shall obtain their physicians and surgeons license within 90 days after beginning that postgraduate training program or all privileges and exemptions under this section shall automatically cease.(i) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2020.SEC. 16. Section 2113 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2113. (a) Any person who does not immediately qualify for a physicians and surgeons certificate under this chapter and who is offered by the dean of an approved medical school in this state a full-time faculty position may, after application to and approval by the board, be granted a certificate of registration to engage in the practice of medicine only to the extent that the practice is incident to and a necessary part of their duties as approved by the board in connection with the faculty position. A certificate of registration does not authorize a registrant to admit patients to a nursing or a skilled or assisted living facility unless that facility is formally affiliated with the sponsoring medical school. A clinical fellowship shall not be submitted as a faculty service appointment.(b) Application for a certificate of registration shall be made on a form prescribed by the board and shall be accompanied by a registration fee fixed by the board in an amount necessary to recover the actual application processing costs of the program. To qualify for the certificate, an applicant shall submit all of the following:(1) If the applicant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, documentary evidence satisfactory to the board that they have been licensed to practice medicine and surgery for not less than four years in another state or country whose requirements for licensure are satisfactory to the board, or has been engaged in the practice of medicine in the United States for at least four years in approved facilities, or has completed a combination of that licensure and training.(2) If the applicant is a graduate of a medical school in the United States or Canada, documentary evidence that the medical school is approved by the board.(3) Written certification by the head of the department in which the applicant is to be appointed of all of the following:(A) The applicant will be under their direction.(B) The applicant will not be permitted to practice medicine unless incident to and a necessary part of their duties as approved by the board in subdivision (a).(C) The applicant will be accountable to the medical schools department chair or division chief for the specialty in which the applicant will practice.(D) The applicant will be proctored in the same manner as other new faculty members, including, as appropriate, review by the medical staff of the schools medical center.(E) The applicant will not be appointed to a supervisory position at the level of a medical school department chair or division chief.(4) Demonstration by the dean of the medical school that the applicant has the requisite qualifications to assume the position to which they are to be appointed and that shall include a written statement of the recruitment procedures followed by the medical school before offering the faculty position to the applicant.(c) A certificate of registration shall be issued only for a faculty position at one approved medical school, and no person shall be issued more than one certificate of registration for the same period of time.(d) (1) A certificate of registration is valid for one year from its date of issuance and may be renewed twice.A request for renewal shall be submitted on a form prescribed by the board and shall be accompanied by a renewal fee fixed by the board in an amount necessary to recover the actual application processing costs of the program.(2) The dean of the medical school may request renewal of the registration by submitting a plan at the beginning of the third year of the registrants appointment demonstrating the registrants continued progress toward licensure and, if the registrant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, that the registrant has been issued a certificate by the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates. The board may, in its discretion, extend the registration for a two-year period to facilitate the registrants completion of the licensure process.(e) If the registrant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, they shall meet the requirements of Section 2065 or 2135, as appropriate, in order to obtain a physicians and surgeons certificate. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the board may accept clinical practice in an appointment pursuant to this section as qualifying time to meet the postgraduate training requirements in Section 2065, and, in its discretion, waive the examination and the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates certification requirements specified in paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) of Section 2065 in the event the registrant applies for a physicians and surgeons certificate. As a condition to waiving any examination or the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates certification requirement, the board in its discretion, may require an applicant to pass a clinical competency examination approved by the board. The board shall not waive any examination for an applicant who has not completed at least one year in the faculty position.(f) Except to the extent authorized by this section, the registrant shall not engage in the practice of medicine, bill individually for medical services provided by the registrant, or receive compensation therefor, unless they are issued a physicians and surgeons certificate.(g) When providing clinical services, the registrant shall wear a visible name tag containing the title visiting professor or visiting faculty member, as appropriate, and the institution at which the services are provided shall obtain a signed statement from each patient to whom the registrant provides services acknowledging that the patient understands that the services are provided by a person who does not hold a physicians and surgeons certificate but who is qualified to participate in a special program as a visiting professor or faculty member.(h) The board shall notify both the registrant and the dean of the medical school of a complaint made about the registrant. The board may terminate a registration for any act that would be grounds for discipline if done by a licensee. The board shall provide both the registrant and the dean of the medical school with written notice of the termination and the basis for that termination. The registrant may, within 30 days after the date of the notice of termination, file a written appeal to the board. The appeal shall include any documentation the registrant wishes to present to the board.(i) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2020.SEC. 16.5. Section 2113 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2113. (a) Any person who does not immediately qualify for a physicians and surgeons certificate under this chapter and who is offered by the dean of an approved medical school, or dean or chief medical officer of an academic medical center, in this state a full-time faculty position may, after application to and approval by the board, be granted a certificate of registration to engage in the practice of medicine only to the extent that the practice is incident to and a necessary part of that persons duties as approved by the board in connection with the faculty position. A certificate of registration does not authorize a registrant to admit patients to a nursing or a skilled or assisted living facility unless that facility is formally affiliated with the sponsoring medical school. A clinical fellowship shall not be submitted as a faculty service appointment.(b) Application for a certificate of registration shall be made on a form prescribed by the board and shall be accompanied by a registration fee fixed by the board in an amount necessary to recover the actual application processing costs of the program. To qualify for the certificate, an applicant shall submit all of the following:(1) If the applicant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, documentary evidence satisfactory to the board that the applicant has been licensed to practice medicine and surgery for not less than four years in another state or country whose requirements for licensure are satisfactory to the board, or has been engaged in the practice of medicine in the United States for at least four years in approved facilities, or has completed a combination of that licensure and training.(2) If the applicant is a graduate of a medical school in the United States or Canada, documentary evidence that the medical school is approved by the board.(3) Written certification by the head of the department in which the applicant is to be appointed of all of the following:(A) The applicant will be under the head of the departments direction.(B) The applicant will not be permitted to practice medicine unless incident to and a necessary part of the applicants duties as approved by the board in subdivision (a).(C) The applicant will be accountable to the medical schools or academic medical centers chair or division chief for the specialty in which the applicant will practice.(D) The applicant will be proctored in the same manner as other new faculty members, including, as appropriate, review by the medical staff of the sponsoring medical school or academic medical center.(E) The applicant will not be appointed to a supervisory position at the level of a medical school or academic medical centers department chair or division chief.(4) Demonstration by the dean of the medical school, or dean or chief medical officer or an academic medical center, that the applicant has the requisite qualifications to assume the position to which the applicant is to be appointed and that shall include a written statement of the recruitment procedures followed by the medical school or academic medical center before offering the faculty position to the applicant.(c) A certificate of registration shall be issued only for a faculty position at one approved medical school, or academic medical center, and a person shall not be issued more than one certificate of registration for the same period of time.(d) (1) A certificate of registration is valid for one year from its date of issuance and may be renewed twice.A request for renewal shall be submitted on a form prescribed by the board and shall be accompanied by a renewal fee fixed by the board in an amount necessary to recover the actual application processing costs of the program.(2) The dean of the medical school, or the dean or chief medical officer of an academic medical center, may request renewal of the registration by submitting a plan at the beginning of the third year of the registrants appointment demonstrating the registrants continued progress toward licensure and, if the registrant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, that the registrant has been issued a certificate by the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates. The board may, in its discretion, extend the registration for a two-year period to facilitate the registrants completion of the licensure process.(e) If the registrant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, the registrant shall meet the requirements of Section 2065 or 2135, as appropriate, in order to obtain a physicians and surgeons certificate. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the board may accept clinical practice in an appointment pursuant to this section as qualifying time to meet the postgraduate training requirements in Section 2065, and, in its discretion, waive the examination and the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates certification requirements specified in paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) of Section 2065 in the event the registrant applies for a physicians and surgeons certificate. As a condition to waiving any examination or the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates certification requirement, the board in its discretion, may require an applicant to pass a clinical competency examination approved by the board. The board shall not waive any examination for an applicant who has not completed at least one year in the faculty position.(f) Except to the extent authorized by this section, the registrant shall not engage in the practice of medicine, bill individually for medical services provided by the registrant, or receive compensation therefor, unless the registrant is issued a physicians and surgeons certificate.(g) When providing clinical services, the registrant shall wear a visible name tag containing the title visiting professor or visiting faculty member, as appropriate, and the institution at which the services are provided shall obtain a signed statement from each patient to whom the registrant provides services acknowledging that the patient understands that the services are provided by a person who does not hold a physicians and surgeons certificate but who is qualified to participate in a special program as a visiting professor or faculty member.(h) The board shall notify both the registrant and the dean of the medical school, or the dean or chief medical officer of an academic medical center, of a complaint made about the registrant. The board may terminate a registration for any act that would be grounds for discipline if done by a licensee. The board shall provide both the registrant and the dean of the medical school, or the dean or chief medical officer of an academic medical center, with written notice of the termination and the basis for that termination. The registrant may, within 30 days after the date of the notice of termination, file a written appeal to the board. The appeal shall include any documentation the registrant wishes to present to the board.(i) A registrant granted a certificate of registration before January 1, 2021, to engage in the practice of medicine pursuant to this section at an academic medical center shall be deemed to be authorized at that academic medical center as though the initial application had been sponsored by the academic medical center.(j) As used in this section, academic medical center has the same meaning as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 2168.SEC. 17. Section 2135.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2135.5. Upon review and recommendation, the board may determine that an applicant for a physicians and surgeons certificate has satisfied the medical education requirements of Sections 2084 and 2135 and the examination requirements of Section 2170 if the applicant meets all of the following criteria:(a) They hold an unlimited and unrestricted license as a physician and surgeon in another state and has held that license continuously for a minimum of four years prior to the date of application.(b) They meet the postgraduate training requirements in Section 2096 and are certified by a specialty board that is a member board of the American Board of Medical Specialties.(c) They are not subject to denial of licensure under Division 1.5 (commencing with Section 475) or Article 12 (commencing with Section 2220).(d) They have not been the subject of a disciplinary action by a medical licensing authority or of an adverse judgment or settlement resulting from the practice of medicine that, as determined by the board, constitutes a pattern of negligence or incompetence.(e) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2020.SEC. 18. Section 2460 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2460. (a) There is created in the Department of Consumer Affairs the California Board of Podiatric Medicine. Commencing July 1, 2019, the California Board of Podiatric Medicine is renamed the Podiatric Medical Board of California. Any reference in any provision of law to the California Board of Podiatric Medicine shall, commencing July 1, 2019, be deemed to refer to the Podiatric Medical Board of California.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the California Board of Podiatric Medicine subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.(c) The amendments made by Chapter 775 of the Statutes of 2017 relating to podiatrists shall not be construed to change any rights or privileges held by podiatrists prior to the enactment of that act.SEC. 19. Section 2531 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2531. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs the Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board in which the enforcement and administration of this chapter are vested. The Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board shall consist of nine members, three of whom shall be public members.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.SEC. 20. Section 2531.75 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2531.75. (a) The board may appoint a person exempt from civil service who shall be designated as an executive officer and who shall exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated by the board and vested in them by this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 21. Section 2570.19 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2570.19. (a) There is hereby created a California Board of Occupational Therapy, hereafter referred to as the board. The board shall enforce and administer this chapter.(b) The members of the board shall consist of the following:(1) Three occupational therapists who shall have practiced occupational therapy for five years.(2) One occupational therapy assistant who shall have assisted in the practice of occupational therapy for five years.(3) Three public members who shall not be licentiates of the board, of any other board under this division, or of any board referred to in Section 1000 or 3600.(c) The Governor shall appoint the three occupational therapists and one occupational therapy assistant to be members of the board. The Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, and the Speaker of the Assembly shall each appoint a public member. Not more than one member of the board shall be appointed from the full-time faculty of any university, college, or other educational institution.(d) All members shall be residents of California at the time of their appointment. The occupational therapist and occupational therapy assistant members shall have been engaged in rendering occupational therapy services to the public, teaching, or research in occupational therapy for at least five years preceding their appointments.(e) The public members may not be or have ever been occupational therapists or occupational therapy assistants or in training to become occupational therapists or occupational therapy assistants. The public members may not be related to, or have a household member who is, an occupational therapist or an occupational therapy assistant, and may not have had, within two years of the appointment, a substantial financial interest in a person regulated by the board.(f) The Governor shall appoint two board members for a term of one year, two board members for a term of two years, and one board member for a term of three years. Appointments made thereafter shall be for four-year terms, but no person shall be appointed to serve more than two consecutive terms. Terms shall begin on the first day of the calendar year and end on the last day of the calendar year or until successors are appointed, except for the first appointed members who shall serve through the last calendar day of the year in which they are appointed, before commencing the terms prescribed by this section. Vacancies shall be filled by appointment for the unexpired term. The board shall annually elect one of its members as president.(g) The board shall meet and hold at least one regular meeting annually in the Cities of Sacramento, Los Angeles, and San Francisco. The board may convene from time to time until its business is concluded. Special meetings of the board may be held at any time and place designated by the board.(h) Notice of each meeting of the board shall be given in accordance with the Bagley-Keene Open Meeting Act (Article 9 (commencing with Section 11120) of Chapter 1 of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code).(i) Members of the board shall receive no compensation for their services, but shall be entitled to reasonable travel and other expenses incurred in the execution of their powers and duties in accordance with Section 103.(j) The appointing power shall have the power to remove any member of the board from office for neglect of any duty imposed by state law, for incompetency, or for unprofessional or dishonorable conduct.(k) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.(l) Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.SEC. 22. Section 2602 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2602. (a) The Physical Therapy Board of California, hereafter referred to as the board, shall enforce and administer this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.SEC. 23. Section 2607.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2607.5. (a) The board may employ an executive officer exempt from the provisions of the State Civil Service Act (Part 2 (commencing with Section 18500) of Division 5 of Title 2 of the Government Code) and may also employ investigators, legal counsel, physical therapist consultants, and other assistance as it may deem necessary to carry out this chapter. The board may fix the compensation to be paid for services and may incur other expenses as it may deem necessary. Investigators employed by the board shall be provided special training in investigating physical therapy practice activities.(b) The Attorney General shall act as legal counsel for the board for any judicial and administrative proceedings and their services shall be a charge against it.(c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 24. Section 2841 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2841. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs a Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians of the State of California, which consists of 11 members.(b) Within the meaning of this chapter, board, or the board, refers to the Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians of the State of California.(c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 25. Section 2847.1 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2847.1. (a) The board shall select an executive officer who shall perform duties as are delegated by the board and who shall be responsible to it for the accomplishment of those duties. The executive officer shall not be a member of the board.(b) With the approval of the Director of Finance, the board shall fix the salary of the executive officer.(c) The executive officer shall be entitled to traveling and other necessary expenses in the performance of their duties. The executive officer shall make a statement, certified before a duly authorized person, that the expenses have been actually incurred.(d) Commencing January 1, 2018, the executive officer appointed by the board pursuant to subdivision (a) is abolished. Thereafter, until January 1, 2022, the executive officer shall be appointed as set forth in Section 2847.3. Commencing January 1, 2022, the executive officer shall, again, be appointed by the board as set forth in subdivision (a).(e) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 26. Section 2847.3 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2847.3. (a) Commencing January 1, 2018, the executive officer position established pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 2847.1 is temporarily abolished. Commencing January 1, 2018, the Governor shall appoint an executive officer who shall perform duties as are delegated by the board and who shall be responsible for the accomplishment of those duties. The executive officer shall exercise all powers, discharge all responsibilities, and administer and enforce all laws pursuant to this chapter and Chapter 10 (commencing with Section 4500) of Division 2 that are necessary to perform the duties delegated by the board.(b) The executive officer shall serve at the pleasure of the Governor and the Governor shall fix the salary of the executive officer. The executive officer shall not be a member of the board.(c) The executive officer shall be entitled to traveling and other necessary expenses in the performance of their duties.(d) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2018, and shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 27. Section 2920 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2920. (a) The Board of Psychology shall enforce and administer this chapter. The board shall consist of nine members, four of whom shall be public members.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.SEC. 28. Section 2933 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2933. (a) Except as provided by Section 159.5, the board shall employ and shall make available to the board within the limits of the funds received by the board all personnel necessary to carry out this chapter. The board may employ, exempt from the State Civil Service Act, an executive officer to the Board of Psychology. The board shall make all expenditures to carry out this chapter. The board may accept contributions to effectuate the purposes of this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 29. Section 3504 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:3504. There is established a Physician Assistant Board within the jurisdiction of the Medical Board of California. The board consists of nine members. This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.SEC. 30. Section 3512 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:3512. (a) Except as provided in Sections 159.5 and 2020, the board shall employ within the limits of the Physician Assistant Fund all personnel necessary to carry out this chapter including an executive officer who shall be exempt from civil service. The Medical Board of California and board shall make all necessary expenditures to carry out this chapter from the funds established by Section 3520. The board may accept contributions to effect the purposes of this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 31. Section 3686 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:3686. This chapter shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 32. Section 3710 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:3710. (a) The Respiratory Care Board of California, hereafter referred to as the board, shall enforce and administer this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed. Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.SEC. 33. Section 3716 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:3716. (a) The board may employ an executive officer exempt from civil service and, subject to the provisions of law relating to civil service, clerical assistants and, except as provided in Section 159.5, other employees as it may deem necessary to carry out its powers and duties.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 34. Section 4001 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:4001. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs a California State Board of Pharmacy in which the administration and enforcement of this chapter is vested. The board consists of 13 members.(b) The Governor shall appoint seven competent pharmacists who reside in different parts of the state to serve as members of the board. The Governor shall appoint four public members, and the Senate Committee on Rules and the Speaker of the Assembly shall each appoint a public member who shall not be a licensee of the board, any other board under this division, or any board referred to in Section 1000 or 3600.(c) At least five of the seven pharmacist appointees to the board shall be pharmacists who are actively engaged in the practice of pharmacy. Additionally, the membership of the board shall include at least one pharmacist representative from each of the following practice settings: an acute care hospital, an independent community pharmacy, a chain community pharmacy, and a long-term health care or skilled nursing facility. The pharmacist appointees shall also include a pharmacist who is a member of a labor union that represents pharmacists. For the purposes of this subdivision, a chain community pharmacy means a chain of 75 or more stores in California under the same ownership, and an independent community pharmacy means a pharmacy owned by a person or entity who owns no more than four pharmacies in California.(d) Members of the board shall be appointed for a term of four years. No person shall serve as a member of the board for more than two consecutive terms. Each member shall hold office until the appointment and qualification of their successor or until one year shall have elapsed since the expiration of the term for which the member was appointed, whichever first occurs. Vacancies occurring shall be filled by appointment for the unexpired term.(e) Each member of the board shall receive a per diem and expenses as provided in Section 103.(f) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.SEC. 35. Section 4003 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:4003. (a) The board, with the approval of the director, may appoint a person exempt from civil service who shall be designated as an executive officer and who shall exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated by the board and vested in them by this chapter. The executive officer may or may not be a member of the board as the board may determine.(b) The executive officer shall receive the compensation as established by the board with the approval of the Director of Finance. The executive officer shall also be entitled to travel and other expenses necessary in the performance of their duties.(c) The executive officer shall maintain and update in a timely fashion records containing the names, titles, qualifications, and places of business of all persons subject to this chapter.(d) The executive officer shall give receipts for all money received by them and pay it to the department, taking its receipt therefor. Besides the duties required by this chapter, the executive officer shall perform other duties pertaining to the office as may be required of them by the board.(e) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 36. Section 4501 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:4501. (a) Board, as used in this chapter, means the Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians of the State of California.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 37. Section 4503 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:4503. (a) The board shall administer and enforce this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 38. Section 4604 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:4604. (a) In order to obtain certification as a massage therapist, an applicant shall submit a written application and provide the council with satisfactory evidence that the applicant meets all of the following requirements:(1) The applicant is 18 years of age or older.(2) The applicant has successfully completed the curricula in massage and related subjects totaling a minimum of 500 hours, or the credit unit equivalent, that incorporates appropriate school assessment of student knowledge and skills.(A) Of the 500 hours, a minimum of 100 hours of instruction shall address anatomy and physiology, contraindications, health and hygiene, and business and ethics.(B) All of the 500 hours shall be from approved schools. The council shall accept the 500 hours if, at the time all of the hours were completed, the school or schools were approved. The 500 hours may be completed at more than one approved school. Notwithstanding any other law, pursuant to its policies and procedures for approval of schools, the council shall accept hours earned by an applicant for certification as a massage therapist if those hours were completed before July 1, 2016, and were earned from a school providing education in this state that was unapproved by the council after July 1, 2016, based solely on the fact that the National Certification Board for Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork took denial or disciplinary action against the school. For purposes of this section, unapproved means that the council determined that it will not accept hours from a school toward certification.(3) The applicant has passed a massage and bodywork competency assessment examination that meets generally recognized psychometric principles and standards and that is approved by the council. The successful completion of this examination may have been accomplished before the date the council is authorized by this chapter to begin issuing certificates. This paragraph shall be inoperative commencing on January 1, 2019, and shall become operative on January 1, 2022.(4) The applicant has successfully passed a background investigation pursuant to Section 4606, and has not violated any of the provisions of this chapter.(5) All fees required by the council have been paid.(6) The council may issue a certificate to an applicant who meets the qualifications of this chapter if the applicant holds a current and valid registration, certification, or license from any other state whose licensure requirements meet or exceed those defined within this chapter. If an applicant has received education at a school that is not approved by the council, the council shall have the discretion to give credit for comparable academic work completed by an applicant in a program outside of California.(b) A certificate issued pursuant to this chapter and any identification card issued by the council shall be surrendered to the council by any certificate holder whose certificate is suspended or revoked.SEC. 39. Section 4621 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:4621. (a) This chapter shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.(b) Notwithstanding any other law, the powers and duties of the council shall be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.SEC. 40. Section 4800 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:4800. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs a Veterinary Medical Board in which the administration of this chapter is vested. The board consists of the following members:(1) Four licensed veterinarians.(2) One registered veterinary technician.(3) Three public members.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. However, the review of the board shall be limited to those issues identified by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature and shall not involve the preparation or submission of a sunset review document or evaluative questionnaire.SEC. 41. Section 4804.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:4804.5. The board may appoint a person exempt from civil service who shall be designated as an executive officer and who shall exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated by the board and vested in them by this chapter.This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 42. Section 4990 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:4990. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs, a Board of Behavioral Sciences that consists of the following members:(1) Two state licensed clinical social workers.(2) One state licensed educational psychologist.(3) Two state licensed marriage and family therapists.(4) One state licensed professional clinical counselor.(5) Seven public members.(b) Each member, except the seven public members, shall have at least two years of experience in their profession.(c) Each member shall reside in the State of California.(d) The Governor shall appoint five of the public members and the six licensed members with the advice and consent of the Senate. The Senate Committee on Rules and the Speaker of the Assembly shall each appoint a public member.(e) Each member of the board shall be appointed for a term of four years. A member appointed by the Senate Committee on Rules or the Speaker of the Assembly shall hold office until the appointment and qualification of their successor or until one year from the expiration date of the term for which they were appointed, whichever first occurs. Pursuant to Section 1774 of the Government Code, a member appointed by the Governor shall hold office until the appointment and qualification of their successor or until 60 days from the expiration date of the term for which they were appointed, whichever first occurs.(f) A vacancy on the board shall be filled by appointment for the unexpired term by the authority who appointed the member whose membership was vacated.(g) Not later than the first of June of each calendar year, the board shall elect a chairperson and a vice chairperson from its membership.(h) Each member of the board shall receive a per diem and reimbursement of expenses as provided in Section 103.(i) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.(j) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.SEC. 43. Section 4990.04 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:4990.04. (a) The board shall appoint an executive officer. This position is designated as a confidential position and is exempt from civil service under subdivision (e) of Section 4 of Article VII of the California Constitution.(b) The executive officer serves at the pleasure of the board.(c) The executive officer shall exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated by the board and vested in them by this chapter.(d) With the approval of the director, the board shall fix the salary of the executive officer.(e) The chairperson and executive officer may call meetings of the board and any duly appointed committee at a specified time and place. For purposes of this section, call meetings means setting the agenda, time, date, or place for any meeting of the board or any committee.(f) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 44. Section 5600.4 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:5600.4. (a) The board shall issue, upon application and payment of the fee fixed by this chapter, a retired license to an architect who holds a license that is current and active or capable of being renewed pursuant to Section 5600.2 and whose license is not suspended, revoked, or otherwise punitively restricted by the board or subject to disciplinary action under this chapter.(b) The holder of a retired license issued pursuant to this section shall not engage in any activity for which an active architects license is required. An architect holding a retired license shall be permitted to use the title architect retired or retired architect.(c) The holder of a retired license shall not be required to renew that license.(d) In order for the holder of a retired license issued pursuant to this section to restore their license to active status, the holder of a retired license shall comply with Section 5600.2 or 5600.3, as applicable.SEC. 45. Section 5810 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:5810. (a) This chapter shall be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.(b) This chapter shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 46. Section 7000 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7000. This chapter constitutes, and may be cited as, the Contractors State License Law.SEC. 47. Section 7000.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7000.5. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs a Contractors State License Board, which consists of 15 members.(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.(c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 48. Section 7000.6 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7000.6. Protection of the public shall be the highest priority for the Contractors State License Board in exercising its licensing, regulatory, and disciplinary functions. Whenever the protection of the public is inconsistent with other interests sought to be promoted, the protection of the public shall be paramount.SEC. 49. Section 7011.4 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7011.4. (a) Notwithstanding Section 7011, there is in the Contractors State License Board, a separate enforcement division that shall rigorously enforce this chapter prohibiting all forms of unlicensed activity and shall enforce the obligation to secure the payment of valid and current workers compensation insurance in accordance with Section 3700.5 of the Labor Code.(b) Persons employed as enforcement representatives of the Contractors State License Board and designated by the Director of Consumer Affairs shall have the authority to issue a written notice to appear in court pursuant to Chapter 5C (commencing with Section 853.5) of Title 3 of Part 2 of the Penal Code. An employee so designated is not a peace officer and is not entitled to safety member retirement benefits as a result of that designation. They do not have the power of arrest.(c) When participating in the activities of the Joint Enforcement Strike Force on the Underground Economy pursuant to Section 329 of the Unemployment Insurance Code, the enforcement division shall have free access to all places of labor.SEC. 50. Section 7011.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7011.5. Persons employed as investigators of the Special Investigations Unit of the Contractors State License Board and designated by the Director of Consumer Affairs have the authority of peace officers while engaged in exercising the powers granted or performing the duties imposed upon them in investigating the laws administered by the Contractors State License Board or commencing directly or indirectly any criminal prosecution arising from any investigation conducted under these laws. All persons herein referred to shall be deemed to be acting within the scope of employment with respect to all acts and matters in this section set forth.SEC. 51. Section 7011.8 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7011.8. (a) Any person subject to licensure under this chapter who reports to, or causes a complaint to be filed with, the Contractors State License Board that a person licensed by that entity has engaged in professional misconduct, knowing the report or complaint to be false, may be issued a citation by the registrar.(b) The board may notify the appropriate district attorney or city attorney that a person subject to licensure under this chapter has made or filed what the entity believes to be a false report or complaint against a licensee.SEC. 52. Section 7015 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7015. The board shall adopt a seal for its own use. The seal shall have the words Contractors State License Board, State of California, Department of Consumer Affairs, and the care and custody thereof shall be in the hands of the registrar.SEC. 53. Section 7017.3 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7017.3. The Contractors State License Board shall report annually to the Legislature, not later than October 1 of each year, the following statistical information for the prior fiscal year. The following data shall be reported on complaints filed with the board against licensed contractors, registered home improvement salespersons, and unlicensed persons acting as licensees or registrants:(a) The number of complaints received by the board categorized by source, such as public, trade, profession, government agency, or board-initiated, and by type of complaint, such as licensee or nonlicensee.(b) The number of complaints closed prior to referral for field investigation, categorized by the reason for the closure, such as settled, referred for mandatory arbitration, or referred for voluntary arbitration.(c) The number of complaints referred for field investigation categorized by the type of complaint, such as licensee or nonlicensee.(d) The number of complaints closed after referral for field investigation categorized by the reason for the closure, such as settled, referred for mandatory arbitration, or referred for voluntary arbitration.(e) For the boards Intake/Mediation Center and the boards Investigation Center closures, respectively, the total number of complaints closed prior to a field investigation per consumer services representative, and the total number of complaints closed after referral for a field investigation per enforcement representative. Additionally, the board shall report the total number of complaints closed by other board staff during the year.(f) The number of complaints pending at the end of the fiscal year grouped in 90-day increments, and the percentage of total complaints pending, represented by the number of complaints in each grouping.(g) The number of citations issued to licensees categorized by the type of citation such as order of correction only or order of correction and fine, and the number of citations issued to licensees that were vacated or withdrawn.(h) The number of citations issued to nonlicensees and the number of these citations that were vacated or withdrawn.(i) The number of complaints referred to a local prosecutor for criminal investigation or prosecution, the number of complaints referred to the Attorney General for the filing of an accusation, and the number of complaints referred to both a local prosecutor and the Attorney General, categorized by type of complaint, such as licensee and nonlicensee.(j) Actions taken by the board, including, but not limited to, the following:(1) The number of disciplinary actions categorized by type, such as revocations or suspensions, categorized by whether the disciplinary action resulted from an accusation, failure to comply with a citation, or failure to comply with an arbitration award.(2) The number of accusations dismissed or withdrawn.(k) For subdivisions (g) and (j), the number of cases containing violations of Sections 7121 and 7121.5, and paragraph (5) of subdivision (a) of Section 7159.5, categorized by section.(l) The number of interim suspension orders sought, the number of interim suspension orders granted, the number of temporary restraining orders sought, and the number of temporary restraining orders granted.(m) The amount of cost recovery ordered and the amount collected.(n) Case aging data, including data for each major stage of the enforcement process, including the following:(1) The average number of days from the filing of a complaint to its closure by the boards Intake/Mediation Center prior to the referral for an investigation categorized by the type of complaint, such as licensee or nonlicensee.(2) The average number of days from the referral of a complaint for an investigation to its closure by the Investigation Center categorized by the type of complaint, such as licensee or nonlicensee.(3) The average number of days from the filing of a complaint to the referral of the completed investigation to the Attorney General.(4) The average number of days from the referral of a completed investigation to the Attorney General to the filing of an accusation by the Attorney General.(5) The average number of days from the filing of an accusation to the first hearing date or date of a stipulated settlement.(6) The average number of days from the receipt of the Administrative Law Judges proposed decision to the registrars final decision.SEC. 54. Section 7028.7 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7028.7. (a) If upon inspection or investigation, either upon complaint or otherwise, the registrar has probable cause to believe that a person is acting in the capacity of or engaging in the business of a contractor or salesperson within this state without having a license or registration in good standing to so act or engage, and the person is not otherwise exempted from this chapter, the registrar shall issue a citation to that person.(b) Within 72 hours of receiving notice that a public entity is intending to award, or has awarded, a contract to an unlicensed contractor, the registrar shall give written notice to the public entity that a citation may be issued if a contract is awarded to an unlicensed contractor. If after receiving the written notice from the registrar that the public entity has awarded or awards the contract to an unlicensed contractor, the registrar may issue a citation to the responsible officer or employee of the public entity as specified in Section 7028.15.(c) Each citation shall be in writing and shall describe with particularity the basis of the citation. Notwithstanding Sections 125.9 and 148, each citation shall contain an order of abatement and an assessment of a civil penalty in an amount not less than two hundred dollars ($200) nor more than fifteen thousand dollars ($15,000).(d) With the approval of the Contractors State License Board, the registrar shall prescribe procedures for the issuance of a citation under this section. The board shall adopt regulations covering the assessment of a civil penalty that shall give due consideration to the gravity of the violation, and any history of previous violations.(e) The sanctions authorized under this section shall be separate from, and in addition to, all other remedies either civil or criminal.SEC. 55. Section 7030 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7030. (a) Except for contractors writing home improvement contracts pursuant to Section 7151.2 and contractors writing service and repair contracts pursuant to Section 7159.10, every person licensed pursuant to this chapter shall include the following statement in at least 10-point type on all written contracts with respect to which the person is a prime contractor: Contractors are required by law to be licensed and regulated by the Contractors State License Board which has jurisdiction to investigate complaints against contractors if a complaint regarding a patent act or omission is filed within four years of the date of the alleged violation. A complaint regarding a latent act or omission pertaining to structural defects must be filed within 10 years of the date of the alleged violation. Any questions concerning a contractor may be referred to the Registrar, Contractors State License Board, P.O. Box 26000, Sacramento, CA 95826. (b) Every person licensed pursuant to this chapter shall include the following statement in at least 12-point type in all home improvement contracts written pursuant to Section 7151.2 and service and repair contracts written pursuant to Section 7159.10: Information about the Contractors State License Board (CSLB): CSLB is the state consumer protection agency that licenses and regulates construction contractors.Contact CSLB for information about the licensed contractor you are considering, including information about disclosable complaints, disciplinary actions and civil judgments that are reported to CSLB.Use only licensed contractors. If you file a complaint against a licensed contractor within the legal deadline (usually four years), CSLB has authority to investigate the complaint. If you use an unlicensed contractor, CSLB may not be able to help you resolve your complaint. Your only remedy may be in civil court, and you may be liable for damages arising out of any injuries to the unlicensed contractor or the unlicensed contractors employees.For more information:Visit CSLBs internet website at www.cslb.ca.govCall CSLB at 800-321-CSLB (2752)Write CSLB at P.O. Box 26000, Sacramento, CA 95826. (c) Failure to comply with the notice requirements set forth in subdivision (a) or (b) of this section is cause for disciplinary action.SEC. 56. Section 7031 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7031. (a) Except as provided in subdivision (e), no person engaged in the business or acting in the capacity of a contractor, may bring or maintain any action, or recover in law or equity in any action, in any court of this state for the collection of compensation for the performance of any act or contract where a license is required by this chapter without alleging that they were a duly licensed contractor at all times during the performance of that act or contract regardless of the merits of the cause of action brought by the person, except that this prohibition shall not apply to contractors who are each individually licensed under this chapter but who fail to comply with Section 7029.(b) Except as provided in subdivision (e), a person who utilizes the services of an unlicensed contractor may bring an action in any court of competent jurisdiction in this state to recover all compensation paid to the unlicensed contractor for performance of any act or contract.(c) A security interest taken to secure any payment for the performance of any act or contract for which a license is required by this chapter is unenforceable if the person performing the act or contract was not a duly licensed contractor at all times during the performance of the act or contract.(d) If licensure or proper licensure is controverted, then proof of licensure pursuant to this section shall be made by production of a verified certificate of licensure from the Contractors State License Board which establishes that the individual or entity bringing the action was duly licensed in the proper classification of contractors at all times during the performance of any act or contract covered by the action. Nothing in this subdivision shall require any person or entity controverting licensure or proper licensure to produce a verified certificate. When licensure or proper licensure is controverted, the burden of proof to establish licensure or proper licensure shall be on the licensee.(e) The judicial doctrine of substantial compliance shall not apply under this section where the person who engaged in the business or acted in the capacity of a contractor has never been a duly licensed contractor in this state. However, notwithstanding subdivision (b) of Section 143, the court may determine that there has been substantial compliance with licensure requirements under this section if it is shown at an evidentiary hearing that the person who engaged in the business or acted in the capacity of a contractor (1) had been duly licensed as a contractor in this state prior to the performance of the act or contract, (2) acted reasonably and in good faith to maintain proper licensure, and (3) acted promptly and in good faith to remedy the failure to comply with the licensure requirements upon learning of the failure.(f) The exceptions to the prohibition against the application of the judicial doctrine of substantial compliance found in subdivision (e) shall apply to all contracts entered into on or after January 1, 1992, and to all actions or arbitrations arising therefrom, except that the amendments to subdivisions (e) and (f) enacted during the 1994 portion of the 199394 Regular Session of the Legislature shall not apply to either of the following:(1) Any legal action or arbitration commenced prior to January 1, 1995, regardless of the date on which the parties entered into the contract.(2) Any legal action or arbitration commenced on or after January 1, 1995, if the legal action or arbitration was commenced prior to January 1, 1995, and was subsequently dismissed.SEC. 57. Section 7058.7 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7058.7. (a) No contractor may engage in a removal or remedial action, as defined in subdivision (d), unless the qualifier for the license has passed an approved hazardous substance certification examination.(b) (1) The Contractors State License Board, the Division of Occupational Safety and Health of the Department of Industrial Relations, and the Department of Toxic Substances Control shall jointly select an advisory committee, which shall be composed of two representatives of hazardous substance removal workers in California, two general engineering contractors in California, and two representatives of insurance companies in California who shall be selected by the Insurance Commissioner.(2) The Contractors State License Board shall develop a written test for the certification of contractors engaged in hazardous substance removal or remedial action, in consultation with the Division of Occupational Safety and Health, the State Water Resources Control Board, the Department of Toxic Substances Control, and the advisory committee.(c) The Contractors State License Board may require additional updated approved hazardous substance certification examinations of licensees currently certified based on new public or occupational health and safety information. The Contractors State License Board, in consultation with the Department of Toxic Substances Control and the State Water Resources Control Board, shall approve other initial and updated hazardous substance certification examinations and determine whether to require an updated certification examination of all current certificate holders.(d) For purposes of this section removal or remedial action has the same meaning as found in Chapter 6.8 (commencing with Section 25300) of Division 20 of the Health and Safety Code, if the action requires the contractor to dig into the surface of the earth and remove the dug material and the action is at a site listed pursuant to Section 25356 of the Health and Safety Code or any other site listed as a hazardous substance release site by the Department of Toxic Substances Control or a site listed on the National Priorities List compiled pursuant to the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980 (42 U.S.C. Sec. 9601 et seq.). Removal or remedial action does not include asbestos-related work, as defined in Section 6501.8 of the Labor Code, or work related to a hazardous substance spill on a highway.(e) (1) A contractor may not install or remove an underground storage tank, unless the contractor has passed the hazardous substance certification examination developed pursuant to this section.(2) A contractor who is not certified may bid on or contract for the installation or removal of an underground tank, if the work is performed by a contractor who is certified pursuant to this section.(3) For purposes of this subdivision, underground storage tank has the same meaning as defined in subdivision (y) of Section 25281 of the Health and Safety Code.SEC. 58. Section 7071.4 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7071.4. (a) Each person licensed under the provisions of this chapter and subject to any of the bonding provisions of this article shall maintain the requisite bond as executed by an admitted surety insurer or as deposited with the registrar pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 995.710 of the Code of Civil Procedure in the appropriate amount. Notwithstanding Article 7 (commencing with Section 995.710) of Chapter 2 of Title 14 of Part 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure, no other method of deposit, including, but not limited to, a certificate of deposit, shall satisfy a bond requirement under this article.(b) All existing alternatives in lieu of a bond currently filed with the registrar shall be replaced for a surety bond or the deposit prescribed by paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 995.710 of the Code of Civil Procedure by January 1, 2020.(c) (1) If the board is notified, in writing, of a civil action against the deposit authorized under this section, the deposit or any portion thereof shall not be released for any purpose, except as determined by the court.(2) If any deposit authorized under this section is insufficient to pay, in full, all claims that have been adjudicated under any action filed in accordance with this section, the amount of the deposit shall be distributed to all claimants in proportion to the amount of their respective claims. (d) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), this section shall not apply to the bond equivalents described in Section 7159.5 of this chapter.(e) (1) This section shall be operative on and after January 1, 2019, upon which date the registrar shall thereafter no longer accept alternatives in lieu of a bond, other than as provided in this section.(2) Notwithstanding any other law, in order to comply with the bonding provisions of this article, a person shall only be required to provide information consistent with the requirements for an applicant under Section 30.(f) All alternatives in lieu of a bond filed with the registrar before January 1, 2019, and any lawful money or cashiers check deposited pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 995.710 of the Code of Civil Procedure after January 1, 2019, shall be subject to the following limitations periods:(1) Any action, other than an action to recover wages or fringe benefits, against a deposit given in lieu of a contractors bond or bond of a qualifying individual filed by an active licensee shall be brought within three years after the expiration of the license period during which the act or omission occurred, or within three years of the date the license of the active licensee was inactivated, canceled, or revoked by the board, whichever occurs first.(2) Any action, other than an action to recover wages or fringe benefits, against a deposit given in lieu of a disciplinary bond filed by an active licensee pursuant to Section 7071.8 shall be brought within three years after the expiration of the license period during which the act or omission occurred, or within three years of the date the license of the active licensee was inactivated, canceled, or revoked by the board, or within three years after the last date for which a deposit given in lieu of a disciplinary bond filed pursuant to Section 7071.8 was required, whichever date is first.(3) A claim to recover wages or fringe benefits shall be brought within six months from the date that the wage or fringe benefit delinquencies were discovered, but in no event shall a civil action thereon be brought later than two years from the date the wage or fringe benefit contributions were due.(g) In any case in which a claim is filed against an alternative given in lieu of a bond filed with the registrar before January 1, 2019, or deposited with the registrar pursuant to subdivision (a), by any employee or by an employee organization on behalf of an employee, concerning wages or fringe benefits based upon the employees employment, claims for the nonpayment shall be filed with the Labor Commissioner. The Labor Commissioner shall, pursuant to the authority vested by Section 96.5 of the Labor Code, conduct hearings to determine whether or not the wages or fringe benefits should be paid to the complainant. Upon a finding by the commissioner that the wages or fringe benefits should be paid to the complainant, the commissioner shall notify the registrar of the findings. The registrar shall not make payment from the deposit on the basis of findings by the commissioner for a period of 10 days following determination of the findings. If, within the period, the complainant or the contractor files written notice with the registrar and the commissioner of an intention to seek judicial review of the findings pursuant to Section 11523 of the Government Code, the registrar shall not make payment if an action is actually filed, except as determined by the court. If, thereafter, no action is filed within 60 days following determination of findings by the commissioner, the registrar shall make payment from the deposit to the complainant.(h) Legal fees may not be charged by the board against any alternative given in lieu of a bond filed with the registrar before January 1, 2019, or deposited with the registrar pursuant to subdivision (a).SEC. 59. Section 7080.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7080.5. When an application has been accepted by the registrar, the name and address of the applicant, every classification for which the applicant has applied, and the names and titles of all personnel who have signed the application shall be publicly posted by the registrar, on the day following acceptance, in the office of the Contractors State License Board in Sacramento.SEC. 60. Section 7085.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7085.5. Arbitrations of disputes arising out of cases filed with or by the board shall be conducted in accordance with the following rules:(a) All agreements to arbitrate shall include the names, addresses, and telephone numbers of the parties to the dispute, the issue in dispute, and the amount in dollars or any other remedy sought. The appropriate fee shall be paid by the board from the Contractors License Fund.(b) (1) The board or appointed arbitration association shall appoint an arbitrator in the following manner: immediately after the filing of the agreement to arbitrate, the board or appointed arbitration association shall submit simultaneously to each party to the dispute, an identical list of names of persons chosen from the panel. Each party to the dispute shall have seven days from the mailing date in which to cross off any names to which it objects, number the remaining names to indicate the order of preference, and return the list to the board or appointed arbitration association. If a party does not return the list within the time specified, all persons named in the list are acceptable. From among the persons who have been approved on both lists, and in accordance with the designated order of mutual preference, the board or appointed arbitration association shall appoint an arbitrator to serve. If the parties fail to agree on any of the parties named, if acceptable arbitrators are unable to act, or if, for any other reason, the appointment cannot be made from the submitted lists, the board or appointed arbitration association shall have the power to make the appointment from among other members of the panel without the submission of any additional lists. Each dispute shall be heard and determined by one arbitrator unless the board or appointed arbitration association, in its discretion, directs that a greater number of arbitrators be appointed.(2) In all cases in which a complaint has been referred to arbitration pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 7085, the board or the appointed arbitration association shall have the power to appoint an arbitrator to hear the matter.(3) The board shall adopt regulations setting minimum qualification standards for listed arbitrators based upon relevant training, experience, and performance.(c) No person shall serve as an arbitrator in any arbitration in which that person has any financial or personal interest in the result of the arbitration. Prior to accepting an appointment, the prospective arbitrator shall disclose any circumstances likely to prevent a prompt hearing or to create a presumption of bias. Upon receipt of that information, the board or appointed arbitration association shall immediately replace the arbitrator or communicate the information to the parties for their comments. Thereafter, the board or appointed arbitration association shall determine whether the arbitrator should be disqualified and shall inform the parties of its decision, which shall be conclusive.(d) The board or appointed arbitration association may appoint another arbitrator if a vacancy occurs, or if an appointed arbitrator is unable to serve in a timely manner.(e) (1) The board or appointed arbitration association shall provide the parties with a list of the times and dates, and locations of the hearing to be held. The parties shall notify the arbitrator, within seven calendar days of the mailing of the list, of the times and dates convenient to each party. If the parties fail to respond to the arbitrator within the seven-day period, the arbitrator shall fix the time, place, and location of the hearing. An arbitrator may, at the arbitrators sole discretion, make an inspection of the construction site which is the subject of the arbitration. The arbitrator shall notify the parties of the time and date set for the inspection. Any party who so desires may be present at the inspection.(2) The board or appointed arbitration association shall fix the time, place, and location of the hearing for all cases referred to arbitration pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 7085. An arbitrator may, at the arbitrators sole discretion, make an inspection of the construction site which is the subject of the arbitration. The arbitrator shall notify the parties of the time and date set for the inspection. Any party who desires may be present at the inspection.(f) Any person having a direct interest in the arbitration is entitled to attend the hearing. The arbitrator shall otherwise have the power to require the exclusion of any witness, other than a party or other essential person, during the testimony of any other witness. It shall be discretionary with the arbitrator to determine the propriety of the attendance of any other person.(g) Hearings shall be adjourned by the arbitrator only for good cause.(h) A record is not required to be taken of the proceedings. However, any party to the proceeding may have a record made at its own expense. The parties may make appropriate notes of the proceedings.(i) The hearing shall be conducted by the arbitrator in any manner which will permit full and expeditious presentation of the case by both parties. Consistent with the expedited nature of arbitration, the arbitrator shall establish the extent of, and schedule for, the production of relevant documents and other information, the identification of any witnesses to be called, and a schedule for any hearings to elicit facts solely within the knowledge of one party. The complaining party shall present its claims, proofs, and witnesses, who shall submit to questions or other examination. The defending party shall then present its defenses, proofs, and witnesses, who shall submit to questions or other examination. The arbitrator has discretion to vary this procedure but shall afford full and equal opportunity to the parties for the presentation of any material or relevant proofs.(j) The arbitration may proceed in the absence of any party who, after due notice, fails to be present. The arbitrator shall require the attending party to submit supporting evidence in order to make an award. An award for the attending party shall not be based solely on the fact that the other party has failed to appear at the arbitration hearing.(k) The arbitrator shall be the sole judge of the relevancy and materiality of the evidence offered and conformity to legal rules of evidence shall not be required.(l) The arbitrator may receive and consider documentary evidence. Documents to be considered by the arbitrator may be submitted prior to the hearing. However, a copy shall be simultaneously transmitted to all other parties and to the board or appointed arbitration association for transmittal to the arbitrator or board appointed arbitrator.(m) The arbitrator shall specifically inquire of the parties whether they have any further proofs to offer or witnesses to be heard. Upon receiving negative replies, the arbitrator shall declare the hearing closed and minutes thereof shall be recorded. If briefs are to be filed, the hearing shall be declared closed as of the final date set by the arbitrator for the receipt of briefs. If documents are to be filed as requested by the arbitrator and the date set for their receipt is later than that set for the receipt of briefs, the later date shall be the date of closing the hearings. The time limit within which the arbitrator is required to make the award shall commence to run, in the absence of other agreements by the parties, upon the closing of the hearings.(n) The hearing may be reopened on the arbitrators own motion.(o) Any party who proceeds with the arbitration after knowledge that any provision or requirement of these rules has not been complied with, and who fails to state their objections to the arbitrator in writing, within 10 calendar days of close of hearing, shall be deemed to have waived their right to object.(p) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), any papers or process necessary or proper for the initiation or continuation of an arbitration under these rules and for any court action in connection therewith, or for the entry of judgment on an award made thereunder, may be served upon any party (A) by regular mail addressed to that party or their attorney at the partys last known address, or (B) by personal service.(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), in all cases referred to arbitration pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 7085 in which the contractor fails or refuses to return an executed copy of the notice to arbitrate within the time specified, any papers or process specified in paragraph (1) to be sent to the contractor, including the notice of hearing, shall be mailed by certified mail to the contractors address of record.(q) The award shall be made promptly by the arbitrator, and unless otherwise agreed by the parties, no later than 30 calendar days from the date of closing the hearing, closing a reopened hearing, or if oral hearing has been waived, from the date of transmitting the final statements and proofs to the arbitrator.The arbitrator may for good cause extend any period of time established by these rules, except the time for making the award. The arbitrator shall notify the parties of any extension and the reason therefor.(r) (1) The arbitrator may grant any remedy or relief that the arbitrator deems just and equitable and within the scope of the boards referral and the requirements of the board. The arbitrator, in their sole discretion, may award costs or expenses.(2) The amendments made in paragraph (1) during the 200304 Regular Session shall not be interpreted to prevent an arbitrator from awarding a complainant all direct costs and expenses for the completion or repair of the project.(s) The award shall become final 30 calendar days from the date the arbitration award is issued. The arbitrator, upon written application of a party to the arbitration, may correct the award upon the following grounds:(1) There was an evident miscalculation of figures or an evident mistake in the description of any person, things, or property referred to in the award.(2) There is any other clerical error in the award, not affecting the merits of the controversy.An application for correction of the award shall be made within 10 calendar days of the date of service of the award by serving a copy of the application on the arbitrator, and all other parties to the arbitration. Any party to the arbitration may make a written objection to the application for correction by serving a copy of the written objection on the arbitrator, the board, and all other parties to the arbitration, within 10 calendar days of the date of service of the application for correction.The arbitrator shall either deny the application or correct the award within 30 calendar days of the date of service of the original award by mailing a copy of the denial or correction to all parties to the arbitration. Any appeal from the denial or correction shall be filed with a court of competent jurisdiction and a true copy thereof shall be filed with the arbitrator or appointed arbitration association within 30 calendar days after the award has become final. The award shall be in writing, and shall be signed by the arbitrator or a majority of them. If no appeal is filed within the 30-calendar day period, it shall become a final order of the registrar.(t) Service of the award by certified mail shall be effective if a certified letter containing the award, or a true copy thereof, is mailed by the arbitrator or arbitration association to each party or to a partys attorney of record at their last known address, address of record, or by personally serving any party. Service may be proved in the manner authorized in civil actions.(u) The board shall pay the expenses of one expert witness appointed by the board when the services of an expert witness are requested by either party involved in arbitration pursuant to this article and the case involves workmanship issues that are itemized in the complaint and have not been repaired or replaced. Parties who choose to present the findings of another expert witness as evidence shall pay for those services. Payment for expert witnesses appointed by the board shall be limited to the expert witness costs for inspection of the problem at the construction site, preparation of the expert witness report, and expert witness fees for appearing or testifying at a hearing. All requests for payment to an expert witness shall be submitted on a form that has been approved by the registrar. All requests for payment to an expert witness shall be reviewed and approved by the board prior to payment. The registrar shall advise the parties that names of industry experts may be obtained by requesting this information from the registrar.(v) The arbitrator shall interpret and apply these rules insofar as they relate to their powers and duties.(w) The following shall apply as to court procedure and exclusion of liability:(1) The board, the appointed arbitration association, or any arbitrator in a proceeding under these rules is not a necessary party in judicial proceedings relating to the arbitration.(2) Parties to these rules shall be deemed to have consented that judgment upon the arbitration award may be entered in any federal or state court having jurisdiction thereof.(3) The board, the appointed arbitration association, or any arbitrator is not liable to any party for any act or omission in connection with any arbitration conducted under these rules.SEC. 61. Section 7099.2 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7099.2. (a) The board shall promulgate regulations covering the assessment of civil penalties under this article that give due consideration to the appropriateness of the penalty with respect to the following factors:(1) The gravity of the violation.(2) The good faith of the licensee or applicant for licensure being charged.(3) The history of previous violations.(b) Except as otherwise provided by this chapter, no civil penalty shall be assessed in an amount greater than five thousand dollars ($5,000). Notwithstanding Section 125.9, a civil penalty not to exceed fifteen thousand dollars ($15,000) may be assessed for a violation of Section 7114 or 7118.SEC. 62. Section 7099.9 is added to the Business and Professions Code, to read:7099.9. (a) If, upon investigation, the registrar has probable cause to believe that a licensee, registrant, or applicant has committed acts or omissions that are grounds for denial, suspension, or revocation of a license or registration, the registrar, or their designee, may issue a letter of admonishment to an applicant, licensee, or registrant in lieu of issuing a citation. Nothing in this article shall in any way limit the registrars discretionary authority or ability to issue a letter of admonishment as prescribed by this subdivision.(b) The letter of admonishment shall be in writing and shall describe in detail the nature and facts of the violation, including a reference to the statutes or regulations violated. The letter of admonishment shall inform the licensee, registrant, or applicant that within 30 days of service of the letter of admonishment the licensee, registrant, or applicant may do either of the following:(1) Submit a written request for an office conference to the registrar to contest the letter of admonishment. Upon a timely request, the registrar, or their designee, shall hold an office conference with the licensee, registrant, or applicant and, if applicable, their legal counsel or authorized representative.(A) No individual other than the legal counsel or authorized representative of the licensee, registrant, or applicant may accompany the licensee, registrant, or applicant to the office conference.(B) Prior to or at the office conference, the licensee, registrant, or applicant may submit to the registrar declarations and documents pertinent to the subject matter of the letter of admonishment.(C) The office conference is intended to be informal and shall not be subject to the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 11400) or Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code).(D) After the office conference, the registrar, or their designee, may affirm, modify, or withdraw the letter of admonishment. Within 14 calendar days from the date of the office conference, the registrar, or their designee, shall personally serve or send the written decision by certified mail to the licensees, registrants, or applicants address of record. This decision shall be deemed the final administrative decision concerning the letter of admonishment.(E) Judicial review of the decision may be had by filing a petition for a writ of mandate in accordance with the provisions of Section 1094.5 of the Code of Civil Procedure within 30 days after the date the decision was personally served or sent by certified mail. The judicial review shall extend to the question of whether or not there was a prejudicial abuse of discretion in the issuance of the letter of admonishment or in the decision after the office conference.(2) Comply with the letter of admonishment and, if required, submit a written corrective action plan to the registrar documenting compliance. If an office conference is not requested pursuant to this section, compliance with the letter of admonishment shall not constitute an admission of the violation noted in the letter of admonishment.(c) The letter of admonishment shall be served upon the licensee, registrant, or applicant personally or by certified mail at their address of record with the board. If the licensee, registrant, or applicant is served by certified mail, service shall be effective upon deposit in the United States mail.(d) The licensee, registrant, or applicant shall maintain and have readily available a copy of the letter of admonishment and corrective action plan, if any, for at least one year from the date of issuance of the letter of admonishment.(e) Nothing in this subdivision shall in any way limit the boards authority or ability to do either of the following:(1) Issue a citation pursuant to Section 125.9, 148, or 7099.(2) Institute disciplinary proceedings pursuant to this article.(f) The issuance of a letter of admonishment shall not be construed as a disciplinary action or discipline for purposes of licensure or the reporting of discipline for licensure.(g) The board shall not issue a letter of admonishment when any one of the following factors is present:(1) The licensee, registrant, or applicant was unlicensed at the time of the violation.(2) Multiple violations have been established.(3) The licensee, registrant, or applicant has a history of the same or similar violations.(4) The violation resulted in financial harm to another.(5) The victim is an elder or dependent adult as defined in Section 368 of the Penal Code.(6) The violation is related to the repair of damage caused by a natural disaster.(h) The board may adopt regulations to further define the circumstances under which a letter of admonishment may be issued.SEC. 63. Section 7123.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7123.5. If a contractor is convicted of violating Section 396 of the Penal Code or any substantially similar local ordinance in connection with the sale, or offer for sale, of repair or reconstruction services, as defined in Section 396 of the Penal Code, the Contractors State License Board shall take disciplinary action against the contractor, which shall include a suspension of at least six months or the permanent revocation of the contractors license.SEC. 64. Section 7135 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7135. (a) The fees and civil penalties received under this chapter shall be deposited in the Contractors License Fund. All moneys in the fund are hereby appropriated for the purposes of this chapter.(b) It is the intent of the Legislature that the board shall use moneys appropriated from the fund to improve its administrative and investigative oversight activities and capacity.SEC. 65. Section 7136 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7136. The director shall designate a sum not to exceed 10 percent of the total income of the Contractors State License Board for each fiscal year to be transferred to the Consumer Affairs Fund as the boards share of the cost of administration of the department.SEC. 66. Section 7137 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7137. The board may set fees by regulation. These fees shall be set according to the following schedule:(a) (1) The application fee for an original license in a single classification shall be three hundred thirty dollars ($330) and may be increased to not more than three hundred seventy-five dollars ($375).(2) The application fee for each additional classification applied for in connection with an original license shall not be more than eighty-five dollars ($85).(3) The application fee for each additional classification pursuant to Section 7059 shall be one hundred fifty dollars ($150) and may be increased to not more than one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).(4) The application fee to replace a responsible managing officer, responsible managing manager, responsible managing member, or responsible managing employee pursuant to Section 7068.2 shall be one hundred fifty dollars ($150) and may be increased to not more than one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).(5) The application fee to add personnel, other than a qualifying individual, to an existing license shall be one hundred dollars ($100) and may be increased to not more than one hundred fifteen dollars ($115).(b) The fee for rescheduling an examination for an applicant who has applied for an original license, additional classification, a change of responsible managing officer, responsible managing manager, responsible managing member, or responsible managing employee, or for an asbestos certification or hazardous substance removal certification, shall not be more than seventy dollars ($70).(c) The fee for scheduling or rescheduling an examination for a licensee who is required to take the examination as a condition of probation shall not be more than seventy dollars ($70).(d) The initial license fee for an active or inactive license shall be two hundred dollars ($200) and may be increased to not more than two hundred twenty-five dollars ($225).(e) (1) The renewal fee for an active license shall be four hundred dollars ($400) and may be increased to not more than four hundred fifty dollars ($450).(2) The renewal fee for an inactive license shall be two hundred dollars ($200) and may be increased to not more than two hundred twenty-five dollars ($225).(f) The delinquency fee is an amount equal to 50 percent of the renewal fee, if the license is renewed after its expiration.(g) The registration fee for a home improvement salesperson shall be eighty-three dollars ($83) and may be increased to not more than ninety-five dollars ($95).(h) The renewal fee for a home improvement salesperson registration shall be eighty-three dollars ($83) and may be increased to not more than ninety-five dollars ($95).(i) The application fee for an asbestos certification examination shall be eighty-three dollars ($83) and may be increased to not more than ninety-five dollars ($95).(j) The application fee for a hazardous substance removal or remedial action certification examination shall be eighty-three dollars ($83) and may be increased to not more than ninety-five dollars ($95).(k) In addition to any other fees charged to C-10 contractors, the board shall charge a fee of twenty dollars ($20), to be assessed with the renewal fee for an active license, which shall be used by the board to enforce provisions of the Labor Code related to electrician certification.(l) The service fee to deposit with the registrar lawful money or cashiers check pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 995.710 of the Code of Civil Procedure for purposes of compliance with any provision of Article 5 (commencing with Section 7065) shall be one hundred dollars ($100), which shall be used by the board only to process each deposit filed with the registrar, to cover the reasonable costs to the registrar for holding money or cashiers checks in trust in interest bearing deposit or share accounts, and to offset the costs of processing payment of lawful claims against a deposit in a civil action.(m) The board shall, by regulation, establish criteria for the approval of expedited processing of applications. Approved expedited processing of applications for licensure or registration, as required by other provisions of law, shall not be subject to this subdivision.SEC. 67. Section 7137.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7137.5. The sum of ten thousand dollars ($10,000) shall be transferred from the Contractors License Fund to the Controller for the exclusive use of the California Uniform Construction Cost Accounting Commission.The commission shall prepare a recommendation to the Legislature for a local public agency source to fund the commission beginning July 1, 1991, which will provide revenue supported by the contract activities represented by the commissions authority.Upon adoption of this funding program, the commission shall reimburse the Contractors License Fund in the amount of ten thousand dollars ($10,000).SEC. 68. Section 7138 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7138. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a fee paid in connection with a service or application covered by Section 7137 shall accrue to the Contractors License Fund as an earned fee and shall not be refunded.SEC. 69. Section 7139.1 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7139.1. The Legislature hereby finds and declares all of the following:(a) There is a demand and increasing need for construction management education programs and resources within the postsecondary education system that prepare graduates for the management of construction operations and companies regulated by the Contractors State License Law and enforced by the Contractors State License Board.(b) Although construction management programs do exist within the state university system, these programs are woefully underfunded and insufficiently funded to provide training on state-of-the-art management information systems for either graduates or extension programs for continuing education of licensed contractors. Construction industry associations have provided some assistance through direct grants and scholarships, but the industrywide service of these programs and the need for additional assistance mandates broad based industrywide support.(c) It is the intent of the Legislature that by enabling contractors to designate a portion of their licensure fee and providing a format for contractors to contribute funds to construction management education, this article will receive broad based industry support. In addition, this article allows the contractor to demonstrate the importance of construction management education. This assistance will enable greater development of construction management curricula and will improve the overall quality of construction by providing construction management training to California licensed contractors and their current and future management personnel.SEC. 70. Section 7139.2 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7139.2. (a) There is hereby created the Construction Management Education Account (CMEA) as a separate account in the Contractors License Fund for the purposes of construction management education. Funds in the account shall be available for the purposes of this article upon appropriation by the Legislature.(b) The Contractors State License Board shall allow a contractor to make a contribution to the Construction Management Education Account at the time of the contractor license fee payment. The license fee form shall clearly display this alternative on its face and shall clearly inform the licensee that this provision is a contribution to the Construction Management Education Account and is in addition to the fees.(c) The board may accept grants from federal, state, or local public agencies, or from private foundations or individuals, in order to assist it in carrying out its duties, functions, and powers under this article. Grant moneys shall be deposited into the Construction Management Education Account.SEC. 71. Section 7141.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7141.5. The registrar shall grant the retroactive renewal of a license if, within 90 days of the expiration of the license, the otherwise eligible licensee submits a completed application for renewal on a form prescribed by the registrar, and pays the appropriate renewal fee and delinquency fee prescribed by this chapter. For the purposes of this section, an application shall be deemed submitted if it is delivered to the boards headquarters or postmarked within 90 days of the expiration of the license.SEC. 72. Section 7145.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7145.5. (a) The registrar may refuse to issue, reinstate, reactivate, or renew a license or may suspend a license for the failure of a licensee to resolve all outstanding final liabilities, which include taxes, additions to tax, penalties, interest, and any fees that may be assessed by the board, the Department of Industrial Relations, the Employment Development Department, the Franchise Tax Board, or the State Board of Equalization.(1) Until the debts covered by this section are satisfied, the qualifying person and any other personnel of record named on a license that has been suspended under this section shall be prohibited from serving in any capacity that is subject to licensure under this chapter, but shall be permitted to act in the capacity of a nonsupervising bona fide employee.(2) The license of any other renewable licensed entity with any of the same personnel of record that have been assessed an outstanding liability covered by this section shall be suspended until the debt has been satisfied or until the same personnel of record disassociate themselves from the renewable licensed entity.(b) The refusal to issue a license or the suspension of a license as provided by this section shall be applicable only if the registrar has mailed a notice preliminary to the refusal or suspension that indicates that the license will be refused or suspended by a date certain. This preliminary notice shall be mailed to the licensee at least 60 days before the date certain.(c) In the case of outstanding final liabilities assessed by the Franchise Tax Board, this section shall be operative within 60 days after the Contractors State License Board has provided the Franchise Tax Board with the information required under Section 30, relating to licensing information that includes the federal employer identification number, individual taxpayer identification number, or social security number.(d) All versions of the application for a contractors license shall include, as part of the application, an authorization by the applicant, in the form and manner mutually agreeable to the Franchise Tax Board and the board, for the Franchise Tax Board to disclose the tax information that is required for the registrar to administer this section. The Franchise Tax Board may from time to time audit these authorizations.(e) In the case of outstanding final liabilities assessed by the State Board of Equalization, this section shall not apply to any outstanding final liability if the licensee has entered into an installment payment agreement for that liability with the State Board of Equalization and is in compliance with the terms of that agreement.SEC. 73. Section 7159 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7159. (a) (1) This section identifies the projects for which a home improvement contract is required, outlines the contract requirements, and lists the items that shall be included in the contract, or may be provided as an attachment.(2) This section does not apply to service and repair contracts that are subject to Section 7159.10, if the contract for the applicable services complies with Sections 7159.10 to 7159.14, inclusive.(3) This section does not apply to the sale, installation, and servicing of a fire alarm sold in conjunction with an alarm system, as defined in Section 7590.1, if all costs attributable to making the fire alarm system operable, including sale and installation costs, do not exceed five hundred dollars ($500), and the licensee complies with the requirements set forth in Section 7159.9.(4) This section does not apply to any costs associated with monitoring a burglar or fire alarm system.(5) Failure by the licensee, their agent or salesperson, or by a person subject to be licensed under this chapter, to provide the specified information, notices, and disclosures in the contract, or to otherwise fail to comply with any provision of this section, is cause for discipline.(b) For purposes of this section, home improvement contract means an agreement, whether oral or written, or contained in one or more documents, between a contractor and an owner or between a contractor and a tenant, regardless of the number of residence or dwelling units contained in the building in which the tenant resides, if the work is to be performed in, to, or upon the residence or dwelling unit of the tenant, for the performance of a home improvement, as defined in Section 7151, and includes all labor, services, and materials to be furnished and performed thereunder, if the aggregate contract price specified in one or more improvement contracts, including all labor, services, and materials to be furnished by the contractor, exceeds five hundred dollars ($500). Home improvement contract also means an agreement, whether oral or written, or contained in one or more documents, between a salesperson, whether or not they are a home improvement salesperson, and an owner or a tenant, regardless of the number of residence or dwelling units contained in the building in which the tenant resides, which provides for the sale, installation, or furnishing of home improvement goods or services.(c) In addition to the specific requirements listed under this section, every home improvement contract and any person subject to licensure under this chapter or their agent or salesperson shall comply with all of the following:(1) The writing shall be legible.(2) Any printed form shall be readable. Unless a larger typeface is specified in this article, text in any printed form shall be in at least 10-point typeface and the headings shall be in at least 10-point boldface type.(3) (A) Before any work is started, the contractor shall give the buyer a copy of the contract signed and dated by both the contractor and the buyer. The buyers receipt of the copy of the contract initiates the buyers rights to cancel the contract pursuant to Sections 1689.5 to 1689.14, inclusive, of the Civil Code.(B) The contract shall contain on the first page, in a typeface no smaller than that generally used in the body of the document, both of the following:(i) The date the buyer signed the contract.(ii) The name and address of the contractor to which the applicable Notice of Cancellation is to be mailed, immediately preceded by a statement advising the buyer that the Notice of Cancellation may be sent to the contractor at the address noted on the contract.(4) The contract shall include a statement that, upon satisfactory payment being made for any portion of the work performed, the contractor, prior to any further payment being made, shall furnish to the person contracting for the home improvement or swimming pool work a full and unconditional release from any potential lien claimant claim or mechanics lien authorized pursuant to Sections 8400 and 8404 of the Civil Code for that portion of the work for which payment has been made.(5) A change-order form for changes or extra work shall be incorporated into the contract and shall become part of the contract only if it is in writing and signed by the parties prior to the commencement of any work covered by a change order.(6) The contract shall contain, in close proximity to the signatures of the owner and contractor, a notice stating that the owner or tenant has the right to require the contractor to have a performance and payment bond.(7) If the contract provides for a contractor to furnish joint control, the contractor shall not have any financial or other interest in the joint control.(8) The provisions of this section are not exclusive and do not relieve the contractor from compliance with any other applicable provision of law.(d) A home improvement contract and any changes to the contract shall be in writing and signed by the parties to the contract prior to the commencement of work covered by the contract or an applicable change order and, except as provided in paragraph (8) of subdivision (a) of Section 7159.5, shall include or comply with all of the following:(1) The name, business address, and license number of the contractor.(2) If applicable, the name and registration number of the home improvement salesperson that solicited or negotiated the contract.(3) The following heading on the contract form that identifies the type of contract in at least 10-point boldface type: Home Improvement.(4) The following statement in at least 12-point boldface type: You are entitled to a completely filled in copy of this agreement, signed by both you and the contractor, before any work may be started.(5) The heading: Contract Price, followed by the amount of the contract in dollars and cents.(6) If a finance charge will be charged, the heading: Finance Charge, followed by the amount in dollars and cents. The finance charge is to be set out separately from the contract amount.(7) The heading: Description of the Project and Description of the Significant Materials to be Used and Equipment to be Installed, followed by a description of the project and a description of the significant materials to be used and equipment to be installed. For swimming pools, the project description required under this paragraph also shall include a plan and scale drawing showing the shape, size, dimensions, and the construction and equipment specifications.(8) If a downpayment will be charged, the details of the downpayment shall be expressed in substantially the following form, and shall include the text of the notice as specified in subparagraph (C):(A) The heading: Downpayment.(B) A space where the actual downpayment appears.(C) The following statement in at least 12-point boldface type:THE DOWNPAYMENT MAY NOT EXCEED $1,000 OR 10 PERCENT OF THE CONTRACT PRICE, WHICHEVER IS LESS.(9) If payments, other than the downpayment, are to be made before the project is completed, the details of these payments, known as progress payments, shall be expressed in substantially the following form, and shall include the text of the statement as specified in subparagraph (C):(A) A schedule of progress payments shall be preceded by the heading: Schedule of Progress Payments.(B) Each progress payment shall be stated in dollars and cents and specifically reference the amount of work or services to be performed and materials and equipment to be supplied.(C) The section of the contract reserved for the progress payments shall include the following statement in at least 12-point boldface type:The schedule of progress payments must specifically describe each phase of work, including the type and amount of work or services scheduled to be supplied in each phase, along with the amount of each proposed progress payment. IT IS AGAINST THE LAW FOR A CONTRACTOR TO COLLECT PAYMENT FOR WORK NOT YET COMPLETED, OR FOR MATERIALS NOT YET DELIVERED. HOWEVER, A CONTRACTOR MAY REQUIRE A DOWNPAYMENT.(10) The contract shall address the commencement of work to be performed in substantially the following form:(A) A statement that describes what constitutes substantial commencement of work under the contract.(B) The heading: Approximate Start Date.(C) The approximate date on which work will be commenced.(11) The estimated completion date of the work shall be referenced in the contract in substantially the following form:(A) The heading: Approximate Completion Date.(B) The approximate date of completion.(12) If applicable, the heading: List of Documents to be Incorporated into the Contract, followed by the list of documents incorporated into the contract.(13) The heading: Note About Extra Work and Change Orders, followed by the following statement:Extra Work and Change Orders become part of the contract once the order is prepared in writing and signed by the parties prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order. The order must describe the scope of the extra work or change, the cost to be added or subtracted from the contract, and the effect the order will have on the schedule of progress payments.(e) Except as provided in paragraph (8) of subdivision (a) of Section 7159.5, all of the following notices shall be provided to the owner as part of the contract form as specified or, if otherwise authorized under this subdivision, may be provided as an attachment to the contract:(1) A notice concerning commercial general liability insurance. This notice may be provided as an attachment to the contract if the contract includes the following statement: A notice concerning commercial general liability insurance is attached to this contract. The notice shall include the heading Commercial General Liability Insurance (CGL), followed by whichever of the following statements is both relevant and correct:(A) (The name on the license or This contractor) does not carry commercial general liability insurance.(B) (The name on the license or This contractor) carries commercial general liability insurance written by (the insurance company). You may call (the insurance company) at __________ to check the contractors insurance coverage.(C) (The name on the license or This contractor) is self-insured.(D) (The name on the license or This contractor) is a limited liability company that carries liability insurance or maintains other security as required by law. You may call (the insurance company or trust company or bank) at ____ to check on the contractors insurance coverage or security.(2) A notice concerning workers compensation insurance. This notice may be provided as an attachment to the contract if the contract includes the statement: A notice concerning workers compensation insurance is attached to this contract. The notice shall include the heading Workers Compensation Insurance followed by whichever of the following statements is correct:(A) (The name on the license or This contractor) has no employees and is exempt from workers compensation requirements.(B) (The name on the license or This contractor) carries workers compensation insurance for all employees.(3) A notice that provides the buyer with the following information about the performance of extra or change-order work:(A) A statement that the buyer may not require a contractor to perform extra or change-order work without providing written authorization prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order.(B) A statement informing the buyer that extra work or a change order is not enforceable against a buyer unless the change order also identifies all of the following in writing prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order:(i) The scope of work encompassed by the order.(ii) The amount to be added or subtracted from the contract.(iii) The effect the order will make in the progress payments or the completion date.(C) A statement informing the buyer that the contractors failure to comply with the requirements of this paragraph does not preclude the recovery of compensation for work performed based upon legal or equitable remedies designed to prevent unjust enrichment.(4) A notice with the heading Mechanics Lien Warning written as follows:MECHANICS LIEN WARNING:Anyone who helps improve your property, but who is not paid, may record what is called a mechanics lien on your property. A mechanics lien is a claim, like a mortgage or home equity loan, made against your property and recorded with the county recorder.Even if you pay your contractor in full, unpaid subcontractors, suppliers, and laborers who helped to improve your property may record mechanics liens and sue you in court to foreclose the lien. If a court finds the lien is valid, you could be forced to pay twice or have a court officer sell your home to pay the lien. Liens can also affect your credit.To preserve their right to record a lien, each subcontractor and material supplier must provide you with a document called a Preliminary Notice. This notice is not a lien. The purpose of the notice is to let you know that the person who sends you the notice has the right to record a lien on your property if they are not paid.BE CAREFUL. The Preliminary Notice can be sent up to 20 days after the subcontractor starts work or the supplier provides material. This can be a big problem if you pay your contractor before you have received the Preliminary Notices.You will not get Preliminary Notices from your prime contractor or from laborers who work on your project. The law assumes that you already know they are improving your property.PROTECT YOURSELF FROM LIENS. You can protect yourself from liens by getting a list from your contractor of all the subcontractors and material suppliers that work on your project. Find out from your contractor when these subcontractors started work and when these suppliers delivered goods or materials. Then wait 20 days, paying attention to the Preliminary Notices you receive.PAY WITH JOINT CHECKS. One way to protect yourself is to pay with a joint check. When your contractor tells you it is time to pay for the work of a subcontractor or supplier who has provided you with a Preliminary Notice, write a joint check payable to both the contractor and the subcontractor or material supplier.For other ways to prevent liens, visit CSLBs internet website at www.cslb.ca.gov or call CSLB at 800-321-CSLB (2752).REMEMBER, IF YOU DO NOTHING, YOU RISK HAVING A LIEN PLACED ON YOUR HOME. This can mean that you may have to pay twice, or face the forced sale of your home to pay what you owe.(5) The following notice shall be provided in at least 12-point typeface:Information about the Contractors State License Board (CSLB): CSLB is the state consumer protection agency that licenses and regulates construction contractors.Contact CSLB for information about the licensed contractor you are considering, including information about disclosable complaints, disciplinary actions, and civil judgments that are reported to CSLB.Use only licensed contractors. If you file a complaint against a licensed contractor within the legal deadline (usually four years), CSLB has authority to investigate the complaint. If you use an unlicensed contractor, CSLB may not be able to help you resolve your complaint. Your only remedy may be in civil court, and you may be liable for damages arising out of any injuries to the unlicensed contractor or the unlicensed contractors employees.For more information:Visit CSLBs internet website at www.cslb.ca.govCall CSLB at 800-321-CSLB (2752)Write CSLB at P.O. Box 26000, Sacramento, CA 95826.(6) (A) The notice set forth in subparagraph (B) and entitled Three-Day Right to Cancel, shall be provided to the buyer unless the contract is:(i) Negotiated at the contractors place of business.(ii) Subject to the Seven-Day Right to Cancel, as set forth in paragraph (7).(iii) Subject to licensure under the Alarm Company Act (Chapter 11.6 (commencing with Section 7590)), provided the alarm company licensee complies with Sections 1689.5, 1689.6, and 1689.7 of the Civil Code, as applicable.(B) Three-Day Right to CancelYou, the buyer, have the right to cancel this contract within three business days. You may cancel by emailing, mailing, faxing, or delivering a written notice to the contractor at the contractors place of business by midnight of the third business day after you received a signed and dated copy of the contract that includes this notice. Include your name, your address, and the date you received the signed copy of the contract and this notice.If you cancel, the contractor must return to you anything you paid within 10 days of receiving the notice of cancellation. For your part, you must make available to the contractor at your residence, in substantially as good condition as you received them, goods delivered to you under this contract or sale. Or, you may, if you wish, comply with the contractors instructions on how to return the goods at the contractors expense and risk. If you do make the goods available to the contractor and the contractor does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may keep them without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the contractor, or if you agree to return the goods to the contractor and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.(C) The Three-Day Right to Cancel notice required by this paragraph shall comply with all of the following:(i) The text of the notice is at least 12-point boldface type.(ii) The notice is in immediate proximity to a space reserved for the owners signature.(iii) The owner acknowledges receipt of the notice by signing and dating the notice form in the signature space.(iv) The notice is written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as that principally used in any oral sales presentation.(v) The notice may be attached to the contract if the contract includes, in at least 12-point boldface type, a checkbox with the following statement: The law requires that the contractor give you a notice explaining your right to cancel. Initial the checkbox if the contractor has given you a Notice of the Three-Day Right to Cancel.(vi) The notice shall be accompanied by a completed form in duplicate, captioned Notice of Cancellation, which also shall be attached to the agreement or offer to purchase and be easily detachable, and which shall contain the following statement written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as used in the contract:Notice of Cancellation/enter date of transaction/(Date)You may cancel this transaction, without any penalty or obligation, within three business days from the above date.If you cancel, any property traded in, any payments made by you under the contract or sale, and any negotiable instrument executed by you will be returned within 10 days following receipt by the seller of your cancellation notice, and any security interest arising out of the transaction will be canceled.If you cancel, you must make available to the seller at your residence, in substantially as good condition as when received, any goods delivered to you under this contract or sale, or you may, if you wish, comply with the instructions of the seller regarding the return shipment of the goods at the sellers expense and risk.If you do make the goods available to the seller and the seller does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may retain or dispose of the goods without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the seller, or if you agree to return the goods to the seller and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.To cancel this transaction, mail or deliver a signed and dated copy of this cancellation notice, or any other written notice, or send a telegramto ,/name of seller/at /address of sellers place of business/not later than midnight of .(Date)I hereby cancel this transaction.(Date)(Buyers signature)(7) (A) The following notice entitled Seven-Day Right to Cancel shall be provided to the buyer for any contract that is written for the repair or restoration of residential premises damaged by any sudden or catastrophic event for which a state of emergency has been declared by the President of the United States or the Governor, or for which a local emergency has been declared by the executive officer or governing body of any city, county, or city and county:Seven-Day Right to CancelYou, the buyer, have the right to cancel this contract within seven business days. You may cancel by emailing, mailing, faxing, or delivering a written notice to the contractor at the contractors place of business by midnight of the seventh business day after you received a signed and dated copy of the contract that includes this notice. Include your name, your address, and the date you received the signed copy of the contract and this notice.If you cancel, the contractor must return to you anything you paid within 10 days of receiving the notice of cancellation. For your part, you must make available to the contractor at your residence, in substantially as good condition as you received them, goods delivered to you under this contract or sale. Or, you may, if you wish, comply with the contractors instructions on how to return the goods at the contractors expense and risk. If you do make the goods available to the contractor and the contractor does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may keep them without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the contractor, or if you agree to return the goods to the contractor and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.(B) The Seven-Day Right to Cancel notice required by this subdivision shall comply with all of the following:(i) The text of the notice is at least 12-point boldface type.(ii) The notice is in immediate proximity to a space reserved for the owners signature.(iii) The owner acknowledges receipt of the notice by signing and dating the notice form in the signature space.(iv) The notice is written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as that principally used in any oral sales presentation.(v) The notice may be attached to the contract if the contract includes, in at least 12-point boldface type, a checkbox with the following statement: The law requires that the contractor give you a notice explaining your right to cancel. Initial the checkbox if the contractor has given you a Notice of the Seven-Day Right to Cancel.(vi) The notice shall be accompanied by a completed form in duplicate, captioned Notice of Cancellation, which shall also be attached to the agreement or offer to purchase and be easily detachable, and which shall contain the following statement written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as used in the contract:Notice of Cancellation/enter date of transaction/(Date)You may cancel this transaction, without any penalty or obligation, within seven business days from the above date.If you cancel, any property traded in, any payments made by you under the contract or sale, and any negotiable instrument executed by you will be returned within 10 days following receipt by the seller of your cancellation notice, and any security interest arising out of the transaction will be canceled.If you cancel, you must make available to the seller at your residence, in substantially as good condition as when received, any goods delivered to you under this contract or sale, or you may, if you wish, comply with the instructions of the seller regarding the return shipment of the goods at the sellers expense and risk.If you do make the goods available to the seller and the seller does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may retain or dispose of the goods without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the seller, or if you agree to return the goods to the seller and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.To cancel this transaction, mail or deliver a signed and dated copy of this cancellation notice, or any other written notice, or send a telegramto ,/name of seller/at /address of sellers place of business/not later than midnight of .(Date)I hereby cancel this transaction.(Date)(Buyers signature)SEC. 73.5. Section 7159 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7159. (a) (1) This section identifies the projects for which a home improvement contract is required, outlines the contract requirements, and lists the items that shall be included in the contract, or may be provided as an attachment.(2) This section does not apply to service and repair contracts that are subject to Section 7159.10, if the contract for the applicable services complies with Sections 7159.10 to 7159.14, inclusive.(3) This section does not apply to the sale, installation, and servicing of a fire alarm sold in conjunction with an alarm system, as defined in Section 7590.1, if all costs attributable to making the fire alarm system operable, including sale and installation costs, do not exceed five hundred dollars ($500), and the licensee complies with the requirements set forth in Section 7159.9.(4) This section does not apply to any costs associated with monitoring a burglar or fire alarm system.(5) Failure by the licensee, their agent or salesperson, or by a person subject to be licensed under this chapter, to provide the specified information, notices, and disclosures in the contract, or to otherwise fail to comply with any provision of this section, is cause for discipline.(b) For purposes of this section, home improvement contract means an agreement, whether oral or written, or contained in one or more documents, between a contractor and an owner or between a contractor and a tenant, regardless of the number of residence or dwelling units contained in the building in which the tenant resides, if the work is to be performed in, to, or upon the residence or dwelling unit of the tenant, for the performance of a home improvement, as defined in Section 7151, and includes all labor, services, and materials to be furnished and performed thereunder, if the aggregate contract price specified in one or more improvement contracts, including all labor, services, and materials to be furnished by the contractor, exceeds five hundred dollars ($500). Home improvement contract also means an agreement, whether oral or written, or contained in one or more documents, between a salesperson, whether or not they are a home improvement salesperson, and an owner or a tenant, regardless of the number of residence or dwelling units contained in the building in which the tenant resides, which provides for the sale, installation, or furnishing of home improvement goods or services.(c) In addition to the specific requirements listed under this section, every home improvement contract and any person subject to licensure under this chapter or their agent or salesperson shall comply with all of the following:(1) The writing shall be legible.(2) Any printed form shall be readable. Unless a larger typeface is specified in this article, text in any printed form shall be in at least 10-point typeface and the headings shall be in at least 10-point boldface type.(3) (A) Before any work is started, the contractor shall give the buyer a copy of the contract signed and dated by both the contractor and the buyer. The buyers receipt of the copy of the contract initiates the buyers rights to cancel the contract pursuant to Sections 1689.5 to 1689.14, inclusive, of the Civil Code.(B) The contract shall contain on the first page, in a typeface no smaller than that generally used in the body of the document, both of the following:(i) The date the buyer signed the contract.(ii) The name and address of the contractor to which the applicable Notice of Cancellation is to be mailed, immediately preceded by a statement advising the buyer that the Notice of Cancellation may be sent to the contractor at the address noted on the contract.(4) The contract shall include a statement that, upon satisfactory payment being made for any portion of the work performed, the contractor, prior to any further payment being made, shall furnish to the person contracting for the home improvement or swimming pool work a full and unconditional release from any potential lien claimant claim or mechanics lien authorized pursuant to Sections 8400 and 8404 of the Civil Code for that portion of the work for which payment has been made.(5) A change-order form for changes or extra work shall be incorporated into the contract and shall become part of the contract only if it is in writing and signed by the parties prior to the commencement of any work covered by a change order.(6) The contract shall contain, in close proximity to the signatures of the owner and contractor, a notice stating that the owner or tenant has the right to require the contractor to have a performance and payment bond.(7) If the contract provides for a contractor to furnish joint control, the contractor shall not have any financial or other interest in the joint control.(8) The provisions of this section are not exclusive and do not relieve the contractor from compliance with any other applicable provision of law.(d) A home improvement contract and any changes to the contract shall be in writing and signed by the parties to the contract prior to the commencement of work covered by the contract or an applicable change order and, except as provided in paragraph (8) of subdivision (a) of Section 7159.5, shall include or comply with all of the following:(1) The name, business address, and license number of the contractor.(2) If applicable, the name and registration number of the home improvement salesperson that solicited or negotiated the contract.(3) The following heading on the contract form that identifies the type of contract in at least 10-point boldface type: Home Improvement.(4) The following statement in at least 12-point boldface type: You are entitled to a completely filled in copy of this agreement, signed by both you and the contractor, before any work may be started.(5) The heading: Contract Price, followed by the amount of the contract in dollars and cents.(6) If a finance charge will be charged, the heading: Finance Charge, followed by the amount in dollars and cents. The finance charge is to be set out separately from the contract amount.(7) The heading: Description of the Project and Description of the Significant Materials to be Used and Equipment to be Installed, followed by a description of the project and a description of the significant materials to be used and equipment to be installed. For swimming pools, the project description required under this paragraph also shall include a plan and scale drawing showing the shape, size, dimensions, and the construction and equipment specifications.(8) If a downpayment will be charged, the details of the downpayment shall be expressed in substantially the following form, and shall include the text of the notice as specified in subparagraph (C):(A) The heading: Downpayment.(B) A space where the actual downpayment appears.(C) The following statement in at least 12-point boldface type:THE DOWNPAYMENT MAY NOT EXCEED $1,000 OR 10 PERCENT OF THE CONTRACT PRICE, WHICHEVER IS LESS.(9) If payments, other than the downpayment, are to be made before the project is completed, the details of these payments, known as progress payments, shall be expressed in substantially the following form, and shall include the text of the statement as specified in subparagraph (C):(A) A schedule of progress payments shall be preceded by the heading: Schedule of Progress Payments.(B) Each progress payment shall be stated in dollars and cents and specifically reference the amount of work or services to be performed and materials and equipment to be supplied.(C) The section of the contract reserved for the progress payments shall include the following statement in at least 12-point boldface type:The schedule of progress payments must specifically describe each phase of work, including the type and amount of work or services scheduled to be supplied in each phase, along with the amount of each proposed progress payment. IT IS AGAINST THE LAW FOR A CONTRACTOR TO COLLECT PAYMENT FOR WORK NOT YET COMPLETED, OR FOR MATERIALS NOT YET DELIVERED. HOWEVER, A CONTRACTOR MAY REQUIRE A DOWNPAYMENT.(10) The contract shall address the commencement of work to be performed in substantially the following form:(A) A statement that describes what constitutes substantial commencement of work under the contract.(B) The heading: Approximate Start Date.(C) The approximate date on which work will be commenced.(11) The estimated completion date of the work shall be referenced in the contract in substantially the following form:(A) The heading: Approximate Completion Date.(B) The approximate date of completion.(12) If applicable, the heading: List of Documents to be Incorporated into the Contract, followed by the list of documents incorporated into the contract.(13) The heading: Note About Extra Work and Change Orders, followed by the following statement:Extra Work and Change Orders become part of the contract once the order is prepared in writing and signed by the parties prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order. The order must describe the scope of the extra work or change, the cost to be added or subtracted from the contract, and the effect the order will have on the schedule of progress payments.(e) Except as provided in paragraph (8) of subdivision (a) of Section 7159.5, all of the following notices shall be provided to the owner as part of the contract form as specified or, if otherwise authorized under this subdivision, may be provided as an attachment to the contract:(1) A notice concerning commercial general liability insurance. This notice may be provided as an attachment to the contract if the contract includes the following statement: A notice concerning commercial general liability insurance is attached to this contract. The notice shall include the heading Commercial General Liability Insurance (CGL), followed by whichever of the following statements is both relevant and correct:(A) (The name on the license or This contractor) does not carry commercial general liability insurance.(B) (The name on the license or This contractor) carries commercial general liability insurance written by (the insurance company). You may call (the insurance company) at __________ to check the contractors insurance coverage.(C) (The name on the license or This contractor) is self-insured.(D) (The name on the license or This contractor) is a limited liability company that carries liability insurance or maintains other security as required by law. You may call (the insurance company or trust company or bank) at ____ to check on the contractors insurance coverage or security.(2) A notice concerning workers compensation insurance. This notice may be provided as an attachment to the contract if the contract includes the statement: A notice concerning workers compensation insurance is attached to this contract. The notice shall include the heading Workers Compensation Insurance followed by whichever of the following statements is correct:(A) (The name on the license or This contractor) has no employees and is exempt from workers compensation requirements.(B) (The name on the license or This contractor) carries workers compensation insurance for all employees.(3) A notice that provides the buyer with the following information about the performance of extra or change-order work:(A) A statement that the buyer may not require a contractor to perform extra or change-order work without providing written authorization prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order.(B) A statement informing the buyer that extra work or a change order is not enforceable against a buyer unless the change order also identifies all of the following in writing prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order:(i) The scope of work encompassed by the order.(ii) The amount to be added or subtracted from the contract.(iii) The effect the order will make in the progress payments or the completion date.(C) A statement informing the buyer that the contractors failure to comply with the requirements of this paragraph does not preclude the recovery of compensation for work performed based upon legal or equitable remedies designed to prevent unjust enrichment.(4) A notice with the heading Mechanics Lien Warning written as follows:MECHANICS LIEN WARNING:Anyone who helps improve your property, but who is not paid, may record what is called a mechanics lien on your property. A mechanics lien is a claim, like a mortgage or home equity loan, made against your property and recorded with the county recorder.Even if you pay your contractor in full, unpaid subcontractors, suppliers, and laborers who helped to improve your property may record mechanics liens and sue you in court to foreclose the lien. If a court finds the lien is valid, you could be forced to pay twice or have a court officer sell your home to pay the lien. Liens can also affect your credit.To preserve their right to record a lien, each subcontractor and material supplier must provide you with a document called a Preliminary Notice. This notice is not a lien. The purpose of the notice is to let you know that the person who sends you the notice has the right to record a lien on your property if they are not paid.BE CAREFUL. The Preliminary Notice can be sent up to 20 days after the subcontractor starts work or the supplier provides material. This can be a big problem if you pay your contractor before you have received the Preliminary Notices.You will not get Preliminary Notices from your prime contractor or from laborers who work on your project. The law assumes that you already know they are improving your property.PROTECT YOURSELF FROM LIENS. You can protect yourself from liens by getting a list from your contractor of all the subcontractors and material suppliers that work on your project. Find out from your contractor when these subcontractors started work and when these suppliers delivered goods or materials. Then wait 20 days, paying attention to the Preliminary Notices you receive.PAY WITH JOINT CHECKS. One way to protect yourself is to pay with a joint check. When your contractor tells you it is time to pay for the work of a subcontractor or supplier who has provided you with a Preliminary Notice, write a joint check payable to both the contractor and the subcontractor or material supplier.For other ways to prevent liens, visit CSLBs internet website at www.cslb.ca.gov or call CSLB at 800-321-CSLB (2752).REMEMBER, IF YOU DO NOTHING, YOU RISK HAVING A LIEN PLACED ON YOUR HOME. This can mean that you may have to pay twice, or face the forced sale of your home to pay what you owe.(5) The following notice shall be provided in at least 12-point typeface:Information about the Contractors State License Board (CSLB): CSLB is the state consumer protection agency that licenses and regulates construction contractors.Contact CSLB for information about the licensed contractor you are considering, including information about disclosable complaints, disciplinary actions, and civil judgments that are reported to CSLB.Use only licensed contractors. If you file a complaint against a licensed contractor within the legal deadline (usually four years), CSLB has authority to investigate the complaint. If you use an unlicensed contractor, CSLB may not be able to help you resolve your complaint. Your only remedy may be in civil court, and you may be liable for damages arising out of any injuries to the unlicensed contractor or the unlicensed contractors employees.For more information:Visit CSLBs internet website at www.cslb.ca.govCall CSLB at 800-321-CSLB (2752)Write CSLB at P.O. Box 26000, Sacramento, CA 95826.(6) (A) The notice set forth in subparagraph (B) and entitled Three-Day Right to Cancel, or entitled Five-Day Right to Cancel for contracts with a senior citizen, shall be provided to the buyer unless the contract is:(i) Negotiated at the contractors place of business.(ii) Subject to the Seven-Day Right to Cancel, as set forth in paragraph (7).(iii) Subject to licensure under the Alarm Company Act (Chapter 11.6 (commencing with Section 7590)), provided the alarm company licensee complies with Sections 1689.5, 1689.6, and 1689.7 of the Civil Code, as applicable.(B) (i) Three-Day Right to CancelYou, the buyer, have the right to cancel this contract within three business days. You may cancel by emailing, mailing, faxing, or delivering a written notice to the contractor at the contractors place of business by midnight of the third business day after you received a signed and dated copy of the contract that includes this notice. Include your name, your address, and the date you received the signed copy of the contract and this notice.If you cancel, the contractor must return to you anything you paid within 10 days of receiving the notice of cancellation. For your part, you must make available to the contractor at your residence, in substantially as good condition as you received them, goods delivered to you under this contract or sale. Or, you may, if you wish, comply with the contractors instructions on how to return the goods at the contractors expense and risk. If you do make the goods available to the contractor and the contractor does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may keep them without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the contractor, or if you agree to return the goods to the contractor and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.(ii) References to three and third in the notice set forth in clause (i) shall be changed to five and fifth, respectively, for a buyer who is a senior citizen.(C) The notice required by this paragraph shall comply with all of the following:(i) The text of the notice is at least 12-point boldface type.(ii) The notice is in immediate proximity to a space reserved for the owners signature.(iii) The owner acknowledges receipt of the notice by signing and dating the notice form in the signature space.(iv) The notice is written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as that principally used in any oral sales presentation.(v) The notice may be attached to the contract if the contract includes, in at least 12-point boldface type, a checkbox with one of the following statements, as applicable:(I) For a contract with a senior citizen: The law requires that the contractor give you a notice explaining your right to cancel. Initial the checkbox if the contractor has given you a Notice of the Five-Day Right to Cancel.(II) For all other contracts: The law requires that the contractor give you a notice explaining your right to cancel. Initial the checkbox if the contractor has given you a Notice of the Three-Day Right to Cancel.(vi) (I) The notice shall be accompanied by a completed form in duplicate, captioned Notice of Cancellation, which also shall be attached to the agreement or offer to purchase and be easily detachable, and which shall contain the following statement written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as used in the contract:Notice of Cancellation/enter date of transaction/(Date)You may cancel this transaction, without any penalty or obligation, within three business days from the above date.If you cancel, any property traded in, any payments made by you under the contract or sale, and any negotiable instrument executed by you will be returned within 10 days following receipt by the seller of your cancellation notice, and any security interest arising out of the transaction will be canceled.If you cancel, you must make available to the seller at your residence, in substantially as good condition as when received, any goods delivered to you under this contract or sale, or you may, if you wish, comply with the instructions of the seller regarding the return shipment of the goods at the sellers expense and risk.If you do make the goods available to the seller and the seller does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may retain or dispose of the goods without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the seller, or if you agree to return the goods to the seller and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.To cancel this transaction, mail or deliver a signed and dated copy of this cancellation notice, or any other written notice, or send a telegramto ,/name of seller/at /address of sellers place of business/not later than midnight of .(Date)I hereby cancel this transaction.(Date)(Buyers signature)(II) The reference to three in the statement set forth in subclause (I) shall be changed to five for a buyer who is a senior citizen.(7) (A) The following notice entitled Seven-Day Right to Cancel shall be provided to the buyer for any contract that is written for the repair or restoration of residential premises damaged by any sudden or catastrophic event for which a state of emergency has been declared by the President of the United States or the Governor, or for which a local emergency has been declared by the executive officer or governing body of any city, county, or city and county:Seven-Day Right to CancelYou, the buyer, have the right to cancel this contract within seven business days. You may cancel by emailing, mailing, faxing, or delivering a written notice to the contractor at the contractors place of business by midnight of the seventh business day after you received a signed and dated copy of the contract that includes this notice. Include your name, your address, and the date you received the signed copy of the contract and this notice.If you cancel, the contractor must return to you anything you paid within 10 days of receiving the notice of cancellation. For your part, you must make available to the contractor at your residence, in substantially as good condition as you received them, goods delivered to you under this contract or sale. Or, you may, if you wish, comply with the contractors instructions on how to return the goods at the contractors expense and risk. If you do make the goods available to the contractor and the contractor does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may keep them without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the contractor, or if you agree to return the goods to the contractor and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.(B) The Seven-Day Right to Cancel notice required by this subdivision shall comply with all of the following:(i) The text of the notice is at least 12-point boldface type.(ii) The notice is in immediate proximity to a space reserved for the owners signature.(iii) The owner acknowledges receipt of the notice by signing and dating the notice form in the signature space.(iv) The notice is written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as that principally used in any oral sales presentation.(v) The notice may be attached to the contract if the contract includes, in at least 12-point boldface type, a checkbox with the following statement: The law requires that the contractor give you a notice explaining your right to cancel. Initial the checkbox if the contractor has given you a Notice of the Seven-Day Right to Cancel.(vi) The notice shall be accompanied by a completed form in duplicate, captioned Notice of Cancellation, which shall also be attached to the agreement or offer to purchase and be easily detachable, and which shall contain the following statement written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as used in the contract:Notice of Cancellation/enter date of transaction/(Date)You may cancel this transaction, without any penalty or obligation, within seven business days from the above date.If you cancel, any property traded in, any payments made by you under the contract or sale, and any negotiable instrument executed by you will be returned within 10 days following receipt by the seller of your cancellation notice, and any security interest arising out of the transaction will be canceled.If you cancel, you must make available to the seller at your residence, in substantially as good condition as when received, any goods delivered to you under this contract or sale, or you may, if you wish, comply with the instructions of the seller regarding the return shipment of the goods at the sellers expense and risk.If you do make the goods available to the seller and the seller does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may retain or dispose of the goods without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the seller, or if you agree to return the goods to the seller and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.To cancel this transaction, mail or deliver a signed and dated copy of this cancellation notice, or any other written notice, or send a telegramto ,/name of seller/at /address of sellers place of business/not later than midnight of .(Date)I hereby cancel this transaction.(Date)(Buyers signature)(f) The five-day right to cancel added by the act that amended paragraph (6) of subdivision (e) shall apply to contracts entered into on or after January 1, 2021.SEC. 74. Section 7170 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7170. (a) The Contractors State License Board shall receive and review complaints and consumer questions regarding solar energy systems companies and solar contractors. The board shall also receive complaints received from state agencies regarding solar energy systems companies and solar contractors.(b) Beginning on July 1, 2019, the board annually shall compile a report documenting consumer complaints relating to solar contractors. The report shall be made available publicly on the boards and the Public Utilities Commissions internet websites. The report shall contain all of the following:(1) The number and types of complaints.(2) The ZIP Code where the consumer complaint originated.(3) The disposition of all complaints received against a solar contractor.(c) For purposes of this section, solar energy system means a solar energy device to be installed on a residential building that has the primary purpose of providing for the collection and distribution of solar energy for the generation of electricity, that produces at least one kW, and not more than five MW, alternating current rated peak electricity, and that meets or exceeds the eligibility criteria established pursuant to Section 25782 of the Public Resources Code.SEC. 75. Section 7303 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7303. (a) Notwithstanding Article 8 (commencing with Section 9148) of Chapter 1.5 of Part 1 of Division 2 of Title 2 of the Government Code, there is in the Department of Consumer Affairs the State Board of Barbering and Cosmetology in which the administration of this chapter is vested.(b) The board shall consist of nine members. Five members shall be public members, and four members shall represent the professions. The Governor shall appoint three of the public members and the four professional members. The Senate Committee on Rules and the Speaker of the Assembly shall each appoint one public member. Members of the board shall be appointed for a term of four years, except that of the members appointed by the Governor, two of the public members and two of the professions members shall be appointed for an initial term of two years. No board member may serve longer than two consecutive terms.(c) The board may appoint an executive officer who is exempt from civil service. The executive officer shall exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated by the board and vested in the executive officer by this chapter. The appointment of the executive officer is subject to the approval of the director. In the event that a newly authorized board replaces an existing or previous bureau, the director may appoint an interim executive officer for the board who shall serve temporarily until the new board appoints a permanent executive officer.(d) The executive officer shall provide examiners, inspectors, and other personnel necessary to carry out the provisions of this chapter.(e) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.SEC. 76. Section 7512.3 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 1 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:7512.3. (a) As used in this chapter, person includes any individual, firm, company, limited liability company, association, organization, partnership, and corporation.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 77. Section 7512.3 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 2 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:7512.3. (a) As used in this chapter, person includes any individual, firm, company, association, organization, partnership, and corporation.(b) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024.SEC. 78. Section 7512.14 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7512.14. (a) As used in this chapter, member means an individual who is a member of a limited liability company as specified in Section 17704.01 of the Corporations Code.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 79. Section 7512.15 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7512.15. (a) As used in this chapter, manager means an individual designated under an operating agreement of a manager-managed limited liability company who is responsible for performing the management functions for the limited liability company specified in subdivision (c) of Section 17704.07 of the Corporations Code.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 80. Section 7520.3 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7520.3. (a) As a condition of the issuance, reinstatement, reactivation, or continued valid use of a license under this chapter, a limited liability company shall, in accordance with this section, maintain a policy or policies of insurance against liability imposed on or against it by law for damages arising out of claims based upon acts, errors, or omissions arising out of the private investigator services it provides.(b) The total aggregate limit of liability under the policy or policies of insurance required under this section shall be as follows:(1) For a limited liability company licensee with five or fewer persons named as members pursuant to subdivision (i) of Section 7525.1, the aggregate limit shall not be less than one million dollars ($1,000,000).(2) For a limited liability company licensee with more than five persons named as members pursuant to subdivision (i) of Section 7525.1, an additional one hundred thousand dollars ($100,000) of insurance shall be obtained for each person named as members of the licensee except that the maximum amount of insurance is not required to exceed five million dollars ($5,000,000) in any one designated period, less amounts paid in defending, settling, or discharging claims as set forth under this section.(c) Prior to the issuance, reinstatement, or reactivation of a limited liability company license as provided under this chapter, the applicant or licensee shall, in the manner prescribed by the bureau, submit the information and documentation required by this section and requested by the bureau, demonstrating compliance with the financial security requirements specified by this section.(d) For any insurance policy secured by a licensee in satisfaction of this section, a Certificate of Liability Insurance, signed by an authorized agent or employee of the insurer, shall be submitted electronically or otherwise to the bureau. The insurer issuing the certificate shall report to the bureau the following information for any policy required under this section: name, license number, policy number, dates that coverage is scheduled to commence and lapse, and cancellation date if applicable. The insurer shall list the bureau as the certificate holder for the purposes of receiving notifications related to the policys status.(e) (1) If a licensee fails to maintain sufficient insurance as required by this section, or fails to provide proof of the required insurance upon request by the bureau, the license is subject to suspension and shall be automatically suspended pursuant to this subdivision until the date that the licensee provides proof to the bureau of compliance with the insurance coverage requirement.(2) Prior to an automatic suspension, the bureau shall notify the licensee, in writing, that it has 30 days to provide proof to the bureau of having the required insurance or the license shall be automatically suspended.(3) If the licensee fails to provide proof of insurance coverage within this period, the bureau may automatically suspend the license.(f) If the license of a limited liability company is suspended pursuant to subdivision (e), each member of the limited liability company shall be personally liable up to one million dollars ($1,000,000) each for damages resulting to third parties in connection with the companys performance, during the period of suspension, of any act or contract when a license is required by this chapter.(g) On and after July 1, 2018, a licensee organized as a limited liability company shall report a paid or pending claim against its liability insurance to the bureau, which shall post a notice of the claim on the Department of Consumer Affairs BreEZe License Verification Internet Web page.(h) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 81. Section 7525.1 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 11 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:7525.1. An application shall be verified and shall include:(a) The full name and business address of the applicant.(b) The name under which the applicant intends to do business.(c) A statement as to the general nature of the business in which the applicant intends to engage.(d) A verified statement of their experience qualifications.(e) (1) If the applicant is an individual, a qualified manager, a partner of a partnership, an officer of a corporation designated in subdivision (h), or a member, officer, or manager of a limited liability company designated in subdivision (i), one personal identification form provided by the bureau upon which shall appear a photograph taken within one year immediately preceding the date of the filing of the application together with two legible sets of fingerprints, one set of which shall be forwarded to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for purposes of a background check, on a form approved by the Department of Justice, and a personal description of each person, respectively. The identification form shall include residence addresses and employment history for the previous five years and be signed under penalty of perjury.(2) The bureau may impose a fee not to exceed three dollars ($3) for processing classifiable fingerprint cards submitted by applicants, excluding those submitted into an electronic fingerprint system using electronic fingerprint technology.(f) In addition, if the applicant for a license is an individual, the application shall list all other names known as or used during the past 10 years and shall state that the applicant is to be personally and actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought. If any other qualified manager is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by the applicant, under penalty of perjury. If any other person is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall also be subscribed, verified, and signed by that person under penalty of perjury.(g) If the applicants for a license are copartners, the application shall state the true names and addresses of all partners and the name of the partner to be actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought and list all other names known as or used during the past 10 years. If a qualified manager other than a partner is to be actively in charge of the business, then the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by all of the partners under penalty of perjury. If any other person is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall also be subscribed, verified, and signed by that person, under penalty of perjury, under penalty of perjury by all of the partners and the qualified manager, or by all of the partners or the qualified manager.(h) If the applicant for a license is a corporation, the application shall state the true names and complete residence addresses of the chief executive officer, secretary, chief financial officer, and any other corporate officer who will be active in the business to be licensed. The application shall also state the name and address of the designated person to be actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought. The application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by a duly authorized officer of the applicant and by the qualified manager thereof, under penalty of perjury.(i) If the applicant for a license is a limited liability company, the application shall state the true name and complete residence address of each member, manager, and any officer who will be active in the business to be licensed. A certified copy of the articles of organization, as filed by the Secretary of State, shall be supplied to the bureau upon request. In the case of a manager-managed limited liability company, the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by a manager; otherwise, in the case of a member-managed limited liability company, the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by a duly authorized member of the applicant and by the qualified manager thereof. The application shall also state whether any of the members, managers, officers, or the qualified manager has ever used an alias.(j) Any other information, evidence, statements, or documents as may be required by the director.(k) At the discretion of the applicant, a valid email address.(l) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 82. Section 7525.1 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 12 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:7525.1. An application shall be verified and shall include:(a) The full name and business address of the applicant.(b) The name under which the applicant intends to do business.(c) A statement as to the general nature of the business in which the applicant intends to engage.(d) A verified statement of their experience qualifications.(e) (1) If the applicant is an individual, a qualified manager, a partner of a partnership, or an officer of a corporation designated in subdivision (h), one personal identification form provided by the bureau upon which shall appear a photograph taken within one year immediately preceding the date of the filing of the application together with two legible sets of fingerprints, one set of which shall be forwarded to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for purposes of a background check, on a form approved by the Department of Justice, and a personal description of each person, respectively. The identification form shall include residence addresses and employment history for the previous five years and be signed under penalty of perjury.(2) The bureau may impose a fee not to exceed three dollars ($3) for processing classifiable fingerprint cards submitted by applicants, excluding those submitted into an electronic fingerprint system using electronic fingerprint technology.(f) In addition, if the applicant for a license is an individual, the application shall list all other names known as or used during the past 10 years and shall state that the applicant is to be personally and actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought. If any other qualified manager is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by the applicant, under penalty of perjury. If any other person is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall also be subscribed, verified, and signed by that person under penalty of perjury.(g) If the applicants for a license are copartners, the application shall state the true names and addresses of all partners and the name of the partner to be actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought and list all other names known as or used during the past 10 years. If a qualified manager other than a partner is to be actively in charge of the business, then the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by all of the partners under penalty of perjury. If any other person is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall also be subscribed, verified, and signed under penalty of perjury by that person, by all of the partners and the qualified manager, or by all of the partners or the qualified manager.(h) If the applicant for a license is a corporation, the application shall state the true names and complete residence addresses of the chief executive officer, secretary, chief financial officer, and any other corporate officer who will be active in the business to be licensed. The application shall also state the name and address of the designated person to be actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought. The application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by a duly authorized officer of the applicant and by the qualified manager thereof, under penalty of perjury.(i) Any other information, evidence, statements, or documents as may be required by the director.(j) At the discretion of the applicant, a valid email address.(k) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024.SEC. 83. Section 7529 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 2 of Chapter 326 of the Statutes of 2019, is amended to read:7529. (a) (1) Upon the issuance of and with each biennial renewal of a license, a license in the form of an enhanced photo identification card of the size, design, and content as may be determined by the director or the directors designee shall be issued by the bureau to each licensee, as follows:(A) If the licensee is an individual, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to the licensee and to the licensees qualified manager.(B) If the licensee is a partnership, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to each partner of the partnership licensee active in the business and to the licensees qualified manager.(C) If the licensee is a corporation, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to each officer active in the business and to the licensees qualified manager.(D) If the licensee is a limited liability company, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to each member, officer, and manager of the licensee active in the business and to the licensees qualified manager.(2) The enhanced photo identification card is evidence that the licensee is licensed pursuant to this chapter. The card shall contain the name of the licensee, license expiration date, and a photograph of the licensee. The enhanced photo identification card shall clearly state that the person is licensed as a private investigator or is the qualified manager or officer of the licensee. The enhanced photo identification card is to be composed of a durable material and may incorporate technologically advanced security features. The bureau may recover its costs in an amount sufficient to reimburse the departments costs for furnishing the enhanced photo identification card. The fee charged shall not exceed the actual direct costs for system development, maintenance, and processing necessary to provide this service. The total amount of costs shall be recovered by including that amount in the fee charged for the initial application of and renewal of licensure. When the position, office, or association with a licensee belonging to a person to whom a card is issued is terminated, the person shall surrender the card to the licensee and, within five days thereafter, the licensee shall mail or deliver the card to the bureau for cancellation. Every person, while engaged in any activity for which licensure is required, shall display the persons valid enhanced photo identification card as provided by regulation. (b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 84. Section 7529 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 3 of Chapter 326 of the Statutes of 2019, is amended to read:7529. (a) Upon the issuance of and with each biennial renewal of a license, a license in the form of an enhanced photo identification card of the size, design, and content as may be determined by the director or the directors designee shall be issued by the bureau to each licensee, as follows:(1) If the licensee is an individual, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to the licensee and to the licensees qualified manager.(2) If the licensee is a partnership, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to each partner of the partnership licensee active in the business and to the licensees qualified manager.(3) If the licensee is a corporation, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to each officer active in the business and to the licensees qualified manager.(b) The enhanced photo identification card is evidence that the licensee is licensed pursuant to this chapter. The card shall contain the name of the licensee, license expiration date, and a photograph of the licensee. The enhanced photo identification card shall clearly state that the person is licensed as a private investigator or is the qualified manager or officer of the licensee. The enhanced photo identification card is to be composed of a durable material and may incorporate technologically advanced security features. The bureau may recover its costs in an amount sufficient to reimburse the departments costs for furnishing the enhanced photo identification card. The fee charged shall not exceed the actual direct costs for system development, maintenance, and processing necessary to provide this service. The total amount of costs shall be recovered by including that amount in the fee charged for the initial application of and renewal of licensure. When the position, office, or association with a licensee belonging to a person to whom a card is issued is terminated, the person shall surrender the card to the licensee and, within five days thereafter, the licensee shall mail or deliver the card to the bureau for cancellation. Every person, while engaged in any activity for which licensure is required, shall display the persons valid enhanced photo identification card as provided by regulation.(c) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024.SEC. 85. Section 7533.5 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 21 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:7533.5. (a) A licensee shall notify the bureau within 30 days of any change in its corporate officers required to be named pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 7525.1 or members or managers required to be named pursuant to subdivision (i) of Section 7525.1, and of any addition of a new partner.(b) Applications, on forms prescribed by the director, shall be submitted by all new officers, members or managers, and partners. The director may suspend or revoke a license issued under this chapter if the director determines that the new officer, member or manager, or partner of a licensee has committed any of the acts constituting grounds to deny an application for a license or to take disciplinary action against a licensee pursuant to Section 7538 or 7538.5, respectively.(c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 86. Section 7533.5 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 22 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:7533.5. (a) A licensee shall notify the bureau within 30 days of any change in its corporate officers required to be named pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 7525.1, and of any addition of a new partner.(b) Applications, on forms prescribed by the director, shall be submitted by all new officers and partners. The director may suspend or revoke a license issued under this chapter if the director determines that the new officer or partner of a licensee has committed any of the acts constituting grounds to deny an application for a license or to take disciplinary action against a licensee pursuant to Section 7538 or 7538.5, respectively.(c) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024.SEC. 87. Section 7538 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 25 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:7538. (a) After a hearing the director may deny a license unless the applicant makes a showing satisfactory to the director that the applicant, if an individual, and the applicants qualified manager have not, or, if the applicant is a person other than an individual, that its qualified manager and each of its officers, partners, members, or managers have not:(1) Committed any act that, if committed by a licensee, would be a ground for the suspension or revocation of a license under this chapter.(2) Committed any act constituting dishonesty or fraud.(3) Committed any act or crime constituting grounds for denial of licensure under Section 480, including illegally using, carrying, or possessing a deadly weapon.(4) Been refused a license under this chapter or had a license revoked.(5) Been an officer, partner, qualified manager, member, or manager of any person who has been refused a license under this chapter or whose license has been revoked.(6) While unlicensed committed, or aided and abetted the commission of, any act for which a license is required by this chapter.(7) Knowingly made any false statement in their application.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 88. Section 7538 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 26 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:7538. (a) After a hearing the director may deny a license unless the applicant makes a showing satisfactory to the director that the applicant, if an individual, and the applicants qualified manager have not, or, if the applicant is a person other than an individual, that its qualified manager and each of its officers and partners have not:(1) Committed any act that, if committed by a licensee, would be a ground for the suspension or revocation of a license under this chapter.(2) Committed any act constituting dishonesty or fraud.(3) Committed any act or crime constituting grounds for denial of licensure under Section 480, including illegally using, carrying, or possessing a deadly weapon.(4) Been refused a license under this chapter or had a license revoked.(5) Been an officer, partner, or qualified manager of any person who has been refused a license under this chapter or whose license has been revoked.(6) While unlicensed committed, or aided and abetted the commission of, any act for which a license is required by this chapter.(7) Knowingly made any false statement in their application.(b) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024.SEC. 89. Section 7538.5 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 27 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:7538.5. (a) The director may refuse to issue any license provided for in this chapter to any of the following:(1) An individual who has had any license revoked, has a license currently under suspension, or failed to renew their license while under suspension.(2) An individual who, while acting as a partner of a partnership, an officer or director of a corporation, or a member, manager, or officer of a limited liability company, had their license revoked, has a license currently under suspension, or failed to renew their license while under suspension.(3) An individual who, while acting as a partner of the partnership, an officer, director of the corporation, or a member, manager, or officer of a limited liability company meets both of the following conditions:(A) The individual was a partner of any partnership, an officer or director of any corporation, or a member, manager, or officer of any limited liability company whose license was revoked, is currently under suspension, or was not renewed while under suspension.(B) While acting as a partner, officer, director, member, or manager, they participated in any of the prohibited acts for which the license was revoked or suspended.(4) An individual who is serving or has served as the qualified manager for any licensee that has had its license revoked, is currently under suspension, or failed to renew while under suspension.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 90. Section 7538.5 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 8 of Chapter 92 of the Statutes of 2018, is amended to read:7538.5. (a) The director may refuse to issue any license provided for in this chapter to any of the following:(1) An individual who has had any license revoked, has a license currently under suspension, or failed to renew their license while under suspension.(2) An individual who, while acting as a partner of a partnership, or an officer or director of a corporation, had their license revoked, has a license currently under suspension, or failed to renew their license while under suspension.(3) An individual, who, while acting as a partner of the partnership, or an officer or director of the corporation, meets both of the following conditions:(A) The individual was a partner of any partnership, or an officer or director of any corporation, whose license was revoked, is currently under suspension, or was not renewed while under suspension.(B) The individual, while acting as a partner, officer, or director, participated in any of the prohibited acts for which the license was revoked or suspended.(4) An individual who is serving or has served as the qualified manager for any licensee that has had its license revoked, is currently under suspension, or failed to renew while under suspension.(b) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024.SEC. 91. Section 7539 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 29 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:7539. (a) Any licensee or officer, director, partner, member, manager, or qualified manager of a licensee may divulge to any law enforcement officer or district attorney, or their representative, any information they may acquire as to any criminal offense, but they shall not divulge to any other person, except as otherwise required by law, any information acquired by them except at the direction of the employer or client for whom the information was obtained.(b) A licensee or officer, director, partner, member, manager, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not knowingly make any false report to their employer or client for whom information was being obtained.(c) A written report shall not be submitted to a client except by the licensee, qualified manager, or a person authorized by one or either of them, and the person submitting the report shall exercise diligence in ascertaining whether or not the facts and information in the report are true and correct.(d) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, manager, member, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not use a badge in connection with the official activities of the licensees business.(e) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, manager, member, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee, shall not use a title, or wear a uniform, or use an insignia, or use an identification card, or make any statement with the intent to give an impression that they are connected in any way with the federal government, a state government, or any political subdivision of a state government.(f) A licensee, or officer, partner, manager, member, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not use any identification to indicate that they are licensed as a private investigator other than the official identification card issued by the bureau or the business card regularly used by the business. However, a licensee may issue an employer identification card.(g) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, manager, member, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee, shall not enter any private building or portion thereof, except premises commonly accessible to the public, without the consent of the owner or of the person in legal possession thereof.(h) A licensee shall not permit an employee or agent in their own name to advertise, engage clients, furnish reports or present bills to clients, or in any manner conduct business for which a license is required under this chapter. All business of the licensee shall be conducted in the name of and under the control of the licensee.(i) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, manager, member, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not knowingly and directly solicit employment from any person who has directly sustained bodily injury or from that persons spouse or other family member to obtain authorization on behalf of the injured person as an investigator to investigate the accident or act that resulted in injury or death to that person or damage to the property of that person. Nothing in this subdivision shall prohibit the soliciting of employment from that injured persons attorney, insurance company, self-insured administrator, insurance adjuster, employer, or any other person having an indirect interest in the investigation of the injury. This subdivision shall not apply to any business agent or attorney employed by a labor organization. A licensee, or officer, director, partner, manager, member, or qualified manager of a licensee shall not pay or compensate any of their employees or agents on the basis of a bonus, bounty, or quota system whereby a premium is placed on the number of employer or client rule violations or infractions purportedly discovered as a result of any investigation made by a licensee.(j) A licensee shall not use a fictitious business name in connection with the official activities of the licensees business, except as provided by the bureau.(k) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed.SEC. 92. Section 7539 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 9 of Chapter 92 of the Statutes of 2018, is amended to read:7539. (a) A licensee or officer, director, partner, or qualified manager of a licensee may divulge to any law enforcement officer or district attorney, or their representative, any information they may acquire as to any criminal offense, but they shall not divulge to any other person, except as otherwise required by law, any information acquired by them except at the direction of the employer or client for whom the information was obtained.(b) A licensee or officer, director, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not knowingly make any false report to their employer or client for whom information was being obtained.(c) A written report shall not be submitted to a client except by the licensee, qualified manager, or a person authorized by one or either of them, and the person submitting the report shall exercise diligence in ascertaining whether or not the facts and information in the report are true and correct.(d) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not use a badge in connection with the official activities of the licensees business.(e) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee, shall not use a title, or wear a uniform, or use an insignia, or use an identification card, or make any statement with the intent to give an impression that they are connected in any way with the federal government, a state government, or any political subdivision of a state government.(f) A licensee, or officer, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not use any identification to indicate that they are licensed as a private investigator other than the official identification card issued by the bureau or the business card regularly used by the business. However, a licensee may issue an employer identification card.(g) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee, shall not enter any private building or portion thereof, except premises commonly accessible to the public, without the consent of the owner or of the person in legal possession thereof.(h) A licensee shall not permit an employee or agent in their own name to advertise, engage clients, furnish reports or present bills to clients, or in any manner conduct business for which a license is required under this chapter. All business of the licensee shall be conducted in the name of and under the control of the licensee.(i) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee, shall not knowingly and directly solicit employment from any person who has directly sustained bodily injury or from that persons spouse or other family member to obtain authorization on behalf of the injured person as an investigator to investigate the accident or act that resulted in injury or death to that person or damage to the property of that person. This subdivision does not prohibit the soliciting of employment from that injured persons attorney, insurance company, self-insured administrator, insurance adjuster, employer, or any other person having an indirect interest in the investigation of the injury. This subdivision does not apply to any business agent or attorney employed by a labor organization. A licensee, officer, director, partner, or qualified manager of a licensee shall not pay or compensate any of their employees or agents on the basis of a bonus, bounty, or quota system whereby a premium is placed on the number of employer or client rule violations or infractions purportedly discovered as a result of any investigation made by a licensee.(j) A licensee shall not use a fictitious business name in connection with the official activities of the licensees business, except as provided by the bureau.(k) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024.SEC. 93. Section 8516 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:8516. (a) This section, and Section 8519, apply only to wood destroying pests or organisms.(b) A registered company or licensee shall not commence work on a contract, or sign, issue, or deliver any documents expressing an opinion or statement relating to the absence or presence of wood destroying pests or organisms until an inspection has been made by a licensed Branch 3 field representative or operator employed by a registered company, except as provided in Section 8519.5. The address of each property inspected or upon which work is completed shall be reported on a form prescribed by the board and shall be filed with the board no later than 10 business days after the commencement of an inspection or upon completed work.Every property inspected pursuant to this subdivision or Section 8518 shall be assessed a filing fee pursuant to Section 8674.Failure of a registered company to report and file with the board the address of any property inspected or work completed pursuant to Section 8518 or this section is grounds for disciplinary action and shall subject the registered company to a fine of not more than two thousand five hundred dollars ($2,500). The address of an inspection report prepared for use by an attorney for litigation purposes shall not be required to be reported to the board and shall not be assessed a filing fee.A written inspection report conforming to this section and a form approved by the board shall be prepared and delivered to the person requesting the inspection and the property owner, or to the property owners designated agent, within 10 business days from the start of the inspection, except that an inspection report prepared for use by an attorney for litigation purposes is not required to be reported to the board or the property owner. An inspection report may be a complete, limited, supplemental, or reinspection report, as defined by Section 1993 of Title 16 of the California Code of Regulations. The report shall be delivered before work is commenced on any property. The registered company shall retain for three years all inspection reports, field notes, and activity forms.Reports shall be made available for inspection and reproduction to the executive officer of the board or their duly authorized representative during business hours. All inspection reports or copies thereof shall be submitted to the board upon demand within two business days. The following shall be set forth in the report:(1) The start date of the inspection and the name of the licensed field representative or operator making the inspection.(2) The name and address of the person or firm ordering the report.(3) The name and address of the property owner and any person who is a party in interest.(4) The address or location of the property.(5) A general description of the building or premises inspected.(6) A foundation diagram or sketch of the structure or structures or portions of the structure or structures inspected, including the approximate location of any infested or infected areas evident, and the parts of the structure where conditions that would ordinarily subject those parts to attack by wood destroying pests or organisms exist. Reporting of the infested or infected wood members, or parts of the structure identified, shall be listed in the inspection report to clearly identify them, as is typical in standard construction components, including, but not limited to, siding, studs, rafters, floor joists, fascia, subfloor, sheathing, and trim boards.(7) Information regarding the substructure, foundation walls and footings, porches, patios and steps, air vents, abutments, attic spaces, roof framing that includes the eaves, rafters, fascias, exposed timbers, exposed sheathing, ceiling joists, and attic walls, or other parts subject to attack by wood destroying pests or organisms. Conditions usually deemed likely to lead to infestation or infection, such as earth-wood contacts, excessive cellulose debris, faulty grade levels, excessive moisture conditions, evidence of roof leaks, and insufficient ventilation are to be reported.(8) One of the following statements, as appropriate, printed in bold type:(A) The exterior surface of the roof was not inspected. If you want the water tightness of the roof determined, you should contact a roofing contractor who is licensed by the Contractors State License Board.(B) The exterior surface of the roof was inspected to determine whether or not wood destroying pests or organisms are present.(9) Indication or description of any areas that are inaccessible or not inspected with recommendation for further inspection if practicable. If, after the report has been made in compliance with this section, authority is given later to open inaccessible areas, a supplemental report on conditions in these areas shall be made.(10) Recommendations for corrective measures.(11) Information regarding the pesticide or pesticides to be used for their control or prevention as set forth in subdivision (a) of Section 8538.(12) The inspection report shall clearly disclose that if requested by the person ordering the original report, a reinspection of the structure will be performed if an estimate or bid for making repairs was given with the original inspection report, or thereafter.An estimate or bid shall be given separately allocating the costs to perform each and every recommendation for corrective measures as specified in subdivision (c) with the original inspection report if the person who ordered the original inspection report so requests, and if the registered company is regularly in the business of performing each corrective measure.If no estimate or bid was given with the original inspection report, or thereafter, then the registered company shall not be required to perform a reinspection.A reinspection shall be an inspection of those items previously listed on an original report to determine if the recommendations have been completed. Each reinspection shall be reported on an original inspection report form and shall be labeled Reinspection. Each reinspection shall also identify the original report by date.After four months from an original inspection, all inspections shall be original inspections and not reinspections.Any reinspection shall be performed for not more than the price of the registered companys original inspection price and shall be completed within 10 business days after a reinspection has been ordered.(13) The inspection report shall contain the following statement, printed in boldface type:NOTICE: Reports on this structure prepared by various registered companies should list the same findings (i.e. termite infestations, termite damage, fungus damage, etc.). However, recommendations to correct these findings may vary from company to company. You have a right to seek a second opinion from another company.(c) At the time a report is ordered, the registered company or licensee shall inform the person or entity ordering the report, that a separate report is available pursuant to this subdivision. If a separate report is requested at the time the inspection report is ordered, the registered company or licensee shall separately identify on the report each recommendation for corrective measures as follows:(1) The infestation or infection that is evident.(2) The conditions that are present that are deemed likely to lead to infestation or infection.If a registered company or licensee fails to inform as required by this subdivision and a dispute arises, or if any other dispute arises as to whether this subdivision has been complied with, a separate report shall be provided within 24 hours of the request but, in no event, later than the next business day, and at no additional cost.(d) When a corrective condition is identified, either as paragraph (1) or (2) of subdivision (c), and the property owner or the property owners designated agent chooses not to correct those conditions, the registered company or licensee shall not be liable for damages resulting from a failure to correct those conditions or subject to any disciplinary action by the board. Nothing in this subdivision, however, shall relieve a registered company or a licensee of any liability resulting from negligence, fraud, dishonest dealing, other violations pursuant to this chapter, or contractual obligations between the registered company or licensee and the responsible parties.(e) The inspection report form prescribed by the board shall separately identify the infestation or infection that is evident and the conditions that are present that are deemed likely to lead to infestation or infection. If a separate form is requested, the form shall explain the infestation or infection that is evident and the conditions that are present that are deemed likely to lead to infestation or infection and the difference between those conditions. In no event, however, shall conditions deemed likely to lead to infestation or infection be characterized as actual defects or as actual active infestations or infections or in need of correction as a precondition to issuing a certification pursuant to Section 8519.(f) The report and any contract entered into shall also state specifically when any guarantee for the work is made, and if so, the specific terms of the guarantee and the period of time for which the guarantee shall be in effect. If a guarantee extends beyond three years, the registered company shall maintain all original inspection reports, field notes, activity forms, and notices of completion for the duration of the guarantee period and for one year after the guarantee expires.(g) For purposes of this section, control service agreement means an agreement, including extended warranties, to have a licensee conduct over a period of time regular inspections and other activities related to the control or eradication of wood destroying pests and organisms. Under a control service agreement a registered company shall refer to the original report and contract in a manner as to identify them clearly, and the report shall be assumed to be a true report of conditions as originally issued, except it may be modified after a control service inspection. A registered company is not required to issue a report as outlined in paragraphs (1) to (11), inclusive, of subdivision (b) after each control service inspection. If after control service inspection, no modification of the original report is made in writing, then it will be assumed that conditions are as originally reported. A control service contract shall state specifically the particular wood destroying pests or organisms and the portions of the buildings or structures covered by the contract.(h) A registered company or licensee may enter into and maintain a control service agreement provided the following requirements are met:(1) The control service agreement shall be in writing, signed by both parties, and shall specifically include the following:(A) The wood destroying pests and organisms covered by the control service agreement.(B) Any wood destroying pest or organism that is not covered must be specifically listed.(C) The type and manner of treatment to be used to correct the infestations or infections.(D) The structures or buildings, or portions thereof, covered by the agreement, including a statement specifying whether the coverage for purposes of periodic inspections is limited or full. Any exclusions from those described in the original report must be specifically listed.(E) A reference to the original inspection report.(F) The frequency of the inspections to be provided, the fee to be charged for each renewal, and the duration of the agreement.(G) Whether the fee includes structural repairs.(H) If the services provided are guaranteed, and, if so, the terms of the guarantee.(I) A statement that all corrections of infestations or infections covered by the control service agreement shall be completed within six months of discovery, unless otherwise agreed to in writing by both parties.(2) The original inspection report, the control service agreement, and completion report shall be maintained for three years after the cancellation of the control service agreement.(3) Inspections made pursuant to a control service agreement shall be conducted by a Branch 3 licensee. Section 8506.1 does not modify this provision.(4) A full inspection of the property covered by the control service agreement shall be conducted and a report filed pursuant to subdivision (b) at least once every three years from the date that the agreement was entered into, unless the consumer cancels the contract within three years from the date the agreement was entered into.(5) Under a control service agreement, a written report shall be required for the correction of any infestation or infection unless all of the following conditions are met:(A) The infestation or infection has been previously reported.(B) The infestation or infection is covered by the control service agreement.(C) There is no additional charge for correcting the infestation or infection.(D) Correction of the infestation or infection takes place within 45 days of its discovery.(E) Correction of the infestation or infection does not include fumigation.(6) All notice requirements pursuant to Section 8538 shall apply to all pesticide treatments conducted under control service agreements.(i) All work recommended by a registered company, where an estimate or bid for making repairs was given with the original inspection report, or thereafter, shall be recorded on this report or a separate work agreement and shall specify a price for each recommendation. This information shall be provided to the person requesting the inspection, and shall be retained by the registered company with the inspection report copy for three years.SEC. 94. Section 10050 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:10050. (a) (1) There is in the Business, Consumer Services, and Housing Agency a Department of Real Estate, the chief officer of which department is named the Real Estate Commissioner.(2) Notwithstanding any other law, the powers and duties of the department, as set forth in this part and Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 11000) of Part 2, shall be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. The review shall be performed as if this part and that chapter were scheduled to be repealed as of January 1, 2022.(b) It shall be the principal responsibility of the commissioner to enforce all laws in this part and Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 11000) of Part 2 in a manner that achieves the maximum protection for the buyers of real property and those persons dealing with real estate licensees.(c) Wherever the term commissioner is used in this division, it means the Real Estate Commissioner.(d) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2018.SEC. 95. Section 11301 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:11301. (a) (1) There is hereby created within the Department of Consumer Affairs a Bureau of Real Estate Appraisers to administer and enforce this part.(2) Notwithstanding any other law, the powers and duties of the bureau, as set forth in this part, shall be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. The review shall be performed as if this part were scheduled to be repealed as of January 1, 2022.(b) Whenever the term Office of Real Estate Appraisers appears in any other law, it means the Bureau of Real Estate Appraisers.SEC. 96. Section 16100 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:16100. (a) The board of supervisors may in the exercise of its police powers, and for the purpose of regulation, as herein provided, and not otherwise, license any kind of business not prohibited by law, transacted and carried on within the limits of its jurisdiction, including all shows, exhibitions, and lawful games, and may fix the rate of the license fee and provide for its collection by suit or otherwise.(b) No license fee levied pursuant to subdivision (a) that is measured by the licensees income or gross receipts, whether levied by a charter or general law county, shall apply to any nonprofit organization that is exempted from taxes by Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 23701) of Part 11 of Division 2 of the Revenue and Taxation Code or Subchapter F (commencing with Section 501) of Chapter 1 of Subtitle A of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, or the successor of either, or to any minister, clergyman, Christian Science practitioner, rabbi, or priest of any religious organization that has been granted an exemption from federal income tax by the United States Commissioner of Internal Revenue as an organization described in Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code or a successor to that section.(c) Before a county issues a business license to a person to conduct business as a contractor, as defined by Section 7026, the county shall verify that the person is licensed by the Contractors State License Board.SEC. 97. Section 19164 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:19164. The bureau may, by regulation, establish insulation material standards governing the quality of all insulation material sold or installed within this state, including those properties that affect the safety and thermal performance of insulation material during application and in the use intended. The standards shall specify the initial performance of the insulation material and the performance expected during the design life of the insulation material. Until the bureau has adopted these regulations, the regulations of the State Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission in effect on the effective date of this section relating to those standards shall remain in full force and effect. However, wherever those regulations specify that the commission shall perform an act, the bureau instead shall perform the act.Prior to establishing the standards and procedures required by this chapter, the bureau shall conduct at least two public hearings, and shall invite the State Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission, the State Fire Marshal, manufacturers, distributors, and licensed installers of insulation materials, and appropriate members of the public to participate in the hearings. Immediately upon adoption of the standards and procedures, the bureau shall provide a copy of the standards to the State Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission, and the Contractors State License Board. Within 30 days after receipt of the bureaus standards, the Contractors State License Board shall notify all state licensed contractors who install insulation of the standards.Insulation standards adopted by the bureau, pursuant to this section, and by the State Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission, pursuant to Section 25402 of the Public Resources Code, which are building standards, as defined in Section 25488.5 of the Public Resources Code, shall be submitted to the California Building Standards Commission for approval pursuant to, and are governed by, the California Building Standards Law (Part 2.5 (commencing with Section 18901) of Division 13 of the Health and Safety Code). The building standards adopted by the bureau and published in the California Building Standards Code shall comply with, and be enforced as provided in, this section.SEC. 98. Section 1670.8.5 is added to the Civil Code, to read:1670.8.5. (a) A contract or proposed contract for the provision of a consumer service by a licensee regulated by a licensing board shall not include a provision limiting the consumers ability to file a complaint with that board or to participate in the boards investigation into the licensee.(b) Any waiver of the provisions of this section is contrary to public policy, and is void and unenforceable.(c) For purposes of this section, the following terms apply:(1) Consumer service means any service that is obtained for use primarily for personal, family, or household purposes.(2) Licensing board means any entity described in Section 101 of the Business and Professions Code, the State Bar of California, the Department of Real Estate, or any other state agency that issues a license, certificate, or registration authorizing a person to engage in a business or profession.(d) Violation of this section by a licensee shall constitute unprofessional conduct subject to discipline by the licensees licensing board.SEC. 99. Section 94950 of the Education Code is amended to read:94950. This chapter shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. SEC. 100. Section 8.5 of this bill incorporates amendments to Section 205 of the Business and Professions Code, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 865 of the Statutes of 2019, proposed by this bill and Assembly Bill 896. That section of this bill shall only become operative if (1) both bills are enacted and become effective on or before January 1, 2021, (2) each bill amends Section 205 of the Business and Professions Code, and (3) this bill is enacted after Assembly Bill 896, in which case Section 205 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Assembly Bill 896, shall remain operative only until the operative date of this bill, at which time Section 8.5 of this bill shall become operative, and Section 8 of this bill shall not become operative.SEC. 101. Section 16.5 of this bill incorporates amendments to Section 2113 of the Business and Professions Code proposed by both this bill and Assembly Bill 2273. That section of this bill shall only become operative if (1) both bills are enacted and become effective on or before January 1, 2021, (2) each bill amends Section 2113 of the Business and Professions Code, and (3) this bill is enacted after Assembly Bill 2273, in which case Section 16 of this bill shall not become operative.SEC. 102. Section 73.5 of this bill incorporates amendments to Section 7159 of the Business and Professions Code proposed by both this bill and Assembly Bill 2471. That section of this bill shall only become operative if (1) both bills are enacted and become effective on or before January 1, 2021, (2) each bill amends Section 7159 of the Business and Professions Code, and (3) this bill is enacted after Assembly Bill 2471, in which case Section 73 of this bill shall not become operative.SEC. 103. No reimbursement is required by this act pursuant to Section 6 of Article XIIIB of the California Constitution because the only costs that may be incurred by a local agency or school district will be incurred because this act creates a new crime or infraction, eliminates a crime or infraction, or changes the penalty for a crime or infraction, within the meaning of Section 17556 of the Government Code, or changes the definition of a crime within the meaning of Section 6 of Article XIIIB of the California Constitution. |
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| 126 | 141 | | |
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| 127 | 142 | | The people of the State of California do enact as follows: |
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| 128 | 143 | | |
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| 129 | 144 | | ## The people of the State of California do enact as follows: |
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| 130 | 145 | | |
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| 131 | 146 | | SECTION 1. Section 27 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:27. (a) Each entity specified in subdivisions (c), (d), and (e) shall provide on the internet information regarding the status of every license issued by that entity in accordance with the California Public Records Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code) and the Information Practices Act of 1977 (Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 1798) of Title 1.8 of Part 4 of Division 3 of the Civil Code). The public information to be provided on the internet shall include information on suspensions and revocations of licenses issued by the entity and other related enforcement action, including accusations filed pursuant to the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code) taken by the entity relative to persons, businesses, or facilities subject to licensure or regulation by the entity. The information may not include personal information, including home telephone number, date of birth, or social security number. Each entity shall disclose a licensees address of record. However, each entity shall allow a licensee to provide a post office box number or other alternate address, instead of the licensees home address, as the address of record. This section shall not preclude an entity from also requiring a licensee, who has provided a post office box number or other alternative mailing address as the licensees address of record, to provide a physical business address or residence address only for the entitys internal administrative use and not for disclosure as the licensees address of record or disclosure on the internet.(b) In providing information on the internet, each entity specified in subdivisions (c) and (d) shall comply with the Department of Consumer Affairs guidelines for access to public records.(c) Each of the following entities within the Department of Consumer Affairs shall comply with the requirements of this section:(1) The Board for Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists shall disclose information on its registrants and licensees.(2) The Bureau of Automotive Repair shall disclose information on its licensees, including auto repair dealers, smog stations, lamp and brake stations, smog check technicians, and smog inspection certification stations.(3) The Bureau of Household Goods and Services shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants, including major appliance repair dealers, combination dealers (electronic and appliance), electronic repair dealers, service contract sellers, service contract administrators, and household movers.(4) The Cemetery and Funeral Bureau shall disclose information on its licensees, including cemetery brokers, cemetery salespersons, cemetery managers, crematory managers, cemetery authorities, crematories, cremated remains disposers, embalmers, funeral establishments, and funeral directors.(5) The Professional Fiduciaries Bureau shall disclose information on its licensees.(6) The Contractors State License Board shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants in accordance with Chapter 9 (commencing with Section 7000) of Division 3. In addition to information related to licenses as specified in subdivision (a), the board shall also disclose information provided to the board by the Labor Commissioner pursuant to Section 98.9 of the Labor Code.(7) The Bureau for Private Postsecondary Education shall disclose information on private postsecondary institutions under its jurisdiction, including disclosure of notices to comply issued pursuant to Section 94935 of the Education Code.(8) The California Board of Accountancy shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants.(9) The California Architects Board shall disclose information on its licensees, including architects and landscape architects.(10) The State Athletic Commission shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants.(11) The State Board of Barbering and Cosmetology shall disclose information on its licensees.(12) The Acupuncture Board shall disclose information on its licensees.(13) The Board of Behavioral Sciences shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants.(14) The Dental Board of California shall disclose information on its licensees.(15) The State Board of Optometry shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants.(16) The Board of Psychology shall disclose information on its licensees, including psychologists, psychological assistants, and registered psychologists.(17) The Veterinary Medical Board shall disclose information on its licensees, registrants, and permitholders.(d) The State Board of Chiropractic Examiners shall disclose information on its licensees.(e) The Structural Pest Control Board shall disclose information on its licensees, including applicators, field representatives, and operators in the areas of fumigation, general pest and wood destroying pests and organisms, and wood roof cleaning and treatment.(f) The Bureau of Cannabis Control shall disclose information on its licensees.(g) Internet for the purposes of this section has the meaning set forth in paragraph (6) of subdivision (f) of Section 17538. |
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| 132 | 147 | | |
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| 133 | 148 | | SECTION 1. Section 27 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
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| 134 | 149 | | |
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| 135 | 150 | | ### SECTION 1. |
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| 136 | 151 | | |
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| 137 | 152 | | 27. (a) Each entity specified in subdivisions (c), (d), and (e) shall provide on the internet information regarding the status of every license issued by that entity in accordance with the California Public Records Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code) and the Information Practices Act of 1977 (Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 1798) of Title 1.8 of Part 4 of Division 3 of the Civil Code). The public information to be provided on the internet shall include information on suspensions and revocations of licenses issued by the entity and other related enforcement action, including accusations filed pursuant to the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code) taken by the entity relative to persons, businesses, or facilities subject to licensure or regulation by the entity. The information may not include personal information, including home telephone number, date of birth, or social security number. Each entity shall disclose a licensees address of record. However, each entity shall allow a licensee to provide a post office box number or other alternate address, instead of the licensees home address, as the address of record. This section shall not preclude an entity from also requiring a licensee, who has provided a post office box number or other alternative mailing address as the licensees address of record, to provide a physical business address or residence address only for the entitys internal administrative use and not for disclosure as the licensees address of record or disclosure on the internet.(b) In providing information on the internet, each entity specified in subdivisions (c) and (d) shall comply with the Department of Consumer Affairs guidelines for access to public records.(c) Each of the following entities within the Department of Consumer Affairs shall comply with the requirements of this section:(1) The Board for Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists shall disclose information on its registrants and licensees.(2) The Bureau of Automotive Repair shall disclose information on its licensees, including auto repair dealers, smog stations, lamp and brake stations, smog check technicians, and smog inspection certification stations.(3) The Bureau of Household Goods and Services shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants, including major appliance repair dealers, combination dealers (electronic and appliance), electronic repair dealers, service contract sellers, service contract administrators, and household movers.(4) The Cemetery and Funeral Bureau shall disclose information on its licensees, including cemetery brokers, cemetery salespersons, cemetery managers, crematory managers, cemetery authorities, crematories, cremated remains disposers, embalmers, funeral establishments, and funeral directors.(5) The Professional Fiduciaries Bureau shall disclose information on its licensees.(6) The Contractors State License Board shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants in accordance with Chapter 9 (commencing with Section 7000) of Division 3. In addition to information related to licenses as specified in subdivision (a), the board shall also disclose information provided to the board by the Labor Commissioner pursuant to Section 98.9 of the Labor Code.(7) The Bureau for Private Postsecondary Education shall disclose information on private postsecondary institutions under its jurisdiction, including disclosure of notices to comply issued pursuant to Section 94935 of the Education Code.(8) The California Board of Accountancy shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants.(9) The California Architects Board shall disclose information on its licensees, including architects and landscape architects.(10) The State Athletic Commission shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants.(11) The State Board of Barbering and Cosmetology shall disclose information on its licensees.(12) The Acupuncture Board shall disclose information on its licensees.(13) The Board of Behavioral Sciences shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants.(14) The Dental Board of California shall disclose information on its licensees.(15) The State Board of Optometry shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants.(16) The Board of Psychology shall disclose information on its licensees, including psychologists, psychological assistants, and registered psychologists.(17) The Veterinary Medical Board shall disclose information on its licensees, registrants, and permitholders.(d) The State Board of Chiropractic Examiners shall disclose information on its licensees.(e) The Structural Pest Control Board shall disclose information on its licensees, including applicators, field representatives, and operators in the areas of fumigation, general pest and wood destroying pests and organisms, and wood roof cleaning and treatment.(f) The Bureau of Cannabis Control shall disclose information on its licensees.(g) Internet for the purposes of this section has the meaning set forth in paragraph (6) of subdivision (f) of Section 17538. |
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| 138 | 153 | | |
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| 139 | 154 | | 27. (a) Each entity specified in subdivisions (c), (d), and (e) shall provide on the internet information regarding the status of every license issued by that entity in accordance with the California Public Records Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code) and the Information Practices Act of 1977 (Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 1798) of Title 1.8 of Part 4 of Division 3 of the Civil Code). The public information to be provided on the internet shall include information on suspensions and revocations of licenses issued by the entity and other related enforcement action, including accusations filed pursuant to the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code) taken by the entity relative to persons, businesses, or facilities subject to licensure or regulation by the entity. The information may not include personal information, including home telephone number, date of birth, or social security number. Each entity shall disclose a licensees address of record. However, each entity shall allow a licensee to provide a post office box number or other alternate address, instead of the licensees home address, as the address of record. This section shall not preclude an entity from also requiring a licensee, who has provided a post office box number or other alternative mailing address as the licensees address of record, to provide a physical business address or residence address only for the entitys internal administrative use and not for disclosure as the licensees address of record or disclosure on the internet.(b) In providing information on the internet, each entity specified in subdivisions (c) and (d) shall comply with the Department of Consumer Affairs guidelines for access to public records.(c) Each of the following entities within the Department of Consumer Affairs shall comply with the requirements of this section:(1) The Board for Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists shall disclose information on its registrants and licensees.(2) The Bureau of Automotive Repair shall disclose information on its licensees, including auto repair dealers, smog stations, lamp and brake stations, smog check technicians, and smog inspection certification stations.(3) The Bureau of Household Goods and Services shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants, including major appliance repair dealers, combination dealers (electronic and appliance), electronic repair dealers, service contract sellers, service contract administrators, and household movers.(4) The Cemetery and Funeral Bureau shall disclose information on its licensees, including cemetery brokers, cemetery salespersons, cemetery managers, crematory managers, cemetery authorities, crematories, cremated remains disposers, embalmers, funeral establishments, and funeral directors.(5) The Professional Fiduciaries Bureau shall disclose information on its licensees.(6) The Contractors State License Board shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants in accordance with Chapter 9 (commencing with Section 7000) of Division 3. In addition to information related to licenses as specified in subdivision (a), the board shall also disclose information provided to the board by the Labor Commissioner pursuant to Section 98.9 of the Labor Code.(7) The Bureau for Private Postsecondary Education shall disclose information on private postsecondary institutions under its jurisdiction, including disclosure of notices to comply issued pursuant to Section 94935 of the Education Code.(8) The California Board of Accountancy shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants.(9) The California Architects Board shall disclose information on its licensees, including architects and landscape architects.(10) The State Athletic Commission shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants.(11) The State Board of Barbering and Cosmetology shall disclose information on its licensees.(12) The Acupuncture Board shall disclose information on its licensees.(13) The Board of Behavioral Sciences shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants.(14) The Dental Board of California shall disclose information on its licensees.(15) The State Board of Optometry shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants.(16) The Board of Psychology shall disclose information on its licensees, including psychologists, psychological assistants, and registered psychologists.(17) The Veterinary Medical Board shall disclose information on its licensees, registrants, and permitholders.(d) The State Board of Chiropractic Examiners shall disclose information on its licensees.(e) The Structural Pest Control Board shall disclose information on its licensees, including applicators, field representatives, and operators in the areas of fumigation, general pest and wood destroying pests and organisms, and wood roof cleaning and treatment.(f) The Bureau of Cannabis Control shall disclose information on its licensees.(g) Internet for the purposes of this section has the meaning set forth in paragraph (6) of subdivision (f) of Section 17538. |
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| 140 | 155 | | |
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| 141 | 156 | | 27. (a) Each entity specified in subdivisions (c), (d), and (e) shall provide on the internet information regarding the status of every license issued by that entity in accordance with the California Public Records Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code) and the Information Practices Act of 1977 (Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 1798) of Title 1.8 of Part 4 of Division 3 of the Civil Code). The public information to be provided on the internet shall include information on suspensions and revocations of licenses issued by the entity and other related enforcement action, including accusations filed pursuant to the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code) taken by the entity relative to persons, businesses, or facilities subject to licensure or regulation by the entity. The information may not include personal information, including home telephone number, date of birth, or social security number. Each entity shall disclose a licensees address of record. However, each entity shall allow a licensee to provide a post office box number or other alternate address, instead of the licensees home address, as the address of record. This section shall not preclude an entity from also requiring a licensee, who has provided a post office box number or other alternative mailing address as the licensees address of record, to provide a physical business address or residence address only for the entitys internal administrative use and not for disclosure as the licensees address of record or disclosure on the internet.(b) In providing information on the internet, each entity specified in subdivisions (c) and (d) shall comply with the Department of Consumer Affairs guidelines for access to public records.(c) Each of the following entities within the Department of Consumer Affairs shall comply with the requirements of this section:(1) The Board for Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists shall disclose information on its registrants and licensees.(2) The Bureau of Automotive Repair shall disclose information on its licensees, including auto repair dealers, smog stations, lamp and brake stations, smog check technicians, and smog inspection certification stations.(3) The Bureau of Household Goods and Services shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants, including major appliance repair dealers, combination dealers (electronic and appliance), electronic repair dealers, service contract sellers, service contract administrators, and household movers.(4) The Cemetery and Funeral Bureau shall disclose information on its licensees, including cemetery brokers, cemetery salespersons, cemetery managers, crematory managers, cemetery authorities, crematories, cremated remains disposers, embalmers, funeral establishments, and funeral directors.(5) The Professional Fiduciaries Bureau shall disclose information on its licensees.(6) The Contractors State License Board shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants in accordance with Chapter 9 (commencing with Section 7000) of Division 3. In addition to information related to licenses as specified in subdivision (a), the board shall also disclose information provided to the board by the Labor Commissioner pursuant to Section 98.9 of the Labor Code.(7) The Bureau for Private Postsecondary Education shall disclose information on private postsecondary institutions under its jurisdiction, including disclosure of notices to comply issued pursuant to Section 94935 of the Education Code.(8) The California Board of Accountancy shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants.(9) The California Architects Board shall disclose information on its licensees, including architects and landscape architects.(10) The State Athletic Commission shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants.(11) The State Board of Barbering and Cosmetology shall disclose information on its licensees.(12) The Acupuncture Board shall disclose information on its licensees.(13) The Board of Behavioral Sciences shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants.(14) The Dental Board of California shall disclose information on its licensees.(15) The State Board of Optometry shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants.(16) The Board of Psychology shall disclose information on its licensees, including psychologists, psychological assistants, and registered psychologists.(17) The Veterinary Medical Board shall disclose information on its licensees, registrants, and permitholders.(d) The State Board of Chiropractic Examiners shall disclose information on its licensees.(e) The Structural Pest Control Board shall disclose information on its licensees, including applicators, field representatives, and operators in the areas of fumigation, general pest and wood destroying pests and organisms, and wood roof cleaning and treatment.(f) The Bureau of Cannabis Control shall disclose information on its licensees.(g) Internet for the purposes of this section has the meaning set forth in paragraph (6) of subdivision (f) of Section 17538. |
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| 142 | 157 | | |
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| 143 | 158 | | |
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| 144 | 159 | | |
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| 145 | 160 | | 27. (a) Each entity specified in subdivisions (c), (d), and (e) shall provide on the internet information regarding the status of every license issued by that entity in accordance with the California Public Records Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code) and the Information Practices Act of 1977 (Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 1798) of Title 1.8 of Part 4 of Division 3 of the Civil Code). The public information to be provided on the internet shall include information on suspensions and revocations of licenses issued by the entity and other related enforcement action, including accusations filed pursuant to the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code) taken by the entity relative to persons, businesses, or facilities subject to licensure or regulation by the entity. The information may not include personal information, including home telephone number, date of birth, or social security number. Each entity shall disclose a licensees address of record. However, each entity shall allow a licensee to provide a post office box number or other alternate address, instead of the licensees home address, as the address of record. This section shall not preclude an entity from also requiring a licensee, who has provided a post office box number or other alternative mailing address as the licensees address of record, to provide a physical business address or residence address only for the entitys internal administrative use and not for disclosure as the licensees address of record or disclosure on the internet. |
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| 146 | 161 | | |
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| 147 | 162 | | (b) In providing information on the internet, each entity specified in subdivisions (c) and (d) shall comply with the Department of Consumer Affairs guidelines for access to public records. |
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| 148 | 163 | | |
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| 149 | 164 | | (c) Each of the following entities within the Department of Consumer Affairs shall comply with the requirements of this section: |
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| 150 | 165 | | |
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| 151 | 166 | | (1) The Board for Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists shall disclose information on its registrants and licensees. |
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| 152 | 167 | | |
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| 153 | 168 | | (2) The Bureau of Automotive Repair shall disclose information on its licensees, including auto repair dealers, smog stations, lamp and brake stations, smog check technicians, and smog inspection certification stations. |
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| 154 | 169 | | |
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| 155 | 170 | | (3) The Bureau of Household Goods and Services shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants, including major appliance repair dealers, combination dealers (electronic and appliance), electronic repair dealers, service contract sellers, service contract administrators, and household movers. |
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| 156 | 171 | | |
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| 157 | 172 | | (4) The Cemetery and Funeral Bureau shall disclose information on its licensees, including cemetery brokers, cemetery salespersons, cemetery managers, crematory managers, cemetery authorities, crematories, cremated remains disposers, embalmers, funeral establishments, and funeral directors. |
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| 158 | 173 | | |
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| 159 | 174 | | (5) The Professional Fiduciaries Bureau shall disclose information on its licensees. |
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| 160 | 175 | | |
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| 161 | 176 | | (6) The Contractors State License Board shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants in accordance with Chapter 9 (commencing with Section 7000) of Division 3. In addition to information related to licenses as specified in subdivision (a), the board shall also disclose information provided to the board by the Labor Commissioner pursuant to Section 98.9 of the Labor Code. |
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| 162 | 177 | | |
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| 163 | 178 | | (7) The Bureau for Private Postsecondary Education shall disclose information on private postsecondary institutions under its jurisdiction, including disclosure of notices to comply issued pursuant to Section 94935 of the Education Code. |
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| 164 | 179 | | |
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| 165 | 180 | | (8) The California Board of Accountancy shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants. |
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| 166 | 181 | | |
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| 167 | 182 | | (9) The California Architects Board shall disclose information on its licensees, including architects and landscape architects. |
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| 168 | 183 | | |
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| 169 | 184 | | (10) The State Athletic Commission shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants. |
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| 170 | 185 | | |
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| 171 | 186 | | (11) The State Board of Barbering and Cosmetology shall disclose information on its licensees. |
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| 172 | 187 | | |
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| 173 | 188 | | (12) The Acupuncture Board shall disclose information on its licensees. |
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| 174 | 189 | | |
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| 175 | 190 | | (13) The Board of Behavioral Sciences shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants. |
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| 176 | 191 | | |
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| 177 | 192 | | (14) The Dental Board of California shall disclose information on its licensees. |
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| 178 | 193 | | |
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| 179 | 194 | | (15) The State Board of Optometry shall disclose information on its licensees and registrants. |
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| 180 | 195 | | |
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| 181 | 196 | | (16) The Board of Psychology shall disclose information on its licensees, including psychologists, psychological assistants, and registered psychologists. |
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| 182 | 197 | | |
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| 183 | 198 | | (17) The Veterinary Medical Board shall disclose information on its licensees, registrants, and permitholders. |
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| 184 | 199 | | |
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| 185 | 200 | | (d) The State Board of Chiropractic Examiners shall disclose information on its licensees. |
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| 186 | 201 | | |
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| 187 | 202 | | (e) The Structural Pest Control Board shall disclose information on its licensees, including applicators, field representatives, and operators in the areas of fumigation, general pest and wood destroying pests and organisms, and wood roof cleaning and treatment. |
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| 188 | 203 | | |
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| 189 | 204 | | (f) The Bureau of Cannabis Control shall disclose information on its licensees. |
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| 190 | 205 | | |
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| 191 | 206 | | (g) Internet for the purposes of this section has the meaning set forth in paragraph (6) of subdivision (f) of Section 17538. |
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| 192 | 207 | | |
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| 193 | 208 | | SEC. 2. Section 101 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:101. The department is comprised of the following:(a) The Dental Board of California.(b) The Medical Board of California.(c) The State Board of Optometry.(d) The California State Board of Pharmacy.(e) The Veterinary Medical Board.(f) The California Board of Accountancy.(g) The California Architects Board.(h) The State Board of Barbering and Cosmetology.(i) The Board for Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists.(j) The Contractors State License Board.(k) The Bureau for Private Postsecondary Education.(l) The Bureau of Household Goods and Services.(m) The Board of Registered Nursing.(n) The Board of Behavioral Sciences.(o) The State Athletic Commission.(p) The Cemetery and Funeral Bureau.(q) The Bureau of Security and Investigative Services.(r) The Court Reporters Board of California.(s) The Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians.(t) The Landscape Architects Technical Committee.(u) The Division of Investigation.(v) The Bureau of Automotive Repair.(w) The Respiratory Care Board of California.(x) The Acupuncture Board.(y) The Board of Psychology.(z) The Podiatric Medical Board of California.(aa) The Physical Therapy Board of California.(ab) The Arbitration Review Program.(ac) The Physician Assistant Board.(ad) The Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board.(ae) The California Board of Occupational Therapy.(af) The Osteopathic Medical Board of California.(ag) The Naturopathic Medicine Committee.(ah) The Dental Hygiene Board of California.(ai) The Professional Fiduciaries Bureau.(aj) The State Board of Chiropractic Examiners.(ak) The Bureau of Real Estate Appraisers.(al) The Structural Pest Control Board.(am) The Bureau of Cannabis Control.(an) Any other boards, offices, or officers subject to its jurisdiction by law.(ao) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2018. |
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| 194 | 209 | | |
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| 195 | 210 | | SEC. 2. Section 101 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
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| 196 | 211 | | |
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| 197 | 212 | | ### SEC. 2. |
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| 198 | 213 | | |
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| 199 | 214 | | 101. The department is comprised of the following:(a) The Dental Board of California.(b) The Medical Board of California.(c) The State Board of Optometry.(d) The California State Board of Pharmacy.(e) The Veterinary Medical Board.(f) The California Board of Accountancy.(g) The California Architects Board.(h) The State Board of Barbering and Cosmetology.(i) The Board for Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists.(j) The Contractors State License Board.(k) The Bureau for Private Postsecondary Education.(l) The Bureau of Household Goods and Services.(m) The Board of Registered Nursing.(n) The Board of Behavioral Sciences.(o) The State Athletic Commission.(p) The Cemetery and Funeral Bureau.(q) The Bureau of Security and Investigative Services.(r) The Court Reporters Board of California.(s) The Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians.(t) The Landscape Architects Technical Committee.(u) The Division of Investigation.(v) The Bureau of Automotive Repair.(w) The Respiratory Care Board of California.(x) The Acupuncture Board.(y) The Board of Psychology.(z) The Podiatric Medical Board of California.(aa) The Physical Therapy Board of California.(ab) The Arbitration Review Program.(ac) The Physician Assistant Board.(ad) The Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board.(ae) The California Board of Occupational Therapy.(af) The Osteopathic Medical Board of California.(ag) The Naturopathic Medicine Committee.(ah) The Dental Hygiene Board of California.(ai) The Professional Fiduciaries Bureau.(aj) The State Board of Chiropractic Examiners.(ak) The Bureau of Real Estate Appraisers.(al) The Structural Pest Control Board.(am) The Bureau of Cannabis Control.(an) Any other boards, offices, or officers subject to its jurisdiction by law.(ao) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2018. |
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| 200 | 215 | | |
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| 201 | 216 | | 101. The department is comprised of the following:(a) The Dental Board of California.(b) The Medical Board of California.(c) The State Board of Optometry.(d) The California State Board of Pharmacy.(e) The Veterinary Medical Board.(f) The California Board of Accountancy.(g) The California Architects Board.(h) The State Board of Barbering and Cosmetology.(i) The Board for Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists.(j) The Contractors State License Board.(k) The Bureau for Private Postsecondary Education.(l) The Bureau of Household Goods and Services.(m) The Board of Registered Nursing.(n) The Board of Behavioral Sciences.(o) The State Athletic Commission.(p) The Cemetery and Funeral Bureau.(q) The Bureau of Security and Investigative Services.(r) The Court Reporters Board of California.(s) The Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians.(t) The Landscape Architects Technical Committee.(u) The Division of Investigation.(v) The Bureau of Automotive Repair.(w) The Respiratory Care Board of California.(x) The Acupuncture Board.(y) The Board of Psychology.(z) The Podiatric Medical Board of California.(aa) The Physical Therapy Board of California.(ab) The Arbitration Review Program.(ac) The Physician Assistant Board.(ad) The Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board.(ae) The California Board of Occupational Therapy.(af) The Osteopathic Medical Board of California.(ag) The Naturopathic Medicine Committee.(ah) The Dental Hygiene Board of California.(ai) The Professional Fiduciaries Bureau.(aj) The State Board of Chiropractic Examiners.(ak) The Bureau of Real Estate Appraisers.(al) The Structural Pest Control Board.(am) The Bureau of Cannabis Control.(an) Any other boards, offices, or officers subject to its jurisdiction by law.(ao) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2018. |
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| 202 | 217 | | |
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| 203 | 218 | | 101. The department is comprised of the following:(a) The Dental Board of California.(b) The Medical Board of California.(c) The State Board of Optometry.(d) The California State Board of Pharmacy.(e) The Veterinary Medical Board.(f) The California Board of Accountancy.(g) The California Architects Board.(h) The State Board of Barbering and Cosmetology.(i) The Board for Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists.(j) The Contractors State License Board.(k) The Bureau for Private Postsecondary Education.(l) The Bureau of Household Goods and Services.(m) The Board of Registered Nursing.(n) The Board of Behavioral Sciences.(o) The State Athletic Commission.(p) The Cemetery and Funeral Bureau.(q) The Bureau of Security and Investigative Services.(r) The Court Reporters Board of California.(s) The Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians.(t) The Landscape Architects Technical Committee.(u) The Division of Investigation.(v) The Bureau of Automotive Repair.(w) The Respiratory Care Board of California.(x) The Acupuncture Board.(y) The Board of Psychology.(z) The Podiatric Medical Board of California.(aa) The Physical Therapy Board of California.(ab) The Arbitration Review Program.(ac) The Physician Assistant Board.(ad) The Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board.(ae) The California Board of Occupational Therapy.(af) The Osteopathic Medical Board of California.(ag) The Naturopathic Medicine Committee.(ah) The Dental Hygiene Board of California.(ai) The Professional Fiduciaries Bureau.(aj) The State Board of Chiropractic Examiners.(ak) The Bureau of Real Estate Appraisers.(al) The Structural Pest Control Board.(am) The Bureau of Cannabis Control.(an) Any other boards, offices, or officers subject to its jurisdiction by law.(ao) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2018. |
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| 204 | 219 | | |
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| 205 | 220 | | |
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| 206 | 221 | | |
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| 207 | 222 | | 101. The department is comprised of the following: |
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| 208 | 223 | | |
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| 209 | 224 | | (a) The Dental Board of California. |
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| 210 | 225 | | |
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| 211 | 226 | | (b) The Medical Board of California. |
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| 212 | 227 | | |
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| 213 | 228 | | (c) The State Board of Optometry. |
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| 214 | 229 | | |
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| 215 | 230 | | (d) The California State Board of Pharmacy. |
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| 216 | 231 | | |
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| 217 | 232 | | (e) The Veterinary Medical Board. |
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| 218 | 233 | | |
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| 219 | 234 | | (f) The California Board of Accountancy. |
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| 220 | 235 | | |
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| 221 | 236 | | (g) The California Architects Board. |
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| 222 | 237 | | |
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| 223 | 238 | | (h) The State Board of Barbering and Cosmetology. |
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| 224 | 239 | | |
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| 225 | 240 | | (i) The Board for Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists. |
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| 226 | 241 | | |
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| 227 | 242 | | (j) The Contractors State License Board. |
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| 228 | 243 | | |
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| 229 | 244 | | (k) The Bureau for Private Postsecondary Education. |
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| 230 | 245 | | |
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| 231 | 246 | | (l) The Bureau of Household Goods and Services. |
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| 232 | 247 | | |
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| 233 | 248 | | (m) The Board of Registered Nursing. |
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| 234 | 249 | | |
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| 235 | 250 | | (n) The Board of Behavioral Sciences. |
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| 236 | 251 | | |
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| 237 | 252 | | (o) The State Athletic Commission. |
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| 238 | 253 | | |
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| 239 | 254 | | (p) The Cemetery and Funeral Bureau. |
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| 240 | 255 | | |
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| 241 | 256 | | (q) The Bureau of Security and Investigative Services. |
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| 242 | 257 | | |
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| 243 | 258 | | (r) The Court Reporters Board of California. |
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| 244 | 259 | | |
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| 245 | 260 | | (s) The Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians. |
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| 246 | 261 | | |
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| 247 | 262 | | (t) The Landscape Architects Technical Committee. |
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| 248 | 263 | | |
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| 249 | 264 | | (u) The Division of Investigation. |
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| 250 | 265 | | |
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| 251 | 266 | | (v) The Bureau of Automotive Repair. |
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| 252 | 267 | | |
|---|
| 253 | 268 | | (w) The Respiratory Care Board of California. |
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| 254 | 269 | | |
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| 255 | 270 | | (x) The Acupuncture Board. |
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| 256 | 271 | | |
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| 257 | 272 | | (y) The Board of Psychology. |
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| 258 | 273 | | |
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| 259 | 274 | | (z) The Podiatric Medical Board of California. |
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| 260 | 275 | | |
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| 261 | 276 | | (aa) The Physical Therapy Board of California. |
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| 262 | 277 | | |
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| 263 | 278 | | (ab) The Arbitration Review Program. |
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| 264 | 279 | | |
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| 265 | 280 | | (ac) The Physician Assistant Board. |
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| 266 | 281 | | |
|---|
| 267 | 282 | | (ad) The Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board. |
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| 268 | 283 | | |
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| 269 | 284 | | (ae) The California Board of Occupational Therapy. |
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| 270 | 285 | | |
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| 271 | 286 | | (af) The Osteopathic Medical Board of California. |
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| 272 | 287 | | |
|---|
| 273 | 288 | | (ag) The Naturopathic Medicine Committee. |
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| 274 | 289 | | |
|---|
| 275 | 290 | | (ah) The Dental Hygiene Board of California. |
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| 276 | 291 | | |
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| 277 | 292 | | (ai) The Professional Fiduciaries Bureau. |
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| 278 | 293 | | |
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| 279 | 294 | | (aj) The State Board of Chiropractic Examiners. |
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| 280 | 295 | | |
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| 281 | 296 | | (ak) The Bureau of Real Estate Appraisers. |
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| 282 | 297 | | |
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| 283 | 298 | | (al) The Structural Pest Control Board. |
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| 284 | 299 | | |
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| 285 | 300 | | (am) The Bureau of Cannabis Control. |
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| 286 | 301 | | |
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| 287 | 302 | | (an) Any other boards, offices, or officers subject to its jurisdiction by law. |
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| 288 | 303 | | |
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| 289 | 304 | | (ao) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2018. |
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| 290 | 305 | | |
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| 291 | 306 | | SEC. 3. Section 125.9 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:125.9. (a) Except with respect to persons regulated under Chapter 11 (commencing with Section 7500), any board, bureau, or commission within the department, the State Board of Chiropractic Examiners, and the Osteopathic Medical Board of California, may establish, by regulation, a system for the issuance to a licensee of a citation which may contain an order of abatement or an order to pay an administrative fine assessed by the board, bureau, or commission where the licensee is in violation of the applicable licensing act or any regulation adopted pursuant thereto.(b) The system shall contain the following provisions:(1) Citations shall be in writing and shall describe with particularity the nature of the violation, including specific reference to the provision of law determined to have been violated.(2) Whenever appropriate, the citation shall contain an order of abatement fixing a reasonable time for abatement of the violation.(3) In no event shall the administrative fine assessed by the board, bureau, or commission exceed five thousand dollars ($5,000) for each inspection or each investigation made with respect to the violation, or five thousand dollars ($5,000) for each violation or count if the violation involves fraudulent billing submitted to an insurance company, the Medi-Cal program, or Medicare. In assessing a fine, the board, bureau, or commission shall give due consideration to the appropriateness of the amount of the fine with respect to factors such as the gravity of the violation, the good faith of the licensee, and the history of previous violations.(4) A citation or fine assessment issued pursuant to a citation shall inform the licensee that if the licensee desires a hearing to contest the finding of a violation, that hearing shall be requested by written notice to the board, bureau, or commission within 30 days of the date of issuance of the citation or assessment. If a hearing is not requested pursuant to this section, payment of any fine shall not constitute an admission of the violation charged. Hearings shall be held pursuant to Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.(5) Failure of a licensee to pay a fine or comply with an order of abatement, or both, within 30 days of the date of assessment or order, unless the citation is being appealed, may result in disciplinary action being taken by the board, bureau, or commission. Where a citation is not contested and a fine is not paid, the full amount of the assessed fine shall be added to the fee for renewal of the license. A license shall not be renewed without payment of the renewal fee and fine.(c) The system may contain the following provisions:(1) A citation may be issued without the assessment of an administrative fine.(2) Assessment of administrative fines may be limited to only particular violations of the applicable licensing act.(d) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, if a fine is paid to satisfy an assessment based on the finding of a violation, payment of the fine and compliance with the order of abatement, if applicable, shall be represented as satisfactory resolution of the matter for purposes of public disclosure.(e) Administrative fines collected pursuant to this section shall be deposited in the special fund of the particular board, bureau, or commission. |
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| 292 | 307 | | |
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| 293 | 308 | | SEC. 3. Section 125.9 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
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| 294 | 309 | | |
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| 295 | 310 | | ### SEC. 3. |
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| 296 | 311 | | |
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| 297 | 312 | | 125.9. (a) Except with respect to persons regulated under Chapter 11 (commencing with Section 7500), any board, bureau, or commission within the department, the State Board of Chiropractic Examiners, and the Osteopathic Medical Board of California, may establish, by regulation, a system for the issuance to a licensee of a citation which may contain an order of abatement or an order to pay an administrative fine assessed by the board, bureau, or commission where the licensee is in violation of the applicable licensing act or any regulation adopted pursuant thereto.(b) The system shall contain the following provisions:(1) Citations shall be in writing and shall describe with particularity the nature of the violation, including specific reference to the provision of law determined to have been violated.(2) Whenever appropriate, the citation shall contain an order of abatement fixing a reasonable time for abatement of the violation.(3) In no event shall the administrative fine assessed by the board, bureau, or commission exceed five thousand dollars ($5,000) for each inspection or each investigation made with respect to the violation, or five thousand dollars ($5,000) for each violation or count if the violation involves fraudulent billing submitted to an insurance company, the Medi-Cal program, or Medicare. In assessing a fine, the board, bureau, or commission shall give due consideration to the appropriateness of the amount of the fine with respect to factors such as the gravity of the violation, the good faith of the licensee, and the history of previous violations.(4) A citation or fine assessment issued pursuant to a citation shall inform the licensee that if the licensee desires a hearing to contest the finding of a violation, that hearing shall be requested by written notice to the board, bureau, or commission within 30 days of the date of issuance of the citation or assessment. If a hearing is not requested pursuant to this section, payment of any fine shall not constitute an admission of the violation charged. Hearings shall be held pursuant to Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.(5) Failure of a licensee to pay a fine or comply with an order of abatement, or both, within 30 days of the date of assessment or order, unless the citation is being appealed, may result in disciplinary action being taken by the board, bureau, or commission. Where a citation is not contested and a fine is not paid, the full amount of the assessed fine shall be added to the fee for renewal of the license. A license shall not be renewed without payment of the renewal fee and fine.(c) The system may contain the following provisions:(1) A citation may be issued without the assessment of an administrative fine.(2) Assessment of administrative fines may be limited to only particular violations of the applicable licensing act.(d) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, if a fine is paid to satisfy an assessment based on the finding of a violation, payment of the fine and compliance with the order of abatement, if applicable, shall be represented as satisfactory resolution of the matter for purposes of public disclosure.(e) Administrative fines collected pursuant to this section shall be deposited in the special fund of the particular board, bureau, or commission. |
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| 298 | 313 | | |
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| 299 | 314 | | 125.9. (a) Except with respect to persons regulated under Chapter 11 (commencing with Section 7500), any board, bureau, or commission within the department, the State Board of Chiropractic Examiners, and the Osteopathic Medical Board of California, may establish, by regulation, a system for the issuance to a licensee of a citation which may contain an order of abatement or an order to pay an administrative fine assessed by the board, bureau, or commission where the licensee is in violation of the applicable licensing act or any regulation adopted pursuant thereto.(b) The system shall contain the following provisions:(1) Citations shall be in writing and shall describe with particularity the nature of the violation, including specific reference to the provision of law determined to have been violated.(2) Whenever appropriate, the citation shall contain an order of abatement fixing a reasonable time for abatement of the violation.(3) In no event shall the administrative fine assessed by the board, bureau, or commission exceed five thousand dollars ($5,000) for each inspection or each investigation made with respect to the violation, or five thousand dollars ($5,000) for each violation or count if the violation involves fraudulent billing submitted to an insurance company, the Medi-Cal program, or Medicare. In assessing a fine, the board, bureau, or commission shall give due consideration to the appropriateness of the amount of the fine with respect to factors such as the gravity of the violation, the good faith of the licensee, and the history of previous violations.(4) A citation or fine assessment issued pursuant to a citation shall inform the licensee that if the licensee desires a hearing to contest the finding of a violation, that hearing shall be requested by written notice to the board, bureau, or commission within 30 days of the date of issuance of the citation or assessment. If a hearing is not requested pursuant to this section, payment of any fine shall not constitute an admission of the violation charged. Hearings shall be held pursuant to Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.(5) Failure of a licensee to pay a fine or comply with an order of abatement, or both, within 30 days of the date of assessment or order, unless the citation is being appealed, may result in disciplinary action being taken by the board, bureau, or commission. Where a citation is not contested and a fine is not paid, the full amount of the assessed fine shall be added to the fee for renewal of the license. A license shall not be renewed without payment of the renewal fee and fine.(c) The system may contain the following provisions:(1) A citation may be issued without the assessment of an administrative fine.(2) Assessment of administrative fines may be limited to only particular violations of the applicable licensing act.(d) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, if a fine is paid to satisfy an assessment based on the finding of a violation, payment of the fine and compliance with the order of abatement, if applicable, shall be represented as satisfactory resolution of the matter for purposes of public disclosure.(e) Administrative fines collected pursuant to this section shall be deposited in the special fund of the particular board, bureau, or commission. |
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| 300 | 315 | | |
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| 301 | 316 | | 125.9. (a) Except with respect to persons regulated under Chapter 11 (commencing with Section 7500), any board, bureau, or commission within the department, the State Board of Chiropractic Examiners, and the Osteopathic Medical Board of California, may establish, by regulation, a system for the issuance to a licensee of a citation which may contain an order of abatement or an order to pay an administrative fine assessed by the board, bureau, or commission where the licensee is in violation of the applicable licensing act or any regulation adopted pursuant thereto.(b) The system shall contain the following provisions:(1) Citations shall be in writing and shall describe with particularity the nature of the violation, including specific reference to the provision of law determined to have been violated.(2) Whenever appropriate, the citation shall contain an order of abatement fixing a reasonable time for abatement of the violation.(3) In no event shall the administrative fine assessed by the board, bureau, or commission exceed five thousand dollars ($5,000) for each inspection or each investigation made with respect to the violation, or five thousand dollars ($5,000) for each violation or count if the violation involves fraudulent billing submitted to an insurance company, the Medi-Cal program, or Medicare. In assessing a fine, the board, bureau, or commission shall give due consideration to the appropriateness of the amount of the fine with respect to factors such as the gravity of the violation, the good faith of the licensee, and the history of previous violations.(4) A citation or fine assessment issued pursuant to a citation shall inform the licensee that if the licensee desires a hearing to contest the finding of a violation, that hearing shall be requested by written notice to the board, bureau, or commission within 30 days of the date of issuance of the citation or assessment. If a hearing is not requested pursuant to this section, payment of any fine shall not constitute an admission of the violation charged. Hearings shall be held pursuant to Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.(5) Failure of a licensee to pay a fine or comply with an order of abatement, or both, within 30 days of the date of assessment or order, unless the citation is being appealed, may result in disciplinary action being taken by the board, bureau, or commission. Where a citation is not contested and a fine is not paid, the full amount of the assessed fine shall be added to the fee for renewal of the license. A license shall not be renewed without payment of the renewal fee and fine.(c) The system may contain the following provisions:(1) A citation may be issued without the assessment of an administrative fine.(2) Assessment of administrative fines may be limited to only particular violations of the applicable licensing act.(d) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, if a fine is paid to satisfy an assessment based on the finding of a violation, payment of the fine and compliance with the order of abatement, if applicable, shall be represented as satisfactory resolution of the matter for purposes of public disclosure.(e) Administrative fines collected pursuant to this section shall be deposited in the special fund of the particular board, bureau, or commission. |
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| 302 | 317 | | |
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| 303 | 318 | | |
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| 304 | 319 | | |
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| 305 | 320 | | 125.9. (a) Except with respect to persons regulated under Chapter 11 (commencing with Section 7500), any board, bureau, or commission within the department, the State Board of Chiropractic Examiners, and the Osteopathic Medical Board of California, may establish, by regulation, a system for the issuance to a licensee of a citation which may contain an order of abatement or an order to pay an administrative fine assessed by the board, bureau, or commission where the licensee is in violation of the applicable licensing act or any regulation adopted pursuant thereto. |
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| 306 | 321 | | |
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| 307 | 322 | | (b) The system shall contain the following provisions: |
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| 308 | 323 | | |
|---|
| 309 | 324 | | (1) Citations shall be in writing and shall describe with particularity the nature of the violation, including specific reference to the provision of law determined to have been violated. |
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| 310 | 325 | | |
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| 311 | 326 | | (2) Whenever appropriate, the citation shall contain an order of abatement fixing a reasonable time for abatement of the violation. |
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| 312 | 327 | | |
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| 313 | 328 | | (3) In no event shall the administrative fine assessed by the board, bureau, or commission exceed five thousand dollars ($5,000) for each inspection or each investigation made with respect to the violation, or five thousand dollars ($5,000) for each violation or count if the violation involves fraudulent billing submitted to an insurance company, the Medi-Cal program, or Medicare. In assessing a fine, the board, bureau, or commission shall give due consideration to the appropriateness of the amount of the fine with respect to factors such as the gravity of the violation, the good faith of the licensee, and the history of previous violations. |
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| 314 | 329 | | |
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| 315 | 330 | | (4) A citation or fine assessment issued pursuant to a citation shall inform the licensee that if the licensee desires a hearing to contest the finding of a violation, that hearing shall be requested by written notice to the board, bureau, or commission within 30 days of the date of issuance of the citation or assessment. If a hearing is not requested pursuant to this section, payment of any fine shall not constitute an admission of the violation charged. Hearings shall be held pursuant to Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code. |
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| 316 | 331 | | |
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| 317 | 332 | | (5) Failure of a licensee to pay a fine or comply with an order of abatement, or both, within 30 days of the date of assessment or order, unless the citation is being appealed, may result in disciplinary action being taken by the board, bureau, or commission. Where a citation is not contested and a fine is not paid, the full amount of the assessed fine shall be added to the fee for renewal of the license. A license shall not be renewed without payment of the renewal fee and fine. |
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| 318 | 333 | | |
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| 319 | 334 | | (c) The system may contain the following provisions: |
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| 320 | 335 | | |
|---|
| 321 | 336 | | (1) A citation may be issued without the assessment of an administrative fine. |
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| 322 | 337 | | |
|---|
| 323 | 338 | | (2) Assessment of administrative fines may be limited to only particular violations of the applicable licensing act. |
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| 324 | 339 | | |
|---|
| 325 | 340 | | (d) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, if a fine is paid to satisfy an assessment based on the finding of a violation, payment of the fine and compliance with the order of abatement, if applicable, shall be represented as satisfactory resolution of the matter for purposes of public disclosure. |
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| 326 | 341 | | |
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| 327 | 342 | | (e) Administrative fines collected pursuant to this section shall be deposited in the special fund of the particular board, bureau, or commission. |
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| 328 | 343 | | |
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| 329 | 344 | | SEC. 4. Section 130 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:130. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, the term of office of any member of an agency designated in subdivision (b) shall be for a term of four years expiring on June 1.(b) Subdivision (a) applies to the following boards or committees:(1) The Medical Board of California.(2) The Podiatric Medical Board of California.(3) The Physical Therapy Board of California.(4) The Board of Registered Nursing, except as provided in subdivision (c) of Section 2703.(5) The Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians.(6) The State Board of Optometry.(7) The California State Board of Pharmacy.(8) The Veterinary Medical Board.(9) The California Architects Board.(10) The Landscape Architect Technical Committee.(11) The Board for Professional Engineers and Land Surveyors.(12) The Contractors State License Board.(13) The Board of Behavioral Sciences.(14) The Court Reporters Board of California.(15) The State Athletic Commission.(16) The Osteopathic Medical Board of California.(17) The Respiratory Care Board of California.(18) The Acupuncture Board.(19) The Board of Psychology.(20) The Structural Pest Control Board. |
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| 330 | 345 | | |
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| 331 | 346 | | SEC. 4. Section 130 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
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| 332 | 347 | | |
|---|
| 333 | 348 | | ### SEC. 4. |
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| 334 | 349 | | |
|---|
| 335 | 350 | | 130. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, the term of office of any member of an agency designated in subdivision (b) shall be for a term of four years expiring on June 1.(b) Subdivision (a) applies to the following boards or committees:(1) The Medical Board of California.(2) The Podiatric Medical Board of California.(3) The Physical Therapy Board of California.(4) The Board of Registered Nursing, except as provided in subdivision (c) of Section 2703.(5) The Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians.(6) The State Board of Optometry.(7) The California State Board of Pharmacy.(8) The Veterinary Medical Board.(9) The California Architects Board.(10) The Landscape Architect Technical Committee.(11) The Board for Professional Engineers and Land Surveyors.(12) The Contractors State License Board.(13) The Board of Behavioral Sciences.(14) The Court Reporters Board of California.(15) The State Athletic Commission.(16) The Osteopathic Medical Board of California.(17) The Respiratory Care Board of California.(18) The Acupuncture Board.(19) The Board of Psychology.(20) The Structural Pest Control Board. |
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| 336 | 351 | | |
|---|
| 337 | 352 | | 130. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, the term of office of any member of an agency designated in subdivision (b) shall be for a term of four years expiring on June 1.(b) Subdivision (a) applies to the following boards or committees:(1) The Medical Board of California.(2) The Podiatric Medical Board of California.(3) The Physical Therapy Board of California.(4) The Board of Registered Nursing, except as provided in subdivision (c) of Section 2703.(5) The Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians.(6) The State Board of Optometry.(7) The California State Board of Pharmacy.(8) The Veterinary Medical Board.(9) The California Architects Board.(10) The Landscape Architect Technical Committee.(11) The Board for Professional Engineers and Land Surveyors.(12) The Contractors State License Board.(13) The Board of Behavioral Sciences.(14) The Court Reporters Board of California.(15) The State Athletic Commission.(16) The Osteopathic Medical Board of California.(17) The Respiratory Care Board of California.(18) The Acupuncture Board.(19) The Board of Psychology.(20) The Structural Pest Control Board. |
|---|
| 338 | 353 | | |
|---|
| 339 | 354 | | 130. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, the term of office of any member of an agency designated in subdivision (b) shall be for a term of four years expiring on June 1.(b) Subdivision (a) applies to the following boards or committees:(1) The Medical Board of California.(2) The Podiatric Medical Board of California.(3) The Physical Therapy Board of California.(4) The Board of Registered Nursing, except as provided in subdivision (c) of Section 2703.(5) The Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians.(6) The State Board of Optometry.(7) The California State Board of Pharmacy.(8) The Veterinary Medical Board.(9) The California Architects Board.(10) The Landscape Architect Technical Committee.(11) The Board for Professional Engineers and Land Surveyors.(12) The Contractors State License Board.(13) The Board of Behavioral Sciences.(14) The Court Reporters Board of California.(15) The State Athletic Commission.(16) The Osteopathic Medical Board of California.(17) The Respiratory Care Board of California.(18) The Acupuncture Board.(19) The Board of Psychology.(20) The Structural Pest Control Board. |
|---|
| 340 | 355 | | |
|---|
| 341 | 356 | | |
|---|
| 342 | 357 | | |
|---|
| 343 | 358 | | 130. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, the term of office of any member of an agency designated in subdivision (b) shall be for a term of four years expiring on June 1. |
|---|
| 344 | 359 | | |
|---|
| 345 | 360 | | (b) Subdivision (a) applies to the following boards or committees: |
|---|
| 346 | 361 | | |
|---|
| 347 | 362 | | (1) The Medical Board of California. |
|---|
| 348 | 363 | | |
|---|
| 349 | 364 | | (2) The Podiatric Medical Board of California. |
|---|
| 350 | 365 | | |
|---|
| 351 | 366 | | (3) The Physical Therapy Board of California. |
|---|
| 352 | 367 | | |
|---|
| 353 | 368 | | (4) The Board of Registered Nursing, except as provided in subdivision (c) of Section 2703. |
|---|
| 354 | 369 | | |
|---|
| 355 | 370 | | (5) The Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians. |
|---|
| 356 | 371 | | |
|---|
| 357 | 372 | | (6) The State Board of Optometry. |
|---|
| 358 | 373 | | |
|---|
| 359 | 374 | | (7) The California State Board of Pharmacy. |
|---|
| 360 | 375 | | |
|---|
| 361 | 376 | | (8) The Veterinary Medical Board. |
|---|
| 362 | 377 | | |
|---|
| 363 | 378 | | (9) The California Architects Board. |
|---|
| 364 | 379 | | |
|---|
| 365 | 380 | | (10) The Landscape Architect Technical Committee. |
|---|
| 366 | 381 | | |
|---|
| 367 | 382 | | (11) The Board for Professional Engineers and Land Surveyors. |
|---|
| 368 | 383 | | |
|---|
| 369 | 384 | | (12) The Contractors State License Board. |
|---|
| 370 | 385 | | |
|---|
| 371 | 386 | | (13) The Board of Behavioral Sciences. |
|---|
| 372 | 387 | | |
|---|
| 373 | 388 | | (14) The Court Reporters Board of California. |
|---|
| 374 | 389 | | |
|---|
| 375 | 390 | | (15) The State Athletic Commission. |
|---|
| 376 | 391 | | |
|---|
| 377 | 392 | | (16) The Osteopathic Medical Board of California. |
|---|
| 378 | 393 | | |
|---|
| 379 | 394 | | (17) The Respiratory Care Board of California. |
|---|
| 380 | 395 | | |
|---|
| 381 | 396 | | (18) The Acupuncture Board. |
|---|
| 382 | 397 | | |
|---|
| 383 | 398 | | (19) The Board of Psychology. |
|---|
| 384 | 399 | | |
|---|
| 385 | 400 | | (20) The Structural Pest Control Board. |
|---|
| 386 | 401 | | |
|---|
| 387 | 402 | | SEC. 5. Section 144 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:144. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, an agency designated in subdivision (b) shall require an applicant to furnish to the agency a full set of fingerprints for purposes of conducting criminal history record checks. Any agency designated in subdivision (b) may obtain and receive, at its discretion, criminal history information from the Department of Justice and the United States Federal Bureau of Investigation.(b) Subdivision (a) applies to the following:(1) California Board of Accountancy.(2) State Athletic Commission.(3) Board of Behavioral Sciences.(4) Court Reporters Board of California.(5) Dental Board of California.(6) California State Board of Pharmacy.(7) Board of Registered Nursing.(8) Veterinary Medical Board.(9) Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians.(10) Respiratory Care Board of California.(11) Physical Therapy Board of California.(12) Physician Assistant Committee.(13) Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board.(14) Medical Board of California.(15) State Board of Optometry.(16) Acupuncture Board.(17) Cemetery and Funeral Bureau.(18) Bureau of Security and Investigative Services.(19) Division of Investigation.(20) Board of Psychology.(21) California Board of Occupational Therapy.(22) Structural Pest Control Board.(23) Contractors State License Board.(24) Naturopathic Medicine Committee.(25) Professional Fiduciaries Bureau.(26) Board for Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists.(27) Bureau of Cannabis Control.(28) Podiatric Medical Board of California.(29) Osteopathic Medical Board of California.(30) California Architects Board, beginning January 1, 2021.(31) Landscape Architects Technical Committee, beginning January 1, 2022.(c) For purposes of paragraph (26) of subdivision (b), the term applicant shall be limited to an initial applicant who has never been registered or licensed by the board or to an applicant for a new licensure or registration category. |
|---|
| 388 | 403 | | |
|---|
| 389 | 404 | | SEC. 5. Section 144 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 390 | 405 | | |
|---|
| 391 | 406 | | ### SEC. 5. |
|---|
| 392 | 407 | | |
|---|
| 393 | 408 | | 144. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, an agency designated in subdivision (b) shall require an applicant to furnish to the agency a full set of fingerprints for purposes of conducting criminal history record checks. Any agency designated in subdivision (b) may obtain and receive, at its discretion, criminal history information from the Department of Justice and the United States Federal Bureau of Investigation.(b) Subdivision (a) applies to the following:(1) California Board of Accountancy.(2) State Athletic Commission.(3) Board of Behavioral Sciences.(4) Court Reporters Board of California.(5) Dental Board of California.(6) California State Board of Pharmacy.(7) Board of Registered Nursing.(8) Veterinary Medical Board.(9) Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians.(10) Respiratory Care Board of California.(11) Physical Therapy Board of California.(12) Physician Assistant Committee.(13) Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board.(14) Medical Board of California.(15) State Board of Optometry.(16) Acupuncture Board.(17) Cemetery and Funeral Bureau.(18) Bureau of Security and Investigative Services.(19) Division of Investigation.(20) Board of Psychology.(21) California Board of Occupational Therapy.(22) Structural Pest Control Board.(23) Contractors State License Board.(24) Naturopathic Medicine Committee.(25) Professional Fiduciaries Bureau.(26) Board for Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists.(27) Bureau of Cannabis Control.(28) Podiatric Medical Board of California.(29) Osteopathic Medical Board of California.(30) California Architects Board, beginning January 1, 2021.(31) Landscape Architects Technical Committee, beginning January 1, 2022.(c) For purposes of paragraph (26) of subdivision (b), the term applicant shall be limited to an initial applicant who has never been registered or licensed by the board or to an applicant for a new licensure or registration category. |
|---|
| 394 | 409 | | |
|---|
| 395 | 410 | | 144. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, an agency designated in subdivision (b) shall require an applicant to furnish to the agency a full set of fingerprints for purposes of conducting criminal history record checks. Any agency designated in subdivision (b) may obtain and receive, at its discretion, criminal history information from the Department of Justice and the United States Federal Bureau of Investigation.(b) Subdivision (a) applies to the following:(1) California Board of Accountancy.(2) State Athletic Commission.(3) Board of Behavioral Sciences.(4) Court Reporters Board of California.(5) Dental Board of California.(6) California State Board of Pharmacy.(7) Board of Registered Nursing.(8) Veterinary Medical Board.(9) Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians.(10) Respiratory Care Board of California.(11) Physical Therapy Board of California.(12) Physician Assistant Committee.(13) Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board.(14) Medical Board of California.(15) State Board of Optometry.(16) Acupuncture Board.(17) Cemetery and Funeral Bureau.(18) Bureau of Security and Investigative Services.(19) Division of Investigation.(20) Board of Psychology.(21) California Board of Occupational Therapy.(22) Structural Pest Control Board.(23) Contractors State License Board.(24) Naturopathic Medicine Committee.(25) Professional Fiduciaries Bureau.(26) Board for Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists.(27) Bureau of Cannabis Control.(28) Podiatric Medical Board of California.(29) Osteopathic Medical Board of California.(30) California Architects Board, beginning January 1, 2021.(31) Landscape Architects Technical Committee, beginning January 1, 2022.(c) For purposes of paragraph (26) of subdivision (b), the term applicant shall be limited to an initial applicant who has never been registered or licensed by the board or to an applicant for a new licensure or registration category. |
|---|
| 396 | 411 | | |
|---|
| 397 | 412 | | 144. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, an agency designated in subdivision (b) shall require an applicant to furnish to the agency a full set of fingerprints for purposes of conducting criminal history record checks. Any agency designated in subdivision (b) may obtain and receive, at its discretion, criminal history information from the Department of Justice and the United States Federal Bureau of Investigation.(b) Subdivision (a) applies to the following:(1) California Board of Accountancy.(2) State Athletic Commission.(3) Board of Behavioral Sciences.(4) Court Reporters Board of California.(5) Dental Board of California.(6) California State Board of Pharmacy.(7) Board of Registered Nursing.(8) Veterinary Medical Board.(9) Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians.(10) Respiratory Care Board of California.(11) Physical Therapy Board of California.(12) Physician Assistant Committee.(13) Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board.(14) Medical Board of California.(15) State Board of Optometry.(16) Acupuncture Board.(17) Cemetery and Funeral Bureau.(18) Bureau of Security and Investigative Services.(19) Division of Investigation.(20) Board of Psychology.(21) California Board of Occupational Therapy.(22) Structural Pest Control Board.(23) Contractors State License Board.(24) Naturopathic Medicine Committee.(25) Professional Fiduciaries Bureau.(26) Board for Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists.(27) Bureau of Cannabis Control.(28) Podiatric Medical Board of California.(29) Osteopathic Medical Board of California.(30) California Architects Board, beginning January 1, 2021.(31) Landscape Architects Technical Committee, beginning January 1, 2022.(c) For purposes of paragraph (26) of subdivision (b), the term applicant shall be limited to an initial applicant who has never been registered or licensed by the board or to an applicant for a new licensure or registration category. |
|---|
| 398 | 413 | | |
|---|
| 399 | 414 | | |
|---|
| 400 | 415 | | |
|---|
| 401 | 416 | | 144. (a) Notwithstanding any other law, an agency designated in subdivision (b) shall require an applicant to furnish to the agency a full set of fingerprints for purposes of conducting criminal history record checks. Any agency designated in subdivision (b) may obtain and receive, at its discretion, criminal history information from the Department of Justice and the United States Federal Bureau of Investigation. |
|---|
| 402 | 417 | | |
|---|
| 403 | 418 | | (b) Subdivision (a) applies to the following: |
|---|
| 404 | 419 | | |
|---|
| 405 | 420 | | (1) California Board of Accountancy. |
|---|
| 406 | 421 | | |
|---|
| 407 | 422 | | (2) State Athletic Commission. |
|---|
| 408 | 423 | | |
|---|
| 409 | 424 | | (3) Board of Behavioral Sciences. |
|---|
| 410 | 425 | | |
|---|
| 411 | 426 | | (4) Court Reporters Board of California. |
|---|
| 412 | 427 | | |
|---|
| 413 | 428 | | (5) Dental Board of California. |
|---|
| 414 | 429 | | |
|---|
| 415 | 430 | | (6) California State Board of Pharmacy. |
|---|
| 416 | 431 | | |
|---|
| 417 | 432 | | (7) Board of Registered Nursing. |
|---|
| 418 | 433 | | |
|---|
| 419 | 434 | | (8) Veterinary Medical Board. |
|---|
| 420 | 435 | | |
|---|
| 421 | 436 | | (9) Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians. |
|---|
| 422 | 437 | | |
|---|
| 423 | 438 | | (10) Respiratory Care Board of California. |
|---|
| 424 | 439 | | |
|---|
| 425 | 440 | | (11) Physical Therapy Board of California. |
|---|
| 426 | 441 | | |
|---|
| 427 | 442 | | (12) Physician Assistant Committee. |
|---|
| 428 | 443 | | |
|---|
| 429 | 444 | | (13) Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board. |
|---|
| 430 | 445 | | |
|---|
| 431 | 446 | | (14) Medical Board of California. |
|---|
| 432 | 447 | | |
|---|
| 433 | 448 | | (15) State Board of Optometry. |
|---|
| 434 | 449 | | |
|---|
| 435 | 450 | | (16) Acupuncture Board. |
|---|
| 436 | 451 | | |
|---|
| 437 | 452 | | (17) Cemetery and Funeral Bureau. |
|---|
| 438 | 453 | | |
|---|
| 439 | 454 | | (18) Bureau of Security and Investigative Services. |
|---|
| 440 | 455 | | |
|---|
| 441 | 456 | | (19) Division of Investigation. |
|---|
| 442 | 457 | | |
|---|
| 443 | 458 | | (20) Board of Psychology. |
|---|
| 444 | 459 | | |
|---|
| 445 | 460 | | (21) California Board of Occupational Therapy. |
|---|
| 446 | 461 | | |
|---|
| 447 | 462 | | (22) Structural Pest Control Board. |
|---|
| 448 | 463 | | |
|---|
| 449 | 464 | | (23) Contractors State License Board. |
|---|
| 450 | 465 | | |
|---|
| 451 | 466 | | (24) Naturopathic Medicine Committee. |
|---|
| 452 | 467 | | |
|---|
| 453 | 468 | | (25) Professional Fiduciaries Bureau. |
|---|
| 454 | 469 | | |
|---|
| 455 | 470 | | (26) Board for Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists. |
|---|
| 456 | 471 | | |
|---|
| 457 | 472 | | (27) Bureau of Cannabis Control. |
|---|
| 458 | 473 | | |
|---|
| 459 | 474 | | (28) Podiatric Medical Board of California. |
|---|
| 460 | 475 | | |
|---|
| 461 | 476 | | (29) Osteopathic Medical Board of California. |
|---|
| 462 | 477 | | |
|---|
| 463 | 478 | | (30) California Architects Board, beginning January 1, 2021. |
|---|
| 464 | 479 | | |
|---|
| 465 | 480 | | (31) Landscape Architects Technical Committee, beginning January 1, 2022. |
|---|
| 466 | 481 | | |
|---|
| 467 | 482 | | (c) For purposes of paragraph (26) of subdivision (b), the term applicant shall be limited to an initial applicant who has never been registered or licensed by the board or to an applicant for a new licensure or registration category. |
|---|
| 468 | 483 | | |
|---|
| 469 | 484 | | SEC. 6. Section 200.1 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:200.1. (a) Any accruals that occur on or after September 11, 1993, to any funds or accounts within the Professions and Vocations Fund that realize increased revenues to that fund or account as a result of legislation enacted on or after September 11, 1993, and that have not been transferred pursuant to Sections 13.50, 13.60, and 13.70 of the Budget Act of 1993 on the effective date of the act that enacted this section, shall be exempt from the transfers contained in Sections 13.50, 13.60, and 13.70 of the Budget Act of 1993. These funds shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:(1) Athletic Commission Fund.(2) Bureau of Home Furnishings and Thermal Insulation Fund.(3) Contractors License Fund.(4) Private Investigator Fund.(5) Respiratory Care Fund.(6) Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians Fund.(b) Subdivision (a) shall not apply to the Contingent Fund of the Medical Board of California. |
|---|
| 470 | 485 | | |
|---|
| 471 | 486 | | SEC. 6. Section 200.1 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 472 | 487 | | |
|---|
| 473 | 488 | | ### SEC. 6. |
|---|
| 474 | 489 | | |
|---|
| 475 | 490 | | 200.1. (a) Any accruals that occur on or after September 11, 1993, to any funds or accounts within the Professions and Vocations Fund that realize increased revenues to that fund or account as a result of legislation enacted on or after September 11, 1993, and that have not been transferred pursuant to Sections 13.50, 13.60, and 13.70 of the Budget Act of 1993 on the effective date of the act that enacted this section, shall be exempt from the transfers contained in Sections 13.50, 13.60, and 13.70 of the Budget Act of 1993. These funds shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:(1) Athletic Commission Fund.(2) Bureau of Home Furnishings and Thermal Insulation Fund.(3) Contractors License Fund.(4) Private Investigator Fund.(5) Respiratory Care Fund.(6) Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians Fund.(b) Subdivision (a) shall not apply to the Contingent Fund of the Medical Board of California. |
|---|
| 476 | 491 | | |
|---|
| 477 | 492 | | 200.1. (a) Any accruals that occur on or after September 11, 1993, to any funds or accounts within the Professions and Vocations Fund that realize increased revenues to that fund or account as a result of legislation enacted on or after September 11, 1993, and that have not been transferred pursuant to Sections 13.50, 13.60, and 13.70 of the Budget Act of 1993 on the effective date of the act that enacted this section, shall be exempt from the transfers contained in Sections 13.50, 13.60, and 13.70 of the Budget Act of 1993. These funds shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:(1) Athletic Commission Fund.(2) Bureau of Home Furnishings and Thermal Insulation Fund.(3) Contractors License Fund.(4) Private Investigator Fund.(5) Respiratory Care Fund.(6) Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians Fund.(b) Subdivision (a) shall not apply to the Contingent Fund of the Medical Board of California. |
|---|
| 478 | 493 | | |
|---|
| 479 | 494 | | 200.1. (a) Any accruals that occur on or after September 11, 1993, to any funds or accounts within the Professions and Vocations Fund that realize increased revenues to that fund or account as a result of legislation enacted on or after September 11, 1993, and that have not been transferred pursuant to Sections 13.50, 13.60, and 13.70 of the Budget Act of 1993 on the effective date of the act that enacted this section, shall be exempt from the transfers contained in Sections 13.50, 13.60, and 13.70 of the Budget Act of 1993. These funds shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:(1) Athletic Commission Fund.(2) Bureau of Home Furnishings and Thermal Insulation Fund.(3) Contractors License Fund.(4) Private Investigator Fund.(5) Respiratory Care Fund.(6) Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians Fund.(b) Subdivision (a) shall not apply to the Contingent Fund of the Medical Board of California. |
|---|
| 480 | 495 | | |
|---|
| 481 | 496 | | |
|---|
| 482 | 497 | | |
|---|
| 483 | 498 | | 200.1. (a) Any accruals that occur on or after September 11, 1993, to any funds or accounts within the Professions and Vocations Fund that realize increased revenues to that fund or account as a result of legislation enacted on or after September 11, 1993, and that have not been transferred pursuant to Sections 13.50, 13.60, and 13.70 of the Budget Act of 1993 on the effective date of the act that enacted this section, shall be exempt from the transfers contained in Sections 13.50, 13.60, and 13.70 of the Budget Act of 1993. These funds shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following: |
|---|
| 484 | 499 | | |
|---|
| 485 | 500 | | (1) Athletic Commission Fund. |
|---|
| 486 | 501 | | |
|---|
| 487 | 502 | | (2) Bureau of Home Furnishings and Thermal Insulation Fund. |
|---|
| 488 | 503 | | |
|---|
| 489 | 504 | | (3) Contractors License Fund. |
|---|
| 490 | 505 | | |
|---|
| 491 | 506 | | (4) Private Investigator Fund. |
|---|
| 492 | 507 | | |
|---|
| 493 | 508 | | (5) Respiratory Care Fund. |
|---|
| 494 | 509 | | |
|---|
| 495 | 510 | | (6) Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians Fund. |
|---|
| 496 | 511 | | |
|---|
| 497 | 512 | | (b) Subdivision (a) shall not apply to the Contingent Fund of the Medical Board of California. |
|---|
| 498 | 513 | | |
|---|
| 499 | 514 | | SEC. 7. Section 205 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 2 of Chapter 865 of the Statutes of 2019, is amended to read:205. (a) There is in the State Treasury the Professions and Vocations Fund. The fund shall consist of the following special funds:(1) Accountancy Fund.(2) California Architects Board Fund.(3) Athletic Commission Fund.(4) Barbering and Cosmetology Contingent Fund.(5) Cemetery and Funeral Fund.(6) Contractors License Fund.(7) State Dentistry Fund.(8) Home Furnishings and Thermal Insulation Fund.(9) California Architects Board-Landscape Architects Fund.(10) Contingent Fund of the Medical Board of California.(11) Optometry Fund.(12) Pharmacy Board Contingent Fund.(13) Physical Therapy Fund.(14) Private Investigator Fund.(15) Private Security Services Fund.(16) Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists Fund.(17) Consumer Affairs Fund.(18) Behavioral Sciences Fund.(19) Licensed Midwifery Fund.(20) Court Reporters Fund.(21) Veterinary Medical Board Contingent Fund.(22) Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians Fund.(23) Electronic and Appliance Repair Fund.(24) Dispensing Opticians Fund.(25) Acupuncture Fund.(26) Physician Assistant Fund.(27) Board of Podiatric Medicine Fund.(28) Psychology Fund.(29) Respiratory Care Fund.(30) Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Fund.(31) Board of Registered Nursing Fund.(32) Animal Health Technician Examining Committee Fund.(33) State Dental Hygiene Fund.(34) State Dental Assistant Fund.(35) Structural Pest Control Fund.(36) Structural Pest Control Eradication and Enforcement Fund.(37) Structural Pest Control Research Fund.(38) Household Movers Fund.(b) For accounting and recordkeeping purposes, the Professions and Vocations Fund shall be deemed to be a single special fund, and each of the several special funds therein shall constitute and be deemed to be a separate account in the Professions and Vocations Fund. Each account or fund shall be available for expenditure only for the purposes as are now or may hereafter be provided by law.(c) This section shall be repealed on July 1, 2022. |
|---|
| 500 | 515 | | |
|---|
| 501 | 516 | | SEC. 7. Section 205 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 2 of Chapter 865 of the Statutes of 2019, is amended to read: |
|---|
| 502 | 517 | | |
|---|
| 503 | 518 | | ### SEC. 7. |
|---|
| 504 | 519 | | |
|---|
| 505 | 520 | | 205. (a) There is in the State Treasury the Professions and Vocations Fund. The fund shall consist of the following special funds:(1) Accountancy Fund.(2) California Architects Board Fund.(3) Athletic Commission Fund.(4) Barbering and Cosmetology Contingent Fund.(5) Cemetery and Funeral Fund.(6) Contractors License Fund.(7) State Dentistry Fund.(8) Home Furnishings and Thermal Insulation Fund.(9) California Architects Board-Landscape Architects Fund.(10) Contingent Fund of the Medical Board of California.(11) Optometry Fund.(12) Pharmacy Board Contingent Fund.(13) Physical Therapy Fund.(14) Private Investigator Fund.(15) Private Security Services Fund.(16) Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists Fund.(17) Consumer Affairs Fund.(18) Behavioral Sciences Fund.(19) Licensed Midwifery Fund.(20) Court Reporters Fund.(21) Veterinary Medical Board Contingent Fund.(22) Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians Fund.(23) Electronic and Appliance Repair Fund.(24) Dispensing Opticians Fund.(25) Acupuncture Fund.(26) Physician Assistant Fund.(27) Board of Podiatric Medicine Fund.(28) Psychology Fund.(29) Respiratory Care Fund.(30) Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Fund.(31) Board of Registered Nursing Fund.(32) Animal Health Technician Examining Committee Fund.(33) State Dental Hygiene Fund.(34) State Dental Assistant Fund.(35) Structural Pest Control Fund.(36) Structural Pest Control Eradication and Enforcement Fund.(37) Structural Pest Control Research Fund.(38) Household Movers Fund.(b) For accounting and recordkeeping purposes, the Professions and Vocations Fund shall be deemed to be a single special fund, and each of the several special funds therein shall constitute and be deemed to be a separate account in the Professions and Vocations Fund. Each account or fund shall be available for expenditure only for the purposes as are now or may hereafter be provided by law.(c) This section shall be repealed on July 1, 2022. |
|---|
| 506 | 521 | | |
|---|
| 507 | 522 | | 205. (a) There is in the State Treasury the Professions and Vocations Fund. The fund shall consist of the following special funds:(1) Accountancy Fund.(2) California Architects Board Fund.(3) Athletic Commission Fund.(4) Barbering and Cosmetology Contingent Fund.(5) Cemetery and Funeral Fund.(6) Contractors License Fund.(7) State Dentistry Fund.(8) Home Furnishings and Thermal Insulation Fund.(9) California Architects Board-Landscape Architects Fund.(10) Contingent Fund of the Medical Board of California.(11) Optometry Fund.(12) Pharmacy Board Contingent Fund.(13) Physical Therapy Fund.(14) Private Investigator Fund.(15) Private Security Services Fund.(16) Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists Fund.(17) Consumer Affairs Fund.(18) Behavioral Sciences Fund.(19) Licensed Midwifery Fund.(20) Court Reporters Fund.(21) Veterinary Medical Board Contingent Fund.(22) Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians Fund.(23) Electronic and Appliance Repair Fund.(24) Dispensing Opticians Fund.(25) Acupuncture Fund.(26) Physician Assistant Fund.(27) Board of Podiatric Medicine Fund.(28) Psychology Fund.(29) Respiratory Care Fund.(30) Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Fund.(31) Board of Registered Nursing Fund.(32) Animal Health Technician Examining Committee Fund.(33) State Dental Hygiene Fund.(34) State Dental Assistant Fund.(35) Structural Pest Control Fund.(36) Structural Pest Control Eradication and Enforcement Fund.(37) Structural Pest Control Research Fund.(38) Household Movers Fund.(b) For accounting and recordkeeping purposes, the Professions and Vocations Fund shall be deemed to be a single special fund, and each of the several special funds therein shall constitute and be deemed to be a separate account in the Professions and Vocations Fund. Each account or fund shall be available for expenditure only for the purposes as are now or may hereafter be provided by law.(c) This section shall be repealed on July 1, 2022. |
|---|
| 508 | 523 | | |
|---|
| 509 | 524 | | 205. (a) There is in the State Treasury the Professions and Vocations Fund. The fund shall consist of the following special funds:(1) Accountancy Fund.(2) California Architects Board Fund.(3) Athletic Commission Fund.(4) Barbering and Cosmetology Contingent Fund.(5) Cemetery and Funeral Fund.(6) Contractors License Fund.(7) State Dentistry Fund.(8) Home Furnishings and Thermal Insulation Fund.(9) California Architects Board-Landscape Architects Fund.(10) Contingent Fund of the Medical Board of California.(11) Optometry Fund.(12) Pharmacy Board Contingent Fund.(13) Physical Therapy Fund.(14) Private Investigator Fund.(15) Private Security Services Fund.(16) Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists Fund.(17) Consumer Affairs Fund.(18) Behavioral Sciences Fund.(19) Licensed Midwifery Fund.(20) Court Reporters Fund.(21) Veterinary Medical Board Contingent Fund.(22) Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians Fund.(23) Electronic and Appliance Repair Fund.(24) Dispensing Opticians Fund.(25) Acupuncture Fund.(26) Physician Assistant Fund.(27) Board of Podiatric Medicine Fund.(28) Psychology Fund.(29) Respiratory Care Fund.(30) Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Fund.(31) Board of Registered Nursing Fund.(32) Animal Health Technician Examining Committee Fund.(33) State Dental Hygiene Fund.(34) State Dental Assistant Fund.(35) Structural Pest Control Fund.(36) Structural Pest Control Eradication and Enforcement Fund.(37) Structural Pest Control Research Fund.(38) Household Movers Fund.(b) For accounting and recordkeeping purposes, the Professions and Vocations Fund shall be deemed to be a single special fund, and each of the several special funds therein shall constitute and be deemed to be a separate account in the Professions and Vocations Fund. Each account or fund shall be available for expenditure only for the purposes as are now or may hereafter be provided by law.(c) This section shall be repealed on July 1, 2022. |
|---|
| 510 | 525 | | |
|---|
| 511 | 526 | | |
|---|
| 512 | 527 | | |
|---|
| 513 | 528 | | 205. (a) There is in the State Treasury the Professions and Vocations Fund. The fund shall consist of the following special funds: |
|---|
| 514 | 529 | | |
|---|
| 515 | 530 | | (1) Accountancy Fund. |
|---|
| 516 | 531 | | |
|---|
| 517 | 532 | | (2) California Architects Board Fund. |
|---|
| 518 | 533 | | |
|---|
| 519 | 534 | | (3) Athletic Commission Fund. |
|---|
| 520 | 535 | | |
|---|
| 521 | 536 | | (4) Barbering and Cosmetology Contingent Fund. |
|---|
| 522 | 537 | | |
|---|
| 523 | 538 | | (5) Cemetery and Funeral Fund. |
|---|
| 524 | 539 | | |
|---|
| 525 | 540 | | (6) Contractors License Fund. |
|---|
| 526 | 541 | | |
|---|
| 527 | 542 | | (7) State Dentistry Fund. |
|---|
| 528 | 543 | | |
|---|
| 529 | 544 | | (8) Home Furnishings and Thermal Insulation Fund. |
|---|
| 530 | 545 | | |
|---|
| 531 | 546 | | (9) California Architects Board-Landscape Architects Fund. |
|---|
| 532 | 547 | | |
|---|
| 533 | 548 | | (10) Contingent Fund of the Medical Board of California. |
|---|
| 534 | 549 | | |
|---|
| 535 | 550 | | (11) Optometry Fund. |
|---|
| 536 | 551 | | |
|---|
| 537 | 552 | | (12) Pharmacy Board Contingent Fund. |
|---|
| 538 | 553 | | |
|---|
| 539 | 554 | | (13) Physical Therapy Fund. |
|---|
| 540 | 555 | | |
|---|
| 541 | 556 | | (14) Private Investigator Fund. |
|---|
| 542 | 557 | | |
|---|
| 543 | 558 | | (15) Private Security Services Fund. |
|---|
| 544 | 559 | | |
|---|
| 545 | 560 | | (16) Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists Fund. |
|---|
| 546 | 561 | | |
|---|
| 547 | 562 | | (17) Consumer Affairs Fund. |
|---|
| 548 | 563 | | |
|---|
| 549 | 564 | | (18) Behavioral Sciences Fund. |
|---|
| 550 | 565 | | |
|---|
| 551 | 566 | | (19) Licensed Midwifery Fund. |
|---|
| 552 | 567 | | |
|---|
| 553 | 568 | | (20) Court Reporters Fund. |
|---|
| 554 | 569 | | |
|---|
| 555 | 570 | | (21) Veterinary Medical Board Contingent Fund. |
|---|
| 556 | 571 | | |
|---|
| 557 | 572 | | (22) Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians Fund. |
|---|
| 558 | 573 | | |
|---|
| 559 | 574 | | (23) Electronic and Appliance Repair Fund. |
|---|
| 560 | 575 | | |
|---|
| 561 | 576 | | (24) Dispensing Opticians Fund. |
|---|
| 562 | 577 | | |
|---|
| 563 | 578 | | (25) Acupuncture Fund. |
|---|
| 564 | 579 | | |
|---|
| 565 | 580 | | (26) Physician Assistant Fund. |
|---|
| 566 | 581 | | |
|---|
| 567 | 582 | | (27) Board of Podiatric Medicine Fund. |
|---|
| 568 | 583 | | |
|---|
| 569 | 584 | | (28) Psychology Fund. |
|---|
| 570 | 585 | | |
|---|
| 571 | 586 | | (29) Respiratory Care Fund. |
|---|
| 572 | 587 | | |
|---|
| 573 | 588 | | (30) Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Fund. |
|---|
| 574 | 589 | | |
|---|
| 575 | 590 | | (31) Board of Registered Nursing Fund. |
|---|
| 576 | 591 | | |
|---|
| 577 | 592 | | (32) Animal Health Technician Examining Committee Fund. |
|---|
| 578 | 593 | | |
|---|
| 579 | 594 | | (33) State Dental Hygiene Fund. |
|---|
| 580 | 595 | | |
|---|
| 581 | 596 | | (34) State Dental Assistant Fund. |
|---|
| 582 | 597 | | |
|---|
| 583 | 598 | | (35) Structural Pest Control Fund. |
|---|
| 584 | 599 | | |
|---|
| 585 | 600 | | (36) Structural Pest Control Eradication and Enforcement Fund. |
|---|
| 586 | 601 | | |
|---|
| 587 | 602 | | (37) Structural Pest Control Research Fund. |
|---|
| 588 | 603 | | |
|---|
| 589 | 604 | | (38) Household Movers Fund. |
|---|
| 590 | 605 | | |
|---|
| 591 | 606 | | (b) For accounting and recordkeeping purposes, the Professions and Vocations Fund shall be deemed to be a single special fund, and each of the several special funds therein shall constitute and be deemed to be a separate account in the Professions and Vocations Fund. Each account or fund shall be available for expenditure only for the purposes as are now or may hereafter be provided by law. |
|---|
| 592 | 607 | | |
|---|
| 593 | 608 | | (c) This section shall be repealed on July 1, 2022. |
|---|
| 594 | 609 | | |
|---|
| 595 | 610 | | SEC. 8. Section 205 of the Business and Professions Code, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 865 of the Statutes of 2019, is amended to read:205. (a) There is in the State Treasury the Professions and Vocations Fund. The fund shall consist of the following special funds:(1) Accountancy Fund.(2) California Architects Board Fund.(3) Athletic Commission Fund.(4) Barbering and Cosmetology Contingent Fund.(5) Cemetery and Funeral Fund.(6) Contractors License Fund.(7) State Dentistry Fund.(8) Home Furnishings and Thermal Insulation Fund.(9) California Architects Board-Landscape Architects Fund.(10) Contingent Fund of the Medical Board of California.(11) Optometry Fund.(12) Pharmacy Board Contingent Fund.(13) Physical Therapy Fund.(14) Private Investigator Fund.(15) Private Security Services Fund.(16) Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists Fund.(17) Consumer Affairs Fund.(18) Behavioral Sciences Fund.(19) Licensed Midwifery Fund.(20) Court Reporters Fund.(21) Veterinary Medical Board Contingent Fund.(22) Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians Fund.(23) Electronic and Appliance Repair Fund.(24) Dispensing Opticians Fund.(25) Acupuncture Fund.(26) Physician Assistant Fund.(27) Board of Podiatric Medicine Fund.(28) Psychology Fund.(29) Respiratory Care Fund.(30) Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Fund.(31) Board of Registered Nursing Fund.(32) Animal Health Technician Examining Committee Fund.(33) State Dental Hygiene Fund.(34) Structural Pest Control Fund.(35) Structural Pest Control Eradication and Enforcement Fund.(36) Structural Pest Control Research Fund.(37) Household Movers Fund.(b) For accounting and recordkeeping purposes, the Professions and Vocations Fund shall be deemed to be a single special fund, and each of the several special funds therein shall constitute and be deemed to be a separate account in the Professions and Vocations Fund. Each account or fund shall be available for expenditure only for the purposes as are now or may hereafter be provided by law.(c) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2022. |
|---|
| 596 | 611 | | |
|---|
| 597 | 612 | | SEC. 8. Section 205 of the Business and Professions Code, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 865 of the Statutes of 2019, is amended to read: |
|---|
| 598 | 613 | | |
|---|
| 599 | 614 | | ### SEC. 8. |
|---|
| 600 | 615 | | |
|---|
| 601 | 616 | | 205. (a) There is in the State Treasury the Professions and Vocations Fund. The fund shall consist of the following special funds:(1) Accountancy Fund.(2) California Architects Board Fund.(3) Athletic Commission Fund.(4) Barbering and Cosmetology Contingent Fund.(5) Cemetery and Funeral Fund.(6) Contractors License Fund.(7) State Dentistry Fund.(8) Home Furnishings and Thermal Insulation Fund.(9) California Architects Board-Landscape Architects Fund.(10) Contingent Fund of the Medical Board of California.(11) Optometry Fund.(12) Pharmacy Board Contingent Fund.(13) Physical Therapy Fund.(14) Private Investigator Fund.(15) Private Security Services Fund.(16) Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists Fund.(17) Consumer Affairs Fund.(18) Behavioral Sciences Fund.(19) Licensed Midwifery Fund.(20) Court Reporters Fund.(21) Veterinary Medical Board Contingent Fund.(22) Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians Fund.(23) Electronic and Appliance Repair Fund.(24) Dispensing Opticians Fund.(25) Acupuncture Fund.(26) Physician Assistant Fund.(27) Board of Podiatric Medicine Fund.(28) Psychology Fund.(29) Respiratory Care Fund.(30) Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Fund.(31) Board of Registered Nursing Fund.(32) Animal Health Technician Examining Committee Fund.(33) State Dental Hygiene Fund.(34) Structural Pest Control Fund.(35) Structural Pest Control Eradication and Enforcement Fund.(36) Structural Pest Control Research Fund.(37) Household Movers Fund.(b) For accounting and recordkeeping purposes, the Professions and Vocations Fund shall be deemed to be a single special fund, and each of the several special funds therein shall constitute and be deemed to be a separate account in the Professions and Vocations Fund. Each account or fund shall be available for expenditure only for the purposes as are now or may hereafter be provided by law.(c) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2022. |
|---|
| 602 | 617 | | |
|---|
| 603 | 618 | | 205. (a) There is in the State Treasury the Professions and Vocations Fund. The fund shall consist of the following special funds:(1) Accountancy Fund.(2) California Architects Board Fund.(3) Athletic Commission Fund.(4) Barbering and Cosmetology Contingent Fund.(5) Cemetery and Funeral Fund.(6) Contractors License Fund.(7) State Dentistry Fund.(8) Home Furnishings and Thermal Insulation Fund.(9) California Architects Board-Landscape Architects Fund.(10) Contingent Fund of the Medical Board of California.(11) Optometry Fund.(12) Pharmacy Board Contingent Fund.(13) Physical Therapy Fund.(14) Private Investigator Fund.(15) Private Security Services Fund.(16) Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists Fund.(17) Consumer Affairs Fund.(18) Behavioral Sciences Fund.(19) Licensed Midwifery Fund.(20) Court Reporters Fund.(21) Veterinary Medical Board Contingent Fund.(22) Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians Fund.(23) Electronic and Appliance Repair Fund.(24) Dispensing Opticians Fund.(25) Acupuncture Fund.(26) Physician Assistant Fund.(27) Board of Podiatric Medicine Fund.(28) Psychology Fund.(29) Respiratory Care Fund.(30) Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Fund.(31) Board of Registered Nursing Fund.(32) Animal Health Technician Examining Committee Fund.(33) State Dental Hygiene Fund.(34) Structural Pest Control Fund.(35) Structural Pest Control Eradication and Enforcement Fund.(36) Structural Pest Control Research Fund.(37) Household Movers Fund.(b) For accounting and recordkeeping purposes, the Professions and Vocations Fund shall be deemed to be a single special fund, and each of the several special funds therein shall constitute and be deemed to be a separate account in the Professions and Vocations Fund. Each account or fund shall be available for expenditure only for the purposes as are now or may hereafter be provided by law.(c) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2022. |
|---|
| 604 | 619 | | |
|---|
| 605 | 620 | | 205. (a) There is in the State Treasury the Professions and Vocations Fund. The fund shall consist of the following special funds:(1) Accountancy Fund.(2) California Architects Board Fund.(3) Athletic Commission Fund.(4) Barbering and Cosmetology Contingent Fund.(5) Cemetery and Funeral Fund.(6) Contractors License Fund.(7) State Dentistry Fund.(8) Home Furnishings and Thermal Insulation Fund.(9) California Architects Board-Landscape Architects Fund.(10) Contingent Fund of the Medical Board of California.(11) Optometry Fund.(12) Pharmacy Board Contingent Fund.(13) Physical Therapy Fund.(14) Private Investigator Fund.(15) Private Security Services Fund.(16) Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists Fund.(17) Consumer Affairs Fund.(18) Behavioral Sciences Fund.(19) Licensed Midwifery Fund.(20) Court Reporters Fund.(21) Veterinary Medical Board Contingent Fund.(22) Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians Fund.(23) Electronic and Appliance Repair Fund.(24) Dispensing Opticians Fund.(25) Acupuncture Fund.(26) Physician Assistant Fund.(27) Board of Podiatric Medicine Fund.(28) Psychology Fund.(29) Respiratory Care Fund.(30) Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Fund.(31) Board of Registered Nursing Fund.(32) Animal Health Technician Examining Committee Fund.(33) State Dental Hygiene Fund.(34) Structural Pest Control Fund.(35) Structural Pest Control Eradication and Enforcement Fund.(36) Structural Pest Control Research Fund.(37) Household Movers Fund.(b) For accounting and recordkeeping purposes, the Professions and Vocations Fund shall be deemed to be a single special fund, and each of the several special funds therein shall constitute and be deemed to be a separate account in the Professions and Vocations Fund. Each account or fund shall be available for expenditure only for the purposes as are now or may hereafter be provided by law.(c) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2022. |
|---|
| 606 | 621 | | |
|---|
| 607 | 622 | | |
|---|
| 608 | 623 | | |
|---|
| 609 | 624 | | 205. (a) There is in the State Treasury the Professions and Vocations Fund. The fund shall consist of the following special funds: |
|---|
| 610 | 625 | | |
|---|
| 611 | 626 | | (1) Accountancy Fund. |
|---|
| 612 | 627 | | |
|---|
| 613 | 628 | | (2) California Architects Board Fund. |
|---|
| 614 | 629 | | |
|---|
| 615 | 630 | | (3) Athletic Commission Fund. |
|---|
| 616 | 631 | | |
|---|
| 617 | 632 | | (4) Barbering and Cosmetology Contingent Fund. |
|---|
| 618 | 633 | | |
|---|
| 619 | 634 | | (5) Cemetery and Funeral Fund. |
|---|
| 620 | 635 | | |
|---|
| 621 | 636 | | (6) Contractors License Fund. |
|---|
| 622 | 637 | | |
|---|
| 623 | 638 | | (7) State Dentistry Fund. |
|---|
| 624 | 639 | | |
|---|
| 625 | 640 | | (8) Home Furnishings and Thermal Insulation Fund. |
|---|
| 626 | 641 | | |
|---|
| 627 | 642 | | (9) California Architects Board-Landscape Architects Fund. |
|---|
| 628 | 643 | | |
|---|
| 629 | 644 | | (10) Contingent Fund of the Medical Board of California. |
|---|
| 630 | 645 | | |
|---|
| 631 | 646 | | (11) Optometry Fund. |
|---|
| 632 | 647 | | |
|---|
| 633 | 648 | | (12) Pharmacy Board Contingent Fund. |
|---|
| 634 | 649 | | |
|---|
| 635 | 650 | | (13) Physical Therapy Fund. |
|---|
| 636 | 651 | | |
|---|
| 637 | 652 | | (14) Private Investigator Fund. |
|---|
| 638 | 653 | | |
|---|
| 639 | 654 | | (15) Private Security Services Fund. |
|---|
| 640 | 655 | | |
|---|
| 641 | 656 | | (16) Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists Fund. |
|---|
| 642 | 657 | | |
|---|
| 643 | 658 | | (17) Consumer Affairs Fund. |
|---|
| 644 | 659 | | |
|---|
| 645 | 660 | | (18) Behavioral Sciences Fund. |
|---|
| 646 | 661 | | |
|---|
| 647 | 662 | | (19) Licensed Midwifery Fund. |
|---|
| 648 | 663 | | |
|---|
| 649 | 664 | | (20) Court Reporters Fund. |
|---|
| 650 | 665 | | |
|---|
| 651 | 666 | | (21) Veterinary Medical Board Contingent Fund. |
|---|
| 652 | 667 | | |
|---|
| 653 | 668 | | (22) Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians Fund. |
|---|
| 654 | 669 | | |
|---|
| 655 | 670 | | (23) Electronic and Appliance Repair Fund. |
|---|
| 656 | 671 | | |
|---|
| 657 | 672 | | (24) Dispensing Opticians Fund. |
|---|
| 658 | 673 | | |
|---|
| 659 | 674 | | (25) Acupuncture Fund. |
|---|
| 660 | 675 | | |
|---|
| 661 | 676 | | (26) Physician Assistant Fund. |
|---|
| 662 | 677 | | |
|---|
| 663 | 678 | | (27) Board of Podiatric Medicine Fund. |
|---|
| 664 | 679 | | |
|---|
| 665 | 680 | | (28) Psychology Fund. |
|---|
| 666 | 681 | | |
|---|
| 667 | 682 | | (29) Respiratory Care Fund. |
|---|
| 668 | 683 | | |
|---|
| 669 | 684 | | (30) Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Fund. |
|---|
| 670 | 685 | | |
|---|
| 671 | 686 | | (31) Board of Registered Nursing Fund. |
|---|
| 672 | 687 | | |
|---|
| 673 | 688 | | (32) Animal Health Technician Examining Committee Fund. |
|---|
| 674 | 689 | | |
|---|
| 675 | 690 | | (33) State Dental Hygiene Fund. |
|---|
| 676 | 691 | | |
|---|
| 677 | 692 | | (34) Structural Pest Control Fund. |
|---|
| 678 | 693 | | |
|---|
| 679 | 694 | | (35) Structural Pest Control Eradication and Enforcement Fund. |
|---|
| 680 | 695 | | |
|---|
| 681 | 696 | | (36) Structural Pest Control Research Fund. |
|---|
| 682 | 697 | | |
|---|
| 683 | 698 | | (37) Household Movers Fund. |
|---|
| 684 | 699 | | |
|---|
| 685 | 700 | | (b) For accounting and recordkeeping purposes, the Professions and Vocations Fund shall be deemed to be a single special fund, and each of the several special funds therein shall constitute and be deemed to be a separate account in the Professions and Vocations Fund. Each account or fund shall be available for expenditure only for the purposes as are now or may hereafter be provided by law. |
|---|
| 686 | 701 | | |
|---|
| 687 | 702 | | (c) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2022. |
|---|
| 688 | 703 | | |
|---|
| 689 | 704 | | SEC. 8.5. Section 205 of the Business and Professions Code, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 865 of the Statutes of 2019, is amended to read:205. (a) There is in the State Treasury the Professions and Vocations Fund. The fund shall consist of the following special funds:(1) Accountancy Fund.(2) California Architects Board Fund.(3) Athletic Commission Fund.(4) Barbering and Cosmetology Contingent Fund.(5) Cemetery and Funeral Fund.(6) Contractors License Fund.(7) State Dentistry Fund.(8) Home Furnishings and Thermal Insulation Fund.(9) California Architects Board-Landscape Architects Fund.(10) Contingent Fund of the Medical Board of California.(11) Optometry Fund.(12) Pharmacy Board Contingent Fund.(13) Physical Therapy Fund.(14) Private Investigator Fund.(15) Private Security Services Fund.(16) Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists Fund.(17) Consumer Affairs Fund.(18) Behavioral Sciences Fund.(19) Licensed Midwifery Fund.(20) Court Reporters Fund.(21) Veterinary Medical Board Contingent Fund.(22) Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians Fund.(23) Electronic and Appliance Repair Fund.(24) Acupuncture Fund.(25) Physician Assistant Fund.(26) Board of Podiatric Medicine Fund.(27) Psychology Fund.(28) Respiratory Care Fund.(29) Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Fund.(30) Board of Registered Nursing Fund.(31) Animal Health Technician Examining Committee Fund.(32) State Dental Hygiene Fund.(33) Structural Pest Control Fund.(34) Structural Pest Control Eradication and Enforcement Fund.(35) Structural Pest Control Research Fund.(36) Household Movers Fund.(b) For accounting and recordkeeping purposes, the Professions and Vocations Fund shall be deemed to be a single special fund, and each of the several special funds therein shall constitute and be deemed to be a separate account in the Professions and Vocations Fund. Each account or fund shall be available for expenditure only for the purposes as are now or may hereafter be provided by law.(c) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2022. |
|---|
| 690 | 705 | | |
|---|
| 691 | 706 | | SEC. 8.5. Section 205 of the Business and Professions Code, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 865 of the Statutes of 2019, is amended to read: |
|---|
| 692 | 707 | | |
|---|
| 693 | 708 | | ### SEC. 8.5. |
|---|
| 694 | 709 | | |
|---|
| 695 | 710 | | 205. (a) There is in the State Treasury the Professions and Vocations Fund. The fund shall consist of the following special funds:(1) Accountancy Fund.(2) California Architects Board Fund.(3) Athletic Commission Fund.(4) Barbering and Cosmetology Contingent Fund.(5) Cemetery and Funeral Fund.(6) Contractors License Fund.(7) State Dentistry Fund.(8) Home Furnishings and Thermal Insulation Fund.(9) California Architects Board-Landscape Architects Fund.(10) Contingent Fund of the Medical Board of California.(11) Optometry Fund.(12) Pharmacy Board Contingent Fund.(13) Physical Therapy Fund.(14) Private Investigator Fund.(15) Private Security Services Fund.(16) Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists Fund.(17) Consumer Affairs Fund.(18) Behavioral Sciences Fund.(19) Licensed Midwifery Fund.(20) Court Reporters Fund.(21) Veterinary Medical Board Contingent Fund.(22) Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians Fund.(23) Electronic and Appliance Repair Fund.(24) Acupuncture Fund.(25) Physician Assistant Fund.(26) Board of Podiatric Medicine Fund.(27) Psychology Fund.(28) Respiratory Care Fund.(29) Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Fund.(30) Board of Registered Nursing Fund.(31) Animal Health Technician Examining Committee Fund.(32) State Dental Hygiene Fund.(33) Structural Pest Control Fund.(34) Structural Pest Control Eradication and Enforcement Fund.(35) Structural Pest Control Research Fund.(36) Household Movers Fund.(b) For accounting and recordkeeping purposes, the Professions and Vocations Fund shall be deemed to be a single special fund, and each of the several special funds therein shall constitute and be deemed to be a separate account in the Professions and Vocations Fund. Each account or fund shall be available for expenditure only for the purposes as are now or may hereafter be provided by law.(c) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2022. |
|---|
| 696 | 711 | | |
|---|
| 697 | 712 | | 205. (a) There is in the State Treasury the Professions and Vocations Fund. The fund shall consist of the following special funds:(1) Accountancy Fund.(2) California Architects Board Fund.(3) Athletic Commission Fund.(4) Barbering and Cosmetology Contingent Fund.(5) Cemetery and Funeral Fund.(6) Contractors License Fund.(7) State Dentistry Fund.(8) Home Furnishings and Thermal Insulation Fund.(9) California Architects Board-Landscape Architects Fund.(10) Contingent Fund of the Medical Board of California.(11) Optometry Fund.(12) Pharmacy Board Contingent Fund.(13) Physical Therapy Fund.(14) Private Investigator Fund.(15) Private Security Services Fund.(16) Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists Fund.(17) Consumer Affairs Fund.(18) Behavioral Sciences Fund.(19) Licensed Midwifery Fund.(20) Court Reporters Fund.(21) Veterinary Medical Board Contingent Fund.(22) Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians Fund.(23) Electronic and Appliance Repair Fund.(24) Acupuncture Fund.(25) Physician Assistant Fund.(26) Board of Podiatric Medicine Fund.(27) Psychology Fund.(28) Respiratory Care Fund.(29) Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Fund.(30) Board of Registered Nursing Fund.(31) Animal Health Technician Examining Committee Fund.(32) State Dental Hygiene Fund.(33) Structural Pest Control Fund.(34) Structural Pest Control Eradication and Enforcement Fund.(35) Structural Pest Control Research Fund.(36) Household Movers Fund.(b) For accounting and recordkeeping purposes, the Professions and Vocations Fund shall be deemed to be a single special fund, and each of the several special funds therein shall constitute and be deemed to be a separate account in the Professions and Vocations Fund. Each account or fund shall be available for expenditure only for the purposes as are now or may hereafter be provided by law.(c) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2022. |
|---|
| 698 | 713 | | |
|---|
| 699 | 714 | | 205. (a) There is in the State Treasury the Professions and Vocations Fund. The fund shall consist of the following special funds:(1) Accountancy Fund.(2) California Architects Board Fund.(3) Athletic Commission Fund.(4) Barbering and Cosmetology Contingent Fund.(5) Cemetery and Funeral Fund.(6) Contractors License Fund.(7) State Dentistry Fund.(8) Home Furnishings and Thermal Insulation Fund.(9) California Architects Board-Landscape Architects Fund.(10) Contingent Fund of the Medical Board of California.(11) Optometry Fund.(12) Pharmacy Board Contingent Fund.(13) Physical Therapy Fund.(14) Private Investigator Fund.(15) Private Security Services Fund.(16) Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists Fund.(17) Consumer Affairs Fund.(18) Behavioral Sciences Fund.(19) Licensed Midwifery Fund.(20) Court Reporters Fund.(21) Veterinary Medical Board Contingent Fund.(22) Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians Fund.(23) Electronic and Appliance Repair Fund.(24) Acupuncture Fund.(25) Physician Assistant Fund.(26) Board of Podiatric Medicine Fund.(27) Psychology Fund.(28) Respiratory Care Fund.(29) Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Fund.(30) Board of Registered Nursing Fund.(31) Animal Health Technician Examining Committee Fund.(32) State Dental Hygiene Fund.(33) Structural Pest Control Fund.(34) Structural Pest Control Eradication and Enforcement Fund.(35) Structural Pest Control Research Fund.(36) Household Movers Fund.(b) For accounting and recordkeeping purposes, the Professions and Vocations Fund shall be deemed to be a single special fund, and each of the several special funds therein shall constitute and be deemed to be a separate account in the Professions and Vocations Fund. Each account or fund shall be available for expenditure only for the purposes as are now or may hereafter be provided by law.(c) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2022. |
|---|
| 700 | 715 | | |
|---|
| 701 | 716 | | |
|---|
| 702 | 717 | | |
|---|
| 703 | 718 | | 205. (a) There is in the State Treasury the Professions and Vocations Fund. The fund shall consist of the following special funds: |
|---|
| 704 | 719 | | |
|---|
| 705 | 720 | | (1) Accountancy Fund. |
|---|
| 706 | 721 | | |
|---|
| 707 | 722 | | (2) California Architects Board Fund. |
|---|
| 708 | 723 | | |
|---|
| 709 | 724 | | (3) Athletic Commission Fund. |
|---|
| 710 | 725 | | |
|---|
| 711 | 726 | | (4) Barbering and Cosmetology Contingent Fund. |
|---|
| 712 | 727 | | |
|---|
| 713 | 728 | | (5) Cemetery and Funeral Fund. |
|---|
| 714 | 729 | | |
|---|
| 715 | 730 | | (6) Contractors License Fund. |
|---|
| 716 | 731 | | |
|---|
| 717 | 732 | | (7) State Dentistry Fund. |
|---|
| 718 | 733 | | |
|---|
| 719 | 734 | | (8) Home Furnishings and Thermal Insulation Fund. |
|---|
| 720 | 735 | | |
|---|
| 721 | 736 | | (9) California Architects Board-Landscape Architects Fund. |
|---|
| 722 | 737 | | |
|---|
| 723 | 738 | | (10) Contingent Fund of the Medical Board of California. |
|---|
| 724 | 739 | | |
|---|
| 725 | 740 | | (11) Optometry Fund. |
|---|
| 726 | 741 | | |
|---|
| 727 | 742 | | (12) Pharmacy Board Contingent Fund. |
|---|
| 728 | 743 | | |
|---|
| 729 | 744 | | (13) Physical Therapy Fund. |
|---|
| 730 | 745 | | |
|---|
| 731 | 746 | | (14) Private Investigator Fund. |
|---|
| 732 | 747 | | |
|---|
| 733 | 748 | | (15) Private Security Services Fund. |
|---|
| 734 | 749 | | |
|---|
| 735 | 750 | | (16) Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, and Geologists Fund. |
|---|
| 736 | 751 | | |
|---|
| 737 | 752 | | (17) Consumer Affairs Fund. |
|---|
| 738 | 753 | | |
|---|
| 739 | 754 | | (18) Behavioral Sciences Fund. |
|---|
| 740 | 755 | | |
|---|
| 741 | 756 | | (19) Licensed Midwifery Fund. |
|---|
| 742 | 757 | | |
|---|
| 743 | 758 | | (20) Court Reporters Fund. |
|---|
| 744 | 759 | | |
|---|
| 745 | 760 | | (21) Veterinary Medical Board Contingent Fund. |
|---|
| 746 | 761 | | |
|---|
| 747 | 762 | | (22) Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians Fund. |
|---|
| 748 | 763 | | |
|---|
| 749 | 764 | | (23) Electronic and Appliance Repair Fund. |
|---|
| 750 | 765 | | |
|---|
| 751 | 766 | | (24) Acupuncture Fund. |
|---|
| 752 | 767 | | |
|---|
| 753 | 768 | | (25) Physician Assistant Fund. |
|---|
| 754 | 769 | | |
|---|
| 755 | 770 | | (26) Board of Podiatric Medicine Fund. |
|---|
| 756 | 771 | | |
|---|
| 757 | 772 | | (27) Psychology Fund. |
|---|
| 758 | 773 | | |
|---|
| 759 | 774 | | (28) Respiratory Care Fund. |
|---|
| 760 | 775 | | |
|---|
| 761 | 776 | | (29) Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Fund. |
|---|
| 762 | 777 | | |
|---|
| 763 | 778 | | (30) Board of Registered Nursing Fund. |
|---|
| 764 | 779 | | |
|---|
| 765 | 780 | | (31) Animal Health Technician Examining Committee Fund. |
|---|
| 766 | 781 | | |
|---|
| 767 | 782 | | (32) State Dental Hygiene Fund. |
|---|
| 768 | 783 | | |
|---|
| 769 | 784 | | (33) Structural Pest Control Fund. |
|---|
| 770 | 785 | | |
|---|
| 771 | 786 | | (34) Structural Pest Control Eradication and Enforcement Fund. |
|---|
| 772 | 787 | | |
|---|
| 773 | 788 | | (35) Structural Pest Control Research Fund. |
|---|
| 774 | 789 | | |
|---|
| 775 | 790 | | (36) Household Movers Fund. |
|---|
| 776 | 791 | | |
|---|
| 777 | 792 | | (b) For accounting and recordkeeping purposes, the Professions and Vocations Fund shall be deemed to be a single special fund, and each of the several special funds therein shall constitute and be deemed to be a separate account in the Professions and Vocations Fund. Each account or fund shall be available for expenditure only for the purposes as are now or may hereafter be provided by law. |
|---|
| 778 | 793 | | |
|---|
| 779 | 794 | | (c) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2022. |
|---|
| 780 | 795 | | |
|---|
| 781 | 796 | | SEC. 9. Section 494.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:494.5. (a) (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (2), (3), and (4), a state governmental licensing entity shall refuse to issue, reactivate, reinstate, or renew a license and shall suspend a license if a licensees name is included on a certified list.(2) The Department of Motor Vehicles shall suspend a license if a licensees name is included on a certified list. Any reference in this section to the issuance, reactivation, reinstatement, renewal, or denial of a license shall not apply to the Department of Motor Vehicles.(3) The State Bar of California may recommend to refuse to issue, reactivate, reinstate, or renew a license and may recommend to suspend a license if a licensees name is included on a certified list. The word may shall be substituted for the word shall relating to the issuance of a temporary license, refusal to issue, reactivate, reinstate, renew, or suspend a license in this section for licenses under the jurisdiction of the California Supreme Court.(4) The Department of Alcoholic Beverage Control may refuse to issue, reactivate, reinstate, or renew a license, and may suspend a license, if a licensees name is included on a certified list.(b) For purposes of this section:(1) Certified list means either the list provided by the State Board of Equalization or the list provided by the Franchise Tax Board of persons whose names appear on the lists of the 500 largest tax delinquencies pursuant to Section 7063 or 19195 of the Revenue and Taxation Code, as applicable.(2) License includes a certificate, registration, or any other authorization to engage in a profession or occupation issued by a state governmental licensing entity. License includes a drivers license issued pursuant to Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 12500) of Division 6 of the Vehicle Code. License excludes a vehicle registration issued pursuant to Division 3 (commencing with Section 4000) of the Vehicle Code.(3) Licensee means an individual authorized by a license to drive a motor vehicle or authorized by a license, certificate, registration, or other authorization to engage in a profession or occupation issued by a state governmental licensing entity.(4) State governmental licensing entity means any entity listed in Section 101, 1000, or 19420, the office of the Attorney General, the Department of Insurance, the Department of Motor Vehicles, the State Bar of California, the Department of Real Estate, and any other state agency, board, or commission that issues a license, certificate, or registration authorizing an individual to engage in a profession or occupation, including any certificate, business or occupational license, or permit or license issued by the Department of Motor Vehicles or the Department of the California Highway Patrol. State governmental licensing entity shall not include the Contractors State License Board.(c) The State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board shall each submit its respective certified list to every state governmental licensing entity. The certified lists shall include the name, social security number or taxpayer identification number, and the last known address of the persons identified on the certified lists.(d) Notwithstanding any other law, each state governmental licensing entity shall collect the social security number or the federal taxpayer identification number from all applicants for the purposes of matching the names of the certified lists provided by the State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board to applicants and licensees.(e) (1) Each state governmental licensing entity shall determine whether an applicant or licensee is on the most recent certified list provided by the State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board.(2) If an applicant or licensee is on either of the certified lists, the state governmental licensing entity shall immediately provide a preliminary notice to the applicant or licensee of the entitys intent to suspend or withhold issuance or renewal of the license. The preliminary notice shall be delivered personally or by mail to the applicants or licensees last known mailing address on file with the state governmental licensing entity within 30 days of receipt of the certified list. Service by mail shall be completed in accordance with Section 1013 of the Code of Civil Procedure.(A) The state governmental licensing entity shall issue a temporary license valid for a period of 90 days to any applicant whose name is on a certified list if the applicant is otherwise eligible for a license.(B) The 90-day time period for a temporary license shall not be extended. Only one temporary license shall be issued during a regular license term and the term of the temporary license shall coincide with the first 90 days of the regular license term. A license for the full term or the remainder of the license term may be issued or renewed only upon compliance with this section.(C) In the event that a license is suspended or an application for a license or the renewal of a license is denied pursuant to this section, any funds paid by the applicant or licensee shall not be refunded by the state governmental licensing entity.(f) (1) A state governmental licensing entity shall refuse to issue or shall suspend a license pursuant to this section no sooner than 90 days and no later than 120 days of the mailing of the preliminary notice described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (e), unless the state governmental licensing entity has received a release pursuant to subdivision (h). The procedures in the administrative adjudication provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 11400) and Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code) shall not apply to the denial or suspension of, or refusal to renew, a license or the issuance of a temporary license pursuant to this section.(2) Notwithstanding any other law, if a board, bureau, or commission listed in Section 101, other than the Contractors State License Board, fails to take action in accordance with this section, the Department of Consumer Affairs shall issue a temporary license or suspend or refuse to issue, reactivate, reinstate, or renew a license, as appropriate.(g) Notices shall be developed by each state governmental licensing entity. For an applicant or licensee on the State Board of Equalizations certified list, the notice shall include the address and telephone number of the State Board of Equalization, and shall emphasize the necessity of obtaining a release from the State Board of Equalization as a condition for the issuance, renewal, or continued valid status of a license or licenses. For an applicant or licensee on the Franchise Tax Boards certified list, the notice shall include the address and telephone number of the Franchise Tax Board, and shall emphasize the necessity of obtaining a release from the Franchise Tax Board as a condition for the issuance, renewal, or continued valid status of a license or licenses.(1) The notice shall inform the applicant that the state governmental licensing entity shall issue a temporary license, as provided in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (e), for 90 calendar days if the applicant is otherwise eligible and that upon expiration of that time period, the license will be denied unless the state governmental licensing entity has received a release from the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable.(2) The notice shall inform the licensee that any license suspended under this section will remain suspended until the state governmental licensing entity receives a release along with applications and fees, if applicable, to reinstate the license.(3) The notice shall also inform the applicant or licensee that if an application is denied or a license is suspended pursuant to this section, any moneys paid by the applicant or licensee shall not be refunded by the state governmental licensing entity. The state governmental licensing entity shall also develop a form that the applicant or licensee shall use to request a release by the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board. A copy of this form shall be included with every notice sent pursuant to this subdivision.(h) If the applicant or licensee wishes to challenge the submission of their name on a certified list, the applicant or licensee shall make a timely written request for release to the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable. The State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board shall immediately send a release to the appropriate state governmental licensing entity and the applicant or licensee, if any of the following conditions are met:(1) The applicant or licensee has complied with the tax obligation, either by payment of the unpaid taxes or entry into an installment payment agreement, as described in Section 6832 or 19008 of the Revenue and Taxation Code, to satisfy the unpaid taxes.(2) The applicant or licensee has submitted a request for release not later than 45 days after the applicants or licensees receipt of a preliminary notice described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (e), but the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, will be unable to complete the release review and send notice of its findings to the applicant or licensee and state governmental licensing entity within 45 days after the State Board of Equalizations or the Franchise Tax Boards receipt of the applicants or licensees request for release. Whenever a release is granted under this paragraph, and, notwithstanding that release, the applicable license or licenses have been suspended erroneously, the state governmental licensing entity shall reinstate the applicable licenses with retroactive effect back to the date of the erroneous suspension and that suspension shall not be reflected on any license record.(3) The applicant or licensee is unable to pay the outstanding tax obligation due to a current financial hardship. Financial hardship means financial hardship as determined by the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, where the applicant or licensee is unable to pay any part of the outstanding liability and the applicant or licensee is unable to qualify for an installment payment arrangement as provided for by Section 6832 or Section 19008 of the Revenue and Taxation Code. In order to establish the existence of a financial hardship, the applicant or licensee shall submit any information, including information related to reasonable business and personal expenses, requested by the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, for purposes of making that determination.(i) An applicant or licensee is required to act with diligence in responding to notices from the state governmental licensing entity and the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board with the recognition that the temporary license will lapse or the license suspension will go into effect after 90 days and that the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board must have time to act within that period. An applicants or licensees delay in acting, without good cause, which directly results in the inability of the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, to complete a review of the applicants or licensees request for release shall not constitute the diligence required under this section which would justify the issuance of a release. An applicant or licensee shall have the burden of establishing that they diligently responded to notices from the state governmental licensing entity or the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board and that any delay was not without good cause.(j) The State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board shall create release forms for use pursuant to this section. When the applicant or licensee has complied with the tax obligation by payment of the unpaid taxes, or entry into an installment payment agreement, or establishing the existence of a current financial hardship as defined in paragraph (3) of subdivision (h), the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, shall mail a release form to the applicant or licensee and provide a release to the appropriate state governmental licensing entity. Any state governmental licensing entity that has received a release from the State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board pursuant to this subdivision shall process the release within five business days of its receipt. If the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board determines subsequent to the issuance of a release that the licensee has not complied with their installment payment agreement, the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, shall notify the state governmental licensing entity and the licensee in a format prescribed by the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, that the licensee is not in compliance and the release shall be rescinded. The State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board may, when it is economically feasible for the state governmental licensing entity to develop an automated process for complying with this subdivision, notify the state governmental licensing entity in a manner prescribed by the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, that the licensee has not complied with the installment payment agreement. Upon receipt of this notice, the state governmental licensing entity shall immediately notify the licensee on a form prescribed by the state governmental licensing entity that the licensees license will be suspended on a specific date, and this date shall be no longer than 30 days from the date the form is mailed. The licensee shall be further notified that the license will remain suspended until a new release is issued in accordance with this subdivision.(k) The State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board may enter into interagency agreements with the state governmental licensing entities necessary to implement this section.(l) Notwithstanding any other law, a state governmental licensing entity, with the approval of the appropriate department director or governing body, may impose a fee on a licensee whose license has been suspended pursuant to this section. The fee shall not exceed the amount necessary for the state governmental licensing entity to cover its costs in carrying out the provisions of this section. Fees imposed pursuant to this section shall be deposited in the fund in which other fees imposed by the state governmental licensing entity are deposited and shall be available to that entity upon appropriation in the annual Budget Act.(m) The process described in subdivision (h) shall constitute the sole administrative remedy for contesting the issuance of a temporary license or the denial or suspension of a license under this section.(n) Any state governmental licensing entity receiving an inquiry as to the licensed status of an applicant or licensee who has had a license denied or suspended under this section or who has been granted a temporary license under this section shall respond that the license was denied or suspended or the temporary license was issued only because the licensee appeared on a list of the 500 largest tax delinquencies pursuant to Section 7063 or 19195 of the Revenue and Taxation Code. Information collected pursuant to this section by any state agency, board, or department shall be subject to the Information Practices Act of 1977 (Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 1798) of Title 1.8 of Part 4 of Division 3 of the Civil Code). Any state governmental licensing entity that discloses on its internet website or other publication that the licensee has had a license denied or suspended under this section or has been granted a temporary license under this section shall prominently disclose, in bold and adjacent to the information regarding the status of the license, that the only reason the license was denied, suspended, or temporarily issued is because the licensee failed to pay taxes.(o) Any rules and regulations issued pursuant to this section by any state agency, board, or department may be adopted as emergency regulations in accordance with the rulemaking provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code). The adoption of these regulations shall be deemed an emergency and necessary for the immediate preservation of the public peace, health, and safety, or general welfare. The regulations shall become effective immediately upon filing with the Secretary of State.(p) The State Board of Equalization, the Franchise Tax Board, and state governmental licensing entities, as appropriate, shall adopt regulations as necessary to implement this section.(q) (1) Neither the state governmental licensing entity, nor any officer, employee, or agent, or former officer, employee, or agent of a state governmental licensing entity, may disclose or use any information obtained from the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, pursuant to this section, except to inform the public of the denial, refusal to renew, or suspension of a license or the issuance of a temporary license pursuant to this section. The release or other use of information received by a state governmental licensing entity pursuant to this section, except as authorized by this section, is punishable as a misdemeanor. This subdivision may not be interpreted to prevent the State Bar of California from filing a request with the Supreme Court of California to suspend a member of the bar pursuant to this section.(2) A suspension of, or refusal to renew, a license or issuance of a temporary license pursuant to this section does not constitute denial or discipline of a licensee for purposes of any reporting requirements to the National Practitioner Data Bank and shall not be reported to the National Practitioner Data Bank or the Healthcare Integrity and Protection Data Bank.(3) Upon release from the certified list, the suspension or revocation of the applicants or licensees license shall be purged from the state governmental licensing entitys internet website or other publication within three business days. This paragraph shall not apply to the State Bar of California.(r) If any provision of this section or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, that invalidity shall not affect other provisions or applications of this section that can be given effect without the invalid provision or application, and to this end the provisions of this section are severable.(s) All rights to review afforded by this section to an applicant shall also be afforded to a licensee.(t) Unless otherwise provided in this section, the policies, practices, and procedures of a state governmental licensing entity with respect to license suspensions under this section shall be the same as those applicable with respect to suspensions pursuant to Section 17520 of the Family Code.(u) No provision of this section shall be interpreted to allow a court to review and prevent the collection of taxes prior to the payment of those taxes in violation of the California Constitution.(v) This section shall apply to any licensee whose name appears on a list of the 500 largest tax delinquencies pursuant to Section 7063 or 19195 of the Revenue and Taxation Code on or after July 1, 2012. |
|---|
| 782 | 797 | | |
|---|
| 783 | 798 | | SEC. 9. Section 494.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 784 | 799 | | |
|---|
| 785 | 800 | | ### SEC. 9. |
|---|
| 786 | 801 | | |
|---|
| 787 | 802 | | 494.5. (a) (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (2), (3), and (4), a state governmental licensing entity shall refuse to issue, reactivate, reinstate, or renew a license and shall suspend a license if a licensees name is included on a certified list.(2) The Department of Motor Vehicles shall suspend a license if a licensees name is included on a certified list. Any reference in this section to the issuance, reactivation, reinstatement, renewal, or denial of a license shall not apply to the Department of Motor Vehicles.(3) The State Bar of California may recommend to refuse to issue, reactivate, reinstate, or renew a license and may recommend to suspend a license if a licensees name is included on a certified list. The word may shall be substituted for the word shall relating to the issuance of a temporary license, refusal to issue, reactivate, reinstate, renew, or suspend a license in this section for licenses under the jurisdiction of the California Supreme Court.(4) The Department of Alcoholic Beverage Control may refuse to issue, reactivate, reinstate, or renew a license, and may suspend a license, if a licensees name is included on a certified list.(b) For purposes of this section:(1) Certified list means either the list provided by the State Board of Equalization or the list provided by the Franchise Tax Board of persons whose names appear on the lists of the 500 largest tax delinquencies pursuant to Section 7063 or 19195 of the Revenue and Taxation Code, as applicable.(2) License includes a certificate, registration, or any other authorization to engage in a profession or occupation issued by a state governmental licensing entity. License includes a drivers license issued pursuant to Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 12500) of Division 6 of the Vehicle Code. License excludes a vehicle registration issued pursuant to Division 3 (commencing with Section 4000) of the Vehicle Code.(3) Licensee means an individual authorized by a license to drive a motor vehicle or authorized by a license, certificate, registration, or other authorization to engage in a profession or occupation issued by a state governmental licensing entity.(4) State governmental licensing entity means any entity listed in Section 101, 1000, or 19420, the office of the Attorney General, the Department of Insurance, the Department of Motor Vehicles, the State Bar of California, the Department of Real Estate, and any other state agency, board, or commission that issues a license, certificate, or registration authorizing an individual to engage in a profession or occupation, including any certificate, business or occupational license, or permit or license issued by the Department of Motor Vehicles or the Department of the California Highway Patrol. State governmental licensing entity shall not include the Contractors State License Board.(c) The State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board shall each submit its respective certified list to every state governmental licensing entity. The certified lists shall include the name, social security number or taxpayer identification number, and the last known address of the persons identified on the certified lists.(d) Notwithstanding any other law, each state governmental licensing entity shall collect the social security number or the federal taxpayer identification number from all applicants for the purposes of matching the names of the certified lists provided by the State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board to applicants and licensees.(e) (1) Each state governmental licensing entity shall determine whether an applicant or licensee is on the most recent certified list provided by the State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board.(2) If an applicant or licensee is on either of the certified lists, the state governmental licensing entity shall immediately provide a preliminary notice to the applicant or licensee of the entitys intent to suspend or withhold issuance or renewal of the license. The preliminary notice shall be delivered personally or by mail to the applicants or licensees last known mailing address on file with the state governmental licensing entity within 30 days of receipt of the certified list. Service by mail shall be completed in accordance with Section 1013 of the Code of Civil Procedure.(A) The state governmental licensing entity shall issue a temporary license valid for a period of 90 days to any applicant whose name is on a certified list if the applicant is otherwise eligible for a license.(B) The 90-day time period for a temporary license shall not be extended. Only one temporary license shall be issued during a regular license term and the term of the temporary license shall coincide with the first 90 days of the regular license term. A license for the full term or the remainder of the license term may be issued or renewed only upon compliance with this section.(C) In the event that a license is suspended or an application for a license or the renewal of a license is denied pursuant to this section, any funds paid by the applicant or licensee shall not be refunded by the state governmental licensing entity.(f) (1) A state governmental licensing entity shall refuse to issue or shall suspend a license pursuant to this section no sooner than 90 days and no later than 120 days of the mailing of the preliminary notice described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (e), unless the state governmental licensing entity has received a release pursuant to subdivision (h). The procedures in the administrative adjudication provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 11400) and Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code) shall not apply to the denial or suspension of, or refusal to renew, a license or the issuance of a temporary license pursuant to this section.(2) Notwithstanding any other law, if a board, bureau, or commission listed in Section 101, other than the Contractors State License Board, fails to take action in accordance with this section, the Department of Consumer Affairs shall issue a temporary license or suspend or refuse to issue, reactivate, reinstate, or renew a license, as appropriate.(g) Notices shall be developed by each state governmental licensing entity. For an applicant or licensee on the State Board of Equalizations certified list, the notice shall include the address and telephone number of the State Board of Equalization, and shall emphasize the necessity of obtaining a release from the State Board of Equalization as a condition for the issuance, renewal, or continued valid status of a license or licenses. For an applicant or licensee on the Franchise Tax Boards certified list, the notice shall include the address and telephone number of the Franchise Tax Board, and shall emphasize the necessity of obtaining a release from the Franchise Tax Board as a condition for the issuance, renewal, or continued valid status of a license or licenses.(1) The notice shall inform the applicant that the state governmental licensing entity shall issue a temporary license, as provided in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (e), for 90 calendar days if the applicant is otherwise eligible and that upon expiration of that time period, the license will be denied unless the state governmental licensing entity has received a release from the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable.(2) The notice shall inform the licensee that any license suspended under this section will remain suspended until the state governmental licensing entity receives a release along with applications and fees, if applicable, to reinstate the license.(3) The notice shall also inform the applicant or licensee that if an application is denied or a license is suspended pursuant to this section, any moneys paid by the applicant or licensee shall not be refunded by the state governmental licensing entity. The state governmental licensing entity shall also develop a form that the applicant or licensee shall use to request a release by the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board. A copy of this form shall be included with every notice sent pursuant to this subdivision.(h) If the applicant or licensee wishes to challenge the submission of their name on a certified list, the applicant or licensee shall make a timely written request for release to the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable. The State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board shall immediately send a release to the appropriate state governmental licensing entity and the applicant or licensee, if any of the following conditions are met:(1) The applicant or licensee has complied with the tax obligation, either by payment of the unpaid taxes or entry into an installment payment agreement, as described in Section 6832 or 19008 of the Revenue and Taxation Code, to satisfy the unpaid taxes.(2) The applicant or licensee has submitted a request for release not later than 45 days after the applicants or licensees receipt of a preliminary notice described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (e), but the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, will be unable to complete the release review and send notice of its findings to the applicant or licensee and state governmental licensing entity within 45 days after the State Board of Equalizations or the Franchise Tax Boards receipt of the applicants or licensees request for release. Whenever a release is granted under this paragraph, and, notwithstanding that release, the applicable license or licenses have been suspended erroneously, the state governmental licensing entity shall reinstate the applicable licenses with retroactive effect back to the date of the erroneous suspension and that suspension shall not be reflected on any license record.(3) The applicant or licensee is unable to pay the outstanding tax obligation due to a current financial hardship. Financial hardship means financial hardship as determined by the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, where the applicant or licensee is unable to pay any part of the outstanding liability and the applicant or licensee is unable to qualify for an installment payment arrangement as provided for by Section 6832 or Section 19008 of the Revenue and Taxation Code. In order to establish the existence of a financial hardship, the applicant or licensee shall submit any information, including information related to reasonable business and personal expenses, requested by the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, for purposes of making that determination.(i) An applicant or licensee is required to act with diligence in responding to notices from the state governmental licensing entity and the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board with the recognition that the temporary license will lapse or the license suspension will go into effect after 90 days and that the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board must have time to act within that period. An applicants or licensees delay in acting, without good cause, which directly results in the inability of the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, to complete a review of the applicants or licensees request for release shall not constitute the diligence required under this section which would justify the issuance of a release. An applicant or licensee shall have the burden of establishing that they diligently responded to notices from the state governmental licensing entity or the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board and that any delay was not without good cause.(j) The State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board shall create release forms for use pursuant to this section. When the applicant or licensee has complied with the tax obligation by payment of the unpaid taxes, or entry into an installment payment agreement, or establishing the existence of a current financial hardship as defined in paragraph (3) of subdivision (h), the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, shall mail a release form to the applicant or licensee and provide a release to the appropriate state governmental licensing entity. Any state governmental licensing entity that has received a release from the State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board pursuant to this subdivision shall process the release within five business days of its receipt. If the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board determines subsequent to the issuance of a release that the licensee has not complied with their installment payment agreement, the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, shall notify the state governmental licensing entity and the licensee in a format prescribed by the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, that the licensee is not in compliance and the release shall be rescinded. The State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board may, when it is economically feasible for the state governmental licensing entity to develop an automated process for complying with this subdivision, notify the state governmental licensing entity in a manner prescribed by the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, that the licensee has not complied with the installment payment agreement. Upon receipt of this notice, the state governmental licensing entity shall immediately notify the licensee on a form prescribed by the state governmental licensing entity that the licensees license will be suspended on a specific date, and this date shall be no longer than 30 days from the date the form is mailed. The licensee shall be further notified that the license will remain suspended until a new release is issued in accordance with this subdivision.(k) The State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board may enter into interagency agreements with the state governmental licensing entities necessary to implement this section.(l) Notwithstanding any other law, a state governmental licensing entity, with the approval of the appropriate department director or governing body, may impose a fee on a licensee whose license has been suspended pursuant to this section. The fee shall not exceed the amount necessary for the state governmental licensing entity to cover its costs in carrying out the provisions of this section. Fees imposed pursuant to this section shall be deposited in the fund in which other fees imposed by the state governmental licensing entity are deposited and shall be available to that entity upon appropriation in the annual Budget Act.(m) The process described in subdivision (h) shall constitute the sole administrative remedy for contesting the issuance of a temporary license or the denial or suspension of a license under this section.(n) Any state governmental licensing entity receiving an inquiry as to the licensed status of an applicant or licensee who has had a license denied or suspended under this section or who has been granted a temporary license under this section shall respond that the license was denied or suspended or the temporary license was issued only because the licensee appeared on a list of the 500 largest tax delinquencies pursuant to Section 7063 or 19195 of the Revenue and Taxation Code. Information collected pursuant to this section by any state agency, board, or department shall be subject to the Information Practices Act of 1977 (Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 1798) of Title 1.8 of Part 4 of Division 3 of the Civil Code). Any state governmental licensing entity that discloses on its internet website or other publication that the licensee has had a license denied or suspended under this section or has been granted a temporary license under this section shall prominently disclose, in bold and adjacent to the information regarding the status of the license, that the only reason the license was denied, suspended, or temporarily issued is because the licensee failed to pay taxes.(o) Any rules and regulations issued pursuant to this section by any state agency, board, or department may be adopted as emergency regulations in accordance with the rulemaking provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code). The adoption of these regulations shall be deemed an emergency and necessary for the immediate preservation of the public peace, health, and safety, or general welfare. The regulations shall become effective immediately upon filing with the Secretary of State.(p) The State Board of Equalization, the Franchise Tax Board, and state governmental licensing entities, as appropriate, shall adopt regulations as necessary to implement this section.(q) (1) Neither the state governmental licensing entity, nor any officer, employee, or agent, or former officer, employee, or agent of a state governmental licensing entity, may disclose or use any information obtained from the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, pursuant to this section, except to inform the public of the denial, refusal to renew, or suspension of a license or the issuance of a temporary license pursuant to this section. The release or other use of information received by a state governmental licensing entity pursuant to this section, except as authorized by this section, is punishable as a misdemeanor. This subdivision may not be interpreted to prevent the State Bar of California from filing a request with the Supreme Court of California to suspend a member of the bar pursuant to this section.(2) A suspension of, or refusal to renew, a license or issuance of a temporary license pursuant to this section does not constitute denial or discipline of a licensee for purposes of any reporting requirements to the National Practitioner Data Bank and shall not be reported to the National Practitioner Data Bank or the Healthcare Integrity and Protection Data Bank.(3) Upon release from the certified list, the suspension or revocation of the applicants or licensees license shall be purged from the state governmental licensing entitys internet website or other publication within three business days. This paragraph shall not apply to the State Bar of California.(r) If any provision of this section or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, that invalidity shall not affect other provisions or applications of this section that can be given effect without the invalid provision or application, and to this end the provisions of this section are severable.(s) All rights to review afforded by this section to an applicant shall also be afforded to a licensee.(t) Unless otherwise provided in this section, the policies, practices, and procedures of a state governmental licensing entity with respect to license suspensions under this section shall be the same as those applicable with respect to suspensions pursuant to Section 17520 of the Family Code.(u) No provision of this section shall be interpreted to allow a court to review and prevent the collection of taxes prior to the payment of those taxes in violation of the California Constitution.(v) This section shall apply to any licensee whose name appears on a list of the 500 largest tax delinquencies pursuant to Section 7063 or 19195 of the Revenue and Taxation Code on or after July 1, 2012. |
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| 788 | 803 | | |
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| 789 | 804 | | 494.5. (a) (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (2), (3), and (4), a state governmental licensing entity shall refuse to issue, reactivate, reinstate, or renew a license and shall suspend a license if a licensees name is included on a certified list.(2) The Department of Motor Vehicles shall suspend a license if a licensees name is included on a certified list. Any reference in this section to the issuance, reactivation, reinstatement, renewal, or denial of a license shall not apply to the Department of Motor Vehicles.(3) The State Bar of California may recommend to refuse to issue, reactivate, reinstate, or renew a license and may recommend to suspend a license if a licensees name is included on a certified list. The word may shall be substituted for the word shall relating to the issuance of a temporary license, refusal to issue, reactivate, reinstate, renew, or suspend a license in this section for licenses under the jurisdiction of the California Supreme Court.(4) The Department of Alcoholic Beverage Control may refuse to issue, reactivate, reinstate, or renew a license, and may suspend a license, if a licensees name is included on a certified list.(b) For purposes of this section:(1) Certified list means either the list provided by the State Board of Equalization or the list provided by the Franchise Tax Board of persons whose names appear on the lists of the 500 largest tax delinquencies pursuant to Section 7063 or 19195 of the Revenue and Taxation Code, as applicable.(2) License includes a certificate, registration, or any other authorization to engage in a profession or occupation issued by a state governmental licensing entity. License includes a drivers license issued pursuant to Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 12500) of Division 6 of the Vehicle Code. License excludes a vehicle registration issued pursuant to Division 3 (commencing with Section 4000) of the Vehicle Code.(3) Licensee means an individual authorized by a license to drive a motor vehicle or authorized by a license, certificate, registration, or other authorization to engage in a profession or occupation issued by a state governmental licensing entity.(4) State governmental licensing entity means any entity listed in Section 101, 1000, or 19420, the office of the Attorney General, the Department of Insurance, the Department of Motor Vehicles, the State Bar of California, the Department of Real Estate, and any other state agency, board, or commission that issues a license, certificate, or registration authorizing an individual to engage in a profession or occupation, including any certificate, business or occupational license, or permit or license issued by the Department of Motor Vehicles or the Department of the California Highway Patrol. State governmental licensing entity shall not include the Contractors State License Board.(c) The State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board shall each submit its respective certified list to every state governmental licensing entity. The certified lists shall include the name, social security number or taxpayer identification number, and the last known address of the persons identified on the certified lists.(d) Notwithstanding any other law, each state governmental licensing entity shall collect the social security number or the federal taxpayer identification number from all applicants for the purposes of matching the names of the certified lists provided by the State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board to applicants and licensees.(e) (1) Each state governmental licensing entity shall determine whether an applicant or licensee is on the most recent certified list provided by the State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board.(2) If an applicant or licensee is on either of the certified lists, the state governmental licensing entity shall immediately provide a preliminary notice to the applicant or licensee of the entitys intent to suspend or withhold issuance or renewal of the license. The preliminary notice shall be delivered personally or by mail to the applicants or licensees last known mailing address on file with the state governmental licensing entity within 30 days of receipt of the certified list. Service by mail shall be completed in accordance with Section 1013 of the Code of Civil Procedure.(A) The state governmental licensing entity shall issue a temporary license valid for a period of 90 days to any applicant whose name is on a certified list if the applicant is otherwise eligible for a license.(B) The 90-day time period for a temporary license shall not be extended. Only one temporary license shall be issued during a regular license term and the term of the temporary license shall coincide with the first 90 days of the regular license term. A license for the full term or the remainder of the license term may be issued or renewed only upon compliance with this section.(C) In the event that a license is suspended or an application for a license or the renewal of a license is denied pursuant to this section, any funds paid by the applicant or licensee shall not be refunded by the state governmental licensing entity.(f) (1) A state governmental licensing entity shall refuse to issue or shall suspend a license pursuant to this section no sooner than 90 days and no later than 120 days of the mailing of the preliminary notice described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (e), unless the state governmental licensing entity has received a release pursuant to subdivision (h). The procedures in the administrative adjudication provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 11400) and Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code) shall not apply to the denial or suspension of, or refusal to renew, a license or the issuance of a temporary license pursuant to this section.(2) Notwithstanding any other law, if a board, bureau, or commission listed in Section 101, other than the Contractors State License Board, fails to take action in accordance with this section, the Department of Consumer Affairs shall issue a temporary license or suspend or refuse to issue, reactivate, reinstate, or renew a license, as appropriate.(g) Notices shall be developed by each state governmental licensing entity. For an applicant or licensee on the State Board of Equalizations certified list, the notice shall include the address and telephone number of the State Board of Equalization, and shall emphasize the necessity of obtaining a release from the State Board of Equalization as a condition for the issuance, renewal, or continued valid status of a license or licenses. For an applicant or licensee on the Franchise Tax Boards certified list, the notice shall include the address and telephone number of the Franchise Tax Board, and shall emphasize the necessity of obtaining a release from the Franchise Tax Board as a condition for the issuance, renewal, or continued valid status of a license or licenses.(1) The notice shall inform the applicant that the state governmental licensing entity shall issue a temporary license, as provided in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (e), for 90 calendar days if the applicant is otherwise eligible and that upon expiration of that time period, the license will be denied unless the state governmental licensing entity has received a release from the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable.(2) The notice shall inform the licensee that any license suspended under this section will remain suspended until the state governmental licensing entity receives a release along with applications and fees, if applicable, to reinstate the license.(3) The notice shall also inform the applicant or licensee that if an application is denied or a license is suspended pursuant to this section, any moneys paid by the applicant or licensee shall not be refunded by the state governmental licensing entity. The state governmental licensing entity shall also develop a form that the applicant or licensee shall use to request a release by the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board. A copy of this form shall be included with every notice sent pursuant to this subdivision.(h) If the applicant or licensee wishes to challenge the submission of their name on a certified list, the applicant or licensee shall make a timely written request for release to the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable. The State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board shall immediately send a release to the appropriate state governmental licensing entity and the applicant or licensee, if any of the following conditions are met:(1) The applicant or licensee has complied with the tax obligation, either by payment of the unpaid taxes or entry into an installment payment agreement, as described in Section 6832 or 19008 of the Revenue and Taxation Code, to satisfy the unpaid taxes.(2) The applicant or licensee has submitted a request for release not later than 45 days after the applicants or licensees receipt of a preliminary notice described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (e), but the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, will be unable to complete the release review and send notice of its findings to the applicant or licensee and state governmental licensing entity within 45 days after the State Board of Equalizations or the Franchise Tax Boards receipt of the applicants or licensees request for release. Whenever a release is granted under this paragraph, and, notwithstanding that release, the applicable license or licenses have been suspended erroneously, the state governmental licensing entity shall reinstate the applicable licenses with retroactive effect back to the date of the erroneous suspension and that suspension shall not be reflected on any license record.(3) The applicant or licensee is unable to pay the outstanding tax obligation due to a current financial hardship. Financial hardship means financial hardship as determined by the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, where the applicant or licensee is unable to pay any part of the outstanding liability and the applicant or licensee is unable to qualify for an installment payment arrangement as provided for by Section 6832 or Section 19008 of the Revenue and Taxation Code. In order to establish the existence of a financial hardship, the applicant or licensee shall submit any information, including information related to reasonable business and personal expenses, requested by the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, for purposes of making that determination.(i) An applicant or licensee is required to act with diligence in responding to notices from the state governmental licensing entity and the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board with the recognition that the temporary license will lapse or the license suspension will go into effect after 90 days and that the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board must have time to act within that period. An applicants or licensees delay in acting, without good cause, which directly results in the inability of the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, to complete a review of the applicants or licensees request for release shall not constitute the diligence required under this section which would justify the issuance of a release. An applicant or licensee shall have the burden of establishing that they diligently responded to notices from the state governmental licensing entity or the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board and that any delay was not without good cause.(j) The State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board shall create release forms for use pursuant to this section. When the applicant or licensee has complied with the tax obligation by payment of the unpaid taxes, or entry into an installment payment agreement, or establishing the existence of a current financial hardship as defined in paragraph (3) of subdivision (h), the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, shall mail a release form to the applicant or licensee and provide a release to the appropriate state governmental licensing entity. Any state governmental licensing entity that has received a release from the State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board pursuant to this subdivision shall process the release within five business days of its receipt. If the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board determines subsequent to the issuance of a release that the licensee has not complied with their installment payment agreement, the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, shall notify the state governmental licensing entity and the licensee in a format prescribed by the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, that the licensee is not in compliance and the release shall be rescinded. The State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board may, when it is economically feasible for the state governmental licensing entity to develop an automated process for complying with this subdivision, notify the state governmental licensing entity in a manner prescribed by the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, that the licensee has not complied with the installment payment agreement. Upon receipt of this notice, the state governmental licensing entity shall immediately notify the licensee on a form prescribed by the state governmental licensing entity that the licensees license will be suspended on a specific date, and this date shall be no longer than 30 days from the date the form is mailed. The licensee shall be further notified that the license will remain suspended until a new release is issued in accordance with this subdivision.(k) The State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board may enter into interagency agreements with the state governmental licensing entities necessary to implement this section.(l) Notwithstanding any other law, a state governmental licensing entity, with the approval of the appropriate department director or governing body, may impose a fee on a licensee whose license has been suspended pursuant to this section. The fee shall not exceed the amount necessary for the state governmental licensing entity to cover its costs in carrying out the provisions of this section. Fees imposed pursuant to this section shall be deposited in the fund in which other fees imposed by the state governmental licensing entity are deposited and shall be available to that entity upon appropriation in the annual Budget Act.(m) The process described in subdivision (h) shall constitute the sole administrative remedy for contesting the issuance of a temporary license or the denial or suspension of a license under this section.(n) Any state governmental licensing entity receiving an inquiry as to the licensed status of an applicant or licensee who has had a license denied or suspended under this section or who has been granted a temporary license under this section shall respond that the license was denied or suspended or the temporary license was issued only because the licensee appeared on a list of the 500 largest tax delinquencies pursuant to Section 7063 or 19195 of the Revenue and Taxation Code. Information collected pursuant to this section by any state agency, board, or department shall be subject to the Information Practices Act of 1977 (Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 1798) of Title 1.8 of Part 4 of Division 3 of the Civil Code). Any state governmental licensing entity that discloses on its internet website or other publication that the licensee has had a license denied or suspended under this section or has been granted a temporary license under this section shall prominently disclose, in bold and adjacent to the information regarding the status of the license, that the only reason the license was denied, suspended, or temporarily issued is because the licensee failed to pay taxes.(o) Any rules and regulations issued pursuant to this section by any state agency, board, or department may be adopted as emergency regulations in accordance with the rulemaking provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code). The adoption of these regulations shall be deemed an emergency and necessary for the immediate preservation of the public peace, health, and safety, or general welfare. The regulations shall become effective immediately upon filing with the Secretary of State.(p) The State Board of Equalization, the Franchise Tax Board, and state governmental licensing entities, as appropriate, shall adopt regulations as necessary to implement this section.(q) (1) Neither the state governmental licensing entity, nor any officer, employee, or agent, or former officer, employee, or agent of a state governmental licensing entity, may disclose or use any information obtained from the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, pursuant to this section, except to inform the public of the denial, refusal to renew, or suspension of a license or the issuance of a temporary license pursuant to this section. The release or other use of information received by a state governmental licensing entity pursuant to this section, except as authorized by this section, is punishable as a misdemeanor. This subdivision may not be interpreted to prevent the State Bar of California from filing a request with the Supreme Court of California to suspend a member of the bar pursuant to this section.(2) A suspension of, or refusal to renew, a license or issuance of a temporary license pursuant to this section does not constitute denial or discipline of a licensee for purposes of any reporting requirements to the National Practitioner Data Bank and shall not be reported to the National Practitioner Data Bank or the Healthcare Integrity and Protection Data Bank.(3) Upon release from the certified list, the suspension or revocation of the applicants or licensees license shall be purged from the state governmental licensing entitys internet website or other publication within three business days. This paragraph shall not apply to the State Bar of California.(r) If any provision of this section or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, that invalidity shall not affect other provisions or applications of this section that can be given effect without the invalid provision or application, and to this end the provisions of this section are severable.(s) All rights to review afforded by this section to an applicant shall also be afforded to a licensee.(t) Unless otherwise provided in this section, the policies, practices, and procedures of a state governmental licensing entity with respect to license suspensions under this section shall be the same as those applicable with respect to suspensions pursuant to Section 17520 of the Family Code.(u) No provision of this section shall be interpreted to allow a court to review and prevent the collection of taxes prior to the payment of those taxes in violation of the California Constitution.(v) This section shall apply to any licensee whose name appears on a list of the 500 largest tax delinquencies pursuant to Section 7063 or 19195 of the Revenue and Taxation Code on or after July 1, 2012. |
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| 790 | 805 | | |
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| 791 | 806 | | 494.5. (a) (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (2), (3), and (4), a state governmental licensing entity shall refuse to issue, reactivate, reinstate, or renew a license and shall suspend a license if a licensees name is included on a certified list.(2) The Department of Motor Vehicles shall suspend a license if a licensees name is included on a certified list. Any reference in this section to the issuance, reactivation, reinstatement, renewal, or denial of a license shall not apply to the Department of Motor Vehicles.(3) The State Bar of California may recommend to refuse to issue, reactivate, reinstate, or renew a license and may recommend to suspend a license if a licensees name is included on a certified list. The word may shall be substituted for the word shall relating to the issuance of a temporary license, refusal to issue, reactivate, reinstate, renew, or suspend a license in this section for licenses under the jurisdiction of the California Supreme Court.(4) The Department of Alcoholic Beverage Control may refuse to issue, reactivate, reinstate, or renew a license, and may suspend a license, if a licensees name is included on a certified list.(b) For purposes of this section:(1) Certified list means either the list provided by the State Board of Equalization or the list provided by the Franchise Tax Board of persons whose names appear on the lists of the 500 largest tax delinquencies pursuant to Section 7063 or 19195 of the Revenue and Taxation Code, as applicable.(2) License includes a certificate, registration, or any other authorization to engage in a profession or occupation issued by a state governmental licensing entity. License includes a drivers license issued pursuant to Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 12500) of Division 6 of the Vehicle Code. License excludes a vehicle registration issued pursuant to Division 3 (commencing with Section 4000) of the Vehicle Code.(3) Licensee means an individual authorized by a license to drive a motor vehicle or authorized by a license, certificate, registration, or other authorization to engage in a profession or occupation issued by a state governmental licensing entity.(4) State governmental licensing entity means any entity listed in Section 101, 1000, or 19420, the office of the Attorney General, the Department of Insurance, the Department of Motor Vehicles, the State Bar of California, the Department of Real Estate, and any other state agency, board, or commission that issues a license, certificate, or registration authorizing an individual to engage in a profession or occupation, including any certificate, business or occupational license, or permit or license issued by the Department of Motor Vehicles or the Department of the California Highway Patrol. State governmental licensing entity shall not include the Contractors State License Board.(c) The State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board shall each submit its respective certified list to every state governmental licensing entity. The certified lists shall include the name, social security number or taxpayer identification number, and the last known address of the persons identified on the certified lists.(d) Notwithstanding any other law, each state governmental licensing entity shall collect the social security number or the federal taxpayer identification number from all applicants for the purposes of matching the names of the certified lists provided by the State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board to applicants and licensees.(e) (1) Each state governmental licensing entity shall determine whether an applicant or licensee is on the most recent certified list provided by the State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board.(2) If an applicant or licensee is on either of the certified lists, the state governmental licensing entity shall immediately provide a preliminary notice to the applicant or licensee of the entitys intent to suspend or withhold issuance or renewal of the license. The preliminary notice shall be delivered personally or by mail to the applicants or licensees last known mailing address on file with the state governmental licensing entity within 30 days of receipt of the certified list. Service by mail shall be completed in accordance with Section 1013 of the Code of Civil Procedure.(A) The state governmental licensing entity shall issue a temporary license valid for a period of 90 days to any applicant whose name is on a certified list if the applicant is otherwise eligible for a license.(B) The 90-day time period for a temporary license shall not be extended. Only one temporary license shall be issued during a regular license term and the term of the temporary license shall coincide with the first 90 days of the regular license term. A license for the full term or the remainder of the license term may be issued or renewed only upon compliance with this section.(C) In the event that a license is suspended or an application for a license or the renewal of a license is denied pursuant to this section, any funds paid by the applicant or licensee shall not be refunded by the state governmental licensing entity.(f) (1) A state governmental licensing entity shall refuse to issue or shall suspend a license pursuant to this section no sooner than 90 days and no later than 120 days of the mailing of the preliminary notice described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (e), unless the state governmental licensing entity has received a release pursuant to subdivision (h). The procedures in the administrative adjudication provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 11400) and Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code) shall not apply to the denial or suspension of, or refusal to renew, a license or the issuance of a temporary license pursuant to this section.(2) Notwithstanding any other law, if a board, bureau, or commission listed in Section 101, other than the Contractors State License Board, fails to take action in accordance with this section, the Department of Consumer Affairs shall issue a temporary license or suspend or refuse to issue, reactivate, reinstate, or renew a license, as appropriate.(g) Notices shall be developed by each state governmental licensing entity. For an applicant or licensee on the State Board of Equalizations certified list, the notice shall include the address and telephone number of the State Board of Equalization, and shall emphasize the necessity of obtaining a release from the State Board of Equalization as a condition for the issuance, renewal, or continued valid status of a license or licenses. For an applicant or licensee on the Franchise Tax Boards certified list, the notice shall include the address and telephone number of the Franchise Tax Board, and shall emphasize the necessity of obtaining a release from the Franchise Tax Board as a condition for the issuance, renewal, or continued valid status of a license or licenses.(1) The notice shall inform the applicant that the state governmental licensing entity shall issue a temporary license, as provided in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (e), for 90 calendar days if the applicant is otherwise eligible and that upon expiration of that time period, the license will be denied unless the state governmental licensing entity has received a release from the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable.(2) The notice shall inform the licensee that any license suspended under this section will remain suspended until the state governmental licensing entity receives a release along with applications and fees, if applicable, to reinstate the license.(3) The notice shall also inform the applicant or licensee that if an application is denied or a license is suspended pursuant to this section, any moneys paid by the applicant or licensee shall not be refunded by the state governmental licensing entity. The state governmental licensing entity shall also develop a form that the applicant or licensee shall use to request a release by the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board. A copy of this form shall be included with every notice sent pursuant to this subdivision.(h) If the applicant or licensee wishes to challenge the submission of their name on a certified list, the applicant or licensee shall make a timely written request for release to the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable. The State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board shall immediately send a release to the appropriate state governmental licensing entity and the applicant or licensee, if any of the following conditions are met:(1) The applicant or licensee has complied with the tax obligation, either by payment of the unpaid taxes or entry into an installment payment agreement, as described in Section 6832 or 19008 of the Revenue and Taxation Code, to satisfy the unpaid taxes.(2) The applicant or licensee has submitted a request for release not later than 45 days after the applicants or licensees receipt of a preliminary notice described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (e), but the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, will be unable to complete the release review and send notice of its findings to the applicant or licensee and state governmental licensing entity within 45 days after the State Board of Equalizations or the Franchise Tax Boards receipt of the applicants or licensees request for release. Whenever a release is granted under this paragraph, and, notwithstanding that release, the applicable license or licenses have been suspended erroneously, the state governmental licensing entity shall reinstate the applicable licenses with retroactive effect back to the date of the erroneous suspension and that suspension shall not be reflected on any license record.(3) The applicant or licensee is unable to pay the outstanding tax obligation due to a current financial hardship. Financial hardship means financial hardship as determined by the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, where the applicant or licensee is unable to pay any part of the outstanding liability and the applicant or licensee is unable to qualify for an installment payment arrangement as provided for by Section 6832 or Section 19008 of the Revenue and Taxation Code. In order to establish the existence of a financial hardship, the applicant or licensee shall submit any information, including information related to reasonable business and personal expenses, requested by the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, for purposes of making that determination.(i) An applicant or licensee is required to act with diligence in responding to notices from the state governmental licensing entity and the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board with the recognition that the temporary license will lapse or the license suspension will go into effect after 90 days and that the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board must have time to act within that period. An applicants or licensees delay in acting, without good cause, which directly results in the inability of the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, to complete a review of the applicants or licensees request for release shall not constitute the diligence required under this section which would justify the issuance of a release. An applicant or licensee shall have the burden of establishing that they diligently responded to notices from the state governmental licensing entity or the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board and that any delay was not without good cause.(j) The State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board shall create release forms for use pursuant to this section. When the applicant or licensee has complied with the tax obligation by payment of the unpaid taxes, or entry into an installment payment agreement, or establishing the existence of a current financial hardship as defined in paragraph (3) of subdivision (h), the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, shall mail a release form to the applicant or licensee and provide a release to the appropriate state governmental licensing entity. Any state governmental licensing entity that has received a release from the State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board pursuant to this subdivision shall process the release within five business days of its receipt. If the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board determines subsequent to the issuance of a release that the licensee has not complied with their installment payment agreement, the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, shall notify the state governmental licensing entity and the licensee in a format prescribed by the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, that the licensee is not in compliance and the release shall be rescinded. The State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board may, when it is economically feasible for the state governmental licensing entity to develop an automated process for complying with this subdivision, notify the state governmental licensing entity in a manner prescribed by the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, that the licensee has not complied with the installment payment agreement. Upon receipt of this notice, the state governmental licensing entity shall immediately notify the licensee on a form prescribed by the state governmental licensing entity that the licensees license will be suspended on a specific date, and this date shall be no longer than 30 days from the date the form is mailed. The licensee shall be further notified that the license will remain suspended until a new release is issued in accordance with this subdivision.(k) The State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board may enter into interagency agreements with the state governmental licensing entities necessary to implement this section.(l) Notwithstanding any other law, a state governmental licensing entity, with the approval of the appropriate department director or governing body, may impose a fee on a licensee whose license has been suspended pursuant to this section. The fee shall not exceed the amount necessary for the state governmental licensing entity to cover its costs in carrying out the provisions of this section. Fees imposed pursuant to this section shall be deposited in the fund in which other fees imposed by the state governmental licensing entity are deposited and shall be available to that entity upon appropriation in the annual Budget Act.(m) The process described in subdivision (h) shall constitute the sole administrative remedy for contesting the issuance of a temporary license or the denial or suspension of a license under this section.(n) Any state governmental licensing entity receiving an inquiry as to the licensed status of an applicant or licensee who has had a license denied or suspended under this section or who has been granted a temporary license under this section shall respond that the license was denied or suspended or the temporary license was issued only because the licensee appeared on a list of the 500 largest tax delinquencies pursuant to Section 7063 or 19195 of the Revenue and Taxation Code. Information collected pursuant to this section by any state agency, board, or department shall be subject to the Information Practices Act of 1977 (Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 1798) of Title 1.8 of Part 4 of Division 3 of the Civil Code). Any state governmental licensing entity that discloses on its internet website or other publication that the licensee has had a license denied or suspended under this section or has been granted a temporary license under this section shall prominently disclose, in bold and adjacent to the information regarding the status of the license, that the only reason the license was denied, suspended, or temporarily issued is because the licensee failed to pay taxes.(o) Any rules and regulations issued pursuant to this section by any state agency, board, or department may be adopted as emergency regulations in accordance with the rulemaking provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code). The adoption of these regulations shall be deemed an emergency and necessary for the immediate preservation of the public peace, health, and safety, or general welfare. The regulations shall become effective immediately upon filing with the Secretary of State.(p) The State Board of Equalization, the Franchise Tax Board, and state governmental licensing entities, as appropriate, shall adopt regulations as necessary to implement this section.(q) (1) Neither the state governmental licensing entity, nor any officer, employee, or agent, or former officer, employee, or agent of a state governmental licensing entity, may disclose or use any information obtained from the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, pursuant to this section, except to inform the public of the denial, refusal to renew, or suspension of a license or the issuance of a temporary license pursuant to this section. The release or other use of information received by a state governmental licensing entity pursuant to this section, except as authorized by this section, is punishable as a misdemeanor. This subdivision may not be interpreted to prevent the State Bar of California from filing a request with the Supreme Court of California to suspend a member of the bar pursuant to this section.(2) A suspension of, or refusal to renew, a license or issuance of a temporary license pursuant to this section does not constitute denial or discipline of a licensee for purposes of any reporting requirements to the National Practitioner Data Bank and shall not be reported to the National Practitioner Data Bank or the Healthcare Integrity and Protection Data Bank.(3) Upon release from the certified list, the suspension or revocation of the applicants or licensees license shall be purged from the state governmental licensing entitys internet website or other publication within three business days. This paragraph shall not apply to the State Bar of California.(r) If any provision of this section or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, that invalidity shall not affect other provisions or applications of this section that can be given effect without the invalid provision or application, and to this end the provisions of this section are severable.(s) All rights to review afforded by this section to an applicant shall also be afforded to a licensee.(t) Unless otherwise provided in this section, the policies, practices, and procedures of a state governmental licensing entity with respect to license suspensions under this section shall be the same as those applicable with respect to suspensions pursuant to Section 17520 of the Family Code.(u) No provision of this section shall be interpreted to allow a court to review and prevent the collection of taxes prior to the payment of those taxes in violation of the California Constitution.(v) This section shall apply to any licensee whose name appears on a list of the 500 largest tax delinquencies pursuant to Section 7063 or 19195 of the Revenue and Taxation Code on or after July 1, 2012. |
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| 792 | 807 | | |
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| 793 | 808 | | |
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| 794 | 809 | | |
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| 795 | 810 | | 494.5. (a) (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (2), (3), and (4), a state governmental licensing entity shall refuse to issue, reactivate, reinstate, or renew a license and shall suspend a license if a licensees name is included on a certified list. |
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| 796 | 811 | | |
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| 797 | 812 | | (2) The Department of Motor Vehicles shall suspend a license if a licensees name is included on a certified list. Any reference in this section to the issuance, reactivation, reinstatement, renewal, or denial of a license shall not apply to the Department of Motor Vehicles. |
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| 798 | 813 | | |
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| 799 | 814 | | (3) The State Bar of California may recommend to refuse to issue, reactivate, reinstate, or renew a license and may recommend to suspend a license if a licensees name is included on a certified list. The word may shall be substituted for the word shall relating to the issuance of a temporary license, refusal to issue, reactivate, reinstate, renew, or suspend a license in this section for licenses under the jurisdiction of the California Supreme Court. |
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| 800 | 815 | | |
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| 801 | 816 | | (4) The Department of Alcoholic Beverage Control may refuse to issue, reactivate, reinstate, or renew a license, and may suspend a license, if a licensees name is included on a certified list. |
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| 802 | 817 | | |
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| 803 | 818 | | (b) For purposes of this section: |
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| 804 | 819 | | |
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| 805 | 820 | | (1) Certified list means either the list provided by the State Board of Equalization or the list provided by the Franchise Tax Board of persons whose names appear on the lists of the 500 largest tax delinquencies pursuant to Section 7063 or 19195 of the Revenue and Taxation Code, as applicable. |
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| 806 | 821 | | |
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| 807 | 822 | | (2) License includes a certificate, registration, or any other authorization to engage in a profession or occupation issued by a state governmental licensing entity. License includes a drivers license issued pursuant to Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 12500) of Division 6 of the Vehicle Code. License excludes a vehicle registration issued pursuant to Division 3 (commencing with Section 4000) of the Vehicle Code. |
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| 808 | 823 | | |
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| 809 | 824 | | (3) Licensee means an individual authorized by a license to drive a motor vehicle or authorized by a license, certificate, registration, or other authorization to engage in a profession or occupation issued by a state governmental licensing entity. |
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| 810 | 825 | | |
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| 811 | 826 | | (4) State governmental licensing entity means any entity listed in Section 101, 1000, or 19420, the office of the Attorney General, the Department of Insurance, the Department of Motor Vehicles, the State Bar of California, the Department of Real Estate, and any other state agency, board, or commission that issues a license, certificate, or registration authorizing an individual to engage in a profession or occupation, including any certificate, business or occupational license, or permit or license issued by the Department of Motor Vehicles or the Department of the California Highway Patrol. State governmental licensing entity shall not include the Contractors State License Board. |
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| 812 | 827 | | |
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| 813 | 828 | | (c) The State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board shall each submit its respective certified list to every state governmental licensing entity. The certified lists shall include the name, social security number or taxpayer identification number, and the last known address of the persons identified on the certified lists. |
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| 814 | 829 | | |
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| 815 | 830 | | (d) Notwithstanding any other law, each state governmental licensing entity shall collect the social security number or the federal taxpayer identification number from all applicants for the purposes of matching the names of the certified lists provided by the State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board to applicants and licensees. |
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| 816 | 831 | | |
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| 817 | 832 | | (e) (1) Each state governmental licensing entity shall determine whether an applicant or licensee is on the most recent certified list provided by the State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board. |
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| 818 | 833 | | |
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| 819 | 834 | | (2) If an applicant or licensee is on either of the certified lists, the state governmental licensing entity shall immediately provide a preliminary notice to the applicant or licensee of the entitys intent to suspend or withhold issuance or renewal of the license. The preliminary notice shall be delivered personally or by mail to the applicants or licensees last known mailing address on file with the state governmental licensing entity within 30 days of receipt of the certified list. Service by mail shall be completed in accordance with Section 1013 of the Code of Civil Procedure. |
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| 820 | 835 | | |
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| 821 | 836 | | (A) The state governmental licensing entity shall issue a temporary license valid for a period of 90 days to any applicant whose name is on a certified list if the applicant is otherwise eligible for a license. |
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| 822 | 837 | | |
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| 823 | 838 | | (B) The 90-day time period for a temporary license shall not be extended. Only one temporary license shall be issued during a regular license term and the term of the temporary license shall coincide with the first 90 days of the regular license term. A license for the full term or the remainder of the license term may be issued or renewed only upon compliance with this section. |
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| 824 | 839 | | |
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| 825 | 840 | | (C) In the event that a license is suspended or an application for a license or the renewal of a license is denied pursuant to this section, any funds paid by the applicant or licensee shall not be refunded by the state governmental licensing entity. |
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| 826 | 841 | | |
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| 827 | 842 | | (f) (1) A state governmental licensing entity shall refuse to issue or shall suspend a license pursuant to this section no sooner than 90 days and no later than 120 days of the mailing of the preliminary notice described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (e), unless the state governmental licensing entity has received a release pursuant to subdivision (h). The procedures in the administrative adjudication provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 11400) and Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code) shall not apply to the denial or suspension of, or refusal to renew, a license or the issuance of a temporary license pursuant to this section. |
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| 828 | 843 | | |
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| 829 | 844 | | (2) Notwithstanding any other law, if a board, bureau, or commission listed in Section 101, other than the Contractors State License Board, fails to take action in accordance with this section, the Department of Consumer Affairs shall issue a temporary license or suspend or refuse to issue, reactivate, reinstate, or renew a license, as appropriate. |
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| 830 | 845 | | |
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| 831 | 846 | | (g) Notices shall be developed by each state governmental licensing entity. For an applicant or licensee on the State Board of Equalizations certified list, the notice shall include the address and telephone number of the State Board of Equalization, and shall emphasize the necessity of obtaining a release from the State Board of Equalization as a condition for the issuance, renewal, or continued valid status of a license or licenses. For an applicant or licensee on the Franchise Tax Boards certified list, the notice shall include the address and telephone number of the Franchise Tax Board, and shall emphasize the necessity of obtaining a release from the Franchise Tax Board as a condition for the issuance, renewal, or continued valid status of a license or licenses. |
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| 832 | 847 | | |
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| 833 | 848 | | (1) The notice shall inform the applicant that the state governmental licensing entity shall issue a temporary license, as provided in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (e), for 90 calendar days if the applicant is otherwise eligible and that upon expiration of that time period, the license will be denied unless the state governmental licensing entity has received a release from the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable. |
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| 834 | 849 | | |
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| 835 | 850 | | (2) The notice shall inform the licensee that any license suspended under this section will remain suspended until the state governmental licensing entity receives a release along with applications and fees, if applicable, to reinstate the license. |
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| 836 | 851 | | |
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| 837 | 852 | | (3) The notice shall also inform the applicant or licensee that if an application is denied or a license is suspended pursuant to this section, any moneys paid by the applicant or licensee shall not be refunded by the state governmental licensing entity. The state governmental licensing entity shall also develop a form that the applicant or licensee shall use to request a release by the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board. A copy of this form shall be included with every notice sent pursuant to this subdivision. |
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| 838 | 853 | | |
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| 839 | 854 | | (h) If the applicant or licensee wishes to challenge the submission of their name on a certified list, the applicant or licensee shall make a timely written request for release to the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable. The State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board shall immediately send a release to the appropriate state governmental licensing entity and the applicant or licensee, if any of the following conditions are met: |
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| 840 | 855 | | |
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| 841 | 856 | | (1) The applicant or licensee has complied with the tax obligation, either by payment of the unpaid taxes or entry into an installment payment agreement, as described in Section 6832 or 19008 of the Revenue and Taxation Code, to satisfy the unpaid taxes. |
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| 842 | 857 | | |
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| 843 | 858 | | (2) The applicant or licensee has submitted a request for release not later than 45 days after the applicants or licensees receipt of a preliminary notice described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (e), but the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, will be unable to complete the release review and send notice of its findings to the applicant or licensee and state governmental licensing entity within 45 days after the State Board of Equalizations or the Franchise Tax Boards receipt of the applicants or licensees request for release. Whenever a release is granted under this paragraph, and, notwithstanding that release, the applicable license or licenses have been suspended erroneously, the state governmental licensing entity shall reinstate the applicable licenses with retroactive effect back to the date of the erroneous suspension and that suspension shall not be reflected on any license record. |
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| 844 | 859 | | |
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| 845 | 860 | | (3) The applicant or licensee is unable to pay the outstanding tax obligation due to a current financial hardship. Financial hardship means financial hardship as determined by the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, where the applicant or licensee is unable to pay any part of the outstanding liability and the applicant or licensee is unable to qualify for an installment payment arrangement as provided for by Section 6832 or Section 19008 of the Revenue and Taxation Code. In order to establish the existence of a financial hardship, the applicant or licensee shall submit any information, including information related to reasonable business and personal expenses, requested by the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, for purposes of making that determination. |
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| 846 | 861 | | |
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| 847 | 862 | | (i) An applicant or licensee is required to act with diligence in responding to notices from the state governmental licensing entity and the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board with the recognition that the temporary license will lapse or the license suspension will go into effect after 90 days and that the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board must have time to act within that period. An applicants or licensees delay in acting, without good cause, which directly results in the inability of the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, to complete a review of the applicants or licensees request for release shall not constitute the diligence required under this section which would justify the issuance of a release. An applicant or licensee shall have the burden of establishing that they diligently responded to notices from the state governmental licensing entity or the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board and that any delay was not without good cause. |
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| 848 | 863 | | |
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| 849 | 864 | | (j) The State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board shall create release forms for use pursuant to this section. When the applicant or licensee has complied with the tax obligation by payment of the unpaid taxes, or entry into an installment payment agreement, or establishing the existence of a current financial hardship as defined in paragraph (3) of subdivision (h), the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, shall mail a release form to the applicant or licensee and provide a release to the appropriate state governmental licensing entity. Any state governmental licensing entity that has received a release from the State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board pursuant to this subdivision shall process the release within five business days of its receipt. If the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board determines subsequent to the issuance of a release that the licensee has not complied with their installment payment agreement, the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, shall notify the state governmental licensing entity and the licensee in a format prescribed by the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, that the licensee is not in compliance and the release shall be rescinded. The State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board may, when it is economically feasible for the state governmental licensing entity to develop an automated process for complying with this subdivision, notify the state governmental licensing entity in a manner prescribed by the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, whichever is applicable, that the licensee has not complied with the installment payment agreement. Upon receipt of this notice, the state governmental licensing entity shall immediately notify the licensee on a form prescribed by the state governmental licensing entity that the licensees license will be suspended on a specific date, and this date shall be no longer than 30 days from the date the form is mailed. The licensee shall be further notified that the license will remain suspended until a new release is issued in accordance with this subdivision. |
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| 850 | 865 | | |
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| 851 | 866 | | (k) The State Board of Equalization and the Franchise Tax Board may enter into interagency agreements with the state governmental licensing entities necessary to implement this section. |
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| 852 | 867 | | |
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| 853 | 868 | | (l) Notwithstanding any other law, a state governmental licensing entity, with the approval of the appropriate department director or governing body, may impose a fee on a licensee whose license has been suspended pursuant to this section. The fee shall not exceed the amount necessary for the state governmental licensing entity to cover its costs in carrying out the provisions of this section. Fees imposed pursuant to this section shall be deposited in the fund in which other fees imposed by the state governmental licensing entity are deposited and shall be available to that entity upon appropriation in the annual Budget Act. |
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| 854 | 869 | | |
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| 855 | 870 | | (m) The process described in subdivision (h) shall constitute the sole administrative remedy for contesting the issuance of a temporary license or the denial or suspension of a license under this section. |
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| 856 | 871 | | |
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| 857 | 872 | | (n) Any state governmental licensing entity receiving an inquiry as to the licensed status of an applicant or licensee who has had a license denied or suspended under this section or who has been granted a temporary license under this section shall respond that the license was denied or suspended or the temporary license was issued only because the licensee appeared on a list of the 500 largest tax delinquencies pursuant to Section 7063 or 19195 of the Revenue and Taxation Code. Information collected pursuant to this section by any state agency, board, or department shall be subject to the Information Practices Act of 1977 (Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 1798) of Title 1.8 of Part 4 of Division 3 of the Civil Code). Any state governmental licensing entity that discloses on its internet website or other publication that the licensee has had a license denied or suspended under this section or has been granted a temporary license under this section shall prominently disclose, in bold and adjacent to the information regarding the status of the license, that the only reason the license was denied, suspended, or temporarily issued is because the licensee failed to pay taxes. |
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| 858 | 873 | | |
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| 859 | 874 | | (o) Any rules and regulations issued pursuant to this section by any state agency, board, or department may be adopted as emergency regulations in accordance with the rulemaking provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code). The adoption of these regulations shall be deemed an emergency and necessary for the immediate preservation of the public peace, health, and safety, or general welfare. The regulations shall become effective immediately upon filing with the Secretary of State. |
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| 860 | 875 | | |
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| 861 | 876 | | (p) The State Board of Equalization, the Franchise Tax Board, and state governmental licensing entities, as appropriate, shall adopt regulations as necessary to implement this section. |
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| 862 | 877 | | |
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| 863 | 878 | | (q) (1) Neither the state governmental licensing entity, nor any officer, employee, or agent, or former officer, employee, or agent of a state governmental licensing entity, may disclose or use any information obtained from the State Board of Equalization or the Franchise Tax Board, pursuant to this section, except to inform the public of the denial, refusal to renew, or suspension of a license or the issuance of a temporary license pursuant to this section. The release or other use of information received by a state governmental licensing entity pursuant to this section, except as authorized by this section, is punishable as a misdemeanor. This subdivision may not be interpreted to prevent the State Bar of California from filing a request with the Supreme Court of California to suspend a member of the bar pursuant to this section. |
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| 864 | 879 | | |
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| 865 | 880 | | (2) A suspension of, or refusal to renew, a license or issuance of a temporary license pursuant to this section does not constitute denial or discipline of a licensee for purposes of any reporting requirements to the National Practitioner Data Bank and shall not be reported to the National Practitioner Data Bank or the Healthcare Integrity and Protection Data Bank. |
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| 866 | 881 | | |
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| 867 | 882 | | (3) Upon release from the certified list, the suspension or revocation of the applicants or licensees license shall be purged from the state governmental licensing entitys internet website or other publication within three business days. This paragraph shall not apply to the State Bar of California. |
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| 868 | 883 | | |
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| 869 | 884 | | (r) If any provision of this section or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, that invalidity shall not affect other provisions or applications of this section that can be given effect without the invalid provision or application, and to this end the provisions of this section are severable. |
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| 870 | 885 | | |
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| 871 | 886 | | (s) All rights to review afforded by this section to an applicant shall also be afforded to a licensee. |
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| 872 | 887 | | |
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| 873 | 888 | | (t) Unless otherwise provided in this section, the policies, practices, and procedures of a state governmental licensing entity with respect to license suspensions under this section shall be the same as those applicable with respect to suspensions pursuant to Section 17520 of the Family Code. |
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| 874 | 889 | | |
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| 875 | 890 | | (u) No provision of this section shall be interpreted to allow a court to review and prevent the collection of taxes prior to the payment of those taxes in violation of the California Constitution. |
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| 876 | 891 | | |
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| 877 | 892 | | (v) This section shall apply to any licensee whose name appears on a list of the 500 largest tax delinquencies pursuant to Section 7063 or 19195 of the Revenue and Taxation Code on or after July 1, 2012. |
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| 878 | 893 | | |
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| 879 | 894 | | SEC. 10. Section 1000 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:1000. (a) The law governing practitioners of chiropractic is found in an initiative act entitled An act prescribing the terms upon which licenses may be issued to practitioners of chiropractic, creating the State Board of Chiropractic Examiners and declaring its powers and duties, prescribing penalties for violation hereof, and repealing all acts and parts of acts inconsistent herewith, adopted by the electors November 7, 1922.(b) The State Board of Chiropractic Examiners is within the Department of Consumer Affairs.(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the powers and duties of the State Board of Chiropractic Examiners, as set forth in this article and under the act creating the board, shall be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. The review shall be performed as if this chapter were scheduled to be repealed as of January 1, 2023. |
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| 880 | 895 | | |
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| 881 | 896 | | SEC. 10. Section 1000 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
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| 882 | 897 | | |
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| 883 | 898 | | ### SEC. 10. |
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| 884 | 899 | | |
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| 885 | 900 | | 1000. (a) The law governing practitioners of chiropractic is found in an initiative act entitled An act prescribing the terms upon which licenses may be issued to practitioners of chiropractic, creating the State Board of Chiropractic Examiners and declaring its powers and duties, prescribing penalties for violation hereof, and repealing all acts and parts of acts inconsistent herewith, adopted by the electors November 7, 1922.(b) The State Board of Chiropractic Examiners is within the Department of Consumer Affairs.(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the powers and duties of the State Board of Chiropractic Examiners, as set forth in this article and under the act creating the board, shall be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. The review shall be performed as if this chapter were scheduled to be repealed as of January 1, 2023. |
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| 886 | 901 | | |
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| 887 | 902 | | 1000. (a) The law governing practitioners of chiropractic is found in an initiative act entitled An act prescribing the terms upon which licenses may be issued to practitioners of chiropractic, creating the State Board of Chiropractic Examiners and declaring its powers and duties, prescribing penalties for violation hereof, and repealing all acts and parts of acts inconsistent herewith, adopted by the electors November 7, 1922.(b) The State Board of Chiropractic Examiners is within the Department of Consumer Affairs.(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the powers and duties of the State Board of Chiropractic Examiners, as set forth in this article and under the act creating the board, shall be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. The review shall be performed as if this chapter were scheduled to be repealed as of January 1, 2023. |
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| 888 | 903 | | |
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| 889 | 904 | | 1000. (a) The law governing practitioners of chiropractic is found in an initiative act entitled An act prescribing the terms upon which licenses may be issued to practitioners of chiropractic, creating the State Board of Chiropractic Examiners and declaring its powers and duties, prescribing penalties for violation hereof, and repealing all acts and parts of acts inconsistent herewith, adopted by the electors November 7, 1922.(b) The State Board of Chiropractic Examiners is within the Department of Consumer Affairs.(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the powers and duties of the State Board of Chiropractic Examiners, as set forth in this article and under the act creating the board, shall be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. The review shall be performed as if this chapter were scheduled to be repealed as of January 1, 2023. |
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| 890 | 905 | | |
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| 891 | 906 | | |
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| 892 | 907 | | |
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| 893 | 908 | | 1000. (a) The law governing practitioners of chiropractic is found in an initiative act entitled An act prescribing the terms upon which licenses may be issued to practitioners of chiropractic, creating the State Board of Chiropractic Examiners and declaring its powers and duties, prescribing penalties for violation hereof, and repealing all acts and parts of acts inconsistent herewith, adopted by the electors November 7, 1922. |
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| 894 | 909 | | |
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| 895 | 910 | | (b) The State Board of Chiropractic Examiners is within the Department of Consumer Affairs. |
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| 896 | 911 | | |
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| 897 | 912 | | (c) Notwithstanding any other law, the powers and duties of the State Board of Chiropractic Examiners, as set forth in this article and under the act creating the board, shall be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. The review shall be performed as if this chapter were scheduled to be repealed as of January 1, 2023. |
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| 898 | 913 | | |
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| 899 | 914 | | SEC. 11. Section 1913 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:1913. Unless otherwise specified in this chapter, a registered dental hygienist may perform any procedure or provide any service within the scope of their practice in any setting under the appropriate level of supervision required by this article, if the registered dental hygienist has completed the appropriate education and training required to perform the procedure or provide the service. |
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| 900 | 915 | | |
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| 901 | 916 | | SEC. 11. Section 1913 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
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| 902 | 917 | | |
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| 903 | 918 | | ### SEC. 11. |
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| 904 | 919 | | |
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| 905 | 920 | | 1913. Unless otherwise specified in this chapter, a registered dental hygienist may perform any procedure or provide any service within the scope of their practice in any setting under the appropriate level of supervision required by this article, if the registered dental hygienist has completed the appropriate education and training required to perform the procedure or provide the service. |
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| 906 | 921 | | |
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| 907 | 922 | | 1913. Unless otherwise specified in this chapter, a registered dental hygienist may perform any procedure or provide any service within the scope of their practice in any setting under the appropriate level of supervision required by this article, if the registered dental hygienist has completed the appropriate education and training required to perform the procedure or provide the service. |
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| 908 | 923 | | |
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| 909 | 924 | | 1913. Unless otherwise specified in this chapter, a registered dental hygienist may perform any procedure or provide any service within the scope of their practice in any setting under the appropriate level of supervision required by this article, if the registered dental hygienist has completed the appropriate education and training required to perform the procedure or provide the service. |
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| 910 | 925 | | |
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| 911 | 926 | | |
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| 912 | 927 | | |
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| 913 | 928 | | 1913. Unless otherwise specified in this chapter, a registered dental hygienist may perform any procedure or provide any service within the scope of their practice in any setting under the appropriate level of supervision required by this article, if the registered dental hygienist has completed the appropriate education and training required to perform the procedure or provide the service. |
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| 914 | 929 | | |
|---|
| 915 | 930 | | SEC. 12. Section 1917 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:1917. The dental hygiene board shall grant initial licensure as a registered dental hygienist to a person who satisfies all of the following requirements:(a) Completion of an educational program for registered dental hygienists, approved by the dental hygiene board, accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation, and conducted by a degree-granting, postsecondary institution.(b) Within the preceding three years, satisfactory completion of the dental hygiene examination given by the Western Regional Examining Board or any other clinical or dental hygiene examination approved by the dental hygiene board.(c) Satisfactory completion of the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination.(d) Satisfactory completion of the examination in California law and ethics as prescribed by the dental hygiene board.(e) Submission of a completed application form and all fees required by the dental hygiene board.(f) Satisfactory completion of dental hygiene board-approved instruction in gingival soft-tissue curettage, nitrous oxide-oxygen analgesia, and local anesthesia. |
|---|
| 916 | 931 | | |
|---|
| 917 | 932 | | SEC. 12. Section 1917 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 918 | 933 | | |
|---|
| 919 | 934 | | ### SEC. 12. |
|---|
| 920 | 935 | | |
|---|
| 921 | 936 | | 1917. The dental hygiene board shall grant initial licensure as a registered dental hygienist to a person who satisfies all of the following requirements:(a) Completion of an educational program for registered dental hygienists, approved by the dental hygiene board, accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation, and conducted by a degree-granting, postsecondary institution.(b) Within the preceding three years, satisfactory completion of the dental hygiene examination given by the Western Regional Examining Board or any other clinical or dental hygiene examination approved by the dental hygiene board.(c) Satisfactory completion of the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination.(d) Satisfactory completion of the examination in California law and ethics as prescribed by the dental hygiene board.(e) Submission of a completed application form and all fees required by the dental hygiene board.(f) Satisfactory completion of dental hygiene board-approved instruction in gingival soft-tissue curettage, nitrous oxide-oxygen analgesia, and local anesthesia. |
|---|
| 922 | 937 | | |
|---|
| 923 | 938 | | 1917. The dental hygiene board shall grant initial licensure as a registered dental hygienist to a person who satisfies all of the following requirements:(a) Completion of an educational program for registered dental hygienists, approved by the dental hygiene board, accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation, and conducted by a degree-granting, postsecondary institution.(b) Within the preceding three years, satisfactory completion of the dental hygiene examination given by the Western Regional Examining Board or any other clinical or dental hygiene examination approved by the dental hygiene board.(c) Satisfactory completion of the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination.(d) Satisfactory completion of the examination in California law and ethics as prescribed by the dental hygiene board.(e) Submission of a completed application form and all fees required by the dental hygiene board.(f) Satisfactory completion of dental hygiene board-approved instruction in gingival soft-tissue curettage, nitrous oxide-oxygen analgesia, and local anesthesia. |
|---|
| 924 | 939 | | |
|---|
| 925 | 940 | | 1917. The dental hygiene board shall grant initial licensure as a registered dental hygienist to a person who satisfies all of the following requirements:(a) Completion of an educational program for registered dental hygienists, approved by the dental hygiene board, accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation, and conducted by a degree-granting, postsecondary institution.(b) Within the preceding three years, satisfactory completion of the dental hygiene examination given by the Western Regional Examining Board or any other clinical or dental hygiene examination approved by the dental hygiene board.(c) Satisfactory completion of the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination.(d) Satisfactory completion of the examination in California law and ethics as prescribed by the dental hygiene board.(e) Submission of a completed application form and all fees required by the dental hygiene board.(f) Satisfactory completion of dental hygiene board-approved instruction in gingival soft-tissue curettage, nitrous oxide-oxygen analgesia, and local anesthesia. |
|---|
| 926 | 941 | | |
|---|
| 927 | 942 | | |
|---|
| 928 | 943 | | |
|---|
| 929 | 944 | | 1917. The dental hygiene board shall grant initial licensure as a registered dental hygienist to a person who satisfies all of the following requirements: |
|---|
| 930 | 945 | | |
|---|
| 931 | 946 | | (a) Completion of an educational program for registered dental hygienists, approved by the dental hygiene board, accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation, and conducted by a degree-granting, postsecondary institution. |
|---|
| 932 | 947 | | |
|---|
| 933 | 948 | | (b) Within the preceding three years, satisfactory completion of the dental hygiene examination given by the Western Regional Examining Board or any other clinical or dental hygiene examination approved by the dental hygiene board. |
|---|
| 934 | 949 | | |
|---|
| 935 | 950 | | (c) Satisfactory completion of the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination. |
|---|
| 936 | 951 | | |
|---|
| 937 | 952 | | (d) Satisfactory completion of the examination in California law and ethics as prescribed by the dental hygiene board. |
|---|
| 938 | 953 | | |
|---|
| 939 | 954 | | (e) Submission of a completed application form and all fees required by the dental hygiene board. |
|---|
| 940 | 955 | | |
|---|
| 941 | 956 | | (f) Satisfactory completion of dental hygiene board-approved instruction in gingival soft-tissue curettage, nitrous oxide-oxygen analgesia, and local anesthesia. |
|---|
| 942 | 957 | | |
|---|
| 943 | 958 | | SEC. 13. Section 1917.1 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:1917.1. (a) The dental hygiene board may grant a license as a registered dental hygienist to an applicant who has not taken a clinical examination before the dental hygiene board, if the applicant submits all of the following to the dental hygiene board:(1) A completed application form and all fees required by the dental hygiene board.(2) Proof of a current license as a registered dental hygienist issued by another state that is not revoked, suspended, or otherwise restricted.(3) Proof that the applicant has been in clinical practice as a registered dental hygienist or has been a full-time faculty member in an accredited dental hygiene education program for a minimum of 750 hours per year for at least five years immediately preceding the date of application under this section. The clinical practice requirement shall be deemed met if the applicant provides proof of at least three years of clinical practice and commits to completing the remaining two years of clinical practice by filing with the dental hygiene board a copy of a pending contract to practice dental hygiene in any of the following facilities:(A) A primary care clinic licensed under subdivision (a) of Section 1204 of the Health and Safety Code.(B) A primary care clinic exempt from licensure pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 1206 of the Health and Safety Code.(C) A clinic owned or operated by a public hospital or health system.(D) A clinic owned and operated by a hospital that maintains the primary contract with a county government to fill the countys role under Section 17000 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(4) Satisfactory performance on a California law and ethics examination and any examination that may be required by the dental hygiene board.(5) Proof that the applicant has not been subject to disciplinary action by any state in which the applicant is or has been previously issued any professional or vocational license. If the applicant has been subject to disciplinary action, the dental hygiene board shall review that action to determine if it warrants refusal to issue a license to the applicant.(6) Proof of graduation from a school of dental hygiene accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation.(7) Proof of satisfactory completion of the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination and of a state clinical examination, regional clinical licensure examination, or any other clinical dental hygiene examination approved by the dental hygiene board.(8) Proof that the applicant has not failed the state clinical examination, the examination given by the Western Regional Examining Board, or any other clinical dental hygiene examination approved by the dental hygiene board for licensure to practice dental hygiene under this chapter more than once or once within five years prior to the date of application for a license under this section.(9) Documentation of completion of a minimum of 25 units of continuing education earned in the two years preceding application, including completion of any continuing education requirements imposed by the dental hygiene board on registered dental hygienists licensed in this state at the time of application.(10) Any other information as specified by the dental hygiene board to the extent that it is required of applicants for licensure by examination under this article.(b) The dental hygiene board may periodically request verification of compliance with the requirements of paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) and may revoke the license upon a finding that the employment requirement or any other requirement of paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) has not been met.(c) The dental hygiene board shall provide in the application packet to each out-of-state dental hygienist pursuant to this section the following information:(1) The location of dental manpower shortage areas in the state.(2) Any nonprofit clinics, public hospitals, and accredited dental hygiene education programs seeking to contract with licensees for dental hygiene service delivery or training purposes. |
|---|
| 944 | 959 | | |
|---|
| 945 | 960 | | SEC. 13. Section 1917.1 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 946 | 961 | | |
|---|
| 947 | 962 | | ### SEC. 13. |
|---|
| 948 | 963 | | |
|---|
| 949 | 964 | | 1917.1. (a) The dental hygiene board may grant a license as a registered dental hygienist to an applicant who has not taken a clinical examination before the dental hygiene board, if the applicant submits all of the following to the dental hygiene board:(1) A completed application form and all fees required by the dental hygiene board.(2) Proof of a current license as a registered dental hygienist issued by another state that is not revoked, suspended, or otherwise restricted.(3) Proof that the applicant has been in clinical practice as a registered dental hygienist or has been a full-time faculty member in an accredited dental hygiene education program for a minimum of 750 hours per year for at least five years immediately preceding the date of application under this section. The clinical practice requirement shall be deemed met if the applicant provides proof of at least three years of clinical practice and commits to completing the remaining two years of clinical practice by filing with the dental hygiene board a copy of a pending contract to practice dental hygiene in any of the following facilities:(A) A primary care clinic licensed under subdivision (a) of Section 1204 of the Health and Safety Code.(B) A primary care clinic exempt from licensure pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 1206 of the Health and Safety Code.(C) A clinic owned or operated by a public hospital or health system.(D) A clinic owned and operated by a hospital that maintains the primary contract with a county government to fill the countys role under Section 17000 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(4) Satisfactory performance on a California law and ethics examination and any examination that may be required by the dental hygiene board.(5) Proof that the applicant has not been subject to disciplinary action by any state in which the applicant is or has been previously issued any professional or vocational license. If the applicant has been subject to disciplinary action, the dental hygiene board shall review that action to determine if it warrants refusal to issue a license to the applicant.(6) Proof of graduation from a school of dental hygiene accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation.(7) Proof of satisfactory completion of the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination and of a state clinical examination, regional clinical licensure examination, or any other clinical dental hygiene examination approved by the dental hygiene board.(8) Proof that the applicant has not failed the state clinical examination, the examination given by the Western Regional Examining Board, or any other clinical dental hygiene examination approved by the dental hygiene board for licensure to practice dental hygiene under this chapter more than once or once within five years prior to the date of application for a license under this section.(9) Documentation of completion of a minimum of 25 units of continuing education earned in the two years preceding application, including completion of any continuing education requirements imposed by the dental hygiene board on registered dental hygienists licensed in this state at the time of application.(10) Any other information as specified by the dental hygiene board to the extent that it is required of applicants for licensure by examination under this article.(b) The dental hygiene board may periodically request verification of compliance with the requirements of paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) and may revoke the license upon a finding that the employment requirement or any other requirement of paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) has not been met.(c) The dental hygiene board shall provide in the application packet to each out-of-state dental hygienist pursuant to this section the following information:(1) The location of dental manpower shortage areas in the state.(2) Any nonprofit clinics, public hospitals, and accredited dental hygiene education programs seeking to contract with licensees for dental hygiene service delivery or training purposes. |
|---|
| 950 | 965 | | |
|---|
| 951 | 966 | | 1917.1. (a) The dental hygiene board may grant a license as a registered dental hygienist to an applicant who has not taken a clinical examination before the dental hygiene board, if the applicant submits all of the following to the dental hygiene board:(1) A completed application form and all fees required by the dental hygiene board.(2) Proof of a current license as a registered dental hygienist issued by another state that is not revoked, suspended, or otherwise restricted.(3) Proof that the applicant has been in clinical practice as a registered dental hygienist or has been a full-time faculty member in an accredited dental hygiene education program for a minimum of 750 hours per year for at least five years immediately preceding the date of application under this section. The clinical practice requirement shall be deemed met if the applicant provides proof of at least three years of clinical practice and commits to completing the remaining two years of clinical practice by filing with the dental hygiene board a copy of a pending contract to practice dental hygiene in any of the following facilities:(A) A primary care clinic licensed under subdivision (a) of Section 1204 of the Health and Safety Code.(B) A primary care clinic exempt from licensure pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 1206 of the Health and Safety Code.(C) A clinic owned or operated by a public hospital or health system.(D) A clinic owned and operated by a hospital that maintains the primary contract with a county government to fill the countys role under Section 17000 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(4) Satisfactory performance on a California law and ethics examination and any examination that may be required by the dental hygiene board.(5) Proof that the applicant has not been subject to disciplinary action by any state in which the applicant is or has been previously issued any professional or vocational license. If the applicant has been subject to disciplinary action, the dental hygiene board shall review that action to determine if it warrants refusal to issue a license to the applicant.(6) Proof of graduation from a school of dental hygiene accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation.(7) Proof of satisfactory completion of the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination and of a state clinical examination, regional clinical licensure examination, or any other clinical dental hygiene examination approved by the dental hygiene board.(8) Proof that the applicant has not failed the state clinical examination, the examination given by the Western Regional Examining Board, or any other clinical dental hygiene examination approved by the dental hygiene board for licensure to practice dental hygiene under this chapter more than once or once within five years prior to the date of application for a license under this section.(9) Documentation of completion of a minimum of 25 units of continuing education earned in the two years preceding application, including completion of any continuing education requirements imposed by the dental hygiene board on registered dental hygienists licensed in this state at the time of application.(10) Any other information as specified by the dental hygiene board to the extent that it is required of applicants for licensure by examination under this article.(b) The dental hygiene board may periodically request verification of compliance with the requirements of paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) and may revoke the license upon a finding that the employment requirement or any other requirement of paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) has not been met.(c) The dental hygiene board shall provide in the application packet to each out-of-state dental hygienist pursuant to this section the following information:(1) The location of dental manpower shortage areas in the state.(2) Any nonprofit clinics, public hospitals, and accredited dental hygiene education programs seeking to contract with licensees for dental hygiene service delivery or training purposes. |
|---|
| 952 | 967 | | |
|---|
| 953 | 968 | | 1917.1. (a) The dental hygiene board may grant a license as a registered dental hygienist to an applicant who has not taken a clinical examination before the dental hygiene board, if the applicant submits all of the following to the dental hygiene board:(1) A completed application form and all fees required by the dental hygiene board.(2) Proof of a current license as a registered dental hygienist issued by another state that is not revoked, suspended, or otherwise restricted.(3) Proof that the applicant has been in clinical practice as a registered dental hygienist or has been a full-time faculty member in an accredited dental hygiene education program for a minimum of 750 hours per year for at least five years immediately preceding the date of application under this section. The clinical practice requirement shall be deemed met if the applicant provides proof of at least three years of clinical practice and commits to completing the remaining two years of clinical practice by filing with the dental hygiene board a copy of a pending contract to practice dental hygiene in any of the following facilities:(A) A primary care clinic licensed under subdivision (a) of Section 1204 of the Health and Safety Code.(B) A primary care clinic exempt from licensure pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 1206 of the Health and Safety Code.(C) A clinic owned or operated by a public hospital or health system.(D) A clinic owned and operated by a hospital that maintains the primary contract with a county government to fill the countys role under Section 17000 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.(4) Satisfactory performance on a California law and ethics examination and any examination that may be required by the dental hygiene board.(5) Proof that the applicant has not been subject to disciplinary action by any state in which the applicant is or has been previously issued any professional or vocational license. If the applicant has been subject to disciplinary action, the dental hygiene board shall review that action to determine if it warrants refusal to issue a license to the applicant.(6) Proof of graduation from a school of dental hygiene accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation.(7) Proof of satisfactory completion of the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination and of a state clinical examination, regional clinical licensure examination, or any other clinical dental hygiene examination approved by the dental hygiene board.(8) Proof that the applicant has not failed the state clinical examination, the examination given by the Western Regional Examining Board, or any other clinical dental hygiene examination approved by the dental hygiene board for licensure to practice dental hygiene under this chapter more than once or once within five years prior to the date of application for a license under this section.(9) Documentation of completion of a minimum of 25 units of continuing education earned in the two years preceding application, including completion of any continuing education requirements imposed by the dental hygiene board on registered dental hygienists licensed in this state at the time of application.(10) Any other information as specified by the dental hygiene board to the extent that it is required of applicants for licensure by examination under this article.(b) The dental hygiene board may periodically request verification of compliance with the requirements of paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) and may revoke the license upon a finding that the employment requirement or any other requirement of paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) has not been met.(c) The dental hygiene board shall provide in the application packet to each out-of-state dental hygienist pursuant to this section the following information:(1) The location of dental manpower shortage areas in the state.(2) Any nonprofit clinics, public hospitals, and accredited dental hygiene education programs seeking to contract with licensees for dental hygiene service delivery or training purposes. |
|---|
| 954 | 969 | | |
|---|
| 955 | 970 | | |
|---|
| 956 | 971 | | |
|---|
| 957 | 972 | | 1917.1. (a) The dental hygiene board may grant a license as a registered dental hygienist to an applicant who has not taken a clinical examination before the dental hygiene board, if the applicant submits all of the following to the dental hygiene board: |
|---|
| 958 | 973 | | |
|---|
| 959 | 974 | | (1) A completed application form and all fees required by the dental hygiene board. |
|---|
| 960 | 975 | | |
|---|
| 961 | 976 | | (2) Proof of a current license as a registered dental hygienist issued by another state that is not revoked, suspended, or otherwise restricted. |
|---|
| 962 | 977 | | |
|---|
| 963 | 978 | | (3) Proof that the applicant has been in clinical practice as a registered dental hygienist or has been a full-time faculty member in an accredited dental hygiene education program for a minimum of 750 hours per year for at least five years immediately preceding the date of application under this section. The clinical practice requirement shall be deemed met if the applicant provides proof of at least three years of clinical practice and commits to completing the remaining two years of clinical practice by filing with the dental hygiene board a copy of a pending contract to practice dental hygiene in any of the following facilities: |
|---|
| 964 | 979 | | |
|---|
| 965 | 980 | | (A) A primary care clinic licensed under subdivision (a) of Section 1204 of the Health and Safety Code. |
|---|
| 966 | 981 | | |
|---|
| 967 | 982 | | (B) A primary care clinic exempt from licensure pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 1206 of the Health and Safety Code. |
|---|
| 968 | 983 | | |
|---|
| 969 | 984 | | (C) A clinic owned or operated by a public hospital or health system. |
|---|
| 970 | 985 | | |
|---|
| 971 | 986 | | (D) A clinic owned and operated by a hospital that maintains the primary contract with a county government to fill the countys role under Section 17000 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. |
|---|
| 972 | 987 | | |
|---|
| 973 | 988 | | (4) Satisfactory performance on a California law and ethics examination and any examination that may be required by the dental hygiene board. |
|---|
| 974 | 989 | | |
|---|
| 975 | 990 | | (5) Proof that the applicant has not been subject to disciplinary action by any state in which the applicant is or has been previously issued any professional or vocational license. If the applicant has been subject to disciplinary action, the dental hygiene board shall review that action to determine if it warrants refusal to issue a license to the applicant. |
|---|
| 976 | 991 | | |
|---|
| 977 | 992 | | (6) Proof of graduation from a school of dental hygiene accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation. |
|---|
| 978 | 993 | | |
|---|
| 979 | 994 | | (7) Proof of satisfactory completion of the National Board Dental Hygiene Examination and of a state clinical examination, regional clinical licensure examination, or any other clinical dental hygiene examination approved by the dental hygiene board. |
|---|
| 980 | 995 | | |
|---|
| 981 | 996 | | (8) Proof that the applicant has not failed the state clinical examination, the examination given by the Western Regional Examining Board, or any other clinical dental hygiene examination approved by the dental hygiene board for licensure to practice dental hygiene under this chapter more than once or once within five years prior to the date of application for a license under this section. |
|---|
| 982 | 997 | | |
|---|
| 983 | 998 | | (9) Documentation of completion of a minimum of 25 units of continuing education earned in the two years preceding application, including completion of any continuing education requirements imposed by the dental hygiene board on registered dental hygienists licensed in this state at the time of application. |
|---|
| 984 | 999 | | |
|---|
| 985 | 1000 | | (10) Any other information as specified by the dental hygiene board to the extent that it is required of applicants for licensure by examination under this article. |
|---|
| 986 | 1001 | | |
|---|
| 987 | 1002 | | (b) The dental hygiene board may periodically request verification of compliance with the requirements of paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) and may revoke the license upon a finding that the employment requirement or any other requirement of paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) has not been met. |
|---|
| 988 | 1003 | | |
|---|
| 989 | 1004 | | (c) The dental hygiene board shall provide in the application packet to each out-of-state dental hygienist pursuant to this section the following information: |
|---|
| 990 | 1005 | | |
|---|
| 991 | 1006 | | (1) The location of dental manpower shortage areas in the state. |
|---|
| 992 | 1007 | | |
|---|
| 993 | 1008 | | (2) Any nonprofit clinics, public hospitals, and accredited dental hygiene education programs seeking to contract with licensees for dental hygiene service delivery or training purposes. |
|---|
| 994 | 1009 | | |
|---|
| 995 | 1010 | | SEC. 14. Section 1922 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:1922. The dental hygiene board shall license as a registered dental hygienist in alternative practice a person who demonstrates satisfactory performance on an examination in California law and ethics required by the dental hygiene board and who completes an application form and pays all application fees required by the dental hygiene board and meets either of the following requirements:(a) Holds a current California license as a registered dental hygienist and meets the following requirements:(1) Has been engaged in the practice of dental hygiene, as defined in Section 1908, as a registered dental hygienist in any setting, including, but not limited to, educational settings and public health settings, for a minimum of 2,000 hours during the immediately preceding 36 months.(2) Has successfully completed a bachelors degree or its equivalent, recognized as a minimum of 120 semester credit hours or 180 quarter credit hours in postsecondary education, from a college or institution of higher education that is accredited by a national or regional accrediting agency recognized by the United States Department of Education, and a minimum of 150 hours of additional educational requirements, as prescribed by the dental hygiene board by regulation, that are consistent with good dental and dental hygiene practice, including, but not necessarily limited to, dental hygiene technique and theory including gerontology and medical emergencies, and business administration and practice management.(b) Has received a letter of acceptance into the employment utilization phase of the Health Workforce Pilot Project No. 155 established by the Office of Statewide Health Planning and Development pursuant to Article 1 (commencing with Section 128125) of Chapter 3 of Part 3 of Division 107 of the Health and Safety Code. |
|---|
| 996 | 1011 | | |
|---|
| 997 | 1012 | | SEC. 14. Section 1922 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 998 | 1013 | | |
|---|
| 999 | 1014 | | ### SEC. 14. |
|---|
| 1000 | 1015 | | |
|---|
| 1001 | 1016 | | 1922. The dental hygiene board shall license as a registered dental hygienist in alternative practice a person who demonstrates satisfactory performance on an examination in California law and ethics required by the dental hygiene board and who completes an application form and pays all application fees required by the dental hygiene board and meets either of the following requirements:(a) Holds a current California license as a registered dental hygienist and meets the following requirements:(1) Has been engaged in the practice of dental hygiene, as defined in Section 1908, as a registered dental hygienist in any setting, including, but not limited to, educational settings and public health settings, for a minimum of 2,000 hours during the immediately preceding 36 months.(2) Has successfully completed a bachelors degree or its equivalent, recognized as a minimum of 120 semester credit hours or 180 quarter credit hours in postsecondary education, from a college or institution of higher education that is accredited by a national or regional accrediting agency recognized by the United States Department of Education, and a minimum of 150 hours of additional educational requirements, as prescribed by the dental hygiene board by regulation, that are consistent with good dental and dental hygiene practice, including, but not necessarily limited to, dental hygiene technique and theory including gerontology and medical emergencies, and business administration and practice management.(b) Has received a letter of acceptance into the employment utilization phase of the Health Workforce Pilot Project No. 155 established by the Office of Statewide Health Planning and Development pursuant to Article 1 (commencing with Section 128125) of Chapter 3 of Part 3 of Division 107 of the Health and Safety Code. |
|---|
| 1002 | 1017 | | |
|---|
| 1003 | 1018 | | 1922. The dental hygiene board shall license as a registered dental hygienist in alternative practice a person who demonstrates satisfactory performance on an examination in California law and ethics required by the dental hygiene board and who completes an application form and pays all application fees required by the dental hygiene board and meets either of the following requirements:(a) Holds a current California license as a registered dental hygienist and meets the following requirements:(1) Has been engaged in the practice of dental hygiene, as defined in Section 1908, as a registered dental hygienist in any setting, including, but not limited to, educational settings and public health settings, for a minimum of 2,000 hours during the immediately preceding 36 months.(2) Has successfully completed a bachelors degree or its equivalent, recognized as a minimum of 120 semester credit hours or 180 quarter credit hours in postsecondary education, from a college or institution of higher education that is accredited by a national or regional accrediting agency recognized by the United States Department of Education, and a minimum of 150 hours of additional educational requirements, as prescribed by the dental hygiene board by regulation, that are consistent with good dental and dental hygiene practice, including, but not necessarily limited to, dental hygiene technique and theory including gerontology and medical emergencies, and business administration and practice management.(b) Has received a letter of acceptance into the employment utilization phase of the Health Workforce Pilot Project No. 155 established by the Office of Statewide Health Planning and Development pursuant to Article 1 (commencing with Section 128125) of Chapter 3 of Part 3 of Division 107 of the Health and Safety Code. |
|---|
| 1004 | 1019 | | |
|---|
| 1005 | 1020 | | 1922. The dental hygiene board shall license as a registered dental hygienist in alternative practice a person who demonstrates satisfactory performance on an examination in California law and ethics required by the dental hygiene board and who completes an application form and pays all application fees required by the dental hygiene board and meets either of the following requirements:(a) Holds a current California license as a registered dental hygienist and meets the following requirements:(1) Has been engaged in the practice of dental hygiene, as defined in Section 1908, as a registered dental hygienist in any setting, including, but not limited to, educational settings and public health settings, for a minimum of 2,000 hours during the immediately preceding 36 months.(2) Has successfully completed a bachelors degree or its equivalent, recognized as a minimum of 120 semester credit hours or 180 quarter credit hours in postsecondary education, from a college or institution of higher education that is accredited by a national or regional accrediting agency recognized by the United States Department of Education, and a minimum of 150 hours of additional educational requirements, as prescribed by the dental hygiene board by regulation, that are consistent with good dental and dental hygiene practice, including, but not necessarily limited to, dental hygiene technique and theory including gerontology and medical emergencies, and business administration and practice management.(b) Has received a letter of acceptance into the employment utilization phase of the Health Workforce Pilot Project No. 155 established by the Office of Statewide Health Planning and Development pursuant to Article 1 (commencing with Section 128125) of Chapter 3 of Part 3 of Division 107 of the Health and Safety Code. |
|---|
| 1006 | 1021 | | |
|---|
| 1007 | 1022 | | |
|---|
| 1008 | 1023 | | |
|---|
| 1009 | 1024 | | 1922. The dental hygiene board shall license as a registered dental hygienist in alternative practice a person who demonstrates satisfactory performance on an examination in California law and ethics required by the dental hygiene board and who completes an application form and pays all application fees required by the dental hygiene board and meets either of the following requirements: |
|---|
| 1010 | 1025 | | |
|---|
| 1011 | 1026 | | (a) Holds a current California license as a registered dental hygienist and meets the following requirements: |
|---|
| 1012 | 1027 | | |
|---|
| 1013 | 1028 | | (1) Has been engaged in the practice of dental hygiene, as defined in Section 1908, as a registered dental hygienist in any setting, including, but not limited to, educational settings and public health settings, for a minimum of 2,000 hours during the immediately preceding 36 months. |
|---|
| 1014 | 1029 | | |
|---|
| 1015 | 1030 | | (2) Has successfully completed a bachelors degree or its equivalent, recognized as a minimum of 120 semester credit hours or 180 quarter credit hours in postsecondary education, from a college or institution of higher education that is accredited by a national or regional accrediting agency recognized by the United States Department of Education, and a minimum of 150 hours of additional educational requirements, as prescribed by the dental hygiene board by regulation, that are consistent with good dental and dental hygiene practice, including, but not necessarily limited to, dental hygiene technique and theory including gerontology and medical emergencies, and business administration and practice management. |
|---|
| 1016 | 1031 | | |
|---|
| 1017 | 1032 | | (b) Has received a letter of acceptance into the employment utilization phase of the Health Workforce Pilot Project No. 155 established by the Office of Statewide Health Planning and Development pursuant to Article 1 (commencing with Section 128125) of Chapter 3 of Part 3 of Division 107 of the Health and Safety Code. |
|---|
| 1018 | 1033 | | |
|---|
| 1019 | 1034 | | SEC. 15. Section 2065 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2065. (a) Unless otherwise provided by law, no postgraduate trainee, intern, resident, postdoctoral fellow, or instructor may engage in the practice of medicine, or receive compensation therefor, or offer to engage in the practice of medicine unless they hold a valid, unrevoked, and unsuspended physicians and surgeons certificate issued by the board. However, a graduate of an approved medical school may engage in the practice of medicine whenever and wherever required as a part of a postgraduate training program under the following conditions:(1) The medical school graduate has taken and passed the board-approved medical licensing examinations required to qualify the applicant to participate in an approved postgraduate training program.(2) If the medical school graduate graduated from a foreign medical school approved by the board pursuant to Section 2084, the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates (ECFMG) has submitted an official ECFMG Certification Status Report directly to the board confirming the graduate is ECFMG certified.(3) The medical school graduate is enrolled in a postgraduate training program approved by the board.(4) The board-approved postgraduate training program has submitted the required board-approved form to the board documenting the medical school graduate is enrolled in an approved postgraduate training program.(5) The medical school graduate obtains a physicians and surgeons postgraduate training license in accordance with Section 2064.5.(b) A medical school graduate enrolled in an approved first-year postgraduate training program in accordance with this section may engage in the practice of medicine whenever and wherever required as a part of the training program, and may receive compensation for that practice.(c) A graduate who has completed the first year of postgraduate training may, in an approved residency or fellowship, engage in the practice of medicine whenever and wherever required as part of that residency or fellowship, and may receive compensation for that practice. The resident or fellow shall qualify for, take, and pass the next succeeding written examination for licensure. If the resident or fellow fails to receive a license to practice medicine under this chapter within 27 months from the commencement of the residency or fellowship, except as otherwise allowed under subdivision (g) or (h), or if the board denies their application for licensure, all privileges and exemptions under this section shall automatically cease.(d) All approved postgraduate training the medical school graduate has successfully completed in the United States or Canada shall count toward the 39-month license exemption, except as otherwise allowed under subdivision (h).(e) A medical school graduate from a medical school approved by the board shall have successfully completed a minimum of 36 months of approved postgraduate training, which includes successful progression through 24 months in the same program, to be eligible for a California physicians and surgeons certificate.(f) The program director for an approved postgraduate training program in California shall report to the board, on a form approved by the board, and provide any supporting documents as required by the board, the following actions within 30 days of the action:(1) A postgraduate trainee is notified that they have received partial or no credit for a period of postgraduate training, and their postgraduate training period is extended.(2) A postgraduate trainee takes a leave of absence or any break from their postgraduate training, and they are notified that their postgraduate training period is extended.(3) A postgraduate trainee is terminated from the postgraduate training program.(4) A postgraduate trainee resigns, dies, or otherwise leaves the postgraduate training program.(5) A postgraduate trainee has completed a one-year contract approved by the postgraduate training program.(g) Upon review of supporting documentation, the board, in its discretion, may grant an extension beyond 39 months to a postgraduate training licensee to successfully complete the 36 months of required approved postgraduate training.(h) An applicant for a physicians and surgeons license who has successfully completed 36 months of approved postgraduate training in another state or in Canada and who is accepted into an approved postgraduate training program in California shall obtain their physicians and surgeons license within 90 days after beginning that postgraduate training program or all privileges and exemptions under this section shall automatically cease.(i) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2020. |
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| 1020 | 1035 | | |
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| 1021 | 1036 | | SEC. 15. Section 2065 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
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| 1022 | 1037 | | |
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| 1023 | 1038 | | ### SEC. 15. |
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| 1024 | 1039 | | |
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| 1025 | 1040 | | 2065. (a) Unless otherwise provided by law, no postgraduate trainee, intern, resident, postdoctoral fellow, or instructor may engage in the practice of medicine, or receive compensation therefor, or offer to engage in the practice of medicine unless they hold a valid, unrevoked, and unsuspended physicians and surgeons certificate issued by the board. However, a graduate of an approved medical school may engage in the practice of medicine whenever and wherever required as a part of a postgraduate training program under the following conditions:(1) The medical school graduate has taken and passed the board-approved medical licensing examinations required to qualify the applicant to participate in an approved postgraduate training program.(2) If the medical school graduate graduated from a foreign medical school approved by the board pursuant to Section 2084, the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates (ECFMG) has submitted an official ECFMG Certification Status Report directly to the board confirming the graduate is ECFMG certified.(3) The medical school graduate is enrolled in a postgraduate training program approved by the board.(4) The board-approved postgraduate training program has submitted the required board-approved form to the board documenting the medical school graduate is enrolled in an approved postgraduate training program.(5) The medical school graduate obtains a physicians and surgeons postgraduate training license in accordance with Section 2064.5.(b) A medical school graduate enrolled in an approved first-year postgraduate training program in accordance with this section may engage in the practice of medicine whenever and wherever required as a part of the training program, and may receive compensation for that practice.(c) A graduate who has completed the first year of postgraduate training may, in an approved residency or fellowship, engage in the practice of medicine whenever and wherever required as part of that residency or fellowship, and may receive compensation for that practice. The resident or fellow shall qualify for, take, and pass the next succeeding written examination for licensure. If the resident or fellow fails to receive a license to practice medicine under this chapter within 27 months from the commencement of the residency or fellowship, except as otherwise allowed under subdivision (g) or (h), or if the board denies their application for licensure, all privileges and exemptions under this section shall automatically cease.(d) All approved postgraduate training the medical school graduate has successfully completed in the United States or Canada shall count toward the 39-month license exemption, except as otherwise allowed under subdivision (h).(e) A medical school graduate from a medical school approved by the board shall have successfully completed a minimum of 36 months of approved postgraduate training, which includes successful progression through 24 months in the same program, to be eligible for a California physicians and surgeons certificate.(f) The program director for an approved postgraduate training program in California shall report to the board, on a form approved by the board, and provide any supporting documents as required by the board, the following actions within 30 days of the action:(1) A postgraduate trainee is notified that they have received partial or no credit for a period of postgraduate training, and their postgraduate training period is extended.(2) A postgraduate trainee takes a leave of absence or any break from their postgraduate training, and they are notified that their postgraduate training period is extended.(3) A postgraduate trainee is terminated from the postgraduate training program.(4) A postgraduate trainee resigns, dies, or otherwise leaves the postgraduate training program.(5) A postgraduate trainee has completed a one-year contract approved by the postgraduate training program.(g) Upon review of supporting documentation, the board, in its discretion, may grant an extension beyond 39 months to a postgraduate training licensee to successfully complete the 36 months of required approved postgraduate training.(h) An applicant for a physicians and surgeons license who has successfully completed 36 months of approved postgraduate training in another state or in Canada and who is accepted into an approved postgraduate training program in California shall obtain their physicians and surgeons license within 90 days after beginning that postgraduate training program or all privileges and exemptions under this section shall automatically cease.(i) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2020. |
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| 1026 | 1041 | | |
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| 1027 | 1042 | | 2065. (a) Unless otherwise provided by law, no postgraduate trainee, intern, resident, postdoctoral fellow, or instructor may engage in the practice of medicine, or receive compensation therefor, or offer to engage in the practice of medicine unless they hold a valid, unrevoked, and unsuspended physicians and surgeons certificate issued by the board. However, a graduate of an approved medical school may engage in the practice of medicine whenever and wherever required as a part of a postgraduate training program under the following conditions:(1) The medical school graduate has taken and passed the board-approved medical licensing examinations required to qualify the applicant to participate in an approved postgraduate training program.(2) If the medical school graduate graduated from a foreign medical school approved by the board pursuant to Section 2084, the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates (ECFMG) has submitted an official ECFMG Certification Status Report directly to the board confirming the graduate is ECFMG certified.(3) The medical school graduate is enrolled in a postgraduate training program approved by the board.(4) The board-approved postgraduate training program has submitted the required board-approved form to the board documenting the medical school graduate is enrolled in an approved postgraduate training program.(5) The medical school graduate obtains a physicians and surgeons postgraduate training license in accordance with Section 2064.5.(b) A medical school graduate enrolled in an approved first-year postgraduate training program in accordance with this section may engage in the practice of medicine whenever and wherever required as a part of the training program, and may receive compensation for that practice.(c) A graduate who has completed the first year of postgraduate training may, in an approved residency or fellowship, engage in the practice of medicine whenever and wherever required as part of that residency or fellowship, and may receive compensation for that practice. The resident or fellow shall qualify for, take, and pass the next succeeding written examination for licensure. If the resident or fellow fails to receive a license to practice medicine under this chapter within 27 months from the commencement of the residency or fellowship, except as otherwise allowed under subdivision (g) or (h), or if the board denies their application for licensure, all privileges and exemptions under this section shall automatically cease.(d) All approved postgraduate training the medical school graduate has successfully completed in the United States or Canada shall count toward the 39-month license exemption, except as otherwise allowed under subdivision (h).(e) A medical school graduate from a medical school approved by the board shall have successfully completed a minimum of 36 months of approved postgraduate training, which includes successful progression through 24 months in the same program, to be eligible for a California physicians and surgeons certificate.(f) The program director for an approved postgraduate training program in California shall report to the board, on a form approved by the board, and provide any supporting documents as required by the board, the following actions within 30 days of the action:(1) A postgraduate trainee is notified that they have received partial or no credit for a period of postgraduate training, and their postgraduate training period is extended.(2) A postgraduate trainee takes a leave of absence or any break from their postgraduate training, and they are notified that their postgraduate training period is extended.(3) A postgraduate trainee is terminated from the postgraduate training program.(4) A postgraduate trainee resigns, dies, or otherwise leaves the postgraduate training program.(5) A postgraduate trainee has completed a one-year contract approved by the postgraduate training program.(g) Upon review of supporting documentation, the board, in its discretion, may grant an extension beyond 39 months to a postgraduate training licensee to successfully complete the 36 months of required approved postgraduate training.(h) An applicant for a physicians and surgeons license who has successfully completed 36 months of approved postgraduate training in another state or in Canada and who is accepted into an approved postgraduate training program in California shall obtain their physicians and surgeons license within 90 days after beginning that postgraduate training program or all privileges and exemptions under this section shall automatically cease.(i) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2020. |
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| 1028 | 1043 | | |
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| 1029 | 1044 | | 2065. (a) Unless otherwise provided by law, no postgraduate trainee, intern, resident, postdoctoral fellow, or instructor may engage in the practice of medicine, or receive compensation therefor, or offer to engage in the practice of medicine unless they hold a valid, unrevoked, and unsuspended physicians and surgeons certificate issued by the board. However, a graduate of an approved medical school may engage in the practice of medicine whenever and wherever required as a part of a postgraduate training program under the following conditions:(1) The medical school graduate has taken and passed the board-approved medical licensing examinations required to qualify the applicant to participate in an approved postgraduate training program.(2) If the medical school graduate graduated from a foreign medical school approved by the board pursuant to Section 2084, the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates (ECFMG) has submitted an official ECFMG Certification Status Report directly to the board confirming the graduate is ECFMG certified.(3) The medical school graduate is enrolled in a postgraduate training program approved by the board.(4) The board-approved postgraduate training program has submitted the required board-approved form to the board documenting the medical school graduate is enrolled in an approved postgraduate training program.(5) The medical school graduate obtains a physicians and surgeons postgraduate training license in accordance with Section 2064.5.(b) A medical school graduate enrolled in an approved first-year postgraduate training program in accordance with this section may engage in the practice of medicine whenever and wherever required as a part of the training program, and may receive compensation for that practice.(c) A graduate who has completed the first year of postgraduate training may, in an approved residency or fellowship, engage in the practice of medicine whenever and wherever required as part of that residency or fellowship, and may receive compensation for that practice. The resident or fellow shall qualify for, take, and pass the next succeeding written examination for licensure. If the resident or fellow fails to receive a license to practice medicine under this chapter within 27 months from the commencement of the residency or fellowship, except as otherwise allowed under subdivision (g) or (h), or if the board denies their application for licensure, all privileges and exemptions under this section shall automatically cease.(d) All approved postgraduate training the medical school graduate has successfully completed in the United States or Canada shall count toward the 39-month license exemption, except as otherwise allowed under subdivision (h).(e) A medical school graduate from a medical school approved by the board shall have successfully completed a minimum of 36 months of approved postgraduate training, which includes successful progression through 24 months in the same program, to be eligible for a California physicians and surgeons certificate.(f) The program director for an approved postgraduate training program in California shall report to the board, on a form approved by the board, and provide any supporting documents as required by the board, the following actions within 30 days of the action:(1) A postgraduate trainee is notified that they have received partial or no credit for a period of postgraduate training, and their postgraduate training period is extended.(2) A postgraduate trainee takes a leave of absence or any break from their postgraduate training, and they are notified that their postgraduate training period is extended.(3) A postgraduate trainee is terminated from the postgraduate training program.(4) A postgraduate trainee resigns, dies, or otherwise leaves the postgraduate training program.(5) A postgraduate trainee has completed a one-year contract approved by the postgraduate training program.(g) Upon review of supporting documentation, the board, in its discretion, may grant an extension beyond 39 months to a postgraduate training licensee to successfully complete the 36 months of required approved postgraduate training.(h) An applicant for a physicians and surgeons license who has successfully completed 36 months of approved postgraduate training in another state or in Canada and who is accepted into an approved postgraduate training program in California shall obtain their physicians and surgeons license within 90 days after beginning that postgraduate training program or all privileges and exemptions under this section shall automatically cease.(i) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2020. |
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| 1030 | 1045 | | |
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| 1031 | 1046 | | |
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| 1032 | 1047 | | |
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| 1033 | 1048 | | 2065. (a) Unless otherwise provided by law, no postgraduate trainee, intern, resident, postdoctoral fellow, or instructor may engage in the practice of medicine, or receive compensation therefor, or offer to engage in the practice of medicine unless they hold a valid, unrevoked, and unsuspended physicians and surgeons certificate issued by the board. However, a graduate of an approved medical school may engage in the practice of medicine whenever and wherever required as a part of a postgraduate training program under the following conditions: |
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| 1034 | 1049 | | |
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| 1035 | 1050 | | (1) The medical school graduate has taken and passed the board-approved medical licensing examinations required to qualify the applicant to participate in an approved postgraduate training program. |
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| 1036 | 1051 | | |
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| 1037 | 1052 | | (2) If the medical school graduate graduated from a foreign medical school approved by the board pursuant to Section 2084, the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates (ECFMG) has submitted an official ECFMG Certification Status Report directly to the board confirming the graduate is ECFMG certified. |
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| 1038 | 1053 | | |
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| 1039 | 1054 | | (3) The medical school graduate is enrolled in a postgraduate training program approved by the board. |
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| 1040 | 1055 | | |
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| 1041 | 1056 | | (4) The board-approved postgraduate training program has submitted the required board-approved form to the board documenting the medical school graduate is enrolled in an approved postgraduate training program. |
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| 1042 | 1057 | | |
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| 1043 | 1058 | | (5) The medical school graduate obtains a physicians and surgeons postgraduate training license in accordance with Section 2064.5. |
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| 1044 | 1059 | | |
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| 1045 | 1060 | | (b) A medical school graduate enrolled in an approved first-year postgraduate training program in accordance with this section may engage in the practice of medicine whenever and wherever required as a part of the training program, and may receive compensation for that practice. |
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| 1046 | 1061 | | |
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| 1047 | 1062 | | (c) A graduate who has completed the first year of postgraduate training may, in an approved residency or fellowship, engage in the practice of medicine whenever and wherever required as part of that residency or fellowship, and may receive compensation for that practice. The resident or fellow shall qualify for, take, and pass the next succeeding written examination for licensure. If the resident or fellow fails to receive a license to practice medicine under this chapter within 27 months from the commencement of the residency or fellowship, except as otherwise allowed under subdivision (g) or (h), or if the board denies their application for licensure, all privileges and exemptions under this section shall automatically cease. |
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| 1048 | 1063 | | |
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| 1049 | 1064 | | (d) All approved postgraduate training the medical school graduate has successfully completed in the United States or Canada shall count toward the 39-month license exemption, except as otherwise allowed under subdivision (h). |
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| 1050 | 1065 | | |
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| 1051 | 1066 | | (e) A medical school graduate from a medical school approved by the board shall have successfully completed a minimum of 36 months of approved postgraduate training, which includes successful progression through 24 months in the same program, to be eligible for a California physicians and surgeons certificate. |
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| 1052 | 1067 | | |
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| 1053 | 1068 | | (f) The program director for an approved postgraduate training program in California shall report to the board, on a form approved by the board, and provide any supporting documents as required by the board, the following actions within 30 days of the action: |
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| 1054 | 1069 | | |
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| 1055 | 1070 | | (1) A postgraduate trainee is notified that they have received partial or no credit for a period of postgraduate training, and their postgraduate training period is extended. |
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| 1056 | 1071 | | |
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| 1057 | 1072 | | (2) A postgraduate trainee takes a leave of absence or any break from their postgraduate training, and they are notified that their postgraduate training period is extended. |
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| 1058 | 1073 | | |
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| 1059 | 1074 | | (3) A postgraduate trainee is terminated from the postgraduate training program. |
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| 1060 | 1075 | | |
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| 1061 | 1076 | | (4) A postgraduate trainee resigns, dies, or otherwise leaves the postgraduate training program. |
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| 1062 | 1077 | | |
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| 1063 | 1078 | | (5) A postgraduate trainee has completed a one-year contract approved by the postgraduate training program. |
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| 1064 | 1079 | | |
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| 1065 | 1080 | | (g) Upon review of supporting documentation, the board, in its discretion, may grant an extension beyond 39 months to a postgraduate training licensee to successfully complete the 36 months of required approved postgraduate training. |
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| 1066 | 1081 | | |
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| 1067 | 1082 | | (h) An applicant for a physicians and surgeons license who has successfully completed 36 months of approved postgraduate training in another state or in Canada and who is accepted into an approved postgraduate training program in California shall obtain their physicians and surgeons license within 90 days after beginning that postgraduate training program or all privileges and exemptions under this section shall automatically cease. |
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| 1068 | 1083 | | |
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| 1069 | 1084 | | (i) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2020. |
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| 1070 | 1085 | | |
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| 1071 | 1086 | | SEC. 16. Section 2113 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2113. (a) Any person who does not immediately qualify for a physicians and surgeons certificate under this chapter and who is offered by the dean of an approved medical school in this state a full-time faculty position may, after application to and approval by the board, be granted a certificate of registration to engage in the practice of medicine only to the extent that the practice is incident to and a necessary part of their duties as approved by the board in connection with the faculty position. A certificate of registration does not authorize a registrant to admit patients to a nursing or a skilled or assisted living facility unless that facility is formally affiliated with the sponsoring medical school. A clinical fellowship shall not be submitted as a faculty service appointment.(b) Application for a certificate of registration shall be made on a form prescribed by the board and shall be accompanied by a registration fee fixed by the board in an amount necessary to recover the actual application processing costs of the program. To qualify for the certificate, an applicant shall submit all of the following:(1) If the applicant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, documentary evidence satisfactory to the board that they have been licensed to practice medicine and surgery for not less than four years in another state or country whose requirements for licensure are satisfactory to the board, or has been engaged in the practice of medicine in the United States for at least four years in approved facilities, or has completed a combination of that licensure and training.(2) If the applicant is a graduate of a medical school in the United States or Canada, documentary evidence that the medical school is approved by the board.(3) Written certification by the head of the department in which the applicant is to be appointed of all of the following:(A) The applicant will be under their direction.(B) The applicant will not be permitted to practice medicine unless incident to and a necessary part of their duties as approved by the board in subdivision (a).(C) The applicant will be accountable to the medical schools department chair or division chief for the specialty in which the applicant will practice.(D) The applicant will be proctored in the same manner as other new faculty members, including, as appropriate, review by the medical staff of the schools medical center.(E) The applicant will not be appointed to a supervisory position at the level of a medical school department chair or division chief.(4) Demonstration by the dean of the medical school that the applicant has the requisite qualifications to assume the position to which they are to be appointed and that shall include a written statement of the recruitment procedures followed by the medical school before offering the faculty position to the applicant.(c) A certificate of registration shall be issued only for a faculty position at one approved medical school, and no person shall be issued more than one certificate of registration for the same period of time.(d) (1) A certificate of registration is valid for one year from its date of issuance and may be renewed twice.A request for renewal shall be submitted on a form prescribed by the board and shall be accompanied by a renewal fee fixed by the board in an amount necessary to recover the actual application processing costs of the program.(2) The dean of the medical school may request renewal of the registration by submitting a plan at the beginning of the third year of the registrants appointment demonstrating the registrants continued progress toward licensure and, if the registrant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, that the registrant has been issued a certificate by the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates. The board may, in its discretion, extend the registration for a two-year period to facilitate the registrants completion of the licensure process.(e) If the registrant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, they shall meet the requirements of Section 2065 or 2135, as appropriate, in order to obtain a physicians and surgeons certificate. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the board may accept clinical practice in an appointment pursuant to this section as qualifying time to meet the postgraduate training requirements in Section 2065, and, in its discretion, waive the examination and the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates certification requirements specified in paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) of Section 2065 in the event the registrant applies for a physicians and surgeons certificate. As a condition to waiving any examination or the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates certification requirement, the board in its discretion, may require an applicant to pass a clinical competency examination approved by the board. The board shall not waive any examination for an applicant who has not completed at least one year in the faculty position.(f) Except to the extent authorized by this section, the registrant shall not engage in the practice of medicine, bill individually for medical services provided by the registrant, or receive compensation therefor, unless they are issued a physicians and surgeons certificate.(g) When providing clinical services, the registrant shall wear a visible name tag containing the title visiting professor or visiting faculty member, as appropriate, and the institution at which the services are provided shall obtain a signed statement from each patient to whom the registrant provides services acknowledging that the patient understands that the services are provided by a person who does not hold a physicians and surgeons certificate but who is qualified to participate in a special program as a visiting professor or faculty member.(h) The board shall notify both the registrant and the dean of the medical school of a complaint made about the registrant. The board may terminate a registration for any act that would be grounds for discipline if done by a licensee. The board shall provide both the registrant and the dean of the medical school with written notice of the termination and the basis for that termination. The registrant may, within 30 days after the date of the notice of termination, file a written appeal to the board. The appeal shall include any documentation the registrant wishes to present to the board.(i) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2020. |
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| 1072 | 1087 | | |
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| 1073 | 1088 | | SEC. 16. Section 2113 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
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| 1074 | 1089 | | |
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| 1075 | 1090 | | ### SEC. 16. |
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| 1076 | 1091 | | |
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| 1077 | 1092 | | 2113. (a) Any person who does not immediately qualify for a physicians and surgeons certificate under this chapter and who is offered by the dean of an approved medical school in this state a full-time faculty position may, after application to and approval by the board, be granted a certificate of registration to engage in the practice of medicine only to the extent that the practice is incident to and a necessary part of their duties as approved by the board in connection with the faculty position. A certificate of registration does not authorize a registrant to admit patients to a nursing or a skilled or assisted living facility unless that facility is formally affiliated with the sponsoring medical school. A clinical fellowship shall not be submitted as a faculty service appointment.(b) Application for a certificate of registration shall be made on a form prescribed by the board and shall be accompanied by a registration fee fixed by the board in an amount necessary to recover the actual application processing costs of the program. To qualify for the certificate, an applicant shall submit all of the following:(1) If the applicant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, documentary evidence satisfactory to the board that they have been licensed to practice medicine and surgery for not less than four years in another state or country whose requirements for licensure are satisfactory to the board, or has been engaged in the practice of medicine in the United States for at least four years in approved facilities, or has completed a combination of that licensure and training.(2) If the applicant is a graduate of a medical school in the United States or Canada, documentary evidence that the medical school is approved by the board.(3) Written certification by the head of the department in which the applicant is to be appointed of all of the following:(A) The applicant will be under their direction.(B) The applicant will not be permitted to practice medicine unless incident to and a necessary part of their duties as approved by the board in subdivision (a).(C) The applicant will be accountable to the medical schools department chair or division chief for the specialty in which the applicant will practice.(D) The applicant will be proctored in the same manner as other new faculty members, including, as appropriate, review by the medical staff of the schools medical center.(E) The applicant will not be appointed to a supervisory position at the level of a medical school department chair or division chief.(4) Demonstration by the dean of the medical school that the applicant has the requisite qualifications to assume the position to which they are to be appointed and that shall include a written statement of the recruitment procedures followed by the medical school before offering the faculty position to the applicant.(c) A certificate of registration shall be issued only for a faculty position at one approved medical school, and no person shall be issued more than one certificate of registration for the same period of time.(d) (1) A certificate of registration is valid for one year from its date of issuance and may be renewed twice.A request for renewal shall be submitted on a form prescribed by the board and shall be accompanied by a renewal fee fixed by the board in an amount necessary to recover the actual application processing costs of the program.(2) The dean of the medical school may request renewal of the registration by submitting a plan at the beginning of the third year of the registrants appointment demonstrating the registrants continued progress toward licensure and, if the registrant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, that the registrant has been issued a certificate by the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates. The board may, in its discretion, extend the registration for a two-year period to facilitate the registrants completion of the licensure process.(e) If the registrant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, they shall meet the requirements of Section 2065 or 2135, as appropriate, in order to obtain a physicians and surgeons certificate. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the board may accept clinical practice in an appointment pursuant to this section as qualifying time to meet the postgraduate training requirements in Section 2065, and, in its discretion, waive the examination and the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates certification requirements specified in paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) of Section 2065 in the event the registrant applies for a physicians and surgeons certificate. As a condition to waiving any examination or the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates certification requirement, the board in its discretion, may require an applicant to pass a clinical competency examination approved by the board. The board shall not waive any examination for an applicant who has not completed at least one year in the faculty position.(f) Except to the extent authorized by this section, the registrant shall not engage in the practice of medicine, bill individually for medical services provided by the registrant, or receive compensation therefor, unless they are issued a physicians and surgeons certificate.(g) When providing clinical services, the registrant shall wear a visible name tag containing the title visiting professor or visiting faculty member, as appropriate, and the institution at which the services are provided shall obtain a signed statement from each patient to whom the registrant provides services acknowledging that the patient understands that the services are provided by a person who does not hold a physicians and surgeons certificate but who is qualified to participate in a special program as a visiting professor or faculty member.(h) The board shall notify both the registrant and the dean of the medical school of a complaint made about the registrant. The board may terminate a registration for any act that would be grounds for discipline if done by a licensee. The board shall provide both the registrant and the dean of the medical school with written notice of the termination and the basis for that termination. The registrant may, within 30 days after the date of the notice of termination, file a written appeal to the board. The appeal shall include any documentation the registrant wishes to present to the board.(i) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2020. |
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| 1078 | 1093 | | |
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| 1079 | 1094 | | 2113. (a) Any person who does not immediately qualify for a physicians and surgeons certificate under this chapter and who is offered by the dean of an approved medical school in this state a full-time faculty position may, after application to and approval by the board, be granted a certificate of registration to engage in the practice of medicine only to the extent that the practice is incident to and a necessary part of their duties as approved by the board in connection with the faculty position. A certificate of registration does not authorize a registrant to admit patients to a nursing or a skilled or assisted living facility unless that facility is formally affiliated with the sponsoring medical school. A clinical fellowship shall not be submitted as a faculty service appointment.(b) Application for a certificate of registration shall be made on a form prescribed by the board and shall be accompanied by a registration fee fixed by the board in an amount necessary to recover the actual application processing costs of the program. To qualify for the certificate, an applicant shall submit all of the following:(1) If the applicant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, documentary evidence satisfactory to the board that they have been licensed to practice medicine and surgery for not less than four years in another state or country whose requirements for licensure are satisfactory to the board, or has been engaged in the practice of medicine in the United States for at least four years in approved facilities, or has completed a combination of that licensure and training.(2) If the applicant is a graduate of a medical school in the United States or Canada, documentary evidence that the medical school is approved by the board.(3) Written certification by the head of the department in which the applicant is to be appointed of all of the following:(A) The applicant will be under their direction.(B) The applicant will not be permitted to practice medicine unless incident to and a necessary part of their duties as approved by the board in subdivision (a).(C) The applicant will be accountable to the medical schools department chair or division chief for the specialty in which the applicant will practice.(D) The applicant will be proctored in the same manner as other new faculty members, including, as appropriate, review by the medical staff of the schools medical center.(E) The applicant will not be appointed to a supervisory position at the level of a medical school department chair or division chief.(4) Demonstration by the dean of the medical school that the applicant has the requisite qualifications to assume the position to which they are to be appointed and that shall include a written statement of the recruitment procedures followed by the medical school before offering the faculty position to the applicant.(c) A certificate of registration shall be issued only for a faculty position at one approved medical school, and no person shall be issued more than one certificate of registration for the same period of time.(d) (1) A certificate of registration is valid for one year from its date of issuance and may be renewed twice.A request for renewal shall be submitted on a form prescribed by the board and shall be accompanied by a renewal fee fixed by the board in an amount necessary to recover the actual application processing costs of the program.(2) The dean of the medical school may request renewal of the registration by submitting a plan at the beginning of the third year of the registrants appointment demonstrating the registrants continued progress toward licensure and, if the registrant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, that the registrant has been issued a certificate by the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates. The board may, in its discretion, extend the registration for a two-year period to facilitate the registrants completion of the licensure process.(e) If the registrant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, they shall meet the requirements of Section 2065 or 2135, as appropriate, in order to obtain a physicians and surgeons certificate. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the board may accept clinical practice in an appointment pursuant to this section as qualifying time to meet the postgraduate training requirements in Section 2065, and, in its discretion, waive the examination and the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates certification requirements specified in paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) of Section 2065 in the event the registrant applies for a physicians and surgeons certificate. As a condition to waiving any examination or the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates certification requirement, the board in its discretion, may require an applicant to pass a clinical competency examination approved by the board. The board shall not waive any examination for an applicant who has not completed at least one year in the faculty position.(f) Except to the extent authorized by this section, the registrant shall not engage in the practice of medicine, bill individually for medical services provided by the registrant, or receive compensation therefor, unless they are issued a physicians and surgeons certificate.(g) When providing clinical services, the registrant shall wear a visible name tag containing the title visiting professor or visiting faculty member, as appropriate, and the institution at which the services are provided shall obtain a signed statement from each patient to whom the registrant provides services acknowledging that the patient understands that the services are provided by a person who does not hold a physicians and surgeons certificate but who is qualified to participate in a special program as a visiting professor or faculty member.(h) The board shall notify both the registrant and the dean of the medical school of a complaint made about the registrant. The board may terminate a registration for any act that would be grounds for discipline if done by a licensee. The board shall provide both the registrant and the dean of the medical school with written notice of the termination and the basis for that termination. The registrant may, within 30 days after the date of the notice of termination, file a written appeal to the board. The appeal shall include any documentation the registrant wishes to present to the board.(i) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2020. |
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| 1080 | 1095 | | |
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| 1081 | 1096 | | 2113. (a) Any person who does not immediately qualify for a physicians and surgeons certificate under this chapter and who is offered by the dean of an approved medical school in this state a full-time faculty position may, after application to and approval by the board, be granted a certificate of registration to engage in the practice of medicine only to the extent that the practice is incident to and a necessary part of their duties as approved by the board in connection with the faculty position. A certificate of registration does not authorize a registrant to admit patients to a nursing or a skilled or assisted living facility unless that facility is formally affiliated with the sponsoring medical school. A clinical fellowship shall not be submitted as a faculty service appointment.(b) Application for a certificate of registration shall be made on a form prescribed by the board and shall be accompanied by a registration fee fixed by the board in an amount necessary to recover the actual application processing costs of the program. To qualify for the certificate, an applicant shall submit all of the following:(1) If the applicant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, documentary evidence satisfactory to the board that they have been licensed to practice medicine and surgery for not less than four years in another state or country whose requirements for licensure are satisfactory to the board, or has been engaged in the practice of medicine in the United States for at least four years in approved facilities, or has completed a combination of that licensure and training.(2) If the applicant is a graduate of a medical school in the United States or Canada, documentary evidence that the medical school is approved by the board.(3) Written certification by the head of the department in which the applicant is to be appointed of all of the following:(A) The applicant will be under their direction.(B) The applicant will not be permitted to practice medicine unless incident to and a necessary part of their duties as approved by the board in subdivision (a).(C) The applicant will be accountable to the medical schools department chair or division chief for the specialty in which the applicant will practice.(D) The applicant will be proctored in the same manner as other new faculty members, including, as appropriate, review by the medical staff of the schools medical center.(E) The applicant will not be appointed to a supervisory position at the level of a medical school department chair or division chief.(4) Demonstration by the dean of the medical school that the applicant has the requisite qualifications to assume the position to which they are to be appointed and that shall include a written statement of the recruitment procedures followed by the medical school before offering the faculty position to the applicant.(c) A certificate of registration shall be issued only for a faculty position at one approved medical school, and no person shall be issued more than one certificate of registration for the same period of time.(d) (1) A certificate of registration is valid for one year from its date of issuance and may be renewed twice.A request for renewal shall be submitted on a form prescribed by the board and shall be accompanied by a renewal fee fixed by the board in an amount necessary to recover the actual application processing costs of the program.(2) The dean of the medical school may request renewal of the registration by submitting a plan at the beginning of the third year of the registrants appointment demonstrating the registrants continued progress toward licensure and, if the registrant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, that the registrant has been issued a certificate by the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates. The board may, in its discretion, extend the registration for a two-year period to facilitate the registrants completion of the licensure process.(e) If the registrant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, they shall meet the requirements of Section 2065 or 2135, as appropriate, in order to obtain a physicians and surgeons certificate. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the board may accept clinical practice in an appointment pursuant to this section as qualifying time to meet the postgraduate training requirements in Section 2065, and, in its discretion, waive the examination and the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates certification requirements specified in paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) of Section 2065 in the event the registrant applies for a physicians and surgeons certificate. As a condition to waiving any examination or the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates certification requirement, the board in its discretion, may require an applicant to pass a clinical competency examination approved by the board. The board shall not waive any examination for an applicant who has not completed at least one year in the faculty position.(f) Except to the extent authorized by this section, the registrant shall not engage in the practice of medicine, bill individually for medical services provided by the registrant, or receive compensation therefor, unless they are issued a physicians and surgeons certificate.(g) When providing clinical services, the registrant shall wear a visible name tag containing the title visiting professor or visiting faculty member, as appropriate, and the institution at which the services are provided shall obtain a signed statement from each patient to whom the registrant provides services acknowledging that the patient understands that the services are provided by a person who does not hold a physicians and surgeons certificate but who is qualified to participate in a special program as a visiting professor or faculty member.(h) The board shall notify both the registrant and the dean of the medical school of a complaint made about the registrant. The board may terminate a registration for any act that would be grounds for discipline if done by a licensee. The board shall provide both the registrant and the dean of the medical school with written notice of the termination and the basis for that termination. The registrant may, within 30 days after the date of the notice of termination, file a written appeal to the board. The appeal shall include any documentation the registrant wishes to present to the board.(i) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2020. |
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| 1082 | 1097 | | |
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| 1083 | 1098 | | |
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| 1084 | 1099 | | |
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| 1085 | 1100 | | 2113. (a) Any person who does not immediately qualify for a physicians and surgeons certificate under this chapter and who is offered by the dean of an approved medical school in this state a full-time faculty position may, after application to and approval by the board, be granted a certificate of registration to engage in the practice of medicine only to the extent that the practice is incident to and a necessary part of their duties as approved by the board in connection with the faculty position. A certificate of registration does not authorize a registrant to admit patients to a nursing or a skilled or assisted living facility unless that facility is formally affiliated with the sponsoring medical school. A clinical fellowship shall not be submitted as a faculty service appointment. |
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| 1086 | 1101 | | |
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| 1087 | 1102 | | (b) Application for a certificate of registration shall be made on a form prescribed by the board and shall be accompanied by a registration fee fixed by the board in an amount necessary to recover the actual application processing costs of the program. To qualify for the certificate, an applicant shall submit all of the following: |
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| 1088 | 1103 | | |
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| 1089 | 1104 | | (1) If the applicant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, documentary evidence satisfactory to the board that they have been licensed to practice medicine and surgery for not less than four years in another state or country whose requirements for licensure are satisfactory to the board, or has been engaged in the practice of medicine in the United States for at least four years in approved facilities, or has completed a combination of that licensure and training. |
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| 1090 | 1105 | | |
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| 1091 | 1106 | | (2) If the applicant is a graduate of a medical school in the United States or Canada, documentary evidence that the medical school is approved by the board. |
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| 1092 | 1107 | | |
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| 1093 | 1108 | | (3) Written certification by the head of the department in which the applicant is to be appointed of all of the following: |
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| 1094 | 1109 | | |
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| 1095 | 1110 | | (A) The applicant will be under their direction. |
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| 1096 | 1111 | | |
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| 1097 | 1112 | | (B) The applicant will not be permitted to practice medicine unless incident to and a necessary part of their duties as approved by the board in subdivision (a). |
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| 1098 | 1113 | | |
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| 1099 | 1114 | | (C) The applicant will be accountable to the medical schools department chair or division chief for the specialty in which the applicant will practice. |
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| 1100 | 1115 | | |
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| 1101 | 1116 | | (D) The applicant will be proctored in the same manner as other new faculty members, including, as appropriate, review by the medical staff of the schools medical center. |
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| 1102 | 1117 | | |
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| 1103 | 1118 | | (E) The applicant will not be appointed to a supervisory position at the level of a medical school department chair or division chief. |
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| 1104 | 1119 | | |
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| 1105 | 1120 | | (4) Demonstration by the dean of the medical school that the applicant has the requisite qualifications to assume the position to which they are to be appointed and that shall include a written statement of the recruitment procedures followed by the medical school before offering the faculty position to the applicant. |
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| 1106 | 1121 | | |
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| 1107 | 1122 | | (c) A certificate of registration shall be issued only for a faculty position at one approved medical school, and no person shall be issued more than one certificate of registration for the same period of time. |
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| 1108 | 1123 | | |
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| 1109 | 1124 | | (d) (1) A certificate of registration is valid for one year from its date of issuance and may be renewed twice. |
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| 1110 | 1125 | | |
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| 1111 | 1126 | | A request for renewal shall be submitted on a form prescribed by the board and shall be accompanied by a renewal fee fixed by the board in an amount necessary to recover the actual application processing costs of the program. |
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| 1112 | 1127 | | |
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| 1113 | 1128 | | (2) The dean of the medical school may request renewal of the registration by submitting a plan at the beginning of the third year of the registrants appointment demonstrating the registrants continued progress toward licensure and, if the registrant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, that the registrant has been issued a certificate by the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates. The board may, in its discretion, extend the registration for a two-year period to facilitate the registrants completion of the licensure process. |
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| 1114 | 1129 | | |
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| 1115 | 1130 | | (e) If the registrant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, they shall meet the requirements of Section 2065 or 2135, as appropriate, in order to obtain a physicians and surgeons certificate. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the board may accept clinical practice in an appointment pursuant to this section as qualifying time to meet the postgraduate training requirements in Section 2065, and, in its discretion, waive the examination and the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates certification requirements specified in paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) of Section 2065 in the event the registrant applies for a physicians and surgeons certificate. As a condition to waiving any examination or the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates certification requirement, the board in its discretion, may require an applicant to pass a clinical competency examination approved by the board. The board shall not waive any examination for an applicant who has not completed at least one year in the faculty position. |
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| 1116 | 1131 | | |
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| 1117 | 1132 | | (f) Except to the extent authorized by this section, the registrant shall not engage in the practice of medicine, bill individually for medical services provided by the registrant, or receive compensation therefor, unless they are issued a physicians and surgeons certificate. |
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| 1118 | 1133 | | |
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| 1119 | 1134 | | (g) When providing clinical services, the registrant shall wear a visible name tag containing the title visiting professor or visiting faculty member, as appropriate, and the institution at which the services are provided shall obtain a signed statement from each patient to whom the registrant provides services acknowledging that the patient understands that the services are provided by a person who does not hold a physicians and surgeons certificate but who is qualified to participate in a special program as a visiting professor or faculty member. |
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| 1120 | 1135 | | |
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| 1121 | 1136 | | (h) The board shall notify both the registrant and the dean of the medical school of a complaint made about the registrant. The board may terminate a registration for any act that would be grounds for discipline if done by a licensee. The board shall provide both the registrant and the dean of the medical school with written notice of the termination and the basis for that termination. The registrant may, within 30 days after the date of the notice of termination, file a written appeal to the board. The appeal shall include any documentation the registrant wishes to present to the board. |
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| 1122 | 1137 | | |
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| 1123 | 1138 | | (i) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2020. |
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| 1124 | 1139 | | |
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| 1125 | 1140 | | SEC. 16.5. Section 2113 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2113. (a) Any person who does not immediately qualify for a physicians and surgeons certificate under this chapter and who is offered by the dean of an approved medical school, or dean or chief medical officer of an academic medical center, in this state a full-time faculty position may, after application to and approval by the board, be granted a certificate of registration to engage in the practice of medicine only to the extent that the practice is incident to and a necessary part of that persons duties as approved by the board in connection with the faculty position. A certificate of registration does not authorize a registrant to admit patients to a nursing or a skilled or assisted living facility unless that facility is formally affiliated with the sponsoring medical school. A clinical fellowship shall not be submitted as a faculty service appointment.(b) Application for a certificate of registration shall be made on a form prescribed by the board and shall be accompanied by a registration fee fixed by the board in an amount necessary to recover the actual application processing costs of the program. To qualify for the certificate, an applicant shall submit all of the following:(1) If the applicant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, documentary evidence satisfactory to the board that the applicant has been licensed to practice medicine and surgery for not less than four years in another state or country whose requirements for licensure are satisfactory to the board, or has been engaged in the practice of medicine in the United States for at least four years in approved facilities, or has completed a combination of that licensure and training.(2) If the applicant is a graduate of a medical school in the United States or Canada, documentary evidence that the medical school is approved by the board.(3) Written certification by the head of the department in which the applicant is to be appointed of all of the following:(A) The applicant will be under the head of the departments direction.(B) The applicant will not be permitted to practice medicine unless incident to and a necessary part of the applicants duties as approved by the board in subdivision (a).(C) The applicant will be accountable to the medical schools or academic medical centers chair or division chief for the specialty in which the applicant will practice.(D) The applicant will be proctored in the same manner as other new faculty members, including, as appropriate, review by the medical staff of the sponsoring medical school or academic medical center.(E) The applicant will not be appointed to a supervisory position at the level of a medical school or academic medical centers department chair or division chief.(4) Demonstration by the dean of the medical school, or dean or chief medical officer or an academic medical center, that the applicant has the requisite qualifications to assume the position to which the applicant is to be appointed and that shall include a written statement of the recruitment procedures followed by the medical school or academic medical center before offering the faculty position to the applicant.(c) A certificate of registration shall be issued only for a faculty position at one approved medical school, or academic medical center, and a person shall not be issued more than one certificate of registration for the same period of time.(d) (1) A certificate of registration is valid for one year from its date of issuance and may be renewed twice.A request for renewal shall be submitted on a form prescribed by the board and shall be accompanied by a renewal fee fixed by the board in an amount necessary to recover the actual application processing costs of the program.(2) The dean of the medical school, or the dean or chief medical officer of an academic medical center, may request renewal of the registration by submitting a plan at the beginning of the third year of the registrants appointment demonstrating the registrants continued progress toward licensure and, if the registrant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, that the registrant has been issued a certificate by the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates. The board may, in its discretion, extend the registration for a two-year period to facilitate the registrants completion of the licensure process.(e) If the registrant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, the registrant shall meet the requirements of Section 2065 or 2135, as appropriate, in order to obtain a physicians and surgeons certificate. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the board may accept clinical practice in an appointment pursuant to this section as qualifying time to meet the postgraduate training requirements in Section 2065, and, in its discretion, waive the examination and the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates certification requirements specified in paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) of Section 2065 in the event the registrant applies for a physicians and surgeons certificate. As a condition to waiving any examination or the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates certification requirement, the board in its discretion, may require an applicant to pass a clinical competency examination approved by the board. The board shall not waive any examination for an applicant who has not completed at least one year in the faculty position.(f) Except to the extent authorized by this section, the registrant shall not engage in the practice of medicine, bill individually for medical services provided by the registrant, or receive compensation therefor, unless the registrant is issued a physicians and surgeons certificate.(g) When providing clinical services, the registrant shall wear a visible name tag containing the title visiting professor or visiting faculty member, as appropriate, and the institution at which the services are provided shall obtain a signed statement from each patient to whom the registrant provides services acknowledging that the patient understands that the services are provided by a person who does not hold a physicians and surgeons certificate but who is qualified to participate in a special program as a visiting professor or faculty member.(h) The board shall notify both the registrant and the dean of the medical school, or the dean or chief medical officer of an academic medical center, of a complaint made about the registrant. The board may terminate a registration for any act that would be grounds for discipline if done by a licensee. The board shall provide both the registrant and the dean of the medical school, or the dean or chief medical officer of an academic medical center, with written notice of the termination and the basis for that termination. The registrant may, within 30 days after the date of the notice of termination, file a written appeal to the board. The appeal shall include any documentation the registrant wishes to present to the board.(i) A registrant granted a certificate of registration before January 1, 2021, to engage in the practice of medicine pursuant to this section at an academic medical center shall be deemed to be authorized at that academic medical center as though the initial application had been sponsored by the academic medical center.(j) As used in this section, academic medical center has the same meaning as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 2168. |
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| 1126 | 1141 | | |
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| 1127 | 1142 | | SEC. 16.5. Section 2113 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
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| 1128 | 1143 | | |
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| 1129 | 1144 | | ### SEC. 16.5. |
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| 1130 | 1145 | | |
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| 1131 | 1146 | | 2113. (a) Any person who does not immediately qualify for a physicians and surgeons certificate under this chapter and who is offered by the dean of an approved medical school, or dean or chief medical officer of an academic medical center, in this state a full-time faculty position may, after application to and approval by the board, be granted a certificate of registration to engage in the practice of medicine only to the extent that the practice is incident to and a necessary part of that persons duties as approved by the board in connection with the faculty position. A certificate of registration does not authorize a registrant to admit patients to a nursing or a skilled or assisted living facility unless that facility is formally affiliated with the sponsoring medical school. A clinical fellowship shall not be submitted as a faculty service appointment.(b) Application for a certificate of registration shall be made on a form prescribed by the board and shall be accompanied by a registration fee fixed by the board in an amount necessary to recover the actual application processing costs of the program. To qualify for the certificate, an applicant shall submit all of the following:(1) If the applicant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, documentary evidence satisfactory to the board that the applicant has been licensed to practice medicine and surgery for not less than four years in another state or country whose requirements for licensure are satisfactory to the board, or has been engaged in the practice of medicine in the United States for at least four years in approved facilities, or has completed a combination of that licensure and training.(2) If the applicant is a graduate of a medical school in the United States or Canada, documentary evidence that the medical school is approved by the board.(3) Written certification by the head of the department in which the applicant is to be appointed of all of the following:(A) The applicant will be under the head of the departments direction.(B) The applicant will not be permitted to practice medicine unless incident to and a necessary part of the applicants duties as approved by the board in subdivision (a).(C) The applicant will be accountable to the medical schools or academic medical centers chair or division chief for the specialty in which the applicant will practice.(D) The applicant will be proctored in the same manner as other new faculty members, including, as appropriate, review by the medical staff of the sponsoring medical school or academic medical center.(E) The applicant will not be appointed to a supervisory position at the level of a medical school or academic medical centers department chair or division chief.(4) Demonstration by the dean of the medical school, or dean or chief medical officer or an academic medical center, that the applicant has the requisite qualifications to assume the position to which the applicant is to be appointed and that shall include a written statement of the recruitment procedures followed by the medical school or academic medical center before offering the faculty position to the applicant.(c) A certificate of registration shall be issued only for a faculty position at one approved medical school, or academic medical center, and a person shall not be issued more than one certificate of registration for the same period of time.(d) (1) A certificate of registration is valid for one year from its date of issuance and may be renewed twice.A request for renewal shall be submitted on a form prescribed by the board and shall be accompanied by a renewal fee fixed by the board in an amount necessary to recover the actual application processing costs of the program.(2) The dean of the medical school, or the dean or chief medical officer of an academic medical center, may request renewal of the registration by submitting a plan at the beginning of the third year of the registrants appointment demonstrating the registrants continued progress toward licensure and, if the registrant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, that the registrant has been issued a certificate by the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates. The board may, in its discretion, extend the registration for a two-year period to facilitate the registrants completion of the licensure process.(e) If the registrant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, the registrant shall meet the requirements of Section 2065 or 2135, as appropriate, in order to obtain a physicians and surgeons certificate. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the board may accept clinical practice in an appointment pursuant to this section as qualifying time to meet the postgraduate training requirements in Section 2065, and, in its discretion, waive the examination and the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates certification requirements specified in paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) of Section 2065 in the event the registrant applies for a physicians and surgeons certificate. As a condition to waiving any examination or the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates certification requirement, the board in its discretion, may require an applicant to pass a clinical competency examination approved by the board. The board shall not waive any examination for an applicant who has not completed at least one year in the faculty position.(f) Except to the extent authorized by this section, the registrant shall not engage in the practice of medicine, bill individually for medical services provided by the registrant, or receive compensation therefor, unless the registrant is issued a physicians and surgeons certificate.(g) When providing clinical services, the registrant shall wear a visible name tag containing the title visiting professor or visiting faculty member, as appropriate, and the institution at which the services are provided shall obtain a signed statement from each patient to whom the registrant provides services acknowledging that the patient understands that the services are provided by a person who does not hold a physicians and surgeons certificate but who is qualified to participate in a special program as a visiting professor or faculty member.(h) The board shall notify both the registrant and the dean of the medical school, or the dean or chief medical officer of an academic medical center, of a complaint made about the registrant. The board may terminate a registration for any act that would be grounds for discipline if done by a licensee. The board shall provide both the registrant and the dean of the medical school, or the dean or chief medical officer of an academic medical center, with written notice of the termination and the basis for that termination. The registrant may, within 30 days after the date of the notice of termination, file a written appeal to the board. The appeal shall include any documentation the registrant wishes to present to the board.(i) A registrant granted a certificate of registration before January 1, 2021, to engage in the practice of medicine pursuant to this section at an academic medical center shall be deemed to be authorized at that academic medical center as though the initial application had been sponsored by the academic medical center.(j) As used in this section, academic medical center has the same meaning as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 2168. |
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| 1132 | 1147 | | |
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| 1133 | 1148 | | 2113. (a) Any person who does not immediately qualify for a physicians and surgeons certificate under this chapter and who is offered by the dean of an approved medical school, or dean or chief medical officer of an academic medical center, in this state a full-time faculty position may, after application to and approval by the board, be granted a certificate of registration to engage in the practice of medicine only to the extent that the practice is incident to and a necessary part of that persons duties as approved by the board in connection with the faculty position. A certificate of registration does not authorize a registrant to admit patients to a nursing or a skilled or assisted living facility unless that facility is formally affiliated with the sponsoring medical school. A clinical fellowship shall not be submitted as a faculty service appointment.(b) Application for a certificate of registration shall be made on a form prescribed by the board and shall be accompanied by a registration fee fixed by the board in an amount necessary to recover the actual application processing costs of the program. To qualify for the certificate, an applicant shall submit all of the following:(1) If the applicant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, documentary evidence satisfactory to the board that the applicant has been licensed to practice medicine and surgery for not less than four years in another state or country whose requirements for licensure are satisfactory to the board, or has been engaged in the practice of medicine in the United States for at least four years in approved facilities, or has completed a combination of that licensure and training.(2) If the applicant is a graduate of a medical school in the United States or Canada, documentary evidence that the medical school is approved by the board.(3) Written certification by the head of the department in which the applicant is to be appointed of all of the following:(A) The applicant will be under the head of the departments direction.(B) The applicant will not be permitted to practice medicine unless incident to and a necessary part of the applicants duties as approved by the board in subdivision (a).(C) The applicant will be accountable to the medical schools or academic medical centers chair or division chief for the specialty in which the applicant will practice.(D) The applicant will be proctored in the same manner as other new faculty members, including, as appropriate, review by the medical staff of the sponsoring medical school or academic medical center.(E) The applicant will not be appointed to a supervisory position at the level of a medical school or academic medical centers department chair or division chief.(4) Demonstration by the dean of the medical school, or dean or chief medical officer or an academic medical center, that the applicant has the requisite qualifications to assume the position to which the applicant is to be appointed and that shall include a written statement of the recruitment procedures followed by the medical school or academic medical center before offering the faculty position to the applicant.(c) A certificate of registration shall be issued only for a faculty position at one approved medical school, or academic medical center, and a person shall not be issued more than one certificate of registration for the same period of time.(d) (1) A certificate of registration is valid for one year from its date of issuance and may be renewed twice.A request for renewal shall be submitted on a form prescribed by the board and shall be accompanied by a renewal fee fixed by the board in an amount necessary to recover the actual application processing costs of the program.(2) The dean of the medical school, or the dean or chief medical officer of an academic medical center, may request renewal of the registration by submitting a plan at the beginning of the third year of the registrants appointment demonstrating the registrants continued progress toward licensure and, if the registrant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, that the registrant has been issued a certificate by the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates. The board may, in its discretion, extend the registration for a two-year period to facilitate the registrants completion of the licensure process.(e) If the registrant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, the registrant shall meet the requirements of Section 2065 or 2135, as appropriate, in order to obtain a physicians and surgeons certificate. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the board may accept clinical practice in an appointment pursuant to this section as qualifying time to meet the postgraduate training requirements in Section 2065, and, in its discretion, waive the examination and the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates certification requirements specified in paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) of Section 2065 in the event the registrant applies for a physicians and surgeons certificate. As a condition to waiving any examination or the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates certification requirement, the board in its discretion, may require an applicant to pass a clinical competency examination approved by the board. The board shall not waive any examination for an applicant who has not completed at least one year in the faculty position.(f) Except to the extent authorized by this section, the registrant shall not engage in the practice of medicine, bill individually for medical services provided by the registrant, or receive compensation therefor, unless the registrant is issued a physicians and surgeons certificate.(g) When providing clinical services, the registrant shall wear a visible name tag containing the title visiting professor or visiting faculty member, as appropriate, and the institution at which the services are provided shall obtain a signed statement from each patient to whom the registrant provides services acknowledging that the patient understands that the services are provided by a person who does not hold a physicians and surgeons certificate but who is qualified to participate in a special program as a visiting professor or faculty member.(h) The board shall notify both the registrant and the dean of the medical school, or the dean or chief medical officer of an academic medical center, of a complaint made about the registrant. The board may terminate a registration for any act that would be grounds for discipline if done by a licensee. The board shall provide both the registrant and the dean of the medical school, or the dean or chief medical officer of an academic medical center, with written notice of the termination and the basis for that termination. The registrant may, within 30 days after the date of the notice of termination, file a written appeal to the board. The appeal shall include any documentation the registrant wishes to present to the board.(i) A registrant granted a certificate of registration before January 1, 2021, to engage in the practice of medicine pursuant to this section at an academic medical center shall be deemed to be authorized at that academic medical center as though the initial application had been sponsored by the academic medical center.(j) As used in this section, academic medical center has the same meaning as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 2168. |
|---|
| 1134 | 1149 | | |
|---|
| 1135 | 1150 | | 2113. (a) Any person who does not immediately qualify for a physicians and surgeons certificate under this chapter and who is offered by the dean of an approved medical school, or dean or chief medical officer of an academic medical center, in this state a full-time faculty position may, after application to and approval by the board, be granted a certificate of registration to engage in the practice of medicine only to the extent that the practice is incident to and a necessary part of that persons duties as approved by the board in connection with the faculty position. A certificate of registration does not authorize a registrant to admit patients to a nursing or a skilled or assisted living facility unless that facility is formally affiliated with the sponsoring medical school. A clinical fellowship shall not be submitted as a faculty service appointment.(b) Application for a certificate of registration shall be made on a form prescribed by the board and shall be accompanied by a registration fee fixed by the board in an amount necessary to recover the actual application processing costs of the program. To qualify for the certificate, an applicant shall submit all of the following:(1) If the applicant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, documentary evidence satisfactory to the board that the applicant has been licensed to practice medicine and surgery for not less than four years in another state or country whose requirements for licensure are satisfactory to the board, or has been engaged in the practice of medicine in the United States for at least four years in approved facilities, or has completed a combination of that licensure and training.(2) If the applicant is a graduate of a medical school in the United States or Canada, documentary evidence that the medical school is approved by the board.(3) Written certification by the head of the department in which the applicant is to be appointed of all of the following:(A) The applicant will be under the head of the departments direction.(B) The applicant will not be permitted to practice medicine unless incident to and a necessary part of the applicants duties as approved by the board in subdivision (a).(C) The applicant will be accountable to the medical schools or academic medical centers chair or division chief for the specialty in which the applicant will practice.(D) The applicant will be proctored in the same manner as other new faculty members, including, as appropriate, review by the medical staff of the sponsoring medical school or academic medical center.(E) The applicant will not be appointed to a supervisory position at the level of a medical school or academic medical centers department chair or division chief.(4) Demonstration by the dean of the medical school, or dean or chief medical officer or an academic medical center, that the applicant has the requisite qualifications to assume the position to which the applicant is to be appointed and that shall include a written statement of the recruitment procedures followed by the medical school or academic medical center before offering the faculty position to the applicant.(c) A certificate of registration shall be issued only for a faculty position at one approved medical school, or academic medical center, and a person shall not be issued more than one certificate of registration for the same period of time.(d) (1) A certificate of registration is valid for one year from its date of issuance and may be renewed twice.A request for renewal shall be submitted on a form prescribed by the board and shall be accompanied by a renewal fee fixed by the board in an amount necessary to recover the actual application processing costs of the program.(2) The dean of the medical school, or the dean or chief medical officer of an academic medical center, may request renewal of the registration by submitting a plan at the beginning of the third year of the registrants appointment demonstrating the registrants continued progress toward licensure and, if the registrant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, that the registrant has been issued a certificate by the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates. The board may, in its discretion, extend the registration for a two-year period to facilitate the registrants completion of the licensure process.(e) If the registrant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, the registrant shall meet the requirements of Section 2065 or 2135, as appropriate, in order to obtain a physicians and surgeons certificate. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the board may accept clinical practice in an appointment pursuant to this section as qualifying time to meet the postgraduate training requirements in Section 2065, and, in its discretion, waive the examination and the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates certification requirements specified in paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) of Section 2065 in the event the registrant applies for a physicians and surgeons certificate. As a condition to waiving any examination or the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates certification requirement, the board in its discretion, may require an applicant to pass a clinical competency examination approved by the board. The board shall not waive any examination for an applicant who has not completed at least one year in the faculty position.(f) Except to the extent authorized by this section, the registrant shall not engage in the practice of medicine, bill individually for medical services provided by the registrant, or receive compensation therefor, unless the registrant is issued a physicians and surgeons certificate.(g) When providing clinical services, the registrant shall wear a visible name tag containing the title visiting professor or visiting faculty member, as appropriate, and the institution at which the services are provided shall obtain a signed statement from each patient to whom the registrant provides services acknowledging that the patient understands that the services are provided by a person who does not hold a physicians and surgeons certificate but who is qualified to participate in a special program as a visiting professor or faculty member.(h) The board shall notify both the registrant and the dean of the medical school, or the dean or chief medical officer of an academic medical center, of a complaint made about the registrant. The board may terminate a registration for any act that would be grounds for discipline if done by a licensee. The board shall provide both the registrant and the dean of the medical school, or the dean or chief medical officer of an academic medical center, with written notice of the termination and the basis for that termination. The registrant may, within 30 days after the date of the notice of termination, file a written appeal to the board. The appeal shall include any documentation the registrant wishes to present to the board.(i) A registrant granted a certificate of registration before January 1, 2021, to engage in the practice of medicine pursuant to this section at an academic medical center shall be deemed to be authorized at that academic medical center as though the initial application had been sponsored by the academic medical center.(j) As used in this section, academic medical center has the same meaning as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 2168. |
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| 1136 | 1151 | | |
|---|
| 1137 | 1152 | | |
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| 1138 | 1153 | | |
|---|
| 1139 | 1154 | | 2113. (a) Any person who does not immediately qualify for a physicians and surgeons certificate under this chapter and who is offered by the dean of an approved medical school, or dean or chief medical officer of an academic medical center, in this state a full-time faculty position may, after application to and approval by the board, be granted a certificate of registration to engage in the practice of medicine only to the extent that the practice is incident to and a necessary part of that persons duties as approved by the board in connection with the faculty position. A certificate of registration does not authorize a registrant to admit patients to a nursing or a skilled or assisted living facility unless that facility is formally affiliated with the sponsoring medical school. A clinical fellowship shall not be submitted as a faculty service appointment. |
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| 1140 | 1155 | | |
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| 1141 | 1156 | | (b) Application for a certificate of registration shall be made on a form prescribed by the board and shall be accompanied by a registration fee fixed by the board in an amount necessary to recover the actual application processing costs of the program. To qualify for the certificate, an applicant shall submit all of the following: |
|---|
| 1142 | 1157 | | |
|---|
| 1143 | 1158 | | (1) If the applicant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, documentary evidence satisfactory to the board that the applicant has been licensed to practice medicine and surgery for not less than four years in another state or country whose requirements for licensure are satisfactory to the board, or has been engaged in the practice of medicine in the United States for at least four years in approved facilities, or has completed a combination of that licensure and training. |
|---|
| 1144 | 1159 | | |
|---|
| 1145 | 1160 | | (2) If the applicant is a graduate of a medical school in the United States or Canada, documentary evidence that the medical school is approved by the board. |
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| 1146 | 1161 | | |
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| 1147 | 1162 | | (3) Written certification by the head of the department in which the applicant is to be appointed of all of the following: |
|---|
| 1148 | 1163 | | |
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| 1149 | 1164 | | (A) The applicant will be under the head of the departments direction. |
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| 1150 | 1165 | | |
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| 1151 | 1166 | | (B) The applicant will not be permitted to practice medicine unless incident to and a necessary part of the applicants duties as approved by the board in subdivision (a). |
|---|
| 1152 | 1167 | | |
|---|
| 1153 | 1168 | | (C) The applicant will be accountable to the medical schools or academic medical centers chair or division chief for the specialty in which the applicant will practice. |
|---|
| 1154 | 1169 | | |
|---|
| 1155 | 1170 | | (D) The applicant will be proctored in the same manner as other new faculty members, including, as appropriate, review by the medical staff of the sponsoring medical school or academic medical center. |
|---|
| 1156 | 1171 | | |
|---|
| 1157 | 1172 | | (E) The applicant will not be appointed to a supervisory position at the level of a medical school or academic medical centers department chair or division chief. |
|---|
| 1158 | 1173 | | |
|---|
| 1159 | 1174 | | (4) Demonstration by the dean of the medical school, or dean or chief medical officer or an academic medical center, that the applicant has the requisite qualifications to assume the position to which the applicant is to be appointed and that shall include a written statement of the recruitment procedures followed by the medical school or academic medical center before offering the faculty position to the applicant. |
|---|
| 1160 | 1175 | | |
|---|
| 1161 | 1176 | | (c) A certificate of registration shall be issued only for a faculty position at one approved medical school, or academic medical center, and a person shall not be issued more than one certificate of registration for the same period of time. |
|---|
| 1162 | 1177 | | |
|---|
| 1163 | 1178 | | (d) (1) A certificate of registration is valid for one year from its date of issuance and may be renewed twice. |
|---|
| 1164 | 1179 | | |
|---|
| 1165 | 1180 | | A request for renewal shall be submitted on a form prescribed by the board and shall be accompanied by a renewal fee fixed by the board in an amount necessary to recover the actual application processing costs of the program. |
|---|
| 1166 | 1181 | | |
|---|
| 1167 | 1182 | | (2) The dean of the medical school, or the dean or chief medical officer of an academic medical center, may request renewal of the registration by submitting a plan at the beginning of the third year of the registrants appointment demonstrating the registrants continued progress toward licensure and, if the registrant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, that the registrant has been issued a certificate by the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates. The board may, in its discretion, extend the registration for a two-year period to facilitate the registrants completion of the licensure process. |
|---|
| 1168 | 1183 | | |
|---|
| 1169 | 1184 | | (e) If the registrant is a graduate of a medical school other than in the United States or Canada, the registrant shall meet the requirements of Section 2065 or 2135, as appropriate, in order to obtain a physicians and surgeons certificate. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the board may accept clinical practice in an appointment pursuant to this section as qualifying time to meet the postgraduate training requirements in Section 2065, and, in its discretion, waive the examination and the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates certification requirements specified in paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) of Section 2065 in the event the registrant applies for a physicians and surgeons certificate. As a condition to waiving any examination or the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates certification requirement, the board in its discretion, may require an applicant to pass a clinical competency examination approved by the board. The board shall not waive any examination for an applicant who has not completed at least one year in the faculty position. |
|---|
| 1170 | 1185 | | |
|---|
| 1171 | 1186 | | (f) Except to the extent authorized by this section, the registrant shall not engage in the practice of medicine, bill individually for medical services provided by the registrant, or receive compensation therefor, unless the registrant is issued a physicians and surgeons certificate. |
|---|
| 1172 | 1187 | | |
|---|
| 1173 | 1188 | | (g) When providing clinical services, the registrant shall wear a visible name tag containing the title visiting professor or visiting faculty member, as appropriate, and the institution at which the services are provided shall obtain a signed statement from each patient to whom the registrant provides services acknowledging that the patient understands that the services are provided by a person who does not hold a physicians and surgeons certificate but who is qualified to participate in a special program as a visiting professor or faculty member. |
|---|
| 1174 | 1189 | | |
|---|
| 1175 | 1190 | | (h) The board shall notify both the registrant and the dean of the medical school, or the dean or chief medical officer of an academic medical center, of a complaint made about the registrant. The board may terminate a registration for any act that would be grounds for discipline if done by a licensee. The board shall provide both the registrant and the dean of the medical school, or the dean or chief medical officer of an academic medical center, with written notice of the termination and the basis for that termination. The registrant may, within 30 days after the date of the notice of termination, file a written appeal to the board. The appeal shall include any documentation the registrant wishes to present to the board. |
|---|
| 1176 | 1191 | | |
|---|
| 1177 | 1192 | | (i) A registrant granted a certificate of registration before January 1, 2021, to engage in the practice of medicine pursuant to this section at an academic medical center shall be deemed to be authorized at that academic medical center as though the initial application had been sponsored by the academic medical center. |
|---|
| 1178 | 1193 | | |
|---|
| 1179 | 1194 | | (j) As used in this section, academic medical center has the same meaning as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 2168. |
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| 1180 | 1195 | | |
|---|
| 1181 | 1196 | | SEC. 17. Section 2135.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2135.5. Upon review and recommendation, the board may determine that an applicant for a physicians and surgeons certificate has satisfied the medical education requirements of Sections 2084 and 2135 and the examination requirements of Section 2170 if the applicant meets all of the following criteria:(a) They hold an unlimited and unrestricted license as a physician and surgeon in another state and has held that license continuously for a minimum of four years prior to the date of application.(b) They meet the postgraduate training requirements in Section 2096 and are certified by a specialty board that is a member board of the American Board of Medical Specialties.(c) They are not subject to denial of licensure under Division 1.5 (commencing with Section 475) or Article 12 (commencing with Section 2220).(d) They have not been the subject of a disciplinary action by a medical licensing authority or of an adverse judgment or settlement resulting from the practice of medicine that, as determined by the board, constitutes a pattern of negligence or incompetence.(e) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2020. |
|---|
| 1182 | 1197 | | |
|---|
| 1183 | 1198 | | SEC. 17. Section 2135.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
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| 1184 | 1199 | | |
|---|
| 1185 | 1200 | | ### SEC. 17. |
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| 1186 | 1201 | | |
|---|
| 1187 | 1202 | | 2135.5. Upon review and recommendation, the board may determine that an applicant for a physicians and surgeons certificate has satisfied the medical education requirements of Sections 2084 and 2135 and the examination requirements of Section 2170 if the applicant meets all of the following criteria:(a) They hold an unlimited and unrestricted license as a physician and surgeon in another state and has held that license continuously for a minimum of four years prior to the date of application.(b) They meet the postgraduate training requirements in Section 2096 and are certified by a specialty board that is a member board of the American Board of Medical Specialties.(c) They are not subject to denial of licensure under Division 1.5 (commencing with Section 475) or Article 12 (commencing with Section 2220).(d) They have not been the subject of a disciplinary action by a medical licensing authority or of an adverse judgment or settlement resulting from the practice of medicine that, as determined by the board, constitutes a pattern of negligence or incompetence.(e) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2020. |
|---|
| 1188 | 1203 | | |
|---|
| 1189 | 1204 | | 2135.5. Upon review and recommendation, the board may determine that an applicant for a physicians and surgeons certificate has satisfied the medical education requirements of Sections 2084 and 2135 and the examination requirements of Section 2170 if the applicant meets all of the following criteria:(a) They hold an unlimited and unrestricted license as a physician and surgeon in another state and has held that license continuously for a minimum of four years prior to the date of application.(b) They meet the postgraduate training requirements in Section 2096 and are certified by a specialty board that is a member board of the American Board of Medical Specialties.(c) They are not subject to denial of licensure under Division 1.5 (commencing with Section 475) or Article 12 (commencing with Section 2220).(d) They have not been the subject of a disciplinary action by a medical licensing authority or of an adverse judgment or settlement resulting from the practice of medicine that, as determined by the board, constitutes a pattern of negligence or incompetence.(e) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2020. |
|---|
| 1190 | 1205 | | |
|---|
| 1191 | 1206 | | 2135.5. Upon review and recommendation, the board may determine that an applicant for a physicians and surgeons certificate has satisfied the medical education requirements of Sections 2084 and 2135 and the examination requirements of Section 2170 if the applicant meets all of the following criteria:(a) They hold an unlimited and unrestricted license as a physician and surgeon in another state and has held that license continuously for a minimum of four years prior to the date of application.(b) They meet the postgraduate training requirements in Section 2096 and are certified by a specialty board that is a member board of the American Board of Medical Specialties.(c) They are not subject to denial of licensure under Division 1.5 (commencing with Section 475) or Article 12 (commencing with Section 2220).(d) They have not been the subject of a disciplinary action by a medical licensing authority or of an adverse judgment or settlement resulting from the practice of medicine that, as determined by the board, constitutes a pattern of negligence or incompetence.(e) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2020. |
|---|
| 1192 | 1207 | | |
|---|
| 1193 | 1208 | | |
|---|
| 1194 | 1209 | | |
|---|
| 1195 | 1210 | | 2135.5. Upon review and recommendation, the board may determine that an applicant for a physicians and surgeons certificate has satisfied the medical education requirements of Sections 2084 and 2135 and the examination requirements of Section 2170 if the applicant meets all of the following criteria: |
|---|
| 1196 | 1211 | | |
|---|
| 1197 | 1212 | | (a) They hold an unlimited and unrestricted license as a physician and surgeon in another state and has held that license continuously for a minimum of four years prior to the date of application. |
|---|
| 1198 | 1213 | | |
|---|
| 1199 | 1214 | | (b) They meet the postgraduate training requirements in Section 2096 and are certified by a specialty board that is a member board of the American Board of Medical Specialties. |
|---|
| 1200 | 1215 | | |
|---|
| 1201 | 1216 | | (c) They are not subject to denial of licensure under Division 1.5 (commencing with Section 475) or Article 12 (commencing with Section 2220). |
|---|
| 1202 | 1217 | | |
|---|
| 1203 | 1218 | | (d) They have not been the subject of a disciplinary action by a medical licensing authority or of an adverse judgment or settlement resulting from the practice of medicine that, as determined by the board, constitutes a pattern of negligence or incompetence. |
|---|
| 1204 | 1219 | | |
|---|
| 1205 | 1220 | | (e) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2020. |
|---|
| 1206 | 1221 | | |
|---|
| 1207 | 1222 | | SEC. 18. Section 2460 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2460. (a) There is created in the Department of Consumer Affairs the California Board of Podiatric Medicine. Commencing July 1, 2019, the California Board of Podiatric Medicine is renamed the Podiatric Medical Board of California. Any reference in any provision of law to the California Board of Podiatric Medicine shall, commencing July 1, 2019, be deemed to refer to the Podiatric Medical Board of California.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the California Board of Podiatric Medicine subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.(c) The amendments made by Chapter 775 of the Statutes of 2017 relating to podiatrists shall not be construed to change any rights or privileges held by podiatrists prior to the enactment of that act. |
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| 1208 | 1223 | | |
|---|
| 1209 | 1224 | | SEC. 18. Section 2460 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 1210 | 1225 | | |
|---|
| 1211 | 1226 | | ### SEC. 18. |
|---|
| 1212 | 1227 | | |
|---|
| 1213 | 1228 | | 2460. (a) There is created in the Department of Consumer Affairs the California Board of Podiatric Medicine. Commencing July 1, 2019, the California Board of Podiatric Medicine is renamed the Podiatric Medical Board of California. Any reference in any provision of law to the California Board of Podiatric Medicine shall, commencing July 1, 2019, be deemed to refer to the Podiatric Medical Board of California.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the California Board of Podiatric Medicine subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.(c) The amendments made by Chapter 775 of the Statutes of 2017 relating to podiatrists shall not be construed to change any rights or privileges held by podiatrists prior to the enactment of that act. |
|---|
| 1214 | 1229 | | |
|---|
| 1215 | 1230 | | 2460. (a) There is created in the Department of Consumer Affairs the California Board of Podiatric Medicine. Commencing July 1, 2019, the California Board of Podiatric Medicine is renamed the Podiatric Medical Board of California. Any reference in any provision of law to the California Board of Podiatric Medicine shall, commencing July 1, 2019, be deemed to refer to the Podiatric Medical Board of California.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the California Board of Podiatric Medicine subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.(c) The amendments made by Chapter 775 of the Statutes of 2017 relating to podiatrists shall not be construed to change any rights or privileges held by podiatrists prior to the enactment of that act. |
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| 1216 | 1231 | | |
|---|
| 1217 | 1232 | | 2460. (a) There is created in the Department of Consumer Affairs the California Board of Podiatric Medicine. Commencing July 1, 2019, the California Board of Podiatric Medicine is renamed the Podiatric Medical Board of California. Any reference in any provision of law to the California Board of Podiatric Medicine shall, commencing July 1, 2019, be deemed to refer to the Podiatric Medical Board of California.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the California Board of Podiatric Medicine subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.(c) The amendments made by Chapter 775 of the Statutes of 2017 relating to podiatrists shall not be construed to change any rights or privileges held by podiatrists prior to the enactment of that act. |
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| 1218 | 1233 | | |
|---|
| 1219 | 1234 | | |
|---|
| 1220 | 1235 | | |
|---|
| 1221 | 1236 | | 2460. (a) There is created in the Department of Consumer Affairs the California Board of Podiatric Medicine. Commencing July 1, 2019, the California Board of Podiatric Medicine is renamed the Podiatric Medical Board of California. Any reference in any provision of law to the California Board of Podiatric Medicine shall, commencing July 1, 2019, be deemed to refer to the Podiatric Medical Board of California. |
|---|
| 1222 | 1237 | | |
|---|
| 1223 | 1238 | | (b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the California Board of Podiatric Medicine subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1224 | 1239 | | |
|---|
| 1225 | 1240 | | (c) The amendments made by Chapter 775 of the Statutes of 2017 relating to podiatrists shall not be construed to change any rights or privileges held by podiatrists prior to the enactment of that act. |
|---|
| 1226 | 1241 | | |
|---|
| 1227 | 1242 | | SEC. 19. Section 2531 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2531. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs the Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board in which the enforcement and administration of this chapter are vested. The Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board shall consist of nine members, three of whom shall be public members.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
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| 1228 | 1243 | | |
|---|
| 1229 | 1244 | | SEC. 19. Section 2531 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 1230 | 1245 | | |
|---|
| 1231 | 1246 | | ### SEC. 19. |
|---|
| 1232 | 1247 | | |
|---|
| 1233 | 1248 | | 2531. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs the Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board in which the enforcement and administration of this chapter are vested. The Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board shall consist of nine members, three of whom shall be public members.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
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| 1234 | 1249 | | |
|---|
| 1235 | 1250 | | 2531. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs the Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board in which the enforcement and administration of this chapter are vested. The Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board shall consist of nine members, three of whom shall be public members.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1236 | 1251 | | |
|---|
| 1237 | 1252 | | 2531. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs the Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board in which the enforcement and administration of this chapter are vested. The Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board shall consist of nine members, three of whom shall be public members.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1238 | 1253 | | |
|---|
| 1239 | 1254 | | |
|---|
| 1240 | 1255 | | |
|---|
| 1241 | 1256 | | 2531. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs the Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board in which the enforcement and administration of this chapter are vested. The Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board shall consist of nine members, three of whom shall be public members. |
|---|
| 1242 | 1257 | | |
|---|
| 1243 | 1258 | | (b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1244 | 1259 | | |
|---|
| 1245 | 1260 | | (c) Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1246 | 1261 | | |
|---|
| 1247 | 1262 | | SEC. 20. Section 2531.75 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2531.75. (a) The board may appoint a person exempt from civil service who shall be designated as an executive officer and who shall exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated by the board and vested in them by this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1248 | 1263 | | |
|---|
| 1249 | 1264 | | SEC. 20. Section 2531.75 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 1250 | 1265 | | |
|---|
| 1251 | 1266 | | ### SEC. 20. |
|---|
| 1252 | 1267 | | |
|---|
| 1253 | 1268 | | 2531.75. (a) The board may appoint a person exempt from civil service who shall be designated as an executive officer and who shall exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated by the board and vested in them by this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1254 | 1269 | | |
|---|
| 1255 | 1270 | | 2531.75. (a) The board may appoint a person exempt from civil service who shall be designated as an executive officer and who shall exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated by the board and vested in them by this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1256 | 1271 | | |
|---|
| 1257 | 1272 | | 2531.75. (a) The board may appoint a person exempt from civil service who shall be designated as an executive officer and who shall exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated by the board and vested in them by this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1258 | 1273 | | |
|---|
| 1259 | 1274 | | |
|---|
| 1260 | 1275 | | |
|---|
| 1261 | 1276 | | 2531.75. (a) The board may appoint a person exempt from civil service who shall be designated as an executive officer and who shall exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated by the board and vested in them by this chapter. |
|---|
| 1262 | 1277 | | |
|---|
| 1263 | 1278 | | (b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1264 | 1279 | | |
|---|
| 1265 | 1280 | | SEC. 21. Section 2570.19 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2570.19. (a) There is hereby created a California Board of Occupational Therapy, hereafter referred to as the board. The board shall enforce and administer this chapter.(b) The members of the board shall consist of the following:(1) Three occupational therapists who shall have practiced occupational therapy for five years.(2) One occupational therapy assistant who shall have assisted in the practice of occupational therapy for five years.(3) Three public members who shall not be licentiates of the board, of any other board under this division, or of any board referred to in Section 1000 or 3600.(c) The Governor shall appoint the three occupational therapists and one occupational therapy assistant to be members of the board. The Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, and the Speaker of the Assembly shall each appoint a public member. Not more than one member of the board shall be appointed from the full-time faculty of any university, college, or other educational institution.(d) All members shall be residents of California at the time of their appointment. The occupational therapist and occupational therapy assistant members shall have been engaged in rendering occupational therapy services to the public, teaching, or research in occupational therapy for at least five years preceding their appointments.(e) The public members may not be or have ever been occupational therapists or occupational therapy assistants or in training to become occupational therapists or occupational therapy assistants. The public members may not be related to, or have a household member who is, an occupational therapist or an occupational therapy assistant, and may not have had, within two years of the appointment, a substantial financial interest in a person regulated by the board.(f) The Governor shall appoint two board members for a term of one year, two board members for a term of two years, and one board member for a term of three years. Appointments made thereafter shall be for four-year terms, but no person shall be appointed to serve more than two consecutive terms. Terms shall begin on the first day of the calendar year and end on the last day of the calendar year or until successors are appointed, except for the first appointed members who shall serve through the last calendar day of the year in which they are appointed, before commencing the terms prescribed by this section. Vacancies shall be filled by appointment for the unexpired term. The board shall annually elect one of its members as president.(g) The board shall meet and hold at least one regular meeting annually in the Cities of Sacramento, Los Angeles, and San Francisco. The board may convene from time to time until its business is concluded. Special meetings of the board may be held at any time and place designated by the board.(h) Notice of each meeting of the board shall be given in accordance with the Bagley-Keene Open Meeting Act (Article 9 (commencing with Section 11120) of Chapter 1 of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code).(i) Members of the board shall receive no compensation for their services, but shall be entitled to reasonable travel and other expenses incurred in the execution of their powers and duties in accordance with Section 103.(j) The appointing power shall have the power to remove any member of the board from office for neglect of any duty imposed by state law, for incompetency, or for unprofessional or dishonorable conduct.(k) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.(l) Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1266 | 1281 | | |
|---|
| 1267 | 1282 | | SEC. 21. Section 2570.19 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 1268 | 1283 | | |
|---|
| 1269 | 1284 | | ### SEC. 21. |
|---|
| 1270 | 1285 | | |
|---|
| 1271 | 1286 | | 2570.19. (a) There is hereby created a California Board of Occupational Therapy, hereafter referred to as the board. The board shall enforce and administer this chapter.(b) The members of the board shall consist of the following:(1) Three occupational therapists who shall have practiced occupational therapy for five years.(2) One occupational therapy assistant who shall have assisted in the practice of occupational therapy for five years.(3) Three public members who shall not be licentiates of the board, of any other board under this division, or of any board referred to in Section 1000 or 3600.(c) The Governor shall appoint the three occupational therapists and one occupational therapy assistant to be members of the board. The Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, and the Speaker of the Assembly shall each appoint a public member. Not more than one member of the board shall be appointed from the full-time faculty of any university, college, or other educational institution.(d) All members shall be residents of California at the time of their appointment. The occupational therapist and occupational therapy assistant members shall have been engaged in rendering occupational therapy services to the public, teaching, or research in occupational therapy for at least five years preceding their appointments.(e) The public members may not be or have ever been occupational therapists or occupational therapy assistants or in training to become occupational therapists or occupational therapy assistants. The public members may not be related to, or have a household member who is, an occupational therapist or an occupational therapy assistant, and may not have had, within two years of the appointment, a substantial financial interest in a person regulated by the board.(f) The Governor shall appoint two board members for a term of one year, two board members for a term of two years, and one board member for a term of three years. Appointments made thereafter shall be for four-year terms, but no person shall be appointed to serve more than two consecutive terms. Terms shall begin on the first day of the calendar year and end on the last day of the calendar year or until successors are appointed, except for the first appointed members who shall serve through the last calendar day of the year in which they are appointed, before commencing the terms prescribed by this section. Vacancies shall be filled by appointment for the unexpired term. The board shall annually elect one of its members as president.(g) The board shall meet and hold at least one regular meeting annually in the Cities of Sacramento, Los Angeles, and San Francisco. The board may convene from time to time until its business is concluded. Special meetings of the board may be held at any time and place designated by the board.(h) Notice of each meeting of the board shall be given in accordance with the Bagley-Keene Open Meeting Act (Article 9 (commencing with Section 11120) of Chapter 1 of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code).(i) Members of the board shall receive no compensation for their services, but shall be entitled to reasonable travel and other expenses incurred in the execution of their powers and duties in accordance with Section 103.(j) The appointing power shall have the power to remove any member of the board from office for neglect of any duty imposed by state law, for incompetency, or for unprofessional or dishonorable conduct.(k) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.(l) Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1272 | 1287 | | |
|---|
| 1273 | 1288 | | 2570.19. (a) There is hereby created a California Board of Occupational Therapy, hereafter referred to as the board. The board shall enforce and administer this chapter.(b) The members of the board shall consist of the following:(1) Three occupational therapists who shall have practiced occupational therapy for five years.(2) One occupational therapy assistant who shall have assisted in the practice of occupational therapy for five years.(3) Three public members who shall not be licentiates of the board, of any other board under this division, or of any board referred to in Section 1000 or 3600.(c) The Governor shall appoint the three occupational therapists and one occupational therapy assistant to be members of the board. The Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, and the Speaker of the Assembly shall each appoint a public member. Not more than one member of the board shall be appointed from the full-time faculty of any university, college, or other educational institution.(d) All members shall be residents of California at the time of their appointment. The occupational therapist and occupational therapy assistant members shall have been engaged in rendering occupational therapy services to the public, teaching, or research in occupational therapy for at least five years preceding their appointments.(e) The public members may not be or have ever been occupational therapists or occupational therapy assistants or in training to become occupational therapists or occupational therapy assistants. The public members may not be related to, or have a household member who is, an occupational therapist or an occupational therapy assistant, and may not have had, within two years of the appointment, a substantial financial interest in a person regulated by the board.(f) The Governor shall appoint two board members for a term of one year, two board members for a term of two years, and one board member for a term of three years. Appointments made thereafter shall be for four-year terms, but no person shall be appointed to serve more than two consecutive terms. Terms shall begin on the first day of the calendar year and end on the last day of the calendar year or until successors are appointed, except for the first appointed members who shall serve through the last calendar day of the year in which they are appointed, before commencing the terms prescribed by this section. Vacancies shall be filled by appointment for the unexpired term. The board shall annually elect one of its members as president.(g) The board shall meet and hold at least one regular meeting annually in the Cities of Sacramento, Los Angeles, and San Francisco. The board may convene from time to time until its business is concluded. Special meetings of the board may be held at any time and place designated by the board.(h) Notice of each meeting of the board shall be given in accordance with the Bagley-Keene Open Meeting Act (Article 9 (commencing with Section 11120) of Chapter 1 of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code).(i) Members of the board shall receive no compensation for their services, but shall be entitled to reasonable travel and other expenses incurred in the execution of their powers and duties in accordance with Section 103.(j) The appointing power shall have the power to remove any member of the board from office for neglect of any duty imposed by state law, for incompetency, or for unprofessional or dishonorable conduct.(k) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.(l) Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1274 | 1289 | | |
|---|
| 1275 | 1290 | | 2570.19. (a) There is hereby created a California Board of Occupational Therapy, hereafter referred to as the board. The board shall enforce and administer this chapter.(b) The members of the board shall consist of the following:(1) Three occupational therapists who shall have practiced occupational therapy for five years.(2) One occupational therapy assistant who shall have assisted in the practice of occupational therapy for five years.(3) Three public members who shall not be licentiates of the board, of any other board under this division, or of any board referred to in Section 1000 or 3600.(c) The Governor shall appoint the three occupational therapists and one occupational therapy assistant to be members of the board. The Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, and the Speaker of the Assembly shall each appoint a public member. Not more than one member of the board shall be appointed from the full-time faculty of any university, college, or other educational institution.(d) All members shall be residents of California at the time of their appointment. The occupational therapist and occupational therapy assistant members shall have been engaged in rendering occupational therapy services to the public, teaching, or research in occupational therapy for at least five years preceding their appointments.(e) The public members may not be or have ever been occupational therapists or occupational therapy assistants or in training to become occupational therapists or occupational therapy assistants. The public members may not be related to, or have a household member who is, an occupational therapist or an occupational therapy assistant, and may not have had, within two years of the appointment, a substantial financial interest in a person regulated by the board.(f) The Governor shall appoint two board members for a term of one year, two board members for a term of two years, and one board member for a term of three years. Appointments made thereafter shall be for four-year terms, but no person shall be appointed to serve more than two consecutive terms. Terms shall begin on the first day of the calendar year and end on the last day of the calendar year or until successors are appointed, except for the first appointed members who shall serve through the last calendar day of the year in which they are appointed, before commencing the terms prescribed by this section. Vacancies shall be filled by appointment for the unexpired term. The board shall annually elect one of its members as president.(g) The board shall meet and hold at least one regular meeting annually in the Cities of Sacramento, Los Angeles, and San Francisco. The board may convene from time to time until its business is concluded. Special meetings of the board may be held at any time and place designated by the board.(h) Notice of each meeting of the board shall be given in accordance with the Bagley-Keene Open Meeting Act (Article 9 (commencing with Section 11120) of Chapter 1 of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code).(i) Members of the board shall receive no compensation for their services, but shall be entitled to reasonable travel and other expenses incurred in the execution of their powers and duties in accordance with Section 103.(j) The appointing power shall have the power to remove any member of the board from office for neglect of any duty imposed by state law, for incompetency, or for unprofessional or dishonorable conduct.(k) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.(l) Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1276 | 1291 | | |
|---|
| 1277 | 1292 | | |
|---|
| 1278 | 1293 | | |
|---|
| 1279 | 1294 | | 2570.19. (a) There is hereby created a California Board of Occupational Therapy, hereafter referred to as the board. The board shall enforce and administer this chapter. |
|---|
| 1280 | 1295 | | |
|---|
| 1281 | 1296 | | (b) The members of the board shall consist of the following: |
|---|
| 1282 | 1297 | | |
|---|
| 1283 | 1298 | | (1) Three occupational therapists who shall have practiced occupational therapy for five years. |
|---|
| 1284 | 1299 | | |
|---|
| 1285 | 1300 | | (2) One occupational therapy assistant who shall have assisted in the practice of occupational therapy for five years. |
|---|
| 1286 | 1301 | | |
|---|
| 1287 | 1302 | | (3) Three public members who shall not be licentiates of the board, of any other board under this division, or of any board referred to in Section 1000 or 3600. |
|---|
| 1288 | 1303 | | |
|---|
| 1289 | 1304 | | (c) The Governor shall appoint the three occupational therapists and one occupational therapy assistant to be members of the board. The Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, and the Speaker of the Assembly shall each appoint a public member. Not more than one member of the board shall be appointed from the full-time faculty of any university, college, or other educational institution. |
|---|
| 1290 | 1305 | | |
|---|
| 1291 | 1306 | | (d) All members shall be residents of California at the time of their appointment. The occupational therapist and occupational therapy assistant members shall have been engaged in rendering occupational therapy services to the public, teaching, or research in occupational therapy for at least five years preceding their appointments. |
|---|
| 1292 | 1307 | | |
|---|
| 1293 | 1308 | | (e) The public members may not be or have ever been occupational therapists or occupational therapy assistants or in training to become occupational therapists or occupational therapy assistants. The public members may not be related to, or have a household member who is, an occupational therapist or an occupational therapy assistant, and may not have had, within two years of the appointment, a substantial financial interest in a person regulated by the board. |
|---|
| 1294 | 1309 | | |
|---|
| 1295 | 1310 | | (f) The Governor shall appoint two board members for a term of one year, two board members for a term of two years, and one board member for a term of three years. Appointments made thereafter shall be for four-year terms, but no person shall be appointed to serve more than two consecutive terms. Terms shall begin on the first day of the calendar year and end on the last day of the calendar year or until successors are appointed, except for the first appointed members who shall serve through the last calendar day of the year in which they are appointed, before commencing the terms prescribed by this section. Vacancies shall be filled by appointment for the unexpired term. The board shall annually elect one of its members as president. |
|---|
| 1296 | 1311 | | |
|---|
| 1297 | 1312 | | (g) The board shall meet and hold at least one regular meeting annually in the Cities of Sacramento, Los Angeles, and San Francisco. The board may convene from time to time until its business is concluded. Special meetings of the board may be held at any time and place designated by the board. |
|---|
| 1298 | 1313 | | |
|---|
| 1299 | 1314 | | (h) Notice of each meeting of the board shall be given in accordance with the Bagley-Keene Open Meeting Act (Article 9 (commencing with Section 11120) of Chapter 1 of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code). |
|---|
| 1300 | 1315 | | |
|---|
| 1301 | 1316 | | (i) Members of the board shall receive no compensation for their services, but shall be entitled to reasonable travel and other expenses incurred in the execution of their powers and duties in accordance with Section 103. |
|---|
| 1302 | 1317 | | |
|---|
| 1303 | 1318 | | (j) The appointing power shall have the power to remove any member of the board from office for neglect of any duty imposed by state law, for incompetency, or for unprofessional or dishonorable conduct. |
|---|
| 1304 | 1319 | | |
|---|
| 1305 | 1320 | | (k) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1306 | 1321 | | |
|---|
| 1307 | 1322 | | (l) Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1308 | 1323 | | |
|---|
| 1309 | 1324 | | SEC. 22. Section 2602 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2602. (a) The Physical Therapy Board of California, hereafter referred to as the board, shall enforce and administer this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1310 | 1325 | | |
|---|
| 1311 | 1326 | | SEC. 22. Section 2602 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 1312 | 1327 | | |
|---|
| 1313 | 1328 | | ### SEC. 22. |
|---|
| 1314 | 1329 | | |
|---|
| 1315 | 1330 | | 2602. (a) The Physical Therapy Board of California, hereafter referred to as the board, shall enforce and administer this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1316 | 1331 | | |
|---|
| 1317 | 1332 | | 2602. (a) The Physical Therapy Board of California, hereafter referred to as the board, shall enforce and administer this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1318 | 1333 | | |
|---|
| 1319 | 1334 | | 2602. (a) The Physical Therapy Board of California, hereafter referred to as the board, shall enforce and administer this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1320 | 1335 | | |
|---|
| 1321 | 1336 | | |
|---|
| 1322 | 1337 | | |
|---|
| 1323 | 1338 | | 2602. (a) The Physical Therapy Board of California, hereafter referred to as the board, shall enforce and administer this chapter. |
|---|
| 1324 | 1339 | | |
|---|
| 1325 | 1340 | | (b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1326 | 1341 | | |
|---|
| 1327 | 1342 | | (c) Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1328 | 1343 | | |
|---|
| 1329 | 1344 | | SEC. 23. Section 2607.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2607.5. (a) The board may employ an executive officer exempt from the provisions of the State Civil Service Act (Part 2 (commencing with Section 18500) of Division 5 of Title 2 of the Government Code) and may also employ investigators, legal counsel, physical therapist consultants, and other assistance as it may deem necessary to carry out this chapter. The board may fix the compensation to be paid for services and may incur other expenses as it may deem necessary. Investigators employed by the board shall be provided special training in investigating physical therapy practice activities.(b) The Attorney General shall act as legal counsel for the board for any judicial and administrative proceedings and their services shall be a charge against it.(c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1330 | 1345 | | |
|---|
| 1331 | 1346 | | SEC. 23. Section 2607.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 1332 | 1347 | | |
|---|
| 1333 | 1348 | | ### SEC. 23. |
|---|
| 1334 | 1349 | | |
|---|
| 1335 | 1350 | | 2607.5. (a) The board may employ an executive officer exempt from the provisions of the State Civil Service Act (Part 2 (commencing with Section 18500) of Division 5 of Title 2 of the Government Code) and may also employ investigators, legal counsel, physical therapist consultants, and other assistance as it may deem necessary to carry out this chapter. The board may fix the compensation to be paid for services and may incur other expenses as it may deem necessary. Investigators employed by the board shall be provided special training in investigating physical therapy practice activities.(b) The Attorney General shall act as legal counsel for the board for any judicial and administrative proceedings and their services shall be a charge against it.(c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1336 | 1351 | | |
|---|
| 1337 | 1352 | | 2607.5. (a) The board may employ an executive officer exempt from the provisions of the State Civil Service Act (Part 2 (commencing with Section 18500) of Division 5 of Title 2 of the Government Code) and may also employ investigators, legal counsel, physical therapist consultants, and other assistance as it may deem necessary to carry out this chapter. The board may fix the compensation to be paid for services and may incur other expenses as it may deem necessary. Investigators employed by the board shall be provided special training in investigating physical therapy practice activities.(b) The Attorney General shall act as legal counsel for the board for any judicial and administrative proceedings and their services shall be a charge against it.(c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1338 | 1353 | | |
|---|
| 1339 | 1354 | | 2607.5. (a) The board may employ an executive officer exempt from the provisions of the State Civil Service Act (Part 2 (commencing with Section 18500) of Division 5 of Title 2 of the Government Code) and may also employ investigators, legal counsel, physical therapist consultants, and other assistance as it may deem necessary to carry out this chapter. The board may fix the compensation to be paid for services and may incur other expenses as it may deem necessary. Investigators employed by the board shall be provided special training in investigating physical therapy practice activities.(b) The Attorney General shall act as legal counsel for the board for any judicial and administrative proceedings and their services shall be a charge against it.(c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1340 | 1355 | | |
|---|
| 1341 | 1356 | | |
|---|
| 1342 | 1357 | | |
|---|
| 1343 | 1358 | | 2607.5. (a) The board may employ an executive officer exempt from the provisions of the State Civil Service Act (Part 2 (commencing with Section 18500) of Division 5 of Title 2 of the Government Code) and may also employ investigators, legal counsel, physical therapist consultants, and other assistance as it may deem necessary to carry out this chapter. The board may fix the compensation to be paid for services and may incur other expenses as it may deem necessary. Investigators employed by the board shall be provided special training in investigating physical therapy practice activities. |
|---|
| 1344 | 1359 | | |
|---|
| 1345 | 1360 | | (b) The Attorney General shall act as legal counsel for the board for any judicial and administrative proceedings and their services shall be a charge against it. |
|---|
| 1346 | 1361 | | |
|---|
| 1347 | 1362 | | (c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1348 | 1363 | | |
|---|
| 1349 | 1364 | | SEC. 24. Section 2841 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2841. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs a Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians of the State of California, which consists of 11 members.(b) Within the meaning of this chapter, board, or the board, refers to the Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians of the State of California.(c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1350 | 1365 | | |
|---|
| 1351 | 1366 | | SEC. 24. Section 2841 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 1352 | 1367 | | |
|---|
| 1353 | 1368 | | ### SEC. 24. |
|---|
| 1354 | 1369 | | |
|---|
| 1355 | 1370 | | 2841. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs a Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians of the State of California, which consists of 11 members.(b) Within the meaning of this chapter, board, or the board, refers to the Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians of the State of California.(c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1356 | 1371 | | |
|---|
| 1357 | 1372 | | 2841. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs a Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians of the State of California, which consists of 11 members.(b) Within the meaning of this chapter, board, or the board, refers to the Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians of the State of California.(c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1358 | 1373 | | |
|---|
| 1359 | 1374 | | 2841. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs a Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians of the State of California, which consists of 11 members.(b) Within the meaning of this chapter, board, or the board, refers to the Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians of the State of California.(c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1360 | 1375 | | |
|---|
| 1361 | 1376 | | |
|---|
| 1362 | 1377 | | |
|---|
| 1363 | 1378 | | 2841. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs a Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians of the State of California, which consists of 11 members. |
|---|
| 1364 | 1379 | | |
|---|
| 1365 | 1380 | | (b) Within the meaning of this chapter, board, or the board, refers to the Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians of the State of California. |
|---|
| 1366 | 1381 | | |
|---|
| 1367 | 1382 | | (c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1368 | 1383 | | |
|---|
| 1369 | 1384 | | SEC. 25. Section 2847.1 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2847.1. (a) The board shall select an executive officer who shall perform duties as are delegated by the board and who shall be responsible to it for the accomplishment of those duties. The executive officer shall not be a member of the board.(b) With the approval of the Director of Finance, the board shall fix the salary of the executive officer.(c) The executive officer shall be entitled to traveling and other necessary expenses in the performance of their duties. The executive officer shall make a statement, certified before a duly authorized person, that the expenses have been actually incurred.(d) Commencing January 1, 2018, the executive officer appointed by the board pursuant to subdivision (a) is abolished. Thereafter, until January 1, 2022, the executive officer shall be appointed as set forth in Section 2847.3. Commencing January 1, 2022, the executive officer shall, again, be appointed by the board as set forth in subdivision (a).(e) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1370 | 1385 | | |
|---|
| 1371 | 1386 | | SEC. 25. Section 2847.1 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 1372 | 1387 | | |
|---|
| 1373 | 1388 | | ### SEC. 25. |
|---|
| 1374 | 1389 | | |
|---|
| 1375 | 1390 | | 2847.1. (a) The board shall select an executive officer who shall perform duties as are delegated by the board and who shall be responsible to it for the accomplishment of those duties. The executive officer shall not be a member of the board.(b) With the approval of the Director of Finance, the board shall fix the salary of the executive officer.(c) The executive officer shall be entitled to traveling and other necessary expenses in the performance of their duties. The executive officer shall make a statement, certified before a duly authorized person, that the expenses have been actually incurred.(d) Commencing January 1, 2018, the executive officer appointed by the board pursuant to subdivision (a) is abolished. Thereafter, until January 1, 2022, the executive officer shall be appointed as set forth in Section 2847.3. Commencing January 1, 2022, the executive officer shall, again, be appointed by the board as set forth in subdivision (a).(e) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1376 | 1391 | | |
|---|
| 1377 | 1392 | | 2847.1. (a) The board shall select an executive officer who shall perform duties as are delegated by the board and who shall be responsible to it for the accomplishment of those duties. The executive officer shall not be a member of the board.(b) With the approval of the Director of Finance, the board shall fix the salary of the executive officer.(c) The executive officer shall be entitled to traveling and other necessary expenses in the performance of their duties. The executive officer shall make a statement, certified before a duly authorized person, that the expenses have been actually incurred.(d) Commencing January 1, 2018, the executive officer appointed by the board pursuant to subdivision (a) is abolished. Thereafter, until January 1, 2022, the executive officer shall be appointed as set forth in Section 2847.3. Commencing January 1, 2022, the executive officer shall, again, be appointed by the board as set forth in subdivision (a).(e) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1378 | 1393 | | |
|---|
| 1379 | 1394 | | 2847.1. (a) The board shall select an executive officer who shall perform duties as are delegated by the board and who shall be responsible to it for the accomplishment of those duties. The executive officer shall not be a member of the board.(b) With the approval of the Director of Finance, the board shall fix the salary of the executive officer.(c) The executive officer shall be entitled to traveling and other necessary expenses in the performance of their duties. The executive officer shall make a statement, certified before a duly authorized person, that the expenses have been actually incurred.(d) Commencing January 1, 2018, the executive officer appointed by the board pursuant to subdivision (a) is abolished. Thereafter, until January 1, 2022, the executive officer shall be appointed as set forth in Section 2847.3. Commencing January 1, 2022, the executive officer shall, again, be appointed by the board as set forth in subdivision (a).(e) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1380 | 1395 | | |
|---|
| 1381 | 1396 | | |
|---|
| 1382 | 1397 | | |
|---|
| 1383 | 1398 | | 2847.1. (a) The board shall select an executive officer who shall perform duties as are delegated by the board and who shall be responsible to it for the accomplishment of those duties. The executive officer shall not be a member of the board. |
|---|
| 1384 | 1399 | | |
|---|
| 1385 | 1400 | | (b) With the approval of the Director of Finance, the board shall fix the salary of the executive officer. |
|---|
| 1386 | 1401 | | |
|---|
| 1387 | 1402 | | (c) The executive officer shall be entitled to traveling and other necessary expenses in the performance of their duties. The executive officer shall make a statement, certified before a duly authorized person, that the expenses have been actually incurred. |
|---|
| 1388 | 1403 | | |
|---|
| 1389 | 1404 | | (d) Commencing January 1, 2018, the executive officer appointed by the board pursuant to subdivision (a) is abolished. Thereafter, until January 1, 2022, the executive officer shall be appointed as set forth in Section 2847.3. Commencing January 1, 2022, the executive officer shall, again, be appointed by the board as set forth in subdivision (a). |
|---|
| 1390 | 1405 | | |
|---|
| 1391 | 1406 | | (e) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1392 | 1407 | | |
|---|
| 1393 | 1408 | | SEC. 26. Section 2847.3 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2847.3. (a) Commencing January 1, 2018, the executive officer position established pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 2847.1 is temporarily abolished. Commencing January 1, 2018, the Governor shall appoint an executive officer who shall perform duties as are delegated by the board and who shall be responsible for the accomplishment of those duties. The executive officer shall exercise all powers, discharge all responsibilities, and administer and enforce all laws pursuant to this chapter and Chapter 10 (commencing with Section 4500) of Division 2 that are necessary to perform the duties delegated by the board.(b) The executive officer shall serve at the pleasure of the Governor and the Governor shall fix the salary of the executive officer. The executive officer shall not be a member of the board.(c) The executive officer shall be entitled to traveling and other necessary expenses in the performance of their duties.(d) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2018, and shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1394 | 1409 | | |
|---|
| 1395 | 1410 | | SEC. 26. Section 2847.3 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 1396 | 1411 | | |
|---|
| 1397 | 1412 | | ### SEC. 26. |
|---|
| 1398 | 1413 | | |
|---|
| 1399 | 1414 | | 2847.3. (a) Commencing January 1, 2018, the executive officer position established pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 2847.1 is temporarily abolished. Commencing January 1, 2018, the Governor shall appoint an executive officer who shall perform duties as are delegated by the board and who shall be responsible for the accomplishment of those duties. The executive officer shall exercise all powers, discharge all responsibilities, and administer and enforce all laws pursuant to this chapter and Chapter 10 (commencing with Section 4500) of Division 2 that are necessary to perform the duties delegated by the board.(b) The executive officer shall serve at the pleasure of the Governor and the Governor shall fix the salary of the executive officer. The executive officer shall not be a member of the board.(c) The executive officer shall be entitled to traveling and other necessary expenses in the performance of their duties.(d) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2018, and shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1400 | 1415 | | |
|---|
| 1401 | 1416 | | 2847.3. (a) Commencing January 1, 2018, the executive officer position established pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 2847.1 is temporarily abolished. Commencing January 1, 2018, the Governor shall appoint an executive officer who shall perform duties as are delegated by the board and who shall be responsible for the accomplishment of those duties. The executive officer shall exercise all powers, discharge all responsibilities, and administer and enforce all laws pursuant to this chapter and Chapter 10 (commencing with Section 4500) of Division 2 that are necessary to perform the duties delegated by the board.(b) The executive officer shall serve at the pleasure of the Governor and the Governor shall fix the salary of the executive officer. The executive officer shall not be a member of the board.(c) The executive officer shall be entitled to traveling and other necessary expenses in the performance of their duties.(d) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2018, and shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1402 | 1417 | | |
|---|
| 1403 | 1418 | | 2847.3. (a) Commencing January 1, 2018, the executive officer position established pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 2847.1 is temporarily abolished. Commencing January 1, 2018, the Governor shall appoint an executive officer who shall perform duties as are delegated by the board and who shall be responsible for the accomplishment of those duties. The executive officer shall exercise all powers, discharge all responsibilities, and administer and enforce all laws pursuant to this chapter and Chapter 10 (commencing with Section 4500) of Division 2 that are necessary to perform the duties delegated by the board.(b) The executive officer shall serve at the pleasure of the Governor and the Governor shall fix the salary of the executive officer. The executive officer shall not be a member of the board.(c) The executive officer shall be entitled to traveling and other necessary expenses in the performance of their duties.(d) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2018, and shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1404 | 1419 | | |
|---|
| 1405 | 1420 | | |
|---|
| 1406 | 1421 | | |
|---|
| 1407 | 1422 | | 2847.3. (a) Commencing January 1, 2018, the executive officer position established pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 2847.1 is temporarily abolished. Commencing January 1, 2018, the Governor shall appoint an executive officer who shall perform duties as are delegated by the board and who shall be responsible for the accomplishment of those duties. The executive officer shall exercise all powers, discharge all responsibilities, and administer and enforce all laws pursuant to this chapter and Chapter 10 (commencing with Section 4500) of Division 2 that are necessary to perform the duties delegated by the board. |
|---|
| 1408 | 1423 | | |
|---|
| 1409 | 1424 | | (b) The executive officer shall serve at the pleasure of the Governor and the Governor shall fix the salary of the executive officer. The executive officer shall not be a member of the board. |
|---|
| 1410 | 1425 | | |
|---|
| 1411 | 1426 | | (c) The executive officer shall be entitled to traveling and other necessary expenses in the performance of their duties. |
|---|
| 1412 | 1427 | | |
|---|
| 1413 | 1428 | | (d) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2018, and shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1414 | 1429 | | |
|---|
| 1415 | 1430 | | SEC. 27. Section 2920 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2920. (a) The Board of Psychology shall enforce and administer this chapter. The board shall consist of nine members, four of whom shall be public members.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1416 | 1431 | | |
|---|
| 1417 | 1432 | | SEC. 27. Section 2920 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 1418 | 1433 | | |
|---|
| 1419 | 1434 | | ### SEC. 27. |
|---|
| 1420 | 1435 | | |
|---|
| 1421 | 1436 | | 2920. (a) The Board of Psychology shall enforce and administer this chapter. The board shall consist of nine members, four of whom shall be public members.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1422 | 1437 | | |
|---|
| 1423 | 1438 | | 2920. (a) The Board of Psychology shall enforce and administer this chapter. The board shall consist of nine members, four of whom shall be public members.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1424 | 1439 | | |
|---|
| 1425 | 1440 | | 2920. (a) The Board of Psychology shall enforce and administer this chapter. The board shall consist of nine members, four of whom shall be public members.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1426 | 1441 | | |
|---|
| 1427 | 1442 | | |
|---|
| 1428 | 1443 | | |
|---|
| 1429 | 1444 | | 2920. (a) The Board of Psychology shall enforce and administer this chapter. The board shall consist of nine members, four of whom shall be public members. |
|---|
| 1430 | 1445 | | |
|---|
| 1431 | 1446 | | (b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1432 | 1447 | | |
|---|
| 1433 | 1448 | | (c) Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1434 | 1449 | | |
|---|
| 1435 | 1450 | | SEC. 28. Section 2933 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:2933. (a) Except as provided by Section 159.5, the board shall employ and shall make available to the board within the limits of the funds received by the board all personnel necessary to carry out this chapter. The board may employ, exempt from the State Civil Service Act, an executive officer to the Board of Psychology. The board shall make all expenditures to carry out this chapter. The board may accept contributions to effectuate the purposes of this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1436 | 1451 | | |
|---|
| 1437 | 1452 | | SEC. 28. Section 2933 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 1438 | 1453 | | |
|---|
| 1439 | 1454 | | ### SEC. 28. |
|---|
| 1440 | 1455 | | |
|---|
| 1441 | 1456 | | 2933. (a) Except as provided by Section 159.5, the board shall employ and shall make available to the board within the limits of the funds received by the board all personnel necessary to carry out this chapter. The board may employ, exempt from the State Civil Service Act, an executive officer to the Board of Psychology. The board shall make all expenditures to carry out this chapter. The board may accept contributions to effectuate the purposes of this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1442 | 1457 | | |
|---|
| 1443 | 1458 | | 2933. (a) Except as provided by Section 159.5, the board shall employ and shall make available to the board within the limits of the funds received by the board all personnel necessary to carry out this chapter. The board may employ, exempt from the State Civil Service Act, an executive officer to the Board of Psychology. The board shall make all expenditures to carry out this chapter. The board may accept contributions to effectuate the purposes of this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1444 | 1459 | | |
|---|
| 1445 | 1460 | | 2933. (a) Except as provided by Section 159.5, the board shall employ and shall make available to the board within the limits of the funds received by the board all personnel necessary to carry out this chapter. The board may employ, exempt from the State Civil Service Act, an executive officer to the Board of Psychology. The board shall make all expenditures to carry out this chapter. The board may accept contributions to effectuate the purposes of this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1446 | 1461 | | |
|---|
| 1447 | 1462 | | |
|---|
| 1448 | 1463 | | |
|---|
| 1449 | 1464 | | 2933. (a) Except as provided by Section 159.5, the board shall employ and shall make available to the board within the limits of the funds received by the board all personnel necessary to carry out this chapter. The board may employ, exempt from the State Civil Service Act, an executive officer to the Board of Psychology. The board shall make all expenditures to carry out this chapter. The board may accept contributions to effectuate the purposes of this chapter. |
|---|
| 1450 | 1465 | | |
|---|
| 1451 | 1466 | | (b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1452 | 1467 | | |
|---|
| 1453 | 1468 | | SEC. 29. Section 3504 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:3504. There is established a Physician Assistant Board within the jurisdiction of the Medical Board of California. The board consists of nine members. This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1454 | 1469 | | |
|---|
| 1455 | 1470 | | SEC. 29. Section 3504 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 1456 | 1471 | | |
|---|
| 1457 | 1472 | | ### SEC. 29. |
|---|
| 1458 | 1473 | | |
|---|
| 1459 | 1474 | | 3504. There is established a Physician Assistant Board within the jurisdiction of the Medical Board of California. The board consists of nine members. This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1460 | 1475 | | |
|---|
| 1461 | 1476 | | 3504. There is established a Physician Assistant Board within the jurisdiction of the Medical Board of California. The board consists of nine members. This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1462 | 1477 | | |
|---|
| 1463 | 1478 | | 3504. There is established a Physician Assistant Board within the jurisdiction of the Medical Board of California. The board consists of nine members. This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1464 | 1479 | | |
|---|
| 1465 | 1480 | | |
|---|
| 1466 | 1481 | | |
|---|
| 1467 | 1482 | | 3504. There is established a Physician Assistant Board within the jurisdiction of the Medical Board of California. The board consists of nine members. This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1468 | 1483 | | |
|---|
| 1469 | 1484 | | SEC. 30. Section 3512 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:3512. (a) Except as provided in Sections 159.5 and 2020, the board shall employ within the limits of the Physician Assistant Fund all personnel necessary to carry out this chapter including an executive officer who shall be exempt from civil service. The Medical Board of California and board shall make all necessary expenditures to carry out this chapter from the funds established by Section 3520. The board may accept contributions to effect the purposes of this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1470 | 1485 | | |
|---|
| 1471 | 1486 | | SEC. 30. Section 3512 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 1472 | 1487 | | |
|---|
| 1473 | 1488 | | ### SEC. 30. |
|---|
| 1474 | 1489 | | |
|---|
| 1475 | 1490 | | 3512. (a) Except as provided in Sections 159.5 and 2020, the board shall employ within the limits of the Physician Assistant Fund all personnel necessary to carry out this chapter including an executive officer who shall be exempt from civil service. The Medical Board of California and board shall make all necessary expenditures to carry out this chapter from the funds established by Section 3520. The board may accept contributions to effect the purposes of this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1476 | 1491 | | |
|---|
| 1477 | 1492 | | 3512. (a) Except as provided in Sections 159.5 and 2020, the board shall employ within the limits of the Physician Assistant Fund all personnel necessary to carry out this chapter including an executive officer who shall be exempt from civil service. The Medical Board of California and board shall make all necessary expenditures to carry out this chapter from the funds established by Section 3520. The board may accept contributions to effect the purposes of this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1478 | 1493 | | |
|---|
| 1479 | 1494 | | 3512. (a) Except as provided in Sections 159.5 and 2020, the board shall employ within the limits of the Physician Assistant Fund all personnel necessary to carry out this chapter including an executive officer who shall be exempt from civil service. The Medical Board of California and board shall make all necessary expenditures to carry out this chapter from the funds established by Section 3520. The board may accept contributions to effect the purposes of this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1480 | 1495 | | |
|---|
| 1481 | 1496 | | |
|---|
| 1482 | 1497 | | |
|---|
| 1483 | 1498 | | 3512. (a) Except as provided in Sections 159.5 and 2020, the board shall employ within the limits of the Physician Assistant Fund all personnel necessary to carry out this chapter including an executive officer who shall be exempt from civil service. The Medical Board of California and board shall make all necessary expenditures to carry out this chapter from the funds established by Section 3520. The board may accept contributions to effect the purposes of this chapter. |
|---|
| 1484 | 1499 | | |
|---|
| 1485 | 1500 | | (b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1486 | 1501 | | |
|---|
| 1487 | 1502 | | SEC. 31. Section 3686 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:3686. This chapter shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1488 | 1503 | | |
|---|
| 1489 | 1504 | | SEC. 31. Section 3686 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 1490 | 1505 | | |
|---|
| 1491 | 1506 | | ### SEC. 31. |
|---|
| 1492 | 1507 | | |
|---|
| 1493 | 1508 | | 3686. This chapter shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1494 | 1509 | | |
|---|
| 1495 | 1510 | | 3686. This chapter shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1496 | 1511 | | |
|---|
| 1497 | 1512 | | 3686. This chapter shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1498 | 1513 | | |
|---|
| 1499 | 1514 | | |
|---|
| 1500 | 1515 | | |
|---|
| 1501 | 1516 | | 3686. This chapter shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1502 | 1517 | | |
|---|
| 1503 | 1518 | | SEC. 32. Section 3710 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:3710. (a) The Respiratory Care Board of California, hereafter referred to as the board, shall enforce and administer this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed. Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1504 | 1519 | | |
|---|
| 1505 | 1520 | | SEC. 32. Section 3710 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 1506 | 1521 | | |
|---|
| 1507 | 1522 | | ### SEC. 32. |
|---|
| 1508 | 1523 | | |
|---|
| 1509 | 1524 | | 3710. (a) The Respiratory Care Board of California, hereafter referred to as the board, shall enforce and administer this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed. Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1510 | 1525 | | |
|---|
| 1511 | 1526 | | 3710. (a) The Respiratory Care Board of California, hereafter referred to as the board, shall enforce and administer this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed. Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1512 | 1527 | | |
|---|
| 1513 | 1528 | | 3710. (a) The Respiratory Care Board of California, hereafter referred to as the board, shall enforce and administer this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed. Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1514 | 1529 | | |
|---|
| 1515 | 1530 | | |
|---|
| 1516 | 1531 | | |
|---|
| 1517 | 1532 | | 3710. (a) The Respiratory Care Board of California, hereafter referred to as the board, shall enforce and administer this chapter. |
|---|
| 1518 | 1533 | | |
|---|
| 1519 | 1534 | | (b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed. Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1520 | 1535 | | |
|---|
| 1521 | 1536 | | SEC. 33. Section 3716 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:3716. (a) The board may employ an executive officer exempt from civil service and, subject to the provisions of law relating to civil service, clerical assistants and, except as provided in Section 159.5, other employees as it may deem necessary to carry out its powers and duties.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1522 | 1537 | | |
|---|
| 1523 | 1538 | | SEC. 33. Section 3716 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 1524 | 1539 | | |
|---|
| 1525 | 1540 | | ### SEC. 33. |
|---|
| 1526 | 1541 | | |
|---|
| 1527 | 1542 | | 3716. (a) The board may employ an executive officer exempt from civil service and, subject to the provisions of law relating to civil service, clerical assistants and, except as provided in Section 159.5, other employees as it may deem necessary to carry out its powers and duties.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1528 | 1543 | | |
|---|
| 1529 | 1544 | | 3716. (a) The board may employ an executive officer exempt from civil service and, subject to the provisions of law relating to civil service, clerical assistants and, except as provided in Section 159.5, other employees as it may deem necessary to carry out its powers and duties.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1530 | 1545 | | |
|---|
| 1531 | 1546 | | 3716. (a) The board may employ an executive officer exempt from civil service and, subject to the provisions of law relating to civil service, clerical assistants and, except as provided in Section 159.5, other employees as it may deem necessary to carry out its powers and duties.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1532 | 1547 | | |
|---|
| 1533 | 1548 | | |
|---|
| 1534 | 1549 | | |
|---|
| 1535 | 1550 | | 3716. (a) The board may employ an executive officer exempt from civil service and, subject to the provisions of law relating to civil service, clerical assistants and, except as provided in Section 159.5, other employees as it may deem necessary to carry out its powers and duties. |
|---|
| 1536 | 1551 | | |
|---|
| 1537 | 1552 | | (b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1538 | 1553 | | |
|---|
| 1539 | 1554 | | SEC. 34. Section 4001 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:4001. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs a California State Board of Pharmacy in which the administration and enforcement of this chapter is vested. The board consists of 13 members.(b) The Governor shall appoint seven competent pharmacists who reside in different parts of the state to serve as members of the board. The Governor shall appoint four public members, and the Senate Committee on Rules and the Speaker of the Assembly shall each appoint a public member who shall not be a licensee of the board, any other board under this division, or any board referred to in Section 1000 or 3600.(c) At least five of the seven pharmacist appointees to the board shall be pharmacists who are actively engaged in the practice of pharmacy. Additionally, the membership of the board shall include at least one pharmacist representative from each of the following practice settings: an acute care hospital, an independent community pharmacy, a chain community pharmacy, and a long-term health care or skilled nursing facility. The pharmacist appointees shall also include a pharmacist who is a member of a labor union that represents pharmacists. For the purposes of this subdivision, a chain community pharmacy means a chain of 75 or more stores in California under the same ownership, and an independent community pharmacy means a pharmacy owned by a person or entity who owns no more than four pharmacies in California.(d) Members of the board shall be appointed for a term of four years. No person shall serve as a member of the board for more than two consecutive terms. Each member shall hold office until the appointment and qualification of their successor or until one year shall have elapsed since the expiration of the term for which the member was appointed, whichever first occurs. Vacancies occurring shall be filled by appointment for the unexpired term.(e) Each member of the board shall receive a per diem and expenses as provided in Section 103.(f) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1540 | 1555 | | |
|---|
| 1541 | 1556 | | SEC. 34. Section 4001 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 1542 | 1557 | | |
|---|
| 1543 | 1558 | | ### SEC. 34. |
|---|
| 1544 | 1559 | | |
|---|
| 1545 | 1560 | | 4001. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs a California State Board of Pharmacy in which the administration and enforcement of this chapter is vested. The board consists of 13 members.(b) The Governor shall appoint seven competent pharmacists who reside in different parts of the state to serve as members of the board. The Governor shall appoint four public members, and the Senate Committee on Rules and the Speaker of the Assembly shall each appoint a public member who shall not be a licensee of the board, any other board under this division, or any board referred to in Section 1000 or 3600.(c) At least five of the seven pharmacist appointees to the board shall be pharmacists who are actively engaged in the practice of pharmacy. Additionally, the membership of the board shall include at least one pharmacist representative from each of the following practice settings: an acute care hospital, an independent community pharmacy, a chain community pharmacy, and a long-term health care or skilled nursing facility. The pharmacist appointees shall also include a pharmacist who is a member of a labor union that represents pharmacists. For the purposes of this subdivision, a chain community pharmacy means a chain of 75 or more stores in California under the same ownership, and an independent community pharmacy means a pharmacy owned by a person or entity who owns no more than four pharmacies in California.(d) Members of the board shall be appointed for a term of four years. No person shall serve as a member of the board for more than two consecutive terms. Each member shall hold office until the appointment and qualification of their successor or until one year shall have elapsed since the expiration of the term for which the member was appointed, whichever first occurs. Vacancies occurring shall be filled by appointment for the unexpired term.(e) Each member of the board shall receive a per diem and expenses as provided in Section 103.(f) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1546 | 1561 | | |
|---|
| 1547 | 1562 | | 4001. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs a California State Board of Pharmacy in which the administration and enforcement of this chapter is vested. The board consists of 13 members.(b) The Governor shall appoint seven competent pharmacists who reside in different parts of the state to serve as members of the board. The Governor shall appoint four public members, and the Senate Committee on Rules and the Speaker of the Assembly shall each appoint a public member who shall not be a licensee of the board, any other board under this division, or any board referred to in Section 1000 or 3600.(c) At least five of the seven pharmacist appointees to the board shall be pharmacists who are actively engaged in the practice of pharmacy. Additionally, the membership of the board shall include at least one pharmacist representative from each of the following practice settings: an acute care hospital, an independent community pharmacy, a chain community pharmacy, and a long-term health care or skilled nursing facility. The pharmacist appointees shall also include a pharmacist who is a member of a labor union that represents pharmacists. For the purposes of this subdivision, a chain community pharmacy means a chain of 75 or more stores in California under the same ownership, and an independent community pharmacy means a pharmacy owned by a person or entity who owns no more than four pharmacies in California.(d) Members of the board shall be appointed for a term of four years. No person shall serve as a member of the board for more than two consecutive terms. Each member shall hold office until the appointment and qualification of their successor or until one year shall have elapsed since the expiration of the term for which the member was appointed, whichever first occurs. Vacancies occurring shall be filled by appointment for the unexpired term.(e) Each member of the board shall receive a per diem and expenses as provided in Section 103.(f) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1548 | 1563 | | |
|---|
| 1549 | 1564 | | 4001. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs a California State Board of Pharmacy in which the administration and enforcement of this chapter is vested. The board consists of 13 members.(b) The Governor shall appoint seven competent pharmacists who reside in different parts of the state to serve as members of the board. The Governor shall appoint four public members, and the Senate Committee on Rules and the Speaker of the Assembly shall each appoint a public member who shall not be a licensee of the board, any other board under this division, or any board referred to in Section 1000 or 3600.(c) At least five of the seven pharmacist appointees to the board shall be pharmacists who are actively engaged in the practice of pharmacy. Additionally, the membership of the board shall include at least one pharmacist representative from each of the following practice settings: an acute care hospital, an independent community pharmacy, a chain community pharmacy, and a long-term health care or skilled nursing facility. The pharmacist appointees shall also include a pharmacist who is a member of a labor union that represents pharmacists. For the purposes of this subdivision, a chain community pharmacy means a chain of 75 or more stores in California under the same ownership, and an independent community pharmacy means a pharmacy owned by a person or entity who owns no more than four pharmacies in California.(d) Members of the board shall be appointed for a term of four years. No person shall serve as a member of the board for more than two consecutive terms. Each member shall hold office until the appointment and qualification of their successor or until one year shall have elapsed since the expiration of the term for which the member was appointed, whichever first occurs. Vacancies occurring shall be filled by appointment for the unexpired term.(e) Each member of the board shall receive a per diem and expenses as provided in Section 103.(f) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1550 | 1565 | | |
|---|
| 1551 | 1566 | | |
|---|
| 1552 | 1567 | | |
|---|
| 1553 | 1568 | | 4001. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs a California State Board of Pharmacy in which the administration and enforcement of this chapter is vested. The board consists of 13 members. |
|---|
| 1554 | 1569 | | |
|---|
| 1555 | 1570 | | (b) The Governor shall appoint seven competent pharmacists who reside in different parts of the state to serve as members of the board. The Governor shall appoint four public members, and the Senate Committee on Rules and the Speaker of the Assembly shall each appoint a public member who shall not be a licensee of the board, any other board under this division, or any board referred to in Section 1000 or 3600. |
|---|
| 1556 | 1571 | | |
|---|
| 1557 | 1572 | | (c) At least five of the seven pharmacist appointees to the board shall be pharmacists who are actively engaged in the practice of pharmacy. Additionally, the membership of the board shall include at least one pharmacist representative from each of the following practice settings: an acute care hospital, an independent community pharmacy, a chain community pharmacy, and a long-term health care or skilled nursing facility. The pharmacist appointees shall also include a pharmacist who is a member of a labor union that represents pharmacists. For the purposes of this subdivision, a chain community pharmacy means a chain of 75 or more stores in California under the same ownership, and an independent community pharmacy means a pharmacy owned by a person or entity who owns no more than four pharmacies in California. |
|---|
| 1558 | 1573 | | |
|---|
| 1559 | 1574 | | (d) Members of the board shall be appointed for a term of four years. No person shall serve as a member of the board for more than two consecutive terms. Each member shall hold office until the appointment and qualification of their successor or until one year shall have elapsed since the expiration of the term for which the member was appointed, whichever first occurs. Vacancies occurring shall be filled by appointment for the unexpired term. |
|---|
| 1560 | 1575 | | |
|---|
| 1561 | 1576 | | (e) Each member of the board shall receive a per diem and expenses as provided in Section 103. |
|---|
| 1562 | 1577 | | |
|---|
| 1563 | 1578 | | (f) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1564 | 1579 | | |
|---|
| 1565 | 1580 | | SEC. 35. Section 4003 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:4003. (a) The board, with the approval of the director, may appoint a person exempt from civil service who shall be designated as an executive officer and who shall exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated by the board and vested in them by this chapter. The executive officer may or may not be a member of the board as the board may determine.(b) The executive officer shall receive the compensation as established by the board with the approval of the Director of Finance. The executive officer shall also be entitled to travel and other expenses necessary in the performance of their duties.(c) The executive officer shall maintain and update in a timely fashion records containing the names, titles, qualifications, and places of business of all persons subject to this chapter.(d) The executive officer shall give receipts for all money received by them and pay it to the department, taking its receipt therefor. Besides the duties required by this chapter, the executive officer shall perform other duties pertaining to the office as may be required of them by the board.(e) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1566 | 1581 | | |
|---|
| 1567 | 1582 | | SEC. 35. Section 4003 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 1568 | 1583 | | |
|---|
| 1569 | 1584 | | ### SEC. 35. |
|---|
| 1570 | 1585 | | |
|---|
| 1571 | 1586 | | 4003. (a) The board, with the approval of the director, may appoint a person exempt from civil service who shall be designated as an executive officer and who shall exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated by the board and vested in them by this chapter. The executive officer may or may not be a member of the board as the board may determine.(b) The executive officer shall receive the compensation as established by the board with the approval of the Director of Finance. The executive officer shall also be entitled to travel and other expenses necessary in the performance of their duties.(c) The executive officer shall maintain and update in a timely fashion records containing the names, titles, qualifications, and places of business of all persons subject to this chapter.(d) The executive officer shall give receipts for all money received by them and pay it to the department, taking its receipt therefor. Besides the duties required by this chapter, the executive officer shall perform other duties pertaining to the office as may be required of them by the board.(e) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1572 | 1587 | | |
|---|
| 1573 | 1588 | | 4003. (a) The board, with the approval of the director, may appoint a person exempt from civil service who shall be designated as an executive officer and who shall exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated by the board and vested in them by this chapter. The executive officer may or may not be a member of the board as the board may determine.(b) The executive officer shall receive the compensation as established by the board with the approval of the Director of Finance. The executive officer shall also be entitled to travel and other expenses necessary in the performance of their duties.(c) The executive officer shall maintain and update in a timely fashion records containing the names, titles, qualifications, and places of business of all persons subject to this chapter.(d) The executive officer shall give receipts for all money received by them and pay it to the department, taking its receipt therefor. Besides the duties required by this chapter, the executive officer shall perform other duties pertaining to the office as may be required of them by the board.(e) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1574 | 1589 | | |
|---|
| 1575 | 1590 | | 4003. (a) The board, with the approval of the director, may appoint a person exempt from civil service who shall be designated as an executive officer and who shall exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated by the board and vested in them by this chapter. The executive officer may or may not be a member of the board as the board may determine.(b) The executive officer shall receive the compensation as established by the board with the approval of the Director of Finance. The executive officer shall also be entitled to travel and other expenses necessary in the performance of their duties.(c) The executive officer shall maintain and update in a timely fashion records containing the names, titles, qualifications, and places of business of all persons subject to this chapter.(d) The executive officer shall give receipts for all money received by them and pay it to the department, taking its receipt therefor. Besides the duties required by this chapter, the executive officer shall perform other duties pertaining to the office as may be required of them by the board.(e) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1576 | 1591 | | |
|---|
| 1577 | 1592 | | |
|---|
| 1578 | 1593 | | |
|---|
| 1579 | 1594 | | 4003. (a) The board, with the approval of the director, may appoint a person exempt from civil service who shall be designated as an executive officer and who shall exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated by the board and vested in them by this chapter. The executive officer may or may not be a member of the board as the board may determine. |
|---|
| 1580 | 1595 | | |
|---|
| 1581 | 1596 | | (b) The executive officer shall receive the compensation as established by the board with the approval of the Director of Finance. The executive officer shall also be entitled to travel and other expenses necessary in the performance of their duties. |
|---|
| 1582 | 1597 | | |
|---|
| 1583 | 1598 | | (c) The executive officer shall maintain and update in a timely fashion records containing the names, titles, qualifications, and places of business of all persons subject to this chapter. |
|---|
| 1584 | 1599 | | |
|---|
| 1585 | 1600 | | (d) The executive officer shall give receipts for all money received by them and pay it to the department, taking its receipt therefor. Besides the duties required by this chapter, the executive officer shall perform other duties pertaining to the office as may be required of them by the board. |
|---|
| 1586 | 1601 | | |
|---|
| 1587 | 1602 | | (e) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1588 | 1603 | | |
|---|
| 1589 | 1604 | | SEC. 36. Section 4501 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:4501. (a) Board, as used in this chapter, means the Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians of the State of California.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1590 | 1605 | | |
|---|
| 1591 | 1606 | | SEC. 36. Section 4501 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 1592 | 1607 | | |
|---|
| 1593 | 1608 | | ### SEC. 36. |
|---|
| 1594 | 1609 | | |
|---|
| 1595 | 1610 | | 4501. (a) Board, as used in this chapter, means the Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians of the State of California.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1596 | 1611 | | |
|---|
| 1597 | 1612 | | 4501. (a) Board, as used in this chapter, means the Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians of the State of California.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1598 | 1613 | | |
|---|
| 1599 | 1614 | | 4501. (a) Board, as used in this chapter, means the Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians of the State of California.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1600 | 1615 | | |
|---|
| 1601 | 1616 | | |
|---|
| 1602 | 1617 | | |
|---|
| 1603 | 1618 | | 4501. (a) Board, as used in this chapter, means the Board of Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians of the State of California. |
|---|
| 1604 | 1619 | | |
|---|
| 1605 | 1620 | | (b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1606 | 1621 | | |
|---|
| 1607 | 1622 | | SEC. 37. Section 4503 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:4503. (a) The board shall administer and enforce this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1608 | 1623 | | |
|---|
| 1609 | 1624 | | SEC. 37. Section 4503 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 1610 | 1625 | | |
|---|
| 1611 | 1626 | | ### SEC. 37. |
|---|
| 1612 | 1627 | | |
|---|
| 1613 | 1628 | | 4503. (a) The board shall administer and enforce this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1614 | 1629 | | |
|---|
| 1615 | 1630 | | 4503. (a) The board shall administer and enforce this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1616 | 1631 | | |
|---|
| 1617 | 1632 | | 4503. (a) The board shall administer and enforce this chapter.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1618 | 1633 | | |
|---|
| 1619 | 1634 | | |
|---|
| 1620 | 1635 | | |
|---|
| 1621 | 1636 | | 4503. (a) The board shall administer and enforce this chapter. |
|---|
| 1622 | 1637 | | |
|---|
| 1623 | 1638 | | (b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1624 | 1639 | | |
|---|
| 1625 | 1640 | | SEC. 38. Section 4604 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:4604. (a) In order to obtain certification as a massage therapist, an applicant shall submit a written application and provide the council with satisfactory evidence that the applicant meets all of the following requirements:(1) The applicant is 18 years of age or older.(2) The applicant has successfully completed the curricula in massage and related subjects totaling a minimum of 500 hours, or the credit unit equivalent, that incorporates appropriate school assessment of student knowledge and skills.(A) Of the 500 hours, a minimum of 100 hours of instruction shall address anatomy and physiology, contraindications, health and hygiene, and business and ethics.(B) All of the 500 hours shall be from approved schools. The council shall accept the 500 hours if, at the time all of the hours were completed, the school or schools were approved. The 500 hours may be completed at more than one approved school. Notwithstanding any other law, pursuant to its policies and procedures for approval of schools, the council shall accept hours earned by an applicant for certification as a massage therapist if those hours were completed before July 1, 2016, and were earned from a school providing education in this state that was unapproved by the council after July 1, 2016, based solely on the fact that the National Certification Board for Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork took denial or disciplinary action against the school. For purposes of this section, unapproved means that the council determined that it will not accept hours from a school toward certification.(3) The applicant has passed a massage and bodywork competency assessment examination that meets generally recognized psychometric principles and standards and that is approved by the council. The successful completion of this examination may have been accomplished before the date the council is authorized by this chapter to begin issuing certificates. This paragraph shall be inoperative commencing on January 1, 2019, and shall become operative on January 1, 2022.(4) The applicant has successfully passed a background investigation pursuant to Section 4606, and has not violated any of the provisions of this chapter.(5) All fees required by the council have been paid.(6) The council may issue a certificate to an applicant who meets the qualifications of this chapter if the applicant holds a current and valid registration, certification, or license from any other state whose licensure requirements meet or exceed those defined within this chapter. If an applicant has received education at a school that is not approved by the council, the council shall have the discretion to give credit for comparable academic work completed by an applicant in a program outside of California.(b) A certificate issued pursuant to this chapter and any identification card issued by the council shall be surrendered to the council by any certificate holder whose certificate is suspended or revoked. |
|---|
| 1626 | 1641 | | |
|---|
| 1627 | 1642 | | SEC. 38. Section 4604 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 1628 | 1643 | | |
|---|
| 1629 | 1644 | | ### SEC. 38. |
|---|
| 1630 | 1645 | | |
|---|
| 1631 | 1646 | | 4604. (a) In order to obtain certification as a massage therapist, an applicant shall submit a written application and provide the council with satisfactory evidence that the applicant meets all of the following requirements:(1) The applicant is 18 years of age or older.(2) The applicant has successfully completed the curricula in massage and related subjects totaling a minimum of 500 hours, or the credit unit equivalent, that incorporates appropriate school assessment of student knowledge and skills.(A) Of the 500 hours, a minimum of 100 hours of instruction shall address anatomy and physiology, contraindications, health and hygiene, and business and ethics.(B) All of the 500 hours shall be from approved schools. The council shall accept the 500 hours if, at the time all of the hours were completed, the school or schools were approved. The 500 hours may be completed at more than one approved school. Notwithstanding any other law, pursuant to its policies and procedures for approval of schools, the council shall accept hours earned by an applicant for certification as a massage therapist if those hours were completed before July 1, 2016, and were earned from a school providing education in this state that was unapproved by the council after July 1, 2016, based solely on the fact that the National Certification Board for Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork took denial or disciplinary action against the school. For purposes of this section, unapproved means that the council determined that it will not accept hours from a school toward certification.(3) The applicant has passed a massage and bodywork competency assessment examination that meets generally recognized psychometric principles and standards and that is approved by the council. The successful completion of this examination may have been accomplished before the date the council is authorized by this chapter to begin issuing certificates. This paragraph shall be inoperative commencing on January 1, 2019, and shall become operative on January 1, 2022.(4) The applicant has successfully passed a background investigation pursuant to Section 4606, and has not violated any of the provisions of this chapter.(5) All fees required by the council have been paid.(6) The council may issue a certificate to an applicant who meets the qualifications of this chapter if the applicant holds a current and valid registration, certification, or license from any other state whose licensure requirements meet or exceed those defined within this chapter. If an applicant has received education at a school that is not approved by the council, the council shall have the discretion to give credit for comparable academic work completed by an applicant in a program outside of California.(b) A certificate issued pursuant to this chapter and any identification card issued by the council shall be surrendered to the council by any certificate holder whose certificate is suspended or revoked. |
|---|
| 1632 | 1647 | | |
|---|
| 1633 | 1648 | | 4604. (a) In order to obtain certification as a massage therapist, an applicant shall submit a written application and provide the council with satisfactory evidence that the applicant meets all of the following requirements:(1) The applicant is 18 years of age or older.(2) The applicant has successfully completed the curricula in massage and related subjects totaling a minimum of 500 hours, or the credit unit equivalent, that incorporates appropriate school assessment of student knowledge and skills.(A) Of the 500 hours, a minimum of 100 hours of instruction shall address anatomy and physiology, contraindications, health and hygiene, and business and ethics.(B) All of the 500 hours shall be from approved schools. The council shall accept the 500 hours if, at the time all of the hours were completed, the school or schools were approved. The 500 hours may be completed at more than one approved school. Notwithstanding any other law, pursuant to its policies and procedures for approval of schools, the council shall accept hours earned by an applicant for certification as a massage therapist if those hours were completed before July 1, 2016, and were earned from a school providing education in this state that was unapproved by the council after July 1, 2016, based solely on the fact that the National Certification Board for Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork took denial or disciplinary action against the school. For purposes of this section, unapproved means that the council determined that it will not accept hours from a school toward certification.(3) The applicant has passed a massage and bodywork competency assessment examination that meets generally recognized psychometric principles and standards and that is approved by the council. The successful completion of this examination may have been accomplished before the date the council is authorized by this chapter to begin issuing certificates. This paragraph shall be inoperative commencing on January 1, 2019, and shall become operative on January 1, 2022.(4) The applicant has successfully passed a background investigation pursuant to Section 4606, and has not violated any of the provisions of this chapter.(5) All fees required by the council have been paid.(6) The council may issue a certificate to an applicant who meets the qualifications of this chapter if the applicant holds a current and valid registration, certification, or license from any other state whose licensure requirements meet or exceed those defined within this chapter. If an applicant has received education at a school that is not approved by the council, the council shall have the discretion to give credit for comparable academic work completed by an applicant in a program outside of California.(b) A certificate issued pursuant to this chapter and any identification card issued by the council shall be surrendered to the council by any certificate holder whose certificate is suspended or revoked. |
|---|
| 1634 | 1649 | | |
|---|
| 1635 | 1650 | | 4604. (a) In order to obtain certification as a massage therapist, an applicant shall submit a written application and provide the council with satisfactory evidence that the applicant meets all of the following requirements:(1) The applicant is 18 years of age or older.(2) The applicant has successfully completed the curricula in massage and related subjects totaling a minimum of 500 hours, or the credit unit equivalent, that incorporates appropriate school assessment of student knowledge and skills.(A) Of the 500 hours, a minimum of 100 hours of instruction shall address anatomy and physiology, contraindications, health and hygiene, and business and ethics.(B) All of the 500 hours shall be from approved schools. The council shall accept the 500 hours if, at the time all of the hours were completed, the school or schools were approved. The 500 hours may be completed at more than one approved school. Notwithstanding any other law, pursuant to its policies and procedures for approval of schools, the council shall accept hours earned by an applicant for certification as a massage therapist if those hours were completed before July 1, 2016, and were earned from a school providing education in this state that was unapproved by the council after July 1, 2016, based solely on the fact that the National Certification Board for Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork took denial or disciplinary action against the school. For purposes of this section, unapproved means that the council determined that it will not accept hours from a school toward certification.(3) The applicant has passed a massage and bodywork competency assessment examination that meets generally recognized psychometric principles and standards and that is approved by the council. The successful completion of this examination may have been accomplished before the date the council is authorized by this chapter to begin issuing certificates. This paragraph shall be inoperative commencing on January 1, 2019, and shall become operative on January 1, 2022.(4) The applicant has successfully passed a background investigation pursuant to Section 4606, and has not violated any of the provisions of this chapter.(5) All fees required by the council have been paid.(6) The council may issue a certificate to an applicant who meets the qualifications of this chapter if the applicant holds a current and valid registration, certification, or license from any other state whose licensure requirements meet or exceed those defined within this chapter. If an applicant has received education at a school that is not approved by the council, the council shall have the discretion to give credit for comparable academic work completed by an applicant in a program outside of California.(b) A certificate issued pursuant to this chapter and any identification card issued by the council shall be surrendered to the council by any certificate holder whose certificate is suspended or revoked. |
|---|
| 1636 | 1651 | | |
|---|
| 1637 | 1652 | | |
|---|
| 1638 | 1653 | | |
|---|
| 1639 | 1654 | | 4604. (a) In order to obtain certification as a massage therapist, an applicant shall submit a written application and provide the council with satisfactory evidence that the applicant meets all of the following requirements: |
|---|
| 1640 | 1655 | | |
|---|
| 1641 | 1656 | | (1) The applicant is 18 years of age or older. |
|---|
| 1642 | 1657 | | |
|---|
| 1643 | 1658 | | (2) The applicant has successfully completed the curricula in massage and related subjects totaling a minimum of 500 hours, or the credit unit equivalent, that incorporates appropriate school assessment of student knowledge and skills. |
|---|
| 1644 | 1659 | | |
|---|
| 1645 | 1660 | | (A) Of the 500 hours, a minimum of 100 hours of instruction shall address anatomy and physiology, contraindications, health and hygiene, and business and ethics. |
|---|
| 1646 | 1661 | | |
|---|
| 1647 | 1662 | | (B) All of the 500 hours shall be from approved schools. The council shall accept the 500 hours if, at the time all of the hours were completed, the school or schools were approved. The 500 hours may be completed at more than one approved school. Notwithstanding any other law, pursuant to its policies and procedures for approval of schools, the council shall accept hours earned by an applicant for certification as a massage therapist if those hours were completed before July 1, 2016, and were earned from a school providing education in this state that was unapproved by the council after July 1, 2016, based solely on the fact that the National Certification Board for Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork took denial or disciplinary action against the school. For purposes of this section, unapproved means that the council determined that it will not accept hours from a school toward certification. |
|---|
| 1648 | 1663 | | |
|---|
| 1649 | 1664 | | (3) The applicant has passed a massage and bodywork competency assessment examination that meets generally recognized psychometric principles and standards and that is approved by the council. The successful completion of this examination may have been accomplished before the date the council is authorized by this chapter to begin issuing certificates. This paragraph shall be inoperative commencing on January 1, 2019, and shall become operative on January 1, 2022. |
|---|
| 1650 | 1665 | | |
|---|
| 1651 | 1666 | | (4) The applicant has successfully passed a background investigation pursuant to Section 4606, and has not violated any of the provisions of this chapter. |
|---|
| 1652 | 1667 | | |
|---|
| 1653 | 1668 | | (5) All fees required by the council have been paid. |
|---|
| 1654 | 1669 | | |
|---|
| 1655 | 1670 | | (6) The council may issue a certificate to an applicant who meets the qualifications of this chapter if the applicant holds a current and valid registration, certification, or license from any other state whose licensure requirements meet or exceed those defined within this chapter. If an applicant has received education at a school that is not approved by the council, the council shall have the discretion to give credit for comparable academic work completed by an applicant in a program outside of California. |
|---|
| 1656 | 1671 | | |
|---|
| 1657 | 1672 | | (b) A certificate issued pursuant to this chapter and any identification card issued by the council shall be surrendered to the council by any certificate holder whose certificate is suspended or revoked. |
|---|
| 1658 | 1673 | | |
|---|
| 1659 | 1674 | | SEC. 39. Section 4621 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:4621. (a) This chapter shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.(b) Notwithstanding any other law, the powers and duties of the council shall be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1660 | 1675 | | |
|---|
| 1661 | 1676 | | SEC. 39. Section 4621 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 1662 | 1677 | | |
|---|
| 1663 | 1678 | | ### SEC. 39. |
|---|
| 1664 | 1679 | | |
|---|
| 1665 | 1680 | | 4621. (a) This chapter shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.(b) Notwithstanding any other law, the powers and duties of the council shall be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1666 | 1681 | | |
|---|
| 1667 | 1682 | | 4621. (a) This chapter shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.(b) Notwithstanding any other law, the powers and duties of the council shall be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1668 | 1683 | | |
|---|
| 1669 | 1684 | | 4621. (a) This chapter shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.(b) Notwithstanding any other law, the powers and duties of the council shall be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1670 | 1685 | | |
|---|
| 1671 | 1686 | | |
|---|
| 1672 | 1687 | | |
|---|
| 1673 | 1688 | | 4621. (a) This chapter shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1674 | 1689 | | |
|---|
| 1675 | 1690 | | (b) Notwithstanding any other law, the powers and duties of the council shall be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1676 | 1691 | | |
|---|
| 1677 | 1692 | | SEC. 40. Section 4800 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:4800. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs a Veterinary Medical Board in which the administration of this chapter is vested. The board consists of the following members:(1) Four licensed veterinarians.(2) One registered veterinary technician.(3) Three public members.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. However, the review of the board shall be limited to those issues identified by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature and shall not involve the preparation or submission of a sunset review document or evaluative questionnaire. |
|---|
| 1678 | 1693 | | |
|---|
| 1679 | 1694 | | SEC. 40. Section 4800 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 1680 | 1695 | | |
|---|
| 1681 | 1696 | | ### SEC. 40. |
|---|
| 1682 | 1697 | | |
|---|
| 1683 | 1698 | | 4800. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs a Veterinary Medical Board in which the administration of this chapter is vested. The board consists of the following members:(1) Four licensed veterinarians.(2) One registered veterinary technician.(3) Three public members.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. However, the review of the board shall be limited to those issues identified by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature and shall not involve the preparation or submission of a sunset review document or evaluative questionnaire. |
|---|
| 1684 | 1699 | | |
|---|
| 1685 | 1700 | | 4800. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs a Veterinary Medical Board in which the administration of this chapter is vested. The board consists of the following members:(1) Four licensed veterinarians.(2) One registered veterinary technician.(3) Three public members.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. However, the review of the board shall be limited to those issues identified by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature and shall not involve the preparation or submission of a sunset review document or evaluative questionnaire. |
|---|
| 1686 | 1701 | | |
|---|
| 1687 | 1702 | | 4800. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs a Veterinary Medical Board in which the administration of this chapter is vested. The board consists of the following members:(1) Four licensed veterinarians.(2) One registered veterinary technician.(3) Three public members.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. However, the review of the board shall be limited to those issues identified by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature and shall not involve the preparation or submission of a sunset review document or evaluative questionnaire. |
|---|
| 1688 | 1703 | | |
|---|
| 1689 | 1704 | | |
|---|
| 1690 | 1705 | | |
|---|
| 1691 | 1706 | | 4800. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs a Veterinary Medical Board in which the administration of this chapter is vested. The board consists of the following members: |
|---|
| 1692 | 1707 | | |
|---|
| 1693 | 1708 | | (1) Four licensed veterinarians. |
|---|
| 1694 | 1709 | | |
|---|
| 1695 | 1710 | | (2) One registered veterinary technician. |
|---|
| 1696 | 1711 | | |
|---|
| 1697 | 1712 | | (3) Three public members. |
|---|
| 1698 | 1713 | | |
|---|
| 1699 | 1714 | | (b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1700 | 1715 | | |
|---|
| 1701 | 1716 | | (c) Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. However, the review of the board shall be limited to those issues identified by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature and shall not involve the preparation or submission of a sunset review document or evaluative questionnaire. |
|---|
| 1702 | 1717 | | |
|---|
| 1703 | 1718 | | SEC. 41. Section 4804.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:4804.5. The board may appoint a person exempt from civil service who shall be designated as an executive officer and who shall exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated by the board and vested in them by this chapter.This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1704 | 1719 | | |
|---|
| 1705 | 1720 | | SEC. 41. Section 4804.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 1706 | 1721 | | |
|---|
| 1707 | 1722 | | ### SEC. 41. |
|---|
| 1708 | 1723 | | |
|---|
| 1709 | 1724 | | 4804.5. The board may appoint a person exempt from civil service who shall be designated as an executive officer and who shall exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated by the board and vested in them by this chapter.This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1710 | 1725 | | |
|---|
| 1711 | 1726 | | 4804.5. The board may appoint a person exempt from civil service who shall be designated as an executive officer and who shall exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated by the board and vested in them by this chapter.This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1712 | 1727 | | |
|---|
| 1713 | 1728 | | 4804.5. The board may appoint a person exempt from civil service who shall be designated as an executive officer and who shall exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated by the board and vested in them by this chapter.This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1714 | 1729 | | |
|---|
| 1715 | 1730 | | |
|---|
| 1716 | 1731 | | |
|---|
| 1717 | 1732 | | 4804.5. The board may appoint a person exempt from civil service who shall be designated as an executive officer and who shall exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated by the board and vested in them by this chapter. |
|---|
| 1718 | 1733 | | |
|---|
| 1719 | 1734 | | This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1720 | 1735 | | |
|---|
| 1721 | 1736 | | SEC. 42. Section 4990 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:4990. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs, a Board of Behavioral Sciences that consists of the following members:(1) Two state licensed clinical social workers.(2) One state licensed educational psychologist.(3) Two state licensed marriage and family therapists.(4) One state licensed professional clinical counselor.(5) Seven public members.(b) Each member, except the seven public members, shall have at least two years of experience in their profession.(c) Each member shall reside in the State of California.(d) The Governor shall appoint five of the public members and the six licensed members with the advice and consent of the Senate. The Senate Committee on Rules and the Speaker of the Assembly shall each appoint a public member.(e) Each member of the board shall be appointed for a term of four years. A member appointed by the Senate Committee on Rules or the Speaker of the Assembly shall hold office until the appointment and qualification of their successor or until one year from the expiration date of the term for which they were appointed, whichever first occurs. Pursuant to Section 1774 of the Government Code, a member appointed by the Governor shall hold office until the appointment and qualification of their successor or until 60 days from the expiration date of the term for which they were appointed, whichever first occurs.(f) A vacancy on the board shall be filled by appointment for the unexpired term by the authority who appointed the member whose membership was vacated.(g) Not later than the first of June of each calendar year, the board shall elect a chairperson and a vice chairperson from its membership.(h) Each member of the board shall receive a per diem and reimbursement of expenses as provided in Section 103.(i) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.(j) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1722 | 1737 | | |
|---|
| 1723 | 1738 | | SEC. 42. Section 4990 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 1724 | 1739 | | |
|---|
| 1725 | 1740 | | ### SEC. 42. |
|---|
| 1726 | 1741 | | |
|---|
| 1727 | 1742 | | 4990. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs, a Board of Behavioral Sciences that consists of the following members:(1) Two state licensed clinical social workers.(2) One state licensed educational psychologist.(3) Two state licensed marriage and family therapists.(4) One state licensed professional clinical counselor.(5) Seven public members.(b) Each member, except the seven public members, shall have at least two years of experience in their profession.(c) Each member shall reside in the State of California.(d) The Governor shall appoint five of the public members and the six licensed members with the advice and consent of the Senate. The Senate Committee on Rules and the Speaker of the Assembly shall each appoint a public member.(e) Each member of the board shall be appointed for a term of four years. A member appointed by the Senate Committee on Rules or the Speaker of the Assembly shall hold office until the appointment and qualification of their successor or until one year from the expiration date of the term for which they were appointed, whichever first occurs. Pursuant to Section 1774 of the Government Code, a member appointed by the Governor shall hold office until the appointment and qualification of their successor or until 60 days from the expiration date of the term for which they were appointed, whichever first occurs.(f) A vacancy on the board shall be filled by appointment for the unexpired term by the authority who appointed the member whose membership was vacated.(g) Not later than the first of June of each calendar year, the board shall elect a chairperson and a vice chairperson from its membership.(h) Each member of the board shall receive a per diem and reimbursement of expenses as provided in Section 103.(i) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.(j) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1728 | 1743 | | |
|---|
| 1729 | 1744 | | 4990. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs, a Board of Behavioral Sciences that consists of the following members:(1) Two state licensed clinical social workers.(2) One state licensed educational psychologist.(3) Two state licensed marriage and family therapists.(4) One state licensed professional clinical counselor.(5) Seven public members.(b) Each member, except the seven public members, shall have at least two years of experience in their profession.(c) Each member shall reside in the State of California.(d) The Governor shall appoint five of the public members and the six licensed members with the advice and consent of the Senate. The Senate Committee on Rules and the Speaker of the Assembly shall each appoint a public member.(e) Each member of the board shall be appointed for a term of four years. A member appointed by the Senate Committee on Rules or the Speaker of the Assembly shall hold office until the appointment and qualification of their successor or until one year from the expiration date of the term for which they were appointed, whichever first occurs. Pursuant to Section 1774 of the Government Code, a member appointed by the Governor shall hold office until the appointment and qualification of their successor or until 60 days from the expiration date of the term for which they were appointed, whichever first occurs.(f) A vacancy on the board shall be filled by appointment for the unexpired term by the authority who appointed the member whose membership was vacated.(g) Not later than the first of June of each calendar year, the board shall elect a chairperson and a vice chairperson from its membership.(h) Each member of the board shall receive a per diem and reimbursement of expenses as provided in Section 103.(i) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.(j) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1730 | 1745 | | |
|---|
| 1731 | 1746 | | 4990. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs, a Board of Behavioral Sciences that consists of the following members:(1) Two state licensed clinical social workers.(2) One state licensed educational psychologist.(3) Two state licensed marriage and family therapists.(4) One state licensed professional clinical counselor.(5) Seven public members.(b) Each member, except the seven public members, shall have at least two years of experience in their profession.(c) Each member shall reside in the State of California.(d) The Governor shall appoint five of the public members and the six licensed members with the advice and consent of the Senate. The Senate Committee on Rules and the Speaker of the Assembly shall each appoint a public member.(e) Each member of the board shall be appointed for a term of four years. A member appointed by the Senate Committee on Rules or the Speaker of the Assembly shall hold office until the appointment and qualification of their successor or until one year from the expiration date of the term for which they were appointed, whichever first occurs. Pursuant to Section 1774 of the Government Code, a member appointed by the Governor shall hold office until the appointment and qualification of their successor or until 60 days from the expiration date of the term for which they were appointed, whichever first occurs.(f) A vacancy on the board shall be filled by appointment for the unexpired term by the authority who appointed the member whose membership was vacated.(g) Not later than the first of June of each calendar year, the board shall elect a chairperson and a vice chairperson from its membership.(h) Each member of the board shall receive a per diem and reimbursement of expenses as provided in Section 103.(i) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed.(j) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1732 | 1747 | | |
|---|
| 1733 | 1748 | | |
|---|
| 1734 | 1749 | | |
|---|
| 1735 | 1750 | | 4990. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs, a Board of Behavioral Sciences that consists of the following members: |
|---|
| 1736 | 1751 | | |
|---|
| 1737 | 1752 | | (1) Two state licensed clinical social workers. |
|---|
| 1738 | 1753 | | |
|---|
| 1739 | 1754 | | (2) One state licensed educational psychologist. |
|---|
| 1740 | 1755 | | |
|---|
| 1741 | 1756 | | (3) Two state licensed marriage and family therapists. |
|---|
| 1742 | 1757 | | |
|---|
| 1743 | 1758 | | (4) One state licensed professional clinical counselor. |
|---|
| 1744 | 1759 | | |
|---|
| 1745 | 1760 | | (5) Seven public members. |
|---|
| 1746 | 1761 | | |
|---|
| 1747 | 1762 | | (b) Each member, except the seven public members, shall have at least two years of experience in their profession. |
|---|
| 1748 | 1763 | | |
|---|
| 1749 | 1764 | | (c) Each member shall reside in the State of California. |
|---|
| 1750 | 1765 | | |
|---|
| 1751 | 1766 | | (d) The Governor shall appoint five of the public members and the six licensed members with the advice and consent of the Senate. The Senate Committee on Rules and the Speaker of the Assembly shall each appoint a public member. |
|---|
| 1752 | 1767 | | |
|---|
| 1753 | 1768 | | (e) Each member of the board shall be appointed for a term of four years. A member appointed by the Senate Committee on Rules or the Speaker of the Assembly shall hold office until the appointment and qualification of their successor or until one year from the expiration date of the term for which they were appointed, whichever first occurs. Pursuant to Section 1774 of the Government Code, a member appointed by the Governor shall hold office until the appointment and qualification of their successor or until 60 days from the expiration date of the term for which they were appointed, whichever first occurs. |
|---|
| 1754 | 1769 | | |
|---|
| 1755 | 1770 | | (f) A vacancy on the board shall be filled by appointment for the unexpired term by the authority who appointed the member whose membership was vacated. |
|---|
| 1756 | 1771 | | |
|---|
| 1757 | 1772 | | (g) Not later than the first of June of each calendar year, the board shall elect a chairperson and a vice chairperson from its membership. |
|---|
| 1758 | 1773 | | |
|---|
| 1759 | 1774 | | (h) Each member of the board shall receive a per diem and reimbursement of expenses as provided in Section 103. |
|---|
| 1760 | 1775 | | |
|---|
| 1761 | 1776 | | (i) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1762 | 1777 | | |
|---|
| 1763 | 1778 | | (j) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 1764 | 1779 | | |
|---|
| 1765 | 1780 | | SEC. 43. Section 4990.04 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:4990.04. (a) The board shall appoint an executive officer. This position is designated as a confidential position and is exempt from civil service under subdivision (e) of Section 4 of Article VII of the California Constitution.(b) The executive officer serves at the pleasure of the board.(c) The executive officer shall exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated by the board and vested in them by this chapter.(d) With the approval of the director, the board shall fix the salary of the executive officer.(e) The chairperson and executive officer may call meetings of the board and any duly appointed committee at a specified time and place. For purposes of this section, call meetings means setting the agenda, time, date, or place for any meeting of the board or any committee.(f) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1766 | 1781 | | |
|---|
| 1767 | 1782 | | SEC. 43. Section 4990.04 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 1768 | 1783 | | |
|---|
| 1769 | 1784 | | ### SEC. 43. |
|---|
| 1770 | 1785 | | |
|---|
| 1771 | 1786 | | 4990.04. (a) The board shall appoint an executive officer. This position is designated as a confidential position and is exempt from civil service under subdivision (e) of Section 4 of Article VII of the California Constitution.(b) The executive officer serves at the pleasure of the board.(c) The executive officer shall exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated by the board and vested in them by this chapter.(d) With the approval of the director, the board shall fix the salary of the executive officer.(e) The chairperson and executive officer may call meetings of the board and any duly appointed committee at a specified time and place. For purposes of this section, call meetings means setting the agenda, time, date, or place for any meeting of the board or any committee.(f) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1772 | 1787 | | |
|---|
| 1773 | 1788 | | 4990.04. (a) The board shall appoint an executive officer. This position is designated as a confidential position and is exempt from civil service under subdivision (e) of Section 4 of Article VII of the California Constitution.(b) The executive officer serves at the pleasure of the board.(c) The executive officer shall exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated by the board and vested in them by this chapter.(d) With the approval of the director, the board shall fix the salary of the executive officer.(e) The chairperson and executive officer may call meetings of the board and any duly appointed committee at a specified time and place. For purposes of this section, call meetings means setting the agenda, time, date, or place for any meeting of the board or any committee.(f) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1774 | 1789 | | |
|---|
| 1775 | 1790 | | 4990.04. (a) The board shall appoint an executive officer. This position is designated as a confidential position and is exempt from civil service under subdivision (e) of Section 4 of Article VII of the California Constitution.(b) The executive officer serves at the pleasure of the board.(c) The executive officer shall exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated by the board and vested in them by this chapter.(d) With the approval of the director, the board shall fix the salary of the executive officer.(e) The chairperson and executive officer may call meetings of the board and any duly appointed committee at a specified time and place. For purposes of this section, call meetings means setting the agenda, time, date, or place for any meeting of the board or any committee.(f) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1776 | 1791 | | |
|---|
| 1777 | 1792 | | |
|---|
| 1778 | 1793 | | |
|---|
| 1779 | 1794 | | 4990.04. (a) The board shall appoint an executive officer. This position is designated as a confidential position and is exempt from civil service under subdivision (e) of Section 4 of Article VII of the California Constitution. |
|---|
| 1780 | 1795 | | |
|---|
| 1781 | 1796 | | (b) The executive officer serves at the pleasure of the board. |
|---|
| 1782 | 1797 | | |
|---|
| 1783 | 1798 | | (c) The executive officer shall exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated by the board and vested in them by this chapter. |
|---|
| 1784 | 1799 | | |
|---|
| 1785 | 1800 | | (d) With the approval of the director, the board shall fix the salary of the executive officer. |
|---|
| 1786 | 1801 | | |
|---|
| 1787 | 1802 | | (e) The chairperson and executive officer may call meetings of the board and any duly appointed committee at a specified time and place. For purposes of this section, call meetings means setting the agenda, time, date, or place for any meeting of the board or any committee. |
|---|
| 1788 | 1803 | | |
|---|
| 1789 | 1804 | | (f) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 1790 | 1805 | | |
|---|
| 1791 | 1806 | | SEC. 44. Section 5600.4 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:5600.4. (a) The board shall issue, upon application and payment of the fee fixed by this chapter, a retired license to an architect who holds a license that is current and active or capable of being renewed pursuant to Section 5600.2 and whose license is not suspended, revoked, or otherwise punitively restricted by the board or subject to disciplinary action under this chapter.(b) The holder of a retired license issued pursuant to this section shall not engage in any activity for which an active architects license is required. An architect holding a retired license shall be permitted to use the title architect retired or retired architect.(c) The holder of a retired license shall not be required to renew that license.(d) In order for the holder of a retired license issued pursuant to this section to restore their license to active status, the holder of a retired license shall comply with Section 5600.2 or 5600.3, as applicable. |
|---|
| 1792 | 1807 | | |
|---|
| 1793 | 1808 | | SEC. 44. Section 5600.4 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 1794 | 1809 | | |
|---|
| 1795 | 1810 | | ### SEC. 44. |
|---|
| 1796 | 1811 | | |
|---|
| 1797 | 1812 | | 5600.4. (a) The board shall issue, upon application and payment of the fee fixed by this chapter, a retired license to an architect who holds a license that is current and active or capable of being renewed pursuant to Section 5600.2 and whose license is not suspended, revoked, or otherwise punitively restricted by the board or subject to disciplinary action under this chapter.(b) The holder of a retired license issued pursuant to this section shall not engage in any activity for which an active architects license is required. An architect holding a retired license shall be permitted to use the title architect retired or retired architect.(c) The holder of a retired license shall not be required to renew that license.(d) In order for the holder of a retired license issued pursuant to this section to restore their license to active status, the holder of a retired license shall comply with Section 5600.2 or 5600.3, as applicable. |
|---|
| 1798 | 1813 | | |
|---|
| 1799 | 1814 | | 5600.4. (a) The board shall issue, upon application and payment of the fee fixed by this chapter, a retired license to an architect who holds a license that is current and active or capable of being renewed pursuant to Section 5600.2 and whose license is not suspended, revoked, or otherwise punitively restricted by the board or subject to disciplinary action under this chapter.(b) The holder of a retired license issued pursuant to this section shall not engage in any activity for which an active architects license is required. An architect holding a retired license shall be permitted to use the title architect retired or retired architect.(c) The holder of a retired license shall not be required to renew that license.(d) In order for the holder of a retired license issued pursuant to this section to restore their license to active status, the holder of a retired license shall comply with Section 5600.2 or 5600.3, as applicable. |
|---|
| 1800 | 1815 | | |
|---|
| 1801 | 1816 | | 5600.4. (a) The board shall issue, upon application and payment of the fee fixed by this chapter, a retired license to an architect who holds a license that is current and active or capable of being renewed pursuant to Section 5600.2 and whose license is not suspended, revoked, or otherwise punitively restricted by the board or subject to disciplinary action under this chapter.(b) The holder of a retired license issued pursuant to this section shall not engage in any activity for which an active architects license is required. An architect holding a retired license shall be permitted to use the title architect retired or retired architect.(c) The holder of a retired license shall not be required to renew that license.(d) In order for the holder of a retired license issued pursuant to this section to restore their license to active status, the holder of a retired license shall comply with Section 5600.2 or 5600.3, as applicable. |
|---|
| 1802 | 1817 | | |
|---|
| 1803 | 1818 | | |
|---|
| 1804 | 1819 | | |
|---|
| 1805 | 1820 | | 5600.4. (a) The board shall issue, upon application and payment of the fee fixed by this chapter, a retired license to an architect who holds a license that is current and active or capable of being renewed pursuant to Section 5600.2 and whose license is not suspended, revoked, or otherwise punitively restricted by the board or subject to disciplinary action under this chapter. |
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| 1806 | 1821 | | |
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| 1807 | 1822 | | (b) The holder of a retired license issued pursuant to this section shall not engage in any activity for which an active architects license is required. An architect holding a retired license shall be permitted to use the title architect retired or retired architect. |
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| 1808 | 1823 | | |
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| 1809 | 1824 | | (c) The holder of a retired license shall not be required to renew that license. |
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| 1810 | 1825 | | |
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| 1811 | 1826 | | (d) In order for the holder of a retired license issued pursuant to this section to restore their license to active status, the holder of a retired license shall comply with Section 5600.2 or 5600.3, as applicable. |
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| 1812 | 1827 | | |
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| 1813 | 1828 | | SEC. 45. Section 5810 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:5810. (a) This chapter shall be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.(b) This chapter shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed. |
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| 1814 | 1829 | | |
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| 1815 | 1830 | | SEC. 45. Section 5810 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
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| 1816 | 1831 | | |
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| 1817 | 1832 | | ### SEC. 45. |
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| 1818 | 1833 | | |
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| 1819 | 1834 | | 5810. (a) This chapter shall be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.(b) This chapter shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed. |
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| 1820 | 1835 | | |
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| 1821 | 1836 | | 5810. (a) This chapter shall be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.(b) This chapter shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed. |
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| 1822 | 1837 | | |
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| 1823 | 1838 | | 5810. (a) This chapter shall be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.(b) This chapter shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed. |
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| 1824 | 1839 | | |
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| 1825 | 1840 | | |
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| 1826 | 1841 | | |
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| 1827 | 1842 | | 5810. (a) This chapter shall be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
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| 1828 | 1843 | | |
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| 1829 | 1844 | | (b) This chapter shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed. |
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| 1830 | 1845 | | |
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| 1831 | 1846 | | SEC. 46. Section 7000 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7000. This chapter constitutes, and may be cited as, the Contractors State License Law. |
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| 1832 | 1847 | | |
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| 1833 | 1848 | | SEC. 46. Section 7000 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
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| 1834 | 1849 | | |
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| 1835 | 1850 | | ### SEC. 46. |
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| 1836 | 1851 | | |
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| 1837 | 1852 | | 7000. This chapter constitutes, and may be cited as, the Contractors State License Law. |
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| 1838 | 1853 | | |
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| 1839 | 1854 | | 7000. This chapter constitutes, and may be cited as, the Contractors State License Law. |
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| 1840 | 1855 | | |
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| 1841 | 1856 | | 7000. This chapter constitutes, and may be cited as, the Contractors State License Law. |
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| 1842 | 1857 | | |
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| 1843 | 1858 | | |
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| 1844 | 1859 | | |
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| 1845 | 1860 | | 7000. This chapter constitutes, and may be cited as, the Contractors State License Law. |
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| 1846 | 1861 | | |
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| 1847 | 1862 | | SEC. 47. Section 7000.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7000.5. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs a Contractors State License Board, which consists of 15 members.(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.(c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
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| 1848 | 1863 | | |
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| 1849 | 1864 | | SEC. 47. Section 7000.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
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| 1850 | 1865 | | |
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| 1851 | 1866 | | ### SEC. 47. |
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| 1852 | 1867 | | |
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| 1853 | 1868 | | 7000.5. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs a Contractors State License Board, which consists of 15 members.(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.(c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
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| 1854 | 1869 | | |
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| 1855 | 1870 | | 7000.5. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs a Contractors State License Board, which consists of 15 members.(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.(c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
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| 1856 | 1871 | | |
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| 1857 | 1872 | | 7000.5. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs a Contractors State License Board, which consists of 15 members.(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.(c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
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| 1858 | 1873 | | |
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| 1859 | 1874 | | |
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| 1860 | 1875 | | |
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| 1861 | 1876 | | 7000.5. (a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs a Contractors State License Board, which consists of 15 members. |
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| 1862 | 1877 | | |
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| 1863 | 1878 | | (b) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
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| 1864 | 1879 | | |
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| 1865 | 1880 | | (c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
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| 1866 | 1881 | | |
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| 1867 | 1882 | | SEC. 48. Section 7000.6 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7000.6. Protection of the public shall be the highest priority for the Contractors State License Board in exercising its licensing, regulatory, and disciplinary functions. Whenever the protection of the public is inconsistent with other interests sought to be promoted, the protection of the public shall be paramount. |
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| 1868 | 1883 | | |
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| 1869 | 1884 | | SEC. 48. Section 7000.6 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
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| 1870 | 1885 | | |
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| 1871 | 1886 | | ### SEC. 48. |
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| 1872 | 1887 | | |
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| 1873 | 1888 | | 7000.6. Protection of the public shall be the highest priority for the Contractors State License Board in exercising its licensing, regulatory, and disciplinary functions. Whenever the protection of the public is inconsistent with other interests sought to be promoted, the protection of the public shall be paramount. |
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| 1874 | 1889 | | |
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| 1875 | 1890 | | 7000.6. Protection of the public shall be the highest priority for the Contractors State License Board in exercising its licensing, regulatory, and disciplinary functions. Whenever the protection of the public is inconsistent with other interests sought to be promoted, the protection of the public shall be paramount. |
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| 1876 | 1891 | | |
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| 1877 | 1892 | | 7000.6. Protection of the public shall be the highest priority for the Contractors State License Board in exercising its licensing, regulatory, and disciplinary functions. Whenever the protection of the public is inconsistent with other interests sought to be promoted, the protection of the public shall be paramount. |
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| 1878 | 1893 | | |
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| 1879 | 1894 | | |
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| 1880 | 1895 | | |
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| 1881 | 1896 | | 7000.6. Protection of the public shall be the highest priority for the Contractors State License Board in exercising its licensing, regulatory, and disciplinary functions. Whenever the protection of the public is inconsistent with other interests sought to be promoted, the protection of the public shall be paramount. |
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| 1882 | 1897 | | |
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| 1883 | 1898 | | SEC. 49. Section 7011.4 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7011.4. (a) Notwithstanding Section 7011, there is in the Contractors State License Board, a separate enforcement division that shall rigorously enforce this chapter prohibiting all forms of unlicensed activity and shall enforce the obligation to secure the payment of valid and current workers compensation insurance in accordance with Section 3700.5 of the Labor Code.(b) Persons employed as enforcement representatives of the Contractors State License Board and designated by the Director of Consumer Affairs shall have the authority to issue a written notice to appear in court pursuant to Chapter 5C (commencing with Section 853.5) of Title 3 of Part 2 of the Penal Code. An employee so designated is not a peace officer and is not entitled to safety member retirement benefits as a result of that designation. They do not have the power of arrest.(c) When participating in the activities of the Joint Enforcement Strike Force on the Underground Economy pursuant to Section 329 of the Unemployment Insurance Code, the enforcement division shall have free access to all places of labor. |
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| 1884 | 1899 | | |
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| 1885 | 1900 | | SEC. 49. Section 7011.4 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
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| 1886 | 1901 | | |
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| 1887 | 1902 | | ### SEC. 49. |
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| 1888 | 1903 | | |
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| 1889 | 1904 | | 7011.4. (a) Notwithstanding Section 7011, there is in the Contractors State License Board, a separate enforcement division that shall rigorously enforce this chapter prohibiting all forms of unlicensed activity and shall enforce the obligation to secure the payment of valid and current workers compensation insurance in accordance with Section 3700.5 of the Labor Code.(b) Persons employed as enforcement representatives of the Contractors State License Board and designated by the Director of Consumer Affairs shall have the authority to issue a written notice to appear in court pursuant to Chapter 5C (commencing with Section 853.5) of Title 3 of Part 2 of the Penal Code. An employee so designated is not a peace officer and is not entitled to safety member retirement benefits as a result of that designation. They do not have the power of arrest.(c) When participating in the activities of the Joint Enforcement Strike Force on the Underground Economy pursuant to Section 329 of the Unemployment Insurance Code, the enforcement division shall have free access to all places of labor. |
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| 1890 | 1905 | | |
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| 1891 | 1906 | | 7011.4. (a) Notwithstanding Section 7011, there is in the Contractors State License Board, a separate enforcement division that shall rigorously enforce this chapter prohibiting all forms of unlicensed activity and shall enforce the obligation to secure the payment of valid and current workers compensation insurance in accordance with Section 3700.5 of the Labor Code.(b) Persons employed as enforcement representatives of the Contractors State License Board and designated by the Director of Consumer Affairs shall have the authority to issue a written notice to appear in court pursuant to Chapter 5C (commencing with Section 853.5) of Title 3 of Part 2 of the Penal Code. An employee so designated is not a peace officer and is not entitled to safety member retirement benefits as a result of that designation. They do not have the power of arrest.(c) When participating in the activities of the Joint Enforcement Strike Force on the Underground Economy pursuant to Section 329 of the Unemployment Insurance Code, the enforcement division shall have free access to all places of labor. |
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| 1892 | 1907 | | |
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| 1893 | 1908 | | 7011.4. (a) Notwithstanding Section 7011, there is in the Contractors State License Board, a separate enforcement division that shall rigorously enforce this chapter prohibiting all forms of unlicensed activity and shall enforce the obligation to secure the payment of valid and current workers compensation insurance in accordance with Section 3700.5 of the Labor Code.(b) Persons employed as enforcement representatives of the Contractors State License Board and designated by the Director of Consumer Affairs shall have the authority to issue a written notice to appear in court pursuant to Chapter 5C (commencing with Section 853.5) of Title 3 of Part 2 of the Penal Code. An employee so designated is not a peace officer and is not entitled to safety member retirement benefits as a result of that designation. They do not have the power of arrest.(c) When participating in the activities of the Joint Enforcement Strike Force on the Underground Economy pursuant to Section 329 of the Unemployment Insurance Code, the enforcement division shall have free access to all places of labor. |
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| 1894 | 1909 | | |
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| 1895 | 1910 | | |
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| 1896 | 1911 | | |
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| 1897 | 1912 | | 7011.4. (a) Notwithstanding Section 7011, there is in the Contractors State License Board, a separate enforcement division that shall rigorously enforce this chapter prohibiting all forms of unlicensed activity and shall enforce the obligation to secure the payment of valid and current workers compensation insurance in accordance with Section 3700.5 of the Labor Code. |
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| 1898 | 1913 | | |
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| 1899 | 1914 | | (b) Persons employed as enforcement representatives of the Contractors State License Board and designated by the Director of Consumer Affairs shall have the authority to issue a written notice to appear in court pursuant to Chapter 5C (commencing with Section 853.5) of Title 3 of Part 2 of the Penal Code. An employee so designated is not a peace officer and is not entitled to safety member retirement benefits as a result of that designation. They do not have the power of arrest. |
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| 1900 | 1915 | | |
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| 1901 | 1916 | | (c) When participating in the activities of the Joint Enforcement Strike Force on the Underground Economy pursuant to Section 329 of the Unemployment Insurance Code, the enforcement division shall have free access to all places of labor. |
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| 1902 | 1917 | | |
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| 1903 | 1918 | | SEC. 50. Section 7011.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7011.5. Persons employed as investigators of the Special Investigations Unit of the Contractors State License Board and designated by the Director of Consumer Affairs have the authority of peace officers while engaged in exercising the powers granted or performing the duties imposed upon them in investigating the laws administered by the Contractors State License Board or commencing directly or indirectly any criminal prosecution arising from any investigation conducted under these laws. All persons herein referred to shall be deemed to be acting within the scope of employment with respect to all acts and matters in this section set forth. |
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| 1904 | 1919 | | |
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| 1905 | 1920 | | SEC. 50. Section 7011.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
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| 1906 | 1921 | | |
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| 1907 | 1922 | | ### SEC. 50. |
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| 1908 | 1923 | | |
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| 1909 | 1924 | | 7011.5. Persons employed as investigators of the Special Investigations Unit of the Contractors State License Board and designated by the Director of Consumer Affairs have the authority of peace officers while engaged in exercising the powers granted or performing the duties imposed upon them in investigating the laws administered by the Contractors State License Board or commencing directly or indirectly any criminal prosecution arising from any investigation conducted under these laws. All persons herein referred to shall be deemed to be acting within the scope of employment with respect to all acts and matters in this section set forth. |
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| 1910 | 1925 | | |
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| 1911 | 1926 | | 7011.5. Persons employed as investigators of the Special Investigations Unit of the Contractors State License Board and designated by the Director of Consumer Affairs have the authority of peace officers while engaged in exercising the powers granted or performing the duties imposed upon them in investigating the laws administered by the Contractors State License Board or commencing directly or indirectly any criminal prosecution arising from any investigation conducted under these laws. All persons herein referred to shall be deemed to be acting within the scope of employment with respect to all acts and matters in this section set forth. |
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| 1912 | 1927 | | |
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| 1913 | 1928 | | 7011.5. Persons employed as investigators of the Special Investigations Unit of the Contractors State License Board and designated by the Director of Consumer Affairs have the authority of peace officers while engaged in exercising the powers granted or performing the duties imposed upon them in investigating the laws administered by the Contractors State License Board or commencing directly or indirectly any criminal prosecution arising from any investigation conducted under these laws. All persons herein referred to shall be deemed to be acting within the scope of employment with respect to all acts and matters in this section set forth. |
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| 1914 | 1929 | | |
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| 1915 | 1930 | | |
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| 1916 | 1931 | | |
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| 1917 | 1932 | | 7011.5. Persons employed as investigators of the Special Investigations Unit of the Contractors State License Board and designated by the Director of Consumer Affairs have the authority of peace officers while engaged in exercising the powers granted or performing the duties imposed upon them in investigating the laws administered by the Contractors State License Board or commencing directly or indirectly any criminal prosecution arising from any investigation conducted under these laws. All persons herein referred to shall be deemed to be acting within the scope of employment with respect to all acts and matters in this section set forth. |
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| 1918 | 1933 | | |
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| 1919 | 1934 | | SEC. 51. Section 7011.8 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7011.8. (a) Any person subject to licensure under this chapter who reports to, or causes a complaint to be filed with, the Contractors State License Board that a person licensed by that entity has engaged in professional misconduct, knowing the report or complaint to be false, may be issued a citation by the registrar.(b) The board may notify the appropriate district attorney or city attorney that a person subject to licensure under this chapter has made or filed what the entity believes to be a false report or complaint against a licensee. |
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| 1920 | 1935 | | |
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| 1921 | 1936 | | SEC. 51. Section 7011.8 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
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| 1922 | 1937 | | |
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| 1923 | 1938 | | ### SEC. 51. |
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| 1924 | 1939 | | |
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| 1925 | 1940 | | 7011.8. (a) Any person subject to licensure under this chapter who reports to, or causes a complaint to be filed with, the Contractors State License Board that a person licensed by that entity has engaged in professional misconduct, knowing the report or complaint to be false, may be issued a citation by the registrar.(b) The board may notify the appropriate district attorney or city attorney that a person subject to licensure under this chapter has made or filed what the entity believes to be a false report or complaint against a licensee. |
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| 1926 | 1941 | | |
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| 1927 | 1942 | | 7011.8. (a) Any person subject to licensure under this chapter who reports to, or causes a complaint to be filed with, the Contractors State License Board that a person licensed by that entity has engaged in professional misconduct, knowing the report or complaint to be false, may be issued a citation by the registrar.(b) The board may notify the appropriate district attorney or city attorney that a person subject to licensure under this chapter has made or filed what the entity believes to be a false report or complaint against a licensee. |
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| 1928 | 1943 | | |
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| 1929 | 1944 | | 7011.8. (a) Any person subject to licensure under this chapter who reports to, or causes a complaint to be filed with, the Contractors State License Board that a person licensed by that entity has engaged in professional misconduct, knowing the report or complaint to be false, may be issued a citation by the registrar.(b) The board may notify the appropriate district attorney or city attorney that a person subject to licensure under this chapter has made or filed what the entity believes to be a false report or complaint against a licensee. |
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| 1930 | 1945 | | |
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| 1931 | 1946 | | |
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| 1932 | 1947 | | |
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| 1933 | 1948 | | 7011.8. (a) Any person subject to licensure under this chapter who reports to, or causes a complaint to be filed with, the Contractors State License Board that a person licensed by that entity has engaged in professional misconduct, knowing the report or complaint to be false, may be issued a citation by the registrar. |
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| 1934 | 1949 | | |
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| 1935 | 1950 | | (b) The board may notify the appropriate district attorney or city attorney that a person subject to licensure under this chapter has made or filed what the entity believes to be a false report or complaint against a licensee. |
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| 1936 | 1951 | | |
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| 1937 | 1952 | | SEC. 52. Section 7015 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7015. The board shall adopt a seal for its own use. The seal shall have the words Contractors State License Board, State of California, Department of Consumer Affairs, and the care and custody thereof shall be in the hands of the registrar. |
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| 1938 | 1953 | | |
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| 1939 | 1954 | | SEC. 52. Section 7015 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
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| 1940 | 1955 | | |
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| 1941 | 1956 | | ### SEC. 52. |
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| 1942 | 1957 | | |
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| 1943 | 1958 | | 7015. The board shall adopt a seal for its own use. The seal shall have the words Contractors State License Board, State of California, Department of Consumer Affairs, and the care and custody thereof shall be in the hands of the registrar. |
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| 1944 | 1959 | | |
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| 1945 | 1960 | | 7015. The board shall adopt a seal for its own use. The seal shall have the words Contractors State License Board, State of California, Department of Consumer Affairs, and the care and custody thereof shall be in the hands of the registrar. |
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| 1946 | 1961 | | |
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| 1947 | 1962 | | 7015. The board shall adopt a seal for its own use. The seal shall have the words Contractors State License Board, State of California, Department of Consumer Affairs, and the care and custody thereof shall be in the hands of the registrar. |
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| 1948 | 1963 | | |
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| 1949 | 1964 | | |
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| 1950 | 1965 | | |
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| 1951 | 1966 | | 7015. The board shall adopt a seal for its own use. The seal shall have the words Contractors State License Board, State of California, Department of Consumer Affairs, and the care and custody thereof shall be in the hands of the registrar. |
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| 1952 | 1967 | | |
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| 1953 | 1968 | | SEC. 53. Section 7017.3 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7017.3. The Contractors State License Board shall report annually to the Legislature, not later than October 1 of each year, the following statistical information for the prior fiscal year. The following data shall be reported on complaints filed with the board against licensed contractors, registered home improvement salespersons, and unlicensed persons acting as licensees or registrants:(a) The number of complaints received by the board categorized by source, such as public, trade, profession, government agency, or board-initiated, and by type of complaint, such as licensee or nonlicensee.(b) The number of complaints closed prior to referral for field investigation, categorized by the reason for the closure, such as settled, referred for mandatory arbitration, or referred for voluntary arbitration.(c) The number of complaints referred for field investigation categorized by the type of complaint, such as licensee or nonlicensee.(d) The number of complaints closed after referral for field investigation categorized by the reason for the closure, such as settled, referred for mandatory arbitration, or referred for voluntary arbitration.(e) For the boards Intake/Mediation Center and the boards Investigation Center closures, respectively, the total number of complaints closed prior to a field investigation per consumer services representative, and the total number of complaints closed after referral for a field investigation per enforcement representative. Additionally, the board shall report the total number of complaints closed by other board staff during the year.(f) The number of complaints pending at the end of the fiscal year grouped in 90-day increments, and the percentage of total complaints pending, represented by the number of complaints in each grouping.(g) The number of citations issued to licensees categorized by the type of citation such as order of correction only or order of correction and fine, and the number of citations issued to licensees that were vacated or withdrawn.(h) The number of citations issued to nonlicensees and the number of these citations that were vacated or withdrawn.(i) The number of complaints referred to a local prosecutor for criminal investigation or prosecution, the number of complaints referred to the Attorney General for the filing of an accusation, and the number of complaints referred to both a local prosecutor and the Attorney General, categorized by type of complaint, such as licensee and nonlicensee.(j) Actions taken by the board, including, but not limited to, the following:(1) The number of disciplinary actions categorized by type, such as revocations or suspensions, categorized by whether the disciplinary action resulted from an accusation, failure to comply with a citation, or failure to comply with an arbitration award.(2) The number of accusations dismissed or withdrawn.(k) For subdivisions (g) and (j), the number of cases containing violations of Sections 7121 and 7121.5, and paragraph (5) of subdivision (a) of Section 7159.5, categorized by section.(l) The number of interim suspension orders sought, the number of interim suspension orders granted, the number of temporary restraining orders sought, and the number of temporary restraining orders granted.(m) The amount of cost recovery ordered and the amount collected.(n) Case aging data, including data for each major stage of the enforcement process, including the following:(1) The average number of days from the filing of a complaint to its closure by the boards Intake/Mediation Center prior to the referral for an investigation categorized by the type of complaint, such as licensee or nonlicensee.(2) The average number of days from the referral of a complaint for an investigation to its closure by the Investigation Center categorized by the type of complaint, such as licensee or nonlicensee.(3) The average number of days from the filing of a complaint to the referral of the completed investigation to the Attorney General.(4) The average number of days from the referral of a completed investigation to the Attorney General to the filing of an accusation by the Attorney General.(5) The average number of days from the filing of an accusation to the first hearing date or date of a stipulated settlement.(6) The average number of days from the receipt of the Administrative Law Judges proposed decision to the registrars final decision. |
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| 1954 | 1969 | | |
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| 1955 | 1970 | | SEC. 53. Section 7017.3 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
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| 1956 | 1971 | | |
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| 1957 | 1972 | | ### SEC. 53. |
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| 1958 | 1973 | | |
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| 1959 | 1974 | | 7017.3. The Contractors State License Board shall report annually to the Legislature, not later than October 1 of each year, the following statistical information for the prior fiscal year. The following data shall be reported on complaints filed with the board against licensed contractors, registered home improvement salespersons, and unlicensed persons acting as licensees or registrants:(a) The number of complaints received by the board categorized by source, such as public, trade, profession, government agency, or board-initiated, and by type of complaint, such as licensee or nonlicensee.(b) The number of complaints closed prior to referral for field investigation, categorized by the reason for the closure, such as settled, referred for mandatory arbitration, or referred for voluntary arbitration.(c) The number of complaints referred for field investigation categorized by the type of complaint, such as licensee or nonlicensee.(d) The number of complaints closed after referral for field investigation categorized by the reason for the closure, such as settled, referred for mandatory arbitration, or referred for voluntary arbitration.(e) For the boards Intake/Mediation Center and the boards Investigation Center closures, respectively, the total number of complaints closed prior to a field investigation per consumer services representative, and the total number of complaints closed after referral for a field investigation per enforcement representative. Additionally, the board shall report the total number of complaints closed by other board staff during the year.(f) The number of complaints pending at the end of the fiscal year grouped in 90-day increments, and the percentage of total complaints pending, represented by the number of complaints in each grouping.(g) The number of citations issued to licensees categorized by the type of citation such as order of correction only or order of correction and fine, and the number of citations issued to licensees that were vacated or withdrawn.(h) The number of citations issued to nonlicensees and the number of these citations that were vacated or withdrawn.(i) The number of complaints referred to a local prosecutor for criminal investigation or prosecution, the number of complaints referred to the Attorney General for the filing of an accusation, and the number of complaints referred to both a local prosecutor and the Attorney General, categorized by type of complaint, such as licensee and nonlicensee.(j) Actions taken by the board, including, but not limited to, the following:(1) The number of disciplinary actions categorized by type, such as revocations or suspensions, categorized by whether the disciplinary action resulted from an accusation, failure to comply with a citation, or failure to comply with an arbitration award.(2) The number of accusations dismissed or withdrawn.(k) For subdivisions (g) and (j), the number of cases containing violations of Sections 7121 and 7121.5, and paragraph (5) of subdivision (a) of Section 7159.5, categorized by section.(l) The number of interim suspension orders sought, the number of interim suspension orders granted, the number of temporary restraining orders sought, and the number of temporary restraining orders granted.(m) The amount of cost recovery ordered and the amount collected.(n) Case aging data, including data for each major stage of the enforcement process, including the following:(1) The average number of days from the filing of a complaint to its closure by the boards Intake/Mediation Center prior to the referral for an investigation categorized by the type of complaint, such as licensee or nonlicensee.(2) The average number of days from the referral of a complaint for an investigation to its closure by the Investigation Center categorized by the type of complaint, such as licensee or nonlicensee.(3) The average number of days from the filing of a complaint to the referral of the completed investigation to the Attorney General.(4) The average number of days from the referral of a completed investigation to the Attorney General to the filing of an accusation by the Attorney General.(5) The average number of days from the filing of an accusation to the first hearing date or date of a stipulated settlement.(6) The average number of days from the receipt of the Administrative Law Judges proposed decision to the registrars final decision. |
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| 1960 | 1975 | | |
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| 1961 | 1976 | | 7017.3. The Contractors State License Board shall report annually to the Legislature, not later than October 1 of each year, the following statistical information for the prior fiscal year. The following data shall be reported on complaints filed with the board against licensed contractors, registered home improvement salespersons, and unlicensed persons acting as licensees or registrants:(a) The number of complaints received by the board categorized by source, such as public, trade, profession, government agency, or board-initiated, and by type of complaint, such as licensee or nonlicensee.(b) The number of complaints closed prior to referral for field investigation, categorized by the reason for the closure, such as settled, referred for mandatory arbitration, or referred for voluntary arbitration.(c) The number of complaints referred for field investigation categorized by the type of complaint, such as licensee or nonlicensee.(d) The number of complaints closed after referral for field investigation categorized by the reason for the closure, such as settled, referred for mandatory arbitration, or referred for voluntary arbitration.(e) For the boards Intake/Mediation Center and the boards Investigation Center closures, respectively, the total number of complaints closed prior to a field investigation per consumer services representative, and the total number of complaints closed after referral for a field investigation per enforcement representative. Additionally, the board shall report the total number of complaints closed by other board staff during the year.(f) The number of complaints pending at the end of the fiscal year grouped in 90-day increments, and the percentage of total complaints pending, represented by the number of complaints in each grouping.(g) The number of citations issued to licensees categorized by the type of citation such as order of correction only or order of correction and fine, and the number of citations issued to licensees that were vacated or withdrawn.(h) The number of citations issued to nonlicensees and the number of these citations that were vacated or withdrawn.(i) The number of complaints referred to a local prosecutor for criminal investigation or prosecution, the number of complaints referred to the Attorney General for the filing of an accusation, and the number of complaints referred to both a local prosecutor and the Attorney General, categorized by type of complaint, such as licensee and nonlicensee.(j) Actions taken by the board, including, but not limited to, the following:(1) The number of disciplinary actions categorized by type, such as revocations or suspensions, categorized by whether the disciplinary action resulted from an accusation, failure to comply with a citation, or failure to comply with an arbitration award.(2) The number of accusations dismissed or withdrawn.(k) For subdivisions (g) and (j), the number of cases containing violations of Sections 7121 and 7121.5, and paragraph (5) of subdivision (a) of Section 7159.5, categorized by section.(l) The number of interim suspension orders sought, the number of interim suspension orders granted, the number of temporary restraining orders sought, and the number of temporary restraining orders granted.(m) The amount of cost recovery ordered and the amount collected.(n) Case aging data, including data for each major stage of the enforcement process, including the following:(1) The average number of days from the filing of a complaint to its closure by the boards Intake/Mediation Center prior to the referral for an investigation categorized by the type of complaint, such as licensee or nonlicensee.(2) The average number of days from the referral of a complaint for an investigation to its closure by the Investigation Center categorized by the type of complaint, such as licensee or nonlicensee.(3) The average number of days from the filing of a complaint to the referral of the completed investigation to the Attorney General.(4) The average number of days from the referral of a completed investigation to the Attorney General to the filing of an accusation by the Attorney General.(5) The average number of days from the filing of an accusation to the first hearing date or date of a stipulated settlement.(6) The average number of days from the receipt of the Administrative Law Judges proposed decision to the registrars final decision. |
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| 1962 | 1977 | | |
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| 1963 | 1978 | | 7017.3. The Contractors State License Board shall report annually to the Legislature, not later than October 1 of each year, the following statistical information for the prior fiscal year. The following data shall be reported on complaints filed with the board against licensed contractors, registered home improvement salespersons, and unlicensed persons acting as licensees or registrants:(a) The number of complaints received by the board categorized by source, such as public, trade, profession, government agency, or board-initiated, and by type of complaint, such as licensee or nonlicensee.(b) The number of complaints closed prior to referral for field investigation, categorized by the reason for the closure, such as settled, referred for mandatory arbitration, or referred for voluntary arbitration.(c) The number of complaints referred for field investigation categorized by the type of complaint, such as licensee or nonlicensee.(d) The number of complaints closed after referral for field investigation categorized by the reason for the closure, such as settled, referred for mandatory arbitration, or referred for voluntary arbitration.(e) For the boards Intake/Mediation Center and the boards Investigation Center closures, respectively, the total number of complaints closed prior to a field investigation per consumer services representative, and the total number of complaints closed after referral for a field investigation per enforcement representative. Additionally, the board shall report the total number of complaints closed by other board staff during the year.(f) The number of complaints pending at the end of the fiscal year grouped in 90-day increments, and the percentage of total complaints pending, represented by the number of complaints in each grouping.(g) The number of citations issued to licensees categorized by the type of citation such as order of correction only or order of correction and fine, and the number of citations issued to licensees that were vacated or withdrawn.(h) The number of citations issued to nonlicensees and the number of these citations that were vacated or withdrawn.(i) The number of complaints referred to a local prosecutor for criminal investigation or prosecution, the number of complaints referred to the Attorney General for the filing of an accusation, and the number of complaints referred to both a local prosecutor and the Attorney General, categorized by type of complaint, such as licensee and nonlicensee.(j) Actions taken by the board, including, but not limited to, the following:(1) The number of disciplinary actions categorized by type, such as revocations or suspensions, categorized by whether the disciplinary action resulted from an accusation, failure to comply with a citation, or failure to comply with an arbitration award.(2) The number of accusations dismissed or withdrawn.(k) For subdivisions (g) and (j), the number of cases containing violations of Sections 7121 and 7121.5, and paragraph (5) of subdivision (a) of Section 7159.5, categorized by section.(l) The number of interim suspension orders sought, the number of interim suspension orders granted, the number of temporary restraining orders sought, and the number of temporary restraining orders granted.(m) The amount of cost recovery ordered and the amount collected.(n) Case aging data, including data for each major stage of the enforcement process, including the following:(1) The average number of days from the filing of a complaint to its closure by the boards Intake/Mediation Center prior to the referral for an investigation categorized by the type of complaint, such as licensee or nonlicensee.(2) The average number of days from the referral of a complaint for an investigation to its closure by the Investigation Center categorized by the type of complaint, such as licensee or nonlicensee.(3) The average number of days from the filing of a complaint to the referral of the completed investigation to the Attorney General.(4) The average number of days from the referral of a completed investigation to the Attorney General to the filing of an accusation by the Attorney General.(5) The average number of days from the filing of an accusation to the first hearing date or date of a stipulated settlement.(6) The average number of days from the receipt of the Administrative Law Judges proposed decision to the registrars final decision. |
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| 1964 | 1979 | | |
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| 1965 | 1980 | | |
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| 1966 | 1981 | | |
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| 1967 | 1982 | | 7017.3. The Contractors State License Board shall report annually to the Legislature, not later than October 1 of each year, the following statistical information for the prior fiscal year. The following data shall be reported on complaints filed with the board against licensed contractors, registered home improvement salespersons, and unlicensed persons acting as licensees or registrants: |
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| 1968 | 1983 | | |
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| 1969 | 1984 | | (a) The number of complaints received by the board categorized by source, such as public, trade, profession, government agency, or board-initiated, and by type of complaint, such as licensee or nonlicensee. |
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| 1970 | 1985 | | |
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| 1971 | 1986 | | (b) The number of complaints closed prior to referral for field investigation, categorized by the reason for the closure, such as settled, referred for mandatory arbitration, or referred for voluntary arbitration. |
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| 1972 | 1987 | | |
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| 1973 | 1988 | | (c) The number of complaints referred for field investigation categorized by the type of complaint, such as licensee or nonlicensee. |
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| 1974 | 1989 | | |
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| 1975 | 1990 | | (d) The number of complaints closed after referral for field investigation categorized by the reason for the closure, such as settled, referred for mandatory arbitration, or referred for voluntary arbitration. |
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| 1976 | 1991 | | |
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| 1977 | 1992 | | (e) For the boards Intake/Mediation Center and the boards Investigation Center closures, respectively, the total number of complaints closed prior to a field investigation per consumer services representative, and the total number of complaints closed after referral for a field investigation per enforcement representative. Additionally, the board shall report the total number of complaints closed by other board staff during the year. |
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| 1978 | 1993 | | |
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| 1979 | 1994 | | (f) The number of complaints pending at the end of the fiscal year grouped in 90-day increments, and the percentage of total complaints pending, represented by the number of complaints in each grouping. |
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| 1980 | 1995 | | |
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| 1981 | 1996 | | (g) The number of citations issued to licensees categorized by the type of citation such as order of correction only or order of correction and fine, and the number of citations issued to licensees that were vacated or withdrawn. |
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| 1982 | 1997 | | |
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| 1983 | 1998 | | (h) The number of citations issued to nonlicensees and the number of these citations that were vacated or withdrawn. |
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| 1984 | 1999 | | |
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| 1985 | 2000 | | (i) The number of complaints referred to a local prosecutor for criminal investigation or prosecution, the number of complaints referred to the Attorney General for the filing of an accusation, and the number of complaints referred to both a local prosecutor and the Attorney General, categorized by type of complaint, such as licensee and nonlicensee. |
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| 1986 | 2001 | | |
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| 1987 | 2002 | | (j) Actions taken by the board, including, but not limited to, the following: |
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| 1988 | 2003 | | |
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| 1989 | 2004 | | (1) The number of disciplinary actions categorized by type, such as revocations or suspensions, categorized by whether the disciplinary action resulted from an accusation, failure to comply with a citation, or failure to comply with an arbitration award. |
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| 1990 | 2005 | | |
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| 1991 | 2006 | | (2) The number of accusations dismissed or withdrawn. |
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| 1992 | 2007 | | |
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| 1993 | 2008 | | (k) For subdivisions (g) and (j), the number of cases containing violations of Sections 7121 and 7121.5, and paragraph (5) of subdivision (a) of Section 7159.5, categorized by section. |
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| 1994 | 2009 | | |
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| 1995 | 2010 | | (l) The number of interim suspension orders sought, the number of interim suspension orders granted, the number of temporary restraining orders sought, and the number of temporary restraining orders granted. |
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| 1996 | 2011 | | |
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| 1997 | 2012 | | (m) The amount of cost recovery ordered and the amount collected. |
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| 1998 | 2013 | | |
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| 1999 | 2014 | | (n) Case aging data, including data for each major stage of the enforcement process, including the following: |
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| 2000 | 2015 | | |
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| 2001 | 2016 | | (1) The average number of days from the filing of a complaint to its closure by the boards Intake/Mediation Center prior to the referral for an investigation categorized by the type of complaint, such as licensee or nonlicensee. |
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| 2002 | 2017 | | |
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| 2003 | 2018 | | (2) The average number of days from the referral of a complaint for an investigation to its closure by the Investigation Center categorized by the type of complaint, such as licensee or nonlicensee. |
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| 2004 | 2019 | | |
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| 2005 | 2020 | | (3) The average number of days from the filing of a complaint to the referral of the completed investigation to the Attorney General. |
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| 2006 | 2021 | | |
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| 2007 | 2022 | | (4) The average number of days from the referral of a completed investigation to the Attorney General to the filing of an accusation by the Attorney General. |
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| 2008 | 2023 | | |
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| 2009 | 2024 | | (5) The average number of days from the filing of an accusation to the first hearing date or date of a stipulated settlement. |
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| 2010 | 2025 | | |
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| 2011 | 2026 | | (6) The average number of days from the receipt of the Administrative Law Judges proposed decision to the registrars final decision. |
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| 2012 | 2027 | | |
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| 2013 | 2028 | | SEC. 54. Section 7028.7 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7028.7. (a) If upon inspection or investigation, either upon complaint or otherwise, the registrar has probable cause to believe that a person is acting in the capacity of or engaging in the business of a contractor or salesperson within this state without having a license or registration in good standing to so act or engage, and the person is not otherwise exempted from this chapter, the registrar shall issue a citation to that person.(b) Within 72 hours of receiving notice that a public entity is intending to award, or has awarded, a contract to an unlicensed contractor, the registrar shall give written notice to the public entity that a citation may be issued if a contract is awarded to an unlicensed contractor. If after receiving the written notice from the registrar that the public entity has awarded or awards the contract to an unlicensed contractor, the registrar may issue a citation to the responsible officer or employee of the public entity as specified in Section 7028.15.(c) Each citation shall be in writing and shall describe with particularity the basis of the citation. Notwithstanding Sections 125.9 and 148, each citation shall contain an order of abatement and an assessment of a civil penalty in an amount not less than two hundred dollars ($200) nor more than fifteen thousand dollars ($15,000).(d) With the approval of the Contractors State License Board, the registrar shall prescribe procedures for the issuance of a citation under this section. The board shall adopt regulations covering the assessment of a civil penalty that shall give due consideration to the gravity of the violation, and any history of previous violations.(e) The sanctions authorized under this section shall be separate from, and in addition to, all other remedies either civil or criminal. |
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| 2014 | 2029 | | |
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| 2015 | 2030 | | SEC. 54. Section 7028.7 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
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| 2016 | 2031 | | |
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| 2017 | 2032 | | ### SEC. 54. |
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| 2018 | 2033 | | |
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| 2019 | 2034 | | 7028.7. (a) If upon inspection or investigation, either upon complaint or otherwise, the registrar has probable cause to believe that a person is acting in the capacity of or engaging in the business of a contractor or salesperson within this state without having a license or registration in good standing to so act or engage, and the person is not otherwise exempted from this chapter, the registrar shall issue a citation to that person.(b) Within 72 hours of receiving notice that a public entity is intending to award, or has awarded, a contract to an unlicensed contractor, the registrar shall give written notice to the public entity that a citation may be issued if a contract is awarded to an unlicensed contractor. If after receiving the written notice from the registrar that the public entity has awarded or awards the contract to an unlicensed contractor, the registrar may issue a citation to the responsible officer or employee of the public entity as specified in Section 7028.15.(c) Each citation shall be in writing and shall describe with particularity the basis of the citation. Notwithstanding Sections 125.9 and 148, each citation shall contain an order of abatement and an assessment of a civil penalty in an amount not less than two hundred dollars ($200) nor more than fifteen thousand dollars ($15,000).(d) With the approval of the Contractors State License Board, the registrar shall prescribe procedures for the issuance of a citation under this section. The board shall adopt regulations covering the assessment of a civil penalty that shall give due consideration to the gravity of the violation, and any history of previous violations.(e) The sanctions authorized under this section shall be separate from, and in addition to, all other remedies either civil or criminal. |
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| 2020 | 2035 | | |
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| 2021 | 2036 | | 7028.7. (a) If upon inspection or investigation, either upon complaint or otherwise, the registrar has probable cause to believe that a person is acting in the capacity of or engaging in the business of a contractor or salesperson within this state without having a license or registration in good standing to so act or engage, and the person is not otherwise exempted from this chapter, the registrar shall issue a citation to that person.(b) Within 72 hours of receiving notice that a public entity is intending to award, or has awarded, a contract to an unlicensed contractor, the registrar shall give written notice to the public entity that a citation may be issued if a contract is awarded to an unlicensed contractor. If after receiving the written notice from the registrar that the public entity has awarded or awards the contract to an unlicensed contractor, the registrar may issue a citation to the responsible officer or employee of the public entity as specified in Section 7028.15.(c) Each citation shall be in writing and shall describe with particularity the basis of the citation. Notwithstanding Sections 125.9 and 148, each citation shall contain an order of abatement and an assessment of a civil penalty in an amount not less than two hundred dollars ($200) nor more than fifteen thousand dollars ($15,000).(d) With the approval of the Contractors State License Board, the registrar shall prescribe procedures for the issuance of a citation under this section. The board shall adopt regulations covering the assessment of a civil penalty that shall give due consideration to the gravity of the violation, and any history of previous violations.(e) The sanctions authorized under this section shall be separate from, and in addition to, all other remedies either civil or criminal. |
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| 2022 | 2037 | | |
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| 2023 | 2038 | | 7028.7. (a) If upon inspection or investigation, either upon complaint or otherwise, the registrar has probable cause to believe that a person is acting in the capacity of or engaging in the business of a contractor or salesperson within this state without having a license or registration in good standing to so act or engage, and the person is not otherwise exempted from this chapter, the registrar shall issue a citation to that person.(b) Within 72 hours of receiving notice that a public entity is intending to award, or has awarded, a contract to an unlicensed contractor, the registrar shall give written notice to the public entity that a citation may be issued if a contract is awarded to an unlicensed contractor. If after receiving the written notice from the registrar that the public entity has awarded or awards the contract to an unlicensed contractor, the registrar may issue a citation to the responsible officer or employee of the public entity as specified in Section 7028.15.(c) Each citation shall be in writing and shall describe with particularity the basis of the citation. Notwithstanding Sections 125.9 and 148, each citation shall contain an order of abatement and an assessment of a civil penalty in an amount not less than two hundred dollars ($200) nor more than fifteen thousand dollars ($15,000).(d) With the approval of the Contractors State License Board, the registrar shall prescribe procedures for the issuance of a citation under this section. The board shall adopt regulations covering the assessment of a civil penalty that shall give due consideration to the gravity of the violation, and any history of previous violations.(e) The sanctions authorized under this section shall be separate from, and in addition to, all other remedies either civil or criminal. |
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| 2024 | 2039 | | |
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| 2025 | 2040 | | |
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| 2026 | 2041 | | |
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| 2027 | 2042 | | 7028.7. (a) If upon inspection or investigation, either upon complaint or otherwise, the registrar has probable cause to believe that a person is acting in the capacity of or engaging in the business of a contractor or salesperson within this state without having a license or registration in good standing to so act or engage, and the person is not otherwise exempted from this chapter, the registrar shall issue a citation to that person. |
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| 2028 | 2043 | | |
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| 2029 | 2044 | | (b) Within 72 hours of receiving notice that a public entity is intending to award, or has awarded, a contract to an unlicensed contractor, the registrar shall give written notice to the public entity that a citation may be issued if a contract is awarded to an unlicensed contractor. If after receiving the written notice from the registrar that the public entity has awarded or awards the contract to an unlicensed contractor, the registrar may issue a citation to the responsible officer or employee of the public entity as specified in Section 7028.15. |
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| 2030 | 2045 | | |
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| 2031 | 2046 | | (c) Each citation shall be in writing and shall describe with particularity the basis of the citation. Notwithstanding Sections 125.9 and 148, each citation shall contain an order of abatement and an assessment of a civil penalty in an amount not less than two hundred dollars ($200) nor more than fifteen thousand dollars ($15,000). |
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| 2032 | 2047 | | |
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| 2033 | 2048 | | (d) With the approval of the Contractors State License Board, the registrar shall prescribe procedures for the issuance of a citation under this section. The board shall adopt regulations covering the assessment of a civil penalty that shall give due consideration to the gravity of the violation, and any history of previous violations. |
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| 2034 | 2049 | | |
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| 2035 | 2050 | | (e) The sanctions authorized under this section shall be separate from, and in addition to, all other remedies either civil or criminal. |
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| 2036 | 2051 | | |
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| 2037 | 2052 | | SEC. 55. Section 7030 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7030. (a) Except for contractors writing home improvement contracts pursuant to Section 7151.2 and contractors writing service and repair contracts pursuant to Section 7159.10, every person licensed pursuant to this chapter shall include the following statement in at least 10-point type on all written contracts with respect to which the person is a prime contractor: Contractors are required by law to be licensed and regulated by the Contractors State License Board which has jurisdiction to investigate complaints against contractors if a complaint regarding a patent act or omission is filed within four years of the date of the alleged violation. A complaint regarding a latent act or omission pertaining to structural defects must be filed within 10 years of the date of the alleged violation. Any questions concerning a contractor may be referred to the Registrar, Contractors State License Board, P.O. Box 26000, Sacramento, CA 95826. (b) Every person licensed pursuant to this chapter shall include the following statement in at least 12-point type in all home improvement contracts written pursuant to Section 7151.2 and service and repair contracts written pursuant to Section 7159.10: Information about the Contractors State License Board (CSLB): CSLB is the state consumer protection agency that licenses and regulates construction contractors.Contact CSLB for information about the licensed contractor you are considering, including information about disclosable complaints, disciplinary actions and civil judgments that are reported to CSLB.Use only licensed contractors. If you file a complaint against a licensed contractor within the legal deadline (usually four years), CSLB has authority to investigate the complaint. If you use an unlicensed contractor, CSLB may not be able to help you resolve your complaint. Your only remedy may be in civil court, and you may be liable for damages arising out of any injuries to the unlicensed contractor or the unlicensed contractors employees.For more information:Visit CSLBs internet website at www.cslb.ca.govCall CSLB at 800-321-CSLB (2752)Write CSLB at P.O. Box 26000, Sacramento, CA 95826. (c) Failure to comply with the notice requirements set forth in subdivision (a) or (b) of this section is cause for disciplinary action. |
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| 2038 | 2053 | | |
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| 2039 | 2054 | | SEC. 55. Section 7030 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
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| 2040 | 2055 | | |
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| 2041 | 2056 | | ### SEC. 55. |
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| 2042 | 2057 | | |
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| 2043 | 2058 | | 7030. (a) Except for contractors writing home improvement contracts pursuant to Section 7151.2 and contractors writing service and repair contracts pursuant to Section 7159.10, every person licensed pursuant to this chapter shall include the following statement in at least 10-point type on all written contracts with respect to which the person is a prime contractor: Contractors are required by law to be licensed and regulated by the Contractors State License Board which has jurisdiction to investigate complaints against contractors if a complaint regarding a patent act or omission is filed within four years of the date of the alleged violation. A complaint regarding a latent act or omission pertaining to structural defects must be filed within 10 years of the date of the alleged violation. Any questions concerning a contractor may be referred to the Registrar, Contractors State License Board, P.O. Box 26000, Sacramento, CA 95826. (b) Every person licensed pursuant to this chapter shall include the following statement in at least 12-point type in all home improvement contracts written pursuant to Section 7151.2 and service and repair contracts written pursuant to Section 7159.10: Information about the Contractors State License Board (CSLB): CSLB is the state consumer protection agency that licenses and regulates construction contractors.Contact CSLB for information about the licensed contractor you are considering, including information about disclosable complaints, disciplinary actions and civil judgments that are reported to CSLB.Use only licensed contractors. If you file a complaint against a licensed contractor within the legal deadline (usually four years), CSLB has authority to investigate the complaint. If you use an unlicensed contractor, CSLB may not be able to help you resolve your complaint. Your only remedy may be in civil court, and you may be liable for damages arising out of any injuries to the unlicensed contractor or the unlicensed contractors employees.For more information:Visit CSLBs internet website at www.cslb.ca.govCall CSLB at 800-321-CSLB (2752)Write CSLB at P.O. Box 26000, Sacramento, CA 95826. (c) Failure to comply with the notice requirements set forth in subdivision (a) or (b) of this section is cause for disciplinary action. |
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| 2044 | 2059 | | |
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| 2045 | 2060 | | 7030. (a) Except for contractors writing home improvement contracts pursuant to Section 7151.2 and contractors writing service and repair contracts pursuant to Section 7159.10, every person licensed pursuant to this chapter shall include the following statement in at least 10-point type on all written contracts with respect to which the person is a prime contractor: Contractors are required by law to be licensed and regulated by the Contractors State License Board which has jurisdiction to investigate complaints against contractors if a complaint regarding a patent act or omission is filed within four years of the date of the alleged violation. A complaint regarding a latent act or omission pertaining to structural defects must be filed within 10 years of the date of the alleged violation. Any questions concerning a contractor may be referred to the Registrar, Contractors State License Board, P.O. Box 26000, Sacramento, CA 95826. (b) Every person licensed pursuant to this chapter shall include the following statement in at least 12-point type in all home improvement contracts written pursuant to Section 7151.2 and service and repair contracts written pursuant to Section 7159.10: Information about the Contractors State License Board (CSLB): CSLB is the state consumer protection agency that licenses and regulates construction contractors.Contact CSLB for information about the licensed contractor you are considering, including information about disclosable complaints, disciplinary actions and civil judgments that are reported to CSLB.Use only licensed contractors. If you file a complaint against a licensed contractor within the legal deadline (usually four years), CSLB has authority to investigate the complaint. If you use an unlicensed contractor, CSLB may not be able to help you resolve your complaint. Your only remedy may be in civil court, and you may be liable for damages arising out of any injuries to the unlicensed contractor or the unlicensed contractors employees.For more information:Visit CSLBs internet website at www.cslb.ca.govCall CSLB at 800-321-CSLB (2752)Write CSLB at P.O. Box 26000, Sacramento, CA 95826. (c) Failure to comply with the notice requirements set forth in subdivision (a) or (b) of this section is cause for disciplinary action. |
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| 2046 | 2061 | | |
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| 2047 | 2062 | | 7030. (a) Except for contractors writing home improvement contracts pursuant to Section 7151.2 and contractors writing service and repair contracts pursuant to Section 7159.10, every person licensed pursuant to this chapter shall include the following statement in at least 10-point type on all written contracts with respect to which the person is a prime contractor: Contractors are required by law to be licensed and regulated by the Contractors State License Board which has jurisdiction to investigate complaints against contractors if a complaint regarding a patent act or omission is filed within four years of the date of the alleged violation. A complaint regarding a latent act or omission pertaining to structural defects must be filed within 10 years of the date of the alleged violation. Any questions concerning a contractor may be referred to the Registrar, Contractors State License Board, P.O. Box 26000, Sacramento, CA 95826. (b) Every person licensed pursuant to this chapter shall include the following statement in at least 12-point type in all home improvement contracts written pursuant to Section 7151.2 and service and repair contracts written pursuant to Section 7159.10: Information about the Contractors State License Board (CSLB): CSLB is the state consumer protection agency that licenses and regulates construction contractors.Contact CSLB for information about the licensed contractor you are considering, including information about disclosable complaints, disciplinary actions and civil judgments that are reported to CSLB.Use only licensed contractors. If you file a complaint against a licensed contractor within the legal deadline (usually four years), CSLB has authority to investigate the complaint. If you use an unlicensed contractor, CSLB may not be able to help you resolve your complaint. Your only remedy may be in civil court, and you may be liable for damages arising out of any injuries to the unlicensed contractor or the unlicensed contractors employees.For more information:Visit CSLBs internet website at www.cslb.ca.govCall CSLB at 800-321-CSLB (2752)Write CSLB at P.O. Box 26000, Sacramento, CA 95826. (c) Failure to comply with the notice requirements set forth in subdivision (a) or (b) of this section is cause for disciplinary action. |
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| 2048 | 2063 | | |
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| 2049 | 2064 | | |
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| 2050 | 2065 | | |
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| 2051 | 2066 | | 7030. (a) Except for contractors writing home improvement contracts pursuant to Section 7151.2 and contractors writing service and repair contracts pursuant to Section 7159.10, every person licensed pursuant to this chapter shall include the following statement in at least 10-point type on all written contracts with respect to which the person is a prime contractor: |
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| 2052 | 2067 | | |
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| 2053 | 2068 | | |
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| 2054 | 2069 | | |
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| 2055 | 2070 | | Contractors are required by law to be licensed and regulated by the Contractors State License Board which has jurisdiction to investigate complaints against contractors if a complaint regarding a patent act or omission is filed within four years of the date of the alleged violation. A complaint regarding a latent act or omission pertaining to structural defects must be filed within 10 years of the date of the alleged violation. Any questions concerning a contractor may be referred to the Registrar, Contractors State License Board, P.O. Box 26000, Sacramento, CA 95826. |
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| 2056 | 2071 | | |
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| 2057 | 2072 | | |
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| 2058 | 2073 | | |
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| 2059 | 2074 | | (b) Every person licensed pursuant to this chapter shall include the following statement in at least 12-point type in all home improvement contracts written pursuant to Section 7151.2 and service and repair contracts written pursuant to Section 7159.10: |
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| 2060 | 2075 | | |
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| 2061 | 2076 | | |
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| 2062 | 2077 | | |
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| 2063 | 2078 | | Information about the Contractors State License Board (CSLB): CSLB is the state consumer protection agency that licenses and regulates construction contractors. |
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| 2064 | 2079 | | |
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| 2065 | 2080 | | Contact CSLB for information about the licensed contractor you are considering, including information about disclosable complaints, disciplinary actions and civil judgments that are reported to CSLB. |
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| 2066 | 2081 | | |
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| 2067 | 2082 | | Use only licensed contractors. If you file a complaint against a licensed contractor within the legal deadline (usually four years), CSLB has authority to investigate the complaint. If you use an unlicensed contractor, CSLB may not be able to help you resolve your complaint. Your only remedy may be in civil court, and you may be liable for damages arising out of any injuries to the unlicensed contractor or the unlicensed contractors employees. |
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| 2068 | 2083 | | |
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| 2069 | 2084 | | For more information: |
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| 2070 | 2085 | | |
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| 2071 | 2086 | | Visit CSLBs internet website at www.cslb.ca.gov |
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| 2072 | 2087 | | |
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| 2073 | 2088 | | Call CSLB at 800-321-CSLB (2752) |
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| 2074 | 2089 | | |
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| 2075 | 2090 | | Write CSLB at P.O. Box 26000, Sacramento, CA 95826. |
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| 2076 | 2091 | | |
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| 2077 | 2092 | | |
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| 2078 | 2093 | | |
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| 2079 | 2094 | | (c) Failure to comply with the notice requirements set forth in subdivision (a) or (b) of this section is cause for disciplinary action. |
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| 2080 | 2095 | | |
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| 2081 | 2096 | | SEC. 56. Section 7031 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7031. (a) Except as provided in subdivision (e), no person engaged in the business or acting in the capacity of a contractor, may bring or maintain any action, or recover in law or equity in any action, in any court of this state for the collection of compensation for the performance of any act or contract where a license is required by this chapter without alleging that they were a duly licensed contractor at all times during the performance of that act or contract regardless of the merits of the cause of action brought by the person, except that this prohibition shall not apply to contractors who are each individually licensed under this chapter but who fail to comply with Section 7029.(b) Except as provided in subdivision (e), a person who utilizes the services of an unlicensed contractor may bring an action in any court of competent jurisdiction in this state to recover all compensation paid to the unlicensed contractor for performance of any act or contract.(c) A security interest taken to secure any payment for the performance of any act or contract for which a license is required by this chapter is unenforceable if the person performing the act or contract was not a duly licensed contractor at all times during the performance of the act or contract.(d) If licensure or proper licensure is controverted, then proof of licensure pursuant to this section shall be made by production of a verified certificate of licensure from the Contractors State License Board which establishes that the individual or entity bringing the action was duly licensed in the proper classification of contractors at all times during the performance of any act or contract covered by the action. Nothing in this subdivision shall require any person or entity controverting licensure or proper licensure to produce a verified certificate. When licensure or proper licensure is controverted, the burden of proof to establish licensure or proper licensure shall be on the licensee.(e) The judicial doctrine of substantial compliance shall not apply under this section where the person who engaged in the business or acted in the capacity of a contractor has never been a duly licensed contractor in this state. However, notwithstanding subdivision (b) of Section 143, the court may determine that there has been substantial compliance with licensure requirements under this section if it is shown at an evidentiary hearing that the person who engaged in the business or acted in the capacity of a contractor (1) had been duly licensed as a contractor in this state prior to the performance of the act or contract, (2) acted reasonably and in good faith to maintain proper licensure, and (3) acted promptly and in good faith to remedy the failure to comply with the licensure requirements upon learning of the failure.(f) The exceptions to the prohibition against the application of the judicial doctrine of substantial compliance found in subdivision (e) shall apply to all contracts entered into on or after January 1, 1992, and to all actions or arbitrations arising therefrom, except that the amendments to subdivisions (e) and (f) enacted during the 1994 portion of the 199394 Regular Session of the Legislature shall not apply to either of the following:(1) Any legal action or arbitration commenced prior to January 1, 1995, regardless of the date on which the parties entered into the contract.(2) Any legal action or arbitration commenced on or after January 1, 1995, if the legal action or arbitration was commenced prior to January 1, 1995, and was subsequently dismissed. |
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| 2082 | 2097 | | |
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| 2083 | 2098 | | SEC. 56. Section 7031 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
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| 2084 | 2099 | | |
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| 2085 | 2100 | | ### SEC. 56. |
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| 2086 | 2101 | | |
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| 2087 | 2102 | | 7031. (a) Except as provided in subdivision (e), no person engaged in the business or acting in the capacity of a contractor, may bring or maintain any action, or recover in law or equity in any action, in any court of this state for the collection of compensation for the performance of any act or contract where a license is required by this chapter without alleging that they were a duly licensed contractor at all times during the performance of that act or contract regardless of the merits of the cause of action brought by the person, except that this prohibition shall not apply to contractors who are each individually licensed under this chapter but who fail to comply with Section 7029.(b) Except as provided in subdivision (e), a person who utilizes the services of an unlicensed contractor may bring an action in any court of competent jurisdiction in this state to recover all compensation paid to the unlicensed contractor for performance of any act or contract.(c) A security interest taken to secure any payment for the performance of any act or contract for which a license is required by this chapter is unenforceable if the person performing the act or contract was not a duly licensed contractor at all times during the performance of the act or contract.(d) If licensure or proper licensure is controverted, then proof of licensure pursuant to this section shall be made by production of a verified certificate of licensure from the Contractors State License Board which establishes that the individual or entity bringing the action was duly licensed in the proper classification of contractors at all times during the performance of any act or contract covered by the action. Nothing in this subdivision shall require any person or entity controverting licensure or proper licensure to produce a verified certificate. When licensure or proper licensure is controverted, the burden of proof to establish licensure or proper licensure shall be on the licensee.(e) The judicial doctrine of substantial compliance shall not apply under this section where the person who engaged in the business or acted in the capacity of a contractor has never been a duly licensed contractor in this state. However, notwithstanding subdivision (b) of Section 143, the court may determine that there has been substantial compliance with licensure requirements under this section if it is shown at an evidentiary hearing that the person who engaged in the business or acted in the capacity of a contractor (1) had been duly licensed as a contractor in this state prior to the performance of the act or contract, (2) acted reasonably and in good faith to maintain proper licensure, and (3) acted promptly and in good faith to remedy the failure to comply with the licensure requirements upon learning of the failure.(f) The exceptions to the prohibition against the application of the judicial doctrine of substantial compliance found in subdivision (e) shall apply to all contracts entered into on or after January 1, 1992, and to all actions or arbitrations arising therefrom, except that the amendments to subdivisions (e) and (f) enacted during the 1994 portion of the 199394 Regular Session of the Legislature shall not apply to either of the following:(1) Any legal action or arbitration commenced prior to January 1, 1995, regardless of the date on which the parties entered into the contract.(2) Any legal action or arbitration commenced on or after January 1, 1995, if the legal action or arbitration was commenced prior to January 1, 1995, and was subsequently dismissed. |
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| 2088 | 2103 | | |
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| 2089 | 2104 | | 7031. (a) Except as provided in subdivision (e), no person engaged in the business or acting in the capacity of a contractor, may bring or maintain any action, or recover in law or equity in any action, in any court of this state for the collection of compensation for the performance of any act or contract where a license is required by this chapter without alleging that they were a duly licensed contractor at all times during the performance of that act or contract regardless of the merits of the cause of action brought by the person, except that this prohibition shall not apply to contractors who are each individually licensed under this chapter but who fail to comply with Section 7029.(b) Except as provided in subdivision (e), a person who utilizes the services of an unlicensed contractor may bring an action in any court of competent jurisdiction in this state to recover all compensation paid to the unlicensed contractor for performance of any act or contract.(c) A security interest taken to secure any payment for the performance of any act or contract for which a license is required by this chapter is unenforceable if the person performing the act or contract was not a duly licensed contractor at all times during the performance of the act or contract.(d) If licensure or proper licensure is controverted, then proof of licensure pursuant to this section shall be made by production of a verified certificate of licensure from the Contractors State License Board which establishes that the individual or entity bringing the action was duly licensed in the proper classification of contractors at all times during the performance of any act or contract covered by the action. Nothing in this subdivision shall require any person or entity controverting licensure or proper licensure to produce a verified certificate. When licensure or proper licensure is controverted, the burden of proof to establish licensure or proper licensure shall be on the licensee.(e) The judicial doctrine of substantial compliance shall not apply under this section where the person who engaged in the business or acted in the capacity of a contractor has never been a duly licensed contractor in this state. However, notwithstanding subdivision (b) of Section 143, the court may determine that there has been substantial compliance with licensure requirements under this section if it is shown at an evidentiary hearing that the person who engaged in the business or acted in the capacity of a contractor (1) had been duly licensed as a contractor in this state prior to the performance of the act or contract, (2) acted reasonably and in good faith to maintain proper licensure, and (3) acted promptly and in good faith to remedy the failure to comply with the licensure requirements upon learning of the failure.(f) The exceptions to the prohibition against the application of the judicial doctrine of substantial compliance found in subdivision (e) shall apply to all contracts entered into on or after January 1, 1992, and to all actions or arbitrations arising therefrom, except that the amendments to subdivisions (e) and (f) enacted during the 1994 portion of the 199394 Regular Session of the Legislature shall not apply to either of the following:(1) Any legal action or arbitration commenced prior to January 1, 1995, regardless of the date on which the parties entered into the contract.(2) Any legal action or arbitration commenced on or after January 1, 1995, if the legal action or arbitration was commenced prior to January 1, 1995, and was subsequently dismissed. |
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| 2090 | 2105 | | |
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| 2091 | 2106 | | 7031. (a) Except as provided in subdivision (e), no person engaged in the business or acting in the capacity of a contractor, may bring or maintain any action, or recover in law or equity in any action, in any court of this state for the collection of compensation for the performance of any act or contract where a license is required by this chapter without alleging that they were a duly licensed contractor at all times during the performance of that act or contract regardless of the merits of the cause of action brought by the person, except that this prohibition shall not apply to contractors who are each individually licensed under this chapter but who fail to comply with Section 7029.(b) Except as provided in subdivision (e), a person who utilizes the services of an unlicensed contractor may bring an action in any court of competent jurisdiction in this state to recover all compensation paid to the unlicensed contractor for performance of any act or contract.(c) A security interest taken to secure any payment for the performance of any act or contract for which a license is required by this chapter is unenforceable if the person performing the act or contract was not a duly licensed contractor at all times during the performance of the act or contract.(d) If licensure or proper licensure is controverted, then proof of licensure pursuant to this section shall be made by production of a verified certificate of licensure from the Contractors State License Board which establishes that the individual or entity bringing the action was duly licensed in the proper classification of contractors at all times during the performance of any act or contract covered by the action. Nothing in this subdivision shall require any person or entity controverting licensure or proper licensure to produce a verified certificate. When licensure or proper licensure is controverted, the burden of proof to establish licensure or proper licensure shall be on the licensee.(e) The judicial doctrine of substantial compliance shall not apply under this section where the person who engaged in the business or acted in the capacity of a contractor has never been a duly licensed contractor in this state. However, notwithstanding subdivision (b) of Section 143, the court may determine that there has been substantial compliance with licensure requirements under this section if it is shown at an evidentiary hearing that the person who engaged in the business or acted in the capacity of a contractor (1) had been duly licensed as a contractor in this state prior to the performance of the act or contract, (2) acted reasonably and in good faith to maintain proper licensure, and (3) acted promptly and in good faith to remedy the failure to comply with the licensure requirements upon learning of the failure.(f) The exceptions to the prohibition against the application of the judicial doctrine of substantial compliance found in subdivision (e) shall apply to all contracts entered into on or after January 1, 1992, and to all actions or arbitrations arising therefrom, except that the amendments to subdivisions (e) and (f) enacted during the 1994 portion of the 199394 Regular Session of the Legislature shall not apply to either of the following:(1) Any legal action or arbitration commenced prior to January 1, 1995, regardless of the date on which the parties entered into the contract.(2) Any legal action or arbitration commenced on or after January 1, 1995, if the legal action or arbitration was commenced prior to January 1, 1995, and was subsequently dismissed. |
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| 2092 | 2107 | | |
|---|
| 2093 | 2108 | | |
|---|
| 2094 | 2109 | | |
|---|
| 2095 | 2110 | | 7031. (a) Except as provided in subdivision (e), no person engaged in the business or acting in the capacity of a contractor, may bring or maintain any action, or recover in law or equity in any action, in any court of this state for the collection of compensation for the performance of any act or contract where a license is required by this chapter without alleging that they were a duly licensed contractor at all times during the performance of that act or contract regardless of the merits of the cause of action brought by the person, except that this prohibition shall not apply to contractors who are each individually licensed under this chapter but who fail to comply with Section 7029. |
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| 2096 | 2111 | | |
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| 2097 | 2112 | | (b) Except as provided in subdivision (e), a person who utilizes the services of an unlicensed contractor may bring an action in any court of competent jurisdiction in this state to recover all compensation paid to the unlicensed contractor for performance of any act or contract. |
|---|
| 2098 | 2113 | | |
|---|
| 2099 | 2114 | | (c) A security interest taken to secure any payment for the performance of any act or contract for which a license is required by this chapter is unenforceable if the person performing the act or contract was not a duly licensed contractor at all times during the performance of the act or contract. |
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| 2100 | 2115 | | |
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| 2101 | 2116 | | (d) If licensure or proper licensure is controverted, then proof of licensure pursuant to this section shall be made by production of a verified certificate of licensure from the Contractors State License Board which establishes that the individual or entity bringing the action was duly licensed in the proper classification of contractors at all times during the performance of any act or contract covered by the action. Nothing in this subdivision shall require any person or entity controverting licensure or proper licensure to produce a verified certificate. When licensure or proper licensure is controverted, the burden of proof to establish licensure or proper licensure shall be on the licensee. |
|---|
| 2102 | 2117 | | |
|---|
| 2103 | 2118 | | (e) The judicial doctrine of substantial compliance shall not apply under this section where the person who engaged in the business or acted in the capacity of a contractor has never been a duly licensed contractor in this state. However, notwithstanding subdivision (b) of Section 143, the court may determine that there has been substantial compliance with licensure requirements under this section if it is shown at an evidentiary hearing that the person who engaged in the business or acted in the capacity of a contractor (1) had been duly licensed as a contractor in this state prior to the performance of the act or contract, (2) acted reasonably and in good faith to maintain proper licensure, and (3) acted promptly and in good faith to remedy the failure to comply with the licensure requirements upon learning of the failure. |
|---|
| 2104 | 2119 | | |
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| 2105 | 2120 | | (f) The exceptions to the prohibition against the application of the judicial doctrine of substantial compliance found in subdivision (e) shall apply to all contracts entered into on or after January 1, 1992, and to all actions or arbitrations arising therefrom, except that the amendments to subdivisions (e) and (f) enacted during the 1994 portion of the 199394 Regular Session of the Legislature shall not apply to either of the following: |
|---|
| 2106 | 2121 | | |
|---|
| 2107 | 2122 | | (1) Any legal action or arbitration commenced prior to January 1, 1995, regardless of the date on which the parties entered into the contract. |
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| 2108 | 2123 | | |
|---|
| 2109 | 2124 | | (2) Any legal action or arbitration commenced on or after January 1, 1995, if the legal action or arbitration was commenced prior to January 1, 1995, and was subsequently dismissed. |
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| 2110 | 2125 | | |
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| 2111 | 2126 | | SEC. 57. Section 7058.7 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7058.7. (a) No contractor may engage in a removal or remedial action, as defined in subdivision (d), unless the qualifier for the license has passed an approved hazardous substance certification examination.(b) (1) The Contractors State License Board, the Division of Occupational Safety and Health of the Department of Industrial Relations, and the Department of Toxic Substances Control shall jointly select an advisory committee, which shall be composed of two representatives of hazardous substance removal workers in California, two general engineering contractors in California, and two representatives of insurance companies in California who shall be selected by the Insurance Commissioner.(2) The Contractors State License Board shall develop a written test for the certification of contractors engaged in hazardous substance removal or remedial action, in consultation with the Division of Occupational Safety and Health, the State Water Resources Control Board, the Department of Toxic Substances Control, and the advisory committee.(c) The Contractors State License Board may require additional updated approved hazardous substance certification examinations of licensees currently certified based on new public or occupational health and safety information. The Contractors State License Board, in consultation with the Department of Toxic Substances Control and the State Water Resources Control Board, shall approve other initial and updated hazardous substance certification examinations and determine whether to require an updated certification examination of all current certificate holders.(d) For purposes of this section removal or remedial action has the same meaning as found in Chapter 6.8 (commencing with Section 25300) of Division 20 of the Health and Safety Code, if the action requires the contractor to dig into the surface of the earth and remove the dug material and the action is at a site listed pursuant to Section 25356 of the Health and Safety Code or any other site listed as a hazardous substance release site by the Department of Toxic Substances Control or a site listed on the National Priorities List compiled pursuant to the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980 (42 U.S.C. Sec. 9601 et seq.). Removal or remedial action does not include asbestos-related work, as defined in Section 6501.8 of the Labor Code, or work related to a hazardous substance spill on a highway.(e) (1) A contractor may not install or remove an underground storage tank, unless the contractor has passed the hazardous substance certification examination developed pursuant to this section.(2) A contractor who is not certified may bid on or contract for the installation or removal of an underground tank, if the work is performed by a contractor who is certified pursuant to this section.(3) For purposes of this subdivision, underground storage tank has the same meaning as defined in subdivision (y) of Section 25281 of the Health and Safety Code. |
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| 2112 | 2127 | | |
|---|
| 2113 | 2128 | | SEC. 57. Section 7058.7 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
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| 2114 | 2129 | | |
|---|
| 2115 | 2130 | | ### SEC. 57. |
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| 2116 | 2131 | | |
|---|
| 2117 | 2132 | | 7058.7. (a) No contractor may engage in a removal or remedial action, as defined in subdivision (d), unless the qualifier for the license has passed an approved hazardous substance certification examination.(b) (1) The Contractors State License Board, the Division of Occupational Safety and Health of the Department of Industrial Relations, and the Department of Toxic Substances Control shall jointly select an advisory committee, which shall be composed of two representatives of hazardous substance removal workers in California, two general engineering contractors in California, and two representatives of insurance companies in California who shall be selected by the Insurance Commissioner.(2) The Contractors State License Board shall develop a written test for the certification of contractors engaged in hazardous substance removal or remedial action, in consultation with the Division of Occupational Safety and Health, the State Water Resources Control Board, the Department of Toxic Substances Control, and the advisory committee.(c) The Contractors State License Board may require additional updated approved hazardous substance certification examinations of licensees currently certified based on new public or occupational health and safety information. The Contractors State License Board, in consultation with the Department of Toxic Substances Control and the State Water Resources Control Board, shall approve other initial and updated hazardous substance certification examinations and determine whether to require an updated certification examination of all current certificate holders.(d) For purposes of this section removal or remedial action has the same meaning as found in Chapter 6.8 (commencing with Section 25300) of Division 20 of the Health and Safety Code, if the action requires the contractor to dig into the surface of the earth and remove the dug material and the action is at a site listed pursuant to Section 25356 of the Health and Safety Code or any other site listed as a hazardous substance release site by the Department of Toxic Substances Control or a site listed on the National Priorities List compiled pursuant to the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980 (42 U.S.C. Sec. 9601 et seq.). Removal or remedial action does not include asbestos-related work, as defined in Section 6501.8 of the Labor Code, or work related to a hazardous substance spill on a highway.(e) (1) A contractor may not install or remove an underground storage tank, unless the contractor has passed the hazardous substance certification examination developed pursuant to this section.(2) A contractor who is not certified may bid on or contract for the installation or removal of an underground tank, if the work is performed by a contractor who is certified pursuant to this section.(3) For purposes of this subdivision, underground storage tank has the same meaning as defined in subdivision (y) of Section 25281 of the Health and Safety Code. |
|---|
| 2118 | 2133 | | |
|---|
| 2119 | 2134 | | 7058.7. (a) No contractor may engage in a removal or remedial action, as defined in subdivision (d), unless the qualifier for the license has passed an approved hazardous substance certification examination.(b) (1) The Contractors State License Board, the Division of Occupational Safety and Health of the Department of Industrial Relations, and the Department of Toxic Substances Control shall jointly select an advisory committee, which shall be composed of two representatives of hazardous substance removal workers in California, two general engineering contractors in California, and two representatives of insurance companies in California who shall be selected by the Insurance Commissioner.(2) The Contractors State License Board shall develop a written test for the certification of contractors engaged in hazardous substance removal or remedial action, in consultation with the Division of Occupational Safety and Health, the State Water Resources Control Board, the Department of Toxic Substances Control, and the advisory committee.(c) The Contractors State License Board may require additional updated approved hazardous substance certification examinations of licensees currently certified based on new public or occupational health and safety information. The Contractors State License Board, in consultation with the Department of Toxic Substances Control and the State Water Resources Control Board, shall approve other initial and updated hazardous substance certification examinations and determine whether to require an updated certification examination of all current certificate holders.(d) For purposes of this section removal or remedial action has the same meaning as found in Chapter 6.8 (commencing with Section 25300) of Division 20 of the Health and Safety Code, if the action requires the contractor to dig into the surface of the earth and remove the dug material and the action is at a site listed pursuant to Section 25356 of the Health and Safety Code or any other site listed as a hazardous substance release site by the Department of Toxic Substances Control or a site listed on the National Priorities List compiled pursuant to the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980 (42 U.S.C. Sec. 9601 et seq.). Removal or remedial action does not include asbestos-related work, as defined in Section 6501.8 of the Labor Code, or work related to a hazardous substance spill on a highway.(e) (1) A contractor may not install or remove an underground storage tank, unless the contractor has passed the hazardous substance certification examination developed pursuant to this section.(2) A contractor who is not certified may bid on or contract for the installation or removal of an underground tank, if the work is performed by a contractor who is certified pursuant to this section.(3) For purposes of this subdivision, underground storage tank has the same meaning as defined in subdivision (y) of Section 25281 of the Health and Safety Code. |
|---|
| 2120 | 2135 | | |
|---|
| 2121 | 2136 | | 7058.7. (a) No contractor may engage in a removal or remedial action, as defined in subdivision (d), unless the qualifier for the license has passed an approved hazardous substance certification examination.(b) (1) The Contractors State License Board, the Division of Occupational Safety and Health of the Department of Industrial Relations, and the Department of Toxic Substances Control shall jointly select an advisory committee, which shall be composed of two representatives of hazardous substance removal workers in California, two general engineering contractors in California, and two representatives of insurance companies in California who shall be selected by the Insurance Commissioner.(2) The Contractors State License Board shall develop a written test for the certification of contractors engaged in hazardous substance removal or remedial action, in consultation with the Division of Occupational Safety and Health, the State Water Resources Control Board, the Department of Toxic Substances Control, and the advisory committee.(c) The Contractors State License Board may require additional updated approved hazardous substance certification examinations of licensees currently certified based on new public or occupational health and safety information. The Contractors State License Board, in consultation with the Department of Toxic Substances Control and the State Water Resources Control Board, shall approve other initial and updated hazardous substance certification examinations and determine whether to require an updated certification examination of all current certificate holders.(d) For purposes of this section removal or remedial action has the same meaning as found in Chapter 6.8 (commencing with Section 25300) of Division 20 of the Health and Safety Code, if the action requires the contractor to dig into the surface of the earth and remove the dug material and the action is at a site listed pursuant to Section 25356 of the Health and Safety Code or any other site listed as a hazardous substance release site by the Department of Toxic Substances Control or a site listed on the National Priorities List compiled pursuant to the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980 (42 U.S.C. Sec. 9601 et seq.). Removal or remedial action does not include asbestos-related work, as defined in Section 6501.8 of the Labor Code, or work related to a hazardous substance spill on a highway.(e) (1) A contractor may not install or remove an underground storage tank, unless the contractor has passed the hazardous substance certification examination developed pursuant to this section.(2) A contractor who is not certified may bid on or contract for the installation or removal of an underground tank, if the work is performed by a contractor who is certified pursuant to this section.(3) For purposes of this subdivision, underground storage tank has the same meaning as defined in subdivision (y) of Section 25281 of the Health and Safety Code. |
|---|
| 2122 | 2137 | | |
|---|
| 2123 | 2138 | | |
|---|
| 2124 | 2139 | | |
|---|
| 2125 | 2140 | | 7058.7. (a) No contractor may engage in a removal or remedial action, as defined in subdivision (d), unless the qualifier for the license has passed an approved hazardous substance certification examination. |
|---|
| 2126 | 2141 | | |
|---|
| 2127 | 2142 | | (b) (1) The Contractors State License Board, the Division of Occupational Safety and Health of the Department of Industrial Relations, and the Department of Toxic Substances Control shall jointly select an advisory committee, which shall be composed of two representatives of hazardous substance removal workers in California, two general engineering contractors in California, and two representatives of insurance companies in California who shall be selected by the Insurance Commissioner. |
|---|
| 2128 | 2143 | | |
|---|
| 2129 | 2144 | | (2) The Contractors State License Board shall develop a written test for the certification of contractors engaged in hazardous substance removal or remedial action, in consultation with the Division of Occupational Safety and Health, the State Water Resources Control Board, the Department of Toxic Substances Control, and the advisory committee. |
|---|
| 2130 | 2145 | | |
|---|
| 2131 | 2146 | | (c) The Contractors State License Board may require additional updated approved hazardous substance certification examinations of licensees currently certified based on new public or occupational health and safety information. The Contractors State License Board, in consultation with the Department of Toxic Substances Control and the State Water Resources Control Board, shall approve other initial and updated hazardous substance certification examinations and determine whether to require an updated certification examination of all current certificate holders. |
|---|
| 2132 | 2147 | | |
|---|
| 2133 | 2148 | | (d) For purposes of this section removal or remedial action has the same meaning as found in Chapter 6.8 (commencing with Section 25300) of Division 20 of the Health and Safety Code, if the action requires the contractor to dig into the surface of the earth and remove the dug material and the action is at a site listed pursuant to Section 25356 of the Health and Safety Code or any other site listed as a hazardous substance release site by the Department of Toxic Substances Control or a site listed on the National Priorities List compiled pursuant to the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980 (42 U.S.C. Sec. 9601 et seq.). Removal or remedial action does not include asbestos-related work, as defined in Section 6501.8 of the Labor Code, or work related to a hazardous substance spill on a highway. |
|---|
| 2134 | 2149 | | |
|---|
| 2135 | 2150 | | (e) (1) A contractor may not install or remove an underground storage tank, unless the contractor has passed the hazardous substance certification examination developed pursuant to this section. |
|---|
| 2136 | 2151 | | |
|---|
| 2137 | 2152 | | (2) A contractor who is not certified may bid on or contract for the installation or removal of an underground tank, if the work is performed by a contractor who is certified pursuant to this section. |
|---|
| 2138 | 2153 | | |
|---|
| 2139 | 2154 | | (3) For purposes of this subdivision, underground storage tank has the same meaning as defined in subdivision (y) of Section 25281 of the Health and Safety Code. |
|---|
| 2140 | 2155 | | |
|---|
| 2141 | 2156 | | SEC. 58. Section 7071.4 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7071.4. (a) Each person licensed under the provisions of this chapter and subject to any of the bonding provisions of this article shall maintain the requisite bond as executed by an admitted surety insurer or as deposited with the registrar pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 995.710 of the Code of Civil Procedure in the appropriate amount. Notwithstanding Article 7 (commencing with Section 995.710) of Chapter 2 of Title 14 of Part 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure, no other method of deposit, including, but not limited to, a certificate of deposit, shall satisfy a bond requirement under this article.(b) All existing alternatives in lieu of a bond currently filed with the registrar shall be replaced for a surety bond or the deposit prescribed by paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 995.710 of the Code of Civil Procedure by January 1, 2020.(c) (1) If the board is notified, in writing, of a civil action against the deposit authorized under this section, the deposit or any portion thereof shall not be released for any purpose, except as determined by the court.(2) If any deposit authorized under this section is insufficient to pay, in full, all claims that have been adjudicated under any action filed in accordance with this section, the amount of the deposit shall be distributed to all claimants in proportion to the amount of their respective claims. (d) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), this section shall not apply to the bond equivalents described in Section 7159.5 of this chapter.(e) (1) This section shall be operative on and after January 1, 2019, upon which date the registrar shall thereafter no longer accept alternatives in lieu of a bond, other than as provided in this section.(2) Notwithstanding any other law, in order to comply with the bonding provisions of this article, a person shall only be required to provide information consistent with the requirements for an applicant under Section 30.(f) All alternatives in lieu of a bond filed with the registrar before January 1, 2019, and any lawful money or cashiers check deposited pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 995.710 of the Code of Civil Procedure after January 1, 2019, shall be subject to the following limitations periods:(1) Any action, other than an action to recover wages or fringe benefits, against a deposit given in lieu of a contractors bond or bond of a qualifying individual filed by an active licensee shall be brought within three years after the expiration of the license period during which the act or omission occurred, or within three years of the date the license of the active licensee was inactivated, canceled, or revoked by the board, whichever occurs first.(2) Any action, other than an action to recover wages or fringe benefits, against a deposit given in lieu of a disciplinary bond filed by an active licensee pursuant to Section 7071.8 shall be brought within three years after the expiration of the license period during which the act or omission occurred, or within three years of the date the license of the active licensee was inactivated, canceled, or revoked by the board, or within three years after the last date for which a deposit given in lieu of a disciplinary bond filed pursuant to Section 7071.8 was required, whichever date is first.(3) A claim to recover wages or fringe benefits shall be brought within six months from the date that the wage or fringe benefit delinquencies were discovered, but in no event shall a civil action thereon be brought later than two years from the date the wage or fringe benefit contributions were due.(g) In any case in which a claim is filed against an alternative given in lieu of a bond filed with the registrar before January 1, 2019, or deposited with the registrar pursuant to subdivision (a), by any employee or by an employee organization on behalf of an employee, concerning wages or fringe benefits based upon the employees employment, claims for the nonpayment shall be filed with the Labor Commissioner. The Labor Commissioner shall, pursuant to the authority vested by Section 96.5 of the Labor Code, conduct hearings to determine whether or not the wages or fringe benefits should be paid to the complainant. Upon a finding by the commissioner that the wages or fringe benefits should be paid to the complainant, the commissioner shall notify the registrar of the findings. The registrar shall not make payment from the deposit on the basis of findings by the commissioner for a period of 10 days following determination of the findings. If, within the period, the complainant or the contractor files written notice with the registrar and the commissioner of an intention to seek judicial review of the findings pursuant to Section 11523 of the Government Code, the registrar shall not make payment if an action is actually filed, except as determined by the court. If, thereafter, no action is filed within 60 days following determination of findings by the commissioner, the registrar shall make payment from the deposit to the complainant.(h) Legal fees may not be charged by the board against any alternative given in lieu of a bond filed with the registrar before January 1, 2019, or deposited with the registrar pursuant to subdivision (a). |
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| 2142 | 2157 | | |
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| 2143 | 2158 | | SEC. 58. Section 7071.4 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
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| 2144 | 2159 | | |
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| 2145 | 2160 | | ### SEC. 58. |
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| 2146 | 2161 | | |
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| 2147 | 2162 | | 7071.4. (a) Each person licensed under the provisions of this chapter and subject to any of the bonding provisions of this article shall maintain the requisite bond as executed by an admitted surety insurer or as deposited with the registrar pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 995.710 of the Code of Civil Procedure in the appropriate amount. Notwithstanding Article 7 (commencing with Section 995.710) of Chapter 2 of Title 14 of Part 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure, no other method of deposit, including, but not limited to, a certificate of deposit, shall satisfy a bond requirement under this article.(b) All existing alternatives in lieu of a bond currently filed with the registrar shall be replaced for a surety bond or the deposit prescribed by paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 995.710 of the Code of Civil Procedure by January 1, 2020.(c) (1) If the board is notified, in writing, of a civil action against the deposit authorized under this section, the deposit or any portion thereof shall not be released for any purpose, except as determined by the court.(2) If any deposit authorized under this section is insufficient to pay, in full, all claims that have been adjudicated under any action filed in accordance with this section, the amount of the deposit shall be distributed to all claimants in proportion to the amount of their respective claims. (d) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), this section shall not apply to the bond equivalents described in Section 7159.5 of this chapter.(e) (1) This section shall be operative on and after January 1, 2019, upon which date the registrar shall thereafter no longer accept alternatives in lieu of a bond, other than as provided in this section.(2) Notwithstanding any other law, in order to comply with the bonding provisions of this article, a person shall only be required to provide information consistent with the requirements for an applicant under Section 30.(f) All alternatives in lieu of a bond filed with the registrar before January 1, 2019, and any lawful money or cashiers check deposited pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 995.710 of the Code of Civil Procedure after January 1, 2019, shall be subject to the following limitations periods:(1) Any action, other than an action to recover wages or fringe benefits, against a deposit given in lieu of a contractors bond or bond of a qualifying individual filed by an active licensee shall be brought within three years after the expiration of the license period during which the act or omission occurred, or within three years of the date the license of the active licensee was inactivated, canceled, or revoked by the board, whichever occurs first.(2) Any action, other than an action to recover wages or fringe benefits, against a deposit given in lieu of a disciplinary bond filed by an active licensee pursuant to Section 7071.8 shall be brought within three years after the expiration of the license period during which the act or omission occurred, or within three years of the date the license of the active licensee was inactivated, canceled, or revoked by the board, or within three years after the last date for which a deposit given in lieu of a disciplinary bond filed pursuant to Section 7071.8 was required, whichever date is first.(3) A claim to recover wages or fringe benefits shall be brought within six months from the date that the wage or fringe benefit delinquencies were discovered, but in no event shall a civil action thereon be brought later than two years from the date the wage or fringe benefit contributions were due.(g) In any case in which a claim is filed against an alternative given in lieu of a bond filed with the registrar before January 1, 2019, or deposited with the registrar pursuant to subdivision (a), by any employee or by an employee organization on behalf of an employee, concerning wages or fringe benefits based upon the employees employment, claims for the nonpayment shall be filed with the Labor Commissioner. The Labor Commissioner shall, pursuant to the authority vested by Section 96.5 of the Labor Code, conduct hearings to determine whether or not the wages or fringe benefits should be paid to the complainant. Upon a finding by the commissioner that the wages or fringe benefits should be paid to the complainant, the commissioner shall notify the registrar of the findings. The registrar shall not make payment from the deposit on the basis of findings by the commissioner for a period of 10 days following determination of the findings. If, within the period, the complainant or the contractor files written notice with the registrar and the commissioner of an intention to seek judicial review of the findings pursuant to Section 11523 of the Government Code, the registrar shall not make payment if an action is actually filed, except as determined by the court. If, thereafter, no action is filed within 60 days following determination of findings by the commissioner, the registrar shall make payment from the deposit to the complainant.(h) Legal fees may not be charged by the board against any alternative given in lieu of a bond filed with the registrar before January 1, 2019, or deposited with the registrar pursuant to subdivision (a). |
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| 2148 | 2163 | | |
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| 2149 | 2164 | | 7071.4. (a) Each person licensed under the provisions of this chapter and subject to any of the bonding provisions of this article shall maintain the requisite bond as executed by an admitted surety insurer or as deposited with the registrar pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 995.710 of the Code of Civil Procedure in the appropriate amount. Notwithstanding Article 7 (commencing with Section 995.710) of Chapter 2 of Title 14 of Part 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure, no other method of deposit, including, but not limited to, a certificate of deposit, shall satisfy a bond requirement under this article.(b) All existing alternatives in lieu of a bond currently filed with the registrar shall be replaced for a surety bond or the deposit prescribed by paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 995.710 of the Code of Civil Procedure by January 1, 2020.(c) (1) If the board is notified, in writing, of a civil action against the deposit authorized under this section, the deposit or any portion thereof shall not be released for any purpose, except as determined by the court.(2) If any deposit authorized under this section is insufficient to pay, in full, all claims that have been adjudicated under any action filed in accordance with this section, the amount of the deposit shall be distributed to all claimants in proportion to the amount of their respective claims. (d) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), this section shall not apply to the bond equivalents described in Section 7159.5 of this chapter.(e) (1) This section shall be operative on and after January 1, 2019, upon which date the registrar shall thereafter no longer accept alternatives in lieu of a bond, other than as provided in this section.(2) Notwithstanding any other law, in order to comply with the bonding provisions of this article, a person shall only be required to provide information consistent with the requirements for an applicant under Section 30.(f) All alternatives in lieu of a bond filed with the registrar before January 1, 2019, and any lawful money or cashiers check deposited pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 995.710 of the Code of Civil Procedure after January 1, 2019, shall be subject to the following limitations periods:(1) Any action, other than an action to recover wages or fringe benefits, against a deposit given in lieu of a contractors bond or bond of a qualifying individual filed by an active licensee shall be brought within three years after the expiration of the license period during which the act or omission occurred, or within three years of the date the license of the active licensee was inactivated, canceled, or revoked by the board, whichever occurs first.(2) Any action, other than an action to recover wages or fringe benefits, against a deposit given in lieu of a disciplinary bond filed by an active licensee pursuant to Section 7071.8 shall be brought within three years after the expiration of the license period during which the act or omission occurred, or within three years of the date the license of the active licensee was inactivated, canceled, or revoked by the board, or within three years after the last date for which a deposit given in lieu of a disciplinary bond filed pursuant to Section 7071.8 was required, whichever date is first.(3) A claim to recover wages or fringe benefits shall be brought within six months from the date that the wage or fringe benefit delinquencies were discovered, but in no event shall a civil action thereon be brought later than two years from the date the wage or fringe benefit contributions were due.(g) In any case in which a claim is filed against an alternative given in lieu of a bond filed with the registrar before January 1, 2019, or deposited with the registrar pursuant to subdivision (a), by any employee or by an employee organization on behalf of an employee, concerning wages or fringe benefits based upon the employees employment, claims for the nonpayment shall be filed with the Labor Commissioner. The Labor Commissioner shall, pursuant to the authority vested by Section 96.5 of the Labor Code, conduct hearings to determine whether or not the wages or fringe benefits should be paid to the complainant. Upon a finding by the commissioner that the wages or fringe benefits should be paid to the complainant, the commissioner shall notify the registrar of the findings. The registrar shall not make payment from the deposit on the basis of findings by the commissioner for a period of 10 days following determination of the findings. If, within the period, the complainant or the contractor files written notice with the registrar and the commissioner of an intention to seek judicial review of the findings pursuant to Section 11523 of the Government Code, the registrar shall not make payment if an action is actually filed, except as determined by the court. If, thereafter, no action is filed within 60 days following determination of findings by the commissioner, the registrar shall make payment from the deposit to the complainant.(h) Legal fees may not be charged by the board against any alternative given in lieu of a bond filed with the registrar before January 1, 2019, or deposited with the registrar pursuant to subdivision (a). |
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| 2150 | 2165 | | |
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| 2151 | 2166 | | 7071.4. (a) Each person licensed under the provisions of this chapter and subject to any of the bonding provisions of this article shall maintain the requisite bond as executed by an admitted surety insurer or as deposited with the registrar pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 995.710 of the Code of Civil Procedure in the appropriate amount. Notwithstanding Article 7 (commencing with Section 995.710) of Chapter 2 of Title 14 of Part 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure, no other method of deposit, including, but not limited to, a certificate of deposit, shall satisfy a bond requirement under this article.(b) All existing alternatives in lieu of a bond currently filed with the registrar shall be replaced for a surety bond or the deposit prescribed by paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 995.710 of the Code of Civil Procedure by January 1, 2020.(c) (1) If the board is notified, in writing, of a civil action against the deposit authorized under this section, the deposit or any portion thereof shall not be released for any purpose, except as determined by the court.(2) If any deposit authorized under this section is insufficient to pay, in full, all claims that have been adjudicated under any action filed in accordance with this section, the amount of the deposit shall be distributed to all claimants in proportion to the amount of their respective claims. (d) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), this section shall not apply to the bond equivalents described in Section 7159.5 of this chapter.(e) (1) This section shall be operative on and after January 1, 2019, upon which date the registrar shall thereafter no longer accept alternatives in lieu of a bond, other than as provided in this section.(2) Notwithstanding any other law, in order to comply with the bonding provisions of this article, a person shall only be required to provide information consistent with the requirements for an applicant under Section 30.(f) All alternatives in lieu of a bond filed with the registrar before January 1, 2019, and any lawful money or cashiers check deposited pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 995.710 of the Code of Civil Procedure after January 1, 2019, shall be subject to the following limitations periods:(1) Any action, other than an action to recover wages or fringe benefits, against a deposit given in lieu of a contractors bond or bond of a qualifying individual filed by an active licensee shall be brought within three years after the expiration of the license period during which the act or omission occurred, or within three years of the date the license of the active licensee was inactivated, canceled, or revoked by the board, whichever occurs first.(2) Any action, other than an action to recover wages or fringe benefits, against a deposit given in lieu of a disciplinary bond filed by an active licensee pursuant to Section 7071.8 shall be brought within three years after the expiration of the license period during which the act or omission occurred, or within three years of the date the license of the active licensee was inactivated, canceled, or revoked by the board, or within three years after the last date for which a deposit given in lieu of a disciplinary bond filed pursuant to Section 7071.8 was required, whichever date is first.(3) A claim to recover wages or fringe benefits shall be brought within six months from the date that the wage or fringe benefit delinquencies were discovered, but in no event shall a civil action thereon be brought later than two years from the date the wage or fringe benefit contributions were due.(g) In any case in which a claim is filed against an alternative given in lieu of a bond filed with the registrar before January 1, 2019, or deposited with the registrar pursuant to subdivision (a), by any employee or by an employee organization on behalf of an employee, concerning wages or fringe benefits based upon the employees employment, claims for the nonpayment shall be filed with the Labor Commissioner. The Labor Commissioner shall, pursuant to the authority vested by Section 96.5 of the Labor Code, conduct hearings to determine whether or not the wages or fringe benefits should be paid to the complainant. Upon a finding by the commissioner that the wages or fringe benefits should be paid to the complainant, the commissioner shall notify the registrar of the findings. The registrar shall not make payment from the deposit on the basis of findings by the commissioner for a period of 10 days following determination of the findings. If, within the period, the complainant or the contractor files written notice with the registrar and the commissioner of an intention to seek judicial review of the findings pursuant to Section 11523 of the Government Code, the registrar shall not make payment if an action is actually filed, except as determined by the court. If, thereafter, no action is filed within 60 days following determination of findings by the commissioner, the registrar shall make payment from the deposit to the complainant.(h) Legal fees may not be charged by the board against any alternative given in lieu of a bond filed with the registrar before January 1, 2019, or deposited with the registrar pursuant to subdivision (a). |
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| 2152 | 2167 | | |
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| 2153 | 2168 | | |
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| 2154 | 2169 | | |
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| 2155 | 2170 | | 7071.4. (a) Each person licensed under the provisions of this chapter and subject to any of the bonding provisions of this article shall maintain the requisite bond as executed by an admitted surety insurer or as deposited with the registrar pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 995.710 of the Code of Civil Procedure in the appropriate amount. Notwithstanding Article 7 (commencing with Section 995.710) of Chapter 2 of Title 14 of Part 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure, no other method of deposit, including, but not limited to, a certificate of deposit, shall satisfy a bond requirement under this article. |
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| 2156 | 2171 | | |
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| 2157 | 2172 | | (b) All existing alternatives in lieu of a bond currently filed with the registrar shall be replaced for a surety bond or the deposit prescribed by paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 995.710 of the Code of Civil Procedure by January 1, 2020. |
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| 2158 | 2173 | | |
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| 2159 | 2174 | | (c) (1) If the board is notified, in writing, of a civil action against the deposit authorized under this section, the deposit or any portion thereof shall not be released for any purpose, except as determined by the court. |
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| 2160 | 2175 | | |
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| 2161 | 2176 | | (2) If any deposit authorized under this section is insufficient to pay, in full, all claims that have been adjudicated under any action filed in accordance with this section, the amount of the deposit shall be distributed to all claimants in proportion to the amount of their respective claims. |
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| 2162 | 2177 | | |
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| 2163 | 2178 | | (d) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), this section shall not apply to the bond equivalents described in Section 7159.5 of this chapter. |
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| 2164 | 2179 | | |
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| 2165 | 2180 | | (e) (1) This section shall be operative on and after January 1, 2019, upon which date the registrar shall thereafter no longer accept alternatives in lieu of a bond, other than as provided in this section. |
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| 2166 | 2181 | | |
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| 2167 | 2182 | | (2) Notwithstanding any other law, in order to comply with the bonding provisions of this article, a person shall only be required to provide information consistent with the requirements for an applicant under Section 30. |
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| 2168 | 2183 | | |
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| 2169 | 2184 | | (f) All alternatives in lieu of a bond filed with the registrar before January 1, 2019, and any lawful money or cashiers check deposited pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 995.710 of the Code of Civil Procedure after January 1, 2019, shall be subject to the following limitations periods: |
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| 2170 | 2185 | | |
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| 2171 | 2186 | | (1) Any action, other than an action to recover wages or fringe benefits, against a deposit given in lieu of a contractors bond or bond of a qualifying individual filed by an active licensee shall be brought within three years after the expiration of the license period during which the act or omission occurred, or within three years of the date the license of the active licensee was inactivated, canceled, or revoked by the board, whichever occurs first. |
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| 2172 | 2187 | | |
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| 2173 | 2188 | | (2) Any action, other than an action to recover wages or fringe benefits, against a deposit given in lieu of a disciplinary bond filed by an active licensee pursuant to Section 7071.8 shall be brought within three years after the expiration of the license period during which the act or omission occurred, or within three years of the date the license of the active licensee was inactivated, canceled, or revoked by the board, or within three years after the last date for which a deposit given in lieu of a disciplinary bond filed pursuant to Section 7071.8 was required, whichever date is first. |
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| 2174 | 2189 | | |
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| 2175 | 2190 | | (3) A claim to recover wages or fringe benefits shall be brought within six months from the date that the wage or fringe benefit delinquencies were discovered, but in no event shall a civil action thereon be brought later than two years from the date the wage or fringe benefit contributions were due. |
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| 2176 | 2191 | | |
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| 2177 | 2192 | | (g) In any case in which a claim is filed against an alternative given in lieu of a bond filed with the registrar before January 1, 2019, or deposited with the registrar pursuant to subdivision (a), by any employee or by an employee organization on behalf of an employee, concerning wages or fringe benefits based upon the employees employment, claims for the nonpayment shall be filed with the Labor Commissioner. The Labor Commissioner shall, pursuant to the authority vested by Section 96.5 of the Labor Code, conduct hearings to determine whether or not the wages or fringe benefits should be paid to the complainant. Upon a finding by the commissioner that the wages or fringe benefits should be paid to the complainant, the commissioner shall notify the registrar of the findings. The registrar shall not make payment from the deposit on the basis of findings by the commissioner for a period of 10 days following determination of the findings. If, within the period, the complainant or the contractor files written notice with the registrar and the commissioner of an intention to seek judicial review of the findings pursuant to Section 11523 of the Government Code, the registrar shall not make payment if an action is actually filed, except as determined by the court. If, thereafter, no action is filed within 60 days following determination of findings by the commissioner, the registrar shall make payment from the deposit to the complainant. |
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| 2178 | 2193 | | |
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| 2179 | 2194 | | (h) Legal fees may not be charged by the board against any alternative given in lieu of a bond filed with the registrar before January 1, 2019, or deposited with the registrar pursuant to subdivision (a). |
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| 2180 | 2195 | | |
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| 2181 | 2196 | | SEC. 59. Section 7080.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7080.5. When an application has been accepted by the registrar, the name and address of the applicant, every classification for which the applicant has applied, and the names and titles of all personnel who have signed the application shall be publicly posted by the registrar, on the day following acceptance, in the office of the Contractors State License Board in Sacramento. |
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| 2182 | 2197 | | |
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| 2183 | 2198 | | SEC. 59. Section 7080.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
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| 2184 | 2199 | | |
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| 2185 | 2200 | | ### SEC. 59. |
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| 2186 | 2201 | | |
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| 2187 | 2202 | | 7080.5. When an application has been accepted by the registrar, the name and address of the applicant, every classification for which the applicant has applied, and the names and titles of all personnel who have signed the application shall be publicly posted by the registrar, on the day following acceptance, in the office of the Contractors State License Board in Sacramento. |
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| 2188 | 2203 | | |
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| 2189 | 2204 | | 7080.5. When an application has been accepted by the registrar, the name and address of the applicant, every classification for which the applicant has applied, and the names and titles of all personnel who have signed the application shall be publicly posted by the registrar, on the day following acceptance, in the office of the Contractors State License Board in Sacramento. |
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| 2190 | 2205 | | |
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| 2191 | 2206 | | 7080.5. When an application has been accepted by the registrar, the name and address of the applicant, every classification for which the applicant has applied, and the names and titles of all personnel who have signed the application shall be publicly posted by the registrar, on the day following acceptance, in the office of the Contractors State License Board in Sacramento. |
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| 2192 | 2207 | | |
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| 2193 | 2208 | | |
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| 2194 | 2209 | | |
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| 2195 | 2210 | | 7080.5. When an application has been accepted by the registrar, the name and address of the applicant, every classification for which the applicant has applied, and the names and titles of all personnel who have signed the application shall be publicly posted by the registrar, on the day following acceptance, in the office of the Contractors State License Board in Sacramento. |
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| 2196 | 2211 | | |
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| 2197 | 2212 | | SEC. 60. Section 7085.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7085.5. Arbitrations of disputes arising out of cases filed with or by the board shall be conducted in accordance with the following rules:(a) All agreements to arbitrate shall include the names, addresses, and telephone numbers of the parties to the dispute, the issue in dispute, and the amount in dollars or any other remedy sought. The appropriate fee shall be paid by the board from the Contractors License Fund.(b) (1) The board or appointed arbitration association shall appoint an arbitrator in the following manner: immediately after the filing of the agreement to arbitrate, the board or appointed arbitration association shall submit simultaneously to each party to the dispute, an identical list of names of persons chosen from the panel. Each party to the dispute shall have seven days from the mailing date in which to cross off any names to which it objects, number the remaining names to indicate the order of preference, and return the list to the board or appointed arbitration association. If a party does not return the list within the time specified, all persons named in the list are acceptable. From among the persons who have been approved on both lists, and in accordance with the designated order of mutual preference, the board or appointed arbitration association shall appoint an arbitrator to serve. If the parties fail to agree on any of the parties named, if acceptable arbitrators are unable to act, or if, for any other reason, the appointment cannot be made from the submitted lists, the board or appointed arbitration association shall have the power to make the appointment from among other members of the panel without the submission of any additional lists. Each dispute shall be heard and determined by one arbitrator unless the board or appointed arbitration association, in its discretion, directs that a greater number of arbitrators be appointed.(2) In all cases in which a complaint has been referred to arbitration pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 7085, the board or the appointed arbitration association shall have the power to appoint an arbitrator to hear the matter.(3) The board shall adopt regulations setting minimum qualification standards for listed arbitrators based upon relevant training, experience, and performance.(c) No person shall serve as an arbitrator in any arbitration in which that person has any financial or personal interest in the result of the arbitration. Prior to accepting an appointment, the prospective arbitrator shall disclose any circumstances likely to prevent a prompt hearing or to create a presumption of bias. Upon receipt of that information, the board or appointed arbitration association shall immediately replace the arbitrator or communicate the information to the parties for their comments. Thereafter, the board or appointed arbitration association shall determine whether the arbitrator should be disqualified and shall inform the parties of its decision, which shall be conclusive.(d) The board or appointed arbitration association may appoint another arbitrator if a vacancy occurs, or if an appointed arbitrator is unable to serve in a timely manner.(e) (1) The board or appointed arbitration association shall provide the parties with a list of the times and dates, and locations of the hearing to be held. The parties shall notify the arbitrator, within seven calendar days of the mailing of the list, of the times and dates convenient to each party. If the parties fail to respond to the arbitrator within the seven-day period, the arbitrator shall fix the time, place, and location of the hearing. An arbitrator may, at the arbitrators sole discretion, make an inspection of the construction site which is the subject of the arbitration. The arbitrator shall notify the parties of the time and date set for the inspection. Any party who so desires may be present at the inspection.(2) The board or appointed arbitration association shall fix the time, place, and location of the hearing for all cases referred to arbitration pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 7085. An arbitrator may, at the arbitrators sole discretion, make an inspection of the construction site which is the subject of the arbitration. The arbitrator shall notify the parties of the time and date set for the inspection. Any party who desires may be present at the inspection.(f) Any person having a direct interest in the arbitration is entitled to attend the hearing. The arbitrator shall otherwise have the power to require the exclusion of any witness, other than a party or other essential person, during the testimony of any other witness. It shall be discretionary with the arbitrator to determine the propriety of the attendance of any other person.(g) Hearings shall be adjourned by the arbitrator only for good cause.(h) A record is not required to be taken of the proceedings. However, any party to the proceeding may have a record made at its own expense. The parties may make appropriate notes of the proceedings.(i) The hearing shall be conducted by the arbitrator in any manner which will permit full and expeditious presentation of the case by both parties. Consistent with the expedited nature of arbitration, the arbitrator shall establish the extent of, and schedule for, the production of relevant documents and other information, the identification of any witnesses to be called, and a schedule for any hearings to elicit facts solely within the knowledge of one party. The complaining party shall present its claims, proofs, and witnesses, who shall submit to questions or other examination. The defending party shall then present its defenses, proofs, and witnesses, who shall submit to questions or other examination. The arbitrator has discretion to vary this procedure but shall afford full and equal opportunity to the parties for the presentation of any material or relevant proofs.(j) The arbitration may proceed in the absence of any party who, after due notice, fails to be present. The arbitrator shall require the attending party to submit supporting evidence in order to make an award. An award for the attending party shall not be based solely on the fact that the other party has failed to appear at the arbitration hearing.(k) The arbitrator shall be the sole judge of the relevancy and materiality of the evidence offered and conformity to legal rules of evidence shall not be required.(l) The arbitrator may receive and consider documentary evidence. Documents to be considered by the arbitrator may be submitted prior to the hearing. However, a copy shall be simultaneously transmitted to all other parties and to the board or appointed arbitration association for transmittal to the arbitrator or board appointed arbitrator.(m) The arbitrator shall specifically inquire of the parties whether they have any further proofs to offer or witnesses to be heard. Upon receiving negative replies, the arbitrator shall declare the hearing closed and minutes thereof shall be recorded. If briefs are to be filed, the hearing shall be declared closed as of the final date set by the arbitrator for the receipt of briefs. If documents are to be filed as requested by the arbitrator and the date set for their receipt is later than that set for the receipt of briefs, the later date shall be the date of closing the hearings. The time limit within which the arbitrator is required to make the award shall commence to run, in the absence of other agreements by the parties, upon the closing of the hearings.(n) The hearing may be reopened on the arbitrators own motion.(o) Any party who proceeds with the arbitration after knowledge that any provision or requirement of these rules has not been complied with, and who fails to state their objections to the arbitrator in writing, within 10 calendar days of close of hearing, shall be deemed to have waived their right to object.(p) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), any papers or process necessary or proper for the initiation or continuation of an arbitration under these rules and for any court action in connection therewith, or for the entry of judgment on an award made thereunder, may be served upon any party (A) by regular mail addressed to that party or their attorney at the partys last known address, or (B) by personal service.(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), in all cases referred to arbitration pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 7085 in which the contractor fails or refuses to return an executed copy of the notice to arbitrate within the time specified, any papers or process specified in paragraph (1) to be sent to the contractor, including the notice of hearing, shall be mailed by certified mail to the contractors address of record.(q) The award shall be made promptly by the arbitrator, and unless otherwise agreed by the parties, no later than 30 calendar days from the date of closing the hearing, closing a reopened hearing, or if oral hearing has been waived, from the date of transmitting the final statements and proofs to the arbitrator.The arbitrator may for good cause extend any period of time established by these rules, except the time for making the award. The arbitrator shall notify the parties of any extension and the reason therefor.(r) (1) The arbitrator may grant any remedy or relief that the arbitrator deems just and equitable and within the scope of the boards referral and the requirements of the board. The arbitrator, in their sole discretion, may award costs or expenses.(2) The amendments made in paragraph (1) during the 200304 Regular Session shall not be interpreted to prevent an arbitrator from awarding a complainant all direct costs and expenses for the completion or repair of the project.(s) The award shall become final 30 calendar days from the date the arbitration award is issued. The arbitrator, upon written application of a party to the arbitration, may correct the award upon the following grounds:(1) There was an evident miscalculation of figures or an evident mistake in the description of any person, things, or property referred to in the award.(2) There is any other clerical error in the award, not affecting the merits of the controversy.An application for correction of the award shall be made within 10 calendar days of the date of service of the award by serving a copy of the application on the arbitrator, and all other parties to the arbitration. Any party to the arbitration may make a written objection to the application for correction by serving a copy of the written objection on the arbitrator, the board, and all other parties to the arbitration, within 10 calendar days of the date of service of the application for correction.The arbitrator shall either deny the application or correct the award within 30 calendar days of the date of service of the original award by mailing a copy of the denial or correction to all parties to the arbitration. Any appeal from the denial or correction shall be filed with a court of competent jurisdiction and a true copy thereof shall be filed with the arbitrator or appointed arbitration association within 30 calendar days after the award has become final. The award shall be in writing, and shall be signed by the arbitrator or a majority of them. If no appeal is filed within the 30-calendar day period, it shall become a final order of the registrar.(t) Service of the award by certified mail shall be effective if a certified letter containing the award, or a true copy thereof, is mailed by the arbitrator or arbitration association to each party or to a partys attorney of record at their last known address, address of record, or by personally serving any party. Service may be proved in the manner authorized in civil actions.(u) The board shall pay the expenses of one expert witness appointed by the board when the services of an expert witness are requested by either party involved in arbitration pursuant to this article and the case involves workmanship issues that are itemized in the complaint and have not been repaired or replaced. Parties who choose to present the findings of another expert witness as evidence shall pay for those services. Payment for expert witnesses appointed by the board shall be limited to the expert witness costs for inspection of the problem at the construction site, preparation of the expert witness report, and expert witness fees for appearing or testifying at a hearing. All requests for payment to an expert witness shall be submitted on a form that has been approved by the registrar. All requests for payment to an expert witness shall be reviewed and approved by the board prior to payment. The registrar shall advise the parties that names of industry experts may be obtained by requesting this information from the registrar.(v) The arbitrator shall interpret and apply these rules insofar as they relate to their powers and duties.(w) The following shall apply as to court procedure and exclusion of liability:(1) The board, the appointed arbitration association, or any arbitrator in a proceeding under these rules is not a necessary party in judicial proceedings relating to the arbitration.(2) Parties to these rules shall be deemed to have consented that judgment upon the arbitration award may be entered in any federal or state court having jurisdiction thereof.(3) The board, the appointed arbitration association, or any arbitrator is not liable to any party for any act or omission in connection with any arbitration conducted under these rules. |
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| 2198 | 2213 | | |
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| 2199 | 2214 | | SEC. 60. Section 7085.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
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| 2200 | 2215 | | |
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| 2201 | 2216 | | ### SEC. 60. |
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| 2202 | 2217 | | |
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| 2203 | 2218 | | 7085.5. Arbitrations of disputes arising out of cases filed with or by the board shall be conducted in accordance with the following rules:(a) All agreements to arbitrate shall include the names, addresses, and telephone numbers of the parties to the dispute, the issue in dispute, and the amount in dollars or any other remedy sought. The appropriate fee shall be paid by the board from the Contractors License Fund.(b) (1) The board or appointed arbitration association shall appoint an arbitrator in the following manner: immediately after the filing of the agreement to arbitrate, the board or appointed arbitration association shall submit simultaneously to each party to the dispute, an identical list of names of persons chosen from the panel. Each party to the dispute shall have seven days from the mailing date in which to cross off any names to which it objects, number the remaining names to indicate the order of preference, and return the list to the board or appointed arbitration association. If a party does not return the list within the time specified, all persons named in the list are acceptable. From among the persons who have been approved on both lists, and in accordance with the designated order of mutual preference, the board or appointed arbitration association shall appoint an arbitrator to serve. If the parties fail to agree on any of the parties named, if acceptable arbitrators are unable to act, or if, for any other reason, the appointment cannot be made from the submitted lists, the board or appointed arbitration association shall have the power to make the appointment from among other members of the panel without the submission of any additional lists. Each dispute shall be heard and determined by one arbitrator unless the board or appointed arbitration association, in its discretion, directs that a greater number of arbitrators be appointed.(2) In all cases in which a complaint has been referred to arbitration pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 7085, the board or the appointed arbitration association shall have the power to appoint an arbitrator to hear the matter.(3) The board shall adopt regulations setting minimum qualification standards for listed arbitrators based upon relevant training, experience, and performance.(c) No person shall serve as an arbitrator in any arbitration in which that person has any financial or personal interest in the result of the arbitration. Prior to accepting an appointment, the prospective arbitrator shall disclose any circumstances likely to prevent a prompt hearing or to create a presumption of bias. Upon receipt of that information, the board or appointed arbitration association shall immediately replace the arbitrator or communicate the information to the parties for their comments. Thereafter, the board or appointed arbitration association shall determine whether the arbitrator should be disqualified and shall inform the parties of its decision, which shall be conclusive.(d) The board or appointed arbitration association may appoint another arbitrator if a vacancy occurs, or if an appointed arbitrator is unable to serve in a timely manner.(e) (1) The board or appointed arbitration association shall provide the parties with a list of the times and dates, and locations of the hearing to be held. The parties shall notify the arbitrator, within seven calendar days of the mailing of the list, of the times and dates convenient to each party. If the parties fail to respond to the arbitrator within the seven-day period, the arbitrator shall fix the time, place, and location of the hearing. An arbitrator may, at the arbitrators sole discretion, make an inspection of the construction site which is the subject of the arbitration. The arbitrator shall notify the parties of the time and date set for the inspection. Any party who so desires may be present at the inspection.(2) The board or appointed arbitration association shall fix the time, place, and location of the hearing for all cases referred to arbitration pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 7085. An arbitrator may, at the arbitrators sole discretion, make an inspection of the construction site which is the subject of the arbitration. The arbitrator shall notify the parties of the time and date set for the inspection. Any party who desires may be present at the inspection.(f) Any person having a direct interest in the arbitration is entitled to attend the hearing. The arbitrator shall otherwise have the power to require the exclusion of any witness, other than a party or other essential person, during the testimony of any other witness. It shall be discretionary with the arbitrator to determine the propriety of the attendance of any other person.(g) Hearings shall be adjourned by the arbitrator only for good cause.(h) A record is not required to be taken of the proceedings. However, any party to the proceeding may have a record made at its own expense. The parties may make appropriate notes of the proceedings.(i) The hearing shall be conducted by the arbitrator in any manner which will permit full and expeditious presentation of the case by both parties. Consistent with the expedited nature of arbitration, the arbitrator shall establish the extent of, and schedule for, the production of relevant documents and other information, the identification of any witnesses to be called, and a schedule for any hearings to elicit facts solely within the knowledge of one party. The complaining party shall present its claims, proofs, and witnesses, who shall submit to questions or other examination. The defending party shall then present its defenses, proofs, and witnesses, who shall submit to questions or other examination. The arbitrator has discretion to vary this procedure but shall afford full and equal opportunity to the parties for the presentation of any material or relevant proofs.(j) The arbitration may proceed in the absence of any party who, after due notice, fails to be present. The arbitrator shall require the attending party to submit supporting evidence in order to make an award. An award for the attending party shall not be based solely on the fact that the other party has failed to appear at the arbitration hearing.(k) The arbitrator shall be the sole judge of the relevancy and materiality of the evidence offered and conformity to legal rules of evidence shall not be required.(l) The arbitrator may receive and consider documentary evidence. Documents to be considered by the arbitrator may be submitted prior to the hearing. However, a copy shall be simultaneously transmitted to all other parties and to the board or appointed arbitration association for transmittal to the arbitrator or board appointed arbitrator.(m) The arbitrator shall specifically inquire of the parties whether they have any further proofs to offer or witnesses to be heard. Upon receiving negative replies, the arbitrator shall declare the hearing closed and minutes thereof shall be recorded. If briefs are to be filed, the hearing shall be declared closed as of the final date set by the arbitrator for the receipt of briefs. If documents are to be filed as requested by the arbitrator and the date set for their receipt is later than that set for the receipt of briefs, the later date shall be the date of closing the hearings. The time limit within which the arbitrator is required to make the award shall commence to run, in the absence of other agreements by the parties, upon the closing of the hearings.(n) The hearing may be reopened on the arbitrators own motion.(o) Any party who proceeds with the arbitration after knowledge that any provision or requirement of these rules has not been complied with, and who fails to state their objections to the arbitrator in writing, within 10 calendar days of close of hearing, shall be deemed to have waived their right to object.(p) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), any papers or process necessary or proper for the initiation or continuation of an arbitration under these rules and for any court action in connection therewith, or for the entry of judgment on an award made thereunder, may be served upon any party (A) by regular mail addressed to that party or their attorney at the partys last known address, or (B) by personal service.(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), in all cases referred to arbitration pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 7085 in which the contractor fails or refuses to return an executed copy of the notice to arbitrate within the time specified, any papers or process specified in paragraph (1) to be sent to the contractor, including the notice of hearing, shall be mailed by certified mail to the contractors address of record.(q) The award shall be made promptly by the arbitrator, and unless otherwise agreed by the parties, no later than 30 calendar days from the date of closing the hearing, closing a reopened hearing, or if oral hearing has been waived, from the date of transmitting the final statements and proofs to the arbitrator.The arbitrator may for good cause extend any period of time established by these rules, except the time for making the award. The arbitrator shall notify the parties of any extension and the reason therefor.(r) (1) The arbitrator may grant any remedy or relief that the arbitrator deems just and equitable and within the scope of the boards referral and the requirements of the board. The arbitrator, in their sole discretion, may award costs or expenses.(2) The amendments made in paragraph (1) during the 200304 Regular Session shall not be interpreted to prevent an arbitrator from awarding a complainant all direct costs and expenses for the completion or repair of the project.(s) The award shall become final 30 calendar days from the date the arbitration award is issued. The arbitrator, upon written application of a party to the arbitration, may correct the award upon the following grounds:(1) There was an evident miscalculation of figures or an evident mistake in the description of any person, things, or property referred to in the award.(2) There is any other clerical error in the award, not affecting the merits of the controversy.An application for correction of the award shall be made within 10 calendar days of the date of service of the award by serving a copy of the application on the arbitrator, and all other parties to the arbitration. Any party to the arbitration may make a written objection to the application for correction by serving a copy of the written objection on the arbitrator, the board, and all other parties to the arbitration, within 10 calendar days of the date of service of the application for correction.The arbitrator shall either deny the application or correct the award within 30 calendar days of the date of service of the original award by mailing a copy of the denial or correction to all parties to the arbitration. Any appeal from the denial or correction shall be filed with a court of competent jurisdiction and a true copy thereof shall be filed with the arbitrator or appointed arbitration association within 30 calendar days after the award has become final. The award shall be in writing, and shall be signed by the arbitrator or a majority of them. If no appeal is filed within the 30-calendar day period, it shall become a final order of the registrar.(t) Service of the award by certified mail shall be effective if a certified letter containing the award, or a true copy thereof, is mailed by the arbitrator or arbitration association to each party or to a partys attorney of record at their last known address, address of record, or by personally serving any party. Service may be proved in the manner authorized in civil actions.(u) The board shall pay the expenses of one expert witness appointed by the board when the services of an expert witness are requested by either party involved in arbitration pursuant to this article and the case involves workmanship issues that are itemized in the complaint and have not been repaired or replaced. Parties who choose to present the findings of another expert witness as evidence shall pay for those services. Payment for expert witnesses appointed by the board shall be limited to the expert witness costs for inspection of the problem at the construction site, preparation of the expert witness report, and expert witness fees for appearing or testifying at a hearing. All requests for payment to an expert witness shall be submitted on a form that has been approved by the registrar. All requests for payment to an expert witness shall be reviewed and approved by the board prior to payment. The registrar shall advise the parties that names of industry experts may be obtained by requesting this information from the registrar.(v) The arbitrator shall interpret and apply these rules insofar as they relate to their powers and duties.(w) The following shall apply as to court procedure and exclusion of liability:(1) The board, the appointed arbitration association, or any arbitrator in a proceeding under these rules is not a necessary party in judicial proceedings relating to the arbitration.(2) Parties to these rules shall be deemed to have consented that judgment upon the arbitration award may be entered in any federal or state court having jurisdiction thereof.(3) The board, the appointed arbitration association, or any arbitrator is not liable to any party for any act or omission in connection with any arbitration conducted under these rules. |
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| 2204 | 2219 | | |
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| 2205 | 2220 | | 7085.5. Arbitrations of disputes arising out of cases filed with or by the board shall be conducted in accordance with the following rules:(a) All agreements to arbitrate shall include the names, addresses, and telephone numbers of the parties to the dispute, the issue in dispute, and the amount in dollars or any other remedy sought. The appropriate fee shall be paid by the board from the Contractors License Fund.(b) (1) The board or appointed arbitration association shall appoint an arbitrator in the following manner: immediately after the filing of the agreement to arbitrate, the board or appointed arbitration association shall submit simultaneously to each party to the dispute, an identical list of names of persons chosen from the panel. Each party to the dispute shall have seven days from the mailing date in which to cross off any names to which it objects, number the remaining names to indicate the order of preference, and return the list to the board or appointed arbitration association. If a party does not return the list within the time specified, all persons named in the list are acceptable. From among the persons who have been approved on both lists, and in accordance with the designated order of mutual preference, the board or appointed arbitration association shall appoint an arbitrator to serve. If the parties fail to agree on any of the parties named, if acceptable arbitrators are unable to act, or if, for any other reason, the appointment cannot be made from the submitted lists, the board or appointed arbitration association shall have the power to make the appointment from among other members of the panel without the submission of any additional lists. Each dispute shall be heard and determined by one arbitrator unless the board or appointed arbitration association, in its discretion, directs that a greater number of arbitrators be appointed.(2) In all cases in which a complaint has been referred to arbitration pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 7085, the board or the appointed arbitration association shall have the power to appoint an arbitrator to hear the matter.(3) The board shall adopt regulations setting minimum qualification standards for listed arbitrators based upon relevant training, experience, and performance.(c) No person shall serve as an arbitrator in any arbitration in which that person has any financial or personal interest in the result of the arbitration. Prior to accepting an appointment, the prospective arbitrator shall disclose any circumstances likely to prevent a prompt hearing or to create a presumption of bias. Upon receipt of that information, the board or appointed arbitration association shall immediately replace the arbitrator or communicate the information to the parties for their comments. Thereafter, the board or appointed arbitration association shall determine whether the arbitrator should be disqualified and shall inform the parties of its decision, which shall be conclusive.(d) The board or appointed arbitration association may appoint another arbitrator if a vacancy occurs, or if an appointed arbitrator is unable to serve in a timely manner.(e) (1) The board or appointed arbitration association shall provide the parties with a list of the times and dates, and locations of the hearing to be held. The parties shall notify the arbitrator, within seven calendar days of the mailing of the list, of the times and dates convenient to each party. If the parties fail to respond to the arbitrator within the seven-day period, the arbitrator shall fix the time, place, and location of the hearing. An arbitrator may, at the arbitrators sole discretion, make an inspection of the construction site which is the subject of the arbitration. The arbitrator shall notify the parties of the time and date set for the inspection. Any party who so desires may be present at the inspection.(2) The board or appointed arbitration association shall fix the time, place, and location of the hearing for all cases referred to arbitration pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 7085. An arbitrator may, at the arbitrators sole discretion, make an inspection of the construction site which is the subject of the arbitration. The arbitrator shall notify the parties of the time and date set for the inspection. Any party who desires may be present at the inspection.(f) Any person having a direct interest in the arbitration is entitled to attend the hearing. The arbitrator shall otherwise have the power to require the exclusion of any witness, other than a party or other essential person, during the testimony of any other witness. It shall be discretionary with the arbitrator to determine the propriety of the attendance of any other person.(g) Hearings shall be adjourned by the arbitrator only for good cause.(h) A record is not required to be taken of the proceedings. However, any party to the proceeding may have a record made at its own expense. The parties may make appropriate notes of the proceedings.(i) The hearing shall be conducted by the arbitrator in any manner which will permit full and expeditious presentation of the case by both parties. Consistent with the expedited nature of arbitration, the arbitrator shall establish the extent of, and schedule for, the production of relevant documents and other information, the identification of any witnesses to be called, and a schedule for any hearings to elicit facts solely within the knowledge of one party. The complaining party shall present its claims, proofs, and witnesses, who shall submit to questions or other examination. The defending party shall then present its defenses, proofs, and witnesses, who shall submit to questions or other examination. The arbitrator has discretion to vary this procedure but shall afford full and equal opportunity to the parties for the presentation of any material or relevant proofs.(j) The arbitration may proceed in the absence of any party who, after due notice, fails to be present. The arbitrator shall require the attending party to submit supporting evidence in order to make an award. An award for the attending party shall not be based solely on the fact that the other party has failed to appear at the arbitration hearing.(k) The arbitrator shall be the sole judge of the relevancy and materiality of the evidence offered and conformity to legal rules of evidence shall not be required.(l) The arbitrator may receive and consider documentary evidence. Documents to be considered by the arbitrator may be submitted prior to the hearing. However, a copy shall be simultaneously transmitted to all other parties and to the board or appointed arbitration association for transmittal to the arbitrator or board appointed arbitrator.(m) The arbitrator shall specifically inquire of the parties whether they have any further proofs to offer or witnesses to be heard. Upon receiving negative replies, the arbitrator shall declare the hearing closed and minutes thereof shall be recorded. If briefs are to be filed, the hearing shall be declared closed as of the final date set by the arbitrator for the receipt of briefs. If documents are to be filed as requested by the arbitrator and the date set for their receipt is later than that set for the receipt of briefs, the later date shall be the date of closing the hearings. The time limit within which the arbitrator is required to make the award shall commence to run, in the absence of other agreements by the parties, upon the closing of the hearings.(n) The hearing may be reopened on the arbitrators own motion.(o) Any party who proceeds with the arbitration after knowledge that any provision or requirement of these rules has not been complied with, and who fails to state their objections to the arbitrator in writing, within 10 calendar days of close of hearing, shall be deemed to have waived their right to object.(p) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), any papers or process necessary or proper for the initiation or continuation of an arbitration under these rules and for any court action in connection therewith, or for the entry of judgment on an award made thereunder, may be served upon any party (A) by regular mail addressed to that party or their attorney at the partys last known address, or (B) by personal service.(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), in all cases referred to arbitration pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 7085 in which the contractor fails or refuses to return an executed copy of the notice to arbitrate within the time specified, any papers or process specified in paragraph (1) to be sent to the contractor, including the notice of hearing, shall be mailed by certified mail to the contractors address of record.(q) The award shall be made promptly by the arbitrator, and unless otherwise agreed by the parties, no later than 30 calendar days from the date of closing the hearing, closing a reopened hearing, or if oral hearing has been waived, from the date of transmitting the final statements and proofs to the arbitrator.The arbitrator may for good cause extend any period of time established by these rules, except the time for making the award. The arbitrator shall notify the parties of any extension and the reason therefor.(r) (1) The arbitrator may grant any remedy or relief that the arbitrator deems just and equitable and within the scope of the boards referral and the requirements of the board. The arbitrator, in their sole discretion, may award costs or expenses.(2) The amendments made in paragraph (1) during the 200304 Regular Session shall not be interpreted to prevent an arbitrator from awarding a complainant all direct costs and expenses for the completion or repair of the project.(s) The award shall become final 30 calendar days from the date the arbitration award is issued. The arbitrator, upon written application of a party to the arbitration, may correct the award upon the following grounds:(1) There was an evident miscalculation of figures or an evident mistake in the description of any person, things, or property referred to in the award.(2) There is any other clerical error in the award, not affecting the merits of the controversy.An application for correction of the award shall be made within 10 calendar days of the date of service of the award by serving a copy of the application on the arbitrator, and all other parties to the arbitration. Any party to the arbitration may make a written objection to the application for correction by serving a copy of the written objection on the arbitrator, the board, and all other parties to the arbitration, within 10 calendar days of the date of service of the application for correction.The arbitrator shall either deny the application or correct the award within 30 calendar days of the date of service of the original award by mailing a copy of the denial or correction to all parties to the arbitration. Any appeal from the denial or correction shall be filed with a court of competent jurisdiction and a true copy thereof shall be filed with the arbitrator or appointed arbitration association within 30 calendar days after the award has become final. The award shall be in writing, and shall be signed by the arbitrator or a majority of them. If no appeal is filed within the 30-calendar day period, it shall become a final order of the registrar.(t) Service of the award by certified mail shall be effective if a certified letter containing the award, or a true copy thereof, is mailed by the arbitrator or arbitration association to each party or to a partys attorney of record at their last known address, address of record, or by personally serving any party. Service may be proved in the manner authorized in civil actions.(u) The board shall pay the expenses of one expert witness appointed by the board when the services of an expert witness are requested by either party involved in arbitration pursuant to this article and the case involves workmanship issues that are itemized in the complaint and have not been repaired or replaced. Parties who choose to present the findings of another expert witness as evidence shall pay for those services. Payment for expert witnesses appointed by the board shall be limited to the expert witness costs for inspection of the problem at the construction site, preparation of the expert witness report, and expert witness fees for appearing or testifying at a hearing. All requests for payment to an expert witness shall be submitted on a form that has been approved by the registrar. All requests for payment to an expert witness shall be reviewed and approved by the board prior to payment. The registrar shall advise the parties that names of industry experts may be obtained by requesting this information from the registrar.(v) The arbitrator shall interpret and apply these rules insofar as they relate to their powers and duties.(w) The following shall apply as to court procedure and exclusion of liability:(1) The board, the appointed arbitration association, or any arbitrator in a proceeding under these rules is not a necessary party in judicial proceedings relating to the arbitration.(2) Parties to these rules shall be deemed to have consented that judgment upon the arbitration award may be entered in any federal or state court having jurisdiction thereof.(3) The board, the appointed arbitration association, or any arbitrator is not liable to any party for any act or omission in connection with any arbitration conducted under these rules. |
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| 2206 | 2221 | | |
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| 2207 | 2222 | | 7085.5. Arbitrations of disputes arising out of cases filed with or by the board shall be conducted in accordance with the following rules:(a) All agreements to arbitrate shall include the names, addresses, and telephone numbers of the parties to the dispute, the issue in dispute, and the amount in dollars or any other remedy sought. The appropriate fee shall be paid by the board from the Contractors License Fund.(b) (1) The board or appointed arbitration association shall appoint an arbitrator in the following manner: immediately after the filing of the agreement to arbitrate, the board or appointed arbitration association shall submit simultaneously to each party to the dispute, an identical list of names of persons chosen from the panel. Each party to the dispute shall have seven days from the mailing date in which to cross off any names to which it objects, number the remaining names to indicate the order of preference, and return the list to the board or appointed arbitration association. If a party does not return the list within the time specified, all persons named in the list are acceptable. From among the persons who have been approved on both lists, and in accordance with the designated order of mutual preference, the board or appointed arbitration association shall appoint an arbitrator to serve. If the parties fail to agree on any of the parties named, if acceptable arbitrators are unable to act, or if, for any other reason, the appointment cannot be made from the submitted lists, the board or appointed arbitration association shall have the power to make the appointment from among other members of the panel without the submission of any additional lists. Each dispute shall be heard and determined by one arbitrator unless the board or appointed arbitration association, in its discretion, directs that a greater number of arbitrators be appointed.(2) In all cases in which a complaint has been referred to arbitration pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 7085, the board or the appointed arbitration association shall have the power to appoint an arbitrator to hear the matter.(3) The board shall adopt regulations setting minimum qualification standards for listed arbitrators based upon relevant training, experience, and performance.(c) No person shall serve as an arbitrator in any arbitration in which that person has any financial or personal interest in the result of the arbitration. Prior to accepting an appointment, the prospective arbitrator shall disclose any circumstances likely to prevent a prompt hearing or to create a presumption of bias. Upon receipt of that information, the board or appointed arbitration association shall immediately replace the arbitrator or communicate the information to the parties for their comments. Thereafter, the board or appointed arbitration association shall determine whether the arbitrator should be disqualified and shall inform the parties of its decision, which shall be conclusive.(d) The board or appointed arbitration association may appoint another arbitrator if a vacancy occurs, or if an appointed arbitrator is unable to serve in a timely manner.(e) (1) The board or appointed arbitration association shall provide the parties with a list of the times and dates, and locations of the hearing to be held. The parties shall notify the arbitrator, within seven calendar days of the mailing of the list, of the times and dates convenient to each party. If the parties fail to respond to the arbitrator within the seven-day period, the arbitrator shall fix the time, place, and location of the hearing. An arbitrator may, at the arbitrators sole discretion, make an inspection of the construction site which is the subject of the arbitration. The arbitrator shall notify the parties of the time and date set for the inspection. Any party who so desires may be present at the inspection.(2) The board or appointed arbitration association shall fix the time, place, and location of the hearing for all cases referred to arbitration pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 7085. An arbitrator may, at the arbitrators sole discretion, make an inspection of the construction site which is the subject of the arbitration. The arbitrator shall notify the parties of the time and date set for the inspection. Any party who desires may be present at the inspection.(f) Any person having a direct interest in the arbitration is entitled to attend the hearing. The arbitrator shall otherwise have the power to require the exclusion of any witness, other than a party or other essential person, during the testimony of any other witness. It shall be discretionary with the arbitrator to determine the propriety of the attendance of any other person.(g) Hearings shall be adjourned by the arbitrator only for good cause.(h) A record is not required to be taken of the proceedings. However, any party to the proceeding may have a record made at its own expense. The parties may make appropriate notes of the proceedings.(i) The hearing shall be conducted by the arbitrator in any manner which will permit full and expeditious presentation of the case by both parties. Consistent with the expedited nature of arbitration, the arbitrator shall establish the extent of, and schedule for, the production of relevant documents and other information, the identification of any witnesses to be called, and a schedule for any hearings to elicit facts solely within the knowledge of one party. The complaining party shall present its claims, proofs, and witnesses, who shall submit to questions or other examination. The defending party shall then present its defenses, proofs, and witnesses, who shall submit to questions or other examination. The arbitrator has discretion to vary this procedure but shall afford full and equal opportunity to the parties for the presentation of any material or relevant proofs.(j) The arbitration may proceed in the absence of any party who, after due notice, fails to be present. The arbitrator shall require the attending party to submit supporting evidence in order to make an award. An award for the attending party shall not be based solely on the fact that the other party has failed to appear at the arbitration hearing.(k) The arbitrator shall be the sole judge of the relevancy and materiality of the evidence offered and conformity to legal rules of evidence shall not be required.(l) The arbitrator may receive and consider documentary evidence. Documents to be considered by the arbitrator may be submitted prior to the hearing. However, a copy shall be simultaneously transmitted to all other parties and to the board or appointed arbitration association for transmittal to the arbitrator or board appointed arbitrator.(m) The arbitrator shall specifically inquire of the parties whether they have any further proofs to offer or witnesses to be heard. Upon receiving negative replies, the arbitrator shall declare the hearing closed and minutes thereof shall be recorded. If briefs are to be filed, the hearing shall be declared closed as of the final date set by the arbitrator for the receipt of briefs. If documents are to be filed as requested by the arbitrator and the date set for their receipt is later than that set for the receipt of briefs, the later date shall be the date of closing the hearings. The time limit within which the arbitrator is required to make the award shall commence to run, in the absence of other agreements by the parties, upon the closing of the hearings.(n) The hearing may be reopened on the arbitrators own motion.(o) Any party who proceeds with the arbitration after knowledge that any provision or requirement of these rules has not been complied with, and who fails to state their objections to the arbitrator in writing, within 10 calendar days of close of hearing, shall be deemed to have waived their right to object.(p) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), any papers or process necessary or proper for the initiation or continuation of an arbitration under these rules and for any court action in connection therewith, or for the entry of judgment on an award made thereunder, may be served upon any party (A) by regular mail addressed to that party or their attorney at the partys last known address, or (B) by personal service.(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), in all cases referred to arbitration pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 7085 in which the contractor fails or refuses to return an executed copy of the notice to arbitrate within the time specified, any papers or process specified in paragraph (1) to be sent to the contractor, including the notice of hearing, shall be mailed by certified mail to the contractors address of record.(q) The award shall be made promptly by the arbitrator, and unless otherwise agreed by the parties, no later than 30 calendar days from the date of closing the hearing, closing a reopened hearing, or if oral hearing has been waived, from the date of transmitting the final statements and proofs to the arbitrator.The arbitrator may for good cause extend any period of time established by these rules, except the time for making the award. The arbitrator shall notify the parties of any extension and the reason therefor.(r) (1) The arbitrator may grant any remedy or relief that the arbitrator deems just and equitable and within the scope of the boards referral and the requirements of the board. The arbitrator, in their sole discretion, may award costs or expenses.(2) The amendments made in paragraph (1) during the 200304 Regular Session shall not be interpreted to prevent an arbitrator from awarding a complainant all direct costs and expenses for the completion or repair of the project.(s) The award shall become final 30 calendar days from the date the arbitration award is issued. The arbitrator, upon written application of a party to the arbitration, may correct the award upon the following grounds:(1) There was an evident miscalculation of figures or an evident mistake in the description of any person, things, or property referred to in the award.(2) There is any other clerical error in the award, not affecting the merits of the controversy.An application for correction of the award shall be made within 10 calendar days of the date of service of the award by serving a copy of the application on the arbitrator, and all other parties to the arbitration. Any party to the arbitration may make a written objection to the application for correction by serving a copy of the written objection on the arbitrator, the board, and all other parties to the arbitration, within 10 calendar days of the date of service of the application for correction.The arbitrator shall either deny the application or correct the award within 30 calendar days of the date of service of the original award by mailing a copy of the denial or correction to all parties to the arbitration. Any appeal from the denial or correction shall be filed with a court of competent jurisdiction and a true copy thereof shall be filed with the arbitrator or appointed arbitration association within 30 calendar days after the award has become final. The award shall be in writing, and shall be signed by the arbitrator or a majority of them. If no appeal is filed within the 30-calendar day period, it shall become a final order of the registrar.(t) Service of the award by certified mail shall be effective if a certified letter containing the award, or a true copy thereof, is mailed by the arbitrator or arbitration association to each party or to a partys attorney of record at their last known address, address of record, or by personally serving any party. Service may be proved in the manner authorized in civil actions.(u) The board shall pay the expenses of one expert witness appointed by the board when the services of an expert witness are requested by either party involved in arbitration pursuant to this article and the case involves workmanship issues that are itemized in the complaint and have not been repaired or replaced. Parties who choose to present the findings of another expert witness as evidence shall pay for those services. Payment for expert witnesses appointed by the board shall be limited to the expert witness costs for inspection of the problem at the construction site, preparation of the expert witness report, and expert witness fees for appearing or testifying at a hearing. All requests for payment to an expert witness shall be submitted on a form that has been approved by the registrar. All requests for payment to an expert witness shall be reviewed and approved by the board prior to payment. The registrar shall advise the parties that names of industry experts may be obtained by requesting this information from the registrar.(v) The arbitrator shall interpret and apply these rules insofar as they relate to their powers and duties.(w) The following shall apply as to court procedure and exclusion of liability:(1) The board, the appointed arbitration association, or any arbitrator in a proceeding under these rules is not a necessary party in judicial proceedings relating to the arbitration.(2) Parties to these rules shall be deemed to have consented that judgment upon the arbitration award may be entered in any federal or state court having jurisdiction thereof.(3) The board, the appointed arbitration association, or any arbitrator is not liable to any party for any act or omission in connection with any arbitration conducted under these rules. |
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| 2208 | 2223 | | |
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| 2209 | 2224 | | |
|---|
| 2210 | 2225 | | |
|---|
| 2211 | 2226 | | 7085.5. Arbitrations of disputes arising out of cases filed with or by the board shall be conducted in accordance with the following rules: |
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| 2212 | 2227 | | |
|---|
| 2213 | 2228 | | (a) All agreements to arbitrate shall include the names, addresses, and telephone numbers of the parties to the dispute, the issue in dispute, and the amount in dollars or any other remedy sought. The appropriate fee shall be paid by the board from the Contractors License Fund. |
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| 2214 | 2229 | | |
|---|
| 2215 | 2230 | | (b) (1) The board or appointed arbitration association shall appoint an arbitrator in the following manner: immediately after the filing of the agreement to arbitrate, the board or appointed arbitration association shall submit simultaneously to each party to the dispute, an identical list of names of persons chosen from the panel. Each party to the dispute shall have seven days from the mailing date in which to cross off any names to which it objects, number the remaining names to indicate the order of preference, and return the list to the board or appointed arbitration association. If a party does not return the list within the time specified, all persons named in the list are acceptable. From among the persons who have been approved on both lists, and in accordance with the designated order of mutual preference, the board or appointed arbitration association shall appoint an arbitrator to serve. If the parties fail to agree on any of the parties named, if acceptable arbitrators are unable to act, or if, for any other reason, the appointment cannot be made from the submitted lists, the board or appointed arbitration association shall have the power to make the appointment from among other members of the panel without the submission of any additional lists. Each dispute shall be heard and determined by one arbitrator unless the board or appointed arbitration association, in its discretion, directs that a greater number of arbitrators be appointed. |
|---|
| 2216 | 2231 | | |
|---|
| 2217 | 2232 | | (2) In all cases in which a complaint has been referred to arbitration pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 7085, the board or the appointed arbitration association shall have the power to appoint an arbitrator to hear the matter. |
|---|
| 2218 | 2233 | | |
|---|
| 2219 | 2234 | | (3) The board shall adopt regulations setting minimum qualification standards for listed arbitrators based upon relevant training, experience, and performance. |
|---|
| 2220 | 2235 | | |
|---|
| 2221 | 2236 | | (c) No person shall serve as an arbitrator in any arbitration in which that person has any financial or personal interest in the result of the arbitration. Prior to accepting an appointment, the prospective arbitrator shall disclose any circumstances likely to prevent a prompt hearing or to create a presumption of bias. Upon receipt of that information, the board or appointed arbitration association shall immediately replace the arbitrator or communicate the information to the parties for their comments. Thereafter, the board or appointed arbitration association shall determine whether the arbitrator should be disqualified and shall inform the parties of its decision, which shall be conclusive. |
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| 2222 | 2237 | | |
|---|
| 2223 | 2238 | | (d) The board or appointed arbitration association may appoint another arbitrator if a vacancy occurs, or if an appointed arbitrator is unable to serve in a timely manner. |
|---|
| 2224 | 2239 | | |
|---|
| 2225 | 2240 | | (e) (1) The board or appointed arbitration association shall provide the parties with a list of the times and dates, and locations of the hearing to be held. The parties shall notify the arbitrator, within seven calendar days of the mailing of the list, of the times and dates convenient to each party. If the parties fail to respond to the arbitrator within the seven-day period, the arbitrator shall fix the time, place, and location of the hearing. An arbitrator may, at the arbitrators sole discretion, make an inspection of the construction site which is the subject of the arbitration. The arbitrator shall notify the parties of the time and date set for the inspection. Any party who so desires may be present at the inspection. |
|---|
| 2226 | 2241 | | |
|---|
| 2227 | 2242 | | (2) The board or appointed arbitration association shall fix the time, place, and location of the hearing for all cases referred to arbitration pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 7085. An arbitrator may, at the arbitrators sole discretion, make an inspection of the construction site which is the subject of the arbitration. The arbitrator shall notify the parties of the time and date set for the inspection. Any party who desires may be present at the inspection. |
|---|
| 2228 | 2243 | | |
|---|
| 2229 | 2244 | | (f) Any person having a direct interest in the arbitration is entitled to attend the hearing. The arbitrator shall otherwise have the power to require the exclusion of any witness, other than a party or other essential person, during the testimony of any other witness. It shall be discretionary with the arbitrator to determine the propriety of the attendance of any other person. |
|---|
| 2230 | 2245 | | |
|---|
| 2231 | 2246 | | (g) Hearings shall be adjourned by the arbitrator only for good cause. |
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| 2232 | 2247 | | |
|---|
| 2233 | 2248 | | (h) A record is not required to be taken of the proceedings. However, any party to the proceeding may have a record made at its own expense. The parties may make appropriate notes of the proceedings. |
|---|
| 2234 | 2249 | | |
|---|
| 2235 | 2250 | | (i) The hearing shall be conducted by the arbitrator in any manner which will permit full and expeditious presentation of the case by both parties. Consistent with the expedited nature of arbitration, the arbitrator shall establish the extent of, and schedule for, the production of relevant documents and other information, the identification of any witnesses to be called, and a schedule for any hearings to elicit facts solely within the knowledge of one party. The complaining party shall present its claims, proofs, and witnesses, who shall submit to questions or other examination. The defending party shall then present its defenses, proofs, and witnesses, who shall submit to questions or other examination. The arbitrator has discretion to vary this procedure but shall afford full and equal opportunity to the parties for the presentation of any material or relevant proofs. |
|---|
| 2236 | 2251 | | |
|---|
| 2237 | 2252 | | (j) The arbitration may proceed in the absence of any party who, after due notice, fails to be present. The arbitrator shall require the attending party to submit supporting evidence in order to make an award. An award for the attending party shall not be based solely on the fact that the other party has failed to appear at the arbitration hearing. |
|---|
| 2238 | 2253 | | |
|---|
| 2239 | 2254 | | (k) The arbitrator shall be the sole judge of the relevancy and materiality of the evidence offered and conformity to legal rules of evidence shall not be required. |
|---|
| 2240 | 2255 | | |
|---|
| 2241 | 2256 | | (l) The arbitrator may receive and consider documentary evidence. Documents to be considered by the arbitrator may be submitted prior to the hearing. However, a copy shall be simultaneously transmitted to all other parties and to the board or appointed arbitration association for transmittal to the arbitrator or board appointed arbitrator. |
|---|
| 2242 | 2257 | | |
|---|
| 2243 | 2258 | | (m) The arbitrator shall specifically inquire of the parties whether they have any further proofs to offer or witnesses to be heard. Upon receiving negative replies, the arbitrator shall declare the hearing closed and minutes thereof shall be recorded. If briefs are to be filed, the hearing shall be declared closed as of the final date set by the arbitrator for the receipt of briefs. If documents are to be filed as requested by the arbitrator and the date set for their receipt is later than that set for the receipt of briefs, the later date shall be the date of closing the hearings. The time limit within which the arbitrator is required to make the award shall commence to run, in the absence of other agreements by the parties, upon the closing of the hearings. |
|---|
| 2244 | 2259 | | |
|---|
| 2245 | 2260 | | (n) The hearing may be reopened on the arbitrators own motion. |
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| 2246 | 2261 | | |
|---|
| 2247 | 2262 | | (o) Any party who proceeds with the arbitration after knowledge that any provision or requirement of these rules has not been complied with, and who fails to state their objections to the arbitrator in writing, within 10 calendar days of close of hearing, shall be deemed to have waived their right to object. |
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| 2248 | 2263 | | |
|---|
| 2249 | 2264 | | (p) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), any papers or process necessary or proper for the initiation or continuation of an arbitration under these rules and for any court action in connection therewith, or for the entry of judgment on an award made thereunder, may be served upon any party (A) by regular mail addressed to that party or their attorney at the partys last known address, or (B) by personal service. |
|---|
| 2250 | 2265 | | |
|---|
| 2251 | 2266 | | (2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), in all cases referred to arbitration pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 7085 in which the contractor fails or refuses to return an executed copy of the notice to arbitrate within the time specified, any papers or process specified in paragraph (1) to be sent to the contractor, including the notice of hearing, shall be mailed by certified mail to the contractors address of record. |
|---|
| 2252 | 2267 | | |
|---|
| 2253 | 2268 | | (q) The award shall be made promptly by the arbitrator, and unless otherwise agreed by the parties, no later than 30 calendar days from the date of closing the hearing, closing a reopened hearing, or if oral hearing has been waived, from the date of transmitting the final statements and proofs to the arbitrator. |
|---|
| 2254 | 2269 | | |
|---|
| 2255 | 2270 | | The arbitrator may for good cause extend any period of time established by these rules, except the time for making the award. The arbitrator shall notify the parties of any extension and the reason therefor. |
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| 2256 | 2271 | | |
|---|
| 2257 | 2272 | | (r) (1) The arbitrator may grant any remedy or relief that the arbitrator deems just and equitable and within the scope of the boards referral and the requirements of the board. The arbitrator, in their sole discretion, may award costs or expenses. |
|---|
| 2258 | 2273 | | |
|---|
| 2259 | 2274 | | (2) The amendments made in paragraph (1) during the 200304 Regular Session shall not be interpreted to prevent an arbitrator from awarding a complainant all direct costs and expenses for the completion or repair of the project. |
|---|
| 2260 | 2275 | | |
|---|
| 2261 | 2276 | | (s) The award shall become final 30 calendar days from the date the arbitration award is issued. The arbitrator, upon written application of a party to the arbitration, may correct the award upon the following grounds: |
|---|
| 2262 | 2277 | | |
|---|
| 2263 | 2278 | | (1) There was an evident miscalculation of figures or an evident mistake in the description of any person, things, or property referred to in the award. |
|---|
| 2264 | 2279 | | |
|---|
| 2265 | 2280 | | (2) There is any other clerical error in the award, not affecting the merits of the controversy. |
|---|
| 2266 | 2281 | | |
|---|
| 2267 | 2282 | | An application for correction of the award shall be made within 10 calendar days of the date of service of the award by serving a copy of the application on the arbitrator, and all other parties to the arbitration. Any party to the arbitration may make a written objection to the application for correction by serving a copy of the written objection on the arbitrator, the board, and all other parties to the arbitration, within 10 calendar days of the date of service of the application for correction. |
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| 2268 | 2283 | | |
|---|
| 2269 | 2284 | | The arbitrator shall either deny the application or correct the award within 30 calendar days of the date of service of the original award by mailing a copy of the denial or correction to all parties to the arbitration. Any appeal from the denial or correction shall be filed with a court of competent jurisdiction and a true copy thereof shall be filed with the arbitrator or appointed arbitration association within 30 calendar days after the award has become final. The award shall be in writing, and shall be signed by the arbitrator or a majority of them. If no appeal is filed within the 30-calendar day period, it shall become a final order of the registrar. |
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| 2270 | 2285 | | |
|---|
| 2271 | 2286 | | (t) Service of the award by certified mail shall be effective if a certified letter containing the award, or a true copy thereof, is mailed by the arbitrator or arbitration association to each party or to a partys attorney of record at their last known address, address of record, or by personally serving any party. Service may be proved in the manner authorized in civil actions. |
|---|
| 2272 | 2287 | | |
|---|
| 2273 | 2288 | | (u) The board shall pay the expenses of one expert witness appointed by the board when the services of an expert witness are requested by either party involved in arbitration pursuant to this article and the case involves workmanship issues that are itemized in the complaint and have not been repaired or replaced. Parties who choose to present the findings of another expert witness as evidence shall pay for those services. Payment for expert witnesses appointed by the board shall be limited to the expert witness costs for inspection of the problem at the construction site, preparation of the expert witness report, and expert witness fees for appearing or testifying at a hearing. All requests for payment to an expert witness shall be submitted on a form that has been approved by the registrar. All requests for payment to an expert witness shall be reviewed and approved by the board prior to payment. The registrar shall advise the parties that names of industry experts may be obtained by requesting this information from the registrar. |
|---|
| 2274 | 2289 | | |
|---|
| 2275 | 2290 | | (v) The arbitrator shall interpret and apply these rules insofar as they relate to their powers and duties. |
|---|
| 2276 | 2291 | | |
|---|
| 2277 | 2292 | | (w) The following shall apply as to court procedure and exclusion of liability: |
|---|
| 2278 | 2293 | | |
|---|
| 2279 | 2294 | | (1) The board, the appointed arbitration association, or any arbitrator in a proceeding under these rules is not a necessary party in judicial proceedings relating to the arbitration. |
|---|
| 2280 | 2295 | | |
|---|
| 2281 | 2296 | | (2) Parties to these rules shall be deemed to have consented that judgment upon the arbitration award may be entered in any federal or state court having jurisdiction thereof. |
|---|
| 2282 | 2297 | | |
|---|
| 2283 | 2298 | | (3) The board, the appointed arbitration association, or any arbitrator is not liable to any party for any act or omission in connection with any arbitration conducted under these rules. |
|---|
| 2284 | 2299 | | |
|---|
| 2285 | 2300 | | SEC. 61. Section 7099.2 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7099.2. (a) The board shall promulgate regulations covering the assessment of civil penalties under this article that give due consideration to the appropriateness of the penalty with respect to the following factors:(1) The gravity of the violation.(2) The good faith of the licensee or applicant for licensure being charged.(3) The history of previous violations.(b) Except as otherwise provided by this chapter, no civil penalty shall be assessed in an amount greater than five thousand dollars ($5,000). Notwithstanding Section 125.9, a civil penalty not to exceed fifteen thousand dollars ($15,000) may be assessed for a violation of Section 7114 or 7118. |
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| 2286 | 2301 | | |
|---|
| 2287 | 2302 | | SEC. 61. Section 7099.2 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 2288 | 2303 | | |
|---|
| 2289 | 2304 | | ### SEC. 61. |
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| 2290 | 2305 | | |
|---|
| 2291 | 2306 | | 7099.2. (a) The board shall promulgate regulations covering the assessment of civil penalties under this article that give due consideration to the appropriateness of the penalty with respect to the following factors:(1) The gravity of the violation.(2) The good faith of the licensee or applicant for licensure being charged.(3) The history of previous violations.(b) Except as otherwise provided by this chapter, no civil penalty shall be assessed in an amount greater than five thousand dollars ($5,000). Notwithstanding Section 125.9, a civil penalty not to exceed fifteen thousand dollars ($15,000) may be assessed for a violation of Section 7114 or 7118. |
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| 2292 | 2307 | | |
|---|
| 2293 | 2308 | | 7099.2. (a) The board shall promulgate regulations covering the assessment of civil penalties under this article that give due consideration to the appropriateness of the penalty with respect to the following factors:(1) The gravity of the violation.(2) The good faith of the licensee or applicant for licensure being charged.(3) The history of previous violations.(b) Except as otherwise provided by this chapter, no civil penalty shall be assessed in an amount greater than five thousand dollars ($5,000). Notwithstanding Section 125.9, a civil penalty not to exceed fifteen thousand dollars ($15,000) may be assessed for a violation of Section 7114 or 7118. |
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| 2294 | 2309 | | |
|---|
| 2295 | 2310 | | 7099.2. (a) The board shall promulgate regulations covering the assessment of civil penalties under this article that give due consideration to the appropriateness of the penalty with respect to the following factors:(1) The gravity of the violation.(2) The good faith of the licensee or applicant for licensure being charged.(3) The history of previous violations.(b) Except as otherwise provided by this chapter, no civil penalty shall be assessed in an amount greater than five thousand dollars ($5,000). Notwithstanding Section 125.9, a civil penalty not to exceed fifteen thousand dollars ($15,000) may be assessed for a violation of Section 7114 or 7118. |
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| 2296 | 2311 | | |
|---|
| 2297 | 2312 | | |
|---|
| 2298 | 2313 | | |
|---|
| 2299 | 2314 | | 7099.2. (a) The board shall promulgate regulations covering the assessment of civil penalties under this article that give due consideration to the appropriateness of the penalty with respect to the following factors: |
|---|
| 2300 | 2315 | | |
|---|
| 2301 | 2316 | | (1) The gravity of the violation. |
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| 2302 | 2317 | | |
|---|
| 2303 | 2318 | | (2) The good faith of the licensee or applicant for licensure being charged. |
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| 2304 | 2319 | | |
|---|
| 2305 | 2320 | | (3) The history of previous violations. |
|---|
| 2306 | 2321 | | |
|---|
| 2307 | 2322 | | (b) Except as otherwise provided by this chapter, no civil penalty shall be assessed in an amount greater than five thousand dollars ($5,000). Notwithstanding Section 125.9, a civil penalty not to exceed fifteen thousand dollars ($15,000) may be assessed for a violation of Section 7114 or 7118. |
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| 2308 | 2323 | | |
|---|
| 2309 | 2324 | | SEC. 62. Section 7099.9 is added to the Business and Professions Code, to read:7099.9. (a) If, upon investigation, the registrar has probable cause to believe that a licensee, registrant, or applicant has committed acts or omissions that are grounds for denial, suspension, or revocation of a license or registration, the registrar, or their designee, may issue a letter of admonishment to an applicant, licensee, or registrant in lieu of issuing a citation. Nothing in this article shall in any way limit the registrars discretionary authority or ability to issue a letter of admonishment as prescribed by this subdivision.(b) The letter of admonishment shall be in writing and shall describe in detail the nature and facts of the violation, including a reference to the statutes or regulations violated. The letter of admonishment shall inform the licensee, registrant, or applicant that within 30 days of service of the letter of admonishment the licensee, registrant, or applicant may do either of the following:(1) Submit a written request for an office conference to the registrar to contest the letter of admonishment. Upon a timely request, the registrar, or their designee, shall hold an office conference with the licensee, registrant, or applicant and, if applicable, their legal counsel or authorized representative.(A) No individual other than the legal counsel or authorized representative of the licensee, registrant, or applicant may accompany the licensee, registrant, or applicant to the office conference.(B) Prior to or at the office conference, the licensee, registrant, or applicant may submit to the registrar declarations and documents pertinent to the subject matter of the letter of admonishment.(C) The office conference is intended to be informal and shall not be subject to the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 11400) or Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code).(D) After the office conference, the registrar, or their designee, may affirm, modify, or withdraw the letter of admonishment. Within 14 calendar days from the date of the office conference, the registrar, or their designee, shall personally serve or send the written decision by certified mail to the licensees, registrants, or applicants address of record. This decision shall be deemed the final administrative decision concerning the letter of admonishment.(E) Judicial review of the decision may be had by filing a petition for a writ of mandate in accordance with the provisions of Section 1094.5 of the Code of Civil Procedure within 30 days after the date the decision was personally served or sent by certified mail. The judicial review shall extend to the question of whether or not there was a prejudicial abuse of discretion in the issuance of the letter of admonishment or in the decision after the office conference.(2) Comply with the letter of admonishment and, if required, submit a written corrective action plan to the registrar documenting compliance. If an office conference is not requested pursuant to this section, compliance with the letter of admonishment shall not constitute an admission of the violation noted in the letter of admonishment.(c) The letter of admonishment shall be served upon the licensee, registrant, or applicant personally or by certified mail at their address of record with the board. If the licensee, registrant, or applicant is served by certified mail, service shall be effective upon deposit in the United States mail.(d) The licensee, registrant, or applicant shall maintain and have readily available a copy of the letter of admonishment and corrective action plan, if any, for at least one year from the date of issuance of the letter of admonishment.(e) Nothing in this subdivision shall in any way limit the boards authority or ability to do either of the following:(1) Issue a citation pursuant to Section 125.9, 148, or 7099.(2) Institute disciplinary proceedings pursuant to this article.(f) The issuance of a letter of admonishment shall not be construed as a disciplinary action or discipline for purposes of licensure or the reporting of discipline for licensure.(g) The board shall not issue a letter of admonishment when any one of the following factors is present:(1) The licensee, registrant, or applicant was unlicensed at the time of the violation.(2) Multiple violations have been established.(3) The licensee, registrant, or applicant has a history of the same or similar violations.(4) The violation resulted in financial harm to another.(5) The victim is an elder or dependent adult as defined in Section 368 of the Penal Code.(6) The violation is related to the repair of damage caused by a natural disaster.(h) The board may adopt regulations to further define the circumstances under which a letter of admonishment may be issued. |
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| 2310 | 2325 | | |
|---|
| 2311 | 2326 | | SEC. 62. Section 7099.9 is added to the Business and Professions Code, to read: |
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| 2312 | 2327 | | |
|---|
| 2313 | 2328 | | ### SEC. 62. |
|---|
| 2314 | 2329 | | |
|---|
| 2315 | 2330 | | 7099.9. (a) If, upon investigation, the registrar has probable cause to believe that a licensee, registrant, or applicant has committed acts or omissions that are grounds for denial, suspension, or revocation of a license or registration, the registrar, or their designee, may issue a letter of admonishment to an applicant, licensee, or registrant in lieu of issuing a citation. Nothing in this article shall in any way limit the registrars discretionary authority or ability to issue a letter of admonishment as prescribed by this subdivision.(b) The letter of admonishment shall be in writing and shall describe in detail the nature and facts of the violation, including a reference to the statutes or regulations violated. The letter of admonishment shall inform the licensee, registrant, or applicant that within 30 days of service of the letter of admonishment the licensee, registrant, or applicant may do either of the following:(1) Submit a written request for an office conference to the registrar to contest the letter of admonishment. Upon a timely request, the registrar, or their designee, shall hold an office conference with the licensee, registrant, or applicant and, if applicable, their legal counsel or authorized representative.(A) No individual other than the legal counsel or authorized representative of the licensee, registrant, or applicant may accompany the licensee, registrant, or applicant to the office conference.(B) Prior to or at the office conference, the licensee, registrant, or applicant may submit to the registrar declarations and documents pertinent to the subject matter of the letter of admonishment.(C) The office conference is intended to be informal and shall not be subject to the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 11400) or Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code).(D) After the office conference, the registrar, or their designee, may affirm, modify, or withdraw the letter of admonishment. Within 14 calendar days from the date of the office conference, the registrar, or their designee, shall personally serve or send the written decision by certified mail to the licensees, registrants, or applicants address of record. This decision shall be deemed the final administrative decision concerning the letter of admonishment.(E) Judicial review of the decision may be had by filing a petition for a writ of mandate in accordance with the provisions of Section 1094.5 of the Code of Civil Procedure within 30 days after the date the decision was personally served or sent by certified mail. The judicial review shall extend to the question of whether or not there was a prejudicial abuse of discretion in the issuance of the letter of admonishment or in the decision after the office conference.(2) Comply with the letter of admonishment and, if required, submit a written corrective action plan to the registrar documenting compliance. If an office conference is not requested pursuant to this section, compliance with the letter of admonishment shall not constitute an admission of the violation noted in the letter of admonishment.(c) The letter of admonishment shall be served upon the licensee, registrant, or applicant personally or by certified mail at their address of record with the board. If the licensee, registrant, or applicant is served by certified mail, service shall be effective upon deposit in the United States mail.(d) The licensee, registrant, or applicant shall maintain and have readily available a copy of the letter of admonishment and corrective action plan, if any, for at least one year from the date of issuance of the letter of admonishment.(e) Nothing in this subdivision shall in any way limit the boards authority or ability to do either of the following:(1) Issue a citation pursuant to Section 125.9, 148, or 7099.(2) Institute disciplinary proceedings pursuant to this article.(f) The issuance of a letter of admonishment shall not be construed as a disciplinary action or discipline for purposes of licensure or the reporting of discipline for licensure.(g) The board shall not issue a letter of admonishment when any one of the following factors is present:(1) The licensee, registrant, or applicant was unlicensed at the time of the violation.(2) Multiple violations have been established.(3) The licensee, registrant, or applicant has a history of the same or similar violations.(4) The violation resulted in financial harm to another.(5) The victim is an elder or dependent adult as defined in Section 368 of the Penal Code.(6) The violation is related to the repair of damage caused by a natural disaster.(h) The board may adopt regulations to further define the circumstances under which a letter of admonishment may be issued. |
|---|
| 2316 | 2331 | | |
|---|
| 2317 | 2332 | | 7099.9. (a) If, upon investigation, the registrar has probable cause to believe that a licensee, registrant, or applicant has committed acts or omissions that are grounds for denial, suspension, or revocation of a license or registration, the registrar, or their designee, may issue a letter of admonishment to an applicant, licensee, or registrant in lieu of issuing a citation. Nothing in this article shall in any way limit the registrars discretionary authority or ability to issue a letter of admonishment as prescribed by this subdivision.(b) The letter of admonishment shall be in writing and shall describe in detail the nature and facts of the violation, including a reference to the statutes or regulations violated. The letter of admonishment shall inform the licensee, registrant, or applicant that within 30 days of service of the letter of admonishment the licensee, registrant, or applicant may do either of the following:(1) Submit a written request for an office conference to the registrar to contest the letter of admonishment. Upon a timely request, the registrar, or their designee, shall hold an office conference with the licensee, registrant, or applicant and, if applicable, their legal counsel or authorized representative.(A) No individual other than the legal counsel or authorized representative of the licensee, registrant, or applicant may accompany the licensee, registrant, or applicant to the office conference.(B) Prior to or at the office conference, the licensee, registrant, or applicant may submit to the registrar declarations and documents pertinent to the subject matter of the letter of admonishment.(C) The office conference is intended to be informal and shall not be subject to the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 11400) or Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code).(D) After the office conference, the registrar, or their designee, may affirm, modify, or withdraw the letter of admonishment. Within 14 calendar days from the date of the office conference, the registrar, or their designee, shall personally serve or send the written decision by certified mail to the licensees, registrants, or applicants address of record. This decision shall be deemed the final administrative decision concerning the letter of admonishment.(E) Judicial review of the decision may be had by filing a petition for a writ of mandate in accordance with the provisions of Section 1094.5 of the Code of Civil Procedure within 30 days after the date the decision was personally served or sent by certified mail. The judicial review shall extend to the question of whether or not there was a prejudicial abuse of discretion in the issuance of the letter of admonishment or in the decision after the office conference.(2) Comply with the letter of admonishment and, if required, submit a written corrective action plan to the registrar documenting compliance. If an office conference is not requested pursuant to this section, compliance with the letter of admonishment shall not constitute an admission of the violation noted in the letter of admonishment.(c) The letter of admonishment shall be served upon the licensee, registrant, or applicant personally or by certified mail at their address of record with the board. If the licensee, registrant, or applicant is served by certified mail, service shall be effective upon deposit in the United States mail.(d) The licensee, registrant, or applicant shall maintain and have readily available a copy of the letter of admonishment and corrective action plan, if any, for at least one year from the date of issuance of the letter of admonishment.(e) Nothing in this subdivision shall in any way limit the boards authority or ability to do either of the following:(1) Issue a citation pursuant to Section 125.9, 148, or 7099.(2) Institute disciplinary proceedings pursuant to this article.(f) The issuance of a letter of admonishment shall not be construed as a disciplinary action or discipline for purposes of licensure or the reporting of discipline for licensure.(g) The board shall not issue a letter of admonishment when any one of the following factors is present:(1) The licensee, registrant, or applicant was unlicensed at the time of the violation.(2) Multiple violations have been established.(3) The licensee, registrant, or applicant has a history of the same or similar violations.(4) The violation resulted in financial harm to another.(5) The victim is an elder or dependent adult as defined in Section 368 of the Penal Code.(6) The violation is related to the repair of damage caused by a natural disaster.(h) The board may adopt regulations to further define the circumstances under which a letter of admonishment may be issued. |
|---|
| 2318 | 2333 | | |
|---|
| 2319 | 2334 | | 7099.9. (a) If, upon investigation, the registrar has probable cause to believe that a licensee, registrant, or applicant has committed acts or omissions that are grounds for denial, suspension, or revocation of a license or registration, the registrar, or their designee, may issue a letter of admonishment to an applicant, licensee, or registrant in lieu of issuing a citation. Nothing in this article shall in any way limit the registrars discretionary authority or ability to issue a letter of admonishment as prescribed by this subdivision.(b) The letter of admonishment shall be in writing and shall describe in detail the nature and facts of the violation, including a reference to the statutes or regulations violated. The letter of admonishment shall inform the licensee, registrant, or applicant that within 30 days of service of the letter of admonishment the licensee, registrant, or applicant may do either of the following:(1) Submit a written request for an office conference to the registrar to contest the letter of admonishment. Upon a timely request, the registrar, or their designee, shall hold an office conference with the licensee, registrant, or applicant and, if applicable, their legal counsel or authorized representative.(A) No individual other than the legal counsel or authorized representative of the licensee, registrant, or applicant may accompany the licensee, registrant, or applicant to the office conference.(B) Prior to or at the office conference, the licensee, registrant, or applicant may submit to the registrar declarations and documents pertinent to the subject matter of the letter of admonishment.(C) The office conference is intended to be informal and shall not be subject to the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 11400) or Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code).(D) After the office conference, the registrar, or their designee, may affirm, modify, or withdraw the letter of admonishment. Within 14 calendar days from the date of the office conference, the registrar, or their designee, shall personally serve or send the written decision by certified mail to the licensees, registrants, or applicants address of record. This decision shall be deemed the final administrative decision concerning the letter of admonishment.(E) Judicial review of the decision may be had by filing a petition for a writ of mandate in accordance with the provisions of Section 1094.5 of the Code of Civil Procedure within 30 days after the date the decision was personally served or sent by certified mail. The judicial review shall extend to the question of whether or not there was a prejudicial abuse of discretion in the issuance of the letter of admonishment or in the decision after the office conference.(2) Comply with the letter of admonishment and, if required, submit a written corrective action plan to the registrar documenting compliance. If an office conference is not requested pursuant to this section, compliance with the letter of admonishment shall not constitute an admission of the violation noted in the letter of admonishment.(c) The letter of admonishment shall be served upon the licensee, registrant, or applicant personally or by certified mail at their address of record with the board. If the licensee, registrant, or applicant is served by certified mail, service shall be effective upon deposit in the United States mail.(d) The licensee, registrant, or applicant shall maintain and have readily available a copy of the letter of admonishment and corrective action plan, if any, for at least one year from the date of issuance of the letter of admonishment.(e) Nothing in this subdivision shall in any way limit the boards authority or ability to do either of the following:(1) Issue a citation pursuant to Section 125.9, 148, or 7099.(2) Institute disciplinary proceedings pursuant to this article.(f) The issuance of a letter of admonishment shall not be construed as a disciplinary action or discipline for purposes of licensure or the reporting of discipline for licensure.(g) The board shall not issue a letter of admonishment when any one of the following factors is present:(1) The licensee, registrant, or applicant was unlicensed at the time of the violation.(2) Multiple violations have been established.(3) The licensee, registrant, or applicant has a history of the same or similar violations.(4) The violation resulted in financial harm to another.(5) The victim is an elder or dependent adult as defined in Section 368 of the Penal Code.(6) The violation is related to the repair of damage caused by a natural disaster.(h) The board may adopt regulations to further define the circumstances under which a letter of admonishment may be issued. |
|---|
| 2320 | 2335 | | |
|---|
| 2321 | 2336 | | |
|---|
| 2322 | 2337 | | |
|---|
| 2323 | 2338 | | 7099.9. (a) If, upon investigation, the registrar has probable cause to believe that a licensee, registrant, or applicant has committed acts or omissions that are grounds for denial, suspension, or revocation of a license or registration, the registrar, or their designee, may issue a letter of admonishment to an applicant, licensee, or registrant in lieu of issuing a citation. Nothing in this article shall in any way limit the registrars discretionary authority or ability to issue a letter of admonishment as prescribed by this subdivision. |
|---|
| 2324 | 2339 | | |
|---|
| 2325 | 2340 | | (b) The letter of admonishment shall be in writing and shall describe in detail the nature and facts of the violation, including a reference to the statutes or regulations violated. The letter of admonishment shall inform the licensee, registrant, or applicant that within 30 days of service of the letter of admonishment the licensee, registrant, or applicant may do either of the following: |
|---|
| 2326 | 2341 | | |
|---|
| 2327 | 2342 | | (1) Submit a written request for an office conference to the registrar to contest the letter of admonishment. Upon a timely request, the registrar, or their designee, shall hold an office conference with the licensee, registrant, or applicant and, if applicable, their legal counsel or authorized representative. |
|---|
| 2328 | 2343 | | |
|---|
| 2329 | 2344 | | (A) No individual other than the legal counsel or authorized representative of the licensee, registrant, or applicant may accompany the licensee, registrant, or applicant to the office conference. |
|---|
| 2330 | 2345 | | |
|---|
| 2331 | 2346 | | (B) Prior to or at the office conference, the licensee, registrant, or applicant may submit to the registrar declarations and documents pertinent to the subject matter of the letter of admonishment. |
|---|
| 2332 | 2347 | | |
|---|
| 2333 | 2348 | | (C) The office conference is intended to be informal and shall not be subject to the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 11400) or Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code). |
|---|
| 2334 | 2349 | | |
|---|
| 2335 | 2350 | | (D) After the office conference, the registrar, or their designee, may affirm, modify, or withdraw the letter of admonishment. Within 14 calendar days from the date of the office conference, the registrar, or their designee, shall personally serve or send the written decision by certified mail to the licensees, registrants, or applicants address of record. This decision shall be deemed the final administrative decision concerning the letter of admonishment. |
|---|
| 2336 | 2351 | | |
|---|
| 2337 | 2352 | | (E) Judicial review of the decision may be had by filing a petition for a writ of mandate in accordance with the provisions of Section 1094.5 of the Code of Civil Procedure within 30 days after the date the decision was personally served or sent by certified mail. The judicial review shall extend to the question of whether or not there was a prejudicial abuse of discretion in the issuance of the letter of admonishment or in the decision after the office conference. |
|---|
| 2338 | 2353 | | |
|---|
| 2339 | 2354 | | (2) Comply with the letter of admonishment and, if required, submit a written corrective action plan to the registrar documenting compliance. If an office conference is not requested pursuant to this section, compliance with the letter of admonishment shall not constitute an admission of the violation noted in the letter of admonishment. |
|---|
| 2340 | 2355 | | |
|---|
| 2341 | 2356 | | (c) The letter of admonishment shall be served upon the licensee, registrant, or applicant personally or by certified mail at their address of record with the board. If the licensee, registrant, or applicant is served by certified mail, service shall be effective upon deposit in the United States mail. |
|---|
| 2342 | 2357 | | |
|---|
| 2343 | 2358 | | (d) The licensee, registrant, or applicant shall maintain and have readily available a copy of the letter of admonishment and corrective action plan, if any, for at least one year from the date of issuance of the letter of admonishment. |
|---|
| 2344 | 2359 | | |
|---|
| 2345 | 2360 | | (e) Nothing in this subdivision shall in any way limit the boards authority or ability to do either of the following: |
|---|
| 2346 | 2361 | | |
|---|
| 2347 | 2362 | | (1) Issue a citation pursuant to Section 125.9, 148, or 7099. |
|---|
| 2348 | 2363 | | |
|---|
| 2349 | 2364 | | (2) Institute disciplinary proceedings pursuant to this article. |
|---|
| 2350 | 2365 | | |
|---|
| 2351 | 2366 | | (f) The issuance of a letter of admonishment shall not be construed as a disciplinary action or discipline for purposes of licensure or the reporting of discipline for licensure. |
|---|
| 2352 | 2367 | | |
|---|
| 2353 | 2368 | | (g) The board shall not issue a letter of admonishment when any one of the following factors is present: |
|---|
| 2354 | 2369 | | |
|---|
| 2355 | 2370 | | (1) The licensee, registrant, or applicant was unlicensed at the time of the violation. |
|---|
| 2356 | 2371 | | |
|---|
| 2357 | 2372 | | (2) Multiple violations have been established. |
|---|
| 2358 | 2373 | | |
|---|
| 2359 | 2374 | | (3) The licensee, registrant, or applicant has a history of the same or similar violations. |
|---|
| 2360 | 2375 | | |
|---|
| 2361 | 2376 | | (4) The violation resulted in financial harm to another. |
|---|
| 2362 | 2377 | | |
|---|
| 2363 | 2378 | | (5) The victim is an elder or dependent adult as defined in Section 368 of the Penal Code. |
|---|
| 2364 | 2379 | | |
|---|
| 2365 | 2380 | | (6) The violation is related to the repair of damage caused by a natural disaster. |
|---|
| 2366 | 2381 | | |
|---|
| 2367 | 2382 | | (h) The board may adopt regulations to further define the circumstances under which a letter of admonishment may be issued. |
|---|
| 2368 | 2383 | | |
|---|
| 2369 | 2384 | | SEC. 63. Section 7123.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7123.5. If a contractor is convicted of violating Section 396 of the Penal Code or any substantially similar local ordinance in connection with the sale, or offer for sale, of repair or reconstruction services, as defined in Section 396 of the Penal Code, the Contractors State License Board shall take disciplinary action against the contractor, which shall include a suspension of at least six months or the permanent revocation of the contractors license. |
|---|
| 2370 | 2385 | | |
|---|
| 2371 | 2386 | | SEC. 63. Section 7123.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 2372 | 2387 | | |
|---|
| 2373 | 2388 | | ### SEC. 63. |
|---|
| 2374 | 2389 | | |
|---|
| 2375 | 2390 | | 7123.5. If a contractor is convicted of violating Section 396 of the Penal Code or any substantially similar local ordinance in connection with the sale, or offer for sale, of repair or reconstruction services, as defined in Section 396 of the Penal Code, the Contractors State License Board shall take disciplinary action against the contractor, which shall include a suspension of at least six months or the permanent revocation of the contractors license. |
|---|
| 2376 | 2391 | | |
|---|
| 2377 | 2392 | | 7123.5. If a contractor is convicted of violating Section 396 of the Penal Code or any substantially similar local ordinance in connection with the sale, or offer for sale, of repair or reconstruction services, as defined in Section 396 of the Penal Code, the Contractors State License Board shall take disciplinary action against the contractor, which shall include a suspension of at least six months or the permanent revocation of the contractors license. |
|---|
| 2378 | 2393 | | |
|---|
| 2379 | 2394 | | 7123.5. If a contractor is convicted of violating Section 396 of the Penal Code or any substantially similar local ordinance in connection with the sale, or offer for sale, of repair or reconstruction services, as defined in Section 396 of the Penal Code, the Contractors State License Board shall take disciplinary action against the contractor, which shall include a suspension of at least six months or the permanent revocation of the contractors license. |
|---|
| 2380 | 2395 | | |
|---|
| 2381 | 2396 | | |
|---|
| 2382 | 2397 | | |
|---|
| 2383 | 2398 | | 7123.5. If a contractor is convicted of violating Section 396 of the Penal Code or any substantially similar local ordinance in connection with the sale, or offer for sale, of repair or reconstruction services, as defined in Section 396 of the Penal Code, the Contractors State License Board shall take disciplinary action against the contractor, which shall include a suspension of at least six months or the permanent revocation of the contractors license. |
|---|
| 2384 | 2399 | | |
|---|
| 2385 | 2400 | | SEC. 64. Section 7135 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7135. (a) The fees and civil penalties received under this chapter shall be deposited in the Contractors License Fund. All moneys in the fund are hereby appropriated for the purposes of this chapter.(b) It is the intent of the Legislature that the board shall use moneys appropriated from the fund to improve its administrative and investigative oversight activities and capacity. |
|---|
| 2386 | 2401 | | |
|---|
| 2387 | 2402 | | SEC. 64. Section 7135 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 2388 | 2403 | | |
|---|
| 2389 | 2404 | | ### SEC. 64. |
|---|
| 2390 | 2405 | | |
|---|
| 2391 | 2406 | | 7135. (a) The fees and civil penalties received under this chapter shall be deposited in the Contractors License Fund. All moneys in the fund are hereby appropriated for the purposes of this chapter.(b) It is the intent of the Legislature that the board shall use moneys appropriated from the fund to improve its administrative and investigative oversight activities and capacity. |
|---|
| 2392 | 2407 | | |
|---|
| 2393 | 2408 | | 7135. (a) The fees and civil penalties received under this chapter shall be deposited in the Contractors License Fund. All moneys in the fund are hereby appropriated for the purposes of this chapter.(b) It is the intent of the Legislature that the board shall use moneys appropriated from the fund to improve its administrative and investigative oversight activities and capacity. |
|---|
| 2394 | 2409 | | |
|---|
| 2395 | 2410 | | 7135. (a) The fees and civil penalties received under this chapter shall be deposited in the Contractors License Fund. All moneys in the fund are hereby appropriated for the purposes of this chapter.(b) It is the intent of the Legislature that the board shall use moneys appropriated from the fund to improve its administrative and investigative oversight activities and capacity. |
|---|
| 2396 | 2411 | | |
|---|
| 2397 | 2412 | | |
|---|
| 2398 | 2413 | | |
|---|
| 2399 | 2414 | | 7135. (a) The fees and civil penalties received under this chapter shall be deposited in the Contractors License Fund. All moneys in the fund are hereby appropriated for the purposes of this chapter. |
|---|
| 2400 | 2415 | | |
|---|
| 2401 | 2416 | | (b) It is the intent of the Legislature that the board shall use moneys appropriated from the fund to improve its administrative and investigative oversight activities and capacity. |
|---|
| 2402 | 2417 | | |
|---|
| 2403 | 2418 | | SEC. 65. Section 7136 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7136. The director shall designate a sum not to exceed 10 percent of the total income of the Contractors State License Board for each fiscal year to be transferred to the Consumer Affairs Fund as the boards share of the cost of administration of the department. |
|---|
| 2404 | 2419 | | |
|---|
| 2405 | 2420 | | SEC. 65. Section 7136 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 2406 | 2421 | | |
|---|
| 2407 | 2422 | | ### SEC. 65. |
|---|
| 2408 | 2423 | | |
|---|
| 2409 | 2424 | | 7136. The director shall designate a sum not to exceed 10 percent of the total income of the Contractors State License Board for each fiscal year to be transferred to the Consumer Affairs Fund as the boards share of the cost of administration of the department. |
|---|
| 2410 | 2425 | | |
|---|
| 2411 | 2426 | | 7136. The director shall designate a sum not to exceed 10 percent of the total income of the Contractors State License Board for each fiscal year to be transferred to the Consumer Affairs Fund as the boards share of the cost of administration of the department. |
|---|
| 2412 | 2427 | | |
|---|
| 2413 | 2428 | | 7136. The director shall designate a sum not to exceed 10 percent of the total income of the Contractors State License Board for each fiscal year to be transferred to the Consumer Affairs Fund as the boards share of the cost of administration of the department. |
|---|
| 2414 | 2429 | | |
|---|
| 2415 | 2430 | | |
|---|
| 2416 | 2431 | | |
|---|
| 2417 | 2432 | | 7136. The director shall designate a sum not to exceed 10 percent of the total income of the Contractors State License Board for each fiscal year to be transferred to the Consumer Affairs Fund as the boards share of the cost of administration of the department. |
|---|
| 2418 | 2433 | | |
|---|
| 2419 | 2434 | | SEC. 66. Section 7137 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7137. The board may set fees by regulation. These fees shall be set according to the following schedule:(a) (1) The application fee for an original license in a single classification shall be three hundred thirty dollars ($330) and may be increased to not more than three hundred seventy-five dollars ($375).(2) The application fee for each additional classification applied for in connection with an original license shall not be more than eighty-five dollars ($85).(3) The application fee for each additional classification pursuant to Section 7059 shall be one hundred fifty dollars ($150) and may be increased to not more than one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).(4) The application fee to replace a responsible managing officer, responsible managing manager, responsible managing member, or responsible managing employee pursuant to Section 7068.2 shall be one hundred fifty dollars ($150) and may be increased to not more than one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).(5) The application fee to add personnel, other than a qualifying individual, to an existing license shall be one hundred dollars ($100) and may be increased to not more than one hundred fifteen dollars ($115).(b) The fee for rescheduling an examination for an applicant who has applied for an original license, additional classification, a change of responsible managing officer, responsible managing manager, responsible managing member, or responsible managing employee, or for an asbestos certification or hazardous substance removal certification, shall not be more than seventy dollars ($70).(c) The fee for scheduling or rescheduling an examination for a licensee who is required to take the examination as a condition of probation shall not be more than seventy dollars ($70).(d) The initial license fee for an active or inactive license shall be two hundred dollars ($200) and may be increased to not more than two hundred twenty-five dollars ($225).(e) (1) The renewal fee for an active license shall be four hundred dollars ($400) and may be increased to not more than four hundred fifty dollars ($450).(2) The renewal fee for an inactive license shall be two hundred dollars ($200) and may be increased to not more than two hundred twenty-five dollars ($225).(f) The delinquency fee is an amount equal to 50 percent of the renewal fee, if the license is renewed after its expiration.(g) The registration fee for a home improvement salesperson shall be eighty-three dollars ($83) and may be increased to not more than ninety-five dollars ($95).(h) The renewal fee for a home improvement salesperson registration shall be eighty-three dollars ($83) and may be increased to not more than ninety-five dollars ($95).(i) The application fee for an asbestos certification examination shall be eighty-three dollars ($83) and may be increased to not more than ninety-five dollars ($95).(j) The application fee for a hazardous substance removal or remedial action certification examination shall be eighty-three dollars ($83) and may be increased to not more than ninety-five dollars ($95).(k) In addition to any other fees charged to C-10 contractors, the board shall charge a fee of twenty dollars ($20), to be assessed with the renewal fee for an active license, which shall be used by the board to enforce provisions of the Labor Code related to electrician certification.(l) The service fee to deposit with the registrar lawful money or cashiers check pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 995.710 of the Code of Civil Procedure for purposes of compliance with any provision of Article 5 (commencing with Section 7065) shall be one hundred dollars ($100), which shall be used by the board only to process each deposit filed with the registrar, to cover the reasonable costs to the registrar for holding money or cashiers checks in trust in interest bearing deposit or share accounts, and to offset the costs of processing payment of lawful claims against a deposit in a civil action.(m) The board shall, by regulation, establish criteria for the approval of expedited processing of applications. Approved expedited processing of applications for licensure or registration, as required by other provisions of law, shall not be subject to this subdivision. |
|---|
| 2420 | 2435 | | |
|---|
| 2421 | 2436 | | SEC. 66. Section 7137 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 2422 | 2437 | | |
|---|
| 2423 | 2438 | | ### SEC. 66. |
|---|
| 2424 | 2439 | | |
|---|
| 2425 | 2440 | | 7137. The board may set fees by regulation. These fees shall be set according to the following schedule:(a) (1) The application fee for an original license in a single classification shall be three hundred thirty dollars ($330) and may be increased to not more than three hundred seventy-five dollars ($375).(2) The application fee for each additional classification applied for in connection with an original license shall not be more than eighty-five dollars ($85).(3) The application fee for each additional classification pursuant to Section 7059 shall be one hundred fifty dollars ($150) and may be increased to not more than one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).(4) The application fee to replace a responsible managing officer, responsible managing manager, responsible managing member, or responsible managing employee pursuant to Section 7068.2 shall be one hundred fifty dollars ($150) and may be increased to not more than one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).(5) The application fee to add personnel, other than a qualifying individual, to an existing license shall be one hundred dollars ($100) and may be increased to not more than one hundred fifteen dollars ($115).(b) The fee for rescheduling an examination for an applicant who has applied for an original license, additional classification, a change of responsible managing officer, responsible managing manager, responsible managing member, or responsible managing employee, or for an asbestos certification or hazardous substance removal certification, shall not be more than seventy dollars ($70).(c) The fee for scheduling or rescheduling an examination for a licensee who is required to take the examination as a condition of probation shall not be more than seventy dollars ($70).(d) The initial license fee for an active or inactive license shall be two hundred dollars ($200) and may be increased to not more than two hundred twenty-five dollars ($225).(e) (1) The renewal fee for an active license shall be four hundred dollars ($400) and may be increased to not more than four hundred fifty dollars ($450).(2) The renewal fee for an inactive license shall be two hundred dollars ($200) and may be increased to not more than two hundred twenty-five dollars ($225).(f) The delinquency fee is an amount equal to 50 percent of the renewal fee, if the license is renewed after its expiration.(g) The registration fee for a home improvement salesperson shall be eighty-three dollars ($83) and may be increased to not more than ninety-five dollars ($95).(h) The renewal fee for a home improvement salesperson registration shall be eighty-three dollars ($83) and may be increased to not more than ninety-five dollars ($95).(i) The application fee for an asbestos certification examination shall be eighty-three dollars ($83) and may be increased to not more than ninety-five dollars ($95).(j) The application fee for a hazardous substance removal or remedial action certification examination shall be eighty-three dollars ($83) and may be increased to not more than ninety-five dollars ($95).(k) In addition to any other fees charged to C-10 contractors, the board shall charge a fee of twenty dollars ($20), to be assessed with the renewal fee for an active license, which shall be used by the board to enforce provisions of the Labor Code related to electrician certification.(l) The service fee to deposit with the registrar lawful money or cashiers check pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 995.710 of the Code of Civil Procedure for purposes of compliance with any provision of Article 5 (commencing with Section 7065) shall be one hundred dollars ($100), which shall be used by the board only to process each deposit filed with the registrar, to cover the reasonable costs to the registrar for holding money or cashiers checks in trust in interest bearing deposit or share accounts, and to offset the costs of processing payment of lawful claims against a deposit in a civil action.(m) The board shall, by regulation, establish criteria for the approval of expedited processing of applications. Approved expedited processing of applications for licensure or registration, as required by other provisions of law, shall not be subject to this subdivision. |
|---|
| 2426 | 2441 | | |
|---|
| 2427 | 2442 | | 7137. The board may set fees by regulation. These fees shall be set according to the following schedule:(a) (1) The application fee for an original license in a single classification shall be three hundred thirty dollars ($330) and may be increased to not more than three hundred seventy-five dollars ($375).(2) The application fee for each additional classification applied for in connection with an original license shall not be more than eighty-five dollars ($85).(3) The application fee for each additional classification pursuant to Section 7059 shall be one hundred fifty dollars ($150) and may be increased to not more than one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).(4) The application fee to replace a responsible managing officer, responsible managing manager, responsible managing member, or responsible managing employee pursuant to Section 7068.2 shall be one hundred fifty dollars ($150) and may be increased to not more than one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).(5) The application fee to add personnel, other than a qualifying individual, to an existing license shall be one hundred dollars ($100) and may be increased to not more than one hundred fifteen dollars ($115).(b) The fee for rescheduling an examination for an applicant who has applied for an original license, additional classification, a change of responsible managing officer, responsible managing manager, responsible managing member, or responsible managing employee, or for an asbestos certification or hazardous substance removal certification, shall not be more than seventy dollars ($70).(c) The fee for scheduling or rescheduling an examination for a licensee who is required to take the examination as a condition of probation shall not be more than seventy dollars ($70).(d) The initial license fee for an active or inactive license shall be two hundred dollars ($200) and may be increased to not more than two hundred twenty-five dollars ($225).(e) (1) The renewal fee for an active license shall be four hundred dollars ($400) and may be increased to not more than four hundred fifty dollars ($450).(2) The renewal fee for an inactive license shall be two hundred dollars ($200) and may be increased to not more than two hundred twenty-five dollars ($225).(f) The delinquency fee is an amount equal to 50 percent of the renewal fee, if the license is renewed after its expiration.(g) The registration fee for a home improvement salesperson shall be eighty-three dollars ($83) and may be increased to not more than ninety-five dollars ($95).(h) The renewal fee for a home improvement salesperson registration shall be eighty-three dollars ($83) and may be increased to not more than ninety-five dollars ($95).(i) The application fee for an asbestos certification examination shall be eighty-three dollars ($83) and may be increased to not more than ninety-five dollars ($95).(j) The application fee for a hazardous substance removal or remedial action certification examination shall be eighty-three dollars ($83) and may be increased to not more than ninety-five dollars ($95).(k) In addition to any other fees charged to C-10 contractors, the board shall charge a fee of twenty dollars ($20), to be assessed with the renewal fee for an active license, which shall be used by the board to enforce provisions of the Labor Code related to electrician certification.(l) The service fee to deposit with the registrar lawful money or cashiers check pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 995.710 of the Code of Civil Procedure for purposes of compliance with any provision of Article 5 (commencing with Section 7065) shall be one hundred dollars ($100), which shall be used by the board only to process each deposit filed with the registrar, to cover the reasonable costs to the registrar for holding money or cashiers checks in trust in interest bearing deposit or share accounts, and to offset the costs of processing payment of lawful claims against a deposit in a civil action.(m) The board shall, by regulation, establish criteria for the approval of expedited processing of applications. Approved expedited processing of applications for licensure or registration, as required by other provisions of law, shall not be subject to this subdivision. |
|---|
| 2428 | 2443 | | |
|---|
| 2429 | 2444 | | 7137. The board may set fees by regulation. These fees shall be set according to the following schedule:(a) (1) The application fee for an original license in a single classification shall be three hundred thirty dollars ($330) and may be increased to not more than three hundred seventy-five dollars ($375).(2) The application fee for each additional classification applied for in connection with an original license shall not be more than eighty-five dollars ($85).(3) The application fee for each additional classification pursuant to Section 7059 shall be one hundred fifty dollars ($150) and may be increased to not more than one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).(4) The application fee to replace a responsible managing officer, responsible managing manager, responsible managing member, or responsible managing employee pursuant to Section 7068.2 shall be one hundred fifty dollars ($150) and may be increased to not more than one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).(5) The application fee to add personnel, other than a qualifying individual, to an existing license shall be one hundred dollars ($100) and may be increased to not more than one hundred fifteen dollars ($115).(b) The fee for rescheduling an examination for an applicant who has applied for an original license, additional classification, a change of responsible managing officer, responsible managing manager, responsible managing member, or responsible managing employee, or for an asbestos certification or hazardous substance removal certification, shall not be more than seventy dollars ($70).(c) The fee for scheduling or rescheduling an examination for a licensee who is required to take the examination as a condition of probation shall not be more than seventy dollars ($70).(d) The initial license fee for an active or inactive license shall be two hundred dollars ($200) and may be increased to not more than two hundred twenty-five dollars ($225).(e) (1) The renewal fee for an active license shall be four hundred dollars ($400) and may be increased to not more than four hundred fifty dollars ($450).(2) The renewal fee for an inactive license shall be two hundred dollars ($200) and may be increased to not more than two hundred twenty-five dollars ($225).(f) The delinquency fee is an amount equal to 50 percent of the renewal fee, if the license is renewed after its expiration.(g) The registration fee for a home improvement salesperson shall be eighty-three dollars ($83) and may be increased to not more than ninety-five dollars ($95).(h) The renewal fee for a home improvement salesperson registration shall be eighty-three dollars ($83) and may be increased to not more than ninety-five dollars ($95).(i) The application fee for an asbestos certification examination shall be eighty-three dollars ($83) and may be increased to not more than ninety-five dollars ($95).(j) The application fee for a hazardous substance removal or remedial action certification examination shall be eighty-three dollars ($83) and may be increased to not more than ninety-five dollars ($95).(k) In addition to any other fees charged to C-10 contractors, the board shall charge a fee of twenty dollars ($20), to be assessed with the renewal fee for an active license, which shall be used by the board to enforce provisions of the Labor Code related to electrician certification.(l) The service fee to deposit with the registrar lawful money or cashiers check pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 995.710 of the Code of Civil Procedure for purposes of compliance with any provision of Article 5 (commencing with Section 7065) shall be one hundred dollars ($100), which shall be used by the board only to process each deposit filed with the registrar, to cover the reasonable costs to the registrar for holding money or cashiers checks in trust in interest bearing deposit or share accounts, and to offset the costs of processing payment of lawful claims against a deposit in a civil action.(m) The board shall, by regulation, establish criteria for the approval of expedited processing of applications. Approved expedited processing of applications for licensure or registration, as required by other provisions of law, shall not be subject to this subdivision. |
|---|
| 2430 | 2445 | | |
|---|
| 2431 | 2446 | | |
|---|
| 2432 | 2447 | | |
|---|
| 2433 | 2448 | | 7137. The board may set fees by regulation. These fees shall be set according to the following schedule: |
|---|
| 2434 | 2449 | | |
|---|
| 2435 | 2450 | | (a) (1) The application fee for an original license in a single classification shall be three hundred thirty dollars ($330) and may be increased to not more than three hundred seventy-five dollars ($375). |
|---|
| 2436 | 2451 | | |
|---|
| 2437 | 2452 | | (2) The application fee for each additional classification applied for in connection with an original license shall not be more than eighty-five dollars ($85). |
|---|
| 2438 | 2453 | | |
|---|
| 2439 | 2454 | | (3) The application fee for each additional classification pursuant to Section 7059 shall be one hundred fifty dollars ($150) and may be increased to not more than one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175). |
|---|
| 2440 | 2455 | | |
|---|
| 2441 | 2456 | | (4) The application fee to replace a responsible managing officer, responsible managing manager, responsible managing member, or responsible managing employee pursuant to Section 7068.2 shall be one hundred fifty dollars ($150) and may be increased to not more than one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175). |
|---|
| 2442 | 2457 | | |
|---|
| 2443 | 2458 | | (5) The application fee to add personnel, other than a qualifying individual, to an existing license shall be one hundred dollars ($100) and may be increased to not more than one hundred fifteen dollars ($115). |
|---|
| 2444 | 2459 | | |
|---|
| 2445 | 2460 | | (b) The fee for rescheduling an examination for an applicant who has applied for an original license, additional classification, a change of responsible managing officer, responsible managing manager, responsible managing member, or responsible managing employee, or for an asbestos certification or hazardous substance removal certification, shall not be more than seventy dollars ($70). |
|---|
| 2446 | 2461 | | |
|---|
| 2447 | 2462 | | (c) The fee for scheduling or rescheduling an examination for a licensee who is required to take the examination as a condition of probation shall not be more than seventy dollars ($70). |
|---|
| 2448 | 2463 | | |
|---|
| 2449 | 2464 | | (d) The initial license fee for an active or inactive license shall be two hundred dollars ($200) and may be increased to not more than two hundred twenty-five dollars ($225). |
|---|
| 2450 | 2465 | | |
|---|
| 2451 | 2466 | | (e) (1) The renewal fee for an active license shall be four hundred dollars ($400) and may be increased to not more than four hundred fifty dollars ($450). |
|---|
| 2452 | 2467 | | |
|---|
| 2453 | 2468 | | (2) The renewal fee for an inactive license shall be two hundred dollars ($200) and may be increased to not more than two hundred twenty-five dollars ($225). |
|---|
| 2454 | 2469 | | |
|---|
| 2455 | 2470 | | (f) The delinquency fee is an amount equal to 50 percent of the renewal fee, if the license is renewed after its expiration. |
|---|
| 2456 | 2471 | | |
|---|
| 2457 | 2472 | | (g) The registration fee for a home improvement salesperson shall be eighty-three dollars ($83) and may be increased to not more than ninety-five dollars ($95). |
|---|
| 2458 | 2473 | | |
|---|
| 2459 | 2474 | | (h) The renewal fee for a home improvement salesperson registration shall be eighty-three dollars ($83) and may be increased to not more than ninety-five dollars ($95). |
|---|
| 2460 | 2475 | | |
|---|
| 2461 | 2476 | | (i) The application fee for an asbestos certification examination shall be eighty-three dollars ($83) and may be increased to not more than ninety-five dollars ($95). |
|---|
| 2462 | 2477 | | |
|---|
| 2463 | 2478 | | (j) The application fee for a hazardous substance removal or remedial action certification examination shall be eighty-three dollars ($83) and may be increased to not more than ninety-five dollars ($95). |
|---|
| 2464 | 2479 | | |
|---|
| 2465 | 2480 | | (k) In addition to any other fees charged to C-10 contractors, the board shall charge a fee of twenty dollars ($20), to be assessed with the renewal fee for an active license, which shall be used by the board to enforce provisions of the Labor Code related to electrician certification. |
|---|
| 2466 | 2481 | | |
|---|
| 2467 | 2482 | | (l) The service fee to deposit with the registrar lawful money or cashiers check pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 995.710 of the Code of Civil Procedure for purposes of compliance with any provision of Article 5 (commencing with Section 7065) shall be one hundred dollars ($100), which shall be used by the board only to process each deposit filed with the registrar, to cover the reasonable costs to the registrar for holding money or cashiers checks in trust in interest bearing deposit or share accounts, and to offset the costs of processing payment of lawful claims against a deposit in a civil action. |
|---|
| 2468 | 2483 | | |
|---|
| 2469 | 2484 | | (m) The board shall, by regulation, establish criteria for the approval of expedited processing of applications. Approved expedited processing of applications for licensure or registration, as required by other provisions of law, shall not be subject to this subdivision. |
|---|
| 2470 | 2485 | | |
|---|
| 2471 | 2486 | | SEC. 67. Section 7137.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7137.5. The sum of ten thousand dollars ($10,000) shall be transferred from the Contractors License Fund to the Controller for the exclusive use of the California Uniform Construction Cost Accounting Commission.The commission shall prepare a recommendation to the Legislature for a local public agency source to fund the commission beginning July 1, 1991, which will provide revenue supported by the contract activities represented by the commissions authority.Upon adoption of this funding program, the commission shall reimburse the Contractors License Fund in the amount of ten thousand dollars ($10,000). |
|---|
| 2472 | 2487 | | |
|---|
| 2473 | 2488 | | SEC. 67. Section 7137.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 2474 | 2489 | | |
|---|
| 2475 | 2490 | | ### SEC. 67. |
|---|
| 2476 | 2491 | | |
|---|
| 2477 | 2492 | | 7137.5. The sum of ten thousand dollars ($10,000) shall be transferred from the Contractors License Fund to the Controller for the exclusive use of the California Uniform Construction Cost Accounting Commission.The commission shall prepare a recommendation to the Legislature for a local public agency source to fund the commission beginning July 1, 1991, which will provide revenue supported by the contract activities represented by the commissions authority.Upon adoption of this funding program, the commission shall reimburse the Contractors License Fund in the amount of ten thousand dollars ($10,000). |
|---|
| 2478 | 2493 | | |
|---|
| 2479 | 2494 | | 7137.5. The sum of ten thousand dollars ($10,000) shall be transferred from the Contractors License Fund to the Controller for the exclusive use of the California Uniform Construction Cost Accounting Commission.The commission shall prepare a recommendation to the Legislature for a local public agency source to fund the commission beginning July 1, 1991, which will provide revenue supported by the contract activities represented by the commissions authority.Upon adoption of this funding program, the commission shall reimburse the Contractors License Fund in the amount of ten thousand dollars ($10,000). |
|---|
| 2480 | 2495 | | |
|---|
| 2481 | 2496 | | 7137.5. The sum of ten thousand dollars ($10,000) shall be transferred from the Contractors License Fund to the Controller for the exclusive use of the California Uniform Construction Cost Accounting Commission.The commission shall prepare a recommendation to the Legislature for a local public agency source to fund the commission beginning July 1, 1991, which will provide revenue supported by the contract activities represented by the commissions authority.Upon adoption of this funding program, the commission shall reimburse the Contractors License Fund in the amount of ten thousand dollars ($10,000). |
|---|
| 2482 | 2497 | | |
|---|
| 2483 | 2498 | | |
|---|
| 2484 | 2499 | | |
|---|
| 2485 | 2500 | | 7137.5. The sum of ten thousand dollars ($10,000) shall be transferred from the Contractors License Fund to the Controller for the exclusive use of the California Uniform Construction Cost Accounting Commission. |
|---|
| 2486 | 2501 | | |
|---|
| 2487 | 2502 | | The commission shall prepare a recommendation to the Legislature for a local public agency source to fund the commission beginning July 1, 1991, which will provide revenue supported by the contract activities represented by the commissions authority. |
|---|
| 2488 | 2503 | | |
|---|
| 2489 | 2504 | | Upon adoption of this funding program, the commission shall reimburse the Contractors License Fund in the amount of ten thousand dollars ($10,000). |
|---|
| 2490 | 2505 | | |
|---|
| 2491 | 2506 | | SEC. 68. Section 7138 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7138. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a fee paid in connection with a service or application covered by Section 7137 shall accrue to the Contractors License Fund as an earned fee and shall not be refunded. |
|---|
| 2492 | 2507 | | |
|---|
| 2493 | 2508 | | SEC. 68. Section 7138 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 2494 | 2509 | | |
|---|
| 2495 | 2510 | | ### SEC. 68. |
|---|
| 2496 | 2511 | | |
|---|
| 2497 | 2512 | | 7138. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a fee paid in connection with a service or application covered by Section 7137 shall accrue to the Contractors License Fund as an earned fee and shall not be refunded. |
|---|
| 2498 | 2513 | | |
|---|
| 2499 | 2514 | | 7138. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a fee paid in connection with a service or application covered by Section 7137 shall accrue to the Contractors License Fund as an earned fee and shall not be refunded. |
|---|
| 2500 | 2515 | | |
|---|
| 2501 | 2516 | | 7138. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a fee paid in connection with a service or application covered by Section 7137 shall accrue to the Contractors License Fund as an earned fee and shall not be refunded. |
|---|
| 2502 | 2517 | | |
|---|
| 2503 | 2518 | | |
|---|
| 2504 | 2519 | | |
|---|
| 2505 | 2520 | | 7138. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a fee paid in connection with a service or application covered by Section 7137 shall accrue to the Contractors License Fund as an earned fee and shall not be refunded. |
|---|
| 2506 | 2521 | | |
|---|
| 2507 | 2522 | | SEC. 69. Section 7139.1 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7139.1. The Legislature hereby finds and declares all of the following:(a) There is a demand and increasing need for construction management education programs and resources within the postsecondary education system that prepare graduates for the management of construction operations and companies regulated by the Contractors State License Law and enforced by the Contractors State License Board.(b) Although construction management programs do exist within the state university system, these programs are woefully underfunded and insufficiently funded to provide training on state-of-the-art management information systems for either graduates or extension programs for continuing education of licensed contractors. Construction industry associations have provided some assistance through direct grants and scholarships, but the industrywide service of these programs and the need for additional assistance mandates broad based industrywide support.(c) It is the intent of the Legislature that by enabling contractors to designate a portion of their licensure fee and providing a format for contractors to contribute funds to construction management education, this article will receive broad based industry support. In addition, this article allows the contractor to demonstrate the importance of construction management education. This assistance will enable greater development of construction management curricula and will improve the overall quality of construction by providing construction management training to California licensed contractors and their current and future management personnel. |
|---|
| 2508 | 2523 | | |
|---|
| 2509 | 2524 | | SEC. 69. Section 7139.1 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 2510 | 2525 | | |
|---|
| 2511 | 2526 | | ### SEC. 69. |
|---|
| 2512 | 2527 | | |
|---|
| 2513 | 2528 | | 7139.1. The Legislature hereby finds and declares all of the following:(a) There is a demand and increasing need for construction management education programs and resources within the postsecondary education system that prepare graduates for the management of construction operations and companies regulated by the Contractors State License Law and enforced by the Contractors State License Board.(b) Although construction management programs do exist within the state university system, these programs are woefully underfunded and insufficiently funded to provide training on state-of-the-art management information systems for either graduates or extension programs for continuing education of licensed contractors. Construction industry associations have provided some assistance through direct grants and scholarships, but the industrywide service of these programs and the need for additional assistance mandates broad based industrywide support.(c) It is the intent of the Legislature that by enabling contractors to designate a portion of their licensure fee and providing a format for contractors to contribute funds to construction management education, this article will receive broad based industry support. In addition, this article allows the contractor to demonstrate the importance of construction management education. This assistance will enable greater development of construction management curricula and will improve the overall quality of construction by providing construction management training to California licensed contractors and their current and future management personnel. |
|---|
| 2514 | 2529 | | |
|---|
| 2515 | 2530 | | 7139.1. The Legislature hereby finds and declares all of the following:(a) There is a demand and increasing need for construction management education programs and resources within the postsecondary education system that prepare graduates for the management of construction operations and companies regulated by the Contractors State License Law and enforced by the Contractors State License Board.(b) Although construction management programs do exist within the state university system, these programs are woefully underfunded and insufficiently funded to provide training on state-of-the-art management information systems for either graduates or extension programs for continuing education of licensed contractors. Construction industry associations have provided some assistance through direct grants and scholarships, but the industrywide service of these programs and the need for additional assistance mandates broad based industrywide support.(c) It is the intent of the Legislature that by enabling contractors to designate a portion of their licensure fee and providing a format for contractors to contribute funds to construction management education, this article will receive broad based industry support. In addition, this article allows the contractor to demonstrate the importance of construction management education. This assistance will enable greater development of construction management curricula and will improve the overall quality of construction by providing construction management training to California licensed contractors and their current and future management personnel. |
|---|
| 2516 | 2531 | | |
|---|
| 2517 | 2532 | | 7139.1. The Legislature hereby finds and declares all of the following:(a) There is a demand and increasing need for construction management education programs and resources within the postsecondary education system that prepare graduates for the management of construction operations and companies regulated by the Contractors State License Law and enforced by the Contractors State License Board.(b) Although construction management programs do exist within the state university system, these programs are woefully underfunded and insufficiently funded to provide training on state-of-the-art management information systems for either graduates or extension programs for continuing education of licensed contractors. Construction industry associations have provided some assistance through direct grants and scholarships, but the industrywide service of these programs and the need for additional assistance mandates broad based industrywide support.(c) It is the intent of the Legislature that by enabling contractors to designate a portion of their licensure fee and providing a format for contractors to contribute funds to construction management education, this article will receive broad based industry support. In addition, this article allows the contractor to demonstrate the importance of construction management education. This assistance will enable greater development of construction management curricula and will improve the overall quality of construction by providing construction management training to California licensed contractors and their current and future management personnel. |
|---|
| 2518 | 2533 | | |
|---|
| 2519 | 2534 | | |
|---|
| 2520 | 2535 | | |
|---|
| 2521 | 2536 | | 7139.1. The Legislature hereby finds and declares all of the following: |
|---|
| 2522 | 2537 | | |
|---|
| 2523 | 2538 | | (a) There is a demand and increasing need for construction management education programs and resources within the postsecondary education system that prepare graduates for the management of construction operations and companies regulated by the Contractors State License Law and enforced by the Contractors State License Board. |
|---|
| 2524 | 2539 | | |
|---|
| 2525 | 2540 | | (b) Although construction management programs do exist within the state university system, these programs are woefully underfunded and insufficiently funded to provide training on state-of-the-art management information systems for either graduates or extension programs for continuing education of licensed contractors. Construction industry associations have provided some assistance through direct grants and scholarships, but the industrywide service of these programs and the need for additional assistance mandates broad based industrywide support. |
|---|
| 2526 | 2541 | | |
|---|
| 2527 | 2542 | | (c) It is the intent of the Legislature that by enabling contractors to designate a portion of their licensure fee and providing a format for contractors to contribute funds to construction management education, this article will receive broad based industry support. In addition, this article allows the contractor to demonstrate the importance of construction management education. This assistance will enable greater development of construction management curricula and will improve the overall quality of construction by providing construction management training to California licensed contractors and their current and future management personnel. |
|---|
| 2528 | 2543 | | |
|---|
| 2529 | 2544 | | SEC. 70. Section 7139.2 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7139.2. (a) There is hereby created the Construction Management Education Account (CMEA) as a separate account in the Contractors License Fund for the purposes of construction management education. Funds in the account shall be available for the purposes of this article upon appropriation by the Legislature.(b) The Contractors State License Board shall allow a contractor to make a contribution to the Construction Management Education Account at the time of the contractor license fee payment. The license fee form shall clearly display this alternative on its face and shall clearly inform the licensee that this provision is a contribution to the Construction Management Education Account and is in addition to the fees.(c) The board may accept grants from federal, state, or local public agencies, or from private foundations or individuals, in order to assist it in carrying out its duties, functions, and powers under this article. Grant moneys shall be deposited into the Construction Management Education Account. |
|---|
| 2530 | 2545 | | |
|---|
| 2531 | 2546 | | SEC. 70. Section 7139.2 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 2532 | 2547 | | |
|---|
| 2533 | 2548 | | ### SEC. 70. |
|---|
| 2534 | 2549 | | |
|---|
| 2535 | 2550 | | 7139.2. (a) There is hereby created the Construction Management Education Account (CMEA) as a separate account in the Contractors License Fund for the purposes of construction management education. Funds in the account shall be available for the purposes of this article upon appropriation by the Legislature.(b) The Contractors State License Board shall allow a contractor to make a contribution to the Construction Management Education Account at the time of the contractor license fee payment. The license fee form shall clearly display this alternative on its face and shall clearly inform the licensee that this provision is a contribution to the Construction Management Education Account and is in addition to the fees.(c) The board may accept grants from federal, state, or local public agencies, or from private foundations or individuals, in order to assist it in carrying out its duties, functions, and powers under this article. Grant moneys shall be deposited into the Construction Management Education Account. |
|---|
| 2536 | 2551 | | |
|---|
| 2537 | 2552 | | 7139.2. (a) There is hereby created the Construction Management Education Account (CMEA) as a separate account in the Contractors License Fund for the purposes of construction management education. Funds in the account shall be available for the purposes of this article upon appropriation by the Legislature.(b) The Contractors State License Board shall allow a contractor to make a contribution to the Construction Management Education Account at the time of the contractor license fee payment. The license fee form shall clearly display this alternative on its face and shall clearly inform the licensee that this provision is a contribution to the Construction Management Education Account and is in addition to the fees.(c) The board may accept grants from federal, state, or local public agencies, or from private foundations or individuals, in order to assist it in carrying out its duties, functions, and powers under this article. Grant moneys shall be deposited into the Construction Management Education Account. |
|---|
| 2538 | 2553 | | |
|---|
| 2539 | 2554 | | 7139.2. (a) There is hereby created the Construction Management Education Account (CMEA) as a separate account in the Contractors License Fund for the purposes of construction management education. Funds in the account shall be available for the purposes of this article upon appropriation by the Legislature.(b) The Contractors State License Board shall allow a contractor to make a contribution to the Construction Management Education Account at the time of the contractor license fee payment. The license fee form shall clearly display this alternative on its face and shall clearly inform the licensee that this provision is a contribution to the Construction Management Education Account and is in addition to the fees.(c) The board may accept grants from federal, state, or local public agencies, or from private foundations or individuals, in order to assist it in carrying out its duties, functions, and powers under this article. Grant moneys shall be deposited into the Construction Management Education Account. |
|---|
| 2540 | 2555 | | |
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| 2541 | 2556 | | |
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| 2542 | 2557 | | |
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| 2543 | 2558 | | 7139.2. (a) There is hereby created the Construction Management Education Account (CMEA) as a separate account in the Contractors License Fund for the purposes of construction management education. Funds in the account shall be available for the purposes of this article upon appropriation by the Legislature. |
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| 2544 | 2559 | | |
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| 2545 | 2560 | | (b) The Contractors State License Board shall allow a contractor to make a contribution to the Construction Management Education Account at the time of the contractor license fee payment. The license fee form shall clearly display this alternative on its face and shall clearly inform the licensee that this provision is a contribution to the Construction Management Education Account and is in addition to the fees. |
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| 2546 | 2561 | | |
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| 2547 | 2562 | | (c) The board may accept grants from federal, state, or local public agencies, or from private foundations or individuals, in order to assist it in carrying out its duties, functions, and powers under this article. Grant moneys shall be deposited into the Construction Management Education Account. |
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| 2548 | 2563 | | |
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| 2549 | 2564 | | SEC. 71. Section 7141.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7141.5. The registrar shall grant the retroactive renewal of a license if, within 90 days of the expiration of the license, the otherwise eligible licensee submits a completed application for renewal on a form prescribed by the registrar, and pays the appropriate renewal fee and delinquency fee prescribed by this chapter. For the purposes of this section, an application shall be deemed submitted if it is delivered to the boards headquarters or postmarked within 90 days of the expiration of the license. |
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| 2550 | 2565 | | |
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| 2551 | 2566 | | SEC. 71. Section 7141.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
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| 2552 | 2567 | | |
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| 2553 | 2568 | | ### SEC. 71. |
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| 2554 | 2569 | | |
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| 2555 | 2570 | | 7141.5. The registrar shall grant the retroactive renewal of a license if, within 90 days of the expiration of the license, the otherwise eligible licensee submits a completed application for renewal on a form prescribed by the registrar, and pays the appropriate renewal fee and delinquency fee prescribed by this chapter. For the purposes of this section, an application shall be deemed submitted if it is delivered to the boards headquarters or postmarked within 90 days of the expiration of the license. |
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| 2556 | 2571 | | |
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| 2557 | 2572 | | 7141.5. The registrar shall grant the retroactive renewal of a license if, within 90 days of the expiration of the license, the otherwise eligible licensee submits a completed application for renewal on a form prescribed by the registrar, and pays the appropriate renewal fee and delinquency fee prescribed by this chapter. For the purposes of this section, an application shall be deemed submitted if it is delivered to the boards headquarters or postmarked within 90 days of the expiration of the license. |
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| 2558 | 2573 | | |
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| 2559 | 2574 | | 7141.5. The registrar shall grant the retroactive renewal of a license if, within 90 days of the expiration of the license, the otherwise eligible licensee submits a completed application for renewal on a form prescribed by the registrar, and pays the appropriate renewal fee and delinquency fee prescribed by this chapter. For the purposes of this section, an application shall be deemed submitted if it is delivered to the boards headquarters or postmarked within 90 days of the expiration of the license. |
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| 2560 | 2575 | | |
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| 2561 | 2576 | | |
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| 2562 | 2577 | | |
|---|
| 2563 | 2578 | | 7141.5. The registrar shall grant the retroactive renewal of a license if, within 90 days of the expiration of the license, the otherwise eligible licensee submits a completed application for renewal on a form prescribed by the registrar, and pays the appropriate renewal fee and delinquency fee prescribed by this chapter. For the purposes of this section, an application shall be deemed submitted if it is delivered to the boards headquarters or postmarked within 90 days of the expiration of the license. |
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| 2564 | 2579 | | |
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| 2565 | 2580 | | SEC. 72. Section 7145.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7145.5. (a) The registrar may refuse to issue, reinstate, reactivate, or renew a license or may suspend a license for the failure of a licensee to resolve all outstanding final liabilities, which include taxes, additions to tax, penalties, interest, and any fees that may be assessed by the board, the Department of Industrial Relations, the Employment Development Department, the Franchise Tax Board, or the State Board of Equalization.(1) Until the debts covered by this section are satisfied, the qualifying person and any other personnel of record named on a license that has been suspended under this section shall be prohibited from serving in any capacity that is subject to licensure under this chapter, but shall be permitted to act in the capacity of a nonsupervising bona fide employee.(2) The license of any other renewable licensed entity with any of the same personnel of record that have been assessed an outstanding liability covered by this section shall be suspended until the debt has been satisfied or until the same personnel of record disassociate themselves from the renewable licensed entity.(b) The refusal to issue a license or the suspension of a license as provided by this section shall be applicable only if the registrar has mailed a notice preliminary to the refusal or suspension that indicates that the license will be refused or suspended by a date certain. This preliminary notice shall be mailed to the licensee at least 60 days before the date certain.(c) In the case of outstanding final liabilities assessed by the Franchise Tax Board, this section shall be operative within 60 days after the Contractors State License Board has provided the Franchise Tax Board with the information required under Section 30, relating to licensing information that includes the federal employer identification number, individual taxpayer identification number, or social security number.(d) All versions of the application for a contractors license shall include, as part of the application, an authorization by the applicant, in the form and manner mutually agreeable to the Franchise Tax Board and the board, for the Franchise Tax Board to disclose the tax information that is required for the registrar to administer this section. The Franchise Tax Board may from time to time audit these authorizations.(e) In the case of outstanding final liabilities assessed by the State Board of Equalization, this section shall not apply to any outstanding final liability if the licensee has entered into an installment payment agreement for that liability with the State Board of Equalization and is in compliance with the terms of that agreement. |
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| 2566 | 2581 | | |
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| 2567 | 2582 | | SEC. 72. Section 7145.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
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| 2568 | 2583 | | |
|---|
| 2569 | 2584 | | ### SEC. 72. |
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| 2570 | 2585 | | |
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| 2571 | 2586 | | 7145.5. (a) The registrar may refuse to issue, reinstate, reactivate, or renew a license or may suspend a license for the failure of a licensee to resolve all outstanding final liabilities, which include taxes, additions to tax, penalties, interest, and any fees that may be assessed by the board, the Department of Industrial Relations, the Employment Development Department, the Franchise Tax Board, or the State Board of Equalization.(1) Until the debts covered by this section are satisfied, the qualifying person and any other personnel of record named on a license that has been suspended under this section shall be prohibited from serving in any capacity that is subject to licensure under this chapter, but shall be permitted to act in the capacity of a nonsupervising bona fide employee.(2) The license of any other renewable licensed entity with any of the same personnel of record that have been assessed an outstanding liability covered by this section shall be suspended until the debt has been satisfied or until the same personnel of record disassociate themselves from the renewable licensed entity.(b) The refusal to issue a license or the suspension of a license as provided by this section shall be applicable only if the registrar has mailed a notice preliminary to the refusal or suspension that indicates that the license will be refused or suspended by a date certain. This preliminary notice shall be mailed to the licensee at least 60 days before the date certain.(c) In the case of outstanding final liabilities assessed by the Franchise Tax Board, this section shall be operative within 60 days after the Contractors State License Board has provided the Franchise Tax Board with the information required under Section 30, relating to licensing information that includes the federal employer identification number, individual taxpayer identification number, or social security number.(d) All versions of the application for a contractors license shall include, as part of the application, an authorization by the applicant, in the form and manner mutually agreeable to the Franchise Tax Board and the board, for the Franchise Tax Board to disclose the tax information that is required for the registrar to administer this section. The Franchise Tax Board may from time to time audit these authorizations.(e) In the case of outstanding final liabilities assessed by the State Board of Equalization, this section shall not apply to any outstanding final liability if the licensee has entered into an installment payment agreement for that liability with the State Board of Equalization and is in compliance with the terms of that agreement. |
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| 2572 | 2587 | | |
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| 2573 | 2588 | | 7145.5. (a) The registrar may refuse to issue, reinstate, reactivate, or renew a license or may suspend a license for the failure of a licensee to resolve all outstanding final liabilities, which include taxes, additions to tax, penalties, interest, and any fees that may be assessed by the board, the Department of Industrial Relations, the Employment Development Department, the Franchise Tax Board, or the State Board of Equalization.(1) Until the debts covered by this section are satisfied, the qualifying person and any other personnel of record named on a license that has been suspended under this section shall be prohibited from serving in any capacity that is subject to licensure under this chapter, but shall be permitted to act in the capacity of a nonsupervising bona fide employee.(2) The license of any other renewable licensed entity with any of the same personnel of record that have been assessed an outstanding liability covered by this section shall be suspended until the debt has been satisfied or until the same personnel of record disassociate themselves from the renewable licensed entity.(b) The refusal to issue a license or the suspension of a license as provided by this section shall be applicable only if the registrar has mailed a notice preliminary to the refusal or suspension that indicates that the license will be refused or suspended by a date certain. This preliminary notice shall be mailed to the licensee at least 60 days before the date certain.(c) In the case of outstanding final liabilities assessed by the Franchise Tax Board, this section shall be operative within 60 days after the Contractors State License Board has provided the Franchise Tax Board with the information required under Section 30, relating to licensing information that includes the federal employer identification number, individual taxpayer identification number, or social security number.(d) All versions of the application for a contractors license shall include, as part of the application, an authorization by the applicant, in the form and manner mutually agreeable to the Franchise Tax Board and the board, for the Franchise Tax Board to disclose the tax information that is required for the registrar to administer this section. The Franchise Tax Board may from time to time audit these authorizations.(e) In the case of outstanding final liabilities assessed by the State Board of Equalization, this section shall not apply to any outstanding final liability if the licensee has entered into an installment payment agreement for that liability with the State Board of Equalization and is in compliance with the terms of that agreement. |
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| 2574 | 2589 | | |
|---|
| 2575 | 2590 | | 7145.5. (a) The registrar may refuse to issue, reinstate, reactivate, or renew a license or may suspend a license for the failure of a licensee to resolve all outstanding final liabilities, which include taxes, additions to tax, penalties, interest, and any fees that may be assessed by the board, the Department of Industrial Relations, the Employment Development Department, the Franchise Tax Board, or the State Board of Equalization.(1) Until the debts covered by this section are satisfied, the qualifying person and any other personnel of record named on a license that has been suspended under this section shall be prohibited from serving in any capacity that is subject to licensure under this chapter, but shall be permitted to act in the capacity of a nonsupervising bona fide employee.(2) The license of any other renewable licensed entity with any of the same personnel of record that have been assessed an outstanding liability covered by this section shall be suspended until the debt has been satisfied or until the same personnel of record disassociate themselves from the renewable licensed entity.(b) The refusal to issue a license or the suspension of a license as provided by this section shall be applicable only if the registrar has mailed a notice preliminary to the refusal or suspension that indicates that the license will be refused or suspended by a date certain. This preliminary notice shall be mailed to the licensee at least 60 days before the date certain.(c) In the case of outstanding final liabilities assessed by the Franchise Tax Board, this section shall be operative within 60 days after the Contractors State License Board has provided the Franchise Tax Board with the information required under Section 30, relating to licensing information that includes the federal employer identification number, individual taxpayer identification number, or social security number.(d) All versions of the application for a contractors license shall include, as part of the application, an authorization by the applicant, in the form and manner mutually agreeable to the Franchise Tax Board and the board, for the Franchise Tax Board to disclose the tax information that is required for the registrar to administer this section. The Franchise Tax Board may from time to time audit these authorizations.(e) In the case of outstanding final liabilities assessed by the State Board of Equalization, this section shall not apply to any outstanding final liability if the licensee has entered into an installment payment agreement for that liability with the State Board of Equalization and is in compliance with the terms of that agreement. |
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| 2576 | 2591 | | |
|---|
| 2577 | 2592 | | |
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| 2578 | 2593 | | |
|---|
| 2579 | 2594 | | 7145.5. (a) The registrar may refuse to issue, reinstate, reactivate, or renew a license or may suspend a license for the failure of a licensee to resolve all outstanding final liabilities, which include taxes, additions to tax, penalties, interest, and any fees that may be assessed by the board, the Department of Industrial Relations, the Employment Development Department, the Franchise Tax Board, or the State Board of Equalization. |
|---|
| 2580 | 2595 | | |
|---|
| 2581 | 2596 | | (1) Until the debts covered by this section are satisfied, the qualifying person and any other personnel of record named on a license that has been suspended under this section shall be prohibited from serving in any capacity that is subject to licensure under this chapter, but shall be permitted to act in the capacity of a nonsupervising bona fide employee. |
|---|
| 2582 | 2597 | | |
|---|
| 2583 | 2598 | | (2) The license of any other renewable licensed entity with any of the same personnel of record that have been assessed an outstanding liability covered by this section shall be suspended until the debt has been satisfied or until the same personnel of record disassociate themselves from the renewable licensed entity. |
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| 2584 | 2599 | | |
|---|
| 2585 | 2600 | | (b) The refusal to issue a license or the suspension of a license as provided by this section shall be applicable only if the registrar has mailed a notice preliminary to the refusal or suspension that indicates that the license will be refused or suspended by a date certain. This preliminary notice shall be mailed to the licensee at least 60 days before the date certain. |
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| 2586 | 2601 | | |
|---|
| 2587 | 2602 | | (c) In the case of outstanding final liabilities assessed by the Franchise Tax Board, this section shall be operative within 60 days after the Contractors State License Board has provided the Franchise Tax Board with the information required under Section 30, relating to licensing information that includes the federal employer identification number, individual taxpayer identification number, or social security number. |
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| 2588 | 2603 | | |
|---|
| 2589 | 2604 | | (d) All versions of the application for a contractors license shall include, as part of the application, an authorization by the applicant, in the form and manner mutually agreeable to the Franchise Tax Board and the board, for the Franchise Tax Board to disclose the tax information that is required for the registrar to administer this section. The Franchise Tax Board may from time to time audit these authorizations. |
|---|
| 2590 | 2605 | | |
|---|
| 2591 | 2606 | | (e) In the case of outstanding final liabilities assessed by the State Board of Equalization, this section shall not apply to any outstanding final liability if the licensee has entered into an installment payment agreement for that liability with the State Board of Equalization and is in compliance with the terms of that agreement. |
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| 2592 | 2607 | | |
|---|
| 2593 | 2608 | | SEC. 73. Section 7159 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7159. (a) (1) This section identifies the projects for which a home improvement contract is required, outlines the contract requirements, and lists the items that shall be included in the contract, or may be provided as an attachment.(2) This section does not apply to service and repair contracts that are subject to Section 7159.10, if the contract for the applicable services complies with Sections 7159.10 to 7159.14, inclusive.(3) This section does not apply to the sale, installation, and servicing of a fire alarm sold in conjunction with an alarm system, as defined in Section 7590.1, if all costs attributable to making the fire alarm system operable, including sale and installation costs, do not exceed five hundred dollars ($500), and the licensee complies with the requirements set forth in Section 7159.9.(4) This section does not apply to any costs associated with monitoring a burglar or fire alarm system.(5) Failure by the licensee, their agent or salesperson, or by a person subject to be licensed under this chapter, to provide the specified information, notices, and disclosures in the contract, or to otherwise fail to comply with any provision of this section, is cause for discipline.(b) For purposes of this section, home improvement contract means an agreement, whether oral or written, or contained in one or more documents, between a contractor and an owner or between a contractor and a tenant, regardless of the number of residence or dwelling units contained in the building in which the tenant resides, if the work is to be performed in, to, or upon the residence or dwelling unit of the tenant, for the performance of a home improvement, as defined in Section 7151, and includes all labor, services, and materials to be furnished and performed thereunder, if the aggregate contract price specified in one or more improvement contracts, including all labor, services, and materials to be furnished by the contractor, exceeds five hundred dollars ($500). Home improvement contract also means an agreement, whether oral or written, or contained in one or more documents, between a salesperson, whether or not they are a home improvement salesperson, and an owner or a tenant, regardless of the number of residence or dwelling units contained in the building in which the tenant resides, which provides for the sale, installation, or furnishing of home improvement goods or services.(c) In addition to the specific requirements listed under this section, every home improvement contract and any person subject to licensure under this chapter or their agent or salesperson shall comply with all of the following:(1) The writing shall be legible.(2) Any printed form shall be readable. Unless a larger typeface is specified in this article, text in any printed form shall be in at least 10-point typeface and the headings shall be in at least 10-point boldface type.(3) (A) Before any work is started, the contractor shall give the buyer a copy of the contract signed and dated by both the contractor and the buyer. The buyers receipt of the copy of the contract initiates the buyers rights to cancel the contract pursuant to Sections 1689.5 to 1689.14, inclusive, of the Civil Code.(B) The contract shall contain on the first page, in a typeface no smaller than that generally used in the body of the document, both of the following:(i) The date the buyer signed the contract.(ii) The name and address of the contractor to which the applicable Notice of Cancellation is to be mailed, immediately preceded by a statement advising the buyer that the Notice of Cancellation may be sent to the contractor at the address noted on the contract.(4) The contract shall include a statement that, upon satisfactory payment being made for any portion of the work performed, the contractor, prior to any further payment being made, shall furnish to the person contracting for the home improvement or swimming pool work a full and unconditional release from any potential lien claimant claim or mechanics lien authorized pursuant to Sections 8400 and 8404 of the Civil Code for that portion of the work for which payment has been made.(5) A change-order form for changes or extra work shall be incorporated into the contract and shall become part of the contract only if it is in writing and signed by the parties prior to the commencement of any work covered by a change order.(6) The contract shall contain, in close proximity to the signatures of the owner and contractor, a notice stating that the owner or tenant has the right to require the contractor to have a performance and payment bond.(7) If the contract provides for a contractor to furnish joint control, the contractor shall not have any financial or other interest in the joint control.(8) The provisions of this section are not exclusive and do not relieve the contractor from compliance with any other applicable provision of law.(d) A home improvement contract and any changes to the contract shall be in writing and signed by the parties to the contract prior to the commencement of work covered by the contract or an applicable change order and, except as provided in paragraph (8) of subdivision (a) of Section 7159.5, shall include or comply with all of the following:(1) The name, business address, and license number of the contractor.(2) If applicable, the name and registration number of the home improvement salesperson that solicited or negotiated the contract.(3) The following heading on the contract form that identifies the type of contract in at least 10-point boldface type: Home Improvement.(4) The following statement in at least 12-point boldface type: You are entitled to a completely filled in copy of this agreement, signed by both you and the contractor, before any work may be started.(5) The heading: Contract Price, followed by the amount of the contract in dollars and cents.(6) If a finance charge will be charged, the heading: Finance Charge, followed by the amount in dollars and cents. The finance charge is to be set out separately from the contract amount.(7) The heading: Description of the Project and Description of the Significant Materials to be Used and Equipment to be Installed, followed by a description of the project and a description of the significant materials to be used and equipment to be installed. For swimming pools, the project description required under this paragraph also shall include a plan and scale drawing showing the shape, size, dimensions, and the construction and equipment specifications.(8) If a downpayment will be charged, the details of the downpayment shall be expressed in substantially the following form, and shall include the text of the notice as specified in subparagraph (C):(A) The heading: Downpayment.(B) A space where the actual downpayment appears.(C) The following statement in at least 12-point boldface type:THE DOWNPAYMENT MAY NOT EXCEED $1,000 OR 10 PERCENT OF THE CONTRACT PRICE, WHICHEVER IS LESS.(9) If payments, other than the downpayment, are to be made before the project is completed, the details of these payments, known as progress payments, shall be expressed in substantially the following form, and shall include the text of the statement as specified in subparagraph (C):(A) A schedule of progress payments shall be preceded by the heading: Schedule of Progress Payments.(B) Each progress payment shall be stated in dollars and cents and specifically reference the amount of work or services to be performed and materials and equipment to be supplied.(C) The section of the contract reserved for the progress payments shall include the following statement in at least 12-point boldface type:The schedule of progress payments must specifically describe each phase of work, including the type and amount of work or services scheduled to be supplied in each phase, along with the amount of each proposed progress payment. IT IS AGAINST THE LAW FOR A CONTRACTOR TO COLLECT PAYMENT FOR WORK NOT YET COMPLETED, OR FOR MATERIALS NOT YET DELIVERED. HOWEVER, A CONTRACTOR MAY REQUIRE A DOWNPAYMENT.(10) The contract shall address the commencement of work to be performed in substantially the following form:(A) A statement that describes what constitutes substantial commencement of work under the contract.(B) The heading: Approximate Start Date.(C) The approximate date on which work will be commenced.(11) The estimated completion date of the work shall be referenced in the contract in substantially the following form:(A) The heading: Approximate Completion Date.(B) The approximate date of completion.(12) If applicable, the heading: List of Documents to be Incorporated into the Contract, followed by the list of documents incorporated into the contract.(13) The heading: Note About Extra Work and Change Orders, followed by the following statement:Extra Work and Change Orders become part of the contract once the order is prepared in writing and signed by the parties prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order. The order must describe the scope of the extra work or change, the cost to be added or subtracted from the contract, and the effect the order will have on the schedule of progress payments.(e) Except as provided in paragraph (8) of subdivision (a) of Section 7159.5, all of the following notices shall be provided to the owner as part of the contract form as specified or, if otherwise authorized under this subdivision, may be provided as an attachment to the contract:(1) A notice concerning commercial general liability insurance. This notice may be provided as an attachment to the contract if the contract includes the following statement: A notice concerning commercial general liability insurance is attached to this contract. The notice shall include the heading Commercial General Liability Insurance (CGL), followed by whichever of the following statements is both relevant and correct:(A) (The name on the license or This contractor) does not carry commercial general liability insurance.(B) (The name on the license or This contractor) carries commercial general liability insurance written by (the insurance company). You may call (the insurance company) at __________ to check the contractors insurance coverage.(C) (The name on the license or This contractor) is self-insured.(D) (The name on the license or This contractor) is a limited liability company that carries liability insurance or maintains other security as required by law. You may call (the insurance company or trust company or bank) at ____ to check on the contractors insurance coverage or security.(2) A notice concerning workers compensation insurance. This notice may be provided as an attachment to the contract if the contract includes the statement: A notice concerning workers compensation insurance is attached to this contract. The notice shall include the heading Workers Compensation Insurance followed by whichever of the following statements is correct:(A) (The name on the license or This contractor) has no employees and is exempt from workers compensation requirements.(B) (The name on the license or This contractor) carries workers compensation insurance for all employees.(3) A notice that provides the buyer with the following information about the performance of extra or change-order work:(A) A statement that the buyer may not require a contractor to perform extra or change-order work without providing written authorization prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order.(B) A statement informing the buyer that extra work or a change order is not enforceable against a buyer unless the change order also identifies all of the following in writing prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order:(i) The scope of work encompassed by the order.(ii) The amount to be added or subtracted from the contract.(iii) The effect the order will make in the progress payments or the completion date.(C) A statement informing the buyer that the contractors failure to comply with the requirements of this paragraph does not preclude the recovery of compensation for work performed based upon legal or equitable remedies designed to prevent unjust enrichment.(4) A notice with the heading Mechanics Lien Warning written as follows:MECHANICS LIEN WARNING:Anyone who helps improve your property, but who is not paid, may record what is called a mechanics lien on your property. A mechanics lien is a claim, like a mortgage or home equity loan, made against your property and recorded with the county recorder.Even if you pay your contractor in full, unpaid subcontractors, suppliers, and laborers who helped to improve your property may record mechanics liens and sue you in court to foreclose the lien. If a court finds the lien is valid, you could be forced to pay twice or have a court officer sell your home to pay the lien. Liens can also affect your credit.To preserve their right to record a lien, each subcontractor and material supplier must provide you with a document called a Preliminary Notice. This notice is not a lien. The purpose of the notice is to let you know that the person who sends you the notice has the right to record a lien on your property if they are not paid.BE CAREFUL. The Preliminary Notice can be sent up to 20 days after the subcontractor starts work or the supplier provides material. This can be a big problem if you pay your contractor before you have received the Preliminary Notices.You will not get Preliminary Notices from your prime contractor or from laborers who work on your project. The law assumes that you already know they are improving your property.PROTECT YOURSELF FROM LIENS. You can protect yourself from liens by getting a list from your contractor of all the subcontractors and material suppliers that work on your project. Find out from your contractor when these subcontractors started work and when these suppliers delivered goods or materials. Then wait 20 days, paying attention to the Preliminary Notices you receive.PAY WITH JOINT CHECKS. One way to protect yourself is to pay with a joint check. When your contractor tells you it is time to pay for the work of a subcontractor or supplier who has provided you with a Preliminary Notice, write a joint check payable to both the contractor and the subcontractor or material supplier.For other ways to prevent liens, visit CSLBs internet website at www.cslb.ca.gov or call CSLB at 800-321-CSLB (2752).REMEMBER, IF YOU DO NOTHING, YOU RISK HAVING A LIEN PLACED ON YOUR HOME. This can mean that you may have to pay twice, or face the forced sale of your home to pay what you owe.(5) The following notice shall be provided in at least 12-point typeface:Information about the Contractors State License Board (CSLB): CSLB is the state consumer protection agency that licenses and regulates construction contractors.Contact CSLB for information about the licensed contractor you are considering, including information about disclosable complaints, disciplinary actions, and civil judgments that are reported to CSLB.Use only licensed contractors. If you file a complaint against a licensed contractor within the legal deadline (usually four years), CSLB has authority to investigate the complaint. If you use an unlicensed contractor, CSLB may not be able to help you resolve your complaint. Your only remedy may be in civil court, and you may be liable for damages arising out of any injuries to the unlicensed contractor or the unlicensed contractors employees.For more information:Visit CSLBs internet website at www.cslb.ca.govCall CSLB at 800-321-CSLB (2752)Write CSLB at P.O. Box 26000, Sacramento, CA 95826.(6) (A) The notice set forth in subparagraph (B) and entitled Three-Day Right to Cancel, shall be provided to the buyer unless the contract is:(i) Negotiated at the contractors place of business.(ii) Subject to the Seven-Day Right to Cancel, as set forth in paragraph (7).(iii) Subject to licensure under the Alarm Company Act (Chapter 11.6 (commencing with Section 7590)), provided the alarm company licensee complies with Sections 1689.5, 1689.6, and 1689.7 of the Civil Code, as applicable.(B) Three-Day Right to CancelYou, the buyer, have the right to cancel this contract within three business days. You may cancel by emailing, mailing, faxing, or delivering a written notice to the contractor at the contractors place of business by midnight of the third business day after you received a signed and dated copy of the contract that includes this notice. Include your name, your address, and the date you received the signed copy of the contract and this notice.If you cancel, the contractor must return to you anything you paid within 10 days of receiving the notice of cancellation. For your part, you must make available to the contractor at your residence, in substantially as good condition as you received them, goods delivered to you under this contract or sale. Or, you may, if you wish, comply with the contractors instructions on how to return the goods at the contractors expense and risk. If you do make the goods available to the contractor and the contractor does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may keep them without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the contractor, or if you agree to return the goods to the contractor and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.(C) The Three-Day Right to Cancel notice required by this paragraph shall comply with all of the following:(i) The text of the notice is at least 12-point boldface type.(ii) The notice is in immediate proximity to a space reserved for the owners signature.(iii) The owner acknowledges receipt of the notice by signing and dating the notice form in the signature space.(iv) The notice is written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as that principally used in any oral sales presentation.(v) The notice may be attached to the contract if the contract includes, in at least 12-point boldface type, a checkbox with the following statement: The law requires that the contractor give you a notice explaining your right to cancel. Initial the checkbox if the contractor has given you a Notice of the Three-Day Right to Cancel.(vi) The notice shall be accompanied by a completed form in duplicate, captioned Notice of Cancellation, which also shall be attached to the agreement or offer to purchase and be easily detachable, and which shall contain the following statement written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as used in the contract:Notice of Cancellation/enter date of transaction/(Date)You may cancel this transaction, without any penalty or obligation, within three business days from the above date.If you cancel, any property traded in, any payments made by you under the contract or sale, and any negotiable instrument executed by you will be returned within 10 days following receipt by the seller of your cancellation notice, and any security interest arising out of the transaction will be canceled.If you cancel, you must make available to the seller at your residence, in substantially as good condition as when received, any goods delivered to you under this contract or sale, or you may, if you wish, comply with the instructions of the seller regarding the return shipment of the goods at the sellers expense and risk.If you do make the goods available to the seller and the seller does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may retain or dispose of the goods without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the seller, or if you agree to return the goods to the seller and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.To cancel this transaction, mail or deliver a signed and dated copy of this cancellation notice, or any other written notice, or send a telegramto ,/name of seller/at /address of sellers place of business/not later than midnight of .(Date)I hereby cancel this transaction.(Date)(Buyers signature)(7) (A) The following notice entitled Seven-Day Right to Cancel shall be provided to the buyer for any contract that is written for the repair or restoration of residential premises damaged by any sudden or catastrophic event for which a state of emergency has been declared by the President of the United States or the Governor, or for which a local emergency has been declared by the executive officer or governing body of any city, county, or city and county:Seven-Day Right to CancelYou, the buyer, have the right to cancel this contract within seven business days. You may cancel by emailing, mailing, faxing, or delivering a written notice to the contractor at the contractors place of business by midnight of the seventh business day after you received a signed and dated copy of the contract that includes this notice. Include your name, your address, and the date you received the signed copy of the contract and this notice.If you cancel, the contractor must return to you anything you paid within 10 days of receiving the notice of cancellation. For your part, you must make available to the contractor at your residence, in substantially as good condition as you received them, goods delivered to you under this contract or sale. Or, you may, if you wish, comply with the contractors instructions on how to return the goods at the contractors expense and risk. If you do make the goods available to the contractor and the contractor does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may keep them without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the contractor, or if you agree to return the goods to the contractor and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.(B) The Seven-Day Right to Cancel notice required by this subdivision shall comply with all of the following:(i) The text of the notice is at least 12-point boldface type.(ii) The notice is in immediate proximity to a space reserved for the owners signature.(iii) The owner acknowledges receipt of the notice by signing and dating the notice form in the signature space.(iv) The notice is written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as that principally used in any oral sales presentation.(v) The notice may be attached to the contract if the contract includes, in at least 12-point boldface type, a checkbox with the following statement: The law requires that the contractor give you a notice explaining your right to cancel. Initial the checkbox if the contractor has given you a Notice of the Seven-Day Right to Cancel.(vi) The notice shall be accompanied by a completed form in duplicate, captioned Notice of Cancellation, which shall also be attached to the agreement or offer to purchase and be easily detachable, and which shall contain the following statement written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as used in the contract:Notice of Cancellation/enter date of transaction/(Date)You may cancel this transaction, without any penalty or obligation, within seven business days from the above date.If you cancel, any property traded in, any payments made by you under the contract or sale, and any negotiable instrument executed by you will be returned within 10 days following receipt by the seller of your cancellation notice, and any security interest arising out of the transaction will be canceled.If you cancel, you must make available to the seller at your residence, in substantially as good condition as when received, any goods delivered to you under this contract or sale, or you may, if you wish, comply with the instructions of the seller regarding the return shipment of the goods at the sellers expense and risk.If you do make the goods available to the seller and the seller does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may retain or dispose of the goods without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the seller, or if you agree to return the goods to the seller and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.To cancel this transaction, mail or deliver a signed and dated copy of this cancellation notice, or any other written notice, or send a telegramto ,/name of seller/at /address of sellers place of business/not later than midnight of .(Date)I hereby cancel this transaction.(Date)(Buyers signature) |
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| 2594 | 2609 | | |
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| 2595 | 2610 | | SEC. 73. Section 7159 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
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| 2596 | 2611 | | |
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| 2597 | 2612 | | ### SEC. 73. |
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| 2598 | 2613 | | |
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| 2599 | 2614 | | 7159. (a) (1) This section identifies the projects for which a home improvement contract is required, outlines the contract requirements, and lists the items that shall be included in the contract, or may be provided as an attachment.(2) This section does not apply to service and repair contracts that are subject to Section 7159.10, if the contract for the applicable services complies with Sections 7159.10 to 7159.14, inclusive.(3) This section does not apply to the sale, installation, and servicing of a fire alarm sold in conjunction with an alarm system, as defined in Section 7590.1, if all costs attributable to making the fire alarm system operable, including sale and installation costs, do not exceed five hundred dollars ($500), and the licensee complies with the requirements set forth in Section 7159.9.(4) This section does not apply to any costs associated with monitoring a burglar or fire alarm system.(5) Failure by the licensee, their agent or salesperson, or by a person subject to be licensed under this chapter, to provide the specified information, notices, and disclosures in the contract, or to otherwise fail to comply with any provision of this section, is cause for discipline.(b) For purposes of this section, home improvement contract means an agreement, whether oral or written, or contained in one or more documents, between a contractor and an owner or between a contractor and a tenant, regardless of the number of residence or dwelling units contained in the building in which the tenant resides, if the work is to be performed in, to, or upon the residence or dwelling unit of the tenant, for the performance of a home improvement, as defined in Section 7151, and includes all labor, services, and materials to be furnished and performed thereunder, if the aggregate contract price specified in one or more improvement contracts, including all labor, services, and materials to be furnished by the contractor, exceeds five hundred dollars ($500). Home improvement contract also means an agreement, whether oral or written, or contained in one or more documents, between a salesperson, whether or not they are a home improvement salesperson, and an owner or a tenant, regardless of the number of residence or dwelling units contained in the building in which the tenant resides, which provides for the sale, installation, or furnishing of home improvement goods or services.(c) In addition to the specific requirements listed under this section, every home improvement contract and any person subject to licensure under this chapter or their agent or salesperson shall comply with all of the following:(1) The writing shall be legible.(2) Any printed form shall be readable. Unless a larger typeface is specified in this article, text in any printed form shall be in at least 10-point typeface and the headings shall be in at least 10-point boldface type.(3) (A) Before any work is started, the contractor shall give the buyer a copy of the contract signed and dated by both the contractor and the buyer. The buyers receipt of the copy of the contract initiates the buyers rights to cancel the contract pursuant to Sections 1689.5 to 1689.14, inclusive, of the Civil Code.(B) The contract shall contain on the first page, in a typeface no smaller than that generally used in the body of the document, both of the following:(i) The date the buyer signed the contract.(ii) The name and address of the contractor to which the applicable Notice of Cancellation is to be mailed, immediately preceded by a statement advising the buyer that the Notice of Cancellation may be sent to the contractor at the address noted on the contract.(4) The contract shall include a statement that, upon satisfactory payment being made for any portion of the work performed, the contractor, prior to any further payment being made, shall furnish to the person contracting for the home improvement or swimming pool work a full and unconditional release from any potential lien claimant claim or mechanics lien authorized pursuant to Sections 8400 and 8404 of the Civil Code for that portion of the work for which payment has been made.(5) A change-order form for changes or extra work shall be incorporated into the contract and shall become part of the contract only if it is in writing and signed by the parties prior to the commencement of any work covered by a change order.(6) The contract shall contain, in close proximity to the signatures of the owner and contractor, a notice stating that the owner or tenant has the right to require the contractor to have a performance and payment bond.(7) If the contract provides for a contractor to furnish joint control, the contractor shall not have any financial or other interest in the joint control.(8) The provisions of this section are not exclusive and do not relieve the contractor from compliance with any other applicable provision of law.(d) A home improvement contract and any changes to the contract shall be in writing and signed by the parties to the contract prior to the commencement of work covered by the contract or an applicable change order and, except as provided in paragraph (8) of subdivision (a) of Section 7159.5, shall include or comply with all of the following:(1) The name, business address, and license number of the contractor.(2) If applicable, the name and registration number of the home improvement salesperson that solicited or negotiated the contract.(3) The following heading on the contract form that identifies the type of contract in at least 10-point boldface type: Home Improvement.(4) The following statement in at least 12-point boldface type: You are entitled to a completely filled in copy of this agreement, signed by both you and the contractor, before any work may be started.(5) The heading: Contract Price, followed by the amount of the contract in dollars and cents.(6) If a finance charge will be charged, the heading: Finance Charge, followed by the amount in dollars and cents. The finance charge is to be set out separately from the contract amount.(7) The heading: Description of the Project and Description of the Significant Materials to be Used and Equipment to be Installed, followed by a description of the project and a description of the significant materials to be used and equipment to be installed. For swimming pools, the project description required under this paragraph also shall include a plan and scale drawing showing the shape, size, dimensions, and the construction and equipment specifications.(8) If a downpayment will be charged, the details of the downpayment shall be expressed in substantially the following form, and shall include the text of the notice as specified in subparagraph (C):(A) The heading: Downpayment.(B) A space where the actual downpayment appears.(C) The following statement in at least 12-point boldface type:THE DOWNPAYMENT MAY NOT EXCEED $1,000 OR 10 PERCENT OF THE CONTRACT PRICE, WHICHEVER IS LESS.(9) If payments, other than the downpayment, are to be made before the project is completed, the details of these payments, known as progress payments, shall be expressed in substantially the following form, and shall include the text of the statement as specified in subparagraph (C):(A) A schedule of progress payments shall be preceded by the heading: Schedule of Progress Payments.(B) Each progress payment shall be stated in dollars and cents and specifically reference the amount of work or services to be performed and materials and equipment to be supplied.(C) The section of the contract reserved for the progress payments shall include the following statement in at least 12-point boldface type:The schedule of progress payments must specifically describe each phase of work, including the type and amount of work or services scheduled to be supplied in each phase, along with the amount of each proposed progress payment. IT IS AGAINST THE LAW FOR A CONTRACTOR TO COLLECT PAYMENT FOR WORK NOT YET COMPLETED, OR FOR MATERIALS NOT YET DELIVERED. HOWEVER, A CONTRACTOR MAY REQUIRE A DOWNPAYMENT.(10) The contract shall address the commencement of work to be performed in substantially the following form:(A) A statement that describes what constitutes substantial commencement of work under the contract.(B) The heading: Approximate Start Date.(C) The approximate date on which work will be commenced.(11) The estimated completion date of the work shall be referenced in the contract in substantially the following form:(A) The heading: Approximate Completion Date.(B) The approximate date of completion.(12) If applicable, the heading: List of Documents to be Incorporated into the Contract, followed by the list of documents incorporated into the contract.(13) The heading: Note About Extra Work and Change Orders, followed by the following statement:Extra Work and Change Orders become part of the contract once the order is prepared in writing and signed by the parties prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order. The order must describe the scope of the extra work or change, the cost to be added or subtracted from the contract, and the effect the order will have on the schedule of progress payments.(e) Except as provided in paragraph (8) of subdivision (a) of Section 7159.5, all of the following notices shall be provided to the owner as part of the contract form as specified or, if otherwise authorized under this subdivision, may be provided as an attachment to the contract:(1) A notice concerning commercial general liability insurance. This notice may be provided as an attachment to the contract if the contract includes the following statement: A notice concerning commercial general liability insurance is attached to this contract. The notice shall include the heading Commercial General Liability Insurance (CGL), followed by whichever of the following statements is both relevant and correct:(A) (The name on the license or This contractor) does not carry commercial general liability insurance.(B) (The name on the license or This contractor) carries commercial general liability insurance written by (the insurance company). You may call (the insurance company) at __________ to check the contractors insurance coverage.(C) (The name on the license or This contractor) is self-insured.(D) (The name on the license or This contractor) is a limited liability company that carries liability insurance or maintains other security as required by law. You may call (the insurance company or trust company or bank) at ____ to check on the contractors insurance coverage or security.(2) A notice concerning workers compensation insurance. This notice may be provided as an attachment to the contract if the contract includes the statement: A notice concerning workers compensation insurance is attached to this contract. The notice shall include the heading Workers Compensation Insurance followed by whichever of the following statements is correct:(A) (The name on the license or This contractor) has no employees and is exempt from workers compensation requirements.(B) (The name on the license or This contractor) carries workers compensation insurance for all employees.(3) A notice that provides the buyer with the following information about the performance of extra or change-order work:(A) A statement that the buyer may not require a contractor to perform extra or change-order work without providing written authorization prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order.(B) A statement informing the buyer that extra work or a change order is not enforceable against a buyer unless the change order also identifies all of the following in writing prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order:(i) The scope of work encompassed by the order.(ii) The amount to be added or subtracted from the contract.(iii) The effect the order will make in the progress payments or the completion date.(C) A statement informing the buyer that the contractors failure to comply with the requirements of this paragraph does not preclude the recovery of compensation for work performed based upon legal or equitable remedies designed to prevent unjust enrichment.(4) A notice with the heading Mechanics Lien Warning written as follows:MECHANICS LIEN WARNING:Anyone who helps improve your property, but who is not paid, may record what is called a mechanics lien on your property. A mechanics lien is a claim, like a mortgage or home equity loan, made against your property and recorded with the county recorder.Even if you pay your contractor in full, unpaid subcontractors, suppliers, and laborers who helped to improve your property may record mechanics liens and sue you in court to foreclose the lien. If a court finds the lien is valid, you could be forced to pay twice or have a court officer sell your home to pay the lien. Liens can also affect your credit.To preserve their right to record a lien, each subcontractor and material supplier must provide you with a document called a Preliminary Notice. This notice is not a lien. The purpose of the notice is to let you know that the person who sends you the notice has the right to record a lien on your property if they are not paid.BE CAREFUL. The Preliminary Notice can be sent up to 20 days after the subcontractor starts work or the supplier provides material. This can be a big problem if you pay your contractor before you have received the Preliminary Notices.You will not get Preliminary Notices from your prime contractor or from laborers who work on your project. The law assumes that you already know they are improving your property.PROTECT YOURSELF FROM LIENS. You can protect yourself from liens by getting a list from your contractor of all the subcontractors and material suppliers that work on your project. Find out from your contractor when these subcontractors started work and when these suppliers delivered goods or materials. Then wait 20 days, paying attention to the Preliminary Notices you receive.PAY WITH JOINT CHECKS. One way to protect yourself is to pay with a joint check. When your contractor tells you it is time to pay for the work of a subcontractor or supplier who has provided you with a Preliminary Notice, write a joint check payable to both the contractor and the subcontractor or material supplier.For other ways to prevent liens, visit CSLBs internet website at www.cslb.ca.gov or call CSLB at 800-321-CSLB (2752).REMEMBER, IF YOU DO NOTHING, YOU RISK HAVING A LIEN PLACED ON YOUR HOME. This can mean that you may have to pay twice, or face the forced sale of your home to pay what you owe.(5) The following notice shall be provided in at least 12-point typeface:Information about the Contractors State License Board (CSLB): CSLB is the state consumer protection agency that licenses and regulates construction contractors.Contact CSLB for information about the licensed contractor you are considering, including information about disclosable complaints, disciplinary actions, and civil judgments that are reported to CSLB.Use only licensed contractors. If you file a complaint against a licensed contractor within the legal deadline (usually four years), CSLB has authority to investigate the complaint. If you use an unlicensed contractor, CSLB may not be able to help you resolve your complaint. Your only remedy may be in civil court, and you may be liable for damages arising out of any injuries to the unlicensed contractor or the unlicensed contractors employees.For more information:Visit CSLBs internet website at www.cslb.ca.govCall CSLB at 800-321-CSLB (2752)Write CSLB at P.O. Box 26000, Sacramento, CA 95826.(6) (A) The notice set forth in subparagraph (B) and entitled Three-Day Right to Cancel, shall be provided to the buyer unless the contract is:(i) Negotiated at the contractors place of business.(ii) Subject to the Seven-Day Right to Cancel, as set forth in paragraph (7).(iii) Subject to licensure under the Alarm Company Act (Chapter 11.6 (commencing with Section 7590)), provided the alarm company licensee complies with Sections 1689.5, 1689.6, and 1689.7 of the Civil Code, as applicable.(B) Three-Day Right to CancelYou, the buyer, have the right to cancel this contract within three business days. You may cancel by emailing, mailing, faxing, or delivering a written notice to the contractor at the contractors place of business by midnight of the third business day after you received a signed and dated copy of the contract that includes this notice. Include your name, your address, and the date you received the signed copy of the contract and this notice.If you cancel, the contractor must return to you anything you paid within 10 days of receiving the notice of cancellation. For your part, you must make available to the contractor at your residence, in substantially as good condition as you received them, goods delivered to you under this contract or sale. Or, you may, if you wish, comply with the contractors instructions on how to return the goods at the contractors expense and risk. If you do make the goods available to the contractor and the contractor does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may keep them without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the contractor, or if you agree to return the goods to the contractor and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.(C) The Three-Day Right to Cancel notice required by this paragraph shall comply with all of the following:(i) The text of the notice is at least 12-point boldface type.(ii) The notice is in immediate proximity to a space reserved for the owners signature.(iii) The owner acknowledges receipt of the notice by signing and dating the notice form in the signature space.(iv) The notice is written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as that principally used in any oral sales presentation.(v) The notice may be attached to the contract if the contract includes, in at least 12-point boldface type, a checkbox with the following statement: The law requires that the contractor give you a notice explaining your right to cancel. Initial the checkbox if the contractor has given you a Notice of the Three-Day Right to Cancel.(vi) The notice shall be accompanied by a completed form in duplicate, captioned Notice of Cancellation, which also shall be attached to the agreement or offer to purchase and be easily detachable, and which shall contain the following statement written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as used in the contract:Notice of Cancellation/enter date of transaction/(Date)You may cancel this transaction, without any penalty or obligation, within three business days from the above date.If you cancel, any property traded in, any payments made by you under the contract or sale, and any negotiable instrument executed by you will be returned within 10 days following receipt by the seller of your cancellation notice, and any security interest arising out of the transaction will be canceled.If you cancel, you must make available to the seller at your residence, in substantially as good condition as when received, any goods delivered to you under this contract or sale, or you may, if you wish, comply with the instructions of the seller regarding the return shipment of the goods at the sellers expense and risk.If you do make the goods available to the seller and the seller does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may retain or dispose of the goods without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the seller, or if you agree to return the goods to the seller and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.To cancel this transaction, mail or deliver a signed and dated copy of this cancellation notice, or any other written notice, or send a telegramto ,/name of seller/at /address of sellers place of business/not later than midnight of .(Date)I hereby cancel this transaction.(Date)(Buyers signature)(7) (A) The following notice entitled Seven-Day Right to Cancel shall be provided to the buyer for any contract that is written for the repair or restoration of residential premises damaged by any sudden or catastrophic event for which a state of emergency has been declared by the President of the United States or the Governor, or for which a local emergency has been declared by the executive officer or governing body of any city, county, or city and county:Seven-Day Right to CancelYou, the buyer, have the right to cancel this contract within seven business days. You may cancel by emailing, mailing, faxing, or delivering a written notice to the contractor at the contractors place of business by midnight of the seventh business day after you received a signed and dated copy of the contract that includes this notice. Include your name, your address, and the date you received the signed copy of the contract and this notice.If you cancel, the contractor must return to you anything you paid within 10 days of receiving the notice of cancellation. For your part, you must make available to the contractor at your residence, in substantially as good condition as you received them, goods delivered to you under this contract or sale. Or, you may, if you wish, comply with the contractors instructions on how to return the goods at the contractors expense and risk. If you do make the goods available to the contractor and the contractor does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may keep them without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the contractor, or if you agree to return the goods to the contractor and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.(B) The Seven-Day Right to Cancel notice required by this subdivision shall comply with all of the following:(i) The text of the notice is at least 12-point boldface type.(ii) The notice is in immediate proximity to a space reserved for the owners signature.(iii) The owner acknowledges receipt of the notice by signing and dating the notice form in the signature space.(iv) The notice is written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as that principally used in any oral sales presentation.(v) The notice may be attached to the contract if the contract includes, in at least 12-point boldface type, a checkbox with the following statement: The law requires that the contractor give you a notice explaining your right to cancel. Initial the checkbox if the contractor has given you a Notice of the Seven-Day Right to Cancel.(vi) The notice shall be accompanied by a completed form in duplicate, captioned Notice of Cancellation, which shall also be attached to the agreement or offer to purchase and be easily detachable, and which shall contain the following statement written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as used in the contract:Notice of Cancellation/enter date of transaction/(Date)You may cancel this transaction, without any penalty or obligation, within seven business days from the above date.If you cancel, any property traded in, any payments made by you under the contract or sale, and any negotiable instrument executed by you will be returned within 10 days following receipt by the seller of your cancellation notice, and any security interest arising out of the transaction will be canceled.If you cancel, you must make available to the seller at your residence, in substantially as good condition as when received, any goods delivered to you under this contract or sale, or you may, if you wish, comply with the instructions of the seller regarding the return shipment of the goods at the sellers expense and risk.If you do make the goods available to the seller and the seller does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may retain or dispose of the goods without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the seller, or if you agree to return the goods to the seller and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.To cancel this transaction, mail or deliver a signed and dated copy of this cancellation notice, or any other written notice, or send a telegramto ,/name of seller/at /address of sellers place of business/not later than midnight of .(Date)I hereby cancel this transaction.(Date)(Buyers signature) |
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| 2600 | 2615 | | |
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| 2601 | 2616 | | 7159. (a) (1) This section identifies the projects for which a home improvement contract is required, outlines the contract requirements, and lists the items that shall be included in the contract, or may be provided as an attachment.(2) This section does not apply to service and repair contracts that are subject to Section 7159.10, if the contract for the applicable services complies with Sections 7159.10 to 7159.14, inclusive.(3) This section does not apply to the sale, installation, and servicing of a fire alarm sold in conjunction with an alarm system, as defined in Section 7590.1, if all costs attributable to making the fire alarm system operable, including sale and installation costs, do not exceed five hundred dollars ($500), and the licensee complies with the requirements set forth in Section 7159.9.(4) This section does not apply to any costs associated with monitoring a burglar or fire alarm system.(5) Failure by the licensee, their agent or salesperson, or by a person subject to be licensed under this chapter, to provide the specified information, notices, and disclosures in the contract, or to otherwise fail to comply with any provision of this section, is cause for discipline.(b) For purposes of this section, home improvement contract means an agreement, whether oral or written, or contained in one or more documents, between a contractor and an owner or between a contractor and a tenant, regardless of the number of residence or dwelling units contained in the building in which the tenant resides, if the work is to be performed in, to, or upon the residence or dwelling unit of the tenant, for the performance of a home improvement, as defined in Section 7151, and includes all labor, services, and materials to be furnished and performed thereunder, if the aggregate contract price specified in one or more improvement contracts, including all labor, services, and materials to be furnished by the contractor, exceeds five hundred dollars ($500). Home improvement contract also means an agreement, whether oral or written, or contained in one or more documents, between a salesperson, whether or not they are a home improvement salesperson, and an owner or a tenant, regardless of the number of residence or dwelling units contained in the building in which the tenant resides, which provides for the sale, installation, or furnishing of home improvement goods or services.(c) In addition to the specific requirements listed under this section, every home improvement contract and any person subject to licensure under this chapter or their agent or salesperson shall comply with all of the following:(1) The writing shall be legible.(2) Any printed form shall be readable. Unless a larger typeface is specified in this article, text in any printed form shall be in at least 10-point typeface and the headings shall be in at least 10-point boldface type.(3) (A) Before any work is started, the contractor shall give the buyer a copy of the contract signed and dated by both the contractor and the buyer. The buyers receipt of the copy of the contract initiates the buyers rights to cancel the contract pursuant to Sections 1689.5 to 1689.14, inclusive, of the Civil Code.(B) The contract shall contain on the first page, in a typeface no smaller than that generally used in the body of the document, both of the following:(i) The date the buyer signed the contract.(ii) The name and address of the contractor to which the applicable Notice of Cancellation is to be mailed, immediately preceded by a statement advising the buyer that the Notice of Cancellation may be sent to the contractor at the address noted on the contract.(4) The contract shall include a statement that, upon satisfactory payment being made for any portion of the work performed, the contractor, prior to any further payment being made, shall furnish to the person contracting for the home improvement or swimming pool work a full and unconditional release from any potential lien claimant claim or mechanics lien authorized pursuant to Sections 8400 and 8404 of the Civil Code for that portion of the work for which payment has been made.(5) A change-order form for changes or extra work shall be incorporated into the contract and shall become part of the contract only if it is in writing and signed by the parties prior to the commencement of any work covered by a change order.(6) The contract shall contain, in close proximity to the signatures of the owner and contractor, a notice stating that the owner or tenant has the right to require the contractor to have a performance and payment bond.(7) If the contract provides for a contractor to furnish joint control, the contractor shall not have any financial or other interest in the joint control.(8) The provisions of this section are not exclusive and do not relieve the contractor from compliance with any other applicable provision of law.(d) A home improvement contract and any changes to the contract shall be in writing and signed by the parties to the contract prior to the commencement of work covered by the contract or an applicable change order and, except as provided in paragraph (8) of subdivision (a) of Section 7159.5, shall include or comply with all of the following:(1) The name, business address, and license number of the contractor.(2) If applicable, the name and registration number of the home improvement salesperson that solicited or negotiated the contract.(3) The following heading on the contract form that identifies the type of contract in at least 10-point boldface type: Home Improvement.(4) The following statement in at least 12-point boldface type: You are entitled to a completely filled in copy of this agreement, signed by both you and the contractor, before any work may be started.(5) The heading: Contract Price, followed by the amount of the contract in dollars and cents.(6) If a finance charge will be charged, the heading: Finance Charge, followed by the amount in dollars and cents. The finance charge is to be set out separately from the contract amount.(7) The heading: Description of the Project and Description of the Significant Materials to be Used and Equipment to be Installed, followed by a description of the project and a description of the significant materials to be used and equipment to be installed. For swimming pools, the project description required under this paragraph also shall include a plan and scale drawing showing the shape, size, dimensions, and the construction and equipment specifications.(8) If a downpayment will be charged, the details of the downpayment shall be expressed in substantially the following form, and shall include the text of the notice as specified in subparagraph (C):(A) The heading: Downpayment.(B) A space where the actual downpayment appears.(C) The following statement in at least 12-point boldface type:THE DOWNPAYMENT MAY NOT EXCEED $1,000 OR 10 PERCENT OF THE CONTRACT PRICE, WHICHEVER IS LESS.(9) If payments, other than the downpayment, are to be made before the project is completed, the details of these payments, known as progress payments, shall be expressed in substantially the following form, and shall include the text of the statement as specified in subparagraph (C):(A) A schedule of progress payments shall be preceded by the heading: Schedule of Progress Payments.(B) Each progress payment shall be stated in dollars and cents and specifically reference the amount of work or services to be performed and materials and equipment to be supplied.(C) The section of the contract reserved for the progress payments shall include the following statement in at least 12-point boldface type:The schedule of progress payments must specifically describe each phase of work, including the type and amount of work or services scheduled to be supplied in each phase, along with the amount of each proposed progress payment. IT IS AGAINST THE LAW FOR A CONTRACTOR TO COLLECT PAYMENT FOR WORK NOT YET COMPLETED, OR FOR MATERIALS NOT YET DELIVERED. HOWEVER, A CONTRACTOR MAY REQUIRE A DOWNPAYMENT.(10) The contract shall address the commencement of work to be performed in substantially the following form:(A) A statement that describes what constitutes substantial commencement of work under the contract.(B) The heading: Approximate Start Date.(C) The approximate date on which work will be commenced.(11) The estimated completion date of the work shall be referenced in the contract in substantially the following form:(A) The heading: Approximate Completion Date.(B) The approximate date of completion.(12) If applicable, the heading: List of Documents to be Incorporated into the Contract, followed by the list of documents incorporated into the contract.(13) The heading: Note About Extra Work and Change Orders, followed by the following statement:Extra Work and Change Orders become part of the contract once the order is prepared in writing and signed by the parties prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order. The order must describe the scope of the extra work or change, the cost to be added or subtracted from the contract, and the effect the order will have on the schedule of progress payments.(e) Except as provided in paragraph (8) of subdivision (a) of Section 7159.5, all of the following notices shall be provided to the owner as part of the contract form as specified or, if otherwise authorized under this subdivision, may be provided as an attachment to the contract:(1) A notice concerning commercial general liability insurance. This notice may be provided as an attachment to the contract if the contract includes the following statement: A notice concerning commercial general liability insurance is attached to this contract. The notice shall include the heading Commercial General Liability Insurance (CGL), followed by whichever of the following statements is both relevant and correct:(A) (The name on the license or This contractor) does not carry commercial general liability insurance.(B) (The name on the license or This contractor) carries commercial general liability insurance written by (the insurance company). You may call (the insurance company) at __________ to check the contractors insurance coverage.(C) (The name on the license or This contractor) is self-insured.(D) (The name on the license or This contractor) is a limited liability company that carries liability insurance or maintains other security as required by law. You may call (the insurance company or trust company or bank) at ____ to check on the contractors insurance coverage or security.(2) A notice concerning workers compensation insurance. This notice may be provided as an attachment to the contract if the contract includes the statement: A notice concerning workers compensation insurance is attached to this contract. The notice shall include the heading Workers Compensation Insurance followed by whichever of the following statements is correct:(A) (The name on the license or This contractor) has no employees and is exempt from workers compensation requirements.(B) (The name on the license or This contractor) carries workers compensation insurance for all employees.(3) A notice that provides the buyer with the following information about the performance of extra or change-order work:(A) A statement that the buyer may not require a contractor to perform extra or change-order work without providing written authorization prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order.(B) A statement informing the buyer that extra work or a change order is not enforceable against a buyer unless the change order also identifies all of the following in writing prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order:(i) The scope of work encompassed by the order.(ii) The amount to be added or subtracted from the contract.(iii) The effect the order will make in the progress payments or the completion date.(C) A statement informing the buyer that the contractors failure to comply with the requirements of this paragraph does not preclude the recovery of compensation for work performed based upon legal or equitable remedies designed to prevent unjust enrichment.(4) A notice with the heading Mechanics Lien Warning written as follows:MECHANICS LIEN WARNING:Anyone who helps improve your property, but who is not paid, may record what is called a mechanics lien on your property. A mechanics lien is a claim, like a mortgage or home equity loan, made against your property and recorded with the county recorder.Even if you pay your contractor in full, unpaid subcontractors, suppliers, and laborers who helped to improve your property may record mechanics liens and sue you in court to foreclose the lien. If a court finds the lien is valid, you could be forced to pay twice or have a court officer sell your home to pay the lien. Liens can also affect your credit.To preserve their right to record a lien, each subcontractor and material supplier must provide you with a document called a Preliminary Notice. This notice is not a lien. The purpose of the notice is to let you know that the person who sends you the notice has the right to record a lien on your property if they are not paid.BE CAREFUL. The Preliminary Notice can be sent up to 20 days after the subcontractor starts work or the supplier provides material. This can be a big problem if you pay your contractor before you have received the Preliminary Notices.You will not get Preliminary Notices from your prime contractor or from laborers who work on your project. The law assumes that you already know they are improving your property.PROTECT YOURSELF FROM LIENS. You can protect yourself from liens by getting a list from your contractor of all the subcontractors and material suppliers that work on your project. Find out from your contractor when these subcontractors started work and when these suppliers delivered goods or materials. Then wait 20 days, paying attention to the Preliminary Notices you receive.PAY WITH JOINT CHECKS. One way to protect yourself is to pay with a joint check. When your contractor tells you it is time to pay for the work of a subcontractor or supplier who has provided you with a Preliminary Notice, write a joint check payable to both the contractor and the subcontractor or material supplier.For other ways to prevent liens, visit CSLBs internet website at www.cslb.ca.gov or call CSLB at 800-321-CSLB (2752).REMEMBER, IF YOU DO NOTHING, YOU RISK HAVING A LIEN PLACED ON YOUR HOME. This can mean that you may have to pay twice, or face the forced sale of your home to pay what you owe.(5) The following notice shall be provided in at least 12-point typeface:Information about the Contractors State License Board (CSLB): CSLB is the state consumer protection agency that licenses and regulates construction contractors.Contact CSLB for information about the licensed contractor you are considering, including information about disclosable complaints, disciplinary actions, and civil judgments that are reported to CSLB.Use only licensed contractors. If you file a complaint against a licensed contractor within the legal deadline (usually four years), CSLB has authority to investigate the complaint. If you use an unlicensed contractor, CSLB may not be able to help you resolve your complaint. Your only remedy may be in civil court, and you may be liable for damages arising out of any injuries to the unlicensed contractor or the unlicensed contractors employees.For more information:Visit CSLBs internet website at www.cslb.ca.govCall CSLB at 800-321-CSLB (2752)Write CSLB at P.O. Box 26000, Sacramento, CA 95826.(6) (A) The notice set forth in subparagraph (B) and entitled Three-Day Right to Cancel, shall be provided to the buyer unless the contract is:(i) Negotiated at the contractors place of business.(ii) Subject to the Seven-Day Right to Cancel, as set forth in paragraph (7).(iii) Subject to licensure under the Alarm Company Act (Chapter 11.6 (commencing with Section 7590)), provided the alarm company licensee complies with Sections 1689.5, 1689.6, and 1689.7 of the Civil Code, as applicable.(B) Three-Day Right to CancelYou, the buyer, have the right to cancel this contract within three business days. You may cancel by emailing, mailing, faxing, or delivering a written notice to the contractor at the contractors place of business by midnight of the third business day after you received a signed and dated copy of the contract that includes this notice. Include your name, your address, and the date you received the signed copy of the contract and this notice.If you cancel, the contractor must return to you anything you paid within 10 days of receiving the notice of cancellation. For your part, you must make available to the contractor at your residence, in substantially as good condition as you received them, goods delivered to you under this contract or sale. Or, you may, if you wish, comply with the contractors instructions on how to return the goods at the contractors expense and risk. If you do make the goods available to the contractor and the contractor does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may keep them without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the contractor, or if you agree to return the goods to the contractor and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.(C) The Three-Day Right to Cancel notice required by this paragraph shall comply with all of the following:(i) The text of the notice is at least 12-point boldface type.(ii) The notice is in immediate proximity to a space reserved for the owners signature.(iii) The owner acknowledges receipt of the notice by signing and dating the notice form in the signature space.(iv) The notice is written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as that principally used in any oral sales presentation.(v) The notice may be attached to the contract if the contract includes, in at least 12-point boldface type, a checkbox with the following statement: The law requires that the contractor give you a notice explaining your right to cancel. Initial the checkbox if the contractor has given you a Notice of the Three-Day Right to Cancel.(vi) The notice shall be accompanied by a completed form in duplicate, captioned Notice of Cancellation, which also shall be attached to the agreement or offer to purchase and be easily detachable, and which shall contain the following statement written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as used in the contract:Notice of Cancellation/enter date of transaction/(Date)You may cancel this transaction, without any penalty or obligation, within three business days from the above date.If you cancel, any property traded in, any payments made by you under the contract or sale, and any negotiable instrument executed by you will be returned within 10 days following receipt by the seller of your cancellation notice, and any security interest arising out of the transaction will be canceled.If you cancel, you must make available to the seller at your residence, in substantially as good condition as when received, any goods delivered to you under this contract or sale, or you may, if you wish, comply with the instructions of the seller regarding the return shipment of the goods at the sellers expense and risk.If you do make the goods available to the seller and the seller does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may retain or dispose of the goods without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the seller, or if you agree to return the goods to the seller and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.To cancel this transaction, mail or deliver a signed and dated copy of this cancellation notice, or any other written notice, or send a telegramto ,/name of seller/at /address of sellers place of business/not later than midnight of .(Date)I hereby cancel this transaction.(Date)(Buyers signature)(7) (A) The following notice entitled Seven-Day Right to Cancel shall be provided to the buyer for any contract that is written for the repair or restoration of residential premises damaged by any sudden or catastrophic event for which a state of emergency has been declared by the President of the United States or the Governor, or for which a local emergency has been declared by the executive officer or governing body of any city, county, or city and county:Seven-Day Right to CancelYou, the buyer, have the right to cancel this contract within seven business days. You may cancel by emailing, mailing, faxing, or delivering a written notice to the contractor at the contractors place of business by midnight of the seventh business day after you received a signed and dated copy of the contract that includes this notice. Include your name, your address, and the date you received the signed copy of the contract and this notice.If you cancel, the contractor must return to you anything you paid within 10 days of receiving the notice of cancellation. For your part, you must make available to the contractor at your residence, in substantially as good condition as you received them, goods delivered to you under this contract or sale. Or, you may, if you wish, comply with the contractors instructions on how to return the goods at the contractors expense and risk. If you do make the goods available to the contractor and the contractor does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may keep them without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the contractor, or if you agree to return the goods to the contractor and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.(B) The Seven-Day Right to Cancel notice required by this subdivision shall comply with all of the following:(i) The text of the notice is at least 12-point boldface type.(ii) The notice is in immediate proximity to a space reserved for the owners signature.(iii) The owner acknowledges receipt of the notice by signing and dating the notice form in the signature space.(iv) The notice is written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as that principally used in any oral sales presentation.(v) The notice may be attached to the contract if the contract includes, in at least 12-point boldface type, a checkbox with the following statement: The law requires that the contractor give you a notice explaining your right to cancel. Initial the checkbox if the contractor has given you a Notice of the Seven-Day Right to Cancel.(vi) The notice shall be accompanied by a completed form in duplicate, captioned Notice of Cancellation, which shall also be attached to the agreement or offer to purchase and be easily detachable, and which shall contain the following statement written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as used in the contract:Notice of Cancellation/enter date of transaction/(Date)You may cancel this transaction, without any penalty or obligation, within seven business days from the above date.If you cancel, any property traded in, any payments made by you under the contract or sale, and any negotiable instrument executed by you will be returned within 10 days following receipt by the seller of your cancellation notice, and any security interest arising out of the transaction will be canceled.If you cancel, you must make available to the seller at your residence, in substantially as good condition as when received, any goods delivered to you under this contract or sale, or you may, if you wish, comply with the instructions of the seller regarding the return shipment of the goods at the sellers expense and risk.If you do make the goods available to the seller and the seller does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may retain or dispose of the goods without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the seller, or if you agree to return the goods to the seller and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.To cancel this transaction, mail or deliver a signed and dated copy of this cancellation notice, or any other written notice, or send a telegramto ,/name of seller/at /address of sellers place of business/not later than midnight of .(Date)I hereby cancel this transaction.(Date)(Buyers signature) |
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| 2603 | 2618 | | 7159. (a) (1) This section identifies the projects for which a home improvement contract is required, outlines the contract requirements, and lists the items that shall be included in the contract, or may be provided as an attachment.(2) This section does not apply to service and repair contracts that are subject to Section 7159.10, if the contract for the applicable services complies with Sections 7159.10 to 7159.14, inclusive.(3) This section does not apply to the sale, installation, and servicing of a fire alarm sold in conjunction with an alarm system, as defined in Section 7590.1, if all costs attributable to making the fire alarm system operable, including sale and installation costs, do not exceed five hundred dollars ($500), and the licensee complies with the requirements set forth in Section 7159.9.(4) This section does not apply to any costs associated with monitoring a burglar or fire alarm system.(5) Failure by the licensee, their agent or salesperson, or by a person subject to be licensed under this chapter, to provide the specified information, notices, and disclosures in the contract, or to otherwise fail to comply with any provision of this section, is cause for discipline.(b) For purposes of this section, home improvement contract means an agreement, whether oral or written, or contained in one or more documents, between a contractor and an owner or between a contractor and a tenant, regardless of the number of residence or dwelling units contained in the building in which the tenant resides, if the work is to be performed in, to, or upon the residence or dwelling unit of the tenant, for the performance of a home improvement, as defined in Section 7151, and includes all labor, services, and materials to be furnished and performed thereunder, if the aggregate contract price specified in one or more improvement contracts, including all labor, services, and materials to be furnished by the contractor, exceeds five hundred dollars ($500). Home improvement contract also means an agreement, whether oral or written, or contained in one or more documents, between a salesperson, whether or not they are a home improvement salesperson, and an owner or a tenant, regardless of the number of residence or dwelling units contained in the building in which the tenant resides, which provides for the sale, installation, or furnishing of home improvement goods or services.(c) In addition to the specific requirements listed under this section, every home improvement contract and any person subject to licensure under this chapter or their agent or salesperson shall comply with all of the following:(1) The writing shall be legible.(2) Any printed form shall be readable. Unless a larger typeface is specified in this article, text in any printed form shall be in at least 10-point typeface and the headings shall be in at least 10-point boldface type.(3) (A) Before any work is started, the contractor shall give the buyer a copy of the contract signed and dated by both the contractor and the buyer. The buyers receipt of the copy of the contract initiates the buyers rights to cancel the contract pursuant to Sections 1689.5 to 1689.14, inclusive, of the Civil Code.(B) The contract shall contain on the first page, in a typeface no smaller than that generally used in the body of the document, both of the following:(i) The date the buyer signed the contract.(ii) The name and address of the contractor to which the applicable Notice of Cancellation is to be mailed, immediately preceded by a statement advising the buyer that the Notice of Cancellation may be sent to the contractor at the address noted on the contract.(4) The contract shall include a statement that, upon satisfactory payment being made for any portion of the work performed, the contractor, prior to any further payment being made, shall furnish to the person contracting for the home improvement or swimming pool work a full and unconditional release from any potential lien claimant claim or mechanics lien authorized pursuant to Sections 8400 and 8404 of the Civil Code for that portion of the work for which payment has been made.(5) A change-order form for changes or extra work shall be incorporated into the contract and shall become part of the contract only if it is in writing and signed by the parties prior to the commencement of any work covered by a change order.(6) The contract shall contain, in close proximity to the signatures of the owner and contractor, a notice stating that the owner or tenant has the right to require the contractor to have a performance and payment bond.(7) If the contract provides for a contractor to furnish joint control, the contractor shall not have any financial or other interest in the joint control.(8) The provisions of this section are not exclusive and do not relieve the contractor from compliance with any other applicable provision of law.(d) A home improvement contract and any changes to the contract shall be in writing and signed by the parties to the contract prior to the commencement of work covered by the contract or an applicable change order and, except as provided in paragraph (8) of subdivision (a) of Section 7159.5, shall include or comply with all of the following:(1) The name, business address, and license number of the contractor.(2) If applicable, the name and registration number of the home improvement salesperson that solicited or negotiated the contract.(3) The following heading on the contract form that identifies the type of contract in at least 10-point boldface type: Home Improvement.(4) The following statement in at least 12-point boldface type: You are entitled to a completely filled in copy of this agreement, signed by both you and the contractor, before any work may be started.(5) The heading: Contract Price, followed by the amount of the contract in dollars and cents.(6) If a finance charge will be charged, the heading: Finance Charge, followed by the amount in dollars and cents. The finance charge is to be set out separately from the contract amount.(7) The heading: Description of the Project and Description of the Significant Materials to be Used and Equipment to be Installed, followed by a description of the project and a description of the significant materials to be used and equipment to be installed. For swimming pools, the project description required under this paragraph also shall include a plan and scale drawing showing the shape, size, dimensions, and the construction and equipment specifications.(8) If a downpayment will be charged, the details of the downpayment shall be expressed in substantially the following form, and shall include the text of the notice as specified in subparagraph (C):(A) The heading: Downpayment.(B) A space where the actual downpayment appears.(C) The following statement in at least 12-point boldface type:THE DOWNPAYMENT MAY NOT EXCEED $1,000 OR 10 PERCENT OF THE CONTRACT PRICE, WHICHEVER IS LESS.(9) If payments, other than the downpayment, are to be made before the project is completed, the details of these payments, known as progress payments, shall be expressed in substantially the following form, and shall include the text of the statement as specified in subparagraph (C):(A) A schedule of progress payments shall be preceded by the heading: Schedule of Progress Payments.(B) Each progress payment shall be stated in dollars and cents and specifically reference the amount of work or services to be performed and materials and equipment to be supplied.(C) The section of the contract reserved for the progress payments shall include the following statement in at least 12-point boldface type:The schedule of progress payments must specifically describe each phase of work, including the type and amount of work or services scheduled to be supplied in each phase, along with the amount of each proposed progress payment. IT IS AGAINST THE LAW FOR A CONTRACTOR TO COLLECT PAYMENT FOR WORK NOT YET COMPLETED, OR FOR MATERIALS NOT YET DELIVERED. HOWEVER, A CONTRACTOR MAY REQUIRE A DOWNPAYMENT.(10) The contract shall address the commencement of work to be performed in substantially the following form:(A) A statement that describes what constitutes substantial commencement of work under the contract.(B) The heading: Approximate Start Date.(C) The approximate date on which work will be commenced.(11) The estimated completion date of the work shall be referenced in the contract in substantially the following form:(A) The heading: Approximate Completion Date.(B) The approximate date of completion.(12) If applicable, the heading: List of Documents to be Incorporated into the Contract, followed by the list of documents incorporated into the contract.(13) The heading: Note About Extra Work and Change Orders, followed by the following statement:Extra Work and Change Orders become part of the contract once the order is prepared in writing and signed by the parties prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order. The order must describe the scope of the extra work or change, the cost to be added or subtracted from the contract, and the effect the order will have on the schedule of progress payments.(e) Except as provided in paragraph (8) of subdivision (a) of Section 7159.5, all of the following notices shall be provided to the owner as part of the contract form as specified or, if otherwise authorized under this subdivision, may be provided as an attachment to the contract:(1) A notice concerning commercial general liability insurance. This notice may be provided as an attachment to the contract if the contract includes the following statement: A notice concerning commercial general liability insurance is attached to this contract. The notice shall include the heading Commercial General Liability Insurance (CGL), followed by whichever of the following statements is both relevant and correct:(A) (The name on the license or This contractor) does not carry commercial general liability insurance.(B) (The name on the license or This contractor) carries commercial general liability insurance written by (the insurance company). You may call (the insurance company) at __________ to check the contractors insurance coverage.(C) (The name on the license or This contractor) is self-insured.(D) (The name on the license or This contractor) is a limited liability company that carries liability insurance or maintains other security as required by law. You may call (the insurance company or trust company or bank) at ____ to check on the contractors insurance coverage or security.(2) A notice concerning workers compensation insurance. This notice may be provided as an attachment to the contract if the contract includes the statement: A notice concerning workers compensation insurance is attached to this contract. The notice shall include the heading Workers Compensation Insurance followed by whichever of the following statements is correct:(A) (The name on the license or This contractor) has no employees and is exempt from workers compensation requirements.(B) (The name on the license or This contractor) carries workers compensation insurance for all employees.(3) A notice that provides the buyer with the following information about the performance of extra or change-order work:(A) A statement that the buyer may not require a contractor to perform extra or change-order work without providing written authorization prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order.(B) A statement informing the buyer that extra work or a change order is not enforceable against a buyer unless the change order also identifies all of the following in writing prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order:(i) The scope of work encompassed by the order.(ii) The amount to be added or subtracted from the contract.(iii) The effect the order will make in the progress payments or the completion date.(C) A statement informing the buyer that the contractors failure to comply with the requirements of this paragraph does not preclude the recovery of compensation for work performed based upon legal or equitable remedies designed to prevent unjust enrichment.(4) A notice with the heading Mechanics Lien Warning written as follows:MECHANICS LIEN WARNING:Anyone who helps improve your property, but who is not paid, may record what is called a mechanics lien on your property. A mechanics lien is a claim, like a mortgage or home equity loan, made against your property and recorded with the county recorder.Even if you pay your contractor in full, unpaid subcontractors, suppliers, and laborers who helped to improve your property may record mechanics liens and sue you in court to foreclose the lien. If a court finds the lien is valid, you could be forced to pay twice or have a court officer sell your home to pay the lien. Liens can also affect your credit.To preserve their right to record a lien, each subcontractor and material supplier must provide you with a document called a Preliminary Notice. This notice is not a lien. The purpose of the notice is to let you know that the person who sends you the notice has the right to record a lien on your property if they are not paid.BE CAREFUL. The Preliminary Notice can be sent up to 20 days after the subcontractor starts work or the supplier provides material. This can be a big problem if you pay your contractor before you have received the Preliminary Notices.You will not get Preliminary Notices from your prime contractor or from laborers who work on your project. The law assumes that you already know they are improving your property.PROTECT YOURSELF FROM LIENS. You can protect yourself from liens by getting a list from your contractor of all the subcontractors and material suppliers that work on your project. Find out from your contractor when these subcontractors started work and when these suppliers delivered goods or materials. Then wait 20 days, paying attention to the Preliminary Notices you receive.PAY WITH JOINT CHECKS. One way to protect yourself is to pay with a joint check. When your contractor tells you it is time to pay for the work of a subcontractor or supplier who has provided you with a Preliminary Notice, write a joint check payable to both the contractor and the subcontractor or material supplier.For other ways to prevent liens, visit CSLBs internet website at www.cslb.ca.gov or call CSLB at 800-321-CSLB (2752).REMEMBER, IF YOU DO NOTHING, YOU RISK HAVING A LIEN PLACED ON YOUR HOME. This can mean that you may have to pay twice, or face the forced sale of your home to pay what you owe.(5) The following notice shall be provided in at least 12-point typeface:Information about the Contractors State License Board (CSLB): CSLB is the state consumer protection agency that licenses and regulates construction contractors.Contact CSLB for information about the licensed contractor you are considering, including information about disclosable complaints, disciplinary actions, and civil judgments that are reported to CSLB.Use only licensed contractors. If you file a complaint against a licensed contractor within the legal deadline (usually four years), CSLB has authority to investigate the complaint. If you use an unlicensed contractor, CSLB may not be able to help you resolve your complaint. Your only remedy may be in civil court, and you may be liable for damages arising out of any injuries to the unlicensed contractor or the unlicensed contractors employees.For more information:Visit CSLBs internet website at www.cslb.ca.govCall CSLB at 800-321-CSLB (2752)Write CSLB at P.O. Box 26000, Sacramento, CA 95826.(6) (A) The notice set forth in subparagraph (B) and entitled Three-Day Right to Cancel, shall be provided to the buyer unless the contract is:(i) Negotiated at the contractors place of business.(ii) Subject to the Seven-Day Right to Cancel, as set forth in paragraph (7).(iii) Subject to licensure under the Alarm Company Act (Chapter 11.6 (commencing with Section 7590)), provided the alarm company licensee complies with Sections 1689.5, 1689.6, and 1689.7 of the Civil Code, as applicable.(B) Three-Day Right to CancelYou, the buyer, have the right to cancel this contract within three business days. You may cancel by emailing, mailing, faxing, or delivering a written notice to the contractor at the contractors place of business by midnight of the third business day after you received a signed and dated copy of the contract that includes this notice. Include your name, your address, and the date you received the signed copy of the contract and this notice.If you cancel, the contractor must return to you anything you paid within 10 days of receiving the notice of cancellation. For your part, you must make available to the contractor at your residence, in substantially as good condition as you received them, goods delivered to you under this contract or sale. Or, you may, if you wish, comply with the contractors instructions on how to return the goods at the contractors expense and risk. If you do make the goods available to the contractor and the contractor does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may keep them without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the contractor, or if you agree to return the goods to the contractor and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.(C) The Three-Day Right to Cancel notice required by this paragraph shall comply with all of the following:(i) The text of the notice is at least 12-point boldface type.(ii) The notice is in immediate proximity to a space reserved for the owners signature.(iii) The owner acknowledges receipt of the notice by signing and dating the notice form in the signature space.(iv) The notice is written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as that principally used in any oral sales presentation.(v) The notice may be attached to the contract if the contract includes, in at least 12-point boldface type, a checkbox with the following statement: The law requires that the contractor give you a notice explaining your right to cancel. Initial the checkbox if the contractor has given you a Notice of the Three-Day Right to Cancel.(vi) The notice shall be accompanied by a completed form in duplicate, captioned Notice of Cancellation, which also shall be attached to the agreement or offer to purchase and be easily detachable, and which shall contain the following statement written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as used in the contract:Notice of Cancellation/enter date of transaction/(Date)You may cancel this transaction, without any penalty or obligation, within three business days from the above date.If you cancel, any property traded in, any payments made by you under the contract or sale, and any negotiable instrument executed by you will be returned within 10 days following receipt by the seller of your cancellation notice, and any security interest arising out of the transaction will be canceled.If you cancel, you must make available to the seller at your residence, in substantially as good condition as when received, any goods delivered to you under this contract or sale, or you may, if you wish, comply with the instructions of the seller regarding the return shipment of the goods at the sellers expense and risk.If you do make the goods available to the seller and the seller does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may retain or dispose of the goods without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the seller, or if you agree to return the goods to the seller and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.To cancel this transaction, mail or deliver a signed and dated copy of this cancellation notice, or any other written notice, or send a telegramto ,/name of seller/at /address of sellers place of business/not later than midnight of .(Date)I hereby cancel this transaction.(Date)(Buyers signature)(7) (A) The following notice entitled Seven-Day Right to Cancel shall be provided to the buyer for any contract that is written for the repair or restoration of residential premises damaged by any sudden or catastrophic event for which a state of emergency has been declared by the President of the United States or the Governor, or for which a local emergency has been declared by the executive officer or governing body of any city, county, or city and county:Seven-Day Right to CancelYou, the buyer, have the right to cancel this contract within seven business days. You may cancel by emailing, mailing, faxing, or delivering a written notice to the contractor at the contractors place of business by midnight of the seventh business day after you received a signed and dated copy of the contract that includes this notice. Include your name, your address, and the date you received the signed copy of the contract and this notice.If you cancel, the contractor must return to you anything you paid within 10 days of receiving the notice of cancellation. For your part, you must make available to the contractor at your residence, in substantially as good condition as you received them, goods delivered to you under this contract or sale. Or, you may, if you wish, comply with the contractors instructions on how to return the goods at the contractors expense and risk. If you do make the goods available to the contractor and the contractor does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may keep them without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the contractor, or if you agree to return the goods to the contractor and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.(B) The Seven-Day Right to Cancel notice required by this subdivision shall comply with all of the following:(i) The text of the notice is at least 12-point boldface type.(ii) The notice is in immediate proximity to a space reserved for the owners signature.(iii) The owner acknowledges receipt of the notice by signing and dating the notice form in the signature space.(iv) The notice is written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as that principally used in any oral sales presentation.(v) The notice may be attached to the contract if the contract includes, in at least 12-point boldface type, a checkbox with the following statement: The law requires that the contractor give you a notice explaining your right to cancel. Initial the checkbox if the contractor has given you a Notice of the Seven-Day Right to Cancel.(vi) The notice shall be accompanied by a completed form in duplicate, captioned Notice of Cancellation, which shall also be attached to the agreement or offer to purchase and be easily detachable, and which shall contain the following statement written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as used in the contract:Notice of Cancellation/enter date of transaction/(Date)You may cancel this transaction, without any penalty or obligation, within seven business days from the above date.If you cancel, any property traded in, any payments made by you under the contract or sale, and any negotiable instrument executed by you will be returned within 10 days following receipt by the seller of your cancellation notice, and any security interest arising out of the transaction will be canceled.If you cancel, you must make available to the seller at your residence, in substantially as good condition as when received, any goods delivered to you under this contract or sale, or you may, if you wish, comply with the instructions of the seller regarding the return shipment of the goods at the sellers expense and risk.If you do make the goods available to the seller and the seller does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may retain or dispose of the goods without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the seller, or if you agree to return the goods to the seller and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.To cancel this transaction, mail or deliver a signed and dated copy of this cancellation notice, or any other written notice, or send a telegramto ,/name of seller/at /address of sellers place of business/not later than midnight of .(Date)I hereby cancel this transaction.(Date)(Buyers signature) |
|---|
| 2604 | 2619 | | |
|---|
| 2605 | 2620 | | |
|---|
| 2606 | 2621 | | |
|---|
| 2607 | 2622 | | 7159. (a) (1) This section identifies the projects for which a home improvement contract is required, outlines the contract requirements, and lists the items that shall be included in the contract, or may be provided as an attachment. |
|---|
| 2608 | 2623 | | |
|---|
| 2609 | 2624 | | (2) This section does not apply to service and repair contracts that are subject to Section 7159.10, if the contract for the applicable services complies with Sections 7159.10 to 7159.14, inclusive. |
|---|
| 2610 | 2625 | | |
|---|
| 2611 | 2626 | | (3) This section does not apply to the sale, installation, and servicing of a fire alarm sold in conjunction with an alarm system, as defined in Section 7590.1, if all costs attributable to making the fire alarm system operable, including sale and installation costs, do not exceed five hundred dollars ($500), and the licensee complies with the requirements set forth in Section 7159.9. |
|---|
| 2612 | 2627 | | |
|---|
| 2613 | 2628 | | (4) This section does not apply to any costs associated with monitoring a burglar or fire alarm system. |
|---|
| 2614 | 2629 | | |
|---|
| 2615 | 2630 | | (5) Failure by the licensee, their agent or salesperson, or by a person subject to be licensed under this chapter, to provide the specified information, notices, and disclosures in the contract, or to otherwise fail to comply with any provision of this section, is cause for discipline. |
|---|
| 2616 | 2631 | | |
|---|
| 2617 | 2632 | | (b) For purposes of this section, home improvement contract means an agreement, whether oral or written, or contained in one or more documents, between a contractor and an owner or between a contractor and a tenant, regardless of the number of residence or dwelling units contained in the building in which the tenant resides, if the work is to be performed in, to, or upon the residence or dwelling unit of the tenant, for the performance of a home improvement, as defined in Section 7151, and includes all labor, services, and materials to be furnished and performed thereunder, if the aggregate contract price specified in one or more improvement contracts, including all labor, services, and materials to be furnished by the contractor, exceeds five hundred dollars ($500). Home improvement contract also means an agreement, whether oral or written, or contained in one or more documents, between a salesperson, whether or not they are a home improvement salesperson, and an owner or a tenant, regardless of the number of residence or dwelling units contained in the building in which the tenant resides, which provides for the sale, installation, or furnishing of home improvement goods or services. |
|---|
| 2618 | 2633 | | |
|---|
| 2619 | 2634 | | (c) In addition to the specific requirements listed under this section, every home improvement contract and any person subject to licensure under this chapter or their agent or salesperson shall comply with all of the following: |
|---|
| 2620 | 2635 | | |
|---|
| 2621 | 2636 | | (1) The writing shall be legible. |
|---|
| 2622 | 2637 | | |
|---|
| 2623 | 2638 | | (2) Any printed form shall be readable. Unless a larger typeface is specified in this article, text in any printed form shall be in at least 10-point typeface and the headings shall be in at least 10-point boldface type. |
|---|
| 2624 | 2639 | | |
|---|
| 2625 | 2640 | | (3) (A) Before any work is started, the contractor shall give the buyer a copy of the contract signed and dated by both the contractor and the buyer. The buyers receipt of the copy of the contract initiates the buyers rights to cancel the contract pursuant to Sections 1689.5 to 1689.14, inclusive, of the Civil Code. |
|---|
| 2626 | 2641 | | |
|---|
| 2627 | 2642 | | (B) The contract shall contain on the first page, in a typeface no smaller than that generally used in the body of the document, both of the following: |
|---|
| 2628 | 2643 | | |
|---|
| 2629 | 2644 | | (i) The date the buyer signed the contract. |
|---|
| 2630 | 2645 | | |
|---|
| 2631 | 2646 | | (ii) The name and address of the contractor to which the applicable Notice of Cancellation is to be mailed, immediately preceded by a statement advising the buyer that the Notice of Cancellation may be sent to the contractor at the address noted on the contract. |
|---|
| 2632 | 2647 | | |
|---|
| 2633 | 2648 | | (4) The contract shall include a statement that, upon satisfactory payment being made for any portion of the work performed, the contractor, prior to any further payment being made, shall furnish to the person contracting for the home improvement or swimming pool work a full and unconditional release from any potential lien claimant claim or mechanics lien authorized pursuant to Sections 8400 and 8404 of the Civil Code for that portion of the work for which payment has been made. |
|---|
| 2634 | 2649 | | |
|---|
| 2635 | 2650 | | (5) A change-order form for changes or extra work shall be incorporated into the contract and shall become part of the contract only if it is in writing and signed by the parties prior to the commencement of any work covered by a change order. |
|---|
| 2636 | 2651 | | |
|---|
| 2637 | 2652 | | (6) The contract shall contain, in close proximity to the signatures of the owner and contractor, a notice stating that the owner or tenant has the right to require the contractor to have a performance and payment bond. |
|---|
| 2638 | 2653 | | |
|---|
| 2639 | 2654 | | (7) If the contract provides for a contractor to furnish joint control, the contractor shall not have any financial or other interest in the joint control. |
|---|
| 2640 | 2655 | | |
|---|
| 2641 | 2656 | | (8) The provisions of this section are not exclusive and do not relieve the contractor from compliance with any other applicable provision of law. |
|---|
| 2642 | 2657 | | |
|---|
| 2643 | 2658 | | (d) A home improvement contract and any changes to the contract shall be in writing and signed by the parties to the contract prior to the commencement of work covered by the contract or an applicable change order and, except as provided in paragraph (8) of subdivision (a) of Section 7159.5, shall include or comply with all of the following: |
|---|
| 2644 | 2659 | | |
|---|
| 2645 | 2660 | | (1) The name, business address, and license number of the contractor. |
|---|
| 2646 | 2661 | | |
|---|
| 2647 | 2662 | | (2) If applicable, the name and registration number of the home improvement salesperson that solicited or negotiated the contract. |
|---|
| 2648 | 2663 | | |
|---|
| 2649 | 2664 | | (3) The following heading on the contract form that identifies the type of contract in at least 10-point boldface type: Home Improvement. |
|---|
| 2650 | 2665 | | |
|---|
| 2651 | 2666 | | (4) The following statement in at least 12-point boldface type: You are entitled to a completely filled in copy of this agreement, signed by both you and the contractor, before any work may be started. |
|---|
| 2652 | 2667 | | |
|---|
| 2653 | 2668 | | (5) The heading: Contract Price, followed by the amount of the contract in dollars and cents. |
|---|
| 2654 | 2669 | | |
|---|
| 2655 | 2670 | | (6) If a finance charge will be charged, the heading: Finance Charge, followed by the amount in dollars and cents. The finance charge is to be set out separately from the contract amount. |
|---|
| 2656 | 2671 | | |
|---|
| 2657 | 2672 | | (7) The heading: Description of the Project and Description of the Significant Materials to be Used and Equipment to be Installed, followed by a description of the project and a description of the significant materials to be used and equipment to be installed. For swimming pools, the project description required under this paragraph also shall include a plan and scale drawing showing the shape, size, dimensions, and the construction and equipment specifications. |
|---|
| 2658 | 2673 | | |
|---|
| 2659 | 2674 | | (8) If a downpayment will be charged, the details of the downpayment shall be expressed in substantially the following form, and shall include the text of the notice as specified in subparagraph (C): |
|---|
| 2660 | 2675 | | |
|---|
| 2661 | 2676 | | (A) The heading: Downpayment. |
|---|
| 2662 | 2677 | | |
|---|
| 2663 | 2678 | | (B) A space where the actual downpayment appears. |
|---|
| 2664 | 2679 | | |
|---|
| 2665 | 2680 | | (C) The following statement in at least 12-point boldface type: |
|---|
| 2666 | 2681 | | |
|---|
| 2667 | 2682 | | THE DOWNPAYMENT MAY NOT EXCEED $1,000 OR 10 PERCENT OF THE CONTRACT PRICE, WHICHEVER IS LESS. |
|---|
| 2668 | 2683 | | |
|---|
| 2669 | 2684 | | (9) If payments, other than the downpayment, are to be made before the project is completed, the details of these payments, known as progress payments, shall be expressed in substantially the following form, and shall include the text of the statement as specified in subparagraph (C): |
|---|
| 2670 | 2685 | | |
|---|
| 2671 | 2686 | | (A) A schedule of progress payments shall be preceded by the heading: Schedule of Progress Payments. |
|---|
| 2672 | 2687 | | |
|---|
| 2673 | 2688 | | (B) Each progress payment shall be stated in dollars and cents and specifically reference the amount of work or services to be performed and materials and equipment to be supplied. |
|---|
| 2674 | 2689 | | |
|---|
| 2675 | 2690 | | (C) The section of the contract reserved for the progress payments shall include the following statement in at least 12-point boldface type: |
|---|
| 2676 | 2691 | | |
|---|
| 2677 | 2692 | | The schedule of progress payments must specifically describe each phase of work, including the type and amount of work or services scheduled to be supplied in each phase, along with the amount of each proposed progress payment. IT IS AGAINST THE LAW FOR A CONTRACTOR TO COLLECT PAYMENT FOR WORK NOT YET COMPLETED, OR FOR MATERIALS NOT YET DELIVERED. HOWEVER, A CONTRACTOR MAY REQUIRE A DOWNPAYMENT. |
|---|
| 2678 | 2693 | | |
|---|
| 2679 | 2694 | | (10) The contract shall address the commencement of work to be performed in substantially the following form: |
|---|
| 2680 | 2695 | | |
|---|
| 2681 | 2696 | | (A) A statement that describes what constitutes substantial commencement of work under the contract. |
|---|
| 2682 | 2697 | | |
|---|
| 2683 | 2698 | | (B) The heading: Approximate Start Date. |
|---|
| 2684 | 2699 | | |
|---|
| 2685 | 2700 | | (C) The approximate date on which work will be commenced. |
|---|
| 2686 | 2701 | | |
|---|
| 2687 | 2702 | | (11) The estimated completion date of the work shall be referenced in the contract in substantially the following form: |
|---|
| 2688 | 2703 | | |
|---|
| 2689 | 2704 | | (A) The heading: Approximate Completion Date. |
|---|
| 2690 | 2705 | | |
|---|
| 2691 | 2706 | | (B) The approximate date of completion. |
|---|
| 2692 | 2707 | | |
|---|
| 2693 | 2708 | | (12) If applicable, the heading: List of Documents to be Incorporated into the Contract, followed by the list of documents incorporated into the contract. |
|---|
| 2694 | 2709 | | |
|---|
| 2695 | 2710 | | (13) The heading: Note About Extra Work and Change Orders, followed by the following statement: |
|---|
| 2696 | 2711 | | |
|---|
| 2697 | 2712 | | Extra Work and Change Orders become part of the contract once the order is prepared in writing and signed by the parties prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order. The order must describe the scope of the extra work or change, the cost to be added or subtracted from the contract, and the effect the order will have on the schedule of progress payments. |
|---|
| 2698 | 2713 | | |
|---|
| 2699 | 2714 | | (e) Except as provided in paragraph (8) of subdivision (a) of Section 7159.5, all of the following notices shall be provided to the owner as part of the contract form as specified or, if otherwise authorized under this subdivision, may be provided as an attachment to the contract: |
|---|
| 2700 | 2715 | | |
|---|
| 2701 | 2716 | | (1) A notice concerning commercial general liability insurance. This notice may be provided as an attachment to the contract if the contract includes the following statement: A notice concerning commercial general liability insurance is attached to this contract. The notice shall include the heading Commercial General Liability Insurance (CGL), followed by whichever of the following statements is both relevant and correct: |
|---|
| 2702 | 2717 | | |
|---|
| 2703 | 2718 | | (A) (The name on the license or This contractor) does not carry commercial general liability insurance. |
|---|
| 2704 | 2719 | | |
|---|
| 2705 | 2720 | | (B) (The name on the license or This contractor) carries commercial general liability insurance written by (the insurance company). You may call (the insurance company) at __________ to check the contractors insurance coverage. |
|---|
| 2706 | 2721 | | |
|---|
| 2707 | 2722 | | (C) (The name on the license or This contractor) is self-insured. |
|---|
| 2708 | 2723 | | |
|---|
| 2709 | 2724 | | (D) (The name on the license or This contractor) is a limited liability company that carries liability insurance or maintains other security as required by law. You may call (the insurance company or trust company or bank) at ____ to check on the contractors insurance coverage or security. |
|---|
| 2710 | 2725 | | |
|---|
| 2711 | 2726 | | (2) A notice concerning workers compensation insurance. This notice may be provided as an attachment to the contract if the contract includes the statement: A notice concerning workers compensation insurance is attached to this contract. The notice shall include the heading Workers Compensation Insurance followed by whichever of the following statements is correct: |
|---|
| 2712 | 2727 | | |
|---|
| 2713 | 2728 | | (A) (The name on the license or This contractor) has no employees and is exempt from workers compensation requirements. |
|---|
| 2714 | 2729 | | |
|---|
| 2715 | 2730 | | (B) (The name on the license or This contractor) carries workers compensation insurance for all employees. |
|---|
| 2716 | 2731 | | |
|---|
| 2717 | 2732 | | (3) A notice that provides the buyer with the following information about the performance of extra or change-order work: |
|---|
| 2718 | 2733 | | |
|---|
| 2719 | 2734 | | (A) A statement that the buyer may not require a contractor to perform extra or change-order work without providing written authorization prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order. |
|---|
| 2720 | 2735 | | |
|---|
| 2721 | 2736 | | (B) A statement informing the buyer that extra work or a change order is not enforceable against a buyer unless the change order also identifies all of the following in writing prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order: |
|---|
| 2722 | 2737 | | |
|---|
| 2723 | 2738 | | (i) The scope of work encompassed by the order. |
|---|
| 2724 | 2739 | | |
|---|
| 2725 | 2740 | | (ii) The amount to be added or subtracted from the contract. |
|---|
| 2726 | 2741 | | |
|---|
| 2727 | 2742 | | (iii) The effect the order will make in the progress payments or the completion date. |
|---|
| 2728 | 2743 | | |
|---|
| 2729 | 2744 | | (C) A statement informing the buyer that the contractors failure to comply with the requirements of this paragraph does not preclude the recovery of compensation for work performed based upon legal or equitable remedies designed to prevent unjust enrichment. |
|---|
| 2730 | 2745 | | |
|---|
| 2731 | 2746 | | (4) A notice with the heading Mechanics Lien Warning written as follows: |
|---|
| 2732 | 2747 | | |
|---|
| 2733 | 2748 | | MECHANICS LIEN WARNING: |
|---|
| 2734 | 2749 | | |
|---|
| 2735 | 2750 | | Anyone who helps improve your property, but who is not paid, may record what is called a mechanics lien on your property. A mechanics lien is a claim, like a mortgage or home equity loan, made against your property and recorded with the county recorder. |
|---|
| 2736 | 2751 | | |
|---|
| 2737 | 2752 | | Even if you pay your contractor in full, unpaid subcontractors, suppliers, and laborers who helped to improve your property may record mechanics liens and sue you in court to foreclose the lien. If a court finds the lien is valid, you could be forced to pay twice or have a court officer sell your home to pay the lien. Liens can also affect your credit. |
|---|
| 2738 | 2753 | | |
|---|
| 2739 | 2754 | | To preserve their right to record a lien, each subcontractor and material supplier must provide you with a document called a Preliminary Notice. This notice is not a lien. The purpose of the notice is to let you know that the person who sends you the notice has the right to record a lien on your property if they are not paid. |
|---|
| 2740 | 2755 | | |
|---|
| 2741 | 2756 | | BE CAREFUL. The Preliminary Notice can be sent up to 20 days after the subcontractor starts work or the supplier provides material. This can be a big problem if you pay your contractor before you have received the Preliminary Notices. |
|---|
| 2742 | 2757 | | |
|---|
| 2743 | 2758 | | You will not get Preliminary Notices from your prime contractor or from laborers who work on your project. The law assumes that you already know they are improving your property. |
|---|
| 2744 | 2759 | | |
|---|
| 2745 | 2760 | | PROTECT YOURSELF FROM LIENS. You can protect yourself from liens by getting a list from your contractor of all the subcontractors and material suppliers that work on your project. Find out from your contractor when these subcontractors started work and when these suppliers delivered goods or materials. Then wait 20 days, paying attention to the Preliminary Notices you receive. |
|---|
| 2746 | 2761 | | |
|---|
| 2747 | 2762 | | PAY WITH JOINT CHECKS. One way to protect yourself is to pay with a joint check. When your contractor tells you it is time to pay for the work of a subcontractor or supplier who has provided you with a Preliminary Notice, write a joint check payable to both the contractor and the subcontractor or material supplier. |
|---|
| 2748 | 2763 | | |
|---|
| 2749 | 2764 | | For other ways to prevent liens, visit CSLBs internet website at www.cslb.ca.gov or call CSLB at 800-321-CSLB (2752). |
|---|
| 2750 | 2765 | | |
|---|
| 2751 | 2766 | | REMEMBER, IF YOU DO NOTHING, YOU RISK HAVING A LIEN PLACED ON YOUR HOME. This can mean that you may have to pay twice, or face the forced sale of your home to pay what you owe. |
|---|
| 2752 | 2767 | | |
|---|
| 2753 | 2768 | | (5) The following notice shall be provided in at least 12-point typeface: |
|---|
| 2754 | 2769 | | |
|---|
| 2755 | 2770 | | Information about the Contractors State License Board (CSLB): CSLB is the state consumer protection agency that licenses and regulates construction contractors. |
|---|
| 2756 | 2771 | | |
|---|
| 2757 | 2772 | | Contact CSLB for information about the licensed contractor you are considering, including information about disclosable complaints, disciplinary actions, and civil judgments that are reported to CSLB. |
|---|
| 2758 | 2773 | | |
|---|
| 2759 | 2774 | | Use only licensed contractors. If you file a complaint against a licensed contractor within the legal deadline (usually four years), CSLB has authority to investigate the complaint. If you use an unlicensed contractor, CSLB may not be able to help you resolve your complaint. Your only remedy may be in civil court, and you may be liable for damages arising out of any injuries to the unlicensed contractor or the unlicensed contractors employees. |
|---|
| 2760 | 2775 | | |
|---|
| 2761 | 2776 | | For more information: |
|---|
| 2762 | 2777 | | |
|---|
| 2763 | 2778 | | Visit CSLBs internet website at www.cslb.ca.gov |
|---|
| 2764 | 2779 | | |
|---|
| 2765 | 2780 | | Call CSLB at 800-321-CSLB (2752) |
|---|
| 2766 | 2781 | | |
|---|
| 2767 | 2782 | | Write CSLB at P.O. Box 26000, Sacramento, CA 95826. |
|---|
| 2768 | 2783 | | |
|---|
| 2769 | 2784 | | (6) (A) The notice set forth in subparagraph (B) and entitled Three-Day Right to Cancel, shall be provided to the buyer unless the contract is: |
|---|
| 2770 | 2785 | | |
|---|
| 2771 | 2786 | | (i) Negotiated at the contractors place of business. |
|---|
| 2772 | 2787 | | |
|---|
| 2773 | 2788 | | (ii) Subject to the Seven-Day Right to Cancel, as set forth in paragraph (7). |
|---|
| 2774 | 2789 | | |
|---|
| 2775 | 2790 | | (iii) Subject to licensure under the Alarm Company Act (Chapter 11.6 (commencing with Section 7590)), provided the alarm company licensee complies with Sections 1689.5, 1689.6, and 1689.7 of the Civil Code, as applicable. |
|---|
| 2776 | 2791 | | |
|---|
| 2777 | 2792 | | (B) Three-Day Right to Cancel |
|---|
| 2778 | 2793 | | |
|---|
| 2779 | 2794 | | You, the buyer, have the right to cancel this contract within three business days. You may cancel by emailing, mailing, faxing, or delivering a written notice to the contractor at the contractors place of business by midnight of the third business day after you received a signed and dated copy of the contract that includes this notice. Include your name, your address, and the date you received the signed copy of the contract and this notice. |
|---|
| 2780 | 2795 | | |
|---|
| 2781 | 2796 | | If you cancel, the contractor must return to you anything you paid within 10 days of receiving the notice of cancellation. For your part, you must make available to the contractor at your residence, in substantially as good condition as you received them, goods delivered to you under this contract or sale. Or, you may, if you wish, comply with the contractors instructions on how to return the goods at the contractors expense and risk. If you do make the goods available to the contractor and the contractor does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may keep them without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the contractor, or if you agree to return the goods to the contractor and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract. |
|---|
| 2782 | 2797 | | |
|---|
| 2783 | 2798 | | (C) The Three-Day Right to Cancel notice required by this paragraph shall comply with all of the following: |
|---|
| 2784 | 2799 | | |
|---|
| 2785 | 2800 | | (i) The text of the notice is at least 12-point boldface type. |
|---|
| 2786 | 2801 | | |
|---|
| 2787 | 2802 | | (ii) The notice is in immediate proximity to a space reserved for the owners signature. |
|---|
| 2788 | 2803 | | |
|---|
| 2789 | 2804 | | (iii) The owner acknowledges receipt of the notice by signing and dating the notice form in the signature space. |
|---|
| 2790 | 2805 | | |
|---|
| 2791 | 2806 | | (iv) The notice is written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as that principally used in any oral sales presentation. |
|---|
| 2792 | 2807 | | |
|---|
| 2793 | 2808 | | (v) The notice may be attached to the contract if the contract includes, in at least 12-point boldface type, a checkbox with the following statement: The law requires that the contractor give you a notice explaining your right to cancel. Initial the checkbox if the contractor has given you a Notice of the Three-Day Right to Cancel. |
|---|
| 2794 | 2809 | | |
|---|
| 2795 | 2810 | | (vi) The notice shall be accompanied by a completed form in duplicate, captioned Notice of Cancellation, which also shall be attached to the agreement or offer to purchase and be easily detachable, and which shall contain the following statement written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as used in the contract: |
|---|
| 2796 | 2811 | | |
|---|
| 2797 | 2812 | | Notice of Cancellation |
|---|
| 2798 | 2813 | | |
|---|
| 2799 | 2814 | | Notice of Cancellation |
|---|
| 2800 | 2815 | | |
|---|
| 2801 | 2816 | | /enter date of transaction/ |
|---|
| 2802 | 2817 | | |
|---|
| 2803 | 2818 | | |
|---|
| 2804 | 2819 | | |
|---|
| 2805 | 2820 | | (Date) |
|---|
| 2806 | 2821 | | |
|---|
| 2807 | 2822 | | You may cancel this transaction, without any penalty or obligation, within three business days from the above date. |
|---|
| 2808 | 2823 | | |
|---|
| 2809 | 2824 | | If you cancel, any property traded in, any payments made by you under the contract or sale, and any negotiable instrument executed by you will be returned within 10 days following receipt by the seller of your cancellation notice, and any security interest arising out of the transaction will be canceled. |
|---|
| 2810 | 2825 | | |
|---|
| 2811 | 2826 | | If you cancel, you must make available to the seller at your residence, in substantially as good condition as when received, any goods delivered to you under this contract or sale, or you may, if you wish, comply with the instructions of the seller regarding the return shipment of the goods at the sellers expense and risk. |
|---|
| 2812 | 2827 | | |
|---|
| 2813 | 2828 | | If you do make the goods available to the seller and the seller does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may retain or dispose of the goods without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the seller, or if you agree to return the goods to the seller and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract. |
|---|
| 2814 | 2829 | | |
|---|
| 2815 | 2830 | | To cancel this transaction, mail or deliver a signed and dated copy of this cancellation notice, or any other written notice, or send a telegram |
|---|
| 2816 | 2831 | | to , |
|---|
| 2817 | 2832 | | /name of seller/ |
|---|
| 2818 | 2833 | | at |
|---|
| 2819 | 2834 | | /address of sellers place of business/ |
|---|
| 2820 | 2835 | | not later than midnight of . |
|---|
| 2821 | 2836 | | (Date) |
|---|
| 2822 | 2837 | | I hereby cancel this transaction. |
|---|
| 2823 | 2838 | | (Date) |
|---|
| 2824 | 2839 | | (Buyers signature) |
|---|
| 2825 | 2840 | | |
|---|
| 2826 | 2841 | | To cancel this transaction, mail or deliver a signed and dated copy of this cancellation notice, or any other written notice, or send a telegram |
|---|
| 2827 | 2842 | | |
|---|
| 2828 | 2843 | | to , |
|---|
| 2829 | 2844 | | |
|---|
| 2830 | 2845 | | /name of seller/ |
|---|
| 2831 | 2846 | | |
|---|
| 2832 | 2847 | | at |
|---|
| 2833 | 2848 | | |
|---|
| 2834 | 2849 | | /address of sellers place of business/ |
|---|
| 2835 | 2850 | | |
|---|
| 2836 | 2851 | | not later than midnight of . |
|---|
| 2837 | 2852 | | |
|---|
| 2838 | 2853 | | (Date) |
|---|
| 2839 | 2854 | | |
|---|
| 2840 | 2855 | | I hereby cancel this transaction. |
|---|
| 2841 | 2856 | | |
|---|
| 2842 | 2857 | | (Date) |
|---|
| 2843 | 2858 | | |
|---|
| 2844 | 2859 | | |
|---|
| 2845 | 2860 | | |
|---|
| 2846 | 2861 | | (Buyers signature) |
|---|
| 2847 | 2862 | | |
|---|
| 2848 | 2863 | | (7) (A) The following notice entitled Seven-Day Right to Cancel shall be provided to the buyer for any contract that is written for the repair or restoration of residential premises damaged by any sudden or catastrophic event for which a state of emergency has been declared by the President of the United States or the Governor, or for which a local emergency has been declared by the executive officer or governing body of any city, county, or city and county: |
|---|
| 2849 | 2864 | | |
|---|
| 2850 | 2865 | | Seven-Day Right to Cancel |
|---|
| 2851 | 2866 | | |
|---|
| 2852 | 2867 | | You, the buyer, have the right to cancel this contract within seven business days. You may cancel by emailing, mailing, faxing, or delivering a written notice to the contractor at the contractors place of business by midnight of the seventh business day after you received a signed and dated copy of the contract that includes this notice. Include your name, your address, and the date you received the signed copy of the contract and this notice. |
|---|
| 2853 | 2868 | | |
|---|
| 2854 | 2869 | | If you cancel, the contractor must return to you anything you paid within 10 days of receiving the notice of cancellation. For your part, you must make available to the contractor at your residence, in substantially as good condition as you received them, goods delivered to you under this contract or sale. Or, you may, if you wish, comply with the contractors instructions on how to return the goods at the contractors expense and risk. If you do make the goods available to the contractor and the contractor does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may keep them without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the contractor, or if you agree to return the goods to the contractor and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract. |
|---|
| 2855 | 2870 | | |
|---|
| 2856 | 2871 | | (B) The Seven-Day Right to Cancel notice required by this subdivision shall comply with all of the following: |
|---|
| 2857 | 2872 | | |
|---|
| 2858 | 2873 | | (i) The text of the notice is at least 12-point boldface type. |
|---|
| 2859 | 2874 | | |
|---|
| 2860 | 2875 | | (ii) The notice is in immediate proximity to a space reserved for the owners signature. |
|---|
| 2861 | 2876 | | |
|---|
| 2862 | 2877 | | (iii) The owner acknowledges receipt of the notice by signing and dating the notice form in the signature space. |
|---|
| 2863 | 2878 | | |
|---|
| 2864 | 2879 | | (iv) The notice is written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as that principally used in any oral sales presentation. |
|---|
| 2865 | 2880 | | |
|---|
| 2866 | 2881 | | (v) The notice may be attached to the contract if the contract includes, in at least 12-point boldface type, a checkbox with the following statement: The law requires that the contractor give you a notice explaining your right to cancel. Initial the checkbox if the contractor has given you a Notice of the Seven-Day Right to Cancel. |
|---|
| 2867 | 2882 | | |
|---|
| 2868 | 2883 | | (vi) The notice shall be accompanied by a completed form in duplicate, captioned Notice of Cancellation, which shall also be attached to the agreement or offer to purchase and be easily detachable, and which shall contain the following statement written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as used in the contract: |
|---|
| 2869 | 2884 | | |
|---|
| 2870 | 2885 | | Notice of Cancellation |
|---|
| 2871 | 2886 | | |
|---|
| 2872 | 2887 | | Notice of Cancellation |
|---|
| 2873 | 2888 | | |
|---|
| 2874 | 2889 | | /enter date of transaction/ |
|---|
| 2875 | 2890 | | |
|---|
| 2876 | 2891 | | |
|---|
| 2877 | 2892 | | |
|---|
| 2878 | 2893 | | (Date) |
|---|
| 2879 | 2894 | | |
|---|
| 2880 | 2895 | | You may cancel this transaction, without any penalty or obligation, within seven business days from the above date. |
|---|
| 2881 | 2896 | | |
|---|
| 2882 | 2897 | | If you cancel, any property traded in, any payments made by you under the contract or sale, and any negotiable instrument executed by you will be returned within 10 days following receipt by the seller of your cancellation notice, and any security interest arising out of the transaction will be canceled. |
|---|
| 2883 | 2898 | | |
|---|
| 2884 | 2899 | | If you cancel, you must make available to the seller at your residence, in substantially as good condition as when received, any goods delivered to you under this contract or sale, or you may, if you wish, comply with the instructions of the seller regarding the return shipment of the goods at the sellers expense and risk. |
|---|
| 2885 | 2900 | | |
|---|
| 2886 | 2901 | | If you do make the goods available to the seller and the seller does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may retain or dispose of the goods without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the seller, or if you agree to return the goods to the seller and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract. |
|---|
| 2887 | 2902 | | |
|---|
| 2888 | 2903 | | To cancel this transaction, mail or deliver a signed and dated copy of this cancellation notice, or any other written notice, or send a telegram |
|---|
| 2889 | 2904 | | to , |
|---|
| 2890 | 2905 | | /name of seller/ |
|---|
| 2891 | 2906 | | at |
|---|
| 2892 | 2907 | | /address of sellers place of business/ |
|---|
| 2893 | 2908 | | not later than midnight of . |
|---|
| 2894 | 2909 | | (Date) |
|---|
| 2895 | 2910 | | I hereby cancel this transaction. |
|---|
| 2896 | 2911 | | (Date) |
|---|
| 2897 | 2912 | | (Buyers signature) |
|---|
| 2898 | 2913 | | |
|---|
| 2899 | 2914 | | To cancel this transaction, mail or deliver a signed and dated copy of this cancellation notice, or any other written notice, or send a telegram |
|---|
| 2900 | 2915 | | |
|---|
| 2901 | 2916 | | to , |
|---|
| 2902 | 2917 | | |
|---|
| 2903 | 2918 | | /name of seller/ |
|---|
| 2904 | 2919 | | |
|---|
| 2905 | 2920 | | at |
|---|
| 2906 | 2921 | | |
|---|
| 2907 | 2922 | | /address of sellers place of business/ |
|---|
| 2908 | 2923 | | |
|---|
| 2909 | 2924 | | not later than midnight of . |
|---|
| 2910 | 2925 | | |
|---|
| 2911 | 2926 | | (Date) |
|---|
| 2912 | 2927 | | |
|---|
| 2913 | 2928 | | I hereby cancel this transaction. |
|---|
| 2914 | 2929 | | |
|---|
| 2915 | 2930 | | (Date) |
|---|
| 2916 | 2931 | | |
|---|
| 2917 | 2932 | | |
|---|
| 2918 | 2933 | | |
|---|
| 2919 | 2934 | | (Buyers signature) |
|---|
| 2920 | 2935 | | |
|---|
| 2921 | 2936 | | SEC. 73.5. Section 7159 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7159. (a) (1) This section identifies the projects for which a home improvement contract is required, outlines the contract requirements, and lists the items that shall be included in the contract, or may be provided as an attachment.(2) This section does not apply to service and repair contracts that are subject to Section 7159.10, if the contract for the applicable services complies with Sections 7159.10 to 7159.14, inclusive.(3) This section does not apply to the sale, installation, and servicing of a fire alarm sold in conjunction with an alarm system, as defined in Section 7590.1, if all costs attributable to making the fire alarm system operable, including sale and installation costs, do not exceed five hundred dollars ($500), and the licensee complies with the requirements set forth in Section 7159.9.(4) This section does not apply to any costs associated with monitoring a burglar or fire alarm system.(5) Failure by the licensee, their agent or salesperson, or by a person subject to be licensed under this chapter, to provide the specified information, notices, and disclosures in the contract, or to otherwise fail to comply with any provision of this section, is cause for discipline.(b) For purposes of this section, home improvement contract means an agreement, whether oral or written, or contained in one or more documents, between a contractor and an owner or between a contractor and a tenant, regardless of the number of residence or dwelling units contained in the building in which the tenant resides, if the work is to be performed in, to, or upon the residence or dwelling unit of the tenant, for the performance of a home improvement, as defined in Section 7151, and includes all labor, services, and materials to be furnished and performed thereunder, if the aggregate contract price specified in one or more improvement contracts, including all labor, services, and materials to be furnished by the contractor, exceeds five hundred dollars ($500). Home improvement contract also means an agreement, whether oral or written, or contained in one or more documents, between a salesperson, whether or not they are a home improvement salesperson, and an owner or a tenant, regardless of the number of residence or dwelling units contained in the building in which the tenant resides, which provides for the sale, installation, or furnishing of home improvement goods or services.(c) In addition to the specific requirements listed under this section, every home improvement contract and any person subject to licensure under this chapter or their agent or salesperson shall comply with all of the following:(1) The writing shall be legible.(2) Any printed form shall be readable. Unless a larger typeface is specified in this article, text in any printed form shall be in at least 10-point typeface and the headings shall be in at least 10-point boldface type.(3) (A) Before any work is started, the contractor shall give the buyer a copy of the contract signed and dated by both the contractor and the buyer. The buyers receipt of the copy of the contract initiates the buyers rights to cancel the contract pursuant to Sections 1689.5 to 1689.14, inclusive, of the Civil Code.(B) The contract shall contain on the first page, in a typeface no smaller than that generally used in the body of the document, both of the following:(i) The date the buyer signed the contract.(ii) The name and address of the contractor to which the applicable Notice of Cancellation is to be mailed, immediately preceded by a statement advising the buyer that the Notice of Cancellation may be sent to the contractor at the address noted on the contract.(4) The contract shall include a statement that, upon satisfactory payment being made for any portion of the work performed, the contractor, prior to any further payment being made, shall furnish to the person contracting for the home improvement or swimming pool work a full and unconditional release from any potential lien claimant claim or mechanics lien authorized pursuant to Sections 8400 and 8404 of the Civil Code for that portion of the work for which payment has been made.(5) A change-order form for changes or extra work shall be incorporated into the contract and shall become part of the contract only if it is in writing and signed by the parties prior to the commencement of any work covered by a change order.(6) The contract shall contain, in close proximity to the signatures of the owner and contractor, a notice stating that the owner or tenant has the right to require the contractor to have a performance and payment bond.(7) If the contract provides for a contractor to furnish joint control, the contractor shall not have any financial or other interest in the joint control.(8) The provisions of this section are not exclusive and do not relieve the contractor from compliance with any other applicable provision of law.(d) A home improvement contract and any changes to the contract shall be in writing and signed by the parties to the contract prior to the commencement of work covered by the contract or an applicable change order and, except as provided in paragraph (8) of subdivision (a) of Section 7159.5, shall include or comply with all of the following:(1) The name, business address, and license number of the contractor.(2) If applicable, the name and registration number of the home improvement salesperson that solicited or negotiated the contract.(3) The following heading on the contract form that identifies the type of contract in at least 10-point boldface type: Home Improvement.(4) The following statement in at least 12-point boldface type: You are entitled to a completely filled in copy of this agreement, signed by both you and the contractor, before any work may be started.(5) The heading: Contract Price, followed by the amount of the contract in dollars and cents.(6) If a finance charge will be charged, the heading: Finance Charge, followed by the amount in dollars and cents. The finance charge is to be set out separately from the contract amount.(7) The heading: Description of the Project and Description of the Significant Materials to be Used and Equipment to be Installed, followed by a description of the project and a description of the significant materials to be used and equipment to be installed. For swimming pools, the project description required under this paragraph also shall include a plan and scale drawing showing the shape, size, dimensions, and the construction and equipment specifications.(8) If a downpayment will be charged, the details of the downpayment shall be expressed in substantially the following form, and shall include the text of the notice as specified in subparagraph (C):(A) The heading: Downpayment.(B) A space where the actual downpayment appears.(C) The following statement in at least 12-point boldface type:THE DOWNPAYMENT MAY NOT EXCEED $1,000 OR 10 PERCENT OF THE CONTRACT PRICE, WHICHEVER IS LESS.(9) If payments, other than the downpayment, are to be made before the project is completed, the details of these payments, known as progress payments, shall be expressed in substantially the following form, and shall include the text of the statement as specified in subparagraph (C):(A) A schedule of progress payments shall be preceded by the heading: Schedule of Progress Payments.(B) Each progress payment shall be stated in dollars and cents and specifically reference the amount of work or services to be performed and materials and equipment to be supplied.(C) The section of the contract reserved for the progress payments shall include the following statement in at least 12-point boldface type:The schedule of progress payments must specifically describe each phase of work, including the type and amount of work or services scheduled to be supplied in each phase, along with the amount of each proposed progress payment. IT IS AGAINST THE LAW FOR A CONTRACTOR TO COLLECT PAYMENT FOR WORK NOT YET COMPLETED, OR FOR MATERIALS NOT YET DELIVERED. HOWEVER, A CONTRACTOR MAY REQUIRE A DOWNPAYMENT.(10) The contract shall address the commencement of work to be performed in substantially the following form:(A) A statement that describes what constitutes substantial commencement of work under the contract.(B) The heading: Approximate Start Date.(C) The approximate date on which work will be commenced.(11) The estimated completion date of the work shall be referenced in the contract in substantially the following form:(A) The heading: Approximate Completion Date.(B) The approximate date of completion.(12) If applicable, the heading: List of Documents to be Incorporated into the Contract, followed by the list of documents incorporated into the contract.(13) The heading: Note About Extra Work and Change Orders, followed by the following statement:Extra Work and Change Orders become part of the contract once the order is prepared in writing and signed by the parties prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order. The order must describe the scope of the extra work or change, the cost to be added or subtracted from the contract, and the effect the order will have on the schedule of progress payments.(e) Except as provided in paragraph (8) of subdivision (a) of Section 7159.5, all of the following notices shall be provided to the owner as part of the contract form as specified or, if otherwise authorized under this subdivision, may be provided as an attachment to the contract:(1) A notice concerning commercial general liability insurance. This notice may be provided as an attachment to the contract if the contract includes the following statement: A notice concerning commercial general liability insurance is attached to this contract. The notice shall include the heading Commercial General Liability Insurance (CGL), followed by whichever of the following statements is both relevant and correct:(A) (The name on the license or This contractor) does not carry commercial general liability insurance.(B) (The name on the license or This contractor) carries commercial general liability insurance written by (the insurance company). You may call (the insurance company) at __________ to check the contractors insurance coverage.(C) (The name on the license or This contractor) is self-insured.(D) (The name on the license or This contractor) is a limited liability company that carries liability insurance or maintains other security as required by law. You may call (the insurance company or trust company or bank) at ____ to check on the contractors insurance coverage or security.(2) A notice concerning workers compensation insurance. This notice may be provided as an attachment to the contract if the contract includes the statement: A notice concerning workers compensation insurance is attached to this contract. The notice shall include the heading Workers Compensation Insurance followed by whichever of the following statements is correct:(A) (The name on the license or This contractor) has no employees and is exempt from workers compensation requirements.(B) (The name on the license or This contractor) carries workers compensation insurance for all employees.(3) A notice that provides the buyer with the following information about the performance of extra or change-order work:(A) A statement that the buyer may not require a contractor to perform extra or change-order work without providing written authorization prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order.(B) A statement informing the buyer that extra work or a change order is not enforceable against a buyer unless the change order also identifies all of the following in writing prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order:(i) The scope of work encompassed by the order.(ii) The amount to be added or subtracted from the contract.(iii) The effect the order will make in the progress payments or the completion date.(C) A statement informing the buyer that the contractors failure to comply with the requirements of this paragraph does not preclude the recovery of compensation for work performed based upon legal or equitable remedies designed to prevent unjust enrichment.(4) A notice with the heading Mechanics Lien Warning written as follows:MECHANICS LIEN WARNING:Anyone who helps improve your property, but who is not paid, may record what is called a mechanics lien on your property. A mechanics lien is a claim, like a mortgage or home equity loan, made against your property and recorded with the county recorder.Even if you pay your contractor in full, unpaid subcontractors, suppliers, and laborers who helped to improve your property may record mechanics liens and sue you in court to foreclose the lien. If a court finds the lien is valid, you could be forced to pay twice or have a court officer sell your home to pay the lien. Liens can also affect your credit.To preserve their right to record a lien, each subcontractor and material supplier must provide you with a document called a Preliminary Notice. This notice is not a lien. The purpose of the notice is to let you know that the person who sends you the notice has the right to record a lien on your property if they are not paid.BE CAREFUL. The Preliminary Notice can be sent up to 20 days after the subcontractor starts work or the supplier provides material. This can be a big problem if you pay your contractor before you have received the Preliminary Notices.You will not get Preliminary Notices from your prime contractor or from laborers who work on your project. The law assumes that you already know they are improving your property.PROTECT YOURSELF FROM LIENS. You can protect yourself from liens by getting a list from your contractor of all the subcontractors and material suppliers that work on your project. Find out from your contractor when these subcontractors started work and when these suppliers delivered goods or materials. Then wait 20 days, paying attention to the Preliminary Notices you receive.PAY WITH JOINT CHECKS. One way to protect yourself is to pay with a joint check. When your contractor tells you it is time to pay for the work of a subcontractor or supplier who has provided you with a Preliminary Notice, write a joint check payable to both the contractor and the subcontractor or material supplier.For other ways to prevent liens, visit CSLBs internet website at www.cslb.ca.gov or call CSLB at 800-321-CSLB (2752).REMEMBER, IF YOU DO NOTHING, YOU RISK HAVING A LIEN PLACED ON YOUR HOME. This can mean that you may have to pay twice, or face the forced sale of your home to pay what you owe.(5) The following notice shall be provided in at least 12-point typeface:Information about the Contractors State License Board (CSLB): CSLB is the state consumer protection agency that licenses and regulates construction contractors.Contact CSLB for information about the licensed contractor you are considering, including information about disclosable complaints, disciplinary actions, and civil judgments that are reported to CSLB.Use only licensed contractors. If you file a complaint against a licensed contractor within the legal deadline (usually four years), CSLB has authority to investigate the complaint. If you use an unlicensed contractor, CSLB may not be able to help you resolve your complaint. Your only remedy may be in civil court, and you may be liable for damages arising out of any injuries to the unlicensed contractor or the unlicensed contractors employees.For more information:Visit CSLBs internet website at www.cslb.ca.govCall CSLB at 800-321-CSLB (2752)Write CSLB at P.O. Box 26000, Sacramento, CA 95826.(6) (A) The notice set forth in subparagraph (B) and entitled Three-Day Right to Cancel, or entitled Five-Day Right to Cancel for contracts with a senior citizen, shall be provided to the buyer unless the contract is:(i) Negotiated at the contractors place of business.(ii) Subject to the Seven-Day Right to Cancel, as set forth in paragraph (7).(iii) Subject to licensure under the Alarm Company Act (Chapter 11.6 (commencing with Section 7590)), provided the alarm company licensee complies with Sections 1689.5, 1689.6, and 1689.7 of the Civil Code, as applicable.(B) (i) Three-Day Right to CancelYou, the buyer, have the right to cancel this contract within three business days. You may cancel by emailing, mailing, faxing, or delivering a written notice to the contractor at the contractors place of business by midnight of the third business day after you received a signed and dated copy of the contract that includes this notice. Include your name, your address, and the date you received the signed copy of the contract and this notice.If you cancel, the contractor must return to you anything you paid within 10 days of receiving the notice of cancellation. For your part, you must make available to the contractor at your residence, in substantially as good condition as you received them, goods delivered to you under this contract or sale. Or, you may, if you wish, comply with the contractors instructions on how to return the goods at the contractors expense and risk. If you do make the goods available to the contractor and the contractor does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may keep them without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the contractor, or if you agree to return the goods to the contractor and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.(ii) References to three and third in the notice set forth in clause (i) shall be changed to five and fifth, respectively, for a buyer who is a senior citizen.(C) The notice required by this paragraph shall comply with all of the following:(i) The text of the notice is at least 12-point boldface type.(ii) The notice is in immediate proximity to a space reserved for the owners signature.(iii) The owner acknowledges receipt of the notice by signing and dating the notice form in the signature space.(iv) The notice is written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as that principally used in any oral sales presentation.(v) The notice may be attached to the contract if the contract includes, in at least 12-point boldface type, a checkbox with one of the following statements, as applicable:(I) For a contract with a senior citizen: The law requires that the contractor give you a notice explaining your right to cancel. Initial the checkbox if the contractor has given you a Notice of the Five-Day Right to Cancel.(II) For all other contracts: The law requires that the contractor give you a notice explaining your right to cancel. Initial the checkbox if the contractor has given you a Notice of the Three-Day Right to Cancel.(vi) (I) The notice shall be accompanied by a completed form in duplicate, captioned Notice of Cancellation, which also shall be attached to the agreement or offer to purchase and be easily detachable, and which shall contain the following statement written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as used in the contract:Notice of Cancellation/enter date of transaction/(Date)You may cancel this transaction, without any penalty or obligation, within three business days from the above date.If you cancel, any property traded in, any payments made by you under the contract or sale, and any negotiable instrument executed by you will be returned within 10 days following receipt by the seller of your cancellation notice, and any security interest arising out of the transaction will be canceled.If you cancel, you must make available to the seller at your residence, in substantially as good condition as when received, any goods delivered to you under this contract or sale, or you may, if you wish, comply with the instructions of the seller regarding the return shipment of the goods at the sellers expense and risk.If you do make the goods available to the seller and the seller does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may retain or dispose of the goods without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the seller, or if you agree to return the goods to the seller and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.To cancel this transaction, mail or deliver a signed and dated copy of this cancellation notice, or any other written notice, or send a telegramto ,/name of seller/at /address of sellers place of business/not later than midnight of .(Date)I hereby cancel this transaction.(Date)(Buyers signature)(II) The reference to three in the statement set forth in subclause (I) shall be changed to five for a buyer who is a senior citizen.(7) (A) The following notice entitled Seven-Day Right to Cancel shall be provided to the buyer for any contract that is written for the repair or restoration of residential premises damaged by any sudden or catastrophic event for which a state of emergency has been declared by the President of the United States or the Governor, or for which a local emergency has been declared by the executive officer or governing body of any city, county, or city and county:Seven-Day Right to CancelYou, the buyer, have the right to cancel this contract within seven business days. You may cancel by emailing, mailing, faxing, or delivering a written notice to the contractor at the contractors place of business by midnight of the seventh business day after you received a signed and dated copy of the contract that includes this notice. Include your name, your address, and the date you received the signed copy of the contract and this notice.If you cancel, the contractor must return to you anything you paid within 10 days of receiving the notice of cancellation. For your part, you must make available to the contractor at your residence, in substantially as good condition as you received them, goods delivered to you under this contract or sale. Or, you may, if you wish, comply with the contractors instructions on how to return the goods at the contractors expense and risk. If you do make the goods available to the contractor and the contractor does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may keep them without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the contractor, or if you agree to return the goods to the contractor and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.(B) The Seven-Day Right to Cancel notice required by this subdivision shall comply with all of the following:(i) The text of the notice is at least 12-point boldface type.(ii) The notice is in immediate proximity to a space reserved for the owners signature.(iii) The owner acknowledges receipt of the notice by signing and dating the notice form in the signature space.(iv) The notice is written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as that principally used in any oral sales presentation.(v) The notice may be attached to the contract if the contract includes, in at least 12-point boldface type, a checkbox with the following statement: The law requires that the contractor give you a notice explaining your right to cancel. Initial the checkbox if the contractor has given you a Notice of the Seven-Day Right to Cancel.(vi) The notice shall be accompanied by a completed form in duplicate, captioned Notice of Cancellation, which shall also be attached to the agreement or offer to purchase and be easily detachable, and which shall contain the following statement written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as used in the contract:Notice of Cancellation/enter date of transaction/(Date)You may cancel this transaction, without any penalty or obligation, within seven business days from the above date.If you cancel, any property traded in, any payments made by you under the contract or sale, and any negotiable instrument executed by you will be returned within 10 days following receipt by the seller of your cancellation notice, and any security interest arising out of the transaction will be canceled.If you cancel, you must make available to the seller at your residence, in substantially as good condition as when received, any goods delivered to you under this contract or sale, or you may, if you wish, comply with the instructions of the seller regarding the return shipment of the goods at the sellers expense and risk.If you do make the goods available to the seller and the seller does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may retain or dispose of the goods without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the seller, or if you agree to return the goods to the seller and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.To cancel this transaction, mail or deliver a signed and dated copy of this cancellation notice, or any other written notice, or send a telegramto ,/name of seller/at /address of sellers place of business/not later than midnight of .(Date)I hereby cancel this transaction.(Date)(Buyers signature)(f) The five-day right to cancel added by the act that amended paragraph (6) of subdivision (e) shall apply to contracts entered into on or after January 1, 2021. |
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| 2922 | 2937 | | |
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| 2923 | 2938 | | SEC. 73.5. Section 7159 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
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| 2924 | 2939 | | |
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| 2925 | 2940 | | ### SEC. 73.5. |
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| 2926 | 2941 | | |
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| 2927 | 2942 | | 7159. (a) (1) This section identifies the projects for which a home improvement contract is required, outlines the contract requirements, and lists the items that shall be included in the contract, or may be provided as an attachment.(2) This section does not apply to service and repair contracts that are subject to Section 7159.10, if the contract for the applicable services complies with Sections 7159.10 to 7159.14, inclusive.(3) This section does not apply to the sale, installation, and servicing of a fire alarm sold in conjunction with an alarm system, as defined in Section 7590.1, if all costs attributable to making the fire alarm system operable, including sale and installation costs, do not exceed five hundred dollars ($500), and the licensee complies with the requirements set forth in Section 7159.9.(4) This section does not apply to any costs associated with monitoring a burglar or fire alarm system.(5) Failure by the licensee, their agent or salesperson, or by a person subject to be licensed under this chapter, to provide the specified information, notices, and disclosures in the contract, or to otherwise fail to comply with any provision of this section, is cause for discipline.(b) For purposes of this section, home improvement contract means an agreement, whether oral or written, or contained in one or more documents, between a contractor and an owner or between a contractor and a tenant, regardless of the number of residence or dwelling units contained in the building in which the tenant resides, if the work is to be performed in, to, or upon the residence or dwelling unit of the tenant, for the performance of a home improvement, as defined in Section 7151, and includes all labor, services, and materials to be furnished and performed thereunder, if the aggregate contract price specified in one or more improvement contracts, including all labor, services, and materials to be furnished by the contractor, exceeds five hundred dollars ($500). Home improvement contract also means an agreement, whether oral or written, or contained in one or more documents, between a salesperson, whether or not they are a home improvement salesperson, and an owner or a tenant, regardless of the number of residence or dwelling units contained in the building in which the tenant resides, which provides for the sale, installation, or furnishing of home improvement goods or services.(c) In addition to the specific requirements listed under this section, every home improvement contract and any person subject to licensure under this chapter or their agent or salesperson shall comply with all of the following:(1) The writing shall be legible.(2) Any printed form shall be readable. Unless a larger typeface is specified in this article, text in any printed form shall be in at least 10-point typeface and the headings shall be in at least 10-point boldface type.(3) (A) Before any work is started, the contractor shall give the buyer a copy of the contract signed and dated by both the contractor and the buyer. The buyers receipt of the copy of the contract initiates the buyers rights to cancel the contract pursuant to Sections 1689.5 to 1689.14, inclusive, of the Civil Code.(B) The contract shall contain on the first page, in a typeface no smaller than that generally used in the body of the document, both of the following:(i) The date the buyer signed the contract.(ii) The name and address of the contractor to which the applicable Notice of Cancellation is to be mailed, immediately preceded by a statement advising the buyer that the Notice of Cancellation may be sent to the contractor at the address noted on the contract.(4) The contract shall include a statement that, upon satisfactory payment being made for any portion of the work performed, the contractor, prior to any further payment being made, shall furnish to the person contracting for the home improvement or swimming pool work a full and unconditional release from any potential lien claimant claim or mechanics lien authorized pursuant to Sections 8400 and 8404 of the Civil Code for that portion of the work for which payment has been made.(5) A change-order form for changes or extra work shall be incorporated into the contract and shall become part of the contract only if it is in writing and signed by the parties prior to the commencement of any work covered by a change order.(6) The contract shall contain, in close proximity to the signatures of the owner and contractor, a notice stating that the owner or tenant has the right to require the contractor to have a performance and payment bond.(7) If the contract provides for a contractor to furnish joint control, the contractor shall not have any financial or other interest in the joint control.(8) The provisions of this section are not exclusive and do not relieve the contractor from compliance with any other applicable provision of law.(d) A home improvement contract and any changes to the contract shall be in writing and signed by the parties to the contract prior to the commencement of work covered by the contract or an applicable change order and, except as provided in paragraph (8) of subdivision (a) of Section 7159.5, shall include or comply with all of the following:(1) The name, business address, and license number of the contractor.(2) If applicable, the name and registration number of the home improvement salesperson that solicited or negotiated the contract.(3) The following heading on the contract form that identifies the type of contract in at least 10-point boldface type: Home Improvement.(4) The following statement in at least 12-point boldface type: You are entitled to a completely filled in copy of this agreement, signed by both you and the contractor, before any work may be started.(5) The heading: Contract Price, followed by the amount of the contract in dollars and cents.(6) If a finance charge will be charged, the heading: Finance Charge, followed by the amount in dollars and cents. The finance charge is to be set out separately from the contract amount.(7) The heading: Description of the Project and Description of the Significant Materials to be Used and Equipment to be Installed, followed by a description of the project and a description of the significant materials to be used and equipment to be installed. For swimming pools, the project description required under this paragraph also shall include a plan and scale drawing showing the shape, size, dimensions, and the construction and equipment specifications.(8) If a downpayment will be charged, the details of the downpayment shall be expressed in substantially the following form, and shall include the text of the notice as specified in subparagraph (C):(A) The heading: Downpayment.(B) A space where the actual downpayment appears.(C) The following statement in at least 12-point boldface type:THE DOWNPAYMENT MAY NOT EXCEED $1,000 OR 10 PERCENT OF THE CONTRACT PRICE, WHICHEVER IS LESS.(9) If payments, other than the downpayment, are to be made before the project is completed, the details of these payments, known as progress payments, shall be expressed in substantially the following form, and shall include the text of the statement as specified in subparagraph (C):(A) A schedule of progress payments shall be preceded by the heading: Schedule of Progress Payments.(B) Each progress payment shall be stated in dollars and cents and specifically reference the amount of work or services to be performed and materials and equipment to be supplied.(C) The section of the contract reserved for the progress payments shall include the following statement in at least 12-point boldface type:The schedule of progress payments must specifically describe each phase of work, including the type and amount of work or services scheduled to be supplied in each phase, along with the amount of each proposed progress payment. IT IS AGAINST THE LAW FOR A CONTRACTOR TO COLLECT PAYMENT FOR WORK NOT YET COMPLETED, OR FOR MATERIALS NOT YET DELIVERED. HOWEVER, A CONTRACTOR MAY REQUIRE A DOWNPAYMENT.(10) The contract shall address the commencement of work to be performed in substantially the following form:(A) A statement that describes what constitutes substantial commencement of work under the contract.(B) The heading: Approximate Start Date.(C) The approximate date on which work will be commenced.(11) The estimated completion date of the work shall be referenced in the contract in substantially the following form:(A) The heading: Approximate Completion Date.(B) The approximate date of completion.(12) If applicable, the heading: List of Documents to be Incorporated into the Contract, followed by the list of documents incorporated into the contract.(13) The heading: Note About Extra Work and Change Orders, followed by the following statement:Extra Work and Change Orders become part of the contract once the order is prepared in writing and signed by the parties prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order. The order must describe the scope of the extra work or change, the cost to be added or subtracted from the contract, and the effect the order will have on the schedule of progress payments.(e) Except as provided in paragraph (8) of subdivision (a) of Section 7159.5, all of the following notices shall be provided to the owner as part of the contract form as specified or, if otherwise authorized under this subdivision, may be provided as an attachment to the contract:(1) A notice concerning commercial general liability insurance. This notice may be provided as an attachment to the contract if the contract includes the following statement: A notice concerning commercial general liability insurance is attached to this contract. The notice shall include the heading Commercial General Liability Insurance (CGL), followed by whichever of the following statements is both relevant and correct:(A) (The name on the license or This contractor) does not carry commercial general liability insurance.(B) (The name on the license or This contractor) carries commercial general liability insurance written by (the insurance company). You may call (the insurance company) at __________ to check the contractors insurance coverage.(C) (The name on the license or This contractor) is self-insured.(D) (The name on the license or This contractor) is a limited liability company that carries liability insurance or maintains other security as required by law. You may call (the insurance company or trust company or bank) at ____ to check on the contractors insurance coverage or security.(2) A notice concerning workers compensation insurance. This notice may be provided as an attachment to the contract if the contract includes the statement: A notice concerning workers compensation insurance is attached to this contract. The notice shall include the heading Workers Compensation Insurance followed by whichever of the following statements is correct:(A) (The name on the license or This contractor) has no employees and is exempt from workers compensation requirements.(B) (The name on the license or This contractor) carries workers compensation insurance for all employees.(3) A notice that provides the buyer with the following information about the performance of extra or change-order work:(A) A statement that the buyer may not require a contractor to perform extra or change-order work without providing written authorization prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order.(B) A statement informing the buyer that extra work or a change order is not enforceable against a buyer unless the change order also identifies all of the following in writing prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order:(i) The scope of work encompassed by the order.(ii) The amount to be added or subtracted from the contract.(iii) The effect the order will make in the progress payments or the completion date.(C) A statement informing the buyer that the contractors failure to comply with the requirements of this paragraph does not preclude the recovery of compensation for work performed based upon legal or equitable remedies designed to prevent unjust enrichment.(4) A notice with the heading Mechanics Lien Warning written as follows:MECHANICS LIEN WARNING:Anyone who helps improve your property, but who is not paid, may record what is called a mechanics lien on your property. A mechanics lien is a claim, like a mortgage or home equity loan, made against your property and recorded with the county recorder.Even if you pay your contractor in full, unpaid subcontractors, suppliers, and laborers who helped to improve your property may record mechanics liens and sue you in court to foreclose the lien. If a court finds the lien is valid, you could be forced to pay twice or have a court officer sell your home to pay the lien. Liens can also affect your credit.To preserve their right to record a lien, each subcontractor and material supplier must provide you with a document called a Preliminary Notice. This notice is not a lien. The purpose of the notice is to let you know that the person who sends you the notice has the right to record a lien on your property if they are not paid.BE CAREFUL. The Preliminary Notice can be sent up to 20 days after the subcontractor starts work or the supplier provides material. This can be a big problem if you pay your contractor before you have received the Preliminary Notices.You will not get Preliminary Notices from your prime contractor or from laborers who work on your project. The law assumes that you already know they are improving your property.PROTECT YOURSELF FROM LIENS. You can protect yourself from liens by getting a list from your contractor of all the subcontractors and material suppliers that work on your project. Find out from your contractor when these subcontractors started work and when these suppliers delivered goods or materials. Then wait 20 days, paying attention to the Preliminary Notices you receive.PAY WITH JOINT CHECKS. One way to protect yourself is to pay with a joint check. When your contractor tells you it is time to pay for the work of a subcontractor or supplier who has provided you with a Preliminary Notice, write a joint check payable to both the contractor and the subcontractor or material supplier.For other ways to prevent liens, visit CSLBs internet website at www.cslb.ca.gov or call CSLB at 800-321-CSLB (2752).REMEMBER, IF YOU DO NOTHING, YOU RISK HAVING A LIEN PLACED ON YOUR HOME. This can mean that you may have to pay twice, or face the forced sale of your home to pay what you owe.(5) The following notice shall be provided in at least 12-point typeface:Information about the Contractors State License Board (CSLB): CSLB is the state consumer protection agency that licenses and regulates construction contractors.Contact CSLB for information about the licensed contractor you are considering, including information about disclosable complaints, disciplinary actions, and civil judgments that are reported to CSLB.Use only licensed contractors. If you file a complaint against a licensed contractor within the legal deadline (usually four years), CSLB has authority to investigate the complaint. If you use an unlicensed contractor, CSLB may not be able to help you resolve your complaint. Your only remedy may be in civil court, and you may be liable for damages arising out of any injuries to the unlicensed contractor or the unlicensed contractors employees.For more information:Visit CSLBs internet website at www.cslb.ca.govCall CSLB at 800-321-CSLB (2752)Write CSLB at P.O. Box 26000, Sacramento, CA 95826.(6) (A) The notice set forth in subparagraph (B) and entitled Three-Day Right to Cancel, or entitled Five-Day Right to Cancel for contracts with a senior citizen, shall be provided to the buyer unless the contract is:(i) Negotiated at the contractors place of business.(ii) Subject to the Seven-Day Right to Cancel, as set forth in paragraph (7).(iii) Subject to licensure under the Alarm Company Act (Chapter 11.6 (commencing with Section 7590)), provided the alarm company licensee complies with Sections 1689.5, 1689.6, and 1689.7 of the Civil Code, as applicable.(B) (i) Three-Day Right to CancelYou, the buyer, have the right to cancel this contract within three business days. You may cancel by emailing, mailing, faxing, or delivering a written notice to the contractor at the contractors place of business by midnight of the third business day after you received a signed and dated copy of the contract that includes this notice. Include your name, your address, and the date you received the signed copy of the contract and this notice.If you cancel, the contractor must return to you anything you paid within 10 days of receiving the notice of cancellation. For your part, you must make available to the contractor at your residence, in substantially as good condition as you received them, goods delivered to you under this contract or sale. Or, you may, if you wish, comply with the contractors instructions on how to return the goods at the contractors expense and risk. If you do make the goods available to the contractor and the contractor does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may keep them without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the contractor, or if you agree to return the goods to the contractor and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.(ii) References to three and third in the notice set forth in clause (i) shall be changed to five and fifth, respectively, for a buyer who is a senior citizen.(C) The notice required by this paragraph shall comply with all of the following:(i) The text of the notice is at least 12-point boldface type.(ii) The notice is in immediate proximity to a space reserved for the owners signature.(iii) The owner acknowledges receipt of the notice by signing and dating the notice form in the signature space.(iv) The notice is written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as that principally used in any oral sales presentation.(v) The notice may be attached to the contract if the contract includes, in at least 12-point boldface type, a checkbox with one of the following statements, as applicable:(I) For a contract with a senior citizen: The law requires that the contractor give you a notice explaining your right to cancel. Initial the checkbox if the contractor has given you a Notice of the Five-Day Right to Cancel.(II) For all other contracts: The law requires that the contractor give you a notice explaining your right to cancel. Initial the checkbox if the contractor has given you a Notice of the Three-Day Right to Cancel.(vi) (I) The notice shall be accompanied by a completed form in duplicate, captioned Notice of Cancellation, which also shall be attached to the agreement or offer to purchase and be easily detachable, and which shall contain the following statement written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as used in the contract:Notice of Cancellation/enter date of transaction/(Date)You may cancel this transaction, without any penalty or obligation, within three business days from the above date.If you cancel, any property traded in, any payments made by you under the contract or sale, and any negotiable instrument executed by you will be returned within 10 days following receipt by the seller of your cancellation notice, and any security interest arising out of the transaction will be canceled.If you cancel, you must make available to the seller at your residence, in substantially as good condition as when received, any goods delivered to you under this contract or sale, or you may, if you wish, comply with the instructions of the seller regarding the return shipment of the goods at the sellers expense and risk.If you do make the goods available to the seller and the seller does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may retain or dispose of the goods without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the seller, or if you agree to return the goods to the seller and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.To cancel this transaction, mail or deliver a signed and dated copy of this cancellation notice, or any other written notice, or send a telegramto ,/name of seller/at /address of sellers place of business/not later than midnight of .(Date)I hereby cancel this transaction.(Date)(Buyers signature)(II) The reference to three in the statement set forth in subclause (I) shall be changed to five for a buyer who is a senior citizen.(7) (A) The following notice entitled Seven-Day Right to Cancel shall be provided to the buyer for any contract that is written for the repair or restoration of residential premises damaged by any sudden or catastrophic event for which a state of emergency has been declared by the President of the United States or the Governor, or for which a local emergency has been declared by the executive officer or governing body of any city, county, or city and county:Seven-Day Right to CancelYou, the buyer, have the right to cancel this contract within seven business days. You may cancel by emailing, mailing, faxing, or delivering a written notice to the contractor at the contractors place of business by midnight of the seventh business day after you received a signed and dated copy of the contract that includes this notice. Include your name, your address, and the date you received the signed copy of the contract and this notice.If you cancel, the contractor must return to you anything you paid within 10 days of receiving the notice of cancellation. For your part, you must make available to the contractor at your residence, in substantially as good condition as you received them, goods delivered to you under this contract or sale. Or, you may, if you wish, comply with the contractors instructions on how to return the goods at the contractors expense and risk. If you do make the goods available to the contractor and the contractor does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may keep them without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the contractor, or if you agree to return the goods to the contractor and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.(B) The Seven-Day Right to Cancel notice required by this subdivision shall comply with all of the following:(i) The text of the notice is at least 12-point boldface type.(ii) The notice is in immediate proximity to a space reserved for the owners signature.(iii) The owner acknowledges receipt of the notice by signing and dating the notice form in the signature space.(iv) The notice is written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as that principally used in any oral sales presentation.(v) The notice may be attached to the contract if the contract includes, in at least 12-point boldface type, a checkbox with the following statement: The law requires that the contractor give you a notice explaining your right to cancel. Initial the checkbox if the contractor has given you a Notice of the Seven-Day Right to Cancel.(vi) The notice shall be accompanied by a completed form in duplicate, captioned Notice of Cancellation, which shall also be attached to the agreement or offer to purchase and be easily detachable, and which shall contain the following statement written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as used in the contract:Notice of Cancellation/enter date of transaction/(Date)You may cancel this transaction, without any penalty or obligation, within seven business days from the above date.If you cancel, any property traded in, any payments made by you under the contract or sale, and any negotiable instrument executed by you will be returned within 10 days following receipt by the seller of your cancellation notice, and any security interest arising out of the transaction will be canceled.If you cancel, you must make available to the seller at your residence, in substantially as good condition as when received, any goods delivered to you under this contract or sale, or you may, if you wish, comply with the instructions of the seller regarding the return shipment of the goods at the sellers expense and risk.If you do make the goods available to the seller and the seller does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may retain or dispose of the goods without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the seller, or if you agree to return the goods to the seller and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.To cancel this transaction, mail or deliver a signed and dated copy of this cancellation notice, or any other written notice, or send a telegramto ,/name of seller/at /address of sellers place of business/not later than midnight of .(Date)I hereby cancel this transaction.(Date)(Buyers signature)(f) The five-day right to cancel added by the act that amended paragraph (6) of subdivision (e) shall apply to contracts entered into on or after January 1, 2021. |
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| 2928 | 2943 | | |
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| 2929 | 2944 | | 7159. (a) (1) This section identifies the projects for which a home improvement contract is required, outlines the contract requirements, and lists the items that shall be included in the contract, or may be provided as an attachment.(2) This section does not apply to service and repair contracts that are subject to Section 7159.10, if the contract for the applicable services complies with Sections 7159.10 to 7159.14, inclusive.(3) This section does not apply to the sale, installation, and servicing of a fire alarm sold in conjunction with an alarm system, as defined in Section 7590.1, if all costs attributable to making the fire alarm system operable, including sale and installation costs, do not exceed five hundred dollars ($500), and the licensee complies with the requirements set forth in Section 7159.9.(4) This section does not apply to any costs associated with monitoring a burglar or fire alarm system.(5) Failure by the licensee, their agent or salesperson, or by a person subject to be licensed under this chapter, to provide the specified information, notices, and disclosures in the contract, or to otherwise fail to comply with any provision of this section, is cause for discipline.(b) For purposes of this section, home improvement contract means an agreement, whether oral or written, or contained in one or more documents, between a contractor and an owner or between a contractor and a tenant, regardless of the number of residence or dwelling units contained in the building in which the tenant resides, if the work is to be performed in, to, or upon the residence or dwelling unit of the tenant, for the performance of a home improvement, as defined in Section 7151, and includes all labor, services, and materials to be furnished and performed thereunder, if the aggregate contract price specified in one or more improvement contracts, including all labor, services, and materials to be furnished by the contractor, exceeds five hundred dollars ($500). Home improvement contract also means an agreement, whether oral or written, or contained in one or more documents, between a salesperson, whether or not they are a home improvement salesperson, and an owner or a tenant, regardless of the number of residence or dwelling units contained in the building in which the tenant resides, which provides for the sale, installation, or furnishing of home improvement goods or services.(c) In addition to the specific requirements listed under this section, every home improvement contract and any person subject to licensure under this chapter or their agent or salesperson shall comply with all of the following:(1) The writing shall be legible.(2) Any printed form shall be readable. Unless a larger typeface is specified in this article, text in any printed form shall be in at least 10-point typeface and the headings shall be in at least 10-point boldface type.(3) (A) Before any work is started, the contractor shall give the buyer a copy of the contract signed and dated by both the contractor and the buyer. The buyers receipt of the copy of the contract initiates the buyers rights to cancel the contract pursuant to Sections 1689.5 to 1689.14, inclusive, of the Civil Code.(B) The contract shall contain on the first page, in a typeface no smaller than that generally used in the body of the document, both of the following:(i) The date the buyer signed the contract.(ii) The name and address of the contractor to which the applicable Notice of Cancellation is to be mailed, immediately preceded by a statement advising the buyer that the Notice of Cancellation may be sent to the contractor at the address noted on the contract.(4) The contract shall include a statement that, upon satisfactory payment being made for any portion of the work performed, the contractor, prior to any further payment being made, shall furnish to the person contracting for the home improvement or swimming pool work a full and unconditional release from any potential lien claimant claim or mechanics lien authorized pursuant to Sections 8400 and 8404 of the Civil Code for that portion of the work for which payment has been made.(5) A change-order form for changes or extra work shall be incorporated into the contract and shall become part of the contract only if it is in writing and signed by the parties prior to the commencement of any work covered by a change order.(6) The contract shall contain, in close proximity to the signatures of the owner and contractor, a notice stating that the owner or tenant has the right to require the contractor to have a performance and payment bond.(7) If the contract provides for a contractor to furnish joint control, the contractor shall not have any financial or other interest in the joint control.(8) The provisions of this section are not exclusive and do not relieve the contractor from compliance with any other applicable provision of law.(d) A home improvement contract and any changes to the contract shall be in writing and signed by the parties to the contract prior to the commencement of work covered by the contract or an applicable change order and, except as provided in paragraph (8) of subdivision (a) of Section 7159.5, shall include or comply with all of the following:(1) The name, business address, and license number of the contractor.(2) If applicable, the name and registration number of the home improvement salesperson that solicited or negotiated the contract.(3) The following heading on the contract form that identifies the type of contract in at least 10-point boldface type: Home Improvement.(4) The following statement in at least 12-point boldface type: You are entitled to a completely filled in copy of this agreement, signed by both you and the contractor, before any work may be started.(5) The heading: Contract Price, followed by the amount of the contract in dollars and cents.(6) If a finance charge will be charged, the heading: Finance Charge, followed by the amount in dollars and cents. The finance charge is to be set out separately from the contract amount.(7) The heading: Description of the Project and Description of the Significant Materials to be Used and Equipment to be Installed, followed by a description of the project and a description of the significant materials to be used and equipment to be installed. For swimming pools, the project description required under this paragraph also shall include a plan and scale drawing showing the shape, size, dimensions, and the construction and equipment specifications.(8) If a downpayment will be charged, the details of the downpayment shall be expressed in substantially the following form, and shall include the text of the notice as specified in subparagraph (C):(A) The heading: Downpayment.(B) A space where the actual downpayment appears.(C) The following statement in at least 12-point boldface type:THE DOWNPAYMENT MAY NOT EXCEED $1,000 OR 10 PERCENT OF THE CONTRACT PRICE, WHICHEVER IS LESS.(9) If payments, other than the downpayment, are to be made before the project is completed, the details of these payments, known as progress payments, shall be expressed in substantially the following form, and shall include the text of the statement as specified in subparagraph (C):(A) A schedule of progress payments shall be preceded by the heading: Schedule of Progress Payments.(B) Each progress payment shall be stated in dollars and cents and specifically reference the amount of work or services to be performed and materials and equipment to be supplied.(C) The section of the contract reserved for the progress payments shall include the following statement in at least 12-point boldface type:The schedule of progress payments must specifically describe each phase of work, including the type and amount of work or services scheduled to be supplied in each phase, along with the amount of each proposed progress payment. IT IS AGAINST THE LAW FOR A CONTRACTOR TO COLLECT PAYMENT FOR WORK NOT YET COMPLETED, OR FOR MATERIALS NOT YET DELIVERED. HOWEVER, A CONTRACTOR MAY REQUIRE A DOWNPAYMENT.(10) The contract shall address the commencement of work to be performed in substantially the following form:(A) A statement that describes what constitutes substantial commencement of work under the contract.(B) The heading: Approximate Start Date.(C) The approximate date on which work will be commenced.(11) The estimated completion date of the work shall be referenced in the contract in substantially the following form:(A) The heading: Approximate Completion Date.(B) The approximate date of completion.(12) If applicable, the heading: List of Documents to be Incorporated into the Contract, followed by the list of documents incorporated into the contract.(13) The heading: Note About Extra Work and Change Orders, followed by the following statement:Extra Work and Change Orders become part of the contract once the order is prepared in writing and signed by the parties prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order. The order must describe the scope of the extra work or change, the cost to be added or subtracted from the contract, and the effect the order will have on the schedule of progress payments.(e) Except as provided in paragraph (8) of subdivision (a) of Section 7159.5, all of the following notices shall be provided to the owner as part of the contract form as specified or, if otherwise authorized under this subdivision, may be provided as an attachment to the contract:(1) A notice concerning commercial general liability insurance. This notice may be provided as an attachment to the contract if the contract includes the following statement: A notice concerning commercial general liability insurance is attached to this contract. The notice shall include the heading Commercial General Liability Insurance (CGL), followed by whichever of the following statements is both relevant and correct:(A) (The name on the license or This contractor) does not carry commercial general liability insurance.(B) (The name on the license or This contractor) carries commercial general liability insurance written by (the insurance company). You may call (the insurance company) at __________ to check the contractors insurance coverage.(C) (The name on the license or This contractor) is self-insured.(D) (The name on the license or This contractor) is a limited liability company that carries liability insurance or maintains other security as required by law. You may call (the insurance company or trust company or bank) at ____ to check on the contractors insurance coverage or security.(2) A notice concerning workers compensation insurance. This notice may be provided as an attachment to the contract if the contract includes the statement: A notice concerning workers compensation insurance is attached to this contract. The notice shall include the heading Workers Compensation Insurance followed by whichever of the following statements is correct:(A) (The name on the license or This contractor) has no employees and is exempt from workers compensation requirements.(B) (The name on the license or This contractor) carries workers compensation insurance for all employees.(3) A notice that provides the buyer with the following information about the performance of extra or change-order work:(A) A statement that the buyer may not require a contractor to perform extra or change-order work without providing written authorization prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order.(B) A statement informing the buyer that extra work or a change order is not enforceable against a buyer unless the change order also identifies all of the following in writing prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order:(i) The scope of work encompassed by the order.(ii) The amount to be added or subtracted from the contract.(iii) The effect the order will make in the progress payments or the completion date.(C) A statement informing the buyer that the contractors failure to comply with the requirements of this paragraph does not preclude the recovery of compensation for work performed based upon legal or equitable remedies designed to prevent unjust enrichment.(4) A notice with the heading Mechanics Lien Warning written as follows:MECHANICS LIEN WARNING:Anyone who helps improve your property, but who is not paid, may record what is called a mechanics lien on your property. A mechanics lien is a claim, like a mortgage or home equity loan, made against your property and recorded with the county recorder.Even if you pay your contractor in full, unpaid subcontractors, suppliers, and laborers who helped to improve your property may record mechanics liens and sue you in court to foreclose the lien. If a court finds the lien is valid, you could be forced to pay twice or have a court officer sell your home to pay the lien. Liens can also affect your credit.To preserve their right to record a lien, each subcontractor and material supplier must provide you with a document called a Preliminary Notice. This notice is not a lien. The purpose of the notice is to let you know that the person who sends you the notice has the right to record a lien on your property if they are not paid.BE CAREFUL. The Preliminary Notice can be sent up to 20 days after the subcontractor starts work or the supplier provides material. This can be a big problem if you pay your contractor before you have received the Preliminary Notices.You will not get Preliminary Notices from your prime contractor or from laborers who work on your project. The law assumes that you already know they are improving your property.PROTECT YOURSELF FROM LIENS. You can protect yourself from liens by getting a list from your contractor of all the subcontractors and material suppliers that work on your project. Find out from your contractor when these subcontractors started work and when these suppliers delivered goods or materials. Then wait 20 days, paying attention to the Preliminary Notices you receive.PAY WITH JOINT CHECKS. One way to protect yourself is to pay with a joint check. When your contractor tells you it is time to pay for the work of a subcontractor or supplier who has provided you with a Preliminary Notice, write a joint check payable to both the contractor and the subcontractor or material supplier.For other ways to prevent liens, visit CSLBs internet website at www.cslb.ca.gov or call CSLB at 800-321-CSLB (2752).REMEMBER, IF YOU DO NOTHING, YOU RISK HAVING A LIEN PLACED ON YOUR HOME. This can mean that you may have to pay twice, or face the forced sale of your home to pay what you owe.(5) The following notice shall be provided in at least 12-point typeface:Information about the Contractors State License Board (CSLB): CSLB is the state consumer protection agency that licenses and regulates construction contractors.Contact CSLB for information about the licensed contractor you are considering, including information about disclosable complaints, disciplinary actions, and civil judgments that are reported to CSLB.Use only licensed contractors. If you file a complaint against a licensed contractor within the legal deadline (usually four years), CSLB has authority to investigate the complaint. If you use an unlicensed contractor, CSLB may not be able to help you resolve your complaint. Your only remedy may be in civil court, and you may be liable for damages arising out of any injuries to the unlicensed contractor or the unlicensed contractors employees.For more information:Visit CSLBs internet website at www.cslb.ca.govCall CSLB at 800-321-CSLB (2752)Write CSLB at P.O. Box 26000, Sacramento, CA 95826.(6) (A) The notice set forth in subparagraph (B) and entitled Three-Day Right to Cancel, or entitled Five-Day Right to Cancel for contracts with a senior citizen, shall be provided to the buyer unless the contract is:(i) Negotiated at the contractors place of business.(ii) Subject to the Seven-Day Right to Cancel, as set forth in paragraph (7).(iii) Subject to licensure under the Alarm Company Act (Chapter 11.6 (commencing with Section 7590)), provided the alarm company licensee complies with Sections 1689.5, 1689.6, and 1689.7 of the Civil Code, as applicable.(B) (i) Three-Day Right to CancelYou, the buyer, have the right to cancel this contract within three business days. You may cancel by emailing, mailing, faxing, or delivering a written notice to the contractor at the contractors place of business by midnight of the third business day after you received a signed and dated copy of the contract that includes this notice. Include your name, your address, and the date you received the signed copy of the contract and this notice.If you cancel, the contractor must return to you anything you paid within 10 days of receiving the notice of cancellation. For your part, you must make available to the contractor at your residence, in substantially as good condition as you received them, goods delivered to you under this contract or sale. Or, you may, if you wish, comply with the contractors instructions on how to return the goods at the contractors expense and risk. If you do make the goods available to the contractor and the contractor does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may keep them without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the contractor, or if you agree to return the goods to the contractor and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.(ii) References to three and third in the notice set forth in clause (i) shall be changed to five and fifth, respectively, for a buyer who is a senior citizen.(C) The notice required by this paragraph shall comply with all of the following:(i) The text of the notice is at least 12-point boldface type.(ii) The notice is in immediate proximity to a space reserved for the owners signature.(iii) The owner acknowledges receipt of the notice by signing and dating the notice form in the signature space.(iv) The notice is written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as that principally used in any oral sales presentation.(v) The notice may be attached to the contract if the contract includes, in at least 12-point boldface type, a checkbox with one of the following statements, as applicable:(I) For a contract with a senior citizen: The law requires that the contractor give you a notice explaining your right to cancel. Initial the checkbox if the contractor has given you a Notice of the Five-Day Right to Cancel.(II) For all other contracts: The law requires that the contractor give you a notice explaining your right to cancel. Initial the checkbox if the contractor has given you a Notice of the Three-Day Right to Cancel.(vi) (I) The notice shall be accompanied by a completed form in duplicate, captioned Notice of Cancellation, which also shall be attached to the agreement or offer to purchase and be easily detachable, and which shall contain the following statement written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as used in the contract:Notice of Cancellation/enter date of transaction/(Date)You may cancel this transaction, without any penalty or obligation, within three business days from the above date.If you cancel, any property traded in, any payments made by you under the contract or sale, and any negotiable instrument executed by you will be returned within 10 days following receipt by the seller of your cancellation notice, and any security interest arising out of the transaction will be canceled.If you cancel, you must make available to the seller at your residence, in substantially as good condition as when received, any goods delivered to you under this contract or sale, or you may, if you wish, comply with the instructions of the seller regarding the return shipment of the goods at the sellers expense and risk.If you do make the goods available to the seller and the seller does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may retain or dispose of the goods without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the seller, or if you agree to return the goods to the seller and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.To cancel this transaction, mail or deliver a signed and dated copy of this cancellation notice, or any other written notice, or send a telegramto ,/name of seller/at /address of sellers place of business/not later than midnight of .(Date)I hereby cancel this transaction.(Date)(Buyers signature)(II) The reference to three in the statement set forth in subclause (I) shall be changed to five for a buyer who is a senior citizen.(7) (A) The following notice entitled Seven-Day Right to Cancel shall be provided to the buyer for any contract that is written for the repair or restoration of residential premises damaged by any sudden or catastrophic event for which a state of emergency has been declared by the President of the United States or the Governor, or for which a local emergency has been declared by the executive officer or governing body of any city, county, or city and county:Seven-Day Right to CancelYou, the buyer, have the right to cancel this contract within seven business days. You may cancel by emailing, mailing, faxing, or delivering a written notice to the contractor at the contractors place of business by midnight of the seventh business day after you received a signed and dated copy of the contract that includes this notice. Include your name, your address, and the date you received the signed copy of the contract and this notice.If you cancel, the contractor must return to you anything you paid within 10 days of receiving the notice of cancellation. For your part, you must make available to the contractor at your residence, in substantially as good condition as you received them, goods delivered to you under this contract or sale. Or, you may, if you wish, comply with the contractors instructions on how to return the goods at the contractors expense and risk. If you do make the goods available to the contractor and the contractor does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may keep them without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the contractor, or if you agree to return the goods to the contractor and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.(B) The Seven-Day Right to Cancel notice required by this subdivision shall comply with all of the following:(i) The text of the notice is at least 12-point boldface type.(ii) The notice is in immediate proximity to a space reserved for the owners signature.(iii) The owner acknowledges receipt of the notice by signing and dating the notice form in the signature space.(iv) The notice is written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as that principally used in any oral sales presentation.(v) The notice may be attached to the contract if the contract includes, in at least 12-point boldface type, a checkbox with the following statement: The law requires that the contractor give you a notice explaining your right to cancel. Initial the checkbox if the contractor has given you a Notice of the Seven-Day Right to Cancel.(vi) The notice shall be accompanied by a completed form in duplicate, captioned Notice of Cancellation, which shall also be attached to the agreement or offer to purchase and be easily detachable, and which shall contain the following statement written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as used in the contract:Notice of Cancellation/enter date of transaction/(Date)You may cancel this transaction, without any penalty or obligation, within seven business days from the above date.If you cancel, any property traded in, any payments made by you under the contract or sale, and any negotiable instrument executed by you will be returned within 10 days following receipt by the seller of your cancellation notice, and any security interest arising out of the transaction will be canceled.If you cancel, you must make available to the seller at your residence, in substantially as good condition as when received, any goods delivered to you under this contract or sale, or you may, if you wish, comply with the instructions of the seller regarding the return shipment of the goods at the sellers expense and risk.If you do make the goods available to the seller and the seller does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may retain or dispose of the goods without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the seller, or if you agree to return the goods to the seller and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.To cancel this transaction, mail or deliver a signed and dated copy of this cancellation notice, or any other written notice, or send a telegramto ,/name of seller/at /address of sellers place of business/not later than midnight of .(Date)I hereby cancel this transaction.(Date)(Buyers signature)(f) The five-day right to cancel added by the act that amended paragraph (6) of subdivision (e) shall apply to contracts entered into on or after January 1, 2021. |
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| 2931 | 2946 | | 7159. (a) (1) This section identifies the projects for which a home improvement contract is required, outlines the contract requirements, and lists the items that shall be included in the contract, or may be provided as an attachment.(2) This section does not apply to service and repair contracts that are subject to Section 7159.10, if the contract for the applicable services complies with Sections 7159.10 to 7159.14, inclusive.(3) This section does not apply to the sale, installation, and servicing of a fire alarm sold in conjunction with an alarm system, as defined in Section 7590.1, if all costs attributable to making the fire alarm system operable, including sale and installation costs, do not exceed five hundred dollars ($500), and the licensee complies with the requirements set forth in Section 7159.9.(4) This section does not apply to any costs associated with monitoring a burglar or fire alarm system.(5) Failure by the licensee, their agent or salesperson, or by a person subject to be licensed under this chapter, to provide the specified information, notices, and disclosures in the contract, or to otherwise fail to comply with any provision of this section, is cause for discipline.(b) For purposes of this section, home improvement contract means an agreement, whether oral or written, or contained in one or more documents, between a contractor and an owner or between a contractor and a tenant, regardless of the number of residence or dwelling units contained in the building in which the tenant resides, if the work is to be performed in, to, or upon the residence or dwelling unit of the tenant, for the performance of a home improvement, as defined in Section 7151, and includes all labor, services, and materials to be furnished and performed thereunder, if the aggregate contract price specified in one or more improvement contracts, including all labor, services, and materials to be furnished by the contractor, exceeds five hundred dollars ($500). Home improvement contract also means an agreement, whether oral or written, or contained in one or more documents, between a salesperson, whether or not they are a home improvement salesperson, and an owner or a tenant, regardless of the number of residence or dwelling units contained in the building in which the tenant resides, which provides for the sale, installation, or furnishing of home improvement goods or services.(c) In addition to the specific requirements listed under this section, every home improvement contract and any person subject to licensure under this chapter or their agent or salesperson shall comply with all of the following:(1) The writing shall be legible.(2) Any printed form shall be readable. Unless a larger typeface is specified in this article, text in any printed form shall be in at least 10-point typeface and the headings shall be in at least 10-point boldface type.(3) (A) Before any work is started, the contractor shall give the buyer a copy of the contract signed and dated by both the contractor and the buyer. The buyers receipt of the copy of the contract initiates the buyers rights to cancel the contract pursuant to Sections 1689.5 to 1689.14, inclusive, of the Civil Code.(B) The contract shall contain on the first page, in a typeface no smaller than that generally used in the body of the document, both of the following:(i) The date the buyer signed the contract.(ii) The name and address of the contractor to which the applicable Notice of Cancellation is to be mailed, immediately preceded by a statement advising the buyer that the Notice of Cancellation may be sent to the contractor at the address noted on the contract.(4) The contract shall include a statement that, upon satisfactory payment being made for any portion of the work performed, the contractor, prior to any further payment being made, shall furnish to the person contracting for the home improvement or swimming pool work a full and unconditional release from any potential lien claimant claim or mechanics lien authorized pursuant to Sections 8400 and 8404 of the Civil Code for that portion of the work for which payment has been made.(5) A change-order form for changes or extra work shall be incorporated into the contract and shall become part of the contract only if it is in writing and signed by the parties prior to the commencement of any work covered by a change order.(6) The contract shall contain, in close proximity to the signatures of the owner and contractor, a notice stating that the owner or tenant has the right to require the contractor to have a performance and payment bond.(7) If the contract provides for a contractor to furnish joint control, the contractor shall not have any financial or other interest in the joint control.(8) The provisions of this section are not exclusive and do not relieve the contractor from compliance with any other applicable provision of law.(d) A home improvement contract and any changes to the contract shall be in writing and signed by the parties to the contract prior to the commencement of work covered by the contract or an applicable change order and, except as provided in paragraph (8) of subdivision (a) of Section 7159.5, shall include or comply with all of the following:(1) The name, business address, and license number of the contractor.(2) If applicable, the name and registration number of the home improvement salesperson that solicited or negotiated the contract.(3) The following heading on the contract form that identifies the type of contract in at least 10-point boldface type: Home Improvement.(4) The following statement in at least 12-point boldface type: You are entitled to a completely filled in copy of this agreement, signed by both you and the contractor, before any work may be started.(5) The heading: Contract Price, followed by the amount of the contract in dollars and cents.(6) If a finance charge will be charged, the heading: Finance Charge, followed by the amount in dollars and cents. The finance charge is to be set out separately from the contract amount.(7) The heading: Description of the Project and Description of the Significant Materials to be Used and Equipment to be Installed, followed by a description of the project and a description of the significant materials to be used and equipment to be installed. For swimming pools, the project description required under this paragraph also shall include a plan and scale drawing showing the shape, size, dimensions, and the construction and equipment specifications.(8) If a downpayment will be charged, the details of the downpayment shall be expressed in substantially the following form, and shall include the text of the notice as specified in subparagraph (C):(A) The heading: Downpayment.(B) A space where the actual downpayment appears.(C) The following statement in at least 12-point boldface type:THE DOWNPAYMENT MAY NOT EXCEED $1,000 OR 10 PERCENT OF THE CONTRACT PRICE, WHICHEVER IS LESS.(9) If payments, other than the downpayment, are to be made before the project is completed, the details of these payments, known as progress payments, shall be expressed in substantially the following form, and shall include the text of the statement as specified in subparagraph (C):(A) A schedule of progress payments shall be preceded by the heading: Schedule of Progress Payments.(B) Each progress payment shall be stated in dollars and cents and specifically reference the amount of work or services to be performed and materials and equipment to be supplied.(C) The section of the contract reserved for the progress payments shall include the following statement in at least 12-point boldface type:The schedule of progress payments must specifically describe each phase of work, including the type and amount of work or services scheduled to be supplied in each phase, along with the amount of each proposed progress payment. IT IS AGAINST THE LAW FOR A CONTRACTOR TO COLLECT PAYMENT FOR WORK NOT YET COMPLETED, OR FOR MATERIALS NOT YET DELIVERED. HOWEVER, A CONTRACTOR MAY REQUIRE A DOWNPAYMENT.(10) The contract shall address the commencement of work to be performed in substantially the following form:(A) A statement that describes what constitutes substantial commencement of work under the contract.(B) The heading: Approximate Start Date.(C) The approximate date on which work will be commenced.(11) The estimated completion date of the work shall be referenced in the contract in substantially the following form:(A) The heading: Approximate Completion Date.(B) The approximate date of completion.(12) If applicable, the heading: List of Documents to be Incorporated into the Contract, followed by the list of documents incorporated into the contract.(13) The heading: Note About Extra Work and Change Orders, followed by the following statement:Extra Work and Change Orders become part of the contract once the order is prepared in writing and signed by the parties prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order. The order must describe the scope of the extra work or change, the cost to be added or subtracted from the contract, and the effect the order will have on the schedule of progress payments.(e) Except as provided in paragraph (8) of subdivision (a) of Section 7159.5, all of the following notices shall be provided to the owner as part of the contract form as specified or, if otherwise authorized under this subdivision, may be provided as an attachment to the contract:(1) A notice concerning commercial general liability insurance. This notice may be provided as an attachment to the contract if the contract includes the following statement: A notice concerning commercial general liability insurance is attached to this contract. The notice shall include the heading Commercial General Liability Insurance (CGL), followed by whichever of the following statements is both relevant and correct:(A) (The name on the license or This contractor) does not carry commercial general liability insurance.(B) (The name on the license or This contractor) carries commercial general liability insurance written by (the insurance company). You may call (the insurance company) at __________ to check the contractors insurance coverage.(C) (The name on the license or This contractor) is self-insured.(D) (The name on the license or This contractor) is a limited liability company that carries liability insurance or maintains other security as required by law. You may call (the insurance company or trust company or bank) at ____ to check on the contractors insurance coverage or security.(2) A notice concerning workers compensation insurance. This notice may be provided as an attachment to the contract if the contract includes the statement: A notice concerning workers compensation insurance is attached to this contract. The notice shall include the heading Workers Compensation Insurance followed by whichever of the following statements is correct:(A) (The name on the license or This contractor) has no employees and is exempt from workers compensation requirements.(B) (The name on the license or This contractor) carries workers compensation insurance for all employees.(3) A notice that provides the buyer with the following information about the performance of extra or change-order work:(A) A statement that the buyer may not require a contractor to perform extra or change-order work without providing written authorization prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order.(B) A statement informing the buyer that extra work or a change order is not enforceable against a buyer unless the change order also identifies all of the following in writing prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order:(i) The scope of work encompassed by the order.(ii) The amount to be added or subtracted from the contract.(iii) The effect the order will make in the progress payments or the completion date.(C) A statement informing the buyer that the contractors failure to comply with the requirements of this paragraph does not preclude the recovery of compensation for work performed based upon legal or equitable remedies designed to prevent unjust enrichment.(4) A notice with the heading Mechanics Lien Warning written as follows:MECHANICS LIEN WARNING:Anyone who helps improve your property, but who is not paid, may record what is called a mechanics lien on your property. A mechanics lien is a claim, like a mortgage or home equity loan, made against your property and recorded with the county recorder.Even if you pay your contractor in full, unpaid subcontractors, suppliers, and laborers who helped to improve your property may record mechanics liens and sue you in court to foreclose the lien. If a court finds the lien is valid, you could be forced to pay twice or have a court officer sell your home to pay the lien. Liens can also affect your credit.To preserve their right to record a lien, each subcontractor and material supplier must provide you with a document called a Preliminary Notice. This notice is not a lien. The purpose of the notice is to let you know that the person who sends you the notice has the right to record a lien on your property if they are not paid.BE CAREFUL. The Preliminary Notice can be sent up to 20 days after the subcontractor starts work or the supplier provides material. This can be a big problem if you pay your contractor before you have received the Preliminary Notices.You will not get Preliminary Notices from your prime contractor or from laborers who work on your project. The law assumes that you already know they are improving your property.PROTECT YOURSELF FROM LIENS. You can protect yourself from liens by getting a list from your contractor of all the subcontractors and material suppliers that work on your project. Find out from your contractor when these subcontractors started work and when these suppliers delivered goods or materials. Then wait 20 days, paying attention to the Preliminary Notices you receive.PAY WITH JOINT CHECKS. One way to protect yourself is to pay with a joint check. When your contractor tells you it is time to pay for the work of a subcontractor or supplier who has provided you with a Preliminary Notice, write a joint check payable to both the contractor and the subcontractor or material supplier.For other ways to prevent liens, visit CSLBs internet website at www.cslb.ca.gov or call CSLB at 800-321-CSLB (2752).REMEMBER, IF YOU DO NOTHING, YOU RISK HAVING A LIEN PLACED ON YOUR HOME. This can mean that you may have to pay twice, or face the forced sale of your home to pay what you owe.(5) The following notice shall be provided in at least 12-point typeface:Information about the Contractors State License Board (CSLB): CSLB is the state consumer protection agency that licenses and regulates construction contractors.Contact CSLB for information about the licensed contractor you are considering, including information about disclosable complaints, disciplinary actions, and civil judgments that are reported to CSLB.Use only licensed contractors. If you file a complaint against a licensed contractor within the legal deadline (usually four years), CSLB has authority to investigate the complaint. If you use an unlicensed contractor, CSLB may not be able to help you resolve your complaint. Your only remedy may be in civil court, and you may be liable for damages arising out of any injuries to the unlicensed contractor or the unlicensed contractors employees.For more information:Visit CSLBs internet website at www.cslb.ca.govCall CSLB at 800-321-CSLB (2752)Write CSLB at P.O. Box 26000, Sacramento, CA 95826.(6) (A) The notice set forth in subparagraph (B) and entitled Three-Day Right to Cancel, or entitled Five-Day Right to Cancel for contracts with a senior citizen, shall be provided to the buyer unless the contract is:(i) Negotiated at the contractors place of business.(ii) Subject to the Seven-Day Right to Cancel, as set forth in paragraph (7).(iii) Subject to licensure under the Alarm Company Act (Chapter 11.6 (commencing with Section 7590)), provided the alarm company licensee complies with Sections 1689.5, 1689.6, and 1689.7 of the Civil Code, as applicable.(B) (i) Three-Day Right to CancelYou, the buyer, have the right to cancel this contract within three business days. You may cancel by emailing, mailing, faxing, or delivering a written notice to the contractor at the contractors place of business by midnight of the third business day after you received a signed and dated copy of the contract that includes this notice. Include your name, your address, and the date you received the signed copy of the contract and this notice.If you cancel, the contractor must return to you anything you paid within 10 days of receiving the notice of cancellation. For your part, you must make available to the contractor at your residence, in substantially as good condition as you received them, goods delivered to you under this contract or sale. Or, you may, if you wish, comply with the contractors instructions on how to return the goods at the contractors expense and risk. If you do make the goods available to the contractor and the contractor does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may keep them without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the contractor, or if you agree to return the goods to the contractor and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.(ii) References to three and third in the notice set forth in clause (i) shall be changed to five and fifth, respectively, for a buyer who is a senior citizen.(C) The notice required by this paragraph shall comply with all of the following:(i) The text of the notice is at least 12-point boldface type.(ii) The notice is in immediate proximity to a space reserved for the owners signature.(iii) The owner acknowledges receipt of the notice by signing and dating the notice form in the signature space.(iv) The notice is written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as that principally used in any oral sales presentation.(v) The notice may be attached to the contract if the contract includes, in at least 12-point boldface type, a checkbox with one of the following statements, as applicable:(I) For a contract with a senior citizen: The law requires that the contractor give you a notice explaining your right to cancel. Initial the checkbox if the contractor has given you a Notice of the Five-Day Right to Cancel.(II) For all other contracts: The law requires that the contractor give you a notice explaining your right to cancel. Initial the checkbox if the contractor has given you a Notice of the Three-Day Right to Cancel.(vi) (I) The notice shall be accompanied by a completed form in duplicate, captioned Notice of Cancellation, which also shall be attached to the agreement or offer to purchase and be easily detachable, and which shall contain the following statement written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as used in the contract:Notice of Cancellation/enter date of transaction/(Date)You may cancel this transaction, without any penalty or obligation, within three business days from the above date.If you cancel, any property traded in, any payments made by you under the contract or sale, and any negotiable instrument executed by you will be returned within 10 days following receipt by the seller of your cancellation notice, and any security interest arising out of the transaction will be canceled.If you cancel, you must make available to the seller at your residence, in substantially as good condition as when received, any goods delivered to you under this contract or sale, or you may, if you wish, comply with the instructions of the seller regarding the return shipment of the goods at the sellers expense and risk.If you do make the goods available to the seller and the seller does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may retain or dispose of the goods without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the seller, or if you agree to return the goods to the seller and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.To cancel this transaction, mail or deliver a signed and dated copy of this cancellation notice, or any other written notice, or send a telegramto ,/name of seller/at /address of sellers place of business/not later than midnight of .(Date)I hereby cancel this transaction.(Date)(Buyers signature)(II) The reference to three in the statement set forth in subclause (I) shall be changed to five for a buyer who is a senior citizen.(7) (A) The following notice entitled Seven-Day Right to Cancel shall be provided to the buyer for any contract that is written for the repair or restoration of residential premises damaged by any sudden or catastrophic event for which a state of emergency has been declared by the President of the United States or the Governor, or for which a local emergency has been declared by the executive officer or governing body of any city, county, or city and county:Seven-Day Right to CancelYou, the buyer, have the right to cancel this contract within seven business days. You may cancel by emailing, mailing, faxing, or delivering a written notice to the contractor at the contractors place of business by midnight of the seventh business day after you received a signed and dated copy of the contract that includes this notice. Include your name, your address, and the date you received the signed copy of the contract and this notice.If you cancel, the contractor must return to you anything you paid within 10 days of receiving the notice of cancellation. For your part, you must make available to the contractor at your residence, in substantially as good condition as you received them, goods delivered to you under this contract or sale. Or, you may, if you wish, comply with the contractors instructions on how to return the goods at the contractors expense and risk. If you do make the goods available to the contractor and the contractor does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may keep them without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the contractor, or if you agree to return the goods to the contractor and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.(B) The Seven-Day Right to Cancel notice required by this subdivision shall comply with all of the following:(i) The text of the notice is at least 12-point boldface type.(ii) The notice is in immediate proximity to a space reserved for the owners signature.(iii) The owner acknowledges receipt of the notice by signing and dating the notice form in the signature space.(iv) The notice is written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as that principally used in any oral sales presentation.(v) The notice may be attached to the contract if the contract includes, in at least 12-point boldface type, a checkbox with the following statement: The law requires that the contractor give you a notice explaining your right to cancel. Initial the checkbox if the contractor has given you a Notice of the Seven-Day Right to Cancel.(vi) The notice shall be accompanied by a completed form in duplicate, captioned Notice of Cancellation, which shall also be attached to the agreement or offer to purchase and be easily detachable, and which shall contain the following statement written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as used in the contract:Notice of Cancellation/enter date of transaction/(Date)You may cancel this transaction, without any penalty or obligation, within seven business days from the above date.If you cancel, any property traded in, any payments made by you under the contract or sale, and any negotiable instrument executed by you will be returned within 10 days following receipt by the seller of your cancellation notice, and any security interest arising out of the transaction will be canceled.If you cancel, you must make available to the seller at your residence, in substantially as good condition as when received, any goods delivered to you under this contract or sale, or you may, if you wish, comply with the instructions of the seller regarding the return shipment of the goods at the sellers expense and risk.If you do make the goods available to the seller and the seller does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may retain or dispose of the goods without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the seller, or if you agree to return the goods to the seller and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract.To cancel this transaction, mail or deliver a signed and dated copy of this cancellation notice, or any other written notice, or send a telegramto ,/name of seller/at /address of sellers place of business/not later than midnight of .(Date)I hereby cancel this transaction.(Date)(Buyers signature)(f) The five-day right to cancel added by the act that amended paragraph (6) of subdivision (e) shall apply to contracts entered into on or after January 1, 2021. |
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| 2932 | 2947 | | |
|---|
| 2933 | 2948 | | |
|---|
| 2934 | 2949 | | |
|---|
| 2935 | 2950 | | 7159. (a) (1) This section identifies the projects for which a home improvement contract is required, outlines the contract requirements, and lists the items that shall be included in the contract, or may be provided as an attachment. |
|---|
| 2936 | 2951 | | |
|---|
| 2937 | 2952 | | (2) This section does not apply to service and repair contracts that are subject to Section 7159.10, if the contract for the applicable services complies with Sections 7159.10 to 7159.14, inclusive. |
|---|
| 2938 | 2953 | | |
|---|
| 2939 | 2954 | | (3) This section does not apply to the sale, installation, and servicing of a fire alarm sold in conjunction with an alarm system, as defined in Section 7590.1, if all costs attributable to making the fire alarm system operable, including sale and installation costs, do not exceed five hundred dollars ($500), and the licensee complies with the requirements set forth in Section 7159.9. |
|---|
| 2940 | 2955 | | |
|---|
| 2941 | 2956 | | (4) This section does not apply to any costs associated with monitoring a burglar or fire alarm system. |
|---|
| 2942 | 2957 | | |
|---|
| 2943 | 2958 | | (5) Failure by the licensee, their agent or salesperson, or by a person subject to be licensed under this chapter, to provide the specified information, notices, and disclosures in the contract, or to otherwise fail to comply with any provision of this section, is cause for discipline. |
|---|
| 2944 | 2959 | | |
|---|
| 2945 | 2960 | | (b) For purposes of this section, home improvement contract means an agreement, whether oral or written, or contained in one or more documents, between a contractor and an owner or between a contractor and a tenant, regardless of the number of residence or dwelling units contained in the building in which the tenant resides, if the work is to be performed in, to, or upon the residence or dwelling unit of the tenant, for the performance of a home improvement, as defined in Section 7151, and includes all labor, services, and materials to be furnished and performed thereunder, if the aggregate contract price specified in one or more improvement contracts, including all labor, services, and materials to be furnished by the contractor, exceeds five hundred dollars ($500). Home improvement contract also means an agreement, whether oral or written, or contained in one or more documents, between a salesperson, whether or not they are a home improvement salesperson, and an owner or a tenant, regardless of the number of residence or dwelling units contained in the building in which the tenant resides, which provides for the sale, installation, or furnishing of home improvement goods or services. |
|---|
| 2946 | 2961 | | |
|---|
| 2947 | 2962 | | (c) In addition to the specific requirements listed under this section, every home improvement contract and any person subject to licensure under this chapter or their agent or salesperson shall comply with all of the following: |
|---|
| 2948 | 2963 | | |
|---|
| 2949 | 2964 | | (1) The writing shall be legible. |
|---|
| 2950 | 2965 | | |
|---|
| 2951 | 2966 | | (2) Any printed form shall be readable. Unless a larger typeface is specified in this article, text in any printed form shall be in at least 10-point typeface and the headings shall be in at least 10-point boldface type. |
|---|
| 2952 | 2967 | | |
|---|
| 2953 | 2968 | | (3) (A) Before any work is started, the contractor shall give the buyer a copy of the contract signed and dated by both the contractor and the buyer. The buyers receipt of the copy of the contract initiates the buyers rights to cancel the contract pursuant to Sections 1689.5 to 1689.14, inclusive, of the Civil Code. |
|---|
| 2954 | 2969 | | |
|---|
| 2955 | 2970 | | (B) The contract shall contain on the first page, in a typeface no smaller than that generally used in the body of the document, both of the following: |
|---|
| 2956 | 2971 | | |
|---|
| 2957 | 2972 | | (i) The date the buyer signed the contract. |
|---|
| 2958 | 2973 | | |
|---|
| 2959 | 2974 | | (ii) The name and address of the contractor to which the applicable Notice of Cancellation is to be mailed, immediately preceded by a statement advising the buyer that the Notice of Cancellation may be sent to the contractor at the address noted on the contract. |
|---|
| 2960 | 2975 | | |
|---|
| 2961 | 2976 | | (4) The contract shall include a statement that, upon satisfactory payment being made for any portion of the work performed, the contractor, prior to any further payment being made, shall furnish to the person contracting for the home improvement or swimming pool work a full and unconditional release from any potential lien claimant claim or mechanics lien authorized pursuant to Sections 8400 and 8404 of the Civil Code for that portion of the work for which payment has been made. |
|---|
| 2962 | 2977 | | |
|---|
| 2963 | 2978 | | (5) A change-order form for changes or extra work shall be incorporated into the contract and shall become part of the contract only if it is in writing and signed by the parties prior to the commencement of any work covered by a change order. |
|---|
| 2964 | 2979 | | |
|---|
| 2965 | 2980 | | (6) The contract shall contain, in close proximity to the signatures of the owner and contractor, a notice stating that the owner or tenant has the right to require the contractor to have a performance and payment bond. |
|---|
| 2966 | 2981 | | |
|---|
| 2967 | 2982 | | (7) If the contract provides for a contractor to furnish joint control, the contractor shall not have any financial or other interest in the joint control. |
|---|
| 2968 | 2983 | | |
|---|
| 2969 | 2984 | | (8) The provisions of this section are not exclusive and do not relieve the contractor from compliance with any other applicable provision of law. |
|---|
| 2970 | 2985 | | |
|---|
| 2971 | 2986 | | (d) A home improvement contract and any changes to the contract shall be in writing and signed by the parties to the contract prior to the commencement of work covered by the contract or an applicable change order and, except as provided in paragraph (8) of subdivision (a) of Section 7159.5, shall include or comply with all of the following: |
|---|
| 2972 | 2987 | | |
|---|
| 2973 | 2988 | | (1) The name, business address, and license number of the contractor. |
|---|
| 2974 | 2989 | | |
|---|
| 2975 | 2990 | | (2) If applicable, the name and registration number of the home improvement salesperson that solicited or negotiated the contract. |
|---|
| 2976 | 2991 | | |
|---|
| 2977 | 2992 | | (3) The following heading on the contract form that identifies the type of contract in at least 10-point boldface type: Home Improvement. |
|---|
| 2978 | 2993 | | |
|---|
| 2979 | 2994 | | (4) The following statement in at least 12-point boldface type: You are entitled to a completely filled in copy of this agreement, signed by both you and the contractor, before any work may be started. |
|---|
| 2980 | 2995 | | |
|---|
| 2981 | 2996 | | (5) The heading: Contract Price, followed by the amount of the contract in dollars and cents. |
|---|
| 2982 | 2997 | | |
|---|
| 2983 | 2998 | | (6) If a finance charge will be charged, the heading: Finance Charge, followed by the amount in dollars and cents. The finance charge is to be set out separately from the contract amount. |
|---|
| 2984 | 2999 | | |
|---|
| 2985 | 3000 | | (7) The heading: Description of the Project and Description of the Significant Materials to be Used and Equipment to be Installed, followed by a description of the project and a description of the significant materials to be used and equipment to be installed. For swimming pools, the project description required under this paragraph also shall include a plan and scale drawing showing the shape, size, dimensions, and the construction and equipment specifications. |
|---|
| 2986 | 3001 | | |
|---|
| 2987 | 3002 | | (8) If a downpayment will be charged, the details of the downpayment shall be expressed in substantially the following form, and shall include the text of the notice as specified in subparagraph (C): |
|---|
| 2988 | 3003 | | |
|---|
| 2989 | 3004 | | (A) The heading: Downpayment. |
|---|
| 2990 | 3005 | | |
|---|
| 2991 | 3006 | | (B) A space where the actual downpayment appears. |
|---|
| 2992 | 3007 | | |
|---|
| 2993 | 3008 | | (C) The following statement in at least 12-point boldface type: |
|---|
| 2994 | 3009 | | |
|---|
| 2995 | 3010 | | THE DOWNPAYMENT MAY NOT EXCEED $1,000 OR 10 PERCENT OF THE CONTRACT PRICE, WHICHEVER IS LESS. |
|---|
| 2996 | 3011 | | |
|---|
| 2997 | 3012 | | (9) If payments, other than the downpayment, are to be made before the project is completed, the details of these payments, known as progress payments, shall be expressed in substantially the following form, and shall include the text of the statement as specified in subparagraph (C): |
|---|
| 2998 | 3013 | | |
|---|
| 2999 | 3014 | | (A) A schedule of progress payments shall be preceded by the heading: Schedule of Progress Payments. |
|---|
| 3000 | 3015 | | |
|---|
| 3001 | 3016 | | (B) Each progress payment shall be stated in dollars and cents and specifically reference the amount of work or services to be performed and materials and equipment to be supplied. |
|---|
| 3002 | 3017 | | |
|---|
| 3003 | 3018 | | (C) The section of the contract reserved for the progress payments shall include the following statement in at least 12-point boldface type: |
|---|
| 3004 | 3019 | | |
|---|
| 3005 | 3020 | | The schedule of progress payments must specifically describe each phase of work, including the type and amount of work or services scheduled to be supplied in each phase, along with the amount of each proposed progress payment. IT IS AGAINST THE LAW FOR A CONTRACTOR TO COLLECT PAYMENT FOR WORK NOT YET COMPLETED, OR FOR MATERIALS NOT YET DELIVERED. HOWEVER, A CONTRACTOR MAY REQUIRE A DOWNPAYMENT. |
|---|
| 3006 | 3021 | | |
|---|
| 3007 | 3022 | | (10) The contract shall address the commencement of work to be performed in substantially the following form: |
|---|
| 3008 | 3023 | | |
|---|
| 3009 | 3024 | | (A) A statement that describes what constitutes substantial commencement of work under the contract. |
|---|
| 3010 | 3025 | | |
|---|
| 3011 | 3026 | | (B) The heading: Approximate Start Date. |
|---|
| 3012 | 3027 | | |
|---|
| 3013 | 3028 | | (C) The approximate date on which work will be commenced. |
|---|
| 3014 | 3029 | | |
|---|
| 3015 | 3030 | | (11) The estimated completion date of the work shall be referenced in the contract in substantially the following form: |
|---|
| 3016 | 3031 | | |
|---|
| 3017 | 3032 | | (A) The heading: Approximate Completion Date. |
|---|
| 3018 | 3033 | | |
|---|
| 3019 | 3034 | | (B) The approximate date of completion. |
|---|
| 3020 | 3035 | | |
|---|
| 3021 | 3036 | | (12) If applicable, the heading: List of Documents to be Incorporated into the Contract, followed by the list of documents incorporated into the contract. |
|---|
| 3022 | 3037 | | |
|---|
| 3023 | 3038 | | (13) The heading: Note About Extra Work and Change Orders, followed by the following statement: |
|---|
| 3024 | 3039 | | |
|---|
| 3025 | 3040 | | Extra Work and Change Orders become part of the contract once the order is prepared in writing and signed by the parties prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order. The order must describe the scope of the extra work or change, the cost to be added or subtracted from the contract, and the effect the order will have on the schedule of progress payments. |
|---|
| 3026 | 3041 | | |
|---|
| 3027 | 3042 | | (e) Except as provided in paragraph (8) of subdivision (a) of Section 7159.5, all of the following notices shall be provided to the owner as part of the contract form as specified or, if otherwise authorized under this subdivision, may be provided as an attachment to the contract: |
|---|
| 3028 | 3043 | | |
|---|
| 3029 | 3044 | | (1) A notice concerning commercial general liability insurance. This notice may be provided as an attachment to the contract if the contract includes the following statement: A notice concerning commercial general liability insurance is attached to this contract. The notice shall include the heading Commercial General Liability Insurance (CGL), followed by whichever of the following statements is both relevant and correct: |
|---|
| 3030 | 3045 | | |
|---|
| 3031 | 3046 | | (A) (The name on the license or This contractor) does not carry commercial general liability insurance. |
|---|
| 3032 | 3047 | | |
|---|
| 3033 | 3048 | | (B) (The name on the license or This contractor) carries commercial general liability insurance written by (the insurance company). You may call (the insurance company) at __________ to check the contractors insurance coverage. |
|---|
| 3034 | 3049 | | |
|---|
| 3035 | 3050 | | (C) (The name on the license or This contractor) is self-insured. |
|---|
| 3036 | 3051 | | |
|---|
| 3037 | 3052 | | (D) (The name on the license or This contractor) is a limited liability company that carries liability insurance or maintains other security as required by law. You may call (the insurance company or trust company or bank) at ____ to check on the contractors insurance coverage or security. |
|---|
| 3038 | 3053 | | |
|---|
| 3039 | 3054 | | (2) A notice concerning workers compensation insurance. This notice may be provided as an attachment to the contract if the contract includes the statement: A notice concerning workers compensation insurance is attached to this contract. The notice shall include the heading Workers Compensation Insurance followed by whichever of the following statements is correct: |
|---|
| 3040 | 3055 | | |
|---|
| 3041 | 3056 | | (A) (The name on the license or This contractor) has no employees and is exempt from workers compensation requirements. |
|---|
| 3042 | 3057 | | |
|---|
| 3043 | 3058 | | (B) (The name on the license or This contractor) carries workers compensation insurance for all employees. |
|---|
| 3044 | 3059 | | |
|---|
| 3045 | 3060 | | (3) A notice that provides the buyer with the following information about the performance of extra or change-order work: |
|---|
| 3046 | 3061 | | |
|---|
| 3047 | 3062 | | (A) A statement that the buyer may not require a contractor to perform extra or change-order work without providing written authorization prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order. |
|---|
| 3048 | 3063 | | |
|---|
| 3049 | 3064 | | (B) A statement informing the buyer that extra work or a change order is not enforceable against a buyer unless the change order also identifies all of the following in writing prior to the commencement of work covered by the new change order: |
|---|
| 3050 | 3065 | | |
|---|
| 3051 | 3066 | | (i) The scope of work encompassed by the order. |
|---|
| 3052 | 3067 | | |
|---|
| 3053 | 3068 | | (ii) The amount to be added or subtracted from the contract. |
|---|
| 3054 | 3069 | | |
|---|
| 3055 | 3070 | | (iii) The effect the order will make in the progress payments or the completion date. |
|---|
| 3056 | 3071 | | |
|---|
| 3057 | 3072 | | (C) A statement informing the buyer that the contractors failure to comply with the requirements of this paragraph does not preclude the recovery of compensation for work performed based upon legal or equitable remedies designed to prevent unjust enrichment. |
|---|
| 3058 | 3073 | | |
|---|
| 3059 | 3074 | | (4) A notice with the heading Mechanics Lien Warning written as follows: |
|---|
| 3060 | 3075 | | |
|---|
| 3061 | 3076 | | MECHANICS LIEN WARNING: |
|---|
| 3062 | 3077 | | |
|---|
| 3063 | 3078 | | Anyone who helps improve your property, but who is not paid, may record what is called a mechanics lien on your property. A mechanics lien is a claim, like a mortgage or home equity loan, made against your property and recorded with the county recorder. |
|---|
| 3064 | 3079 | | |
|---|
| 3065 | 3080 | | Even if you pay your contractor in full, unpaid subcontractors, suppliers, and laborers who helped to improve your property may record mechanics liens and sue you in court to foreclose the lien. If a court finds the lien is valid, you could be forced to pay twice or have a court officer sell your home to pay the lien. Liens can also affect your credit. |
|---|
| 3066 | 3081 | | |
|---|
| 3067 | 3082 | | To preserve their right to record a lien, each subcontractor and material supplier must provide you with a document called a Preliminary Notice. This notice is not a lien. The purpose of the notice is to let you know that the person who sends you the notice has the right to record a lien on your property if they are not paid. |
|---|
| 3068 | 3083 | | |
|---|
| 3069 | 3084 | | BE CAREFUL. The Preliminary Notice can be sent up to 20 days after the subcontractor starts work or the supplier provides material. This can be a big problem if you pay your contractor before you have received the Preliminary Notices. |
|---|
| 3070 | 3085 | | |
|---|
| 3071 | 3086 | | You will not get Preliminary Notices from your prime contractor or from laborers who work on your project. The law assumes that you already know they are improving your property. |
|---|
| 3072 | 3087 | | |
|---|
| 3073 | 3088 | | PROTECT YOURSELF FROM LIENS. You can protect yourself from liens by getting a list from your contractor of all the subcontractors and material suppliers that work on your project. Find out from your contractor when these subcontractors started work and when these suppliers delivered goods or materials. Then wait 20 days, paying attention to the Preliminary Notices you receive. |
|---|
| 3074 | 3089 | | |
|---|
| 3075 | 3090 | | PAY WITH JOINT CHECKS. One way to protect yourself is to pay with a joint check. When your contractor tells you it is time to pay for the work of a subcontractor or supplier who has provided you with a Preliminary Notice, write a joint check payable to both the contractor and the subcontractor or material supplier. |
|---|
| 3076 | 3091 | | |
|---|
| 3077 | 3092 | | For other ways to prevent liens, visit CSLBs internet website at www.cslb.ca.gov or call CSLB at 800-321-CSLB (2752). |
|---|
| 3078 | 3093 | | |
|---|
| 3079 | 3094 | | REMEMBER, IF YOU DO NOTHING, YOU RISK HAVING A LIEN PLACED ON YOUR HOME. This can mean that you may have to pay twice, or face the forced sale of your home to pay what you owe. |
|---|
| 3080 | 3095 | | |
|---|
| 3081 | 3096 | | (5) The following notice shall be provided in at least 12-point typeface: |
|---|
| 3082 | 3097 | | |
|---|
| 3083 | 3098 | | Information about the Contractors State License Board (CSLB): CSLB is the state consumer protection agency that licenses and regulates construction contractors. |
|---|
| 3084 | 3099 | | |
|---|
| 3085 | 3100 | | Contact CSLB for information about the licensed contractor you are considering, including information about disclosable complaints, disciplinary actions, and civil judgments that are reported to CSLB. |
|---|
| 3086 | 3101 | | |
|---|
| 3087 | 3102 | | Use only licensed contractors. If you file a complaint against a licensed contractor within the legal deadline (usually four years), CSLB has authority to investigate the complaint. If you use an unlicensed contractor, CSLB may not be able to help you resolve your complaint. Your only remedy may be in civil court, and you may be liable for damages arising out of any injuries to the unlicensed contractor or the unlicensed contractors employees. |
|---|
| 3088 | 3103 | | |
|---|
| 3089 | 3104 | | For more information: |
|---|
| 3090 | 3105 | | |
|---|
| 3091 | 3106 | | Visit CSLBs internet website at www.cslb.ca.gov |
|---|
| 3092 | 3107 | | |
|---|
| 3093 | 3108 | | Call CSLB at 800-321-CSLB (2752) |
|---|
| 3094 | 3109 | | |
|---|
| 3095 | 3110 | | Write CSLB at P.O. Box 26000, Sacramento, CA 95826. |
|---|
| 3096 | 3111 | | |
|---|
| 3097 | 3112 | | (6) (A) The notice set forth in subparagraph (B) and entitled Three-Day Right to Cancel, or entitled Five-Day Right to Cancel for contracts with a senior citizen, shall be provided to the buyer unless the contract is: |
|---|
| 3098 | 3113 | | |
|---|
| 3099 | 3114 | | (i) Negotiated at the contractors place of business. |
|---|
| 3100 | 3115 | | |
|---|
| 3101 | 3116 | | (ii) Subject to the Seven-Day Right to Cancel, as set forth in paragraph (7). |
|---|
| 3102 | 3117 | | |
|---|
| 3103 | 3118 | | (iii) Subject to licensure under the Alarm Company Act (Chapter 11.6 (commencing with Section 7590)), provided the alarm company licensee complies with Sections 1689.5, 1689.6, and 1689.7 of the Civil Code, as applicable. |
|---|
| 3104 | 3119 | | |
|---|
| 3105 | 3120 | | (B) (i) Three-Day Right to Cancel |
|---|
| 3106 | 3121 | | |
|---|
| 3107 | 3122 | | You, the buyer, have the right to cancel this contract within three business days. You may cancel by emailing, mailing, faxing, or delivering a written notice to the contractor at the contractors place of business by midnight of the third business day after you received a signed and dated copy of the contract that includes this notice. Include your name, your address, and the date you received the signed copy of the contract and this notice. |
|---|
| 3108 | 3123 | | |
|---|
| 3109 | 3124 | | If you cancel, the contractor must return to you anything you paid within 10 days of receiving the notice of cancellation. For your part, you must make available to the contractor at your residence, in substantially as good condition as you received them, goods delivered to you under this contract or sale. Or, you may, if you wish, comply with the contractors instructions on how to return the goods at the contractors expense and risk. If you do make the goods available to the contractor and the contractor does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may keep them without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the contractor, or if you agree to return the goods to the contractor and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract. |
|---|
| 3110 | 3125 | | |
|---|
| 3111 | 3126 | | (ii) References to three and third in the notice set forth in clause (i) shall be changed to five and fifth, respectively, for a buyer who is a senior citizen. |
|---|
| 3112 | 3127 | | |
|---|
| 3113 | 3128 | | (C) The notice required by this paragraph shall comply with all of the following: |
|---|
| 3114 | 3129 | | |
|---|
| 3115 | 3130 | | (i) The text of the notice is at least 12-point boldface type. |
|---|
| 3116 | 3131 | | |
|---|
| 3117 | 3132 | | (ii) The notice is in immediate proximity to a space reserved for the owners signature. |
|---|
| 3118 | 3133 | | |
|---|
| 3119 | 3134 | | (iii) The owner acknowledges receipt of the notice by signing and dating the notice form in the signature space. |
|---|
| 3120 | 3135 | | |
|---|
| 3121 | 3136 | | (iv) The notice is written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as that principally used in any oral sales presentation. |
|---|
| 3122 | 3137 | | |
|---|
| 3123 | 3138 | | (v) The notice may be attached to the contract if the contract includes, in at least 12-point boldface type, a checkbox with one of the following statements, as applicable: |
|---|
| 3124 | 3139 | | |
|---|
| 3125 | 3140 | | (I) For a contract with a senior citizen: The law requires that the contractor give you a notice explaining your right to cancel. Initial the checkbox if the contractor has given you a Notice of the Five-Day Right to Cancel. |
|---|
| 3126 | 3141 | | |
|---|
| 3127 | 3142 | | (II) For all other contracts: The law requires that the contractor give you a notice explaining your right to cancel. Initial the checkbox if the contractor has given you a Notice of the Three-Day Right to Cancel. |
|---|
| 3128 | 3143 | | |
|---|
| 3129 | 3144 | | (vi) (I) The notice shall be accompanied by a completed form in duplicate, captioned Notice of Cancellation, which also shall be attached to the agreement or offer to purchase and be easily detachable, and which shall contain the following statement written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as used in the contract: |
|---|
| 3130 | 3145 | | |
|---|
| 3131 | 3146 | | Notice of Cancellation |
|---|
| 3132 | 3147 | | |
|---|
| 3133 | 3148 | | Notice of Cancellation |
|---|
| 3134 | 3149 | | |
|---|
| 3135 | 3150 | | /enter date of transaction/ |
|---|
| 3136 | 3151 | | |
|---|
| 3137 | 3152 | | |
|---|
| 3138 | 3153 | | |
|---|
| 3139 | 3154 | | (Date) |
|---|
| 3140 | 3155 | | |
|---|
| 3141 | 3156 | | You may cancel this transaction, without any penalty or obligation, within three business days from the above date. |
|---|
| 3142 | 3157 | | |
|---|
| 3143 | 3158 | | If you cancel, any property traded in, any payments made by you under the contract or sale, and any negotiable instrument executed by you will be returned within 10 days following receipt by the seller of your cancellation notice, and any security interest arising out of the transaction will be canceled. |
|---|
| 3144 | 3159 | | |
|---|
| 3145 | 3160 | | If you cancel, you must make available to the seller at your residence, in substantially as good condition as when received, any goods delivered to you under this contract or sale, or you may, if you wish, comply with the instructions of the seller regarding the return shipment of the goods at the sellers expense and risk. |
|---|
| 3146 | 3161 | | |
|---|
| 3147 | 3162 | | If you do make the goods available to the seller and the seller does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may retain or dispose of the goods without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the seller, or if you agree to return the goods to the seller and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract. |
|---|
| 3148 | 3163 | | |
|---|
| 3149 | 3164 | | To cancel this transaction, mail or deliver a signed and dated copy of this cancellation notice, or any other written notice, or send a telegram |
|---|
| 3150 | 3165 | | to , |
|---|
| 3151 | 3166 | | /name of seller/ |
|---|
| 3152 | 3167 | | at |
|---|
| 3153 | 3168 | | /address of sellers place of business/ |
|---|
| 3154 | 3169 | | not later than midnight of . |
|---|
| 3155 | 3170 | | (Date) |
|---|
| 3156 | 3171 | | I hereby cancel this transaction. |
|---|
| 3157 | 3172 | | (Date) |
|---|
| 3158 | 3173 | | (Buyers signature) |
|---|
| 3159 | 3174 | | |
|---|
| 3160 | 3175 | | To cancel this transaction, mail or deliver a signed and dated copy of this cancellation notice, or any other written notice, or send a telegram |
|---|
| 3161 | 3176 | | |
|---|
| 3162 | 3177 | | to , |
|---|
| 3163 | 3178 | | |
|---|
| 3164 | 3179 | | /name of seller/ |
|---|
| 3165 | 3180 | | |
|---|
| 3166 | 3181 | | at |
|---|
| 3167 | 3182 | | |
|---|
| 3168 | 3183 | | /address of sellers place of business/ |
|---|
| 3169 | 3184 | | |
|---|
| 3170 | 3185 | | not later than midnight of . |
|---|
| 3171 | 3186 | | |
|---|
| 3172 | 3187 | | (Date) |
|---|
| 3173 | 3188 | | |
|---|
| 3174 | 3189 | | I hereby cancel this transaction. |
|---|
| 3175 | 3190 | | |
|---|
| 3176 | 3191 | | (Date) |
|---|
| 3177 | 3192 | | |
|---|
| 3178 | 3193 | | |
|---|
| 3179 | 3194 | | |
|---|
| 3180 | 3195 | | (Buyers signature) |
|---|
| 3181 | 3196 | | |
|---|
| 3182 | 3197 | | (II) The reference to three in the statement set forth in subclause (I) shall be changed to five for a buyer who is a senior citizen. |
|---|
| 3183 | 3198 | | |
|---|
| 3184 | 3199 | | (7) (A) The following notice entitled Seven-Day Right to Cancel shall be provided to the buyer for any contract that is written for the repair or restoration of residential premises damaged by any sudden or catastrophic event for which a state of emergency has been declared by the President of the United States or the Governor, or for which a local emergency has been declared by the executive officer or governing body of any city, county, or city and county: |
|---|
| 3185 | 3200 | | |
|---|
| 3186 | 3201 | | Seven-Day Right to Cancel |
|---|
| 3187 | 3202 | | |
|---|
| 3188 | 3203 | | You, the buyer, have the right to cancel this contract within seven business days. You may cancel by emailing, mailing, faxing, or delivering a written notice to the contractor at the contractors place of business by midnight of the seventh business day after you received a signed and dated copy of the contract that includes this notice. Include your name, your address, and the date you received the signed copy of the contract and this notice. |
|---|
| 3189 | 3204 | | |
|---|
| 3190 | 3205 | | If you cancel, the contractor must return to you anything you paid within 10 days of receiving the notice of cancellation. For your part, you must make available to the contractor at your residence, in substantially as good condition as you received them, goods delivered to you under this contract or sale. Or, you may, if you wish, comply with the contractors instructions on how to return the goods at the contractors expense and risk. If you do make the goods available to the contractor and the contractor does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may keep them without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the contractor, or if you agree to return the goods to the contractor and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract. |
|---|
| 3191 | 3206 | | |
|---|
| 3192 | 3207 | | (B) The Seven-Day Right to Cancel notice required by this subdivision shall comply with all of the following: |
|---|
| 3193 | 3208 | | |
|---|
| 3194 | 3209 | | (i) The text of the notice is at least 12-point boldface type. |
|---|
| 3195 | 3210 | | |
|---|
| 3196 | 3211 | | (ii) The notice is in immediate proximity to a space reserved for the owners signature. |
|---|
| 3197 | 3212 | | |
|---|
| 3198 | 3213 | | (iii) The owner acknowledges receipt of the notice by signing and dating the notice form in the signature space. |
|---|
| 3199 | 3214 | | |
|---|
| 3200 | 3215 | | (iv) The notice is written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as that principally used in any oral sales presentation. |
|---|
| 3201 | 3216 | | |
|---|
| 3202 | 3217 | | (v) The notice may be attached to the contract if the contract includes, in at least 12-point boldface type, a checkbox with the following statement: The law requires that the contractor give you a notice explaining your right to cancel. Initial the checkbox if the contractor has given you a Notice of the Seven-Day Right to Cancel. |
|---|
| 3203 | 3218 | | |
|---|
| 3204 | 3219 | | (vi) The notice shall be accompanied by a completed form in duplicate, captioned Notice of Cancellation, which shall also be attached to the agreement or offer to purchase and be easily detachable, and which shall contain the following statement written in the same language, e.g., Spanish, as used in the contract: |
|---|
| 3205 | 3220 | | |
|---|
| 3206 | 3221 | | Notice of Cancellation |
|---|
| 3207 | 3222 | | |
|---|
| 3208 | 3223 | | Notice of Cancellation |
|---|
| 3209 | 3224 | | |
|---|
| 3210 | 3225 | | /enter date of transaction/ |
|---|
| 3211 | 3226 | | |
|---|
| 3212 | 3227 | | |
|---|
| 3213 | 3228 | | |
|---|
| 3214 | 3229 | | (Date) |
|---|
| 3215 | 3230 | | |
|---|
| 3216 | 3231 | | You may cancel this transaction, without any penalty or obligation, within seven business days from the above date. |
|---|
| 3217 | 3232 | | |
|---|
| 3218 | 3233 | | If you cancel, any property traded in, any payments made by you under the contract or sale, and any negotiable instrument executed by you will be returned within 10 days following receipt by the seller of your cancellation notice, and any security interest arising out of the transaction will be canceled. |
|---|
| 3219 | 3234 | | |
|---|
| 3220 | 3235 | | If you cancel, you must make available to the seller at your residence, in substantially as good condition as when received, any goods delivered to you under this contract or sale, or you may, if you wish, comply with the instructions of the seller regarding the return shipment of the goods at the sellers expense and risk. |
|---|
| 3221 | 3236 | | |
|---|
| 3222 | 3237 | | If you do make the goods available to the seller and the seller does not pick them up within 20 days of the date of your notice of cancellation, you may retain or dispose of the goods without any further obligation. If you fail to make the goods available to the seller, or if you agree to return the goods to the seller and fail to do so, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations under the contract. |
|---|
| 3223 | 3238 | | |
|---|
| 3224 | 3239 | | To cancel this transaction, mail or deliver a signed and dated copy of this cancellation notice, or any other written notice, or send a telegram |
|---|
| 3225 | 3240 | | to , |
|---|
| 3226 | 3241 | | /name of seller/ |
|---|
| 3227 | 3242 | | at |
|---|
| 3228 | 3243 | | /address of sellers place of business/ |
|---|
| 3229 | 3244 | | not later than midnight of . |
|---|
| 3230 | 3245 | | (Date) |
|---|
| 3231 | 3246 | | I hereby cancel this transaction. |
|---|
| 3232 | 3247 | | (Date) |
|---|
| 3233 | 3248 | | (Buyers signature) |
|---|
| 3234 | 3249 | | |
|---|
| 3235 | 3250 | | To cancel this transaction, mail or deliver a signed and dated copy of this cancellation notice, or any other written notice, or send a telegram |
|---|
| 3236 | 3251 | | |
|---|
| 3237 | 3252 | | to , |
|---|
| 3238 | 3253 | | |
|---|
| 3239 | 3254 | | /name of seller/ |
|---|
| 3240 | 3255 | | |
|---|
| 3241 | 3256 | | at |
|---|
| 3242 | 3257 | | |
|---|
| 3243 | 3258 | | /address of sellers place of business/ |
|---|
| 3244 | 3259 | | |
|---|
| 3245 | 3260 | | not later than midnight of . |
|---|
| 3246 | 3261 | | |
|---|
| 3247 | 3262 | | (Date) |
|---|
| 3248 | 3263 | | |
|---|
| 3249 | 3264 | | I hereby cancel this transaction. |
|---|
| 3250 | 3265 | | |
|---|
| 3251 | 3266 | | (Date) |
|---|
| 3252 | 3267 | | |
|---|
| 3253 | 3268 | | |
|---|
| 3254 | 3269 | | |
|---|
| 3255 | 3270 | | (Buyers signature) |
|---|
| 3256 | 3271 | | |
|---|
| 3257 | 3272 | | (f) The five-day right to cancel added by the act that amended paragraph (6) of subdivision (e) shall apply to contracts entered into on or after January 1, 2021. |
|---|
| 3258 | 3273 | | |
|---|
| 3259 | 3274 | | SEC. 74. Section 7170 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7170. (a) The Contractors State License Board shall receive and review complaints and consumer questions regarding solar energy systems companies and solar contractors. The board shall also receive complaints received from state agencies regarding solar energy systems companies and solar contractors.(b) Beginning on July 1, 2019, the board annually shall compile a report documenting consumer complaints relating to solar contractors. The report shall be made available publicly on the boards and the Public Utilities Commissions internet websites. The report shall contain all of the following:(1) The number and types of complaints.(2) The ZIP Code where the consumer complaint originated.(3) The disposition of all complaints received against a solar contractor.(c) For purposes of this section, solar energy system means a solar energy device to be installed on a residential building that has the primary purpose of providing for the collection and distribution of solar energy for the generation of electricity, that produces at least one kW, and not more than five MW, alternating current rated peak electricity, and that meets or exceeds the eligibility criteria established pursuant to Section 25782 of the Public Resources Code. |
|---|
| 3260 | 3275 | | |
|---|
| 3261 | 3276 | | SEC. 74. Section 7170 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 3262 | 3277 | | |
|---|
| 3263 | 3278 | | ### SEC. 74. |
|---|
| 3264 | 3279 | | |
|---|
| 3265 | 3280 | | 7170. (a) The Contractors State License Board shall receive and review complaints and consumer questions regarding solar energy systems companies and solar contractors. The board shall also receive complaints received from state agencies regarding solar energy systems companies and solar contractors.(b) Beginning on July 1, 2019, the board annually shall compile a report documenting consumer complaints relating to solar contractors. The report shall be made available publicly on the boards and the Public Utilities Commissions internet websites. The report shall contain all of the following:(1) The number and types of complaints.(2) The ZIP Code where the consumer complaint originated.(3) The disposition of all complaints received against a solar contractor.(c) For purposes of this section, solar energy system means a solar energy device to be installed on a residential building that has the primary purpose of providing for the collection and distribution of solar energy for the generation of electricity, that produces at least one kW, and not more than five MW, alternating current rated peak electricity, and that meets or exceeds the eligibility criteria established pursuant to Section 25782 of the Public Resources Code. |
|---|
| 3266 | 3281 | | |
|---|
| 3267 | 3282 | | 7170. (a) The Contractors State License Board shall receive and review complaints and consumer questions regarding solar energy systems companies and solar contractors. The board shall also receive complaints received from state agencies regarding solar energy systems companies and solar contractors.(b) Beginning on July 1, 2019, the board annually shall compile a report documenting consumer complaints relating to solar contractors. The report shall be made available publicly on the boards and the Public Utilities Commissions internet websites. The report shall contain all of the following:(1) The number and types of complaints.(2) The ZIP Code where the consumer complaint originated.(3) The disposition of all complaints received against a solar contractor.(c) For purposes of this section, solar energy system means a solar energy device to be installed on a residential building that has the primary purpose of providing for the collection and distribution of solar energy for the generation of electricity, that produces at least one kW, and not more than five MW, alternating current rated peak electricity, and that meets or exceeds the eligibility criteria established pursuant to Section 25782 of the Public Resources Code. |
|---|
| 3268 | 3283 | | |
|---|
| 3269 | 3284 | | 7170. (a) The Contractors State License Board shall receive and review complaints and consumer questions regarding solar energy systems companies and solar contractors. The board shall also receive complaints received from state agencies regarding solar energy systems companies and solar contractors.(b) Beginning on July 1, 2019, the board annually shall compile a report documenting consumer complaints relating to solar contractors. The report shall be made available publicly on the boards and the Public Utilities Commissions internet websites. The report shall contain all of the following:(1) The number and types of complaints.(2) The ZIP Code where the consumer complaint originated.(3) The disposition of all complaints received against a solar contractor.(c) For purposes of this section, solar energy system means a solar energy device to be installed on a residential building that has the primary purpose of providing for the collection and distribution of solar energy for the generation of electricity, that produces at least one kW, and not more than five MW, alternating current rated peak electricity, and that meets or exceeds the eligibility criteria established pursuant to Section 25782 of the Public Resources Code. |
|---|
| 3270 | 3285 | | |
|---|
| 3271 | 3286 | | |
|---|
| 3272 | 3287 | | |
|---|
| 3273 | 3288 | | 7170. (a) The Contractors State License Board shall receive and review complaints and consumer questions regarding solar energy systems companies and solar contractors. The board shall also receive complaints received from state agencies regarding solar energy systems companies and solar contractors. |
|---|
| 3274 | 3289 | | |
|---|
| 3275 | 3290 | | (b) Beginning on July 1, 2019, the board annually shall compile a report documenting consumer complaints relating to solar contractors. The report shall be made available publicly on the boards and the Public Utilities Commissions internet websites. The report shall contain all of the following: |
|---|
| 3276 | 3291 | | |
|---|
| 3277 | 3292 | | (1) The number and types of complaints. |
|---|
| 3278 | 3293 | | |
|---|
| 3279 | 3294 | | (2) The ZIP Code where the consumer complaint originated. |
|---|
| 3280 | 3295 | | |
|---|
| 3281 | 3296 | | (3) The disposition of all complaints received against a solar contractor. |
|---|
| 3282 | 3297 | | |
|---|
| 3283 | 3298 | | (c) For purposes of this section, solar energy system means a solar energy device to be installed on a residential building that has the primary purpose of providing for the collection and distribution of solar energy for the generation of electricity, that produces at least one kW, and not more than five MW, alternating current rated peak electricity, and that meets or exceeds the eligibility criteria established pursuant to Section 25782 of the Public Resources Code. |
|---|
| 3284 | 3299 | | |
|---|
| 3285 | 3300 | | SEC. 75. Section 7303 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7303. (a) Notwithstanding Article 8 (commencing with Section 9148) of Chapter 1.5 of Part 1 of Division 2 of Title 2 of the Government Code, there is in the Department of Consumer Affairs the State Board of Barbering and Cosmetology in which the administration of this chapter is vested.(b) The board shall consist of nine members. Five members shall be public members, and four members shall represent the professions. The Governor shall appoint three of the public members and the four professional members. The Senate Committee on Rules and the Speaker of the Assembly shall each appoint one public member. Members of the board shall be appointed for a term of four years, except that of the members appointed by the Governor, two of the public members and two of the professions members shall be appointed for an initial term of two years. No board member may serve longer than two consecutive terms.(c) The board may appoint an executive officer who is exempt from civil service. The executive officer shall exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated by the board and vested in the executive officer by this chapter. The appointment of the executive officer is subject to the approval of the director. In the event that a newly authorized board replaces an existing or previous bureau, the director may appoint an interim executive officer for the board who shall serve temporarily until the new board appoints a permanent executive officer.(d) The executive officer shall provide examiners, inspectors, and other personnel necessary to carry out the provisions of this chapter.(e) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 3286 | 3301 | | |
|---|
| 3287 | 3302 | | SEC. 75. Section 7303 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 3288 | 3303 | | |
|---|
| 3289 | 3304 | | ### SEC. 75. |
|---|
| 3290 | 3305 | | |
|---|
| 3291 | 3306 | | 7303. (a) Notwithstanding Article 8 (commencing with Section 9148) of Chapter 1.5 of Part 1 of Division 2 of Title 2 of the Government Code, there is in the Department of Consumer Affairs the State Board of Barbering and Cosmetology in which the administration of this chapter is vested.(b) The board shall consist of nine members. Five members shall be public members, and four members shall represent the professions. The Governor shall appoint three of the public members and the four professional members. The Senate Committee on Rules and the Speaker of the Assembly shall each appoint one public member. Members of the board shall be appointed for a term of four years, except that of the members appointed by the Governor, two of the public members and two of the professions members shall be appointed for an initial term of two years. No board member may serve longer than two consecutive terms.(c) The board may appoint an executive officer who is exempt from civil service. The executive officer shall exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated by the board and vested in the executive officer by this chapter. The appointment of the executive officer is subject to the approval of the director. In the event that a newly authorized board replaces an existing or previous bureau, the director may appoint an interim executive officer for the board who shall serve temporarily until the new board appoints a permanent executive officer.(d) The executive officer shall provide examiners, inspectors, and other personnel necessary to carry out the provisions of this chapter.(e) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 3292 | 3307 | | |
|---|
| 3293 | 3308 | | 7303. (a) Notwithstanding Article 8 (commencing with Section 9148) of Chapter 1.5 of Part 1 of Division 2 of Title 2 of the Government Code, there is in the Department of Consumer Affairs the State Board of Barbering and Cosmetology in which the administration of this chapter is vested.(b) The board shall consist of nine members. Five members shall be public members, and four members shall represent the professions. The Governor shall appoint three of the public members and the four professional members. The Senate Committee on Rules and the Speaker of the Assembly shall each appoint one public member. Members of the board shall be appointed for a term of four years, except that of the members appointed by the Governor, two of the public members and two of the professions members shall be appointed for an initial term of two years. No board member may serve longer than two consecutive terms.(c) The board may appoint an executive officer who is exempt from civil service. The executive officer shall exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated by the board and vested in the executive officer by this chapter. The appointment of the executive officer is subject to the approval of the director. In the event that a newly authorized board replaces an existing or previous bureau, the director may appoint an interim executive officer for the board who shall serve temporarily until the new board appoints a permanent executive officer.(d) The executive officer shall provide examiners, inspectors, and other personnel necessary to carry out the provisions of this chapter.(e) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 3294 | 3309 | | |
|---|
| 3295 | 3310 | | 7303. (a) Notwithstanding Article 8 (commencing with Section 9148) of Chapter 1.5 of Part 1 of Division 2 of Title 2 of the Government Code, there is in the Department of Consumer Affairs the State Board of Barbering and Cosmetology in which the administration of this chapter is vested.(b) The board shall consist of nine members. Five members shall be public members, and four members shall represent the professions. The Governor shall appoint three of the public members and the four professional members. The Senate Committee on Rules and the Speaker of the Assembly shall each appoint one public member. Members of the board shall be appointed for a term of four years, except that of the members appointed by the Governor, two of the public members and two of the professions members shall be appointed for an initial term of two years. No board member may serve longer than two consecutive terms.(c) The board may appoint an executive officer who is exempt from civil service. The executive officer shall exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated by the board and vested in the executive officer by this chapter. The appointment of the executive officer is subject to the approval of the director. In the event that a newly authorized board replaces an existing or previous bureau, the director may appoint an interim executive officer for the board who shall serve temporarily until the new board appoints a permanent executive officer.(d) The executive officer shall provide examiners, inspectors, and other personnel necessary to carry out the provisions of this chapter.(e) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 3296 | 3311 | | |
|---|
| 3297 | 3312 | | |
|---|
| 3298 | 3313 | | |
|---|
| 3299 | 3314 | | 7303. (a) Notwithstanding Article 8 (commencing with Section 9148) of Chapter 1.5 of Part 1 of Division 2 of Title 2 of the Government Code, there is in the Department of Consumer Affairs the State Board of Barbering and Cosmetology in which the administration of this chapter is vested. |
|---|
| 3300 | 3315 | | |
|---|
| 3301 | 3316 | | (b) The board shall consist of nine members. Five members shall be public members, and four members shall represent the professions. The Governor shall appoint three of the public members and the four professional members. The Senate Committee on Rules and the Speaker of the Assembly shall each appoint one public member. Members of the board shall be appointed for a term of four years, except that of the members appointed by the Governor, two of the public members and two of the professions members shall be appointed for an initial term of two years. No board member may serve longer than two consecutive terms. |
|---|
| 3302 | 3317 | | |
|---|
| 3303 | 3318 | | (c) The board may appoint an executive officer who is exempt from civil service. The executive officer shall exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated by the board and vested in the executive officer by this chapter. The appointment of the executive officer is subject to the approval of the director. In the event that a newly authorized board replaces an existing or previous bureau, the director may appoint an interim executive officer for the board who shall serve temporarily until the new board appoints a permanent executive officer. |
|---|
| 3304 | 3319 | | |
|---|
| 3305 | 3320 | | (d) The executive officer shall provide examiners, inspectors, and other personnel necessary to carry out the provisions of this chapter. |
|---|
| 3306 | 3321 | | |
|---|
| 3307 | 3322 | | (e) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. |
|---|
| 3308 | 3323 | | |
|---|
| 3309 | 3324 | | SEC. 76. Section 7512.3 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 1 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:7512.3. (a) As used in this chapter, person includes any individual, firm, company, limited liability company, association, organization, partnership, and corporation.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 3310 | 3325 | | |
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| 3311 | 3326 | | SEC. 76. Section 7512.3 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 1 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read: |
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| 3312 | 3327 | | |
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| 3313 | 3328 | | ### SEC. 76. |
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| 3314 | 3329 | | |
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| 3315 | 3330 | | 7512.3. (a) As used in this chapter, person includes any individual, firm, company, limited liability company, association, organization, partnership, and corporation.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
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| 3316 | 3331 | | |
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| 3317 | 3332 | | 7512.3. (a) As used in this chapter, person includes any individual, firm, company, limited liability company, association, organization, partnership, and corporation.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
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| 3318 | 3333 | | |
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| 3319 | 3334 | | 7512.3. (a) As used in this chapter, person includes any individual, firm, company, limited liability company, association, organization, partnership, and corporation.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
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| 3320 | 3335 | | |
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| 3321 | 3336 | | |
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| 3322 | 3337 | | |
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| 3323 | 3338 | | 7512.3. (a) As used in this chapter, person includes any individual, firm, company, limited liability company, association, organization, partnership, and corporation. |
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| 3324 | 3339 | | |
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| 3325 | 3340 | | (b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
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| 3326 | 3341 | | |
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| 3327 | 3342 | | SEC. 77. Section 7512.3 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 2 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:7512.3. (a) As used in this chapter, person includes any individual, firm, company, association, organization, partnership, and corporation.(b) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024. |
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| 3328 | 3343 | | |
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| 3329 | 3344 | | SEC. 77. Section 7512.3 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 2 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read: |
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| 3330 | 3345 | | |
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| 3331 | 3346 | | ### SEC. 77. |
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| 3332 | 3347 | | |
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| 3333 | 3348 | | 7512.3. (a) As used in this chapter, person includes any individual, firm, company, association, organization, partnership, and corporation.(b) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024. |
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| 3334 | 3349 | | |
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| 3335 | 3350 | | 7512.3. (a) As used in this chapter, person includes any individual, firm, company, association, organization, partnership, and corporation.(b) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024. |
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| 3336 | 3351 | | |
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| 3337 | 3352 | | 7512.3. (a) As used in this chapter, person includes any individual, firm, company, association, organization, partnership, and corporation.(b) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024. |
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| 3338 | 3353 | | |
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| 3339 | 3354 | | |
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| 3340 | 3355 | | |
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| 3341 | 3356 | | 7512.3. (a) As used in this chapter, person includes any individual, firm, company, association, organization, partnership, and corporation. |
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| 3342 | 3357 | | |
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| 3343 | 3358 | | (b) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024. |
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| 3344 | 3359 | | |
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| 3345 | 3360 | | SEC. 78. Section 7512.14 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7512.14. (a) As used in this chapter, member means an individual who is a member of a limited liability company as specified in Section 17704.01 of the Corporations Code.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
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| 3346 | 3361 | | |
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| 3347 | 3362 | | SEC. 78. Section 7512.14 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
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| 3348 | 3363 | | |
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| 3349 | 3364 | | ### SEC. 78. |
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| 3350 | 3365 | | |
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| 3351 | 3366 | | 7512.14. (a) As used in this chapter, member means an individual who is a member of a limited liability company as specified in Section 17704.01 of the Corporations Code.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
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| 3352 | 3367 | | |
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| 3353 | 3368 | | 7512.14. (a) As used in this chapter, member means an individual who is a member of a limited liability company as specified in Section 17704.01 of the Corporations Code.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
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| 3354 | 3369 | | |
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| 3355 | 3370 | | 7512.14. (a) As used in this chapter, member means an individual who is a member of a limited liability company as specified in Section 17704.01 of the Corporations Code.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
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| 3356 | 3371 | | |
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| 3357 | 3372 | | |
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| 3358 | 3373 | | |
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| 3359 | 3374 | | 7512.14. (a) As used in this chapter, member means an individual who is a member of a limited liability company as specified in Section 17704.01 of the Corporations Code. |
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| 3360 | 3375 | | |
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| 3361 | 3376 | | (b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
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| 3362 | 3377 | | |
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| 3363 | 3378 | | SEC. 79. Section 7512.15 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7512.15. (a) As used in this chapter, manager means an individual designated under an operating agreement of a manager-managed limited liability company who is responsible for performing the management functions for the limited liability company specified in subdivision (c) of Section 17704.07 of the Corporations Code.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
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| 3364 | 3379 | | |
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| 3365 | 3380 | | SEC. 79. Section 7512.15 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
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| 3366 | 3381 | | |
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| 3367 | 3382 | | ### SEC. 79. |
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| 3368 | 3383 | | |
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| 3369 | 3384 | | 7512.15. (a) As used in this chapter, manager means an individual designated under an operating agreement of a manager-managed limited liability company who is responsible for performing the management functions for the limited liability company specified in subdivision (c) of Section 17704.07 of the Corporations Code.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
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| 3370 | 3385 | | |
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| 3371 | 3386 | | 7512.15. (a) As used in this chapter, manager means an individual designated under an operating agreement of a manager-managed limited liability company who is responsible for performing the management functions for the limited liability company specified in subdivision (c) of Section 17704.07 of the Corporations Code.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
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| 3372 | 3387 | | |
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| 3373 | 3388 | | 7512.15. (a) As used in this chapter, manager means an individual designated under an operating agreement of a manager-managed limited liability company who is responsible for performing the management functions for the limited liability company specified in subdivision (c) of Section 17704.07 of the Corporations Code.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
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| 3374 | 3389 | | |
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| 3375 | 3390 | | |
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| 3376 | 3391 | | |
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| 3377 | 3392 | | 7512.15. (a) As used in this chapter, manager means an individual designated under an operating agreement of a manager-managed limited liability company who is responsible for performing the management functions for the limited liability company specified in subdivision (c) of Section 17704.07 of the Corporations Code. |
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| 3378 | 3393 | | |
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| 3379 | 3394 | | (b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
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| 3380 | 3395 | | |
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| 3381 | 3396 | | SEC. 80. Section 7520.3 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:7520.3. (a) As a condition of the issuance, reinstatement, reactivation, or continued valid use of a license under this chapter, a limited liability company shall, in accordance with this section, maintain a policy or policies of insurance against liability imposed on or against it by law for damages arising out of claims based upon acts, errors, or omissions arising out of the private investigator services it provides.(b) The total aggregate limit of liability under the policy or policies of insurance required under this section shall be as follows:(1) For a limited liability company licensee with five or fewer persons named as members pursuant to subdivision (i) of Section 7525.1, the aggregate limit shall not be less than one million dollars ($1,000,000).(2) For a limited liability company licensee with more than five persons named as members pursuant to subdivision (i) of Section 7525.1, an additional one hundred thousand dollars ($100,000) of insurance shall be obtained for each person named as members of the licensee except that the maximum amount of insurance is not required to exceed five million dollars ($5,000,000) in any one designated period, less amounts paid in defending, settling, or discharging claims as set forth under this section.(c) Prior to the issuance, reinstatement, or reactivation of a limited liability company license as provided under this chapter, the applicant or licensee shall, in the manner prescribed by the bureau, submit the information and documentation required by this section and requested by the bureau, demonstrating compliance with the financial security requirements specified by this section.(d) For any insurance policy secured by a licensee in satisfaction of this section, a Certificate of Liability Insurance, signed by an authorized agent or employee of the insurer, shall be submitted electronically or otherwise to the bureau. The insurer issuing the certificate shall report to the bureau the following information for any policy required under this section: name, license number, policy number, dates that coverage is scheduled to commence and lapse, and cancellation date if applicable. The insurer shall list the bureau as the certificate holder for the purposes of receiving notifications related to the policys status.(e) (1) If a licensee fails to maintain sufficient insurance as required by this section, or fails to provide proof of the required insurance upon request by the bureau, the license is subject to suspension and shall be automatically suspended pursuant to this subdivision until the date that the licensee provides proof to the bureau of compliance with the insurance coverage requirement.(2) Prior to an automatic suspension, the bureau shall notify the licensee, in writing, that it has 30 days to provide proof to the bureau of having the required insurance or the license shall be automatically suspended.(3) If the licensee fails to provide proof of insurance coverage within this period, the bureau may automatically suspend the license.(f) If the license of a limited liability company is suspended pursuant to subdivision (e), each member of the limited liability company shall be personally liable up to one million dollars ($1,000,000) each for damages resulting to third parties in connection with the companys performance, during the period of suspension, of any act or contract when a license is required by this chapter.(g) On and after July 1, 2018, a licensee organized as a limited liability company shall report a paid or pending claim against its liability insurance to the bureau, which shall post a notice of the claim on the Department of Consumer Affairs BreEZe License Verification Internet Web page.(h) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
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| 3382 | 3397 | | |
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| 3383 | 3398 | | SEC. 80. Section 7520.3 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
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| 3384 | 3399 | | |
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| 3385 | 3400 | | ### SEC. 80. |
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| 3386 | 3401 | | |
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| 3387 | 3402 | | 7520.3. (a) As a condition of the issuance, reinstatement, reactivation, or continued valid use of a license under this chapter, a limited liability company shall, in accordance with this section, maintain a policy or policies of insurance against liability imposed on or against it by law for damages arising out of claims based upon acts, errors, or omissions arising out of the private investigator services it provides.(b) The total aggregate limit of liability under the policy or policies of insurance required under this section shall be as follows:(1) For a limited liability company licensee with five or fewer persons named as members pursuant to subdivision (i) of Section 7525.1, the aggregate limit shall not be less than one million dollars ($1,000,000).(2) For a limited liability company licensee with more than five persons named as members pursuant to subdivision (i) of Section 7525.1, an additional one hundred thousand dollars ($100,000) of insurance shall be obtained for each person named as members of the licensee except that the maximum amount of insurance is not required to exceed five million dollars ($5,000,000) in any one designated period, less amounts paid in defending, settling, or discharging claims as set forth under this section.(c) Prior to the issuance, reinstatement, or reactivation of a limited liability company license as provided under this chapter, the applicant or licensee shall, in the manner prescribed by the bureau, submit the information and documentation required by this section and requested by the bureau, demonstrating compliance with the financial security requirements specified by this section.(d) For any insurance policy secured by a licensee in satisfaction of this section, a Certificate of Liability Insurance, signed by an authorized agent or employee of the insurer, shall be submitted electronically or otherwise to the bureau. The insurer issuing the certificate shall report to the bureau the following information for any policy required under this section: name, license number, policy number, dates that coverage is scheduled to commence and lapse, and cancellation date if applicable. The insurer shall list the bureau as the certificate holder for the purposes of receiving notifications related to the policys status.(e) (1) If a licensee fails to maintain sufficient insurance as required by this section, or fails to provide proof of the required insurance upon request by the bureau, the license is subject to suspension and shall be automatically suspended pursuant to this subdivision until the date that the licensee provides proof to the bureau of compliance with the insurance coverage requirement.(2) Prior to an automatic suspension, the bureau shall notify the licensee, in writing, that it has 30 days to provide proof to the bureau of having the required insurance or the license shall be automatically suspended.(3) If the licensee fails to provide proof of insurance coverage within this period, the bureau may automatically suspend the license.(f) If the license of a limited liability company is suspended pursuant to subdivision (e), each member of the limited liability company shall be personally liable up to one million dollars ($1,000,000) each for damages resulting to third parties in connection with the companys performance, during the period of suspension, of any act or contract when a license is required by this chapter.(g) On and after July 1, 2018, a licensee organized as a limited liability company shall report a paid or pending claim against its liability insurance to the bureau, which shall post a notice of the claim on the Department of Consumer Affairs BreEZe License Verification Internet Web page.(h) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
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| 3388 | 3403 | | |
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| 3389 | 3404 | | 7520.3. (a) As a condition of the issuance, reinstatement, reactivation, or continued valid use of a license under this chapter, a limited liability company shall, in accordance with this section, maintain a policy or policies of insurance against liability imposed on or against it by law for damages arising out of claims based upon acts, errors, or omissions arising out of the private investigator services it provides.(b) The total aggregate limit of liability under the policy or policies of insurance required under this section shall be as follows:(1) For a limited liability company licensee with five or fewer persons named as members pursuant to subdivision (i) of Section 7525.1, the aggregate limit shall not be less than one million dollars ($1,000,000).(2) For a limited liability company licensee with more than five persons named as members pursuant to subdivision (i) of Section 7525.1, an additional one hundred thousand dollars ($100,000) of insurance shall be obtained for each person named as members of the licensee except that the maximum amount of insurance is not required to exceed five million dollars ($5,000,000) in any one designated period, less amounts paid in defending, settling, or discharging claims as set forth under this section.(c) Prior to the issuance, reinstatement, or reactivation of a limited liability company license as provided under this chapter, the applicant or licensee shall, in the manner prescribed by the bureau, submit the information and documentation required by this section and requested by the bureau, demonstrating compliance with the financial security requirements specified by this section.(d) For any insurance policy secured by a licensee in satisfaction of this section, a Certificate of Liability Insurance, signed by an authorized agent or employee of the insurer, shall be submitted electronically or otherwise to the bureau. The insurer issuing the certificate shall report to the bureau the following information for any policy required under this section: name, license number, policy number, dates that coverage is scheduled to commence and lapse, and cancellation date if applicable. The insurer shall list the bureau as the certificate holder for the purposes of receiving notifications related to the policys status.(e) (1) If a licensee fails to maintain sufficient insurance as required by this section, or fails to provide proof of the required insurance upon request by the bureau, the license is subject to suspension and shall be automatically suspended pursuant to this subdivision until the date that the licensee provides proof to the bureau of compliance with the insurance coverage requirement.(2) Prior to an automatic suspension, the bureau shall notify the licensee, in writing, that it has 30 days to provide proof to the bureau of having the required insurance or the license shall be automatically suspended.(3) If the licensee fails to provide proof of insurance coverage within this period, the bureau may automatically suspend the license.(f) If the license of a limited liability company is suspended pursuant to subdivision (e), each member of the limited liability company shall be personally liable up to one million dollars ($1,000,000) each for damages resulting to third parties in connection with the companys performance, during the period of suspension, of any act or contract when a license is required by this chapter.(g) On and after July 1, 2018, a licensee organized as a limited liability company shall report a paid or pending claim against its liability insurance to the bureau, which shall post a notice of the claim on the Department of Consumer Affairs BreEZe License Verification Internet Web page.(h) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
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| 3390 | 3405 | | |
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| 3391 | 3406 | | 7520.3. (a) As a condition of the issuance, reinstatement, reactivation, or continued valid use of a license under this chapter, a limited liability company shall, in accordance with this section, maintain a policy or policies of insurance against liability imposed on or against it by law for damages arising out of claims based upon acts, errors, or omissions arising out of the private investigator services it provides.(b) The total aggregate limit of liability under the policy or policies of insurance required under this section shall be as follows:(1) For a limited liability company licensee with five or fewer persons named as members pursuant to subdivision (i) of Section 7525.1, the aggregate limit shall not be less than one million dollars ($1,000,000).(2) For a limited liability company licensee with more than five persons named as members pursuant to subdivision (i) of Section 7525.1, an additional one hundred thousand dollars ($100,000) of insurance shall be obtained for each person named as members of the licensee except that the maximum amount of insurance is not required to exceed five million dollars ($5,000,000) in any one designated period, less amounts paid in defending, settling, or discharging claims as set forth under this section.(c) Prior to the issuance, reinstatement, or reactivation of a limited liability company license as provided under this chapter, the applicant or licensee shall, in the manner prescribed by the bureau, submit the information and documentation required by this section and requested by the bureau, demonstrating compliance with the financial security requirements specified by this section.(d) For any insurance policy secured by a licensee in satisfaction of this section, a Certificate of Liability Insurance, signed by an authorized agent or employee of the insurer, shall be submitted electronically or otherwise to the bureau. The insurer issuing the certificate shall report to the bureau the following information for any policy required under this section: name, license number, policy number, dates that coverage is scheduled to commence and lapse, and cancellation date if applicable. The insurer shall list the bureau as the certificate holder for the purposes of receiving notifications related to the policys status.(e) (1) If a licensee fails to maintain sufficient insurance as required by this section, or fails to provide proof of the required insurance upon request by the bureau, the license is subject to suspension and shall be automatically suspended pursuant to this subdivision until the date that the licensee provides proof to the bureau of compliance with the insurance coverage requirement.(2) Prior to an automatic suspension, the bureau shall notify the licensee, in writing, that it has 30 days to provide proof to the bureau of having the required insurance or the license shall be automatically suspended.(3) If the licensee fails to provide proof of insurance coverage within this period, the bureau may automatically suspend the license.(f) If the license of a limited liability company is suspended pursuant to subdivision (e), each member of the limited liability company shall be personally liable up to one million dollars ($1,000,000) each for damages resulting to third parties in connection with the companys performance, during the period of suspension, of any act or contract when a license is required by this chapter.(g) On and after July 1, 2018, a licensee organized as a limited liability company shall report a paid or pending claim against its liability insurance to the bureau, which shall post a notice of the claim on the Department of Consumer Affairs BreEZe License Verification Internet Web page.(h) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
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| 3392 | 3407 | | |
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| 3393 | 3408 | | |
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| 3394 | 3409 | | |
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| 3395 | 3410 | | 7520.3. (a) As a condition of the issuance, reinstatement, reactivation, or continued valid use of a license under this chapter, a limited liability company shall, in accordance with this section, maintain a policy or policies of insurance against liability imposed on or against it by law for damages arising out of claims based upon acts, errors, or omissions arising out of the private investigator services it provides. |
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| 3396 | 3411 | | |
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| 3397 | 3412 | | (b) The total aggregate limit of liability under the policy or policies of insurance required under this section shall be as follows: |
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| 3398 | 3413 | | |
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| 3399 | 3414 | | (1) For a limited liability company licensee with five or fewer persons named as members pursuant to subdivision (i) of Section 7525.1, the aggregate limit shall not be less than one million dollars ($1,000,000). |
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| 3400 | 3415 | | |
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| 3401 | 3416 | | (2) For a limited liability company licensee with more than five persons named as members pursuant to subdivision (i) of Section 7525.1, an additional one hundred thousand dollars ($100,000) of insurance shall be obtained for each person named as members of the licensee except that the maximum amount of insurance is not required to exceed five million dollars ($5,000,000) in any one designated period, less amounts paid in defending, settling, or discharging claims as set forth under this section. |
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| 3402 | 3417 | | |
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| 3403 | 3418 | | (c) Prior to the issuance, reinstatement, or reactivation of a limited liability company license as provided under this chapter, the applicant or licensee shall, in the manner prescribed by the bureau, submit the information and documentation required by this section and requested by the bureau, demonstrating compliance with the financial security requirements specified by this section. |
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| 3404 | 3419 | | |
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| 3405 | 3420 | | (d) For any insurance policy secured by a licensee in satisfaction of this section, a Certificate of Liability Insurance, signed by an authorized agent or employee of the insurer, shall be submitted electronically or otherwise to the bureau. The insurer issuing the certificate shall report to the bureau the following information for any policy required under this section: name, license number, policy number, dates that coverage is scheduled to commence and lapse, and cancellation date if applicable. The insurer shall list the bureau as the certificate holder for the purposes of receiving notifications related to the policys status. |
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| 3406 | 3421 | | |
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| 3407 | 3422 | | (e) (1) If a licensee fails to maintain sufficient insurance as required by this section, or fails to provide proof of the required insurance upon request by the bureau, the license is subject to suspension and shall be automatically suspended pursuant to this subdivision until the date that the licensee provides proof to the bureau of compliance with the insurance coverage requirement. |
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| 3408 | 3423 | | |
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| 3409 | 3424 | | (2) Prior to an automatic suspension, the bureau shall notify the licensee, in writing, that it has 30 days to provide proof to the bureau of having the required insurance or the license shall be automatically suspended. |
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| 3410 | 3425 | | |
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| 3411 | 3426 | | (3) If the licensee fails to provide proof of insurance coverage within this period, the bureau may automatically suspend the license. |
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| 3412 | 3427 | | |
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| 3413 | 3428 | | (f) If the license of a limited liability company is suspended pursuant to subdivision (e), each member of the limited liability company shall be personally liable up to one million dollars ($1,000,000) each for damages resulting to third parties in connection with the companys performance, during the period of suspension, of any act or contract when a license is required by this chapter. |
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| 3414 | 3429 | | |
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| 3415 | 3430 | | (g) On and after July 1, 2018, a licensee organized as a limited liability company shall report a paid or pending claim against its liability insurance to the bureau, which shall post a notice of the claim on the Department of Consumer Affairs BreEZe License Verification Internet Web page. |
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| 3416 | 3431 | | |
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| 3417 | 3432 | | (h) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
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| 3418 | 3433 | | |
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| 3419 | 3434 | | SEC. 81. Section 7525.1 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 11 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:7525.1. An application shall be verified and shall include:(a) The full name and business address of the applicant.(b) The name under which the applicant intends to do business.(c) A statement as to the general nature of the business in which the applicant intends to engage.(d) A verified statement of their experience qualifications.(e) (1) If the applicant is an individual, a qualified manager, a partner of a partnership, an officer of a corporation designated in subdivision (h), or a member, officer, or manager of a limited liability company designated in subdivision (i), one personal identification form provided by the bureau upon which shall appear a photograph taken within one year immediately preceding the date of the filing of the application together with two legible sets of fingerprints, one set of which shall be forwarded to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for purposes of a background check, on a form approved by the Department of Justice, and a personal description of each person, respectively. The identification form shall include residence addresses and employment history for the previous five years and be signed under penalty of perjury.(2) The bureau may impose a fee not to exceed three dollars ($3) for processing classifiable fingerprint cards submitted by applicants, excluding those submitted into an electronic fingerprint system using electronic fingerprint technology.(f) In addition, if the applicant for a license is an individual, the application shall list all other names known as or used during the past 10 years and shall state that the applicant is to be personally and actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought. If any other qualified manager is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by the applicant, under penalty of perjury. If any other person is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall also be subscribed, verified, and signed by that person under penalty of perjury.(g) If the applicants for a license are copartners, the application shall state the true names and addresses of all partners and the name of the partner to be actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought and list all other names known as or used during the past 10 years. If a qualified manager other than a partner is to be actively in charge of the business, then the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by all of the partners under penalty of perjury. If any other person is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall also be subscribed, verified, and signed by that person, under penalty of perjury, under penalty of perjury by all of the partners and the qualified manager, or by all of the partners or the qualified manager.(h) If the applicant for a license is a corporation, the application shall state the true names and complete residence addresses of the chief executive officer, secretary, chief financial officer, and any other corporate officer who will be active in the business to be licensed. The application shall also state the name and address of the designated person to be actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought. The application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by a duly authorized officer of the applicant and by the qualified manager thereof, under penalty of perjury.(i) If the applicant for a license is a limited liability company, the application shall state the true name and complete residence address of each member, manager, and any officer who will be active in the business to be licensed. A certified copy of the articles of organization, as filed by the Secretary of State, shall be supplied to the bureau upon request. In the case of a manager-managed limited liability company, the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by a manager; otherwise, in the case of a member-managed limited liability company, the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by a duly authorized member of the applicant and by the qualified manager thereof. The application shall also state whether any of the members, managers, officers, or the qualified manager has ever used an alias.(j) Any other information, evidence, statements, or documents as may be required by the director.(k) At the discretion of the applicant, a valid email address.(l) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
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| 3420 | 3435 | | |
|---|
| 3421 | 3436 | | SEC. 81. Section 7525.1 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 11 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read: |
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| 3422 | 3437 | | |
|---|
| 3423 | 3438 | | ### SEC. 81. |
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| 3424 | 3439 | | |
|---|
| 3425 | 3440 | | 7525.1. An application shall be verified and shall include:(a) The full name and business address of the applicant.(b) The name under which the applicant intends to do business.(c) A statement as to the general nature of the business in which the applicant intends to engage.(d) A verified statement of their experience qualifications.(e) (1) If the applicant is an individual, a qualified manager, a partner of a partnership, an officer of a corporation designated in subdivision (h), or a member, officer, or manager of a limited liability company designated in subdivision (i), one personal identification form provided by the bureau upon which shall appear a photograph taken within one year immediately preceding the date of the filing of the application together with two legible sets of fingerprints, one set of which shall be forwarded to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for purposes of a background check, on a form approved by the Department of Justice, and a personal description of each person, respectively. The identification form shall include residence addresses and employment history for the previous five years and be signed under penalty of perjury.(2) The bureau may impose a fee not to exceed three dollars ($3) for processing classifiable fingerprint cards submitted by applicants, excluding those submitted into an electronic fingerprint system using electronic fingerprint technology.(f) In addition, if the applicant for a license is an individual, the application shall list all other names known as or used during the past 10 years and shall state that the applicant is to be personally and actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought. If any other qualified manager is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by the applicant, under penalty of perjury. If any other person is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall also be subscribed, verified, and signed by that person under penalty of perjury.(g) If the applicants for a license are copartners, the application shall state the true names and addresses of all partners and the name of the partner to be actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought and list all other names known as or used during the past 10 years. If a qualified manager other than a partner is to be actively in charge of the business, then the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by all of the partners under penalty of perjury. If any other person is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall also be subscribed, verified, and signed by that person, under penalty of perjury, under penalty of perjury by all of the partners and the qualified manager, or by all of the partners or the qualified manager.(h) If the applicant for a license is a corporation, the application shall state the true names and complete residence addresses of the chief executive officer, secretary, chief financial officer, and any other corporate officer who will be active in the business to be licensed. The application shall also state the name and address of the designated person to be actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought. The application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by a duly authorized officer of the applicant and by the qualified manager thereof, under penalty of perjury.(i) If the applicant for a license is a limited liability company, the application shall state the true name and complete residence address of each member, manager, and any officer who will be active in the business to be licensed. A certified copy of the articles of organization, as filed by the Secretary of State, shall be supplied to the bureau upon request. In the case of a manager-managed limited liability company, the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by a manager; otherwise, in the case of a member-managed limited liability company, the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by a duly authorized member of the applicant and by the qualified manager thereof. The application shall also state whether any of the members, managers, officers, or the qualified manager has ever used an alias.(j) Any other information, evidence, statements, or documents as may be required by the director.(k) At the discretion of the applicant, a valid email address.(l) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 3426 | 3441 | | |
|---|
| 3427 | 3442 | | 7525.1. An application shall be verified and shall include:(a) The full name and business address of the applicant.(b) The name under which the applicant intends to do business.(c) A statement as to the general nature of the business in which the applicant intends to engage.(d) A verified statement of their experience qualifications.(e) (1) If the applicant is an individual, a qualified manager, a partner of a partnership, an officer of a corporation designated in subdivision (h), or a member, officer, or manager of a limited liability company designated in subdivision (i), one personal identification form provided by the bureau upon which shall appear a photograph taken within one year immediately preceding the date of the filing of the application together with two legible sets of fingerprints, one set of which shall be forwarded to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for purposes of a background check, on a form approved by the Department of Justice, and a personal description of each person, respectively. The identification form shall include residence addresses and employment history for the previous five years and be signed under penalty of perjury.(2) The bureau may impose a fee not to exceed three dollars ($3) for processing classifiable fingerprint cards submitted by applicants, excluding those submitted into an electronic fingerprint system using electronic fingerprint technology.(f) In addition, if the applicant for a license is an individual, the application shall list all other names known as or used during the past 10 years and shall state that the applicant is to be personally and actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought. If any other qualified manager is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by the applicant, under penalty of perjury. If any other person is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall also be subscribed, verified, and signed by that person under penalty of perjury.(g) If the applicants for a license are copartners, the application shall state the true names and addresses of all partners and the name of the partner to be actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought and list all other names known as or used during the past 10 years. If a qualified manager other than a partner is to be actively in charge of the business, then the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by all of the partners under penalty of perjury. If any other person is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall also be subscribed, verified, and signed by that person, under penalty of perjury, under penalty of perjury by all of the partners and the qualified manager, or by all of the partners or the qualified manager.(h) If the applicant for a license is a corporation, the application shall state the true names and complete residence addresses of the chief executive officer, secretary, chief financial officer, and any other corporate officer who will be active in the business to be licensed. The application shall also state the name and address of the designated person to be actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought. The application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by a duly authorized officer of the applicant and by the qualified manager thereof, under penalty of perjury.(i) If the applicant for a license is a limited liability company, the application shall state the true name and complete residence address of each member, manager, and any officer who will be active in the business to be licensed. A certified copy of the articles of organization, as filed by the Secretary of State, shall be supplied to the bureau upon request. In the case of a manager-managed limited liability company, the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by a manager; otherwise, in the case of a member-managed limited liability company, the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by a duly authorized member of the applicant and by the qualified manager thereof. The application shall also state whether any of the members, managers, officers, or the qualified manager has ever used an alias.(j) Any other information, evidence, statements, or documents as may be required by the director.(k) At the discretion of the applicant, a valid email address.(l) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 3428 | 3443 | | |
|---|
| 3429 | 3444 | | 7525.1. An application shall be verified and shall include:(a) The full name and business address of the applicant.(b) The name under which the applicant intends to do business.(c) A statement as to the general nature of the business in which the applicant intends to engage.(d) A verified statement of their experience qualifications.(e) (1) If the applicant is an individual, a qualified manager, a partner of a partnership, an officer of a corporation designated in subdivision (h), or a member, officer, or manager of a limited liability company designated in subdivision (i), one personal identification form provided by the bureau upon which shall appear a photograph taken within one year immediately preceding the date of the filing of the application together with two legible sets of fingerprints, one set of which shall be forwarded to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for purposes of a background check, on a form approved by the Department of Justice, and a personal description of each person, respectively. The identification form shall include residence addresses and employment history for the previous five years and be signed under penalty of perjury.(2) The bureau may impose a fee not to exceed three dollars ($3) for processing classifiable fingerprint cards submitted by applicants, excluding those submitted into an electronic fingerprint system using electronic fingerprint technology.(f) In addition, if the applicant for a license is an individual, the application shall list all other names known as or used during the past 10 years and shall state that the applicant is to be personally and actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought. If any other qualified manager is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by the applicant, under penalty of perjury. If any other person is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall also be subscribed, verified, and signed by that person under penalty of perjury.(g) If the applicants for a license are copartners, the application shall state the true names and addresses of all partners and the name of the partner to be actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought and list all other names known as or used during the past 10 years. If a qualified manager other than a partner is to be actively in charge of the business, then the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by all of the partners under penalty of perjury. If any other person is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall also be subscribed, verified, and signed by that person, under penalty of perjury, under penalty of perjury by all of the partners and the qualified manager, or by all of the partners or the qualified manager.(h) If the applicant for a license is a corporation, the application shall state the true names and complete residence addresses of the chief executive officer, secretary, chief financial officer, and any other corporate officer who will be active in the business to be licensed. The application shall also state the name and address of the designated person to be actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought. The application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by a duly authorized officer of the applicant and by the qualified manager thereof, under penalty of perjury.(i) If the applicant for a license is a limited liability company, the application shall state the true name and complete residence address of each member, manager, and any officer who will be active in the business to be licensed. A certified copy of the articles of organization, as filed by the Secretary of State, shall be supplied to the bureau upon request. In the case of a manager-managed limited liability company, the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by a manager; otherwise, in the case of a member-managed limited liability company, the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by a duly authorized member of the applicant and by the qualified manager thereof. The application shall also state whether any of the members, managers, officers, or the qualified manager has ever used an alias.(j) Any other information, evidence, statements, or documents as may be required by the director.(k) At the discretion of the applicant, a valid email address.(l) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 3430 | 3445 | | |
|---|
| 3431 | 3446 | | |
|---|
| 3432 | 3447 | | |
|---|
| 3433 | 3448 | | 7525.1. An application shall be verified and shall include: |
|---|
| 3434 | 3449 | | |
|---|
| 3435 | 3450 | | (a) The full name and business address of the applicant. |
|---|
| 3436 | 3451 | | |
|---|
| 3437 | 3452 | | (b) The name under which the applicant intends to do business. |
|---|
| 3438 | 3453 | | |
|---|
| 3439 | 3454 | | (c) A statement as to the general nature of the business in which the applicant intends to engage. |
|---|
| 3440 | 3455 | | |
|---|
| 3441 | 3456 | | (d) A verified statement of their experience qualifications. |
|---|
| 3442 | 3457 | | |
|---|
| 3443 | 3458 | | (e) (1) If the applicant is an individual, a qualified manager, a partner of a partnership, an officer of a corporation designated in subdivision (h), or a member, officer, or manager of a limited liability company designated in subdivision (i), one personal identification form provided by the bureau upon which shall appear a photograph taken within one year immediately preceding the date of the filing of the application together with two legible sets of fingerprints, one set of which shall be forwarded to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for purposes of a background check, on a form approved by the Department of Justice, and a personal description of each person, respectively. The identification form shall include residence addresses and employment history for the previous five years and be signed under penalty of perjury. |
|---|
| 3444 | 3459 | | |
|---|
| 3445 | 3460 | | (2) The bureau may impose a fee not to exceed three dollars ($3) for processing classifiable fingerprint cards submitted by applicants, excluding those submitted into an electronic fingerprint system using electronic fingerprint technology. |
|---|
| 3446 | 3461 | | |
|---|
| 3447 | 3462 | | (f) In addition, if the applicant for a license is an individual, the application shall list all other names known as or used during the past 10 years and shall state that the applicant is to be personally and actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought. If any other qualified manager is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by the applicant, under penalty of perjury. If any other person is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall also be subscribed, verified, and signed by that person under penalty of perjury. |
|---|
| 3448 | 3463 | | |
|---|
| 3449 | 3464 | | (g) If the applicants for a license are copartners, the application shall state the true names and addresses of all partners and the name of the partner to be actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought and list all other names known as or used during the past 10 years. If a qualified manager other than a partner is to be actively in charge of the business, then the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by all of the partners under penalty of perjury. If any other person is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall also be subscribed, verified, and signed by that person, under penalty of perjury, under penalty of perjury by all of the partners and the qualified manager, or by all of the partners or the qualified manager. |
|---|
| 3450 | 3465 | | |
|---|
| 3451 | 3466 | | (h) If the applicant for a license is a corporation, the application shall state the true names and complete residence addresses of the chief executive officer, secretary, chief financial officer, and any other corporate officer who will be active in the business to be licensed. The application shall also state the name and address of the designated person to be actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought. The application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by a duly authorized officer of the applicant and by the qualified manager thereof, under penalty of perjury. |
|---|
| 3452 | 3467 | | |
|---|
| 3453 | 3468 | | (i) If the applicant for a license is a limited liability company, the application shall state the true name and complete residence address of each member, manager, and any officer who will be active in the business to be licensed. A certified copy of the articles of organization, as filed by the Secretary of State, shall be supplied to the bureau upon request. In the case of a manager-managed limited liability company, the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by a manager; otherwise, in the case of a member-managed limited liability company, the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by a duly authorized member of the applicant and by the qualified manager thereof. The application shall also state whether any of the members, managers, officers, or the qualified manager has ever used an alias. |
|---|
| 3454 | 3469 | | |
|---|
| 3455 | 3470 | | (j) Any other information, evidence, statements, or documents as may be required by the director. |
|---|
| 3456 | 3471 | | |
|---|
| 3457 | 3472 | | (k) At the discretion of the applicant, a valid email address. |
|---|
| 3458 | 3473 | | |
|---|
| 3459 | 3474 | | (l) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 3460 | 3475 | | |
|---|
| 3461 | 3476 | | SEC. 82. Section 7525.1 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 12 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:7525.1. An application shall be verified and shall include:(a) The full name and business address of the applicant.(b) The name under which the applicant intends to do business.(c) A statement as to the general nature of the business in which the applicant intends to engage.(d) A verified statement of their experience qualifications.(e) (1) If the applicant is an individual, a qualified manager, a partner of a partnership, or an officer of a corporation designated in subdivision (h), one personal identification form provided by the bureau upon which shall appear a photograph taken within one year immediately preceding the date of the filing of the application together with two legible sets of fingerprints, one set of which shall be forwarded to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for purposes of a background check, on a form approved by the Department of Justice, and a personal description of each person, respectively. The identification form shall include residence addresses and employment history for the previous five years and be signed under penalty of perjury.(2) The bureau may impose a fee not to exceed three dollars ($3) for processing classifiable fingerprint cards submitted by applicants, excluding those submitted into an electronic fingerprint system using electronic fingerprint technology.(f) In addition, if the applicant for a license is an individual, the application shall list all other names known as or used during the past 10 years and shall state that the applicant is to be personally and actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought. If any other qualified manager is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by the applicant, under penalty of perjury. If any other person is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall also be subscribed, verified, and signed by that person under penalty of perjury.(g) If the applicants for a license are copartners, the application shall state the true names and addresses of all partners and the name of the partner to be actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought and list all other names known as or used during the past 10 years. If a qualified manager other than a partner is to be actively in charge of the business, then the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by all of the partners under penalty of perjury. If any other person is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall also be subscribed, verified, and signed under penalty of perjury by that person, by all of the partners and the qualified manager, or by all of the partners or the qualified manager.(h) If the applicant for a license is a corporation, the application shall state the true names and complete residence addresses of the chief executive officer, secretary, chief financial officer, and any other corporate officer who will be active in the business to be licensed. The application shall also state the name and address of the designated person to be actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought. The application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by a duly authorized officer of the applicant and by the qualified manager thereof, under penalty of perjury.(i) Any other information, evidence, statements, or documents as may be required by the director.(j) At the discretion of the applicant, a valid email address.(k) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024. |
|---|
| 3462 | 3477 | | |
|---|
| 3463 | 3478 | | SEC. 82. Section 7525.1 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 12 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read: |
|---|
| 3464 | 3479 | | |
|---|
| 3465 | 3480 | | ### SEC. 82. |
|---|
| 3466 | 3481 | | |
|---|
| 3467 | 3482 | | 7525.1. An application shall be verified and shall include:(a) The full name and business address of the applicant.(b) The name under which the applicant intends to do business.(c) A statement as to the general nature of the business in which the applicant intends to engage.(d) A verified statement of their experience qualifications.(e) (1) If the applicant is an individual, a qualified manager, a partner of a partnership, or an officer of a corporation designated in subdivision (h), one personal identification form provided by the bureau upon which shall appear a photograph taken within one year immediately preceding the date of the filing of the application together with two legible sets of fingerprints, one set of which shall be forwarded to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for purposes of a background check, on a form approved by the Department of Justice, and a personal description of each person, respectively. The identification form shall include residence addresses and employment history for the previous five years and be signed under penalty of perjury.(2) The bureau may impose a fee not to exceed three dollars ($3) for processing classifiable fingerprint cards submitted by applicants, excluding those submitted into an electronic fingerprint system using electronic fingerprint technology.(f) In addition, if the applicant for a license is an individual, the application shall list all other names known as or used during the past 10 years and shall state that the applicant is to be personally and actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought. If any other qualified manager is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by the applicant, under penalty of perjury. If any other person is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall also be subscribed, verified, and signed by that person under penalty of perjury.(g) If the applicants for a license are copartners, the application shall state the true names and addresses of all partners and the name of the partner to be actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought and list all other names known as or used during the past 10 years. If a qualified manager other than a partner is to be actively in charge of the business, then the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by all of the partners under penalty of perjury. If any other person is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall also be subscribed, verified, and signed under penalty of perjury by that person, by all of the partners and the qualified manager, or by all of the partners or the qualified manager.(h) If the applicant for a license is a corporation, the application shall state the true names and complete residence addresses of the chief executive officer, secretary, chief financial officer, and any other corporate officer who will be active in the business to be licensed. The application shall also state the name and address of the designated person to be actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought. The application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by a duly authorized officer of the applicant and by the qualified manager thereof, under penalty of perjury.(i) Any other information, evidence, statements, or documents as may be required by the director.(j) At the discretion of the applicant, a valid email address.(k) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024. |
|---|
| 3468 | 3483 | | |
|---|
| 3469 | 3484 | | 7525.1. An application shall be verified and shall include:(a) The full name and business address of the applicant.(b) The name under which the applicant intends to do business.(c) A statement as to the general nature of the business in which the applicant intends to engage.(d) A verified statement of their experience qualifications.(e) (1) If the applicant is an individual, a qualified manager, a partner of a partnership, or an officer of a corporation designated in subdivision (h), one personal identification form provided by the bureau upon which shall appear a photograph taken within one year immediately preceding the date of the filing of the application together with two legible sets of fingerprints, one set of which shall be forwarded to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for purposes of a background check, on a form approved by the Department of Justice, and a personal description of each person, respectively. The identification form shall include residence addresses and employment history for the previous five years and be signed under penalty of perjury.(2) The bureau may impose a fee not to exceed three dollars ($3) for processing classifiable fingerprint cards submitted by applicants, excluding those submitted into an electronic fingerprint system using electronic fingerprint technology.(f) In addition, if the applicant for a license is an individual, the application shall list all other names known as or used during the past 10 years and shall state that the applicant is to be personally and actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought. If any other qualified manager is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by the applicant, under penalty of perjury. If any other person is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall also be subscribed, verified, and signed by that person under penalty of perjury.(g) If the applicants for a license are copartners, the application shall state the true names and addresses of all partners and the name of the partner to be actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought and list all other names known as or used during the past 10 years. If a qualified manager other than a partner is to be actively in charge of the business, then the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by all of the partners under penalty of perjury. If any other person is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall also be subscribed, verified, and signed under penalty of perjury by that person, by all of the partners and the qualified manager, or by all of the partners or the qualified manager.(h) If the applicant for a license is a corporation, the application shall state the true names and complete residence addresses of the chief executive officer, secretary, chief financial officer, and any other corporate officer who will be active in the business to be licensed. The application shall also state the name and address of the designated person to be actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought. The application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by a duly authorized officer of the applicant and by the qualified manager thereof, under penalty of perjury.(i) Any other information, evidence, statements, or documents as may be required by the director.(j) At the discretion of the applicant, a valid email address.(k) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024. |
|---|
| 3470 | 3485 | | |
|---|
| 3471 | 3486 | | 7525.1. An application shall be verified and shall include:(a) The full name and business address of the applicant.(b) The name under which the applicant intends to do business.(c) A statement as to the general nature of the business in which the applicant intends to engage.(d) A verified statement of their experience qualifications.(e) (1) If the applicant is an individual, a qualified manager, a partner of a partnership, or an officer of a corporation designated in subdivision (h), one personal identification form provided by the bureau upon which shall appear a photograph taken within one year immediately preceding the date of the filing of the application together with two legible sets of fingerprints, one set of which shall be forwarded to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for purposes of a background check, on a form approved by the Department of Justice, and a personal description of each person, respectively. The identification form shall include residence addresses and employment history for the previous five years and be signed under penalty of perjury.(2) The bureau may impose a fee not to exceed three dollars ($3) for processing classifiable fingerprint cards submitted by applicants, excluding those submitted into an electronic fingerprint system using electronic fingerprint technology.(f) In addition, if the applicant for a license is an individual, the application shall list all other names known as or used during the past 10 years and shall state that the applicant is to be personally and actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought. If any other qualified manager is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by the applicant, under penalty of perjury. If any other person is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall also be subscribed, verified, and signed by that person under penalty of perjury.(g) If the applicants for a license are copartners, the application shall state the true names and addresses of all partners and the name of the partner to be actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought and list all other names known as or used during the past 10 years. If a qualified manager other than a partner is to be actively in charge of the business, then the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by all of the partners under penalty of perjury. If any other person is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall also be subscribed, verified, and signed under penalty of perjury by that person, by all of the partners and the qualified manager, or by all of the partners or the qualified manager.(h) If the applicant for a license is a corporation, the application shall state the true names and complete residence addresses of the chief executive officer, secretary, chief financial officer, and any other corporate officer who will be active in the business to be licensed. The application shall also state the name and address of the designated person to be actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought. The application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by a duly authorized officer of the applicant and by the qualified manager thereof, under penalty of perjury.(i) Any other information, evidence, statements, or documents as may be required by the director.(j) At the discretion of the applicant, a valid email address.(k) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024. |
|---|
| 3472 | 3487 | | |
|---|
| 3473 | 3488 | | |
|---|
| 3474 | 3489 | | |
|---|
| 3475 | 3490 | | 7525.1. An application shall be verified and shall include: |
|---|
| 3476 | 3491 | | |
|---|
| 3477 | 3492 | | (a) The full name and business address of the applicant. |
|---|
| 3478 | 3493 | | |
|---|
| 3479 | 3494 | | (b) The name under which the applicant intends to do business. |
|---|
| 3480 | 3495 | | |
|---|
| 3481 | 3496 | | (c) A statement as to the general nature of the business in which the applicant intends to engage. |
|---|
| 3482 | 3497 | | |
|---|
| 3483 | 3498 | | (d) A verified statement of their experience qualifications. |
|---|
| 3484 | 3499 | | |
|---|
| 3485 | 3500 | | (e) (1) If the applicant is an individual, a qualified manager, a partner of a partnership, or an officer of a corporation designated in subdivision (h), one personal identification form provided by the bureau upon which shall appear a photograph taken within one year immediately preceding the date of the filing of the application together with two legible sets of fingerprints, one set of which shall be forwarded to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for purposes of a background check, on a form approved by the Department of Justice, and a personal description of each person, respectively. The identification form shall include residence addresses and employment history for the previous five years and be signed under penalty of perjury. |
|---|
| 3486 | 3501 | | |
|---|
| 3487 | 3502 | | (2) The bureau may impose a fee not to exceed three dollars ($3) for processing classifiable fingerprint cards submitted by applicants, excluding those submitted into an electronic fingerprint system using electronic fingerprint technology. |
|---|
| 3488 | 3503 | | |
|---|
| 3489 | 3504 | | (f) In addition, if the applicant for a license is an individual, the application shall list all other names known as or used during the past 10 years and shall state that the applicant is to be personally and actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought. If any other qualified manager is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by the applicant, under penalty of perjury. If any other person is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall also be subscribed, verified, and signed by that person under penalty of perjury. |
|---|
| 3490 | 3505 | | |
|---|
| 3491 | 3506 | | (g) If the applicants for a license are copartners, the application shall state the true names and addresses of all partners and the name of the partner to be actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought and list all other names known as or used during the past 10 years. If a qualified manager other than a partner is to be actively in charge of the business, then the application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by all of the partners under penalty of perjury. If any other person is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall also be subscribed, verified, and signed under penalty of perjury by that person, by all of the partners and the qualified manager, or by all of the partners or the qualified manager. |
|---|
| 3492 | 3507 | | |
|---|
| 3493 | 3508 | | (h) If the applicant for a license is a corporation, the application shall state the true names and complete residence addresses of the chief executive officer, secretary, chief financial officer, and any other corporate officer who will be active in the business to be licensed. The application shall also state the name and address of the designated person to be actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought. The application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by a duly authorized officer of the applicant and by the qualified manager thereof, under penalty of perjury. |
|---|
| 3494 | 3509 | | |
|---|
| 3495 | 3510 | | (i) Any other information, evidence, statements, or documents as may be required by the director. |
|---|
| 3496 | 3511 | | |
|---|
| 3497 | 3512 | | (j) At the discretion of the applicant, a valid email address. |
|---|
| 3498 | 3513 | | |
|---|
| 3499 | 3514 | | (k) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024. |
|---|
| 3500 | 3515 | | |
|---|
| 3501 | 3516 | | SEC. 83. Section 7529 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 2 of Chapter 326 of the Statutes of 2019, is amended to read:7529. (a) (1) Upon the issuance of and with each biennial renewal of a license, a license in the form of an enhanced photo identification card of the size, design, and content as may be determined by the director or the directors designee shall be issued by the bureau to each licensee, as follows:(A) If the licensee is an individual, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to the licensee and to the licensees qualified manager.(B) If the licensee is a partnership, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to each partner of the partnership licensee active in the business and to the licensees qualified manager.(C) If the licensee is a corporation, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to each officer active in the business and to the licensees qualified manager.(D) If the licensee is a limited liability company, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to each member, officer, and manager of the licensee active in the business and to the licensees qualified manager.(2) The enhanced photo identification card is evidence that the licensee is licensed pursuant to this chapter. The card shall contain the name of the licensee, license expiration date, and a photograph of the licensee. The enhanced photo identification card shall clearly state that the person is licensed as a private investigator or is the qualified manager or officer of the licensee. The enhanced photo identification card is to be composed of a durable material and may incorporate technologically advanced security features. The bureau may recover its costs in an amount sufficient to reimburse the departments costs for furnishing the enhanced photo identification card. The fee charged shall not exceed the actual direct costs for system development, maintenance, and processing necessary to provide this service. The total amount of costs shall be recovered by including that amount in the fee charged for the initial application of and renewal of licensure. When the position, office, or association with a licensee belonging to a person to whom a card is issued is terminated, the person shall surrender the card to the licensee and, within five days thereafter, the licensee shall mail or deliver the card to the bureau for cancellation. Every person, while engaged in any activity for which licensure is required, shall display the persons valid enhanced photo identification card as provided by regulation. (b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 3502 | 3517 | | |
|---|
| 3503 | 3518 | | SEC. 83. Section 7529 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 2 of Chapter 326 of the Statutes of 2019, is amended to read: |
|---|
| 3504 | 3519 | | |
|---|
| 3505 | 3520 | | ### SEC. 83. |
|---|
| 3506 | 3521 | | |
|---|
| 3507 | 3522 | | 7529. (a) (1) Upon the issuance of and with each biennial renewal of a license, a license in the form of an enhanced photo identification card of the size, design, and content as may be determined by the director or the directors designee shall be issued by the bureau to each licensee, as follows:(A) If the licensee is an individual, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to the licensee and to the licensees qualified manager.(B) If the licensee is a partnership, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to each partner of the partnership licensee active in the business and to the licensees qualified manager.(C) If the licensee is a corporation, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to each officer active in the business and to the licensees qualified manager.(D) If the licensee is a limited liability company, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to each member, officer, and manager of the licensee active in the business and to the licensees qualified manager.(2) The enhanced photo identification card is evidence that the licensee is licensed pursuant to this chapter. The card shall contain the name of the licensee, license expiration date, and a photograph of the licensee. The enhanced photo identification card shall clearly state that the person is licensed as a private investigator or is the qualified manager or officer of the licensee. The enhanced photo identification card is to be composed of a durable material and may incorporate technologically advanced security features. The bureau may recover its costs in an amount sufficient to reimburse the departments costs for furnishing the enhanced photo identification card. The fee charged shall not exceed the actual direct costs for system development, maintenance, and processing necessary to provide this service. The total amount of costs shall be recovered by including that amount in the fee charged for the initial application of and renewal of licensure. When the position, office, or association with a licensee belonging to a person to whom a card is issued is terminated, the person shall surrender the card to the licensee and, within five days thereafter, the licensee shall mail or deliver the card to the bureau for cancellation. Every person, while engaged in any activity for which licensure is required, shall display the persons valid enhanced photo identification card as provided by regulation. (b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 3508 | 3523 | | |
|---|
| 3509 | 3524 | | 7529. (a) (1) Upon the issuance of and with each biennial renewal of a license, a license in the form of an enhanced photo identification card of the size, design, and content as may be determined by the director or the directors designee shall be issued by the bureau to each licensee, as follows:(A) If the licensee is an individual, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to the licensee and to the licensees qualified manager.(B) If the licensee is a partnership, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to each partner of the partnership licensee active in the business and to the licensees qualified manager.(C) If the licensee is a corporation, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to each officer active in the business and to the licensees qualified manager.(D) If the licensee is a limited liability company, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to each member, officer, and manager of the licensee active in the business and to the licensees qualified manager.(2) The enhanced photo identification card is evidence that the licensee is licensed pursuant to this chapter. The card shall contain the name of the licensee, license expiration date, and a photograph of the licensee. The enhanced photo identification card shall clearly state that the person is licensed as a private investigator or is the qualified manager or officer of the licensee. The enhanced photo identification card is to be composed of a durable material and may incorporate technologically advanced security features. The bureau may recover its costs in an amount sufficient to reimburse the departments costs for furnishing the enhanced photo identification card. The fee charged shall not exceed the actual direct costs for system development, maintenance, and processing necessary to provide this service. The total amount of costs shall be recovered by including that amount in the fee charged for the initial application of and renewal of licensure. When the position, office, or association with a licensee belonging to a person to whom a card is issued is terminated, the person shall surrender the card to the licensee and, within five days thereafter, the licensee shall mail or deliver the card to the bureau for cancellation. Every person, while engaged in any activity for which licensure is required, shall display the persons valid enhanced photo identification card as provided by regulation. (b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 3510 | 3525 | | |
|---|
| 3511 | 3526 | | 7529. (a) (1) Upon the issuance of and with each biennial renewal of a license, a license in the form of an enhanced photo identification card of the size, design, and content as may be determined by the director or the directors designee shall be issued by the bureau to each licensee, as follows:(A) If the licensee is an individual, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to the licensee and to the licensees qualified manager.(B) If the licensee is a partnership, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to each partner of the partnership licensee active in the business and to the licensees qualified manager.(C) If the licensee is a corporation, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to each officer active in the business and to the licensees qualified manager.(D) If the licensee is a limited liability company, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to each member, officer, and manager of the licensee active in the business and to the licensees qualified manager.(2) The enhanced photo identification card is evidence that the licensee is licensed pursuant to this chapter. The card shall contain the name of the licensee, license expiration date, and a photograph of the licensee. The enhanced photo identification card shall clearly state that the person is licensed as a private investigator or is the qualified manager or officer of the licensee. The enhanced photo identification card is to be composed of a durable material and may incorporate technologically advanced security features. The bureau may recover its costs in an amount sufficient to reimburse the departments costs for furnishing the enhanced photo identification card. The fee charged shall not exceed the actual direct costs for system development, maintenance, and processing necessary to provide this service. The total amount of costs shall be recovered by including that amount in the fee charged for the initial application of and renewal of licensure. When the position, office, or association with a licensee belonging to a person to whom a card is issued is terminated, the person shall surrender the card to the licensee and, within five days thereafter, the licensee shall mail or deliver the card to the bureau for cancellation. Every person, while engaged in any activity for which licensure is required, shall display the persons valid enhanced photo identification card as provided by regulation. (b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 3512 | 3527 | | |
|---|
| 3513 | 3528 | | |
|---|
| 3514 | 3529 | | |
|---|
| 3515 | 3530 | | 7529. (a) (1) Upon the issuance of and with each biennial renewal of a license, a license in the form of an enhanced photo identification card of the size, design, and content as may be determined by the director or the directors designee shall be issued by the bureau to each licensee, as follows: |
|---|
| 3516 | 3531 | | |
|---|
| 3517 | 3532 | | (A) If the licensee is an individual, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to the licensee and to the licensees qualified manager. |
|---|
| 3518 | 3533 | | |
|---|
| 3519 | 3534 | | (B) If the licensee is a partnership, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to each partner of the partnership licensee active in the business and to the licensees qualified manager. |
|---|
| 3520 | 3535 | | |
|---|
| 3521 | 3536 | | (C) If the licensee is a corporation, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to each officer active in the business and to the licensees qualified manager. |
|---|
| 3522 | 3537 | | |
|---|
| 3523 | 3538 | | (D) If the licensee is a limited liability company, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to each member, officer, and manager of the licensee active in the business and to the licensees qualified manager. |
|---|
| 3524 | 3539 | | |
|---|
| 3525 | 3540 | | (2) The enhanced photo identification card is evidence that the licensee is licensed pursuant to this chapter. The card shall contain the name of the licensee, license expiration date, and a photograph of the licensee. The enhanced photo identification card shall clearly state that the person is licensed as a private investigator or is the qualified manager or officer of the licensee. The enhanced photo identification card is to be composed of a durable material and may incorporate technologically advanced security features. The bureau may recover its costs in an amount sufficient to reimburse the departments costs for furnishing the enhanced photo identification card. The fee charged shall not exceed the actual direct costs for system development, maintenance, and processing necessary to provide this service. The total amount of costs shall be recovered by including that amount in the fee charged for the initial application of and renewal of licensure. When the position, office, or association with a licensee belonging to a person to whom a card is issued is terminated, the person shall surrender the card to the licensee and, within five days thereafter, the licensee shall mail or deliver the card to the bureau for cancellation. Every person, while engaged in any activity for which licensure is required, shall display the persons valid enhanced photo identification card as provided by regulation. |
|---|
| 3526 | 3541 | | |
|---|
| 3527 | 3542 | | (b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 3528 | 3543 | | |
|---|
| 3529 | 3544 | | SEC. 84. Section 7529 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 3 of Chapter 326 of the Statutes of 2019, is amended to read:7529. (a) Upon the issuance of and with each biennial renewal of a license, a license in the form of an enhanced photo identification card of the size, design, and content as may be determined by the director or the directors designee shall be issued by the bureau to each licensee, as follows:(1) If the licensee is an individual, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to the licensee and to the licensees qualified manager.(2) If the licensee is a partnership, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to each partner of the partnership licensee active in the business and to the licensees qualified manager.(3) If the licensee is a corporation, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to each officer active in the business and to the licensees qualified manager.(b) The enhanced photo identification card is evidence that the licensee is licensed pursuant to this chapter. The card shall contain the name of the licensee, license expiration date, and a photograph of the licensee. The enhanced photo identification card shall clearly state that the person is licensed as a private investigator or is the qualified manager or officer of the licensee. The enhanced photo identification card is to be composed of a durable material and may incorporate technologically advanced security features. The bureau may recover its costs in an amount sufficient to reimburse the departments costs for furnishing the enhanced photo identification card. The fee charged shall not exceed the actual direct costs for system development, maintenance, and processing necessary to provide this service. The total amount of costs shall be recovered by including that amount in the fee charged for the initial application of and renewal of licensure. When the position, office, or association with a licensee belonging to a person to whom a card is issued is terminated, the person shall surrender the card to the licensee and, within five days thereafter, the licensee shall mail or deliver the card to the bureau for cancellation. Every person, while engaged in any activity for which licensure is required, shall display the persons valid enhanced photo identification card as provided by regulation.(c) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024. |
|---|
| 3530 | 3545 | | |
|---|
| 3531 | 3546 | | SEC. 84. Section 7529 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 3 of Chapter 326 of the Statutes of 2019, is amended to read: |
|---|
| 3532 | 3547 | | |
|---|
| 3533 | 3548 | | ### SEC. 84. |
|---|
| 3534 | 3549 | | |
|---|
| 3535 | 3550 | | 7529. (a) Upon the issuance of and with each biennial renewal of a license, a license in the form of an enhanced photo identification card of the size, design, and content as may be determined by the director or the directors designee shall be issued by the bureau to each licensee, as follows:(1) If the licensee is an individual, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to the licensee and to the licensees qualified manager.(2) If the licensee is a partnership, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to each partner of the partnership licensee active in the business and to the licensees qualified manager.(3) If the licensee is a corporation, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to each officer active in the business and to the licensees qualified manager.(b) The enhanced photo identification card is evidence that the licensee is licensed pursuant to this chapter. The card shall contain the name of the licensee, license expiration date, and a photograph of the licensee. The enhanced photo identification card shall clearly state that the person is licensed as a private investigator or is the qualified manager or officer of the licensee. The enhanced photo identification card is to be composed of a durable material and may incorporate technologically advanced security features. The bureau may recover its costs in an amount sufficient to reimburse the departments costs for furnishing the enhanced photo identification card. The fee charged shall not exceed the actual direct costs for system development, maintenance, and processing necessary to provide this service. The total amount of costs shall be recovered by including that amount in the fee charged for the initial application of and renewal of licensure. When the position, office, or association with a licensee belonging to a person to whom a card is issued is terminated, the person shall surrender the card to the licensee and, within five days thereafter, the licensee shall mail or deliver the card to the bureau for cancellation. Every person, while engaged in any activity for which licensure is required, shall display the persons valid enhanced photo identification card as provided by regulation.(c) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024. |
|---|
| 3536 | 3551 | | |
|---|
| 3537 | 3552 | | 7529. (a) Upon the issuance of and with each biennial renewal of a license, a license in the form of an enhanced photo identification card of the size, design, and content as may be determined by the director or the directors designee shall be issued by the bureau to each licensee, as follows:(1) If the licensee is an individual, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to the licensee and to the licensees qualified manager.(2) If the licensee is a partnership, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to each partner of the partnership licensee active in the business and to the licensees qualified manager.(3) If the licensee is a corporation, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to each officer active in the business and to the licensees qualified manager.(b) The enhanced photo identification card is evidence that the licensee is licensed pursuant to this chapter. The card shall contain the name of the licensee, license expiration date, and a photograph of the licensee. The enhanced photo identification card shall clearly state that the person is licensed as a private investigator or is the qualified manager or officer of the licensee. The enhanced photo identification card is to be composed of a durable material and may incorporate technologically advanced security features. The bureau may recover its costs in an amount sufficient to reimburse the departments costs for furnishing the enhanced photo identification card. The fee charged shall not exceed the actual direct costs for system development, maintenance, and processing necessary to provide this service. The total amount of costs shall be recovered by including that amount in the fee charged for the initial application of and renewal of licensure. When the position, office, or association with a licensee belonging to a person to whom a card is issued is terminated, the person shall surrender the card to the licensee and, within five days thereafter, the licensee shall mail or deliver the card to the bureau for cancellation. Every person, while engaged in any activity for which licensure is required, shall display the persons valid enhanced photo identification card as provided by regulation.(c) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024. |
|---|
| 3538 | 3553 | | |
|---|
| 3539 | 3554 | | 7529. (a) Upon the issuance of and with each biennial renewal of a license, a license in the form of an enhanced photo identification card of the size, design, and content as may be determined by the director or the directors designee shall be issued by the bureau to each licensee, as follows:(1) If the licensee is an individual, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to the licensee and to the licensees qualified manager.(2) If the licensee is a partnership, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to each partner of the partnership licensee active in the business and to the licensees qualified manager.(3) If the licensee is a corporation, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to each officer active in the business and to the licensees qualified manager.(b) The enhanced photo identification card is evidence that the licensee is licensed pursuant to this chapter. The card shall contain the name of the licensee, license expiration date, and a photograph of the licensee. The enhanced photo identification card shall clearly state that the person is licensed as a private investigator or is the qualified manager or officer of the licensee. The enhanced photo identification card is to be composed of a durable material and may incorporate technologically advanced security features. The bureau may recover its costs in an amount sufficient to reimburse the departments costs for furnishing the enhanced photo identification card. The fee charged shall not exceed the actual direct costs for system development, maintenance, and processing necessary to provide this service. The total amount of costs shall be recovered by including that amount in the fee charged for the initial application of and renewal of licensure. When the position, office, or association with a licensee belonging to a person to whom a card is issued is terminated, the person shall surrender the card to the licensee and, within five days thereafter, the licensee shall mail or deliver the card to the bureau for cancellation. Every person, while engaged in any activity for which licensure is required, shall display the persons valid enhanced photo identification card as provided by regulation.(c) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024. |
|---|
| 3540 | 3555 | | |
|---|
| 3541 | 3556 | | |
|---|
| 3542 | 3557 | | |
|---|
| 3543 | 3558 | | 7529. (a) Upon the issuance of and with each biennial renewal of a license, a license in the form of an enhanced photo identification card of the size, design, and content as may be determined by the director or the directors designee shall be issued by the bureau to each licensee, as follows: |
|---|
| 3544 | 3559 | | |
|---|
| 3545 | 3560 | | (1) If the licensee is an individual, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to the licensee and to the licensees qualified manager. |
|---|
| 3546 | 3561 | | |
|---|
| 3547 | 3562 | | (2) If the licensee is a partnership, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to each partner of the partnership licensee active in the business and to the licensees qualified manager. |
|---|
| 3548 | 3563 | | |
|---|
| 3549 | 3564 | | (3) If the licensee is a corporation, the enhanced photo identification card shall be issued to each officer active in the business and to the licensees qualified manager. |
|---|
| 3550 | 3565 | | |
|---|
| 3551 | 3566 | | (b) The enhanced photo identification card is evidence that the licensee is licensed pursuant to this chapter. The card shall contain the name of the licensee, license expiration date, and a photograph of the licensee. The enhanced photo identification card shall clearly state that the person is licensed as a private investigator or is the qualified manager or officer of the licensee. The enhanced photo identification card is to be composed of a durable material and may incorporate technologically advanced security features. The bureau may recover its costs in an amount sufficient to reimburse the departments costs for furnishing the enhanced photo identification card. The fee charged shall not exceed the actual direct costs for system development, maintenance, and processing necessary to provide this service. The total amount of costs shall be recovered by including that amount in the fee charged for the initial application of and renewal of licensure. When the position, office, or association with a licensee belonging to a person to whom a card is issued is terminated, the person shall surrender the card to the licensee and, within five days thereafter, the licensee shall mail or deliver the card to the bureau for cancellation. Every person, while engaged in any activity for which licensure is required, shall display the persons valid enhanced photo identification card as provided by regulation. |
|---|
| 3552 | 3567 | | |
|---|
| 3553 | 3568 | | (c) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024. |
|---|
| 3554 | 3569 | | |
|---|
| 3555 | 3570 | | SEC. 85. Section 7533.5 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 21 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:7533.5. (a) A licensee shall notify the bureau within 30 days of any change in its corporate officers required to be named pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 7525.1 or members or managers required to be named pursuant to subdivision (i) of Section 7525.1, and of any addition of a new partner.(b) Applications, on forms prescribed by the director, shall be submitted by all new officers, members or managers, and partners. The director may suspend or revoke a license issued under this chapter if the director determines that the new officer, member or manager, or partner of a licensee has committed any of the acts constituting grounds to deny an application for a license or to take disciplinary action against a licensee pursuant to Section 7538 or 7538.5, respectively.(c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 3556 | 3571 | | |
|---|
| 3557 | 3572 | | SEC. 85. Section 7533.5 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 21 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read: |
|---|
| 3558 | 3573 | | |
|---|
| 3559 | 3574 | | ### SEC. 85. |
|---|
| 3560 | 3575 | | |
|---|
| 3561 | 3576 | | 7533.5. (a) A licensee shall notify the bureau within 30 days of any change in its corporate officers required to be named pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 7525.1 or members or managers required to be named pursuant to subdivision (i) of Section 7525.1, and of any addition of a new partner.(b) Applications, on forms prescribed by the director, shall be submitted by all new officers, members or managers, and partners. The director may suspend or revoke a license issued under this chapter if the director determines that the new officer, member or manager, or partner of a licensee has committed any of the acts constituting grounds to deny an application for a license or to take disciplinary action against a licensee pursuant to Section 7538 or 7538.5, respectively.(c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 3562 | 3577 | | |
|---|
| 3563 | 3578 | | 7533.5. (a) A licensee shall notify the bureau within 30 days of any change in its corporate officers required to be named pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 7525.1 or members or managers required to be named pursuant to subdivision (i) of Section 7525.1, and of any addition of a new partner.(b) Applications, on forms prescribed by the director, shall be submitted by all new officers, members or managers, and partners. The director may suspend or revoke a license issued under this chapter if the director determines that the new officer, member or manager, or partner of a licensee has committed any of the acts constituting grounds to deny an application for a license or to take disciplinary action against a licensee pursuant to Section 7538 or 7538.5, respectively.(c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 3564 | 3579 | | |
|---|
| 3565 | 3580 | | 7533.5. (a) A licensee shall notify the bureau within 30 days of any change in its corporate officers required to be named pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 7525.1 or members or managers required to be named pursuant to subdivision (i) of Section 7525.1, and of any addition of a new partner.(b) Applications, on forms prescribed by the director, shall be submitted by all new officers, members or managers, and partners. The director may suspend or revoke a license issued under this chapter if the director determines that the new officer, member or manager, or partner of a licensee has committed any of the acts constituting grounds to deny an application for a license or to take disciplinary action against a licensee pursuant to Section 7538 or 7538.5, respectively.(c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 3566 | 3581 | | |
|---|
| 3567 | 3582 | | |
|---|
| 3568 | 3583 | | |
|---|
| 3569 | 3584 | | 7533.5. (a) A licensee shall notify the bureau within 30 days of any change in its corporate officers required to be named pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 7525.1 or members or managers required to be named pursuant to subdivision (i) of Section 7525.1, and of any addition of a new partner. |
|---|
| 3570 | 3585 | | |
|---|
| 3571 | 3586 | | (b) Applications, on forms prescribed by the director, shall be submitted by all new officers, members or managers, and partners. The director may suspend or revoke a license issued under this chapter if the director determines that the new officer, member or manager, or partner of a licensee has committed any of the acts constituting grounds to deny an application for a license or to take disciplinary action against a licensee pursuant to Section 7538 or 7538.5, respectively. |
|---|
| 3572 | 3587 | | |
|---|
| 3573 | 3588 | | (c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 3574 | 3589 | | |
|---|
| 3575 | 3590 | | SEC. 86. Section 7533.5 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 22 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:7533.5. (a) A licensee shall notify the bureau within 30 days of any change in its corporate officers required to be named pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 7525.1, and of any addition of a new partner.(b) Applications, on forms prescribed by the director, shall be submitted by all new officers and partners. The director may suspend or revoke a license issued under this chapter if the director determines that the new officer or partner of a licensee has committed any of the acts constituting grounds to deny an application for a license or to take disciplinary action against a licensee pursuant to Section 7538 or 7538.5, respectively.(c) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024. |
|---|
| 3576 | 3591 | | |
|---|
| 3577 | 3592 | | SEC. 86. Section 7533.5 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 22 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read: |
|---|
| 3578 | 3593 | | |
|---|
| 3579 | 3594 | | ### SEC. 86. |
|---|
| 3580 | 3595 | | |
|---|
| 3581 | 3596 | | 7533.5. (a) A licensee shall notify the bureau within 30 days of any change in its corporate officers required to be named pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 7525.1, and of any addition of a new partner.(b) Applications, on forms prescribed by the director, shall be submitted by all new officers and partners. The director may suspend or revoke a license issued under this chapter if the director determines that the new officer or partner of a licensee has committed any of the acts constituting grounds to deny an application for a license or to take disciplinary action against a licensee pursuant to Section 7538 or 7538.5, respectively.(c) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024. |
|---|
| 3582 | 3597 | | |
|---|
| 3583 | 3598 | | 7533.5. (a) A licensee shall notify the bureau within 30 days of any change in its corporate officers required to be named pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 7525.1, and of any addition of a new partner.(b) Applications, on forms prescribed by the director, shall be submitted by all new officers and partners. The director may suspend or revoke a license issued under this chapter if the director determines that the new officer or partner of a licensee has committed any of the acts constituting grounds to deny an application for a license or to take disciplinary action against a licensee pursuant to Section 7538 or 7538.5, respectively.(c) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024. |
|---|
| 3584 | 3599 | | |
|---|
| 3585 | 3600 | | 7533.5. (a) A licensee shall notify the bureau within 30 days of any change in its corporate officers required to be named pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 7525.1, and of any addition of a new partner.(b) Applications, on forms prescribed by the director, shall be submitted by all new officers and partners. The director may suspend or revoke a license issued under this chapter if the director determines that the new officer or partner of a licensee has committed any of the acts constituting grounds to deny an application for a license or to take disciplinary action against a licensee pursuant to Section 7538 or 7538.5, respectively.(c) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024. |
|---|
| 3586 | 3601 | | |
|---|
| 3587 | 3602 | | |
|---|
| 3588 | 3603 | | |
|---|
| 3589 | 3604 | | 7533.5. (a) A licensee shall notify the bureau within 30 days of any change in its corporate officers required to be named pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 7525.1, and of any addition of a new partner. |
|---|
| 3590 | 3605 | | |
|---|
| 3591 | 3606 | | (b) Applications, on forms prescribed by the director, shall be submitted by all new officers and partners. The director may suspend or revoke a license issued under this chapter if the director determines that the new officer or partner of a licensee has committed any of the acts constituting grounds to deny an application for a license or to take disciplinary action against a licensee pursuant to Section 7538 or 7538.5, respectively. |
|---|
| 3592 | 3607 | | |
|---|
| 3593 | 3608 | | (c) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024. |
|---|
| 3594 | 3609 | | |
|---|
| 3595 | 3610 | | SEC. 87. Section 7538 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 25 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:7538. (a) After a hearing the director may deny a license unless the applicant makes a showing satisfactory to the director that the applicant, if an individual, and the applicants qualified manager have not, or, if the applicant is a person other than an individual, that its qualified manager and each of its officers, partners, members, or managers have not:(1) Committed any act that, if committed by a licensee, would be a ground for the suspension or revocation of a license under this chapter.(2) Committed any act constituting dishonesty or fraud.(3) Committed any act or crime constituting grounds for denial of licensure under Section 480, including illegally using, carrying, or possessing a deadly weapon.(4) Been refused a license under this chapter or had a license revoked.(5) Been an officer, partner, qualified manager, member, or manager of any person who has been refused a license under this chapter or whose license has been revoked.(6) While unlicensed committed, or aided and abetted the commission of, any act for which a license is required by this chapter.(7) Knowingly made any false statement in their application.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 3596 | 3611 | | |
|---|
| 3597 | 3612 | | SEC. 87. Section 7538 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 25 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read: |
|---|
| 3598 | 3613 | | |
|---|
| 3599 | 3614 | | ### SEC. 87. |
|---|
| 3600 | 3615 | | |
|---|
| 3601 | 3616 | | 7538. (a) After a hearing the director may deny a license unless the applicant makes a showing satisfactory to the director that the applicant, if an individual, and the applicants qualified manager have not, or, if the applicant is a person other than an individual, that its qualified manager and each of its officers, partners, members, or managers have not:(1) Committed any act that, if committed by a licensee, would be a ground for the suspension or revocation of a license under this chapter.(2) Committed any act constituting dishonesty or fraud.(3) Committed any act or crime constituting grounds for denial of licensure under Section 480, including illegally using, carrying, or possessing a deadly weapon.(4) Been refused a license under this chapter or had a license revoked.(5) Been an officer, partner, qualified manager, member, or manager of any person who has been refused a license under this chapter or whose license has been revoked.(6) While unlicensed committed, or aided and abetted the commission of, any act for which a license is required by this chapter.(7) Knowingly made any false statement in their application.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 3602 | 3617 | | |
|---|
| 3603 | 3618 | | 7538. (a) After a hearing the director may deny a license unless the applicant makes a showing satisfactory to the director that the applicant, if an individual, and the applicants qualified manager have not, or, if the applicant is a person other than an individual, that its qualified manager and each of its officers, partners, members, or managers have not:(1) Committed any act that, if committed by a licensee, would be a ground for the suspension or revocation of a license under this chapter.(2) Committed any act constituting dishonesty or fraud.(3) Committed any act or crime constituting grounds for denial of licensure under Section 480, including illegally using, carrying, or possessing a deadly weapon.(4) Been refused a license under this chapter or had a license revoked.(5) Been an officer, partner, qualified manager, member, or manager of any person who has been refused a license under this chapter or whose license has been revoked.(6) While unlicensed committed, or aided and abetted the commission of, any act for which a license is required by this chapter.(7) Knowingly made any false statement in their application.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 3604 | 3619 | | |
|---|
| 3605 | 3620 | | 7538. (a) After a hearing the director may deny a license unless the applicant makes a showing satisfactory to the director that the applicant, if an individual, and the applicants qualified manager have not, or, if the applicant is a person other than an individual, that its qualified manager and each of its officers, partners, members, or managers have not:(1) Committed any act that, if committed by a licensee, would be a ground for the suspension or revocation of a license under this chapter.(2) Committed any act constituting dishonesty or fraud.(3) Committed any act or crime constituting grounds for denial of licensure under Section 480, including illegally using, carrying, or possessing a deadly weapon.(4) Been refused a license under this chapter or had a license revoked.(5) Been an officer, partner, qualified manager, member, or manager of any person who has been refused a license under this chapter or whose license has been revoked.(6) While unlicensed committed, or aided and abetted the commission of, any act for which a license is required by this chapter.(7) Knowingly made any false statement in their application.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 3606 | 3621 | | |
|---|
| 3607 | 3622 | | |
|---|
| 3608 | 3623 | | |
|---|
| 3609 | 3624 | | 7538. (a) After a hearing the director may deny a license unless the applicant makes a showing satisfactory to the director that the applicant, if an individual, and the applicants qualified manager have not, or, if the applicant is a person other than an individual, that its qualified manager and each of its officers, partners, members, or managers have not: |
|---|
| 3610 | 3625 | | |
|---|
| 3611 | 3626 | | (1) Committed any act that, if committed by a licensee, would be a ground for the suspension or revocation of a license under this chapter. |
|---|
| 3612 | 3627 | | |
|---|
| 3613 | 3628 | | (2) Committed any act constituting dishonesty or fraud. |
|---|
| 3614 | 3629 | | |
|---|
| 3615 | 3630 | | (3) Committed any act or crime constituting grounds for denial of licensure under Section 480, including illegally using, carrying, or possessing a deadly weapon. |
|---|
| 3616 | 3631 | | |
|---|
| 3617 | 3632 | | (4) Been refused a license under this chapter or had a license revoked. |
|---|
| 3618 | 3633 | | |
|---|
| 3619 | 3634 | | (5) Been an officer, partner, qualified manager, member, or manager of any person who has been refused a license under this chapter or whose license has been revoked. |
|---|
| 3620 | 3635 | | |
|---|
| 3621 | 3636 | | (6) While unlicensed committed, or aided and abetted the commission of, any act for which a license is required by this chapter. |
|---|
| 3622 | 3637 | | |
|---|
| 3623 | 3638 | | (7) Knowingly made any false statement in their application. |
|---|
| 3624 | 3639 | | |
|---|
| 3625 | 3640 | | (b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 3626 | 3641 | | |
|---|
| 3627 | 3642 | | SEC. 88. Section 7538 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 26 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:7538. (a) After a hearing the director may deny a license unless the applicant makes a showing satisfactory to the director that the applicant, if an individual, and the applicants qualified manager have not, or, if the applicant is a person other than an individual, that its qualified manager and each of its officers and partners have not:(1) Committed any act that, if committed by a licensee, would be a ground for the suspension or revocation of a license under this chapter.(2) Committed any act constituting dishonesty or fraud.(3) Committed any act or crime constituting grounds for denial of licensure under Section 480, including illegally using, carrying, or possessing a deadly weapon.(4) Been refused a license under this chapter or had a license revoked.(5) Been an officer, partner, or qualified manager of any person who has been refused a license under this chapter or whose license has been revoked.(6) While unlicensed committed, or aided and abetted the commission of, any act for which a license is required by this chapter.(7) Knowingly made any false statement in their application.(b) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024. |
|---|
| 3628 | 3643 | | |
|---|
| 3629 | 3644 | | SEC. 88. Section 7538 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 26 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read: |
|---|
| 3630 | 3645 | | |
|---|
| 3631 | 3646 | | ### SEC. 88. |
|---|
| 3632 | 3647 | | |
|---|
| 3633 | 3648 | | 7538. (a) After a hearing the director may deny a license unless the applicant makes a showing satisfactory to the director that the applicant, if an individual, and the applicants qualified manager have not, or, if the applicant is a person other than an individual, that its qualified manager and each of its officers and partners have not:(1) Committed any act that, if committed by a licensee, would be a ground for the suspension or revocation of a license under this chapter.(2) Committed any act constituting dishonesty or fraud.(3) Committed any act or crime constituting grounds for denial of licensure under Section 480, including illegally using, carrying, or possessing a deadly weapon.(4) Been refused a license under this chapter or had a license revoked.(5) Been an officer, partner, or qualified manager of any person who has been refused a license under this chapter or whose license has been revoked.(6) While unlicensed committed, or aided and abetted the commission of, any act for which a license is required by this chapter.(7) Knowingly made any false statement in their application.(b) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024. |
|---|
| 3634 | 3649 | | |
|---|
| 3635 | 3650 | | 7538. (a) After a hearing the director may deny a license unless the applicant makes a showing satisfactory to the director that the applicant, if an individual, and the applicants qualified manager have not, or, if the applicant is a person other than an individual, that its qualified manager and each of its officers and partners have not:(1) Committed any act that, if committed by a licensee, would be a ground for the suspension or revocation of a license under this chapter.(2) Committed any act constituting dishonesty or fraud.(3) Committed any act or crime constituting grounds for denial of licensure under Section 480, including illegally using, carrying, or possessing a deadly weapon.(4) Been refused a license under this chapter or had a license revoked.(5) Been an officer, partner, or qualified manager of any person who has been refused a license under this chapter or whose license has been revoked.(6) While unlicensed committed, or aided and abetted the commission of, any act for which a license is required by this chapter.(7) Knowingly made any false statement in their application.(b) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024. |
|---|
| 3636 | 3651 | | |
|---|
| 3637 | 3652 | | 7538. (a) After a hearing the director may deny a license unless the applicant makes a showing satisfactory to the director that the applicant, if an individual, and the applicants qualified manager have not, or, if the applicant is a person other than an individual, that its qualified manager and each of its officers and partners have not:(1) Committed any act that, if committed by a licensee, would be a ground for the suspension or revocation of a license under this chapter.(2) Committed any act constituting dishonesty or fraud.(3) Committed any act or crime constituting grounds for denial of licensure under Section 480, including illegally using, carrying, or possessing a deadly weapon.(4) Been refused a license under this chapter or had a license revoked.(5) Been an officer, partner, or qualified manager of any person who has been refused a license under this chapter or whose license has been revoked.(6) While unlicensed committed, or aided and abetted the commission of, any act for which a license is required by this chapter.(7) Knowingly made any false statement in their application.(b) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024. |
|---|
| 3638 | 3653 | | |
|---|
| 3639 | 3654 | | |
|---|
| 3640 | 3655 | | |
|---|
| 3641 | 3656 | | 7538. (a) After a hearing the director may deny a license unless the applicant makes a showing satisfactory to the director that the applicant, if an individual, and the applicants qualified manager have not, or, if the applicant is a person other than an individual, that its qualified manager and each of its officers and partners have not: |
|---|
| 3642 | 3657 | | |
|---|
| 3643 | 3658 | | (1) Committed any act that, if committed by a licensee, would be a ground for the suspension or revocation of a license under this chapter. |
|---|
| 3644 | 3659 | | |
|---|
| 3645 | 3660 | | (2) Committed any act constituting dishonesty or fraud. |
|---|
| 3646 | 3661 | | |
|---|
| 3647 | 3662 | | (3) Committed any act or crime constituting grounds for denial of licensure under Section 480, including illegally using, carrying, or possessing a deadly weapon. |
|---|
| 3648 | 3663 | | |
|---|
| 3649 | 3664 | | (4) Been refused a license under this chapter or had a license revoked. |
|---|
| 3650 | 3665 | | |
|---|
| 3651 | 3666 | | (5) Been an officer, partner, or qualified manager of any person who has been refused a license under this chapter or whose license has been revoked. |
|---|
| 3652 | 3667 | | |
|---|
| 3653 | 3668 | | (6) While unlicensed committed, or aided and abetted the commission of, any act for which a license is required by this chapter. |
|---|
| 3654 | 3669 | | |
|---|
| 3655 | 3670 | | (7) Knowingly made any false statement in their application. |
|---|
| 3656 | 3671 | | |
|---|
| 3657 | 3672 | | (b) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024. |
|---|
| 3658 | 3673 | | |
|---|
| 3659 | 3674 | | SEC. 89. Section 7538.5 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 27 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:7538.5. (a) The director may refuse to issue any license provided for in this chapter to any of the following:(1) An individual who has had any license revoked, has a license currently under suspension, or failed to renew their license while under suspension.(2) An individual who, while acting as a partner of a partnership, an officer or director of a corporation, or a member, manager, or officer of a limited liability company, had their license revoked, has a license currently under suspension, or failed to renew their license while under suspension.(3) An individual who, while acting as a partner of the partnership, an officer, director of the corporation, or a member, manager, or officer of a limited liability company meets both of the following conditions:(A) The individual was a partner of any partnership, an officer or director of any corporation, or a member, manager, or officer of any limited liability company whose license was revoked, is currently under suspension, or was not renewed while under suspension.(B) While acting as a partner, officer, director, member, or manager, they participated in any of the prohibited acts for which the license was revoked or suspended.(4) An individual who is serving or has served as the qualified manager for any licensee that has had its license revoked, is currently under suspension, or failed to renew while under suspension.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 3660 | 3675 | | |
|---|
| 3661 | 3676 | | SEC. 89. Section 7538.5 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 27 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read: |
|---|
| 3662 | 3677 | | |
|---|
| 3663 | 3678 | | ### SEC. 89. |
|---|
| 3664 | 3679 | | |
|---|
| 3665 | 3680 | | 7538.5. (a) The director may refuse to issue any license provided for in this chapter to any of the following:(1) An individual who has had any license revoked, has a license currently under suspension, or failed to renew their license while under suspension.(2) An individual who, while acting as a partner of a partnership, an officer or director of a corporation, or a member, manager, or officer of a limited liability company, had their license revoked, has a license currently under suspension, or failed to renew their license while under suspension.(3) An individual who, while acting as a partner of the partnership, an officer, director of the corporation, or a member, manager, or officer of a limited liability company meets both of the following conditions:(A) The individual was a partner of any partnership, an officer or director of any corporation, or a member, manager, or officer of any limited liability company whose license was revoked, is currently under suspension, or was not renewed while under suspension.(B) While acting as a partner, officer, director, member, or manager, they participated in any of the prohibited acts for which the license was revoked or suspended.(4) An individual who is serving or has served as the qualified manager for any licensee that has had its license revoked, is currently under suspension, or failed to renew while under suspension.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 3666 | 3681 | | |
|---|
| 3667 | 3682 | | 7538.5. (a) The director may refuse to issue any license provided for in this chapter to any of the following:(1) An individual who has had any license revoked, has a license currently under suspension, or failed to renew their license while under suspension.(2) An individual who, while acting as a partner of a partnership, an officer or director of a corporation, or a member, manager, or officer of a limited liability company, had their license revoked, has a license currently under suspension, or failed to renew their license while under suspension.(3) An individual who, while acting as a partner of the partnership, an officer, director of the corporation, or a member, manager, or officer of a limited liability company meets both of the following conditions:(A) The individual was a partner of any partnership, an officer or director of any corporation, or a member, manager, or officer of any limited liability company whose license was revoked, is currently under suspension, or was not renewed while under suspension.(B) While acting as a partner, officer, director, member, or manager, they participated in any of the prohibited acts for which the license was revoked or suspended.(4) An individual who is serving or has served as the qualified manager for any licensee that has had its license revoked, is currently under suspension, or failed to renew while under suspension.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 3668 | 3683 | | |
|---|
| 3669 | 3684 | | 7538.5. (a) The director may refuse to issue any license provided for in this chapter to any of the following:(1) An individual who has had any license revoked, has a license currently under suspension, or failed to renew their license while under suspension.(2) An individual who, while acting as a partner of a partnership, an officer or director of a corporation, or a member, manager, or officer of a limited liability company, had their license revoked, has a license currently under suspension, or failed to renew their license while under suspension.(3) An individual who, while acting as a partner of the partnership, an officer, director of the corporation, or a member, manager, or officer of a limited liability company meets both of the following conditions:(A) The individual was a partner of any partnership, an officer or director of any corporation, or a member, manager, or officer of any limited liability company whose license was revoked, is currently under suspension, or was not renewed while under suspension.(B) While acting as a partner, officer, director, member, or manager, they participated in any of the prohibited acts for which the license was revoked or suspended.(4) An individual who is serving or has served as the qualified manager for any licensee that has had its license revoked, is currently under suspension, or failed to renew while under suspension.(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 3670 | 3685 | | |
|---|
| 3671 | 3686 | | |
|---|
| 3672 | 3687 | | |
|---|
| 3673 | 3688 | | 7538.5. (a) The director may refuse to issue any license provided for in this chapter to any of the following: |
|---|
| 3674 | 3689 | | |
|---|
| 3675 | 3690 | | (1) An individual who has had any license revoked, has a license currently under suspension, or failed to renew their license while under suspension. |
|---|
| 3676 | 3691 | | |
|---|
| 3677 | 3692 | | (2) An individual who, while acting as a partner of a partnership, an officer or director of a corporation, or a member, manager, or officer of a limited liability company, had their license revoked, has a license currently under suspension, or failed to renew their license while under suspension. |
|---|
| 3678 | 3693 | | |
|---|
| 3679 | 3694 | | (3) An individual who, while acting as a partner of the partnership, an officer, director of the corporation, or a member, manager, or officer of a limited liability company meets both of the following conditions: |
|---|
| 3680 | 3695 | | |
|---|
| 3681 | 3696 | | (A) The individual was a partner of any partnership, an officer or director of any corporation, or a member, manager, or officer of any limited liability company whose license was revoked, is currently under suspension, or was not renewed while under suspension. |
|---|
| 3682 | 3697 | | |
|---|
| 3683 | 3698 | | (B) While acting as a partner, officer, director, member, or manager, they participated in any of the prohibited acts for which the license was revoked or suspended. |
|---|
| 3684 | 3699 | | |
|---|
| 3685 | 3700 | | (4) An individual who is serving or has served as the qualified manager for any licensee that has had its license revoked, is currently under suspension, or failed to renew while under suspension. |
|---|
| 3686 | 3701 | | |
|---|
| 3687 | 3702 | | (b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 3688 | 3703 | | |
|---|
| 3689 | 3704 | | SEC. 90. Section 7538.5 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 8 of Chapter 92 of the Statutes of 2018, is amended to read:7538.5. (a) The director may refuse to issue any license provided for in this chapter to any of the following:(1) An individual who has had any license revoked, has a license currently under suspension, or failed to renew their license while under suspension.(2) An individual who, while acting as a partner of a partnership, or an officer or director of a corporation, had their license revoked, has a license currently under suspension, or failed to renew their license while under suspension.(3) An individual, who, while acting as a partner of the partnership, or an officer or director of the corporation, meets both of the following conditions:(A) The individual was a partner of any partnership, or an officer or director of any corporation, whose license was revoked, is currently under suspension, or was not renewed while under suspension.(B) The individual, while acting as a partner, officer, or director, participated in any of the prohibited acts for which the license was revoked or suspended.(4) An individual who is serving or has served as the qualified manager for any licensee that has had its license revoked, is currently under suspension, or failed to renew while under suspension.(b) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024. |
|---|
| 3690 | 3705 | | |
|---|
| 3691 | 3706 | | SEC. 90. Section 7538.5 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 8 of Chapter 92 of the Statutes of 2018, is amended to read: |
|---|
| 3692 | 3707 | | |
|---|
| 3693 | 3708 | | ### SEC. 90. |
|---|
| 3694 | 3709 | | |
|---|
| 3695 | 3710 | | 7538.5. (a) The director may refuse to issue any license provided for in this chapter to any of the following:(1) An individual who has had any license revoked, has a license currently under suspension, or failed to renew their license while under suspension.(2) An individual who, while acting as a partner of a partnership, or an officer or director of a corporation, had their license revoked, has a license currently under suspension, or failed to renew their license while under suspension.(3) An individual, who, while acting as a partner of the partnership, or an officer or director of the corporation, meets both of the following conditions:(A) The individual was a partner of any partnership, or an officer or director of any corporation, whose license was revoked, is currently under suspension, or was not renewed while under suspension.(B) The individual, while acting as a partner, officer, or director, participated in any of the prohibited acts for which the license was revoked or suspended.(4) An individual who is serving or has served as the qualified manager for any licensee that has had its license revoked, is currently under suspension, or failed to renew while under suspension.(b) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024. |
|---|
| 3696 | 3711 | | |
|---|
| 3697 | 3712 | | 7538.5. (a) The director may refuse to issue any license provided for in this chapter to any of the following:(1) An individual who has had any license revoked, has a license currently under suspension, or failed to renew their license while under suspension.(2) An individual who, while acting as a partner of a partnership, or an officer or director of a corporation, had their license revoked, has a license currently under suspension, or failed to renew their license while under suspension.(3) An individual, who, while acting as a partner of the partnership, or an officer or director of the corporation, meets both of the following conditions:(A) The individual was a partner of any partnership, or an officer or director of any corporation, whose license was revoked, is currently under suspension, or was not renewed while under suspension.(B) The individual, while acting as a partner, officer, or director, participated in any of the prohibited acts for which the license was revoked or suspended.(4) An individual who is serving or has served as the qualified manager for any licensee that has had its license revoked, is currently under suspension, or failed to renew while under suspension.(b) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024. |
|---|
| 3698 | 3713 | | |
|---|
| 3699 | 3714 | | 7538.5. (a) The director may refuse to issue any license provided for in this chapter to any of the following:(1) An individual who has had any license revoked, has a license currently under suspension, or failed to renew their license while under suspension.(2) An individual who, while acting as a partner of a partnership, or an officer or director of a corporation, had their license revoked, has a license currently under suspension, or failed to renew their license while under suspension.(3) An individual, who, while acting as a partner of the partnership, or an officer or director of the corporation, meets both of the following conditions:(A) The individual was a partner of any partnership, or an officer or director of any corporation, whose license was revoked, is currently under suspension, or was not renewed while under suspension.(B) The individual, while acting as a partner, officer, or director, participated in any of the prohibited acts for which the license was revoked or suspended.(4) An individual who is serving or has served as the qualified manager for any licensee that has had its license revoked, is currently under suspension, or failed to renew while under suspension.(b) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024. |
|---|
| 3700 | 3715 | | |
|---|
| 3701 | 3716 | | |
|---|
| 3702 | 3717 | | |
|---|
| 3703 | 3718 | | 7538.5. (a) The director may refuse to issue any license provided for in this chapter to any of the following: |
|---|
| 3704 | 3719 | | |
|---|
| 3705 | 3720 | | (1) An individual who has had any license revoked, has a license currently under suspension, or failed to renew their license while under suspension. |
|---|
| 3706 | 3721 | | |
|---|
| 3707 | 3722 | | (2) An individual who, while acting as a partner of a partnership, or an officer or director of a corporation, had their license revoked, has a license currently under suspension, or failed to renew their license while under suspension. |
|---|
| 3708 | 3723 | | |
|---|
| 3709 | 3724 | | (3) An individual, who, while acting as a partner of the partnership, or an officer or director of the corporation, meets both of the following conditions: |
|---|
| 3710 | 3725 | | |
|---|
| 3711 | 3726 | | (A) The individual was a partner of any partnership, or an officer or director of any corporation, whose license was revoked, is currently under suspension, or was not renewed while under suspension. |
|---|
| 3712 | 3727 | | |
|---|
| 3713 | 3728 | | (B) The individual, while acting as a partner, officer, or director, participated in any of the prohibited acts for which the license was revoked or suspended. |
|---|
| 3714 | 3729 | | |
|---|
| 3715 | 3730 | | (4) An individual who is serving or has served as the qualified manager for any licensee that has had its license revoked, is currently under suspension, or failed to renew while under suspension. |
|---|
| 3716 | 3731 | | |
|---|
| 3717 | 3732 | | (b) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024. |
|---|
| 3718 | 3733 | | |
|---|
| 3719 | 3734 | | SEC. 91. Section 7539 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 29 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read:7539. (a) Any licensee or officer, director, partner, member, manager, or qualified manager of a licensee may divulge to any law enforcement officer or district attorney, or their representative, any information they may acquire as to any criminal offense, but they shall not divulge to any other person, except as otherwise required by law, any information acquired by them except at the direction of the employer or client for whom the information was obtained.(b) A licensee or officer, director, partner, member, manager, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not knowingly make any false report to their employer or client for whom information was being obtained.(c) A written report shall not be submitted to a client except by the licensee, qualified manager, or a person authorized by one or either of them, and the person submitting the report shall exercise diligence in ascertaining whether or not the facts and information in the report are true and correct.(d) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, manager, member, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not use a badge in connection with the official activities of the licensees business.(e) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, manager, member, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee, shall not use a title, or wear a uniform, or use an insignia, or use an identification card, or make any statement with the intent to give an impression that they are connected in any way with the federal government, a state government, or any political subdivision of a state government.(f) A licensee, or officer, partner, manager, member, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not use any identification to indicate that they are licensed as a private investigator other than the official identification card issued by the bureau or the business card regularly used by the business. However, a licensee may issue an employer identification card.(g) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, manager, member, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee, shall not enter any private building or portion thereof, except premises commonly accessible to the public, without the consent of the owner or of the person in legal possession thereof.(h) A licensee shall not permit an employee or agent in their own name to advertise, engage clients, furnish reports or present bills to clients, or in any manner conduct business for which a license is required under this chapter. All business of the licensee shall be conducted in the name of and under the control of the licensee.(i) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, manager, member, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not knowingly and directly solicit employment from any person who has directly sustained bodily injury or from that persons spouse or other family member to obtain authorization on behalf of the injured person as an investigator to investigate the accident or act that resulted in injury or death to that person or damage to the property of that person. Nothing in this subdivision shall prohibit the soliciting of employment from that injured persons attorney, insurance company, self-insured administrator, insurance adjuster, employer, or any other person having an indirect interest in the investigation of the injury. This subdivision shall not apply to any business agent or attorney employed by a labor organization. A licensee, or officer, director, partner, manager, member, or qualified manager of a licensee shall not pay or compensate any of their employees or agents on the basis of a bonus, bounty, or quota system whereby a premium is placed on the number of employer or client rule violations or infractions purportedly discovered as a result of any investigation made by a licensee.(j) A licensee shall not use a fictitious business name in connection with the official activities of the licensees business, except as provided by the bureau.(k) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
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| 3720 | 3735 | | |
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| 3721 | 3736 | | SEC. 91. Section 7539 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 29 of Chapter 569 of the Statutes of 2017, is amended to read: |
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| 3722 | 3737 | | |
|---|
| 3723 | 3738 | | ### SEC. 91. |
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| 3724 | 3739 | | |
|---|
| 3725 | 3740 | | 7539. (a) Any licensee or officer, director, partner, member, manager, or qualified manager of a licensee may divulge to any law enforcement officer or district attorney, or their representative, any information they may acquire as to any criminal offense, but they shall not divulge to any other person, except as otherwise required by law, any information acquired by them except at the direction of the employer or client for whom the information was obtained.(b) A licensee or officer, director, partner, member, manager, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not knowingly make any false report to their employer or client for whom information was being obtained.(c) A written report shall not be submitted to a client except by the licensee, qualified manager, or a person authorized by one or either of them, and the person submitting the report shall exercise diligence in ascertaining whether or not the facts and information in the report are true and correct.(d) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, manager, member, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not use a badge in connection with the official activities of the licensees business.(e) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, manager, member, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee, shall not use a title, or wear a uniform, or use an insignia, or use an identification card, or make any statement with the intent to give an impression that they are connected in any way with the federal government, a state government, or any political subdivision of a state government.(f) A licensee, or officer, partner, manager, member, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not use any identification to indicate that they are licensed as a private investigator other than the official identification card issued by the bureau or the business card regularly used by the business. However, a licensee may issue an employer identification card.(g) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, manager, member, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee, shall not enter any private building or portion thereof, except premises commonly accessible to the public, without the consent of the owner or of the person in legal possession thereof.(h) A licensee shall not permit an employee or agent in their own name to advertise, engage clients, furnish reports or present bills to clients, or in any manner conduct business for which a license is required under this chapter. All business of the licensee shall be conducted in the name of and under the control of the licensee.(i) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, manager, member, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not knowingly and directly solicit employment from any person who has directly sustained bodily injury or from that persons spouse or other family member to obtain authorization on behalf of the injured person as an investigator to investigate the accident or act that resulted in injury or death to that person or damage to the property of that person. Nothing in this subdivision shall prohibit the soliciting of employment from that injured persons attorney, insurance company, self-insured administrator, insurance adjuster, employer, or any other person having an indirect interest in the investigation of the injury. This subdivision shall not apply to any business agent or attorney employed by a labor organization. A licensee, or officer, director, partner, manager, member, or qualified manager of a licensee shall not pay or compensate any of their employees or agents on the basis of a bonus, bounty, or quota system whereby a premium is placed on the number of employer or client rule violations or infractions purportedly discovered as a result of any investigation made by a licensee.(j) A licensee shall not use a fictitious business name in connection with the official activities of the licensees business, except as provided by the bureau.(k) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
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| 3726 | 3741 | | |
|---|
| 3727 | 3742 | | 7539. (a) Any licensee or officer, director, partner, member, manager, or qualified manager of a licensee may divulge to any law enforcement officer or district attorney, or their representative, any information they may acquire as to any criminal offense, but they shall not divulge to any other person, except as otherwise required by law, any information acquired by them except at the direction of the employer or client for whom the information was obtained.(b) A licensee or officer, director, partner, member, manager, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not knowingly make any false report to their employer or client for whom information was being obtained.(c) A written report shall not be submitted to a client except by the licensee, qualified manager, or a person authorized by one or either of them, and the person submitting the report shall exercise diligence in ascertaining whether or not the facts and information in the report are true and correct.(d) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, manager, member, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not use a badge in connection with the official activities of the licensees business.(e) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, manager, member, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee, shall not use a title, or wear a uniform, or use an insignia, or use an identification card, or make any statement with the intent to give an impression that they are connected in any way with the federal government, a state government, or any political subdivision of a state government.(f) A licensee, or officer, partner, manager, member, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not use any identification to indicate that they are licensed as a private investigator other than the official identification card issued by the bureau or the business card regularly used by the business. However, a licensee may issue an employer identification card.(g) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, manager, member, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee, shall not enter any private building or portion thereof, except premises commonly accessible to the public, without the consent of the owner or of the person in legal possession thereof.(h) A licensee shall not permit an employee or agent in their own name to advertise, engage clients, furnish reports or present bills to clients, or in any manner conduct business for which a license is required under this chapter. All business of the licensee shall be conducted in the name of and under the control of the licensee.(i) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, manager, member, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not knowingly and directly solicit employment from any person who has directly sustained bodily injury or from that persons spouse or other family member to obtain authorization on behalf of the injured person as an investigator to investigate the accident or act that resulted in injury or death to that person or damage to the property of that person. Nothing in this subdivision shall prohibit the soliciting of employment from that injured persons attorney, insurance company, self-insured administrator, insurance adjuster, employer, or any other person having an indirect interest in the investigation of the injury. This subdivision shall not apply to any business agent or attorney employed by a labor organization. A licensee, or officer, director, partner, manager, member, or qualified manager of a licensee shall not pay or compensate any of their employees or agents on the basis of a bonus, bounty, or quota system whereby a premium is placed on the number of employer or client rule violations or infractions purportedly discovered as a result of any investigation made by a licensee.(j) A licensee shall not use a fictitious business name in connection with the official activities of the licensees business, except as provided by the bureau.(k) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 3728 | 3743 | | |
|---|
| 3729 | 3744 | | 7539. (a) Any licensee or officer, director, partner, member, manager, or qualified manager of a licensee may divulge to any law enforcement officer or district attorney, or their representative, any information they may acquire as to any criminal offense, but they shall not divulge to any other person, except as otherwise required by law, any information acquired by them except at the direction of the employer or client for whom the information was obtained.(b) A licensee or officer, director, partner, member, manager, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not knowingly make any false report to their employer or client for whom information was being obtained.(c) A written report shall not be submitted to a client except by the licensee, qualified manager, or a person authorized by one or either of them, and the person submitting the report shall exercise diligence in ascertaining whether or not the facts and information in the report are true and correct.(d) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, manager, member, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not use a badge in connection with the official activities of the licensees business.(e) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, manager, member, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee, shall not use a title, or wear a uniform, or use an insignia, or use an identification card, or make any statement with the intent to give an impression that they are connected in any way with the federal government, a state government, or any political subdivision of a state government.(f) A licensee, or officer, partner, manager, member, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not use any identification to indicate that they are licensed as a private investigator other than the official identification card issued by the bureau or the business card regularly used by the business. However, a licensee may issue an employer identification card.(g) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, manager, member, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee, shall not enter any private building or portion thereof, except premises commonly accessible to the public, without the consent of the owner or of the person in legal possession thereof.(h) A licensee shall not permit an employee or agent in their own name to advertise, engage clients, furnish reports or present bills to clients, or in any manner conduct business for which a license is required under this chapter. All business of the licensee shall be conducted in the name of and under the control of the licensee.(i) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, manager, member, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not knowingly and directly solicit employment from any person who has directly sustained bodily injury or from that persons spouse or other family member to obtain authorization on behalf of the injured person as an investigator to investigate the accident or act that resulted in injury or death to that person or damage to the property of that person. Nothing in this subdivision shall prohibit the soliciting of employment from that injured persons attorney, insurance company, self-insured administrator, insurance adjuster, employer, or any other person having an indirect interest in the investigation of the injury. This subdivision shall not apply to any business agent or attorney employed by a labor organization. A licensee, or officer, director, partner, manager, member, or qualified manager of a licensee shall not pay or compensate any of their employees or agents on the basis of a bonus, bounty, or quota system whereby a premium is placed on the number of employer or client rule violations or infractions purportedly discovered as a result of any investigation made by a licensee.(j) A licensee shall not use a fictitious business name in connection with the official activities of the licensees business, except as provided by the bureau.(k) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
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| 3730 | 3745 | | |
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| 3731 | 3746 | | |
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| 3732 | 3747 | | |
|---|
| 3733 | 3748 | | 7539. (a) Any licensee or officer, director, partner, member, manager, or qualified manager of a licensee may divulge to any law enforcement officer or district attorney, or their representative, any information they may acquire as to any criminal offense, but they shall not divulge to any other person, except as otherwise required by law, any information acquired by them except at the direction of the employer or client for whom the information was obtained. |
|---|
| 3734 | 3749 | | |
|---|
| 3735 | 3750 | | (b) A licensee or officer, director, partner, member, manager, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not knowingly make any false report to their employer or client for whom information was being obtained. |
|---|
| 3736 | 3751 | | |
|---|
| 3737 | 3752 | | (c) A written report shall not be submitted to a client except by the licensee, qualified manager, or a person authorized by one or either of them, and the person submitting the report shall exercise diligence in ascertaining whether or not the facts and information in the report are true and correct. |
|---|
| 3738 | 3753 | | |
|---|
| 3739 | 3754 | | (d) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, manager, member, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not use a badge in connection with the official activities of the licensees business. |
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| 3740 | 3755 | | |
|---|
| 3741 | 3756 | | (e) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, manager, member, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee, shall not use a title, or wear a uniform, or use an insignia, or use an identification card, or make any statement with the intent to give an impression that they are connected in any way with the federal government, a state government, or any political subdivision of a state government. |
|---|
| 3742 | 3757 | | |
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| 3743 | 3758 | | (f) A licensee, or officer, partner, manager, member, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not use any identification to indicate that they are licensed as a private investigator other than the official identification card issued by the bureau or the business card regularly used by the business. However, a licensee may issue an employer identification card. |
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| 3744 | 3759 | | |
|---|
| 3745 | 3760 | | (g) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, manager, member, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee, shall not enter any private building or portion thereof, except premises commonly accessible to the public, without the consent of the owner or of the person in legal possession thereof. |
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| 3746 | 3761 | | |
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| 3747 | 3762 | | (h) A licensee shall not permit an employee or agent in their own name to advertise, engage clients, furnish reports or present bills to clients, or in any manner conduct business for which a license is required under this chapter. All business of the licensee shall be conducted in the name of and under the control of the licensee. |
|---|
| 3748 | 3763 | | |
|---|
| 3749 | 3764 | | (i) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, manager, member, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not knowingly and directly solicit employment from any person who has directly sustained bodily injury or from that persons spouse or other family member to obtain authorization on behalf of the injured person as an investigator to investigate the accident or act that resulted in injury or death to that person or damage to the property of that person. Nothing in this subdivision shall prohibit the soliciting of employment from that injured persons attorney, insurance company, self-insured administrator, insurance adjuster, employer, or any other person having an indirect interest in the investigation of the injury. This subdivision shall not apply to any business agent or attorney employed by a labor organization. A licensee, or officer, director, partner, manager, member, or qualified manager of a licensee shall not pay or compensate any of their employees or agents on the basis of a bonus, bounty, or quota system whereby a premium is placed on the number of employer or client rule violations or infractions purportedly discovered as a result of any investigation made by a licensee. |
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| 3750 | 3765 | | |
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| 3751 | 3766 | | (j) A licensee shall not use a fictitious business name in connection with the official activities of the licensees business, except as provided by the bureau. |
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| 3752 | 3767 | | |
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| 3753 | 3768 | | (k) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 3754 | 3769 | | |
|---|
| 3755 | 3770 | | SEC. 92. Section 7539 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 9 of Chapter 92 of the Statutes of 2018, is amended to read:7539. (a) A licensee or officer, director, partner, or qualified manager of a licensee may divulge to any law enforcement officer or district attorney, or their representative, any information they may acquire as to any criminal offense, but they shall not divulge to any other person, except as otherwise required by law, any information acquired by them except at the direction of the employer or client for whom the information was obtained.(b) A licensee or officer, director, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not knowingly make any false report to their employer or client for whom information was being obtained.(c) A written report shall not be submitted to a client except by the licensee, qualified manager, or a person authorized by one or either of them, and the person submitting the report shall exercise diligence in ascertaining whether or not the facts and information in the report are true and correct.(d) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not use a badge in connection with the official activities of the licensees business.(e) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee, shall not use a title, or wear a uniform, or use an insignia, or use an identification card, or make any statement with the intent to give an impression that they are connected in any way with the federal government, a state government, or any political subdivision of a state government.(f) A licensee, or officer, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not use any identification to indicate that they are licensed as a private investigator other than the official identification card issued by the bureau or the business card regularly used by the business. However, a licensee may issue an employer identification card.(g) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee, shall not enter any private building or portion thereof, except premises commonly accessible to the public, without the consent of the owner or of the person in legal possession thereof.(h) A licensee shall not permit an employee or agent in their own name to advertise, engage clients, furnish reports or present bills to clients, or in any manner conduct business for which a license is required under this chapter. All business of the licensee shall be conducted in the name of and under the control of the licensee.(i) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee, shall not knowingly and directly solicit employment from any person who has directly sustained bodily injury or from that persons spouse or other family member to obtain authorization on behalf of the injured person as an investigator to investigate the accident or act that resulted in injury or death to that person or damage to the property of that person. This subdivision does not prohibit the soliciting of employment from that injured persons attorney, insurance company, self-insured administrator, insurance adjuster, employer, or any other person having an indirect interest in the investigation of the injury. This subdivision does not apply to any business agent or attorney employed by a labor organization. A licensee, officer, director, partner, or qualified manager of a licensee shall not pay or compensate any of their employees or agents on the basis of a bonus, bounty, or quota system whereby a premium is placed on the number of employer or client rule violations or infractions purportedly discovered as a result of any investigation made by a licensee.(j) A licensee shall not use a fictitious business name in connection with the official activities of the licensees business, except as provided by the bureau.(k) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024. |
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| 3756 | 3771 | | |
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| 3757 | 3772 | | SEC. 92. Section 7539 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Section 9 of Chapter 92 of the Statutes of 2018, is amended to read: |
|---|
| 3758 | 3773 | | |
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| 3759 | 3774 | | ### SEC. 92. |
|---|
| 3760 | 3775 | | |
|---|
| 3761 | 3776 | | 7539. (a) A licensee or officer, director, partner, or qualified manager of a licensee may divulge to any law enforcement officer or district attorney, or their representative, any information they may acquire as to any criminal offense, but they shall not divulge to any other person, except as otherwise required by law, any information acquired by them except at the direction of the employer or client for whom the information was obtained.(b) A licensee or officer, director, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not knowingly make any false report to their employer or client for whom information was being obtained.(c) A written report shall not be submitted to a client except by the licensee, qualified manager, or a person authorized by one or either of them, and the person submitting the report shall exercise diligence in ascertaining whether or not the facts and information in the report are true and correct.(d) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not use a badge in connection with the official activities of the licensees business.(e) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee, shall not use a title, or wear a uniform, or use an insignia, or use an identification card, or make any statement with the intent to give an impression that they are connected in any way with the federal government, a state government, or any political subdivision of a state government.(f) A licensee, or officer, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not use any identification to indicate that they are licensed as a private investigator other than the official identification card issued by the bureau or the business card regularly used by the business. However, a licensee may issue an employer identification card.(g) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee, shall not enter any private building or portion thereof, except premises commonly accessible to the public, without the consent of the owner or of the person in legal possession thereof.(h) A licensee shall not permit an employee or agent in their own name to advertise, engage clients, furnish reports or present bills to clients, or in any manner conduct business for which a license is required under this chapter. All business of the licensee shall be conducted in the name of and under the control of the licensee.(i) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee, shall not knowingly and directly solicit employment from any person who has directly sustained bodily injury or from that persons spouse or other family member to obtain authorization on behalf of the injured person as an investigator to investigate the accident or act that resulted in injury or death to that person or damage to the property of that person. This subdivision does not prohibit the soliciting of employment from that injured persons attorney, insurance company, self-insured administrator, insurance adjuster, employer, or any other person having an indirect interest in the investigation of the injury. This subdivision does not apply to any business agent or attorney employed by a labor organization. A licensee, officer, director, partner, or qualified manager of a licensee shall not pay or compensate any of their employees or agents on the basis of a bonus, bounty, or quota system whereby a premium is placed on the number of employer or client rule violations or infractions purportedly discovered as a result of any investigation made by a licensee.(j) A licensee shall not use a fictitious business name in connection with the official activities of the licensees business, except as provided by the bureau.(k) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024. |
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| 3762 | 3777 | | |
|---|
| 3763 | 3778 | | 7539. (a) A licensee or officer, director, partner, or qualified manager of a licensee may divulge to any law enforcement officer or district attorney, or their representative, any information they may acquire as to any criminal offense, but they shall not divulge to any other person, except as otherwise required by law, any information acquired by them except at the direction of the employer or client for whom the information was obtained.(b) A licensee or officer, director, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not knowingly make any false report to their employer or client for whom information was being obtained.(c) A written report shall not be submitted to a client except by the licensee, qualified manager, or a person authorized by one or either of them, and the person submitting the report shall exercise diligence in ascertaining whether or not the facts and information in the report are true and correct.(d) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not use a badge in connection with the official activities of the licensees business.(e) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee, shall not use a title, or wear a uniform, or use an insignia, or use an identification card, or make any statement with the intent to give an impression that they are connected in any way with the federal government, a state government, or any political subdivision of a state government.(f) A licensee, or officer, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not use any identification to indicate that they are licensed as a private investigator other than the official identification card issued by the bureau or the business card regularly used by the business. However, a licensee may issue an employer identification card.(g) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee, shall not enter any private building or portion thereof, except premises commonly accessible to the public, without the consent of the owner or of the person in legal possession thereof.(h) A licensee shall not permit an employee or agent in their own name to advertise, engage clients, furnish reports or present bills to clients, or in any manner conduct business for which a license is required under this chapter. All business of the licensee shall be conducted in the name of and under the control of the licensee.(i) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee, shall not knowingly and directly solicit employment from any person who has directly sustained bodily injury or from that persons spouse or other family member to obtain authorization on behalf of the injured person as an investigator to investigate the accident or act that resulted in injury or death to that person or damage to the property of that person. This subdivision does not prohibit the soliciting of employment from that injured persons attorney, insurance company, self-insured administrator, insurance adjuster, employer, or any other person having an indirect interest in the investigation of the injury. This subdivision does not apply to any business agent or attorney employed by a labor organization. A licensee, officer, director, partner, or qualified manager of a licensee shall not pay or compensate any of their employees or agents on the basis of a bonus, bounty, or quota system whereby a premium is placed on the number of employer or client rule violations or infractions purportedly discovered as a result of any investigation made by a licensee.(j) A licensee shall not use a fictitious business name in connection with the official activities of the licensees business, except as provided by the bureau.(k) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024. |
|---|
| 3764 | 3779 | | |
|---|
| 3765 | 3780 | | 7539. (a) A licensee or officer, director, partner, or qualified manager of a licensee may divulge to any law enforcement officer or district attorney, or their representative, any information they may acquire as to any criminal offense, but they shall not divulge to any other person, except as otherwise required by law, any information acquired by them except at the direction of the employer or client for whom the information was obtained.(b) A licensee or officer, director, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not knowingly make any false report to their employer or client for whom information was being obtained.(c) A written report shall not be submitted to a client except by the licensee, qualified manager, or a person authorized by one or either of them, and the person submitting the report shall exercise diligence in ascertaining whether or not the facts and information in the report are true and correct.(d) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not use a badge in connection with the official activities of the licensees business.(e) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee, shall not use a title, or wear a uniform, or use an insignia, or use an identification card, or make any statement with the intent to give an impression that they are connected in any way with the federal government, a state government, or any political subdivision of a state government.(f) A licensee, or officer, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not use any identification to indicate that they are licensed as a private investigator other than the official identification card issued by the bureau or the business card regularly used by the business. However, a licensee may issue an employer identification card.(g) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee, shall not enter any private building or portion thereof, except premises commonly accessible to the public, without the consent of the owner or of the person in legal possession thereof.(h) A licensee shall not permit an employee or agent in their own name to advertise, engage clients, furnish reports or present bills to clients, or in any manner conduct business for which a license is required under this chapter. All business of the licensee shall be conducted in the name of and under the control of the licensee.(i) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee, shall not knowingly and directly solicit employment from any person who has directly sustained bodily injury or from that persons spouse or other family member to obtain authorization on behalf of the injured person as an investigator to investigate the accident or act that resulted in injury or death to that person or damage to the property of that person. This subdivision does not prohibit the soliciting of employment from that injured persons attorney, insurance company, self-insured administrator, insurance adjuster, employer, or any other person having an indirect interest in the investigation of the injury. This subdivision does not apply to any business agent or attorney employed by a labor organization. A licensee, officer, director, partner, or qualified manager of a licensee shall not pay or compensate any of their employees or agents on the basis of a bonus, bounty, or quota system whereby a premium is placed on the number of employer or client rule violations or infractions purportedly discovered as a result of any investigation made by a licensee.(j) A licensee shall not use a fictitious business name in connection with the official activities of the licensees business, except as provided by the bureau.(k) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024. |
|---|
| 3766 | 3781 | | |
|---|
| 3767 | 3782 | | |
|---|
| 3768 | 3783 | | |
|---|
| 3769 | 3784 | | 7539. (a) A licensee or officer, director, partner, or qualified manager of a licensee may divulge to any law enforcement officer or district attorney, or their representative, any information they may acquire as to any criminal offense, but they shall not divulge to any other person, except as otherwise required by law, any information acquired by them except at the direction of the employer or client for whom the information was obtained. |
|---|
| 3770 | 3785 | | |
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| 3771 | 3786 | | (b) A licensee or officer, director, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not knowingly make any false report to their employer or client for whom information was being obtained. |
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| 3772 | 3787 | | |
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| 3773 | 3788 | | (c) A written report shall not be submitted to a client except by the licensee, qualified manager, or a person authorized by one or either of them, and the person submitting the report shall exercise diligence in ascertaining whether or not the facts and information in the report are true and correct. |
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| 3774 | 3789 | | |
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| 3775 | 3790 | | (d) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not use a badge in connection with the official activities of the licensees business. |
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| 3776 | 3791 | | |
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| 3777 | 3792 | | (e) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee, shall not use a title, or wear a uniform, or use an insignia, or use an identification card, or make any statement with the intent to give an impression that they are connected in any way with the federal government, a state government, or any political subdivision of a state government. |
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| 3778 | 3793 | | |
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| 3779 | 3794 | | (f) A licensee, or officer, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee shall not use any identification to indicate that they are licensed as a private investigator other than the official identification card issued by the bureau or the business card regularly used by the business. However, a licensee may issue an employer identification card. |
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| 3780 | 3795 | | |
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| 3781 | 3796 | | (g) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee, shall not enter any private building or portion thereof, except premises commonly accessible to the public, without the consent of the owner or of the person in legal possession thereof. |
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| 3782 | 3797 | | |
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| 3783 | 3798 | | (h) A licensee shall not permit an employee or agent in their own name to advertise, engage clients, furnish reports or present bills to clients, or in any manner conduct business for which a license is required under this chapter. All business of the licensee shall be conducted in the name of and under the control of the licensee. |
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| 3784 | 3799 | | |
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| 3785 | 3800 | | (i) A licensee, or officer, director, partner, qualified manager, or employee of a licensee, shall not knowingly and directly solicit employment from any person who has directly sustained bodily injury or from that persons spouse or other family member to obtain authorization on behalf of the injured person as an investigator to investigate the accident or act that resulted in injury or death to that person or damage to the property of that person. This subdivision does not prohibit the soliciting of employment from that injured persons attorney, insurance company, self-insured administrator, insurance adjuster, employer, or any other person having an indirect interest in the investigation of the injury. This subdivision does not apply to any business agent or attorney employed by a labor organization. A licensee, officer, director, partner, or qualified manager of a licensee shall not pay or compensate any of their employees or agents on the basis of a bonus, bounty, or quota system whereby a premium is placed on the number of employer or client rule violations or infractions purportedly discovered as a result of any investigation made by a licensee. |
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| 3786 | 3801 | | |
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| 3787 | 3802 | | (j) A licensee shall not use a fictitious business name in connection with the official activities of the licensees business, except as provided by the bureau. |
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| 3788 | 3803 | | |
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| 3789 | 3804 | | (k) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024. |
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| 3790 | 3805 | | |
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| 3791 | 3806 | | SEC. 93. Section 8516 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:8516. (a) This section, and Section 8519, apply only to wood destroying pests or organisms.(b) A registered company or licensee shall not commence work on a contract, or sign, issue, or deliver any documents expressing an opinion or statement relating to the absence or presence of wood destroying pests or organisms until an inspection has been made by a licensed Branch 3 field representative or operator employed by a registered company, except as provided in Section 8519.5. The address of each property inspected or upon which work is completed shall be reported on a form prescribed by the board and shall be filed with the board no later than 10 business days after the commencement of an inspection or upon completed work.Every property inspected pursuant to this subdivision or Section 8518 shall be assessed a filing fee pursuant to Section 8674.Failure of a registered company to report and file with the board the address of any property inspected or work completed pursuant to Section 8518 or this section is grounds for disciplinary action and shall subject the registered company to a fine of not more than two thousand five hundred dollars ($2,500). The address of an inspection report prepared for use by an attorney for litigation purposes shall not be required to be reported to the board and shall not be assessed a filing fee.A written inspection report conforming to this section and a form approved by the board shall be prepared and delivered to the person requesting the inspection and the property owner, or to the property owners designated agent, within 10 business days from the start of the inspection, except that an inspection report prepared for use by an attorney for litigation purposes is not required to be reported to the board or the property owner. An inspection report may be a complete, limited, supplemental, or reinspection report, as defined by Section 1993 of Title 16 of the California Code of Regulations. The report shall be delivered before work is commenced on any property. The registered company shall retain for three years all inspection reports, field notes, and activity forms.Reports shall be made available for inspection and reproduction to the executive officer of the board or their duly authorized representative during business hours. All inspection reports or copies thereof shall be submitted to the board upon demand within two business days. The following shall be set forth in the report:(1) The start date of the inspection and the name of the licensed field representative or operator making the inspection.(2) The name and address of the person or firm ordering the report.(3) The name and address of the property owner and any person who is a party in interest.(4) The address or location of the property.(5) A general description of the building or premises inspected.(6) A foundation diagram or sketch of the structure or structures or portions of the structure or structures inspected, including the approximate location of any infested or infected areas evident, and the parts of the structure where conditions that would ordinarily subject those parts to attack by wood destroying pests or organisms exist. Reporting of the infested or infected wood members, or parts of the structure identified, shall be listed in the inspection report to clearly identify them, as is typical in standard construction components, including, but not limited to, siding, studs, rafters, floor joists, fascia, subfloor, sheathing, and trim boards.(7) Information regarding the substructure, foundation walls and footings, porches, patios and steps, air vents, abutments, attic spaces, roof framing that includes the eaves, rafters, fascias, exposed timbers, exposed sheathing, ceiling joists, and attic walls, or other parts subject to attack by wood destroying pests or organisms. Conditions usually deemed likely to lead to infestation or infection, such as earth-wood contacts, excessive cellulose debris, faulty grade levels, excessive moisture conditions, evidence of roof leaks, and insufficient ventilation are to be reported.(8) One of the following statements, as appropriate, printed in bold type:(A) The exterior surface of the roof was not inspected. If you want the water tightness of the roof determined, you should contact a roofing contractor who is licensed by the Contractors State License Board.(B) The exterior surface of the roof was inspected to determine whether or not wood destroying pests or organisms are present.(9) Indication or description of any areas that are inaccessible or not inspected with recommendation for further inspection if practicable. If, after the report has been made in compliance with this section, authority is given later to open inaccessible areas, a supplemental report on conditions in these areas shall be made.(10) Recommendations for corrective measures.(11) Information regarding the pesticide or pesticides to be used for their control or prevention as set forth in subdivision (a) of Section 8538.(12) The inspection report shall clearly disclose that if requested by the person ordering the original report, a reinspection of the structure will be performed if an estimate or bid for making repairs was given with the original inspection report, or thereafter.An estimate or bid shall be given separately allocating the costs to perform each and every recommendation for corrective measures as specified in subdivision (c) with the original inspection report if the person who ordered the original inspection report so requests, and if the registered company is regularly in the business of performing each corrective measure.If no estimate or bid was given with the original inspection report, or thereafter, then the registered company shall not be required to perform a reinspection.A reinspection shall be an inspection of those items previously listed on an original report to determine if the recommendations have been completed. Each reinspection shall be reported on an original inspection report form and shall be labeled Reinspection. Each reinspection shall also identify the original report by date.After four months from an original inspection, all inspections shall be original inspections and not reinspections.Any reinspection shall be performed for not more than the price of the registered companys original inspection price and shall be completed within 10 business days after a reinspection has been ordered.(13) The inspection report shall contain the following statement, printed in boldface type:NOTICE: Reports on this structure prepared by various registered companies should list the same findings (i.e. termite infestations, termite damage, fungus damage, etc.). However, recommendations to correct these findings may vary from company to company. You have a right to seek a second opinion from another company.(c) At the time a report is ordered, the registered company or licensee shall inform the person or entity ordering the report, that a separate report is available pursuant to this subdivision. If a separate report is requested at the time the inspection report is ordered, the registered company or licensee shall separately identify on the report each recommendation for corrective measures as follows:(1) The infestation or infection that is evident.(2) The conditions that are present that are deemed likely to lead to infestation or infection.If a registered company or licensee fails to inform as required by this subdivision and a dispute arises, or if any other dispute arises as to whether this subdivision has been complied with, a separate report shall be provided within 24 hours of the request but, in no event, later than the next business day, and at no additional cost.(d) When a corrective condition is identified, either as paragraph (1) or (2) of subdivision (c), and the property owner or the property owners designated agent chooses not to correct those conditions, the registered company or licensee shall not be liable for damages resulting from a failure to correct those conditions or subject to any disciplinary action by the board. Nothing in this subdivision, however, shall relieve a registered company or a licensee of any liability resulting from negligence, fraud, dishonest dealing, other violations pursuant to this chapter, or contractual obligations between the registered company or licensee and the responsible parties.(e) The inspection report form prescribed by the board shall separately identify the infestation or infection that is evident and the conditions that are present that are deemed likely to lead to infestation or infection. If a separate form is requested, the form shall explain the infestation or infection that is evident and the conditions that are present that are deemed likely to lead to infestation or infection and the difference between those conditions. In no event, however, shall conditions deemed likely to lead to infestation or infection be characterized as actual defects or as actual active infestations or infections or in need of correction as a precondition to issuing a certification pursuant to Section 8519.(f) The report and any contract entered into shall also state specifically when any guarantee for the work is made, and if so, the specific terms of the guarantee and the period of time for which the guarantee shall be in effect. If a guarantee extends beyond three years, the registered company shall maintain all original inspection reports, field notes, activity forms, and notices of completion for the duration of the guarantee period and for one year after the guarantee expires.(g) For purposes of this section, control service agreement means an agreement, including extended warranties, to have a licensee conduct over a period of time regular inspections and other activities related to the control or eradication of wood destroying pests and organisms. Under a control service agreement a registered company shall refer to the original report and contract in a manner as to identify them clearly, and the report shall be assumed to be a true report of conditions as originally issued, except it may be modified after a control service inspection. A registered company is not required to issue a report as outlined in paragraphs (1) to (11), inclusive, of subdivision (b) after each control service inspection. If after control service inspection, no modification of the original report is made in writing, then it will be assumed that conditions are as originally reported. A control service contract shall state specifically the particular wood destroying pests or organisms and the portions of the buildings or structures covered by the contract.(h) A registered company or licensee may enter into and maintain a control service agreement provided the following requirements are met:(1) The control service agreement shall be in writing, signed by both parties, and shall specifically include the following:(A) The wood destroying pests and organisms covered by the control service agreement.(B) Any wood destroying pest or organism that is not covered must be specifically listed.(C) The type and manner of treatment to be used to correct the infestations or infections.(D) The structures or buildings, or portions thereof, covered by the agreement, including a statement specifying whether the coverage for purposes of periodic inspections is limited or full. Any exclusions from those described in the original report must be specifically listed.(E) A reference to the original inspection report.(F) The frequency of the inspections to be provided, the fee to be charged for each renewal, and the duration of the agreement.(G) Whether the fee includes structural repairs.(H) If the services provided are guaranteed, and, if so, the terms of the guarantee.(I) A statement that all corrections of infestations or infections covered by the control service agreement shall be completed within six months of discovery, unless otherwise agreed to in writing by both parties.(2) The original inspection report, the control service agreement, and completion report shall be maintained for three years after the cancellation of the control service agreement.(3) Inspections made pursuant to a control service agreement shall be conducted by a Branch 3 licensee. Section 8506.1 does not modify this provision.(4) A full inspection of the property covered by the control service agreement shall be conducted and a report filed pursuant to subdivision (b) at least once every three years from the date that the agreement was entered into, unless the consumer cancels the contract within three years from the date the agreement was entered into.(5) Under a control service agreement, a written report shall be required for the correction of any infestation or infection unless all of the following conditions are met:(A) The infestation or infection has been previously reported.(B) The infestation or infection is covered by the control service agreement.(C) There is no additional charge for correcting the infestation or infection.(D) Correction of the infestation or infection takes place within 45 days of its discovery.(E) Correction of the infestation or infection does not include fumigation.(6) All notice requirements pursuant to Section 8538 shall apply to all pesticide treatments conducted under control service agreements.(i) All work recommended by a registered company, where an estimate or bid for making repairs was given with the original inspection report, or thereafter, shall be recorded on this report or a separate work agreement and shall specify a price for each recommendation. This information shall be provided to the person requesting the inspection, and shall be retained by the registered company with the inspection report copy for three years. |
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| 3792 | 3807 | | |
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| 3793 | 3808 | | SEC. 93. Section 8516 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
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| 3794 | 3809 | | |
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| 3795 | 3810 | | ### SEC. 93. |
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| 3796 | 3811 | | |
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| 3797 | 3812 | | 8516. (a) This section, and Section 8519, apply only to wood destroying pests or organisms.(b) A registered company or licensee shall not commence work on a contract, or sign, issue, or deliver any documents expressing an opinion or statement relating to the absence or presence of wood destroying pests or organisms until an inspection has been made by a licensed Branch 3 field representative or operator employed by a registered company, except as provided in Section 8519.5. The address of each property inspected or upon which work is completed shall be reported on a form prescribed by the board and shall be filed with the board no later than 10 business days after the commencement of an inspection or upon completed work.Every property inspected pursuant to this subdivision or Section 8518 shall be assessed a filing fee pursuant to Section 8674.Failure of a registered company to report and file with the board the address of any property inspected or work completed pursuant to Section 8518 or this section is grounds for disciplinary action and shall subject the registered company to a fine of not more than two thousand five hundred dollars ($2,500). The address of an inspection report prepared for use by an attorney for litigation purposes shall not be required to be reported to the board and shall not be assessed a filing fee.A written inspection report conforming to this section and a form approved by the board shall be prepared and delivered to the person requesting the inspection and the property owner, or to the property owners designated agent, within 10 business days from the start of the inspection, except that an inspection report prepared for use by an attorney for litigation purposes is not required to be reported to the board or the property owner. An inspection report may be a complete, limited, supplemental, or reinspection report, as defined by Section 1993 of Title 16 of the California Code of Regulations. The report shall be delivered before work is commenced on any property. The registered company shall retain for three years all inspection reports, field notes, and activity forms.Reports shall be made available for inspection and reproduction to the executive officer of the board or their duly authorized representative during business hours. All inspection reports or copies thereof shall be submitted to the board upon demand within two business days. The following shall be set forth in the report:(1) The start date of the inspection and the name of the licensed field representative or operator making the inspection.(2) The name and address of the person or firm ordering the report.(3) The name and address of the property owner and any person who is a party in interest.(4) The address or location of the property.(5) A general description of the building or premises inspected.(6) A foundation diagram or sketch of the structure or structures or portions of the structure or structures inspected, including the approximate location of any infested or infected areas evident, and the parts of the structure where conditions that would ordinarily subject those parts to attack by wood destroying pests or organisms exist. Reporting of the infested or infected wood members, or parts of the structure identified, shall be listed in the inspection report to clearly identify them, as is typical in standard construction components, including, but not limited to, siding, studs, rafters, floor joists, fascia, subfloor, sheathing, and trim boards.(7) Information regarding the substructure, foundation walls and footings, porches, patios and steps, air vents, abutments, attic spaces, roof framing that includes the eaves, rafters, fascias, exposed timbers, exposed sheathing, ceiling joists, and attic walls, or other parts subject to attack by wood destroying pests or organisms. Conditions usually deemed likely to lead to infestation or infection, such as earth-wood contacts, excessive cellulose debris, faulty grade levels, excessive moisture conditions, evidence of roof leaks, and insufficient ventilation are to be reported.(8) One of the following statements, as appropriate, printed in bold type:(A) The exterior surface of the roof was not inspected. If you want the water tightness of the roof determined, you should contact a roofing contractor who is licensed by the Contractors State License Board.(B) The exterior surface of the roof was inspected to determine whether or not wood destroying pests or organisms are present.(9) Indication or description of any areas that are inaccessible or not inspected with recommendation for further inspection if practicable. If, after the report has been made in compliance with this section, authority is given later to open inaccessible areas, a supplemental report on conditions in these areas shall be made.(10) Recommendations for corrective measures.(11) Information regarding the pesticide or pesticides to be used for their control or prevention as set forth in subdivision (a) of Section 8538.(12) The inspection report shall clearly disclose that if requested by the person ordering the original report, a reinspection of the structure will be performed if an estimate or bid for making repairs was given with the original inspection report, or thereafter.An estimate or bid shall be given separately allocating the costs to perform each and every recommendation for corrective measures as specified in subdivision (c) with the original inspection report if the person who ordered the original inspection report so requests, and if the registered company is regularly in the business of performing each corrective measure.If no estimate or bid was given with the original inspection report, or thereafter, then the registered company shall not be required to perform a reinspection.A reinspection shall be an inspection of those items previously listed on an original report to determine if the recommendations have been completed. Each reinspection shall be reported on an original inspection report form and shall be labeled Reinspection. Each reinspection shall also identify the original report by date.After four months from an original inspection, all inspections shall be original inspections and not reinspections.Any reinspection shall be performed for not more than the price of the registered companys original inspection price and shall be completed within 10 business days after a reinspection has been ordered.(13) The inspection report shall contain the following statement, printed in boldface type:NOTICE: Reports on this structure prepared by various registered companies should list the same findings (i.e. termite infestations, termite damage, fungus damage, etc.). However, recommendations to correct these findings may vary from company to company. You have a right to seek a second opinion from another company.(c) At the time a report is ordered, the registered company or licensee shall inform the person or entity ordering the report, that a separate report is available pursuant to this subdivision. If a separate report is requested at the time the inspection report is ordered, the registered company or licensee shall separately identify on the report each recommendation for corrective measures as follows:(1) The infestation or infection that is evident.(2) The conditions that are present that are deemed likely to lead to infestation or infection.If a registered company or licensee fails to inform as required by this subdivision and a dispute arises, or if any other dispute arises as to whether this subdivision has been complied with, a separate report shall be provided within 24 hours of the request but, in no event, later than the next business day, and at no additional cost.(d) When a corrective condition is identified, either as paragraph (1) or (2) of subdivision (c), and the property owner or the property owners designated agent chooses not to correct those conditions, the registered company or licensee shall not be liable for damages resulting from a failure to correct those conditions or subject to any disciplinary action by the board. Nothing in this subdivision, however, shall relieve a registered company or a licensee of any liability resulting from negligence, fraud, dishonest dealing, other violations pursuant to this chapter, or contractual obligations between the registered company or licensee and the responsible parties.(e) The inspection report form prescribed by the board shall separately identify the infestation or infection that is evident and the conditions that are present that are deemed likely to lead to infestation or infection. If a separate form is requested, the form shall explain the infestation or infection that is evident and the conditions that are present that are deemed likely to lead to infestation or infection and the difference between those conditions. In no event, however, shall conditions deemed likely to lead to infestation or infection be characterized as actual defects or as actual active infestations or infections or in need of correction as a precondition to issuing a certification pursuant to Section 8519.(f) The report and any contract entered into shall also state specifically when any guarantee for the work is made, and if so, the specific terms of the guarantee and the period of time for which the guarantee shall be in effect. If a guarantee extends beyond three years, the registered company shall maintain all original inspection reports, field notes, activity forms, and notices of completion for the duration of the guarantee period and for one year after the guarantee expires.(g) For purposes of this section, control service agreement means an agreement, including extended warranties, to have a licensee conduct over a period of time regular inspections and other activities related to the control or eradication of wood destroying pests and organisms. Under a control service agreement a registered company shall refer to the original report and contract in a manner as to identify them clearly, and the report shall be assumed to be a true report of conditions as originally issued, except it may be modified after a control service inspection. A registered company is not required to issue a report as outlined in paragraphs (1) to (11), inclusive, of subdivision (b) after each control service inspection. If after control service inspection, no modification of the original report is made in writing, then it will be assumed that conditions are as originally reported. A control service contract shall state specifically the particular wood destroying pests or organisms and the portions of the buildings or structures covered by the contract.(h) A registered company or licensee may enter into and maintain a control service agreement provided the following requirements are met:(1) The control service agreement shall be in writing, signed by both parties, and shall specifically include the following:(A) The wood destroying pests and organisms covered by the control service agreement.(B) Any wood destroying pest or organism that is not covered must be specifically listed.(C) The type and manner of treatment to be used to correct the infestations or infections.(D) The structures or buildings, or portions thereof, covered by the agreement, including a statement specifying whether the coverage for purposes of periodic inspections is limited or full. Any exclusions from those described in the original report must be specifically listed.(E) A reference to the original inspection report.(F) The frequency of the inspections to be provided, the fee to be charged for each renewal, and the duration of the agreement.(G) Whether the fee includes structural repairs.(H) If the services provided are guaranteed, and, if so, the terms of the guarantee.(I) A statement that all corrections of infestations or infections covered by the control service agreement shall be completed within six months of discovery, unless otherwise agreed to in writing by both parties.(2) The original inspection report, the control service agreement, and completion report shall be maintained for three years after the cancellation of the control service agreement.(3) Inspections made pursuant to a control service agreement shall be conducted by a Branch 3 licensee. Section 8506.1 does not modify this provision.(4) A full inspection of the property covered by the control service agreement shall be conducted and a report filed pursuant to subdivision (b) at least once every three years from the date that the agreement was entered into, unless the consumer cancels the contract within three years from the date the agreement was entered into.(5) Under a control service agreement, a written report shall be required for the correction of any infestation or infection unless all of the following conditions are met:(A) The infestation or infection has been previously reported.(B) The infestation or infection is covered by the control service agreement.(C) There is no additional charge for correcting the infestation or infection.(D) Correction of the infestation or infection takes place within 45 days of its discovery.(E) Correction of the infestation or infection does not include fumigation.(6) All notice requirements pursuant to Section 8538 shall apply to all pesticide treatments conducted under control service agreements.(i) All work recommended by a registered company, where an estimate or bid for making repairs was given with the original inspection report, or thereafter, shall be recorded on this report or a separate work agreement and shall specify a price for each recommendation. This information shall be provided to the person requesting the inspection, and shall be retained by the registered company with the inspection report copy for three years. |
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| 3798 | 3813 | | |
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| 3799 | 3814 | | 8516. (a) This section, and Section 8519, apply only to wood destroying pests or organisms.(b) A registered company or licensee shall not commence work on a contract, or sign, issue, or deliver any documents expressing an opinion or statement relating to the absence or presence of wood destroying pests or organisms until an inspection has been made by a licensed Branch 3 field representative or operator employed by a registered company, except as provided in Section 8519.5. The address of each property inspected or upon which work is completed shall be reported on a form prescribed by the board and shall be filed with the board no later than 10 business days after the commencement of an inspection or upon completed work.Every property inspected pursuant to this subdivision or Section 8518 shall be assessed a filing fee pursuant to Section 8674.Failure of a registered company to report and file with the board the address of any property inspected or work completed pursuant to Section 8518 or this section is grounds for disciplinary action and shall subject the registered company to a fine of not more than two thousand five hundred dollars ($2,500). The address of an inspection report prepared for use by an attorney for litigation purposes shall not be required to be reported to the board and shall not be assessed a filing fee.A written inspection report conforming to this section and a form approved by the board shall be prepared and delivered to the person requesting the inspection and the property owner, or to the property owners designated agent, within 10 business days from the start of the inspection, except that an inspection report prepared for use by an attorney for litigation purposes is not required to be reported to the board or the property owner. An inspection report may be a complete, limited, supplemental, or reinspection report, as defined by Section 1993 of Title 16 of the California Code of Regulations. The report shall be delivered before work is commenced on any property. The registered company shall retain for three years all inspection reports, field notes, and activity forms.Reports shall be made available for inspection and reproduction to the executive officer of the board or their duly authorized representative during business hours. All inspection reports or copies thereof shall be submitted to the board upon demand within two business days. The following shall be set forth in the report:(1) The start date of the inspection and the name of the licensed field representative or operator making the inspection.(2) The name and address of the person or firm ordering the report.(3) The name and address of the property owner and any person who is a party in interest.(4) The address or location of the property.(5) A general description of the building or premises inspected.(6) A foundation diagram or sketch of the structure or structures or portions of the structure or structures inspected, including the approximate location of any infested or infected areas evident, and the parts of the structure where conditions that would ordinarily subject those parts to attack by wood destroying pests or organisms exist. Reporting of the infested or infected wood members, or parts of the structure identified, shall be listed in the inspection report to clearly identify them, as is typical in standard construction components, including, but not limited to, siding, studs, rafters, floor joists, fascia, subfloor, sheathing, and trim boards.(7) Information regarding the substructure, foundation walls and footings, porches, patios and steps, air vents, abutments, attic spaces, roof framing that includes the eaves, rafters, fascias, exposed timbers, exposed sheathing, ceiling joists, and attic walls, or other parts subject to attack by wood destroying pests or organisms. Conditions usually deemed likely to lead to infestation or infection, such as earth-wood contacts, excessive cellulose debris, faulty grade levels, excessive moisture conditions, evidence of roof leaks, and insufficient ventilation are to be reported.(8) One of the following statements, as appropriate, printed in bold type:(A) The exterior surface of the roof was not inspected. If you want the water tightness of the roof determined, you should contact a roofing contractor who is licensed by the Contractors State License Board.(B) The exterior surface of the roof was inspected to determine whether or not wood destroying pests or organisms are present.(9) Indication or description of any areas that are inaccessible or not inspected with recommendation for further inspection if practicable. If, after the report has been made in compliance with this section, authority is given later to open inaccessible areas, a supplemental report on conditions in these areas shall be made.(10) Recommendations for corrective measures.(11) Information regarding the pesticide or pesticides to be used for their control or prevention as set forth in subdivision (a) of Section 8538.(12) The inspection report shall clearly disclose that if requested by the person ordering the original report, a reinspection of the structure will be performed if an estimate or bid for making repairs was given with the original inspection report, or thereafter.An estimate or bid shall be given separately allocating the costs to perform each and every recommendation for corrective measures as specified in subdivision (c) with the original inspection report if the person who ordered the original inspection report so requests, and if the registered company is regularly in the business of performing each corrective measure.If no estimate or bid was given with the original inspection report, or thereafter, then the registered company shall not be required to perform a reinspection.A reinspection shall be an inspection of those items previously listed on an original report to determine if the recommendations have been completed. Each reinspection shall be reported on an original inspection report form and shall be labeled Reinspection. Each reinspection shall also identify the original report by date.After four months from an original inspection, all inspections shall be original inspections and not reinspections.Any reinspection shall be performed for not more than the price of the registered companys original inspection price and shall be completed within 10 business days after a reinspection has been ordered.(13) The inspection report shall contain the following statement, printed in boldface type:NOTICE: Reports on this structure prepared by various registered companies should list the same findings (i.e. termite infestations, termite damage, fungus damage, etc.). However, recommendations to correct these findings may vary from company to company. You have a right to seek a second opinion from another company.(c) At the time a report is ordered, the registered company or licensee shall inform the person or entity ordering the report, that a separate report is available pursuant to this subdivision. If a separate report is requested at the time the inspection report is ordered, the registered company or licensee shall separately identify on the report each recommendation for corrective measures as follows:(1) The infestation or infection that is evident.(2) The conditions that are present that are deemed likely to lead to infestation or infection.If a registered company or licensee fails to inform as required by this subdivision and a dispute arises, or if any other dispute arises as to whether this subdivision has been complied with, a separate report shall be provided within 24 hours of the request but, in no event, later than the next business day, and at no additional cost.(d) When a corrective condition is identified, either as paragraph (1) or (2) of subdivision (c), and the property owner or the property owners designated agent chooses not to correct those conditions, the registered company or licensee shall not be liable for damages resulting from a failure to correct those conditions or subject to any disciplinary action by the board. Nothing in this subdivision, however, shall relieve a registered company or a licensee of any liability resulting from negligence, fraud, dishonest dealing, other violations pursuant to this chapter, or contractual obligations between the registered company or licensee and the responsible parties.(e) The inspection report form prescribed by the board shall separately identify the infestation or infection that is evident and the conditions that are present that are deemed likely to lead to infestation or infection. If a separate form is requested, the form shall explain the infestation or infection that is evident and the conditions that are present that are deemed likely to lead to infestation or infection and the difference between those conditions. In no event, however, shall conditions deemed likely to lead to infestation or infection be characterized as actual defects or as actual active infestations or infections or in need of correction as a precondition to issuing a certification pursuant to Section 8519.(f) The report and any contract entered into shall also state specifically when any guarantee for the work is made, and if so, the specific terms of the guarantee and the period of time for which the guarantee shall be in effect. If a guarantee extends beyond three years, the registered company shall maintain all original inspection reports, field notes, activity forms, and notices of completion for the duration of the guarantee period and for one year after the guarantee expires.(g) For purposes of this section, control service agreement means an agreement, including extended warranties, to have a licensee conduct over a period of time regular inspections and other activities related to the control or eradication of wood destroying pests and organisms. Under a control service agreement a registered company shall refer to the original report and contract in a manner as to identify them clearly, and the report shall be assumed to be a true report of conditions as originally issued, except it may be modified after a control service inspection. A registered company is not required to issue a report as outlined in paragraphs (1) to (11), inclusive, of subdivision (b) after each control service inspection. If after control service inspection, no modification of the original report is made in writing, then it will be assumed that conditions are as originally reported. A control service contract shall state specifically the particular wood destroying pests or organisms and the portions of the buildings or structures covered by the contract.(h) A registered company or licensee may enter into and maintain a control service agreement provided the following requirements are met:(1) The control service agreement shall be in writing, signed by both parties, and shall specifically include the following:(A) The wood destroying pests and organisms covered by the control service agreement.(B) Any wood destroying pest or organism that is not covered must be specifically listed.(C) The type and manner of treatment to be used to correct the infestations or infections.(D) The structures or buildings, or portions thereof, covered by the agreement, including a statement specifying whether the coverage for purposes of periodic inspections is limited or full. Any exclusions from those described in the original report must be specifically listed.(E) A reference to the original inspection report.(F) The frequency of the inspections to be provided, the fee to be charged for each renewal, and the duration of the agreement.(G) Whether the fee includes structural repairs.(H) If the services provided are guaranteed, and, if so, the terms of the guarantee.(I) A statement that all corrections of infestations or infections covered by the control service agreement shall be completed within six months of discovery, unless otherwise agreed to in writing by both parties.(2) The original inspection report, the control service agreement, and completion report shall be maintained for three years after the cancellation of the control service agreement.(3) Inspections made pursuant to a control service agreement shall be conducted by a Branch 3 licensee. Section 8506.1 does not modify this provision.(4) A full inspection of the property covered by the control service agreement shall be conducted and a report filed pursuant to subdivision (b) at least once every three years from the date that the agreement was entered into, unless the consumer cancels the contract within three years from the date the agreement was entered into.(5) Under a control service agreement, a written report shall be required for the correction of any infestation or infection unless all of the following conditions are met:(A) The infestation or infection has been previously reported.(B) The infestation or infection is covered by the control service agreement.(C) There is no additional charge for correcting the infestation or infection.(D) Correction of the infestation or infection takes place within 45 days of its discovery.(E) Correction of the infestation or infection does not include fumigation.(6) All notice requirements pursuant to Section 8538 shall apply to all pesticide treatments conducted under control service agreements.(i) All work recommended by a registered company, where an estimate or bid for making repairs was given with the original inspection report, or thereafter, shall be recorded on this report or a separate work agreement and shall specify a price for each recommendation. This information shall be provided to the person requesting the inspection, and shall be retained by the registered company with the inspection report copy for three years. |
|---|
| 3800 | 3815 | | |
|---|
| 3801 | 3816 | | 8516. (a) This section, and Section 8519, apply only to wood destroying pests or organisms.(b) A registered company or licensee shall not commence work on a contract, or sign, issue, or deliver any documents expressing an opinion or statement relating to the absence or presence of wood destroying pests or organisms until an inspection has been made by a licensed Branch 3 field representative or operator employed by a registered company, except as provided in Section 8519.5. The address of each property inspected or upon which work is completed shall be reported on a form prescribed by the board and shall be filed with the board no later than 10 business days after the commencement of an inspection or upon completed work.Every property inspected pursuant to this subdivision or Section 8518 shall be assessed a filing fee pursuant to Section 8674.Failure of a registered company to report and file with the board the address of any property inspected or work completed pursuant to Section 8518 or this section is grounds for disciplinary action and shall subject the registered company to a fine of not more than two thousand five hundred dollars ($2,500). The address of an inspection report prepared for use by an attorney for litigation purposes shall not be required to be reported to the board and shall not be assessed a filing fee.A written inspection report conforming to this section and a form approved by the board shall be prepared and delivered to the person requesting the inspection and the property owner, or to the property owners designated agent, within 10 business days from the start of the inspection, except that an inspection report prepared for use by an attorney for litigation purposes is not required to be reported to the board or the property owner. An inspection report may be a complete, limited, supplemental, or reinspection report, as defined by Section 1993 of Title 16 of the California Code of Regulations. The report shall be delivered before work is commenced on any property. The registered company shall retain for three years all inspection reports, field notes, and activity forms.Reports shall be made available for inspection and reproduction to the executive officer of the board or their duly authorized representative during business hours. All inspection reports or copies thereof shall be submitted to the board upon demand within two business days. The following shall be set forth in the report:(1) The start date of the inspection and the name of the licensed field representative or operator making the inspection.(2) The name and address of the person or firm ordering the report.(3) The name and address of the property owner and any person who is a party in interest.(4) The address or location of the property.(5) A general description of the building or premises inspected.(6) A foundation diagram or sketch of the structure or structures or portions of the structure or structures inspected, including the approximate location of any infested or infected areas evident, and the parts of the structure where conditions that would ordinarily subject those parts to attack by wood destroying pests or organisms exist. Reporting of the infested or infected wood members, or parts of the structure identified, shall be listed in the inspection report to clearly identify them, as is typical in standard construction components, including, but not limited to, siding, studs, rafters, floor joists, fascia, subfloor, sheathing, and trim boards.(7) Information regarding the substructure, foundation walls and footings, porches, patios and steps, air vents, abutments, attic spaces, roof framing that includes the eaves, rafters, fascias, exposed timbers, exposed sheathing, ceiling joists, and attic walls, or other parts subject to attack by wood destroying pests or organisms. Conditions usually deemed likely to lead to infestation or infection, such as earth-wood contacts, excessive cellulose debris, faulty grade levels, excessive moisture conditions, evidence of roof leaks, and insufficient ventilation are to be reported.(8) One of the following statements, as appropriate, printed in bold type:(A) The exterior surface of the roof was not inspected. If you want the water tightness of the roof determined, you should contact a roofing contractor who is licensed by the Contractors State License Board.(B) The exterior surface of the roof was inspected to determine whether or not wood destroying pests or organisms are present.(9) Indication or description of any areas that are inaccessible or not inspected with recommendation for further inspection if practicable. If, after the report has been made in compliance with this section, authority is given later to open inaccessible areas, a supplemental report on conditions in these areas shall be made.(10) Recommendations for corrective measures.(11) Information regarding the pesticide or pesticides to be used for their control or prevention as set forth in subdivision (a) of Section 8538.(12) The inspection report shall clearly disclose that if requested by the person ordering the original report, a reinspection of the structure will be performed if an estimate or bid for making repairs was given with the original inspection report, or thereafter.An estimate or bid shall be given separately allocating the costs to perform each and every recommendation for corrective measures as specified in subdivision (c) with the original inspection report if the person who ordered the original inspection report so requests, and if the registered company is regularly in the business of performing each corrective measure.If no estimate or bid was given with the original inspection report, or thereafter, then the registered company shall not be required to perform a reinspection.A reinspection shall be an inspection of those items previously listed on an original report to determine if the recommendations have been completed. Each reinspection shall be reported on an original inspection report form and shall be labeled Reinspection. Each reinspection shall also identify the original report by date.After four months from an original inspection, all inspections shall be original inspections and not reinspections.Any reinspection shall be performed for not more than the price of the registered companys original inspection price and shall be completed within 10 business days after a reinspection has been ordered.(13) The inspection report shall contain the following statement, printed in boldface type:NOTICE: Reports on this structure prepared by various registered companies should list the same findings (i.e. termite infestations, termite damage, fungus damage, etc.). However, recommendations to correct these findings may vary from company to company. You have a right to seek a second opinion from another company.(c) At the time a report is ordered, the registered company or licensee shall inform the person or entity ordering the report, that a separate report is available pursuant to this subdivision. If a separate report is requested at the time the inspection report is ordered, the registered company or licensee shall separately identify on the report each recommendation for corrective measures as follows:(1) The infestation or infection that is evident.(2) The conditions that are present that are deemed likely to lead to infestation or infection.If a registered company or licensee fails to inform as required by this subdivision and a dispute arises, or if any other dispute arises as to whether this subdivision has been complied with, a separate report shall be provided within 24 hours of the request but, in no event, later than the next business day, and at no additional cost.(d) When a corrective condition is identified, either as paragraph (1) or (2) of subdivision (c), and the property owner or the property owners designated agent chooses not to correct those conditions, the registered company or licensee shall not be liable for damages resulting from a failure to correct those conditions or subject to any disciplinary action by the board. Nothing in this subdivision, however, shall relieve a registered company or a licensee of any liability resulting from negligence, fraud, dishonest dealing, other violations pursuant to this chapter, or contractual obligations between the registered company or licensee and the responsible parties.(e) The inspection report form prescribed by the board shall separately identify the infestation or infection that is evident and the conditions that are present that are deemed likely to lead to infestation or infection. If a separate form is requested, the form shall explain the infestation or infection that is evident and the conditions that are present that are deemed likely to lead to infestation or infection and the difference between those conditions. In no event, however, shall conditions deemed likely to lead to infestation or infection be characterized as actual defects or as actual active infestations or infections or in need of correction as a precondition to issuing a certification pursuant to Section 8519.(f) The report and any contract entered into shall also state specifically when any guarantee for the work is made, and if so, the specific terms of the guarantee and the period of time for which the guarantee shall be in effect. If a guarantee extends beyond three years, the registered company shall maintain all original inspection reports, field notes, activity forms, and notices of completion for the duration of the guarantee period and for one year after the guarantee expires.(g) For purposes of this section, control service agreement means an agreement, including extended warranties, to have a licensee conduct over a period of time regular inspections and other activities related to the control or eradication of wood destroying pests and organisms. Under a control service agreement a registered company shall refer to the original report and contract in a manner as to identify them clearly, and the report shall be assumed to be a true report of conditions as originally issued, except it may be modified after a control service inspection. A registered company is not required to issue a report as outlined in paragraphs (1) to (11), inclusive, of subdivision (b) after each control service inspection. If after control service inspection, no modification of the original report is made in writing, then it will be assumed that conditions are as originally reported. A control service contract shall state specifically the particular wood destroying pests or organisms and the portions of the buildings or structures covered by the contract.(h) A registered company or licensee may enter into and maintain a control service agreement provided the following requirements are met:(1) The control service agreement shall be in writing, signed by both parties, and shall specifically include the following:(A) The wood destroying pests and organisms covered by the control service agreement.(B) Any wood destroying pest or organism that is not covered must be specifically listed.(C) The type and manner of treatment to be used to correct the infestations or infections.(D) The structures or buildings, or portions thereof, covered by the agreement, including a statement specifying whether the coverage for purposes of periodic inspections is limited or full. Any exclusions from those described in the original report must be specifically listed.(E) A reference to the original inspection report.(F) The frequency of the inspections to be provided, the fee to be charged for each renewal, and the duration of the agreement.(G) Whether the fee includes structural repairs.(H) If the services provided are guaranteed, and, if so, the terms of the guarantee.(I) A statement that all corrections of infestations or infections covered by the control service agreement shall be completed within six months of discovery, unless otherwise agreed to in writing by both parties.(2) The original inspection report, the control service agreement, and completion report shall be maintained for three years after the cancellation of the control service agreement.(3) Inspections made pursuant to a control service agreement shall be conducted by a Branch 3 licensee. Section 8506.1 does not modify this provision.(4) A full inspection of the property covered by the control service agreement shall be conducted and a report filed pursuant to subdivision (b) at least once every three years from the date that the agreement was entered into, unless the consumer cancels the contract within three years from the date the agreement was entered into.(5) Under a control service agreement, a written report shall be required for the correction of any infestation or infection unless all of the following conditions are met:(A) The infestation or infection has been previously reported.(B) The infestation or infection is covered by the control service agreement.(C) There is no additional charge for correcting the infestation or infection.(D) Correction of the infestation or infection takes place within 45 days of its discovery.(E) Correction of the infestation or infection does not include fumigation.(6) All notice requirements pursuant to Section 8538 shall apply to all pesticide treatments conducted under control service agreements.(i) All work recommended by a registered company, where an estimate or bid for making repairs was given with the original inspection report, or thereafter, shall be recorded on this report or a separate work agreement and shall specify a price for each recommendation. This information shall be provided to the person requesting the inspection, and shall be retained by the registered company with the inspection report copy for three years. |
|---|
| 3802 | 3817 | | |
|---|
| 3803 | 3818 | | |
|---|
| 3804 | 3819 | | |
|---|
| 3805 | 3820 | | 8516. (a) This section, and Section 8519, apply only to wood destroying pests or organisms. |
|---|
| 3806 | 3821 | | |
|---|
| 3807 | 3822 | | (b) A registered company or licensee shall not commence work on a contract, or sign, issue, or deliver any documents expressing an opinion or statement relating to the absence or presence of wood destroying pests or organisms until an inspection has been made by a licensed Branch 3 field representative or operator employed by a registered company, except as provided in Section 8519.5. The address of each property inspected or upon which work is completed shall be reported on a form prescribed by the board and shall be filed with the board no later than 10 business days after the commencement of an inspection or upon completed work. |
|---|
| 3808 | 3823 | | |
|---|
| 3809 | 3824 | | Every property inspected pursuant to this subdivision or Section 8518 shall be assessed a filing fee pursuant to Section 8674. |
|---|
| 3810 | 3825 | | |
|---|
| 3811 | 3826 | | Failure of a registered company to report and file with the board the address of any property inspected or work completed pursuant to Section 8518 or this section is grounds for disciplinary action and shall subject the registered company to a fine of not more than two thousand five hundred dollars ($2,500). The address of an inspection report prepared for use by an attorney for litigation purposes shall not be required to be reported to the board and shall not be assessed a filing fee. |
|---|
| 3812 | 3827 | | |
|---|
| 3813 | 3828 | | A written inspection report conforming to this section and a form approved by the board shall be prepared and delivered to the person requesting the inspection and the property owner, or to the property owners designated agent, within 10 business days from the start of the inspection, except that an inspection report prepared for use by an attorney for litigation purposes is not required to be reported to the board or the property owner. An inspection report may be a complete, limited, supplemental, or reinspection report, as defined by Section 1993 of Title 16 of the California Code of Regulations. The report shall be delivered before work is commenced on any property. The registered company shall retain for three years all inspection reports, field notes, and activity forms. |
|---|
| 3814 | 3829 | | |
|---|
| 3815 | 3830 | | Reports shall be made available for inspection and reproduction to the executive officer of the board or their duly authorized representative during business hours. All inspection reports or copies thereof shall be submitted to the board upon demand within two business days. The following shall be set forth in the report: |
|---|
| 3816 | 3831 | | |
|---|
| 3817 | 3832 | | (1) The start date of the inspection and the name of the licensed field representative or operator making the inspection. |
|---|
| 3818 | 3833 | | |
|---|
| 3819 | 3834 | | (2) The name and address of the person or firm ordering the report. |
|---|
| 3820 | 3835 | | |
|---|
| 3821 | 3836 | | (3) The name and address of the property owner and any person who is a party in interest. |
|---|
| 3822 | 3837 | | |
|---|
| 3823 | 3838 | | (4) The address or location of the property. |
|---|
| 3824 | 3839 | | |
|---|
| 3825 | 3840 | | (5) A general description of the building or premises inspected. |
|---|
| 3826 | 3841 | | |
|---|
| 3827 | 3842 | | (6) A foundation diagram or sketch of the structure or structures or portions of the structure or structures inspected, including the approximate location of any infested or infected areas evident, and the parts of the structure where conditions that would ordinarily subject those parts to attack by wood destroying pests or organisms exist. Reporting of the infested or infected wood members, or parts of the structure identified, shall be listed in the inspection report to clearly identify them, as is typical in standard construction components, including, but not limited to, siding, studs, rafters, floor joists, fascia, subfloor, sheathing, and trim boards. |
|---|
| 3828 | 3843 | | |
|---|
| 3829 | 3844 | | (7) Information regarding the substructure, foundation walls and footings, porches, patios and steps, air vents, abutments, attic spaces, roof framing that includes the eaves, rafters, fascias, exposed timbers, exposed sheathing, ceiling joists, and attic walls, or other parts subject to attack by wood destroying pests or organisms. Conditions usually deemed likely to lead to infestation or infection, such as earth-wood contacts, excessive cellulose debris, faulty grade levels, excessive moisture conditions, evidence of roof leaks, and insufficient ventilation are to be reported. |
|---|
| 3830 | 3845 | | |
|---|
| 3831 | 3846 | | (8) One of the following statements, as appropriate, printed in bold type: |
|---|
| 3832 | 3847 | | |
|---|
| 3833 | 3848 | | (A) The exterior surface of the roof was not inspected. If you want the water tightness of the roof determined, you should contact a roofing contractor who is licensed by the Contractors State License Board. |
|---|
| 3834 | 3849 | | |
|---|
| 3835 | 3850 | | (B) The exterior surface of the roof was inspected to determine whether or not wood destroying pests or organisms are present. |
|---|
| 3836 | 3851 | | |
|---|
| 3837 | 3852 | | (9) Indication or description of any areas that are inaccessible or not inspected with recommendation for further inspection if practicable. If, after the report has been made in compliance with this section, authority is given later to open inaccessible areas, a supplemental report on conditions in these areas shall be made. |
|---|
| 3838 | 3853 | | |
|---|
| 3839 | 3854 | | (10) Recommendations for corrective measures. |
|---|
| 3840 | 3855 | | |
|---|
| 3841 | 3856 | | (11) Information regarding the pesticide or pesticides to be used for their control or prevention as set forth in subdivision (a) of Section 8538. |
|---|
| 3842 | 3857 | | |
|---|
| 3843 | 3858 | | (12) The inspection report shall clearly disclose that if requested by the person ordering the original report, a reinspection of the structure will be performed if an estimate or bid for making repairs was given with the original inspection report, or thereafter. |
|---|
| 3844 | 3859 | | |
|---|
| 3845 | 3860 | | An estimate or bid shall be given separately allocating the costs to perform each and every recommendation for corrective measures as specified in subdivision (c) with the original inspection report if the person who ordered the original inspection report so requests, and if the registered company is regularly in the business of performing each corrective measure. |
|---|
| 3846 | 3861 | | |
|---|
| 3847 | 3862 | | If no estimate or bid was given with the original inspection report, or thereafter, then the registered company shall not be required to perform a reinspection. |
|---|
| 3848 | 3863 | | |
|---|
| 3849 | 3864 | | A reinspection shall be an inspection of those items previously listed on an original report to determine if the recommendations have been completed. Each reinspection shall be reported on an original inspection report form and shall be labeled Reinspection. Each reinspection shall also identify the original report by date. |
|---|
| 3850 | 3865 | | |
|---|
| 3851 | 3866 | | After four months from an original inspection, all inspections shall be original inspections and not reinspections. |
|---|
| 3852 | 3867 | | |
|---|
| 3853 | 3868 | | Any reinspection shall be performed for not more than the price of the registered companys original inspection price and shall be completed within 10 business days after a reinspection has been ordered. |
|---|
| 3854 | 3869 | | |
|---|
| 3855 | 3870 | | (13) The inspection report shall contain the following statement, printed in boldface type: |
|---|
| 3856 | 3871 | | |
|---|
| 3857 | 3872 | | NOTICE: Reports on this structure prepared by various registered companies should list the same findings (i.e. termite infestations, termite damage, fungus damage, etc.). However, recommendations to correct these findings may vary from company to company. You have a right to seek a second opinion from another company. |
|---|
| 3858 | 3873 | | |
|---|
| 3859 | 3874 | | (c) At the time a report is ordered, the registered company or licensee shall inform the person or entity ordering the report, that a separate report is available pursuant to this subdivision. If a separate report is requested at the time the inspection report is ordered, the registered company or licensee shall separately identify on the report each recommendation for corrective measures as follows: |
|---|
| 3860 | 3875 | | |
|---|
| 3861 | 3876 | | (1) The infestation or infection that is evident. |
|---|
| 3862 | 3877 | | |
|---|
| 3863 | 3878 | | (2) The conditions that are present that are deemed likely to lead to infestation or infection. |
|---|
| 3864 | 3879 | | |
|---|
| 3865 | 3880 | | If a registered company or licensee fails to inform as required by this subdivision and a dispute arises, or if any other dispute arises as to whether this subdivision has been complied with, a separate report shall be provided within 24 hours of the request but, in no event, later than the next business day, and at no additional cost. |
|---|
| 3866 | 3881 | | |
|---|
| 3867 | 3882 | | (d) When a corrective condition is identified, either as paragraph (1) or (2) of subdivision (c), and the property owner or the property owners designated agent chooses not to correct those conditions, the registered company or licensee shall not be liable for damages resulting from a failure to correct those conditions or subject to any disciplinary action by the board. Nothing in this subdivision, however, shall relieve a registered company or a licensee of any liability resulting from negligence, fraud, dishonest dealing, other violations pursuant to this chapter, or contractual obligations between the registered company or licensee and the responsible parties. |
|---|
| 3868 | 3883 | | |
|---|
| 3869 | 3884 | | (e) The inspection report form prescribed by the board shall separately identify the infestation or infection that is evident and the conditions that are present that are deemed likely to lead to infestation or infection. If a separate form is requested, the form shall explain the infestation or infection that is evident and the conditions that are present that are deemed likely to lead to infestation or infection and the difference between those conditions. In no event, however, shall conditions deemed likely to lead to infestation or infection be characterized as actual defects or as actual active infestations or infections or in need of correction as a precondition to issuing a certification pursuant to Section 8519. |
|---|
| 3870 | 3885 | | |
|---|
| 3871 | 3886 | | (f) The report and any contract entered into shall also state specifically when any guarantee for the work is made, and if so, the specific terms of the guarantee and the period of time for which the guarantee shall be in effect. If a guarantee extends beyond three years, the registered company shall maintain all original inspection reports, field notes, activity forms, and notices of completion for the duration of the guarantee period and for one year after the guarantee expires. |
|---|
| 3872 | 3887 | | |
|---|
| 3873 | 3888 | | (g) For purposes of this section, control service agreement means an agreement, including extended warranties, to have a licensee conduct over a period of time regular inspections and other activities related to the control or eradication of wood destroying pests and organisms. Under a control service agreement a registered company shall refer to the original report and contract in a manner as to identify them clearly, and the report shall be assumed to be a true report of conditions as originally issued, except it may be modified after a control service inspection. A registered company is not required to issue a report as outlined in paragraphs (1) to (11), inclusive, of subdivision (b) after each control service inspection. If after control service inspection, no modification of the original report is made in writing, then it will be assumed that conditions are as originally reported. A control service contract shall state specifically the particular wood destroying pests or organisms and the portions of the buildings or structures covered by the contract. |
|---|
| 3874 | 3889 | | |
|---|
| 3875 | 3890 | | (h) A registered company or licensee may enter into and maintain a control service agreement provided the following requirements are met: |
|---|
| 3876 | 3891 | | |
|---|
| 3877 | 3892 | | (1) The control service agreement shall be in writing, signed by both parties, and shall specifically include the following: |
|---|
| 3878 | 3893 | | |
|---|
| 3879 | 3894 | | (A) The wood destroying pests and organisms covered by the control service agreement. |
|---|
| 3880 | 3895 | | |
|---|
| 3881 | 3896 | | (B) Any wood destroying pest or organism that is not covered must be specifically listed. |
|---|
| 3882 | 3897 | | |
|---|
| 3883 | 3898 | | (C) The type and manner of treatment to be used to correct the infestations or infections. |
|---|
| 3884 | 3899 | | |
|---|
| 3885 | 3900 | | (D) The structures or buildings, or portions thereof, covered by the agreement, including a statement specifying whether the coverage for purposes of periodic inspections is limited or full. Any exclusions from those described in the original report must be specifically listed. |
|---|
| 3886 | 3901 | | |
|---|
| 3887 | 3902 | | (E) A reference to the original inspection report. |
|---|
| 3888 | 3903 | | |
|---|
| 3889 | 3904 | | (F) The frequency of the inspections to be provided, the fee to be charged for each renewal, and the duration of the agreement. |
|---|
| 3890 | 3905 | | |
|---|
| 3891 | 3906 | | (G) Whether the fee includes structural repairs. |
|---|
| 3892 | 3907 | | |
|---|
| 3893 | 3908 | | (H) If the services provided are guaranteed, and, if so, the terms of the guarantee. |
|---|
| 3894 | 3909 | | |
|---|
| 3895 | 3910 | | (I) A statement that all corrections of infestations or infections covered by the control service agreement shall be completed within six months of discovery, unless otherwise agreed to in writing by both parties. |
|---|
| 3896 | 3911 | | |
|---|
| 3897 | 3912 | | (2) The original inspection report, the control service agreement, and completion report shall be maintained for three years after the cancellation of the control service agreement. |
|---|
| 3898 | 3913 | | |
|---|
| 3899 | 3914 | | (3) Inspections made pursuant to a control service agreement shall be conducted by a Branch 3 licensee. Section 8506.1 does not modify this provision. |
|---|
| 3900 | 3915 | | |
|---|
| 3901 | 3916 | | (4) A full inspection of the property covered by the control service agreement shall be conducted and a report filed pursuant to subdivision (b) at least once every three years from the date that the agreement was entered into, unless the consumer cancels the contract within three years from the date the agreement was entered into. |
|---|
| 3902 | 3917 | | |
|---|
| 3903 | 3918 | | (5) Under a control service agreement, a written report shall be required for the correction of any infestation or infection unless all of the following conditions are met: |
|---|
| 3904 | 3919 | | |
|---|
| 3905 | 3920 | | (A) The infestation or infection has been previously reported. |
|---|
| 3906 | 3921 | | |
|---|
| 3907 | 3922 | | (B) The infestation or infection is covered by the control service agreement. |
|---|
| 3908 | 3923 | | |
|---|
| 3909 | 3924 | | (C) There is no additional charge for correcting the infestation or infection. |
|---|
| 3910 | 3925 | | |
|---|
| 3911 | 3926 | | (D) Correction of the infestation or infection takes place within 45 days of its discovery. |
|---|
| 3912 | 3927 | | |
|---|
| 3913 | 3928 | | (E) Correction of the infestation or infection does not include fumigation. |
|---|
| 3914 | 3929 | | |
|---|
| 3915 | 3930 | | (6) All notice requirements pursuant to Section 8538 shall apply to all pesticide treatments conducted under control service agreements. |
|---|
| 3916 | 3931 | | |
|---|
| 3917 | 3932 | | (i) All work recommended by a registered company, where an estimate or bid for making repairs was given with the original inspection report, or thereafter, shall be recorded on this report or a separate work agreement and shall specify a price for each recommendation. This information shall be provided to the person requesting the inspection, and shall be retained by the registered company with the inspection report copy for three years. |
|---|
| 3918 | 3933 | | |
|---|
| 3919 | 3934 | | SEC. 94. Section 10050 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:10050. (a) (1) There is in the Business, Consumer Services, and Housing Agency a Department of Real Estate, the chief officer of which department is named the Real Estate Commissioner.(2) Notwithstanding any other law, the powers and duties of the department, as set forth in this part and Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 11000) of Part 2, shall be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. The review shall be performed as if this part and that chapter were scheduled to be repealed as of January 1, 2022.(b) It shall be the principal responsibility of the commissioner to enforce all laws in this part and Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 11000) of Part 2 in a manner that achieves the maximum protection for the buyers of real property and those persons dealing with real estate licensees.(c) Wherever the term commissioner is used in this division, it means the Real Estate Commissioner.(d) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2018. |
|---|
| 3920 | 3935 | | |
|---|
| 3921 | 3936 | | SEC. 94. Section 10050 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 3922 | 3937 | | |
|---|
| 3923 | 3938 | | ### SEC. 94. |
|---|
| 3924 | 3939 | | |
|---|
| 3925 | 3940 | | 10050. (a) (1) There is in the Business, Consumer Services, and Housing Agency a Department of Real Estate, the chief officer of which department is named the Real Estate Commissioner.(2) Notwithstanding any other law, the powers and duties of the department, as set forth in this part and Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 11000) of Part 2, shall be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. The review shall be performed as if this part and that chapter were scheduled to be repealed as of January 1, 2022.(b) It shall be the principal responsibility of the commissioner to enforce all laws in this part and Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 11000) of Part 2 in a manner that achieves the maximum protection for the buyers of real property and those persons dealing with real estate licensees.(c) Wherever the term commissioner is used in this division, it means the Real Estate Commissioner.(d) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2018. |
|---|
| 3926 | 3941 | | |
|---|
| 3927 | 3942 | | 10050. (a) (1) There is in the Business, Consumer Services, and Housing Agency a Department of Real Estate, the chief officer of which department is named the Real Estate Commissioner.(2) Notwithstanding any other law, the powers and duties of the department, as set forth in this part and Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 11000) of Part 2, shall be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. The review shall be performed as if this part and that chapter were scheduled to be repealed as of January 1, 2022.(b) It shall be the principal responsibility of the commissioner to enforce all laws in this part and Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 11000) of Part 2 in a manner that achieves the maximum protection for the buyers of real property and those persons dealing with real estate licensees.(c) Wherever the term commissioner is used in this division, it means the Real Estate Commissioner.(d) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2018. |
|---|
| 3928 | 3943 | | |
|---|
| 3929 | 3944 | | 10050. (a) (1) There is in the Business, Consumer Services, and Housing Agency a Department of Real Estate, the chief officer of which department is named the Real Estate Commissioner.(2) Notwithstanding any other law, the powers and duties of the department, as set forth in this part and Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 11000) of Part 2, shall be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. The review shall be performed as if this part and that chapter were scheduled to be repealed as of January 1, 2022.(b) It shall be the principal responsibility of the commissioner to enforce all laws in this part and Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 11000) of Part 2 in a manner that achieves the maximum protection for the buyers of real property and those persons dealing with real estate licensees.(c) Wherever the term commissioner is used in this division, it means the Real Estate Commissioner.(d) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2018. |
|---|
| 3930 | 3945 | | |
|---|
| 3931 | 3946 | | |
|---|
| 3932 | 3947 | | |
|---|
| 3933 | 3948 | | 10050. (a) (1) There is in the Business, Consumer Services, and Housing Agency a Department of Real Estate, the chief officer of which department is named the Real Estate Commissioner. |
|---|
| 3934 | 3949 | | |
|---|
| 3935 | 3950 | | (2) Notwithstanding any other law, the powers and duties of the department, as set forth in this part and Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 11000) of Part 2, shall be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. The review shall be performed as if this part and that chapter were scheduled to be repealed as of January 1, 2022. |
|---|
| 3936 | 3951 | | |
|---|
| 3937 | 3952 | | (b) It shall be the principal responsibility of the commissioner to enforce all laws in this part and Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 11000) of Part 2 in a manner that achieves the maximum protection for the buyers of real property and those persons dealing with real estate licensees. |
|---|
| 3938 | 3953 | | |
|---|
| 3939 | 3954 | | (c) Wherever the term commissioner is used in this division, it means the Real Estate Commissioner. |
|---|
| 3940 | 3955 | | |
|---|
| 3941 | 3956 | | (d) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2018. |
|---|
| 3942 | 3957 | | |
|---|
| 3943 | 3958 | | SEC. 95. Section 11301 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:11301. (a) (1) There is hereby created within the Department of Consumer Affairs a Bureau of Real Estate Appraisers to administer and enforce this part.(2) Notwithstanding any other law, the powers and duties of the bureau, as set forth in this part, shall be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. The review shall be performed as if this part were scheduled to be repealed as of January 1, 2022.(b) Whenever the term Office of Real Estate Appraisers appears in any other law, it means the Bureau of Real Estate Appraisers. |
|---|
| 3944 | 3959 | | |
|---|
| 3945 | 3960 | | SEC. 95. Section 11301 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 3946 | 3961 | | |
|---|
| 3947 | 3962 | | ### SEC. 95. |
|---|
| 3948 | 3963 | | |
|---|
| 3949 | 3964 | | 11301. (a) (1) There is hereby created within the Department of Consumer Affairs a Bureau of Real Estate Appraisers to administer and enforce this part.(2) Notwithstanding any other law, the powers and duties of the bureau, as set forth in this part, shall be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. The review shall be performed as if this part were scheduled to be repealed as of January 1, 2022.(b) Whenever the term Office of Real Estate Appraisers appears in any other law, it means the Bureau of Real Estate Appraisers. |
|---|
| 3950 | 3965 | | |
|---|
| 3951 | 3966 | | 11301. (a) (1) There is hereby created within the Department of Consumer Affairs a Bureau of Real Estate Appraisers to administer and enforce this part.(2) Notwithstanding any other law, the powers and duties of the bureau, as set forth in this part, shall be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. The review shall be performed as if this part were scheduled to be repealed as of January 1, 2022.(b) Whenever the term Office of Real Estate Appraisers appears in any other law, it means the Bureau of Real Estate Appraisers. |
|---|
| 3952 | 3967 | | |
|---|
| 3953 | 3968 | | 11301. (a) (1) There is hereby created within the Department of Consumer Affairs a Bureau of Real Estate Appraisers to administer and enforce this part.(2) Notwithstanding any other law, the powers and duties of the bureau, as set forth in this part, shall be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. The review shall be performed as if this part were scheduled to be repealed as of January 1, 2022.(b) Whenever the term Office of Real Estate Appraisers appears in any other law, it means the Bureau of Real Estate Appraisers. |
|---|
| 3954 | 3969 | | |
|---|
| 3955 | 3970 | | |
|---|
| 3956 | 3971 | | |
|---|
| 3957 | 3972 | | 11301. (a) (1) There is hereby created within the Department of Consumer Affairs a Bureau of Real Estate Appraisers to administer and enforce this part. |
|---|
| 3958 | 3973 | | |
|---|
| 3959 | 3974 | | (2) Notwithstanding any other law, the powers and duties of the bureau, as set forth in this part, shall be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. The review shall be performed as if this part were scheduled to be repealed as of January 1, 2022. |
|---|
| 3960 | 3975 | | |
|---|
| 3961 | 3976 | | (b) Whenever the term Office of Real Estate Appraisers appears in any other law, it means the Bureau of Real Estate Appraisers. |
|---|
| 3962 | 3977 | | |
|---|
| 3963 | 3978 | | SEC. 96. Section 16100 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:16100. (a) The board of supervisors may in the exercise of its police powers, and for the purpose of regulation, as herein provided, and not otherwise, license any kind of business not prohibited by law, transacted and carried on within the limits of its jurisdiction, including all shows, exhibitions, and lawful games, and may fix the rate of the license fee and provide for its collection by suit or otherwise.(b) No license fee levied pursuant to subdivision (a) that is measured by the licensees income or gross receipts, whether levied by a charter or general law county, shall apply to any nonprofit organization that is exempted from taxes by Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 23701) of Part 11 of Division 2 of the Revenue and Taxation Code or Subchapter F (commencing with Section 501) of Chapter 1 of Subtitle A of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, or the successor of either, or to any minister, clergyman, Christian Science practitioner, rabbi, or priest of any religious organization that has been granted an exemption from federal income tax by the United States Commissioner of Internal Revenue as an organization described in Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code or a successor to that section.(c) Before a county issues a business license to a person to conduct business as a contractor, as defined by Section 7026, the county shall verify that the person is licensed by the Contractors State License Board. |
|---|
| 3964 | 3979 | | |
|---|
| 3965 | 3980 | | SEC. 96. Section 16100 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 3966 | 3981 | | |
|---|
| 3967 | 3982 | | ### SEC. 96. |
|---|
| 3968 | 3983 | | |
|---|
| 3969 | 3984 | | 16100. (a) The board of supervisors may in the exercise of its police powers, and for the purpose of regulation, as herein provided, and not otherwise, license any kind of business not prohibited by law, transacted and carried on within the limits of its jurisdiction, including all shows, exhibitions, and lawful games, and may fix the rate of the license fee and provide for its collection by suit or otherwise.(b) No license fee levied pursuant to subdivision (a) that is measured by the licensees income or gross receipts, whether levied by a charter or general law county, shall apply to any nonprofit organization that is exempted from taxes by Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 23701) of Part 11 of Division 2 of the Revenue and Taxation Code or Subchapter F (commencing with Section 501) of Chapter 1 of Subtitle A of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, or the successor of either, or to any minister, clergyman, Christian Science practitioner, rabbi, or priest of any religious organization that has been granted an exemption from federal income tax by the United States Commissioner of Internal Revenue as an organization described in Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code or a successor to that section.(c) Before a county issues a business license to a person to conduct business as a contractor, as defined by Section 7026, the county shall verify that the person is licensed by the Contractors State License Board. |
|---|
| 3970 | 3985 | | |
|---|
| 3971 | 3986 | | 16100. (a) The board of supervisors may in the exercise of its police powers, and for the purpose of regulation, as herein provided, and not otherwise, license any kind of business not prohibited by law, transacted and carried on within the limits of its jurisdiction, including all shows, exhibitions, and lawful games, and may fix the rate of the license fee and provide for its collection by suit or otherwise.(b) No license fee levied pursuant to subdivision (a) that is measured by the licensees income or gross receipts, whether levied by a charter or general law county, shall apply to any nonprofit organization that is exempted from taxes by Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 23701) of Part 11 of Division 2 of the Revenue and Taxation Code or Subchapter F (commencing with Section 501) of Chapter 1 of Subtitle A of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, or the successor of either, or to any minister, clergyman, Christian Science practitioner, rabbi, or priest of any religious organization that has been granted an exemption from federal income tax by the United States Commissioner of Internal Revenue as an organization described in Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code or a successor to that section.(c) Before a county issues a business license to a person to conduct business as a contractor, as defined by Section 7026, the county shall verify that the person is licensed by the Contractors State License Board. |
|---|
| 3972 | 3987 | | |
|---|
| 3973 | 3988 | | 16100. (a) The board of supervisors may in the exercise of its police powers, and for the purpose of regulation, as herein provided, and not otherwise, license any kind of business not prohibited by law, transacted and carried on within the limits of its jurisdiction, including all shows, exhibitions, and lawful games, and may fix the rate of the license fee and provide for its collection by suit or otherwise.(b) No license fee levied pursuant to subdivision (a) that is measured by the licensees income or gross receipts, whether levied by a charter or general law county, shall apply to any nonprofit organization that is exempted from taxes by Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 23701) of Part 11 of Division 2 of the Revenue and Taxation Code or Subchapter F (commencing with Section 501) of Chapter 1 of Subtitle A of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, or the successor of either, or to any minister, clergyman, Christian Science practitioner, rabbi, or priest of any religious organization that has been granted an exemption from federal income tax by the United States Commissioner of Internal Revenue as an organization described in Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code or a successor to that section.(c) Before a county issues a business license to a person to conduct business as a contractor, as defined by Section 7026, the county shall verify that the person is licensed by the Contractors State License Board. |
|---|
| 3974 | 3989 | | |
|---|
| 3975 | 3990 | | |
|---|
| 3976 | 3991 | | |
|---|
| 3977 | 3992 | | 16100. (a) The board of supervisors may in the exercise of its police powers, and for the purpose of regulation, as herein provided, and not otherwise, license any kind of business not prohibited by law, transacted and carried on within the limits of its jurisdiction, including all shows, exhibitions, and lawful games, and may fix the rate of the license fee and provide for its collection by suit or otherwise. |
|---|
| 3978 | 3993 | | |
|---|
| 3979 | 3994 | | (b) No license fee levied pursuant to subdivision (a) that is measured by the licensees income or gross receipts, whether levied by a charter or general law county, shall apply to any nonprofit organization that is exempted from taxes by Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 23701) of Part 11 of Division 2 of the Revenue and Taxation Code or Subchapter F (commencing with Section 501) of Chapter 1 of Subtitle A of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, or the successor of either, or to any minister, clergyman, Christian Science practitioner, rabbi, or priest of any religious organization that has been granted an exemption from federal income tax by the United States Commissioner of Internal Revenue as an organization described in Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code or a successor to that section. |
|---|
| 3980 | 3995 | | |
|---|
| 3981 | 3996 | | (c) Before a county issues a business license to a person to conduct business as a contractor, as defined by Section 7026, the county shall verify that the person is licensed by the Contractors State License Board. |
|---|
| 3982 | 3997 | | |
|---|
| 3983 | 3998 | | SEC. 97. Section 19164 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:19164. The bureau may, by regulation, establish insulation material standards governing the quality of all insulation material sold or installed within this state, including those properties that affect the safety and thermal performance of insulation material during application and in the use intended. The standards shall specify the initial performance of the insulation material and the performance expected during the design life of the insulation material. Until the bureau has adopted these regulations, the regulations of the State Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission in effect on the effective date of this section relating to those standards shall remain in full force and effect. However, wherever those regulations specify that the commission shall perform an act, the bureau instead shall perform the act.Prior to establishing the standards and procedures required by this chapter, the bureau shall conduct at least two public hearings, and shall invite the State Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission, the State Fire Marshal, manufacturers, distributors, and licensed installers of insulation materials, and appropriate members of the public to participate in the hearings. Immediately upon adoption of the standards and procedures, the bureau shall provide a copy of the standards to the State Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission, and the Contractors State License Board. Within 30 days after receipt of the bureaus standards, the Contractors State License Board shall notify all state licensed contractors who install insulation of the standards.Insulation standards adopted by the bureau, pursuant to this section, and by the State Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission, pursuant to Section 25402 of the Public Resources Code, which are building standards, as defined in Section 25488.5 of the Public Resources Code, shall be submitted to the California Building Standards Commission for approval pursuant to, and are governed by, the California Building Standards Law (Part 2.5 (commencing with Section 18901) of Division 13 of the Health and Safety Code). The building standards adopted by the bureau and published in the California Building Standards Code shall comply with, and be enforced as provided in, this section. |
|---|
| 3984 | 3999 | | |
|---|
| 3985 | 4000 | | SEC. 97. Section 19164 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read: |
|---|
| 3986 | 4001 | | |
|---|
| 3987 | 4002 | | ### SEC. 97. |
|---|
| 3988 | 4003 | | |
|---|
| 3989 | 4004 | | 19164. The bureau may, by regulation, establish insulation material standards governing the quality of all insulation material sold or installed within this state, including those properties that affect the safety and thermal performance of insulation material during application and in the use intended. The standards shall specify the initial performance of the insulation material and the performance expected during the design life of the insulation material. Until the bureau has adopted these regulations, the regulations of the State Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission in effect on the effective date of this section relating to those standards shall remain in full force and effect. However, wherever those regulations specify that the commission shall perform an act, the bureau instead shall perform the act.Prior to establishing the standards and procedures required by this chapter, the bureau shall conduct at least two public hearings, and shall invite the State Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission, the State Fire Marshal, manufacturers, distributors, and licensed installers of insulation materials, and appropriate members of the public to participate in the hearings. Immediately upon adoption of the standards and procedures, the bureau shall provide a copy of the standards to the State Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission, and the Contractors State License Board. Within 30 days after receipt of the bureaus standards, the Contractors State License Board shall notify all state licensed contractors who install insulation of the standards.Insulation standards adopted by the bureau, pursuant to this section, and by the State Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission, pursuant to Section 25402 of the Public Resources Code, which are building standards, as defined in Section 25488.5 of the Public Resources Code, shall be submitted to the California Building Standards Commission for approval pursuant to, and are governed by, the California Building Standards Law (Part 2.5 (commencing with Section 18901) of Division 13 of the Health and Safety Code). The building standards adopted by the bureau and published in the California Building Standards Code shall comply with, and be enforced as provided in, this section. |
|---|
| 3990 | 4005 | | |
|---|
| 3991 | 4006 | | 19164. The bureau may, by regulation, establish insulation material standards governing the quality of all insulation material sold or installed within this state, including those properties that affect the safety and thermal performance of insulation material during application and in the use intended. The standards shall specify the initial performance of the insulation material and the performance expected during the design life of the insulation material. Until the bureau has adopted these regulations, the regulations of the State Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission in effect on the effective date of this section relating to those standards shall remain in full force and effect. However, wherever those regulations specify that the commission shall perform an act, the bureau instead shall perform the act.Prior to establishing the standards and procedures required by this chapter, the bureau shall conduct at least two public hearings, and shall invite the State Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission, the State Fire Marshal, manufacturers, distributors, and licensed installers of insulation materials, and appropriate members of the public to participate in the hearings. Immediately upon adoption of the standards and procedures, the bureau shall provide a copy of the standards to the State Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission, and the Contractors State License Board. Within 30 days after receipt of the bureaus standards, the Contractors State License Board shall notify all state licensed contractors who install insulation of the standards.Insulation standards adopted by the bureau, pursuant to this section, and by the State Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission, pursuant to Section 25402 of the Public Resources Code, which are building standards, as defined in Section 25488.5 of the Public Resources Code, shall be submitted to the California Building Standards Commission for approval pursuant to, and are governed by, the California Building Standards Law (Part 2.5 (commencing with Section 18901) of Division 13 of the Health and Safety Code). The building standards adopted by the bureau and published in the California Building Standards Code shall comply with, and be enforced as provided in, this section. |
|---|
| 3992 | 4007 | | |
|---|
| 3993 | 4008 | | 19164. The bureau may, by regulation, establish insulation material standards governing the quality of all insulation material sold or installed within this state, including those properties that affect the safety and thermal performance of insulation material during application and in the use intended. The standards shall specify the initial performance of the insulation material and the performance expected during the design life of the insulation material. Until the bureau has adopted these regulations, the regulations of the State Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission in effect on the effective date of this section relating to those standards shall remain in full force and effect. However, wherever those regulations specify that the commission shall perform an act, the bureau instead shall perform the act.Prior to establishing the standards and procedures required by this chapter, the bureau shall conduct at least two public hearings, and shall invite the State Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission, the State Fire Marshal, manufacturers, distributors, and licensed installers of insulation materials, and appropriate members of the public to participate in the hearings. Immediately upon adoption of the standards and procedures, the bureau shall provide a copy of the standards to the State Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission, and the Contractors State License Board. Within 30 days after receipt of the bureaus standards, the Contractors State License Board shall notify all state licensed contractors who install insulation of the standards.Insulation standards adopted by the bureau, pursuant to this section, and by the State Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission, pursuant to Section 25402 of the Public Resources Code, which are building standards, as defined in Section 25488.5 of the Public Resources Code, shall be submitted to the California Building Standards Commission for approval pursuant to, and are governed by, the California Building Standards Law (Part 2.5 (commencing with Section 18901) of Division 13 of the Health and Safety Code). The building standards adopted by the bureau and published in the California Building Standards Code shall comply with, and be enforced as provided in, this section. |
|---|
| 3994 | 4009 | | |
|---|
| 3995 | 4010 | | |
|---|
| 3996 | 4011 | | |
|---|
| 3997 | 4012 | | 19164. The bureau may, by regulation, establish insulation material standards governing the quality of all insulation material sold or installed within this state, including those properties that affect the safety and thermal performance of insulation material during application and in the use intended. The standards shall specify the initial performance of the insulation material and the performance expected during the design life of the insulation material. Until the bureau has adopted these regulations, the regulations of the State Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission in effect on the effective date of this section relating to those standards shall remain in full force and effect. However, wherever those regulations specify that the commission shall perform an act, the bureau instead shall perform the act. |
|---|
| 3998 | 4013 | | |
|---|
| 3999 | 4014 | | Prior to establishing the standards and procedures required by this chapter, the bureau shall conduct at least two public hearings, and shall invite the State Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission, the State Fire Marshal, manufacturers, distributors, and licensed installers of insulation materials, and appropriate members of the public to participate in the hearings. Immediately upon adoption of the standards and procedures, the bureau shall provide a copy of the standards to the State Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission, and the Contractors State License Board. Within 30 days after receipt of the bureaus standards, the Contractors State License Board shall notify all state licensed contractors who install insulation of the standards. |
|---|
| 4000 | 4015 | | |
|---|
| 4001 | 4016 | | Insulation standards adopted by the bureau, pursuant to this section, and by the State Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission, pursuant to Section 25402 of the Public Resources Code, which are building standards, as defined in Section 25488.5 of the Public Resources Code, shall be submitted to the California Building Standards Commission for approval pursuant to, and are governed by, the California Building Standards Law (Part 2.5 (commencing with Section 18901) of Division 13 of the Health and Safety Code). The building standards adopted by the bureau and published in the California Building Standards Code shall comply with, and be enforced as provided in, this section. |
|---|
| 4002 | 4017 | | |
|---|
| 4003 | 4018 | | SEC. 98. Section 1670.8.5 is added to the Civil Code, to read:1670.8.5. (a) A contract or proposed contract for the provision of a consumer service by a licensee regulated by a licensing board shall not include a provision limiting the consumers ability to file a complaint with that board or to participate in the boards investigation into the licensee.(b) Any waiver of the provisions of this section is contrary to public policy, and is void and unenforceable.(c) For purposes of this section, the following terms apply:(1) Consumer service means any service that is obtained for use primarily for personal, family, or household purposes.(2) Licensing board means any entity described in Section 101 of the Business and Professions Code, the State Bar of California, the Department of Real Estate, or any other state agency that issues a license, certificate, or registration authorizing a person to engage in a business or profession.(d) Violation of this section by a licensee shall constitute unprofessional conduct subject to discipline by the licensees licensing board. |
|---|
| 4004 | 4019 | | |
|---|
| 4005 | 4020 | | SEC. 98. Section 1670.8.5 is added to the Civil Code, to read: |
|---|
| 4006 | 4021 | | |
|---|
| 4007 | 4022 | | ### SEC. 98. |
|---|
| 4008 | 4023 | | |
|---|
| 4009 | 4024 | | 1670.8.5. (a) A contract or proposed contract for the provision of a consumer service by a licensee regulated by a licensing board shall not include a provision limiting the consumers ability to file a complaint with that board or to participate in the boards investigation into the licensee.(b) Any waiver of the provisions of this section is contrary to public policy, and is void and unenforceable.(c) For purposes of this section, the following terms apply:(1) Consumer service means any service that is obtained for use primarily for personal, family, or household purposes.(2) Licensing board means any entity described in Section 101 of the Business and Professions Code, the State Bar of California, the Department of Real Estate, or any other state agency that issues a license, certificate, or registration authorizing a person to engage in a business or profession.(d) Violation of this section by a licensee shall constitute unprofessional conduct subject to discipline by the licensees licensing board. |
|---|
| 4010 | 4025 | | |
|---|
| 4011 | 4026 | | 1670.8.5. (a) A contract or proposed contract for the provision of a consumer service by a licensee regulated by a licensing board shall not include a provision limiting the consumers ability to file a complaint with that board or to participate in the boards investigation into the licensee.(b) Any waiver of the provisions of this section is contrary to public policy, and is void and unenforceable.(c) For purposes of this section, the following terms apply:(1) Consumer service means any service that is obtained for use primarily for personal, family, or household purposes.(2) Licensing board means any entity described in Section 101 of the Business and Professions Code, the State Bar of California, the Department of Real Estate, or any other state agency that issues a license, certificate, or registration authorizing a person to engage in a business or profession.(d) Violation of this section by a licensee shall constitute unprofessional conduct subject to discipline by the licensees licensing board. |
|---|
| 4012 | 4027 | | |
|---|
| 4013 | 4028 | | 1670.8.5. (a) A contract or proposed contract for the provision of a consumer service by a licensee regulated by a licensing board shall not include a provision limiting the consumers ability to file a complaint with that board or to participate in the boards investigation into the licensee.(b) Any waiver of the provisions of this section is contrary to public policy, and is void and unenforceable.(c) For purposes of this section, the following terms apply:(1) Consumer service means any service that is obtained for use primarily for personal, family, or household purposes.(2) Licensing board means any entity described in Section 101 of the Business and Professions Code, the State Bar of California, the Department of Real Estate, or any other state agency that issues a license, certificate, or registration authorizing a person to engage in a business or profession.(d) Violation of this section by a licensee shall constitute unprofessional conduct subject to discipline by the licensees licensing board. |
|---|
| 4014 | 4029 | | |
|---|
| 4015 | 4030 | | |
|---|
| 4016 | 4031 | | |
|---|
| 4017 | 4032 | | 1670.8.5. (a) A contract or proposed contract for the provision of a consumer service by a licensee regulated by a licensing board shall not include a provision limiting the consumers ability to file a complaint with that board or to participate in the boards investigation into the licensee. |
|---|
| 4018 | 4033 | | |
|---|
| 4019 | 4034 | | (b) Any waiver of the provisions of this section is contrary to public policy, and is void and unenforceable. |
|---|
| 4020 | 4035 | | |
|---|
| 4021 | 4036 | | (c) For purposes of this section, the following terms apply: |
|---|
| 4022 | 4037 | | |
|---|
| 4023 | 4038 | | (1) Consumer service means any service that is obtained for use primarily for personal, family, or household purposes. |
|---|
| 4024 | 4039 | | |
|---|
| 4025 | 4040 | | (2) Licensing board means any entity described in Section 101 of the Business and Professions Code, the State Bar of California, the Department of Real Estate, or any other state agency that issues a license, certificate, or registration authorizing a person to engage in a business or profession. |
|---|
| 4026 | 4041 | | |
|---|
| 4027 | 4042 | | (d) Violation of this section by a licensee shall constitute unprofessional conduct subject to discipline by the licensees licensing board. |
|---|
| 4028 | 4043 | | |
|---|
| 4029 | 4044 | | SEC. 99. Section 94950 of the Education Code is amended to read:94950. This chapter shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 4030 | 4045 | | |
|---|
| 4031 | 4046 | | SEC. 99. Section 94950 of the Education Code is amended to read: |
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| 4032 | 4047 | | |
|---|
| 4033 | 4048 | | ### SEC. 99. |
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| 4034 | 4049 | | |
|---|
| 4035 | 4050 | | 94950. This chapter shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 4036 | 4051 | | |
|---|
| 4037 | 4052 | | 94950. This chapter shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 4038 | 4053 | | |
|---|
| 4039 | 4054 | | 94950. This chapter shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 4040 | 4055 | | |
|---|
| 4041 | 4056 | | |
|---|
| 4042 | 4057 | | |
|---|
| 4043 | 4058 | | 94950. This chapter shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed. |
|---|
| 4044 | 4059 | | |
|---|
| 4045 | 4060 | | SEC. 100. Section 8.5 of this bill incorporates amendments to Section 205 of the Business and Professions Code, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 865 of the Statutes of 2019, proposed by this bill and Assembly Bill 896. That section of this bill shall only become operative if (1) both bills are enacted and become effective on or before January 1, 2021, (2) each bill amends Section 205 of the Business and Professions Code, and (3) this bill is enacted after Assembly Bill 896, in which case Section 205 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Assembly Bill 896, shall remain operative only until the operative date of this bill, at which time Section 8.5 of this bill shall become operative, and Section 8 of this bill shall not become operative. |
|---|
| 4046 | 4061 | | |
|---|
| 4047 | 4062 | | SEC. 100. Section 8.5 of this bill incorporates amendments to Section 205 of the Business and Professions Code, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 865 of the Statutes of 2019, proposed by this bill and Assembly Bill 896. That section of this bill shall only become operative if (1) both bills are enacted and become effective on or before January 1, 2021, (2) each bill amends Section 205 of the Business and Professions Code, and (3) this bill is enacted after Assembly Bill 896, in which case Section 205 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Assembly Bill 896, shall remain operative only until the operative date of this bill, at which time Section 8.5 of this bill shall become operative, and Section 8 of this bill shall not become operative. |
|---|
| 4048 | 4063 | | |
|---|
| 4049 | 4064 | | SEC. 100. Section 8.5 of this bill incorporates amendments to Section 205 of the Business and Professions Code, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 865 of the Statutes of 2019, proposed by this bill and Assembly Bill 896. That section of this bill shall only become operative if (1) both bills are enacted and become effective on or before January 1, 2021, (2) each bill amends Section 205 of the Business and Professions Code, and (3) this bill is enacted after Assembly Bill 896, in which case Section 205 of the Business and Professions Code, as amended by Assembly Bill 896, shall remain operative only until the operative date of this bill, at which time Section 8.5 of this bill shall become operative, and Section 8 of this bill shall not become operative. |
|---|
| 4050 | 4065 | | |
|---|
| 4051 | 4066 | | ### SEC. 100. |
|---|
| 4052 | 4067 | | |
|---|
| 4053 | 4068 | | SEC. 101. Section 16.5 of this bill incorporates amendments to Section 2113 of the Business and Professions Code proposed by both this bill and Assembly Bill 2273. That section of this bill shall only become operative if (1) both bills are enacted and become effective on or before January 1, 2021, (2) each bill amends Section 2113 of the Business and Professions Code, and (3) this bill is enacted after Assembly Bill 2273, in which case Section 16 of this bill shall not become operative. |
|---|
| 4054 | 4069 | | |
|---|
| 4055 | 4070 | | SEC. 101. Section 16.5 of this bill incorporates amendments to Section 2113 of the Business and Professions Code proposed by both this bill and Assembly Bill 2273. That section of this bill shall only become operative if (1) both bills are enacted and become effective on or before January 1, 2021, (2) each bill amends Section 2113 of the Business and Professions Code, and (3) this bill is enacted after Assembly Bill 2273, in which case Section 16 of this bill shall not become operative. |
|---|
| 4056 | 4071 | | |
|---|
| 4057 | 4072 | | SEC. 101. Section 16.5 of this bill incorporates amendments to Section 2113 of the Business and Professions Code proposed by both this bill and Assembly Bill 2273. That section of this bill shall only become operative if (1) both bills are enacted and become effective on or before January 1, 2021, (2) each bill amends Section 2113 of the Business and Professions Code, and (3) this bill is enacted after Assembly Bill 2273, in which case Section 16 of this bill shall not become operative. |
|---|
| 4058 | 4073 | | |
|---|
| 4059 | 4074 | | ### SEC. 101. |
|---|
| 4060 | 4075 | | |
|---|
| 4061 | 4076 | | SEC. 102. Section 73.5 of this bill incorporates amendments to Section 7159 of the Business and Professions Code proposed by both this bill and Assembly Bill 2471. That section of this bill shall only become operative if (1) both bills are enacted and become effective on or before January 1, 2021, (2) each bill amends Section 7159 of the Business and Professions Code, and (3) this bill is enacted after Assembly Bill 2471, in which case Section 73 of this bill shall not become operative. |
|---|
| 4062 | 4077 | | |
|---|
| 4063 | 4078 | | SEC. 102. Section 73.5 of this bill incorporates amendments to Section 7159 of the Business and Professions Code proposed by both this bill and Assembly Bill 2471. That section of this bill shall only become operative if (1) both bills are enacted and become effective on or before January 1, 2021, (2) each bill amends Section 7159 of the Business and Professions Code, and (3) this bill is enacted after Assembly Bill 2471, in which case Section 73 of this bill shall not become operative. |
|---|
| 4064 | 4079 | | |
|---|
| 4065 | 4080 | | SEC. 102. Section 73.5 of this bill incorporates amendments to Section 7159 of the Business and Professions Code proposed by both this bill and Assembly Bill 2471. That section of this bill shall only become operative if (1) both bills are enacted and become effective on or before January 1, 2021, (2) each bill amends Section 7159 of the Business and Professions Code, and (3) this bill is enacted after Assembly Bill 2471, in which case Section 73 of this bill shall not become operative. |
|---|
| 4066 | 4081 | | |
|---|
| 4067 | 4082 | | ### SEC. 102. |
|---|
| 4068 | 4083 | | |
|---|
| 4069 | 4084 | | SEC. 103. No reimbursement is required by this act pursuant to Section 6 of Article XIIIB of the California Constitution because the only costs that may be incurred by a local agency or school district will be incurred because this act creates a new crime or infraction, eliminates a crime or infraction, or changes the penalty for a crime or infraction, within the meaning of Section 17556 of the Government Code, or changes the definition of a crime within the meaning of Section 6 of Article XIIIB of the California Constitution. |
|---|
| 4070 | 4085 | | |
|---|
| 4071 | 4086 | | SEC. 103. No reimbursement is required by this act pursuant to Section 6 of Article XIIIB of the California Constitution because the only costs that may be incurred by a local agency or school district will be incurred because this act creates a new crime or infraction, eliminates a crime or infraction, or changes the penalty for a crime or infraction, within the meaning of Section 17556 of the Government Code, or changes the definition of a crime within the meaning of Section 6 of Article XIIIB of the California Constitution. |
|---|
| 4072 | 4087 | | |
|---|
| 4073 | 4088 | | SEC. 103. No reimbursement is required by this act pursuant to Section 6 of Article XIIIB of the California Constitution because the only costs that may be incurred by a local agency or school district will be incurred because this act creates a new crime or infraction, eliminates a crime or infraction, or changes the penalty for a crime or infraction, within the meaning of Section 17556 of the Government Code, or changes the definition of a crime within the meaning of Section 6 of Article XIIIB of the California Constitution. |
|---|
| 4074 | 4089 | | |
|---|
| 4075 | 4090 | | ### SEC. 103. |
|---|