Kansas 2023-2024 Regular Session

Kansas Senate Bill SB135 Compare Versions

Only one version of the bill is available at this time.

Old	New	Differences
1	1	Session of 2023
2	2	SENATE BILL No. 135
3	3	By Committee on Federal and State Affairs
4	4	2-1
5	5	AN ACT concerning health and healthcare; relating to medical cannabis;
6	6	creating the medical cannabis regulation act; providing for licensure
7	7	and regulation of the cultivation, processing, distribution, sale and use
8	8	of medical cannabis; delegating administrative duties and functions to
9	9	the secretary of health and environment, secretary of revenue, board of
10	10	healing arts, board of pharmacy and the director of alcohol and
11	11	cannabis control; imposing fines and penalties for violations of the act;
12	12	establishing the medical cannabis registration fund, the medical
13	13	cannabis business regulation fund, the pharmacist consultant
14	14	registration fee fund, the local medical cannabis enforcement fund, the
15	15	local medical cannabis enforcement refund fund and the state medical
16	16	cannabis enforcement fund; creating the crimes of unlawful storage and
17	17	unlawful transport of medical cannabis; making exceptions to the
18	18	crimes of unlawful manufacture and possession of controlled
19	19	substances; amending K.S.A. 38-2269, 41-201, 44-501, 44-1015, 65-
20	20	28b08, 79-5201 and 79-5210 and K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 19-101a, 21-5703,
21	21	21-5705, 21-5706, 21-5707, 21-5709, 21-5710, 23-3201 and 65-1120
22	22	and repealing the existing sections.
23	23	Be it enacted by the Legislature of the State of Kansas:
24	24	New Section 1. The provisions of sections 1 through 50, and
25	25	amendments thereto, shall be known and may be cited as the medical
26	26	cannabis regulation act.
27	27	New Sec. 2. As used in the medical cannabis regulation act, section 1
28	28	et seq., and amendments thereto:
29	29	(a) "Academic medical center" means a medical school and its
30	30	affiliated teaching hospitals and clinics.
31	31	(b) "Board of healing arts" means the state board of healing arts.
32	32	(c) "Cannabinoid" means any of the diverse chemical compounds that
33	33	can act on cannabinoid receptors in cells and alter neurotransmitter release
34	34	in the brain, including phytocannabinoids that are produced naturally by
35	35	marijuana and some other plants.
36	36	(d) (1) "Cannabis" means all parts of all varieties of the plant
37	37	Cannabis whether growing or not, the seeds thereof, the resin extracted
38	38	from any part of the plant and every compound, manufacture, salt,
39	39	derivative, mixture or preparation of the plant, its seeds or resin.
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76	76	(2) "Cannabis" does not include:
77	77	(A) The mature stalks of the plant, fiber produced from the stalks, oil
78	78	or cake made from the seeds of the plant, any other compound,
79	79	manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture or preparation of the mature stalks,
80	80	except the resin extracted therefrom, fiber, oil or cake or the sterilized seed
81	81	of the plant that is incapable of germination;
82	82	(B) any substance listed in schedules II through V of the uniform
83	83	controlled substances act;
84	84	(C) drug products approved by the United States food and drug
85	85	administration as of July 1, 2024;
86	86	(D) cannabidiol (other trade name: 2-[3-methyl-6-(1-methylethenyl)-
87	87	2-cyclohexen-1-yl]-5-pentyl-1,3-benzenediol); or
88	88	(E) industrial hemp as defined in K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 2-3901, and
89	89	amendments thereto, when cultivated, produced, possessed or used for
90	90	activities authorized by the commercial industrial hemp act.
91	91	(e) "Caregiver" means an individual registered pursuant to section 8,
92	92	and amendments thereto, who may purchase and possess medical cannabis
93	93	in accordance with section 11, and amendments thereto.
94	94	(f) "Cultivate" means the same as defined in K.S.A. 65-4101, and
95	95	amendments thereto.
96	96	(g) "Cultivator" means a person issued a license pursuant to section
97	97	20, and amendments thereto, who may grow and sell medical cannabis in
98	98	accordance with section 22, and amendments thereto.
99	99	(h) "Director" means the director of alcohol and cannabis control.
100	100	(i) "Dispense" means to deliver a medical cannabis product to a
101	101	registered patient or caregiver pursuant to the written recommendation of a
102	102	physician, including the packaging and labeling required for that delivery.
103	103	(j) "Distributor" means a person issued a license pursuant to section
104	104	20, and amendments thereto, who may purchase and sell medical cannabis
105	105	in accordance with section 27, and amendments thereto.
106	106	(k) "Edibles" means any food product infused with cannabis extract.
107	107	(l) "Electronic cigarette" means the same as defined in K.S.A. 79-
108	108	3301, and amendments thereto.
109	109	(m) "Medical cannabis" means cannabis that is cultivated, processed,
110	110	tested, dispensed, possessed or used for a medical purpose.
111	111	(n) "Medical cannabis product" means a product that contains
112	112	cannabinoids that have been extracted from plant material or the resin
113	113	therefrom by physical or chemical means and is intended for
114	114	administration to a registered patient.
115	115	(o) "Medical cannabis waste" means:
116	116	(1) Unused, surplus, returned or out-of-date medical cannabis or
117	117	medical cannabis product;
118	118	(2) recalled medical cannabis or medical cannabis product;
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162	162	(3) plant debris of the plant of Cannabis, including dead plants and all
163	163	unused plant parts and roots; and
164	164	(4) any wastewater generated during growing and processing.
165	165	(p) "Patient" means an individual registered pursuant to section 8, and
166	166	amendments thereto, who may purchase and possess medical cannabis in
167	167	accordance with section 10, and amendments thereto.
168	168	(q) "Person" means any natural person, corporation, partnership, trust
169	169	or association.
170	170	(r) "Plant" means a cannabis plant produced from a cutting, clipping
171	171	or seedling that is in a cultivating container.
172	172	(s) "Plant material" means the leaves, stems, buds and flowers of the
173	173	cannabis plant and does not include seedlings, seeds, clones, stalks or roots
174	174	of the plant or the weight of any non-cannabis ingredients combined with
175	175	cannabis.
176	176	(t) "Postsecondary educational institution" means the same as defined
177	177	in K.S.A. 74-3201b, and amendments thereto.
178	178	(u) "Processor" means a person issued a license pursuant to section
179	179	20, and amendments thereto, who may purchase, process and sell medical
180	180	cannabis in accordance with section 26, and amendments thereto.
181	181	(v) "Physician" means an individual licensed to practice medicine and
182	182	surgery in this state and who is certified by the board of healing arts to
183	183	recommend treatment with medical cannabis pursuant to section 18, and
184	184	amendments thereto.
185	185	(w) "Physician's delegate" means:
186	186	(1) A registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, respiratory therapist,
187	187	emergency medical responder, paramedic, dental hygienist, pharmacy
188	188	technician or pharmacy intern who has registered for access to the program
189	189	database as an agent of a practitioner or pharmacist to request program
190	190	data on behalf of the practitioner or pharmacist;
191	191	(2) a death investigator who has registered for limited access to the
192	192	program database as an agent of a medical examiner, coroner or another
193	193	person authorized under law to investigate or determine causes of death; or
194	194	(3) an individual authorized by rules and regulations adopted by the
195	195	board of healing arts to access the prescription monitoring program
196	196	database.
197	197	(x) "Qualifying medical condition" means any of the following:
198	198	(1) Acquired immune deficiency syndrome;
199	199	(2) Alzheimer's disease;
200	200	(3) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis;
201	201	(4) cancer;
202	202	(5) chronic traumatic encephalopathy;
203	203	(6) Crohn's disease;
204	204	(7) epilepsy or another seizure disorder;
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248	248	(8) fibromyalgia;
249	249	(9) glaucoma;
250	250	(10) hepatitis C;
251	251	(11) inflammatory bowel disease;
252	252	(12) multiple sclerosis;
253	253	(13) Parkinson's disease;
254	254	(14) positive status for human immunodeficiency virus;
255	255	(15) post-traumatic stress disorder;
256	256	(16) sickle cell anemia;
257	257	(17) spinal cord disease or injury;
258	258	(18) Tourette's syndrome;
259	259	(19) traumatic brain injury;
260	260	(20) ulcerative colitis;
261	261	(21) pain that is either chronic and severe or intractable; or
262	262	(22) any other disease or condition approved by the secretary of
263	263	health and environment pursuant to section 15, and amendments thereto.
264	264	(y) "Retail dispensary" means a person issued a license pursuant to
265	265	section 22, and amendments thereto, who may purchase and sell medical
266	266	cannabis in accordance with section 28, and amendments thereto.
267	267	(z) "Smoking" means the use of a lighted cigarette, cigar or pipe or
268	268	otherwise burning cannabis in any other form for the purpose of
269	269	consuming such cannabis.
270	270	(aa) "Tetrahydrocannabinol" means the primary psychoactive
271	271	cannabinoid in cannabis formed by decarboxylation of naturally occurring
272	272	tetrahydrocannabinolic acid that generally takes place by heating.
273	273	(bb) "Tetrahydrocannabinolic acid" means the dominant cannabinoid
274	274	that occurs naturally in most varieties of cannabis.
275	275	(cc) "Tetrahydrocannabinol content" means the sum of the amount of
276	276	tetrahydrocannabinol and 87.7% of the amount of tetrahydrocannabinolic
277	277	acid present in the product.
278	278	(dd) "Vaporization" means the use of an electronic cigarette for the
279	279	purpose of consuming medical cannabis in which such medical cannabis
280	280	comes into direct contact with a heating element.
281	281	(ee) "Veteran" means a person who has:
282	282	(1) Served in the army, navy, marine corps, air force, coast guard,
283	283	space force, any state air or army national guard or any branch of the
284	284	military reserves of the United States; and
285	285	(2) been separated from the branch of service in which the person
286	286	was honorably discharged or received a general discharge under honorable
287	287	conditions.
288	288	New Sec. 3. (a) No person shall grow, harvest, process, sell, barter,
289	289	transport, deliver, furnish or otherwise possess any form of cannabis,
290	290	except as specifically provided in the medical cannabis regulation act or
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334	334	the commercial industrial hemp act, K.S.A. 2-3901 et seq., and
335	335	amendments thereto.
336	336	(b) Nothing in the medical cannabis regulation act shall be construed
337	337	to:
338	338	(1) Require a physician to recommend that a patient use medical
339	339	cannabis to treat a qualifying medical condition;
340	340	(2) permit the use, possession or administration of medical cannabis
341	341	other than as authorized by this act;
342	342	(3) permit the use, possession or administration of medical cannabis
343	343	on federal land located in this state;
344	344	(4) require any public place to accommodate a registered patient's use
345	345	of medical cannabis;
346	346	(5) prohibit any public place from accommodating a registered
347	347	patient's use of medical cannabis; or
348	348	(6) restrict research related to cannabis conducted at a postsecondary
349	349	educational institution, academic medical center or private research and
350	350	development organization as part of a research protocol approved by an
351	351	institutional review board or equivalent entity.
352	352	New Sec. 4. (a) There is hereby established the medical cannabis
353	353	regulation program.
354	354	(b) The secretary of health and environment shall administer the
355	355	program in accordance with the provisions of this act and provide for the
356	356	registration of patients and caregivers, including the issuance of
357	357	identification cards to registered patients and caregivers.
358	358	(c) The board of healing arts shall administer the program in
359	359	accordance with the provisions of this act and provide for the certification
360	360	of physicians authorizing such physicians to recommend medical cannabis
361	361	as a treatment for patients.
362	362	(d) The board of pharmacy shall administer the program in
363	363	accordance with the provisions of this act and provide for the registration
364	364	of pharmacist consultants and the requirements for reporting to the
365	365	prescription monitoring program.
366	366	(e) The director of alcohol and cannabis control shall administer the
367	367	program in accordance with the provisions of this act and provide for the
368	368	licensure of cultivators, laboratories, processors, distributors, retail
369	369	dispensaries and employees thereof.
370	370	New Sec. 5. (a) The medical cannabis advisory committee is hereby
371	371	created in the department of health and environment. The committee shall
372	372	consist of the following:
373	373	(1) Eight members appointed by the governor as follows:
374	374	(A) Two members who are practicing pharmacists, at least one of
375	375	whom supports the use of medical cannabis and at least one of whom is a
376	376	member of the state board of pharmacy;
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420	420	(B) two members who are practicing physicians, at least one of whom
421	421	supports the use of medical cannabis and at least one of whom is a
422	422	member of the board of healing arts;
423	423	(C) one member who represents employers;
424	424	(D) one member who represents agriculture;
425	425	(E) one member who represents persons involved in the treatment of
426	426	alcohol and drug addiction; and
427	427	(F) one member who engages in academic research on the use or
428	428	regulation of medical cannabis;
429	429	(2) two members appointed by the president of the senate as follows:
430	430	(A) One member who represents law enforcement; and
431	431	(B) one member who represents caregivers;
432	432	(3) one member who is a nurse, appointed by the minority leader of
433	433	the senate;
434	434	(4) two members appointed by the speaker of the house of
435	435	representatives as follows:
436	436	(A) One member who represents persons involved in mental health
437	437	treatment; and
438	438	(B) one member who represents patients;
439	439	(5) one member who represents employees, appointed by the
440	440	minority leader of the house of representatives; and
441	441	(6) the secretary of health and environment, who shall serve as
442	442	chairperson.
443	443	(b) The initial appointments to the committee shall be made on or
444	444	before July 31, 2024.
445	445	(c) Except for the secretary of health and environment, each member
446	446	of the committee shall serve for a period of two years from the date of
447	447	appointment. A vacancy shall be filled within 21 days of such vacancy in
448	448	the same manner as the original appointment.
449	449	(d) Each member of the committee shall be paid compensation,
450	450	subsistence allowances, mileage and other expenses as provided in K.S.A.
451	451	75-3223(e), and amendments thereto.
452	452	(e) The committee shall hold its initial meeting not later than 30 days
453	453	after the last member of the committee is appointed. The committee may
454	454	develop and submit to the secretary of health and environment and the
455	455	director of alcohol and cannabis control any recommendations related to
456	456	the medical cannabis regulation program and the implementation and
457	457	enforcement of this act.
458	458	(f) Prior to January 31 of each year, the medical cannabis advisory
459	459	committee shall provide a report to the standing committees on federal and
460	460	state affairs in both the senate and the house of representatives detailing
461	461	any concerns or recommended changes that the committee has for the
462	462	medical cannabis regulation act.
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506	506	(g) The provisions of this section shall expire on July 1, 2029.
507	507	New Sec. 6. (a) Except as permitted under subsection (c), the
508	508	following individuals shall not solicit or accept, directly or indirectly, any
509	509	gift, gratuity, emolument or employment from any person who is an
510	510	applicant for any license or is a licensee under the provisions of the
511	511	medical cannabis regulation act or any officer, agent or employee thereof,
512	512	or solicit requests from or recommend, directly or indirectly, to any such
513	513	person, the appointment of any individual to any place or position:
514	514	(1) The secretary of health and environment or any officer, employee
515	515	or agent of the department of health and environment;
516	516	(2) the secretary of revenue, the director of alcohol and cannabis
517	517	control or any officer, employee or agent of the division of alcohol and
518	518	cannabis control;
519	519	(3) any member of the state board of pharmacy; or
520	520	(4) any member of the board of healing arts.
521	521	(b) Except as permitted under subsection (c), an applicant for a
522	522	license or a licensee under the provisions of the medical cannabis
523	523	regulation act shall not offer any gift, gratuity, emolument or employment
524	524	to any of the following:
525	525	(1) The secretary of health and environment or any officer, employee
526	526	or agent of the department of health and environment;
527	527	(2) the secretary of revenue, the director of alcohol and cannabis
528	528	control or any officer, employee or agent of the division of alcohol and
529	529	cannabis control;
530	530	(3) any member of the state board of pharmacy; or
531	531	(4) any member of the board of healing arts.
532	532	(c) The board of healing arts, the state board of pharmacy, the
533	533	secretary of health and environment and the secretary of revenue may
534	534	adopt rules and regulations for their respective agencies allowing the
535	535	acceptance of official hospitality by members of the board of healing arts,
536	536	the state board of pharmacy or the respective secretary and employees of
537	537	each such respective agency, subject to any limits as prescribed by such
538	538	rules and regulations.
539	539	(d) If any member of the board of healing arts, the state board of
540	540	pharmacy, the secretary of health and environment, the secretary of
541	541	revenue or any employee of each such respective agency violates any
542	542	provision of this section, such person shall be removed from such person's
543	543	office or employment.
544	544	(e) Violation of any provision of this section is a severity level 7,
545	545	nonperson felony.
546	546	(f) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit the
547	547	prosecution and punishment of any person for any other crime in the
548	548	Kansas criminal code.
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592	592	New Sec. 7. All actions taken by the board of healing arts, the state
593	593	board of pharmacy, the secretary of health and environment or the director
594	594	of alcohol and cannabis control under the medical cannabis regulation act
595	595	shall be in accordance with the Kansas administrative procedure act and
596	596	reviewable in accordance with the Kansas judicial review act.
597	597	New Sec. 8. (a) A patient seeking to use medical cannabis or a
598	598	caregiver seeking to assist a patient in the use or administration of medical
599	599	cannabis shall apply to the department of health and environment for
600	600	registration. The physician who is treating the patient, or such physician's
601	601	delegate, shall submit the application on the patient's or caregiver's behalf
602	602	in such form and manner as prescribed by the secretary of health and
603	603	environment.
604	604	(b) The application for registration shall include the following:
605	605	(1) A statement from the physician certifying that:
606	606	(A) A bona fide physician-patient relationship exists between the
607	607	physician and patient;
608	608	(B) the patient has been diagnosed with a qualifying medical
609	609	condition;
610	610	(C) the physician, or such physician's delegate, has requested from
611	611	the prescription monitoring program database a report of information
612	612	related to the patient that covers at least the 12 months immediately
613	613	preceding the date of the report;
614	614	(D) the physician has informed the patient of the risks and benefits of
615	615	medical cannabis as it pertains to the patient's qualifying medical condition
616	616	and medical history; and
617	617	(E) the physician has informed the patient that it is the physician's
618	618	opinion that the benefits of medical cannabis outweigh its risks;
619	619	(2) in the case of an application submitted on behalf of a patient, the
620	620	name or names of one or more caregivers, if any, who will assist the
621	621	patient in the use or administration of medical cannabis;
622	622	(3) in the case of an application submitted on behalf of a caregiver,
623	623	the name of the patient or patients whom the caregiver seeks to assist in
624	624	the use or administration of medical cannabis; and
625	625	(4) in the case of a patient who is a minor, the name of the patient's
626	626	parent or legal guardian who has consented to treatment with medical
627	627	cannabis and who shall be designated as the patient's caregiver.
628	628	(c) If the application is complete and meets the requirements of this
629	629	act and rules and regulations adopted thereunder and the patient or
630	630	caregiver has paid the required fee, the secretary of health and
631	631	environment shall register the patient or caregiver and issue to the patient
632	632	or caregiver an identification card.
633	633	(d) (1) A registered caregiver shall be at least 21 years of age, except
634	634	that if the caregiver is the parent or legal guardian of a patient who is a
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678	678	minor, then the registered caregiver shall be at least 18 years of age.
679	679	(2) A registered patient may designate up to two registered
680	680	caregivers. If the patient is a minor, a parent or legal guardian of such
681	681	patient shall be designated as a registered caregiver for such patient.
682	682	(3) A registered caregiver may provide assistance to not more than
683	683	two registered patients, unless the secretary approves a greater number of
684	684	registered patients.
685	685	(4) A physician who submits an application on behalf of a patient
686	686	may not also serve as such patient's registered caregiver.
687	687	(e) Any information collected by the department of health and
688	688	environment pursuant to this section is confidential and not a public
689	689	record. The department may share information identifying a specific
690	690	patient with a licensed retail dispensary or any law enforcement agency for
691	691	the purpose of confirming that such patient has a valid registration.
692	692	Information that does not identify a person may be released in summary,
693	693	statistical or aggregate form. The provisions of this subsection shall expire
694	694	on July 1, 2029, unless the legislature reviews and reenacts such
695	695	provisions in accordance with K.S.A. 45-229, and amendments thereto,
696	696	prior to July 1, 2029.
697	697	(f) The fees for a patient or caregiver registration, or the renewal
698	698	thereof, shall be set by rules and regulations adopted by the secretary of
699	699	health and environment in an amount not to exceed:
700	700	(1) Except as specified in paragraph (2), $50 for a patient registration;
701	701	(2) $25 for a patient registration if the patient is indigent or is a
702	702	veteran; and
703	703	(3) $25 for a caregiver registration.
704	704	(g) A registration shall be valid for a period of one year from the
705	705	effective date as specified on the identification card and may be renewed
706	706	by submitting a registration renewal application and paying the required
707	707	fee.
708	708	New Sec. 9. (a) The department of health and environment shall
709	709	assign a unique 24-character identification number to each registered
710	710	patient and caregiver when issuing an identification card. Licensed retail
711	711	dispensaries shall obtain verification by the department that a patient or
712	712	caregiver has a valid registration.
713	713	(b) Law enforcement agencies may also obtain verification by the
714	714	department when necessary to verify that a patient or caregiver is in
715	715	compliance with this act. Each patient and caregiver shall promptly deliver
716	716	such patient's or caregiver's registration identification card upon demand
717	717	of any officer of a court of competent jurisdiction, any law enforcement
718	718	officer or any employee or agent of the secretary of health and
719	719	environment when the identification card is in such patient's or caregiver's
720	720	immediate possession at the time of the demand.
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764	764	New Sec. 10. (a) A patient registered pursuant to section 8, and
765	765	amendments thereto, who obtains medical cannabis from a licensed retail
766	766	dispensary may:
767	767	(1) Use medical cannabis;
768	768	(2) subject to subsection (b), purchase and possess medical cannabis;
769	769	and
770	770	(3) purchase and possess any paraphernalia or accessories used to
771	771	administer medical cannabis.
772	772	(b) A registered patient may purchase and possess medical cannabis
773	773	in an amount not to exceed a recommended 30-day supply.
774	774	(c) Nothing in this section shall be construed to authorize a registered
775	775	patient to operate a motor vehicle, watercraft or aircraft while under the
776	776	influence of medical cannabis.
777	777	New Sec. 11. (a) A caregiver registered pursuant to section 8, and
778	778	amendments thereto, who obtains medical cannabis from a licensed retail
779	779	dispensary may:
780	780	(1) Subject to subsection (b), purchase and possess medical cannabis
781	781	on behalf of a registered patient under the caregiver's care;
782	782	(2) assist a registered patient under the caregiver's care in the use or
783	783	administration of medical cannabis; and
784	784	(3) purchase and possess any paraphernalia or accessories used to
785	785	administer medical cannabis.
786	786	(b) A registered caregiver may purchase and possess medical
787	787	cannabis on behalf of a registered patient in an amount not to exceed a
788	788	recommended 30-day supply. If a caregiver provides care to more than one
789	789	registered patient, the caregiver shall maintain separate inventories of
790	790	medical cannabis for each patient.
791	791	(c) Nothing in this section shall be construed to permit a registered
792	792	caregiver to personally use medical cannabis unless the caregiver is also a
793	793	registered patient.
794	794	New Sec. 12. (a) In addition to or in lieu of any other civil or criminal
795	795	penalty as provided by law, the secretary of health and environment may
796	796	impose a civil penalty or suspend or revoke a registration upon a finding
797	797	that the patient or caregiver committed a violation as provided in this
798	798	section.
799	799	(b) Nothing in this act shall be construed to require the secretary to
800	800	enforce minor violations if the secretary determines that the public interest
801	801	is adequately served by a notice or warning to the alleged offender.
802	802	(c) Upon a finding that a registrant has submitted fraudulent
803	803	information or otherwise falsified or misrepresented information required
804	804	to be submitted by such registrant, the secretary may impose a civil fine in
805	805	an amount not to exceed $500 for a first offense and may suspend or
806	806	revoke the individual's registration for a second or subsequent offense.
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850	850	(d) If the secretary suspends, revokes or refuses to renew any
851	851	registration issued pursuant to this act and determines that there is clear
852	852	and convincing evidence of a danger of immediate and serious harm to any
853	853	person, the secretary may place under seal all medical cannabis owned by
854	854	or in the possession, custody or control of the affected registrant. Except as
855	855	provided in this section, the secretary shall not dispose of the sealed
856	856	medical cannabis until a final order is issued authorizing such disposition.
857	857	During the pendency of an appeal from any order issued by the secretary, a
858	858	court may order the secretary to sell medical cannabis that is perishable,
859	859	and the proceeds of any such sale shall be deposited with the court.
860	860	New Sec. 13. (a) There is hereby established the medical cannabis
861	861	registration fund in the state treasury. The secretary of health and
862	862	environment shall administer the medical cannabis registration fund and
863	863	shall remit all moneys collected from the payment of all fees and fines
864	864	imposed by the secretary pursuant to the medical cannabis regulation act
865	865	and any other moneys received by or on behalf of the secretary pursuant to
866	866	such act to the state treasurer in accordance with the provisions of K.S.A.
867	867	75-4215, and amendments thereto. Upon receipt of each such remittance,
868	868	the state treasurer shall deposit the entire amount in the state treasury to
869	869	the credit of the medical cannabis registration fund. Moneys credited to the
870	870	medical cannabis registration fund shall only be expended or transferred as
871	871	provided in this section. Expenditures from such fund shall be made in
872	872	accordance with appropriation acts upon warrants of the director of
873	873	accounts and reports issued pursuant to vouchers approved by the
874	874	secretary or the secretary's designee.
875	875	(b) Moneys in the medical cannabis registration fund shall be used for
876	876	the payment or reimbursement of costs related to the regulation and
877	877	enforcement of the possession and use of medical cannabis by the
878	878	secretary.
879	879	New Sec. 14. (a) On or before January 1, 2025, the secretary of health
880	880	and environment shall, after consulting with the medical cannabis advisory
881	881	committee, adopt rules and regulations to administer the medical cannabis
882	882	regulation program and implement and enforce the provisions of the
883	883	medical cannabis regulation act. Such rules and regulations shall:
884	884	(1) Establish procedures for registration of patients and caregivers
885	885	and eligibility requirements for registration, including registration fees;
886	886	(2) establish procedures for the issuance of patient or caregiver
887	887	identification cards;
888	888	(3) establish renewal schedules, procedures and fees for registrations;
889	889	(4) subject to the provisions of subsection (b), specify, by form and
890	890	tetrahydrocannabinol content, a 30-day maximum supply of medical
891	891	cannabis that may be purchased and possessed;
892	892	(5) specify the forms or methods of using medical cannabis that are
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936	936	attractive to children; and
937	937	(6) establish a program to assist patients who are indigent or who are
938	938	veterans in obtaining medical cannabis.
939	939	(b) Any maximum supply of medical cannabis that may be purchased
940	940	by a patient or caregiver shall allow at least three ounces of dried,
941	941	unprocessed medical cannabis or its equivalent as a 30-day supply and
942	942	allow for exceptions from any such limitation upon submission of a
943	943	written certification from two independent physicians that there are
944	944	compelling reasons for the patient or caregiver to purchase greater
945	945	quantities of medical cannabis.
946	946	(c) When adopting rules and regulations under this section, the
947	947	secretary shall consider standards and procedures that have been found to
948	948	be best practices relative to the use and regulation of medical cannabis.
949	949	New Sec. 15. (a) Any person may submit a petition to the medical
950	950	cannabis advisory committee requesting that a disease or condition be
951	951	added as a qualifying medical condition for the purposes of this act. The
952	952	petition shall be submitted in such form and manner as prescribed by the
953	953	secretary of health and environment. A petition shall not seek to add a
954	954	broad category of diseases or conditions but shall be limited to one disease
955	955	or condition and shall include a description of such disease or condition.
956	956	(b) Upon receipt of a petition, the committee shall review such
957	957	petition to determine whether to recommend the approval or denial of such
958	958	disease or condition as an addition to the list of qualifying medical
959	959	conditions. The committee may consolidate the review of petitions for the
960	960	same or similar diseases or conditions. In making its determination, the
961	961	committee shall:
962	962	(1) Consult with one or more experts who specialize in the study of
963	963	the disease or condition;
964	964	(2) review any relevant medical or scientific evidence pertaining to
965	965	the disease or condition;
966	966	(3) consider whether conventional medical therapies are insufficient
967	967	to treat or alleviate the disease or condition;
968	968	(4) review evidence supporting the use of medical cannabis to treat or
969	969	alleviate the disease or condition; and
970	970	(5) review any letters of support provided by physicians with
971	971	knowledge of the disease or condition, including any letter provided by a
972	972	physician treating the petitioner.
973	973	(c) Upon completion of its review, the committee shall make a
974	974	recommendation to the secretary of health and environment whether to
975	975	approve or deny the addition of the disease or condition to the list of
976	976	qualifying medical conditions. The secretary shall adopt rules and
977	977	regulations in accordance with the recommendation of the committee.
978	978	(d) Prior to July 1, 2027, and every three years thereafter, the
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1022	1022	committee shall review all diseases or conditions that have been
1023	1023	previously recommended for approval by the committee and adopted by
1024	1024	the secretary of health and environment through rules and regulations to
1025	1025	determine if the inclusion of any such diseases or conditions are no longer
1026	1026	supported by scientific evidence. The inclusion of any such disease or
1027	1027	condition that the committee determines is no longer supported by
1028	1028	scientific evidence shall be recommended by the committee to the
1029	1029	secretary of health and environment for removal from the list of qualifying
1030	1030	medical conditions.
1031	1031	New Sec. 16. On or before January 1, 2025, the department of health
1032	1032	and environment shall make a website available for the public to access
1033	1033	information regarding patient and caregiver registration under the medical
1034	1034	cannabis regulation act.
1035	1035	New Sec. 17. A medical cannabis registry identification card, or its
1036	1036	equivalent, that is issued under the laws of another state, district, territory,
1037	1037	commonwealth or insular possession of the United States that is verifiable
1038	1038	by the jurisdiction of issuance and allows a nonresident patient to purchase
1039	1039	and possess medical cannabis for medical purposes shall have the same
1040	1040	force and effect as an identification card issued by the secretary pursuant
1041	1041	to this act if the nonresident patient has not been residing in this state for
1042	1042	more than 180 days.
1043	1043	New Sec. 18. (a) Except as provided in subsection (j), a physician
1044	1044	seeking to recommend treatment with medical cannabis shall apply to the
1045	1045	board of healing arts for a certificate authorizing such physician to
1046	1046	recommend treatment with medical cannabis. The application shall be
1047	1047	submitted in such form and manner as prescribed by the board. The board
1048	1048	shall grant a certificate to recommend such treatment if the following
1049	1049	conditions are satisfied:
1050	1050	(1) The application is complete and meets the requirements
1051	1051	established in rules and regulations adopted by the board of healing arts;
1052	1052	and
1053	1053	(2) the applicant demonstrates that the applicant does not have an
1054	1054	ownership or investment interest in or compensation arrangement with an
1055	1055	entity licensed by the director of alcohol and cannabis control under this
1056	1056	act or an applicant for such licensure.
1057	1057	(b) (1) Pursuant to rules and regulations adopted by the board of
1058	1058	healing arts, a certificate to recommend treatment with medical cannabis
1059	1059	shall:
1060	1060	(A) Expire one year from the date of issuance unless renewed in the
1061	1061	manner prescribed by the board; and
1062	1062	(B) require an annual fee in an amount not to exceed $175.
1063	1063	(2) Renewal of a certificate to recommend treatment with medical
1064	1064	cannabis shall be conditioned upon the holder's certification of having met
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1108	1108	the requirements in subsection (a), paying the required renewal fee and
1109	1109	having completed at least two hours of continuing medical education in
1110	1110	medical cannabis in accordance with subsection (g).
1111	1111	(c) A physician licensed in this state who holds a certificate to
1112	1112	recommend treatment with medical cannabis may recommend that a
1113	1113	patient be treated with medical cannabis if:
1114	1114	(1) The patient has been diagnosed with a qualifying medical
1115	1115	condition;
1116	1116	(2) an ongoing physician-patient relationship has been established by
1117	1117	an initial office visit;
1118	1118	(3) an in-person physical examination of the patient was performed
1119	1119	by the physician together with a review of all of the patient's medical
1120	1120	records, particularly relating to the medical indication for a
1121	1121	tetrahydrocannabinol recommendation; and
1122	1122	(4) the recommending physician reviews all medical cannabis
1123	1123	recommendations for any patient in the prescription monitoring program.
1124	1124	(d) In the case of a patient who is a minor, the physician may
1125	1125	recommend treatment with medical cannabis only after obtaining the
1126	1126	consent of the patient's parent or other person authorized to provide
1127	1127	consent to such treatment.
1128	1128	(e) When issuing a written recommendation to a patient, a physician
1129	1129	shall specify any information required by rules and regulations adopted by
1130	1130	the board of healing arts. A written recommendation issued to a patient
1131	1131	under this section shall be valid for a period of not more than 90 days. A
1132	1132	physician may renew the recommendation for not more than three
1133	1133	additional periods of not more than 90 days each. Thereafter, a physician
1134	1134	may issue another recommendation to the patient only upon a physical
1135	1135	examination of the patient.
1136	1136	(f) Each year, a physician holding a certificate to recommend
1137	1137	treatment with medical cannabis shall submit to the board of healing arts a
1138	1138	report that describes the physician's observations regarding the
1139	1139	effectiveness of medical cannabis in treating the physician's patients
1140	1140	during the year covered by the report. When submitting reports, a
1141	1141	physician shall not include any information that identifies or would tend to
1142	1142	identify any specific patient.
1143	1143	(g) Each year, a physician holding a certificate to recommend
1144	1144	treatment with medical cannabis shall complete at least two hours of
1145	1145	continuing medical education in the treatment with and use of medical
1146	1146	cannabis as approved by the board of healing arts.
1147	1147	(h) A physician shall not issue a recommendation for treatment with
1148	1148	medical cannabis for a member of such physician's family or the
1149	1149	physician's self, or personally furnish or otherwise administer medical
1150	1150	cannabis.
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1194	1194	(i) A physician holding a certificate to recommend treatment with
1195	1195	medical cannabis shall be immune from civil liability, shall not be subject
1196	1196	to professional disciplinary action by the board of healing arts and shall
1197	1197	not be subject to criminal prosecution for any of the following actions:
1198	1198	(1) Advising a patient, patient representative or caregiver about the
1199	1199	benefits and risks of medical cannabis to treat a qualifying medical
1200	1200	condition;
1201	1201	(2) recommending that a patient use medical cannabis to treat or
1202	1202	alleviate a qualifying medical condition; or
1203	1203	(3) monitoring a patient's treatment with medical cannabis.
1204	1204	(j) This section shall not apply to a physician who recommends
1205	1205	treatment with cannabis or a drug derived from cannabis under any of the
1206	1206	following that is approved by an institutional review board or equivalent
1207	1207	entity, the United States food and drug administration or the national
1208	1208	institutes of health or one of its cooperative groups or centers under the
1209	1209	United States department of health and human services:
1210	1210	(1) A research protocol;
1211	1211	(2) a clinical trial;
1212	1212	(3) an investigational new drug application; or
1213	1213	(4) an expanded access submission.
1214	1214	New Sec. 19. (a) On or before September 1, 2024, the board of
1215	1215	healing arts shall adopt rules and regulations to implement and enforce the
1216	1216	provisions of section 18, and amendments thereto. Such rules and
1217	1217	regulations shall include the:
1218	1218	(1) Procedures and fees for applying for a certificate to recommend
1219	1219	treatment with medical cannabis;
1220	1220	(2) conditions for eligibility for a certificate to recommend treatment
1221	1221	with medical cannabis;
1222	1222	(3) schedule, fees and procedures for renewing such certificate;
1223	1223	(4) reasons for which a certificate may be suspended or revoked;
1224	1224	(5) standards under which a certificate suspension may be lifted; and
1225	1225	(6) requirement that each certified physician who recommends
1226	1226	medical cannabis for treatment to a patient shall meet the applicable
1227	1227	standard of care.
1228	1228	(b) The board of healing arts shall approve one or more continuing
1229	1229	medical education courses of study that assist physicians holding
1230	1230	certificates to recommend treatment with medical cannabis in diagnosing
1231	1231	and treating qualifying medical conditions with medical cannabis.
1232	1232	New Sec. 20. (a) Any person who seeks to cultivate, conduct
1233	1233	laboratory testing of, process, distribute or sell at retail medical cannabis,
1234	1234	medical cannabis concentrate or medical cannabis products shall submit an
1235	1235	application for the appropriate license to the director in such form and
1236	1236	manner as prescribed by the director. A separate license application shall
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1280	1280	be submitted for each location to be operated by the licensee.
1281	1281	(b) The director shall issue a license to an applicant if the:
1282	1282	(1) Criminal history record check conducted pursuant to section 45,
1283	1283	and amendments thereto, demonstrates that the applicant is not
1284	1284	disqualified from holding a license pursuant to section 21, and
1285	1285	amendments thereto;
1286	1286	(2) applicant is not applying for a laboratory license and demonstrates
1287	1287	that such applicant does not:
1288	1288	(A) Have an ownership or investment interest in or compensation
1289	1289	arrangement with a licensed laboratory or an applicant for such license; or
1290	1290	(B) share any corporate officers or employees with a licensed
1291	1291	laboratory or an applicant for such license;
1292	1292	(3) applicant demonstrates that such applicant will not violate the
1293	1293	provisions of section 43, and amendments thereto;
1294	1294	(4) applicant demonstrates that such applicant will comply with the
1295	1295	provisions of section 44, and amendments thereto;
1296	1296	(5) applicant has submitted a medical cannabis waste disposal plan
1297	1297	that complies with section 44, and amendments thereto;
1298	1298	(6) applicant has submitted a tax clearance certificate issued by the
1299	1299	department of revenue; and
1300	1300	(7) applicant meets all other licensure eligibility conditions
1301	1301	established in rules and regulations adopted by the secretary of revenue
1302	1302	and has paid all required fees.
1303	1303	(c) The director may issue the following licenses:
1304	1304	(1) Cultivator license;
1305	1305	(2) laboratory license;
1306	1306	(3) processor license;
1307	1307	(4) distributor license; and
1308	1308	(5) retail dispensary license.
1309	1309	(d) All licenses issued under this section shall be valid for a period of
1310	1310	two years from the effective date as specified on the license.
1311	1311	(e) A license may be renewed by submitting a license renewal
1312	1312	application and paying the required fee.
1313	1313	New Sec. 21. (a) All cultivator, laboratory, processor, distributor and
1314	1314	retail dispensary licenses issued pursuant to section 20, and amendments
1315	1315	thereto, shall only be issued to a person:
1316	1316	(1) Who is a citizen of the United States;
1317	1317	(2) who has not been convicted of a felony under the laws of this
1318	1318	state, any other state or the United States, except for any felony that has
1319	1319	been expunged from such person's record and such expungement occurred
1320	1320	at least 10 years prior to the date that the application for licensure is
1321	1321	submitted;
1322	1322	(3) who has not had a license revoked for cause under the provisions
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1366	1366	of this act or has not had any license issued under the medical cannabis
1367	1367	laws of any state revoked for cause, except that a license may be issued to
1368	1368	a person whose license was revoked for the conviction of a misdemeanor
1369	1369	at any time after the lapse of 10 years following the date of the revocation;
1370	1370	(4) who has not been convicted of being the keeper of or is keeping
1371	1371	any property, whether real or personal, where sexual relations are being
1372	1372	sold or offered for sale by a person who is 18 years of age or older or has
1373	1373	not forfeited bond to appear in court to answer charges of being a keeper
1374	1374	of any such property;
1375	1375	(5) who has not been convicted of being a proprietor of a gambling
1376	1376	house, pandering or any other crime opposed to decency and morality or
1377	1377	has not forfeited bond to appear in court to answer charges for any of those
1378	1378	crimes;
1379	1379	(6) who is at least 18 years of age;
1380	1380	(7) who, other than as a member of the governing body of a city or
1381	1381	county, does not appoint or supervise any law enforcement officer, is not a
1382	1382	law enforcement officer or is not an employee of the director;
1383	1383	(8) who does not intend to carry on the business authorized by the
1384	1384	license as an agent of another;
1385	1385	(9) who, at the time of application for renewal of any license issued
1386	1386	under this act, would be eligible for the license upon a first application,
1387	1387	except as provided in paragraph (11);
1388	1388	(10) who owns the premises for which a license is sought or, at the
1389	1389	time of application, has a written lease thereon;
1390	1390	(11) whose spouse would be eligible to receive a license under this
1391	1391	act, except that:
1392	1392	(A) A spouse's ineligibility due to citizenship or age shall not
1393	1393	disqualify a person from licensure;
1394	1394	(B) a spouse's ineligibility due to conviction of a felony or other
1395	1395	crime shall only disqualify a person from licensure if such felony or other
1396	1396	crime was committed while the person's spouse held a license issued under
1397	1397	this act; and
1398	1398	(C) a spouse's ineligibility shall not apply in determining eligibility
1399	1399	for renewal of a license;
1400	1400	(12) who has been a resident of this state for at least two years
1401	1401	immediately preceding the date of the application for licensure. If an
1402	1402	individual licensee ceases to be a resident of this state at any time after the
1403	1403	license is issued, then the license shall be forfeited; and
1404	1404	(13) who has not been found to have held an undisclosed beneficial
1405	1405	interest in any license issued pursuant to this act that was obtained by
1406	1406	means of fraud or any false statement made on the application for such
1407	1407	license.
1408	1408	(b) If the applicant is not an individual, then the license shall only be
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1452	1452	issued to a business entity formed in this state and registered with the
1453	1453	secretary of state. No license shall be issued to a publicly traded
1454	1454	corporation. Such entity shall submit the following to the director along
1455	1455	with the application for licensure:
1456	1456	(1) A certificate of good standing;
1457	1457	(2) a copy of such entity's bylaws, operating agreement or other
1458	1458	document providing for the governance of such entity; and
1459	1459	(3) a certified document indicating:
1460	1460	(A) Each individual who holds an ownership interest in such entity
1461	1461	and each individual who holds an ownership interest in any business entity
1462	1462	that holds an ownership interest in the applicant;
1463	1463	(B) the percentage of ownership interest of each such individual or
1464	1464	business entity; and
1465	1465	(C) the residential address of each such individual.
1466	1466	(c) All individuals holding an ownership interest in a business entity
1467	1467	applying for a license shall satisfy the requirements for licensure under
1468	1468	subsections (a)(1), (a)(2), (a)(3), (a)(4), (a)(5), (a)(7), (a)(8), (a)(9) and (a)
1469	1469	(13).
1470	1470	(d) No license shall be issued to a business entity if less than 75% of
1471	1471	the total equity or similar ownership interest in such entity is owned by
1472	1472	individuals who have been residents of this state for at least two years
1473	1473	immediately preceding the date of the application. A license shall be
1474	1474	forfeited if, for more than 90 consecutive days, less than 75% of the total
1475	1475	equity or similar ownership interest in such entity is owned by individuals
1476	1476	who are residents of this state at any time after the license is issued.
1477	1477	(f) All business entities holding a license shall notify the director of
1478	1478	any change in such entity's registration status with the secretary of state,
1479	1479	any amendment of such entity's governing documents and any change in
1480	1480	ownership, including the names and addresses of the individuals whose
1481	1481	ownership interest changed within 30 days after such change occurs.
1482	1482	(g) Any transfer of a license shall be reported to and approved by the
1483	1483	director. The director shall not approve any transfer of a license to any
1484	1484	individual or business entity that does not satisfy the requirements of this
1485	1485	section at the time of the transfer. The director shall impose a transfer fee
1486	1486	in an amount equal to the amount imposed for issuance of the license
1487	1487	being transferred.
1488	1488	(h) Any compensation, fee, expense or similarly characterized
1489	1489	nonequity payment that is contingent on or otherwise determined in a
1490	1490	manner that factors in profits, sales, revenue or cash flow of any kind
1491	1491	relating to a licensee's operation, including, but not limited to, profit-based
1492	1492	consulting fees and percentage rent payments is prohibited. Any licensee
1493	1493	that enters into an agreement for any prohibited compensation, fee,
1494	1494	expense or payment shall forfeit such entity's license to the director. Such
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1537	1537	43 SB 135 19
1538	1538	prohibited compensation, fee, expense or payment:
1539	1539	(1) Includes any distribution that is made by a licensee to one or more
1540	1540	individuals or other entities residing or domiciled outside this state that
1541	1541	hold an equity or similar ownership interest in the licensee if such
1542	1542	distribution is greater than 25% of the total distributed amount; and
1543	1543	(2) does not include payments of fixed amounts that are determined
1544	1544	prior to the commencement of applicable services.
1545	1545	(i) For purposes of this section, the term "business entity" includes
1546	1546	for-profit corporations, limited liability companies, partnerships, limited
1547	1547	partnerships, limited liability partnerships and trusts. If the applicant is a
1548	1548	trust, references to individual ownership interests in the trust mean any
1549	1549	grantor, beneficiary or trustee of such trust.
1550	1550	(j) The provisions of subsection (a)(12) shall expire on December 31,
1551	1551	2025.
1552	1552	New Sec. 22. (a) A cultivator licensee may cultivate medical cannabis
1553	1553	in a building designated by the licensee that complies with the provisions
1554	1554	of section 44, and amendments thereto. A cultivator may:
1555	1555	(1) Transport, deliver or sell medical cannabis to one or more
1556	1556	licensed cultivators, processors, distributors or retail dispensaries; and
1557	1557	(2) purchase or receive medical cannabis from one or more licensed
1558	1558	cultivators.
1559	1559	(b) (1) Unless authorized by this act, a cultivator shall not transfer or
1560	1560	sell medical cannabis and a processor shall not transfer, sell or process into
1561	1561	a concentrate or medical cannabis product any medical cannabis, medical
1562	1562	cannabis concentrate or medical cannabis product unless samples from
1563	1563	each harvest batch or production batch from which such medical cannabis,
1564	1564	medical cannabis concentrate or medical cannabis product was derived has
1565	1565	been tested by a licensed laboratory for contaminants and has passed all
1566	1566	contaminant tests required by this act.
1567	1567	(2) A cultivator may transfer medical cannabis that has failed testing
1568	1568	for quality control to a licensed processor only for the purposes of
1569	1569	decontamination or remediation and only in accordance with the
1570	1570	provisions of this act.
1571	1571	(c) A cultivator shall employ only those individuals who hold an
1572	1572	employee license issued pursuant to section 29, and amendments thereto,
1573	1573	and have completed the training requirements established by rules and
1574	1574	regulations adopted by the secretary of revenue.
1575	1575	(d) A cultivator shall not cultivate medical cannabis for personal,
1576	1576	family or household use or on any public land.
1577	1577	New Sec. 23. (a) Prior to January 1, 2025, the director shall contract
1578	1578	with a private laboratory for the purpose of conducting compliance and
1579	1579	quality assurance testing of licensed cultivators, laboratories and
1580	1580	processors to provide public safety and ensure that quality medical
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1623	1623	43 SB 135 20
1624	1624	cannabis, medical cannabis concentrate and medical cannabis products are
1625	1625	available to registered patients and caregivers. The director shall only
1626	1626	contract with one private laboratory for compliance and quality assurance
1627	1627	testing.
1628	1628	(b) A laboratory under contract with the director for compliance and
1629	1629	quality assurance testing shall not:
1630	1630	(1) Conduct any other commercial medical cannabis testing in this
1631	1631	state; or
1632	1632	(2) employ or be owned by any individual:
1633	1633	(A) Who has a direct or indirect financial interest in any entity
1634	1634	holding a license issued pursuant to section 20, and amendments thereto;
1635	1635	(B) whose spouse, parent, child, sibling or spouse of a child or sibling
1636	1636	has a pending application for a license issued pursuant to section 20, and
1637	1637	amendments thereto; or
1638	1638	(C) who is a member of the board of directors of any entity holding a
1639	1639	license issued pursuant to section 20, and amendments thereto.
1640	1640	(c) A laboratory under contract with the director for compliance and
1641	1641	quality assurance shall:
1642	1642	(1) Be accessible and utilized for any medical cannabis testing needs
1643	1643	by any regulatory agency within the state, including, but not limited to, the
1644	1644	department of health and environment, the department of agriculture, the
1645	1645	Kansas bureau of investigation, any other state and local law enforcement
1646	1646	agencies and the state fire marshal;
1647	1647	(2) be accredited by a national environmental or cannabis laboratory
1648	1648	accreditation program approved by the director; and
1649	1649	(3) coordinate with the Kansas bureau of investigation to establish
1650	1650	forensic testing methods and standards that are standardized to the
1651	1651	methods of existing state forensic laboratories for assisting and providing
1652	1652	forensic or regulatory testing as such methods are used on January 1, 2025.
1653	1653	New Sec. 24. (a) The director shall propose rules and regulations as
1654	1654	necessary to develop acceptable testing and research practices in
1655	1655	consultation with the compliance and quality assurance testing laboratory
1656	1656	contracted with pursuant to section 23, and amendments thereto, including,
1657	1657	but not limited to, testing, standards, quality control analysis, equipment
1658	1658	certification and calibration and chemical identification and substances
1659	1659	used in bona fide research methods. After the hearing on proposed rules
1660	1660	and regulations has been held as required by law, the director shall submit
1661	1661	any such proposed rules and regulations to the secretary of revenue who,
1662	1662	upon approval by the secretary, shall adopt such rules and regulations.
1663	1663	(b) The director shall recommend rules and regulations for laboratory
1664	1664	testing performed under this act concerning:
1665	1665	(1) The cleanliness and orderliness of the premises of a licensed
1666	1666	laboratory and the establishing of licensed laboratories in secured
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1710	1710	locations;
1711	1711	(2) the inspection, cleaning and maintenance of any equipment or
1712	1712	utensils used for the analysis of test samples;
1713	1713	(3) testing procedures and standards for cannabinoid and terpenoid
1714	1714	potency and safe levels of contaminants and appropriate remediation and
1715	1715	validation procedures;
1716	1716	(4) controlled access areas for storage of medical cannabis, medical
1717	1717	cannabis concentrate and medical cannabis product test samples, waste
1718	1718	and reference standards;
1719	1719	(5) the establishment by the laboratory of a system, including
1720	1720	computer systems to be utilized by the laboratory, to retain and maintain
1721	1721	all required records, including business records, and processes to ensure
1722	1722	results are reported in a timely and accurate manner;
1723	1723	(6) the possession, storage and use by the laboratory of reagents,
1724	1724	solutions and reference standards;
1725	1725	(7) a certificate of analysis for each lot of reference standard;
1726	1726	(8) the transport and disposal of unused medical cannabis, medical
1727	1727	cannabis concentrate and medical cannabis product and waste;
1728	1728	(9) the mandatory use by a laboratory of an inventory tracking system
1729	1729	to ensure all test harvest and production batches or samples containing
1730	1730	medical cannabis, medical cannabis concentrate or medical cannabis
1731	1731	products are identified and tracked from the point such substances are
1732	1732	transferred from an entity holding a license issued pursuant to section 20,
1733	1733	and amendments thereto, or a registered patient or caregiver through the
1734	1734	point of transfer, destruction or disposal. The inventory tracking system
1735	1735	reporting shall include the results of any tests that are conducted;
1736	1736	(10) the employment of laboratory personnel;
1737	1737	(11) a written standard operating procedure manual to be maintained
1738	1738	and updated by the laboratory;
1739	1739	(12) the successful participation in a proficiency testing program
1740	1740	approved by the director for conducting testing required by section 25, and
1741	1741	amendments thereto, in order to obtain and maintain certification;
1742	1742	(13) the establishment of and adherence to a quality assurance and
1743	1743	quality control program to ensure sufficient monitoring of laboratory
1744	1744	processes and the quality of results reported;
1745	1745	(14) the immediate recall of medical cannabis, medical cannabis
1746	1746	concentrate or medical cannabis products that test above allowable
1747	1747	thresholds or are otherwise determined to be unsafe;
1748	1748	(15) the establishment by the laboratory of a system to document the
1749	1749	complete chain of custody for samples from receipt through disposal; and
1750	1750	(16) any other aspect of laboratory testing of medical cannabis,
1751	1751	medical cannabis concentrate or medical cannabis product deemed
1752	1752	necessary by the director.
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1796	1796	New Sec. 25. (a) (1) The issuance of a laboratory license shall be
1797	1797	contingent upon a successful on-site inspection, participation in
1798	1798	proficiency testing and ongoing compliance with the requirements of this
1799	1799	act. The laboratory premises specified in the license application shall be
1800	1800	inspected prior to initial licensure and not more than six times annually by
1801	1801	an inspector approved by the director.
1802	1802	(2) On and after January 1, 2025, accreditation by the national
1803	1803	environmental laboratory accreditation program, ANSI national
1804	1804	accreditation board or another accrediting body approved by the director
1805	1805	shall be required for licensure and renewal of licensure of a laboratory
1806	1806	license.
1807	1807	(b) No ownership interest in a licensed laboratory shall be held by a
1808	1808	person who has a direct or indirect beneficial ownership interest in any
1809	1809	licensed cultivator, processor, distributor or retail dispensary. A licensed
1810	1810	laboratory shall establish policies to prevent the existence of or the
1811	1811	appearance of undue commercial, financial or other influences that
1812	1812	diminish or have the effect of diminishing the public confidence in the
1813	1813	competency, impartiality and integrity of the testing processes or results of
1814	1814	such laboratory. Such policies shall prohibit employees, owners or agents
1815	1815	of a laboratory who participate in any aspect of the analysis and results of
1816	1816	a sample from improperly influencing the testing process, manipulating
1817	1817	data or benefiting from any ongoing financial, employment, personal or
1818	1818	business relationship with the licensed entity that submitted the sample for
1819	1819	testing.
1820	1820	(c) A licensed laboratory shall retain all results of laboratory tests
1821	1821	conducted on medical cannabis, medical cannabis concentrate or medical
1822	1822	cannabis products for a period of at least two years and shall promptly
1823	1823	provide the director access to such results and the underlying data. The
1824	1824	director shall also have access to the laboratory premises and any material
1825	1825	or information requested by the director to determine compliance with the
1826	1826	requirements of this act.
1827	1827	(d) A licensed laboratory shall establish standards, policies and
1828	1828	procedures for laboratory testing procedures in accordance with rules and
1829	1829	regulations adopted by the secretary of revenue. Samples from each
1830	1830	harvest batch or product batch, as appropriate, of medical cannabis,
1831	1831	medical cannabis concentrate and medical cannabis product shall be tested
1832	1832	for each of the following categories:
1833	1833	(1) Microbials;
1834	1834	(2) mycotoxins;
1835	1835	(3) residual solvents;
1836	1836	(4) pesticides;
1837	1837	(5) tetrahydrocannabinol and other cannabinoid potency;
1838	1838	(6) terpenoid potency type and concentration;
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1882	1882	(7) moisture content;
1883	1883	(8) homogeneity; and
1884	1884	(9) heavy metals.
1885	1885	(e) (1) For testing and research purposes only, including the provision
1886	1886	of testing services for samples submitted for product development, a
1887	1887	licensee may accept test samples of medical cannabis, medical cannabis
1888	1888	concentrate or medical cannabis product from any entity:
1889	1889	(A) Holding a license issued pursuant to section 20, and amendments
1890	1890	thereto; or
1891	1891	(B) designated in section 47, and amendments thereto.
1892	1892	(2) A licensee may accept test samples of medical cannabis, medical
1893	1893	cannabis concentrate and medical cannabis products from an individual
1894	1894	person for testing if such person is a:
1895	1895	(A) Registered patient or caregiver and such person provides the
1896	1896	laboratory with the individual's registration identification and a valid photo
1897	1897	identification; or
1898	1898	(B) participant in an approved clinical or observational study
1899	1899	conducted by any entity designated in section 45, and amendments thereto.
1900	1900	(3) A licensee may transfer samples to another licensed laboratory for
1901	1901	testing. All laboratory reports provided to or by an entity holding a license
1902	1902	issued pursuant to section 20, and amendments thereto, or to a patient or
1903	1903	caregiver shall identify the licensed laboratory that performed the testing
1904	1904	of the sample. A licensee may utilize a licensed distributor to transport
1905	1905	samples for testing from the licensed premises requesting testing services
1906	1906	and the licensed laboratory performing testing services.
1907	1907	(f) A licensee shall employ only those individuals who hold an
1908	1908	employee license issued pursuant to section 29, and amendments thereto,
1909	1909	and have completed the training requirements established by rules and
1910	1910	regulations adopted by the secretary of revenue.
1911	1911	New Sec. 26. (a) A processor licensee may:
1912	1912	(1) Purchase or receive medical cannabis from one or more licensed
1913	1913	cultivators or processors;
1914	1914	(2) subject to subsection (b), process medical cannabis obtained from
1915	1915	one or more licensed cultivators into a form described in section 30, and
1916	1916	amendments thereto; and
1917	1917	(3) transport, deliver or sell processed medical cannabis, medical
1918	1918	cannabis concentrate and medical cannabis products to one or more
1919	1919	licensed processors, distributors or retail dispensaries.
1920	1920	(b) When packaging medical cannabis, medical cannabis concentrate
1921	1921	and medical cannabis products, a licensed processor shall comply with any
1922	1922	packaging and labeling requirements established by rules and regulations
1923	1923	adopted by the secretary of revenue.
1924	1924	(c) A processor shall employ only those individuals who hold an
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1966	1966	42
1967	1967	43 SB 135 24
1968	1968	employee license issued pursuant to section 29, and amendments thereto,
1969	1969	and have completed the training requirements established by rules and
1970	1970	regulations adopted by the secretary of revenue.
1971	1971	(d) Not later than 12 months after commencing operation, the
1972	1972	licensed premises of a processor shall be certified as meeting the good
1973	1973	manufacturing processes and food safety standards adopted by the
1974	1974	secretary of revenue. Such certification shall be made by an accredited
1975	1975	certification entity approved by the director.
1976	1976	New Sec. 27. (a) A distributor licensee may:
1977	1977	(1) Purchase at wholesale medical cannabis, medical cannabis
1978	1978	concentrate and medical cannabis products from one or more licensed
1979	1979	cultivators or processors;
1980	1980	(2) store medical cannabis, medical cannabis concentrate and medical
1981	1981	cannabis products obtained from one or more licensed cultivators or
1982	1982	processors in a form described in section 30, and amendments thereto; and
1983	1983	(3) transport, deliver, package or sell medical cannabis and medical
1984	1984	cannabis products in a form described in section 30, and amendments
1985	1985	thereto, to one or more licensed retail dispensaries.
1986	1986	(b) When storing or selling medical cannabis, a licensed distributor
1987	1987	shall comply with any packaging and labeling requirements established by
1988	1988	rules and regulations adopted by the secretary of revenue.
1989	1989	(c) A distributor shall employ only those individuals who hold an
1990	1990	employee license issued pursuant to section 29, and amendments thereto,
1991	1991	and have completed the training requirements established by rules and
1992	1992	regulations adopted by the secretary of revenue.
1993	1993	(d) Not later than 12 months after commencing operation, the
1994	1994	licensed premises of a distributor shall be certified as meeting the good
1995	1995	manufacturing processes and food safety standards adopted by the
1996	1996	secretary of revenue. Such certification shall be made by an accredited
1997	1997	certification entity approved by the director.
1998	1998	New Sec. 28. (a) A retail dispensary licensee may obtain medical
1999	1999	cannabis and medical cannabis products from one or more licensed
2000	2000	cultivators, processors or distributors and may dispense and sell medical
2001	2001	cannabis and medical cannabis products in accordance with subsection (b).
2002	2002	(b) When dispensing and selling medical cannabis and medical
2003	2003	cannabis products, a retail dispensary shall:
2004	2004	(1) Dispense and sell medical cannabis and medical cannabis
2005	2005	products only to a person who provides the licensee with a current, valid
2006	2006	patient or caregiver identification card and only in accordance with a
2007	2007	written recommendation issued by a physician;
2008	2008	(2) report to the prescription monitoring program the information
2009	2009	required by K.S.A. 65-1683, and amendments thereto, and rules and
2010	2010	regulations adopted by the state board of pharmacy pursuant to section 38,
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2015	2015	5
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2053	2053	43 SB 135 25
2054	2054	and amendments thereto; and
2055	2055	(3) comply with any packaging and labeling requirements established
2056	2056	by rules and regulations adopted by the secretary of revenue, including,
2057	2057	but not limited to, labeling medical cannabis and medical cannabis
2058	2058	products with the following information:
2059	2059	(A) The name and address of the licensed cultivator or processor that
2060	2060	produced the medical cannabis or medical cannabis product and the retail
2061	2061	dispensary;
2062	2062	(B) the name of the patient and caregiver, if any;
2063	2063	(C) the name of the physician who issued the written
2064	2064	recommendation;
2065	2065	(D) the directions for use, if any, as recommended by the physician;
2066	2066	(E) the health warning as specified in rules and regulations adopted
2067	2067	by the secretary of health and environment;
2068	2068	(F) the date on which the medical cannabis or medical cannabis
2069	2069	product was dispensed; and
2070	2070	(G) the quantity, strength, kind or form of medical cannabis contained
2071	2071	in the package.
2072	2072	(c) A retail dispensary shall employ only those individuals who hold
2073	2073	an employee license issued pursuant to section 29, and amendments
2074	2074	thereto, and have completed the training requirements established by rules
2075	2075	and regulations adopted by the secretary of revenue.
2076	2076	(d) A retail dispensary shall designate a pharmacist consultant who is
2077	2077	a pharmacist licensed in this state and registered as a pharmacist consultant
2078	2078	pursuant to section 39, and amendments thereto.
2079	2079	(e) A retail dispensary shall not make public any information received
2080	2080	or collected by such licensee that identifies or would tend to identify any
2081	2081	specific patient.
2082	2082	New Sec. 29. (a) Each individual who seeks to be employed by a
2083	2083	person holding a license issued pursuant to section 20, and amendments
2084	2084	thereto, shall submit an application for an employee license to the director
2085	2085	in such form and manner as prescribed by the director. The director shall
2086	2086	issue a license to an applicant if all of the following conditions are met:
2087	2087	(1) The criminal history record check conducted pursuant to section
2088	2088	45, and amendments thereto, demonstrates that the applicant is not
2089	2089	disqualified from holding a license pursuant to section 20, and
2090	2090	amendments thereto; and
2091	2091	(2) the applicant meets all other licensure eligibility conditions
2092	2092	established in rules and regulations adopted by the secretary of revenue
2093	2093	and has paid all required fees.
2094	2094	(b) An employee license shall be valid for a period of two years from
2095	2095	the effective date as specified on the license and may be renewed by
2096	2096	submitting a license renewal application and paying the required fee.
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2139	2139	43 SB 135 26
2140	2140	(c) A license issued pursuant to this section shall not be associated
2141	2141	with a specific licensed cultivator, laboratory, processor, distributor or
2142	2142	retail dispensary. The holder of an employee license may be employed by
2143	2143	any such licensee.
2144	2144	New Sec. 30. (a) Only the following forms of medical cannabis may
2145	2145	be dispensed under the medical cannabis regulation act:
2146	2146	(1) Oils;
2147	2147	(2) tinctures;
2148	2148	(3) plant material;
2149	2149	(4) edibles;
2150	2150	(5) patches; or
2151	2151	(6) any other form approved by the secretary of revenue under section
2152	2152	31, and amendments thereto.
2153	2153	(b) The smoking, combustion or vaporization of medical cannabis is
2154	2154	prohibited.
2155	2155	(c) Any form or method of using medical cannabis that is considered
2156	2156	attractive to children is prohibited.
2157	2157	(d) No form of medical cannabis shall be dispensed from a vending
2158	2158	machine or through electronic commerce.
2159	2159	(e) The tetrahydrocannabinol content of any medical cannabis
2160	2160	dispensed shall not exceed the following:
2161	2161	(1) For plant material, 35%;
2162	2162	(2) for tinctures, oils and concentrates, 60%;
2163	2163	(3) for edibles, 3.5 grams; and
2164	2164	(4) for patches, 10 milligrams.
2165	2165	New Sec. 31. (a) Any person may submit a petition to the director
2166	2166	requesting that a form or method of using medical cannabis be approved
2167	2167	for the purposes of section 30, and amendments thereto. The petition shall
2168	2168	be submitted in such form and manner as prescribed by the director.
2169	2169	(b) Upon receipt of a petition, the director shall review such petition
2170	2170	to determine whether to recommend approval of the form or method of
2171	2171	using medical cannabis described in the petition. The director may
2172	2172	consolidate the review of petitions for the same or similar forms or
2173	2173	methods. The director shall consult with the medical cannabis advisory
2174	2174	committee and review any relevant scientific evidence when reviewing a
2175	2175	petition. The director shall recommend to the secretary of revenue whether
2176	2176	to approve or deny the proposed form or method of using medical
2177	2177	cannabis. The secretary shall approve or deny such proposed form or
2178	2178	method. The secretary's decision shall be final.
2179	2179	(c) Any petition for a proposed form or method of using medical
2180	2180	cannabis that is substantially the same as a petition that was denied by the
2181	2181	secretary during the immediately preceding 12 months shall be rejected
2182	2182	without recommendation to the secretary.
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2226	2226	New Sec. 32. (a) The fees for licenses issued by the director pursuant
2227	2227	to this act shall be set by rules and regulations adopted by the secretary of
2228	2228	revenue in accordance with this section.
2229	2229	(b) The fees for a cultivator license shall be in an amount not to
2230	2230	exceed:
2231	2231	(1) $20,000 for a cultivator license application or application for the
2232	2232	renewal thereof; and
2233	2233	(2) $20 per plant cultivated on the licensed premises for a cultivator
2234	2234	license or the renewal thereof.
2235	2235	(c) The fees for a laboratory license shall be in an amount not to
2236	2236	exceed:
2237	2237	(1) $4,000 for a laboratory license application or application for the
2238	2238	renewal thereof; and
2239	2239	(2) $36,000 for a laboratory license or the renewal thereof.
2240	2240	(d) The fees for a processor license shall be in an amount not to
2241	2241	exceed:
2242	2242	(1) $20,000 for a processor license application or application for the
2243	2243	renewal thereof; and
2244	2244	(2) $180,000 for a processor license or the renewal thereof.
2245	2245	(e) The fees for a distributor license shall be in an amount not to
2246	2246	exceed:
2247	2247	(1) $20,000 for a distributor license application or application for the
2248	2248	renewal thereof; and
2249	2249	(2) $80,000 for a distributor license or the renewal thereof.
2250	2250	(f) The fees for a retail dispensary license shall be in an amount not to
2251	2251	exceed:
2252	2252	(1) $20,000 for a retail dispensary license application or application
2253	2253	for the renewal thereof; and
2254	2254	(2) $80,000 for a retail dispensary license or the renewal thereof.
2255	2255	(g) The fee for an employee license shall be in an amount not to
2256	2256	exceed $100.
2257	2257	(h) All fees imposed pursuant to subsections (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f)
2258	2258	shall not be refundable, except that if a licensee pays the full amount of the
2259	2259	license fee upon application and is prevented from operating under such
2260	2260	license in accordance with the provisions of this act for the entire second
2261	2261	year of the license term, a refund shall be made of
2262	2262	1
2263	2263	/2 of the license fee
2264	2264	paid by such licensee. The secretary of revenue shall adopt rules and
2265	2265	regulations that provide for the authorization of refunds of
2266	2266	1
2267	2267	/2 of the license
2268	2268	fee paid when the licensee does not use such license for the entire second
2269	2269	year of the license term as a result of the cancellation of the license upon
2270	2270	the request of the licensee for voluntary reasons.
2271	2271	New Sec. 33. The director may refuse to issue or renew a license, or
2272	2272	may revoke or suspend a license if the applicant has:
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2315	2315	43 SB 135 28
2316	2316	(a) Failed to comply with any provision of the medical cannabis
2317	2317	regulation act, any rules and regulations adopted thereunder or any lawful
2318	2318	order issued by the director;
2319	2319	(b) falsified or misrepresented any information submitted to the
2320	2320	director in order to obtain a license;
2321	2321	(c) failed to adhere to any acknowledgment, verification or other
2322	2322	representation made to the director when applying for a license; or
2323	2323	(d) failed to submit or disclose information requested by the director.
2324	2324	New Sec. 34. (a) In addition to or in lieu of any other civil or criminal
2325	2325	penalty as provided by law, the director may impose a civil penalty or
2326	2326	suspend or revoke a license upon a finding that the licensee committed a
2327	2327	violation as provided in this section.
2328	2328	(b) (1) Upon a finding that a licensee has submitted fraudulent
2329	2329	information or otherwise falsified or misrepresented information required
2330	2330	to be submitted by such licensee, the director may impose a civil fine in an
2331	2331	amount not to exceed $5,000 for a first offense and may suspend or revoke
2332	2332	such licensee's license for a second or subsequent offense.
2333	2333	(2) (A) Except as provided in paragraph (B), upon a finding that a
2334	2334	licensee has cultivated, tested, processed, sold, transferred or otherwise
2335	2335	distributed medical cannabis in violation of this act, the director may
2336	2336	impose a civil fine in an amount not to exceed $5,000 for a first offense
2337	2337	and may suspend or revoke such licensee's license for a second or
2338	2338	subsequent offense.
2339	2339	(B) Upon a finding that a retail dispensary licensee has knowingly
2340	2340	disclosed patient information to any individual, the director shall impose a
2341	2341	civil fine in an amount not to exceed $5,000 and revoke such licensee's
2342	2342	license.
2343	2343	(c) The director may require any licensee to submit a sample of
2344	2344	medical cannabis, medical cannabis concentrate or medical cannabis
2345	2345	product to a laboratory upon demand.
2346	2346	(d) If the director suspends, revokes or refuses to renew any license
2347	2347	issued pursuant to this act and determines that there is clear and
2348	2348	convincing evidence of a danger of immediate and serious harm to any
2349	2349	person, the director may place under seal all medical cannabis owned by or
2350	2350	in the possession, custody or control of the affected license holder. Except
2351	2351	as provided in this section, the director shall not dispose of the sealed
2352	2352	medical cannabis until a final order is issued authorizing such disposition.
2353	2353	During the pendency of an appeal from any order by the director, a court
2354	2354	may order the director to sell medical cannabis that is perishable, and the
2355	2355	proceeds of any such sale shall be deposited with the court.
2356	2356	New Sec. 35. (a) Any citation issued by an agent of the division of
2357	2357	alcohol and cannabis control for a violation of the medical cannabis
2358	2358	regulation act shall be delivered to the licensee or a person in charge of the
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2402	2402	licensed premises at the time of the alleged violation. A copy of such
2403	2403	citation also shall be delivered by United States mail to the licensee within
2404	2404	30 days of the alleged violation.
2405	2405	(b) Any duly authorized law enforcement officer who observes a
2406	2406	violation of the medical cannabis regulation act may, after serving notice
2407	2407	to the licensee or a person in charge of the licensed premises, submit a
2408	2408	report of such violation to the division of alcohol and cannabis control for
2409	2409	review. Upon receipt of such report, the director shall review the report
2410	2410	and determine if administrative action will be taken against the licensee. If
2411	2411	the director determines that administrative action will be taken, an
2412	2412	administrative citation and notice of administrative action shall be
2413	2413	delivered by United States mail to the licensee within 30 days of the date
2414	2414	of the alleged violation.
2415	2415	(c) The notice required to be served to the licensee or a person in
2416	2416	charge of the licensed premises at the time of the alleged violation
2417	2417	pursuant to subsection (b) shall be in writing and shall contain the
2418	2418	following:
2419	2419	(1) The name of the licensee;
2420	2420	(2) the date and time of the alleged violation;
2421	2421	(3) a description of the alleged violation; and
2422	2422	(4) a statement that a report of the alleged violation will be submitted
2423	2423	to the division of alcohol and cannabis control for review.
2424	2424	(d) Any citations not issued in accordance with the provisions of this
2425	2425	section shall be void and unenforceable.
2426	2426	(e) For purposes of this section, the term "person in charge" means
2427	2427	any individual or employee present on the licensed premises at the time of
2428	2428	the alleged violation who is responsible for the operation of the licensed
2429	2429	premises. If no designated individual or employee is a person in charge,
2430	2430	then any employee present is the person in charge.
2431	2431	New Sec. 36. (a) There is hereby established the medical cannabis
2432	2432	business regulation fund in the state treasury. The director of alcohol and
2433	2433	cannabis control shall administer the medical cannabis business regulation
2434	2434	fund and shall remit all moneys collected from the payment by licensees of
2435	2435	all fees and fines imposed by the director pursuant to the medical cannabis
2436	2436	regulation act and any other moneys received by or on behalf of the
2437	2437	director pursuant to such act to the state treasurer in accordance with the
2438	2438	provisions of K.S.A. 75-4215, and amendments thereto. Upon receipt of
2439	2439	each such remittance, the state treasurer shall deposit the entire amount in
2440	2440	the state treasury to the credit of the medical cannabis business regulation
2441	2441	fund. Moneys credited to the medical cannabis business regulation fund
2442	2442	shall only be expended or transferred as provided in this section.
2443	2443	Expenditures from such fund shall be made in accordance with
2444	2444	appropriation acts upon warrants of the director of accounts and reports
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2488	2488	issued pursuant to vouchers approved by the director or the director's
2489	2489	designee.
2490	2490	(b) Moneys in the medical cannabis business regulation fund shall be
2491	2491	used for the payment or reimbursement of costs related to the regulation
2492	2492	and enforcement of the cultivation, testing, distributing, possession,
2493	2493	processing and sale of medical cannabis by the division of alcohol and
2494	2494	cannabis control.
2495	2495	New Sec. 37. (a) On or before January 1, 2025, the director shall
2496	2496	propose rules and regulations to administer the medical cannabis
2497	2497	regulation program and implement and enforce the provisions of the
2498	2498	medical cannabis regulation act. The secretary of revenue shall, after
2499	2499	consulting with the medical cannabis advisory committee, adopt rules and
2500	2500	regulations to administer the medical cannabis regulation program and
2501	2501	implement and enforce the provisions of this act. Such rules and
2502	2502	regulations shall:
2503	2503	(1) Establish application procedures and fees for licenses issued
2504	2504	under sections 20 and 29, and amendments thereto;
2505	2505	(2) specify the conditions for eligibility for licensure;
2506	2506	(3) establish a license renewal schedule, renewal procedures and
2507	2507	renewal fees;
2508	2508	(4) establish standards for the processing and storage of medical
2509	2509	cannabis and medical cannabis products that are in conformance with good
2510	2510	manufacturing processes and food safety standards;
2511	2511	(5) establish standards and procedures for the testing of medical
2512	2512	cannabis by a licensed laboratory;
2513	2513	(6) establish procedures for transporting medical cannabis, medical
2514	2514	cannabis concentrate and medical cannabis products between licensees,
2515	2515	including submission of any shipping records or other documentation as
2516	2516	may be required by the director;
2517	2517	(7) establish official packaging and labeling requirements for medical
2518	2518	cannabis, medical cannabis concentrate and medical cannabis products that
2519	2519	are transferred between licensees;
2520	2520	(8) establish official packaging and labeling requirements for retail
2521	2521	dispensaries that:
2522	2522	(A) Designate the package as Kansas medical cannabis;
2523	2523	(B) include the information required under section 28, and
2524	2524	amendments thereto;
2525	2525	(C) ensure that the packaging is tamper-proof and child-resistant; and
2526	2526	(D) ensure that the package is not attractive to children;
2527	2527	(9) specify licensed premises security requirements in accordance
2528	2528	with section 44, and amendments thereto; and
2529	2529	(10) establish training requirements for employees of licensed
2530	2530	cultivators, laboratories, processors, distributors and retail dispensaries.
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2574	2574	(b) When adopting rules and regulations, the secretary shall consider
2575	2575	standards and procedures that have been found to be best practices relative
2576	2576	to the use and regulation of medical cannabis.
2577	2577	New Sec. 38. On or before January 1, 2025, the state board of
2578	2578	pharmacy shall adopt rules and regulations establishing the requirements
2579	2579	for:
2580	2580	(a) Retail dispensary reports to the prescription monitoring program
2581	2581	database, including, but not limited to, the:
2582	2582	(1) Methods of transmission;
2583	2583	(2) nationally recognized telecommunications format to be used;
2584	2584	(3) frequency of such reports; and
2585	2585	(4) procedures for the maintenance of information submitted to or
2586	2586	received from the prescription monitoring program to ensure such
2587	2587	information is treated as confidential and is subject to the requirements of
2588	2588	K.S.A. 65-1685 and 65-1687, and amendments thereto;
2589	2589	(b) pharmacists to register as pharmacist consultants, including the
2590	2590	fee for such registration and the renewal thereof; and
2591	2591	(c) the sharing of patient and caregiver information from the
2592	2592	prescription monitoring program database to the Kansas criminal justice
2593	2593	information system operated and maintained by the Kansas bureau of
2594	2594	investigation. All information shared from the prescription monitoring
2595	2595	program database shall be confidential and shall not be used except by law
2596	2596	enforcement agencies in this state for the purposes of law enforcement.
2597	2597	The following information shall be shared from the prescription
2598	2598	monitoring program:
2599	2599	(1) The name of the patient or caregiver registered under section 8,
2600	2600	and amendments thereto;
2601	2601	(2) the date of birth of such patient or caregiver;
2602	2602	(3) the unique identification number assigned to such patient's or
2603	2603	caregiver's registration card;
2604	2604	(4) the written recommendation for treatment with medical cannabis
2605	2605	from such patient's physician, including the amount of a 30-day supply of
2606	2606	medical cannabis; and
2607	2607	(5) the amount and date such patient or caregiver last purchased
2608	2608	medical cannabis.
2609	2609	New Sec. 39. (a) Any pharmacist who seeks to operate as a
2610	2610	pharmacist consultant for a retail dispensary shall register with the state
2611	2611	board of pharmacy in accordance with rules and regulations adopted by the
2612	2612	board.
2613	2613	(b) In operating as a pharmacist consultant for a retail dispensary,
2614	2614	such pharmacist shall:
2615	2615	(1) Not charge a fee for such pharmacist's services that exceeds 1% of
2616	2616	the gross annual receipts of such retail dispensary;
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2660	2660	(2) audit each recommendation for use of medical cannabis, verify
2661	2661	that any medical cannabis dispensed to a patient or caregiver is in
2662	2662	accordance with such recommendation and ensure that each such
2663	2663	recommendation is reported to the prescription monitoring program in
2664	2664	accordance with K.S.A. 65-1683, and amendments thereto, and rules and
2665	2665	regulations adopted by the state board of pharmacy;
2666	2666	(3) develop and provide training to retail dispensary employees at
2667	2667	least once every 12 months that:
2668	2668	(A) Establishes guidelines for providing information to registered
2669	2669	patients related to risks, benefits and side effects associated with medical
2670	2670	cannabis;
2671	2671	(B) explains how to identify the signs and symptoms of substance
2672	2672	abuse;
2673	2673	(C) establishes guidelines for refusing to provide medical cannabis to
2674	2674	an individual who appears to be impaired or abusing medical cannabis;
2675	2675	and
2676	2676	(D) assists in the development and implementation of review and
2677	2677	improvement processes for patient education and support provided by the
2678	2678	retail dispensary;
2679	2679	(4) provide oversight for the development and dissemination of:
2680	2680	(A) Education materials for qualifying patients and designated
2681	2681	caregivers that include:
2682	2682	(i) Information about possible side effects and contraindications of
2683	2683	medical cannabis;
2684	2684	(ii) guidelines for notifying the physician who provided the written
2685	2685	recommendation for medical cannabis if side effects or contraindications
2686	2686	occur;
2687	2687	(iii) a description of the potential effects of differing strengths of
2688	2688	medical cannabis strains and products;
2689	2689	(iv) information about potential drug-to-drug interactions, including
2690	2690	interactions with alcohol, prescription drugs, nonprescription drugs and
2691	2691	supplements;
2692	2692	(v) techniques for the use of medical cannabis, medical cannabis
2693	2693	products and paraphernalia for the use of medical cannabis; and
2694	2694	(vi) information about different methods, forms and routes of medical
2695	2695	cannabis administration;
2696	2696	(B) systems for documentation by a registered patient or designated
2697	2697	caregiver of the symptoms of a registered patient that includes a logbook,
2698	2698	rating scale for pain and symptoms and guidelines for a patient's self-
2699	2699	assessment; and
2700	2700	(C) policies and procedures for refusing to provide medical cannabis
2701	2701	to an individual who appears to be impaired or abusing medical cannabis;
2702	2702	and
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2746	2746	(5) be accessible by telephone or video conference to the retail
2747	2747	dispensary and for a patient consultation during operating hours.
2748	2748	(c) The state board of pharmacy shall establish a fee for registration
2749	2749	as a pharmacist consultant that shall not exceed $100.
2750	2750	(d) Each pharmacist consultant shall renew such consultant's
2751	2751	registration annually upon submitting a renewal application along with
2752	2752	payment of the required fee in such form and manner as prescribed by the
2753	2753	board.
2754	2754	New Sec. 40. (a) There is hereby established the pharmacist
2755	2755	consultant registration fee fund in the state treasury. The state board of
2756	2756	pharmacy shall administer the pharmacist consultant registration fee fund
2757	2757	and shall remit all moneys collected from the payment by pharmacist
2758	2758	consultants of all fees and fines imposed by the state board pursuant to the
2759	2759	medical cannabis regulation act and any other moneys received by or on
2760	2760	behalf of the state board pursuant to such act to the state treasurer in
2761	2761	accordance with the provisions of K.S.A. 75-4215, and amendments
2762	2762	thereto. Upon receipt of each such remittance, the state treasurer shall
2763	2763	deposit the entire amount in the state treasury to the credit of the
2764	2764	pharmacist consultant registration fee fund. Moneys credited to the
2765	2765	pharmacist consultant registration fee fund shall only be expended or
2766	2766	transferred as provided in this section. Expenditures from such fund shall
2767	2767	be made in accordance with appropriation acts upon warrants of the
2768	2768	director of accounts and reports issued pursuant to vouchers approved by
2769	2769	the state board or the state board's designee.
2770	2770	(b) Moneys in the pharmacist consultant registration fee fund shall be
2771	2771	used for the payment or reimbursement of costs related to the operation
2772	2772	and maintenance of the Kansas prescription drug monitoring program that
2773	2773	is attributable to the medical cannabis regulation act and to the regulation
2774	2774	and registration of pharmacist consultants by the state board of pharmacy.
2775	2775	New Sec. 41. (a) The director shall establish and maintain an
2776	2776	electronic database to monitor medical cannabis from its seed source
2777	2777	through its cultivation, testing, processing, distribution and dispensing,
2778	2778	giving preference to systems that include tracking each plant beginning
2779	2779	with the plant's in vitro genetic origination data. The director may contract
2780	2780	with a separate entity to establish and maintain all or any portion of the
2781	2781	electronic database on behalf of the division of alcohol and cannabis
2782	2782	control.
2783	2783	(b) The electronic database shall allow for information regarding
2784	2784	medical cannabis to be updated instantaneously. Any licensed cultivator,
2785	2785	laboratory, processor, distributor or retail dispensary shall submit such
2786	2786	information to the director as the director determines is necessary for
2787	2787	maintaining the electronic database, including any manifest or other
2788	2788	shipping documents for seeds or seedlings shipped into this state.
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2832	2832	(c) The director, any employee of the division, any entity under
2833	2833	contract with the director and any employee or agent thereof shall not
2834	2834	make public any information reported to or collected by the director under
2835	2835	this section that identifies or would tend to identify any specific patient.
2836	2836	Such information shall be kept confidential to protect the privacy of the
2837	2837	patient. The provisions of this subsection shall expire on July 1, 2029,
2838	2838	unless the legislature reviews and reenacts such provisions in accordance
2839	2839	with K.S.A. 45-229, and amendments thereto, prior to July 1, 2029.
2840	2840	New Sec. 42. (a) There shall be no direct or indirect cooperative
2841	2841	advertising between or among two or more licensed cultivators, retail
2842	2842	dispensaries or physicians, or any combination thereof, where such
2843	2843	advertising has the purpose or effect of steering or influencing patient or
2844	2844	caregiver choice with regard to the selection of a physician, retail
2845	2845	dispensary or source of medical cannabis.
2846	2846	(b) All advertisements for medical cannabis or medical cannabis
2847	2847	products that make a statement relating to side effects, contraindications
2848	2848	and effectiveness shall present a true statement of such information. When
2849	2849	applicable, advertisements broadcast through media, including, but not
2850	2850	limited to, radio, television or any other electronic media, shall include
2851	2851	such information in the audio or audio and visual parts of the broadcast.
2852	2852	False or misleading information in any part of the advertisement shall not
2853	2853	be corrected by the inclusion of a true statement in another, distinct part of
2854	2854	the advertisement.
2855	2855	(c) An advertisement is false or otherwise misleading if such
2856	2856	advertisement:
2857	2857	(1) Contains a representation or suggestion that a medical cannabis
2858	2858	brand or product is better, more effective, useful in a broader range of
2859	2859	conditions or patients or safer than other drugs or treatments, including
2860	2860	other medical cannabis brands or products, unless such a claim has been
2861	2861	demonstrated by substantial evidence or substantial clinical experience;
2862	2862	(2) contains favorable information or opinions about a medical
2863	2863	cannabis brand or product previously regarded as valid but that have been
2864	2864	rendered invalid by contrary and more recent credible information;
2865	2865	(3) uses a quote or paraphrase out of context or without citing
2866	2866	conflicting information from the same source to convey a false or
2867	2867	misleading idea;
2868	2868	(4) cites or refers to a study on individuals without a qualifying
2869	2869	medical condition without disclosing that the subjects were not suffering
2870	2870	from a qualifying medical condition;
2871	2871	(5) uses data favorable to a medical cannabis product derived from
2872	2872	patients treated with a product or dosages different from those approved in
2873	2873	this state;
2874	2874	(6) contains favorable information or conclusions from a study that is
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2918	2918	inadequate in design, scope or conduct to furnish significant support for
2919	2919	such information or conclusions; or
2920	2920	(7) fails to provide adequate emphasis for the fact that two or more
2921	2921	facing pages are part of the same advertisement when only one page
2922	2922	contains information relating to side effects, consequences and
2923	2923	contraindications.
2924	2924	(d) An advertisement for medical cannabis or medical cannabis
2925	2925	products shall not contain any:
2926	2926	(1) Statement that is false or misleading in any material particular or
2927	2927	is otherwise in violation of the Kansas consumer protection act;
2928	2928	(2) statement that falsely disparages a competitor's products;
2929	2929	(3) statement, design or representation, picture or illustration that:
2930	2930	(A) Is obscene or indecent;
2931	2931	(B) encourages or represents the recreational use of cannabis or the
2932	2932	use of medical cannabis for a condition other than a qualifying medical
2933	2933	condition;
2934	2934	(C) relates to the safety or efficacy of medical cannabis unless
2935	2935	supported by substantial evidence or substantial clinical data; or
2936	2936	(D) portrays anyone under 18 years of age or contains the use of a
2937	2937	figure, symbol or language that is customarily associated with anyone
2938	2938	under 18 years of age;
2939	2939	(4) offer of a prize or award to a registered patient, caregiver or
2940	2940	physician related to the purchase of medical cannabis; or
2941	2941	(5) statement that indicates or implies that the product or entity in the
2942	2942	advertisement has been approved or endorsed by the secretary of health
2943	2943	and environment, the director, the state of Kansas or any person or entity
2944	2944	associated with the state.
2945	2945	(e) No advertisement shall be broadcast or otherwise disseminated if
2946	2946	the submitter of the advertisement has received information that has not
2947	2947	been widely publicized in medical literature that the use of the medical
2948	2948	cannabis product may cause fatalities or serious harm.
2949	2949	(f) The director may:
2950	2950	(1) Require that a specific disclosure be made in an advertisement in
2951	2951	a clear and conspicuous manner, if the director determines that such
2952	2952	advertisement would be false or misleading without such a disclosure; or
2953	2953	(2) make recommendations with respect to changes to such
2954	2954	advertisement that are:
2955	2955	(A) Necessary to protect the public health, safety and welfare; or
2956	2956	(B) consistent with dispensing information for the medical cannabis
2957	2957	or medical cannabis product that is the subject of such advertisment.
2958	2958	(g) A retail dispensary shall not:
2959	2959	(1) Advertise medical cannabis brand names or utilize graphics
2960	2960	related to cannabis or paraphernalia on the exterior of the building or
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3004	3004	grounds of the licensed premises of such retail dispensary; or
3005	3005	(2) display any medical cannabis or paraphernalia that is clearly
3006	3006	visible from the exterior of such retail dispensary.
3007	3007	(h) Medical cannabis shall not be advertised for sale by any
3008	3008	cultivator, processor or distributor, except that such licensees may make a
3009	3009	price list available to a retail dispensary.
3010	3010	New Sec. 43. (a) Except as otherwise provided, no cultivator,
3011	3011	laboratory, processor, distributor or retail dispensary shall be located
3012	3012	within 1,000 feet of the boundaries of a parcel of real estate having
3013	3013	situated on it a school, religious organization, public library or public park.
3014	3014	If the relocation of a cultivator, laboratory, processor, distributor or retail
3015	3015	dispensary results in such licensee being located within 1,000 feet of the
3016	3016	boundaries of a parcel of real estate having situated on it a school,
3017	3017	religious organization, public library or public park, the director shall
3018	3018	revoke the license of such cultivator, laboratory, processor, distributor or
3019	3019	retail dispensary.
3020	3020	(b) (1) The director shall not revoke the license of a cultivator,
3021	3021	laboratory, processor, distributor or retail dispensary if such licensee
3022	3022	existed at a location prior to the establishment of a school, religious
3023	3023	organization, public library or public park that is located on real estate that
3024	3024	is within 1,000 feet of such licensee.
3025	3025	(2) Any applicant for a license may petition for and receive an
3026	3026	exemption from the provisions of this section upon approval by the
3027	3027	director if the proposed licensed premises:
3028	3028	(A) Has an industrial zoning classification; and
3029	3029	(B) is located not less than 500 feet of the boundaries of a parcel of
3030	3030	real estate having situated on it a school, religious organization, public
3031	3031	library or public park.
3032	3032	(c) This section shall not apply to research related to cannabis
3033	3033	conducted at a postsecondary educational institution, academic medical
3034	3034	center or private research and development organization as part of a
3035	3035	research protocol approved by an institutional review board or equivalent
3036	3036	entity.
3037	3037	(d) A county may prohibit the operation of retail dispensaries in such
3038	3038	county by adoption of a resolution. Any retail dispensary that is lawfully
3039	3039	operating at the time such resolution is adopted shall be permitted to
3040	3040	continue operating in such county and shall not be denied renewal of any
3041	3041	license based upon the adoption of such resolution.
3042	3042	(e) No license shall be issued for premises unless such premises
3043	3043	comply with all applicable zoning and building regulations.
3044	3044	(f) As used in this section:
3045	3045	(1) "Public library" means any library established pursuant to article
3046	3046	12 of chapter 12 of the Kansas Statutes Annotated, and amendments
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3090	3090	thereto, and any other library that serves the general public and is funded
3091	3091	in whole, or in part, from moneys derived from tax levies;
3092	3092	(2) "public park" means any park or other outdoor recreational area or
3093	3093	facility, including, but not limited to, parks, open spaces, trails, swimming
3094	3094	pools, playgrounds and playing courts and fields established by the state or
3095	3095	any political subdivision thereof;
3096	3096	(3) "religious organization" means any organization, church, body of
3097	3097	communicants or group gathered in common membership for mutual
3098	3098	support and edification in piety, worship and religious observances or a
3099	3099	society of individuals united for religious purposes at a definite place
3100	3100	owned by such entity that:
3101	3101	(A) Maintains an established place of worship within this state;
3102	3102	(B) has a regular schedule of services or meetings at least on a
3103	3103	weekly basis; and
3104	3104	(C) has been determined to be organized and created as a bona fide
3105	3105	religious organization; and
3106	3106	(4) "school" means any public or private preschool, elementary,
3107	3107	middle or high school or other attendance center for kindergarten or any of
3108	3108	the grades one through 12.
3109	3109	New Sec. 44. (a) The licensed premises for any license issued
3110	3110	pursuant to section 20, and amendments thereto, shall be equipped with
3111	3111	security equipment and measures to prevent unauthorized access to
3112	3112	restricted areas of the premises and the theft, diversion or inversion of
3113	3113	medical cannabis, medical cannabis concentrate or medial cannabis
3114	3114	products.
3115	3115	(b) The licensee of a licensed premises shall install and maintain the
3116	3116	following security equipment for the licensed premises:
3117	3117	(1) Exterior lighting sufficient to illuminate the exterior and perimeter
3118	3118	of the licensed premises to facilitate surveillance of the premises;
3119	3119	(2) electronic video monitoring in accordance with subsection (c);
3120	3120	(3) controlled access to restricted access areas of the premises by
3121	3121	means of electronic card access systems, biometric identification systems
3122	3122	or similar systems that:
3123	3123	(A) Provide for the automatic locking of all external access doors in
3124	3124	the event of power loss; and
3125	3125	(B) records access information by date, time and identity of the
3126	3126	individual accessing restricted access area and maintains such information
3127	3127	for at least one year;
3128	3128	(4) if windows are visible in any restricted access area, windows that
3129	3129	are secured at all times to prevent opening or other access to the restricted
3130	3130	access area via such windows; and
3131	3131	(5) alarm systems that provide:
3132	3132	(A) Immediate, automatic notification of local law enforcement
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3176	3176	agencies of any unauthorized breach of the security of the premises; and
3177	3177	(B) manual, silent alarms at each point-of-sale, reception area, vault
3178	3178	and electronic monitoring station that provides for the immediate,
3179	3179	automatic notification of local law enforcement agencies of any
3180	3180	unauthorized breach of the security of the premises.
3181	3181	(c) Any electronic video monitoring system installed and maintained
3182	3182	by a licensee shall:
3183	3183	(1) Include coverage of:
3184	3184	(A) All entrances to the premises, including all windows and
3185	3185	entrances to restricted access areas;
3186	3186	(B) the exterior and perimeter of the premises;
3187	3187	(C) each point-of-sale location;
3188	3188	(D) all vaults or safes; and
3189	3189	(E) all areas where medical cannabis, medical cannabis concentrate
3190	3190	and medical cannabis products are cultivated, processed or disposed of as
3191	3191	waste;
3192	3192	(2) include surveillance with artificial intelligence;
3193	3193	(3) store all video recordings for at least 90 days in a secure location
3194	3194	on or off the premises or through a secure service or network that provides
3195	3195	on-demand access to such recordings. All such recordings shall be made
3196	3196	available to the director upon request and at the expense of the licensee;
3197	3197	(4) accurately display the date and time of all recorded events in a
3198	3198	manner that does not obstruct the recorded view; and
3199	3199	(5) be installed in a manner that will prevent the video monitoring
3200	3200	equipment from being obstructed, tampered with or disabled.
3201	3201	(d) (1) Each licensee shall notify the director of any malfunction in
3202	3202	security equipment within 24 hours after such malfunction is discovered,
3203	3203	and shall make reasonable efforts to repair such malfunctioning security
3204	3204	equipment within 72 hours after such discovery.
3205	3205	(2) If the malfunctioning equipment is the electronic video
3206	3206	monitoring system, a licensee shall provide for alternative video
3207	3207	monitoring or other security measures until the malfunction can be
3208	3208	repaired. If other security measures are used, the licensee shall notify the
3209	3209	director of the use of such measures and when the electronic video
3210	3210	monitoring system has been repaired.
3211	3211	(3) Each licensee shall maintain a record of all security equipment
3212	3212	malfunctions and repairs for each licensed premises. Each record of a
3213	3213	malfunction shall be maintained for one year from the date of the last entry
3214	3214	for such malfunction. Such record shall include the following:
3215	3215	(A) Date, time and nature of each malfunction;
3216	3216	(B) date and method of repair;
3217	3217	(C) reason for the delay, if any, in making a repair;
3218	3218	(D) use of alternative security measures, if any; and
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3262	3262	(E) date and time of communications with the director.
3263	3263	(4) All security systems shall have a contingency operation system in
3264	3264	the event of power outages.
3265	3265	(e) Each licensee shall establish policies and procedures for the
3266	3266	security of the licensed premises. Such policies and procedures shall
3267	3267	include:
3268	3268	(1) Controlling access to all restricted access areas;
3269	3269	(2) verifying the identity of individuals authorized to be in restricted
3270	3270	access areas and individuals authorized to conduct inventory control
3271	3271	activities;
3272	3272	(3) Limiting the amount of money available in the premises and
3273	3273	notifying any person entering the premises that there is a minimum amount
3274	3274	of money available, including by posting signage;
3275	3275	(4) use of electronic video monitoring systems;
3276	3276	(5) use of alarm systems, including the use of manual, silent alarms;
3277	3277	and
3278	3278	(6) communications with local law enforcement agencies regarding
3279	3279	unauthorized security breaches and the employment and identity of any
3280	3280	armed security personnel by the licensee.
3281	3281	(f) Each licensee shall employ a security manager. A security
3282	3282	manager shall be responsible for:
3283	3283	(1) Conducting semiannual audits of the security equipment and
3284	3284	measures utilized on the licensed premises to ensure compliance with
3285	3285	policies and procedures and to identify any security issues;
3286	3286	(2) training employees, upon employment and at least annually
3287	3287	thereafter, on security measures, emergency response and theft prevention;
3288	3288	and
3289	3289	(3) evaluating the credentials of any contractor, including any
3290	3290	contractor providing any security equipment or measures, who intends to
3291	3291	provide services at the licensed premises prior to such contractor accessing
3292	3292	the premises.
3293	3293	(g) Each licensee shall ensure that the security manager for a licensed
3294	3294	premises and any contractor providing security services for such licensed
3295	3295	premises and any employees of such contractor providing such services
3296	3296	have completed training in security equipment and measures. Such
3297	3297	training shall include:
3298	3298	(1) Prevention of theft, diversion and inversion of medical cannabis;
3299	3299	(2) emergency response procedures;
3300	3300	(3) appropriate use of force;
3301	3301	(4) preservation of a crime scene;
3302	3302	(5) controlling access to restricted access areas of the premises;
3303	3303	(6) at least eight hours of training in providing security services on
3304	3304	the premises; and
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3348	3348	(7) at least eight hours of attendance in a course on providing security
3349	3349	services.
3350	3350	(h) Except as provided in subsection (c)(3), each licensee shall retain
3351	3351	all documents related to security equipment and measures and any other
3352	3352	documents related to the operations of the licensed premises for a period
3353	3353	of three years for inspection by the director.
3354	3354	(i) Each licensee shall maintain a medical cannabis waste disposal
3355	3355	plan that complies with the provisions of the medical cannabis regulation
3356	3356	act and rules and regulations adopted pursuant thereto. Any change in such
3357	3357	plan shall be submitted to the director not less than 30 days before such
3358	3358	change becomes effective.
3359	3359	(j) As used in this section, the term "restricted access entrance" means
3360	3360	an entrance that is restricted to the public and requires a key, keycard,
3361	3361	code, biometric identification system or similar device to allow entry to
3362	3362	authorized personnel.
3363	3363	New Sec. 45. Each applicant for a cultivator, laboratory, processor,
3364	3364	distributor or retail dispensary license shall require each owner owning
3365	3365	20% or more of the ownership interest in such applicant and each director,
3366	3366	officer and agent of such applicant to be fingerprinted and to submit to a
3367	3367	state and national criminal history record check. Each applicant for an
3368	3368	employee licensee shall be fingerprinted and submit to a state and national
3369	3369	criminal history record check. The director is authorized to submit the
3370	3370	fingerprints to the Kansas bureau of investigation and the federal bureau of
3371	3371	investigation for a state and national criminal history record check. The
3372	3372	director shall use the information obtained from fingerprinting and the
3373	3373	state and national criminal history record check for purposes of verifying
3374	3374	the identification of the applicant and any owner, director, officer and
3375	3375	agent thereof, if any, and for making a determination of the qualifications
3376	3376	of the applicant for licensure. The Kansas bureau of investigation may
3377	3377	charge a reasonable fee to the applicant for fingerprinting and conducting a
3378	3378	criminal history record check.
3379	3379	New Sec. 46. (a) A financial institution that provides financial
3380	3380	services to any cultivator, laboratory, processor, distributor or retail
3381	3381	dispensary shall be exempt from any criminal law of this state, an element
3382	3382	of which may be proven beyond a reasonable doubt that a person provides
3383	3383	financial services to a person who possesses, delivers or manufactures
3384	3384	medical cannabis or medical cannabis products, including any of the
3385	3385	offenses specified in article 57 of chapter 21 of the Kansas Statutes
3386	3386	Annotated, and amendments thereto, or any attempt, conspiracy or
3387	3387	solicitation specified in article 53 of chapter 21 of the Kansas Statutes
3388	3388	Annotated, and amendments thereto, if the cultivator, laboratory,
3389	3389	processor, distributor or retail dispensary is in compliance with the
3390	3390	provisions of this act and all applicable tax laws of this state.
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3434	3434	(b) (1) Upon the request of a financial institution, the director shall
3435	3435	provide to the financial institution the following information:
3436	3436	(A) Whether a person with whom the financial institution is seeking
3437	3437	to do business is a licensed cultivator, laboratory, processor, distributor or
3438	3438	retail dispensary;
3439	3439	(B) the name of any other business or individual affiliated with such
3440	3440	person;
3441	3441	(C) an unredacted copy of such person's application for a license, and
3442	3442	any supporting documentation, that was submitted by such person;
3443	3443	(D) information relating to sales and volume of product sold by such
3444	3444	person, if applicable;
3445	3445	(E) whether such person is in compliance with the provisions of this
3446	3446	act; and
3447	3447	(F) any past or pending violations of the medical cannabis regulation
3448	3448	act or any rules and regulations adopted thereunder committed by such
3449	3449	person and any penalty imposed on such person for such violation.
3450	3450	(2) The director may charge a financial institution a reasonable fee to
3451	3451	cover the administrative cost of providing information requested under this
3452	3452	section.
3453	3453	(c) Information received by a financial institution under subsection
3454	3454	(b) is confidential. Except as otherwise permitted by any other state or
3455	3455	federal law, a financial institution shall not make the information available
3456	3456	to any person other than the customer to whom the information applies and
3457	3457	any trustee, conservator, guardian, personal representative or agent of such
3458	3458	customer.
3459	3459	(d) As used in this section:
3460	3460	(1) "Financial institution" means any bank, trust company, savings
3461	3461	bank, credit union or savings and loan association or any other financial
3462	3462	institution regulated by the state of Kansas, any agency of the United
3463	3463	States or other state with an office in Kansas that complies with the
3464	3464	requirements of the financial crimes enforcement network of the United
3465	3465	States treasury department; and
3466	3466	(2) "financial services" means services that a financial institution is
3467	3467	authorized to provide under chapter 9 or article 22 of chapter 17 of the
3468	3468	Kansas Statutes Annotated, and amendments thereto, as applicable.
3469	3469	New Sec. 47. Nothing in this act authorizes the director to oversee or
3470	3470	limit research conducted at a postsecondary educational institution,
3471	3471	academic medical center or private research and development organization
3472	3472	that is related to cannabis and is approved by an agency, board, center,
3473	3473	department or institute of the United States government, including any of
3474	3474	the following:
3475	3475	(a) The agency for health care research and quality;
3476	3476	(b) the national institutes of health;
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3520	3520	(c) the national academy of sciences;
3521	3521	(d) the centers for medicare and medicaid services;
3522	3522	(e) the United States department of defense;
3523	3523	(f) the centers for disease control and prevention;
3524	3524	(g) the United States department of veterans affairs;
3525	3525	(h) the drug enforcement administration;
3526	3526	(i) the food and drug administration; and
3527	3527	(j) any board recognized by the national institutes of health for the
3528	3528	purpose of evaluating the medical value of healthcare services.
3529	3529	New Sec. 48. No provisions of the medical cannabis regulation act
3530	3530	shall be construed to:
3531	3531	(a) Require an employer to permit or accommodate the use,
3532	3532	consumption, possession, transfer, display, distribution, transportation, sale
3533	3533	or growing of cannabis or any conduct otherwise allowed by this act in any
3534	3534	workplace or on the employer's property;
3535	3535	(b) prohibit a person, employer, corporation or any other entity that
3536	3536	occupies, owns or controls a property from prohibiting or otherwise
3537	3537	regulating the use, consumption, possession, transfer, display, distribution,
3538	3538	transportation, sale or growing of cannabis on such property;
3539	3539	(c) require any government medical assistance program, a private
3540	3540	health insurer or a workers compensation carrier or self-insured employer
3541	3541	providing workers compensation benefits to reimburse a person for costs
3542	3542	associated with the use of medical cannabis;
3543	3543	(d) affect the ability of an employer to implement policies to promote
3544	3544	workplace health and safety by restricting the use of cannabis by
3545	3545	employees;
3546	3546	(e) prohibit an employer from:
3547	3547	(1) Establishing and enforcing a drug testing policy, drug-free
3548	3548	workplace policy or zero-tolerance drug policy;
3549	3549	(2) disciplining an employee for a violation of a workplace drug
3550	3550	policy or for working while under the influence of cannabis; or
3551	3551	(3) including a provision in any contract that prohibits the use of
3552	3552	cannabis;
3553	3553	(f) prevent an employer from, because of a person's violation of a
3554	3554	workplace drug policy or because that person was working while under the
3555	3555	influence of cannabis:
3556	3556	(1) Refusing to hire a person;
3557	3557	(2) discharging a person;
3558	3558	(3) disciplining a person; or
3559	3559	(4) otherwise taking an adverse employment action against a person
3560	3560	with respect to hiring decisions, tenure, terms, conditions or privileges of
3561	3561	employment; or
3562	3562	(g) permit the possession or use of medical cannabis by any person
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3606	3606	detained in a correctional institution, as defined in K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-
3607	3607	5914, and amendments thereto, or committed to a care and treatment
3608	3608	facility, as defined in K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5914, and amendments
3609	3609	thereto.
3610	3610	New Sec. 49. The secretary of revenue, in consultation with the
3611	3611	secretary of health and environment, may enter into one or more
3612	3612	intergovernmental agreements with any of the Prairie Band Potawatomi
3613	3613	Nation, the Iowa Tribe of Kansas and Nebraska, the Sac and Fox Nation of
3614	3614	Missouri in Kansas and Nebraska and the Kickapoo Tribe in Kansas to
3615	3615	provide for a free market exchange between entities engaged in the
3616	3616	business of medical cannabis licensed by any such tribal government and
3617	3617	licensed cultivators, laboratories, processors, distributors and retail
3618	3618	dispensaries. Such agreement shall provide that the applicable tribal
3619	3619	regulatory authority agrees to meet or exceed the substantive standards of
3620	3620	the medical cannabis regulation act and any rules and regulations adopted
3621	3621	pursuant thereto concerning the regulation of licensing and testing with
3622	3622	respect to medical cannabis activity.
3623	3623	New Sec. 50. The provisions of the medical cannabis regulation act,
3624	3624	sections 1 through 50, and amendments thereto, are hereby declared to be
3625	3625	severable. If any part or provision of the medical cannabis regulation act is
3626	3626	held to be void, invalid or unconstitutional, such part or provision shall not
3627	3627	affect or impair any of the remaining parts or provisions of the medical
3628	3628	cannabis regulation act, and any such remaining provisions shall continue
3629	3629	in full force and effect.
3630	3630	New Sec. 51. (a) It shall be unlawful to store or otherwise leave
3631	3631	medical cannabis or a medical cannabis product where it is readily
3632	3632	accessible to a child under 18 years of age. Such conduct shall be unlawful
3633	3633	with no requirement of a culpable mental state.
3634	3634	(b) Violation of this section is a class A person misdemeanor.
3635	3635	(c) This section shall not apply to any person who stores or otherwise
3636	3636	leaves medical cannabis or a medical cannabis product where it is readily
3637	3637	accessible to a child under 18 years of age if:
3638	3638	(1) Such child is a patient registered pursuant to section 8, and
3639	3639	amendments thereto; and
3640	3640	(2) such medical cannabis or medical cannabis product is not readily
3641	3641	accessible to any child under 18 years of age other than the child described
3642	3642	in paragraph (1).
3643	3643	(d) As used in this section:
3644	3644	(1) "Medical cannabis" and "medical cannabis product" mean the
3645	3645	same as such terms are defined in section 2, and amendments thereto; and
3646	3646	(2) "readily accessible" means the medical cannabis or medical
3647	3647	cannabis product is not stored in a locked container that restricts entry to
3648	3648	such container solely to individuals who are over 18 years of age or who
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3692	3692	are registered patients pursuant to section 8, and amendments thereto.
3693	3693	(e) This section shall be a part of and supplemental to the Kansas
3694	3694	criminal code.
3695	3695	New Sec. 52. (a) No person shall transport medical cannabis or
3696	3696	medical cannabis products in any vehicle upon a highway or street unless
3697	3697	such medical cannabis or medical cannabis product:
3698	3698	(1) If transported by a person holding a license issued under section
3699	3699	20, and amendments thereto, or any employee or agent thereof, is in:
3700	3700	(A) The original, sealed packaging in accordance with any packaging
3701	3701	requirements of the secretary of revenue adopted in rules and regulations,
3702	3702	and the seal of which has not been broken and any other means of closure
3703	3703	has not been removed; and
3704	3704	(B) a locked rear compartment or any locked outside compartment of
3705	3705	the vehicle that is not accessible to any person in the vehicle while it is in
3706	3706	motion. If a vehicle is not equipped with such a compartment, then such
3707	3707	medical cannabis or medical cannabis products shall be placed behind the
3708	3708	last upright seat or in an area not normally occupied by the driver or a
3709	3709	passenger of the vehicle while it is in motion; or
3710	3710	(2) if transported by a person registered as a patient or caregiver
3711	3711	under section 8, and amendments thereto, is in:
3712	3712	(A) The exclusive possession of a passenger in a vehicle that is a
3713	3713	recreational vehicle, as defined by K.S.A. 75-1212, and amendments
3714	3714	thereto, or a bus, as defined by K.S.A. 8-1406, and amendments thereto,
3715	3715	who is not in the driving compartment of such vehicle or who is in a
3716	3716	portion of such vehicle that is not directly accessible to the driver; or
3717	3717	(B) a part of the vehicle that is not otherwise accessible to the driver.
3718	3718	(b) Violation of this section is a class C nonperson misdemeanor.
3719	3719	(c) As used in this section, the terms "medical cannabis" and
3720	3720	"medical cannabis product" mean the same as those terms are defined in
3721	3721	section 2, and amendments thereto.
3722	3722	(d) This section shall be a part of and supplemental to the Kansas
3723	3723	criminal code.
3724	3724	New Sec. 53. (a) The division of alcoholic beverage control is hereby
3725	3725	renamed the division of alcohol and cannabis control.
3726	3726	(b) The division of alcohol and cannabis control and the director of
3727	3727	the division of alcohol and cannabis control shall be the successor in every
3728	3728	way to the powers, duties and functions of the division of alcoholic
3729	3729	beverage control and the director of the division of alcoholic beverage
3730	3730	control in which the same were vested prior to July 1, 2024. Every act
3731	3731	performed in the exercise of such powers, duties and functions by or under
3732	3732	the authority of the division of alcohol and cannabis control or the director
3733	3733	of the division of alcohol and cannabis control shall be deemed to have the
3734	3734	same force and effect as if performed by the division of alcoholic beverage
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3778	3778	control or the director of the division of alcoholic beverage control in
3779	3779	which such powers, duties and functions were vested prior to July 1, 2024.
3780	3780	(c) Whenever the division of alcoholic beverage control, or words of
3781	3781	like effect, are referred to or designated by a statute, contract or other
3782	3782	document, and such reference or designation is in regard to any function,
3783	3783	power or duty of the division of alcoholic beverage control, such reference
3784	3784	or designation shall be deemed to apply to the division of alcohol and
3785	3785	cannabis control.
3786	3786	(d) Whenever the director of the division of alcoholic beverage
3787	3787	control, or words of like effect, are referred to or designated by a statute,
3788	3788	contract or other document, and such reference or designation is in regard
3789	3789	to any function, power or duty of the director of the division of alcoholic
3790	3790	beverage control, such reference or designation shall be deemed to apply
3791	3791	to the director of alcohol and cannabis control.
3792	3792	(e) All rules and regulations, orders and directives of the director of
3793	3793	the division of alcoholic beverage control that are in effect on July 1, 2024,
3794	3794	shall continue to be effective and shall be deemed to be rules and
3795	3795	regulations, orders and directives of the director of the division of alcohol
3796	3796	and cannabis control until revised, amended, revoked or nullified pursuant
3797	3797	to law.
3798	3798	New Sec. 54. (a) No law enforcement officer shall enforce any
3799	3799	violations of 18 U.S.C. § 922(g)(3) if the substance involved in such
3800	3800	violation is medical cannabis and such person is a registered patient
3801	3801	pursuant to the medical cannabis regulation act, section 1 et seq., and
3802	3802	amendments thereto, whose possession is authorized by such act.
3803	3803	(b) As used in this section:
3804	3804	(1) "Law enforcement officer" means the same as defined in K.S.A.
3805	3805	74-5602, and amendments thereto; and
3806	3806	(2) "medical cannabis" means the same as defined in section 2, and
3807	3807	amendments thereto.
3808	3808	New Sec. 55. (a) Subject to the provisions of K.S.A. 44-1018, and
3809	3809	amendments thereto, it shall be unlawful for any person to:
3810	3810	(1) Refuse to sell or rent after the making of a bona fide offer, to fail
3811	3811	to transmit a bona fide offer or refuse to negotiate in good faith for the sale
3812	3812	or rental of, or otherwise make unavailable or deny, real property to any
3813	3813	person because such person consumes medical cannabis in accordance
3814	3814	with section 10, and amendments thereto;
3815	3815	(2) discriminate against any person in the terms, conditions or
3816	3816	privileges of sale or rental of real property, or in the provision of services
3817	3817	or facilities in connection therewith, because such person consumes
3818	3818	medical cannabis in accordance with section 10, and amendments thereto;
3819	3819	and
3820	3820	(3) discriminate against any person in such person's use or occupancy
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3864	3864	of real property because such person associates with another person who
3865	3865	consumes medical cannabis in accordance with section 10, and
3866	3866	amendments thereto.
3867	3867	(b) (1) It shall be unlawful for any person or other entity whose
3868	3868	business includes engaging in real estate related transactions to
3869	3869	discriminate against any person in making available such a transaction, or
3870	3870	in the terms or conditions of such a transaction, because such person or
3871	3871	any person associated with such person in connection with any real estate
3872	3872	related transaction consumes medical cannabis in accordance with section
3873	3873	10, and amendments thereto.
3874	3874	(2) Nothing in this subsection prohibits a person engaged in the
3875	3875	business of furnishing appraisals of real property to take into consideration
3876	3876	factors other than an individual's consumption of medical cannabis in
3877	3877	accordance with section 10, and amendments thereto.
3878	3878	(3) As used in this subsection, "real estate related transaction" means
3879	3879	the same as defined in K.S.A. 44-1017, and amendments thereto.
3880	3880	(c) It shall be unlawful to coerce, intimidate, threaten or interfere with
3881	3881	any person in the exercise or enjoyment of, or on account of such person's
3882	3882	having exercised or enjoyed, or on account of such person's having aided
3883	3883	or encouraged any other person in the exercise or enjoyment of, any right
3884	3884	granted or protected by subsection (a) or (b).
3885	3885	(d) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit a person
3886	3886	from taking any action necessary to procure or retain any monetary benefit
3887	3887	provided under federal law, or any rules and regulations adopted
3888	3888	thereunder, or to obtain or maintain any license, certificate, registration or
3889	3889	other legal status issued or bestowed under federal law, or any rules and
3890	3890	regulations adopted thereunder.
3891	3891	(e) The provisions of this section shall be a part of and supplemental
3892	3892	to the Kansas act against discrimination.
3893	3893	New Sec. 56. (a) A covered entity, solely on the basis that an
3894	3894	individual consumes medical cannabis in accordance with section 10, and
3895	3895	amendments thereto, shall not:
3896	3896	(1) Consider such individual ineligible to receive an anatomical gift
3897	3897	or organ transplant;
3898	3898	(2) deny medical and other services related to organ transplantation,
3899	3899	including evaluation, surgery, counseling and post-transplantation
3900	3900	treatment and services;
3901	3901	(3) refuse to refer the individual to a transplant center or a related
3902	3902	specialist for the purpose of evaluation or receipt of an organ transplant;
3903	3903	(4) refuse to place such individual on an organ transplant waiting list;
3904	3904	or
3905	3905	(5) place such individual at a lower-priority position on an organ
3906	3906	transplant waiting list than the position at which such individual would
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3950	3950	have been placed if not for such individual's consumption of medical
3951	3951	cannabis.
3952	3952	(b) A covered entity may take into account an individual's
3953	3953	consumption of medical cannabis when making treatment or coverage
3954	3954	recommendations or decisions, solely to the extent that such consumption
3955	3955	has been found by a physician, following an individualized evaluation of
3956	3956	the individual, to be medically significant to the provision of the
3957	3957	anatomical gift.
3958	3958	(c) Nothing in this section shall be construed to require a covered
3959	3959	entity to make a referral or recommendation for or perform a medically
3960	3960	inappropriate organ transplant.
3961	3961	(d) As used in this section, the terms "anatomical gift," "covered
3962	3962	entity" and "organ transplant" mean the same as those terms are defined in
3963	3963	K.S.A. 65-3276, and amendments thereto.
3964	3964	New Sec. 57. (a) No order shall be issued pursuant to K.S.A. 38-
3965	3965	2242, 38-2243 or 38-2244, and amendments thereto, if the sole basis for
3966	3966	the threat to the child's safety or welfare is that the child resides with an
3967	3967	individual who consumes medical cannabis in accordance with section 10,
3968	3968	and amendments thereto, or the child consumes medical cannabis in
3969	3969	accordance with section 10, and amendments thereto.
3970	3970	(b) This section shall be a part of and supplemental to the revised
3971	3971	Kansas code for care of children.
3972	3972	New Sec. 58. (a) Notwithstanding the provisions of K.S.A. 65-2836,
3973	3973	and amendments thereto, the board shall not revoke, suspend or limit a
3974	3974	physician's license, publicly censure a physician or place a physician's
3975	3975	license under probationary conditions for any of the following:
3976	3976	(1) The physician has:
3977	3977	(A) Advised a patient about the possible benefits and risks of using
3978	3978	medical cannabis;
3979	3979	(B) advised the patient that using medical cannabis may mitigate the
3980	3980	patient's symptoms; or
3981	3981	(C) submitted an application on behalf of a patient or caregiver for
3982	3982	registration as a patient or caregiver under section 8, and amendments
3983	3983	thereto; or
3984	3984	(2) the physician is a registered patient or caregiver pursuant to
3985	3985	section 8, and amendments thereto, possesses or has possessed or uses or
3986	3986	has used medical cannabis in accordance with the medical cannabis
3987	3987	regulation act, section 1 et seq., and amendments thereto.
3988	3988	(b) As used in this section, the term "medical cannabis" means the
3989	3989	same as defined in section 2, and amendments thereto.
3990	3990	New Sec. 59. (a) Notwithstanding the provisions of K.S.A. 65-28a05,
3991	3991	and amendments thereto, the board shall not revoke, suspend or limit a
3992	3992	physician assistant's license, publicly or privately censure a physician
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4036	4036	assistant or deny an application for a license or for reinstatement of a
4037	4037	license for any of the following:
4038	4038	(1) The physician assistant has:
4039	4039	(A) Advised a patient about the possible benefits and risks of using
4040	4040	medical cannabis; or
4041	4041	(B) advised the patient that using medical cannabis may mitigate the
4042	4042	patient's symptoms; or
4043	4043	(2) the physician assistant is a registered patient or caregiver pursuant
4044	4044	to section 8, and amendments thereto, possesses or has possessed or uses
4045	4045	or has used medical cannabis in accordance with the medical cannabis
4046	4046	regulation act, section 1 et seq., and amendments thereto.
4047	4047	(b) As used in this section, the term "medical cannabis" means the
4048	4048	same as defined in section 2, and amendments thereto.
4049	4049	New Sec. 60. (a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, any
4050	4050	person, board, commission or similar body that determines the
4051	4051	qualifications of individuals for licensure, certification or registration shall
4052	4052	not disqualify an individual from licensure, certification or registration
4053	4053	solely because such individual consumes medical cannabis in accordance
4054	4054	with section 10, and amendments thereto.
4055	4055	(b) The provisions of this section shall not apply to the:
4056	4056	(1) Kansas commission on peace officers' standards and training;
4057	4057	(2) Kansas highway patrol;
4058	4058	(3) office of the attorney general;
4059	4059	(4) department of health and environment; or
4060	4060	(5) division of alcohol and cannabis control.
4061	4061	New Sec. 61. (a) A tax is hereby imposed upon the privilege of
4062	4062	selling medical cannabis and medical cannabis products in this state by
4063	4063	any retail dispensary at the rate of 10% on the gross receipts received from
4064	4064	the sale of medical cannabis to patients and caregivers holding an
4065	4065	identification card issued pursuant to section 8, and amendments thereto.
4066	4066	The tax imposed by this section shall be paid by the patient or caregiver at
4067	4067	the time of purchase.
4068	4068	(b) On or before the 20
4069	4069	th
4070	4070	day of each calendar month, every retail
4071	4071	dispensary shall file a return with the director of taxation showing the
4072	4072	quantity of medical cannabis and medical cannabis products sold to
4073	4073	patients and caregivers within this state during the preceding calendar
4074	4074	month. Each return shall be accompanied by a remittance for the full tax
4075	4075	liability shown.
4076	4076	(c) (1) All moneys received by the director of taxation or the
4077	4077	director's designee from taxes imposed by this section shall be remitted to
4078	4078	the state treasurer in accordance with the provisions of K.S.A. 75-4215,
4079	4079	and amendments thereto. Upon receipt of each such remittance, the state
4080	4080	treasurer shall deposit the entire amount in the state treasury.
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4122	4122	42
4123	4123	43 SB 135 49
4124	4124	(2) Subject to the maintenance requirements of the local medical
4125	4125	cannabis enforcement refund fund established by section 65, and
4126	4126	amendments thereto:
4127	4127	(A) 20% of the remittance shall be credited to the local medical
4128	4128	cannabis enforcement fund established by section 64, and amendments
4129	4129	thereto;
4130	4130	(B) 10% of the remittance shall be credited to the state medical
4131	4131	cannabis enforcement fund established by section 66, and amendments
4132	4132	thereto, except that the aggregate amount of moneys credited to the state
4133	4133	medical cannabis enforcement fund shall not exceed $2,500,000 in any
4134	4134	fiscal year; and
4135	4135	(C) the remaining balance of the remittance shall be credited to the
4136	4136	state general fund.
4137	4137	New Sec. 62. The director of taxation shall have the power to require
4138	4138	any retail dispensary to furnish additional information deemed necessary
4139	4139	for the purpose of computing the amount of the taxes due pursuant to
4140	4140	section 61, and amendments thereto, and, for such purpose, to examine all
4141	4141	books, records and files of such persons or entities. The director also shall
4142	4142	have the power to issue subpoenas and examine witnesses under oath, and
4143	4143	if any witness shall fail or refuse to appear at the request of the director, or
4144	4144	refuse access to books, records and files, the district court of the proper
4145	4145	county, or the judge thereof, on application of the director, shall compel
4146	4146	obedience by proceedings for contempt, as in the case of disobedience of
4147	4147	the requirements of a subpoena issued from such court or a refusal to
4148	4148	testify therein.
4149	4149	New Sec. 63. The provisions of K.S.A. 75-5133, 79-3610, 79-3611,
4150	4150	79-3612, 79-3613, 79-3615 and 79-3617, and amendments thereto,
4151	4151	relating to the assessment, collection, appeal and administration of the
4152	4152	retailers' sales tax, insofar as practicable, shall have full force and effect
4153	4153	with respect to taxes, penalties and fines imposed by sections 61 and 62,
4154	4154	and amendments thereto.
4155	4155	New Sec. 64. (a) There is hereby established the local medical
4156	4156	cannabis enforcement fund in the state treasury. Moneys credited to the
4157	4157	local medical cannabis enforcement fund shall be expended only for the
4158	4158	purpose and in the manner provided by this section.
4159	4159	(b) All moneys credited to the local medical cannabis enforcement
4160	4160	fund shall be allocated to the cities and counties of the state as follows:
4161	4161	(1) Each city that has a population of more than 6,000 shall receive
4162	4162	70% of the amount that is collected pursuant to section 61, and
4163	4163	amendments thereto, from retail dispensaries located in such city and that
4164	4164	is paid into the state treasury during the period for which the allocation is
4165	4165	made;
4166	4166	(2) each city that has a population of 6,000 or less shall receive 46⅔
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4206	4206	40
4207	4207	41
4208	4208	42
4209	4209	43 SB 135 50
4210	4210	% of the amount that is collected pursuant to section 61, and amendments
4211	4211	thereto, from retail dispensaries located in such city and that is paid into
4212	4212	the state treasury during the period for which the allocation is made;
4213	4213	(3) each county shall receive:
4214	4214	(A) 70% of the amount that is collected pursuant to section 61, and
4215	4215	amendments thereto, from retail dispensaries located in such county and
4216	4216	outside the corporate limits of any city and that is paid into the state
4217	4217	treasury during the period for which the allocation is made; and
4218	4218	(B) 23⅓% of the amount that is collected pursuant to section 61, and
4219	4219	amendments thereto, from retail dispensaries located in the county and
4220	4220	within a city that has a population of 6,000 or less and that is paid into the
4221	4221	state treasury during the period for which the allocation is made.
4222	4222	(c) The state treasurer shall make distributions from the local medical
4223	4223	cannabis enforcement fund in accordance with subsection (b) on March
4224	4224	15, June 15, September 15 and December 15 of each year. The director of
4225	4225	accounts and reports shall draw warrants on the state treasurer in favor of
4226	4226	the several county treasurers and city treasurers on the dates and in the
4227	4227	amounts determined under this section. Such distributions shall be paid
4228	4228	directly to the several county treasurers and city treasurers.
4229	4229	New Sec. 65. There is hereby established in the state treasury the
4230	4230	local medical cannabis enforcement refund fund. The local medical
4231	4231	cannabis enforcement refund fund shall be held by the state treasurer for
4232	4232	prompt refunding of all overpayments of the tax levied and collected
4233	4233	pursuant to section 61, and amendments thereto. The local medical
4234	4234	cannabis enforcement refund fund shall be maintained in an amount
4235	4235	determined by the secretary of revenue as necessary to meet current
4236	4236	refunding requirements, but such amount shall not exceed $10,000.
4237	4237	New Sec. 66. (a) There is hereby established the state medical
4238	4238	cannabis enforcement fund in the state treasury. The Kansas bureau of
4239	4239	investigation shall administer the state medical cannabis enforcement fund.
4240	4240	Moneys credited to the fund shall only be expended or transferred as
4241	4241	provided in this section. Expenditures from such fund shall be made in
4242	4242	accordance with appropriation acts upon warrants of the director of
4243	4243	accounts and reports issued pursuant to vouchers approved by the director
4244	4244	of the Kansas bureau of investigation or the director's designee.
4245	4245	(b) Moneys in the state medical cannabis enforcement fund shall be
4246	4246	expended for the purpose of investigating and prosecuting criminal
4247	4247	offenses involving the cultivation, manufacture, transportation,
4248	4248	distribution, sale and use of medical cannabis in violation of the medical
4249	4249	cannabis regulation act, section 1 et seq., and amendments thereto. Any
4250	4250	law enforcement agency in this state may apply to the Kansas bureau of
4251	4251	investigation for a grant of moneys from the state medical cannabis
4252	4252	enforcement fund to be expended by such law enforcement agency for the
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4294	4294	42
4295	4295	43 SB 135 51
4296	4296	purposes set forth in this section. Applications shall be submitted in such
4297	4297	form and manner as prescribed by the director of the Kansas bureau of
4298	4298	investigation.
4299	4299	New Sec. 67. For purposes of sections 61 through 66, and
4300	4300	amendments thereto, the terms "medical cannabis" and "retail dispensary"
4301	4301	mean the same as defined in section 2, and amendments thereto.
4302	4302	Sec. 68. K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 19-101a is hereby amended to read as
4303	4303	follows: 19-101a. (a) The board of county commissioners may transact all
4304	4304	county business and perform all powers of local legislation and
4305	4305	administration it deems appropriate, subject only to the following
4306	4306	limitations, restrictions or prohibitions:
4307	4307	(1) Counties shall be subject to all acts of the legislature which apply
4308	4308	uniformly to all counties.
4309	4309	(2) Counties may not affect the courts located therein.
4310	4310	(3) Counties shall be subject to acts of the legislature prescribing
4311	4311	limits of indebtedness.
4312	4312	(4) In the exercise of powers of local legislation and administration
4313	4313	authorized under provisions of this section, the home rule power conferred
4314	4314	on cities to determine their local affairs and government shall not be
4315	4315	superseded or impaired without the consent of the governing body of each
4316	4316	city within a county which may be affected.
4317	4317	(5) Counties may not legislate on social welfare administered under
4318	4318	state law enacted pursuant to or in conformity with public law No. 271 –
4319	4319	74
4320	4320	th
4321	4321	congress, or amendments thereof.
4322	4322	(6) Counties shall be subject to all acts of the legislature concerning
4323	4323	elections, election commissioners and officers and their duties as such
4324	4324	officers and the election of county officers.
4325	4325	(7) Counties shall be subject to the limitations and prohibitions
4326	4326	imposed under K.S.A. 12-187 through 12-195, and amendments thereto,
4327	4327	prescribing limitations upon the levy of retailers' sales taxes by counties.
4328	4328	(8) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in statutes made
4329	4329	nonuniform in application solely by reason of authorizing exceptions for
4330	4330	counties having adopted a charter for county government.
4331	4331	(9) No county may levy ad valorem taxes under the authority of this
4332	4332	section upon real property located within any redevelopment project area
4333	4333	established under the authority of K.S.A. 12-1772, and amendments
4334	4334	thereto, unless the resolution authorizing the same specifically authorized
4335	4335	a portion of the proceeds of such levy to be used to pay the principal of
4336	4336	and interest upon bonds issued by a city under the authority of K.S.A. 12-
4337	4337	1774, and amendments thereto.
4338	4338	(10) Counties shall have no power under this section to exempt from
4339	4339	any statute authorizing or requiring the levy of taxes and providing
4340	4340	substitute and additional provisions on the same subject, unless the
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4382	4382	42
4383	4383	43 SB 135 52
4384	4384	resolution authorizing the same specifically provides for a portion of the
4385	4385	proceeds of such levy to be used to pay a portion of the principal and
4386	4386	interest on bonds issued by cities under the authority of K.S.A. 12-1774,
4387	4387	and amendments thereto.
4388	4388	(11) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in the
4389	4389	provisions of K.S.A. 19-4601 through 19-4625, and amendments thereto.
4390	4390	(12) Except as otherwise specifically authorized by K.S.A. 12-1,101
4391	4391	through 12-1,109, and amendments thereto, counties may not levy and
4392	4392	collect taxes on incomes from whatever source derived.
4393	4393	(13) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in K.S.A. 19-
4394	4394	430, and amendments thereto.
4395	4395	(14) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in K.S.A. 19-
4396	4396	302, 19-502b, 19-503, 19-805 or 19-1202, and amendments thereto.
4397	4397	(15) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in K.S.A. 19-
4398	4398	15,139, 19-15,140 and 19-15,141, and amendments thereto.
4399	4399	(16) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in the
4400	4400	provisions of K.S.A. 12-1223, 12-1225, 12-1225a, 12-1225b, 12-1225c
4401	4401	and 12-1226, and amendments thereto, or the provisions of K.S.A. 12-
4402	4402	1260 through 12-1270 and 12-1276, and amendments thereto.
4403	4403	(17) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in the
4404	4404	provisions of K.S.A. 19-211, and amendments thereto.
4405	4405	(18) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in the
4406	4406	provisions of K.S.A. 19-4001 through 19-4015, and amendments thereto.
4407	4407	(19) Counties may not regulate the production or drilling of any oil or
4408	4408	gas well in any manner which would result in the duplication of regulation
4409	4409	by the state corporation commission and the Kansas department of health
4410	4410	and environment pursuant to chapter 55 and chapter 65 of the Kansas
4411	4411	Statutes Annotated, and amendments thereto, and any rules and regulations
4412	4412	adopted pursuant thereto. Counties may not require any license or permit
4413	4413	for the drilling or production of oil and gas wells. Counties may not
4414	4414	impose any fee or charge for the drilling or production of any oil or gas
4415	4415	well.
4416	4416	(20) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in K.S.A. 79-
4417	4417	41a04, and amendments thereto.
4418	4418	(21) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in K.S.A. 79-
4419	4419	1611, and amendments thereto.
4420	4420	(22) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in K.S.A. 79-
4421	4421	1494, and amendments thereto.
4422	4422	(23) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in K.S.A. 19-
4423	4423	202(b), and amendments thereto.
4424	4424	(24) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in K.S.A. 19-
4425	4425	204(b), and amendments thereto.
4426	4426	(25) Counties may not levy or impose an excise, severance or any
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4469	4469	43 SB 135 53
4470	4470	other tax in the nature of an excise tax upon the physical severance and
4471	4471	production of any mineral or other material from the earth or water.
4472	4472	(26) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in K.S.A. 79-
4473	4473	2017 or 79-2101, and amendments thereto.
4474	4474	(27) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in K.S.A. 2-
4475	4475	3302, 2-3305, 2-3307, 2-3318, 17-5904, 17-5908, 47-1219, 65-171d, 65-
4476	4476	1,178 through 65-1,199, 65-3001 through 65-3028, and amendments
4477	4477	thereto.
4478	4478	(28) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in K.S.A. 80-
4479	4479	121, and amendments thereto.
4480	4480	(29) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in K.S.A. 19-
4481	4481	228, and amendments thereto.
4482	4482	(30) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in the Kansas
4483	4483	911 act.
4484	4484	(31) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in K.S.A. 26-
4485	4485	601, and amendments thereto.
4486	4486	(32) (A) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in the
4487	4487	Kansas liquor control act except as provided by paragraph (B).
4488	4488	(B) Counties may adopt resolutions which are not in conflict with the
4489	4489	Kansas liquor control act.
4490	4490	(33) (A) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in the
4491	4491	Kansas cereal malt beverage act except as provided by paragraph (B).
4492	4492	(B) Counties may adopt resolutions which are not in conflict with the
4493	4493	Kansas cereal malt beverage act.
4494	4494	(34) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in the Kansas
4495	4495	lottery act.
4496	4496	(35) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in the Kansas
4497	4497	expanded lottery act.
4498	4498	(36) Counties may neither exempt from nor effect changes to the
4499	4499	eminent domain procedure act.
4500	4500	(37) Any county granted authority pursuant to the provisions of
4501	4501	K.S.A. 19-5001 through 19-5005, and amendments thereto, shall be
4502	4502	subject to the limitations and prohibitions imposed under K.S.A. 19-5001
4503	4503	through 19-5005, and amendments thereto.
4504	4504	(38) Except as otherwise specifically authorized by K.S.A. 19-5001
4505	4505	through 19-5005, and amendments thereto, counties may not exercise any
4506	4506	authority granted pursuant to K.S.A. 19-5001 through 19-5005, and
4507	4507	amendments thereto, including the imposition or levy of any retailers' sales
4508	4508	tax.
4509	4509	(39) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in K.S.A. 65-
4510	4510	201 and 65-202, and amendments thereto.
4511	4511	(40) Except as provided in section 43, and amendments thereto,
4512	4512	counties may not exempt from or effect changes in the medical cannabis
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4554	4554	42
4555	4555	43 SB 135 54
4556	4556	regulation act, section 1 et seq., and amendments thereto.
4557	4557	(b) Counties shall apply the powers of local legislation granted in
4558	4558	subsection (a) by resolution of the board of county commissioners. If no
4559	4559	statutory authority exists for such local legislation other than that set forth
4560	4560	in subsection (a) and the local legislation proposed under the authority of
4561	4561	such subsection is not contrary to any act of the legislature, such local
4562	4562	legislation shall become effective upon passage of a resolution of the
4563	4563	board and publication in the official county newspaper. If the legislation
4564	4564	proposed by the board under authority of subsection (a) is contrary to an
4565	4565	act of the legislature which is applicable to the particular county but not
4566	4566	uniformly applicable to all counties, such legislation shall become
4567	4567	effective by passage of a charter resolution in the manner provided in
4568	4568	K.S.A. 19-101b, and amendments thereto.
4569	4569	(c) Any resolution adopted by a county which that conflicts with the
4570	4570	restrictions in subsection (a) is null and void.
4571	4571	Sec. 69. K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5703 is hereby amended to read as
4572	4572	follows: 21-5703. (a) It shall be unlawful for any person to manufacture
4573	4573	any controlled substance or controlled substance analog.
4574	4574	(b) Violation or attempted violation of subsection (a) is a:
4575	4575	(1) Drug severity level 2 felony, except as provided in subsections (b)
4576	4576	(2) and (b)(3);
4577	4577	(2) drug severity level 1 felony if:
4578	4578	(A) The controlled substance is not methamphetamine, as defined by
4579	4579	subsection (d)(3) or (f)(1) of K.S.A. 65-4107(d)(3) or (f)(1), and
4580	4580	amendments thereto, or an analog thereof; and
4581	4581	(B) the offender has a prior conviction for unlawful manufacturing of
4582	4582	a controlled substance under this section, K.S.A. 65-4159, prior to its
4583	4583	repeal, K.S.A. 2010 Supp. 21-36a03, prior to its transfer, or a substantially
4584	4584	similar offense from another jurisdiction and the substance was not
4585	4585	methamphetamine, as defined by subsection (d)(3) or (f)(1) of K.S.A. 65-
4586	4586	4107(d)(3) or (f)(1), and amendments thereto, or an analog thereof, in any
4587	4587	such prior conviction; and
4588	4588	(3) drug severity level 1 felony if the controlled substance is
4589	4589	methamphetamine, as defined by subsection (d)(3) or (f)(1) of K.S.A. 65-
4590	4590	4107(d)(3) or (f)(1), and amendments thereto, or an analog thereof.
4591	4591	(c) The provisions of subsection (d) of K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-
4592	4592	5301(d), and amendments thereto, shall not apply to a violation of
4593	4593	attempting to unlawfully manufacture any controlled substance or
4594	4594	controlled substance analog pursuant to this section.
4595	4595	(d) For persons arrested and charged under this section, bail shall be
4596	4596	at least $50,000 cash or surety, and such person shall not be released upon
4597	4597	the person's own recognizance pursuant to K.S.A. 22-2802, and
4598	4598	amendments thereto, unless the court determines, on the record, that the
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4640	4640	42
4641	4641	43 SB 135 55
4642	4642	defendant is not likely to re-offend, the court imposes pretrial supervision,
4643	4643	or the defendant agrees to participate in a licensed or certified drug
4644	4644	treatment program.
4645	4645	(e) The sentence of a person who violates this section shall not be
4646	4646	subject to statutory provisions for suspended sentence, community service
4647	4647	work or probation.
4648	4648	(f) The sentence of a person who violates this section, K.S.A. 65-
4649	4649	4159, prior to its repeal or K.S.A. 2010 Supp. 21-36a03, prior to its
4650	4650	transfer, shall not be reduced because these sections prohibit conduct
4651	4651	identical to that prohibited by K.S.A. 65-4161 or 65-4163, prior to their
4652	4652	repeal, K.S.A. 2010 Supp. 21-36a05, prior to its transfer, or K.S.A. 2022
4653	4653	Supp. 21-5705, and amendments thereto.
4654	4654	(g) The provisions of this section shall not apply to a cultivator or
4655	4655	processor licensed by the director of alcohol and cannabis control
4656	4656	pursuant to section 20, and amendments thereto, that is producing medical
4657	4657	cannabis, as defined in section 2, and amendments thereto, when used for
4658	4658	acts authorized by the medical cannabis regulation act, section 1 et seq.,
4659	4659	and amendments thereto.
4660	4660	Sec. 70. K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5705 is hereby amended to read as
4661	4661	follows: 21-5705. (a) It shall be unlawful for any person to distribute or
4662	4662	possess with the intent to distribute any of the following controlled
4663	4663	substances or controlled substance analogs thereof:
4664	4664	(1) Opiates, opium or narcotic drugs, or any stimulant designated in
4665	4665	subsection (d)(1), (d)(3) or (f)(1) of K.S.A. 65-4107(d)(1), (d)(3) or (f)(1),
4666	4666	and amendments thereto;
4667	4667	(2) any depressant designated in subsection (e) of K.S.A. 65-4105(e),
4668	4668	subsection (e) of K.S.A. 65-4107(e), subsection (b) or (c) of K.S.A. 65-
4669	4669	4109(b) or (c) or subsection (b) of K.S.A. 65-4111(b), and amendments
4670	4670	thereto;
4671	4671	(3) any stimulant designated in subsection (f) of K.S.A. 65-4105(f),
4672	4672	subsection (d)(2), (d)(4), (d)(5) or (f)(2) of K.S.A. 65-4107(d)(2), (d)(4),
4673	4673	(d)(5) or (f)(2) or subsection (e) of K.S.A. 65-4109(e), and amendments
4674	4674	thereto;
4675	4675	(4) any hallucinogenic drug designated in subsection (d) of K.S.A.
4676	4676	65-4105(d), subsection (g) of K.S.A. 65-4107(g) or subsection (g) of
4677	4677	K.S.A. 65-4109(g), and amendments thereto;
4678	4678	(5) any substance designated in subsection (g) of K.S.A. 65-4105(g)
4679	4679	and subsection (c), (d), (e), (f) or (g) of K.S.A. 65-4111(c), (d), (e), (f) or
4680	4680	(g), and amendments thereto;
4681	4681	(6) any anabolic steroids as defined in subsection (f) of K.S.A. 65-
4682	4682	4109(f), and amendments thereto; or
4683	4683	(7) any substance designated in subsection (h) of K.S.A. 65-4105(h),
4684	4684	and amendments thereto.
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4726	4726	42
4727	4727	43 SB 135 56
4728	4728	(b) It shall be unlawful for any person to distribute or possess with
4729	4729	the intent to distribute a controlled substance or a controlled substance
4730	4730	analog designated in K.S.A. 65-4113, and amendments thereto.
4731	4731	(c) It shall be unlawful for any person to cultivate any controlled
4732	4732	substance or controlled substance analog listed in subsection (a).
4733	4733	(d) (1) Except as provided further, violation of subsection (a) is a:
4734	4734	(A) Drug severity level 4 felony if the quantity of the material was
4735	4735	less than 3.5 grams;
4736	4736	(B) drug severity level 3 felony if the quantity of the material was at
4737	4737	least 3.5 grams but less than 100 grams;
4738	4738	(C) drug severity level 2 felony if the quantity of the material was at
4739	4739	least 100 grams but less than 1 kilogram; and
4740	4740	(D) drug severity level 1 felony if the quantity of the material was 1
4741	4741	kilogram or more.
4742	4742	(2) Violation of subsection (a) with respect to material containing any
4743	4743	quantity of marijuana, or an analog thereof, is a:
4744	4744	(A) Drug severity level 4 felony if the quantity of the material was
4745	4745	less than 25 grams;
4746	4746	(B) drug severity level 3 felony if the quantity of the material was at
4747	4747	least 25 grams but less than 450 grams;
4748	4748	(C) drug severity level 2 felony if the quantity of the material was at
4749	4749	least 450 grams but less than 30 kilograms; and
4750	4750	(D) drug severity level 1 felony if the quantity of the material was 30
4751	4751	kilograms or more.
4752	4752	(3) Violation of subsection (a) with respect to material containing any
4753	4753	quantity of heroin, as defined by subsection (c)(1) of K.S.A. 65-4105(c)
4754	4754	(1), and amendments thereto, or methamphetamine, as defined by
4755	4755	subsection (d)(3) or (f)(1) of K.S.A. 65-4107(d)(3) or (f)(1), and
4756	4756	amendments thereto, or an analog thereof, is a:
4757	4757	(A) Drug severity level 4 felony if the quantity of the material was
4758	4758	less than 1 gram;
4759	4759	(B) drug severity level 3 felony if the quantity of the material was at
4760	4760	least 1 gram but less than 3.5 grams;
4761	4761	(C) drug severity level 2 felony if the quantity of the material was at
4762	4762	least 3.5 grams but less than 100 grams; and
4763	4763	(D) drug severity level 1 felony if the quantity of the material was
4764	4764	100 grams or more.
4765	4765	(4) Violation of subsection (a) with respect to material containing any
4766	4766	quantity of a controlled substance designated in K.S.A. 65-4105, 65-4107,
4767	4767	65-4109 or 65-4111, and amendments thereto, or an analog thereof,
4768	4768	distributed by dosage unit, is a:
4769	4769	(A) Drug severity level 4 felony if the number of dosage units was
4770	4770	fewer than 10;
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4813	4813	43 SB 135 57
4814	4814	(B) drug severity level 3 felony if the number of dosage units was at
4815	4815	least 10 but less than 100;
4816	4816	(C) drug severity level 2 felony if the number of dosage units was at
4817	4817	least 100 but less than 1,000; and
4818	4818	(D) drug severity level 1 felony if the number of dosage units was
4819	4819	1,000 or more.
4820	4820	(5) For any violation of subsection (a), the severity level of the
4821	4821	offense shall be increased one level if the controlled substance or
4822	4822	controlled substance analog was distributed or possessed with the intent to
4823	4823	distribute on or within 1,000 feet of any school property.
4824	4824	(6) Violation of subsection (b) is a:
4825	4825	(A) Class A person misdemeanor, except as provided in subsection
4826	4826	(d)(6)(B) subparagraph (B); and
4827	4827	(B) nondrug severity level 7, person felony if the substance was
4828	4828	distributed to or possessed with the intent to distribute to a minor.
4829	4829	(7) Violation of subsection (c) is a:
4830	4830	(A) Drug severity level 3 felony if the number of plants cultivated
4831	4831	was more than 4 but fewer than 50;
4832	4832	(B) drug severity level 2 felony if the number of plants cultivated was
4833	4833	at least 50 but fewer than 100; and
4834	4834	(C) drug severity level 1 felony if the number of plants cultivated was
4835	4835	100 or more.
4836	4836	(e) In any prosecution under this section, there shall be a rebuttable
4837	4837	presumption of an intent to distribute if any person possesses the following
4838	4838	quantities of controlled substances or analogs thereof:
4839	4839	(1) 450 grams or more of marijuana;
4840	4840	(2) 3.5 grams or more of heroin or methamphetamine;
4841	4841	(3) 100 dosage units or more containing a controlled substance; or
4842	4842	(4) 100 grams or more of any other controlled substance.
4843	4843	(f) It shall not be a defense to charges arising under this section that
4844	4844	the defendant:
4845	4845	(1) Was acting in an agency relationship on behalf of any other party
4846	4846	in a transaction involving a controlled substance or controlled substance
4847	4847	analog;
4848	4848	(2) did not know the quantity of the controlled substance or
4849	4849	controlled substance analog; or
4850	4850	(3) did not know the specific controlled substance or controlled
4851	4851	substance analog contained in the material that was distributed or
4852	4852	possessed with the intent to distribute.
4853	4853	(g) The provisions of subsections (a)(4) and (a)(5) shall not apply to
4854	4854	any cultivator, laboratory, processor, distributor or retail dispensary
4855	4855	licensed by the director of alcohol and cannabis control pursuant to
4856	4856	section 20, and amendments thereto, or any employee or agent thereof,
4857	4857	1
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4899	4899	43 SB 135 58
4900	4900	that is growing, testing, processing, distributing, dispensing or selling
4901	4901	medical cannabis in accordance with the medical cannabis regulation act,
4902	4902	section 1 et seq., and amendments thereto.
4903	4903	(h) As used in this section:
4904	4904	(1) "Material" means the total amount of any substance, including a
4905	4905	compound or a mixture, which that contains any quantity of a controlled
4906	4906	substance or controlled substance analog.
4907	4907	(2) "Dosage unit" means a controlled substance or controlled
4908	4908	substance analog distributed or possessed with the intent to distribute as a
4909	4909	discrete unit, including but not limited to, one pill, one capsule or one
4910	4910	microdot, and not distributed by weight.
4911	4911	(A) For steroids, or controlled substances in liquid solution legally
4912	4912	manufactured for prescription use, or an analog thereof, "dosage unit"
4913	4913	means the smallest medically approved dosage unit, as determined by the
4914	4914	label, materials provided by the manufacturer, a prescribing authority,
4915	4915	licensed health care professional or other qualified health authority.
4916	4916	(B) For illegally manufactured controlled substances in liquid
4917	4917	solution, or controlled substances in liquid products not intended for
4918	4918	ingestion by human beings, or an analog thereof, "dosage unit" means 10
4919	4919	milligrams, including the liquid carrier medium, except as provided in
4920	4920	subsection (g)(2)(C) subparagraph (C).
4921	4921	(C) For lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) in liquid form, or an analog
4922	4922	thereof, a dosage unit is defined as 0.4 milligrams, including the liquid
4923	4923	medium.
4924	4924	(3) "Medical cannabis" means the same as defined in section 2, and
4925	4925	amendments thereto.
4926	4926	Sec. 71. K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5706 is hereby amended to read as
4927	4927	follows: 21-5706. (a) It shall be unlawful for any person to possess any
4928	4928	opiates, opium or narcotic drugs, or any stimulant designated in K.S.A. 65-
4929	4929	4107(d)(1), (d)(3) or (f)(1), and amendments thereto, or a controlled
4930	4930	substance analog thereof.
4931	4931	(b) It shall be unlawful for any person to possess any of the following
4932	4932	controlled substances or controlled substance analogs thereof:
4933	4933	(1) Any depressant designated in K.S.A. 65-4105(e), 65-4107(e), 65-
4934	4934	4109(b) or (c) or 65-4111(b), and amendments thereto;
4935	4935	(2) any stimulant designated in K.S.A. 65-4105(f), 65-4107(d)(2), (d)
4936	4936	(4), (d)(5) or (f)(2) or 65-4109(e), and amendments thereto;
4937	4937	(3) any hallucinogenic drug designated in K.S.A. 65-4105(d), 65-
4938	4938	4107(g) or 65-4109(g), and amendments thereto;
4939	4939	(4) any substance designated in K.S.A. 65-4105(g) and 65-4111(c),
4940	4940	(d), (e), (f) or (g), and amendments thereto;
4941	4941	(5) any anabolic steroids as defined in K.S.A. 65-4109(f), and
4942	4942	amendments thereto;
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4985	4985	43 SB 135 59
4986	4986	(6) any substance designated in K.S.A. 65-4113, and amendments
4987	4987	thereto; or
4988	4988	(7) any substance designated in K.S.A. 65-4105(h), and amendments
4989	4989	thereto.
4990	4990	(c) (1) Violation of subsection (a) is a drug severity level 5 felony.
4991	4991	(2) Except as provided in subsection (c)(3):
4992	4992	(A) Violation of subsection (b) is a class A nonperson misdemeanor,
4993	4993	except as provided in subparagraph (B); and
4994	4994	(B) violation of subsection (b)(1) through (b)(5) or (b)(7) is a drug
4995	4995	severity level 5 felony if that person has a prior conviction under such
4996	4996	subsection, under K.S.A. 65-4162, prior to its repeal, under a substantially
4997	4997	similar offense from another jurisdiction, or under any city ordinance or
4998	4998	county resolution for a substantially similar offense if the substance
4999	4999	involved was 3, 4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA), marijuana
5000	5000	as designated in K.S.A. 65-4105(d), and amendments thereto, or any
5001	5001	substance designated in K.S.A. 65-4105(h), and amendments thereto, or an
5002	5002	analog thereof.
5003	5003	(3) If the substance involved is marijuana, as designated in K.S.A.
5004	5004	65-4105(d), and amendments thereto, or tetrahydrocannabinols, as
5005	5005	designated in K.S.A. 65-4105(h), and amendments thereto, violation of
5006	5006	subsection (b) is a:
5007	5007	(A) Class B nonperson misdemeanor, except as provided in
5008	5008	subparagraphs (B) and, (C) and (D);
5009	5009	(B) class A nonperson misdemeanor if that person has a prior
5010	5010	conviction under such subsection, under K.S.A. 65-4162, prior to its
5011	5011	repeal, under a substantially similar offense from another jurisdiction, or
5012	5012	under any city ordinance or county resolution for a substantially similar
5013	5013	offense; and
5014	5014	(C) drug severity level 5 felony if that person has two or more prior
5015	5015	convictions under such subsection, under K.S.A. 65-4162, prior to its
5016	5016	repeal, under a substantially similar offense from another jurisdiction, or
5017	5017	under any city ordinance or county resolution for a substantially similar
5018	5018	offense; and
5019	5019	(D) nonperson misdemeanor punishable by a fine of not to exceed
5020	5020	$400 if that person is not a registered patient or caregiver under the
5021	5021	medical cannabis regulation act, section 1 et seq., and amendments
5022	5022	thereto, is found in possession of not more than 1.5 ounces of marijuana
5023	5023	and provides a statement from such person's physician recommending the
5024	5024	use of medical cannabis to treat such person's symptoms.
5025	5025	(d) It shall be an affirmative defense to prosecution under this section
5026	5026	arising out of a person's possession of any cannabidiol treatment
5027	5027	preparation if the person:
5028	5028	(1) Has a debilitating medical condition, as defined in K.S.A. 2022
5029	5029	1
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5069	5069	41
5070	5070	42
5071	5071	43 SB 135 60
5072	5072	Supp. 65-6235, and amendments thereto, or is the parent or guardian of a
5073	5073	minor child who has such debilitating medical condition;
5074	5074	(2) is possessing a cannabidiol treatment preparation, as defined in
5075	5075	K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 65-6235, and amendments thereto, that is being used to
5076	5076	treat such debilitating medical condition; and
5077	5077	(3) has possession of a letter, at all times while the person has
5078	5078	possession of the cannabidiol treatment preparation, that:
5079	5079	(A) Shall be shown to a law enforcement officer on such officer's
5080	5080	request;
5081	5081	(B) is dated within the preceding 15 months and signed by the
5082	5082	physician licensed to practice medicine and surgery in Kansas who
5083	5083	diagnosed the debilitating medical condition;
5084	5084	(C) is on such physician's letterhead; and
5085	5085	(D) identifies the person or the person's minor child as such
5086	5086	physician's patient and identifies the patient's debilitating medical
5087	5087	condition.
5088	5088	(e) If the substance involved is medical cannabis, as defined in
5089	5089	section 2, and amendments thereto, the provisions of subsections (b) and
5090	5090	(c) shall not apply to:
5091	5091	(1) Any person who is registered or licensed pursuant to the medical
5092	5092	cannabis regulation act, section 1 set seq., and amendments thereto, and
5093	5093	whose possession is authorized by such act; or
5094	5094	(2) any person who is not a resident of this state and who holds a
5095	5095	license issued by another jurisdiction authorizing such person to purchase
5096	5096	and possess medical cannabis as recognized under section 17, and
5097	5097	amendments thereto.
5098	5098	(f) It shall not be a defense to charges arising under this section that
5099	5099	the defendant was acting in an agency relationship on behalf of any other
5100	5100	party in a transaction involving a controlled substance or controlled
5101	5101	substance analog.
5102	5102	Sec. 72. K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5707 is hereby amended to read as
5103	5103	follows: 21-5707. (a) It shall be unlawful for any person to knowingly or
5104	5104	intentionally use any communication facility:
5105	5105	(1) In committing, causing, or facilitating the commission of any
5106	5106	felony under K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5703, 21-5705 or 21-5706, and
5107	5107	amendments thereto; or
5108	5108	(2) in any attempt to commit, any conspiracy to commit, or any
5109	5109	criminal solicitation of any felony under K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5703, 21-
5110	5110	5705 or 21-5706, and amendments thereto. Each separate use of a
5111	5111	communication facility may be charged as a separate offense under this
5112	5112	subsection.
5113	5113	(b) Violation of subsection (a) is a nondrug severity level 8,
5114	5114	nonperson felony.
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5157	5157	43 SB 135 61
5158	5158	(c) The provisions of this section shall not apply to any person using
5159	5159	communication facilities for activities authorized by the medical cannabis
5160	5160	regulation act, section 1 et seq., and amendments thereto.
5161	5161	(d) As used in this section, "communication facility" means any and
5162	5162	all public and private instrumentalities used or useful in the transmission
5163	5163	of writing, signs, signals, pictures or sounds of all kinds and includes
5164	5164	telephone, wire, radio, computer, computer networks, beepers, pagers and
5165	5165	all other means of communication.
5166	5166	Sec. 73. K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5709 is hereby amended to read as
5167	5167	follows: 21-5709. (a) It shall be unlawful for any person to possess
5168	5168	ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, red phosphorus, lithium metal, sodium metal,
5169	5169	iodine, anhydrous ammonia, pressurized ammonia or
5170	5170	phenylpropanolamine, or their salts, isomers or salts of isomers with an
5171	5171	intent to use the product to manufacture a controlled substance.
5172	5172	(b) It shall be unlawful for any person to use or possess with intent to
5173	5173	use any drug paraphernalia to:
5174	5174	(1) Manufacture, cultivate, plant, propagate, harvest, test, analyze or
5175	5175	distribute a controlled substance; or
5176	5176	(2) store, contain, conceal, inject, ingest, inhale or otherwise
5177	5177	introduce a controlled substance into the human body.
5178	5178	(c) It shall be unlawful for any person to use or possess with intent to
5179	5179	use anhydrous ammonia or pressurized ammonia in a container not
5180	5180	approved for that chemical by the Kansas department of agriculture.
5181	5181	(d) It shall be unlawful for any person to purchase, receive or
5182	5182	otherwise acquire at retail any compound, mixture or preparation
5183	5183	containing more than 3.6 grams of pseudoephedrine base or ephedrine
5184	5184	base in any single transaction or any compound, mixture or preparation
5185	5185	containing more than nine grams of pseudoephedrine base or ephedrine
5186	5186	base within any 30-day period.
5187	5187	(e) (1) Violation of subsection (a) is a drug severity level 3 felony;
5188	5188	(2) violation of subsection (b)(1) is a:
5189	5189	(A) Drug severity level 5 felony, except as provided in subsection (e)
5190	5190	(2)(B); and
5191	5191	(B) class B nonperson misdemeanor if the drug paraphernalia was
5192	5192	used to cultivate fewer than five marijuana plants;
5193	5193	(3) violation of subsection (b)(2) is a class B nonperson
5194	5194	misdemeanor;
5195	5195	(4) violation of subsection (c) is a drug severity level 5 felony; and
5196	5196	(5) violation of subsection (d) is a class A nonperson misdemeanor.
5197	5197	(f) For persons arrested and charged under subsection (a) or (c), bail
5198	5198	shall be at least $50,000 cash or surety, and such person shall not be
5199	5199	released upon the person's own recognizance pursuant to K.S.A. 22-2802,
5200	5200	and amendments thereto, unless the court determines, on the record, that
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5244	5244	the defendant is not likely to reoffend, the court imposes pretrial
5245	5245	supervision or the defendant agrees to participate in a licensed or certified
5246	5246	drug treatment program.
5247	5247	(g) The provisions of subsection (b) shall not apply to any person
5248	5248	registered or licensed pursuant to the medical cannabis regulation act,
5249	5249	section 1 et seq., and amendments thereto, whose possession of such
5250	5250	equipment or material is used solely to produce or for the administration
5251	5251	of medical cannabis, as defined in section 2, and amendments thereto, in a
5252	5252	manner authorized by the medical cannabis regulation act, section 1 et
5253	5253	seq., and amendments thereto.
5254	5254	Sec. 74. K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5710 is hereby amended to read as
5255	5255	follows: 21-5710. (a) It shall be unlawful for any person to advertise,
5256	5256	market, label, distribute or possess with the intent to distribute:
5257	5257	(1) Any product containing ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, red
5258	5258	phosphorus, lithium metal, sodium metal, iodine, anhydrous ammonia,
5259	5259	pressurized ammonia or phenylpropanolamine or their salts, isomers or
5260	5260	salts of isomers if the person knows or reasonably should know that the
5261	5261	purchaser will use the product to manufacture a controlled substance or
5262	5262	controlled substance analog; or
5263	5263	(2) any product containing ephedrine, pseudoephedrine or
5264	5264	phenylpropanolamine, or their salts, isomers or salts of isomers for
5265	5265	indication of stimulation, mental alertness, weight loss, appetite control,
5266	5266	energy or other indications not approved pursuant to the pertinent federal
5267	5267	over-the-counter drug final monograph or tentative final monograph or
5268	5268	approved new drug application.
5269	5269	(b) It shall be unlawful for any person to distribute, possess with the
5270	5270	intent to distribute or manufacture with intent to distribute any drug
5271	5271	paraphernalia, knowing or under circumstances where one reasonably
5272	5272	should know that it will be used to manufacture or distribute a controlled
5273	5273	substance or controlled substance analog in violation of K.S.A. 2022 Supp.
5274	5274	21-5701 through 21-5717, and amendments thereto.
5275	5275	(c) It shall be unlawful for any person to distribute, possess with
5276	5276	intent to distribute or manufacture with intent to distribute any drug
5277	5277	paraphernalia, knowing or under circumstances where one reasonably
5278	5278	should know, that it will be used as such in violation of K.S.A. 2022 Supp.
5279	5279	21-5701 through 21-5717, and amendments thereto, except subsection (b)
5280	5280	of K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5706(b), and amendments thereto.
5281	5281	(d) It shall be unlawful for any person to distribute, possess with
5282	5282	intent to distribute or manufacture with intent to distribute any drug
5283	5283	paraphernalia, knowing, or under circumstances where one reasonably
5284	5284	should know, that it will be used as such in violation of subsection (b) of
5285	5285	K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5706(b), and amendments thereto.
5286	5286	(e) (1) Violation of subsection (a) is a drug severity level 3 felony;
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5330	5330	(2) violation of subsection (b) is a:
5331	5331	(A) Drug severity level 5 felony, except as provided in subsection (e)
5332	5332	(2)(B) subparagraph (B); and
5333	5333	(B) drug severity level 4 felony if the trier of fact makes a finding that
5334	5334	the offender distributed or caused drug paraphernalia to be distributed to a
5335	5335	minor or on or within 1,000 feet of any school property;
5336	5336	(3) violation of subsection (c) is a:
5337	5337	(A) Nondrug severity level 9, nonperson felony, except as provided in
5338	5338	subsection (e)(3)(B) subparagraph (B); and
5339	5339	(B) drug severity level 5 felony if the trier of fact makes a finding that
5340	5340	the offender distributed or caused drug paraphernalia to be distributed to a
5341	5341	minor or on or within 1,000 feet of any school property; and
5342	5342	(4) violation of subsection (d) is a:
5343	5343	(A) Class A nonperson misdemeanor, except as provided in
5344	5344	subsection (e)(4)(B) subparagraph (B); and
5345	5345	(B) nondrug severity level 9, nonperson felony if the trier of fact
5346	5346	makes a finding that the offender distributed or caused drug paraphernalia
5347	5347	to be distributed to a minor or on or within 1,000 feet of any school
5348	5348	property.
5349	5349	(f) For persons arrested and charged under subsection (a), bail shall
5350	5350	be at least $50,000 cash or surety, and such person shall not be released
5351	5351	upon the person's own recognizance pursuant to K.S.A. 22-2802, and
5352	5352	amendments thereto, unless the court determines, on the record, that the
5353	5353	defendant is not likely to re-offend, the court imposes pretrial supervision
5354	5354	or the defendant agrees to participate in a licensed or certified drug
5355	5355	treatment program.
5356	5356	(g) The provisions of subsection (c) shall not apply to any person
5357	5357	licensed pursuant to the medical cannabis regulation act, section 1 et seq.,
5358	5358	and amendments thereto, whose distribution or manufacture is used solely
5359	5359	to distribute or produce medical cannabis, as defined in section 2, and
5360	5360	amendments thereto, in a manner authorized by the medical cannabis
5361	5361	regulation act, section 1 et seq., and amendments thereto.
5362	5362	(h) As used in this section, "or under circumstances where one
5363	5363	reasonably should know" that an item will be used in violation of this
5364	5364	section, shall include, but not be limited to, the following:
5365	5365	(1) Actual knowledge from prior experience or statements by
5366	5366	customers;
5367	5367	(2) inappropriate or impractical design for alleged legitimate use;
5368	5368	(3) receipt of packaging material, advertising information or other
5369	5369	manufacturer supplied information regarding the item's use as drug
5370	5370	paraphernalia; or
5371	5371	(4) receipt of a written warning from a law enforcement or
5372	5372	prosecutorial agency having jurisdiction that the item has been previously
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5415	5415	43 SB 135 64
5416	5416	determined to have been designed specifically for use as drug
5417	5417	paraphernalia.
5418	5418	Sec. 75. K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 23-3201 is hereby amended to read as
5419	5419	follows: 23-3201. (a) The court shall determine legal custody, residency
5420	5420	and parenting time of a child in accordance with the best interests of the
5421	5421	child.
5422	5422	(b) The court shall not consider the fact that a parent or a child
5423	5423	consumes medical cannabis in accordance with section 10, and
5424	5424	amendments thereto, when determining the legal custody, residency or
5425	5425	parenting time of a child.
5426	5426	Sec. 76. K.S.A. 38-2269 is hereby amended to read as follows: 38-
5427	5427	2269. (a) When the child has been adjudicated to be a child in need of
5428	5428	care, the court may terminate parental rights or appoint a permanent
5429	5429	custodian when the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that the
5430	5430	parent is unfit by reason of conduct or condition which renders the parent
5431	5431	unable to care properly for a child and the conduct or condition is unlikely
5432	5432	to change in the foreseeable future.
5433	5433	(b) In making a determination of unfitness the court shall consider,
5434	5434	but is not limited to, the following, if applicable:
5435	5435	(1) Emotional illness, mental illness, mental deficiency or physical
5436	5436	disability of the parent, of such duration or nature as to render the parent
5437	5437	unable to care for the ongoing physical, mental and emotional needs of the
5438	5438	child;
5439	5439	(2) conduct toward a child of a physically, emotionally or sexually
5440	5440	cruel or abusive nature;
5441	5441	(3) the use of intoxicating liquors or narcotic or dangerous drugs of
5442	5442	such duration or nature as to render the parent unable to care for the
5443	5443	ongoing physical, mental or emotional needs of the child, except that the
5444	5444	use of medical cannabis in accordance with section 10, and amendments
5445	5445	thereto, shall not be considered to render the parent unable to care for the
5446	5446	ongoing physical, mental or emotional needs of the child;
5447	5447	(4) physical, mental or emotional abuse or neglect or sexual abuse of
5448	5448	a child;
5449	5449	(5) conviction of a felony and imprisonment;
5450	5450	(6) unexplained injury or death of another child or stepchild of the
5451	5451	parent or any child in the care of the parent at the time of injury or death;
5452	5452	(7) failure of reasonable efforts made by appropriate public or private
5453	5453	agencies to rehabilitate the family;
5454	5454	(8) lack of effort on the part of the parent to adjust the parent's
5455	5455	circumstances, conduct or conditions to meet the needs of the child; and
5456	5456	(9) whether, as a result of the actions or inactions attributable to the
5457	5457	parent and one or more of the factors listed in subsection (c) apply, the
5458	5458	child has been in the custody of the secretary and placed with neither
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5501	5501	43 SB 135 65
5502	5502	parent for 15 of the most recent 22 months beginning 60 days after the
5503	5503	date on which a child in the secretary's custody was removed from the
5504	5504	child's home.
5505	5505	(c) In addition to the foregoing, when a child is not in the physical
5506	5506	custody of a parent, the court, shall consider, but is not limited to, the
5507	5507	following:
5508	5508	(1) Failure to assure care of the child in the parental home when able
5509	5509	to do so;
5510	5510	(2) failure to maintain regular visitation, contact or communication
5511	5511	with the child or with the custodian of the child;
5512	5512	(3) failure to carry out a reasonable plan approved by the court
5513	5513	directed toward the integration of the child into a parental home; and
5514	5514	(4) failure to pay a reasonable portion of the cost of substitute
5515	5515	physical care and maintenance based on ability to pay.
5516	5516	In making the above determination, the court may disregard incidental
5517	5517	visitations, contacts, communications or contributions.
5518	5518	(d) A finding of unfitness may be made as provided in this section if
5519	5519	the court finds that the parents have abandoned the child, the custody of
5520	5520	the child was surrendered pursuant to K.S.A. 38-2282, and amendments
5521	5521	thereto, or the child was left under such circumstances that the identity of
5522	5522	the parents is unknown and cannot be ascertained, despite diligent
5523	5523	searching, and the parents have not come forward to claim the child within
5524	5524	three months after the child is found.
5525	5525	(e) If a person is convicted of a felony in which sexual intercourse
5526	5526	occurred, or if a juvenile is adjudicated a juvenile offender because of an
5527	5527	act which, if committed by an adult, would be a felony in which sexual
5528	5528	intercourse occurred, and as a result of the sexual intercourse, a child is
5529	5529	conceived, a finding of unfitness may be made.
5530	5530	(f) The existence of any one of the above factors standing alone may,
5531	5531	but does not necessarily, establish grounds for termination of parental
5532	5532	rights.
5533	5533	(g) (1) If the court makes a finding of unfitness, the court shall
5534	5534	consider whether termination of parental rights as requested in the petition
5535	5535	or motion is in the best interests of the child. In making the determination,
5536	5536	the court shall give primary consideration to the physical, mental and
5537	5537	emotional health of the child. If the physical, mental or emotional needs of
5538	5538	the child would best be served by termination of parental rights, the court
5539	5539	shall so order. A termination of parental rights under the code shall not
5540	5540	terminate the right of a child to inherit from or through a parent. Upon
5541	5541	such termination all rights of the parent to such child, including, such
5542	5542	parent's right to inherit from or through such child, shall cease.
5543	5543	(2) If the court terminates parental rights, the court may authorize
5544	5544	adoption pursuant to K.S.A. 38-2270, and amendments thereto,
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5587	5587	43 SB 135 66
5588	5588	appointment of a permanent custodian pursuant to K.S.A. 38-2272, and
5589	5589	amendments thereto, or continued permanency planning.
5590	5590	(3) If the court does not terminate parental rights, the court may
5591	5591	authorize appointment of a permanent custodian pursuant to K.S.A. 38-
5592	5592	2272, and amendments thereto, or continued permanency planning.
5593	5593	(h) If a parent is convicted of an offense as provided in K.S.A. 38-
5594	5594	2271(a)(7), and amendments thereto, or is adjudicated a juvenile offender
5595	5595	because of an act which if committed by an adult would be an offense as
5596	5596	provided in K.S.A. 38-2271(a)(7), and amendments thereto, and if the
5597	5597	victim was the other parent of a child, the court may disregard such
5598	5598	convicted or adjudicated parent's opinions or wishes in regard to the
5599	5599	placement of such child.
5600	5600	(i) A record shall be made of the proceedings.
5601	5601	(j) When adoption, proceedings to appoint a permanent custodian or
5602	5602	continued permanency planning has been authorized, the person or agency
5603	5603	awarded custody of the child shall within 30 days submit a written plan for
5604	5604	permanent placement which shall include measurable objectives and time
5605	5605	schedules.
5606	5606	Sec. 77. K.S.A. 41-201 is hereby amended to read as follows: 41-201.
5607	5607	(a) The director of alcoholic beverage alcohol and cannabis control and
5608	5608	agents and employees of the director designated by the director, with the
5609	5609	approval of the secretary of revenue, are hereby vested with the power and
5610	5610	authority of peace and police officers, in the execution of the duties
5611	5611	imposed upon the director of alcoholic beverage alcohol and cannabis
5612	5612	control by this act and in enforcing the provisions of this act.
5613	5613	(b) The director and each agent and employee designated by the
5614	5614	director under subsection (a), with the approval of the secretary of
5615	5615	revenue, shall have the authority to make arrests, conduct searches and
5616	5616	seizures and carry firearms while investigating violations of this act and
5617	5617	during the routine conduct of their duties as determined by the director or
5618	5618	designee. In addition to the above, the director and such agents and
5619	5619	employees shall have the authority to make arrests, conduct searches and
5620	5620	seizures and generally to enforce all the criminal laws of the state as
5621	5621	violations of those laws are encountered by such employees or agents
5622	5622	during the routine performance of their duties. In addition to or in lieu of
5623	5623	the above, the director and the director's agents and employees shall have
5624	5624	the authority to issue notices to appear pursuant to K.S.A. 22-2408, and
5625	5625	amendments thereto. No agent or employee of the director shall be
5626	5626	certified to carry firearms under the provisions of this section without
5627	5627	having first successfully completed the firearm training course or courses
5628	5628	prescribed for law enforcement officers under subsection (a) of K.S.A. 74-
5629	5629	5604a(a), and amendments thereto. The director may adopt rules and
5630	5630	regulations prescribing other training required for such agents or
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5673	5673	43 SB 135 67
5674	5674	employees.
5675	5675	(c) The attorney general shall appoint, with the approval of the
5676	5676	secretary of revenue, an two or more assistant attorney attorneys general
5677	5677	who shall be the attorney attorneys for the director of alcoholic beverage
5678	5678	alcohol and cannabis control and the division of alcoholic beverage
5679	5679	alcohol and cannabis control, and who shall receive an annual salary fixed
5680	5680	by the attorney general with the approval of the director of alcoholic
5681	5681	beverage alcohol and cannabis control and the state finance council.
5682	5682	Sec. 78. K.S.A. 44-501 is hereby amended to read as follows: 44-
5683	5683	501. (a) (1) Compensation for an injury shall be disallowed if such
5684	5684	injury to the employee results from:
5685	5685	(A) The employee's deliberate intention to cause such injury;
5686	5686	(B) the employee's willful failure to use a guard or protection against
5687	5687	accident or injury which is required pursuant to any statute and provided
5688	5688	for the employee;
5689	5689	(C) the employee's willful failure to use a reasonable and proper
5690	5690	guard and protection voluntarily furnished the employee by the employer;
5691	5691	(D) the employee's reckless violation of their employer's workplace
5692	5692	safety rules or regulations; or
5693	5693	(E) the employee's voluntary participation in fighting or horseplay
5694	5694	with a co-employee for any reason, work related or otherwise.
5695	5695	(2) Subparagraphs (B) and (C) of paragraph (1) of subsection (a)
5696	5696	Subsections (a)(1)(B) and (a)(1)(C) shall not apply when it was reasonable
5697	5697	under the totality of the circumstances to not use such equipment, or if the
5698	5698	employer approved the work engaged in at the time of an accident or
5699	5699	injury to be performed without such equipment.
5700	5700	(b) (1) (A) The employer shall not be liable under the workers
5701	5701	compensation act where the injury, disability or death was contributed to
5702	5702	by the employee's use or consumption of alcohol or any drugs, chemicals
5703	5703	or any other compounds or substances, including, but not limited to, any
5704	5704	drugs or medications which that are available to the public without a
5705	5705	prescription from a health care provider, prescription drugs or medications,
5706	5706	any form or type of narcotic drugs, marijuana, stimulants, depressants or
5707	5707	hallucinogens.
5708	5708	(B) (i) In the case of drugs or medications which are available to the
5709	5709	public without a prescription from a health care provider and prescription
5710	5710	drugs or medications, compensation shall not be denied if the employee
5711	5711	can show that such drugs or medications were being taken or used in
5712	5712	therapeutic doses and there have been no prior incidences of the
5713	5713	employee's impairment on the job as the result of the use of such drugs or
5714	5714	medications within the previous 24 months.
5715	5715	(ii) In the case of cannabis, including any cannabis derivatives,
5716	5716	compensation shall not be denied if the employee is registered as a patient
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5759	5759	43 SB 135 68
5760	5760	pursuant to section 8, and amendments thereto, such cannabis or cannabis
5761	5761	derivative was used in accordance with the medical cannabis regulation
5762	5762	act, section 1 et seq., and amendments thereto, and there has been no
5763	5763	prior incidence of the employee's impairment on the job as a result of the
5764	5764	use of such cannabis or cannabis derivative within the immediately
5765	5765	preceding 24 months.
5766	5766	(C) It shall be conclusively presumed that the employee was impaired
5767	5767	due to alcohol or drugs if it is shown that, at the time of the injury, the
5768	5768	employee had an alcohol concentration of .04 or more, or a GCMS
5769	5769	confirmatory test by quantitative analysis showing a concentration at or
5770	5770	above the levels shown on the following chart for the drugs of abuse listed:
5771	5771	Confirmatory
5772	5772	test cutoff
5773	5773	levels (ng/ml)
5774	5774	Marijuana metabolite
5775	5775	1
5776	5776	..............................................................15
5777	5777	Cocaine metabolite
5778	5778	2
5779	5779	..................................................................150
5780	5780	Opiates:
5781	5781	Morphine .............................................................................2000
5782	5782	Codeine ...............................................................................2000
5783	5783	6-Acetylmorphine
5784	5784	43
5785	5785	..................................................................10 ng/ml
5786	5786	Phencyclidine ...........................................................................25
5787	5787	Amphetamines:
5788	5788	Amphetamine ......................................................................500
5789	5789	Methamphetamine
5790	5790	34
5791	5791	.............................................................500
5792	5792	1
5793	5793	Delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol-9-carboxylic acid.
5794	5794	2
5795	5795	Benzoylecgonine.
5796	5796	3
5797	5797	Specimen must also contain amphetamine at a concentration greater
5798	5798	than or equal to 200 ng/ml Test for 6-AM when morphine concentration
5799	5799	exceeds 2,000 ng/ml.
5800	5800	4
5801	5801	Test for 6-AM when morphine concentration exceeds 2,000 ng/ml
5802	5802	Specimen must also contain amphetamine at a concentration greater
5803	5803	than or equal to 200 ng/ml.
5804	5804	(D) If it is shown that the employee was impaired pursuant to
5805	5805	subsection (b)(1)(C) at the time of the injury, there shall be a rebuttable
5806	5806	presumption that the accident, injury, disability or death was contributed to
5807	5807	by such impairment. The employee may overcome the presumption of
5808	5808	contribution by clear and convincing evidence.
5809	5809	(E) An employee's refusal to submit to a chemical test at the request
5810	5810	of the employer shall result in the forfeiture of benefits under the workers
5811	5811	compensation act if the employer had sufficient cause to suspect the use of
5812	5812	alcohol or drugs by the claimant or if the employer's policy clearly
5813	5813	authorizes post-injury testing.
5814	5814	(2) The results of a chemical test shall be admissible evidence to
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5857	5857	43 SB 135 69
5858	5858	prove impairment if the employer establishes that the testing was done
5859	5859	under any of the following circumstances:
5860	5860	(A) As a result of an employer mandated drug testing policy, in place
5861	5861	in writing prior to the date of accident or injury, requiring any worker to
5862	5862	submit to testing for drugs or alcohol;
5863	5863	(B) during an autopsy or in the normal course of medical treatment
5864	5864	for reasons related to the health and welfare of the injured worker and not
5865	5865	at the direction of the employer;
5866	5866	(C) the worker, prior to the date and time of the accident or injury,
5867	5867	gave written consent to the employer that the worker would voluntarily
5868	5868	submit to a chemical test for drugs or alcohol following any accident or
5869	5869	injury;
5870	5870	(D) the worker voluntarily agrees to submit to a chemical test for
5871	5871	drugs or alcohol following any accident or injury; or
5872	5872	(E) as a result of federal or state law or a federal or state rule or
5873	5873	regulation having the force and effect of law requiring a post-injury testing
5874	5874	program and such required program was properly implemented at the time
5875	5875	of testing.
5876	5876	(3) Notwithstanding subsection (b)(2), the results of a chemical test
5877	5877	performed on a sample collected by an employer shall not be admissible
5878	5878	evidence to prove impairment unless the following conditions are met:
5879	5879	(A) The test sample was collected within a reasonable time following
5880	5880	the accident or injury;
5881	5881	(B) the collecting and labeling of the test sample was performed by or
5882	5882	under the supervision of a licensed health care professional;
5883	5883	(C) the test was performed by a laboratory approved by the United
5884	5884	States department of health and human services or licensed by the
5885	5885	department of health and environment, except that a blood sample may be
5886	5886	tested for alcohol content by a laboratory commonly used for that purpose
5887	5887	by state law enforcement agencies;
5888	5888	(D) the test was confirmed by gas chromatography-mass
5889	5889	spectroscopy or other comparably reliable analytical method, except that
5890	5890	no such confirmation is required for a blood alcohol sample;
5891	5891	(E) the foundation evidence must establish, beyond a reasonable
5892	5892	doubt, that the test results were from the sample taken from the employee;
5893	5893	and
5894	5894	(F) a split sample sufficient for testing shall be retained and made
5895	5895	available to the employee within 48 hours of a positive test.
5896	5896	(c) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), compensation shall not
5897	5897	be paid in case of coronary or coronary artery disease or cerebrovascular
5898	5898	injury unless it is shown that the exertion of the work necessary to
5899	5899	precipitate the disability was more than the employee's usual work in the
5900	5900	course of the employee's regular employment.
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5943	5943	43 SB 135 70
5944	5944	(2) For events occurring on or after July 1, 2014, in the case of a
5945	5945	firefighter as defined by K.S.A. 40-1709(b)(1), and amendments thereto,
5946	5946	or a law enforcement officer as defined by K.S.A. 74-5602, and
5947	5947	amendments thereto, coronary or coronary artery disease or
5948	5948	cerebrovascular injury shall be compensable if:
5949	5949	(A) The injury can be identified as caused by a specific event
5950	5950	occurring in the course and scope of employment;
5951	5951	(B) the coronary or cerebrovascular injury occurred within 24 hours
5952	5952	of the specific event; and
5953	5953	(C) the specific event was the prevailing factor in causing the
5954	5954	coronary or coronary artery disease or cerebrovascular injury.
5955	5955	(d) Except as provided in the workers compensation act, no
5956	5956	construction design professional who is retained to perform professional
5957	5957	services on a construction project or any employee of a construction
5958	5958	design professional who is assisting or representing the construction
5959	5959	design professional in the performance of professional services on the site
5960	5960	of the construction project, shall be liable for any injury resulting from the
5961	5961	employer's failure to comply with safety standards on the construction
5962	5962	project for which compensation is recoverable under the workers
5963	5963	compensation act, unless responsibility for safety practices is specifically
5964	5964	assumed by contract. The immunity provided by this subsection to any
5965	5965	construction design professional shall not apply to the negligent
5966	5966	preparation of design plans or specifications.
5967	5967	(e) An award of compensation for permanent partial impairment,
5968	5968	work disability, or permanent total disability shall be reduced by the
5969	5969	amount of functional impairment determined to be preexisting. Any such
5970	5970	reduction shall not apply to temporary total disability, nor shall it apply to
5971	5971	compensation for medical treatment.
5972	5972	(1) Where workers compensation benefits have previously been
5973	5973	awarded through settlement or judicial or administrative determination in
5974	5974	Kansas, the percentage basis of the prior settlement or award shall
5975	5975	conclusively establish the amount of functional impairment determined to
5976	5976	be preexisting. Where workers compensation benefits have not previously
5977	5977	been awarded through settlement or judicial or administrative
5978	5978	determination in Kansas, the amount of preexisting functional impairment
5979	5979	shall be established by competent evidence.
5980	5980	(2) In all cases, the applicable reduction shall be calculated as
5981	5981	follows:
5982	5982	(A) If the preexisting impairment is the result of injury sustained
5983	5983	while working for the employer against whom workers compensation
5984	5984	benefits are currently being sought, any award of compensation shall be
5985	5985	reduced by the current dollar value attributable under the workers
5986	5986	compensation act to the percentage of functional impairment determined to
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6030	6030	be preexisting. The "current dollar value" shall be calculated by
6031	6031	multiplying the percentage of preexisting impairment by the compensation
6032	6032	rate in effect on the date of the accident or injury against which the
6033	6033	reduction will be applied.
6034	6034	(B) In all other cases, the employer against whom benefits are
6035	6035	currently being sought shall be entitled to a credit for the percentage of
6036	6036	preexisting impairment.
6037	6037	(f) If the employee receives, whether periodically or by lump sum,
6038	6038	retirement benefits under the federal social security act or retirement
6039	6039	benefits from any other retirement system, program, policy or plan which
6040	6040	is provided by the employer against which the claim is being made, any
6041	6041	compensation benefit payments which the employee is eligible to receive
6042	6042	under the workers compensation act for such claim shall be reduced by the
6043	6043	weekly equivalent amount of the total amount of all such retirement
6044	6044	benefits, less any portion of any such retirement benefit, other than
6045	6045	retirement benefits under the federal social security act, that is attributable
6046	6046	to payments or contributions made by the employee, but in no event shall
6047	6047	the workers compensation benefit be less than the workers compensation
6048	6048	benefit payable for the employee's percentage of functional impairment.
6049	6049	Where the employee elects to take retirement benefits in a lump sum, the
6050	6050	lump sum payment shall be amortized at the rate of 4% per year over the
6051	6051	employee's life expectancy to determine the weekly equivalent value of the
6052	6052	benefits.
6053	6053	Sec. 79. K.S.A. 44-1015 is hereby amended to read as follows: 44-
6054	6054	1015. As used in this act, unless the context otherwise requires:
6055	6055	(a) "Commission" means the Kansas human rights commission.
6056	6056	(b) "Real property" means and includes:
6057	6057	(1) All vacant or unimproved land; and
6058	6058	(2) any building or structure which that is occupied or designed or
6059	6059	intended for occupancy, or any building or structure having a portion
6060	6060	thereof which that is occupied or designed or intended for occupancy.
6061	6061	(c) "Family" includes a single individual.
6062	6062	(d) "Person" means an individual, corporation, partnership,
6063	6063	association, labor organization, legal representative, mutual company,
6064	6064	joint-stock company, trust, unincorporated organization, trustee, trustee in
6065	6065	bankruptcy, receiver and fiduciary.
6066	6066	(e) "To rent" means to lease, to sublease, to let and otherwise to grant
6067	6067	for a consideration the right to occupy premises not owned by the
6068	6068	occupant.
6069	6069	(f) "Discriminatory housing practice" means any act that is unlawful
6070	6070	under K.S.A. 44-1016, 44-1017 or 44-1026, and amendments thereto, or
6071	6071	section 55, and amendments thereto.
6072	6072	(g) "Person aggrieved" means any person who claims to have been
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6116	6116	injured by a discriminatory housing practice or believes that such person
6117	6117	will be injured by a discriminatory housing practice that is about to occur.
6118	6118	(h) "Disability" has the meaning provided by means the same as
6119	6119	defined in K.S.A. 44-1002 and amendments thereto.
6120	6120	(i) "Familial status" means having one or more individuals less than
6121	6121	18 years of age domiciled with:
6122	6122	(1) A parent or another person having legal custody of such
6123	6123	individual or individuals; or
6124	6124	(2) the designee of such parent or other person having such custody,
6125	6125	with the written permission of such parent or other person.
6126	6126	Sec. 80. K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 65-1120 is hereby amended to read as
6127	6127	follows: 65-1120. (a) Grounds for disciplinary actions. The board may
6128	6128	deny, revoke, limit or suspend any license or authorization to practice
6129	6129	nursing as a registered professional nurse, as a licensed practical nurse, as
6130	6130	an advanced practice registered nurse or as a registered nurse anesthetist
6131	6131	that is issued by the board or applied for under this act, or may require the
6132	6132	licensee to attend a specific number of hours of continuing education in
6133	6133	addition to any hours the licensee may already be required to attend or
6134	6134	may publicly or privately censure a licensee or holder of a temporary
6135	6135	permit or authorization, if the applicant, licensee or holder of a temporary
6136	6136	permit or authorization is found after hearing:
6137	6137	(1) To be guilty of fraud or deceit in practicing nursing or in
6138	6138	procuring or attempting to procure a license to practice nursing;
6139	6139	(2) to have been guilty of a felony or to have been guilty of a
6140	6140	misdemeanor involving an illegal drug offense unless the applicant or
6141	6141	licensee establishes sufficient rehabilitation to warrant the public trust,
6142	6142	except that notwithstanding K.S.A. 74-120, and amendments thereto, no
6143	6143	license or authorization to practice nursing as a licensed professional
6144	6144	nurse, as a licensed practical nurse, as an advanced practice registered
6145	6145	nurse or registered nurse anesthetist shall be granted to a person with a
6146	6146	felony conviction for a crime against persons as specified in article 34 of
6147	6147	chapter 21 of the Kansas Statutes Annotated, prior to their repeal, or article
6148	6148	54 of chapter 21 of the Kansas Statutes Annotated, and amendments
6149	6149	thereto, or K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-6104, 21-6325, 21-6326 or 21-6418, and
6150	6150	amendments thereto;
6151	6151	(3) has been convicted or found guilty or has entered into an agreed
6152	6152	disposition of a misdemeanor offense related to the practice of nursing as
6153	6153	determined on a case-by-case basis;
6154	6154	(4) to have committed an act of professional incompetency as defined
6155	6155	in subsection (e);
6156	6156	(5) to be unable to practice with skill and safety due to current abuse
6157	6157	of drugs or alcohol;
6158	6158	(6) to be a person who has been adjudged in need of a guardian or
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6202	6202	conservator, or both, under the act for obtaining a guardian or conservator,
6203	6203	or both, and who has not been restored to capacity under that act;
6204	6204	(7) to be guilty of unprofessional conduct as defined by rules and
6205	6205	regulations of the board;
6206	6206	(8) to have willfully or repeatedly violated the provisions of the
6207	6207	Kansas nurse practice act or any rules and regulations adopted pursuant to
6208	6208	that act, including K.S.A. 65-1114 and 65-1122, and amendments thereto;
6209	6209	(9) to have a license to practice nursing as a registered nurse or as a
6210	6210	practical nurse denied, revoked, limited or suspended, or to be publicly or
6211	6211	privately censured, by a licensing authority of another state, agency of the
6212	6212	United States government, territory of the United States or country or to
6213	6213	have other disciplinary action taken against the applicant or licensee by a
6214	6214	licensing authority of another state, agency of the United States
6215	6215	government, territory of the United States or country. A certified copy of
6216	6216	the record or order of public or private censure, denial, suspension,
6217	6217	limitation, revocation or other disciplinary action of the licensing authority
6218	6218	of another state, agency of the United States government, territory of the
6219	6219	United States or country shall constitute prima facie evidence of such a
6220	6220	fact for purposes of this paragraph (9); or
6221	6221	(10) to have assisted suicide in violation of K.S.A. 21-3406, prior to
6222	6222	its repeal, or K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5407, and amendments thereto, as
6223	6223	established by any of the following:
6224	6224	(A) A copy of the record of criminal conviction or plea of guilty for a
6225	6225	felony in violation of K.S.A. 21-3406, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 2022
6226	6226	Supp. 21-5407, and amendments thereto.
6227	6227	(B) A copy of the record of a judgment of contempt of court for
6228	6228	violating an injunction issued under K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 60-4404, and
6229	6229	amendments thereto.
6230	6230	(C) A copy of the record of a judgment assessing damages under
6231	6231	K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 60-4405, and amendments thereto.
6232	6232	(b) Proceedings. Upon filing of a sworn complaint with the board
6233	6233	charging a person with having been guilty of any of the unlawful practices
6234	6234	specified in subsection (a), two or more members of the board shall
6235	6235	investigate the charges, or the board may designate and authorize an
6236	6236	employee or employees of the board to conduct an investigation. After
6237	6237	investigation, the board may institute charges. If an investigation, in the
6238	6238	opinion of the board, reveals reasonable grounds for believing the
6239	6239	applicant or licensee is guilty of the charges, the board shall fix a time and
6240	6240	place for proceedings, which shall be conducted in accordance with the
6241	6241	provisions of the Kansas administrative procedure act.
6242	6242	(c) Witnesses. No person shall be excused from testifying in any
6243	6243	proceedings before the board under this act or in any civil proceedings
6244	6244	under this act before a court of competent jurisdiction on the ground that
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6288	6288	such testimony may incriminate the person testifying, but such testimony
6289	6289	shall not be used against the person for the prosecution of any crime under
6290	6290	the laws of this state except the crime of perjury as defined in K.S.A. 2022
6291	6291	Supp. 21-5903, and amendments thereto.
6292	6292	(d) Costs. If final agency action of the board in a proceeding under
6293	6293	this section is adverse to the applicant or licensee, the costs of the board's
6294	6294	proceedings shall be charged to the applicant or licensee as in ordinary
6295	6295	civil actions in the district court, but if the board is the unsuccessful party,
6296	6296	the costs shall be paid by the board. Witness fees and costs may be taxed
6297	6297	by the board according to the statutes relating to procedure in the district
6298	6298	court. All costs accrued by the board, when it is the successful party, and
6299	6299	which that the attorney general certifies cannot be collected from the
6300	6300	applicant or licensee shall be paid from the board of nursing fee fund. All
6301	6301	moneys collected following board proceedings shall be credited in full to
6302	6302	the board of nursing fee fund.
6303	6303	(e) Professional incompetency defined. As used in this section,
6304	6304	"professional incompetency" means:
6305	6305	(1) One or more instances involving failure to adhere to the
6306	6306	applicable standard of care to a degree which that constitutes gross
6307	6307	negligence, as determined by the board;
6308	6308	(2) repeated instances involving failure to adhere to the applicable
6309	6309	standard of care to a degree which that constitutes ordinary negligence, as
6310	6310	determined by the board; or
6311	6311	(3) a pattern of practice or other behavior which that demonstrates a
6312	6312	manifest incapacity or incompetence to practice nursing.
6313	6313	(f) Criminal justice information. The board upon request shall receive
6314	6314	from the Kansas bureau of investigation such criminal history record
6315	6315	information relating to arrests and criminal convictions as necessary for
6316	6316	the purpose of determining initial and continuing qualifications of
6317	6317	licensees of and applicants for licensure by the board.
6318	6318	(g) Medical cannabis exemption. The board shall not deny, revoke,
6319	6319	limit or suspend the license of any licensee or publicly or privately
6320	6320	censure any licensee for:
6321	6321	(1) Advising a patient about the possible benefits and risks of using
6322	6322	medical cannabis, or that using medical cannabis may mitigate the
6323	6323	patient's symptoms; or
6324	6324	(2) any actions as a registered patient or caregiver pursuant to the
6325	6325	medical cannabis regulation act, section 1 et seq., and amendments
6326	6326	thereto, including whether the licensee possesses or has possessed, or uses
6327	6327	or has used medical cannabis in accordance with such act.
6328	6328	Sec. 81. K.S.A. 65-28b08 is hereby amended to read as follows: 65-
6329	6329	28b08. (a) The board may deny, revoke, limit or suspend any license or
6330	6330	authorization issued to a certified nurse-midwife to engage in the
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6373	6373	43 SB 135 75
6374	6374	independent practice of midwifery that is issued by the board or applied
6375	6375	for under this act, or may publicly censure a licensee or holder of a
6376	6376	temporary permit or authorization, if the applicant or licensee is found
6377	6377	after a hearing:
6378	6378	(1) To be guilty of fraud or deceit while engaging in the independent
6379	6379	practice of midwifery or in procuring or attempting to procure a license to
6380	6380	engage in the independent practice of midwifery;
6381	6381	(2) to have been found guilty of a felony or to have been found guilty
6382	6382	of a misdemeanor involving an illegal drug offense unless the applicant or
6383	6383	licensee establishes sufficient rehabilitation to warrant the public trust,
6384	6384	except that notwithstanding K.S.A. 74-120, and amendments thereto, no
6385	6385	license or authorization to practice and engage in the independent practice
6386	6386	of midwifery shall be granted to a person with a felony conviction for a
6387	6387	crime against persons as specified in article 34 of chapter 21 of the Kansas
6388	6388	Statutes Annotated, prior to its repeal, or article 54 of chapter 21 of the
6389	6389	Kansas Statutes Annotated, and amendments thereto, or K.S.A. 2022 Supp.
6390	6390	21-6104, 21-6325, 21-6326 or 21-6418, and amendments thereto;
6391	6391	(3) to have committed an act of professional incompetence as defined
6392	6392	in subsection (c);
6393	6393	(4) to be unable to practice the healing arts with reasonable skill and
6394	6394	safety by reason of impairment due to physical or mental illness or
6395	6395	condition or use of alcohol, drugs or controlled substances. All
6396	6396	information, reports, findings and other records relating to impairment
6397	6397	shall be confidential and not subject to discovery or release to any person
6398	6398	or entity outside of a board proceeding. The provisions of this paragraph
6399	6399	providing confidentiality of records shall expire on July 1, 2022, unless the
6400	6400	legislature reviews and reenacts such provisions pursuant to K.S.A. 45-
6401	6401	229, and amendments thereto, prior to July 1, 2022;
6402	6402	(5) to be a person who has been adjudged in need of a guardian or
6403	6403	conservator, or both, under the act for obtaining a guardian or conservator,
6404	6404	or both, and who has not been restored to capacity under that act;
6405	6405	(6) to be guilty of unprofessional conduct as defined by rules and
6406	6406	regulations of the board;
6407	6407	(7) to have willfully or repeatedly violated the provisions of the
6408	6408	Kansas nurse practice act or any rules and regulations adopted pursuant to
6409	6409	that act;
6410	6410	(8) to have a license to practice nursing as a registered nurse or as a
6411	6411	practical nurse denied, revoked, limited or suspended, or to have been
6412	6412	publicly or privately censured, by a licensing authority of another state,
6413	6413	agency of the United States government, territory of the United States or
6414	6414	country, or to have other disciplinary action taken against the applicant or
6415	6415	licensee by a licensing authority of another state, agency of the United
6416	6416	States government, territory of the United States or country. A certified
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6459	6459	43 SB 135 76
6460	6460	copy of the record or order of public or private censure, denial, suspension,
6461	6461	limitation, revocation or other disciplinary action of the licensing authority
6462	6462	of another state, agency of the United States government, territory of the
6463	6463	United States or country shall constitute prima facie evidence of such a
6464	6464	fact for purposes of this paragraph; or
6465	6465	(9) to have assisted suicide in violation of K.S.A. 21-3406, prior to its
6466	6466	repeal, or K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5407, and amendments thereto, as
6467	6467	established by any of the following:
6468	6468	(A) A copy of the record of criminal conviction or plea of guilty to a
6469	6469	felony in violation of K.S.A. 21-3406, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 2022
6470	6470	Supp. 21-5407, and amendments thereto;
6471	6471	(B) a copy of the record of a judgment of contempt of court for
6472	6472	violating an injunction issued under K.S.A. 60-4404, and amendments
6473	6473	thereto; or
6474	6474	(C) a copy of the record of a judgment assessing damages under
6475	6475	K.S.A. 60-4405, and amendments thereto.
6476	6476	(b) No person shall be excused from testifying in any proceedings
6477	6477	before the board under this act or in any civil proceedings under this act
6478	6478	before a court of competent jurisdiction on the ground that such testimony
6479	6479	may incriminate the person testifying, but such testimony shall not be used
6480	6480	against the person for the prosecution of any crime under the laws of this
6481	6481	state, except the crime of perjury as defined in K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-
6482	6482	5903, and amendments thereto.
6483	6483	(c) The board shall not deny, revoke, limit or suspend any license or
6484	6484	authorization issued to a certified nurse-midwife or publicly censure a
6485	6485	certified nurse-midwife for any of the following:
6486	6486	(1) Advising a patient about the possible benefits and risks of using
6487	6487	medical cannabis, or that using medical cannabis may mitigate the
6488	6488	patient's symptoms; or
6489	6489	(2) any actions as a registered patient or caregiver pursuant to the
6490	6490	medical cannabis regulation act, section 1 et seq., and amendments
6491	6491	thereto, including whether the licensee possesses or has possessed, or uses
6492	6492	or has used medical cannabis in accordance with such act.
6493	6493	(d) As used in this section, "professional incompetency" means:
6494	6494	(1) One or more instances involving failure to adhere to the
6495	6495	applicable standard of care to a degree which that constitutes gross
6496	6496	negligence, as determined by the board;
6497	6497	(2) repeated instances involving failure to adhere to the applicable
6498	6498	standard of care to a degree which that constitutes ordinary negligence, as
6499	6499	determined by the board; or
6500	6500	(3) a pattern of practice or other behavior which that demonstrates a
6501	6501	manifest incapacity or incompetence to engage in the independent practice
6502	6502	of midwifery.
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6546	6546	(d)(e) The board, upon request, shall receive from the Kansas bureau of
6547	6547	investigation such criminal history record information relating to arrests
6548	6548	and criminal convictions, as necessary, for the purpose of determining
6549	6549	initial and continuing qualifications of licensees and applicants for
6550	6550	licensure by the board.
6551	6551	(e) The provisions of this section shall become effective on January 1,
6552	6552	2017.
6553	6553	Sec. 82. K.S.A. 79-5201 is hereby amended to read as follows: 79-
6554	6554	5201. As used in this act article 52 of chapter 79 of the Kansas Statutes
6555	6555	Annotated, and amendments thereto:
6556	6556	(a) "Marijuana" means any marijuana, whether real or counterfeit, as
6557	6557	defined by K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5701, and amendments thereto, which is
6558	6558	held, possessed, transported, transferred, sold or offered to be sold in
6559	6559	violation of the laws of Kansas;
6560	6560	(b) "Controlled substance" means any drug or substance, whether real
6561	6561	or counterfeit, as defined by K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5701, and amendments
6562	6562	thereto, which that is held, possessed, transported, transferred, sold or
6563	6563	offered to be sold in violation of the laws of Kansas. Such term shall not
6564	6564	include marijuana;
6565	6565	(c)(b) "dealer" means any person who, in violation of Kansas law,
6566	6566	manufactures, produces, ships, transports or imports into Kansas or in any
6567	6567	manner acquires or possesses more than 28 grams of marijuana, or more
6568	6568	than one gram of any controlled substance, or 10 or more dosage units of
6569	6569	any controlled substance which that is not sold by weight;
6570	6570	(d)(c) "domestic marijuana plant" means any cannabis plant at any
6571	6571	level of growth which that is harvested or tended, manicured, irrigated,
6572	6572	fertilized or where there is other evidence that it has been treated in any
6573	6573	other way in an effort to enhance growth;
6574	6574	(d) "marijuana" means any marijuana, whether real or counterfeit,
6575	6575	as defined in K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5701, and amendments thereto, that is
6576	6576	held, possessed, transported, transferred, sold or offered for sale in
6577	6577	violation of the laws of Kansas; and
6578	6578	(e) "medical cannabis" means the same as defined in section 2, and
6579	6579	amendments thereto.
6580	6580	Sec. 83. K.S.A. 79-5210 is hereby amended to read as follows: 79-
6581	6581	5210. Nothing in this act requires persons registered under article 16 of
6582	6582	chapter 65 of the Kansas Statutes Annotated, and amendments thereto, or
6583	6583	otherwise lawfully in possession of marijuana, medical cannabis or a
6584	6584	controlled substance to pay the tax required under this act.
6585	6585	Sec. 84. K.S.A. 38-2269, 41-201, 44-501, 44-1015, 65-28b08, 79-
6586	6586	5201 and 79-5210 and K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 19-101a, 21-5703, 21-5705, 21-
6587	6587	5706, 21-5707, 21-5709, 21-5710, 23-3201 and 65-1120 are hereby
6588	6588	repealed.
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6631	6631	43 SB 135 78
6632	6632	Sec. 85. This act shall take effect and be in force from and after July
6633	6633	1, 2024, and its publication in the statute book.
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