Kansas 2023-2024 Regular Session

Kansas House Bill HB2758 Compare Versions

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11 Session of 2024
22 HOUSE BILL No. 2758
33 By Committee on Veterans and Military
44 Requested by Representative Goddard on behalf of Representative Dodson
55 2-8
66 AN ACT concerning veterans and military; relating to the armed forces of
77 the United States; clarifying the definition of armed forces; updating
88 the definition thereof to include the space force; amending K.S.A. 44-
99 706, 48-3401 and 65-1116 and K.S.A. 2023 Supp. 48-3407, 48-3408,
1010 48-3601 and 65-6129 and repealing the existing sections.
1111 Be it enacted by the Legislature of the State of Kansas:
1212 Section 1. K.S.A. 44-706 is hereby amended to read as follows: 44-
1313 706. The secretary shall examine whether an individual has separated from
1414 employment for each week claimed. The secretary shall apply the
1515 provisions of this section to the individual's most recent employment prior
1616 to the week claimed. An individual shall be disqualified for benefits:
1717 (a) If the individual left work voluntarily without good cause
1818 attributable to the work or the employer, subject to the other provisions of
1919 this subsection. For purposes of this subsection, "good cause" is cause of
2020 such gravity that would impel a reasonable, not supersensitive, individual
2121 exercising ordinary common sense to leave employment. Good cause
2222 requires a showing of good faith of the individual leaving work, including
2323 the presence of a genuine desire to work. Failure to return to work after
2424 expiration of approved personal or medical leave, or both, shall be
2525 considered a voluntary resignation. After a temporary job assignment,
2626 failure of an individual to affirmatively request an additional assignment
2727 on the next succeeding workday, if required by the employment
2828 agreement, after completion of a given work assignment, shall constitute
2929 leaving work voluntarily. The disqualification shall begin the day
3030 following the separation and shall continue until after the individual has
3131 become reemployed and has had earnings from insured work of at least
3232 three times the individual's weekly benefit amount. An individual shall not
3333 be disqualified under this subsection if:
3434 (1) The individual was forced to leave work because of illness or
3535 injury upon the advice of a licensed and practicing health care provider
3636 and, upon learning of the necessity for absence, immediately notified the
3737 employer thereof, or the employer consented to the absence, and after
3838 recovery from the illness or injury, when recovery was certified by a
3939 practicing health care provider, the individual returned to the employer and
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7575 offered to perform services and the individual's regular work or
7676 comparable and suitable work was not available. As used in this paragraph
7777 "health care provider" means any person licensed by the proper licensing
7878 authority of any state to engage in the practice of medicine and surgery,
7979 osteopathy, chiropractic, dentistry, optometry, podiatry or psychology;
8080 (2) the individual left temporary work to return to the regular
8181 employer;
8282 (3) the individual left work to enlist enter active service in the armed
8383 forces of the United States, but was rejected or delayed from entry;
8484 (4) the spouse of an individual who is a member of the armed forces
8585 of the United States who left work because of the voluntary or involuntary
8686 transfer of the individual's spouse from one job to another job, which that
8787 is for the same employer or for a different employer, at a geographic
8888 location which that makes it unreasonable for the individual to continue
8989 work at the individual's job. For the purposes of this provision the term
9090 "member of the armed forces" means active duty a person performing
9191 active service in the army, navy, marine corps, air force, space force, coast
9292 guard or any branch component of the military reserves of the United
9393 States;
9494 (5) the individual left work because of hazardous working conditions;
9595 in determining whether or not working conditions are hazardous for an
9696 individual, the degree of risk involved to the individual's health, safety and
9797 morals, the individual's physical fitness and prior training and the working
9898 conditions of workers engaged in the same or similar work for the same
9999 and other employers in the locality shall be considered; as used in this
100100 paragraph, "hazardous working conditions" means working conditions that
101101 could result in a danger to the physical or mental well-being of the
102102 individual; each determination as to whether hazardous working
103103 conditions exist shall include, but shall not be limited to, a consideration
104104 of: (A) The safety measures used or the lack thereof; and (B) the condition
105105 of equipment or lack of proper equipment; no work shall be considered
106106 hazardous if the working conditions surrounding the individual's work are
107107 the same or substantially the same as the working conditions generally
108108 prevailing among individuals performing the same or similar work for
109109 other employers engaged in the same or similar type of activity;
110110 (6) the individual left work to enter training approved under section
111111 236(a)(1) of the federal trade act of 1974, provided the work left is not of a
112112 substantially equal or higher skill level than the individual's past adversely
113113 affected employment, as defined for purposes of the federal trade act of
114114 1974, and wages for such work are not less than 80% of the individual's
115115 average weekly wage as determined for the purposes of the federal trade
116116 act of 1974;
117117 (7) the individual left work because of unwelcome harassment of the
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161161 individual by the employer or another employee of which the employing
162162 unit had knowledge and that would impel the average worker to give up
163163 such worker's employment;
164164 (8) the individual left work to accept better work; each determination
165165 as to whether or not the work accepted is better work shall include, but
166166 shall not be limited to, consideration of: (A) The rate of pay, the hours of
167167 work and the probable permanency of the work left as compared to the
168168 work accepted; (B) the cost to the individual of getting to the work left in
169169 comparison to the cost of getting to the work accepted; and (C) the
170170 distance from the individual's place of residence to the work accepted in
171171 comparison to the distance from the individual's residence to the work left;
172172 (9) the individual left work as a result of being instructed or requested
173173 by the employer, a supervisor or a fellow employee to perform a service or
174174 commit an act in the scope of official job duties which that is in violation
175175 of an ordinance or statute;
176176 (10) the individual left work because of a substantial violation of the
177177 work agreement by the employing unit and, before the individual left, the
178178 individual had exhausted all remedies provided in such agreement for the
179179 settlement of disputes before terminating. For the purposes of this
180180 paragraph, a demotion based on performance does not constitute a
181181 violation of the work agreement;
182182 (11) after making reasonable efforts to preserve the work, the
183183 individual left work due to a personal emergency of such nature and
184184 compelling urgency that it would be contrary to good conscience to
185185 impose a disqualification; or
186186 (12) (A) the individual left work due to circumstances resulting from
187187 domestic violence, including:
188188 (i) The individual's reasonable fear of future domestic violence at or
189189 en route to or from the individual's place of employment;
190190 (ii) the individual's need to relocate to another geographic area in
191191 order to avoid future domestic violence;
192192 (iii) the individual's need to address the physical, psychological and
193193 legal impacts of domestic violence;
194194 (iv) the individual's need to leave employment as a condition of
195195 receiving services or shelter from an agency which that provides support
196196 services or shelter to victims of domestic violence; or
197197 (v) the individual's reasonable belief that termination of employment
198198 is necessary to avoid other situations which that may cause domestic
199199 violence and to provide for the future safety of the individual or the
200200 individual's family.
201201 (B) An individual may prove the existence of domestic violence by
202202 providing one of the following:
203203 (i) A restraining order or other documentation of equitable relief by a
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247247 court of competent jurisdiction;
248248 (ii) a police record documenting the abuse;
249249 (iii) documentation that the abuser has been convicted of one or more
250250 of the offenses enumerated in articles 34 and 35 of chapter 21 of the
251251 Kansas Statutes Annotated, prior to their repeal, or articles 54 or 55 of
252252 chapter 21 of the Kansas Statutes Annotated, or K.S.A. 21-6104, 21-6325,
253253 21-6326 or 21-6418 through 21-6422, and amendments thereto, where the
254254 victim was a family or household member;
255255 (iv) medical documentation of the abuse;
256256 (v) a statement provided by a counselor, social worker, health care
257257 provider, clergy, shelter worker, legal advocate, domestic violence or
258258 sexual assault advocate or other professional who has assisted the
259259 individual in dealing with the effects of abuse on the individual or the
260260 individual's family; or
261261 (vi) a sworn statement from the individual attesting to the abuse.
262262 (C) No evidence of domestic violence experienced by an individual,
263263 including the individual's statement and corroborating evidence, shall be
264264 disclosed by the department of labor unless consent for disclosure is given
265265 by the individual.
266266 (b) If the individual has been discharged or suspended for misconduct
267267 connected with the individual's work. The disqualification shall begin the
268268 day following the separation and shall continue until after the individual
269269 becomes reemployed and in cases where the disqualification is due to
270270 discharge for misconduct has had earnings from insured work of at least
271271 three times the individual's determined weekly benefit amount, except that
272272 if an individual is discharged for gross misconduct connected with the
273273 individual's work, such individual shall be disqualified for benefits until
274274 such individual again becomes employed and has had earnings from
275275 insured work of at least eight times such individual's determined weekly
276276 benefit amount. In addition, all wage credits attributable to the
277277 employment from which the individual was discharged for gross
278278 misconduct connected with the individual's work shall be canceled. No
279279 such cancellation of wage credits shall affect prior payments made as a
280280 result of a prior separation.
281281 (1) For the purposes of this As used in this subsection, "misconduct"
282282 is defined as means a violation of a duty or obligation reasonably owed the
283283 employer as a condition of employment including, but not limited to, a
284284 violation of a company rule, including a safety rule, if: (A) The individual
285285 knew or should have known about the rule; (B) the rule was lawful and
286286 reasonably related to the job; and (C) the rule was fairly and consistently
287287 enforced.
288288 (2) (A) Failure of the employee to notify the employer of an absence
289289 and an individual's leaving work prior to the end of such individual's
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333333 assigned work period without permission shall be considered prima facie
334334 evidence of a violation of a duty or obligation reasonably owed the
335335 employer as a condition of employment.
336336 (B) For the purposes of this subsection, misconduct shall include, but
337337 not be limited to, violation of the employer's reasonable attendance
338338 expectations if the facts show:
339339 (i) The individual was absent or tardy without good cause;
340340 (ii) the individual had knowledge of the employer's attendance
341341 expectation; and
342342 (iii) the employer gave notice to the individual that future absence or
343343 tardiness may or will result in discharge.
344344 (C) For the purposes of this subsection, if an employee disputes being
345345 absent or tardy without good cause, the employee shall present evidence
346346 that a majority of the employee's absences or tardiness were for good
347347 cause. If the employee alleges that the employee's repeated absences or
348348 tardiness were the result of health related issues, such evidence shall
349349 include documentation from a licensed and practicing health care provider
350350 as defined in subsection (a)(1).
351351 (3) (A) The term "gross misconduct" as used in this subsection shall
352352 be construed to mean conduct evincing extreme, willful or wanton
353353 misconduct as defined by this subsection. Gross misconduct shall include,
354354 but not be limited to: (i) Theft; (ii) fraud; (iii) intentional damage to
355355 property; (iv) intentional infliction of personal injury; or (v) any conduct
356356 that constitutes a felony.
357357 (B) For the purposes of this subsection, the following shall be
358358 conclusive evidence of gross misconduct:
359359 (i) The use of alcoholic liquor, cereal malt beverage or a
360360 nonprescribed controlled substance by an individual while working;
361361 (ii) the impairment caused by alcoholic liquor, cereal malt beverage
362362 or a nonprescribed controlled substance by an individual while working;
363363 (iii) a positive breath alcohol test or a positive chemical test, provided
364364 if:
365365 (a) The test was either:
366366 (1) Required by law and was administered pursuant to the drug free
367367 workplace act, 41 U.S.C. § 701 et seq.;
368368 (2) administered as part of an employee assistance program or other
369369 drug or alcohol treatment program in which the employee was
370370 participating voluntarily or as a condition of further employment;
371371 (3) requested pursuant to a written policy of the employer of which
372372 the employee had knowledge and was a required condition of
373373 employment;
374374 (4) required by law and the test constituted a required condition of
375375 employment for the individual's job; or
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419419 (5) there was reasonable suspicion to believe that the individual used,
420420 had possession of, or was impaired by alcoholic liquor, cereal malt
421421 beverage or a nonprescribed controlled substance while working;
422422 (b) the test sample was collected either:
423423 (1) As prescribed by the drug free workplace act, 41 U.S.C. § 701 et
424424 seq.;
425425 (2) as prescribed by an employee assistance program or other drug or
426426 alcohol treatment program in which the employee was participating
427427 voluntarily or as a condition of further employment;
428428 (3) as prescribed by the written policy of the employer of which the
429429 employee had knowledge and which that constituted a required condition
430430 of employment;
431431 (4) as prescribed by a test which that was required by law and which
432432 constituted a required condition of employment for the individual's job; or
433433 (5) at a time contemporaneous with the events establishing probable
434434 cause;
435435 (c) the collecting and labeling of a chemical test sample was
436436 performed by a licensed health care professional or any other individual
437437 certified pursuant to paragraph (b)(3)(A)(iii)(f) or authorized to collect or
438438 label test samples by federal or state law, or a federal or state rule or
439439 regulation having the force or effect of law, including law enforcement
440440 personnel;
441441 (d) the chemical test was performed by a laboratory approved by the
442442 United States department of health and human services or licensed by the
443443 department of health and environment, except that a blood sample may be
444444 tested for alcohol content by a laboratory commonly used for that purpose
445445 by state law enforcement agencies;
446446 (e) the chemical test was confirmed by gas chromatography, gas
447447 chromatography-mass spectroscopy or other comparably reliable
448448 analytical method, except that no such confirmation is required for a blood
449449 alcohol sample or a breath alcohol test;
450450 (f) the breath alcohol test was administered by an individual trained
451451 to perform breath tests, the breath testing instrument used was certified
452452 and operated strictly according to a description provided by the
453453 manufacturers and the reliability of the instrument performance was
454454 assured by testing with alcohol standards; and
455455 (g) the foundation evidence establishes, beyond a reasonable doubt,
456456 that the test results were from the sample taken from the individual;
457457 (iv) an individual's refusal to submit to a chemical test or breath
458458 alcohol test, provided if:
459459 (a) The test meets the standards of the drug free workplace act, 41
460460 U.S.C. § 701 et seq.;
461461 (b) the test was administered as part of an employee assistance
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505505 program or other drug or alcohol treatment program in which the
506506 employee was participating voluntarily or as a condition of further
507507 employment;
508508 (c) the test was otherwise required by law and the test constituted a
509509 required condition of employment for the individual's job;
510510 (d) the test was requested pursuant to a written policy of the employer
511511 of which the employee had knowledge and was a required condition of
512512 employment; or
513513 (e) there was reasonable suspicion to believe that the individual used,
514514 possessed or was impaired by alcoholic liquor, cereal malt beverage or a
515515 nonprescribed controlled substance while working; and
516516 (v) an individual's dilution or other tampering of a chemical test.
517517 (C) For purposes of this subsection:
518518 (i) "Alcohol concentration" means the number of grams of alcohol
519519 per 210 liters of breath;
520520 (ii) "alcoholic liquor" means the same as provided defined in K.S.A.
521521 41-102, and amendments thereto;
522522 (iii) "cereal malt beverage" means the same as provided defined in
523523 K.S.A. 41-2701, and amendments thereto;
524524 (iv) "chemical test" includes, but is not limited to, tests of urine,
525525 blood or saliva;
526526 (v) "controlled substance" means the same as provided defined in
527527 K.S.A. 21-5701, and amendments thereto;
528528 (vi) "required by law" means required by a federal or state law, a
529529 federal or state rule or regulation having the force and effect of law, a
530530 county resolution or municipal ordinance, or a policy relating to public
531531 safety adopted in an open meeting by the governing body of any special
532532 district or other local governmental entity;
533533 (vii) "positive breath test" means a test result showing an alcohol
534534 concentration of 0.04 or greater, or the levels listed in 49 C.F.R. part 40, if
535535 applicable, unless the test was administered as part of an employee
536536 assistance program or other drug or alcohol treatment program in which
537537 the employee was participating voluntarily or as a condition of further
538538 employment, in which case "positive chemical test" shall mean means a
539539 test result showing an alcohol concentration at or above the levels
540540 provided for in the assistance or treatment program; and
541541 (viii) "positive chemical test" means a chemical result showing a
542542 concentration at or above the levels listed in K.S.A. 44-501, and
543543 amendments thereto, or 49 C.F.R. part 40, as applicable, for the drugs or
544544 abuse listed therein, unless the test was administered as part of an
545545 employee assistance program or other drug or alcohol treatment program
546546 in which the employee was participating voluntarily or as a condition of
547547 further employment, in which case "positive chemical test" means a
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591591 chemical result showing a concentration at or above the levels provided for
592592 in the assistance or treatment program.
593593 (4) An individual shall not be disqualified under this subsection if the
594594 individual is discharged under the following circumstances:
595595 (A) The employer discharged the individual after learning the
596596 individual was seeking other work or when the individual gave notice of
597597 future intent to quit, except that the individual shall be disqualified after
598598 the time at which that such individual intended to quit and any individual
599599 who commits misconduct after such individual gives notice to such
600600 individual's intent to quit shall be disqualified;
601601 (B) the individual was making a good-faith effort to do the assigned
602602 work but was discharged due to:
603603 (i) Inefficiency;
604604 (ii) unsatisfactory performance due to inability, incapacity or lack of
605605 training or experience;
606606 (iii) isolated instances of ordinary negligence or inadvertence;
607607 (iv) good-faith errors in judgment or discretion; or
608608 (v) unsatisfactory work or conduct due to circumstances beyond the
609609 individual's control; or
610610 (C) the individual's refusal to perform work in excess of the contract
611611 of hire.
612612 (c) If the individual has failed, without good cause, to either apply for
613613 suitable work when so directed by the employment office of the secretary
614614 of labor, or to accept suitable work when offered to the individual by the
615615 employment office, the secretary of labor, or an employer, such
616616 disqualification shall begin with the week in which such failure occurred
617617 and shall continue until the individual becomes reemployed and has had
618618 earnings from insured work of at least three times such individual's
619619 determined weekly benefit amount. In determining whether or not any
620620 work is suitable for an individual, the secretary of labor, or a person or
621621 persons designated by the secretary, shall consider the degree of risk
622622 involved to health, safety and morals, physical fitness and prior training,
623623 experience and prior earnings, length of unemployment and prospects for
624624 securing local work in the individual's customary occupation or work for
625625 which the individual is reasonably fitted fit by training or experience, and
626626 the distance of the available work from the individual's residence.
627627 Notwithstanding any other provisions of this act, an otherwise eligible
628628 individual shall not be disqualified for refusing an offer of suitable
629629 employment, or failing to apply for suitable employment when notified by
630630 an employment office, or for leaving the individual's most recent work
631631 accepted during approved training, including training approved under
632632 section 236(a)(1) of the trade act of 1974, if the acceptance of or applying
633633 for suitable employment or continuing such work would require the
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677677 individual to terminate approved training and no work shall be deemed
678678 suitable and benefits shall not be denied under this act to any otherwise
679679 eligible individual for refusing to accept new work under any of the
680680 following conditions:
681681 (1) If the position offered is vacant due directly to a strike, lockout or
682682 other labor dispute;
683683 (2) if the remuneration, hours or other conditions of the work offered
684684 are substantially less favorable to the individual than those prevailing for
685685 similar work in the locality;
686686 (3) if as a condition of being employed, the individual would be
687687 required to join or to resign from or refrain from joining any labor
688688 organization; and
689689 (4) if the individual left employment as a result of domestic violence,
690690 and the position offered does not reasonably accommodate the individual's
691691 physical, psychological, safety, or legal needs relating to such domestic
692692 violence.
693693 (d) For any week with respect to which the secretary of labor, or a
694694 person or persons designated by the secretary, finds that the individual's
695695 unemployment is due to a stoppage of work which that exists because of a
696696 labor dispute or there would have been a work stoppage had normal
697697 operations not been maintained with other personnel previously and
698698 currently employed by the same employer at the factory, establishment or
699699 other premises at which the individual is or was last employed, except that
700700 this subsection (d) shall not apply if it is shown to the satisfaction of the
701701 secretary of labor, or a person or persons designated by the secretary, that:
702702 (1) The individual is not participating in or financing or directly
703703 interested in the labor dispute which that caused the stoppage of work; and
704704 (2) the individual does not belong to a grade or class of workers of
705705 which, immediately before the commencement of the stoppage, there were
706706 members employed at the premises at which where the stoppage occurs
707707 any of whom are participating in or financing or directly interested in the
708708 dispute. If in any case separate branches of work which that are commonly
709709 conducted as separate businesses in separate premises are conducted in
710710 separate departments of the same premises, each such department shall, for
711711 the purpose of this subsection be deemed to be a separate factory,
712712 establishment or other premises. For the purposes of this subsection,
713713 failure or refusal to cross a picket line or refusal for any reason during the
714714 continuance of such labor dispute to accept the individual's available and
715715 customary work at the factory, establishment or other premises where the
716716 individual is or was last employed shall be considered as participation and
717717 interest in the labor dispute.
718718 (e) For any week with respect to which or a part of the week in which
719719 the individual has received or is seeking unemployment benefits under the
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763763 unemployment compensation law of any other state or of the United
764764 States, except that if the appropriate agency of such other state or the
765765 United States finally determines that the individual is not entitled to such
766766 unemployment benefits, this disqualification shall not apply.
767767 (f) For any week with respect to for which the individual is entitled to
768768 receive any unemployment allowance or compensation granted by the
769769 United States under an act of congress to ex-service men and women
770770 former members of the armed forces in recognition of former service with
771771 the military or, naval, air or space services of the United States.
772772 (g) If the individual, or another in such individual's behalf with the
773773 knowledge of the individual, has knowingly made a false statement or
774774 representation, or has knowingly failed to disclose a material fact to obtain
775775 or increase benefits under this act or any other unemployment
776776 compensation law administered by the secretary of labor, unless the
777777 individual has repaid the full amount of the overpayment as determined by
778778 the secretary or the secretary's designee, including, but not limited to, the
779779 total amount of money erroneously paid as benefits or unlawfully
780780 obtained, interest, penalties and any other costs or fees provided by law. If
781781 the individual has made such repayment, the individual shall be
782782 disqualified for a period of one year for the first occurrence or five years
783783 for any subsequent occurrence, beginning with the first day following the
784784 date the department of labor confirmed the individual has successfully
785785 repaid the full amount of the overpayment. In addition to the penalties set
786786 forth in K.S.A. 44-719, and amendments thereto, an individual who has
787787 knowingly made a false statement or representation or who has knowingly
788788 failed to disclose a material fact to obtain or increase benefits under this
789789 act or any other unemployment compensation law administered by the
790790 secretary of labor shall be liable for a penalty in the amount equal to 25%
791791 of the amount of benefits unlawfully received. Notwithstanding any other
792792 provision of law, such penalty shall be deposited into the employment
793793 security trust fund. No person who is a victim of identify theft shall be
794794 subject to the provisions of this subsection. The secretary shall investigate
795795 all cases of an alleged false statement or representation or failure to
796796 disclose a material fact to ensure no victim of identity theft is disqualified,
797797 required to repay or subject to any penalty as provided by this subsection
798798 as a result of identity theft.
799799 (h) For any week with respect to for which the individual is receiving
800800 compensation for temporary total disability or permanent total disability
801801 under the workmen's compensation law of any state or under a similar law
802802 of the United States.
803803 (i) For any week of unemployment on the basis of service in an
804804 instructional, research or principal administrative capacity for an
805805 educational institution as defined in K.S.A. 44-703(v), and amendments
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849849 thereto, if such week begins during the period between two successive
850850 academic years or terms or, when an agreement provides instead for a
851851 similar period between two regular but not successive terms during such
852852 period or during a period of paid sabbatical leave provided for in the
853853 individual's contract, if the individual performs such services in the first of
854854 such academic years or terms and there is a contract or a reasonable
855855 assurance that such individual will perform services in any such capacity
856856 for any educational institution in the second of such academic years or
857857 terms.
858858 (j) For any week of unemployment on the basis of service in any
859859 capacity other than service in an instructional, research, or administrative
860860 capacity in an educational institution, as defined in K.S.A. 44-703(v), and
861861 amendments thereto, if such week begins during the period between two
862862 successive academic years or terms if the individual performs such
863863 services in the first of such academic years or terms and there is a
864864 reasonable assurance that the individual will perform such services in the
865865 second of such academic years or terms, except that if benefits are denied
866866 to the individual under this subsection and the individual was not offered
867867 an opportunity to perform such services for the educational institution for
868868 the second of such academic years or terms, such individual shall be
869869 entitled to a retroactive payment of benefits for each week for which the
870870 individual filed a timely claim for benefits and for which such benefits
871871 were denied solely by reason of this subsection.
872872 (k) For any week of unemployment on the basis of service in any
873873 capacity for an educational institution as defined in K.S.A. 44-703(v), and
874874 amendments thereto, if such week begins during an established and
875875 customary vacation period or holiday recess, if the individual performs
876876 services in the period immediately before such vacation period or holiday
877877 recess and there is a reasonable assurance that such individual will perform
878878 such services in the period immediately following such vacation period or
879879 holiday recess.
880880 (l) For any week of unemployment on the basis of any services,
881881 substantially all of which consist consisting of participating in sports or
882882 athletic events or training or preparing to so participate, if such week
883883 begins during the period between two successive sport seasons or similar
884884 period if such individual performed services in the first of such seasons or
885885 similar periods and there is a reasonable assurance that such individual
886886 will perform such services in the later of such seasons or similar periods.
887887 (m) For any week on the basis of services performed by an alien
888888 unless such alien is an individual who was lawfully admitted for
889889 permanent residence at the time such services were performed, was
890890 lawfully present for purposes of performing such services, or was
891891 permanently residing in the United States under color of law at the time
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935935 such services were performed, including an alien who was lawfully present
936936 in the United States as a result of the application of the provisions of
937937 section 212(d)(5) of the federal immigration and nationality act. Any data
938938 or information required of individuals applying for benefits to determine
939939 whether benefits are not payable to them because of their alien status shall
940940 be uniformly required from all applicants for benefits. In the case of an
941941 individual whose application for benefits would otherwise be approved, no
942942 determination that benefits to such individual are not payable because of
943943 such individual's alien status shall be made except upon a preponderance
944944 of the evidence.
945945 (n) For any week in which an individual is receiving a governmental
946946 or other pension, retirement or retired pay, annuity or other similar
947947 periodic payment under a plan maintained by a base period employer and
948948 to which the entire contributions were provided by such employer, except
949949 that:
950950 (1) If the entire contributions to such plan were provided by the base
951951 period employer but such individual's weekly benefit amount exceeds such
952952 governmental or other pension, retirement or retired pay, annuity or other
953953 similar periodic payment attributable to such week, the weekly benefit
954954 amount payable to the individual shall be reduced, but not below zero, by
955955 an amount equal to the amount of such pension, retirement or retired pay,
956956 annuity or other similar periodic payment which that is attributable to such
957957 week; or
958958 (2) if only a portion of contributions to such plan were provided by
959959 the base period employer, the weekly benefit amount payable to such
960960 individual for such week shall be reduced, but not below zero, by the
961961 prorated weekly amount of the pension, retirement or retired pay, annuity
962962 or other similar periodic payment after deduction of that portion of the
963963 pension, retirement or retired pay, annuity or other similar periodic
964964 payment that is directly attributable to the percentage of the contributions
965965 made to the plan by such individual; or
966966 (3) if the entire contributions to the plan were provided by such
967967 individual, or by the individual and an employer, or any person or
968968 organization, who is not a base period employer, no reduction in the
969969 weekly benefit amount payable to the individual for such week shall be
970970 made under this subsection; or
971971 (4) whatever portion of contributions to such plan were provided by
972972 the base period employer, if the services performed for the employer by
973973 such individual during the base period, or remuneration received for the
974974 services, did not affect the individual's eligibility for, or increased the
975975 amount of, such pension, retirement or retired pay, annuity or other similar
976976 periodic payment, no reduction in the weekly benefit amount payable to
977977 the individual for such week shall be made under this subsection. No
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10211021 reduction shall be made for payments made under the social security act or
10221022 railroad retirement act of 1974.
10231023 (o) For any week of unemployment on the basis of services
10241024 performed in any capacity and under any of the circumstances described in
10251025 subsection (i), (j) or (k) that an individual performed in an educational
10261026 institution while in the employ of an educational service agency. For the
10271027 purposes of this subsection, the term "educational service agency" means a
10281028 governmental agency or entity which that is established and operated
10291029 exclusively for the purpose of providing such services to one or more
10301030 educational institutions.
10311031 (p) For any week of unemployment on the basis of service as a school
10321032 bus or other motor vehicle driver employed by a private contractor to
10331033 transport pupils, students and school personnel to or from school-related
10341034 functions or activities for an educational institution, as defined in K.S.A.
10351035 44-703(v), and amendments thereto, if such week begins during the period
10361036 between two successive academic years or during a similar period between
10371037 two regular terms, whether or not successive, if the individual has a
10381038 contract or contracts, or a reasonable assurance thereof, to perform
10391039 services in any such capacity with a private contractor for any educational
10401040 institution for both such academic years or both such terms. An individual
10411041 shall not be disqualified for benefits as provided in this subsection for any
10421042 week of unemployment on the basis of service as a bus or other motor
10431043 vehicle driver employed by a private contractor to transport persons to or
10441044 from nonschool-related functions or activities.
10451045 (q) For any week of unemployment on the basis of services
10461046 performed by the individual in any capacity and under any of the
10471047 circumstances described in subsection (i), (j), (k) or (o) which that are
10481048 provided to or on behalf of an educational institution, as defined in K.S.A.
10491049 44-703(v), and amendments thereto, while the individual is in the employ
10501050 of an employer which that is a governmental entity, Indian tribe or any
10511051 employer described in section 501(c)(3) of the federal internal revenue
10521052 code of 1986 which that is exempt from income under section 501(a) of
10531053 the code.
10541054 (r) For any week in which an individual is registered at and attending
10551055 an established school, training facility or other educational institution, or is
10561056 on vacation during or between two successive academic years or terms. An
10571057 individual shall not be disqualified for benefits as provided in this
10581058 subsection provided if:
10591059 (1) The individual was engaged in full-time employment concurrent
10601060 with the individual's school attendance;
10611061 (2) the individual is attending approved training as defined in K.S.A.
10621062 44-703(s), and amendments thereto; or
10631063 (3) the individual is attending evening, weekend or limited day time
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11071107 classes, which that would not affect availability for work, and is otherwise
11081108 eligible under K.S.A. 44-705(c), and amendments thereto.
11091109 (s) For any week with respect to in which an individual is receiving
11101110 or has received remuneration in the form of a back pay award or
11111111 settlement. The remuneration shall be allocated to the week or weeks in
11121112 the manner as specified in the award or agreement, or in the absence of
11131113 such specificity in the award or agreement, such remuneration shall be
11141114 allocated to the week or weeks in for which such remuneration, in the
11151115 judgment of the secretary, would have been paid.
11161116 (1) For any such weeks that an individual receives remuneration in
11171117 the form of a back pay award or settlement, an overpayment will be
11181118 established in the amount of unemployment benefits paid and shall be
11191119 collected from the claimant.
11201120 (2) If an employer chooses to withhold from a back pay award or
11211121 settlement, amounts paid to a claimant while they claimed unemployment
11221122 benefits, such employer shall pay the department the amount withheld.
11231123 With respect to such amount, the secretary shall have available all of the
11241124 collection remedies authorized or provided in K.S.A. 44-717, and
11251125 amendments thereto.
11261126 (t) (1) Any applicant for or recipient of unemployment benefits who
11271127 tests positive for unlawful use of a controlled substance or controlled
11281128 substance analog shall be required to complete a substance abuse treatment
11291129 program approved by the secretary of labor, secretary of commerce or
11301130 secretary for children and families, and a job skills program approved by
11311131 the secretary of labor, secretary of commerce or the secretary for children
11321132 and families. Subject to applicable federal laws, any applicant for or
11331133 recipient of unemployment benefits who fails to complete or refuses to
11341134 participate in the substance abuse treatment program or job skills program
11351135 as required under this subsection shall be ineligible to receive
11361136 unemployment benefits until completion of such substance abuse
11371137 treatment and job skills programs. Upon completion of both substance
11381138 abuse treatment and job skills programs, such applicant for or recipient of
11391139 unemployment benefits may be subject to periodic drug screening, as
11401140 determined by the secretary of labor. Upon a second positive test for
11411141 unlawful use of a controlled substance or controlled substance analog, an
11421142 applicant for or recipient of unemployment benefits shall be ordered to
11431143 complete again a substance abuse treatment program and job skills
11441144 program, and shall be terminated from unemployment benefits for a period
11451145 of 12 months, or until such applicant for or recipient of unemployment
11461146 benefits completes both substance abuse treatment and job skills programs,
11471147 whichever is later. Upon a third positive test for unlawful use of a
11481148 controlled substance or controlled substance analog, an applicant for or a
11491149 recipient of unemployment benefits shall be terminated from receiving
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11931193 unemployment benefits, subject to applicable federal law.
11941194 (2) Any individual who has been discharged or refused employment
11951195 for failing a preemployment drug screen required by an employer may
11961196 request that the drug screening specimen be sent to a different drug testing
11971197 facility for an additional drug screening. Any such individual who requests
11981198 an additional drug screening at a different drug testing facility shall be
11991199 required to pay the cost of drug screening.
12001200 (u) If the individual was found not to have a disqualifying
12011201 adjudication or conviction under K.S.A. 39-970 or 65-5117, and
12021202 amendments thereto, was hired and then was subsequently convicted of a
12031203 disqualifying felony under K.S.A. 39-970 or 65-5117, and amendments
12041204 thereto, and discharged pursuant to K.S.A. 39-970 or 65-5117, and
12051205 amendments thereto. The disqualification shall begin the day following the
12061206 separation and shall continue until after the individual becomes
12071207 reemployed and has had earnings from insured work of at least three times
12081208 the individual's determined weekly benefit amount.
12091209 (v) Notwithstanding the provisions of any subsection, an individual
12101210 shall not be disqualified for such week of part-time employment in a
12111211 substitute capacity for an educational institution if such individual's most
12121212 recent employment prior to the individual's benefit year begin date was for
12131213 a non-educational institution and such individual demonstrates application
12141214 for work in such individual's customary occupation or for work for which
12151215 the individual is reasonably fitted fit by training or experience.
12161216 Sec. 2. K.S.A. 48-3401 is hereby amended to read as follows: 48-
12171217 3401. As used in K.S.A. 48-3401 through 48-3405 of this act:
12181218 (a) "Military Active service" means service on active duty performed
12191219 by a licensee in who is a member of the army, navy, marine corps, air
12201220 force, space force, air or army national guard of any of the several states
12211221 and territories, Puerto Rico and the District of Columbia, coast guard or
12221222 any branch component of the military reserves of the United States.
12231223 (b) "License" means any permit, certificate, authority, privilege or
12241224 registration whether temporary or permanent issued, granted or made by
12251225 the state of Kansas or any officer, board, department or commission or
12261226 agency thereof authorizing a person to engage in or practice an occupation
12271227 or profession in this state.
12281228 (c) "Licensee" means a person who had, at the time of commencing a
12291229 period of military service, a valid, existing license to engage in or practice
12301230 an occupation or profession in this state. "Licensee" also means a person
12311231 who, while in military performing active service, obtains a valid license to
12321232 engage in or practice an occupation or profession in this state.
12331233 Sec. 3. K.S.A. 2023 Supp. 48-3407 is hereby amended to read as
12341234 follows: 48-3407. (a) For the purposes of As used in this section:
12351235 (1) "Applicant" means a person who entered into military active
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12791279 service and separated from such military active service with an honorable
12801280 discharge or a general discharge under honorable conditions;
12811281 (2) "licensing body" has the meaning ascribed thereto means the
12821282 same as defined in K.S.A. 74-146, and amendments thereto, except for
12831283 licensing boards under K.S.A. 65-1116 and 65-6129, and amendments
12841284 thereto; and
12851285 (3) "military active service" means service on active duty performed
12861286 by a member of the army, navy, marine corps, air force, space force, air or
12871287 army national guard of any state of the several states and territories,
12881288 Puerto Rico and the District of Columbia, coast guard or any branch
12891289 component of the military reserves of the United States.
12901290 (b) (1) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, upon presentation
12911291 of a completed application by an applicant with an honorable discharge for
12921292 certification or licensure, a licensing body shall accept education, training
12931293 or service completed in military active service by the applicant towards
12941294 any educational requirements for certification or licensure in this state if
12951295 the applicant demonstrates to the satisfaction of the licensing body that
12961296 such education, training or service obtained is substantially equivalent to
12971297 the existing educational requirements of such licensure or certification. No
12981298 education, training or service shall count towards any examination
12991299 requirements unless such licensing body has provided a waiver for such
13001300 requirement. The licensing body may require the applicant to provide
13011301 documentation of such education, training or service as deemed necessary
13021302 by the licensing body to determine substantial equivalency.
13031303 (2) A licensing board under this section may accept education,
13041304 training or service completed in military active service towards any
13051305 educational requirements for certification or licensure in this state if an
13061306 applicant was separated from military service the armed forces with a
13071307 general discharge under honorable conditions.
13081308 (c) Each licensing body may adopt rules and regulations necessary to
13091309 implement and carry out the provisions of this section.
13101310 (d) This section shall not apply to the practice of law or the regulation
13111311 of attorneys pursuant to K.S.A. 7-103, and amendments thereto.
13121312 Sec. 4. K.S.A. 2023 Supp. 48-3408 is hereby amended to read as
13131313 follows: 48-3408. (a) For the purposes of As used in this section:
13141314 (1) "Accreditation" has the meaning ascribed thereto means the same
13151315 as defined in K.S.A. 74-32,163, and amendments thereto;
13161316 (2) "accredited educational institution" means an educational
13171317 institution that has achieved and maintained accreditation;
13181318 (3) "applicant" means a person who entered into military active
13191319 service and separated from such military service the armed forces under
13201320 conditions other than dishonorable;
13211321 (4) "community college" means any community college established
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13651365 under the laws of this state;
13661366 (5) "distance education course" means a course consisting solely or
13671367 primarily of instruction provided online or in other computer-assisted
13681368 formats, or by correspondence, audiotape, videotape or other media;
13691369 (6) "educational institution" means any postsecondary educational
13701370 institution, private postsecondary educational institution and out-of-state
13711371 postsecondary educational institution;
13721372 (7) "institute of technology" or "Washburn institute of technology"
13731373 means the institute of technology at Washburn university;
13741374 (8) "licensing body" has the meaning ascribed thereto means the
13751375 same as defined in K.S.A. 74-146, and amendments thereto;
13761376 (9) "militaryactive service" means service on active duty performed
13771377 by a member of the army, navy, marine corps, air force, space force, air or
13781378 army national guard of any state of the several states and territories,
13791379 Puerto Rico and the District of Columbia, coast guard or any branch
13801380 component of the military reserves of the United States;
13811381 (10) "municipal university" means Washburn university of Topeka or
13821382 any other municipal university established under the laws of this state;
13831383 (11) "out-of-state postsecondary educational institution" has the
13841384 meaning ascribed thereto means the same as defined in K.S.A. 74-32,163,
13851385 and amendments thereto;
13861386 (12) "postsecondary educational institution" means any state
13871387 educational institution, municipal university, community college, technical
13881388 college and institute of technology, and includes any entity resulting from
13891389 the consolidation or affiliation of any two or more of such postsecondary
13901390 educational institutions;
13911391 (13) "private postsecondary educational institution" has the meaning
13921392 ascribed thereto means the same as defined in K.S.A. 74-32,163, and
13931393 amendments thereto;
13941394 (14) "state educational institution" means any state educational
13951395 institution, the same as defined in K.S.A. 76-711, and amendments thereto;
13961396 and
13971397 (15) "technical college" means any technical college established
13981398 under the laws of this state.
13991399 (b) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a licensing body may
14001400 authorize any educational requirements for certification or licensure in this
14011401 state to be waived if an applicant provides satisfactory evidence of
14021402 completion of a distance education course. To qualify for such a waiver,
14031403 the distance education course must be:
14041404 (1) Provided by an accredited educational institution; and
14051405 (2) substantially equivalent to the educational standards required for
14061406 certification or licensure in this state.
14071407 (c) Each licensing body may adopt rules and regulations necessary to
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14511451 implement and carry out the provisions of this section.
14521452 (d) This section shall not apply to the practice of law or the regulation
14531453 of attorneys pursuant to K.S.A. 7-103, and amendments thereto.
14541454 Sec. 5. K.S.A. 2023 Supp. 48-3601 is hereby amended to read as
14551455 follows: 48-3601. (a) A current member of the armed forces of the United
14561456 States or the member's spouse or dependent child who is enrolled or has
14571457 been accepted for admission at a postsecondary educational institution as a
14581458 postsecondary student shall be deemed to be a resident of the state for the
14591459 purpose of tuition and fees for attendance at such postsecondary
14601460 educational institution.
14611461 (b) A person is entitled to pay tuition and fees at an institution of
14621462 higher education at the rates provided for Kansas residents without regard
14631463 to the length of time the person has resided in the state if the person:
14641464 (1) (A) Files a letter of intent to establish residence in the state with
14651465 the postsecondary educational institution at which the person intends to
14661466 register;
14671467 (B) lives in the state while attending the postsecondary educational
14681468 institution; and
14691469 (C) is eligible for benefits under the federal post-9/11 veterans
14701470 educational assistance act of 2008, 38 U.S.C. § 3301 et seq., or any other
14711471 federal law authorizing educational benefits for veterans;
14721472 (2) (A) is a veteran;
14731473 (B) was stationed in Kansas for at least 11 months during service in
14741474 the armed forces or had established residency in Kansas prior to service in
14751475 the armed forces; and
14761476 (C) lives in Kansas at the time of enrollment; or
14771477 (3) (A) is the spouse or dependent of a veteran who was stationed in
14781478 Kansas for at least 11 months during such veteran's service in the armed
14791479 forces or had established residency in Kansas prior to service in the armed
14801480 forces; and
14811481 (B) lives in Kansas at the time of enrollment.
14821482 (c) As used in this section:
14831483 (1) "Armed forces" means the army, navy, marine corps, air force,
14841484 space force, coast guard, Kansas army or air national guard or any branch
14851485 of the military reserves of the United States;
14861486 (2) "postsecondary educational institution" means the same as
14871487 provided defined in K.S.A. 74-3201b, and amendments thereto; and
14881488 (3) "veteran" means a person who has been separated from the armed
14891489 forces served in the active military, naval, air or space service and who
14901490 was honorably discharged or received a general discharge released
14911491 therefrom under honorable conditions other than dishonorable.
14921492 (d) This section shall be a part of and supplemental to chapter 48 of
14931493 the Kansas Statutes Annotated, and amendments thereto.
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15371537 Sec. 6. K.S.A. 65-1116 is hereby amended to read as follows: 65-
15381538 1116. (a) Qualification. An applicant for a license to practice as a licensed
15391539 practical nurse shall:
15401540 (1) Have graduated from an approved school of practical nursing or
15411541 professional nursing in the United States or its territories or from a school
15421542 of practical nursing or professional nursing in a foreign country which that
15431543 is approved by the board as defined in rules and regulations;
15441544 (2) have obtained other qualifications not in conflict with this act as
15451545 the board may prescribe by rule and regulation; and
15461546 (3) file with the board a written application for a license.
15471547 (b) If the board finds in evaluating any applicant that such applicant is
15481548 deficient in qualification or in the quality of such applicant's educational
15491549 experience, the board may require such applicant to fulfill such remedial
15501550 or other requirements as the board may prescribe.
15511551 (c) License. (1) The board shall issue a license to an applicant to
15521552 practice as a practical nurse who has:
15531553 (A) Met the qualifications set forth in subsections (a) and (b);
15541554 (B) passed a written examination as prescribed by the board; and
15551555 (C) no disqualifying factors under K.S.A. 65-1120, and amendments
15561556 thereto.
15571557 (2) The board may issue a license to practice nursing as a practical
15581558 nurse to an applicant who has been duly licensed as a practical nurse by
15591559 examination under the laws of another state or territory if, in the opinion of
15601560 the board, the applicant meets the qualifications required of a practical
15611561 nurse in this state. Verification of the applicant's licensure status shall be
15621562 required from the original state of licensure.
15631563 (3) The board may authorize the educational requirement under
15641564 subsection (a)(1) to be waived for an applicant who has attained a passing
15651565 score on the national council licensure examination for practical nurses
15661566 and provided evidence to the board of such applicant's practical nursing
15671567 experience with the military during a period of active service as a member
15681568 of the armed forces. To qualify for such a waiver, the applicant must shall
15691569 have been a member or is a current member of the army, navy, marine
15701570 corps, air force, space force, air or army national guard of any of the
15711571 several states and territories, Puerto Rico and the District of Columbia,
15721572 coast guard or any branch component of the military reserves of the United
15731573 States, and separated from such military period of active service with an
15741574 honorable discharge. Current members of the armed forces are presumed
15751575 to be serving honorably. If such applicant was separated from such
15761576 military period of active service with a general discharge under honorable
15771577 conditions and meets the requirements of this paragraph, the board may
15781578 authorize the educational requirements under subsection (a)(1) be waived.
15791579 (4) Refresher course. Notwithstanding the provisions of subsections
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16231623 (a) and (b), an applicant for a license to practice as a licensed practical
16241624 nurse who has not been licensed to practice practical nursing for five years
16251625 preceding application shall be required to successfully complete a
16261626 refresher course as defined by the board.
16271627 (5) Renewal license. A licensed practical nurse licensed under this act
16281628 shall be eligible for renewal licenses upon compliance with K.S.A. 65-
16291629 1117, and amendments thereto.
16301630 (6) Licensure examination within 24 months of graduation. (A)
16311631 Persons who do not take the licensure examination within 24 months after
16321632 graduation shall petition the board for permission prior to taking the
16331633 licensure examination. The board may require the applicant to submit and
16341634 complete a plan of study prior to taking the licensure examination.
16351635 (B) Persons who are unsuccessful in passing the licensure
16361636 examination within 24 months after graduation shall petition the board for
16371637 permission prior to subsequent attempts. The board may require the
16381638 applicant to submit and complete a plan of study prior to taking the
16391639 licensure examination a subsequent time. The study plan shall contain
16401640 subjects related to deficiencies identified on the failed examination
16411641 profiles.
16421642 (7) An application for initial licensure or endorsement will be held
16431643 awaiting completion of meeting qualifications for a time period specified
16441644 in rules and regulations.
16451645 (d) Title and abbreviation. Any person who holds a license to practice
16461646 as a licensed practical nurse in this state shall have the right to use the title,
16471647 "licensed practical nurse," and the abbreviation, "L.P.N." No other person
16481648 shall assume the title or use the abbreviation or any other words, letters,
16491649 signs or figures to indicate that the person is a licensed practical nurse.
16501650 (e) Temporary permit. The board may issue a temporary permit to
16511651 practice nursing as a licensed practical nurse for a period not to exceed 120
16521652 days. A temporary permit for 120 days may be issued to an applicant for
16531653 licensure as a licensed practical nurse who is a graduate of a practical
16541654 school of nursing in a foreign country after verification of licensure in that
16551655 foreign country and approval of educational credentials.
16561656 (f) Exempt license. The board may issue an exempt license to any
16571657 licensee as defined in rules and regulations who makes written application
16581658 for such license on a form provided by the board, who remits a fee as
16591659 established pursuant to K.S.A. 65-1118, and amendments thereto, and who
16601660 is not regularly engaged in the practice of practical nursing in Kansas but
16611661 volunteers practical nursing service or is a charitable health care provider
16621662 as defined by K.S.A. 75-6102, and amendments thereto. Each exempt
16631663 licensee shall be subject to all provisions of the nurse practice act, except
16641664 as otherwise provided in this subsection (f). Each exempt license may be
16651665 renewed biennially subject to the provisions of this section. The holder of
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17091709 the exempt license shall not be required to submit evidence of satisfactory
17101710 completion of a program of continuing nursing education for renewal. To
17111711 convert an exempt license to an active license, the exempt licensee shall
17121712 meet all the requirements of subsection (c) or K.S.A. 65-1117, and
17131713 amendments thereto. The board shall have authority to write rules and
17141714 regulations to carry out the provisions of this section.
17151715 Sec. 7. K.S.A. 2023 Supp. 65-6129 is hereby amended to read as
17161716 follows: 65-6129. (a) (1) Application for an emergency medical service
17171717 provider certificate shall be made to the board. The board shall not grant
17181718 an emergency medical service provider certificate unless the applicant
17191719 meets the following requirements:
17201720 (A) (i) Has successfully completed coursework required by the rules
17211721 and regulations adopted by the board;
17221722 (ii) has successfully completed coursework in another jurisdiction
17231723 that is substantially equivalent to that required by the rules and regulations
17241724 adopted by the board; or
17251725 (iii) has provided evidence that such applicant holds a current and
17261726 active certification with the national registry of emergency medical
17271727 technicians, completed emergency medical technician training as a
17281728 member of the army, navy, marine corps, air force, space force, air or army
17291729 national guard of any of the several states and territories, Puerto Rico and
17301730 the District of Columbia, coast guard or any branch component of the
17311731 military reserves of the United States that is substantially equivalent to that
17321732 required by the rules and regulations adopted by the board, and such
17331733 applicant separated from such military period of active service as a
17341734 member of the armed forces with an honorable discharge. Applicants
17351735 currently performing active service as a member of the armed forces are
17361736 presumed to be serving honorably;
17371737 (B) (i) has passed the examination required by the rules and
17381738 regulations adopted by the board; or
17391739 (ii) has passed the certification or licensing examination in another
17401740 jurisdiction that has been approved by the board; and
17411741 (C) has paid an application fee required by the rules and regulations
17421742 adopted by the board.
17431743 (2) The board may grant an emergency medical service provider
17441744 certificate to any applicant who meets the requirements under subsection
17451745 (a)(1)(A)(iii) but was separated from such military period of active service
17461746 as a member of the armed forces with a general discharge under honorable
17471747 conditions.
17481748 (b) (1) The emergency medical services board may require an original
17491749 applicant for certification as an emergency medical services provider to be
17501750 fingerprinted and submit to a state and national criminal history record
17511751 check. The fingerprints shall be used to identify the applicant and to
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17951795 determine whether the applicant has a record of criminal history in this
17961796 state or another jurisdiction. The emergency medical services board is
17971797 authorized to submit the fingerprints to the Kansas bureau of investigation
17981798 and the federal bureau of investigation for a state and national criminal
17991799 history record check. The emergency medical services board may use the
18001800 information obtained from fingerprinting and the applicant's criminal
18011801 history for purposes of verifying the identification of the applicant and
18021802 making the official determination of the qualifications and fitness of the
18031803 applicant to be issued or to maintain a certificate.
18041804 (2) Local and state law enforcement officers and agencies shall assist
18051805 the emergency medical services board in taking the fingerprints of
18061806 applicants for license, registration, permit or certificate. The Kansas
18071807 bureau of investigation shall release all records of adult convictions,
18081808 nonconvictions or adjudications in this state and any other state or country
18091809 to the emergency medical services board.
18101810 (3) The emergency medical services board may fix and collect a fee
18111811 as may be required by the board in an amount equal to the cost of
18121812 fingerprinting and the criminal history record check. The emergency
18131813 medical services board shall remit all moneys received from the fees
18141814 established by this section to the state treasurer in accordance with the
18151815 provisions of K.S.A. 75-4215, and amendments thereto. Upon receipt of
18161816 each such remittance, the state treasurer shall deposit the entire amount in
18171817 the state treasury to the credit of the emergency medical services criminal
18181818 history and fingerprinting fund.
18191819 (4) There is hereby created in the state treasury the emergency
18201820 medical services criminal history and fingerprinting fund. All moneys
18211821 credited to the fund shall be used to pay the Kansas bureau of investigation
18221822 for the processing of fingerprints and criminal history record checks for
18231823 the emergency medical services board. The fund shall be administered by
18241824 the emergency medical services board. All expenditures from the fund
18251825 shall be made in accordance with appropriation acts upon warrants of the
18261826 director of accounts and reports issued pursuant to vouchers approved by
18271827 the chairperson of the emergency medical services board or the
18281828 chairperson's designee.
18291829 (c) The board shall not grant an initial advanced emergency medical
18301830 technician certificate or paramedic certificate as a result of successful
18311831 course completion in the state of Kansas, unless except if the applicant for
18321832 such an initial certificate is certified as an emergency medical technician.
18331833 (d) An emergency medical service provider certificate shall expire on
18341834 the date prescribed by the board. An emergency medical service provider
18351835 certificate may be renewed for a period of two years upon payment of a
18361836 fee as prescribed by rule and regulation of the board and upon presentation
18371837 of satisfactory proof that the emergency medical service provider has
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18811881 successfully completed continuing education as prescribed by the board.
18821882 (e) All fees received pursuant to the provisions of this section shall be
18831883 remitted to the state treasurer in accordance with the provisions of K.S.A.
18841884 75-4215, and amendments thereto. Upon receipt of each such remittance,
18851885 the state treasurer shall deposit the entire amount in the state treasury to
18861886 the credit of the emergency medical services operating fund established by
18871887 K.S.A. 65-6151, and amendments thereto.
18881888 (f) If a person who was previously certified as an emergency medical
18891889 service provider applies for an emergency medical service provider's
18901890 certificate after the certificate's expiration, the board may grant a
18911891 certificate without the person completing an initial course of instruction or
18921892 passing a certification examination if the person has completed education
18931893 requirements and has paid a fee as specified in rules and regulations
18941894 adopted by the board.
18951895 (g) The board shall adopt, through rules and regulations, a formal list
18961896 of graduated sanctions for violations of article 61 of chapter 65 of the
18971897 Kansas Statutes Annotated, and amendments thereto, that shall specify the
18981898 number and severity of violations for the imposition of each level of
18991899 sanction.
19001900 Sec. 8. K.S.A. 44-706, 48-3401 and 65-1116 and K.S.A. 2023 Supp.
19011901 48-3407, 48-3408, 48-3601 and 65-6129 are hereby repealed.
19021902 Sec. 9. This act shall take effect and be in force from and after its
19031903 publication in the statute book.
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