Kansas 2023-2024 Regular Session

Kansas Senate Bill SB310 Compare Versions

Only one version of the bill is available at this time.

Old	New	Differences
1	1	Session of 2023
2	2	SENATE BILL No. 310
3	3	By Committee on Federal and State Affairs
4	4	3-13
5	5	AN ACT concerning health and healthcare; relating to medical cannabis;
6	6	creating the medical cannabis regulation act; providing for licensure
7	7	and regulation of the cultivation, processing, distribution, sale and use
8	8	of medical cannabis; delegating administrative duties and functions to
9	9	the secretary of health and environment, secretary of revenue, board of
10	10	healing arts, board of pharmacy and the director of alcohol and
11	11	cannabis control; imposing fines and penalties for violations of the act;
12	12	establishing the medical cannabis registration fund, the medical
13	13	cannabis business regulation fund and the retail dispensary consultant
14	14	registration fee fund; creating the crimes of unlawful storage and
15	15	unlawful transport of medical cannabis; making exceptions to the
16	16	crimes of unlawful manufacture and possession of controlled
17	17	substances; amending K.S.A. 38-2269, 41-201, 44-501, 44-706, 44-
18	18	1009, 44-1015, 79-5201 and 79-5210 and K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 19-101a,
19	19	21-5703, 21-5705, 21-5706, 21-5707, 21-5709, 21-5710, 21-6607, 22-
20	20	3717 and 23-3201 and repealing the existing sections.
21	21	Be it enacted by the Legislature of the State of Kansas:
22	22	New Section 1. The provisions of sections 1 through 50, and
23	23	amendments thereto, shall be known and may be cited as the medical
24	24	cannabis regulation act.
25	25	New Sec. 2. As used in the medical cannabis regulation act, section 1
26	26	et seq., and amendments thereto:
27	27	(a) "Academic medical center" means a medical school and its
28	28	affiliated teaching hospitals and clinics.
29	29	(b) "Board of healing arts" means the state board of healing arts.
30	30	(c) "Cannabinoid" means any of the diverse chemical compounds that
31	31	can act on cannabinoid receptors in cells and alter neurotransmitter release
32	32	in the brain, including phytocannabinoids that are produced naturally by
33	33	marijuana and some other plants.
34	34	(d) (1) "Cannabis" means all parts of all varieties of the plant
35	35	Cannabis whether growing or not, the seeds thereof, the resin extracted
36	36	from any part of the plant and every compound, manufacture, salt,
37	37	derivative, mixture or preparation of the plant, its seeds or resin.
38	38	(2) "Cannabis" does not include:
39	39	(A) The mature stalks of the plant, fiber produced from the stalks, oil
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76	76	or cake made from the seeds of the plant, any other compound,
77	77	manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture or preparation of the mature stalks,
78	78	except the resin extracted therefrom, fiber, oil or cake or the sterilized seed
79	79	of the plant that is incapable of germination;
80	80	(B) any substance listed in schedules II through V of the uniform
81	81	controlled substances act;
82	82	(C) drug products approved by the United States food and drug
83	83	administration as of July 1, 2024;
84	84	(D) cannabidiol (other trade name: 2-[3-methyl-6-(1-methylethenyl)-
85	85	2-cyclohexen-1-yl]-5-pentyl-1,3-benzenediol); or
86	86	(E) industrial hemp as defined in K.S.A. 2-3901, and amendments
87	87	thereto, when cultivated, produced, possessed or used for activities
88	88	authorized by the commercial industrial hemp act.
89	89	(e) "Canopy" means the total surface area within a cultivation area
90	90	that is dedicated to the cultivation of flowering cannabis plants. The
91	91	surface area of the plant canopy shall be measured and calculated in square
92	92	feet and shall include all of the area within the boundaries where the
93	93	cultivation of the flowering marijuana plants occur. If the surface of the
94	94	plant canopy consists of noncontiguous areas, each component area shall
95	95	be separated by identifiable boundaries. If a tiered or shelving system is
96	96	used in the cultivation area, the surface area of each tier or shelf shall be
97	97	included in calculating the area of the plant canopy. Calculation of the area
98	98	of the plant canopy shall not include the areas that are used to cultivate
99	99	immature marijuana plants and seedlings, prior to flowering, and the areas
100	100	that are not used at any time to cultivate mature marijuana plants. If the
101	101	flowering plants are vertically grown in cylinders, the square footage of
102	102	the canopy shall be measured and calculated by the circumference of the
103	103	cylinder multiplied by the total length of the cylinder.
104	104	(f) "Caregiver" means an individual registered pursuant to section 8,
105	105	and amendments thereto, who may purchase and possess medical cannabis
106	106	in accordance with section 11, and amendments thereto.
107	107	(g) "Cultivate" means the same as defined in K.S.A. 65-4101, and
108	108	amendments thereto.
109	109	(h) "Cultivator" means a person issued a license pursuant to section
110	110	20, and amendments thereto, who may grow and sell medical cannabis in
111	111	accordance with section 22, and amendments thereto.
112	112	(i) "Director" means the director of alcohol and cannabis control.
113	113	(j) "Dispense" means to deliver a medical cannabis product to a
114	114	registered patient or caregiver pursuant to the written recommendation of a
115	115	physician, including the packaging and labeling required for that delivery.
116	116	(k) "Distributor" means a person issued a license pursuant to section
117	117	20, and amendments thereto, who may purchase and sell medical cannabis
118	118	in accordance with section 27, and amendments thereto.
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162	162	(l) "Edibles" means any food product infused with cannabis extract.
163	163	(m) "Electronic cigarette" means the same as defined in K.S.A. 79-
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165	165	(n) "Medical cannabis" means cannabis that is cultivated, processed,
166	166	tested, dispensed, possessed or used for a medical purpose.
167	167	(o) "Medical cannabis product" means a product that contains
168	168	cannabinoids that have been extracted from plant material or the resin
169	169	therefrom by physical or chemical means and is intended for
170	170	administration to a registered patient.
171	171	(p) "Medical cannabis waste" means:
172	172	(1) Unused, surplus, returned or out-of-date medical cannabis or
173	173	medical cannabis product;
174	174	(2) recalled medical cannabis or medical cannabis product;
175	175	(3) plant debris of the plant Cannabis, including dead plants and all
176	176	unused plant parts and roots; and
177	177	(4) any wastewater generated during growing and processing.
178	178	(q) "Patient" means an individual registered pursuant to section 8, and
179	179	amendments thereto, who may purchase and possess medical cannabis in
180	180	accordance with section 10, and amendments thereto.
181	181	(r) "Person" means any natural person, corporation, partnership, trust
182	182	or association.
183	183	(s) "Plant" means a cannabis plant produced from a cutting, clipping
184	184	or seedling that is in a cultivating container.
185	185	(t) "Plant material" means the leaves, stems, buds and flowers of the
186	186	cannabis plant and does not include seedlings, seeds, clones, stalks or roots
187	187	of the plant or the weight of any non-cannabis ingredients combined with
188	188	cannabis.
189	189	(u) "Postsecondary educational institution" means the same as
190	190	defined in K.S.A. 74-3201b, and amendments thereto.
191	191	(v) "Processor" means a person issued a license pursuant to section
192	192	20, and amendments thereto, who may purchase, process and sell medical
193	193	cannabis in accordance with section 26, and amendments thereto.
194	194	(w) "Physician" means an individual licensed to practice medicine
195	195	and surgery in this state and who is certified by the board of healing arts to
196	196	recommend treatment with medical cannabis pursuant to section 18, and
197	197	amendments thereto.
198	198	(x) "Physician's delegate" means:
199	199	(1) A registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, respiratory therapist,
200	200	emergency medical responder, paramedic, dental hygienist, pharmacy
201	201	technician or pharmacy intern who has registered for access to the program
202	202	database as an agent of a practitioner or pharmacist to request program
203	203	data on behalf of the practitioner or pharmacist;
204	204	(2) a death investigator who has registered for limited access to the
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248	248	program database as an agent of a medical examiner, coroner or another
249	249	person authorized under law to investigate or determine causes of death; or
250	250	(3) an individual authorized by rules and regulations adopted by the
251	251	board of healing arts to access the prescription monitoring program
252	252	database.
253	253	(y) "Qualifying medical condition" means any of the following:
254	254	(1) Acquired immune deficiency syndrome;
255	255	(2) Alzheimer's disease;
256	256	(3) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis;
257	257	(4) cancer;
258	258	(5) chronic traumatic encephalopathy;
259	259	(6) epilepsy or another seizure disorder;
260	260	(7) fibromyalgia;
261	261	(8) glaucoma;
262	262	(9) hepatitis C;
263	263	(10) multiple sclerosis;
264	264	(11) Parkinson's disease;
265	265	(12) positive status for human immunodeficiency virus;
266	266	(13) post-traumatic stress disorder;
267	267	(14) sickle cell anemia;
268	268	(15) spinal cord disease or injury;
269	269	(16) Tourette's syndrome;
270	270	(17) traumatic brain injury;
271	271	(18) ulcerative colitis;
272	272	(19) any autoimmune disorder;
273	273	(20) pain that is either chronic and severe or intractable;
274	274	(21) a debilitating psychiatric disorder that is diagnosed by a
275	275	physician licensed in this state who is board-certified in the practice of
276	276	psychiatry, as determined by the board of healing arts;
277	277	(22) any other chronic, debilitating or terminal condition that, in the
278	278	professional judgment of a physician, would be a detriment to the patient's
279	279	mental or physical health if left untreated; or
280	280	(23) any other disease or condition approved by the secretary of
281	281	health and environment pursuant to section 15, and amendments thereto.
282	282	(z) "Retail dispensary" means a person issued a license pursuant to
283	283	section 22, and amendments thereto, who may purchase and sell medical
284	284	cannabis in accordance with section 28, and amendments thereto.
285	285	(aa) "Smoking" means the use of a lighted cigarette, cigar or pipe or
286	286	otherwise burning cannabis in any other form for the purpose of
287	287	consuming such cannabis.
288	288	(bb) "Tetrahydrocannabinol" means the primary psychoactive
289	289	cannabinoid in cannabis formed by decarboxylation of naturally occurring
290	290	tetrahydrocannabinolic acid that generally takes place by heating.
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334	334	(cc) "Tetrahydrocannabinolic acid" means the dominant cannabinoid
335	335	that occurs naturally in most varieties of cannabis.
336	336	(dd) "Tetrahydrocannabinol content" means the sum of the amount of
337	337	tetrahydrocannabinol and 87.7% of the amount of tetrahydrocannabinolic
338	338	acid present in the product.
339	339	(ee) "Vaporization" means the use of an electronic cigarette for the
340	340	purpose of consuming medical cannabis in which such medical cannabis
341	341	comes into direct contact with a heating element.
342	342	(ff) "Veteran" means a person who has:
343	343	(1) Served in the army, navy, marine corps, air force, coast guard,
344	344	space force, any state air or army national guard or any branch of the
345	345	military reserves of the United States; and
346	346	(2) been separated from the branch of service in which the person
347	347	was honorably discharged or received a general discharge under honorable
348	348	conditions.
349	349	New Sec. 3. (a) No person shall grow, harvest, process, sell, barter,
350	350	transport, deliver, furnish or otherwise possess any form of cannabis,
351	351	except as specifically provided in the medical cannabis regulation act or
352	352	the commercial industrial hemp act, K.S.A. 2-3901 et seq., and
353	353	amendments thereto.
354	354	(b) Nothing in the medical cannabis regulation act shall be construed
355	355	to:
356	356	(1) Require a physician to recommend that a patient use medical
357	357	cannabis to treat a qualifying medical condition;
358	358	(2) permit the use, possession or administration of medical cannabis
359	359	other than as authorized by this act;
360	360	(3) permit the use, possession or administration of medical cannabis
361	361	on federal land located in this state;
362	362	(4) permit the use or administration of medical cannabis on any
363	363	property owned, operated or leased by any state agency or political
364	364	subdivision thereof or any city, county or other municipality;
365	365	(5) require any public place to accommodate a registered patient's use
366	366	of medical cannabis;
367	367	(6) prohibit any public place from accommodating a registered
368	368	patient's use of medical cannabis;
369	369	(7) authorize any limitation on the number of any licenses awarded
370	370	under this act to otherwise qualified applicants or authorize any state
371	371	agency through rules and regulations to effectively limit the number of
372	372	licenses available to otherwise qualified applicants for any type of license
373	373	awarded under this act; or
374	374	(8) restrict research related to cannabis conducted at a postsecondary
375	375	educational institution, academic medical center or private research and
376	376	development organization as part of a research protocol approved by an
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420	420	institutional review board or equivalent entity.
421	421	New Sec. 4. (a) There is hereby established the medical cannabis
422	422	regulation program.
423	423	(b) The secretary of health and environment shall administer the
424	424	program in accordance with the provisions of this act and provide for the
425	425	registration of patients and caregivers, including the issuance of
426	426	identification cards to registered patients and caregivers.
427	427	(c) The board of healing arts shall administer the program in
428	428	accordance with the provisions of this act and provide for the certification
429	429	of physicians authorizing such physicians to recommend medical cannabis
430	430	as a treatment for patients.
431	431	(d) The board of pharmacy shall administer the program in
432	432	accordance with the provisions of this act and provide for the registration
433	433	of retail dispensary consultants.
434	434	(e) The director of alcohol and cannabis control shall administer the
435	435	program in accordance with the provisions of this act and provide for the
436	436	licensure of cultivators, laboratories, processors, distributors, retail
437	437	dispensaries and employees thereof.
438	438	New Sec. 5. (a) The medical cannabis advisory committee is hereby
439	439	created in the department of health and environment. The committee shall
440	440	consist of the following:
441	441	(1) Eight members appointed by the governor as follows:
442	442	(A) Two members who are practicing pharmacists, at least one of
443	443	whom supports the use of medical cannabis and at least one of whom is a
444	444	member of the state board of pharmacy;
445	445	(B) two members who are practicing physicians, at least one of whom
446	446	supports the use of medical cannabis and at least one of whom is a
447	447	member of the board of healing arts;
448	448	(C) one member who represents employers;
449	449	(D) one member who represents agriculture;
450	450	(E) one member who represents persons involved in the treatment of
451	451	alcohol and drug addiction; and
452	452	(F) one member who engages in academic research on the use or
453	453	regulation of medical cannabis;
454	454	(2) two members appointed by the president of the senate as follows:
455	455	(A) One member who represents law enforcement; and
456	456	(B) one member who represents caregivers;
457	457	(3) one member who is a nurse, appointed by the minority leader of
458	458	the senate;
459	459	(4) two members appointed by the speaker of the house of
460	460	representatives as follows:
461	461	(A) One member who represents persons involved in mental health
462	462	treatment; and
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506	506	(B) one member who represents patients;
507	507	(5) one member who represents employees, appointed by the
508	508	minority leader of the house of representatives; and
509	509	(6) the secretary of health and environment, who shall serve as
510	510	chairperson.
511	511	(b) The initial appointments to the committee shall be made on or
512	512	before July 31, 2024.
513	513	(c) Except for the secretary of health and environment, each member
514	514	of the committee shall serve for a period of two years from the date of
515	515	appointment. A vacancy shall be filled within 21 days of such vacancy in
516	516	the same manner as the original appointment.
517	517	(d) Each member of the committee shall be paid compensation,
518	518	subsistence allowances, mileage and other expenses as provided in K.S.A.
519	519	75-3223(e), and amendments thereto.
520	520	(e) The committee shall hold its initial meeting not later than 30 days
521	521	after the last member of the committee is appointed. The committee may
522	522	develop and submit to the secretary of health and environment and the
523	523	director of alcohol and cannabis control any recommendations related to
524	524	the medical cannabis regulation program and the implementation and
525	525	enforcement of this act.
526	526	(f) Prior to January 31 of each year, the medical cannabis advisory
527	527	committee shall provide a report to the legislature detailing any concerns
528	528	or recommended changes that the committee has for the medical cannabis
529	529	regulation act.
530	530	(g) The provisions of this section shall expire on July 1, 2029.
531	531	New Sec. 6. (a) Except as permitted under subsection (c), the
532	532	following individuals shall not solicit or accept, directly or indirectly, any
533	533	gift, gratuity, emolument or employment from any person who is an
534	534	applicant for any license or is a licensee under the provisions of the
535	535	medical cannabis regulation act or any officer, agent or employee thereof,
536	536	or solicit requests from or recommend, directly or indirectly, to any such
537	537	person, the appointment of any individual to any place or position:
538	538	(1) The secretary of health and environment or any officer, employee
539	539	or agent of the department of health and environment;
540	540	(2) the secretary of revenue, the director of alcohol and cannabis
541	541	control or any officer, employee or agent of the division of alcohol and
542	542	cannabis control;
543	543	(3) any member of the state board of pharmacy; or
544	544	(4) any member of the board of healing arts.
545	545	(b) Except as permitted under subsection (c), an applicant for a
546	546	license or a licensee under the provisions of the medical cannabis
547	547	regulation act shall not offer any gift, gratuity, emolument or employment
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592	592	(1) The secretary of health and environment or any officer, employee
593	593	or agent of the department of health and environment;
594	594	(2) the secretary of revenue, the director of alcohol and cannabis
595	595	control or any officer, employee or agent of the division of alcohol and
596	596	cannabis control;
597	597	(3) any member of the state board of pharmacy; or
598	598	(4) any member of the board of healing arts.
599	599	(c) The board of healing arts, the state board of pharmacy, the
600	600	secretary of health and environment and the secretary of revenue may
601	601	adopt rules and regulations for their respective agencies allowing the
602	602	acceptance of official hospitality by members of the board of healing arts,
603	603	the state board of pharmacy or the respective secretary and employees of
604	604	each such respective agency, subject to any limits as prescribed by such
605	605	rules and regulations.
606	606	(d) If any member of the board of healing arts, the state board of
607	607	pharmacy, the secretary of health and environment, the secretary of
608	608	revenue or any employee of each such respective agency violates any
609	609	provision of this section, such person shall be removed from such person's
610	610	office or employment.
611	611	(e) Violation of any provision of this section is a severity level 7,
612	612	nonperson felony.
613	613	(f) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit the
614	614	prosecution and punishment of any person for any other crime in the
615	615	Kansas criminal code.
616	616	New Sec. 7. All actions taken by the board of healing arts, the state
617	617	board of pharmacy, the secretary of health and environment or the director
618	618	of alcohol and cannabis control under the medical cannabis regulation act
619	619	shall be in accordance with the Kansas administrative procedure act and
620	620	reviewable in accordance with the Kansas judicial review act.
621	621	New Sec. 8. (a) A patient seeking to use medical cannabis or a
622	622	caregiver seeking to assist a patient in the use or administration of medical
623	623	cannabis shall apply to the department of health and environment for
624	624	registration. The physician who is treating the patient, or such physician's
625	625	designee, shall submit the application on the patient's or caregiver's behalf
626	626	in such form and manner as prescribed by the secretary of health and
627	627	environment.
628	628	(b) The application for registration shall include the following:
629	629	(1) A statement from the physician certifying that:
630	630	(A) A bona fide physician-patient relationship exists between the
631	631	physician and patient;
632	632	(B) the patient has been diagnosed with a qualifying medical
633	633	condition;
634	634	(C) the physician, or such physician's delegate, has requested from
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678	678	the prescription monitoring program database a report of information
679	679	related to the patient that covers at least the 12 months immediately
680	680	preceding the date of the report;
681	681	(D) the physician has informed the patient of the risks and benefits of
682	682	medical cannabis as it pertains to the patient's qualifying medical condition
683	683	and medical history; and
684	684	(E) the physician has informed the patient that it is the physician's
685	685	opinion that the benefits of medical cannabis outweigh its risks;
686	686	(2) in the case of an application submitted on behalf of a patient, the
687	687	name or names of one or more caregivers, if any, who will assist the
688	688	patient in the use or administration of medical cannabis;
689	689	(3) in the case of an application submitted on behalf of a caregiver,
690	690	the name of the patient or patients whom the caregiver seeks to assist in
691	691	the use or administration of medical cannabis; and
692	692	(4) in the case of a patient who is a minor, the name of the patient's
693	693	parent or legal guardian who has consented to treatment with medical
694	694	cannabis and who shall be designated as the patient's caregiver.
695	695	(c) If the application is complete and meets the requirements of this
696	696	act and rules and regulations adopted thereunder and the patient or
697	697	caregiver has paid the required fee, the secretary of health and
698	698	environment shall register the patient or caregiver and issue to the patient
699	699	or caregiver an identification card.
700	700	(d) (1) A registered caregiver shall be at least 21 years of age, except
701	701	that if the caregiver is the parent or legal guardian of a patient who is a
702	702	minor, then the registered caregiver shall be at least 18 years of age.
703	703	(2) A registered patient may designate up to two registered
704	704	caregivers. If the patient is a minor, a parent or legal guardian of such
705	705	patient shall be designated as a registered caregiver for such patient.
706	706	(3) A registered caregiver may provide assistance to not more than
707	707	two registered patients, unless the secretary approves a greater number of
708	708	registered patients.
709	709	(4) A physician who submits an application on behalf of a patient
710	710	may not also serve as such patient's registered caregiver.
711	711	(e) Any information collected by the department of health and
712	712	environment pursuant to this section is confidential and not a public
713	713	record. The department may share information identifying a specific
714	714	patient with a licensed retail dispensary or any law enforcement agency for
715	715	the purpose of confirming that such patient has a valid registration.
716	716	Information that does not identify a person may be released in summary,
717	717	statistical or aggregate form. The provisions of this subsection shall expire
718	718	on July 1, 2029, unless the legislature reviews and reenacts such
719	719	provisions in accordance with K.S.A. 45-229, and amendments thereto,
720	720	prior to July 1, 2029.
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764	764	(f) (1) The fees for a patient or caregiver registration, or the renewal
765	765	thereof, shall be set by rules and regulations adopted by the secretary of
766	766	health and environment in an amount not to exceed:
767	767	(A) Except as specified in subparagraph (B), $50 for a patient
768	768	registration;
769	769	(B) $25 for a patient registration if the patient is a veteran; and
770	770	(C) $25 for a caregiver registration.
771	771	(2) No fee shall be assessed to any patient or caregiver who is
772	772	indigent.
773	773	(g) A registration shall be valid for a period of one year from the
774	774	effective date as specified on the identification card and may be renewed
775	775	by submitting a registration renewal application and paying the required
776	776	fee.
777	777	New Sec. 9. (a) The department of health and environment shall
778	778	assign a unique 24-character identification number to each registered
779	779	patient and caregiver when issuing an identification card. Each card shall
780	780	be electronically scannable. Upon presentation of an identification card,
781	781	licensed retail dispensaries shall obtain verification by the department that
782	782	a patient or caregiver has a valid registration.
783	783	(b) Each patient and caregiver shall promptly deliver such patient's or
784	784	caregiver's registration identification card upon demand of any officer of a
785	785	court of competent jurisdiction, any law enforcement officer or any
786	786	employee or agent of the secretary of health and environment when the
787	787	identification card is in such patient's or caregiver's immediate possession
788	788	at the time of the demand.
789	789	New Sec. 10. (a) A patient registered pursuant to section 8, and
790	790	amendments thereto, who purchases medical cannabis from a licensed
791	791	retail dispensary may:
792	792	(1) Use medical cannabis;
793	793	(2) subject to subsection (b), purchase and possess medical cannabis;
794	794	and
795	795	(3) purchase and possess any paraphernalia or accessories used to
796	796	administer medical cannabis.
797	797	(b) A registered patient may purchase and possess medical cannabis
798	798	in an amount not to exceed the following for a 60-day supply:
799	799	(1) For edibles, 60 mg per day;
800	800	(2) for inhalation through vaporization, 350 mg per day;
801	801	(3) for oral consumption, including, but not limited to, capsules and
802	802	tinctures, 200 mg per day;
803	803	(4) for sublingual tinctures, 190 mg per day;
804	804	(5) for suppositories, 195 mg per day;
805	805	(6) for topical applications, 150 mg per day; and
806	806	(7) for dried flower, eight ounces.
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850	850	(c) A patient may cultivate medical cannabis for personal use. No
851	851	cultivator license shall be required for such cultivation of medical
852	852	cannabis. Any patient cultivating medical cannabis for personal use shall:
853	853	(1) Notify the secretary of health and environment that such patient
854	854	intends to cultivate medical cannabis pursuant to this section. Such notice
855	855	shall be submitted in such form and manner as prescribed by the secretary
856	856	and shall include the patient's name, identification card number and the
857	857	address of the premises where such medical cannabis is being cultivated.
858	858	Upon receipt of such notice, the secretary shall notify the director of such
859	859	cultivation, including the information contained in the patient's notice;
860	860	(2) cultivate not more than three plants in a secure facility in
861	861	accordance with rules and regulations adopted by the secretary of health
862	862	and environment;
863	863	(3) only cultivate medical cannabis at the premises stated in the
864	864	notice and such premises shall be owned or leased by the patient;
865	865	(4) only cultivate and use such medical cannabis for such patient's
866	866	own needs in accordance with a written recommendation issued by such
867	867	patient's physician, and shall not sell, transfer, give or otherwise distribute
868	868	such medical cannabis to any other individual or entity regardless of
869	869	whether such individual is a registered patient or caregiver or such entity is
870	870	licensed pursuant to section 20, and amendments thereto;
871	871	(5) notify the secretary of health and environment if there is a change
872	872	in the premises where the medical cannabis is cultivated and the address of
873	873	the new premises. Upon receipt of such notice, the secretary shall notify
874	874	the director of the same; and
875	875	(6) comply with all rules and regulations adopted by the secretary of
876	876	health and environment concerning the cultivation of medical cannabis for
877	877	personal use.
878	878	(d) Any medical cannabis cultivated by a patient shall not be included
879	879	as part of any limitation on the amount of medical cannabis a patient may
880	880	purchase or possess within a 60-day time period.
881	881	(e) Nothing in this section shall be construed to authorize a registered
882	882	patient to operate a motor vehicle, watercraft or aircraft while under the
883	883	influence of medical cannabis.
884	884	New Sec. 11. (a) A caregiver registered pursuant to section 8, and
885	885	amendments thereto, who purchases medical cannabis from a licensed
886	886	retail dispensary may:
887	887	(1) Subject to subsection (b), purchase and possess medical cannabis
888	888	on behalf of a registered patient under the caregiver's care;
889	889	(2) assist a registered patient under the caregiver's care in the use or
890	890	administration of medical cannabis; and
891	891	(3) purchase and possess any paraphernalia or accessories used to
892	892	administer medical cannabis.
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936	936	(b) A registered caregiver may purchase and possess medical
937	937	cannabis on behalf of a registered patient in an amount not to exceed the
938	938	dosage amounts provided in section 10(b), and amendments thereto. If a
939	939	caregiver provides care to more than one registered patient, the caregiver
940	940	shall maintain separate inventories of medical cannabis for each patient.
941	941	(c) Nothing in this section shall be construed to permit a registered
942	942	caregiver to personally use medical cannabis unless the caregiver is also a
943	943	registered patient.
944	944	New Sec. 12. (a) In addition to or in lieu of any other civil or criminal
945	945	penalty as provided by law, the secretary of health and environment may
946	946	impose a civil penalty or suspend or revoke a registration upon a finding
947	947	that the patient or caregiver committed a violation as provided in this
948	948	section.
949	949	(b) Nothing in this act shall be construed to require the secretary to
950	950	enforce minor violations if the secretary determines that the public interest
951	951	is adequately served by a notice or warning to the alleged offender.
952	952	(c) Upon a finding that a registrant has submitted fraudulent
953	953	information or otherwise falsified or misrepresented information required
954	954	to be submitted by such registrant, the secretary may impose a civil fine in
955	955	an amount not to exceed $500 for a first offense and may suspend or
956	956	revoke the individual's registration for a second or subsequent offense.
957	957	(d) If the secretary suspends, revokes or refuses to renew any
958	958	registration issued pursuant to this act and determines that there is clear
959	959	and convincing evidence of a danger of immediate and serious harm to any
960	960	person, the secretary may place under seal all medical cannabis owned by
961	961	or in the possession, custody or control of the affected registrant. Except as
962	962	provided in this section, the secretary shall not dispose of the sealed
963	963	medical cannabis until a final order is issued authorizing such disposition.
964	964	During the pendency of an appeal from any order issued by the secretary, a
965	965	court may order the secretary to sell medical cannabis that is perishable,
966	966	and the proceeds of any such sale shall be deposited with the court.
967	967	New Sec. 13. (a) There is hereby established the medical cannabis
968	968	registration fund in the state treasury. The secretary of health and
969	969	environment shall administer the medical cannabis registration fund and
970	970	shall remit all moneys collected from the payment of all fees and fines
971	971	imposed by the secretary pursuant to the medical cannabis regulation act
972	972	and any other moneys received by or on behalf of the secretary pursuant to
973	973	such act to the state treasurer in accordance with the provisions of K.S.A.
974	974	75-4215, and amendments thereto. Upon receipt of each such remittance,
975	975	the state treasurer shall deposit the entire amount in the state treasury to
976	976	the credit of the medical cannabis registration fund. Moneys credited to the
977	977	medical cannabis registration fund shall only be expended or transferred as
978	978	provided in this section. Expenditures from such fund shall be made in
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1022	1022	accordance with appropriation acts upon warrants of the director of
1023	1023	accounts and reports issued pursuant to vouchers approved by the
1024	1024	secretary or the secretary's designee.
1025	1025	(b) Moneys in the medical cannabis registration fund shall be used for
1026	1026	the payment or reimbursement of costs related to the regulation and
1027	1027	enforcement of the possession and use of medical cannabis by the
1028	1028	secretary.
1029	1029	New Sec. 14. (a) On or before July 1, 2024, the secretary of health
1030	1030	and environment shall, after consulting with the medical cannabis advisory
1031	1031	committee, adopt rules and regulations to administer the medical cannabis
1032	1032	regulation program and implement and enforce the provisions of the
1033	1033	medical cannabis regulation act. Such rules and regulations shall:
1034	1034	(1) Establish procedures for registration of patients and caregivers
1035	1035	and eligibility requirements for registration, including registration fees;
1036	1036	(2) establish procedures for the issuance of patient or caregiver
1037	1037	identification cards;
1038	1038	(3) establish renewal schedules, procedures and fees for registrations;
1039	1039	(4) subject to the provisions of subsection (b), specify, by form and
1040	1040	tetrahydrocannabinol content, a 60-day maximum supply of medical
1041	1041	cannabis that may be purchased and possesssed;
1042	1042	(5) establish procedures for notification of cultivation of medical
1043	1043	cannabis for personal use by a patient and such other limitations or
1044	1044	restrictions on such cultivation as required by law or as the secretary
1045	1045	deems necessary for the safe and effective administration of the medical
1046	1046	cannabis regulation act;
1047	1047	(6) specify the forms or methods of using medical cannabis that are
1048	1048	attractive to children; and
1049	1049	(7) establish a program to assist patients who are indigent or who are
1050	1050	veterans in obtaining medical cannabis.
1051	1051	(b) Any maximum supply of medical cannabis that may be purchased
1052	1052	by a patient or caregiver shall allow for exceptions from the limits
1053	1053	provided in section 10(b), and amendments thereto, upon submission of a
1054	1054	written certification from two independent physicians that there are
1055	1055	compelling reasons for the patient or caregiver to purchase greater
1056	1056	quantities of medical cannabis.
1057	1057	(c) When adopting rules and regulations under this section, the
1058	1058	secretary shall consider standards and procedures that have been found to
1059	1059	be best practices relative to the use and regulation of medical cannabis.
1060	1060	New Sec. 15. (a) Any person may submit a petition to the medical
1061	1061	cannabis advisory committee requesting that a disease or condition be
1062	1062	added as a qualifying medical condition for the purposes of this act. The
1063	1063	petition shall be submitted in such form and manner as prescribed by the
1064	1064	secretary of health and environment. A petition shall not seek to add a
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1108	1108	broad category of diseases or conditions but shall be limited to one disease
1109	1109	or condition and shall include a description of such disease or condition.
1110	1110	(b) Upon receipt of a petition, the committee shall review such
1111	1111	petition to determine whether to recommend the approval or denial of such
1112	1112	disease or condition as an addition to the list of qualifying medical
1113	1113	conditions. The committee may consolidate the review of petitions for the
1114	1114	same or similar diseases or conditions. In making its determination, the
1115	1115	committee shall:
1116	1116	(1) Consult with one or more experts who specialize in the study of
1117	1117	the disease or condition;
1118	1118	(2) review any relevant medical or scientific evidence pertaining to
1119	1119	the disease or condition;
1120	1120	(3) consider whether conventional medical therapies are insufficient
1121	1121	to treat or alleviate the disease or condition;
1122	1122	(4) review evidence supporting the use of medical cannabis to treat or
1123	1123	alleviate the disease or condition; and
1124	1124	(5) review any letters of support provided by physicians with
1125	1125	knowledge of the disease or condition, including any letter provided by a
1126	1126	physician treating the petitioner.
1127	1127	(c) Upon completion of its review, the committee shall make a
1128	1128	recommendation to the secretary of health and environment whether to
1129	1129	approve or deny the addition of the disease or condition to the list of
1130	1130	qualifying medical conditions. The secretary shall adopt rules and
1131	1131	regulations in accordance with the recommendation of the committee.
1132	1132	(d) Prior to July 1, 2027, and every three years thereafter, the
1133	1133	committee shall review all diseases or conditions that have been
1134	1134	previously recommended for approval by the committee and adopted by
1135	1135	the secretary of health and environment through rules and regulations to
1136	1136	determine if the inclusion of any such diseases or conditions are no longer
1137	1137	supported by scientific evidence. The inclusion of any such disease or
1138	1138	condition that the committee determines is no longer supported by
1139	1139	scientific evidence shall be recommended by the committee to the
1140	1140	secretary of health and environment for removal from the list of qualifying
1141	1141	medical conditions.
1142	1142	New Sec. 16. On or before July 1, 2024, the department of health and
1143	1143	environment shall make a website available for the public to access
1144	1144	information regarding patient and caregiver registration under the medical
1145	1145	cannabis regulation act.
1146	1146	New Sec. 17. A medical cannabis registry identification card, or its
1147	1147	equivalent, that is issued under the laws of another state, district, territory,
1148	1148	commonwealth or insular possession of the United States that is verifiable
1149	1149	by the jurisdiction of issuance and allows a nonresident patient to purchase
1150	1150	and possess medical cannabis for medical purposes shall have the same
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1194	1194	force and effect as an identification card issued by the secretary pursuant
1195	1195	to this act if the nonresident patient has not been residing in this state for
1196	1196	more than 180 days.
1197	1197	New Sec. 18. (a) Except as provided in subsection (j), a physician
1198	1198	seeking to recommend treatment with medical cannabis shall apply to the
1199	1199	board of healing arts for a certificate authorizing such physician to
1200	1200	recommend treatment with medical cannabis. The application shall be
1201	1201	submitted in such form and manner as prescribed by the board. The board
1202	1202	shall grant a certificate to recommend such treatment if the following
1203	1203	conditions are satisfied:
1204	1204	(1) The application is complete and meets the requirements
1205	1205	established in rules and regulations adopted by the board of healing arts;
1206	1206	and
1207	1207	(2) the applicant demonstrates that the applicant does not have an
1208	1208	ownership or investment interest in or compensation arrangement with an
1209	1209	entity licensed by the director of alcohol and cannabis control under this
1210	1210	act or an applicant for such licensure.
1211	1211	(b) (1) Pursuant to rules and regulations adopted by the board of
1212	1212	healing arts, a certificate to recommend treatment with medical cannabis
1213	1213	shall:
1214	1214	(A) Expire one year from the date of issuance unless renewed in the
1215	1215	manner prescribed by the board; and
1216	1216	(B) require an annual fee in an amount not to exceed $175.
1217	1217	(2) Renewal of a certificate to recommend treatment with medical
1218	1218	cannabis shall be conditioned upon the holder's certification of having met
1219	1219	the requirements in subsection (a), paying the required renewal fee and
1220	1220	having completed at least two hours of continuing medical education in
1221	1221	medical cannabis in accordance with subsection (g).
1222	1222	(c) A physician licensed in this state who holds a certificate to
1223	1223	recommend treatment with medical cannabis may recommend that a
1224	1224	patient be treated with medical cannabis if:
1225	1225	(1) The patient has been diagnosed with a qualifying medical
1226	1226	condition;
1227	1227	(2) an ongoing physician-patient relationship has been established by
1228	1228	an initial office visit; and
1229	1229	(3) an in-person physical examination of the patient was performed
1230	1230	by the physician together with a review of all of the patient's medical
1231	1231	records, particularly relating to the medical indication for a
1232	1232	tetrahydrocannabinol recommendation.
1233	1233	(d) In the case of a patient who is a minor, the physician may
1234	1234	recommend treatment with medical cannabis only after obtaining the
1235	1235	consent of the patient's parent or other person authorized to provide
1236	1236	consent to such treatment.
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1280	1280	(e) When issuing a written recommendation to a patient, a physician
1281	1281	shall specify any information required by rules and regulations adopted by
1282	1282	the board of healing arts. A written recommendation issued to a patient
1283	1283	under this section shall be valid for a period of not more than 90 days. A
1284	1284	physician may renew the recommendation for not more than three
1285	1285	additional periods of not more than 90 days each. Thereafter, a physician
1286	1286	may issue another recommendation to the patient only upon a physical
1287	1287	examination of the patient.
1288	1288	(f) Each year, a physician holding a certificate to recommend
1289	1289	treatment with medical cannabis shall submit to the board of healing arts a
1290	1290	report that describes the physician's observations regarding the
1291	1291	effectiveness of medical cannabis in treating the physician's patients
1292	1292	during the year covered by the report. When submitting reports, a
1293	1293	physician shall not include any information that identifies or would tend to
1294	1294	identify any specific patient.
1295	1295	(g) Each year, a physician holding a certificate to recommend
1296	1296	treatment with medical cannabis shall complete at least two hours of
1297	1297	continuing medical education in the treatment with and use of medical
1298	1298	cannabis as approved by the board of healing arts.
1299	1299	(h) A physician shall not issue a recommendation for treatment with
1300	1300	medical cannabis for a member of such physician's family or the
1301	1301	physician's self, or personally furnish or otherwise administer medical
1302	1302	cannabis.
1303	1303	(i) A physician holding a certificate to recommend treatment with
1304	1304	medical cannabis shall be immune from civil liability, shall not be subject
1305	1305	to professional disciplinary action by the board of healing arts and shall
1306	1306	not be subject to criminal prosecution for any of the following actions:
1307	1307	(1) Advising a patient, patient representative or caregiver about the
1308	1308	benefits and risks of medical cannabis to treat a qualifying medical
1309	1309	condition;
1310	1310	(2) recommending that a patient use medical cannabis to treat or
1311	1311	alleviate a qualifying medical condition; or
1312	1312	(3) monitoring a patient's treatment with medical cannabis.
1313	1313	(j) This section shall not apply to a physician who recommends
1314	1314	treatment with cannabis or a drug derived from cannabis under any of the
1315	1315	following that is approved by an institutional review board or equivalent
1316	1316	entity, the United States food and drug administration or the national
1317	1317	institutes of health or one of its cooperative groups or centers under the
1318	1318	United States department of health and human services:
1319	1319	(1) A research protocol;
1320	1320	(2) a clinical trial;
1321	1321	(3) an investigational new drug application; or
1322	1322	(4) an expanded access submission.
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1366	1366	New Sec. 19. (a) On or before September 1, 2024, the board of
1367	1367	healing arts shall adopt rules and regulations to implement and enforce the
1368	1368	provisions of section 18, and amendments thereto. Such rules and
1369	1369	regulations shall include:
1370	1370	(1) Procedures and fees for applying for a certificate to recommend
1371	1371	treatment with medical cannabis;
1372	1372	(2) conditions for eligibility for a certificate to recommend treatment
1373	1373	with medical cannabis;
1374	1374	(3) a schedule, fees and procedures for renewing such certificate;
1375	1375	(4) reasons for which a certificate may be suspended or revoked;
1376	1376	(5) standards under which a certificate suspension may be lifted; and
1377	1377	(6) a requirement that each certified physician who recommends
1378	1378	medical cannabis for treatment to a patient shall meet the applicable
1379	1379	standard of care.
1380	1380	(b) The board of healing arts shall approve one or more continuing
1381	1381	medical education courses of study that assist physicians holding
1382	1382	certificates to recommend treatment with medical cannabis in diagnosing
1383	1383	and treating qualifying medical conditions with medical cannabis.
1384	1384	New Sec. 20. (a) Any person who seeks to cultivate, conduct
1385	1385	laboratory testing of, process, distribute or sell at retail medical cannabis,
1386	1386	medical cannabis concentrate or medical cannabis products shall submit an
1387	1387	application for the appropriate license to the director in such form and
1388	1388	manner as prescribed by the director. A separate license application shall
1389	1389	be submitted for each location to be operated by the licensee.
1390	1390	(b) The director shall issue a license to an applicant if the:
1391	1391	(1) Criminal history record check conducted pursuant to section 45,
1392	1392	and amendments thereto, demonstrates that the applicant is not
1393	1393	disqualified from holding a license pursuant to section 21, and
1394	1394	amendments thereto;
1395	1395	(2) applicant is not applying for a laboratory license and demonstrates
1396	1396	that such applicant does not:
1397	1397	(A) Have an ownership or investment interest in or compensation
1398	1398	arrangement with a licensed laboratory or an applicant for such license; or
1399	1399	(B) share any corporate officers or employees with a licensed
1400	1400	laboratory or an applicant for such license;
1401	1401	(3) applicant is not a registered caregiver under section 8, and
1402	1402	amendments thereto;
1403	1403	(4) applicant demonstrates that such applicant will not violate the
1404	1404	provisions of section 43, and amendments thereto;
1405	1405	(5) applicant demonstrates that such applicant will comply with the
1406	1406	provisions of section 44, and amendments thereto;
1407	1407	(6) applicant has submitted a tax clearance certificate issued by the
1408	1408	department of revenue;
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1452	1452	(7) applicant has submitted an attestation to the director under penalty
1453	1453	of perjury, in a form and manner prescribed by the director, that confirms
1454	1454	or denies the existence of any foreign financial interests associated with
1455	1455	the entity applying for such license and discloses the identity of such
1456	1456	ownership, if applicable; and
1457	1457	(8) applicant meets all other licensure eligibility conditions
1458	1458	established in rules and regulations adopted by the secretary of revenue
1459	1459	and has paid all required fees.
1460	1460	(c) The director may issue the following licenses:
1461	1461	(1) Cultivator license;
1462	1462	(2) laboratory license;
1463	1463	(3) processor license;
1464	1464	(4) distributor license; and
1465	1465	(5) retail dispensary license.
1466	1466	(d) The director shall issue not less than 15% of cultivator, laboratory,
1467	1467	processor, distributor and retail dispensary licenses to entities that are
1468	1468	owned and controlled by United States citizens who are residents of this
1469	1469	state and are members of one of the following economically disadvantaged
1470	1470	groups: Blacks or African Americans, American Indians, Hispanics or
1471	1471	Latinos and Asians. If no applications or an insufficient number of
1472	1472	applications are submitted by such entities that meet the conditions set
1473	1473	forth in subsection (b), licenses shall be issued in accordance with
1474	1474	subsections (a) and (b).
1475	1475	(e) All licenses issued under this section shall be valid for a period of
1476	1476	one year from the effective date as specified on the license.
1477	1477	(f) A license may be renewed by submitting a license renewal
1478	1478	application and paying the required fee.
1479	1479	New Sec. 21. (a) All cultivator, laboratory, processor, distributor and
1480	1480	retail dispensary licenses issued pursuant to section 20, and amendments
1481	1481	thereto, shall only be issued to a person:
1482	1482	(1) Who is a citizen of the United States;
1483	1483	(2) who has not had a license revoked for cause under the provisions
1484	1484	of this act or has not had any license issued under the medical cannabis
1485	1485	laws of any state revoked for cause, except that a license may be issued to
1486	1486	a person whose license was revoked for the conviction of a misdemeanor
1487	1487	at any time after the lapse of 10 years following the date of the revocation;
1488	1488	(3) who is at least 18 years of age;
1489	1489	(4) who, other than as a member of the governing body of a city or
1490	1490	county, does not appoint or supervise any law enforcement officer, is not a
1491	1491	law enforcement officer or is not an employee of the director;
1492	1492	(5) who does not intend to carry on the business authorized by the
1493	1493	license as an agent of another;
1494	1494	(6) who, at the time of application for renewal of any license issued
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1538	1538	under this act, would be eligible for the license upon a first application,
1539	1539	except as provided in paragraph (11);
1540	1540	(7) who owns the premises for which a license is sought or, at the
1541	1541	time of application, has a written lease thereon;
1542	1542	(8) whose spouse would be eligible to receive a license under this act,
1543	1543	except that:
1544	1544	(A) A spouse's ineligibility due to citizenship or age shall not
1545	1545	disqualify a person from licensure; and
1546	1546	(B) a spouse's ineligibility shall not apply in determining eligibility
1547	1547	for renewal of a license; and
1548	1548	(9) who has not been found to have held an undisclosed beneficial
1549	1549	interest in any license issued pursuant to this act that was obtained by
1550	1550	means of fraud or any false statement made on the application for such
1551	1551	license.
1552	1552	(b) If the applicant is not an individual, then the license shall only be
1553	1553	issued to a business entity formed in this state and registered with the
1554	1554	secretary of state. No license shall be issued to a publicly traded
1555	1555	corporation. Such entity shall submit the following to the director along
1556	1556	with the application for licensure:
1557	1557	(1) A certificate of good standing;
1558	1558	(2) a copy of such entity's bylaws, operating agreement or other
1559	1559	document providing for the governance of such entity; and
1560	1560	(3) a certified document indicating:
1561	1561	(A) Each individual who holds a 10% or more ownership interest in
1562	1562	such applicant and each individual who holds a 10% or more ownership
1563	1563	interest in any business entity that holds an ownership interest in the
1564	1564	applicant;
1565	1565	(B) the percentage of ownership interest of each such individual or
1566	1566	business entity; and
1567	1567	(C) the residential address of each such individual.
1568	1568	(c) All individuals holding a 10% or more ownership interest in a
1569	1569	business entity applying for a license shall satisfy the requirements for
1570	1570	licensure under subsections (a)(1), (a)(2), (a)(4), (a)(5), (a)(6) and (a)(9).
1571	1571	(d) All business entities holding a license shall notify the director of
1572	1572	any change in such entity's registration status with the secretary of state,
1573	1573	any amendment of such entity's governing documents and any change in
1574	1574	ownership, including the names and addresses of the individuals whose
1575	1575	ownership interest changed within 30 days after such change occurs.
1576	1576	(e) Any transfer of a license shall be reported to and approved by the
1577	1577	director. The director shall not approve any transfer of a license to any
1578	1578	individual or business entity that does not satisfy the requirements of this
1579	1579	section at the time of the transfer.
1580	1580	(f) Any compensation, fee, expense or similarly characterized
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1624	1624	nonequity payment that is contingent on or otherwise determined in a
1625	1625	manner that factors in profits, sales, revenue or cash flow of any kind
1626	1626	relating to a licensee's operation, including, but not limited to, profit-based
1627	1627	consulting fees and percentage rent payments is prohibited. Any licensee
1628	1628	that enters into an agreement for any prohibited compensation, fee,
1629	1629	expense or payment shall forfeit such entity's license to the director. Such
1630	1630	prohibited compensation, fee, expense or payment:
1631	1631	(1) Includes any distribution that is made by a licensee to one or more
1632	1632	individuals or other entities residing or domiciled outside this state that
1633	1633	hold an equity or similar ownership interest in the licensee if such
1634	1634	distribution is greater than 25% of the total distributed amount; and
1635	1635	(2) does not include payments of fixed amounts that are determined
1636	1636	prior to the commencement of applicable services.
1637	1637	(g) For purposes of this section, the term "business entity" includes
1638	1638	for-profit corporations, limited liability companies, partnerships, limited
1639	1639	partnerships, limited liability partnerships and trusts. If the applicant is a
1640	1640	trust, references to individual ownership interests in the trust mean any
1641	1641	grantor, beneficiary or trustee of such trust.
1642	1642	New Sec. 22. (a) A cultivator licensee may cultivate medical cannabis
1643	1643	in a building designated by the licensee that complies with the provisions
1644	1644	of section 44, and amendments thereto. A cultivator may:
1645	1645	(1) Transport, deliver or sell medical cannabis to one or more
1646	1646	licensed cultivators, processors, distributors or retail dispensaries; and
1647	1647	(2) purchase or receive medical cannabis from one or more licensed
1648	1648	cultivators.
1649	1649	(b) (1) Unless authorized by this act, a cultivator shall not transfer or
1650	1650	sell medical cannabis and a processor shall not transfer, sell or process into
1651	1651	a concentrate or medical cannabis product any medical cannabis, medical
1652	1652	cannabis concentrate or medical cannabis product unless samples from
1653	1653	each harvest batch or production batch from which such medical cannabis,
1654	1654	medical cannabis concentrate or medical cannabis product was derived has
1655	1655	been tested by a licensed laboratory for contaminants and has passed all
1656	1656	contaminant tests required by this act.
1657	1657	(2) A cultivator may transfer medical cannabis that has failed testing
1658	1658	for quality control to a licensed processor only for the purposes of
1659	1659	decontamination or remediation and only in accordance with the
1660	1660	provisions of this act.
1661	1661	(c) A cultivator shall employ only those individuals who hold an
1662	1662	employee license issued pursuant to section 29, and amendments thereto,
1663	1663	and have completed the training requirements established by rules and
1664	1664	regulations adopted by the secretary of revenue.
1665	1665	(d) A cultivator shall not cultivate medical cannabis for personal,
1666	1666	family or household use or on any public land.
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1710	1710	New Sec. 23. (a) Prior to July 1, 2024, the director shall contract with
1711	1711	an operational private laboratory for the purpose of conducting compliance
1712	1712	and quality assurance testing of licensed cultivators, laboratories and
1713	1713	processors to provide public safety and ensure that quality medical
1714	1714	cannabis, medical cannabis concentrate and medical cannabis products are
1715	1715	available to registered patients and caregivers.
1716	1716	(b) A laboratory under contract with the director for compliance and
1717	1717	quality assurance testing shall not:
1718	1718	(1) Conduct any other commercial medical cannabis testing in this
1719	1719	state; or
1720	1720	(2) employ or be owned by any individual:
1721	1721	(A) Who has a direct or indirect financial interest in any entity
1722	1722	holding a license issued pursuant to section 20, and amendments thereto;
1723	1723	(B) whose spouse, parent, child, sibling or spouse of a child or sibling
1724	1724	has a pending application for a license issued pursuant to section 20, and
1725	1725	amendments thereto; or
1726	1726	(C) who is a member of the board of directors of any entity holding a
1727	1727	license issued pursuant to section 20, and amendments thereto.
1728	1728	(c) A laboratory under contract with the director for compliance and
1729	1729	quality assurance shall be accessible and utilized for any medical cannabis
1730	1730	testing needs by any regulatory agency within the state, including, but not
1731	1731	limited to, the department of health and environment, the Kansas bureau of
1732	1732	investigation and the state fire marshal.
1733	1733	New Sec. 24. (a) The director shall propose rules and regulations as
1734	1734	necessary to develop acceptable testing and research practices in
1735	1735	consultation with the compliance and quality assurance testing laboratory
1736	1736	contracted with pursuant to section 23, and amendments thereto, including,
1737	1737	but not limited to, testing, standards, quality control analysis, equipment
1738	1738	certification and calibration and chemical identification and substances
1739	1739	used in bona fide research methods. After the hearing on proposed rules
1740	1740	and regulations has been held as required by law, the director shall submit
1741	1741	any such proposed rules and regulations to the secretary of revenue who,
1742	1742	upon approval by the secretary, shall adopt such rules and regulations.
1743	1743	(b) The director shall recommend rules and regulations for laboratory
1744	1744	testing performed under this act concerning:
1745	1745	(1) The cleanliness and orderliness of the premises of a licensed
1746	1746	laboratory and the establishing of licensed laboratories in secured
1747	1747	locations;
1748	1748	(2) the inspection, cleaning and maintenance of any equipment or
1749	1749	utensils used for the analysis of test samples;
1750	1750	(3) testing procedures and standards for cannabinoid and terpenoid
1751	1751	potency and safe levels of contaminants and appropriate remediation and
1752	1752	validation procedures;
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1796	1796	(4) controlled access areas for storage of medical cannabis, medical
1797	1797	cannabis concentrate and medical cannabis product test samples, waste
1798	1798	and reference standards;
1799	1799	(5) the establishment by the laboratory of a system, including
1800	1800	computer systems to be utilized by the laboratory, to retain and maintain
1801	1801	all required records, including business records, and processes to ensure
1802	1802	results are reported in a timely and accurate manner;
1803	1803	(6) the possession, storage and use by the laboratory of reagents,
1804	1804	solutions and reference standards;
1805	1805	(7) a certificate of analysis for each lot of reference standard;
1806	1806	(8) the transport and disposal of unused medical cannabis, medical
1807	1807	cannabis concentrate and medical cannabis product and waste;
1808	1808	(9) the mandatory use by a laboratory of an inventory tracking system
1809	1809	to ensure all test harvest and production batches or samples containing
1810	1810	medical cannabis, medical cannabis concentrate or medical cannabis
1811	1811	products are identified and tracked from the point such substances are
1812	1812	transferred from an entity holding a license issued pursuant to section 20,
1813	1813	and amendments thereto, or a registered patient or caregiver through the
1814	1814	point of transfer, destruction or disposal. The inventory tracking system
1815	1815	reporting shall include the results of any tests that are conducted;
1816	1816	(10) the employment of laboratory personnel;
1817	1817	(11) a written standard operating procedure manual to be maintained
1818	1818	and updated by the laboratory;
1819	1819	(12) the successful participation in a proficiency testing program
1820	1820	approved by the director for conducting testing required by section 25, and
1821	1821	amendments thereto, in order to obtain and maintain certification;
1822	1822	(13) the establishment of and adherence to a quality assurance and
1823	1823	quality control program to ensure sufficient monitoring of laboratory
1824	1824	processes and the quality of results reported;
1825	1825	(14) the immediate recall of medical cannabis, medical cannabis
1826	1826	concentrate or medical cannabis products that test above allowable
1827	1827	thresholds or are otherwise determined to be unsafe;
1828	1828	(15) the establishment by the laboratory of a system to document the
1829	1829	complete chain of custody for samples from receipt through disposal; and
1830	1830	(16) any other aspect of laboratory testing of medical cannabis,
1831	1831	medical cannabis concentrate or medical cannabis product deemed
1832	1832	necessary by the director.
1833	1833	New Sec. 25. (a) (1) The issuance of a laboratory license shall be
1834	1834	contingent upon a successful on-site inspection, participation in
1835	1835	proficiency testing and ongoing compliance with the requirements of this
1836	1836	act. The laboratory premises specified in the license application shall be
1837	1837	inspected prior to initial licensure and not more than six times annually by
1838	1838	an inspector approved by the director.
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1882	1882	(2) On and after July 1, 2024, accreditation by the national
1883	1883	environmental laboratory accreditation program, ANSI national
1884	1884	accreditation board or another accrediting body approved by the director
1885	1885	shall be required for licensure and renewal of licensure of a laboratory
1886	1886	license.
1887	1887	(b) No ownership interest in a licensed laboratory shall be held by a
1888	1888	person who has a direct or indirect beneficial ownership interest in any
1889	1889	licensed cultivator, processor, distributor or retail dispensary. A licensed
1890	1890	laboratory shall establish policies to prevent the existence of or the
1891	1891	appearance of undue commercial, financial or other influences that
1892	1892	diminish or have the effect of diminishing the public confidence in the
1893	1893	competency, impartiality and integrity of the testing processes or results of
1894	1894	such laboratory. Such policies shall prohibit employees, owners or agents
1895	1895	of a laboratory who participate in any aspect of the analysis and results of
1896	1896	a sample from improperly influencing the testing process, manipulating
1897	1897	data or benefiting from any ongoing financial, employment, personal or
1898	1898	business relationship with the licensed entity that submitted the sample for
1899	1899	testing.
1900	1900	(c) A licensed laboratory shall retain all results of laboratory tests
1901	1901	conducted on medical cannabis, medical cannabis concentrate or medical
1902	1902	cannabis products for a period of at least two years and shall promptly
1903	1903	provide the director access to such results and the underlying data. The
1904	1904	director shall also have access to the laboratory premises and any material
1905	1905	or information requested by the director to determine compliance with the
1906	1906	requirements of this act.
1907	1907	(d) A licensed laboratory shall establish standards, policies and
1908	1908	procedures for laboratory testing procedures in accordance with rules and
1909	1909	regulations adopted by the secretary of revenue. Samples from each
1910	1910	harvest batch or product batch, as appropriate, of medical cannabis,
1911	1911	medical cannabis concentrate and medical cannabis product shall be tested
1912	1912	for each of the following categories:
1913	1913	(1) Microbials;
1914	1914	(2) mycotoxins;
1915	1915	(3) residual solvents;
1916	1916	(4) pesticides;
1917	1917	(5) tetrahydrocannabinol and other cannabinoid potency;
1918	1918	(6) terpenoid potency type and concentration;
1919	1919	(7) moisture content;
1920	1920	(8) homogeneity; and
1921	1921	(9) heavy metals.
1922	1922	(e) (1) For testing and research purposes only, including the provision
1923	1923	of testing services for samples submitted for product development, a
1924	1924	licensee may accept test samples of medical cannabis, medical cannabis
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1968	1968	concentrate or medical cannabis product from any entity:
1969	1969	(A) Holding a license issued pursuant to section 20, and amendments
1970	1970	thereto; or
1971	1971	(B) designated in section 47, and amendments thereto.
1972	1972	(2) A licensee may accept test samples of medical cannabis, medical
1973	1973	cannabis concentrate and medical cannabis products from an individual
1974	1974	person for testing if such person is a:
1975	1975	(A) Registered patient or caregiver and such person provides the
1976	1976	laboratory with the individual's registration identification and a valid photo
1977	1977	identification; or
1978	1978	(B) participant in an approved clinical or observational study
1979	1979	conducted by any entity designated in section 47, and amendments thereto.
1980	1980	(3) A licensee may transfer samples to another licensed laboratory for
1981	1981	testing. All laboratory reports provided to or by an entity holding a license
1982	1982	issued pursuant to section 20, and amendments thereto, or to a patient or
1983	1983	caregiver shall identify the licensed laboratory that performed the testing
1984	1984	of the sample. A licensee may utilize a licensed distributor to transport
1985	1985	samples for testing from the licensed premises requesting testing services
1986	1986	and the licensed laboratory performing testing services.
1987	1987	(f) A licensee shall employ only those individuals who hold an
1988	1988	employee license issued pursuant to section 29, and amendments thereto,
1989	1989	and have completed the training requirements established by rules and
1990	1990	regulations adopted by the secretary of revenue.
1991	1991	New Sec. 26. (a) A processor licensee may:
1992	1992	(1) Purchase or receive medical cannabis from one or more licensed
1993	1993	cultivators or processors;
1994	1994	(2) subject to subsection (b), process medical cannabis obtained from
1995	1995	one or more licensed cultivators into a form described in section 30, and
1996	1996	amendments thereto; and
1997	1997	(3) transport, deliver or sell processed medical cannabis, medical
1998	1998	cannabis concentrate and medical cannabis products to one or more
1999	1999	licensed processors, distributors or retail dispensaries.
2000	2000	(b) When packaging medical cannabis, medical cannabis concentrate
2001	2001	and medical cannabis products, a licensed processor shall comply with any
2002	2002	packaging and labeling requirements established by rules and regulations
2003	2003	adopted by the secretary of revenue.
2004	2004	(c) A processor shall employ only those individuals who hold an
2005	2005	employee license issued pursuant to section 29, and amendments thereto,
2006	2006	and have completed the training requirements established by rules and
2007	2007	regulations adopted by the secretary of revenue.
2008	2008	New Sec. 27. (a) A distributor licensee may:
2009	2009	(1) Purchase at wholesale medical cannabis, medical cannabis
2010	2010	concentrate and medical cannabis products from one or more licensed
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2054	2054	cultivators or processors;
2055	2055	(2) store medical cannabis, medical cannabis concentrate and medical
2056	2056	cannabis products obtained from one or more licensed cultivators or
2057	2057	processors in a form described in section 30, and amendments thereto; and
2058	2058	(3) transport, deliver, package or sell medical cannabis and medical
2059	2059	cannabis products in a form described in section 30, and amendments
2060	2060	thereto, to one or more licensed retail dispensaries.
2061	2061	(b) When storing or selling medical cannabis, a licensed distributor
2062	2062	shall comply with any packaging and labeling requirements established by
2063	2063	rules and regulations adopted by the secretary of revenue.
2064	2064	(c) A distributor shall employ only those individuals who hold an
2065	2065	employee license issued pursuant to section 29, and amendments thereto,
2066	2066	and have completed the training requirements established by rules and
2067	2067	regulations adopted by the secretary of revenue.
2068	2068	New Sec. 28. (a) A retail dispensary licensee may purchase or receive
2069	2069	medical cannabis and medical cannabis products from one or more
2070	2070	licensed cultivators, processors or distributors and may dispense and sell
2071	2071	medical cannabis and medical cannabis products in accordance with
2072	2072	subsection (b).
2073	2073	(b) When dispensing and selling medical cannabis and medical
2074	2074	cannabis products, a retail dispensary shall:
2075	2075	(1) Dispense and sell medical cannabis and medical cannabis
2076	2076	products only to a person who provides the licensee with a current, valid
2077	2077	patient or caregiver identification card and only in accordance with a
2078	2078	written recommendation issued by a physician; and
2079	2079	(2) comply with any packaging and labeling requirements established
2080	2080	by rules and regulations adopted by the secretary of revenue, including,
2081	2081	but not limited to, labeling medical cannabis and medical cannabis
2082	2082	products with the following information:
2083	2083	(A) The name and address of the licensed cultivator or processor that
2084	2084	produced the medical cannabis or medical cannabis product and the retail
2085	2085	dispensary;
2086	2086	(B) the name of the patient and caregiver, if any;
2087	2087	(C) the name of the physician who issued the written
2088	2088	recommendation;
2089	2089	(D) the directions for use, if any, as recommended by the physician;
2090	2090	(E) the health warning as specified in rules and regulations adopted
2091	2091	by the secretary of health and environment;
2092	2092	(F) the date on which the medical cannabis or medical cannabis
2093	2093	product was dispensed; and
2094	2094	(G) the quantity, strength, kind or form of medical cannabis contained
2095	2095	in the package.
2096	2096	(c) A retail dispensary shall employ only those individuals who hold
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2140	2140	an employee license issued pursuant to section 29, and amendments
2141	2141	thereto, and have completed the training requirements established by rules
2142	2142	and regulations adopted by the secretary of revenue.
2143	2143	(d) A retail dispensary shall designate a consultant who is registered
2144	2144	as a consultant pursuant to section 39, and amendments thereto.
2145	2145	(e) A retail dispensary shall not make public any information received
2146	2146	or collected by such licensee that identifies or would tend to identify any
2147	2147	specific patient.
2148	2148	New Sec. 29. (a) Each individual who seeks to be employed by a
2149	2149	person holding a license issued pursuant to section 20, and amendments
2150	2150	thereto, shall submit an application for an employee license to the director
2151	2151	in such form and manner as prescribed by the director. The director shall
2152	2152	issue a license to an applicant if all of the following conditions are met:
2153	2153	(1) The criminal history record check conducted pursuant to section
2154	2154	45, and amendments thereto, demonstrates that the applicant is not
2155	2155	disqualified from holding a license pursuant to section 20, and
2156	2156	amendments thereto; and
2157	2157	(2) the applicant meets all other licensure eligibility conditions
2158	2158	established in rules and regulations adopted by the secretary of revenue
2159	2159	and has paid all required fees.
2160	2160	(b) An employee license shall be valid for a period of one year from
2161	2161	the effective date as specified on the license and may be renewed by
2162	2162	submitting a license renewal application and paying the required fee.
2163	2163	(c) A license issued pursuant to this section shall not be associated
2164	2164	with a specific licensed cultivator, laboratory, processor, distributor or
2165	2165	retail dispensary. The holder of an employee license may be employed by
2166	2166	any such licensee.
2167	2167	New Sec. 30. (a) Only the following forms of medical cannabis may
2168	2168	be dispensed under the medical cannabis regulation act:
2169	2169	(1) Oils;
2170	2170	(2) tinctures, including, but not limited to, sublingual tinctures;
2171	2171	(3) plant material;
2172	2172	(4) edibles;
2173	2173	(5) topical creams and ointments;
2174	2174	(6) vaginal and anal suppositories;
2175	2175	(7) forms appropriate for administration by vaporization or
2176	2176	nebulization; or
2177	2177	(8) any other form approved by the secretary of revenue under section
2178	2178	31, and amendments thereto.
2179	2179	(b) Any form or method of using medical cannabis that is considered
2180	2180	attractive to children is prohibited.
2181	2181	(c) No form of medical cannabis shall be dispensed from a vending
2182	2182	machine or through electronic commerce.
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2226	2226	New Sec. 31. (a) Any person may submit a petition to the director
2227	2227	requesting that a form or method of using medical cannabis be approved
2228	2228	for the purposes of section 30, and amendments thereto. The petition shall
2229	2229	be submitted in such form and manner as prescribed by the director.
2230	2230	(b) Upon receipt of a petition, the director shall review such petition
2231	2231	to determine whether to recommend approval of the form or method of
2232	2232	using medical cannabis described in the petition. The director may
2233	2233	consolidate the review of petitions for the same or similar forms or
2234	2234	methods. The director shall consult with the medical cannabis advisory
2235	2235	committee and review any relevant scientific evidence when reviewing a
2236	2236	petition. The director shall recommend to the secretary of revenue whether
2237	2237	to approve or deny the proposed form or method of using medical
2238	2238	cannabis. The secretary shall approve or deny such proposed form or
2239	2239	method. The secretary's decision shall be final.
2240	2240	(c) Any petition for a proposed form or method of using medical
2241	2241	cannabis that is substantially the same as a petition that was denied by the
2242	2242	secretary during the immediately preceding 12 months shall be rejected
2243	2243	without recommendation to the secretary.
2244	2244	New Sec. 32. (a) The fees for licenses issued by the director pursuant
2245	2245	to this act shall be set by rules and regulations adopted by the secretary of
2246	2246	revenue in accordance with this section.
2247	2247	(b) The fees for a cultivator license shall be:
2248	2248	(1) $2,500 for a cultivator license application or application for the
2249	2249	renewal thereof; and
2250	2250	(2) (A) $2,500 for a cultivator license for not more than 10,000
2251	2251	square feet of canopy;
2252	2252	(B) $5,000 for a cultivator license for more than 10,000 square feet
2253	2253	but not more than 20,000 square feet of canopy;
2254	2254	(C) $10,000 for a cultivator license for more than 20,000 square feet
2255	2255	but not more than 40,000 square feet of canopy;
2256	2256	(D) $20,000 for a cultivator license for more than 40,000 square feet
2257	2257	but not more than 60,000 square feet of canopy;
2258	2258	(E) $30,000 for a cultivator license for more than 60,000 square feet
2259	2259	but not more than 80,000 square feet of canopy;
2260	2260	(F) $40,000 for a cultivator license for more than 80,000 square feet
2261	2261	but not more than 99,999 square feet of canopy; and
2262	2262	(G) $50,000 for a cultivator license for 100,000 square feet of canopy
2263	2263	plus an additional $0.25 for each square foot of canopy in excess of
2264	2264	100,000.
2265	2265	(c) The fees for a processor license shall be:
2266	2266	(1) $2,500 for a processor license application or application for the
2267	2267	renewal thereof; and
2268	2268	(2) (A) $2,500 for a processor license for not more than 10,000
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2312	2312	pounds of biomass or the production or use of not more than 100 liters of
2313	2313	cannabis concentrate;
2314	2314	(B) $5,000 for a processor license for more than 10,000 pounds but
2315	2315	not more than 50,000 pounds of biomass or the production or use of more
2316	2316	than 100 liters but not more than 350 liters of cannabis concentrate;
2317	2317	(C) $10,000 for a processor license for more than 50,000 pounds but
2318	2318	not more than 150,000 pounds of biomass or the production or use of more
2319	2319	than 350 liters but not more than 650 liters of cannabis concentrate;
2320	2320	(D) $15,000 for a processor license for more than 150,000 pounds but
2321	2321	not more than 300,000 pounds of biomass or the production or use of more
2322	2322	than 650 liters but not more than 1,000 liters of cannabis concentrate; and
2323	2323	(E) $20,000 for a processor license for more than 300,000 pounds of
2324	2324	biomass or the production or use of more than 1,000 liters of cannabis
2325	2325	concentrate.
2326	2326	(d) The fees for a distributor license shall be:
2327	2327	(1) $2,500 for a distributor license application or application for the
2328	2328	renewal thereof; and
2329	2329	(2) $20,000 for a distributor license or the renewal thereof.
2330	2330	(e) The fees for a retail dispensary license shall be:
2331	2331	(1) $2,500 for a retail dispensary license application or application for
2332	2332	the renewal thereof; and
2333	2333	(2) an amount equal to 10% of the aggregate amount of retail sales
2334	2334	tax levied on sales of medical cannabis by the retail dispensary licensee for
2335	2335	the immediately preceding 12 months, but in no event shall the fee be less
2336	2336	than $2,500 or more than $10,000 for a retail dispensary license or the
2337	2337	renewal thereof.
2338	2338	(f) The fees for a laboratory license shall be:
2339	2339	(1) $2,500 for a laboratory license application or application for the
2340	2340	renewal thereof; and
2341	2341	(2) $20,000 for a laboratory license or the renewal thereof.
2342	2342	(g) The fee for an employee license shall be in an amount not to
2343	2343	exceed $50.
2344	2344	(h) All fees imposed pursuant to subsections (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f)
2345	2345	shall not be refundable.
2346	2346	New Sec. 33. (a) The director may refuse to issue or renew a license,
2347	2347	or may revoke or suspend a license if the applicant has:
2348	2348	(1) Failed to comply with any provision of the medical cannabis
2349	2349	regulation act, any rules and regulations adopted thereunder or any lawful
2350	2350	order issued by the director;
2351	2351	(2) failed to adhere to any acknowledgment, verification or other
2352	2352	representation made to the director when applying for a license; or
2353	2353	(3) failed to submit or disclose information requested by the director.
2354	2354	(b) The director shall refuse to issue or renew a license and shall
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2398	2398	revoke a license if the applicant has falsified or misrepresented any
2399	2399	information submitted to the director in order to obtain a license.
2400	2400	New Sec. 34. (a) In addition to or in lieu of any other civil or criminal
2401	2401	penalty as provided by law, the director may impose a civil penalty or
2402	2402	suspend or revoke a license upon a finding that the licensee committed a
2403	2403	violation as provided in this section.
2404	2404	(b) (1) Upon a finding that a licensee has submitted fraudulent
2405	2405	information or otherwise falsified or misrepresented information required
2406	2406	to be submitted by such licensee, the director may impose a civil fine in an
2407	2407	amount not to exceed $5,000 for a first offense and may suspend or revoke
2408	2408	such licensee's license for a second or subsequent offense.
2409	2409	(2) (A) Except as provided in paragraph (B), upon a finding that a
2410	2410	licensee has cultivated, tested, processed, sold, transferred or otherwise
2411	2411	distributed medical cannabis in violation of this act, the director may
2412	2412	impose a civil fine in an amount not to exceed $5,000 for a first offense
2413	2413	and may suspend or revoke such licensee's license for a second or
2414	2414	subsequent offense.
2415	2415	(B) Upon a finding that a retail dispensary licensee has knowingly
2416	2416	disclosed patient information to any individual, the director shall impose a
2417	2417	civil fine in an amount not to exceed $5,000 and revoke such licensee's
2418	2418	license.
2419	2419	(c) The director may require any licensee to submit a sample of
2420	2420	medical cannabis, medical cannabis concentrate or medical cannabis
2421	2421	product to a laboratory upon demand.
2422	2422	(d) If the director suspends, revokes or refuses to renew any license
2423	2423	issued pursuant to this act and determines that there is clear and
2424	2424	convincing evidence of a danger of immediate and serious harm to any
2425	2425	person, the director may place under seal all medical cannabis owned by or
2426	2426	in the possession, custody or control of the affected license holder. Except
2427	2427	as provided in this section, the director shall not dispose of the sealed
2428	2428	medical cannabis until a final order is issued authorizing such disposition.
2429	2429	During the pendency of an appeal from any order by the director, a court
2430	2430	may order the director to sell medical cannabis that is perishable, and the
2431	2431	proceeds of any such sale shall be deposited with the court.
2432	2432	New Sec. 35. (a) Any citation issued by an agent of the division of
2433	2433	alcohol and cannabis control for a violation of the medical cannabis
2434	2434	regulation act shall be delivered to the licensee or a person in charge of the
2435	2435	licensed premises at the time of the alleged violation. A copy of such
2436	2436	citation also shall be delivered by United States mail to the licensee within
2437	2437	30 days of the alleged violation.
2438	2438	(b) Any duly authorized law enforcement officer who observes a
2439	2439	violation of the medical cannabis regulation act may, after serving notice
2440	2440	to the licensee or a person in charge of the licensed premises, submit a
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2484	2484	report of such violation to the division of alcohol and cannabis control for
2485	2485	review. Upon receipt of such report, the director shall review the report
2486	2486	and determine if administrative action will be taken against the licensee. If
2487	2487	the director determines that administrative action will be taken, an
2488	2488	administrative citation and notice of administrative action shall be
2489	2489	delivered by United States mail to the licensee within 30 days of the date
2490	2490	of the alleged violation.
2491	2491	(c) The notice required to be served to the licensee or a person in
2492	2492	charge of the licensed premises at the time of the alleged violation
2493	2493	pursuant to subsection (b) shall be in writing and shall contain the
2494	2494	following:
2495	2495	(1) The name of the licensee;
2496	2496	(2) the date and time of the alleged violation;
2497	2497	(3) a description of the alleged violation; and
2498	2498	(4) a statement that a report of the alleged violation will be submitted
2499	2499	to the division of alcohol and cannabis control for review.
2500	2500	(d) Any citations not issued in accordance with the provisions of this
2501	2501	section shall be void and unenforceable.
2502	2502	(e) For purposes of this section, the term "person in charge" means
2503	2503	any individual or employee present on the licensed premises at the time of
2504	2504	the alleged violation who is responsible for the operation of the licensed
2505	2505	premises. If no designated individual or employee is a person in charge,
2506	2506	then any employee present is the person in charge.
2507	2507	New Sec. 36. (a) There is hereby established the medical cannabis
2508	2508	business regulation fund in the state treasury. The director of alcohol and
2509	2509	cannabis control shall administer the medical cannabis business regulation
2510	2510	fund and shall remit all moneys collected from the payment by licensees of
2511	2511	all fees and fines imposed by the director pursuant to the medical cannabis
2512	2512	regulation act and any other moneys received by or on behalf of the
2513	2513	director pursuant to such act to the state treasurer in accordance with the
2514	2514	provisions of K.S.A. 75-4215, and amendments thereto. Upon receipt of
2515	2515	each such remittance, the state treasurer shall deposit the entire amount in
2516	2516	the state treasury to the credit of the medical cannabis business regulation
2517	2517	fund. Moneys credited to the medical cannabis business regulation fund
2518	2518	shall only be expended or transferred as provided in this section.
2519	2519	Expenditures from such fund shall be made in accordance with
2520	2520	appropriation acts upon warrants of the director of accounts and reports
2521	2521	issued pursuant to vouchers approved by the director or the director's
2522	2522	designee.
2523	2523	(b) Moneys in the medical cannabis business regulation fund shall be
2524	2524	used for the payment or reimbursement of costs related to the regulation
2525	2525	and enforcement of the cultivation, testing, distributing, possession,
2526	2526	processing and sale of medical cannabis by the division of alcohol and
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2570	2570	cannabis control.
2571	2571	New Sec. 37. (a) On or before July 1, 2024, the director shall propose
2572	2572	rules and regulations to administer the medical cannabis regulation
2573	2573	program and implement and enforce the provisions of the medical
2574	2574	cannabis regulation act. The secretary of revenue shall, after consulting
2575	2575	with the medical cannabis advisory committee, adopt rules and regulations
2576	2576	to administer the medical cannabis regulation program and implement and
2577	2577	enforce the provisions of this act. Such rules and regulations shall:
2578	2578	(1) Establish application procedures and fees for licenses issued
2579	2579	under sections 20 and 29, and amendments thereto;
2580	2580	(2) specify the conditions for eligibility for licensure;
2581	2581	(3) establish a license renewal schedule, renewal procedures and
2582	2582	renewal fees;
2583	2583	(4) establish standards and procedures for the testing of medical
2584	2584	cannabis by a licensed laboratory;
2585	2585	(5) establish official packaging and labeling requirements that:
2586	2586	(A) Designate the package as Kansas medical cannabis;
2587	2587	(B) include the information required under section 28, and
2588	2588	amendments thereto;
2589	2589	(C) ensure the packaging is not attractive to children;
2590	2590	(D) ensure the packaging is tamper-proof and child-resistant; and
2591	2591	(E) all labels are exclusively in black and white;
2592	2592	(6) specify licensed premises security requirements in accordance
2593	2593	with section 44, and amendments thereto; and
2594	2594	(7) establish training requirements for employees of licensed
2595	2595	cultivators, laboratories, processors, distributors and retail dispensaries.
2596	2596	(b) When adopting rules and regulations, the secretary shall consider
2597	2597	standards and procedures that have been found to be best practices relative
2598	2598	to the use and regulation of medical cannabis.
2599	2599	New Sec. 38. On or before July 1, 2024, the state board of pharmacy
2600	2600	shall adopt rules and regulations establishing the requirements for the
2601	2601	registration of consultants, including the fee for such registration and the
2602	2602	renewal thereof.
2603	2603	New Sec. 39. (a) Any pharmacist or mid-level practitioner, as defined
2604	2604	in K.S.A. 65-1626, and amendments thereto, who seeks to operate as a
2605	2605	consultant for a retail dispensary shall register with the state board of
2606	2606	pharmacy in accordance with rules and regulations adopted by the board.
2607	2607	(b) In operating as a consultant for a retail dispensary, such consultant
2608	2608	shall:
2609	2609	(1) Not charge a fee for such consultant's services that exceeds 1% of
2610	2610	the gross annual receipts of such retail dispensary;
2611	2611	(2) audit each recommendation for use of medical cannabis and verify
2612	2612	that any medical cannabis dispensed to a patient or caregiver is in
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2656	2656	accordance with such recommendation;
2657	2657	(3) develop and provide training to retail dispensary employees at
2658	2658	least once every 12 months that:
2659	2659	(A) Establishes guidelines for providing information to registered
2660	2660	patients related to risks, benefits and side effects associated with medical
2661	2661	cannabis;
2662	2662	(B) explains how to identify the signs and symptoms of substance
2663	2663	abuse;
2664	2664	(C) establishes guidelines for refusing to provide medical cannabis to
2665	2665	an individual who appears to be impaired or abusing medical cannabis;
2666	2666	and
2667	2667	(D) assists in the development and implementation of review and
2668	2668	improvement processes for patient education and support provided by the
2669	2669	retail dispensary;
2670	2670	(4) provide oversight for the development and dissemination of:
2671	2671	(A) Education materials for qualifying patients and designated
2672	2672	caregivers that include:
2673	2673	(i) Information about possible side effects and contraindications of
2674	2674	medical cannabis;
2675	2675	(ii) guidelines for notifying the physician who provided the written
2676	2676	recommendation for medical cannabis if side effects or contraindications
2677	2677	occur;
2678	2678	(iii) a description of the potential effects of differing strengths of
2679	2679	medical cannabis strains and products;
2680	2680	(iv) information about potential drug-to-drug interactions, including
2681	2681	interactions with alcohol, prescription drugs, nonprescription drugs and
2682	2682	supplements;
2683	2683	(v) techniques for the use of medical cannabis, medical cannabis
2684	2684	products and paraphernalia for the use of medical cannabis; and
2685	2685	(vi) information about different methods, forms and routes of medical
2686	2686	cannabis administration;
2687	2687	(B) systems for documentation by a registered patient or designated
2688	2688	caregiver of the symptoms of a registered patient that includes a logbook,
2689	2689	rating scale for pain and symptoms and guidelines for a patient's self-
2690	2690	assessment; and
2691	2691	(C) policies and procedures for refusing to provide medical cannabis
2692	2692	to an individual who appears to be impaired or abusing medical cannabis;
2693	2693	and
2694	2694	(5) be accessible by telephone or video conference to the retail
2695	2695	dispensary and for a patient consultation during operating hours.
2696	2696	(c) The state board of pharmacy shall establish a fee for registration
2697	2697	as a consultant that shall not exceed $100.
2698	2698	(d) Each consultant shall renew such consultant's registration
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2742	2742	annually upon submitting a renewal application along with payment of the
2743	2743	required fee in such form and manner as prescribed by the board.
2744	2744	New Sec. 40. (a) There is hereby established the retail dispensary
2745	2745	consultant registration fee fund in the state treasury. The state board of
2746	2746	pharmacy shall administer the retail dispensary consultant registration fee
2747	2747	fund and shall remit all moneys collected from the payment by consultants
2748	2748	of all fees and fines imposed by the state board pursuant to the medical
2749	2749	cannabis regulation act and any other moneys received by or on behalf of
2750	2750	the state board pursuant to such act to the state treasurer in accordance
2751	2751	with the provisions of K.S.A. 75-4215, and amendments thereto. Upon
2752	2752	receipt of each such remittance, the state treasurer shall deposit the entire
2753	2753	amount in the state treasury to the credit of the retail dispensary consultant
2754	2754	registration fee fund. Moneys credited to the retail dispensary consultant
2755	2755	registration fee fund shall only be expended or transferred as provided in
2756	2756	this section. Expenditures from such fund shall be made in accordance
2757	2757	with appropriation acts upon warrants of the director of accounts and
2758	2758	reports issued pursuant to vouchers approved by the state board or the state
2759	2759	board's designee.
2760	2760	(b) Moneys in the retail dispensary consultant registration fee fund
2761	2761	shall be used for the payment or reimbursement of costs related to the
2762	2762	regulation and registration of consultants by the state board of pharmacy.
2763	2763	New Sec. 41. (a) The director shall establish and maintain an
2764	2764	electronic database to monitor medical cannabis from its seed source
2765	2765	through its cultivation, testing, processing, distribution and dispensing,
2766	2766	giving preference to systems that include tracking each plant beginning
2767	2767	with the plant's in vitro genetic origination data. The director may contract
2768	2768	with a separate entity to establish and maintain all or any portion of the
2769	2769	electronic database on behalf of the division of alcohol and cannabis
2770	2770	control.
2771	2771	(b) The electronic database shall allow for information regarding
2772	2772	medical cannabis to be updated instantaneously. Any licensed cultivator,
2773	2773	laboratory, processor, distributor or retail dispensary shall submit such
2774	2774	information to the director as the director determines is necessary for
2775	2775	maintaining the electronic database, including any manifest or other
2776	2776	shipping documents for seeds or seedlings shipped into this state.
2777	2777	(c) The director, any employee of the division, any entity under
2778	2778	contract with the director and any employee or agent thereof shall not
2779	2779	make public any information reported to or collected by the director under
2780	2780	this section that identifies or would tend to identify any specific patient.
2781	2781	Such information shall be kept confidential to protect the privacy of the
2782	2782	patient. The provisions of this subsection shall expire on July 1, 2029,
2783	2783	unless the legislature reviews and reenacts such provisions in accordance
2784	2784	with K.S.A. 45-229, and amendments thereto, prior to July 1, 2029.
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2828	2828	New Sec. 42. (a) There shall be no direct or indirect cooperative
2829	2829	advertising between or among two or more licensed cultivators, retail
2830	2830	dispensaries or physicians, or any combination thereof, where such
2831	2831	advertising has the purpose or effect of steering or influencing patient or
2832	2832	caregiver choice with regard to the selection of a physician, retail
2833	2833	dispensary or source of medical cannabis.
2834	2834	(b) All advertisements for medical cannabis or medical cannabis
2835	2835	products that make a statement relating to side effects, contraindications
2836	2836	and effectiveness shall present a true statement of such information. When
2837	2837	applicable, advertisements broadcast through media, including, but not
2838	2838	limited to, radio, television or any other electronic media, shall include
2839	2839	such information in the audio or audio and visual parts of the broadcast.
2840	2840	False or misleading information in any part of the advertisement shall not
2841	2841	be corrected by the inclusion of a true statement in another, distinct part of
2842	2842	the advertisement.
2843	2843	(c) An advertisement is false or otherwise misleading if such
2844	2844	advertisement:
2845	2845	(1) Contains a representation or suggestion that a medical cannabis
2846	2846	brand or product is better, more effective, useful in a broader range of
2847	2847	conditions or patients or safer than other drugs or treatments, including
2848	2848	other medical cannabis brands or products, unless such a claim has been
2849	2849	demonstrated by substantial evidence or substantial clinical experience;
2850	2850	(2) contains favorable information or opinions about a medical
2851	2851	cannabis brand or product previously regarded as valid but that have been
2852	2852	rendered invalid by contrary and more recent credible information;
2853	2853	(3) uses a quote or paraphrase out of context or without citing
2854	2854	conflicting information from the same source to convey a false or
2855	2855	misleading idea;
2856	2856	(4) cites or refers to a study on individuals without a qualifying
2857	2857	medical condition without disclosing that the subjects were not suffering
2858	2858	from a qualifying medical condition;
2859	2859	(5) uses data favorable to a medical cannabis product derived from
2860	2860	patients treated with a product or dosages different from those approved in
2861	2861	this state;
2862	2862	(6) contains favorable information or conclusions from a study that is
2863	2863	inadequate in design, scope or conduct to furnish significant support for
2864	2864	such information or conclusions; or
2865	2865	(7) fails to provide adequate emphasis for the fact that two or more
2866	2866	facing pages are part of the same advertisement when only one page
2867	2867	contains information relating to side effects, consequences and
2868	2868	contraindications.
2869	2869	(d) An advertisement for medical cannabis or medical cannabis
2870	2870	products shall not contain any:
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2914	2914	(1) Statement that is false or misleading in any material particular or
2915	2915	is otherwise in violation of the Kansas consumer protection act;
2916	2916	(2) statement that falsely disparages a competitor's products;
2917	2917	(3) statement, design or representation, picture or illustration that:
2918	2918	(A) Is obscene or indecent;
2919	2919	(B) encourages or represents the recreational use of cannabis or the
2920	2920	use of medical cannabis for a condition other than a qualifying medical
2921	2921	condition;
2922	2922	(C) relates to the safety or efficacy of medical cannabis unless
2923	2923	supported by substantial evidence or substantial clinical data; or
2924	2924	(D) portrays anyone under 18 years of age or contains the use of a
2925	2925	figure, symbol or language that is customarily associated with anyone
2926	2926	under 18 years of age;
2927	2927	(4) offer of a prize or award to a registered patient, caregiver or
2928	2928	physician related to the purchase of medical cannabis; or
2929	2929	(5) statement that indicates or implies that the product or entity in the
2930	2930	advertisement has been approved or endorsed by the secretary of health
2931	2931	and environment, the director, the state of Kansas or any person or entity
2932	2932	associated with the state.
2933	2933	(e) No advertisement shall be broadcast or otherwise disseminated if
2934	2934	the submitter of the advertisement has received information that has not
2935	2935	been widely publicized in medical literature that the use of the medical
2936	2936	cannabis product may cause fatalities or serious harm.
2937	2937	(f) The director may:
2938	2938	(1) Require that a specific disclosure be made in an advertisement in
2939	2939	a clear and conspicuous manner, if the director determines that such
2940	2940	advertisement would be false or misleading without such a disclosure; or
2941	2941	(2) make recommendations with respect to changes to such
2942	2942	advertisement that are:
2943	2943	(A) Necessary to protect the public health, safety and welfare; or
2944	2944	(B) consistent with dispensing information for the medical cannabis
2945	2945	or medical cannabis product that is the subject of such advertisment.
2946	2946	(g) A retail dispensary shall not:
2947	2947	(1) Advertise medical cannabis brand names or utilize graphics
2948	2948	related to cannabis or paraphernalia on the exterior of the building or
2949	2949	grounds of the licensed premises of such retail dispensary; or
2950	2950	(2) display any medical cannabis or paraphernalia that is clearly
2951	2951	visible from the exterior of such retail dispensary.
2952	2952	(h) Medical cannabis shall not be advertised for sale by any
2953	2953	cultivator, processor or distributor, except that such licensees may make a
2954	2954	price list available to a retail dispensary.
2955	2955	New Sec. 43. (a) Except as otherwise provided, no cultivator,
2956	2956	laboratory, processor, distributor or retail dispensary shall be located
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3000	3000	within 1,000 feet of the boundaries of a parcel of real estate having
3001	3001	situated on it a school, religious organization, public library or public park.
3002	3002	If the relocation of a cultivator, laboratory, processor, distributor or retail
3003	3003	dispensary results in such licensee being located within 1,000 feet of the
3004	3004	boundaries of a parcel of real estate having situated on it a school,
3005	3005	religious organization, public library or public park, the director shall
3006	3006	revoke the license of such cultivator, laboratory, processor, distributor or
3007	3007	retail dispensary.
3008	3008	(b) (1) The director shall not revoke the license of a cultivator,
3009	3009	laboratory, processor, distributor or retail dispensary if such licensee
3010	3010	existed at a location prior to the establishment of a school, religious
3011	3011	organization, public library or public park that is located on real estate that
3012	3012	is within 1,000 feet of such licensee.
3013	3013	(2) Any applicant for a license may petition for and receive an
3014	3014	exemption from the provisions of this section upon approval by the
3015	3015	director if the proposed licensed premises:
3016	3016	(A) Has an industrial zoning classification; and
3017	3017	(B) is located not less than 500 feet of the boundaries of a parcel of
3018	3018	real estate having situated on it a school, religious organization, public
3019	3019	library or public park.
3020	3020	(c) This section shall not apply to research related to cannabis
3021	3021	conducted at a postsecondary educational institution, academic medical
3022	3022	center or private research and development organization as part of a
3023	3023	research protocol approved by an institutional review board or equivalent
3024	3024	entity.
3025	3025	(d) A county may prohibit the operation of retail dispensaries in such
3026	3026	county by adoption of a resolution. Any retail dispensary that is lawfully
3027	3027	operating at the time such resolution is adopted shall be permitted to
3028	3028	continue operating in such county and shall not be denied renewal of any
3029	3029	license based upon the adoption of such resolution.
3030	3030	(e) No license shall be issued for a premises unless such premises
3031	3031	complies with all applicable zoning and building regulations.
3032	3032	(f) As used in this section:
3033	3033	(1) "Public library" means any library established pursuant to article
3034	3034	12 of chapter 12 of the Kansas Statutes Annotated, and amendments
3035	3035	thereto, and any other library that serves the general public and is funded
3036	3036	in whole, or in part, from moneys derived from tax levies;
3037	3037	(2) "public park" means any park or other outdoor recreational area or
3038	3038	facility, including, but not limited to, parks, open spaces, trails, swimming
3039	3039	pools, playgrounds and playing courts and fields established by the state or
3040	3040	any political subdivision thereof;
3041	3041	(3) "religious organization" means any organization, church, body of
3042	3042	communicants or group gathered in common membership for mutual
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3085	3085	43 SB 310 37
3086	3086	support and edification in piety, worship and religious observances or a
3087	3087	society of individuals united for religious purposes at a definite place
3088	3088	owned by such entity that:
3089	3089	(A) Maintains an established place of worship within this state;
3090	3090	(B) has a regular schedule of services or meetings at least on a
3091	3091	weekly basis; and
3092	3092	(C) has been determined to be organized and created as a bona fide
3093	3093	religious organization; and
3094	3094	(4) "school" means any public or private preschool, elementary,
3095	3095	middle or high school or other attendance center for kindergarten or any of
3096	3096	the grades one through 12.
3097	3097	New Sec. 44. (a) The licensed premises for any license issued
3098	3098	pursuant to section 20, and amendments thereto, shall be equipped with
3099	3099	security equipment and measures to prevent unauthorized access to
3100	3100	restricted areas of the premises and the theft, diversion or inversion of
3101	3101	medical cannabis, medical cannabis concentrate or medial cannabis
3102	3102	products.
3103	3103	(b) The licensee of a licensed premises shall install and maintain the
3104	3104	following security equipment for the licensed premises:
3105	3105	(1) Exterior lighting sufficient to illuminate the exterior and perimeter
3106	3106	of the licensed premises to facilitate surveillance of the premises;
3107	3107	(2) electronic video monitoring in accordance with subsection (c);
3108	3108	(3) controlled access to restricted access areas of the premises by
3109	3109	means of electronic card access systems, biometric identification systems
3110	3110	or similar systems that:
3111	3111	(A) Provide for the automatic locking of all external access doors in
3112	3112	the event of power loss; and
3113	3113	(B) records access information by date, time and identity of the
3114	3114	individual accessing restricted access area and maintains such information
3115	3115	for at least one year;
3116	3116	(4) if windows are visible in any restricted access area, windows that
3117	3117	are secured at all times to prevent opening or other access to the restricted
3118	3118	access area via such windows; and
3119	3119	(5) alarm systems that provide:
3120	3120	(A) Immediate, automatic notification of local law enforcement
3121	3121	agencies of any unauthorized breach of the security of the premises; and
3122	3122	(B) manual, silent alarms at each point-of-sale, reception area, vault
3123	3123	and electronic monitoring station that provides for the immediate,
3124	3124	automatic notification of local law enforcement agencies of any
3125	3125	unauthorized breach of the security of the premises.
3126	3126	(c) Any electronic video monitoring system installed and maintained
3127	3127	by a licensee shall:
3128	3128	(1) Include coverage of:
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3171	3171	43 SB 310 38
3172	3172	(A) All entrances to the premises, including all windows and
3173	3173	entrances to restricted access areas;
3174	3174	(B) the exterior and perimeter of the premises;
3175	3175	(C) each point-of-sale location;
3176	3176	(D) all vaults or safes; and
3177	3177	(E) all areas where medical cannabis, medical cannabis concentrate
3178	3178	and medical cannabis products are cultivated, processed or disposed of as
3179	3179	waste;
3180	3180	(2) store all video recordings for at least 60 days in a secure location
3181	3181	on or off the premises or through a secure service or network that provides
3182	3182	on-demand access to such recordings. All such recordings shall be made
3183	3183	available to the director upon request and at the expense of the licensee;
3184	3184	(3) accurately display the date and time of all recorded events in a
3185	3185	manner that does not obstruct the recorded view; and
3186	3186	(4) be installed in a manner that will prevent the video monitoring
3187	3187	equipment from being obstructed, tampered with or disabled.
3188	3188	(d) (1) Each licensee shall notify the director of any malfunction in
3189	3189	security equipment within 24 hours after such malfunction is discovered,
3190	3190	and shall make reasonable efforts to repair such malfunctioning security
3191	3191	equipment within 72 hours after such discovery.
3192	3192	(2) If the malfunctioning equipment is the electronic video
3193	3193	monitoring system, a licensee shall provide for alternative video
3194	3194	monitoring or other security measures until the malfunction can be
3195	3195	repaired. If other security measures are used, the licensee shall notify the
3196	3196	director of the use of such measures and when the electronic video
3197	3197	monitoring system has been repaired.
3198	3198	(3) Each licensee shall maintain a record of all security equipment
3199	3199	malfunctions and repairs for each licensed premises. Each record of a
3200	3200	malfunction shall be maintained for one year from the date of the last entry
3201	3201	for such malfunction. Such record shall include the following:
3202	3202	(A) Date, time and nature of each malfunction;
3203	3203	(B) date and method of repair;
3204	3204	(C) reason for the delay, if any, in making a repair;
3205	3205	(D) use of alternative security measures, if any; and
3206	3206	(E) date and time of communications with the director.
3207	3207	(e) Each licensee shall establish policies and procedures for the
3208	3208	security of the licensed premises. Such policies and procedures shall
3209	3209	include:
3210	3210	(1) Controlling access to all restricted access areas;
3211	3211	(2) verifying the identity of individuals authorized to be in restricted
3212	3212	access areas and individuals authorized to conduct inventory control
3213	3213	activities;
3214	3214	(3) Limiting the amount of money available in the premises and
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3258	3258	notifying any person entering the premises that there is a minimum amount
3259	3259	of money available, including by posting signage;
3260	3260	(4) use of electronic video monitoring systems;
3261	3261	(5) use of alarm systems, including the use of manual, silent alarms;
3262	3262	and
3263	3263	(6) communications with local law enforcement agencies regarding
3264	3264	unauthorized security breaches and the employment and identity of any
3265	3265	armed security personnel by the licensee.
3266	3266	(f) Each licensee shall employ a security manager. A security
3267	3267	manager shall be responsible for:
3268	3268	(1) Conducting semiannual audits of the security equipment and
3269	3269	measures utilized on the licensed premises to ensure compliance with
3270	3270	policies and procedures and to identify any security issues;
3271	3271	(2) training employees, upon employment and at least annually
3272	3272	thereafter, on security measures, emergency response and theft prevention;
3273	3273	and
3274	3274	(3) evaluating the credentials of any contractor, including any
3275	3275	contractor providing any security equipment or measures, who intends to
3276	3276	provide services at the licensed premises prior to such contractor accessing
3277	3277	the premises.
3278	3278	(g) Each licensee shall ensure that the security manager for a licensed
3279	3279	premises and any contractor providing security services for such licensed
3280	3280	premises and any employees of such contractor providing such services
3281	3281	have completed training in security equipment and measures. Such
3282	3282	training shall include:
3283	3283	(1) Prevention of theft, diversion and inversion of medical cannabis;
3284	3284	(2) emergency response procedures;
3285	3285	(3) appropriate use of force;
3286	3286	(4) preservation of a crime scene;
3287	3287	(5) controlling access to restricted access areas of the premises;
3288	3288	(6) at least eight hours of training in providing security services on
3289	3289	the premises; and
3290	3290	(7) at least eight hours of attendance in a course on providing security
3291	3291	services.
3292	3292	(h) Except as provided in subsection (c)(3), each licensee shall retain
3293	3293	all documents related to security equipment and measures and any other
3294	3294	documents related to the operations of the licensed premises for a period
3295	3295	of three years for inspection by the director.
3296	3296	(i) As used in this section, the term "restricted access entrance" means
3297	3297	an entrance that is restricted to the public and requires a key, keycard,
3298	3298	code, biometric identification system or similar device to allow entry to
3299	3299	authorized personnel.
3300	3300	New Sec. 45. Each applicant for a cultivator, laboratory, processor,
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3343	3343	43 SB 310 40
3344	3344	distributor or retail dispensary license shall require each owner owning
3345	3345	10% or more of the ownership interest in such applicant and each director,
3346	3346	officer and agent of such applicant to be fingerprinted and to submit to a
3347	3347	state and national criminal history record check. Each applicant for an
3348	3348	employee licensee shall be fingerprinted and submit to a state and national
3349	3349	criminal history record check. The director is authorized to submit the
3350	3350	fingerprints to the Kansas bureau of investigation and the federal bureau of
3351	3351	investigation for a state and national criminal history record check. The
3352	3352	director shall use the information obtained from fingerprinting and the
3353	3353	state and national criminal history record check for purposes of verifying
3354	3354	the identification of the applicant and any owner, director, officer and
3355	3355	agent thereof, if any, and for making a determination of the qualifications
3356	3356	of the applicant for licensure. The Kansas bureau of investigation may
3357	3357	charge a reasonable fee to the applicant for fingerprinting and conducting a
3358	3358	criminal history record check.
3359	3359	New Sec. 46. (a) A financial institution that provides financial
3360	3360	services to any cultivator, laboratory, processor, distributor or retail
3361	3361	dispensary shall be exempt from any criminal law of this state, an element
3362	3362	of which may be proven beyond a reasonable doubt that a person provides
3363	3363	financial services to a person who possesses, delivers or manufactures
3364	3364	medical cannabis or medical cannabis products, including any of the
3365	3365	offenses specified in article 57 of chapter 21 of the Kansas Statutes
3366	3366	Annotated, and amendments thereto, or any attempt, conspiracy or
3367	3367	solicitation specified in article 53 of chapter 21 of the Kansas Statutes
3368	3368	Annotated, and amendments thereto, if the cultivator, laboratory,
3369	3369	processor, distributor or retail dispensary is in compliance with the
3370	3370	provisions of this act and all applicable tax laws of this state.
3371	3371	(b) (1) Upon the request of a financial institution, the director shall
3372	3372	provide to the financial institution the following information:
3373	3373	(A) Whether a person with whom the financial institution is seeking
3374	3374	to do business is a licensed cultivator, laboratory, processor, distributor or
3375	3375	retail dispensary;
3376	3376	(B) the name of any other business or individual affiliated with such
3377	3377	person;
3378	3378	(C) an unredacted copy of such person's application for a license, and
3379	3379	any supporting documentation, that was submitted by such person;
3380	3380	(D) information relating to sales and volume of product sold by such
3381	3381	person, if applicable;
3382	3382	(E) whether such person is in compliance with the provisions of this
3383	3383	act; and
3384	3384	(F) any past or pending violations of the medical cannabis regulation
3385	3385	act or any rules and regulations adopted thereunder committed by such
3386	3386	person and any penalty imposed on such person for such violation.
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3430	3430	(2) The director may charge a financial institution a reasonable fee to
3431	3431	cover the administrative cost of providing information requested under this
3432	3432	section.
3433	3433	(c) Information received by a financial institution under subsection
3434	3434	(b) is confidential. Except as otherwise permitted by any other state or
3435	3435	federal law, a financial institution shall not make the information available
3436	3436	to any person other than the customer to whom the information applies and
3437	3437	any trustee, conservator, guardian, personal representative or agent of such
3438	3438	customer.
3439	3439	(d) As used in this section:
3440	3440	(1) "Financial institution" means any bank, trust company, savings
3441	3441	bank, credit union or savings and loan association or any other financial
3442	3442	institution regulated by the state of Kansas, any agency of the United
3443	3443	States or other state with an office in Kansas; and
3444	3444	(2) "financial services" means services that a financial institution is
3445	3445	authorized to provide under chapter 9 or article 22 of chapter 17 of the
3446	3446	Kansas Statutes Annotated, and amendments thereto, as applicable.
3447	3447	New Sec. 47. Nothing in this act authorizes the director to oversee or
3448	3448	limit research conducted at a postsecondary educational institution,
3449	3449	academic medical center or private research and development organization
3450	3450	that is related to cannabis and is approved by an agency, board, center,
3451	3451	department or institute of the United States government, including any of
3452	3452	the following:
3453	3453	(a) The agency for health care research and quality;
3454	3454	(b) the national institutes of health;
3455	3455	(c) the national academy of sciences;
3456	3456	(d) the centers for medicare and medicaid services;
3457	3457	(e) the United States department of defense;
3458	3458	(f) the centers for disease control and prevention;
3459	3459	(g) the United States department of veterans affairs;
3460	3460	(h) the drug enforcement administration;
3461	3461	(i) the food and drug administration; and
3462	3462	(j) any board recognized by the national institutes of health for the
3463	3463	purpose of evaluating the medical value of healthcare services.
3464	3464	New Sec. 48. No provisions of the medical cannabis regulation act
3465	3465	shall be construed to:
3466	3466	(a) Require an employer to permit or accommodate the use,
3467	3467	consumption, possession, transfer, display, distribution, transportation, sale
3468	3468	or growing of cannabis or any conduct otherwise allowed by this act in any
3469	3469	workplace or on the employer's property;
3470	3470	(b) prohibit a person, employer, corporation or any other entity that
3471	3471	occupies, owns or controls a property from prohibiting or otherwise
3472	3472	regulating the use, consumption, possession, transfer, display, distribution,
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3516	3516	transportation, sale or growing of cannabis on such property;
3517	3517	(c) require any government medical assistance program, a private
3518	3518	health insurer or a workers compensation carrier or self-insured employer
3519	3519	providing workers compensation benefits to reimburse a person for costs
3520	3520	associated with the use of medical cannabis;
3521	3521	(d) affect the ability of an employer to implement policies to promote
3522	3522	workplace health and safety by restricting the use of cannabis by
3523	3523	employees;
3524	3524	(e) prohibit an employer from:
3525	3525	(1) Establishing and enforcing a drug testing policy, drug-free
3526	3526	workplace policy or zero-tolerance drug policy;
3527	3527	(2) disciplining an employee for a violation of a workplace drug
3528	3528	policy or for working while under the influence of cannabis; or
3529	3529	(3) including a provision in any contract that prohibits the use of
3530	3530	cannabis; or
3531	3531	(f) prevent an employer from, because of a person's violation of a
3532	3532	workplace drug policy or because that person was working while under the
3533	3533	influence of cannabis:
3534	3534	(1) Refusing to hire a person;
3535	3535	(2) discharging a person;
3536	3536	(3) disciplining a person; or
3537	3537	(4) otherwise taking an adverse employment action against a person
3538	3538	with respect to hiring decisions, tenure, terms, conditions or privileges of
3539	3539	employment; or
3540	3540	(g) permit the possession or use of medical cannabis by any person
3541	3541	detained in a correctional institution, as defined in K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-
3542	3542	5914, and amendments thereto, or committed to a care and treatment
3543	3543	facility, as defined in K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5914, and amendments
3544	3544	thereto.
3545	3545	New Sec. 49. The secretary of revenue, in consultation with the
3546	3546	secretary of health and environment, may enter into one or more
3547	3547	intergovernmental agreements with any of the Prairie Band Potawatomi
3548	3548	Nation, the Iowa Tribe of Kansas and Nebraska, the Sac and Fox Nation of
3549	3549	Missouri in Kansas and Nebraska and the Kickapoo Tribe in Kansas to
3550	3550	provide for a free market exchange between entities engaged in the
3551	3551	business of medical cannabis licensed by any such tribal government and
3552	3552	licensed cultivators, laboratories, processors, distributors and retail
3553	3553	dispensaries. Such agreement shall provide that the applicable tribal
3554	3554	regulatory authority agrees to meet or exceed the substantive standards of
3555	3555	the medical cannabis regulation act and any rules and regulations adopted
3556	3556	pursuant thereto concerning the regulation of licensing and testing with
3557	3557	respect to medical cannabis activity.
3558	3558	New Sec. 50. The provisions of the medical cannabis regulation act,
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3602	3602	sections 1 through 50, and amendments thereto, are hereby declared to be
3603	3603	severable. If any part or provision of the medical cannabis regulation act is
3604	3604	held to be void, invalid or unconstitutional, such part or provision shall not
3605	3605	affect or impair any of the remaining parts or provisions of the medical
3606	3606	cannabis regulation act, and any such remaining provisions shall continue
3607	3607	in full force and effect.
3608	3608	New Sec. 51. (a) It shall be unlawful to store or otherwise leave
3609	3609	medical cannabis or a medical cannabis product where it is readily
3610	3610	accessible to a child under 18 years of age. Such conduct shall be unlawful
3611	3611	with no requirement of a culpable mental state.
3612	3612	(b) Violation of this section is a class A person misdemeanor.
3613	3613	(c) This section shall not apply to any person who stores or otherwise
3614	3614	leaves medical cannabis or a medical cannabis product where it is readily
3615	3615	accessible to a child under 18 years of age if:
3616	3616	(1) Such child is a patient registered pursuant to section 8, and
3617	3617	amendments thereto; and
3618	3618	(2) such medical cannabis or medical cannabis product is not readily
3619	3619	accessible to any child under 18 years of age other than the child described
3620	3620	in paragraph (1).
3621	3621	(d) As used in this section:
3622	3622	(1) "Medical cannabis" and "medical cannabis product" mean the
3623	3623	same as such terms are defined in section 2, and amendments thereto; and
3624	3624	(2) "readily accessible" means the medical cannabis or medical
3625	3625	cannabis product is not stored in a locked container that restricts entry to
3626	3626	such container solely to individuals who are over 18 years of age or who
3627	3627	are registered patients pursuant to section 8, and amendments thereto.
3628	3628	(e) This section shall be a part of and supplemental to the Kansas
3629	3629	criminal code.
3630	3630	New Sec. 52. (a) No person shall transport medical cannabis or
3631	3631	medical cannabis products in any vehicle upon a highway or street unless
3632	3632	such medical cannabis or medical cannabis product:
3633	3633	(1) If transported by a person holding a license issued under section
3634	3634	20, and amendments thereto, or any employee or agent thereof, is in:
3635	3635	(A) The original, sealed packaging in accordance with any packaging
3636	3636	requirements of the secretary of revenue adopted in rules and regulations,
3637	3637	and the seal of which has not been broken and any other means of closure
3638	3638	has not been removed; and
3639	3639	(B) a locked rear compartment or any locked outside compartment of
3640	3640	the vehicle that is not accessible to any person in the vehicle while it is in
3641	3641	motion. If a vehicle is not equipped with such a compartment, then such
3642	3642	medical cannabis or medical cannabis products shall be placed behind the
3643	3643	last upright seat or in an area not normally occupied by the driver or a
3644	3644	passenger of the vehicle while it is in motion; or
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3688	3688	(2) if transported by a person registered as a patient or caregiver
3689	3689	under section 8, and amendments thereto, is in:
3690	3690	(A) The exclusive possession of a passenger in a vehicle that is a
3691	3691	recreational vehicle, as defined by K.S.A. 75-1212, and amendments
3692	3692	thereto, or a bus, as defined by K.S.A. 8-1406, and amendments thereto,
3693	3693	who is not in the driving compartment of such vehicle or who is in a
3694	3694	portion of such vehicle that is not directly accessible to the driver; or
3695	3695	(B) a part of the vehicle that is not otherwise accessible to the driver.
3696	3696	(b) Violation of this section is a class C nonperson misdemeanor.
3697	3697	(c) As used in this section, the terms "medical cannabis" and
3698	3698	"medical cannabis product" mean the same as those terms are defined in
3699	3699	section 2, and amendments thereto.
3700	3700	(d) This section shall be a part of and supplemental to the Kansas
3701	3701	criminal code.
3702	3702	New Sec. 53. (a) The division of alcoholic beverage control is hereby
3703	3703	renamed the division of alcohol and cannabis control.
3704	3704	(b) The division of alcohol and cannabis control and the director of
3705	3705	the division of alcohol and cannabis control shall be the successor in every
3706	3706	way to the powers, duties and functions of the division of alcoholic
3707	3707	beverage control and the director of the division of alcoholic beverage
3708	3708	control in which the same were vested prior to July 1, 2024. Every act
3709	3709	performed in the exercise of such powers, duties and functions by or under
3710	3710	the authority of the division of alcohol and cannabis control or the director
3711	3711	of the division of alcohol and cannabis control shall be deemed to have the
3712	3712	same force and effect as if performed by the division of alcoholic beverage
3713	3713	control or the director of the division of alcoholic beverage control in
3714	3714	which such powers, duties and functions were vested prior to July 1, 2024.
3715	3715	(c) Whenever the division of alcoholic beverage control, or words of
3716	3716	like effect, are referred to or designated by a statute, contract or other
3717	3717	document, and such reference or designation is in regard to any function,
3718	3718	power or duty of the division of alcoholic beverage control, such reference
3719	3719	or designation shall be deemed to apply to the division of alcohol and
3720	3720	cannabis control.
3721	3721	(d) Whenever the director of the division of alcoholic beverage
3722	3722	control, or words of like effect, are referred to or designated by a statute,
3723	3723	contract or other document, and such reference or designation is in regard
3724	3724	to any function, power or duty of the director of the division of alcoholic
3725	3725	beverage control, such reference or designation shall be deemed to apply
3726	3726	to the director of alcohol and cannabis control.
3727	3727	(e) All rules and regulations, orders and directives of the director of
3728	3728	the division of alcoholic beverage control that are in effect on July 1, 2024,
3729	3729	shall continue to be effective and shall be deemed to be rules and
3730	3730	regulations, orders and directives of the director of the division of alcohol
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3774	3774	and cannabis control until revised, amended, revoked or nullified pursuant
3775	3775	to law.
3776	3776	New Sec. 54. (a) No law enforcement officer shall enforce any
3777	3777	violations of 18 U.S.C. § 922(g)(3) if the substance involved in such
3778	3778	violation is medical cannabis and such person is a registered patient
3779	3779	pursuant to the medical cannabis regulation act, section 1 et seq., and
3780	3780	amendments thereto, whose possession is authorized by such act.
3781	3781	(b) As used in this section:
3782	3782	(1) "Law enforcement officer" means the same as defined in K.S.A.
3783	3783	74-5602, and amendments thereto; and
3784	3784	(2) "medical cannabis" means the same as defined in section 2, and
3785	3785	amendments thereto.
3786	3786	New Sec. 55. (a) Subject to the provisions of K.S.A. 44-1018, and
3787	3787	amendments thereto, it shall be unlawful for any person to:
3788	3788	(1) Refuse to sell or rent after the making of a bona fide offer, to fail
3789	3789	to transmit a bona fide offer or refuse to negotiate in good faith for the sale
3790	3790	or rental of, or otherwise make unavailable or deny, real property to any
3791	3791	person because such person consumes medical cannabis in accordance
3792	3792	with section 10, and amendments thereto;
3793	3793	(2) discriminate against any person in the terms, conditions or
3794	3794	privileges of sale or rental of real property, or in the provision of services
3795	3795	or facilities in connection therewith, because such person consumes
3796	3796	medical cannabis in accordance with section 10, and amendments thereto;
3797	3797	and
3798	3798	(3) discriminate against any person in such person's use or occupancy
3799	3799	of real property because such person associates with another person who
3800	3800	consumes medical cannabis in accordance with section 10, and
3801	3801	amendments thereto.
3802	3802	(b) (1) It shall be unlawful for any person or other entity whose
3803	3803	business includes engaging in real estate related transactions to
3804	3804	discriminate against any person in making available such a transaction, or
3805	3805	in the terms or conditions of such a transaction, because such person or
3806	3806	any person associated with such person in connection with any real estate
3807	3807	related transaction consumes medical cannabis in accordance with section
3808	3808	10, and amendments thereto.
3809	3809	(2) Nothing in this subsection prohibits a person engaged in the
3810	3810	business of furnishing appraisals of real property to take into consideration
3811	3811	factors other than an individual's consumption of medical cannabis in
3812	3812	accordance with section 10, and amendments thereto.
3813	3813	(3) As used in this subsection, "real estate related transaction" means
3814	3814	the same as defined in K.S.A. 44-1017, and amendments thereto.
3815	3815	(c) It shall be unlawful to coerce, intimidate, threaten or interfere with
3816	3816	any person in the exercise or enjoyment of, or on account of such person's
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3860	3860	having exercised or enjoyed, or on account of such person's having aided
3861	3861	or encouraged any other person in the exercise or enjoyment of, any right
3862	3862	granted or protected by subsection (a) or (b).
3863	3863	(d) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit a person
3864	3864	from taking any action necessary to procure or retain any monetary benefit
3865	3865	provided under federal law, or any rules and regulations adopted
3866	3866	thereunder, or to obtain or maintain any license, certificate, registration or
3867	3867	other legal status issued or bestowed under federal law, or any rules and
3868	3868	regulations adopted thereunder.
3869	3869	(e) The provisions of this section shall be a part of and supplemental
3870	3870	to the Kansas act against discrimination.
3871	3871	New Sec. 56. (a) A rental agreement for a subsidized apartment may
3872	3872	not contain a provision or impose a rule that prohibits a person who is a
3873	3873	registered patient under section 8, and amendments thereto, to agree, as a
3874	3874	condition of tenancy, to a prohibition or restriction on the possession or
3875	3875	use of medical cannabis in such person's residence in accordance with the
3876	3876	medical cannabis regulation act, section 1 et seq., and amendments thereto.
3877	3877	A landlord may impose reasonable restrictions related to the use of
3878	3878	medical cannabis by any person in public areas of the premises.
3879	3879	(b) As used in this section:
3880	3880	(1) "Rental agreement" means an agreement, written or oral, and
3881	3881	valid rules and regulations embodying the terms and conditions concerning
3882	3882	the use and occupancy of a dwelling unit; and
3883	3883	(2) (A) "Subsidized apartment" means a rental unit for which the
3884	3884	landlord receives rental assistance payments under a rental assistance
3885	3885	agreement administered by the United States department of agriculture
3886	3886	under the multi-family housing rental assistance program under title V of
3887	3887	the federal housing act of 1949 or receives housing assistance payments
3888	3888	under a housing assistance payment contract administered by the United
3889	3889	States department of housing and urban development under the housing
3890	3890	choice voucher program, the new construction program, the substantial
3891	3891	rehabilitation program or the moderate rehabilitation program under
3892	3892	section 8 of the United States housing act of 1937.
3893	3893	(B) "Subsidized apartment" does not include owner-occupied housing
3894	3894	accommodations of four units or fewer.
3895	3895	New Sec. 57. (a) A covered entity, solely on the basis that an
3896	3896	individual consumes medical cannabis in accordance with section 10, and
3897	3897	amendments thereto, shall not:
3898	3898	(1) Consider such individual ineligible to receive an anatomical gift
3899	3899	or organ transplant;
3900	3900	(2) deny medical and other services related to organ transplantation,
3901	3901	including evaluation, surgery, counseling and post-transplantation
3902	3902	treatment and services;
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3946	3946	(3) refuse to refer the individual to a transplant center or a related
3947	3947	specialist for the purpose of evaluation or receipt of an organ transplant;
3948	3948	(4) refuse to place such individual on an organ transplant waiting list;
3949	3949	or
3950	3950	(5) place such individual at a lower-priority position on an organ
3951	3951	transplant waiting list than the position at which such individual would
3952	3952	have been placed if not for such individual's consumption of medical
3953	3953	cannabis.
3954	3954	(b) A covered entity may take into account an individual's
3955	3955	consumption of medical cannabis when making treatment or coverage
3956	3956	recommendations or decisions, solely to the extent that such consumption
3957	3957	has been found by a physician, following an individualized evaluation of
3958	3958	the individual, to be medically significant to the provision of the
3959	3959	anatomical gift.
3960	3960	(c) Nothing in this section shall be construed to require a covered
3961	3961	entity to make a referral or recommendation for or perform a medically
3962	3962	inappropriate organ transplant.
3963	3963	(d) As used in this section:
3964	3964	(1) The terms "anatomical gift," "covered entity" and "organ
3965	3965	transplant" mean the same as those terms are defined in K.S.A. 65-3276,
3966	3966	and amendments thereto; and
3967	3967	(2) the term "medical cannabis" means the same as defined in section
3968	3968	2, and amendments thereto.
3969	3969	New Sec. 58. (a) No order shall be issued pursuant to K.S.A. 38-
3970	3970	2242, 38-2243 or 38-2244, and amendments thereto, if the sole basis for
3971	3971	the threat to the child's safety or welfare is that the child resides with an
3972	3972	individual who consumes medical cannabis in accordance with section 10,
3973	3973	and amendments thereto, or the child consumes medical cannabis in
3974	3974	accordance with section 10, and amendments thereto.
3975	3975	(b) This section shall be a part of and supplemental to the revised
3976	3976	Kansas code for care of children.
3977	3977	New Sec. 59. (a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, any
3978	3978	person, board, commission or similar body that determines the
3979	3979	qualifications of individuals for licensure, certification or registration shall
3980	3980	not disqualify an individual from licensure, certification or registration
3981	3981	solely because such individual consumes medical cannabis in accordance
3982	3982	with section 10, and amendments thereto.
3983	3983	(b) The provisions of this section shall not apply to the:
3984	3984	(1) Kansas commission on peace officers' standards and training;
3985	3985	(2) Kansas highway patrol;
3986	3986	(3) office of the attorney general;
3987	3987	(4) department of health and environment; or
3988	3988	(5) division of alcohol and cannabis control.
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4032	4032	Sec. 60. K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 19-101a is hereby amended to read as
4033	4033	follows: 19-101a. (a) The board of county commissioners may transact all
4034	4034	county business and perform all powers of local legislation and
4035	4035	administration it deems appropriate, subject only to the following
4036	4036	limitations, restrictions or prohibitions:
4037	4037	(1) Counties shall be subject to all acts of the legislature which apply
4038	4038	uniformly to all counties.
4039	4039	(2) Counties may not affect the courts located therein.
4040	4040	(3) Counties shall be subject to acts of the legislature prescribing
4041	4041	limits of indebtedness.
4042	4042	(4) In the exercise of powers of local legislation and administration
4043	4043	authorized under provisions of this section, the home rule power conferred
4044	4044	on cities to determine their local affairs and government shall not be
4045	4045	superseded or impaired without the consent of the governing body of each
4046	4046	city within a county which may be affected.
4047	4047	(5) Counties may not legislate on social welfare administered under
4048	4048	state law enacted pursuant to or in conformity with public law No. 271 –
4049	4049	74
4050	4050	th
4051	4051	congress, or amendments thereof.
4052	4052	(6) Counties shall be subject to all acts of the legislature concerning
4053	4053	elections, election commissioners and officers and their duties as such
4054	4054	officers and the election of county officers.
4055	4055	(7) Counties shall be subject to the limitations and prohibitions
4056	4056	imposed under K.S.A. 12-187 through 12-195, and amendments thereto,
4057	4057	prescribing limitations upon the levy of retailers' sales taxes by counties.
4058	4058	(8) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in statutes made
4059	4059	nonuniform in application solely by reason of authorizing exceptions for
4060	4060	counties having adopted a charter for county government.
4061	4061	(9) No county may levy ad valorem taxes under the authority of this
4062	4062	section upon real property located within any redevelopment project area
4063	4063	established under the authority of K.S.A. 12-1772, and amendments
4064	4064	thereto, unless the resolution authorizing the same specifically authorized
4065	4065	a portion of the proceeds of such levy to be used to pay the principal of
4066	4066	and interest upon bonds issued by a city under the authority of K.S.A. 12-
4067	4067	1774, and amendments thereto.
4068	4068	(10) Counties shall have no power under this section to exempt from
4069	4069	any statute authorizing or requiring the levy of taxes and providing
4070	4070	substitute and additional provisions on the same subject, unless the
4071	4071	resolution authorizing the same specifically provides for a portion of the
4072	4072	proceeds of such levy to be used to pay a portion of the principal and
4073	4073	interest on bonds issued by cities under the authority of K.S.A. 12-1774,
4074	4074	and amendments thereto.
4075	4075	(11) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in the
4076	4076	provisions of K.S.A. 19-4601 through 19-4625, and amendments thereto.
4077	4077	1
4078	4078	2
4079	4079	3
4080	4080	4
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4082	4082	6
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4104	4104	28
4105	4105	29
4106	4106	30
4107	4107	31
4108	4108	32
4109	4109	33
4110	4110	34
4111	4111	35
4112	4112	36
4113	4113	37
4114	4114	38
4115	4115	39
4116	4116	40
4117	4117	41
4118	4118	42
4119	4119	43 SB 310 49
4120	4120	(12) Except as otherwise specifically authorized by K.S.A. 12-1,101
4121	4121	through 12-1,109, and amendments thereto, counties may not levy and
4122	4122	collect taxes on incomes from whatever source derived.
4123	4123	(13) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in K.S.A. 19-
4124	4124	430, and amendments thereto.
4125	4125	(14) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in K.S.A. 19-
4126	4126	302, 19-502b, 19-503, 19-805 or 19-1202, and amendments thereto.
4127	4127	(15) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in K.S.A. 19-
4128	4128	15,139, 19-15,140 and 19-15,141, and amendments thereto.
4129	4129	(16) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in the
4130	4130	provisions of K.S.A. 12-1223, 12-1225, 12-1225a, 12-1225b, 12-1225c
4131	4131	and 12-1226, and amendments thereto, or the provisions of K.S.A. 12-
4132	4132	1260 through 12-1270 and 12-1276, and amendments thereto.
4133	4133	(17) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in the
4134	4134	provisions of K.S.A. 19-211, and amendments thereto.
4135	4135	(18) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in the
4136	4136	provisions of K.S.A. 19-4001 through 19-4015, and amendments thereto.
4137	4137	(19) Counties may not regulate the production or drilling of any oil or
4138	4138	gas well in any manner which would result in the duplication of regulation
4139	4139	by the state corporation commission and the Kansas department of health
4140	4140	and environment pursuant to chapter 55 and chapter 65 of the Kansas
4141	4141	Statutes Annotated, and amendments thereto, and any rules and regulations
4142	4142	adopted pursuant thereto. Counties may not require any license or permit
4143	4143	for the drilling or production of oil and gas wells. Counties may not
4144	4144	impose any fee or charge for the drilling or production of any oil or gas
4145	4145	well.
4146	4146	(20) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in K.S.A. 79-
4147	4147	41a04, and amendments thereto.
4148	4148	(21) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in K.S.A. 79-
4149	4149	1611, and amendments thereto.
4150	4150	(22) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in K.S.A. 79-
4151	4151	1494, and amendments thereto.
4152	4152	(23) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in K.S.A. 19-
4153	4153	202(b), and amendments thereto.
4154	4154	(24) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in K.S.A. 19-
4155	4155	204(b), and amendments thereto.
4156	4156	(25) Counties may not levy or impose an excise, severance or any
4157	4157	other tax in the nature of an excise tax upon the physical severance and
4158	4158	production of any mineral or other material from the earth or water.
4159	4159	(26) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in K.S.A. 79-
4160	4160	2017 or 79-2101, and amendments thereto.
4161	4161	(27) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in K.S.A. 2-
4162	4162	3302, 2-3305, 2-3307, 2-3318, 17-5904, 17-5908, 47-1219, 65-171d, 65-
4163	4163	1
4164	4164	2
4165	4165	3
4166	4166	4
4167	4167	5
4168	4168	6
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4199	4199	37
4200	4200	38
4201	4201	39
4202	4202	40
4203	4203	41
4204	4204	42
4205	4205	43 SB 310 50
4206	4206	1,178 through 65-1,199, 65-3001 through 65-3028, and amendments
4207	4207	thereto.
4208	4208	(28) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in K.S.A. 80-
4209	4209	121, and amendments thereto.
4210	4210	(29) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in K.S.A. 19-
4211	4211	228, and amendments thereto.
4212	4212	(30) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in the Kansas
4213	4213	911 act.
4214	4214	(31) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in K.S.A. 26-
4215	4215	601, and amendments thereto.
4216	4216	(32) (A) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in the
4217	4217	Kansas liquor control act except as provided by paragraph (B).
4218	4218	(B) Counties may adopt resolutions which are not in conflict with the
4219	4219	Kansas liquor control act.
4220	4220	(33) (A) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in the
4221	4221	Kansas cereal malt beverage act except as provided by paragraph (B).
4222	4222	(B) Counties may adopt resolutions which are not in conflict with the
4223	4223	Kansas cereal malt beverage act.
4224	4224	(34) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in the Kansas
4225	4225	lottery act.
4226	4226	(35) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in the Kansas
4227	4227	expanded lottery act.
4228	4228	(36) Counties may neither exempt from nor effect changes to the
4229	4229	eminent domain procedure act.
4230	4230	(37) Any county granted authority pursuant to the provisions of
4231	4231	K.S.A. 19-5001 through 19-5005, and amendments thereto, shall be
4232	4232	subject to the limitations and prohibitions imposed under K.S.A. 19-5001
4233	4233	through 19-5005, and amendments thereto.
4234	4234	(38) Except as otherwise specifically authorized by K.S.A. 19-5001
4235	4235	through 19-5005, and amendments thereto, counties may not exercise any
4236	4236	authority granted pursuant to K.S.A. 19-5001 through 19-5005, and
4237	4237	amendments thereto, including the imposition or levy of any retailers' sales
4238	4238	tax.
4239	4239	(39) Counties may not exempt from or effect changes in K.S.A. 65-
4240	4240	201 and 65-202, and amendments thereto.
4241	4241	(40) Except as provided in section 43, and amendments thereto,
4242	4242	counties may not exempt from or effect changes in the medical cannabis
4243	4243	regulation act, section 1 et seq., and amendments thereto.
4244	4244	(b) Counties shall apply the powers of local legislation granted in
4245	4245	subsection (a) by resolution of the board of county commissioners. If no
4246	4246	statutory authority exists for such local legislation other than that set forth
4247	4247	in subsection (a) and the local legislation proposed under the authority of
4248	4248	such subsection is not contrary to any act of the legislature, such local
4249	4249	1
4250	4250	2
4251	4251	3
4252	4252	4
4253	4253	5
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4285	4285	37
4286	4286	38
4287	4287	39
4288	4288	40
4289	4289	41
4290	4290	42
4291	4291	43 SB 310 51
4292	4292	legislation shall become effective upon passage of a resolution of the
4293	4293	board and publication in the official county newspaper. If the legislation
4294	4294	proposed by the board under authority of subsection (a) is contrary to an
4295	4295	act of the legislature which is applicable to the particular county but not
4296	4296	uniformly applicable to all counties, such legislation shall become
4297	4297	effective by passage of a charter resolution in the manner provided in
4298	4298	K.S.A. 19-101b, and amendments thereto.
4299	4299	(c) Any resolution adopted by a county which that conflicts with the
4300	4300	restrictions in subsection (a) is null and void.
4301	4301	Sec. 61. K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5703 is hereby amended to read as
4302	4302	follows: 21-5703. (a) It shall be unlawful for any person to manufacture
4303	4303	any controlled substance or controlled substance analog.
4304	4304	(b) Violation or attempted violation of subsection (a) is a:
4305	4305	(1) Drug severity level 2 felony, except as provided in subsections (b)
4306	4306	(2) and (b)(3);
4307	4307	(2) drug severity level 1 felony if:
4308	4308	(A) The controlled substance is not methamphetamine, as defined by
4309	4309	subsection (d)(3) or (f)(1) of K.S.A. 65-4107(d)(3) or (f)(1), and
4310	4310	amendments thereto, or an analog thereof; and
4311	4311	(B) the offender has a prior conviction for unlawful manufacturing of
4312	4312	a controlled substance under this section, K.S.A. 65-4159, prior to its
4313	4313	repeal, K.S.A. 2010 Supp. 21-36a03, prior to its transfer, or a substantially
4314	4314	similar offense from another jurisdiction and the substance was not
4315	4315	methamphetamine, as defined by subsection (d)(3) or (f)(1) of K.S.A. 65-
4316	4316	4107(d)(3) or (f)(1), and amendments thereto, or an analog thereof, in any
4317	4317	such prior conviction; and
4318	4318	(3) drug severity level 1 felony if the controlled substance is
4319	4319	methamphetamine, as defined by subsection (d)(3) or (f)(1) of K.S.A. 65-
4320	4320	4107(d)(3) or (f)(1), and amendments thereto, or an analog thereof.
4321	4321	(c) The provisions of subsection (d) of K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-
4322	4322	5301(d), and amendments thereto, shall not apply to a violation of
4323	4323	attempting to unlawfully manufacture any controlled substance or
4324	4324	controlled substance analog pursuant to this section.
4325	4325	(d) For persons arrested and charged under this section, bail shall be
4326	4326	at least $50,000 cash or surety, and such person shall not be released upon
4327	4327	the person's own recognizance pursuant to K.S.A. 22-2802, and
4328	4328	amendments thereto, unless the court determines, on the record, that the
4329	4329	defendant is not likely to re-offend, the court imposes pretrial supervision,
4330	4330	or the defendant agrees to participate in a licensed or certified drug
4331	4331	treatment program.
4332	4332	(e) The sentence of a person who violates this section shall not be
4333	4333	subject to statutory provisions for suspended sentence, community service
4334	4334	work or probation.
4335	4335	1
4336	4336	2
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4364	4364	30
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4368	4368	34
4369	4369	35
4370	4370	36
4371	4371	37
4372	4372	38
4373	4373	39
4374	4374	40
4375	4375	41
4376	4376	42
4377	4377	43 SB 310 52
4378	4378	(f) The sentence of a person who violates this section, K.S.A. 65-
4379	4379	4159, prior to its repeal or K.S.A. 2010 Supp. 21-36a03, prior to its
4380	4380	transfer, shall not be reduced because these sections prohibit conduct
4381	4381	identical to that prohibited by K.S.A. 65-4161 or 65-4163, prior to their
4382	4382	repeal, K.S.A. 2010 Supp. 21-36a05, prior to its transfer, or K.S.A. 2022
4383	4383	Supp. 21-5705, and amendments thereto.
4384	4384	(g) The provisions of this section shall not apply to a cultivator or
4385	4385	processor licensed by the director of alcohol and cannabis control
4386	4386	pursuant to section 20, and amendments thereto, that is producing medical
4387	4387	cannabis, as defined in section 2, and amendments thereto, when used for
4388	4388	acts authorized by the medical cannabis regulation act, section 1 et seq.,
4389	4389	and amendments thereto.
4390	4390	Sec. 62. K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5705 is hereby amended to read as
4391	4391	follows: 21-5705. (a) It shall be unlawful for any person to distribute or
4392	4392	possess with the intent to distribute any of the following controlled
4393	4393	substances or controlled substance analogs thereof:
4394	4394	(1) Opiates, opium or narcotic drugs, or any stimulant designated in
4395	4395	subsection (d)(1), (d)(3) or (f)(1) of K.S.A. 65-4107(d)(1), (d)(3) or (f)(1),
4396	4396	and amendments thereto;
4397	4397	(2) any depressant designated in subsection (e) of K.S.A. 65-4105(e),
4398	4398	subsection (e) of K.S.A. 65-4107(e), subsection (b) or (c) of K.S.A. 65-
4399	4399	4109(b) or (c) or subsection (b) of K.S.A. 65-4111(b), and amendments
4400	4400	thereto;
4401	4401	(3) any stimulant designated in subsection (f) of K.S.A. 65-4105(f),
4402	4402	subsection (d)(2), (d)(4), (d)(5) or (f)(2) of K.S.A. 65-4107(d)(2), (d)(4),
4403	4403	(d)(5) or (f)(2) or subsection (e) of K.S.A. 65-4109(e), and amendments
4404	4404	thereto;
4405	4405	(4) any hallucinogenic drug designated in subsection (d) of K.S.A.
4406	4406	65-4105(d), subsection (g) of K.S.A. 65-4107(g) or subsection (g) of
4407	4407	K.S.A. 65-4109(g), and amendments thereto;
4408	4408	(5) any substance designated in subsection (g) of K.S.A. 65-4105(g)
4409	4409	and subsection (c), (d), (e), (f) or (g) of K.S.A. 65-4111(c), (d), (e), (f) or
4410	4410	(g), and amendments thereto;
4411	4411	(6) any anabolic steroids as defined in subsection (f) of K.S.A. 65-
4412	4412	4109(f), and amendments thereto; or
4413	4413	(7) any substance designated in subsection (h) of K.S.A. 65-4105(h),
4414	4414	and amendments thereto.
4415	4415	(b) It shall be unlawful for any person to distribute or possess with
4416	4416	the intent to distribute a controlled substance or a controlled substance
4417	4417	analog designated in K.S.A. 65-4113, and amendments thereto.
4418	4418	(c) It shall be unlawful for any person to cultivate any controlled
4419	4419	substance or controlled substance analog listed in subsection (a).
4420	4420	(d) (1) Except as provided further, violation of subsection (a) is a:
4421	4421	1
4422	4422	2
4423	4423	3
4424	4424	4
4425	4425	5
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4446	4446	26
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4450	4450	30
4451	4451	31
4452	4452	32
4453	4453	33
4454	4454	34
4455	4455	35
4456	4456	36
4457	4457	37
4458	4458	38
4459	4459	39
4460	4460	40
4461	4461	41
4462	4462	42
4463	4463	43 SB 310 53
4464	4464	(A) Drug severity level 4 felony if the quantity of the material was
4465	4465	less than 3.5 grams;
4466	4466	(B) drug severity level 3 felony if the quantity of the material was at
4467	4467	least 3.5 grams but less than 100 grams;
4468	4468	(C) drug severity level 2 felony if the quantity of the material was at
4469	4469	least 100 grams but less than 1 kilogram; and
4470	4470	(D) drug severity level 1 felony if the quantity of the material was 1
4471	4471	kilogram or more.
4472	4472	(2) Violation of subsection (a) with respect to material containing any
4473	4473	quantity of marijuana, or an analog thereof, is a:
4474	4474	(A) Drug severity level 4 felony if the quantity of the material was
4475	4475	less than 25 grams;
4476	4476	(B) drug severity level 3 felony if the quantity of the material was at
4477	4477	least 25 grams but less than 450 grams;
4478	4478	(C) drug severity level 2 felony if the quantity of the material was at
4479	4479	least 450 grams but less than 30 kilograms; and
4480	4480	(D) drug severity level 1 felony if the quantity of the material was 30
4481	4481	kilograms or more.
4482	4482	(3) Violation of subsection (a) with respect to material containing any
4483	4483	quantity of heroin, as defined by subsection (c)(1) of K.S.A. 65-4105(c)
4484	4484	(1), and amendments thereto, or methamphetamine, as defined by
4485	4485	subsection (d)(3) or (f)(1) of K.S.A. 65-4107(d)(3) or (f)(1), and
4486	4486	amendments thereto, or an analog thereof, is a:
4487	4487	(A) Drug severity level 4 felony if the quantity of the material was
4488	4488	less than 1 gram;
4489	4489	(B) drug severity level 3 felony if the quantity of the material was at
4490	4490	least 1 gram but less than 3.5 grams;
4491	4491	(C) drug severity level 2 felony if the quantity of the material was at
4492	4492	least 3.5 grams but less than 100 grams; and
4493	4493	(D) drug severity level 1 felony if the quantity of the material was
4494	4494	100 grams or more.
4495	4495	(4) Violation of subsection (a) with respect to material containing any
4496	4496	quantity of a controlled substance designated in K.S.A. 65-4105, 65-4107,
4497	4497	65-4109 or 65-4111, and amendments thereto, or an analog thereof,
4498	4498	distributed by dosage unit, is a:
4499	4499	(A) Drug severity level 4 felony if the number of dosage units was
4500	4500	fewer than 10;
4501	4501	(B) drug severity level 3 felony if the number of dosage units was at
4502	4502	least 10 but less than 100;
4503	4503	(C) drug severity level 2 felony if the number of dosage units was at
4504	4504	least 100 but less than 1,000; and
4505	4505	(D) drug severity level 1 felony if the number of dosage units was
4506	4506	1,000 or more.
4507	4507	1
4508	4508	2
4509	4509	3
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4511	4511	5
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4548	4548	42
4549	4549	43 SB 310 54
4550	4550	(5) For any violation of subsection (a), the severity level of the
4551	4551	offense shall be increased one level if the controlled substance or
4552	4552	controlled substance analog was distributed or possessed with the intent to
4553	4553	distribute on or within 1,000 feet of any school property.
4554	4554	(6) Violation of subsection (b) is a:
4555	4555	(A) Class A person misdemeanor, except as provided in subsection
4556	4556	(d)(6)(B) subparagraph (B); and
4557	4557	(B) nondrug severity level 7, person felony if the substance was
4558	4558	distributed to or possessed with the intent to distribute to a minor.
4559	4559	(7) Violation of subsection (c) is a:
4560	4560	(A) Drug severity level 3 felony if the number of plants cultivated
4561	4561	was more than 4 but fewer than 50;
4562	4562	(B) drug severity level 2 felony if the number of plants cultivated was
4563	4563	at least 50 but fewer than 100; and
4564	4564	(C) drug severity level 1 felony if the number of plants cultivated was
4565	4565	100 or more.
4566	4566	(e) In any prosecution under this section, there shall be a rebuttable
4567	4567	presumption of an intent to distribute if any person possesses the following
4568	4568	quantities of controlled substances or analogs thereof:
4569	4569	(1) 450 grams or more of marijuana;
4570	4570	(2) 3.5 grams or more of heroin or methamphetamine;
4571	4571	(3) 100 dosage units or more containing a controlled substance; or
4572	4572	(4) 100 grams or more of any other controlled substance.
4573	4573	(f) It shall not be a defense to charges arising under this section that
4574	4574	the defendant:
4575	4575	(1) Was acting in an agency relationship on behalf of any other party
4576	4576	in a transaction involving a controlled substance or controlled substance
4577	4577	analog;
4578	4578	(2) did not know the quantity of the controlled substance or
4579	4579	controlled substance analog; or
4580	4580	(3) did not know the specific controlled substance or controlled
4581	4581	substance analog contained in the material that was distributed or
4582	4582	possessed with the intent to distribute.
4583	4583	(g) The provisions of subsections (a)(4) and (a)(5) shall not apply to
4584	4584	any cultivator, laboratory, processor, distributor or retail dispensary
4585	4585	licensed by the director of alcohol and cannabis control pursuant to
4586	4586	section 20, and amendments thereto, or any employee or agent thereof,
4587	4587	that is growing, testing, processing, distributing, dispensing or selling
4588	4588	medical cannabis in accordance with the medical cannabis regulation act,
4589	4589	section 1 et seq., and amendments thereto.
4590	4590	(h) As used in this section:
4591	4591	(1) "Material" means the total amount of any substance, including a
4592	4592	compound or a mixture, which that contains any quantity of a controlled
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4635	4635	43 SB 310 55
4636	4636	substance or controlled substance analog.
4637	4637	(2) "Dosage unit" means a controlled substance or controlled
4638	4638	substance analog distributed or possessed with the intent to distribute as a
4639	4639	discrete unit, including but not limited to, one pill, one capsule or one
4640	4640	microdot, and not distributed by weight.
4641	4641	(A) For steroids, or controlled substances in liquid solution legally
4642	4642	manufactured for prescription use, or an analog thereof, "dosage unit"
4643	4643	means the smallest medically approved dosage unit, as determined by the
4644	4644	label, materials provided by the manufacturer, a prescribing authority,
4645	4645	licensed health care professional or other qualified health authority.
4646	4646	(B) For illegally manufactured controlled substances in liquid
4647	4647	solution, or controlled substances in liquid products not intended for
4648	4648	ingestion by human beings, or an analog thereof, "dosage unit" means 10
4649	4649	milligrams, including the liquid carrier medium, except as provided in
4650	4650	subsection (g)(2)(C) subparagraph (C).
4651	4651	(C) For lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) in liquid form, or an analog
4652	4652	thereof, a dosage unit is defined as 0.4 milligrams, including the liquid
4653	4653	medium.
4654	4654	(3) "Medical cannabis" means the same as defined in section 2, and
4655	4655	amendments thereto.
4656	4656	Sec. 63. K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5706 is hereby amended to read as
4657	4657	follows: 21-5706. (a) It shall be unlawful for any person to possess any
4658	4658	opiates, opium or narcotic drugs, or any stimulant designated in K.S.A. 65-
4659	4659	4107(d)(1), (d)(3) or (f)(1), and amendments thereto, or a controlled
4660	4660	substance analog thereof.
4661	4661	(b) It shall be unlawful for any person to possess any of the following
4662	4662	controlled substances or controlled substance analogs thereof:
4663	4663	(1) Any depressant designated in K.S.A. 65-4105(e), 65-4107(e), 65-
4664	4664	4109(b) or (c) or 65-4111(b), and amendments thereto;
4665	4665	(2) any stimulant designated in K.S.A. 65-4105(f), 65-4107(d)(2), (d)
4666	4666	(4), (d)(5) or (f)(2) or 65-4109(e), and amendments thereto;
4667	4667	(3) any hallucinogenic drug designated in K.S.A. 65-4105(d), 65-
4668	4668	4107(g) or 65-4109(g), and amendments thereto;
4669	4669	(4) any substance designated in K.S.A. 65-4105(g) and 65-4111(c),
4670	4670	(d), (e), (f) or (g), and amendments thereto;
4671	4671	(5) any anabolic steroids as defined in K.S.A. 65-4109(f), and
4672	4672	amendments thereto;
4673	4673	(6) any substance designated in K.S.A. 65-4113, and amendments
4674	4674	thereto; or
4675	4675	(7) any substance designated in K.S.A. 65-4105(h), and amendments
4676	4676	thereto.
4677	4677	(c) (1) Violation of subsection (a) is a drug severity level 5 felony.
4678	4678	(2) Except as provided in subsection (c)(3):
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4721	4721	43 SB 310 56
4722	4722	(A) Violation of subsection (b) is a class A nonperson misdemeanor,
4723	4723	except as provided in subparagraph (B); and
4724	4724	(B) violation of subsection (b)(1) through (b)(5) or (b)(7) is a drug
4725	4725	severity level 5 felony if that person has a prior conviction under such
4726	4726	subsection, under K.S.A. 65-4162, prior to its repeal, under a substantially
4727	4727	similar offense from another jurisdiction, or under any city ordinance or
4728	4728	county resolution for a substantially similar offense if the substance
4729	4729	involved was 3, 4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA), marijuana
4730	4730	as designated in K.S.A. 65-4105(d), and amendments thereto, or any
4731	4731	substance designated in K.S.A. 65-4105(h), and amendments thereto, or an
4732	4732	analog thereof.
4733	4733	(3) If the substance involved is marijuana, as designated in K.S.A.
4734	4734	65-4105(d), and amendments thereto, or tetrahydrocannabinols, as
4735	4735	designated in K.S.A. 65-4105(h), and amendments thereto, violation of
4736	4736	subsection (b) is a:
4737	4737	(A) Class B nonperson misdemeanor, except as provided in
4738	4738	subparagraphs (B) and, (C) and (D);
4739	4739	(B) class A nonperson misdemeanor if that person has a prior
4740	4740	conviction under such subsection, under K.S.A. 65-4162, prior to its
4741	4741	repeal, under a substantially similar offense from another jurisdiction, or
4742	4742	under any city ordinance or county resolution for a substantially similar
4743	4743	offense; and
4744	4744	(C) drug severity level 5 felony if that person has two or more prior
4745	4745	convictions under such subsection, under K.S.A. 65-4162, prior to its
4746	4746	repeal, under a substantially similar offense from another jurisdiction, or
4747	4747	under any city ordinance or county resolution for a substantially similar
4748	4748	offense; and
4749	4749	(D) non person misdemeanor punishable by a fine of not to exceed
4750	4750	$400 if that person is not a registered patient or caregiver under the
4751	4751	medical cannabis regulation act, section 1 et seq., and amendments
4752	4752	thereto, is found in possession of not more than 1.5 ounces of marijuana
4753	4753	and provides a statement from such person's physician recommending the
4754	4754	use of medical cannabis to treat such person's symptoms.
4755	4755	(d) It shall be an affirmative defense to prosecution under this section
4756	4756	arising out of a person's possession of any cannabidiol treatment
4757	4757	preparation if the person:
4758	4758	(1) Has a debilitating medical condition, as defined in K.S.A. 2022
4759	4759	Supp. 65-6235, and amendments thereto, or is the parent or guardian of a
4760	4760	minor child who has such debilitating medical condition;
4761	4761	(2) is possessing a cannabidiol treatment preparation, as defined in
4762	4762	K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 65-6235, and amendments thereto, that is being used to
4763	4763	treat such debilitating medical condition; and
4764	4764	(3) has possession of a letter, at all times while the person has
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4808	4808	possession of the cannabidiol treatment preparation, that:
4809	4809	(A) Shall be shown to a law enforcement officer on such officer's
4810	4810	request;
4811	4811	(B) is dated within the preceding 15 months and signed by the
4812	4812	physician licensed to practice medicine and surgery in Kansas who
4813	4813	diagnosed the debilitating medical condition;
4814	4814	(C) is on such physician's letterhead; and
4815	4815	(D) identifies the person or the person's minor child as such
4816	4816	physician's patient and identifies the patient's debilitating medical
4817	4817	condition.
4818	4818	(e) If the substance involved is medical cannabis, as defined in
4819	4819	section 2, and amendments thereto, the provisions of subsections (b) and
4820	4820	(c) shall not apply to:
4821	4821	(1) Any person who is registered or licensed pursuant to the medical
4822	4822	cannabis regulation act, section 1 et seq., and amendments thereto, and
4823	4823	whose possession is authorized by such act; or
4824	4824	(2) any person who is not a resident of this state and who holds a
4825	4825	license issued by another jurisdiction authorizing such person to purchase
4826	4826	and possess medical cannabis as recognized under section 17, and
4827	4827	amendments thereto.
4828	4828	(f) It shall not be a defense to charges arising under this section that
4829	4829	the defendant was acting in an agency relationship on behalf of any other
4830	4830	party in a transaction involving a controlled substance or controlled
4831	4831	substance analog.
4832	4832	Sec. 64. K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5707 is hereby amended to read as
4833	4833	follows: 21-5707. (a) It shall be unlawful for any person to knowingly or
4834	4834	intentionally use any communication facility:
4835	4835	(1) In committing, causing, or facilitating the commission of any
4836	4836	felony under K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5703, 21-5705 or 21-5706, and
4837	4837	amendments thereto; or
4838	4838	(2) in any attempt to commit, any conspiracy to commit, or any
4839	4839	criminal solicitation of any felony under K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5703, 21-
4840	4840	5705 or 21-5706, and amendments thereto. Each separate use of a
4841	4841	communication facility may be charged as a separate offense under this
4842	4842	subsection.
4843	4843	(b) Violation of subsection (a) is a nondrug severity level 8,
4844	4844	nonperson felony.
4845	4845	(c) The provisions of this section shall not apply to any person using
4846	4846	communication facilities for activities authorized by the medical cannabis
4847	4847	regulation act, section 1 et seq., and amendments thereto.
4848	4848	(d) As used in this section, "communication facility" means any and
4849	4849	all public and private instrumentalities used or useful in the transmission
4850	4850	of writing, signs, signals, pictures or sounds of all kinds and includes
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4893	4893	43 SB 310 58
4894	4894	telephone, wire, radio, computer, computer networks, beepers, pagers and
4895	4895	all other means of communication.
4896	4896	Sec. 65. K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5709 is hereby amended to read as
4897	4897	follows: 21-5709. (a) It shall be unlawful for any person to possess
4898	4898	ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, red phosphorus, lithium metal, sodium metal,
4899	4899	iodine, anhydrous ammonia, pressurized ammonia or
4900	4900	phenylpropanolamine, or their salts, isomers or salts of isomers with an
4901	4901	intent to use the product to manufacture a controlled substance.
4902	4902	(b) It shall be unlawful for any person to use or possess with intent to
4903	4903	use any drug paraphernalia to:
4904	4904	(1) Manufacture, cultivate, plant, propagate, harvest, test, analyze or
4905	4905	distribute a controlled substance; or
4906	4906	(2) store, contain, conceal, inject, ingest, inhale or otherwise
4907	4907	introduce a controlled substance into the human body.
4908	4908	(c) It shall be unlawful for any person to use or possess with intent to
4909	4909	use anhydrous ammonia or pressurized ammonia in a container not
4910	4910	approved for that chemical by the Kansas department of agriculture.
4911	4911	(d) It shall be unlawful for any person to purchase, receive or
4912	4912	otherwise acquire at retail any compound, mixture or preparation
4913	4913	containing more than 3.6 grams of pseudoephedrine base or ephedrine
4914	4914	base in any single transaction or any compound, mixture or preparation
4915	4915	containing more than nine grams of pseudoephedrine base or ephedrine
4916	4916	base within any 30-day period.
4917	4917	(e) (1) Violation of subsection (a) is a drug severity level 3 felony;
4918	4918	(2) violation of subsection (b)(1) is a:
4919	4919	(A) Drug severity level 5 felony, except as provided in subsection (e)
4920	4920	(2)(B); and
4921	4921	(B) class B nonperson misdemeanor if the drug paraphernalia was
4922	4922	used to cultivate fewer than five marijuana plants;
4923	4923	(3) violation of subsection (b)(2) is a class B nonperson
4924	4924	misdemeanor;
4925	4925	(4) violation of subsection (c) is a drug severity level 5 felony; and
4926	4926	(5) violation of subsection (d) is a class A nonperson misdemeanor.
4927	4927	(f) For persons arrested and charged under subsection (a) or (c), bail
4928	4928	shall be at least $50,000 cash or surety, and such person shall not be
4929	4929	released upon the person's own recognizance pursuant to K.S.A. 22-2802,
4930	4930	and amendments thereto, unless the court determines, on the record, that
4931	4931	the defendant is not likely to reoffend, the court imposes pretrial
4932	4932	supervision or the defendant agrees to participate in a licensed or certified
4933	4933	drug treatment program.
4934	4934	(g) The provisions of subsection (b) shall not apply to any person
4935	4935	registered or licensed pursuant to the medical cannabis regulation act,
4936	4936	section 1 et seq., and amendments thereto, whose possession of such
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4979	4979	43 SB 310 59
4980	4980	equipment or material is used solely to produce or for the administration
4981	4981	of medical cannabis, as defined in section 2, and amendments thereto, in a
4982	4982	manner authorized by the medical cannabis regulation act, section 1 et
4983	4983	seq., and amendments thereto.
4984	4984	Sec. 66. K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5710 is hereby amended to read as
4985	4985	follows: 21-5710. (a) It shall be unlawful for any person to advertise,
4986	4986	market, label, distribute or possess with the intent to distribute:
4987	4987	(1) Any product containing ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, red
4988	4988	phosphorus, lithium metal, sodium metal, iodine, anhydrous ammonia,
4989	4989	pressurized ammonia or phenylpropanolamine or their salts, isomers or
4990	4990	salts of isomers if the person knows or reasonably should know that the
4991	4991	purchaser will use the product to manufacture a controlled substance or
4992	4992	controlled substance analog; or
4993	4993	(2) any product containing ephedrine, pseudoephedrine or
4994	4994	phenylpropanolamine, or their salts, isomers or salts of isomers for
4995	4995	indication of stimulation, mental alertness, weight loss, appetite control,
4996	4996	energy or other indications not approved pursuant to the pertinent federal
4997	4997	over-the-counter drug final monograph or tentative final monograph or
4998	4998	approved new drug application.
4999	4999	(b) It shall be unlawful for any person to distribute, possess with the
5000	5000	intent to distribute or manufacture with intent to distribute any drug
5001	5001	paraphernalia, knowing or under circumstances where one reasonably
5002	5002	should know that it will be used to manufacture or distribute a controlled
5003	5003	substance or controlled substance analog in violation of K.S.A. 2022 Supp.
5004	5004	21-5701 through 21-5717, and amendments thereto.
5005	5005	(c) It shall be unlawful for any person to distribute, possess with
5006	5006	intent to distribute or manufacture with intent to distribute any drug
5007	5007	paraphernalia, knowing or under circumstances where one reasonably
5008	5008	should know, that it will be used as such in violation of K.S.A. 2022 Supp.
5009	5009	21-5701 through 21-5717, and amendments thereto, except subsection (b)
5010	5010	of K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5706(b), and amendments thereto.
5011	5011	(d) It shall be unlawful for any person to distribute, possess with
5012	5012	intent to distribute or manufacture with intent to distribute any drug
5013	5013	paraphernalia, knowing, or under circumstances where one reasonably
5014	5014	should know, that it will be used as such in violation of subsection (b) of
5015	5015	K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5706(b), and amendments thereto.
5016	5016	(e) (1) Violation of subsection (a) is a drug severity level 3 felony;
5017	5017	(2) violation of subsection (b) is a:
5018	5018	(A) Drug severity level 5 felony, except as provided in subsection (e)
5019	5019	(2)(B) subparagraph (B); and
5020	5020	(B) drug severity level 4 felony if the trier of fact makes a finding that
5021	5021	the offender distributed or caused drug paraphernalia to be distributed to a
5022	5022	minor or on or within 1,000 feet of any school property;
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5065	5065	43 SB 310 60
5066	5066	(3) violation of subsection (c) is a:
5067	5067	(A) Nondrug severity level 9, nonperson felony, except as provided in
5068	5068	subsection (e)(3)(B) subparagraph (B); and
5069	5069	(B) drug severity level 5 felony if the trier of fact makes a finding that
5070	5070	the offender distributed or caused drug paraphernalia to be distributed to a
5071	5071	minor or on or within 1,000 feet of any school property; and
5072	5072	(4) violation of subsection (d) is a:
5073	5073	(A) Class A nonperson misdemeanor, except as provided in
5074	5074	subsection (e)(4)(B) subparagraph (B); and
5075	5075	(B) nondrug severity level 9, nonperson felony if the trier of fact
5076	5076	makes a finding that the offender distributed or caused drug paraphernalia
5077	5077	to be distributed to a minor or on or within 1,000 feet of any school
5078	5078	property.
5079	5079	(f) For persons arrested and charged under subsection (a), bail shall
5080	5080	be at least $50,000 cash or surety, and such person shall not be released
5081	5081	upon the person's own recognizance pursuant to K.S.A. 22-2802, and
5082	5082	amendments thereto, unless the court determines, on the record, that the
5083	5083	defendant is not likely to re-offend, the court imposes pretrial supervision
5084	5084	or the defendant agrees to participate in a licensed or certified drug
5085	5085	treatment program.
5086	5086	(g) The provisions of subsection (c) shall not apply to any person
5087	5087	licensed pursuant to the medical cannabis regulation act, section 1 et seq.,
5088	5088	and amendments thereto, whose distribution or manufacture is used solely
5089	5089	to distribute or produce medical cannabis, as defined in section 2, and
5090	5090	amendments thereto, in a manner authorized by the medical cannabis
5091	5091	regulation act, section 1 et seq., and amendments thereto.
5092	5092	(h) As used in this section, "or under circumstances where one
5093	5093	reasonably should know" that an item will be used in violation of this
5094	5094	section, shall include, but not be limited to, the following:
5095	5095	(1) Actual knowledge from prior experience or statements by
5096	5096	customers;
5097	5097	(2) inappropriate or impractical design for alleged legitimate use;
5098	5098	(3) receipt of packaging material, advertising information or other
5099	5099	manufacturer supplied information regarding the item's use as drug
5100	5100	paraphernalia; or
5101	5101	(4) receipt of a written warning from a law enforcement or
5102	5102	prosecutorial agency having jurisdiction that the item has been previously
5103	5103	determined to have been designed specifically for use as drug
5104	5104	paraphernalia.
5105	5105	Sec. 67. K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-6607 is hereby amended to read as
5106	5106	follows: 21-6607. (a) Except as required by subsection (c), nothing in this
5107	5107	section shall be construed to limit the authority of the court to impose or
5108	5108	modify any general or specific conditions of probation, suspension of
5109	5109	1
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5148	5148	40
5149	5149	41
5150	5150	42
5151	5151	43 SB 310 61
5152	5152	sentence or assignment to a community correctional services program. The
5153	5153	court services officer or community correctional services officer may
5154	5154	recommend, and the court may order, the imposition of any conditions of
5155	5155	probation, suspension of sentence or assignment to a community
5156	5156	correctional services program. For crimes committed on or after July 1,
5157	5157	1993, in presumptive nonprison cases, the court services officer or
5158	5158	community correctional services officer may recommend, and the court
5159	5159	may order, the imposition of any conditions of probation or assignment to
5160	5160	a community correctional services program. The court may at any time
5161	5161	order the modification of such conditions, after notice to the court services
5162	5162	officer or community correctional services officer and an opportunity for
5163	5163	such officer to be heard thereon. The court shall cause a copy of any such
5164	5164	order to be delivered to the court services officer and the probationer or to
5165	5165	the community correctional services officer and the community corrections
5166	5166	participant, as the case may be. The provisions of K.S.A. 75-5291, and
5167	5167	amendments thereto, shall be applicable to any assignment to a community
5168	5168	correctional services program pursuant to this section.
5169	5169	(b) The court may impose any conditions of probation, suspension of
5170	5170	sentence or assignment to a community correctional services program that
5171	5171	the court deems proper, including, but not limited to, requiring that the
5172	5172	defendant:
5173	5173	(1) Avoid such injurious or vicious habits, as directed by the court,
5174	5174	court services officer or community correctional services officer;
5175	5175	(2) avoid such persons or places of disreputable or harmful character,
5176	5176	as directed by the court, court services officer or community correctional
5177	5177	services officer;
5178	5178	(3) report to the court services officer or community correctional
5179	5179	services officer as directed;
5180	5180	(4) permit the court services officer or community correctional
5181	5181	services officer to visit the defendant at home or elsewhere;
5182	5182	(5) work faithfully at suitable employment insofar as possible;
5183	5183	(6) remain within the state unless the court grants permission to
5184	5184	leave;
5185	5185	(7) pay a fine or costs, applicable to the offense, in one or several
5186	5186	sums and in the manner as directed by the court;
5187	5187	(8) support the defendant's dependents;
5188	5188	(9) reside in a residential facility located in the community and
5189	5189	participate in educational, counseling, work and other correctional or
5190	5190	rehabilitative programs;
5191	5191	(10) perform community or public service work for local
5192	5192	governmental agencies, private corporations organized not for profit, or
5193	5193	charitable or social service organizations performing services for the
5194	5194	community;
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5234	5234	40
5235	5235	41
5236	5236	42
5237	5237	43 SB 310 62
5238	5238	(11) perform services under a system of day fines whereby the
5239	5239	defendant is required to satisfy fines, costs or reparation or restitution
5240	5240	obligations by performing services for a period of days, determined by the
5241	5241	court on the basis of ability to pay, standard of living, support obligations
5242	5242	and other factors;
5243	5243	(12) participate in a house arrest program pursuant to K.S.A. 2022
5244	5244	Supp. 21-6609, and amendments thereto;
5245	5245	(13) order the defendant to pay the administrative fee authorized by
5246	5246	K.S.A. 22-4529, and amendments thereto, unless waived by the court; or
5247	5247	(14) in felony cases, except for violations of K.S.A. 8-1567, and
5248	5248	amendments thereto, be confined in a county jail not to exceed 60 days,
5249	5249	which need not be served consecutively.
5250	5250	(c) Except as provided in subsection (d), in addition to any other
5251	5251	conditions of probation, suspension of sentence or assignment to a
5252	5252	community correctional services program, the court shall order the
5253	5253	defendant to comply with each of the following conditions:
5254	5254	(1) The defendant shall obey all laws of the United States, the state of
5255	5255	Kansas and any other jurisdiction to the laws of which the defendant may
5256	5256	be subject;
5257	5257	(2) make reparation or restitution to the aggrieved party for the
5258	5258	damage or loss caused by the defendant's crime in accordance with K.S.A.
5259	5259	2022 Supp. 21-6604(b), and amendments thereto;
5260	5260	(3) (A) pay a correctional supervision fee of $60 if the person was
5261	5261	convicted of a misdemeanor or a fee of $120 if the person was convicted
5262	5262	of a felony. In any case the amount of the correctional supervision fee
5263	5263	specified by this paragraph may be reduced or waived by the judge if the
5264	5264	person is unable to pay that amount;
5265	5265	(B) the correctional supervision fee imposed by this paragraph shall
5266	5266	be charged and collected by the district court. The clerk of the district
5267	5267	court shall remit all revenues received under this paragraph from
5268	5268	correctional supervision fees to the state treasurer in accordance with the
5269	5269	provisions of K.S.A. 75-4215, and amendments thereto. Upon receipt of
5270	5270	each such remittance, the state treasurer shall deposit the entire amount in
5271	5271	the state treasury to the credit of the state general fund, a sum equal to
5272	5272	41.67% of such remittance, and to the correctional supervision fund, a sum
5273	5273	equal to 58.33% of such remittance;
5274	5274	(C) this paragraph shall apply to persons placed on felony or
5275	5275	misdemeanor probation or released on misdemeanor parole to reside in
5276	5276	Kansas and supervised by Kansas court services officers under the
5277	5277	interstate compact for offender supervision; and
5278	5278	(D) this paragraph shall not apply to persons placed on probation or
5279	5279	released on parole to reside in Kansas under the uniform act for out-of-
5280	5280	state parolee supervision;
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5323	5323	43 SB 310 63
5324	5324	(4) reimburse the state general fund for all or a part of the
5325	5325	expenditures by the state board of indigents' defense services to provide
5326	5326	counsel and other defense services to the defendant. In determining the
5327	5327	amount and method of payment of such sum, the court shall take account
5328	5328	of the financial resources of the defendant and the nature of the burden that
5329	5329	payment of such sum will impose. A defendant who has been required to
5330	5330	pay such sum and who is not willfully in default in the payment thereof
5331	5331	may at any time petition the court which sentenced the defendant to waive
5332	5332	payment of such sum or of any unpaid portion thereof. If it appears to the
5333	5333	satisfaction of the court that payment of the amount due will impose
5334	5334	manifest hardship on the defendant or the defendant's immediate family,
5335	5335	the court may waive payment of all or part of the amount due or modify
5336	5336	the method of payment. The amount of attorney fees to be included in the
5337	5337	court order for reimbursement shall be the amount claimed by appointed
5338	5338	counsel on the payment voucher for indigents' defense services or the
5339	5339	amount prescribed by the board of indigents' defense services
5340	5340	reimbursement tables as provided in K.S.A. 22-4522, and amendments
5341	5341	thereto, whichever is less;
5342	5342	(5) be subject to searches of the defendant's person, effects, vehicle,
5343	5343	residence and property by a court services officer, a community
5344	5344	correctional services officer and any other law enforcement officer based
5345	5345	on reasonable suspicion of the defendant violating conditions of probation
5346	5346	or criminal activity; and
5347	5347	(6) be subject to random, but reasonable, tests for drug and alcohol
5348	5348	consumption as ordered by a court services officer or community
5349	5349	correctional services officer.
5350	5350	(d) For any defendant who is a registered patient pursuant to section
5351	5351	8, and amendments thereto, the court shall not order any condition that
5352	5352	prohibits such defendant from purchasing, possessing or consuming
5353	5353	medical cannabis, as defined in section 2, and amendments thereto, in
5354	5354	accordance with the medical cannabis regulation act, section 1 et seq.,
5355	5355	and amendments thereto.
5356	5356	(e) Any law enforcement officer conducting a search pursuant to
5357	5357	subsection (c)(5) shall submit a written report to the appropriate court
5358	5358	services officer or community correctional services officer no later than
5359	5359	the close of the next business day after such search. The written report
5360	5360	shall include the facts leading to such search, the scope of such search and
5361	5361	any findings resulting from such search.
5362	5362	(e)(f) There is hereby established in the state treasury the correctional
5363	5363	supervision fund. All moneys credited to the correctional supervision fund
5364	5364	shall be used for: (1) The implementation of and training for use of a
5365	5365	statewide, mandatory, standardized risk assessment tool or instrument as
5366	5366	specified by the Kansas sentencing commission, pursuant to K.S.A. 75-
5367	5367	1
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5409	5409	43 SB 310 64
5410	5410	5291, and amendments thereto; (2) the implementation of and training for
5411	5411	use of a statewide, mandatory, standardized risk assessment tool or
5412	5412	instrument for juveniles adjudicated to be juvenile offenders; and (3)
5413	5413	evidence-based adult and juvenile offender supervision programs by
5414	5414	judicial branch personnel. If all expenditures for the program have been
5415	5415	paid and moneys remain in the correctional supervision fund for a fiscal
5416	5416	year, remaining moneys may be expended from the correctional
5417	5417	supervision fund to support adult and juvenile offender supervision by
5418	5418	court services officers. All expenditures from the correctional supervision
5419	5419	fund shall be made in accordance with appropriation acts upon warrants of
5420	5420	the director of accounts and reports issued pursuant to vouchers approved
5421	5421	by the chief justice of the Kansas supreme court or by a person or persons
5422	5422	designated by the chief justice.
5423	5423	Sec. 68. K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 22-3717 is hereby amended to read as
5424	5424	follows: 22-3717. (a) Except as otherwise provided by this section; K.S.A.
5425	5425	1993 Supp. 21-4628, prior to its repeal; K.S.A. 21-4624, 21-4635 through
5426	5426	21-4638 and 21-4642, prior to their repeal; K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-6617,
5427	5427	21-6620, 21-6623, 21-6624, 21-6625 and 21-6626, and amendments
5428	5428	thereto; and K.S.A. 8-1567, and amendments thereto; an inmate, including
5429	5429	an inmate sentenced pursuant to K.S.A. 21-4618, prior to its repeal, or
5430	5430	K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-6707, and amendments thereto, shall be eligible for
5431	5431	parole after serving the entire minimum sentence imposed by the court,
5432	5432	less good time credits.
5433	5433	(b) (1) An inmate sentenced to imprisonment for life without the
5434	5434	possibility of parole pursuant to K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-6617, and
5435	5435	amendments thereto, shall not be eligible for parole.
5436	5436	(2) Except as provided by K.S.A. 21-4635 through 21-4638, prior to
5437	5437	their repeal, and K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-6620, 21-6623, 21-6624 and 21-
5438	5438	6625, and amendments thereto, an inmate sentenced to imprisonment for
5439	5439	the crime of: (A) Capital murder committed on or after July 1, 1994, shall
5440	5440	be eligible for parole after serving 25 years of confinement, without
5441	5441	deduction of any good time credits; (B) murder in the first degree based
5442	5442	upon a finding of premeditated murder committed on or after July 1, 1994,
5443	5443	but prior to July 1, 2014, shall be eligible for parole after serving 25 years
5444	5444	of confinement, without deduction of any good time credits; and (C)
5445	5445	murder in the first degree as described in K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5402(a)
5446	5446	(2), and amendments thereto, committed on or after July 1, 2014, shall be
5447	5447	eligible for parole after serving 25 years of confinement, without
5448	5448	deduction of any good time credits.
5449	5449	(3) Except as provided by subsections (b)(1), (b)(2) and (b)(5),
5450	5450	K.S.A. 1993 Supp. 21-4628, prior to its repeal, K.S.A. 21-4635 through
5451	5451	21-4638, prior to their repeal, and K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-6620, 21-6623,
5452	5452	21-6624 and 21-6625, and amendments thereto, an inmate sentenced to
5453	5453	1
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5495	5495	43 SB 310 65
5496	5496	imprisonment for an off-grid offense committed on or after July 1, 1993,
5497	5497	but prior to July 1, 1999, shall be eligible for parole after serving 15 years
5498	5498	of confinement, without deduction of any good time credits and an inmate
5499	5499	sentenced to imprisonment for an off-grid offense committed on or after
5500	5500	July 1, 1999, shall be eligible for parole after serving 20 years of
5501	5501	confinement without deduction of any good time credits.
5502	5502	(4) Except as provided by K.S.A. 1993 Supp. 21-4628, prior to its
5503	5503	repeal, an inmate sentenced for a class A felony committed before July 1,
5504	5504	1993, including an inmate sentenced pursuant to K.S.A. 21-4618, prior to
5505	5505	its repeal, or K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-6707, and amendments thereto, shall
5506	5506	be eligible for parole after serving 15 years of confinement, without
5507	5507	deduction of any good time credits.
5508	5508	(5) An inmate sentenced to imprisonment for a violation of K.S.A.
5509	5509	21-3402(a), prior to its repeal, committed on or after July 1, 1996, but
5510	5510	prior to July 1, 1999, shall be eligible for parole after serving 10 years of
5511	5511	confinement without deduction of any good time credits.
5512	5512	(6) An inmate sentenced to imprisonment pursuant to K.S.A. 21-
5513	5513	4643, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-6627, and amendments
5514	5514	thereto, committed on or after July 1, 2006, shall be eligible for parole
5515	5515	after serving the mandatory term of imprisonment without deduction of
5516	5516	any good time credits.
5517	5517	(c) (1) Except as provided in subsection (e), if an inmate is sentenced
5518	5518	to imprisonment for more than one crime and the sentences run
5519	5519	consecutively, the inmate shall be eligible for parole after serving the total
5520	5520	of:
5521	5521	(A) The aggregate minimum sentences, as determined pursuant to
5522	5522	K.S.A. 21-4608, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-6606, and
5523	5523	amendments thereto, less good time credits for those crimes which are not
5524	5524	class A felonies; and
5525	5525	(B) an additional 15 years, without deduction of good time credits,
5526	5526	for each crime which is a class A felony.
5527	5527	(2) If an inmate is sentenced to imprisonment pursuant to K.S.A. 21-
5528	5528	4643, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-6627, and amendments
5529	5529	thereto, for crimes committed on or after July 1, 2006, the inmate shall be
5530	5530	eligible for parole after serving the mandatory term of imprisonment.
5531	5531	(d) (1) Persons sentenced for crimes, other than off-grid crimes,
5532	5532	committed on or after July 1, 1993, or persons subject to subparagraph
5533	5533	(G), will not be eligible for parole, but will be released to a mandatory
5534	5534	period of postrelease supervision upon completion of the prison portion of
5535	5535	their sentence as follows:
5536	5536	(A) Except as provided in subparagraphs (D) and (E), persons
5537	5537	sentenced for nondrug severity levels 1 through 4 crimes, drug severity
5538	5538	levels 1 and 2 crimes committed on or after July 1, 1993, but prior to July
5539	5539	1
5540	5540	2
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5581	5581	43 SB 310 66
5582	5582	1, 2012, and drug severity levels 1, 2 and 3 crimes committed on or after
5583	5583	July 1, 2012, must serve 36 months on postrelease supervision.
5584	5584	(B) Except as provided in subparagraphs (D) and (E), persons
5585	5585	sentenced for nondrug severity levels 5 and 6 crimes, drug severity level 3
5586	5586	crimes committed on or after July 1, 1993, but prior to July 1, 2012, and
5587	5587	drug severity level 4 crimes committed on or after July 1, 2012, must serve
5588	5588	24 months on postrelease supervision.
5589	5589	(C) Except as provided in subparagraphs (D) and (E), persons
5590	5590	sentenced for nondrug severity levels 7 through 10 crimes, drug severity
5591	5591	level 4 crimes committed on or after July 1, 1993, but prior to July 1,
5592	5592	2012, and drug severity level 5 crimes committed on or after July 1, 2012,
5593	5593	must serve 12 months on postrelease supervision.
5594	5594	(D) Persons sentenced to a term of imprisonment that includes a
5595	5595	sentence for a sexually violent crime as defined in K.S.A. 22-3717, and
5596	5596	amendments thereto, committed on or after July 1, 1993, but prior to July
5597	5597	1, 2006, a sexually motivated crime in which the offender has been
5598	5598	ordered to register pursuant to K.S.A. 22-3717(d)(1)(D)(vii), and
5599	5599	amendments thereto, electronic solicitation, K.S.A. 21-3523, prior to its
5600	5600	repeal, or K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5509, and amendments thereto, or
5601	5601	unlawful sexual relations, K.S.A. 21-3520, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A.
5602	5602	2022 Supp. 21-5512, and amendments thereto, shall serve the period of
5603	5603	postrelease supervision as provided in subsections (d)(1)(A), (d)(1)(B) or
5604	5604	(d)(1)(C), plus the amount of good time and program credit earned and
5605	5605	retained pursuant to K.S.A. 21-4722, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 2022
5606	5606	Supp. 21-6821, and amendments thereto, on postrelease supervision.
5607	5607	(i) If the sentencing judge finds substantial and compelling reasons to
5608	5608	impose a departure based upon a finding that the current crime of
5609	5609	conviction was sexually motivated, departure may be imposed to extend
5610	5610	the postrelease supervision to a period of up to 60 months.
5611	5611	(ii) If the sentencing judge departs from the presumptive postrelease
5612	5612	supervision period, the judge shall state on the record at the time of
5613	5613	sentencing the substantial and compelling reasons for the departure.
5614	5614	Departures in this section are subject to appeal pursuant to K.S.A. 21-
5615	5615	4721, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-6820, and amendments
5616	5616	thereto.
5617	5617	(iii) In determining whether substantial and compelling reasons exist,
5618	5618	the court shall consider:
5619	5619	(a) Written briefs or oral arguments submitted by either the defendant
5620	5620	or the state;
5621	5621	(b) any evidence received during the proceeding;
5622	5622	(c) the presentence report, the victim's impact statement and any
5623	5623	psychological evaluation as ordered by the court pursuant to K.S.A. 21-
5624	5624	4714(e), prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-6813(e), and
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5668	5668	amendments thereto; and
5669	5669	(d) any other evidence the court finds trustworthy and reliable.
5670	5670	(iv) The sentencing judge may order that a psychological evaluation
5671	5671	be prepared and the recommended programming be completed by the
5672	5672	offender. The department of corrections or the prisoner review board shall
5673	5673	ensure that court ordered sex offender treatment be carried out.
5674	5674	(v) In carrying out the provisions of subsection (d)(1)(D), the court
5675	5675	shall refer to K.S.A. 21-4718, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-
5676	5676	6817, and amendments thereto.
5677	5677	(vi) Upon petition and payment of any restitution ordered pursuant to
5678	5678	K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-6604, and amendments thereto, the prisoner review
5679	5679	board may provide for early discharge from the postrelease supervision
5680	5680	period imposed pursuant to subsection (d)(1)(D)(i) upon completion of
5681	5681	court ordered programs and completion of the presumptive postrelease
5682	5682	supervision period, as determined by the crime of conviction, pursuant to
5683	5683	subsection (d)(1)(A), (d)(1)(B) or (d)(1)(C). Early discharge from
5684	5684	postrelease supervision is at the discretion of the board.
5685	5685	(vii) Persons convicted of crimes deemed sexually violent or sexually
5686	5686	motivated shall be registered according to the offender registration act,
5687	5687	K.S.A. 22-4901 through 22-4910, and amendments thereto.
5688	5688	(viii) Persons convicted of K.S.A. 21-3510 or 21-3511, prior to their
5689	5689	repeal, or K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5508, and amendments thereto, shall be
5690	5690	required to participate in a treatment program for sex offenders during the
5691	5691	postrelease supervision period.
5692	5692	(E) The period of postrelease supervision provided in subparagraphs
5693	5693	(A) and (B) may be reduced by up to 12 months and the period of
5694	5694	postrelease supervision provided in subparagraph (C) may be reduced by
5695	5695	up to six months based on the offender's compliance with conditions of
5696	5696	supervision and overall performance while on postrelease supervision. The
5697	5697	reduction in the supervision period shall be on an earned basis pursuant to
5698	5698	rules and regulations adopted by the secretary of corrections.
5699	5699	(F) In cases where sentences for crimes from more than one severity
5700	5700	level have been imposed, the offender shall serve the longest period of
5701	5701	postrelease supervision as provided by this section available for any crime
5702	5702	upon which sentence was imposed irrespective of the severity level of the
5703	5703	crime. Supervision periods will not aggregate.
5704	5704	(G) (i) Except as provided in subsection (u), persons sentenced to
5705	5705	imprisonment for a sexually violent crime committed on or after July 1,
5706	5706	2006, when the offender was 18 years of age or older, and who are
5707	5707	released from prison, shall be released to a mandatory period of
5708	5708	postrelease supervision for the duration of the person's natural life.
5709	5709	(ii) Persons sentenced to imprisonment for a sexually violent crime
5710	5710	committed on or after the effective date of this act, when the offender was
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5754	5754	under 18 years of age, and who are released from prison, shall be released
5755	5755	to a mandatory period of postrelease supervision for 60 months, plus the
5756	5756	amount of good time and program credit earned and retained pursuant to
5757	5757	K.S.A. 21-4722, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-6821, and
5758	5758	amendments thereto.
5759	5759	(2) Persons serving a period of postrelease supervision pursuant to
5760	5760	subsections (d)(1)(A), (d)(1)(B) or (d)(1)(C) may petition the prisoner
5761	5761	review board for early discharge. Upon payment of restitution, the prisoner
5762	5762	review board may provide for early discharge.
5763	5763	(3) Persons serving a period of incarceration for a supervision
5764	5764	violation shall not have the period of postrelease supervision modified
5765	5765	until such person is released and returned to postrelease supervision.
5766	5766	(4) Offenders whose crime of conviction was committed on or after
5767	5767	July 1, 2013, and whose probation, assignment to a community
5768	5768	correctional services program, suspension of sentence or nonprison
5769	5769	sanction is revoked pursuant to K.S.A. 22-3716(c), and amendments
5770	5770	thereto, or whose underlying prison term expires while serving a sanction
5771	5771	pursuant to K.S.A. 22-3716(c), and amendments thereto, shall serve a
5772	5772	period of postrelease supervision upon the completion of the underlying
5773	5773	prison term.
5774	5774	(5) As used in this subsection, "sexually violent crime" means:
5775	5775	(A) Rape, K.S.A. 21-3502, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 2022 Supp.
5776	5776	21-5503, and amendments thereto;
5777	5777	(B) indecent liberties with a child, K.S.A. 21-3503, prior to its repeal,
5778	5778	or K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5506(a), and amendments thereto;
5779	5779	(C) aggravated indecent liberties with a child, K.S.A. 21-3504, prior
5780	5780	to its repeal, or K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5506(b), and amendments thereto;
5781	5781	(D) criminal sodomy, K.S.A. 21-3505(a)(2) and (a)(3), prior to its
5782	5782	repeal, or K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5504(a)(3) and (a)(4), and amendments
5783	5783	thereto;
5784	5784	(E) aggravated criminal sodomy, K.S.A. 21-3506, prior to its repeal,
5785	5785	or K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5504(b), and amendments thereto;
5786	5786	(F) indecent solicitation of a child, K.S.A. 21-3510, prior to its repeal,
5787	5787	or K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5508(a), and amendments thereto;
5788	5788	(G) aggravated indecent solicitation of a child, K.S.A. 21-3511, prior
5789	5789	to its repeal, or K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5508(b), and amendments thereto;
5790	5790	(H) sexual exploitation of a child, K.S.A. 21-3516, prior to its repeal,
5791	5791	or K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5510, and amendments thereto;
5792	5792	(I) aggravated sexual battery, K.S.A. 21-3518, prior to its repeal, or
5793	5793	K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5505(b), and amendments thereto;
5794	5794	(J) aggravated incest, K.S.A. 21-3603, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A.
5795	5795	2022 Supp. 21-5604(b), and amendments thereto;
5796	5796	(K) aggravated human trafficking, as defined in K.S.A. 21-3447,
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5840	5840	prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5426(b), and amendments
5841	5841	thereto, if committed in whole or in part for the purpose of the sexual
5842	5842	gratification of the defendant or another;
5843	5843	(L) internet trading in child pornography, as defined in K.S.A. 2022
5844	5844	Supp. 21-5514(a), and amendments thereto;
5845	5845	(M) aggravated internet trading in child pornography, as defined in
5846	5846	K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5514(b), and amendments thereto;
5847	5847	(N) commercial sexual exploitation of a child, as defined in K.S.A.
5848	5848	2022 Supp. 21-6422, and amendments thereto; or
5849	5849	(O) an attempt, conspiracy or criminal solicitation, as defined in
5850	5850	K.S.A. 21-3301, 21-3302 or 21-3303, prior to their repeal, or K.S.A. 2022
5851	5851	Supp. 21-5301, 21-5302 or 21-5303, and amendments thereto, of a
5852	5852	sexually violent crime as defined in this section.
5853	5853	(6) As used in this subsection, "sexually motivated" means that one of
5854	5854	the purposes for which the defendant committed the crime was for the
5855	5855	purpose of the defendant's sexual gratification.
5856	5856	(e) If an inmate is sentenced to imprisonment for a crime committed
5857	5857	while on parole or conditional release, the inmate shall be eligible for
5858	5858	parole as provided by subsection (c), except that the prisoner review board
5859	5859	may postpone the inmate's parole eligibility date by assessing a penalty not
5860	5860	exceeding the period of time which could have been assessed if the
5861	5861	inmate's parole or conditional release had been violated for reasons other
5862	5862	than conviction of a crime.
5863	5863	(f) If a person is sentenced to prison for a crime committed on or after
5864	5864	July 1, 1993, while on probation, parole, conditional release or in a
5865	5865	community corrections program, for a crime committed prior to July 1,
5866	5866	1993, and the person is not eligible for retroactive application of the
5867	5867	sentencing guidelines and amendments thereto pursuant to K.S.A. 21-
5868	5868	4724, prior to its repeal, the new sentence shall not be aggregated with the
5869	5869	old sentence, but shall begin when the person is paroled or reaches the
5870	5870	conditional release date on the old sentence. If the offender was past the
5871	5871	offender's conditional release date at the time the new offense was
5872	5872	committed, the new sentence shall not be aggregated with the old sentence
5873	5873	but shall begin when the person is ordered released by the prisoner review
5874	5874	board or reaches the maximum sentence expiration date on the old
5875	5875	sentence, whichever is earlier. The new sentence shall then be served as
5876	5876	otherwise provided by law. The period of postrelease supervision shall be
5877	5877	based on the new sentence, except that those offenders whose old sentence
5878	5878	is a term of imprisonment for life, imposed pursuant to K.S.A. 1993 Supp.
5879	5879	21-4628, prior to its repeal, or an indeterminate sentence with a maximum
5880	5880	term of life imprisonment, for which there is no conditional release or
5881	5881	maximum sentence expiration date, shall remain on postrelease
5882	5882	supervision for life or until discharged from supervision by the prisoner
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5926	5926	review board.
5927	5927	(g) Subject to the provisions of this section, the prisoner review board
5928	5928	may release on parole those persons confined in institutions who are
5929	5929	eligible for parole when: (1) The board believes that the inmate should be
5930	5930	released for hospitalization, deportation or to answer the warrant or other
5931	5931	process of a court and is of the opinion that there is reasonable probability
5932	5932	that the inmate can be released without detriment to the community or to
5933	5933	the inmate; or (2) the secretary of corrections has reported to the board in
5934	5934	writing that the inmate has satisfactorily completed the programs required
5935	5935	by any agreement entered under K.S.A. 75-5210a, and amendments
5936	5936	thereto, or any revision of such agreement, and the board believes that the
5937	5937	inmate is able and willing to fulfill the obligations of a law abiding citizen
5938	5938	and is of the opinion that there is reasonable probability that the inmate
5939	5939	can be released without detriment to the community or to the inmate.
5940	5940	Parole shall not be granted as an award of clemency and shall not be
5941	5941	considered a reduction of sentence or a pardon.
5942	5942	(h) The prisoner review board shall hold a parole hearing at least the
5943	5943	month prior to the month an inmate will be eligible for parole under
5944	5944	subsections (a), (b) and (c). At least one month preceding the parole
5945	5945	hearing, the county or district attorney of the county where the inmate was
5946	5946	convicted shall give written notice of the time and place of the public
5947	5947	comment sessions for the inmate to any victim of the inmate's crime who
5948	5948	is alive and whose address is known to the county or district attorney or, if
5949	5949	the victim is deceased, to the victim's family if the family's address is
5950	5950	known to the county or district attorney. Except as otherwise provided,
5951	5951	failure to notify pursuant to this section shall not be a reason to postpone a
5952	5952	parole hearing. In the case of any inmate convicted of an off-grid felony or
5953	5953	a class A felony, the secretary of corrections shall give written notice of the
5954	5954	time and place of the public comment session for such inmate at least one
5955	5955	month preceding the public comment session to any victim of such
5956	5956	inmate's crime or the victim's family pursuant to K.S.A. 74-7338, and
5957	5957	amendments thereto. If notification is not given to such victim or such
5958	5958	victim's family in the case of any inmate convicted of an off-grid felony or
5959	5959	a class A felony, the board shall postpone a decision on parole of the
5960	5960	inmate to a time at least 30 days after notification is given as provided in
5961	5961	this section. Nothing in this section shall create a cause of action against
5962	5962	the state or an employee of the state acting within the scope of the
5963	5963	employee's employment as a result of the failure to notify pursuant to this
5964	5964	section. If granted parole, the inmate may be released on parole on the date
5965	5965	specified by the board, but not earlier than the date the inmate is eligible
5966	5966	for parole under subsections (a), (b) and (c). At each parole hearing and, if
5967	5967	parole is not granted, at such intervals thereafter as it determines
5968	5968	appropriate, the board shall consider: (1) Whether the inmate has
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6012	6012	satisfactorily completed the programs required by any agreement entered
6013	6013	under K.S.A. 75-5210a, and amendments thereto, or any revision of such
6014	6014	agreement; and (2) all pertinent information regarding such inmate,
6015	6015	including, but not limited to, the circumstances of the offense of the
6016	6016	inmate; the presentence report; the previous social history and criminal
6017	6017	record of the inmate; the conduct, employment, and attitude of the inmate
6018	6018	in prison; the reports of such physical and mental examinations as have
6019	6019	been made, including, but not limited to, risk factors revealed by any risk
6020	6020	assessment of the inmate; comments of the victim and the victim's family
6021	6021	including in person comments, contemporaneous comments and
6022	6022	prerecorded comments made by any technological means; comments of
6023	6023	the public; official comments; any recommendation by the staff of the
6024	6024	facility where the inmate is incarcerated; proportionality of the time the
6025	6025	inmate has served to the sentence a person would receive under the Kansas
6026	6026	sentencing guidelines for the conduct that resulted in the inmate's
6027	6027	incarceration; and capacity of state correctional institutions.
6028	6028	(i) In those cases involving inmates sentenced for a crime committed
6029	6029	after July 1, 1993, the prisoner review board will review the inmate's
6030	6030	proposed release plan. The board may schedule a hearing if they desire.
6031	6031	The board may impose any condition they deem necessary to insure public
6032	6032	safety, aid in the reintegration of the inmate into the community, or items
6033	6033	not completed under the agreement entered into under K.S.A. 75-5210a,
6034	6034	and amendments thereto. The board may not advance or delay an inmate's
6035	6035	release date. Every inmate while on postrelease supervision shall remain in
6036	6036	the legal custody of the secretary of corrections and is subject to the orders
6037	6037	of the secretary.
6038	6038	(j) (1) Before ordering the parole of any inmate, the prisoner review
6039	6039	board shall have the inmate appear either in person or via a video
6040	6040	conferencing format and shall interview the inmate unless impractical
6041	6041	because of the inmate's physical or mental condition or absence from the
6042	6042	institution. Every inmate while on parole shall remain in the legal custody
6043	6043	of the secretary of corrections and is subject to the orders of the secretary.
6044	6044	Whenever the board formally considers placing an inmate on parole and
6045	6045	no agreement has been entered into with the inmate under K.S.A. 75-
6046	6046	5210a, and amendments thereto, the board shall notify the inmate in
6047	6047	writing of the reasons for not granting parole. If an agreement has been
6048	6048	entered under K.S.A. 75-5210a, and amendments thereto, and the inmate
6049	6049	has not satisfactorily completed the programs specified in the agreement,
6050	6050	or any revision of such agreement, the board shall notify the inmate in
6051	6051	writing of the specific programs the inmate must satisfactorily complete
6052	6052	before parole will be granted. If parole is not granted only because of a
6053	6053	failure to satisfactorily complete such programs, the board shall grant
6054	6054	parole upon the secretary's certification that the inmate has successfully
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6098	6098	completed such programs. If an agreement has been entered under K.S.A.
6099	6099	75-5210a, and amendments thereto, and the secretary of corrections has
6100	6100	reported to the board in writing that the inmate has satisfactorily
6101	6101	completed the programs required by such agreement, or any revision
6102	6102	thereof, the board shall not require further program participation.
6103	6103	However, if the board determines that other pertinent information
6104	6104	regarding the inmate warrants the inmate's not being released on parole,
6105	6105	the board shall state in writing the reasons for not granting the parole. If
6106	6106	parole is denied for an inmate sentenced for a crime other than a class A or
6107	6107	class B felony or an off-grid felony, the board shall hold another parole
6108	6108	hearing for the inmate not later than one year after the denial unless the
6109	6109	board finds that it is not reasonable to expect that parole would be granted
6110	6110	at a hearing if held in the next three years or during the interim period of a
6111	6111	deferral. In such case, the board may defer subsequent parole hearings for
6112	6112	up to three years but any such deferral by the board shall require the board
6113	6113	to state the basis for its findings. If parole is denied for an inmate
6114	6114	sentenced for a class A or class B felony or an off-grid felony, the board
6115	6115	shall hold another parole hearing for the inmate not later than three years
6116	6116	after the denial unless the board finds that it is not reasonable to expect
6117	6117	that parole would be granted at a hearing if held in the next 10 years or
6118	6118	during the interim period of a deferral. In such case, the board may defer
6119	6119	subsequent parole hearings for up to 10 years, but any such deferral shall
6120	6120	require the board to state the basis for its findings.
6121	6121	(2) Inmates sentenced for a class A or class B felony who have not
6122	6122	had a board hearing in the five years prior to July 1, 2010, shall have such
6123	6123	inmates' cases reviewed by the board on or before July 1, 2012. Such
6124	6124	review shall begin with the inmates with the oldest deferral date and
6125	6125	progress to the most recent. Such review shall be done utilizing existing
6126	6126	resources unless the board determines that such resources are insufficient.
6127	6127	If the board determines that such resources are insufficient, then the
6128	6128	provisions of this paragraph are subject to appropriations therefor.
6129	6129	(k) (1) Parolees and persons on postrelease supervision shall be
6130	6130	assigned, upon release, to the appropriate level of supervision pursuant to
6131	6131	the criteria established by the secretary of corrections.
6132	6132	(2) Parolees and persons on postrelease supervision are, and shall
6133	6133	agree in writing to be, subject to searches of the person and the person's
6134	6134	effects, vehicle, residence and property by a parole officer or a department
6135	6135	of corrections enforcement, apprehension and investigation officer, at any
6136	6136	time of the day or night, with or without a search warrant and with or
6137	6137	without cause. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to authorize
6138	6138	such officers to conduct arbitrary or capricious searches or searches for the
6139	6139	sole purpose of harassment.
6140	6140	(3) Parolees and persons on postrelease supervision are, and shall
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6184	6184	agree in writing to be, subject to searches of the person and the person's
6185	6185	effects, vehicle, residence and property by any law enforcement officer
6186	6186	based on reasonable suspicion of the person violating conditions of parole
6187	6187	or postrelease supervision or reasonable suspicion of criminal activity. Any
6188	6188	law enforcement officer who conducts such a search shall submit a written
6189	6189	report to the appropriate parole officer no later than the close of the next
6190	6190	business day after such search. The written report shall include the facts
6191	6191	leading to such search, the scope of such search and any findings resulting
6192	6192	from such search.
6193	6193	(l) The prisoner review board shall promulgate rules and regulations
6194	6194	in accordance with K.S.A. 77-415 et seq., and amendments thereto, not
6195	6195	inconsistent with the law and as it may deem proper or necessary, with
6196	6196	respect to the conduct of parole hearings, postrelease supervision reviews,
6197	6197	revocation hearings, orders of restitution, reimbursement of expenditures
6198	6198	by the state board of indigents' defense services and other conditions to be
6199	6199	imposed upon parolees or releasees. Whenever an order for parole or
6200	6200	postrelease supervision is issued it shall recite the conditions thereof.
6201	6201	(m) Whenever the prisoner review board orders the parole of an
6202	6202	inmate or establishes conditions for an inmate placed on postrelease
6203	6203	supervision, the board:
6204	6204	(1) Unless it finds compelling circumstances that would render a plan
6205	6205	of payment unworkable, shall order as a condition of parole or postrelease
6206	6206	supervision that the parolee or the person on postrelease supervision pay
6207	6207	any transportation expenses resulting from returning the parolee or the
6208	6208	person on postrelease supervision to this state to answer criminal charges
6209	6209	or a warrant for a violation of a condition of probation, assignment to a
6210	6210	community correctional services program, parole, conditional release or
6211	6211	postrelease supervision;
6212	6212	(2) to the extent practicable, shall order as a condition of parole or
6213	6213	postrelease supervision that the parolee or the person on postrelease
6214	6214	supervision make progress towards or successfully complete the
6215	6215	equivalent of a secondary education if the inmate has not previously
6216	6216	completed such educational equivalent and is capable of doing so;
6217	6217	(3) may order that the parolee or person on postrelease supervision
6218	6218	perform community or public service work for local governmental
6219	6219	agencies, private corporations organized not-for-profit or charitable or
6220	6220	social service organizations performing services for the community;
6221	6221	(4) may order the parolee or person on postrelease supervision to pay
6222	6222	the administrative fee imposed pursuant to K.S.A. 22-4529, and
6223	6223	amendments thereto, unless the board finds compelling circumstances that
6224	6224	would render payment unworkable;
6225	6225	(5) unless it finds compelling circumstances that would render a plan
6226	6226	of payment unworkable, shall order that the parolee or person on
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6270	6270	postrelease supervision reimburse the state for all or part of the
6271	6271	expenditures by the state board of indigents' defense services to provide
6272	6272	counsel and other defense services to the person. In determining the
6273	6273	amount and method of payment of such sum, the prisoner review board
6274	6274	shall take account of the financial resources of the person and the nature of
6275	6275	the burden that the payment of such sum will impose. Such amount shall
6276	6276	not exceed the amount claimed by appointed counsel on the payment
6277	6277	voucher for indigents' defense services or the amount prescribed by the
6278	6278	board of indigents' defense services reimbursement tables as provided in
6279	6279	K.S.A. 22-4522, and amendments thereto, whichever is less, minus any
6280	6280	previous payments for such services;
6281	6281	(6) shall order that the parolee or person on postrelease supervision
6282	6282	agree in writing to be subject to searches of the person and the person's
6283	6283	effects, vehicle, residence and property by a parole officer or a department
6284	6284	of corrections enforcement, apprehension and investigation officer, at any
6285	6285	time of the day or night, with or without a search warrant and with or
6286	6286	without cause. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to authorize
6287	6287	such officers to conduct arbitrary or capricious searches or searches for the
6288	6288	sole purpose of harassment; and
6289	6289	(7) shall order that the parolee or person on postrelease supervision
6290	6290	agree in writing to be subject to searches of the person and the person's
6291	6291	effects, vehicle, residence and property by any law enforcement officer
6292	6292	based on reasonable suspicion of the person violating conditions of parole
6293	6293	or postrelease supervision or reasonable suspicion of criminal activity.
6294	6294	(n) If the court that sentenced an inmate specified at the time of
6295	6295	sentencing the amount and the recipient of any restitution ordered as a
6296	6296	condition of parole or postrelease supervision, the prisoner review board
6297	6297	shall order as a condition of parole or postrelease supervision that the
6298	6298	inmate pay restitution in the amount and manner provided in the journal
6299	6299	entry unless the board finds compelling circumstances that would render a
6300	6300	plan of restitution unworkable.
6301	6301	(o) Whenever the prisoner review board grants the parole of an
6302	6302	inmate, the board, within 14 days of the date of the decision to grant
6303	6303	parole, shall give written notice of the decision to the county or district
6304	6304	attorney of the county where the inmate was sentenced.
6305	6305	(p) When an inmate is to be released on postrelease supervision, the
6306	6306	secretary, within 30 days prior to release, shall provide the county or
6307	6307	district attorney of the county where the inmate was sentenced written
6308	6308	notice of the release date.
6309	6309	(q) Inmates shall be released on postrelease supervision upon the
6310	6310	termination of the prison portion of their sentence. Time served while on
6311	6311	postrelease supervision will vest.
6312	6312	(r) An inmate who is allocated regular good time credits as provided
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6356	6356	in K.S.A. 22-3725, and amendments thereto, may receive meritorious
6357	6357	good time credits in increments of not more than 90 days per meritorious
6358	6358	act. These credits may be awarded by the secretary of corrections when an
6359	6359	inmate has acted in a heroic or outstanding manner in coming to the
6360	6360	assistance of another person in a life-threatening situation, preventing
6361	6361	injury or death to a person, preventing the destruction of property or taking
6362	6362	actions that result in a financial savings to the state.
6363	6363	(s) The provisions of subsections (d)(1)(A), (d)(1)(B), (d)(1)(C) and
6364	6364	(d)(1)(E) shall be applied retroactively as provided in subsection (t).
6365	6365	(t) For offenders sentenced prior to July 1, 2014, who are eligible for
6366	6366	modification of their postrelease supervision obligation, the department of
6367	6367	corrections shall modify the period of postrelease supervision as provided
6368	6368	for by this section:
6369	6369	(1) On or before September 1, 2013, for offenders convicted of:
6370	6370	(A) Severity levels 9 and 10 crimes on the sentencing guidelines grid
6371	6371	for nondrug crimes;
6372	6372	(B) severity level 4 crimes on the sentencing guidelines grid for drug
6373	6373	crimes committed prior to July 1, 2012; and
6374	6374	(C) severity level 5 crimes on the sentencing guidelines grid for drug
6375	6375	crimes committed on and after July 1, 2012;
6376	6376	(2) on or before November 1, 2013, for offenders convicted of:
6377	6377	(A) Severity levels 6, 7 and 8 crimes on the sentencing guidelines
6378	6378	grid for nondrug crimes;
6379	6379	(B) level 3 crimes on the sentencing guidelines grid for drug crimes
6380	6380	committed prior to July 1, 2012; and
6381	6381	(C) level 4 crimes on the sentencing guidelines grid for drug crimes
6382	6382	committed on or after July 1, 2012; and
6383	6383	(3) on or before January 1, 2014, for offenders convicted of:
6384	6384	(A) Severity levels 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 crimes on the sentencing
6385	6385	guidelines grid for nondrug crimes;
6386	6386	(B) severity levels 1 and 2 crimes on the sentencing guidelines grid
6387	6387	for drug crimes committed at any time; and
6388	6388	(C) severity level 3 crimes on the sentencing guidelines grid for drug
6389	6389	crimes committed on or after July 1, 2012.
6390	6390	(u) An inmate sentenced to imprisonment pursuant to K.S.A. 21-
6391	6391	4643, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-6627, and amendments
6392	6392	thereto, for crimes committed on or after July 1, 2006, shall be placed on
6393	6393	parole for life and shall not be discharged from supervision by the prisoner
6394	6394	review board. When the board orders the parole of an inmate pursuant to
6395	6395	this subsection, the board shall order as a condition of parole that the
6396	6396	inmate be electronically monitored for the duration of the inmate's natural
6397	6397	life.
6398	6398	(v) Whenever the prisoner review board orders a person to be
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6442	6442	electronically monitored pursuant to this section, or the court orders a
6443	6443	person to be electronically monitored pursuant to K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-
6444	6444	6604(r), and amendments thereto, the board shall order the person to
6445	6445	reimburse the state for all or part of the cost of such monitoring. In
6446	6446	determining the amount and method of payment of such sum, the board
6447	6447	shall take account of the financial resources of the person and the nature of
6448	6448	the burden that the payment of such sum will impose.
6449	6449	(w) (1) On and after July 1, 2012, for any inmate who is a sex
6450	6450	offender, as defined in K.S.A. 22-4902, and amendments thereto,
6451	6451	whenever the prisoner review board orders the parole of such inmate or
6452	6452	establishes conditions for such inmate placed on postrelease supervision,
6453	6453	such inmate shall agree in writing to not possess pornographic materials.
6454	6454	(A) As used in this subsection, "pornographic materials" means any
6455	6455	obscene material or performance depicting sexual conduct, sexual contact
6456	6456	or a sexual performance; and any visual depiction of sexually explicit
6457	6457	conduct.
6458	6458	(B) As used in this subsection, all other terms have the meanings
6459	6459	provided by K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5510, and amendments thereto.
6460	6460	(2) The provisions of this subsection shall be applied retroactively to
6461	6461	every sex offender, as defined in K.S.A. 22-4902, and amendments
6462	6462	thereto, who is on parole or postrelease supervision on July 1, 2012. The
6463	6463	prisoner review board shall obtain the written agreement required by this
6464	6464	subsection from such offenders as soon as practicable.
6465	6465	(x) For any parolee or person on postrelease supervision who is a
6466	6466	registered patient pursuant to section 8, and amendments thereto, the
6467	6467	prisoner review board shall not order any condition that prohibits such
6468	6468	parolee or person on postrelease supervision from purchasing, possessing
6469	6469	or consuming medical cannabis, as defined in section 2, and amendments
6470	6470	thereto, in accordance with the medical cannabis regulation act, section 1
6471	6471	et seq., and amendments thereto.
6472	6472	Sec. 69. K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 23-3201 is hereby amended to read as
6473	6473	follows: 23-3201. (a) The court shall determine legal custody, residency
6474	6474	and parenting time of a child in accordance with the best interests of the
6475	6475	child.
6476	6476	(b) The court shall not consider the fact that a parent or a child
6477	6477	consumes medical cannabis in accordance with section 10, and
6478	6478	amendments thereto, when determining the legal custody, residency or
6479	6479	parenting time of a child.
6480	6480	Sec. 70. K.S.A. 38-2269 is hereby amended to read as follows: 38-
6481	6481	2269. (a) When the child has been adjudicated to be a child in need of
6482	6482	care, the court may terminate parental rights or appoint a permanent
6483	6483	custodian when the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that the
6484	6484	parent is unfit by reason of conduct or condition which renders the parent
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6528	6528	unable to care properly for a child and the conduct or condition is unlikely
6529	6529	to change in the foreseeable future.
6530	6530	(b) In making a determination of unfitness the court shall consider,
6531	6531	but is not limited to, the following, if applicable:
6532	6532	(1) Emotional illness, mental illness, mental deficiency or physical
6533	6533	disability of the parent, of such duration or nature as to render the parent
6534	6534	unable to care for the ongoing physical, mental and emotional needs of the
6535	6535	child;
6536	6536	(2) conduct toward a child of a physically, emotionally or sexually
6537	6537	cruel or abusive nature;
6538	6538	(3) the use of intoxicating liquors or narcotic or dangerous drugs of
6539	6539	such duration or nature as to render the parent unable to care for the
6540	6540	ongoing physical, mental or emotional needs of the child, except that the
6541	6541	use of medical cannabis in accordance with section 10, and amendments
6542	6542	thereto, shall not be considered to render the parent unable to care for the
6543	6543	ongoing physical, mental or emotional needs of the child;
6544	6544	(4) physical, mental or emotional abuse or neglect or sexual abuse of
6545	6545	a child;
6546	6546	(5) conviction of a felony and imprisonment;
6547	6547	(6) unexplained injury or death of another child or stepchild of the
6548	6548	parent or any child in the care of the parent at the time of injury or death;
6549	6549	(7) failure of reasonable efforts made by appropriate public or private
6550	6550	agencies to rehabilitate the family;
6551	6551	(8) lack of effort on the part of the parent to adjust the parent's
6552	6552	circumstances, conduct or conditions to meet the needs of the child; and
6553	6553	(9) whether, as a result of the actions or inactions attributable to the
6554	6554	parent and one or more of the factors listed in subsection (c) apply, the
6555	6555	child has been in the custody of the secretary and placed with neither
6556	6556	parent for 15 of the most recent 22 months beginning 60 days after the
6557	6557	date on which a child in the secretary's custody was removed from the
6558	6558	child's home.
6559	6559	(c) In addition to the foregoing, when a child is not in the physical
6560	6560	custody of a parent, the court, shall consider, but is not limited to, the
6561	6561	following:
6562	6562	(1) Failure to assure care of the child in the parental home when able
6563	6563	to do so;
6564	6564	(2) failure to maintain regular visitation, contact or communication
6565	6565	with the child or with the custodian of the child;
6566	6566	(3) failure to carry out a reasonable plan approved by the court
6567	6567	directed toward the integration of the child into a parental home; and
6568	6568	(4) failure to pay a reasonable portion of the cost of substitute
6569	6569	physical care and maintenance based on ability to pay.
6570	6570	In making the above determination, the court may disregard incidental
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6614	6614	visitations, contacts, communications or contributions.
6615	6615	(d) A finding of unfitness may be made as provided in this section if
6616	6616	the court finds that the parents have abandoned the child, the custody of
6617	6617	the child was surrendered pursuant to K.S.A. 38-2282, and amendments
6618	6618	thereto, or the child was left under such circumstances that the identity of
6619	6619	the parents is unknown and cannot be ascertained, despite diligent
6620	6620	searching, and the parents have not come forward to claim the child within
6621	6621	three months after the child is found.
6622	6622	(e) If a person is convicted of a felony in which sexual intercourse
6623	6623	occurred, or if a juvenile is adjudicated a juvenile offender because of an
6624	6624	act which, if committed by an adult, would be a felony in which sexual
6625	6625	intercourse occurred, and as a result of the sexual intercourse, a child is
6626	6626	conceived, a finding of unfitness may be made.
6627	6627	(f) The existence of any one of the above factors standing alone may,
6628	6628	but does not necessarily, establish grounds for termination of parental
6629	6629	rights.
6630	6630	(g) (1) If the court makes a finding of unfitness, the court shall
6631	6631	consider whether termination of parental rights as requested in the petition
6632	6632	or motion is in the best interests of the child. In making the determination,
6633	6633	the court shall give primary consideration to the physical, mental and
6634	6634	emotional health of the child. If the physical, mental or emotional needs of
6635	6635	the child would best be served by termination of parental rights, the court
6636	6636	shall so order. A termination of parental rights under the code shall not
6637	6637	terminate the right of a child to inherit from or through a parent. Upon
6638	6638	such termination all rights of the parent to such child, including, such
6639	6639	parent's right to inherit from or through such child, shall cease.
6640	6640	(2) If the court terminates parental rights, the court may authorize
6641	6641	adoption pursuant to K.S.A. 38-2270, and amendments thereto,
6642	6642	appointment of a permanent custodian pursuant to K.S.A. 38-2272, and
6643	6643	amendments thereto, or continued permanency planning.
6644	6644	(3) If the court does not terminate parental rights, the court may
6645	6645	authorize appointment of a permanent custodian pursuant to K.S.A. 38-
6646	6646	2272, and amendments thereto, or continued permanency planning.
6647	6647	(h) If a parent is convicted of an offense as provided in K.S.A. 38-
6648	6648	2271(a)(7), and amendments thereto, or is adjudicated a juvenile offender
6649	6649	because of an act which if committed by an adult would be an offense as
6650	6650	provided in K.S.A. 38-2271(a)(7), and amendments thereto, and if the
6651	6651	victim was the other parent of a child, the court may disregard such
6652	6652	convicted or adjudicated parent's opinions or wishes in regard to the
6653	6653	placement of such child.
6654	6654	(i) A record shall be made of the proceedings.
6655	6655	(j) When adoption, proceedings to appoint a permanent custodian or
6656	6656	continued permanency planning has been authorized, the person or agency
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6700	6700	awarded custody of the child shall within 30 days submit a written plan for
6701	6701	permanent placement which shall include measurable objectives and time
6702	6702	schedules.
6703	6703	Sec. 71. K.S.A. 41-201 is hereby amended to read as follows: 41-201.
6704	6704	(a) The director of alcoholic beverage alcohol and cannabis control and
6705	6705	agents and employees of the director designated by the director, with the
6706	6706	approval of the secretary of revenue, are hereby vested with the power and
6707	6707	authority of peace and police officers, in the execution of the duties
6708	6708	imposed upon the director of alcoholic beverage alcohol and cannabis
6709	6709	control by this act and in enforcing the provisions of this act.
6710	6710	(b) The director and each agent and employee designated by the
6711	6711	director under subsection (a), with the approval of the secretary of
6712	6712	revenue, shall have the authority to make arrests, conduct searches and
6713	6713	seizures and carry firearms while investigating violations of this act and
6714	6714	during the routine conduct of their duties as determined by the director or
6715	6715	designee. In addition to the above, the director and such agents and
6716	6716	employees shall have the authority to make arrests, conduct searches and
6717	6717	seizures and generally to enforce all the criminal laws of the state as
6718	6718	violations of those laws are encountered by such employees or agents
6719	6719	during the routine performance of their duties. In addition to or in lieu of
6720	6720	the above, the director and the director's agents and employees shall have
6721	6721	the authority to issue notices to appear pursuant to K.S.A. 22-2408, and
6722	6722	amendments thereto. No agent or employee of the director shall be
6723	6723	certified to carry firearms under the provisions of this section without
6724	6724	having first successfully completed the firearm training course or courses
6725	6725	prescribed for law enforcement officers under subsection (a) of K.S.A. 74-
6726	6726	5604a(a), and amendments thereto. The director may adopt rules and
6727	6727	regulations prescribing other training required for such agents or
6728	6728	employees.
6729	6729	(c) The attorney general shall appoint, with the approval of the
6730	6730	secretary of revenue, an two assistant attorney attorneys general who shall
6731	6731	be the attorney attorneys for the director of alcoholic beverage alcohol
6732	6732	and cannabis control and the division of alcoholic beverage alcohol and
6733	6733	cannabis control, and who shall receive an annual salary fixed by the
6734	6734	attorney general with the approval of the director of alcoholic beverage
6735	6735	alcohol and cannabis control and the state finance council.
6736	6736	Sec. 72. K.S.A. 44-501 is hereby amended to read as follows: 44-501.
6737	6737	(a) (1) Compensation for an injury shall be disallowed if such injury to the
6738	6738	employee results from:
6739	6739	(A) The employee's deliberate intention to cause such injury;
6740	6740	(B) the employee's willful failure to use a guard or protection against
6741	6741	accident or injury which is required pursuant to any statute and provided
6742	6742	for the employee;
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6786	6786	(C) the employee's willful failure to use a reasonable and proper
6787	6787	guard and protection voluntarily furnished the employee by the employer;
6788	6788	(D) the employee's reckless violation of their employer's workplace
6789	6789	safety rules or regulations; or
6790	6790	(E) the employee's voluntary participation in fighting or horseplay
6791	6791	with a co-employee for any reason, work related or otherwise.
6792	6792	(2) Subparagraphs (B) and (C) of paragraph (1) of subsection (a)
6793	6793	Subsections (a)(1)(B) and (a)(1)(C) shall not apply when it was reasonable
6794	6794	under the totality of the circumstances to not use such equipment, or if the
6795	6795	employer approved the work engaged in at the time of an accident or
6796	6796	injury to be performed without such equipment.
6797	6797	(b) (1) (A) The employer shall not be liable under the workers
6798	6798	compensation act where the injury, disability or death was contributed to
6799	6799	by the employee's use or consumption of alcohol or any drugs, chemicals
6800	6800	or any other compounds or substances, including, but not limited to, any
6801	6801	drugs or medications which that are available to the public without a
6802	6802	prescription from a health care provider, prescription drugs or medications,
6803	6803	any form or type of narcotic drugs, marijuana, stimulants, depressants or
6804	6804	hallucinogens.
6805	6805	(B) (i) In the case of drugs or medications which are available to the
6806	6806	public without a prescription from a health care provider and prescription
6807	6807	drugs or medications, compensation shall not be denied if the employee
6808	6808	can show that such drugs or medications were being taken or used in
6809	6809	therapeutic doses and there have been no prior incidences of the
6810	6810	employee's impairment on the job as the result of the use of such drugs or
6811	6811	medications within the previous 24 months.
6812	6812	(ii) In the case of cannabis, including any cannabis derivatives,
6813	6813	compensation shall not be denied if the employee is registered as a patient
6814	6814	pursuant to section 8, and amendments thereto, such cannabis or cannabis
6815	6815	derivative was used in accordance with the medical cannabis regulation
6816	6816	act, section 1 et seq., and amendments thereto, and there has been no
6817	6817	prior incidence of the employee's impairment on the job as a result of the
6818	6818	use of such cannabis or cannabis derivative within the immediately
6819	6819	preceding 24 months.
6820	6820	(C) It shall be conclusively presumed that the employee was impaired
6821	6821	due to alcohol or drugs if it is shown that, at the time of the injury, the
6822	6822	employee had an alcohol concentration of .04 or more, or a GCMS
6823	6823	confirmatory test by quantitative analysis showing a concentration at or
6824	6824	above the levels shown on the following chart for the drugs of abuse listed:
6825	6825	Confirmatory
6826	6826	test cutoff
6827	6827	levels (ng/ml)
6828	6828	Marijuana metabolite
6829	6829	1
6830	6830	..............................................................15
6831	6831	1
6832	6832	2
6833	6833	3
6834	6834	4
6835	6835	5
6836	6836	6
6837	6837	7
6838	6838	8
6839	6839	9
6840	6840	10
6841	6841	11
6842	6842	12
6843	6843	13
6844	6844	14
6845	6845	15
6846	6846	16
6847	6847	17
6848	6848	18
6849	6849	19
6850	6850	20
6851	6851	21
6852	6852	22
6853	6853	23
6854	6854	24
6855	6855	25
6856	6856	26
6857	6857	27
6858	6858	28
6859	6859	29
6860	6860	30
6861	6861	31
6862	6862	32
6863	6863	33
6864	6864	34
6865	6865	35
6866	6866	36
6867	6867	37
6868	6868	38
6869	6869	39
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6874	6874	Cocaine metabolite
6875	6875	2
6876	6876	..................................................................150
6877	6877	Opiates:
6878	6878	Morphine .............................................................................2000
6879	6879	Codeine ...............................................................................2000
6880	6880	6-Acetylmorphine
6881	6881	43
6882	6882	..................................................................10 ng/ml
6883	6883	Phencyclidine ...........................................................................25
6884	6884	Amphetamines:
6885	6885	Amphetamine ......................................................................500
6886	6886	Methamphetamine
6887	6887	34
6888	6888	.............................................................500
6889	6889	1
6890	6890	Delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol-9-carboxylic acid.
6891	6891	2
6892	6892	Benzoylecgonine.
6893	6893	3
6894	6894	Specimen must also contain amphetamine at a concentration greater
6895	6895	than or equal to 200 ng/mlTest for 6-AM when morphine concentration
6896	6896	exceeds 2,000 ng/ml.
6897	6897	4
6898	6898	Test for 6-AM when morphine concentration exceeds 2,000
6899	6899	ng/mlSpecimen must also contain amphetamine at a concentration
6900	6900	greater than or equal to 200 ng/ml.
6901	6901	(D) If it is shown that the employee was impaired pursuant to
6902	6902	subsection (b)(1)(C) at the time of the injury, there shall be a rebuttable
6903	6903	presumption that the accident, injury, disability or death was contributed to
6904	6904	by such impairment. The employee may overcome the presumption of
6905	6905	contribution by clear and convincing evidence.
6906	6906	(E) An employee's refusal to submit to a chemical test at the request
6907	6907	of the employer shall result in the forfeiture of benefits under the workers
6908	6908	compensation act if the employer had sufficient cause to suspect the use of
6909	6909	alcohol or drugs by the claimant or if the employer's policy clearly
6910	6910	authorizes post-injury testing.
6911	6911	(2) The results of a chemical test shall be admissible evidence to
6912	6912	prove impairment if the employer establishes that the testing was done
6913	6913	under any of the following circumstances:
6914	6914	(A) As a result of an employer mandated drug testing policy, in place
6915	6915	in writing prior to the date of accident or injury, requiring any worker to
6916	6916	submit to testing for drugs or alcohol;
6917	6917	(B) during an autopsy or in the normal course of medical treatment
6918	6918	for reasons related to the health and welfare of the injured worker and not
6919	6919	at the direction of the employer;
6920	6920	(C) the worker, prior to the date and time of the accident or injury,
6921	6921	gave written consent to the employer that the worker would voluntarily
6922	6922	submit to a chemical test for drugs or alcohol following any accident or
6923	6923	injury;
6924	6924	(D) the worker voluntarily agrees to submit to a chemical test for
6925	6925	drugs or alcohol following any accident or injury; or
6926	6926	(E) as a result of federal or state law or a federal or state rule or
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6969	6969	43 SB 310 82
6970	6970	regulation having the force and effect of law requiring a post-injury testing
6971	6971	program and such required program was properly implemented at the time
6972	6972	of testing.
6973	6973	(3) Notwithstanding subsection (b)(2), the results of a chemical test
6974	6974	performed on a sample collected by an employer shall not be admissible
6975	6975	evidence to prove impairment unless the following conditions are met:
6976	6976	(A) The test sample was collected within a reasonable time following
6977	6977	the accident or injury;
6978	6978	(B) the collecting and labeling of the test sample was performed by or
6979	6979	under the supervision of a licensed health care professional;
6980	6980	(C) the test was performed by a laboratory approved by the United
6981	6981	States department of health and human services or licensed by the
6982	6982	department of health and environment, except that a blood sample may be
6983	6983	tested for alcohol content by a laboratory commonly used for that purpose
6984	6984	by state law enforcement agencies;
6985	6985	(D) the test was confirmed by gas chromatography-mass
6986	6986	spectroscopy or other comparably reliable analytical method, except that
6987	6987	no such confirmation is required for a blood alcohol sample;
6988	6988	(E) the foundation evidence must establish, beyond a reasonable
6989	6989	doubt, that the test results were from the sample taken from the employee;
6990	6990	and
6991	6991	(F) a split sample sufficient for testing shall be retained and made
6992	6992	available to the employee within 48 hours of a positive test.
6993	6993	(c) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), compensation shall not
6994	6994	be paid in case of coronary or coronary artery disease or cerebrovascular
6995	6995	injury unless it is shown that the exertion of the work necessary to
6996	6996	precipitate the disability was more than the employee's usual work in the
6997	6997	course of the employee's regular employment.
6998	6998	(2) For events occurring on or after July 1, 2014, in the case of a
6999	6999	firefighter as defined by K.S.A. 40-1709(b)(1), and amendments thereto,
7000	7000	or a law enforcement officer as defined by K.S.A. 74-5602, and
7001	7001	amendments thereto, coronary or coronary artery disease or
7002	7002	cerebrovascular injury shall be compensable if:
7003	7003	(A) The injury can be identified as caused by a specific event
7004	7004	occurring in the course and scope of employment;
7005	7005	(B) the coronary or cerebrovascular injury occurred within 24 hours
7006	7006	of the specific event; and
7007	7007	(C) the specific event was the prevailing factor in causing the
7008	7008	coronary or coronary artery disease or cerebrovascular injury.
7009	7009	(d) Except as provided in the workers compensation act, no
7010	7010	construction design professional who is retained to perform professional
7011	7011	services on a construction project or any employee of a construction
7012	7012	design professional who is assisting or representing the construction
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7055	7055	43 SB 310 83
7056	7056	design professional in the performance of professional services on the site
7057	7057	of the construction project, shall be liable for any injury resulting from the
7058	7058	employer's failure to comply with safety standards on the construction
7059	7059	project for which compensation is recoverable under the workers
7060	7060	compensation act, unless responsibility for safety practices is specifically
7061	7061	assumed by contract. The immunity provided by this subsection to any
7062	7062	construction design professional shall not apply to the negligent
7063	7063	preparation of design plans or specifications.
7064	7064	(e) An award of compensation for permanent partial impairment,
7065	7065	work disability, or permanent total disability shall be reduced by the
7066	7066	amount of functional impairment determined to be preexisting. Any such
7067	7067	reduction shall not apply to temporary total disability, nor shall it apply to
7068	7068	compensation for medical treatment.
7069	7069	(1) Where workers compensation benefits have previously been
7070	7070	awarded through settlement or judicial or administrative determination in
7071	7071	Kansas, the percentage basis of the prior settlement or award shall
7072	7072	conclusively establish the amount of functional impairment determined to
7073	7073	be preexisting. Where workers compensation benefits have not previously
7074	7074	been awarded through settlement or judicial or administrative
7075	7075	determination in Kansas, the amount of preexisting functional impairment
7076	7076	shall be established by competent evidence.
7077	7077	(2) In all cases, the applicable reduction shall be calculated as
7078	7078	follows:
7079	7079	(A) If the preexisting impairment is the result of injury sustained
7080	7080	while working for the employer against whom workers compensation
7081	7081	benefits are currently being sought, any award of compensation shall be
7082	7082	reduced by the current dollar value attributable under the workers
7083	7083	compensation act to the percentage of functional impairment determined to
7084	7084	be preexisting. The "current dollar value" shall be calculated by
7085	7085	multiplying the percentage of preexisting impairment by the compensation
7086	7086	rate in effect on the date of the accident or injury against which the
7087	7087	reduction will be applied.
7088	7088	(B) In all other cases, the employer against whom benefits are
7089	7089	currently being sought shall be entitled to a credit for the percentage of
7090	7090	preexisting impairment.
7091	7091	(f) If the employee receives, whether periodically or by lump sum,
7092	7092	retirement benefits under the federal social security act or retirement
7093	7093	benefits from any other retirement system, program, policy or plan which
7094	7094	that is provided by the employer against which the claim is being made,
7095	7095	any compensation benefit payments which the employee is eligible to
7096	7096	receive under the workers compensation act for such claim shall be
7097	7097	reduced by the weekly equivalent amount of the total amount of all such
7098	7098	retirement benefits, less any portion of any such retirement benefit, other
7099	7099	1
7100	7100	2
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7141	7141	43 SB 310 84
7142	7142	than retirement benefits under the federal social security act, that is
7143	7143	attributable to payments or contributions made by the employee, but in no
7144	7144	event shall the workers compensation benefit be less than the workers
7145	7145	compensation benefit payable for the employee's percentage of functional
7146	7146	impairment. Where the employee elects to take retirement benefits in a
7147	7147	lump sum, the lump sum payment shall be amortized at the rate of 4% per
7148	7148	year over the employee's life expectancy to determine the weekly
7149	7149	equivalent value of the benefits.
7150	7150	Sec. 73. K.S.A. 44-706 is hereby amended to read as follows: 44-706.
7151	7151	The secretary shall examine whether an individual has separated from
7152	7152	employment for each week claimed. The secretary shall apply the
7153	7153	provisions of this section to the individual's most recent employment prior
7154	7154	to the week claimed. An individual shall be disqualified for benefits:
7155	7155	(a) If the individual left work voluntarily without good cause
7156	7156	attributable to the work or the employer, subject to the other provisions of
7157	7157	this subsection. For purposes of this subsection, "good cause" is cause of
7158	7158	such gravity that would impel a reasonable, not supersensitive, individual
7159	7159	exercising ordinary common sense to leave employment. Good cause
7160	7160	requires a showing of good faith of the individual leaving work, including
7161	7161	the presence of a genuine desire to work. Failure to return to work after
7162	7162	expiration of approved personal or medical leave, or both, shall be
7163	7163	considered a voluntary resignation. After a temporary job assignment,
7164	7164	failure of an individual to affirmatively request an additional assignment
7165	7165	on the next succeeding workday, if required by the employment
7166	7166	agreement, after completion of a given work assignment, shall constitute
7167	7167	leaving work voluntarily. The disqualification shall begin the day
7168	7168	following the separation and shall continue until after the individual has
7169	7169	become reemployed and has had earnings from insured work of at least
7170	7170	three times the individual's weekly benefit amount. An individual shall not
7171	7171	be disqualified under this subsection if:
7172	7172	(1) The individual was forced to leave work because of illness or
7173	7173	injury upon the advice of a licensed and practicing health care provider
7174	7174	and, upon learning of the necessity for absence, immediately notified the
7175	7175	employer thereof, or the employer consented to the absence, and after
7176	7176	recovery from the illness or injury, when recovery was certified by a
7177	7177	practicing health care provider, the individual returned to the employer and
7178	7178	offered to perform services and the individual's regular work or
7179	7179	comparable and suitable work was not available. As used in this paragraph
7180	7180	"health care provider" means any person licensed by the proper licensing
7181	7181	authority of any state to engage in the practice of medicine and surgery,
7182	7182	osteopathy, chiropractic, dentistry, optometry, podiatry or psychology;
7183	7183	(2) the individual left temporary work to return to the regular
7184	7184	employer;
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7228	7228	(3) the individual left work to enlist in the armed forces of the United
7229	7229	States, but was rejected or delayed from entry;
7230	7230	(4) the spouse of an individual who is a member of the armed forces
7231	7231	of the United States who left work because of the voluntary or involuntary
7232	7232	transfer of the individual's spouse from one job to another job, which is for
7233	7233	the same employer or for a different employer, at a geographic location
7234	7234	which makes it unreasonable for the individual to continue work at the
7235	7235	individual's job. For the purposes of this provision the term "armed forces"
7236	7236	means active duty in the army, navy, marine corps, air force, coast guard or
7237	7237	any branch of the military reserves of the United States;
7238	7238	(5) the individual left work because of hazardous working conditions;
7239	7239	in determining whether or not working conditions are hazardous for an
7240	7240	individual, the degree of risk involved to the individual's health, safety and
7241	7241	morals, the individual's physical fitness and prior training and the working
7242	7242	conditions of workers engaged in the same or similar work for the same
7243	7243	and other employers in the locality shall be considered; as used in this
7244	7244	paragraph, "hazardous working conditions" means working conditions that
7245	7245	could result in a danger to the physical or mental well-being of the
7246	7246	individual; each determination as to whether hazardous working
7247	7247	conditions exist shall include, but shall not be limited to, a consideration
7248	7248	of: (A) The safety measures used or the lack thereof; and (B) the condition
7249	7249	of equipment or lack of proper equipment; no work shall be considered
7250	7250	hazardous if the working conditions surrounding the individual's work are
7251	7251	the same or substantially the same as the working conditions generally
7252	7252	prevailing among individuals performing the same or similar work for
7253	7253	other employers engaged in the same or similar type of activity;
7254	7254	(6) the individual left work to enter training approved under section
7255	7255	236(a)(1) of the federal trade act of 1974, provided the work left is not of a
7256	7256	substantially equal or higher skill level than the individual's past adversely
7257	7257	affected employment, as defined for purposes of the federal trade act of
7258	7258	1974, and wages for such work are not less than 80% of the individual's
7259	7259	average weekly wage as determined for the purposes of the federal trade
7260	7260	act of 1974;
7261	7261	(7) the individual left work because of unwelcome harassment of the
7262	7262	individual by the employer or another employee of which the employing
7263	7263	unit had knowledge and that would impel the average worker to give up
7264	7264	such worker's employment;
7265	7265	(8) the individual left work to accept better work; each determination
7266	7266	as to whether or not the work accepted is better work shall include, but
7267	7267	shall not be limited to, consideration of: (A) The rate of pay, the hours of
7268	7268	work and the probable permanency of the work left as compared to the
7269	7269	work accepted; (B) the cost to the individual of getting to the work left in
7270	7270	comparison to the cost of getting to the work accepted; and (C) the
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7314	7314	distance from the individual's place of residence to the work accepted in
7315	7315	comparison to the distance from the individual's residence to the work left;
7316	7316	(9) the individual left work as a result of being instructed or requested
7317	7317	by the employer, a supervisor or a fellow employee to perform a service or
7318	7318	commit an act in the scope of official job duties which is in violation of an
7319	7319	ordinance or statute;
7320	7320	(10) the individual left work because of a substantial violation of the
7321	7321	work agreement by the employing unit and, before the individual left, the
7322	7322	individual had exhausted all remedies provided in such agreement for the
7323	7323	settlement of disputes before terminating. For the purposes of this
7324	7324	paragraph, a demotion based on performance does not constitute a
7325	7325	violation of the work agreement;
7326	7326	(11) after making reasonable efforts to preserve the work, the
7327	7327	individual left work due to a personal emergency of such nature and
7328	7328	compelling urgency that it would be contrary to good conscience to
7329	7329	impose a disqualification; or
7330	7330	(12) (A) the individual left work due to circumstances resulting from
7331	7331	domestic violence, including:
7332	7332	(i) The individual's reasonable fear of future domestic violence at or
7333	7333	en route to or from the individual's place of employment;
7334	7334	(ii) the individual's need to relocate to another geographic area in
7335	7335	order to avoid future domestic violence;
7336	7336	(iii) the individual's need to address the physical, psychological and
7337	7337	legal impacts of domestic violence;
7338	7338	(iv) the individual's need to leave employment as a condition of
7339	7339	receiving services or shelter from an agency which provides support
7340	7340	services or shelter to victims of domestic violence; or
7341	7341	(v) the individual's reasonable belief that termination of employment
7342	7342	is necessary to avoid other situations which may cause domestic violence
7343	7343	and to provide for the future safety of the individual or the individual's
7344	7344	family.
7345	7345	(B) An individual may prove the existence of domestic violence by
7346	7346	providing one of the following:
7347	7347	(i) A restraining order or other documentation of equitable relief by a
7348	7348	court of competent jurisdiction;
7349	7349	(ii) a police record documenting the abuse;
7350	7350	(iii) documentation that the abuser has been convicted of one or more
7351	7351	of the offenses enumerated in articles 34 and 35 of chapter 21 of the
7352	7352	Kansas Statutes Annotated, prior to their repeal, or articles 54 or 55 of
7353	7353	chapter 21 of the Kansas Statutes Annotated, and amendments thereto, or
7354	7354	K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-6104, 21-6325, 21-6326 or 21-6418 through 21-
7355	7355	6422, and amendments thereto, where the victim was a family or
7356	7356	household member;
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7400	7400	(iv) medical documentation of the abuse;
7401	7401	(v) a statement provided by a counselor, social worker, health care
7402	7402	provider, clergy, shelter worker, legal advocate, domestic violence or
7403	7403	sexual assault advocate or other professional who has assisted the
7404	7404	individual in dealing with the effects of abuse on the individual or the
7405	7405	individual's family; or
7406	7406	(vi) a sworn statement from the individual attesting to the abuse.
7407	7407	(C) No evidence of domestic violence experienced by an individual,
7408	7408	including the individual's statement and corroborating evidence, shall be
7409	7409	disclosed by the department of labor unless consent for disclosure is given
7410	7410	by the individual.
7411	7411	(b) If the individual has been discharged or suspended for misconduct
7412	7412	connected with the individual's work. The disqualification shall begin the
7413	7413	day following the separation and shall continue until after the individual
7414	7414	becomes reemployed and in cases where the disqualification is due to
7415	7415	discharge for misconduct has had earnings from insured work of at least
7416	7416	three times the individual's determined weekly benefit amount, except that
7417	7417	if an individual is discharged for gross misconduct connected with the
7418	7418	individual's work, such individual shall be disqualified for benefits until
7419	7419	such individual again becomes employed and has had earnings from
7420	7420	insured work of at least eight times such individual's determined weekly
7421	7421	benefit amount. In addition, all wage credits attributable to the
7422	7422	employment from which the individual was discharged for gross
7423	7423	misconduct connected with the individual's work shall be canceled. No
7424	7424	such cancellation of wage credits shall affect prior payments made as a
7425	7425	result of a prior separation.
7426	7426	(1) (A) For the purposes of this subsection, "misconduct" is defined as
7427	7427	a violation of a duty or obligation reasonably owed the employer as a
7428	7428	condition of employment including, but not limited to, a violation of a
7429	7429	company rule, including a safety rule, if:
7430	7430	(A)(i) The individual knew or should have known about the rule;
7431	7431	(B)(ii) the rule was lawful and reasonably related to the job; and
7432	7432	(C)(iii) the rule was fairly and consistently enforced.
7433	7433	(B) The term "misconduct":
7434	7434	(i) Does not include any violation of a duty, obligation or company
7435	7435	rule if:
7436	7436	(a) The individual is a registered patient pursuant to section 8, and
7437	7437	amendments thereto; and
7438	7438	(b) the basis for the violation is the possession of an identification
7439	7439	card issued under section 8, and amendments thereto, or the possession or
7440	7440	use of medical cannabis in accordance with the medical cannabis
7441	7441	regulation act, section 1 et seq., and amendments thereto; and
7442	7442	(ii) includes any violation of a duty, obligation or company rule if the
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7486	7486	individual ingested cannabis in the workplace, worked while under the
7487	7487	influence of cannabis or tested positive for a controlled substance.
7488	7488	(2) (A) Failure of the employee to notify the employer of an absence
7489	7489	and an individual's leaving work prior to the end of such individual's
7490	7490	assigned work period without permission shall be considered prima facie
7491	7491	evidence of a violation of a duty or obligation reasonably owed the
7492	7492	employer as a condition of employment.
7493	7493	(B) For the purposes of this subsection, misconduct shall include, but
7494	7494	not be limited to, violation of the employer's reasonable attendance
7495	7495	expectations if the facts show:
7496	7496	(i) The individual was absent or tardy without good cause;
7497	7497	(ii) the individual had knowledge of the employer's attendance
7498	7498	expectation; and
7499	7499	(iii) the employer gave notice to the individual that future absence or
7500	7500	tardiness may or will result in discharge.
7501	7501	(C) For the purposes of this subsection, if an employee disputes being
7502	7502	absent or tardy without good cause, the employee shall present evidence
7503	7503	that a majority of the employee's absences or tardiness were for good
7504	7504	cause. If the employee alleges that the employee's repeated absences or
7505	7505	tardiness were the result of health related issues, such evidence shall
7506	7506	include documentation from a licensed and practicing health care provider
7507	7507	as defined in subsection (a)(1).
7508	7508	(3) (A) (i) The term "gross misconduct" as used in this subsection
7509	7509	shall be construed to mean conduct evincing extreme, willful or wanton
7510	7510	misconduct as defined by this subsection. Gross misconduct shall include,
7511	7511	but not be limited to:
7512	7512	(i)(a) Theft;
7513	7513	(ii)(b) fraud;
7514	7514	(iii)(c) intentional damage to property;
7515	7515	(iv)(d) intentional infliction of personal injury; or
7516	7516	(v)(e) any conduct that constitutes a felony.
7517	7517	(ii) The term "gross misconduct":
7518	7518	(a) Does not include any conduct of an individual if:
7519	7519	(1) The individual is a registered patient pursuant to section 8, and
7520	7520	amendments thereto; and
7521	7521	(2) the basis for such conduct is the possession of an identification
7522	7522	card issued under section 8, and amendments thereto, or the possession or
7523	7523	use of medical cannabis in accordance with the medical cannabis
7524	7524	regulation act, section 1 et seq., and amendments thereto; and
7525	7525	(b) includes any conduct of an individual if the individual ingested
7526	7526	cannabis in the workplace, worked while under the influence of cannabis
7527	7527	or tested positive for a controlled substance.
7528	7528	(B) For the purposes of this subsection, the following shall be
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7572	7572	conclusive evidence of gross misconduct:
7573	7573	(i) The use of alcoholic liquor, cereal malt beverage or a
7574	7574	nonprescribed controlled substance by an individual while working;
7575	7575	(ii) the impairment caused by alcoholic liquor, cereal malt beverage
7576	7576	or a nonprescribed controlled substance by an individual while working;
7577	7577	(iii) a positive breath alcohol test or a positive chemical test,
7578	7578	provided:
7579	7579	(a) The test was either:
7580	7580	(1) Required by law and was administered pursuant to the drug free
7581	7581	workplace act, 41 U.S.C. § 701 et seq.;
7582	7582	(2) administered as part of an employee assistance program or other
7583	7583	drug or alcohol treatment program in which the employee was
7584	7584	participating voluntarily or as a condition of further employment;
7585	7585	(3) requested pursuant to a written policy of the employer of which
7586	7586	the employee had knowledge and was a required condition of
7587	7587	employment;
7588	7588	(4) required by law and the test constituted a required condition of
7589	7589	employment for the individual's job; or
7590	7590	(5) there was reasonable suspicion to believe that the individual used,
7591	7591	had possession of, or was impaired by alcoholic liquor, cereal malt
7592	7592	beverage or a nonprescribed controlled substance while working;
7593	7593	(b) the test sample was collected either:
7594	7594	(1) As prescribed by the drug free workplace act, 41 U.S.C. § 701 et
7595	7595	seq.;
7596	7596	(2) as prescribed by an employee assistance program or other drug or
7597	7597	alcohol treatment program in which the employee was participating
7598	7598	voluntarily or as a condition of further employment;
7599	7599	(3) as prescribed by the written policy of the employer of which the
7600	7600	employee had knowledge and which constituted a required condition of
7601	7601	employment;
7602	7602	(4) as prescribed by a test which was required by law and which
7603	7603	constituted a required condition of employment for the individual's job; or
7604	7604	(5) at a time contemporaneous with the events establishing probable
7605	7605	cause;
7606	7606	(c) the collecting and labeling of a chemical test sample was
7607	7607	performed by a licensed health care professional or any other individual
7608	7608	certified pursuant to paragraph (b)(3)(A)(iii)(f) subsection (b)(3)(B)(iii)(f)
7609	7609	or authorized to collect or label test samples by federal or state law, or a
7610	7610	federal or state rule or regulation having the force or effect of law,
7611	7611	including law enforcement personnel;
7612	7612	(d) the chemical test was performed by a laboratory approved by the
7613	7613	United States department of health and human services or licensed by the
7614	7614	department of health and environment, except that a blood sample may be
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7657	7657	43 SB 310 90
7658	7658	tested for alcohol content by a laboratory commonly used for that purpose
7659	7659	by state law enforcement agencies;
7660	7660	(e) the chemical test was confirmed by gas chromatography, gas
7661	7661	chromatography-mass spectroscopy or other comparably reliable
7662	7662	analytical method, except that no such confirmation is required for a blood
7663	7663	alcohol sample or a breath alcohol test;
7664	7664	(f) the breath alcohol test was administered by an individual trained
7665	7665	to perform breath tests, the breath testing instrument used was certified
7666	7666	and operated strictly according to a description provided by the
7667	7667	manufacturers and the reliability of the instrument performance was
7668	7668	assured by testing with alcohol standards; and
7669	7669	(g) the foundation evidence establishes, beyond a reasonable doubt,
7670	7670	that the test results were from the sample taken from the individual;
7671	7671	(iv) an individual's refusal to submit to a chemical test or breath
7672	7672	alcohol test, provided:
7673	7673	(a) The test meets the standards of the drug free workplace act, 41
7674	7674	U.S.C. § 701 et seq.;
7675	7675	(b) the test was administered as part of an employee assistance
7676	7676	program or other drug or alcohol treatment program in which the
7677	7677	employee was participating voluntarily or as a condition of further
7678	7678	employment;
7679	7679	(c) the test was otherwise required by law and the test constituted a
7680	7680	required condition of employment for the individual's job;
7681	7681	(d) the test was requested pursuant to a written policy of the employer
7682	7682	of which the employee had knowledge and was a required condition of
7683	7683	employment; or
7684	7684	(e) there was reasonable suspicion to believe that the individual used,
7685	7685	possessed or was impaired by alcoholic liquor, cereal malt beverage or a
7686	7686	nonprescribed controlled substance while working;
7687	7687	(v) an individual's dilution or other tampering of a chemical test.
7688	7688	(C) For purposes of this subsection:
7689	7689	(i) "Alcohol concentration" means the number of grams of alcohol
7690	7690	per 210 liters of breath;
7691	7691	(ii) "alcoholic liquor" means the same as provided in K.S.A. 41-102,
7692	7692	and amendments thereto;
7693	7693	(iii) "cereal malt beverage" means the same as provided in K.S.A. 41-
7694	7694	2701, and amendments thereto;
7695	7695	(iv) "chemical test" includes, but is not limited to, tests of urine,
7696	7696	blood or saliva;
7697	7697	(v) "controlled substance" means the same as provided in K.S.A.
7698	7698	2022 Supp. 21-5701, and amendments thereto;
7699	7699	(vi) "required by law" means required by a federal or state law, a
7700	7700	federal or state rule or regulation having the force and effect of law, a
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7743	7743	43 SB 310 91
7744	7744	county resolution or municipal ordinance, or a policy relating to public
7745	7745	safety adopted in an open meeting by the governing body of any special
7746	7746	district or other local governmental entity;
7747	7747	(vii) "positive breath test" means a test result showing an alcohol
7748	7748	concentration of 0.04 or greater, or the levels listed in 49 C.F.R. part 40, if
7749	7749	applicable, unless the test was administered as part of an employee
7750	7750	assistance program or other drug or alcohol treatment program in which
7751	7751	the employee was participating voluntarily or as a condition of further
7752	7752	employment, in which case "positive chemical test" shall mean a test result
7753	7753	showing an alcohol concentration at or above the levels provided for in the
7754	7754	assistance or treatment program; and
7755	7755	(viii) "positive chemical test" means a chemical result showing a
7756	7756	concentration at or above the levels listed in K.S.A. 44-501, and
7757	7757	amendments thereto, or 49 C.F.R. part 40, as applicable, for the drugs or
7758	7758	abuse listed therein, unless the test was administered as part of an
7759	7759	employee assistance program or other drug or alcohol treatment program
7760	7760	in which the employee was participating voluntarily or as a condition of
7761	7761	further employment, in which case "positive chemical test" means a
7762	7762	chemical result showing a concentration at or above the levels provided for
7763	7763	in the assistance or treatment program.
7764	7764	(4) An individual shall not be disqualified under this subsection if the
7765	7765	individual is discharged under the following circumstances:
7766	7766	(A) The employer discharged the individual after learning the
7767	7767	individual was seeking other work or when the individual gave notice of
7768	7768	future intent to quit, except that the individual shall be disqualified after
7769	7769	the time at which such individual intended to quit and any individual who
7770	7770	commits misconduct after such individual gives notice to such individual's
7771	7771	intent to quit shall be disqualified;
7772	7772	(B) the individual was making a good-faith good faith effort to do the
7773	7773	assigned work but was discharged due to:
7774	7774	(i) Inefficiency;
7775	7775	(ii) unsatisfactory performance due to inability, incapacity or lack of
7776	7776	training or experience;
7777	7777	(iii) isolated instances of ordinary negligence or inadvertence;
7778	7778	(iv) good-faith good faith errors in judgment or discretion; or
7779	7779	(v) unsatisfactory work or conduct due to circumstances beyond the
7780	7780	individual's control; or
7781	7781	(C) the individual's refusal to perform work in excess of the contract
7782	7782	of hire.
7783	7783	(c) If the individual has failed, without good cause, to either apply for
7784	7784	suitable work when so directed by the employment office of the secretary
7785	7785	of labor, or to accept suitable work when offered to the individual by the
7786	7786	employment office, the secretary of labor, or an employer, such
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7830	7830	disqualification shall begin with the week in which such failure occurred
7831	7831	and shall continue until the individual becomes reemployed and has had
7832	7832	earnings from insured work of at least three times such individual's
7833	7833	determined weekly benefit amount. In determining whether or not any
7834	7834	work is suitable for an individual, the secretary of labor, or a person or
7835	7835	persons designated by the secretary, shall consider the degree of risk
7836	7836	involved to health, safety and morals, physical fitness and prior training,
7837	7837	experience and prior earnings, length of unemployment and prospects for
7838	7838	securing local work in the individual's customary occupation or work for
7839	7839	which the individual is reasonably fitted by training or experience, and the
7840	7840	distance of the available work from the individual's residence.
7841	7841	Notwithstanding any other provisions of this act, an otherwise eligible
7842	7842	individual shall not be disqualified for refusing an offer of suitable
7843	7843	employment, or failing to apply for suitable employment when notified by
7844	7844	an employment office, or for leaving the individual's most recent work
7845	7845	accepted during approved training, including training approved under
7846	7846	section 236(a)(1) of the trade act of 1974, if the acceptance of or applying
7847	7847	for suitable employment or continuing such work would require the
7848	7848	individual to terminate approved training and no work shall be deemed
7849	7849	suitable and benefits shall not be denied under this act to any otherwise
7850	7850	eligible individual for refusing to accept new work under any of the
7851	7851	following conditions:
7852	7852	(1) If the position offered is vacant due directly to a strike, lockout or
7853	7853	other labor dispute;
7854	7854	(2) if the remuneration, hours or other conditions of the work offered
7855	7855	are substantially less favorable to the individual than those prevailing for
7856	7856	similar work in the locality;
7857	7857	(3) if as a condition of being employed, the individual would be
7858	7858	required to join or to resign from or refrain from joining any labor
7859	7859	organization; and
7860	7860	(4) if the individual left employment as a result of domestic violence,
7861	7861	and the position offered does not reasonably accommodate the individual's
7862	7862	physical, psychological, safety, or legal needs relating to such domestic
7863	7863	violence.
7864	7864	(d) For any week with respect to which the secretary of labor, or a
7865	7865	person or persons designated by the secretary, finds that the individual's
7866	7866	unemployment is due to a stoppage of work which exists because of a
7867	7867	labor dispute or there would have been a work stoppage had normal
7868	7868	operations not been maintained with other personnel previously and
7869	7869	currently employed by the same employer at the factory, establishment or
7870	7870	other premises at which the individual is or was last employed, except that
7871	7871	this subsection (d) shall not apply if it is shown to the satisfaction of the
7872	7872	secretary of labor, or a person or persons designated by the secretary, that:
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7915	7915	43 SB 310 93
7916	7916	(1) The individual is not participating in or financing or directly interested
7917	7917	in the labor dispute which caused the stoppage of work; and (2) the
7918	7918	individual does not belong to a grade or class of workers of which,
7919	7919	immediately before the commencement of the stoppage, there were
7920	7920	members employed at the premises at which the stoppage occurs any of
7921	7921	whom are participating in or financing or directly interested in the dispute.
7922	7922	If in any case separate branches of work which are commonly conducted
7923	7923	as separate businesses in separate premises are conducted in separate
7924	7924	departments of the same premises, each such department shall, for the
7925	7925	purpose of this subsection be deemed to be a separate factory,
7926	7926	establishment or other premises. For the purposes of this subsection,
7927	7927	failure or refusal to cross a picket line or refusal for any reason during the
7928	7928	continuance of such labor dispute to accept the individual's available and
7929	7929	customary work at the factory, establishment or other premises where the
7930	7930	individual is or was last employed shall be considered as participation and
7931	7931	interest in the labor dispute.
7932	7932	(e) For any week with respect to which or a part of which the
7933	7933	individual has received or is seeking unemployment benefits under the
7934	7934	unemployment compensation law of any other state or of the United
7935	7935	States, except that if the appropriate agency of such other state or the
7936	7936	United States finally determines that the individual is not entitled to such
7937	7937	unemployment benefits, this disqualification shall not apply.
7938	7938	(f) For any week with respect to which the individual is entitled to
7939	7939	receive any unemployment allowance or compensation granted by the
7940	7940	United States under an act of congress to ex-service men and women in
7941	7941	recognition of former service with the military or naval services of the
7942	7942	United States.
7943	7943	(g) If the individual, or another in such individual's behalf with the
7944	7944	knowledge of the individual, has knowingly made a false statement or
7945	7945	representation, or has knowingly failed to disclose a material fact to obtain
7946	7946	or increase benefits under this act or any other unemployment
7947	7947	compensation law administered by the secretary of labor, unless the
7948	7948	individual has repaid the full amount of the overpayment as determined by
7949	7949	the secretary or the secretary's designee, including, but not limited to, the
7950	7950	total amount of money erroneously paid as benefits or unlawfully
7951	7951	obtained, interest, penalties and any other costs or fees provided by law. If
7952	7952	the individual has made such repayment, the individual shall be
7953	7953	disqualified for a period of one year for the first occurrence or five years
7954	7954	for any subsequent occurrence, beginning with the first day following the
7955	7955	date the department of labor confirmed the individual has successfully
7956	7956	repaid the full amount of the overpayment. In addition to the penalties set
7957	7957	forth in K.S.A. 44-719, and amendments thereto, an individual who has
7958	7958	knowingly made a false statement or representation or who has knowingly
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8001	8001	43 SB 310 94
8002	8002	failed to disclose a material fact to obtain or increase benefits under this
8003	8003	act or any other unemployment compensation law administered by the
8004	8004	secretary of labor shall be liable for a penalty in the amount equal to 25%
8005	8005	of the amount of benefits unlawfully received. Notwithstanding any other
8006	8006	provision of law, such penalty shall be deposited into the employment
8007	8007	security trust fund. No person who is a victim of identify theft shall be
8008	8008	subject to the provisions of this subsection. The secretary shall investigate
8009	8009	all cases of an alleged false statement or representation or failure to
8010	8010	disclose a material fact to ensure no victim of identity theft is disqualified,
8011	8011	required to repay or subject to any penalty as provided by this subsection
8012	8012	as a result of identity theft.
8013	8013	(h) For any week with respect to which the individual is receiving
8014	8014	compensation for temporary total disability or permanent total disability
8015	8015	under the workmen's compensation law of any state or under a similar law
8016	8016	of the United States.
8017	8017	(i) For any week of unemployment on the basis of service in an
8018	8018	instructional, research or principal administrative capacity for an
8019	8019	educational institution as defined in K.S.A. 44-703(v), and amendments
8020	8020	thereto, if such week begins during the period between two successive
8021	8021	academic years or terms or, when an agreement provides instead for a
8022	8022	similar period between two regular but not successive terms during such
8023	8023	period or during a period of paid sabbatical leave provided for in the
8024	8024	individual's contract, if the individual performs such services in the first of
8025	8025	such academic years or terms and there is a contract or a reasonable
8026	8026	assurance that such individual will perform services in any such capacity
8027	8027	for any educational institution in the second of such academic years or
8028	8028	terms.
8029	8029	(j) For any week of unemployment on the basis of service in any
8030	8030	capacity other than service in an instructional, research, or administrative
8031	8031	capacity in an educational institution, as defined in K.S.A. 44-703(v), and
8032	8032	amendments thereto, if such week begins during the period between two
8033	8033	successive academic years or terms if the individual performs such
8034	8034	services in the first of such academic years or terms and there is a
8035	8035	reasonable assurance that the individual will perform such services in the
8036	8036	second of such academic years or terms, except that if benefits are denied
8037	8037	to the individual under this subsection and the individual was not offered
8038	8038	an opportunity to perform such services for the educational institution for
8039	8039	the second of such academic years or terms, such individual shall be
8040	8040	entitled to a retroactive payment of benefits for each week for which the
8041	8041	individual filed a timely claim for benefits and for which benefits were
8042	8042	denied solely by reason of this subsection.
8043	8043	(k) For any week of unemployment on the basis of service in any
8044	8044	capacity for an educational institution as defined in K.S.A. 44-703(v), and
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8087	8087	43 SB 310 95
8088	8088	amendments thereto, if such week begins during an established and
8089	8089	customary vacation period or holiday recess, if the individual performs
8090	8090	services in the period immediately before such vacation period or holiday
8091	8091	recess and there is a reasonable assurance that such individual will perform
8092	8092	such services in the period immediately following such vacation period or
8093	8093	holiday recess.
8094	8094	(l) For any week of unemployment on the basis of any services,
8095	8095	substantially all of which consist of participating in sports or athletic
8096	8096	events or training or preparing to so participate, if such week begins during
8097	8097	the period between two successive sport seasons or similar period if such
8098	8098	individual performed services in the first of such seasons or similar periods
8099	8099	and there is a reasonable assurance that such individual will perform such
8100	8100	services in the later of such seasons or similar periods.
8101	8101	(m) For any week on the basis of services performed by an alien
8102	8102	unless such alien is an individual who was lawfully admitted for
8103	8103	permanent residence at the time such services were performed, was
8104	8104	lawfully present for purposes of performing such services, or was
8105	8105	permanently residing in the United States under color of law at the time
8106	8106	such services were performed, including an alien who was lawfully present
8107	8107	in the United States as a result of the application of the provisions of
8108	8108	section 212(d)(5) of the federal immigration and nationality act. Any data
8109	8109	or information required of individuals applying for benefits to determine
8110	8110	whether benefits are not payable to them because of their alien status shall
8111	8111	be uniformly required from all applicants for benefits. In the case of an
8112	8112	individual whose application for benefits would otherwise be approved, no
8113	8113	determination that benefits to such individual are not payable because of
8114	8114	such individual's alien status shall be made except upon a preponderance
8115	8115	of the evidence.
8116	8116	(n) For any week in which an individual is receiving a governmental
8117	8117	or other pension, retirement or retired pay, annuity or other similar
8118	8118	periodic payment under a plan maintained by a base period employer and
8119	8119	to which the entire contributions were provided by such employer, except
8120	8120	that:
8121	8121	(1) If the entire contributions to such plan were provided by the base
8122	8122	period employer but such individual's weekly benefit amount exceeds such
8123	8123	governmental or other pension, retirement or retired pay, annuity or other
8124	8124	similar periodic payment attributable to such week, the weekly benefit
8125	8125	amount payable to the individual shall be reduced, but not below zero, by
8126	8126	an amount equal to the amount of such pension, retirement or retired pay,
8127	8127	annuity or other similar periodic payment which is attributable to such
8128	8128	week; or
8129	8129	(2) if only a portion of contributions to such plan were provided by
8130	8130	the base period employer, the weekly benefit amount payable to such
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8174	8174	individual for such week shall be reduced, but not below zero, by the
8175	8175	prorated weekly amount of the pension, retirement or retired pay, annuity
8176	8176	or other similar periodic payment after deduction of that portion of the
8177	8177	pension, retirement or retired pay, annuity or other similar periodic
8178	8178	payment that is directly attributable to the percentage of the contributions
8179	8179	made to the plan by such individual; or
8180	8180	(3) if the entire contributions to the plan were provided by such
8181	8181	individual, or by the individual and an employer, or any person or
8182	8182	organization, who is not a base period employer, no reduction in the
8183	8183	weekly benefit amount payable to the individual for such week shall be
8184	8184	made under this subsection; or
8185	8185	(4) whatever portion of contributions to such plan were provided by
8186	8186	the base period employer, if the services performed for the employer by
8187	8187	such individual during the base period, or remuneration received for the
8188	8188	services, did not affect the individual's eligibility for, or increased the
8189	8189	amount of, such pension, retirement or retired pay, annuity or other similar
8190	8190	periodic payment, no reduction in the weekly benefit amount payable to
8191	8191	the individual for such week shall be made under this subsection.
8192	8192	No reduction shall be made for payments made under the social
8193	8193	security act or railroad retirement act of 1974.
8194	8194	(o) For any week of unemployment on the basis of services
8195	8195	performed in any capacity and under any of the circumstances described in
8196	8196	subsection (i), (j) or (k) that an individual performed in an educational
8197	8197	institution while in the employ of an educational service agency. For the
8198	8198	purposes of this subsection, the term "educational service agency" means a
8199	8199	governmental agency or entity which is established and operated
8200	8200	exclusively for the purpose of providing such services to one or more
8201	8201	educational institutions.
8202	8202	(p) For any week of unemployment on the basis of service as a school
8203	8203	bus or other motor vehicle driver employed by a private contractor to
8204	8204	transport pupils, students and school personnel to or from school-related
8205	8205	functions or activities for an educational institution, as defined in K.S.A.
8206	8206	44-703(v), and amendments thereto, if such week begins during the period
8207	8207	between two successive academic years or during a similar period between
8208	8208	two regular terms, whether or not successive, if the individual has a
8209	8209	contract or contracts, or a reasonable assurance thereof, to perform
8210	8210	services in any such capacity with a private contractor for any educational
8211	8211	institution for both such academic years or both such terms. An individual
8212	8212	shall not be disqualified for benefits as provided in this subsection for any
8213	8213	week of unemployment on the basis of service as a bus or other motor
8214	8214	vehicle driver employed by a private contractor to transport persons to or
8215	8215	from nonschool-related functions or activities.
8216	8216	(q) For any week of unemployment on the basis of services
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8260	8260	performed by the individual in any capacity and under any of the
8261	8261	circumstances described in subsection (i), (j), (k) or (o) which that are
8262	8262	provided to or on behalf of an educational institution, as defined in K.S.A.
8263	8263	44-703(v), and amendments thereto, while the individual is in the employ
8264	8264	of an employer which is a governmental entity, Indian tribe or any
8265	8265	employer described in section 501(c)(3) of the federal internal revenue
8266	8266	code of 1986 which is exempt from income under section 501(a) of the
8267	8267	code.
8268	8268	(r) For any week in which an individual is registered at and attending
8269	8269	an established school, training facility or other educational institution, or is
8270	8270	on vacation during or between two successive academic years or terms. An
8271	8271	individual shall not be disqualified for benefits as provided in this
8272	8272	subsection provided:
8273	8273	(1) The individual was engaged in full-time employment concurrent
8274	8274	with the individual's school attendance;
8275	8275	(2) the individual is attending approved training as defined in K.S.A.
8276	8276	44-703(s), and amendments thereto; or
8277	8277	(3) the individual is attending evening, weekend or limited day time
8278	8278	classes, which would not affect availability for work, and is otherwise
8279	8279	eligible under K.S.A. 44-705(c), and amendments thereto.
8280	8280	(s) For any week with respect to which an individual is receiving or
8281	8281	has received remuneration in the form of a back pay award or settlement.
8282	8282	The remuneration shall be allocated to the week or weeks in the manner as
8283	8283	specified in the award or agreement, or in the absence of such specificity
8284	8284	in the award or agreement, such remuneration shall be allocated to the
8285	8285	week or weeks in which such remuneration, in the judgment of the
8286	8286	secretary, would have been paid.
8287	8287	(1) For any such weeks that an individual receives remuneration in
8288	8288	the form of a back pay award or settlement, an overpayment will be
8289	8289	established in the amount of unemployment benefits paid and shall be
8290	8290	collected from the claimant.
8291	8291	(2) If an employer chooses to withhold from a back pay award or
8292	8292	settlement, amounts paid to a claimant while they claimed unemployment
8293	8293	benefits, such employer shall pay the department the amount withheld.
8294	8294	With respect to such amount, the secretary shall have available all of the
8295	8295	collection remedies authorized or provided in K.S.A. 44-717, and
8296	8296	amendments thereto.
8297	8297	(t) (1) Any applicant for or recipient of unemployment benefits who
8298	8298	tests positive for unlawful use of a controlled substance or controlled
8299	8299	substance analog shall be required to complete a substance abuse treatment
8300	8300	program approved by the secretary of labor, secretary of commerce or
8301	8301	secretary for children and families, and a job skills program approved by
8302	8302	the secretary of labor, secretary of commerce or the secretary for children
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8345	8345	43 SB 310 98
8346	8346	and families. Subject to applicable federal laws, any applicant for or
8347	8347	recipient of unemployment benefits who fails to complete or refuses to
8348	8348	participate in the substance abuse treatment program or job skills program
8349	8349	as required under this subsection shall be ineligible to receive
8350	8350	unemployment benefits until completion of such substance abuse
8351	8351	treatment and job skills programs. Upon completion of both substance
8352	8352	abuse treatment and job skills programs, such applicant for or recipient of
8353	8353	unemployment benefits may be subject to periodic drug screening, as
8354	8354	determined by the secretary of labor. Upon a second positive test for
8355	8355	unlawful use of a controlled substance or controlled substance analog, an
8356	8356	applicant for or recipient of unemployment benefits shall be ordered to
8357	8357	complete again a substance abuse treatment program and job skills
8358	8358	program, and shall be terminated from unemployment benefits for a period
8359	8359	of 12 months, or until such applicant for or recipient of unemployment
8360	8360	benefits completes both substance abuse treatment and job skills programs,
8361	8361	whichever is later. Upon a third positive test for unlawful use of a
8362	8362	controlled substance or controlled substance analog, an applicant for or a
8363	8363	recipient of unemployment benefits shall be terminated from receiving
8364	8364	unemployment benefits, subject to applicable federal law.
8365	8365	(2) Any individual who has been discharged or refused employment
8366	8366	for failing a preemployment drug screen required by an employer may
8367	8367	request that the drug screening specimen be sent to a different drug testing
8368	8368	facility for an additional drug screening. Any such individual who requests
8369	8369	an additional drug screening at a different drug testing facility shall be
8370	8370	required to pay the cost of drug screening.
8371	8371	(3) The provisions of this subsection shall not apply to any individual
8372	8372	who is a registered patient pursuant to section 8, and amendments thereto,
8373	8373	for activities authorized by the medical cannabis regulation act, section 1
8374	8374	et seq., and amendments thereto.
8375	8375	(u) If the individual was found not to have a disqualifying
8376	8376	adjudication or conviction under K.S.A. 39-970 or 65-5117, and
8377	8377	amendments thereto, was hired and then was subsequently convicted of a
8378	8378	disqualifying felony under K.S.A. 39-970 or 65-5117, and amendments
8379	8379	thereto, and discharged pursuant to K.S.A. 39-970 or 65-5117, and
8380	8380	amendments thereto. The disqualification shall begin the day following the
8381	8381	separation and shall continue until after the individual becomes
8382	8382	reemployed and has had earnings from insured work of at least three times
8383	8383	the individual's determined weekly benefit amount.
8384	8384	(v) Notwithstanding the provisions of any subsection, an individual
8385	8385	shall not be disqualified for such week of part-time employment in a
8386	8386	substitute capacity for an educational institution if such individual's most
8387	8387	recent employment prior to the individual's benefit year begin date was for
8388	8388	a non-educational institution and such individual demonstrates application
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8432	8432	for work in such individual's customary occupation or for work for which
8433	8433	the individual is reasonably fitted by training or experience.
8434	8434	Sec. 74. K.S.A. 44-1009 is hereby amended to read as follows: 44-
8435	8435	1009. (a) It shall be an unlawful employment practice:
8436	8436	(1) For an employer, because of the race, religion, color, sex,
8437	8437	disability, national origin or ancestry of any person to refuse to hire or
8438	8438	employ such person to bar or discharge such person from employment or
8439	8439	to otherwise discriminate against such person in compensation or in terms,
8440	8440	conditions or privileges of employment; to limit, segregate, separate,
8441	8441	classify or make any distinction in regards to employees; or to follow any
8442	8442	employment procedure or practice which, in fact, results in discrimination,
8443	8443	segregation or separation without a valid business necessity.
8444	8444	(2) For a labor organization, because of the race, religion, color, sex,
8445	8445	disability, national origin or ancestry of any person, to exclude or to expel
8446	8446	from its membership such person or to discriminate in any way against any
8447	8447	of its members or against any employer or any person employed by an
8448	8448	employer.
8449	8449	(3) For any employer, employment agency or labor organization to
8450	8450	print or circulate or cause to be printed or circulated any statement,
8451	8451	advertisement or publication, or to use any form of application for
8452	8452	employment or membership or to make any inquiry in connection with
8453	8453	prospective employment or membership, which expresses, directly or
8454	8454	indirectly, any limitation, specification or discrimination as to race,
8455	8455	religion, color, sex, disability, national origin or ancestry, or any intent to
8456	8456	make any such limitation, specification or discrimination, unless based on
8457	8457	a bona fide occupational qualification.
8458	8458	(4) For any employer, employment agency or labor organization to
8459	8459	discharge, expel or otherwise discriminate against any person because such
8460	8460	person has opposed any practices or acts forbidden under this act or
8461	8461	because such person has filed a complaint, testified or assisted in any
8462	8462	proceeding under this act.
8463	8463	(5) For an employment agency to refuse to list and properly classify
8464	8464	for employment or to refuse to refer any person for employment or
8465	8465	otherwise discriminate against any person because of such person's race,
8466	8466	religion, color, sex, disability, national origin or ancestry; or to comply
8467	8467	with a request from an employer for a referral of applicants for
8468	8468	employment if the request expresses, either directly or indirectly, any
8469	8469	limitation, specification or discrimination as to race, religion, color, sex,
8470	8470	disability, national origin or ancestry.
8471	8471	(6) For an employer, labor organization, employment agency, or
8472	8472	school which provides, coordinates or controls apprenticeship, on-the-job,
8473	8473	or other training or retraining program, to maintain a practice of
8474	8474	discrimination, segregation or separation because of race, religion, color,
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8517	8517	43 SB 310 100
8518	8518	sex, disability, national origin or ancestry, in admission, hiring,
8519	8519	assignments, upgrading, transfers, promotion, layoff, dismissal,
8520	8520	apprenticeship or other training or retraining program, or in any other
8521	8521	terms, conditions or privileges of employment, membership,
8522	8522	apprenticeship or training; or to follow any policy or procedure which, in
8523	8523	fact, results in such practices without a valid business motive.
8524	8524	(7) For any person, whether an employer or an employee or not, to
8525	8525	aid, abet, incite, compel or coerce the doing of any of the acts forbidden
8526	8526	under this act, or attempt to do so.
8527	8527	(8) For an employer, labor organization, employment agency or joint
8528	8528	labor-management committee to:
8529	8529	(A) Limit, segregate or classify a job applicant or employee in a way
8530	8530	that adversely affects the opportunities or status of such applicant or
8531	8531	employee because of the disability of such applicant or employee;
8532	8532	(B) participate in a contractual or other arrangement or relationship,
8533	8533	including a relationship with an employment or referral agency, labor
8534	8534	union, an organization providing fringe benefits to an employee or an
8535	8535	organization providing training and apprenticeship programs that has the
8536	8536	effect of subjecting a qualified applicant or employee with a disability to
8537	8537	the discrimination prohibited by this act;
8538	8538	(C) utilize standards criteria, or methods of administration that have
8539	8539	the effect of discrimination on the basis of disability or that perpetuate the
8540	8540	discrimination of others who are subject to common administrative
8541	8541	control;
8542	8542	(D) exclude or otherwise deny equal jobs or benefits to a qualified
8543	8543	individual because of the known disability of an individual with whom the
8544	8544	qualified individual is known to have a relationship or association;
8545	8545	(E) not make reasonable accommodations to the known physical or
8546	8546	mental limitations of an otherwise qualified individual with a disability
8547	8547	who is an applicant or employee, unless such employer, labor organization,
8548	8548	employment agency or joint labor-management committee can
8549	8549	demonstrate that the accommodation would impose an undue hardship on
8550	8550	the operation of the business thereof;
8551	8551	(F) deny employment opportunities to a job applicant or employee
8552	8552	who is an otherwise qualified individual with a disability, if such denial is
8553	8553	based on the need to make reasonable accommodation to the physical or
8554	8554	mental impairments of the employee or applicant;
8555	8555	(G) use qualification standards, employment tests or other selection
8556	8556	criteria that screen out or tend to screen out an individual with a disability
8557	8557	or a class of individuals with disabilities unless the standard, test or other
8558	8558	selection criteria, as used, is shown to be job-related for the position in
8559	8559	question and is consistent with business necessity; or
8560	8560	(H) fail to select and administer tests concerning employment in the
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8603	8603	43 SB 310 101
8604	8604	most effective manner to ensure that, when such test is administered to a
8605	8605	job applicant or employee who has a disability that impairs sensory,
8606	8606	manual or speaking skills, the test results accurately reflect the skills,
8607	8607	aptitude or whatever other factor of such applicant or employee that such
8608	8608	test purports to measure, rather than reflecting the impaired sensory,
8609	8609	manual or speaking skills of such employee or applicant (, except where
8610	8610	such skills are the factors that the test purports to measure).
8611	8611	(9) For any employer to:
8612	8612	(A) Seek to obtain, to obtain or to use genetic screening or testing
8613	8613	information of an employee or a prospective employee to distinguish
8614	8614	between or discriminate against or restrict any right or benefit otherwise
8615	8615	due or available to an employee or a prospective employee; or
8616	8616	(B) subject, directly or indirectly, any employee or prospective
8617	8617	employee to any genetic screening or test.
8618	8618	(10) (A) For an employer, because a person is a registered patient or
8619	8619	caregiver pursuant to section 8, and amendments thereto, or possesses or
8620	8620	uses medical cannabis in accordance with the medical cannabis
8621	8621	regulation act, section 1 et seq., and amendments thereto, to:
8622	8622	(i) Refuse to hire or employ a person;
8623	8623	(ii) bar or discharge such person from employment; or
8624	8624	(iii) otherwise discriminate against such person in compensation or
8625	8625	in terms, conditions or privileges of employment without a valid business
8626	8626	necessity.
8627	8627	(B) For a labor organization, because a person is a registered patient
8628	8628	or caregiver pursuant to section 8, and amendments thereto, or possesses
8629	8629	or uses medical cannabis in accordance with the medical cannabis
8630	8630	regulation act, section 1 et seq., and amendments thereto, to exclude or
8631	8631	expel such person from its membership.
8632	8632	(C) Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to prohibit a person
8633	8633	from taking any action necessary to procure or retain any monetary
8634	8634	benefit provided under federal law, or any rules and regulations adopted
8635	8635	thereunder, or to obtain or maintain any license, certificate, registration
8636	8636	or other legal status issued or bestowed under federal law, or any rules
8637	8637	and regulations adopted thereunder.
8638	8638	(D) Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to provide a cause
8639	8639	of action against an employer for wrongful discharge or discrimination for
8640	8640	any unlawful act involving cannabis.
8641	8641	(b) It shall not be an unlawful employment practice to fill vacancies
8642	8642	in such way as to eliminate or reduce imbalance with respect to race,
8643	8643	religion, color, sex, disability, national origin or ancestry.
8644	8644	(c) It shall be an unlawful discriminatory practice:
8645	8645	(1) For any person, as defined herein being the owner, operator,
8646	8646	lessee, manager, agent or employee of any place of public accommodation
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8689	8689	43 SB 310 102
8690	8690	to refuse, deny or make a distinction, directly or indirectly, in offering its
8691	8691	goods, services, facilities, and accommodations to any person as covered
8692	8692	by this act because of race, religion, color, sex, disability, national origin or
8693	8693	ancestry, except where a distinction because of sex is necessary because of
8694	8694	the intrinsic nature of such accommodation.
8695	8695	(2) For any person, whether or not specifically enjoined from
8696	8696	discriminating under any provisions of this act, to aid, abet, incite, compel
8697	8697	or coerce the doing of any of the acts forbidden under this act, or to
8698	8698	attempt to do so.
8699	8699	(3) For any person, to refuse, deny, make a distinction, directly or
8700	8700	indirectly, or discriminate in any way against persons because of the race,
8701	8701	religion, color, sex, disability, national origin or ancestry of such persons
8702	8702	in the full and equal use and enjoyment of the services, facilities,
8703	8703	privileges and advantages of any institution, department or agency of the
8704	8704	state of Kansas or any political subdivision or municipality thereof.
8705	8705	Sec. 75. K.S.A. 44-1015 is hereby amended to read as follows: 44-
8706	8706	1015. As used in this act, unless the context otherwise requires:
8707	8707	(a) "Commission" means the Kansas human rights commission.
8708	8708	(b) "Real property" means and includes:
8709	8709	(1) All vacant or unimproved land; and
8710	8710	(2) any building or structure which that is occupied or designed or
8711	8711	intended for occupancy, or any building or structure having a portion
8712	8712	thereof which that is occupied or designed or intended for occupancy.
8713	8713	(c) "Family" includes a single individual.
8714	8714	(d) "Person" means an individual, corporation, partnership,
8715	8715	association, labor organization, legal representative, mutual company,
8716	8716	joint-stock company, trust, unincorporated organization, trustee, trustee in
8717	8717	bankruptcy, receiver and fiduciary.
8718	8718	(e) "To rent" means to lease, to sublease, to let and otherwise to grant
8719	8719	for a consideration the right to occupy premises not owned by the
8720	8720	occupant.
8721	8721	(f) "Discriminatory housing practice" means any act that is unlawful
8722	8722	under K.S.A. 44-1016, 44-1017 or 44-1026, and amendments thereto, or
8723	8723	section 56, and amendments thereto.
8724	8724	(g) "Person aggrieved" means any person who claims to have been
8725	8725	injured by a discriminatory housing practice or believes that such person
8726	8726	will be injured by a discriminatory housing practice that is about to occur.
8727	8727	(h) "Disability" has the meaning provided by means the same as
8728	8728	defined in K.S.A. 44-1002, and amendments thereto.
8729	8729	(i) "Familial status" means having one or more individuals less than
8730	8730	18 years of age domiciled with:
8731	8731	(1) A parent or another person having legal custody of such
8732	8732	individual or individuals; or
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8775	8775	43 SB 310 103
8776	8776	(2) the designee of such parent or other person having such custody,
8777	8777	with the written permission of such parent or other person.
8778	8778	Sec. 76. K.S.A. 79-5201 is hereby amended to read as follows: 79-
8779	8779	5201. As used in this act article 52 of chapter 79 of the Kansas Statutes
8780	8780	Annotated, and amendments thereto:
8781	8781	(a) "Marijuana" means any marijuana, whether real or counterfeit, as
8782	8782	defined by K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5701, and amendments thereto, which is
8783	8783	held, possessed, transported, transferred, sold or offered to be sold in
8784	8784	violation of the laws of Kansas;
8785	8785	(b) "Controlled substance" means any drug or substance, whether real
8786	8786	or counterfeit, as defined by K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5701, and amendments
8787	8787	thereto, which that is held, possessed, transported, transferred, sold or
8788	8788	offered to be sold in violation of the laws of Kansas. Such term shall not
8789	8789	include marijuana;
8790	8790	(c)(b) "dealer" means any person who, in violation of Kansas law,
8791	8791	manufactures, produces, ships, transports or imports into Kansas or in any
8792	8792	manner acquires or possesses more than 28 grams of marijuana, or more
8793	8793	than one gram of any controlled substance, or 10 or more dosage units of
8794	8794	any controlled substance which that is not sold by weight;
8795	8795	(d)(c) "domestic marijuana plant" means any cannabis plant at any
8796	8796	level of growth which that is harvested or tended, manicured, irrigated,
8797	8797	fertilized or where there is other evidence that it has been treated in any
8798	8798	other way in an effort to enhance growth.;
8799	8799	(d) "marijuana" means any marijuana, whether real or counterfeit,
8800	8800	as defined in K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 21-5701, and amendments thereto, that is
8801	8801	held, possessed, transported, transferred, sold or offered for sale in
8802	8802	violation of the laws of Kansas; and
8803	8803	(e) "medical cannabis" means the same as defined in section 2, and
8804	8804	amendments thereto.
8805	8805	Sec. 77. K.S.A. 79-5210 is hereby amended to read as follows: 79-
8806	8806	5210. Nothing in this act requires persons registered under article 16 of
8807	8807	chapter 65 of the Kansas Statutes Annotated, and amendments thereto, or
8808	8808	otherwise lawfully in possession of marijuana, medical cannabis or a
8809	8809	controlled substance to pay the tax required under this act.
8810	8810	Sec. 78. K.S.A. 38-2269, 41-201, 44-501, 44-706, 44-1009, 44-1015,
8811	8811	79-5201 and 79-5210 and K.S.A. 2022 Supp. 19-101a, 21-5703, 21-5705,
8812	8812	21-5706, 21-5707, 21-5709, 21-5710, 21-6607, 22-3717 and 23-3201 are
8813	8813	hereby repealed.
8814	8814	Sec. 79. This act shall take effect and be in force from and after its
8815	8815	publication in the statute book.
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8818	8818	3
8819	8819	4
8820	8820	5
8821	8821	6
8822	8822	7
8823	8823	8
8824	8824	9
8825	8825	10
8826	8826	11
8827	8827	12
8828	8828	13
8829	8829	14
8830	8830	15
8831	8831	16
8832	8832	17
8833	8833	18
8834	8834	19
8835	8835	20
8836	8836	21
8837	8837	22
8838	8838	23
8839	8839	24
8840	8840	25
8841	8841	26
8842	8842	27
8843	8843	28
8844	8844	29
8845	8845	30
8846	8846	31
8847	8847	32
8848	8848	33
8849	8849	34
8850	8850	35
8851	8851	36
8852	8852	37
8853	8853	38
8854	8854	39
8855	8855	40