Kansas 2023-2024 Regular Session

Kansas House Bill HB2692 Compare Versions

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11 Session of 2024
22 HOUSE BILL No. 2692
33 By Committee on Judiciary
44 Requested by Keri Strahler on behalf of Shawnee County Mercy Advocates
55 2-5
66 AN ACT concerning crimes, punishment and criminal procedure; relating
77 to principles of criminal liability; providing an exception to criminal
88 liability when a defendant has a mental disease or defect so as not to
99 know the nature of the act or that such act was wrong; amending
1010 K.S.A. 21-5209, 22-3219, 22-3221, 22-3222 and 22-3428 and repealing
1111 the existing sections.
1212 Be it enacted by the Legislature of the State of Kansas:
1313 Section 1. K.S.A. 21-5209 is hereby amended to read as follows: 21-
1414 5209. It shall be a defense to a prosecution under any statute that:
1515 (a) The defendant, as a result of mental disease or defect, lacked the
1616 culpable mental state required as an element of the crime charged. Mental
1717 disease or defect is not otherwise a defense; or
1818 (b) at the time of committing the alleged criminal act, the defendant
1919 was laboring under such a mental disease or defect as not to know:
2020 (1) The nature and quality of such act; or
2121 (2) that such act was wrong.
2222 Sec. 2. K.S.A. 22-3219 is hereby amended to read as follows: 22-
2323 3219. (1)(a) Evidence of mental disease or defect excluding criminal
2424 responsibility is not admissible upon a trial unless the defendant serves
2525 upon the prosecuting attorney and files with the court a written notice of
2626 such defendant's intention to assert the defense that the defendant, as a
2727 result of mental disease or defect lacked the mental state required as an
2828 element of the offense charged a defense described in K.S.A. 21-5209, and
2929 amendments thereto. Such notice must be served and filed before trial and
3030 not more than 30 days after entry of the plea of not guilty to the
3131 information or indictment. For good cause shown the court may permit
3232 notice at a later date.
3333 (2)(b) A defendant who files a notice of intention to assert the defense
3434 that the defendant, as a result of mental disease or defect lacked the mental
3535 state required as an element of the offense charged a defense described in
3636 K.S.A. 21-5209, and amendments thereto, thereby submits and consents to
3737 abide by such further orders as the court may make requiring the mental
3838 examination of the defendant and designating the place of examination and
3939 the physician or licensed psychologist by whom such examination shall be
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7575 made. No order of the court respecting a mental examination shall
7676 preclude the defendant from procuring at such defendant's own expense an
7777 examination by a physician or licensed psychologist of such defendant's
7878 own choosing. A defendant requesting a mental examination pursuant to
7979 K.S.A. 22-4508, and amendments thereto, may request a physician or
8080 licensed psychologist of such defendant's own choosing. The judge shall
8181 inquire as to the estimated cost for such examination and shall appoint the
8282 requested physician or licensed psychologist if such physician or licensed
8383 psychologist agrees to accept compensation in an amount in accordance
8484 with the compensation standards set by the board of supervisors of panels
8585 to aid indigent defendants. A report of each mental examination of the
8686 defendant shall be filed in the court and copies thereof shall be supplied to
8787 the defendant and the prosecuting attorney.
8888 Sec. 3. K.S.A. 22-3221 is hereby amended to read as follows: 22-
8989 3221. (a) In any case in which the defense has offered substantial evidence
9090 of a mental disease or defect excluding the mental state required as an
9191 element of the offense charged pursuant to K.S.A. 21-5209(a), and
9292 amendments thereto, and the jury returns a verdict of "not guilty," the jury
9393 shall also answer a special question in the following form: "Do you find
9494 the defendant not guilty solely because the defendant, at the time of the
9595 alleged crime, was suffering from a mental disease or defect which
9696 rendered the defendant incapable of possessing the required criminal
9797 intent?" The provisions of this section shall be in force and take effect on
9898 and after January 1, 1996.
9999 (b) In any case in which the defense has offered substantial evidence
100100 of a mental disease or defect excluding criminal responsibility for the
101101 offense charged pursuant to K.S.A. 21-5209, and amendments thereto, and
102102 the jury returns a verdict of "not guilty," the jury shall also answer a
103103 special question in the following form: "Do you find the defendant not
104104 guilty solely because the defendant, at the time of the alleged crime, was
105105 laboring under such a mental disease or defect as not to know: (1) The
106106 nature and quality of such act; or (2) that such act was wrong?"
107107 Sec. 4. K.S.A. 22-3222 is hereby amended to read as follows: 22-
108108 3222. In any case in which the defendant is found not guilty of a charged
109109 crime, and the special question under K.S.A. 22-3221 is answered the jury
110110 answers in the affirmative to a special question asked pursuant to K.S.A.
111111 22-3221, and amendments thereto, and the defendant is also found guilty
112112 of a lesser included or otherwise charged offense, the court shall proceed
113113 in the manner authorized by K.S.A. 22-3429 et seq., and amendments
114114 thereto. The provisions of this section shall be in force and take effect on
115115 and after January 1, 1996.
116116 Sec. 5. K.S.A. 22-3428 is hereby amended to read as follows: 22-
117117 3428. (a) (1) When a defendant is acquitted and the jury answers in the
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161161 affirmative to the a special question asked pursuant to K.S.A. 22-3221,
162162 and amendments thereto, the defendant shall be committed to the state
163163 security hospital or an appropriate secure facility for safekeeping and
164164 treatment and the prosecuting attorney shall provide victim notification. A
165165 finding of not guilty and the jury answering in the affirmative to the a
166166 special question asked pursuant to K.S.A. 22-3221, and amendments
167167 thereto, shall be prima facie evidence that the acquitted defendant is
168168 presently likely to cause harm to self or others.
169169 (2) Within 90 days of the defendant's admission, the chief medical
170170 officer of the state security hospital or licensed psychologist at the
171171 appropriate secure facility shall send to the court a written evaluation
172172 report. Upon receipt of the report, the court shall set a hearing to determine
173173 whether or not the defendant is currently a mentally ill person. The hearing
174174 shall be held within 30 days after the receipt by the court of the chief
175175 medical officer's report unless the court finds that exceptional
176176 circumstances warrant delay of the hearing.
177177 (3) The court shall give notice of the hearing to the chief medical
178178 officer of the state security hospital or licensed psychologist at the
179179 appropriate secure facility, the prosecuting attorney, the defendant and the
180180 defendant's attorney. The prosecuting attorney shall provide victim
181181 notification. The court shall inform the defendant that such defendant is
182182 entitled to counsel and that counsel will be appointed to represent the
183183 defendant if the defendant is not financially able to employ an attorney as
184184 provided in K.S.A. 22-4503 et seq., and amendments thereto. The
185185 defendant shall remain at the state security hospital pending the hearing.
186186 (4) At the hearing, the defendant shall have the right to present
187187 evidence and cross-examine witnesses. At the conclusion of the hearing, if
188188 the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that the defendant is not
189189 currently a mentally ill person, the court shall dismiss the criminal
190190 proceeding and discharge the defendant, otherwise the court may commit
191191 the defendant to the state security hospital or an appropriate secure facility
192192 for treatment or may place the defendant on conditional release pursuant to
193193 subsection (d). The prosecuting attorney shall provide victim notification
194194 regarding the outcome of the hearing.
195195 (b) Subject to the provisions of subsection (c):
196196 (1) Whenever it appears to the chief medical officer of the state
197197 security hospital or a licensed psychologist at the appropriate secure
198198 facility that a person committed under subsection (a)(4) is not likely to
199199 cause harm to other persons in a less restrictive hospital environment, the
200200 officer may transfer the person to any state hospital, subject to the
201201 provisions of subsection (c). At any time subsequent thereto during which
202202 such person is still committed to a state hospital, if the chief medical
203203 officer of that hospital or the licensed psychologist at the appropriate
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247247 secure facility finds that the person may be likely to cause harm or has
248248 caused harm, to others, such officer may transfer the person back to the
249249 state security hospital.
250250 (2) Any person committed under subsection (a)(4) may be granted
251251 conditional release or discharge as an involuntary patient.
252252 (c) Before transfer of a person from the state security hospital or
253253 appropriate secure facility pursuant to subsection (b)(1) or conditional
254254 release or discharge of a person pursuant to subsection (b)(2), the chief
255255 medical officer of the state security hospital or the state hospital where the
256256 patient is under commitment or the licensed psychologist at the
257257 appropriate secure facility shall give notice to the district court of the
258258 county from which the person was committed that transfer of the patient is
259259 proposed or that the patient is ready for proposed conditional release or
260260 discharge. Such notice shall include, but not be limited to: (1)
261261 Identification of the patient; (2) the course of treatment; (3) a current
262262 assessment of the defendant's mental illness; (4) recommendations for
263263 future treatment, if any; and (5) recommendations regarding conditional
264264 release or discharge, if any. Upon receiving notice, the district court shall
265265 order that a hearing be held on the proposed transfer, conditional release or
266266 discharge. The court shall give notice of the hearing to the appropriate
267267 secure facility, state hospital or state security hospital where the patient is
268268 under commitment, to the prosecuting attorney of the county from which
269269 the person was originally ordered committed. The prosecuting attorney
270270 shall provide victim notification regarding the hearing. The court shall
271271 order the involuntary patient to undergo a mental evaluation by a person
272272 designated by the court. A copy of all orders of the court shall be sent to
273273 the involuntary patient and the patient's attorney. The report of the court
274274 ordered mental evaluation shall be given to the prosecuting attorney, the
275275 involuntary patient and the patient's attorney at least seven days prior to
276276 the hearing. The hearing shall be held within 30 days after the receipt by
277277 the court of the chief medical officer's notice unless the court finds that
278278 exceptional circumstances warrant delay of the hearing. The involuntary
279279 patient shall remain in the appropriate secure facility, state hospital or state
280280 security hospital where the patient is under commitment until the hearing
281281 on the proposed transfer, conditional release or discharge is to be held. At
282282 the hearing, the court shall receive all relevant evidence, including the
283283 written findings and recommendations of the chief medical officer of the
284284 state security hospital or the state hospital or the licensed psychologist of
285285 the appropriate secure facility where the patient is under commitment, and
286286 shall determine whether the patient shall be transferred to a less restrictive
287287 hospital environment or whether the patient shall be conditionally released
288288 or discharged. The patient shall have the right to present evidence at such
289289 hearing and to cross-examine any witnesses called by the prosecuting
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333333 attorney. At the conclusion of the hearing, if the court finds by clear and
334334 convincing evidence that the patient will not be likely to cause harm to self
335335 or others if transferred to a less restrictive hospital environment, the court
336336 shall order the patient transferred. If the court finds by clear and
337337 convincing evidence that the patient is not currently a mentally ill person,
338338 the court shall order the patient discharged or conditionally released;
339339 otherwise, the court shall order the patient to remain in the state security
340340 hospital or state hospital where the patient is under commitment. If the
341341 court orders the conditional release of the patient in accordance with
342342 subsection (d), the court may order as an additional condition to the release
343343 that the patient continue to take prescribed medication and report as
344344 directed to a person licensed to practice medicine and surgery to determine
345345 whether or not the patient is taking the medication or that the patient
346346 continue to receive periodic psychiatric or psychological treatment. The
347347 prosecuting attorney shall notify any victims of the outcome of the
348348 hearing.
349349 (d) In order to ensure the safety and welfare of a patient who is to be
350350 conditionally released and the citizenry of the state, the court may allow
351351 the patient to remain in custody at a facility under the supervision of the
352352 secretary for aging and disability services or the head of the appropriate
353353 secure facility for a period of time not to exceed 45 days in order to permit
354354 sufficient time for the secretary to prepare recommendations to the court
355355 for a suitable reentry program for the patient and allow adequate time for
356356 the prosecuting attorney to provide victim notification. The reentry
357357 program shall be specifically designed to facilitate the return of the patient
358358 to the community as a functioning, self-supporting citizen, and may
359359 include appropriate supportive provisions for assistance in establishing
360360 residency, securing gainful employment, undergoing needed vocational
361361 rehabilitation, receiving marital and family counseling, and such other
362362 outpatient services that appear beneficial. If a patient who is to be
363363 conditionally released will be residing in a county other than the county
364364 where the district court that ordered the conditional release is located, the
365365 court shall transfer venue of the case to the district court of the other
366366 county and send a copy of all of the court's records of the proceedings to
367367 the other court. In all cases of conditional release the court shall:
368368 (1) Order that the patient be placed under the temporary supervision
369369 of district court probation and parole services, community treatment
370370 facility or any appropriate private agency; and
371371 (2) require as a condition precedent to the release that the patient
372372 agree in writing to waive extradition in the event a warrant is issued
373373 pursuant to K.S.A. 22-3428b, and amendments thereto.
374374 (e) At any time during the conditional release period, a conditionally
375375 released patient, through the patient's attorney, or the prosecuting attorney
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419419 of the county where the district court having venue is located may file a
420420 motion for modification of the conditions of release, and the court shall
421421 hold an evidentiary hearing on the motion within 14 days of its filing. The
422422 court shall give notice of the time for the hearing to the patient and the
423423 prosecuting attorney. If the court finds from the evidence at the hearing
424424 that the conditional provisions of release should be modified or vacated, it
425425 shall so order. If at any time during the transitional period the designated
426426 medical officer or supervisory personnel or the treatment facility informs
427427 the court that the patient is not satisfactorily complying with the provisions
428428 of the conditional release, the court, after a hearing for which notice has
429429 been given to the prosecuting attorney and the patient, may make orders:
430430 (1) For additional conditions of release designed to effect the ends of the
431431 reentry program; (2) requiring the prosecuting attorney to file a petition to
432432 determine whether the patient is a mentally ill person as provided in
433433 K.S.A. 59-2957, and amendments thereto; or (3) requiring that the patient
434434 be committed to the appropriate secure facility, state security hospital or
435435 any state hospital. In cases where a petition is ordered to be filed, the court
436436 shall proceed to hear and determine the petition pursuant to the care and
437437 treatment act for mentally ill persons and that act shall apply to all
438438 subsequent proceedings. If a patient is committed to any state hospital
439439 pursuant to this act the prosecuting attorney shall provide victim
440440 notification. The costs of all proceedings, the mental evaluation and the
441441 reentry program authorized by this section shall be paid by the county
442442 from which the person was committed.
443443 (f) In any case in which the a defense that the defendant lacked the
444444 required mental state pursuant to described in K.S.A. 21-5209, and
445445 amendments thereto, is relied on, the court shall instruct the jury on the
446446 substance of this section.
447447 (g) As used in this section and K.S.A. 22-3428a, and amendments
448448 thereto:
449449 (1) "Likely to cause harm to self or others" means that the person is
450450 likely, in the reasonably foreseeable future, to cause substantial physical
451451 injury or physical abuse to self or others or substantial damage to another's
452452 property, or evidenced by behavior causing, attempting or threatening such
453453 injury, abuse or neglect.
454454 (2) "Mentally ill person" means any person who:
455455 (A) Who is suffering from a severe mental disorder to the extent that
456456 such person is in need of treatment; and
457457 (B) who is likely to cause harm to self or others; and
458458 (C) whose diagnosis is not solely one of the following mental
459459 disorders:
460460 (i) Alcohol or chemical substance abuse;
461461 (ii) antisocial personality disorder;
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505505 (iii) intellectual disability;
506506 (iv) organic personality syndrome; or
507507 (v) an organic disorder.
508508 (3) "Treatment facility" means any mental health center or clinic,
509509 psychiatric unit of a medical care facility, psychologist, physician or other
510510 institution or individual authorized or licensed by law to provide either
511511 inpatient or outpatient treatment to any patient.
512512 Sec. 6. K.S.A. 21-5209, 22-3219, 22-3221, 22-3222 and 22-3428 are
513513 hereby repealed.
514514 Sec. 7. This act shall take effect and be in force from and after its
515515 publication in the statute book.
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