Kansas 2025-2026 Regular Session

Kansas House Bill HB2359 Compare Versions

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11 Session of 2025
22 HOUSE BILL No. 2359
33 By Committee on Judiciary
44 Requested by Nancy Strouse on behalf of the Kansas Judicial Council.
55 2-7
66 AN ACT concerning guardians and conservators; enacting the uniform
77 adult guardianship and protective proceedings jurisdiction act and the
88 uniform guardianship, conservatorship and other protective
99 arrangements act; amending K.S.A. 9-1215, 17-2263, 17-2264, 21-
1010 5417, 38-2217, 44-513a, 44-1601, 58-662, 58-24a15, 59-1701, 59-
1111 2949, 59-2951, 59-2960, 59-29b49, 59-29b51, 73-507, 76-729, 76-
1212 12b04 and 77-201 and K.S.A. 2024 Supp. 58-656, 58-4802, 58-4814,
1313 58a-103, 59-2401a, 59-2946, 59-2948, 59-29b46, 59-29b48, 59-29b60,
1414 59-29c03 and 75-652 and repealing the existing sections; also repealing
1515 K.S.A. 59-2701, 59-2702, 59-2703, 59-2704, 59-2705, 59-2706, 59-
1616 2707, 59-2708, 59-3050, 59-3054, 59-3057, 59-3063, 59-3064, 59-
1717 3066, 59-3071, 59-3072, 59-3074, 59-3076, 59-3079, 59-3081, 59-
1818 3082, 59-3084, 59-3085, 59-3087, 59-3088, 59-3089, 59-3090, 59-
1919 3091, 59-3092, 59-3093, 59-3095 and 59-3096 and K.S.A. 2024 Supp.
2020 59-3051, 59-3052, 59-3053, 59-3055, 59-3056, 59-3058, 59-3059, 59-
2121 3060, 59-3061, 59-3062, 59-3065, 59-3067, 59-3068, 59-3069, 59-
2222 3070, 59-3073, 59-3075, 59-3077, 59-3078, 59-3080, 59-3083, 59-
2323 3086, 59-3094 and 59-3097.
2424 Be it enacted by the Legislature of the State of Kansas:
2525 New Section 1. Sections 1 through 23, and amendments thereto, may
2626 be cited as the uniform adult guardianship and protective proceedings
2727 jurisdiction act (2007).
2828 New Sec. 2. As used in this act:
2929 (a) "Adult" means an individual who has attained 18 years of age or
3030 an emancipated individual under 18 years of age.
3131 (b) "Conservator" means a person appointed by the court to
3232 administer the property of an adult, including a person appointed under
3333 section 93, and amendments thereto.
3434 (c) "Guardian" means a person appointed by the court to make
3535 decisions regarding the person of an adult, including a person appointed
3636 under section 72, and amendments thereto.
3737 (d) "Guardianship order" means an order appointing a guardian.
3838 (e) "Guardianship proceeding" means a judicial proceeding in which
3939 an order for the appointment of a guardian is sought or has been issued.
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7575 (f) "Incapacitated person" means an adult for whom a guardian has
7676 been appointed.
7777 (g) "Party" means the respondent, petitioner, guardian, conservator or
7878 any other person allowed by the court to participate in a guardianship or
7979 protective proceeding.
8080 (h) "Person," except in the term "incapacitated person" or "protected
8181 person," means an individual, corporation, business trust, estate, trust,
8282 partnership, limited liability company, association, joint venture, public
8383 corporation, government or governmental subdivision, agency or
8484 instrumentality, or any other legal or commercial entity.
8585 (i) "Protected person" means an adult for whom a protective order has
8686 been issued.
8787 (j) "Protective order" means an order appointing a conservator or
8888 other order related to management of an adult's property.
8989 (k) "Protective proceeding" means a judicial proceeding in which a
9090 protective order is sought or has been issued.
9191 (l) "Record" means information that is inscribed on a tangible
9292 medium or that is stored in an electronic or other medium and is
9393 retrievable in perceivable form.
9494 (m) "Respondent" means an adult for whom a protective order or the
9595 appointment of a guardian is sought.
9696 (n) "State" means a state of the United States, the District of
9797 Columbia, Puerto Rico, the United States Virgin Islands, a federally
9898 recognized Indian tribe or any territory or insular possession subject to the
9999 jurisdiction of the United States.
100100 New Sec. 3. A court of this state may treat a foreign country as if it
101101 were a state for the purpose of applying sections 1 through 17 and sections
102102 21 through 23, and amendments thereto.
103103 New Sec. 4. (a) A court of this state may communicate with a court in
104104 another state concerning a proceeding arising under this act. The court may
105105 allow the parties to participate in the communication. Except as otherwise
106106 provided in subsection (b), the court shall make a record of the
107107 communication. The record may be limited to the fact that the
108108 communication occurred.
109109 (b) Courts may communicate concerning schedules, calendars, court
110110 records and other administrative matters without making a record.
111111 New Sec. 5. (a) In a guardianship or protective proceeding in this
112112 state, a court of this state may request the appropriate court of another state
113113 to do any of the following:
114114 (1) Hold an evidentiary hearing;
115115 (2) order a person in that state to produce evidence or give testimony
116116 pursuant to procedures of that state;
117117 (3) order that an evaluation or assessment be made of the respondent;
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161161 (4) order any appropriate investigation of a person involved in a
162162 proceeding;
163163 (5) forward to the court of this state a certified copy of the transcript
164164 or other record of a hearing under paragraph (1) or any other proceeding,
165165 any evidence otherwise produced under paragraph (2) and any evaluation
166166 or assessment prepared in compliance with an order under paragraph (3) or
167167 (4);
168168 (6) issue any order necessary to assure the appearance in the
169169 proceeding of a person whose presence is necessary for the court to make a
170170 determination, including the respondent or the incapacitated or protected
171171 person; and
172172 (7) issue an order authorizing the release of medical, financial,
173173 criminal or other relevant information in that state, including protected
174174 health information as defined in 45 C.F.R 160.103.
175175 (b) If a court of another state in which a guardianship or protective
176176 proceeding is pending requests assistance of the kind provided in
177177 subsection (a), a court of this state has jurisdiction for the limited purpose
178178 of granting the request or making reasonable efforts to comply with the
179179 request.
180180 New Sec. 6. (a) In a guardianship or protective proceeding, in
181181 addition to other procedures that may be available, testimony of a witness
182182 who is located in another state may be offered by deposition or other
183183 means allowable in this state for testimony taken in another state. The
184184 court on its own motion may order that the testimony of a witness be taken
185185 in another state and may prescribe the manner in which and the terms upon
186186 which the testimony is to be taken.
187187 (b) In a guardianship or protective proceeding, a court in this state
188188 may permit a witness located in another state to be deposed or to testify by
189189 telephone or audiovisual or other electronic means. A court of this state
190190 shall cooperate with the court of the other state in designating an
191191 appropriate location for the deposition or testimony.
192192 New Sec. 7. (a) As used in sections 7 through 15, and amendments
193193 thereto:
194194 (1) "Emergency" means a circumstance that likely will result in
195195 substantial harm to a respondent's health, safety or welfare, and for which
196196 the appointment of a guardian is necessary because no other person has
197197 authority and is willing to act on the respondent's behalf;
198198 (2) "home state" means the state in which the respondent was
199199 physically present, including any period of temporary absence, for at least
200200 six consecutive months immediately before the filing of a petition for a
201201 protective order or the appointment of a guardian, or if none, the state in
202202 which the respondent was physically present, including any period of
203203 temporary absence, for at least six consecutive months ending within the
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247247 six months prior to the filing of the petition; and
248248 (3) "significant-connection state" means a state, other than the home
249249 state, with which a respondent has a significant connection other than mere
250250 physical presence and in which substantial evidence concerning the
251251 respondent is available.
252252 (b) In determining under sections 9 and 16(e), and amendments
253253 thereto, whether a respondent has a significant connection with a particular
254254 state, the court shall consider:
255255 (1) The location of the respondent's family and other persons required
256256 to be notified of the guardianship or protective proceeding;
257257 (2) the length of time the respondent at any time was physically
258258 present in the state and the duration of any absence;
259259 (3) the location of the respondent's property; and
260260 (4) the extent to which the respondent has ties to the state such as
261261 voting registration, state or local tax return filing, vehicle registration,
262262 driver's license, social relationship and receipt of services.
263263 New Sec. 8. Sections 7 through 15, and amendments thereto,
264264 provides the exclusive jurisdictional basis for a court of this state to
265265 appoint a guardian or issue a protective order for an adult.
266266 New Sec. 9. A court of this state has jurisdiction to appoint a guardian
267267 or issue a protective order for a respondent if:
268268 (a) This state is the respondent's home state;
269269 (b) on the date the petition is filed, this state is a significant-
270270 connection state and:
271271 (1) The respondent does not have a home state or a court of the
272272 respondent's home state has declined to exercise jurisdiction because this
273273 state is a more appropriate forum; or
274274 (2) the respondent has a home state, a petition for an appointment or
275275 order is not pending in a court of that state or another significant-
276276 connection state, and, before the court makes the appointment or issues the
277277 order:
278278 (A) A petition for an appointment or order is not filed in the
279279 respondent's home state;
280280 (B) an objection to the court's jurisdiction is not filed by a person
281281 required to be notified of the proceeding; and
282282 (C) the court in this state concludes that it is an appropriate forum
283283 under the factors set forth in section 12, and amendments thereto;
284284 (c) this state does not have jurisdiction under either subsection (a) or
285285 (b), the respondent's home state and all significant-connection states have
286286 declined to exercise jurisdiction because this state is the more appropriate
287287 forum and jurisdiction in this state is consistent with the constitutions of
288288 this state and the United States; or
289289 (d) the requirements for special jurisdiction under section 10, and
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333333 amendments thereto, are met.
334334 New Sec. 10. (a) A court of this state lacking jurisdiction under
335335 section 9(a), (b) or (c), and amendments thereto, has special jurisdiction to
336336 do any of the following:
337337 (1) Appoint a guardian in an emergency for a term not exceeding 90
338338 days for a respondent who is physically present in this state;
339339 (2) issue a protective order with respect to real or tangible personal
340340 property located in this state;
341341 (3) appoint a guardian or conservator for an incapacitated or protected
342342 person for whom a provisional order to transfer the proceeding from
343343 another state has been issued under procedures similar to section 16, and
344344 amendments thereto.
345345 (b) If a petition for the appointment of a guardian in an emergency is
346346 brought in this state and this state was not the respondent's home state on
347347 the date the petition was filed, the court shall dismiss the proceeding at the
348348 request of the court of the home state, if any, whether dismissal is
349349 requested before or after the emergency appointment.
350350 New Sec. 11. Except as otherwise provided in section 10, and
351351 amendments thereto, a court that has appointed a guardian or issued a
352352 protective order consistent with this act has exclusive and continuing
353353 jurisdiction over the proceeding until it is terminated by the court or the
354354 appointment or order expires by its own terms.
355355 New Sec. 12. (a) A court of this state having jurisdiction under
356356 section 9, and amendments thereto, to appoint a guardian or issue a
357357 protective order may decline to exercise its jurisdiction if it determines at
358358 any time that a court of another state is a more appropriate forum.
359359 (b) If a court of this state declines to exercise its jurisdiction under
360360 subsection (a), it shall either dismiss or stay the proceeding. The court may
361361 impose any condition the court considers just and proper, including the
362362 condition that a petition for the appointment of a guardian or issuance of a
363363 protective order be filed promptly in another state.
364364 (c) In determining whether it is an appropriate forum, the court shall
365365 consider all relevant factors, including:
366366 (1) Any expressed preference of the respondent;
367367 (2) whether abuse, neglect or exploitation of the respondent has
368368 occurred or is likely to occur and which state could best protect the
369369 respondent from the abuse, neglect or exploitation;
370370 (3) the length of time the respondent was physically present in or was
371371 a legal resident of this or another state;
372372 (4) the distance of the respondent from the court in each state;
373373 (5) the financial circumstances of the respondent's estate;
374374 (6) the nature and location of the evidence;
375375 (7) the ability of the court in each state to decide the issue
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419419 expeditiously and the procedures necessary to present evidence;
420420 (8) the familiarity of the court of each state with the facts and issues
421421 in the proceeding; and
422422 (9) if an appointment were made, the court's ability to monitor the
423423 conduct of the guardian or conservator.
424424 New Sec. 13. (a) If at any time a court of this state determines that it
425425 acquired jurisdiction to appoint a guardian or issue a protective order
426426 because of unjustifiable conduct, the court may:
427427 (1) Decline to exercise jurisdiction;
428428 (2) exercise jurisdiction for the limited purpose of fashioning an
429429 appropriate remedy to ensure the health, safety and welfare of the
430430 respondent or the protection of the respondent's property or prevent a
431431 repetition of the unjustifiable conduct, including staying the proceeding
432432 until a petition for the appointment of a guardian or issuance of a
433433 protective order is filed in a court of another state having jurisdiction; or
434434 (3) continue to exercise jurisdiction after considering:
435435 (A) The extent to which the respondent and all persons required to be
436436 notified of the proceedings have acquiesced in the exercise of the court's
437437 jurisdiction;
438438 (B) whether it is a more appropriate forum than the court of any other
439439 state under the factors set forth in section 12(c), and amendments thereto;
440440 and
441441 (C) whether the court of any other state would have jurisdiction under
442442 factual circumstances in substantial conformity with the jurisdictional
443443 standards of section 9, and amendments thereto.
444444 (b) If a court of this state determines that it acquired jurisdiction to
445445 appoint a guardian or issue a protective order because a party seeking to
446446 invoke its jurisdiction engaged in unjustifiable conduct, it may assess
447447 against that party necessary and reasonable expenses, including attorney
448448 fees, investigative fees, court costs, communication expenses, witness fees
449449 and expenses and travel expenses. The court may not assess fees, costs or
450450 expenses of any kind against this state or a governmental subdivision,
451451 agency or instrumentality of this state unless authorized by law other than
452452 this act.
453453 New Sec. 14. If a petition for the appointment of a guardian or
454454 issuance of a protective order is brought in this state and this state was not
455455 the respondent's home state on the date the petition was filed, in addition
456456 to complying with the notice requirements of this state, notice of the
457457 petition must be given to those persons who would be entitled to notice of
458458 the petition if a proceeding were brought in the respondent's home state.
459459 The notice must be given in the same manner as notice is required to be
460460 given in this state.
461461 New Sec. 15. Except for a petition for the appointment of a guardian
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505505 in an emergency or issuance of a protective order limited to property
506506 located in this state under section 10(a)(1) or (2), and amendments thereto,
507507 if a petition for the appointment of a guardian or issuance of a protective
508508 order is filed in this state and in another state and neither petition has been
509509 dismissed or withdrawn, the following rules apply:
510510 (a) If the court in this state has jurisdiction under section 9, and
511511 amendments thereto, it may proceed with the case unless a court in another
512512 state acquires jurisdiction under provisions similar to section 9, and
513513 amendments thereto, before the appointment or issuance of the order.
514514 (b) If the court in this state does not have jurisdiction under section 9,
515515 and amendments thereto, whether at the time the petition is filed or at any
516516 time before the appointment or issuance of the order, the court shall stay
517517 the proceeding and communicate with the court in the other state. If the
518518 court in the other state has jurisdiction, the court in this state shall dismiss
519519 the petition unless the court in the other state determines that the court in
520520 this state is a more appropriate forum.
521521 New Sec. 16. (a) A guardian or conservator appointed in this state
522522 may petition the court to transfer the guardianship or conservatorship to
523523 another state.
524524 (b) Notice of a petition under subsection (a) must be given to the
525525 persons that would be entitled to notice of a petition in this state for the
526526 appointment of a guardian or conservator.
527527 (c) On the court's own motion or on request of the guardian or
528528 conservator, the incapacitated or protected person, or other person required
529529 to be notified of the petition, the court shall hold a hearing on a petition
530530 filed pursuant to subsection (a).
531531 (d) The court shall issue an order provisionally granting a petition to
532532 transfer a guardianship and shall direct the guardian to petition for
533533 guardianship in the other state if the court is satisfied that the guardianship
534534 will be accepted by the court in the other state and the court finds that:
535535 (1) The incapacitated person is physically present in or is reasonably
536536 expected to move permanently to the other state;
537537 (2) an objection to the transfer has not been made or, if an objection
538538 has been made, the objector has not established that the transfer would be
539539 contrary to the interests of the incapacitated person; and
540540 (3) plans for care and services for the incapacitated person in the
541541 other state are reasonable and sufficient.
542542 (e) The court shall issue a provisional order granting a petition to
543543 transfer a conservatorship and shall direct the conservator to petition for
544544 conservatorship in the other state if the court is satisfied that the
545545 conservatorship will be accepted by the court of the other state and the
546546 court finds that:
547547 (1) The protected person is physically present in or is reasonably
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591591 expected to move permanently to the other state, or the protected person
592592 has a significant connection to the other state considering the factors in
593593 section 7(b), and amendments thereto;
594594 (2) an objection to the transfer has not been made or, if an objection
595595 has been made, the objector has not established that the transfer would be
596596 contrary to the interests of the protected person; and
597597 (3) adequate arrangements will be made for management of the
598598 protected person's property.
599599 (f) The court shall issue a final order confirming the transfer and
600600 terminating the guardianship or conservatorship upon its receipt of:
601601 (1) A provisional order accepting the proceeding from the court to
602602 which the proceeding is to be transferred which is issued under provisions
603603 similar to section 17, and amendments thereto; and
604604 (2) the documents required to terminate a guardianship or
605605 conservatorship in this state.
606606 New Sec. 17. (a) To confirm transfer of a guardianship or
607607 conservatorship transferred to this state under provisions similar to section
608608 16, and amendments thereto, the guardian or conservator must petition the
609609 court in this state to accept the guardianship or conservatorship. The
610610 petition must include a certified copy of the other state's provisional order
611611 of transfer.
612612 (b) Notice of a petition under subsection (a) must be given to those
613613 persons that would be entitled to notice if the petition were a petition for
614614 the appointment of a guardian or issuance of a protective order in both the
615615 transferring state and this state. The notice must be given in the same
616616 manner as notice is required to be given in this state.
617617 (c) On the court's own motion or on request of the guardian or
618618 conservator, the incapacitated or protected person, or other person required
619619 to be notified of the proceeding, the court shall hold a hearing on a petition
620620 filed pursuant to subsection (a).
621621 (d) The court shall issue an order provisionally granting a petition
622622 filed under subsection (a) unless:
623623 (1) An objection is made and the objector establishes that transfer of
624624 the proceeding would be contrary to the interests of the incapacitated or
625625 protected person; or
626626 (2) the guardian or conservator is ineligible for appointment in this
627627 state.
628628 (e) The court shall issue a final order accepting the proceeding and
629629 appointing the guardian or conservator as guardian or conservator in this
630630 state upon its receipt from the court from which the proceeding is being
631631 transferred of a final order issued under provisions similar to section 16,
632632 and amendments thereto, transferring the proceeding to this state.
633633 (f) Not later than 90 days after issuance of a final order accepting
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677677 transfer of a guardianship or conservatorship, the court shall determine
678678 whether the guardianship or conservatorship needs to be modified to
679679 conform to the law of this state.
680680 (g) In granting a petition under this section, the court shall recognize
681681 a guardianship or conservatorship order from the other state, including the
682682 determination of the incapacitated or protected person's incapacity and the
683683 appointment of the guardian or conservator.
684684 (h) The denial by a court of this state of a petition to accept a
685685 guardianship or conservatorship transferred from another state does not
686686 affect the ability of the guardian or conservator to seek appointment as
687687 guardian or conservator in this state under sections 24 through 135, and
688688 amendments thereto, if the court has jurisdiction to make an appointment
689689 other than by reason of the provisional order of transfer.
690690 New Sec. 18. If a guardian has been appointed in another state and a
691691 petition for the appointment of a guardian is not pending in this state, the
692692 guardian appointed in the other state, after giving notice to the appointing
693693 court of an intent to register, may register the guardianship order in this
694694 state by filing as a foreign judgment in a court, in any appropriate county
695695 of this state, certified copies of the order and letters of office.
696696 New Sec. 19. If a conservator has been appointed in another state and
697697 a petition for a protective order is not pending in this state, the conservator
698698 appointed in the other state, after giving notice to the appointing court of
699699 an intent to register, may register the protective order in this state by filing
700700 as a foreign judgment in a court of this state, in any county in which
701701 property belonging to the protected person is located, certified copies of
702702 the order and letters of office and of any bond.
703703 New Sec. 20. (a) Upon registration of a guardianship or protective
704704 order from another state, the guardian or conservator may exercise in this
705705 state all powers authorized in the order of appointment except as
706706 prohibited under the laws of this state, including maintaining actions and
707707 proceedings in this state and, if the guardian or conservator is not a
708708 resident of this state, subject to any conditions imposed upon nonresident
709709 parties.
710710 (b) A court of this state may grant any relief available under this act
711711 and other law of this state to enforce a registered order.
712712 New Sec. 21. In applying and construing this uniform act,
713713 consideration must be given to the need to promote uniformity of the law
714714 with respect to its subject matter among states that enact it.
715715 New Sec. 22. This act modifies, limits or supersedes the electronic
716716 signatures in global and national commerce act, 15 U.S.C. § 7001 et seq.,
717717 but does not modify, limit or supersede section 101(c) of that act, 15
718718 U.S.C. § 7001(c), or authorize electronic delivery of any of the notices
719719 described in section 103(b) of that act, 15 U.S.C. § 7003(b).
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763763 New Sec. 23. (a) This act applies to guardianship and protective
764764 proceedings begun on or after January 1, 2026.
765765 (b) Sections 1 through 6 and 16 through 22, and amendments thereto,
766766 apply to proceedings begun before January 1, 2026, regardless of whether
767767 a guardianship or protective order has been issued.
768768 New Sec. 24. Sections 24 through 135, and amendments thereto, may
769769 be cited as the Kansas uniform guardianship, conservatorship and other
770770 protective arrangements act.
771771 New Sec. 25. As used in this act:
772772 (a) "Adult" means an individual at least 18 years of age or an
773773 emancipated individual under 18 years of age.
774774 (b) "Adult subject to conservatorship" means an adult for whom a
775775 conservator has been appointed under this act.
776776 (c) "Adult subject to guardianship" means an adult for whom a
777777 guardian has been appointed under this act.
778778 (d) "Claim" includes a claim against an individual or conservatorship
779779 estate, whether arising in contract, tort or otherwise.
780780 (e) "Conservator" means a person appointed by a court to make
781781 decisions with respect to the property or financial affairs of an individual
782782 subject to conservatorship. "Conservator" includes a co-conservator.
783783 (f) "Conservatorship estate" means the property subject to
784784 conservatorship under this act.
785785 (g) "Full conservatorship" means a conservatorship that grants the
786786 conservator all powers available under this act.
787787 (h) "Full guardianship" means a guardianship that grants the guardian
788788 all powers available under this act.
789789 (i) "Guardian" means a person appointed by the court to make
790790 decisions with respect to the personal affairs of an individual. "Guardian"
791791 includes a co-guardian but does not include a guardian ad litem.
792792 (j) "Guardian ad litem" means a person appointed to inform the court
793793 about, and to represent, the needs and best interest of an individual.
794794 (k) "Individual subject to conservatorship" means an adult or minor
795795 for whom a conservator has been appointed under this act.
796796 (l) "Individual subject to guardianship" means an adult or minor for
797797 whom a guardian has been appointed under this act.
798798 (m) "Less restrictive alternative" means an approach to meeting an
799799 individual's needs which restricts fewer rights of the individual than would
800800 the appointment of a guardian or conservator. "Less restrictive alternative"
801801 includes supported decision making, appropriate technological assistance,
802802 appointment of a representative payee and appointment of an agent by the
803803 individual, including appointment under a power of attorney for healthcare
804804 or power of attorney for finances.
805805 (n) "Letters of office" means a record issued by a court certifying a
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849849 guardian's or conservator's authority to act.
850850 (o) "Limited conservatorship" means a conservatorship that grants the
851851 conservator less than all powers available under this act, grants powers
852852 over only certain property or otherwise restricts the powers of the
853853 conservator.
854854 (p) "Limited guardianship" means a guardianship that grants the
855855 guardian less than all powers available under this act or otherwise restricts
856856 the powers of the guardian.
857857 (q) "Minor" means an unemancipated individual under 18 years of
858858 age.
859859 (r) "Minor subject to conservatorship" means a minor for whom a
860860 conservator has been appointed under this act.
861861 (s) "Minor subject to guardianship" means a minor for whom a
862862 guardian has been appointed under this act.
863863 (t) "Parent" does not include an individual whose parental rights have
864864 been terminated.
865865 (u) "Person" means an individual, estate, business or nonprofit entity,
866866 public corporation, government or governmental subdivision, agency or
867867 instrumentality or other legal entity.
868868 (v) "Property" includes tangible and intangible property.
869869 (w) "Protective arrangement instead of conservatorship" means a
870870 court order entered under section 121, and amendments thereto.
871871 (x) "Protective arrangement instead of guardianship" means a court
872872 order entered under section 120, and amendments thereto.
873873 (y) "Record," used as a noun, means information that is inscribed on a
874874 tangible medium or that is stored in an electronic or other medium and is
875875 retrievable in perceivable form.
876876 (z) "Respondent" means an individual for whom appointment of a
877877 guardian or conservator or a protective arrangement instead of
878878 guardianship or conservatorship is sought.
879879 (aa) "Sign" means, with present intent to authenticate or adopt a
880880 record:
881881 (1) To execute or adopt a tangible symbol; or
882882 (2) to attach to or logically associate with the record an electronic
883883 symbol, sound or process.
884884 (bb) "Standby guardian" means a person appointed by the court under
885885 section 57, and amendments thereto.
886886 (cc) "State" means a state of the United States, the District of
887887 Columbia, Puerto Rico, the United States Virgin Islands or any territory or
888888 insular possession subject to the jurisdiction of the United States. "State"
889889 includes a federally recognized Indian tribe.
890890 (dd) "Supported decision making" means assistance from one or more
891891 persons of an individual's choosing in understanding the nature and
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935935 consequences of potential personal and financial decisions, which enables
936936 the individual to make the decisions, and in communicating a decision
937937 once made if consistent with the individual's wishes.
938938 New Sec. 26. Unless displaced by a particular provision of this act,
939939 the principles of law and equity supplement its provisions.
940940 New Sec. 27. (a) Except to the extent jurisdiction is precluded by the
941941 uniform child custody jurisdiction and enforcement act, K.S.A. 23-37,101
942942 through 23-37,405, and amendments thereto, the district court has
943943 jurisdiction over a guardianship for a minor domiciled or present in this
944944 state. The court has jurisdiction over a conservatorship or protective
945945 arrangement instead of conservatorship for a minor domiciled or having
946946 property in this state.
947947 (b) The district court has jurisdiction over a guardianship,
948948 conservatorship or protective arrangement under section 120 or 121, and
949949 amendments thereto, for an adult as provided in the uniform adult
950950 guardianship and protective proceedings jurisdiction act, sections 1
951951 through 23, and amendments thereto.
952952 (c) After notice is given in a proceeding for a guardianship,
953953 conservatorship or protective arrangement under section 120 or 121, and
954954 amendments thereto, and until termination of the proceeding, the court in
955955 which the petition is filed has:
956956 (1) Exclusive jurisdiction to determine the need for the guardianship,
957957 conservatorship or protective arrangement;
958958 (2) exclusive jurisdiction to determine how property of the
959959 respondent must be managed, expended or distributed to or for the use of
960960 the respondent, an individual who is dependent in fact on the respondent or
961961 other claimant;
962962 (3) nonexclusive jurisdiction to determine the validity of a claim
963963 against the respondent or property of the respondent or a question of title
964964 concerning the property; and
965965 (4) if a guardian or conservator is appointed, exclusive jurisdiction
966966 over issues related to administration of the guardianship or
967967 conservatorship.
968968 (d) A court that appoints a guardian or conservator, or authorizes a
969969 protective arrangement under section 120 or 121, and amendments thereto,
970970 has exclusive and continuing jurisdiction over the proceeding until the
971971 court terminates the proceeding or the appointment or protective
972972 arrangement expires by its terms.
973973 New Sec. 28. (a) This section does not apply to a guardianship or
974974 conservatorship for an adult that is subject to the transfer provisions of
975975 section 16 or 17, and amendments thereto.
976976 (b) After appointment of a guardian or conservator, the court that
977977 made the appointment may transfer the proceeding to a court in another
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10211021 county in this state or another state if transfer is in the best interest of the
10221022 individual subject to the guardianship or conservatorship.
10231023 (c) If a proceeding for a guardianship or conservatorship is pending in
10241024 another state or a foreign country and a petition for guardianship or
10251025 conservatorship for the same individual is filed in a court in this state, the
10261026 court shall notify the court in the other state or foreign country and, after
10271027 consultation with that court, assume or decline jurisdiction, whichever is in
10281028 the best interest of the respondent.
10291029 (d) A guardian or conservator appointed in another state or country
10301030 may petition the court for appointment as a guardian or conservator in this
10311031 state for the same individual if jurisdiction in this state is or will be
10321032 established. The appointment may be made on proof of appointment in the
10331033 other state or foreign country and presentation of a certified copy of the
10341034 part of the court record in the other state or country specified by the court
10351035 in this state.
10361036 (e) Notice of hearing on a petition under subsection (d), together with
10371037 a copy of the petition, must be given to the respondent, if the respondent is
10381038 at least 12 years of age at the time of the hearing, and to the persons that
10391039 would be entitled to notice if the procedures for appointment of a guardian
10401040 or conservator under this act were applicable. The court shall make the
10411041 appointment unless it determines the appointment would not be in the best
10421042 interest of the respondent.
10431043 (f) Not later than 14 days after appointment under subsection (e), the
10441044 guardian or conservator shall give a copy of the order of appointment to
10451045 the individual subject to guardianship or conservatorship, if the individual
10461046 is at least 12 years of age, and to all persons given notice of the hearing on
10471047 the petition.
10481048 New Sec. 29. (a) Except as provided in subsection (e), venue for a
10491049 guardianship proceeding for a minor is in:
10501050 (1) The county in which the minor resides or is present at the time the
10511051 proceeding commences; or
10521052 (2) the county in which another proceeding concerning the custody or
10531053 parental rights of the minor is pending.
10541054 (b) Except as provided in subsection (e), venue for a guardianship
10551055 proceeding or protective arrangement instead of guardianship for an adult
10561056 is in:
10571057 (1) The county in which the respondent resides;
10581058 (2) if the respondent has been admitted to an institution by court
10591059 order, the county in which the court is located; or
10601060 (3) if the proceeding is for appointment of an emergency guardian for
10611061 an adult, the county in which the respondent is present.
10621062 (c) Except as provided in subsection (e), venue for a conservatorship
10631063 proceeding or protective arrangement instead of conservatorship is in:
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11071107 (1) The county in which the respondent resides, whether or not a
11081108 guardian has been appointed in another county or other jurisdiction; or
11091109 (2) if the respondent does not reside in this state, in any county in
11101110 which property of the respondent is located.
11111111 (d) If proceedings under this act are brought in more than one county,
11121112 the court of the county in which the first proceeding is brought has the
11131113 exclusive right to proceed unless the court determines that venue is
11141114 properly in another court or the interest of justice otherwise requires
11151115 transfer of the proceeding.
11161116 (e) If proceedings under this act are brought in a county other than as
11171117 provided in subsections (a), (b) or (c), the court may determine that venue
11181118 is proper if it is in the best interest of the respondent and in the interest of
11191119 justice for the proceedings to take place in that county.
11201120 New Sec. 30. (a) The petitioner and the respondent shall each be
11211121 afforded an opportunity to appear at the trial, to testify and to present and
11221122 cross-examine witnesses. If the trial has been consolidated with a trial
11231123 being held pursuant to either the care and treatment act for mentally ill
11241124 persons or the care and treatment act for persons with an alcohol or
11251125 substance abuse problem, persons not necessary for the conduct of the
11261126 proceedings may be excluded as provided for in those acts. The trial shall
11271127 be conducted in as informal a manner as may be consistent with orderly
11281128 procedure. The court shall have the authority to receive all relevant and
11291129 material evidence which may be offered, including the testimony or
11301130 written report, findings or recommendations of any professional or other
11311131 person who has examined or evaluated the respondent and the testimony
11321132 and written findings and recommendations of any court liaison appointed
11331133 pursuant to section 67, and amendments thereto. Such evidence shall not
11341134 be privileged for the purpose of this trial.
11351135 (b) If proceedings for a guardianship, conservatorship or protective
11361136 arrangement under section 120 or 121, and amendments thereto, for the
11371137 same individual are commenced or pending in the same court, the
11381138 proceedings may be consolidated.
11391139 (c) A respondent may demand a jury trial in a proceeding under this
11401140 act on the issue of whether a basis exists for appointment of a guardian or
11411141 conservator.
11421142 New Sec. 31. (a) The court shall issue letters of office to a guardian
11431143 on filing by the guardian of:
11441144 (1) An acceptance of appointment;
11451145 (2) an oath or affirmation as required by K.S.A. 59-1702, and
11461146 amendments thereto;
11471147 (3) evidence of completion of a basic instructional program
11481148 concerning the duties and responsibilities of a guardian; and
11491149 (4) a personal information sheet containing any personal identifying
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11931193 information about the guardian required by the court. Such information
11941194 shall not be disclosed to the public.
11951195 (b) The court shall issue letters of office to a conservator on filing by
11961196 the conservator of:
11971197 (1) An acceptance of appointment;
11981198 (2) an oath or affirmation as required by K.S.A. 59-1702, and
11991199 amendments thereto;
12001200 (3) any required bond or compliance with any other asset-protection
12011201 arrangement required by the court;
12021202 (4) evidence of completion of a basic instructional program
12031203 concerning the duties and responsibilities of a conservator; and
12041204 (5) a personal information sheet containing any personal identifying
12051205 information about the conservator required by the court. Such information
12061206 shall not be disclosed to the public.
12071207 (c) Limitations on the powers of a guardian or conservator or on the
12081208 property subject to conservatorship must be stated on the letters of office.
12091209 If the court appoints co-guardians or co-conservators, the letters of office
12101210 must specify whether such co-guardians or co-conservators may act
12111211 independently, whether they must act jointly, or under what circumstances
12121212 or with regard to what matters they may act independently or must act
12131213 jointly.
12141214 (d) The court at any time may limit the powers conferred on a
12151215 guardian or conservator. The court shall issue new letters of office to
12161216 reflect the limitation. The court shall give notice of the limitation to the
12171217 guardian or conservator, individual subject to guardianship or
12181218 conservatorship, each parent of a minor subject to guardianship or
12191219 conservatorship and any other person the court determines.
12201220 (e) The judicial council shall prepare a basic instructional program
12211221 concerning the duties and responsibilities of a guardian and a conservator.
12221222 The court shall have the authority to require any guardian or conservator
12231223 appointed prior to January 1, 2026, to complete the basic instructional
12241224 program and provide evidence thereof to the court.
12251225 New Sec. 32. (a) On acceptance of appointment, a guardian or
12261226 conservator submits to personal jurisdiction of the court in this state in any
12271227 proceeding relating to the guardianship or conservatorship.
12281228 (b) Every guardian or conservator that resides outside the state of
12291229 Kansas shall appoint a resident agent by executing an appointment of
12301230 resident agent that specifically identifies the person or entity that will act
12311231 as the resident agent. A resident agent may be either:
12321232 (1) An individual resident in this state; or
12331233 (2) a corporation, limited partnership, limited liability partnership,
12341234 limited liability company or business trust that has its principal place of
12351235 business in this state.
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12791279 (c) Every resident agent for a guardian or conservator shall:
12801280 (1) Maintain contact with and remain aware of the current address
12811281 and phone number of the guardian or conservator;
12821282 (2) accept service of process and other communications directed to
12831283 the guardian or conservator; and
12841284 (3) forward to the guardian or conservator documents sent by the
12851285 court, the secretary of state or any other state agency.
12861286 (d) Every resident agent shall accept the appointment as resident
12871287 agent by executing an acceptance of appointment that specifically
12881288 identifies the name of the guardian or conservator and expresses the
12891289 appointed resident agent's agreement to fulfill their role, as described in
12901290 this section.
12911291 (e) For purposes of this section, the terms guardian and conservator
12921292 shall include co-guardians and co-conservators, temporary substitute
12931293 guardians and conservators, standby guardians and conservators, successor
12941294 guardians and conservators and emergency guardians and conservators.
12951295 New Sec. 33. (a) The court at any time may appoint a co-guardian or
12961296 co-conservator who may act when that co-guardian or co-conservator
12971297 complies with section 31(a) or (b), and amendments thereto, respectively.
12981298 (b) If the court appoints co-guardians or co-conservators, the court
12991299 shall specify in the letters of office whether such co-guardians or co-
13001300 conservators may act independently, whether they must act jointly, or
13011301 under what circumstances or with regard to what matters they may act
13021302 independently or must act jointly.
13031303 New Sec. 34. (a) The court at any time may appoint a successor
13041304 guardian or successor conservator to serve immediately or when a
13051305 designated event occurs, including the absence, impairment, resignation or
13061306 death of the guardian or conservator.
13071307 (b) A person entitled under section 52 or 65, and amendments thereto,
13081308 to petition the court to appoint a guardian may petition the court to appoint
13091309 a successor guardian. A person entitled under section 84, and amendments
13101310 thereto, to petition the court to appoint a conservator may petition the court
13111311 to appoint a successor conservator.
13121312 (c) A successor guardian or successor conservator appointed to serve
13131313 when a designated event occurs may act as guardian or conservator when:
13141314 (1) The event occurs; and
13151315 (2) the successor complies with section 31(a) or (b), and amendments
13161316 thereto, respectively.
13171317 (d) A successor guardian or successor conservator has the
13181318 predecessor's powers unless otherwise provided by the court.
13191319 New Sec. 35. (a) Any corporation organized under the Kansas general
13201320 corporation code may act as guardian for an individual found to be in need
13211321 of a guardian under the Kansas uniform guardianship, conservatorship and
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13651365 other protective arrangements act, sections 24 through 135, and
13661366 amendments thereto, if the corporation has been certified by the secretary
13671367 for children and families as a suitable agency to perform the duties of a
13681368 guardian.
13691369 (b) The secretary for children and families shall establish criteria for
13701370 determining whether a corporation should be certified as a suitable agency
13711371 to perform the duties of a guardian. The criteria shall be designed for the
13721372 protection of the ward and shall include, but not be limited to, the
13731373 following:
13741374 (1) Whether the corporation is capable of performing the duties of a
13751375 guardian;
13761376 (2) whether the staff of the corporation is accessible and available to
13771377 wards and to other persons concerned about their well-being and is
13781378 adequate in number to properly perform the duties and responsibilities of a
13791379 guardian;
13801380 (3) whether the corporation is a stable organization which is likely to
13811381 continue in existence for some time; and
13821382 (4) whether the corporation will agree to submit such reports and
13831383 answer such questions as the secretary may require in monitoring
13841384 corporate guardianships.
13851385 (c) Application for certification under this section shall be made to
13861386 the secretary for children and families in such manner as the secretary may
13871387 direct. The secretary for children and families may suspend or revoke
13881388 certification of a corporation under this section, after notice and hearing,
13891389 upon a finding that such corporation has failed to comply with the criteria
13901390 established by rules and regulations under subsection (b). Such corporation
13911391 shall not be appointed as a guardian during the period of time the
13921392 certificate is suspended or revoked.
13931393 (d) No corporation shall be eligible for appointment as provided for
13941394 in sections 55 and 71, and amendments thereto, as the guardian of any
13951395 person if such corporation provides care, treatment or housing to that
13961396 person or is the owner, part owner or operator of any adult care home,
13971397 lodging establishment or institution utilized for the care, treatment or
13981398 housing of that person.
13991399 (e) The secretary for children and families may adopt rules and
14001400 regulations necessary to administer the provisions of this section.
14011401 New Sec. 36. (a) Appointment of a guardian or conservator
14021402 terminates on the death or removal of the guardian or conservator, or when
14031403 the court under subsection (b) approves a resignation of the guardian or
14041404 conservator.
14051405 (b) A guardian or conservator must petition the court for approval to
14061406 resign. The petition may include a request that the court appoint a
14071407 successor. Notice of the petition must be given to the person subject to
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14511451 guardianship or conservatorship and any other person the court
14521452 determines. Resignation of a guardian or conservator is effective on the
14531453 date the resignation is approved by the court.
14541454 (c) Death, removal or resignation of a guardian or conservator does
14551455 not affect liability for a previous act or the obligation to account for:
14561456 (1) An action taken on behalf of the individual subject to
14571457 guardianship or conservatorship; or
14581458 (2) the individual's funds or other property.
14591459 New Sec. 37. (a) Except as otherwise provided in sections 53, 57, 66,
14601460 85 and 123, and amendments thereto, if notice of a hearing under this act
14611461 is required, the movant shall give notice of the date, time and place of the
14621462 hearing to the person to be notified unless otherwise ordered by the court
14631463 for good cause. Except as otherwise provided in this act, notice must be
14641464 given in compliance with K.S.A. 59-2208, and amendments thereto, at
14651465 least 14 days before the hearing.
14661466 (b) Proof of notice of a hearing under this act must be made before or
14671467 at the hearing and filed in the proceeding.
14681468 (c) Notice of a hearing under this act must be in at least 16-point font,
14691469 in plain language, and, to the extent feasible, in a language in which the
14701470 person to be notified is proficient.
14711471 New Sec. 38. A respondent, individual subject to guardianship,
14721472 individual subject to conservatorship or individual subject to a protective
14731473 arrangement under section 120 or 121, and amendments thereto, may not
14741474 waive notice under this act. Any other person may waive notice in a record
14751475 signed by the person or person's attorney and filed in the proceeding.
14761476 New Sec. 39. The court at any time may appoint a guardian ad litem
14771477 for an individual if the court determines the individual's interest otherwise
14781478 would not be adequately represented. If no conflict of interest exists, a
14791479 guardian ad litem may be appointed to represent multiple individuals or
14801480 interests. The guardian ad litem may not be the same individual as the
14811481 attorney representing the respondent. The court shall state the duties of the
14821482 guardian ad litem and the reasons for the appointment in the order of
14831483 appointment.
14841484 New Sec. 40. (a) A person may file with the court a request for notice
14851485 under this act if the person is:
14861486 (1) Not otherwise entitled to notice; and
14871487 (2) interested in the welfare of a respondent, individual subject to
14881488 guardianship or conservatorship or individual subject to a protective
14891489 arrangement under section 120 or 121, and amendments thereto.
14901490 (b) A request under subsection (a) must include a statement showing
14911491 the interest of the person making the request and the address of the person
14921492 or an attorney for the person to whom notice is to be given.
14931493 (c) If the court approves a request under subsection (a), the court shall
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15371537 give notice of the approval to the guardian or conservator, if one has been
15381538 appointed, or the respondent if no guardian or conservator has been
15391539 appointed.
15401540 New Sec. 41. (a) Before accepting appointment as a guardian or
15411541 conservator, a person shall disclose to the court whether the person:
15421542 (1) Is or has been a debtor in a bankruptcy, insolvency or receivership
15431543 proceeding;
15441544 (2) has been convicted of:
15451545 (A) A felony;
15461546 (B) a crime involving dishonesty, neglect, violence or use of physical
15471547 force; or
15481548 (C) other crime relevant to the functions the individual would assume
15491549 as guardian or conservator;
15501550 (3) has committed an act of physical, mental or emotional abuse or
15511551 neglect or sexual abuse as validated by the Kansas department for children
15521552 and families pursuant to K.S.A. 38-2226, and amendments thereto; or
15531553 (4) has been found to have committed an act of abuse, neglect or
15541554 exploitation of an adult as contained in the register of reports under K.S.A.
15551555 39-1434, and amendments thereto.
15561556 (b) A guardian or conservator that engages or anticipates engaging a
15571557 service provider the guardian or conservator knows has been convicted of
15581558 a felony, a crime involving dishonesty, neglect, violence or use of physical
15591559 force, or other crime relevant to the functions the service provider is being
15601560 engaged to perform promptly shall disclose that knowledge to the court in
15611561 writing.
15621562 (c) If a conservator engages or anticipates engaging a service provider
15631563 under section 47, and amendments thereto, to manage finances of the
15641564 individual subject to conservatorship and knows the service provider is or
15651565 has been a debtor in a bankruptcy, insolvency or receivership proceeding,
15661566 the conservator promptly shall disclose that knowledge to the court in
15671567 writing.
15681568 New Sec. 42. (a) Unless otherwise compensated or reimbursed, an
15691569 attorney for a respondent in a proceeding under this act is entitled to
15701570 reasonable compensation for services and reimbursement of reasonable
15711571 expenses from the property of the respondent.
15721572 (b) Unless otherwise compensated or reimbursed, an attorney or other
15731573 person whose services resulted in an order beneficial to an individual
15741574 subject to guardianship or conservatorship or for whom a protective
15751575 arrangement under section 120 or 121, and amendments thereto, was
15761576 ordered is entitled to reasonable compensation for services and
15771577 reimbursement of reasonable expenses from the property of the individual.
15781578 (c) The court must approve compensation and expenses payable
15791579 under this section before payment. Approval is not required before a
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16231623 service is provided or an expense is incurred. The costs may be taxed to
16241624 the property of the respondent or individual subject to guardianship or
16251625 conservatorship or for whom a protective arrangement under section 120
16261626 or 121, and amendments thereto, was ordered, to those bound by law to
16271627 support such person, to other parties whenever it would be just and
16281628 equitable to do so, or to the county of residence of the respondent or
16291629 individual subject to guardianship or conservatorship or for whom a
16301630 protective arrangement under section 120 or 121, and amendments thereto,
16311631 was ordered as the court having venue shall direct.
16321632 (d) If the court dismisses a petition under this act and determines the
16331633 petition was filed in bad faith, the court may assess the cost of any court-
16341634 ordered professional evaluation or court liaison and attorney fees against
16351635 the petitioner or the petitioner's counsel.
16361636 (e) In any contested proceeding the court, in its discretion, may
16371637 require one or more parties to give security for the costs of the proceeding
16381638 or, in lieu of such security, to file a poverty affidavit as provided for in the
16391639 code of civil procedure.
16401640 (f) Any district court receiving a statement of costs from another
16411641 district court shall approve the same for payment out of the general fund of
16421642 its county except that it may refuse to approve the same for payment only
16431643 on the grounds that the respondent or person under guardianship or
16441644 conservatorship is not a resident of that county. In such case it shall
16451645 transmit the statement of costs to the secretary of the department for
16461646 children and families who shall determine the question of residence and
16471647 certify those findings to each district court. If the claim for costs is not
16481648 paid within 30 days after such certification, an action may be maintained
16491649 thereon by the claimant county in the district court of the claimant county
16501650 against the debtor county. The findings made by the secretary of the
16511651 department for children and families as to the residence of the respondent
16521652 or person subject to guardianship or conservatorship shall be applicable
16531653 only to the assessment of costs. Any county of residence which pays from
16541654 its general fund court costs to the district court of another county may
16551655 recover the same in any court of competent jurisdiction from the estate of
16561656 the respondent or person subject to guardianship or conservatorship or
16571657 from those bound by law to support the respondent or person subject to
16581658 guardianship or conservatorship, unless the court finds that the
16591659 proceedings in which such costs were incurred were instituted without
16601660 good cause and not in good faith.
16611661 New Sec. 43. (a) Subject to court approval, a guardian is entitled to
16621662 reasonable compensation for services as guardian and to reimbursement
16631663 for room, board, clothing and other appropriate expenses advanced for the
16641664 benefit of the individual subject to guardianship.
16651665 (b) Subject to court approval, a conservator is entitled to reasonable
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17091709 compensation for services and reimbursement for appropriate expenses
17101710 from the property of the individual subject to conservatorship.
17111711 (c) In determining reasonable compensation for a guardian or
17121712 conservator, the court, or a conservator in determining reasonable
17131713 compensation for a guardian as provided in subsection (a), shall consider:
17141714 (1) The necessity and quality of the services provided;
17151715 (2) the experience, training, professional standing and skills of the
17161716 guardian or conservator;
17171717 (3) the difficulty of the services performed, including the degree of
17181718 skill and care required;
17191719 (4) the conditions and circumstances under which a service was
17201720 performed, including whether the service was provided outside regular
17211721 business hours or under dangerous or extraordinary conditions;
17221722 (5) the effect of the services on the individual subject to guardianship
17231723 or conservatorship;
17241724 (6) the extent to which the services provided were or were not
17251725 consistent with the guardian's plan under section 79, and amendments
17261726 thereto, or conservator's plan under section 103, and amendments thereto;
17271727 and
17281728 (7) the fees customarily paid to a person that performs a like service
17291729 in the community.
17301730 (d) A guardian or conservator need not use personal funds of the
17311731 guardian or conservator for the expenses of the individual subject to
17321732 guardianship or conservatorship.
17331733 (e) If an individual subject to guardianship or conservatorship seeks
17341734 to modify or terminate the guardianship or conservatorship or remove the
17351735 guardian or conservator, the court may order compensation to the guardian
17361736 or conservator for time spent opposing modification, termination or
17371737 removal only to the extent the court determines the opposition was
17381738 reasonably necessary to protect the interest of the individual subject to
17391739 guardianship or conservatorship.
17401740 (f) Nothing in this section shall prohibit a guardian or a conservator
17411741 associated with the Kansas guardianship program from receiving a stipend
17421742 from that program.
17431743 New Sec. 44. A guardian or conservator is not personally liable to
17441744 another person solely because of the guardianship or conservatorship for
17451745 an act or omission of the individual subject to guardianship or
17461746 conservatorship.
17471747 New Sec. 45. (a) A guardian or conservator may petition the court for
17481748 instruction concerning fiduciary responsibility or ratification of a
17491749 particular act related to the guardianship or conservatorship.
17501750 (b) Upon the filing of a petition under this section, the court may
17511751 appoint counsel for the individual subject to guardianship or
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17951795 conservatorship.
17961796 (c) On notice and hearing on a petition under subsection (a), the court
17971797 may give an instruction and issue an appropriate order.
17981798 New Sec. 46. (a) A person must recognize the authority of a guardian
17991799 or conservator to act on behalf of an individual subject to guardianship or
18001800 conservatorship unless:
18011801 (1) The person has actual knowledge or a reasonable belief that the
18021802 letters of office of the guardian or conservator are invalid or the
18031803 conservator or guardian is exceeding or improperly exercising authority
18041804 granted by the court;
18051805 (2) the person has actual knowledge that the individual subject to
18061806 guardianship or conservatorship is subject to physical or financial abuse,
18071807 neglect, exploitation or abandonment by the guardian or conservator or a
18081808 person acting for or with the guardian or conservator; or
18091809 (3) the person makes, or has actual knowledge that another person
18101810 has made, a report under K.S.A. 39-1402 or 39-1431, and amendments
18111811 thereto, stating a good-faith belief that the individual subject to
18121812 guardianship or conservatorship is subject to physical or financial abuse,
18131813 neglect, exploitation or abandonment by the guardian or conservator or a
18141814 person acting for or with the guardian or conservator.
18151815 (b) A person that refuses to accept the authority of a guardian or
18161816 conservator must, within 10 days of the refusal, report the refusal and the
18171817 reason for refusal to the court. Upon receiving the report, the clerk of the
18181818 district court shall forward the report to the presiding judge who shall
18191819 consider whether further action is appropriate. A report of a refusal under
18201820 this section shall be treated in the same manner as a grievance under
18211821 section 50, and amendments thereto.
18221822 (c) A guardian or conservator may petition the court to require a third
18231823 party to accept a decision made by the guardian or conservator on behalf
18241824 of the individual subject to guardianship or conservatorship.
18251825 New Sec. 47. (a) A guardian or conservator may retain a third person
18261826 to provide any service to an individual subject to guardianship or
18271827 conservatorship if retaining such third person, hereinafter referred to as a
18281828 service provider, is consistent with the guardian's or conservator's fiduciary
18291829 duties and the guardian's plan under section 79, and amendments thereto,
18301830 or conservator's plan under section 103, and amendments thereto.
18311831 (b) In retaining a service provider under subsection (a), the guardian
18321832 or conservator shall exercise reasonable care, skill and caution in:
18331833 (1) Selecting the service provider;
18341834 (2) establishing the scope and terms of the service provider's work in
18351835 accordance with the guardian's plan under section 79, and amendments
18361836 thereto, or the conservator's plan under section 103, and amendments
18371837 thereto;
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18811881 (3) monitoring the service provider's performance and compliance
18821882 with the scope and terms of work; and
18831883 (4) redressing an act or omission of the service provider which would
18841884 constitute a breach of the guardian's or conservator's duties if done by the
18851885 guardian or conservator.
18861886 (c) In providing services under this section, a service provider shall
18871887 exercise reasonable care to comply with the scope and terms of the work
18881888 and use reasonable care in the performance of the work.
18891889 (d) A service provider who agrees to provide services under
18901890 subsection (a) submits to the personal jurisdiction of the courts of this state
18911891 in an action involving the service provider's performance.
18921892 (e) A guardian or conservator that retains and monitors a service
18931893 provider in compliance with this section is not liable for the decision, act
18941894 or omission of the service provider.
18951895 New Sec. 48. (a) The court may appoint a temporary substitute
18961896 guardian for an individual subject to guardianship for a period not
18971897 exceeding six months if:
18981898 (1) A proceeding to remove a guardian for the individual is pending;
18991899 or
19001900 (2) the court finds a guardian is not effectively performing the
19011901 guardian's duties and the welfare of the individual requires immediate
19021902 action.
19031903 (b) The court may appoint a temporary substitute conservator for an
19041904 individual subject to conservatorship for a period not exceeding six
19051905 months if:
19061906 (1) A proceeding to remove a conservator for the individual is
19071907 pending; or
19081908 (2) the court finds that a conservator for the individual is not
19091909 effectively performing the conservator's duties and the welfare of the
19101910 individual or the conservatorship estate requires immediate action.
19111911 (c) Except as otherwise ordered by the court, a temporary substitute
19121912 guardian or temporary substitute conservator appointed under this section
19131913 has the powers stated in the order of appointment of the guardian or
19141914 conservator. The authority of the existing guardian or conservator is
19151915 suspended for as long as the temporary substitute guardian or conservator
19161916 has authority.
19171917 (d) (1) The court shall give notice of appointment of a temporary
19181918 substitute guardian or temporary substitute conservator, not later than five
19191919 days after the appointment, to:
19201920 (A) The individual subject to guardianship or conservatorship;
19211921 (B) the affected guardian or conservator; and
19221922 (C) in the case of a minor, each parent of the minor and any person
19231923 currently having care or custody of the minor.
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19671967 (2) If the individual subject to guardianship or conservatorship is not
19681968 represented by an attorney, the court shall appoint an attorney under the
19691969 same conditions as in sections 54 and 68, and amendments thereto. The
19701970 court shall set the matter for hearing if any person entitled to notice so
19711971 requests.
19721972 (e) The court may remove a temporary substitute guardian or
19731973 temporary substitute conservator at any time. The temporary substitute
19741974 guardian or temporary substitute conservator shall make any report the
19751975 court requires.
19761976 New Sec. 49. (a) If a guardian has been appointed in another state for
19771977 an individual, and a petition for guardianship for the individual is not
19781978 pending in this state, the guardian appointed in the other state, after giving
19791979 notice to the appointing court, may register the guardianship order in this
19801980 state by filing as a foreign judgment, in a court of an appropriate county of
19811981 this state, certified copies of the order and letters of office.
19821982 (b) If a conservator has been appointed in another state for an
19831983 individual, and a petition for conservatorship for the individual is not
19841984 pending in this state, the conservator appointed for the individual in the
19851985 other state, after giving notice to the appointing court, may register the
19861986 conservatorship in this state by filing as a foreign judgment, in a court of a
19871987 county in which property belonging to the individual subject to
19881988 conservatorship is located, certified copies of the order of conservatorship,
19891989 letters of office and any bond or other asset-protection arrangement
19901990 required by the court.
19911991 (c) On registration under this section of a guardianship or
19921992 conservatorship order from another state, the guardian or conservator may
19931993 exercise in this state all powers authorized in the order except as
19941994 prohibited by this act and law of this state other than this act. If the
19951995 guardian or conservator is not a resident of this state, the guardian or
19961996 conservator may maintain an action or proceeding in this state subject to
19971997 any condition imposed by this state on an action or proceeding by a
19981998 nonresident party.
19991999 (d) The court may grant any relief available under this act and law of
20002000 this state other than this act to enforce an order registered under this
20012001 section. However, absent a transfer pursuant to section 28, and
20022002 amendments thereto, jurisdiction remains with the court that established
20032003 the guardianship or conservatorship.
20042004 New Sec. 50. (a) An individual who is subject to guardianship or
20052005 conservatorship, or person interested in the welfare of an individual
20062006 subject to guardianship or conservatorship, who reasonably believes the
20072007 guardian or conservator is breaching the guardian's or conservator's
20082008 fiduciary duty or otherwise acting in a manner inconsistent with this act
20092009 may file a grievance in a record with the court. The clerk of the district
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20532053 court shall forward the grievance to the presiding judge.
20542054 (b) Subject to subsection (c), after receiving a grievance under
20552055 subsection (a), the court:
20562056 (1) Shall review the grievance and, if necessary to determine the
20572057 appropriate response, court records related to the guardianship or
20582058 conservatorship;
20592059 (2) shall schedule a hearing if the individual subject to guardianship
20602060 or conservatorship is an adult and the grievance supports a reasonable
20612061 belief that:
20622062 (A) Removal of the guardian and appointment of a successor may be
20632063 appropriate under section 81, and amendments thereto;
20642064 (B) termination or modification of the guardianship may be
20652065 appropriate under section 82, and amendments thereto;
20662066 (C) removal of the conservator and appointment of a successor may
20672067 be appropriate under section 112, and amendments thereto; or
20682068 (D) termination or modification of the conservatorship may be
20692069 appropriate under section 113, and amendments thereto; and
20702070 (3) may take any action supported by the evidence, including:
20712071 (A) Ordering the guardian or conservator to provide the court a
20722072 report, accounting, inventory, updated plan or other information;
20732073 (B) appointing a guardian ad litem;
20742074 (C) appointing an attorney for the individual subject to guardianship
20752075 or conservatorship; or
20762076 (D) holding a hearing.
20772077 (c) The court may decline to act under subsection (b) if a similar
20782078 grievance was filed within the six months preceding the filing of the
20792079 current grievance and the court followed the procedures of subsection (b)
20802080 in considering the earlier grievance.
20812081 New Sec. 51. (a) A person becomes a guardian for a minor only on
20822082 appointment by the court.
20832083 (b) After a hearing under section 53, and amendments thereto, the
20842084 court may appoint a guardian for a minor who does not have a guardian if
20852085 the court finds the appointment is in the minor's best interest and:
20862086 (1) Each parent of the minor, after being fully informed of the nature
20872087 and consequences of guardianship, consents;
20882088 (2) all parental rights have been terminated;
20892089 (3) there is clear and convincing evidence that the parents of the
20902090 minor are unwilling, unable or unfit to exercise the powers the court is
20912091 granting the guardian; or
20922092 (4) there is clear and convincing evidence that highly unusual or
20932093 extraordinary circumstances exist that cause the court to appoint the
20942094 guardian over the objection of a parent of the minor.
20952095 New Sec. 52. (a) A person interested in the welfare of a minor,
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21392139 including the minor, may file a verified petition for appointment of a
21402140 guardian for the minor.
21412141 (b) A petition under subsection (a) must state the petitioner's name,
21422142 principal residence, current street address if different, relationship to the
21432143 minor, interest in the appointment, the name and address of any attorney
21442144 representing the petitioner and, to the extent known, the following:
21452145 (1) The minor's name, age, principal residence, current street address
21462146 if different and address of the dwelling in which it is proposed the minor
21472147 will reside if the appointment is made;
21482148 (2) the names and current street addresses of the minor's parents;
21492149 (3) the name and address, if known, of each person that had primary
21502150 care or custody of the minor for at least 60 days during the two years
21512151 immediately before the filing of the petition or for at least 730 days during
21522152 the five years immediately before the filing of the petition;
21532153 (4) the name and address of any attorney for the minor and any
21542154 attorney for each parent of the minor;
21552155 (5) the reason guardianship is sought and would be in the best interest
21562156 of the minor;
21572157 (6) the name and address of any proposed guardian and the reason the
21582158 proposed guardian should be selected;
21592159 (7) the name, address and relationship of any other person entitled to
21602160 notice under section 53, and amendments thereto;
21612161 (8) if the minor has property other than personal effects, a general
21622162 statement of the minor's property with an estimate of its value;
21632163 (9) whether the minor needs an interpreter, translator or other form of
21642164 support to communicate effectively with the court or understand court
21652165 proceedings;
21662166 (10) whether any parent of the minor needs an interpreter, translator
21672167 or other form of support to communicate effectively with the court or
21682168 understand court proceedings; and
21692169 (11) identify any other proceeding concerning the care or custody of
21702170 the minor that is pending in any court in this state or another jurisdiction.
21712171 (c) The petition shall contain, or be accompanied by an affidavit
21722172 which contains, the information required by K.S.A. 23-37,209, and
21732173 amendments thereto.
21742174 New Sec. 53. (a) When a petition is filed under section 52, and
21752175 amendments thereto, the court shall schedule a hearing, and the petitioner
21762176 shall:
21772177 (1) Serve notice of the date, time and place of the hearing, together
21782178 with a copy of the petition, personally on each of the following that is not
21792179 the petitioner:
21802180 (A) The minor, if the minor will be 12 years of age or older at the
21812181 time of the hearing;
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22252225 (B) each parent of the minor or, if there is none, the adult nearest in
22262226 kinship who can be found with reasonable diligence;
22272227 (C) any adult with whom the minor resides;
22282228 (D) each person that had primary care or custody of the minor for at
22292229 least 60 days during the two years immediately before the filing of the
22302230 petition or for at least 730 days during the five years immediately before
22312231 the filing of the petition; and
22322232 (E) any other person the court determines should receive personal
22332233 service of notice; and
22342234 (2) give notice under section 37, and amendments thereto, of the date,
22352235 time and place of the hearing, together with a copy of the petition, to:
22362236 (A) Any person nominated as guardian by the minor, if the minor is
22372237 12 years of age or older;
22382238 (B) any nominee of a parent;
22392239 (C) each grandparent and adult sibling of the minor who can be found
22402240 with reasonable diligence;
22412241 (D) any guardian or conservator acting for the minor in any
22422242 jurisdiction; and
22432243 (E) any other person the court determines.
22442244 (b) Notice required by subsection (a) must include a statement of the
22452245 right to request appointment of an attorney for the minor or object to
22462246 appointment of a guardian and a description of the nature, purpose and
22472247 consequences of appointment of a guardian.
22482248 (c) The court may not grant a petition for guardianship of a minor if
22492249 notice substantially complying with subsection (a)(1) is not served on:
22502250 (1) the minor, if the minor is 12 years of age or older; and
22512251 (2) each parent of the minor, unless the court finds by clear and
22522252 convincing evidence that the parent cannot with due diligence be located
22532253 and served or the parent waived, in a record, the right to notice.
22542254 (d) If a petitioner is unable to serve notice under subsection (a)(1) on
22552255 a parent of a minor or alleges that the parent waived, in a record, the right
22562256 to notice under this section, the court may appoint a court liaison who
22572257 shall:
22582258 (1) Interview the petitioner and the minor;
22592259 (2) if the petitioner alleges the parent cannot be located, ascertain
22602260 whether the parent cannot be located with due diligence; and
22612261 (3) investigate any other matter relating to the petition the court
22622262 directs.
22632263 New Sec. 54. (a) The court shall appoint an attorney to represent a
22642264 minor who is the subject of a proceeding under section 52, and
22652265 amendments thereto, if:
22662266 (1) Requested by the minor and the minor is 12 years of age or older;
22672267 (2) recommended by a guardian ad litem; or
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23112311 (3) the court determines the minor needs representation.
23122312 (b) An attorney appointed under subsection (a) shall:
23132313 (1) Make a reasonable effort to ascertain the minor's wishes;
23142314 (2) advocate for the minor's wishes to the extent reasonably
23152315 ascertainable; and
23162316 (3) if the minor's wishes are not reasonably ascertainable, advocate
23172317 for the minor's best interest.
23182318 (c) A minor who is the subject of a proceeding under section 52, and
23192319 amendments thereto, may retain an attorney to represent the minor in the
23202320 proceeding.
23212321 (d) The court shall appoint an attorney to represent a parent of a
23222322 minor who is the subject of a proceeding under section 52, and
23232323 amendments thereto, if the court determines the parent needs
23242324 representation.
23252325 New Sec. 55. (a) The court may require a minor who is the subject of
23262326 a hearing under section 53, and amendments thereto, to attend and
23272327 participate in the hearing. If the court orders the minor to attend the
23282328 hearing but later rescinds that order, the court shall enter in the record of
23292329 the proceedings the facts upon which the court found that the presence of
23302330 the minor should be excused.
23312331 (b) Unless excused by the court for good cause, the person proposed
23322332 to be appointed as guardian for a minor shall attend a hearing under
23332333 section 53, and amendments thereto.
23342334 (c) The minor who is the subject of a hearing under section 53, and
23352335 amendments thereto, has the right to attend the hearing. Each parent of a
23362336 minor who is the subject of a hearing under section 53, and amendments
23372337 thereto, has the right to attend the hearing.
23382338 (d) A person may request permission to participate in a hearing under
23392339 section 53, and amendments thereto. The court may grant the request, with
23402340 or without hearing, on determining that it is in the best interest of the
23412341 minor who is the subject of the hearing. The court may impose appropriate
23422342 conditions on the person's participation.
23432343 New Sec. 56. (a) After a hearing under section 53, and amendments
23442344 thereto, the court may appoint a guardian for a minor, if appointment is
23452345 proper under section 51, and amendments thereto, dismiss the proceeding
23462346 or take other appropriate action.
23472347 (b) In appointing a guardian under subsection (a), the following rules
23482348 apply:
23492349 (1) The court shall appoint a person nominated as guardian by a
23502350 parent of the minor in a will or other record unless the court finds the
23512351 appointment is contrary to the best interest of the minor.
23522352 (2) If multiple parents have nominated different persons to serve as
23532353 guardian, the court shall appoint the nominee whose appointment is in the
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23972397 best interest of the minor, unless the court finds that appointment of none
23982398 of the nominees is in the best interest of the minor.
23992399 (3) If a guardian is not appointed under paragraph (1) or (2), the court
24002400 shall appoint the person nominated by the minor if the minor is 12 years of
24012401 age or older unless the court finds that appointment is contrary to the best
24022402 interest of the minor, in which case, the court shall appoint as guardian a
24032403 person whose appointment is in the best interest of the minor.
24042404 (c) An order granting a guardianship for a minor must state that each
24052405 parent of the minor is entitled to notice that:
24062406 (1) The guardian has changed the residence or school of the minor
24072407 subject to guardianship;
24082408 (2) the court has modified or limited the powers of the guardian; or
24092409 (3) the court has removed the guardian.
24102410 (d) An order granting a guardianship for a minor must identify any
24112411 person, in addition to a parent of the minor, who is entitled to notice of the
24122412 events listed in subsection (c).
24132413 (e) The appointment of a guardian under this section shall not be
24142414 construed to relieve a parent of any obligation imposed by law for the
24152415 support, maintenance, care, treatment, habilitation or education of that
24162416 parent's minor child.
24172417 New Sec. 57. (a) A standby guardian appointed under this section
24182418 may act as guardian, with all duties and powers of a guardian under
24192419 sections 59 and 60, and amendments thereto, when no parent of the minor
24202420 is willing or able to exercise the duties and powers granted to the guardian.
24212421 (b) A parent of a minor, in a signed record, may nominate a person to
24222422 be appointed by the court as standby guardian for the minor. The parent, in
24232423 a signed record, may revoke or amend the nomination at any time before
24242424 the court appoints a standby guardian.
24252425 (c) The court may appoint a standby guardian for a minor on:
24262426 (1) Petition by a parent of the minor or a person nominated under
24272427 subsection (b); and
24282428 (2) finding that no parent of the minor likely will be able or willing to
24292429 care for or make decisions with respect to the minor not later than two
24302430 years after the appointment.
24312431 (d) A petition under subsection (c)(1) must include the same
24322432 information required under section 52, and amendments thereto, for the
24332433 appointment of a guardian for a minor.
24342434 (e) On filing a petition under subsection (c)(1), the petitioner shall:
24352435 (1) Serve a copy of the petition personally on:
24362436 (A) The minor, if the minor is 12 years of age or older, and the
24372437 minor's attorney, if any;
24382438 (B) each parent of the minor;
24392439 (C) the person nominated as the standby guardian; and
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24832483 (D) any other person the court determines; and
24842484 (2) include with the copy of the petition served under paragraph (1) a
24852485 statement of the right to request appointment of an attorney for the minor
24862486 or to object to appointment of the standby guardian, and a description of
24872487 the nature, purpose and consequences of appointment of a standby
24882488 guardian.
24892489 (f) A person entitled to notice under subsection (e), not later than 30
24902490 days after service of the petition and statement, may object to appointment
24912491 of the standby guardian by filing an objection with the court and giving
24922492 notice of the objection to each other person entitled to notice under
24932493 subsection (e).
24942494 (g) If an objection is filed under subsection (f), the court shall hold a
24952495 hearing to determine whether a standby guardian should be appointed and,
24962496 if so, the person that should be appointed. If no objection is filed, the court
24972497 may make the appointment.
24982498 (h) The court may not grant a petition for a standby guardian of the
24992499 minor if notice substantially complying with subsection (e) is not served
25002500 on:
25012501 (1) The minor, if the minor is 12 years of age or older; and
25022502 (2) each parent of the minor, unless the court finds by clear and
25032503 convincing evidence that the parent, in a record, waived the right to notice
25042504 or cannot be located and served with due diligence.
25052505 (i) If a petitioner is unable to serve notice under subsection (e) on a
25062506 parent of the minor or alleges that a parent of the minor waived the right to
25072507 notice under this section, the court may appoint a court liaison who shall:
25082508 (1) Interview the petitioner and the minor;
25092509 (2) if the petitioner alleges the parent cannot be located and served,
25102510 ascertain whether the parent cannot be located with due diligence; and
25112511 (3) investigate any other matter relating to the petition the court
25122512 directs.
25132513 (j) If the court finds under subsection (c) that a standby guardian
25142514 should be appointed, the following rules apply:
25152515 (1) The court shall appoint the person nominated under subsection (b)
25162516 unless the court finds that the appointment is contrary to the best interest
25172517 of the minor.
25182518 (2) If the parents have nominated different persons to serve as
25192519 standby guardian, the court shall appoint the nominee whose appointment
25202520 is in the best interest of the minor, unless the court finds that appointment
25212521 of none of the nominees is in the best interest of the minor.
25222522 (k) An order appointing a standby guardian under this section must
25232523 state that each parent of the minor is entitled to notice, and identify any
25242524 other person entitled to notice, if:
25252525 (1) The standby guardian assumes the duties and powers of the
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25692569 guardian;
25702570 (2) the standby guardian changes the residence or school of the
25712571 minor;
25722572 (3) the court modifies or limits the powers of the standby guardian; or
25732573 (4) the court removes the standby guardian.
25742574 (l) Before assuming the duties and powers of a guardian, a standby
25752575 guardian must file with the court an acceptance of appointment as guardian
25762576 and give notice of the acceptance to:
25772577 (1) Each parent of the minor, unless the parent, in a record, waived
25782578 the right to notice or cannot be located and served with due diligence;
25792579 (2) the minor, if the minor is 12 years of age or older; and
25802580 (3) any person, other than the parent, having care or custody of the
25812581 minor.
25822582 (m) A person that receives notice under subsection (k) or any other
25832583 person interested in the welfare of the minor may file with the court an
25842584 objection to the standby guardian's assumption of duties and powers of a
25852585 guardian. The court shall hold a hearing if the objection supports a
25862586 reasonable belief that the conditions for assumption of duties and powers
25872587 have not been satisfied.
25882588 New Sec. 58. (a) On its own, or on verified petition by a person
25892589 interested in a minor's welfare, the court may appoint an emergency
25902590 guardian for the minor if the court finds a sufficient factual basis to
25912591 establish probable cause that:
25922592 (1) Appointment of an emergency guardian is necessary to prevent
25932593 imminent and substantial harm to the minor's health, safety or welfare; and
25942594 (2) no other person has authority and willingness to act in the
25952595 circumstances.
25962596 (b) The duration of authority of an emergency guardian for a minor
25972597 may not exceed 30 days, and the emergency guardian may exercise only
25982598 the powers specified in the order of appointment. The emergency
25992599 guardian's authority may be extended up to three times for not more than
26002600 30 days per extension if the court finds good cause and that the conditions
26012601 for appointment of an emergency guardian in subsection (a) continue.
26022602 (c) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (d), reasonable notice
26032603 of the date, time and place of a hearing on a petition for appointment of an
26042604 emergency guardian for a minor must be given to:
26052605 (1) The minor, if the minor is 12 years of age or older;
26062606 (2) any attorney appointed under section 54, and amendments thereto;
26072607 (3) each parent of the minor;
26082608 (4) any person, other than a parent, having care or custody of the
26092609 minor; and
26102610 (5) any other person the court determines.
26112611 (d) The court may appoint an emergency guardian for a minor
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26552655 without notice under subsection (c) and without a hearing only if the court
26562656 finds from an affidavit or testimony that the minor's health, safety or
26572657 welfare will be substantially harmed before a hearing with notice on the
26582658 appointment can be held. If the court appoints an emergency guardian
26592659 without notice to an unrepresented minor or the attorney for a represented
26602660 minor, notice of the appointment must be given not later than 48 hours
26612661 after the appointment to the individuals listed in subsection (c). Not later
26622662 than seven days after the appointment, the court shall hold a hearing on the
26632663 appropriateness of the appointment.
26642664 (e) Appointment of an emergency guardian under this section, with or
26652665 without notice, is not a determination that a basis exists for appointment of
26662666 a guardian under section 51, and amendments thereto.
26672667 (f) The emergency guardian shall make any report the court requires.
26682668 (g) The court may remove an emergency guardian appointed under
26692669 this section at any time.
26702670 New Sec. 59. (a) A guardian for a minor is a fiduciary. Except as
26712671 otherwise limited by the court, a guardian for a minor has the duties and
26722672 responsibilities of a parent regarding the minor's support, care, education,
26732673 health, safety and welfare. A guardian shall act in the minor's best interest
26742674 and exercise reasonable care, diligence and prudence.
26752675 (b) A guardian for a minor shall:
26762676 (1) Be personally acquainted with the minor and maintain sufficient
26772677 contact with the minor to know the minor's abilities, limitations, needs,
26782678 opportunities and physical and mental health;
26792679 (2) take reasonable care of the minor's personal effects and bring a
26802680 proceeding for a conservatorship, or protective arrangement instead of
26812681 conservatorship, if necessary to protect other property of the minor;
26822682 (3) if authorized by the court under section 61, and amendments
26832683 thereto, expend funds of the minor which have been received by the
26842684 guardian for the minor's current needs for support, care, education, health,
26852685 safety and welfare;
26862686 (4) conserve any funds of the minor not expended under paragraph
26872687 (3) for the minor's future needs, but if a conservator is appointed for the
26882688 minor, pay the funds at least quarterly to the conservator to be conserved
26892689 for the minor's future needs;
26902690 (5) report the condition of the minor and account for funds and other
26912691 property of the minor in the guardian's possession or subject to the
26922692 guardian's control, as required by court rule or ordered by the court on
26932693 application of a person interested in the minor's welfare;
26942694 (6) inform the court of any change in the minor's dwelling or address;
26952695 and
26962696 (7) in determining what is in the minor's best interest, take into
26972697 account the minor's preferences to the extent actually known or reasonably
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27412741 ascertainable by the guardian.
27422742 New Sec. 60. (a) Except as otherwise limited by court order, a
27432743 guardian of a minor has the powers a parent otherwise would have
27442744 regarding the minor's support, care, education, health, safety and welfare.
27452745 (b) Except as otherwise limited by court order, a guardian for a minor
27462746 may:
27472747 (1) If authorized by the court under section 61, and amendments
27482748 thereto, apply for and receive funds and benefits otherwise payable for the
27492749 support of the minor to the minor's parent, guardian or custodian under a
27502750 statutory system of benefits or insurance or any private contract, devise,
27512751 trust, conservatorship or custodianship;
27522752 (2) unless inconsistent with a court order entitled to recognition in
27532753 this state, take custody of the minor and establish the minor's place of
27542754 dwelling and, on authorization of the court, establish or move the minor's
27552755 dwelling outside this state;
27562756 (3) if the minor is not subject to conservatorship, commence a
27572757 proceeding, including an administrative proceeding, or take other
27582758 appropriate action to compel a person to support the minor or make a
27592759 payment for the benefit of the minor; and
27602760 (4) consent to health or other care, treatment or service for the minor.
27612761 (c) The court may authorize a guardian for a minor to consent to the
27622762 adoption of the minor if the minor does not have a parent.
27632763 (d) A guardian for a minor may consent to the marriage of the minor
27642764 if authorized by the court, and the guardianship shall terminate upon such
27652765 marriage.
27662766 New Sec. 61. A guardian for a minor may not exercise any control or
27672767 authority over the minor's estate, unless specifically authorized by the
27682768 court. Any guardian who is granted such authority must prepare an
27692769 inventory and provide notice of the inventory as provided in section 104,
27702770 and amendments thereto. The court may assign such authority to the
27712771 guardian and may waive the requirement of the posting of a bond, only if:
27722772 (a) Initially, the combined value of any funds and assets owned by the
27732773 minor equals $25,000 or less;
27742774 (b) either the court requires the guardian to report to the court the
27752775 commencement of the exercising of such authority, or requires the
27762776 guardian to obtain court authorization to commence the exercise of such
27772777 authority, as the court shall specify; and
27782778 (c) the court also requires the guardian, whenever the combined value
27792779 of such funds and property exceeds $25,000, to:
27802780 (1) File a guardian's plan as provided for in section 63, and
27812781 amendments thereto, that contains elements similar to those that would be
27822782 contained in a conservator's plan as provided for in section 103, and
27832783 amendments thereto;
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28272827 (2) petition the court for appointment of a conservator; or
28282828 (3) notify the court as the court shall specify that the value of the
28292829 minor's estate has equaled or exceeded $25,000, if the court has earlier
28302830 appointed a conservator but did not issue letters of conservatorship
28312831 pending such notification.
28322832 New Sec. 62. (a) Guardianship under this act for a minor terminates:
28332833 (1) On the minor's death, adoption, emancipation or attainment of
28342834 majority; or
28352835 (2) when the court finds that the standard in section 51, and
28362836 amendments thereto, for appointment of a guardian is not satisfied, unless
28372837 the court finds that:
28382838 (A) Termination of the guardianship would be harmful to the minor;
28392839 and
28402840 (B) the minor's interest in the continuation of the guardianship
28412841 outweighs the interest of any parent of the minor in restoration of the
28422842 parent's right to make decisions for the minor.
28432843 (b) A minor subject to guardianship or a person interested in the
28442844 welfare of the minor may petition the court to terminate the guardianship,
28452845 modify the guardianship, remove the guardian and appoint a successor
28462846 guardian or remove a standby guardian and appoint a different standby
28472847 guardian.
28482848 (c) A petitioner under subsection (b) shall give notice of the hearing
28492849 on the petition to the minor, if the minor is 12 years of age or older and is
28502850 not the petitioner, the guardian, each parent of the minor and any other
28512851 person the court determines.
28522852 (d) The court shall follow the priorities in section 56(b), and
28532853 amendments thereto, when selecting a successor guardian for a minor.
28542854 (e) Not later than 30 days after appointment of a successor guardian
28552855 for a minor, the court shall give notice of the appointment to the minor
28562856 subject to guardianship, if the minor is 12 years of age or older, each
28572857 parent of the minor and any other person the court determines.
28582858 (f) When terminating a guardianship for a minor under this section,
28592859 the court may issue an order providing for transitional arrangements that
28602860 will assist the minor with a transition of custody and is in the best interest
28612861 of the minor.
28622862 (g) A removed guardian for a minor shall cooperate with a successor
28632863 guardian to facilitate transition of the guardian's responsibilities and
28642864 protect the best interest of the minor.
28652865 (h) Not later than 30 days after entering an order under this section,
28662866 the court or the court's designee shall give notice of the order to the minor
28672867 subject to guardianship and any person entitled to notice under section 56,
28682868 and amendments thereto, or a subsequent order.
28692869 New Sec. 63. (a) At any time, the court may require the guardian of a
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29132913 minor, or the guardian of a minor may choose, to develop and file with the
29142914 court a plan of care for the minor. Any such plan must be based on the
29152915 needs of the minor and take into account the best interest of the minor as
29162916 well as the minor's preferences, to the extent known to or reasonably
29172917 ascertainable by the guardian. The guardian may include in the plan:
29182918 (1) Where the minor will reside and attend school;
29192919 (2) whether the parents of the minor will have contact or visitation
29202920 with the minor;
29212921 (3) whether the parents of the minor will have access to medical,
29222922 educational or other records of the minor;
29232923 (4) whether the parents of the minor will retain any rights to decision
29242924 making regarding the minor's healthcare, education or other matters;
29252925 (5) any other provisions the guardian deems appropriate; and
29262926 (6) any other provisions the court requires.
29272927 (b) The guardian for a minor shall give notice of the filing of the
29282928 guardian's plan under subsection (a), together with a copy of the plan, to
29292929 the minor if the minor is 12 years of age or older, any attorney representing
29302930 the minor in the guardianship proceeding or any other proceeding
29312931 concerning the care or custody of the minor identified in the petition, each
29322932 parent of the minor, a person entitled to notice under section 56(d), and
29332933 amendments thereto, or a subsequent order, and any other person the court
29342934 determines. The notice shall include a statement of the right to object to
29352935 the plan and shall be given at the time of the filing.
29362936 (c) The minor, a parent of the minor and any person entitled under
29372937 subsection (b) to receive notice and a copy of the guardian's plan may
29382938 object to the plan in writing not later than 21 days after the filing.
29392939 (d) The court shall review the guardian's plan filed under subsection
29402940 (a) and determine whether to approve the plan, modify the plan or require
29412941 a new plan. In deciding whether to approve the plan, the court shall
29422942 consider an objection under subsection (c) and whether the plan is
29432943 consistent with the guardian's duties and powers under sections 59 and 60,
29442944 and amendments thereto. The court may not approve the plan until 30 days
29452945 after the filing.
29462946 (e) After the guardian's plan filed under this section is approved by
29472947 the court, the guardian shall provide a copy of the plan to the minor if the
29482948 minor is 12 years of age or older, to any attorney representing the minor in
29492949 the guardianship proceeding or any other proceeding concerning the care
29502950 or custody of the minor identified in the petition, to each parent of the
29512951 minor, to any person entitled to notice under section 56(d), and
29522952 amendments thereto, or a subsequent order, and any other person the court
29532953 determines.
29542954 New Sec. 64. (a) On petition and after notice and hearing, the court
29552955 may:
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29992999 (1) Appoint a guardian for an adult if the court finds by clear and
30003000 convincing evidence that:
30013001 (A) The respondent lacks the ability to meet essential requirements
30023002 for physical health, safety or self-care because the respondent is unable to
30033003 receive and evaluate information or make or communicate decisions, even
30043004 with appropriate supportive services, technological assistance or supported
30053005 decision making; and
30063006 (B) the respondent's identified needs cannot be met by a protective
30073007 arrangement instead of guardianship or other less restrictive alternative; or
30083008 (2) with appropriate findings, treat the petition as one for a
30093009 conservatorship under sections 83 through 118, and amendments thereto,
30103010 or a protective arrangement under sections 119 through 130, and
30113011 amendments thereto, issue any appropriate order or dismiss the
30123012 proceeding.
30133013 (b) The court shall grant a guardian appointed under subsection (a)
30143014 only those powers necessitated by the demonstrated needs and limitations
30153015 of the respondent and issue orders that will encourage development of the
30163016 respondent's maximum self-determination and independence. The court
30173017 may not establish a full guardianship if a limited guardianship, protective
30183018 arrangement instead of guardianship or other less restrictive alternatives
30193019 would meet the needs of the respondent.
30203020 New Sec. 65. (a) A person interested in an adult's welfare, including
30213021 the adult for whom the order is sought, may file a verified petition for
30223022 appointment of a guardian for the adult.
30233023 (b) A petition under subsection (a) must state the petitioner's name,
30243024 principal residence, current street address if different, relationship to the
30253025 respondent, interest in the appointment, the name and address of any
30263026 attorney representing the petitioner and, to the extent known, the
30273027 following:
30283028 (1) The respondent's name, age, principal residence, current street
30293029 address if different and address of the dwelling in which it is proposed the
30303030 respondent will reside if the petition is granted;
30313031 (2) the name and address of the respondent's:
30323032 (A) Spouse or, if the respondent has none, an adult with whom the
30333033 respondent has shared household responsibilities for more than six months
30343034 in the 12-month period immediately before the filing of the petition;
30353035 (B) adult children, adult stepchildren, adult grandchildren and each
30363036 parent and adult sibling of the respondent, or, if none, at least one adult
30373037 nearest in kinship to the respondent who can be found with reasonable
30383038 diligence; and
30393039 (C) adult former stepchildren with whom the respondent had an
30403040 ongoing relationship in the two-year period immediately before the filing
30413041 of the petition;
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30853085 (3) the name and current address of each of the following, if
30863086 applicable:
30873087 (A) A person primarily responsible for care of the respondent;
30883088 (B) any attorney currently representing the respondent;
30893089 (C) any representative payee appointed by the social security
30903090 administration for the respondent;
30913091 (D) a guardian or conservator acting for the respondent in this state or
30923092 in another jurisdiction;
30933093 (E) a trustee or custodian of a trust or custodianship of which the
30943094 respondent is a beneficiary;
30953095 (F) any fiduciary for the respondent appointed by the department of
30963096 veterans affairs and any curator appointed under K.S.A. 73-507, and
30973097 amendments thereto;
30983098 (G) an agent designated under a power of attorney for healthcare in
30993099 which the respondent is identified as the principal;
31003100 (H) an agent designated under a power of attorney for finances in
31013101 which the respondent is identified as the principal;
31023102 (I) a person nominated as guardian by the respondent;
31033103 (J) a person nominated as guardian by the respondent's parent or
31043104 spouse in a will or other signed record; and
31053105 (K) a person known to have routinely assisted the respondent with
31063106 decision making during the six months immediately before the filing of the
31073107 petition;
31083108 (4) (A) The proposed guardian's name, age, date of birth, gender,
31093109 address, place of employment and relationship to the respondent, if any;
31103110 (B) the reason the proposed guardian should be selected;
31113111 (C) any potential conflict of interest including any personal or agency
31123112 interest of the proposed guardian that may be perceived as self-serving or
31133113 adverse to the position or best interest of the respondent; and
31143114 (D) whether the proposed guardian is under contract with the Kansas
31153115 guardianship program;
31163116 (5) the reason a guardianship is necessary, including a description of:
31173117 (A) The nature and extent of the respondent's alleged need;
31183118 (B) any protective arrangement instead of guardianship or other less
31193119 restrictive alternatives for meeting the respondent's alleged need which
31203120 have been considered or implemented;
31213121 (C) if no protective arrangement instead of guardianship or other less
31223122 restrictive alternatives have been considered or implemented, the reason
31233123 they have not been considered or implemented; and
31243124 (D) the reason a protective arrangement instead of guardianship or
31253125 other less restrictive alternative is insufficient to meet the respondent's
31263126 alleged need;
31273127 (6) whether the petitioner seeks a limited guardianship or full
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31713171 guardianship;
31723172 (7) if the petitioner seeks a full guardianship, the reason a limited
31733173 guardianship or protective arrangement instead of guardianship is not
31743174 appropriate;
31753175 (8) if a limited guardianship is requested, the powers to be granted to
31763176 the guardian;
31773177 (9) the name and current address, if known, of any person with whom
31783178 the petitioner seeks to limit the respondent's contact;
31793179 (10) if the respondent has property other than personal effects, a
31803180 general statement of the respondent's property, with an estimate of its
31813181 value, including any insurance or pension, and the source and amount of
31823182 other anticipated income or receipts; and
31833183 (11) whether the respondent needs an interpreter, translator or other
31843184 form of support to communicate effectively with the court or understand
31853185 court proceedings.
31863186 New Sec. 66. (a) On filing of a petition under section 65, and
31873187 amendments thereto, for appointment of a guardian for an adult, the court
31883188 shall set a date, time and place for hearing the petition.
31893189 (b) A copy of a petition under section 65, and amendments thereto,
31903190 and notice of a hearing on the petition must be served personally on the
31913191 respondent. The notice must inform the respondent of the respondent's
31923192 rights at the hearing, including the right to an attorney and to attend the
31933193 hearing. The notice must include a description of the nature, purpose and
31943194 consequences of granting the petition. The court may not grant the petition
31953195 if notice substantially complying with this subsection is not served on the
31963196 respondent. The court may order any of the following persons to serve the
31973197 notice upon the respondent:
31983198 (1) The petitioner or the attorney for the petitioner;
31993199 (2) the attorney appointed by the court to represent the respondent;
32003200 (3) any law enforcement officer; or
32013201 (4) any other person whom the court finds to be a proper person to
32023202 serve this notice.
32033203 (c) In a proceeding on a petition under section 65, and amendments
32043204 thereto, the notice required under subsection (b) must be given to the
32053205 persons required to be listed in the petition under section 65(b)(1) through
32063206 (3), and amendments thereto, and any other person interested in the
32073207 respondent's welfare the court determines. Failure to give notice under this
32083208 subsection does not preclude the court from appointing a guardian.
32093209 (d) After the appointment of a guardian, notice of a hearing on a
32103210 petition for any other order under sections 64 through 82, and amendments
32113211 thereto, together with a copy of the petition, must be given to:
32123212 (1) The adult subject to guardianship;
32133213 (2) the guardian; and
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32573257 (3) any other person the court determines.
32583258 New Sec. 67. (a) On receipt of a petition under section 65, and
32593259 amendments thereto, for appointment of a guardian for an adult, the court
32603260 may appoint a court liaison. The court liaison must be an individual with
32613261 training or experience in the type of abilities, limitations and needs alleged
32623262 in the petition.
32633263 (b) (1) A court liaison appointed under subsection (a) shall interview
32643264 the respondent in person and, in a manner the respondent is best able to
32653265 understand:
32663266 (A) Explain, in general, the petition and the nature and purpose of the
32673267 proceeding, including the potential loss of rights as a result of the
32683268 proceeding; and
32693269 (B) obtain the respondent's views about the appointment sought by
32703270 the petitioner, including views about a proposed guardian, the guardian's
32713271 proposed powers and duties and the scope and duration of the proposed
32723272 guardianship.
32733273 (2) These explanations and discussions are not intended to be a
32743274 substitute for the attorney appointed to represent the respondent to inform
32753275 the respondent of the respondent's rights and the nature and purpose of the
32763276 proceeding.
32773277 (c) The court liaison appointed under subsection (a) may be assigned
32783278 any or all of the following duties, in the discretion of the presiding judge:
32793279 (1) Interview the petitioner and proposed guardian, if any;
32803280 (2) visit the respondent's present dwelling and any dwelling in which
32813281 it is reasonably believed the respondent will live if the appointment is
32823282 made;
32833283 (3) obtain information from any physician or other provider known to
32843284 have treated, advised or assessed the respondent's relevant physical or
32853285 mental condition, to the extent that such information has not already been
32863286 provided to the court; and
32873287 (4) investigate the allegations in the petition and any other matter
32883288 relating to the petition as directed by the court, including, but not limited
32893289 to, the respondent's family relationships, past conduct, the nature and
32903290 extent of any property or income of the respondent, whether the
32913291 respondent is likely to injure self or others and other matters as the court
32923292 may specify.
32933293 (d) A court liaison appointed under subsection (a) shall file a report
32943294 with the court at least 10 days prior to the hearing on the petition, or other
32953295 hearing as directed by the court. Unless otherwise ordered by the court,
32963296 such report must include:
32973297 (1) A summary of self-care and independent-living tasks the
32983298 respondent can manage without assistance or with existing supports, could
32993299 manage with the assistance of appropriate supportive services,
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33433343 technological assistance or supported decision making, and cannot
33443344 manage;
33453345 (2) a recommendation regarding the appropriateness of guardianship,
33463346 including whether a protective arrangement instead of guardianship or
33473347 other less restrictive alternative for meeting the respondent's needs is
33483348 available and:
33493349 (A) If a guardianship is recommended, whether it should be full or
33503350 limited; and
33513351 (B) if a limited guardianship is recommended, the powers to be
33523352 granted to the guardian;
33533353 (3) a statement of the qualifications of the proposed guardian and
33543354 whether the respondent approves or disapproves of the proposed guardian;
33553355 (4) a statement whether the proposed dwelling meets the respondent's
33563356 needs and whether the respondent has expressed a preference as to
33573357 residence;
33583358 (5) a statement whether the respondent is able to attend a hearing at
33593359 the location court proceedings typically are held;
33603360 (6) a statement whether the respondent is able to participate in a
33613361 hearing and which identifies any technology or other form of support that
33623362 would enhance the respondent's ability to participate; and
33633363 (7) any other matter the court directs.
33643364 (e) The costs of an investigation by a court liaison shall be assessed
33653365 as provided for in section 42, and amendments thereto.
33663366 New Sec. 68. (a) The court shall appoint an attorney to represent the
33673367 respondent, regardless of the respondent's ability to pay. The court shall
33683368 give preference in the appointment of an attorney to any attorney who has
33693369 represented the respondent in other matters if the court has knowledge of
33703370 that prior representation or to an attorney whom the respondent has
33713371 requested. Any appointment made by the court shall terminate after the
33723372 guardian's plan has been approved and after any appeal from the
33733373 appointment of a guardian, unless the court continues the appointment by
33743374 further order. Thereafter, an attorney may be appointed by the court if
33753375 requested, in writing, by the adult subject to guardianship, the guardian, or
33763376 upon the court's own motion.
33773377 (b) An attorney representing the respondent in a proceeding for
33783378 appointment of a guardian for an adult shall:
33793379 (1) Make reasonable efforts to ascertain the respondent's wishes;
33803380 (2) advocate for the respondent's wishes to the extent reasonably
33813381 ascertainable; and
33823382 (3) if the respondent's wishes are not reasonably ascertainable,
33833383 advocate for the result that is the least restrictive in type, duration and
33843384 scope, consistent with the respondent's interests.
33853385 (c) An attorney representing the respondent shall interview the
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34293429 respondent in person and, in a manner the respondent is best able to
34303430 understand:
34313431 (1) Explain to the respondent the substance of the petition, the nature,
34323432 purpose and effect of the proceeding, the respondent's rights at the hearing
34333433 on the petition and the general powers and duties of a guardian;
34343434 (2) determine the respondent's views about the appointment sought by
34353435 the petitioner, including views about a proposed guardian, the guardian's
34363436 proposed powers and duties and the scope and duration of the proposed
34373437 guardianship; and
34383438 (3) inform the respondent that all costs and expenses of the
34393439 proceeding, including respondent's attorney fees, may be paid from the
34403440 respondent's assets.
34413441 New Sec. 69. (a) Upon the filing of the petition or any other time at
34423442 or before the hearing, if the contents of the petition or evidence at the
34433443 hearing support a prima facie case of the need for a guardian, the court
34443444 shall order an examination and evaluation of the respondent to be
34453445 conducted through a general hospital, psychiatric hospital, community
34463446 mental health center, community developmental disability organization or
34473447 by a licensed physician, psychiatrist, psychologist, physician assistant,
34483448 nurse practitioner, social worker or other professional appointed by the
34493449 court who is qualified to evaluate the respondent's alleged cognitive and
34503450 functional abilities and limitations and will not be advantaged or
34513451 disadvantaged by a decision to grant the petition or otherwise have a
34523452 conflict of interest.
34533453 (b) Unless otherwise specified by the court, the report of the
34543454 examination and evaluation submitted to the court shall contain:
34553455 (1) The respondent's name, age and date of birth;
34563456 (2) a description of the respondent's physical and mental condition;
34573457 (3) a description of the nature and extent of the respondent's cognitive
34583458 and functional abilities and limitations, including adaptive behaviors and
34593459 social skills, and, as appropriate, educational and developmental potential;
34603460 (4) a summary of self-care and independent-living tasks the
34613461 respondent can manage without assistance or with existing supports, could
34623462 manage with the assistance of appropriate supportive services,
34633463 technological assistance or supported decision making, and cannot
34643464 manage;
34653465 (5) a prognosis for any improvement and, as appropriate, any
34663466 recommendation for treatment or rehabilitation;
34673467 (6) a list and description of any prior assessments, evaluations or
34683468 examinations of the respondent, including the dates thereof, which were
34693469 relied upon in the preparation of this evaluation;
34703470 (7) the date and location where this examination and evaluation
34713471 occurred, and the name or names of the professional or professionals
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35153515 performing the examination and evaluation and such professional's
35163516 qualifications;
35173517 (8) a statement by the professional that the professional has
35183518 personally completed an independent examination and evaluation of the
35193519 respondent, and that the report submitted to the court contains the results
35203520 of that examination and evaluation, and the professional's opinion with
35213521 regard to the issues of whether or not the respondent is in need of a
35223522 guardian and whether there are barriers to the respondent's attendance and
35233523 participation at the hearing on the petition; and
35243524 (9) the signature of the professional who prepared the report.
35253525 (c) The professional shall file with the court, at least five days prior to
35263526 the date of the trial, such professional's written report concerning the
35273527 examination and evaluation ordered by the court. The report shall be made
35283528 available by the court to counsel for all parties.
35293529 (d) In lieu of entering an order for an examination and evaluation as
35303530 provided for in this section, the court may determine that the report
35313531 accompanying the petition is in compliance with the requirements of this
35323532 section and that no further examination or evaluation should be required,
35333533 unless the respondent, or such person's attorney, requests such an
35343534 examination and evaluation in writing. Any such request shall be filed with
35353535 the court, and a copy thereof delivered to the petitioner, at least four days
35363536 prior to the date of the trial. Accompanying the request shall be a statement
35373537 of the reasons why an examination and evaluation is requested and the
35383538 name and address of a qualified professional or facility willing and able to
35393539 conduct this examination and evaluation. If the court orders a further
35403540 examination and evaluation, the court may continue the trial and fix a new
35413541 date, time and place of the trial at a time not to exceed 30 days from the
35423542 date of the filing of the request.
35433543 New Sec. 70. (a) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (b), a
35443544 hearing under section 66, and amendments thereto, may not proceed unless
35453545 the respondent attends the hearing. If it is not reasonably feasible for the
35463546 respondent to attend a hearing at the location court proceedings typically
35473547 are held, the court shall make reasonable efforts to hold the hearing at an
35483548 alternative location convenient to the respondent or allow the respondent
35493549 to attend the hearing using real-time audio-visual technology.
35503550 (b) A hearing under section 66, and amendments thereto, may
35513551 proceed without the respondent in attendance if the court finds by clear
35523552 and convincing evidence that:
35533553 (1) The respondent is choosing not to attend the hearing after having
35543554 been fully informed of the right to attend and the potential consequences
35553555 of failing to do so; or
35563556 (2) there is no practicable way for the respondent to attend and
35573557 participate in the hearing even with appropriate supportive services and
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36013601 technological assistance.
36023602 (c) The respondent may be assisted in a hearing under section 66, and
36033603 amendments thereto, by a person or persons of the respondent's choosing,
36043604 assistive technology or an interpreter or translator, or a combination of
36053605 these supports. If assistance would facilitate the respondent's participation
36063606 in the hearing, but is not otherwise available to the respondent, the court
36073607 shall make reasonable efforts to provide it.
36083608 (d) The respondent has a right to retain an attorney to represent the
36093609 respondent at a hearing under section 66, and amendments thereto.
36103610 (e) At a hearing held under section 66, and amendments thereto, the
36113611 respondent may:
36123612 (1) Present evidence and subpoena witnesses and documents;
36133613 (2) examine witnesses, including any court-appointed evaluator and
36143614 the court liaison; and
36153615 (3) otherwise participate in the hearing.
36163616 (f) Unless excused by the court for good cause, a proposed guardian
36173617 shall attend a hearing under section 66, and amendments thereto.
36183618 (g) A hearing under section 66, and amendments thereto, must be
36193619 closed on request of the respondent and a showing of good cause.
36203620 (h) Any person may request to participate in a hearing under section
36213621 66, and amendments thereto. The court may grant the request, with or
36223622 without a hearing, on determining that the best interest of the respondent
36233623 will be served. The court may impose appropriate conditions on the
36243624 person's participation.
36253625 New Sec. 71. (a) The existence of a proceeding for or the existence of
36263626 a guardianship for an adult is a matter of public record unless the court
36273627 seals the record after:
36283628 (1) The respondent or individual subject to guardianship requests the
36293629 record be sealed; and
36303630 (2) either:
36313631 (A) The petition for guardianship is dismissed; or
36323632 (B) the guardianship is terminated.
36333633 (b) (1) The following court records are a matter of public record
36343634 unless sealed by the court:
36353635 (A) Letters of guardianship;
36363636 (B) orders suspending or removing a guardian; and
36373637 (C) orders terminating a guardianship.
36383638 (2) All other court records of a guardianship proceeding are not a
36393639 matter of public record except as further provided.
36403640 (3) The following persons are entitled to access court records of the
36413641 proceeding and resulting guardianship, including the guardian's plan under
36423642 section 79, and amendments thereto, and report under section 80, and
36433643 amendments thereto:
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36873687 (A) An adult subject to a proceeding for a guardianship, whether or
36883688 not a guardian is appointed;
36893689 (B) an attorney designated by the adult;
36903690 (C) a person entitled to notice under section 73(e), and amendments
36913691 thereto, or a subsequent order; and
36923692 (D) a licensed attorney, abstractor or title insurance agent.
36933693 (4) A person not otherwise entitled to access court records under this
36943694 subsection for good cause may request permission from the court for
36953695 access to court records of the guardianship, including the guardian's report
36963696 and plan. The court shall grant access if access is in the best interest of the
36973697 respondent or adult subject to guardianship or furthers the public interest
36983698 and does not endanger the welfare or financial interests of the adult.
36993699 (c) A report under section 67, and amendments thereto, of a court
37003700 liaison or a professional evaluation under section 69, and amendments
37013701 thereto, is confidential and must be sealed on filing, but is available to:
37023702 (1) The court;
37033703 (2) the individual who is the subject of the report or evaluation,
37043704 without limitation as to use;
37053705 (3) the petitioner, court liaison and petitioner's and respondent's
37063706 attorneys, for purposes of the proceeding;
37073707 (4) unless the court orders otherwise, an agent appointed under a
37083708 power of attorney for healthcare or power of attorney for finances in which
37093709 the respondent is the principal; and
37103710 (5) any other person if it is in the public interest or for a purpose the
37113711 court orders for good cause.
37123712 New Sec. 72. (a) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (c), the
37133713 court in appointing a guardian for an adult shall consider persons qualified
37143714 to be guardian in the following order of priority:
37153715 (1) A guardian, other than a temporary or emergency guardian,
37163716 currently acting for the respondent in another jurisdiction;
37173717 (2) a person nominated as guardian by the respondent, including the
37183718 respondent's most recent nomination made in a power of attorney;
37193719 (3) an agent appointed by the respondent under a power of attorney
37203720 for healthcare;
37213721 (4) a spouse of the respondent;
37223722 (5) a family member or other individual who has shown special care
37233723 and concern for the respondent; and
37243724 (6) a person nominated as guardian by the spouse, adult child or other
37253725 close family member of the respondent.
37263726 (b) If two or more persons have equal priority under subsection (a),
37273727 the court shall select as guardian the person the court considers best
37283728 qualified. In determining the best qualified person, the court shall consider
37293729 the person's relationship with the respondent, the person's skills, the
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37733773 expressed wishes of the respondent, the extent to which the person and the
37743774 respondent have similar values and preferences and the likelihood the
37753775 person will be able to perform the duties of a guardian successfully.
37763776 (c) The court, acting in the best interest of the respondent, may
37773777 decline to appoint as guardian a person having priority under subsection
37783778 (a) and appoint a person having a lower priority or no priority.
37793779 (d) In determining whether the appointment of a proposed guardian is
37803780 in the best interest of the respondent, the court shall consider the number
37813781 of other cases in which the proposed guardian, other than a corporation, is
37823782 currently serving as guardian, particularly if that number is more than 15.
37833783 (e) The following persons shall not be appointed as guardian unless
37843784 the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that the person is the best
37853785 qualified person available for appointment and the appointment is in the
37863786 best interest of the respondent:
37873787 (1) A person that provides paid services to the respondent, or an
37883788 individual who is employed by a person that provides paid services to the
37893789 respondent, or is the spouse, parent or child of an individual who provides
37903790 or is employed to provide paid services to the respondent;
37913791 (2) an owner, operator or employee of any entity at which the
37923792 respondent is receiving care; and
37933793 (3) a person who provides care or other services, or is an employee of
37943794 an agency, partnership or corporation that provides care or other services
37953795 to persons with needs similar to those of the respondent.
37963796 New Sec. 73. (a) A court order appointing a guardian for an adult
37973797 must:
37983798 (1) Include a specific finding that clear and convincing evidence
37993799 established that the identified needs of the respondent cannot be met by a
38003800 protective arrangement instead of guardianship or other less restrictive
38013801 alternative, including use of appropriate supportive services, technological
38023802 assistance or supported decision making; and
38033803 (2) include a specific finding that clear and convincing evidence
38043804 established the respondent was given proper notice of the hearing on the
38053805 petition.
38063806 (b) A court order establishing a full guardianship for an adult must
38073807 state the basis for granting a full guardianship and include specific findings
38083808 that support the conclusion that a limited guardianship would not meet the
38093809 functional needs of the adult subject to guardianship.
38103810 (c) A court order establishing a limited guardianship for an adult must
38113811 state the specific powers granted to the guardian.
38123812 (d) A court order appointing a guardian for an adult must include the
38133813 date of a review hearing to be set 90 days after the order of appointment is
38143814 entered. At that hearing, the court shall review the guardian's plan filed
38153815 pursuant to section 79, and amendments thereto.
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38593859 (e) The court, as part of an order establishing a guardianship for an
38603860 adult, shall identify any person that subsequently is entitled to:
38613861 (1) Notice of the rights of the adult under section 74(b), and
38623862 amendments thereto;
38633863 (2) notice of a change in the primary dwelling of the adult;
38643864 (3) notice that the guardian will be unavailable to visit the adult for
38653865 more than two months or unavailable to perform the guardian's duties for
38663866 more than one month;
38673867 (4) a copy of the guardian's plan under section 79, and amendments
38683868 thereto, and the guardian's report under section 80, and amendments
38693869 thereto;
38703870 (5) access to court records relating to the guardianship;
38713871 (6) notice of the death or significant change in the condition of the
38723872 adult;
38733873 (7) notice of a petition or hearing to limit or modify the powers of the
38743874 guardian or that the court has limited or modified the powers of the
38753875 guardian; and
38763876 (8) notice of a petition or hearing to remove the guardian or that the
38773877 court has removed the guardian.
38783878 (f) A spouse and adult children of an adult subject to guardianship are
38793879 entitled to notice under subsection (e) unless the court determines notice
38803880 would be contrary to the preferences or prior directions of the adult subject
38813881 to guardianship or not in the best interest of the adult.
38823882 New Sec. 74. (a) Not later than 14 days after the appointment, a
38833883 guardian appointed under section 72, and amendments thereto, shall give
38843884 the adult subject to guardianship and all other persons given notice under
38853885 section 66, and amendments thereto, a copy of the order of appointment.
38863886 (b) Not later than 30 days after appointment of a guardian under
38873887 section 72, and amendments thereto, the court or the court's designee shall
38883888 give to the adult subject to guardianship, the guardian and any other person
38893889 entitled to notice under section 72(e), and amendments thereto, or a
38903890 subsequent order a statement of the rights of the adult subject to
38913891 guardianship and procedures to seek relief if the adult is denied those
38923892 rights. The statement must be in at least 16-point font, in plain language
38933893 and, to the extent feasible, in a language in which the adult subject to
38943894 guardianship is proficient. The statement must notify the adult subject to
38953895 guardianship of the right to:
38963896 (1) Seek termination or modification of the guardianship, or removal
38973897 of the guardian, and choose an attorney to represent the adult in these
38983898 matters;
38993899 (2) file a grievance against the guardian under section 50, and
39003900 amendments thereto;
39013901 (3) be involved in decisions affecting the adult, including decisions
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39453945 about the adult's care, dwelling, activities or social interactions, to the
39463946 extent reasonably feasible, and that the adult retains the right to vote and
39473947 the right to marry;
39483948 (4) be involved in healthcare decision making to the extent
39493949 reasonably feasible and supported in understanding the risks and benefits
39503950 of healthcare options to the extent reasonably feasible;
39513951 (5) be notified at least 14 days before a change in the adult's primary
39523952 dwelling or permanent move to a nursing home, mental health facility or
39533953 other facility that places restrictions on the individual's ability to leave or
39543954 have visitors unless the change or move is proposed in the guardian's plan
39553955 under section 79, and amendments thereto, or authorized by the court by
39563956 specific order;
39573957 (6) object to a change or move described in paragraph (5) and the
39583958 process for objecting;
39593959 (7) communicate, visit or interact with others, including receiving
39603960 visitors, and making or receiving telephone calls, personal mail or
39613961 electronic communications, including through social media, unless:
39623962 (A) The guardian has been authorized by the court by specific order
39633963 to restrict communications, visits or interactions;
39643964 (B) a protective order or protective arrangement instead of
39653965 guardianship is in effect that limits contact between the adult and a person;
39663966 or
39673967 (C) the guardian has good cause to believe restriction is necessary
39683968 because interaction with a specified person poses a risk of significant
39693969 physical, psychological or financial harm to the adult, and the restriction
39703970 is:
39713971 (i) For a period of not more than seven business days if the person
39723972 has a family or pre-existing social relationship with the adult; or
39733973 (ii) for a period of not more than 60 days if the person does not have
39743974 a family or pre-existing social relationship with the adult;
39753975 (8) receive a copy of the guardian's plan under section 79, and
39763976 amendments thereto, and the guardian's report under section 80, and
39773977 amendments thereto; and
39783978 (9) object to the guardian's plan or report.
39793979 (c) Any person required to provide notice under this section shall file
39803980 proof of service of such notice with the court.
39813981 New Sec. 75. (a) On its own after a petition has been filed under
39823982 section 65, and amendments thereto, or on verified petition by a person
39833983 interested in an adult's welfare, the court may appoint an emergency
39843984 guardian for the adult if the court finds a sufficient factual basis to
39853985 establish probable cause that:
39863986 (1) Appointment of an emergency guardian is necessary to prevent
39873987 imminent and substantial harm to the adult's physical health, safety or
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40314031 welfare;
40324032 (2) no other person has authority and willingness to act in the
40334033 circumstances; and
40344034 (3) a basis for appointment of a guardian under section 64, and
40354035 amendments thereto, exists.
40364036 (b) The duration of authority of an emergency guardian for an adult
40374037 may not exceed 30 days, and the emergency guardian may exercise only
40384038 the powers specified in the order of appointment. The emergency
40394039 guardian's authority may be extended up to three times for not more than
40404040 30 days per extension if the court finds good cause and that the conditions
40414041 for appointment of an emergency guardian in subsection (a) continue.
40424042 (c) Immediately upon filing of a petition for appointment of an
40434043 emergency guardian for an adult, the court shall appoint an attorney to
40444044 represent the respondent in the proceeding. Except as otherwise provided
40454045 in subsection (d), reasonable notice of the date, time, and place of a
40464046 hearing on the petition must be given to the respondent, the respondent's
40474047 attorney and any other person the court determines.
40484048 (d) The court may appoint an emergency guardian for an adult
40494049 without notice to the adult and any attorney for the adult only if the court
40504050 finds from an affidavit or testimony that the respondent's physical health,
40514051 safety or welfare will be substantially harmed before a hearing with notice
40524052 on the appointment can be held. If the court appoints an emergency
40534053 guardian without giving notice under subsection (c), the court must:
40544054 (1) Give notice of the appointment not later than 48 hours after the
40554055 appointment to:
40564056 (A) The respondent;
40574057 (B) the respondent's attorney; and
40584058 (C) any other person the court determines; and
40594059 (2) hold a hearing on the appropriateness of the appointment not later
40604060 than five days after the appointment.
40614061 (e) Appointment of an emergency guardian under this section is not a
40624062 determination that a basis exists for appointment of a guardian under
40634063 section 64, and amendments thereto.
40644064 (f) The court may remove an emergency guardian appointed under
40654065 this section at any time. The emergency guardian shall make any report the
40664066 court requires.
40674067 New Sec. 76. (a) A guardian for an adult is a fiduciary. A guardian
40684068 shall strive to assure that the personal, civil and human rights of the
40694069 individual subject to guardianship are protected. Except as otherwise
40704070 limited by the court, a guardian for an adult shall make decisions regarding
40714071 the support, care, education, health and welfare of the adult subject to
40724072 guardianship to the extent necessitated by the adult's limitations and in
40734073 accordance with the guardian's plan under section 79, and amendments
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41174117 thereto.
41184118 (b) A guardian for an adult shall promote the self-determination of the
41194119 adult and, to the extent reasonably feasible, include the adult in decision
41204120 making, and encourage the adult to participate in decisions, act on the
41214121 adult's own behalf, and develop or regain the capacity to manage the
41224122 adult's personal affairs. In furtherance of this duty, the guardian shall:
41234123 (1) Become or remain personally acquainted with the adult and
41244124 maintain sufficient contact with the adult, including through regular
41254125 visitation, to know the adult's abilities, limitations, needs, opportunities
41264126 and physical and mental health;
41274127 (2) to the extent reasonably feasible, identify the values and
41284128 preferences of the adult and involve the adult in decisions affecting the
41294129 adult, including decisions about the adult's care, dwelling, activities or
41304130 social interactions; and
41314131 (3) make reasonable efforts to identify and facilitate supportive
41324132 relationships and services for the adult.
41334133 (c) A guardian for an adult at all times shall exercise reasonable care,
41344134 diligence and prudence when acting on behalf of or making decisions for
41354135 the adult. In furtherance of this duty, the guardian shall:
41364136 (1) Take reasonable care of the personal effects and service or support
41374137 animals of the adult and bring a proceeding for a conservatorship or
41384138 protective arrangement instead of conservatorship if necessary to protect
41394139 the adult's property;
41404140 (2) if authorized by the court under section 78, and amendments
41414141 thereto, expend funds and other property of the adult received by the
41424142 guardian for the adult's current needs for support, care, education, health
41434143 and welfare;
41444144 (3) conserve any funds and other property of the adult not expended
41454145 under paragraph (2) for the adult's future needs, but if a conservator has
41464146 been appointed for the adult, pay the funds and other property at least
41474147 quarterly to the conservator to be conserved for the adult's future needs;
41484148 and
41494149 (4) monitor the quality of services, including long-term care services,
41504150 provided to the adult.
41514151 (d) In making a decision for an adult subject to guardianship, the
41524152 guardian shall make the decision the guardian reasonably believes the
41534153 adult would make if the adult were able unless doing so would
41544154 unreasonably harm or endanger the welfare or personal or financial
41554155 interests of the adult. To determine the decision the adult subject to
41564156 guardianship would make if able, the guardian shall consider the adult's
41574157 previous or current directions, preferences, opinions, cultural practices,
41584158 religious beliefs, values and actions, to the extent actually known or
41594159 reasonably ascertainable by the guardian.
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42034203 (e) If a guardian for an adult cannot make a decision under subsection
42044204 (d) because the guardian does not know and cannot reasonably determine
42054205 the decision the adult probably would make if able, or the guardian
42064206 reasonably believes the decision the adult would make would
42074207 unreasonably harm or endanger the welfare or personal or financial
42084208 interests of the adult, the guardian shall act in accordance with the best
42094209 interest of the adult. In determining the best interest of the adult, the
42104210 guardian shall consider:
42114211 (1) Information received from professionals and persons that
42124212 demonstrate sufficient interest in the welfare of the adult;
42134213 (2) other information the guardian believes the adult would have
42144214 considered if the adult were able to act; and
42154215 (3) other factors a reasonable person in the circumstances of the adult
42164216 would consider, including consequences for others.
42174217 (f) A guardian for an adult shall notify the court immediately if the
42184218 condition of the adult has changed so that the adult is capable of exercising
42194219 rights previously removed.
42204220 New Sec. 77. (a) Except as limited by court order, a guardian for an
42214221 adult may:
42224222 (1) If authorized by the court under section 78, and amendments
42234223 thereto, apply for and receive funds and benefits for the support of the
42244224 adult, unless a conservator is appointed for the adult and the application or
42254225 receipt is within the powers of the conservator;
42264226 (2) establish the adult's place of dwelling;
42274227 (3) consent to health, including mental health, or other care, treatment
42284228 or service for the adult;
42294229 (4) if a conservator for the adult has not been appointed, commence a
42304230 proceeding including an administrative proceeding, or take other
42314231 appropriate action to compel another person to support the adult or pay
42324232 funds for the adult's benefit; and
42334233 (5) receive personally identifiable healthcare information regarding
42344234 the adult.
42354235 (b) The court by specific order may authorize a guardian for an adult
42364236 to consent to the adoption of the adult.
42374237 (c) The court by specific order may authorize a guardian for an adult
42384238 to litigate as petitioner or respondent an action for divorce, dissolution or
42394239 annulment of marriage of the individual subject to guardianship, including
42404240 negotiation of a settlement thereof.
42414241 (d) In determining whether to authorize a power under subsection (b)
42424242 or (c), the court shall consider whether the underlying act would be in
42434243 accordance with the adult's preferences, values and prior directions and
42444244 whether the underlying act would be in the adult's best interest.
42454245 (e) In exercising a guardian's power under subsection (a)(2) to
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42894289 establish the adult's place of dwelling, the guardian shall:
42904290 (1) Select a residential setting the guardian believes the adult would
42914291 select if the adult were able, in accordance with the decision-making
42924292 standard in section 76(d) and (e), and amendments thereto. If the guardian
42934293 does not know and cannot reasonably determine what setting the adult
42944294 subject to guardianship probably would choose if able, or the guardian
42954295 reasonably believes the decision the adult would make would
42964296 unreasonably harm or endanger the welfare or personal or financial
42974297 interests of the adult, the guardian shall choose in accordance with section
42984298 76(e), and amendments thereto, a residential setting that is consistent with
42994299 the adult's best interest;
43004300 (2) in selecting among residential settings, give priority to a
43014301 residential setting in a location that will allow the adult to interact with
43024302 persons important to the adult and meet the adult's needs in the least
43034303 restrictive manner reasonably feasible unless to do so would be
43044304 inconsistent with the decision-making standard in section 76(d) and (e),
43054305 and amendments thereto;
43064306 (3) not later than 30 days after a change in the dwelling of the adult:
43074307 (A) Give notice of the change to the court, the adult and any person
43084308 identified as entitled to the notice in the court order appointing the
43094309 guardian or a subsequent order; and
43104310 (B) include in the notice the address and nature of the new dwelling
43114311 and state whether the adult received advance notice of the change and
43124312 whether the adult objected to the change;
43134313 (4) establish or move the permanent place of dwelling of the adult to
43144314 a nursing home, mental health facility or other facility that places
43154315 restrictions on the adult's ability to leave or have visitors only if:
43164316 (A) The establishment or move is in the guardian's plan under section
43174317 79, and amendments thereto;
43184318 (B) the court authorizes the establishment or move; or
43194319 (C) the guardian gives notice of the establishment or move at least 14
43204320 days before the establishment or move to the adult and all persons entitled
43214321 to notice under section 73(e)(2), and amendments thereto, or a subsequent
43224322 order, and no objection is filed;
43234323 (5) establish or move the place of dwelling of the adult outside this
43244324 state only if consistent with the guardian's plan and authorized by the court
43254325 by specific order; and
43264326 (6) take action that would result in the sale of or surrender of the lease
43274327 to the primary dwelling of the adult only if:
43284328 (A) The action is specifically included in the guardian's plan under
43294329 section 79, and amendments thereto;
43304330 (B) the court authorizes the action by specific order; or
43314331 (C) notice of the action was given at least 14 days before the action to
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43754375 the adult and all persons entitled to the notice under section 73(e)(2), and
43764376 amendments thereto, or a subsequent order and no objection has been
43774377 filed.
43784378 (f) In exercising a guardian's power under subsection (a)(3) to make
43794379 healthcare decisions, the guardian shall:
43804380 (1) Involve the adult in decision making to the extent reasonably
43814381 feasible, including, when practicable, by encouraging and supporting the
43824382 adult in understanding the risks and benefits of healthcare options;
43834383 (2) act in accordance with any declaration of the adult made pursuant
43844384 to the provisions of K.S.A. 65-28,101 through 65-28,109, and amendments
43854385 thereto; and
43864386 (3) take into account:
43874387 (A) The risks and benefits of treatment options; and
43884388 (B) the current and previous wishes and values of the adult, if known
43894389 or reasonably ascertainable by the guardian.
43904390 New Sec. 78. (a) A guardian for an adult may not initiate the
43914391 commitment of the adult to a mental health facility except in accordance
43924392 with the care and treatment act for mentally ill persons, K.S.A. 59-2945 et
43934393 seq., and amendments thereto.
43944394 (b) A guardian for an adult may not restrict the ability of the adult to
43954395 communicate, visit or interact with others, including receiving visitors and
43964396 making or receiving telephone calls, personal mail or electronic
43974397 communications, including through social media, or participating in social
43984398 activities, unless:
43994399 (1) Authorized by the court by specific order;
44004400 (2) a protective order or a protective arrangement instead of
44014401 guardianship is in effect that limits contact between the adult and a person;
44024402 or
44034403 (3) the guardian has good cause to believe restriction is necessary
44044404 because interaction with a specified person poses a risk of significant
44054405 physical, psychological or financial harm to the adult and the restriction is:
44064406 (A) For a period of not more than seven business days if the person
44074407 has a family or pre-existing social relationship with the adult; or
44084408 (B) for a period of not more than 60 days if the person does not have
44094409 a family or pre-existing social relationship with the adult.
44104410 (c) A guardian for an adult may not consent, on behalf of the adult, to:
44114411 (1) Any psychosurgery, removal of any bodily organ or amputation of
44124412 any limb, unless such surgery, removal or amputation has been approved
44134413 in advance by the court, except in an emergency and when necessary to
44144414 preserve the life of the adult or to prevent serious and irreparable
44154415 impairment to the physical health of the adult;
44164416 (2) the sterilization of the adult, unless approved by the court
44174417 following a due process hearing held for the purposes of determining
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44614461 whether to approve such, and during which hearing the adult is represented
44624462 by an attorney appointed by the court;
44634463 (3) the performance of any experimental biomedical or behavioral
44644464 procedure on the adult, or for the adult to be a participant in any
44654465 biomedical or behavioral experiment, without the prior review and
44664466 approval of such by either an institutional review board as provided for in
44674467 title 45, part 46 of the code of federal regulations, or if such regulations do
44684468 not apply, then by a review committee established by the agency,
44694469 institution or treatment facility at which the procedure or experiment is
44704470 proposed to occur, composed of members selected for the purposes of
44714471 determining whether the proposed procedure or experiment:
44724472 (A) Does not involve any significant risk of harm to the physical or
44734473 mental health of the adult, or the use of aversive stimulants, and is
44744474 intended to preserve the life or health of the adult or to assist the adult to
44754475 develop or regain skills or abilities; or
44764476 (B) involves a significant risk of harm to the physical or mental
44774477 health of the adult, or the use of an aversive stimulant, but that the
44784478 conducting of the proposed procedure or experiment is intended either to
44794479 preserve the life of the adult, or to significantly improve the quality of life
44804480 of the adult, or to assist the adult to develop or regain significant skills or
44814481 abilities, and that the guardian has been fully informed concerning the
44824482 potential risks and benefits of the proposed procedure or experiment or of
44834483 any aversive stimulant proposed to be used, and as to how and under what
44844484 circumstances the aversive stimulant may be used, and has specifically
44854485 consented to such;
44864486 (4) the withholding or withdrawal of life-saving or life-sustaining
44874487 medical care, treatment, services or procedures, except:
44884488 (A) In accordance with the provisions of any declaration of the adult
44894489 made pursuant to the provisions of K.S.A. 65-28,101 through 65-28,109,
44904490 and amendments thereto; or
44914491 (B) if the adult, prior to the court's appointment of a guardian, has
44924492 executed a durable power of attorney for healthcare decisions pursuant to
44934493 K.S.A. 58-625, et seq., and amendments thereto, and that durable power of
44944494 attorney has not previously been revoked by the adult, and it includes any
44954495 provision relevant to the withholding or withdrawal of life-saving or life-
44964496 sustaining medical care, treatment, services or procedures, then the
44974497 guardian shall have the authority to act as provided for in that power of
44984498 attorney, even if the guardian has revoked or amended that power of
44994499 attorney pursuant to the authority of K.S.A. 58-627, and amendments
45004500 thereto; or
45014501 (C) in the circumstances where the adult's treating physician certifies
45024502 in writing to the guardian that the adult is in a persistent vegetative state or
45034503 is suffering from an illness or other medical condition for which further
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45474547 treatment, other than for the relief of pain, would not likely prolong the life
45484548 of the adult other than by artificial means, nor would be likely to restore to
45494549 the adult any significant degree of capabilities beyond those the adult
45504550 currently possesses, and which opinion is concurred in by either a second
45514551 physician or by any medical ethics or similar committee to which the
45524552 healthcare provider has access established for the purposes of reviewing
45534553 such circumstances and the appropriateness of any type of physician's
45544554 order which would have the effect of withholding or withdrawing life-
45554555 saving or life-sustaining medical care, treatment, services or procedures.
45564556 The court shall review the written certification within 72 hours at a due
45574557 process hearing during which the adult is represented by an attorney
45584558 appointed by the court. The court may request that the state protection and
45594559 advocacy agency as provided by K.S.A. 65-5603(a)(10) or K.S.A. 74-
45604560 5515(a)(2)(A) and (B), and amendments thereto, or 42 U.S.C. 15043, 42
45614561 U.S.C. 10805 or 29 U.S.C. 794e represent the adult. Upon completion of
45624562 the hearing, if the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that the
45634563 adult meets the conditions set forth in this section, the court shall approve
45644564 the written certification. If the court does not find by clear and convincing
45654565 evidence that the adult meets the conditions set forth in this section, then
45664566 the written certification shall not be approved.
45674567 (d) A guardian for an adult may not exercise any control or authority
45684568 over the adult's estate, unless specifically authorized by the court. Any
45694569 guardian who is granted such authority must prepare an inventory and
45704570 provide notice of the inventory as provided in section 104, and
45714571 amendments thereto. The court may assign such authority to the guardian
45724572 and may waive the requirement of the posting of a bond, only if:
45734573 (1) Initially, the combined value of any funds and assets owned by the
45744574 adult equals $25,000 or less; and
45754575 (2) either the court requires the guardian to report to the court the
45764576 commencement of the exercising of such authority, or requires the
45774577 guardian to obtain court authorization to commence the exercise of such
45784578 authority, as the court shall specify; and
45794579 (3) the court also requires the guardian, whenever the combined value
45804580 of such funds and property exceeds $25,000, to:
45814581 (A) File a guardian's plan as provided for in section 79, and
45824582 amendments thereto, that contains elements similar to those that would be
45834583 contained in a conservator's plan as provided for in section 103, and
45844584 amendments thereto;
45854585 (B) petition the court for appointment of a conservator; or
45864586 (C) notify the court as the court shall specify that the value of the
45874587 adult's estate has equaled or exceeded $25,000, if the court has earlier
45884588 appointed a conservator but did not issue letters of conservatorship
45894589 pending such notification;
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46334633 (e) A guardian for an adult may not access digital assets of the adult
46344634 except if authorized by the court pursuant to K.S.A. 2024 Supp. 58-4814,
46354635 and amendments thereto.
46364636 New Sec. 79. (a) Not later than 60 days after appointment and when
46374637 there is a significant change in circumstances, or the guardian seeks to
46384638 deviate significantly from the existing guardian's plan, a guardian for an
46394639 adult shall file with the court a plan for the care of the adult. The plan must
46404640 be based on the needs of the adult and take into account the best interest of
46414641 the adult as well as the adult's preferences, values and prior directions, to
46424642 the extent known to or reasonably ascertainable by the guardian. The
46434643 guardian shall include in the plan:
46444644 (1) The living arrangement, services and supports the guardian
46454645 expects to arrange, facilitate or continue for the adult;
46464646 (2) social and educational activities the guardian expects to facilitate
46474647 on behalf of the adult;
46484648 (3) any person with whom the adult has a close personal relationship
46494649 or relationship involving regular visitation and any plan the guardian has
46504650 for facilitating visits with the person;
46514651 (4) the anticipated nature and frequency of the guardian's visits and
46524652 communication with the adult;
46534653 (5) goals for the adult, including any goal related to the restoration of
46544654 the adult's rights, and how the guardian anticipates achieving the goals;
46554655 (6) whether the adult has an existing plan and, if so, whether the
46564656 guardian's plan is consistent with the adult's plan; and
46574657 (7) a statement or list of the amount the guardian proposes to charge
46584658 for each service the guardian anticipates providing to the adult.
46594659 (b) A guardian shall give notice of the filing of the guardian's plan
46604660 under subsection (a), together with a copy of the plan, to the adult subject
46614661 to guardianship, any attorney representing the adult subject to
46624662 guardianship, a person entitled to notice under section 73(e), and
46634663 amendments thereto, or a subsequent order, and any other person the court
46644664 determines. The notice must include a statement of the right to object to
46654665 the plan and must be given at the time of the filing.
46664666 (c) An adult subject to guardianship and any person entitled under
46674667 subsection (b) to receive notice and a copy of the guardian's plan may
46684668 object to the plan in writing no later than 21 days after the filing.
46694669 (d) The court shall review the guardian's plan filed under subsection
46704670 (a) and determine whether to approve the plan or require a new plan. In
46714671 deciding whether to approve the plan, the court shall consider an objection
46724672 under subsection (c) and whether the plan is consistent with the guardian's
46734673 duties and powers under sections 76 and 77, and amendments thereto. The
46744674 court shall review an initial guardian's plan at the review hearing
46754675 scheduled under section 73(b), and amendments thereto. When reviewing
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47194719 subsequent guardian's plans, the court has discretion whether to set the
47204720 matter for hearing but may not approve the plan until 30 days after the
47214721 filing.
47224722 (e) After the guardian's plan filed under this section is approved by
47234723 the court, the guardian shall provide a copy of the plan to the adult subject
47244724 to guardianship, any attorney representing the adult subject to
47254725 guardianship, a person entitled to notice under section 73(e), and
47264726 amendments thereto, or a subsequent order, and any other person the court
47274727 determines.
47284728 New Sec. 80. (a) A guardian for an adult shall file with the court at
47294729 least annually and at any other time the court directs a report in a record
47304730 regarding the condition of the adult and accounting for funds and other
47314731 property in the guardian's possession or subject to the guardian's control.
47324732 (b) A report under subsection (a) must state or contain:
47334733 (1) The mental, physical and social condition of the adult;
47344734 (2) the living arrangements of the adult during the reporting period;
47354735 (3) a summary of the supported decision making, technological
47364736 assistance, medical services, educational and vocational services and other
47374737 supports and services provided to the adult and the guardian's opinion as to
47384738 the adequacy of the adult's care;
47394739 (4) a summary of the guardian's visits with the adult, including the
47404740 frequency of the visits;
47414741 (5) action taken on behalf of the adult;
47424742 (6) the extent to which the adult has participated in decision making;
47434743 (7) if the adult is living in a mental health facility or living in a
47444744 facility that provides the adult with healthcare or other personal services,
47454745 whether the guardian considers the facility's current plan for support, care,
47464746 treatment or habilitation consistent with the adult's preferences, values,
47474747 prior directions and best interest;
47484748 (8) anything of more than de minimis value which the guardian, any
47494749 individual who resides with the guardian, or the spouse, parent, child or
47504750 sibling of the guardian has received from an individual providing goods or
47514751 services to the adult;
47524752 (9) any circumstance that may constitute a conflict of interest
47534753 between the guardian and the adult. A conflict of interest occurs where the
47544754 guardian has some personal, business or agency interest that could be
47554755 perceived as self-serving or adverse to the position or best interest of the
47564756 adult, including, but not limited to, being paid for providing caregiver
47574757 services to the adult;
47584758 (10) if a guardian has been granted financial authority under section
47594759 78(c), and amendments thereto, an accounting that lists property included
47604760 in the adult's estate and the receipts, disbursements, liabilities and
47614761 distributions during the period for which the report is made;
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48054805 (11) a copy of the guardian's most recently approved plan under
48064806 section 79, and amendments thereto, and a statement whether the guardian
48074807 has deviated from the plan and, if so, how the guardian has deviated and
48084808 why;
48094809 (12) plans for future care and support of the adult;
48104810 (13) a recommendation as to the need for continued guardianship and
48114811 any recommended change in the scope of the guardianship, including
48124812 whether the condition of the adult has changed so that the adult is capable
48134813 of exercising rights previously removed; and
48144814 (14) whether any co-guardian or successor guardian appointed to
48154815 serve when a designated event occurs is alive and able to serve.
48164816 (c) A guardian for an adult shall file a special report with the court
48174817 upon the occurrence of any of the following:
48184818 (1) A change of address of the guardian;
48194819 (2) a change of residence or placement of the adult;
48204820 (3) a significant change in the health or impairment of the adult;
48214821 (4) the acquisition by the adult of any real property, or the receipt or
48224822 accumulation of other property or income by the adult or by the guardian
48234823 on behalf of the adult, which causes the total value of the adult's estate to
48244824 equal or exceed $25,000;
48254825 (5) the death of the adult; or
48264826 (6) a change in the circumstances of the guardian or the adult that
48274827 may constitute a conflict of interest. A conflict of interest occurs where the
48284828 guardian has some personal, business or agency interest that could be
48294829 perceived as self-serving or adverse to the position or best interest of the
48304830 adult.
48314831 (d) The court may appoint a court liaison to review a report submitted
48324832 under this section or a guardian's plan submitted under section 79, and
48334833 amendments thereto, interview the guardian or adult subject to
48344834 guardianship or investigate any other matter involving the guardianship.
48354835 (e) Notice of the filing under this section of a guardian's report or
48364836 special report, together with a copy of the report, must be given to the
48374837 adult subject to guardianship, a person entitled to notice under section
48384838 73(e), and amendments thereto, or a subsequent order, and any other
48394839 person the court determines. The notice and report must be given not later
48404840 than 14 days after the filing.
48414841 (f) The court shall establish procedures for monitoring a report
48424842 submitted under this section and review each report at least annually to
48434843 determine whether:
48444844 (1) The report provides sufficient information to establish the
48454845 guardian has complied with the guardian's duties;
48464846 (2) the guardianship should continue; and
48474847 (3) the guardian's requested fees, if any, should be approved.
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48914891 (g) If the court determines that there is reason to believe a guardian
48924892 for an adult has not complied with the guardian's duties or the
48934893 guardianship should be modified or terminated, the court:
48944894 (1) Shall notify the adult, the guardian and any other person entitled
48954895 to notice under section 73(e), and amendments thereto, or a subsequent
48964896 order;
48974897 (2) may require additional information from the guardian;
48984898 (3) may appoint a court liaison to interview the adult or guardian or
48994899 investigate any matter involving the guardianship; and
49004900 (4) consistent with sections 81 and 82, and amendments thereto, may
49014901 hold a hearing to consider removal of the guardian, termination of the
49024902 guardianship or a change in the powers granted to the guardian or terms of
49034903 the guardianship.
49044904 (h) If the court has reason to believe fees requested by a guardian for
49054905 an adult are not reasonable, the court shall hold a hearing to determine
49064906 whether to adjust the requested fees.
49074907 (i) A guardian for an adult may petition the court for approval of a
49084908 report filed under this section. The court after review may approve the
49094909 report. If the court approves the report, there is a rebuttable presumption
49104910 the report is accurate as to a matter adequately disclosed in the report.
49114911 New Sec. 81. (a) The court may remove a guardian for an adult for
49124912 failure to perform the guardian's duties or for other good cause and appoint
49134913 a successor guardian to assume the duties of guardian.
49144914 (b) The court shall hold a hearing to determine whether to remove a
49154915 guardian for an adult and appoint a successor guardian on:
49164916 (1) Petition of the adult, guardian or person interested in the welfare
49174917 of the adult, which contains allegations that, if true, would support a
49184918 reasonable belief that removal of the guardian and appointment of a
49194919 successor guardian may be appropriate, but the court may decline to hold a
49204920 hearing if a petition based on the same or substantially similar facts was
49214921 filed during the preceding six months;
49224922 (2) communication from the adult, guardian or person interested in
49234923 the welfare of the adult which supports a reasonable belief that removal of
49244924 the guardian and appointment of a successor guardian may be appropriate;
49254925 (3) determination by the court that a hearing would be in the best
49264926 interest of the adult; or
49274927 (4) determination by the court that the guardian's annual reports are
49284928 delinquent or deficient as filed.
49294929 (c) Notice of a petition under subsection (b)(1) or a hearing under this
49304930 section must be given to the adult subject to guardianship, the guardian, a
49314931 person entitled to notice under section 73(e), and amendments thereto, or a
49324932 subsequent order, and any other person the court determines.
49334933 (d) If the adult subject to guardianship is not represented by an
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49774977 attorney, the court shall appoint an attorney under the same conditions as
49784978 in section 68, and amendments thereto. The court shall award reasonable
49794979 attorney fees to the attorney for the adult as provided in section 42, and
49804980 amendments thereto.
49814981 (e) In selecting a successor guardian for an adult, the court shall
49824982 follow the priorities under section 72, and amendments thereto.
49834983 (f) Not later than 30 days after appointing a successor guardian, the
49844984 court or the court's designee shall give notice of the appointment to the
49854985 adult subject to guardianship and any person entitled to notice under
49864986 section 73(e), and amendments thereto, or a subsequent order.
49874987 New Sec. 82. (a) An adult subject to guardianship, the guardian for
49884988 the adult or a person interested in the welfare of the adult may petition for:
49894989 (1) Termination of the guardianship on the ground that a basis for
49904990 appointment under section 64, and amendments thereto, does not exist or
49914991 termination would be in the best interest of the adult or for other good
49924992 cause; or
49934993 (2) modification of the guardianship on the ground that the extent of
49944994 protection or assistance granted is not appropriate or for other good cause.
49954995 (b) The court shall hold a hearing to determine whether termination
49964996 or modification of a guardianship for an adult is appropriate on:
49974997 (1) Petition under subsection (a) which contains allegations that, if
49984998 true, would support a reasonable belief that termination or modification of
49994999 the guardianship may be appropriate, but the court may decline to hold a
50005000 hearing if a petition based on the same or substantially similar facts was
50015001 filed during the preceding six months;
50025002 (2) communication from the adult, guardian or person interested in
50035003 the welfare of the adult which supports a reasonable belief that termination
50045004 or modification of the guardianship may be appropriate, including because
50055005 the functional needs of the adult or supports or services available to the
50065006 adult have changed;
50075007 (3) a report from a guardian or conservator which indicates that
50085008 termination or modification may be appropriate because the functional
50095009 needs of the adult or supports or services available to the adult have
50105010 changed or a protective arrangement instead of guardianship or other less
50115011 restrictive alternative for meeting the adult's needs is available; or
50125012 (4) a determination by the court that a hearing would be in the best
50135013 interest of the adult.
50145014 (c) Notice of a petition under subsection (b)(1) or of a hearing under
50155015 this section must be given to the adult subject to guardianship, the
50165016 guardian, a person entitled to notice under section 73(e), and amendments
50175017 thereto, or a subsequent order, and any other person the court determines.
50185018 (d) After the hearing, the court shall order termination unless it is
50195019 proven that a basis for appointment of a guardian under section 64, and
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50635063 amendments thereto, continues to exist.
50645064 (e) The court shall modify the powers granted to a guardian for an
50655065 adult if the powers are excessive or inadequate due to a change in the
50665066 abilities or limitations of the adult, the adult's supports or other
50675067 circumstances.
50685068 (f) Unless the court otherwise orders for good cause, before
50695069 terminating or modifying a guardianship for an adult, the court shall
50705070 follow the same procedures to safeguard the rights of the adult which
50715071 apply to a petition for guardianship.
50725072 (g) An adult subject to guardianship who seeks to terminate or
50735073 modify the terms of the guardianship has the right to choose an attorney to
50745074 represent the adult in the matter. If the adult is not represented by an
50755075 attorney, the court shall appoint an attorney under the same conditions as
50765076 in section 68, and amendments thereto. The court shall award reasonable
50775077 attorney fees to the attorney for the adult as provided in section 42, and
50785078 amendments thereto.
50795079 (h) Not later than 30 days after entering an order under this section,
50805080 the court or the court's designee shall give notice of the order to the adult
50815081 subject to guardianship and any person entitled to notice under section
50825082 73(e), and amendments thereto, or a subsequent order.
50835083 New Sec. 83. (a) On petition and after notice and hearing, the court
50845084 may appoint a conservator for the property or financial affairs of a minor if
50855085 the court finds by a preponderance of evidence that the minor owns funds
50865086 or other property exceeding $25,000 in value derived from court
50875087 settlements, death transfers or sources other than the minor's employment
50885088 earnings or accounts established under the uniform transfers to minors act,
50895089 and either:
50905090 (1) The minor owns funds or other property requiring management or
50915091 protection that otherwise cannot be provided;
50925092 (2) the minor has or may have financial affairs that may be put at
50935093 unreasonable risk or hindered because of the minor's age; or
50945094 (3) appointment is necessary or desirable to obtain or provide funds
50955095 or other property needed for the support, care, education, health or welfare
50965096 of the minor.
50975097 (b) On petition and after notice and hearing, the court may appoint a
50985098 conservator for the property or financial affairs of an adult if the court
50995099 finds by clear and convincing evidence that:
51005100 (1) The adult is unable to manage property or financial affairs
51015101 because:
51025102 (A) Of a limitation in the adult's ability to receive and evaluate
51035103 information or make or communicate decisions, even with the use of
51045104 appropriate supportive services, technological assistance or supported
51055105 decision making; or
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51495149 (B) the adult is missing, detained or unable to return to the United
51505150 States;
51515151 (2) appointment is necessary to:
51525152 (A) Avoid harm to the adult or significant dissipation of the property
51535153 of the adult; or
51545154 (B) obtain or provide funds or other property needed for the support,
51555155 care, education, health or welfare of the adult or of an individual entitled to
51565156 the adult's support; and
51575157 (3) the adult's identified needs cannot be met by a protective
51585158 arrangement instead of conservatorship or other less restrictive alternative.
51595159 (c) The court shall grant a conservator only those powers necessitated
51605160 by demonstrated limitations and needs of the adult and issue orders that
51615161 will encourage development of the adult's maximum self-determination
51625162 and independence. The court may not establish a full conservatorship if a
51635163 limited conservatorship, protective arrangement instead of conservatorship
51645164 or other less restrictive alternative would meet the needs of the adult.
51655165 New Sec. 84. (a) The following may file a verified petition for the
51665166 appointment of a conservator:
51675167 (1) The individual for whom the order is sought;
51685168 (2) a person interested in the estate, financial affairs or welfare of the
51695169 individual, including a person that would be adversely affected by lack of
51705170 effective management of property or financial affairs of the individual; or
51715171 (3) the guardian for the individual.
51725172 (b) A petition under subsection (a) must state the petitioner's name,
51735173 principal residence, current street address if different, relationship to the
51745174 respondent, interest in the appointment, the name and address of any
51755175 attorney representing the petitioner and, to the extent known, the
51765176 following:
51775177 (1) The respondent's name, age, principal residence, current street
51785178 address if different and, if different, address of the dwelling in which it is
51795179 proposed the respondent will reside if the petition is granted;
51805180 (2) the name and address of the respondent's:
51815181 (A) Spouse or, if the respondent has none, an adult with whom the
51825182 respondent has shared household responsibilities for more than six months
51835183 in the 12-month period before the filing of the petition;
51845184 (B) adult children, adult stepchildren, adult grandchildren and each
51855185 parent and adult sibling of the respondent, or, if none, at least one adult
51865186 nearest in kinship to the respondent who can be found with reasonable
51875187 diligence; and
51885188 (C) adult former stepchildren with whom the respondent had an
51895189 ongoing relationship during the two years immediately before the filing of
51905190 the petition;
51915191 (3) the name and current address of each of the following, if
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52355235 applicable:
52365236 (A) A person primarily responsible for the care or custody of the
52375237 respondent;
52385238 (B) any attorney currently representing the respondent;
52395239 (C) the representative payee appointed by the social security
52405240 administration for the respondent;
52415241 (D) a guardian or conservator acting for the respondent in this state or
52425242 another jurisdiction;
52435243 (E) a trustee or custodian of a trust or custodianship of which the
52445244 respondent is a beneficiary;
52455245 (F) the fiduciary appointed for the respondent by the department of
52465246 veterans affairs and any curator appointed under K.S.A. 73-507, and
52475247 amendments thereto;
52485248 (G) an agent designated under a power of attorney for healthcare in
52495249 which the respondent is identified as the principal;
52505250 (H) an agent designated under a power of attorney for finances in
52515251 which the respondent is identified as the principal;
52525252 (I) a person known to have routinely assisted the respondent with
52535253 decision making in the six-month period immediately before the filing of
52545254 the petition; and
52555255 (J) if the individual for whom a conservator is sought is a minor:
52565256 (i) An adult not otherwise listed with whom the minor resides; and
52575257 (ii) each person not otherwise listed that had primary care or custody
52585258 of the minor for at least 60 days during the two years immediately before
52595259 the filing of the petition or for at least 730 days during the five years
52605260 immediately before the filing of the petition;
52615261 (4) (A) The name, age, date of birth, gender, address, place of
52625262 employment and relationship to the respondent, if any, of the proposed
52635263 conservator;
52645264 (B) the reason the proposed conservator should be selected; and
52655265 (C) any potential conflict of interest including any personal or agency
52665266 interest of the proposed conservator that may be perceived as self-serving
52675267 or adverse to the position or best interest of the respondent;
52685268 (5) a general statement of the respondent's property with an estimate
52695269 of its value, including any insurance or pension, and the source and
52705270 amount of other anticipated income or receipts;
52715271 (6) the reason conservatorship is necessary, including a description
52725272 of:
52735273 (A) The nature and extent of the respondent's alleged need;
52745274 (B) if the petition alleges the respondent is missing, detained or
52755275 unable to return to the United States, the relevant circumstances, including
52765276 the time and nature of the disappearance or detention and any search or
52775277 inquiry concerning the respondent's whereabouts;
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53215321 (C) any protective arrangement instead of conservatorship or other
53225322 less restrictive alternative for meeting the respondent's alleged need which
53235323 has been considered or implemented;
53245324 (D) if no protective arrangement or other less restrictive alternatives
53255325 have been considered or implemented, the reason it has not been
53265326 considered or implemented; and
53275327 (E) the reason a protective arrangement or other less restrictive
53285328 alternative is insufficient to meet the respondent's need;
53295329 (7) whether the petitioner seeks a limited conservatorship or a full
53305330 conservatorship;
53315331 (8) if the petitioner seeks a full conservatorship, the reason a limited
53325332 conservatorship or protective arrangement instead of conservatorship is
53335333 not appropriate;
53345334 (9) if the petition is for a limited conservatorship, a description of the
53355335 property to be placed under the conservator's control and any requested
53365336 limitation on the authority of the conservator;
53375337 (10) whether the respondent needs an interpreter, translator or other
53385338 form of support to communicate effectively with the court or understand
53395339 court proceedings; and
53405340 (11) the name and address of an attorney representing the petitioner,
53415341 if any.
53425342 New Sec. 85. (a) On filing of a petition under section 84, and
53435343 amendments thereto, for appointment of a conservator, the court shall set a
53445344 date, time and place for a hearing on the petition.
53455345 (b) A copy of a petition under section 84, and amendments thereto,
53465346 and notice of a hearing on the petition must be served personally on the
53475347 respondent. If the respondent's whereabouts are unknown or personal
53485348 service cannot be made, service on the respondent must be made by
53495349 substituted service, as ordered by the court. The notice must inform the
53505350 respondent of the respondent's rights at the hearing, including the right to
53515351 an attorney and to attend the hearing. The notice must include a
53525352 description of the nature, purpose and consequences of granting the
53535353 petition. The court may not grant a petition for appointment of a
53545354 conservator if notice substantially complying with this subsection is not
53555355 served on the respondent. The court may order any of the following
53565356 persons to serve the notice upon the respondent:
53575357 (1) The petitioner or the attorney for the petitioner;
53585358 (2) the attorney appointed by the court to represent the respondent;
53595359 (3) any law enforcement officer; or
53605360 (4) any other person whom the court finds to be a proper person to
53615361 serve this notice.
53625362 (c) In a proceeding on a petition under section 84, and amendments
53635363 thereto, the notice required under subsection (b) must be given to the
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54075407 persons required to be listed in the petition under section 84(b)(1) through
54085408 (3), and amendments thereto, and any other person interested in the
54095409 respondent's welfare the court determines. Failure to give notice under this
54105410 subsection does not preclude the court from appointing a conservator.
54115411 (d) After the appointment of a conservator, notice of a hearing on a
54125412 petition for any other order under sections 83 through 118, and
54135413 amendments thereto, together with a copy of the petition, must be given to:
54145414 (1) The individual subject to conservatorship, if the individual is 12
54155415 years of age or older and not missing, detained or unable to return to the
54165416 United States;
54175417 (2) the conservator; and
54185418 (3) any other person the court determines.
54195419 New Sec. 86. While a petition under section 84, and amendments
54205420 thereto, is pending, after preliminary hearing and without notice to others,
54215421 the court may issue an order to preserve and apply property of the
54225422 respondent as required for the support of the respondent or an individual
54235423 who is in fact dependent on the respondent. The court may appoint an
54245424 emergency conservator to assist in implementing the order.
54255425 New Sec. 87. (a) If the respondent in a proceeding to appoint a
54265426 conservator is a minor, the court may appoint a court liaison to investigate
54275427 a matter related to the petition or inform the minor or a parent of the minor
54285428 about the petition or a related matter.
54295429 (b) If the respondent in a proceeding to appoint a conservator is an
54305430 adult, the court may appoint a court liaison. The duties and reporting
54315431 requirements of the court liaison are limited to the relief requested in the
54325432 petition. The court liaison must be an individual with training or
54335433 experience in the type of abilities, limitations and needs alleged in the
54345434 petition.
54355435 (c) (1) A court liaison appointed under subsection (b) for an adult
54365436 shall interview the respondent in person and in a manner the respondent is
54375437 best able to understand:
54385438 (A) Explain, in general, the petition, and the nature and purpose of
54395439 the proceeding, including the potential loss of rights as a result of the
54405440 proceeding; and
54415441 (B) obtain the respondent's views about the appointment sought by
54425442 the petitioner, including views about a proposed conservator, the
54435443 conservator's proposed powers and duties and the scope and duration of
54445444 the proposed conservatorship.
54455445 (2) These explanations and discussions are not intended to be a
54465446 substitute for the attorney appointed to represent the respondent to inform
54475447 the respondent of the respondent's rights and the nature and purpose of the
54485448 proceeding.
54495449 (d) A court liaison appointed under subsection (b) for an adult may be
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54935493 assigned any or all of the following duties, in the discretion of the
54945494 presiding judge:
54955495 (1) Interview the petitioner and proposed conservator, if any;
54965496 (2) review financial records of the respondent, if relevant to the court
54975497 liaison's recommendation under subsection (e)(1);
54985498 (3) investigate whether the respondent's needs could be met by a
54995499 protective arrangement instead of conservatorship or other less restrictive
55005500 alternative and, if so, identify the arrangement or other less restrictive
55015501 alternative; and
55025502 (4) investigate the allegations in the petition and any other matter
55035503 relating to the petition as directed by the court, including, but not limited
55045504 to, the respondent's family relationships, past conduct, the nature and
55055505 extent of any property or income of the respondent, whether the
55065506 respondent is likely to injure self or others and other matters as the court
55075507 may specify.
55085508 (e) A court liaison appointed under subsection (b) for an adult shall
55095509 file a report with the court at least 10 days prior to the hearing on the
55105510 petition or other hearing as directed by the court. Unless otherwise ordered
55115511 by the court, such report must include:
55125512 (1) A recommendation:
55135513 (A) Regarding the appropriateness of conservatorship, or whether a
55145514 protective arrangement instead of conservatorship or other less restrictive
55155515 alternative for meeting the respondent's needs is available;
55165516 (B) if a conservatorship is recommended, whether it should be full or
55175517 limited; and
55185518 (C) if a limited conservatorship is recommended, the powers to be
55195519 granted to the conservator, and the property that should be placed under
55205520 the conservator's control;
55215521 (2) a statement of the qualifications of the proposed conservator and
55225522 whether the respondent approves or disapproves of the proposed
55235523 conservator;
55245524 (3) a statement whether the respondent is able to attend a hearing at
55255525 the location court proceedings typically are held;
55265526 (4) a statement whether the respondent is able to participate in a
55275527 hearing and which identifies any technology or other form of support that
55285528 would enhance the respondent's ability to participate; and
55295529 (5) any other matter the court directs.
55305530 (d) The costs of an investigation by a court liaison shall be assessed
55315531 as provided for in section 42, and amendments thereto.
55325532 New Sec. 88. (a) Unless the respondent in a proceeding for
55335533 appointment of a conservator is represented by an attorney, the court shall
55345534 appoint an attorney to represent the respondent, regardless of the
55355535 respondent's ability to pay. The court shall give preference in the
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55795579 appointment of an attorney to any attorney who has represented the
55805580 respondent in other matters if the court has knowledge of that prior
55815581 representation or to an attorney whom the respondent has requested. Any
55825582 appointment made by the court shall terminate after the conservator's plan
55835583 has been approved and after any appeal from the appointment of a
55845584 conservator, unless the court continues the appointment by further order.
55855585 Thereafter, an attorney may be appointed by the court if requested, in
55865586 writing, by the adult subject to conservatorship, the conservator or upon
55875587 the court's own motion.
55885588 (b) An attorney representing the respondent in a proceeding for
55895589 appointment of a conservator shall:
55905590 (1) Make reasonable efforts to ascertain the respondent's wishes;
55915591 (2) advocate for the respondent's wishes to the extent reasonably
55925592 ascertainable; and
55935593 (3) if the respondent's wishes are not reasonably ascertainable,
55945594 advocate for the result that is the least-restrictive in type, duration and
55955595 scope, consistent with the respondent's interests.
55965596 (c) An attorney representing the respondent shall interview the
55975597 respondent in person and, in a manner the respondent is best able to
55985598 understand:
55995599 (1) Explain to the respondent the substance of the petition, the nature,
56005600 purpose and effect of the proceeding, the respondent's rights at the hearing
56015601 on the petition and the general powers and duties of a conservator;
56025602 (2) determine the respondent's views about the appointment sought by
56035603 the petitioner, including views about a proposed conservator, the
56045604 conservator's proposed powers and duties and the scope and duration of
56055605 the proposed conservatorship; and
56065606 (3) inform the respondent that all costs and expenses of the
56075607 proceeding, including respondent's attorney fees, may be paid from the
56085608 respondent's assets.
56095609 (d) The court shall appoint an attorney to represent a parent of a
56105610 minor who is the subject of a proceeding under section 84, and
56115611 amendments thereto, if the court determines the parent needs
56125612 representation.
56135613 New Sec. 89. (a) Upon the filing of the petition or any other time at
56145614 or before the hearing, if the contents of the petition or evidence at the
56155615 hearing support a prima facie case of the need for a conservator, the court
56165616 shall order an examination and evaluation of the respondent to be
56175617 conducted through a general hospital, psychiatric hospital, community
56185618 mental health center or community developmental disability organization,
56195619 or by a licensed physician, psychiatrist, psychologist, physician assistant,
56205620 nurse practitioner, social worker or other professional appointed by the
56215621 court who is qualified to evaluate the respondent's alleged cognitive and
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56655665 functional abilities and limitations and will not be advantaged or
56665666 disadvantaged by a decision to grant the petition or otherwise have a
56675667 conflict of interest.
56685668 (b) Unless otherwise specified by the court, the report of the
56695669 examination and evaluation submitted to the court shall contain:
56705670 (1) The respondent's name, age and date of birth;
56715671 (2) a description of the respondent's physical and mental condition;
56725672 (3) a description of the nature and extent of the respondent's cognitive
56735673 and functional abilities and limitations, including adaptive behaviors and
56745674 social skills, and, as appropriate, educational and developmental potential;
56755675 (4) a prognosis for any improvement and, as appropriate, any
56765676 recommendation for treatment or rehabilitation;
56775677 (5) a list and description of any prior assessments, evaluations or
56785678 examinations of the respondent, including the dates thereof, which were
56795679 relied upon in the preparation of this evaluation;
56805680 (6) the date and location where this examination and evaluation
56815681 occurred, and the name or names of the professional or professionals
56825682 performing the examination and evaluation and such professional's
56835683 qualifications;
56845684 (7) a statement by the professional that the professional has
56855685 personally completed an independent examination and evaluation of the
56865686 respondent, and that the report submitted to the court contains the results
56875687 of that examination and evaluation, and the professional's opinion with
56885688 regard to the issues of whether or not the respondent is in need of a
56895689 conservator and whether there are barriers to the respondent's attendance
56905690 and participation at the hearing on the petition; and
56915691 (8) the signature of the professional who prepared the report.
56925692 (c) The professional shall file with the court, at least five days prior to
56935693 the date of the trial, such professional's written report concerning the
56945694 examination and evaluation ordered by the court. The report shall be made
56955695 available by the court to counsel for all parties.
56965696 (d) In lieu of entering an order for an examination and evaluation as
56975697 provided for in this section, the court may determine that the report
56985698 accompanying the petition is in compliance with the requirements of this
56995699 section and that no further examination or evaluation should be required,
57005700 unless the respondent, or such person's attorney, requests such an
57015701 examination and evaluation in writing. Any such request shall be filed with
57025702 the court, and a copy thereof delivered to the petitioner, at least four days
57035703 prior to the date of the trial. Accompanying the request shall be a statement
57045704 of the reasons why an examination and evaluation is requested and the
57055705 name and address of a qualified professional or facility willing and able to
57065706 conduct this examination and evaluation. If the court orders a further
57075707 examination and evaluation, the court may continue the trial and fix a new
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57515751 date, time and place of the trial at a time not to exceed 30 days from the
57525752 date of the filing of the request.
57535753 New Sec. 90. (a) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (b), a
57545754 hearing under section 85, and amendments thereto, may not proceed unless
57555755 the respondent attends the hearing. If it is not reasonably feasible for the
57565756 respondent to attend a hearing at the location court proceedings typically
57575757 are held, the court shall make reasonable efforts to hold the hearing at an
57585758 alternative location convenient to the respondent or allow the respondent
57595759 to attend the hearing using real-time audio-visual technology.
57605760 (b) A hearing under section 85, and amendments thereto, may
57615761 proceed without the respondent in attendance if the court finds by clear
57625762 and convincing evidence that:
57635763 (1) The respondent is choosing not to attend the hearing after having
57645764 been fully informed of the right to attend and the potential consequences
57655765 of failing to do so;
57665766 (2) there is no practicable way for the respondent to attend and
57675767 participate in the hearing even with appropriate supportive services or
57685768 technological assistance; or
57695769 (3) the respondent is a minor who has received proper notice and
57705770 attendance would be harmful to the minor.
57715771 (c) The respondent may be assisted in a hearing under section 85, and
57725772 amendments thereto, by a person or persons of the respondent's choosing,
57735773 assistive technology or an interpreter or translator, or a combination of
57745774 these supports. If assistance would facilitate the respondent's participation
57755775 in the hearing, but is not otherwise available to the respondent, the court
57765776 shall make reasonable efforts to provide it.
57775777 (d) The respondent has a right to retain an attorney to represent the
57785778 respondent at a hearing under section 85, and amendments thereto.
57795779 (e) At a hearing under section 85, and amendments thereto, the
57805780 respondent may:
57815781 (1) Present evidence and subpoena witnesses and documents;
57825782 (2) examine witnesses, including any court-appointed evaluator or
57835783 court liaison; and
57845784 (3) otherwise participate in the hearing.
57855785 (f) Unless excused by the court for good cause, a proposed
57865786 conservator shall attend a hearing under section 85, and amendments
57875787 thereto.
57885788 (g) A hearing under section 85, and amendments thereto, must be
57895789 closed on request of the respondent and a showing of good cause.
57905790 (h) Any person may request to participate in a hearing under section
57915791 85, and amendments thereto. The court may grant the request, with or
57925792 without a hearing, on determining that the best interest of the respondent
57935793 will be served. The court may impose appropriate conditions on the
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58375837 person's participation.
58385838 New Sec. 91. (a) The existence of a proceeding for or the existence of
58395839 conservatorship is a matter of public record unless the court seals the
58405840 record after:
58415841 (1) The respondent, the individual subject to conservatorship or the
58425842 parent of a minor subject to conservatorship requests the record be sealed;
58435843 and
58445844 (2) either:
58455845 (A) The petition for conservatorship is dismissed; or
58465846 (B) the conservatorship is terminated.
58475847 (b) (1) The following court records are a matter of public record
58485848 unless sealed by the court:
58495849 (A) Letters of conservatorship;
58505850 (B) orders suspending or removing a conservator; and
58515851 (C) orders terminating a conservatorship.
58525852 (2) All other court records of a conservatorship proceeding are not a
58535853 matter of public record except as further provided.
58545854 (3) The following persons may access court records of the proceeding
58555855 and resulting conservatorship, including the conservator's plan under
58565856 section 103, and amendments thereto, and the conservator's report under
58575857 section 105, and amendments thereto:
58585858 (A) An individual subject to a proceeding for a conservatorship,
58595859 whether or not a conservator is appointed;
58605860 (B) an attorney designated by the individual;
58615861 (C) a person entitled to notice under section 93(f), and amendments
58625862 thereto, or a subsequent order; and
58635863 (D) a licensed attorney, abstractor or title insurance agent.
58645864 (4) A person not otherwise entitled to access to court records under
58655865 this section for good cause may request permission from the court for
58665866 access to court records of the conservatorship, including the conservator's
58675867 plan and report. The court shall grant access if access is in the best interest
58685868 of the respondent or individual subject to conservatorship or furthers the
58695869 public interest and does not endanger the welfare or financial interests of
58705870 the respondent or individual.
58715871 (c) A report under section 87, and amendments thereto, of a court
58725872 liaison or professional evaluation under section 89, and amendments
58735873 thereto, is confidential and must be sealed on filing, but is available to:
58745874 (1) The court;
58755875 (2) the individual who is the subject of the report or evaluation,
58765876 without limitation as to use;
58775877 (3) the petitioner, court liaison and petitioner's and respondent's
58785878 attorneys, for purposes of the proceeding;
58795879 (4) unless the court directs otherwise, an agent appointed under a
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59235923 power of attorney for finances in which the respondent is identified as the
59245924 principal; and
59255925 (5) any other person if it is in the public interest or for a purpose the
59265926 court orders for good cause.
59275927 New Sec. 92. (a) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (c), the
59285928 court in appointing a conservator shall consider persons qualified to be a
59295929 conservator in the following order of priority:
59305930 (1) A conservator, other than a temporary or emergency conservator,
59315931 currently acting for the respondent in another jurisdiction;
59325932 (2) a person nominated as conservator by the respondent, including
59335933 the respondent's most recent nomination made in a power of attorney for
59345934 finances;
59355935 (3) an agent appointed by the respondent to manage the respondent's
59365936 property under a power of attorney for finances;
59375937 (4) a spouse of the respondent;
59385938 (5) a family member or other individual who has shown special care
59395939 and concern for the respondent; and
59405940 (6) a person nominated as conservator by the spouse, adult child or
59415941 other close family member of the respondent.
59425942 (b) If two or more persons have equal priority under subsection (a),
59435943 the court shall select as conservator the person the court considers best
59445944 qualified. In determining the best qualified person, the court shall consider
59455945 the person's relationship with the respondent, the person's skills, the
59465946 expressed wishes of the respondent, the extent to which the person and the
59475947 respondent have similar values and preferences and the likelihood the
59485948 person will be able to perform the duties of a conservator successfully.
59495949 (c) The court, acting in the best interest of the respondent, may
59505950 decline to appoint as conservator a person having priority under subsection
59515951 (a) and appoint a person having a lower priority or no priority.
59525952 (d) The following persons shall not be appointed as conservator
59535953 unless the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that the person is
59545954 the best qualified person available for appointment and the appointment is
59555955 in the best interest of the respondent:
59565956 (1) A person that provides paid services to the respondent, or an
59575957 individual who is employed by a person that provides paid services to the
59585958 respondent, or is the spouse, parent or child of an individual who provides
59595959 or is employed to provide paid services to the respondent;
59605960 (2) an owner, operator or employee of any entity at which the
59615961 respondent is receiving care; and
59625962 (3) a person who provides care or other services, or is an employee of
59635963 an agency, partnership or corporation that provides care or other services
59645964 to persons with needs similar to those of the respondent.
59655965 New Sec. 93. (a) A court order appointing a conservator for a minor
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60096009 must include findings to support appointment of a conservator.
60106010 (b) A court order appointing a conservator for an adult must:
60116011 (1) Include a specific finding that clear and convincing evidence has
60126012 established that the identified needs of the respondent cannot be met by a
60136013 protective arrangement instead of conservatorship or other less restrictive
60146014 alternative, including use of appropriate supportive services, technological
60156015 assistance or supported decision making; and
60166016 (2) include a specific finding that clear and convincing evidence
60176017 established the respondent was given proper notice of the hearing on the
60186018 petition.
60196019 (c) A court order establishing a full conservatorship for an adult must
60206020 state the basis for granting a full conservatorship and include specific
60216021 findings to support the conclusion that a limited conservatorship would not
60226022 meet the functional needs of the adult.
60236023 (d) A court order establishing a limited conservatorship must state the
60246024 specific property placed under the control of the conservator and the
60256025 powers granted to the conservator.
60266026 (e) A court order appointing a conservator must include the date of a
60276027 review hearing to be set 90 days after the order of appointment is entered.
60286028 At that hearing, the court shall review the conservator's plan filed pursuant
60296029 to section 103, and amendments thereto, and the inventory filed pursuant
60306030 to section 104, and amendments thereto.
60316031 (f) The court, as part of an order establishing a conservatorship, shall
60326032 identify any person that subsequently is entitled to:
60336033 (1) Notice of the rights of the individual subject to conservatorship
60346034 under section 94(b), and amendments thereto;
60356035 (2) notice of a sale or other disposition of, encumbrance of an interest
60366036 in, or surrender of a lease to any real or personal property of the
60376037 individual;
60386038 (3) notice that the conservator will be unavailable to perform the
60396039 conservator's duties for more than one month;
60406040 (4) a copy of the conservator's plan under section 103, and
60416041 amendments thereto, and the conservator's report under section 105, and
60426042 amendments thereto;
60436043 (5) access to court records relating to the conservatorship;
60446044 (6) notice of a transaction involving a substantial conflict between the
60456045 conservator's fiduciary duties and personal interests;
60466046 (7) notice of the death or significant change in the condition of the
60476047 individual;
60486048 (8) notice that a petition has been filed to limit or modify the powers
60496049 of the conservator or that the court has limited or modified the powers of
60506050 the conservator; and
60516051 (9) notice that a petition has been filed to remove the conservator or
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60956095 that the court has removed the conservator.
60966096 (g) If an individual subject to conservatorship is an adult, the spouse
60976097 and adult children of the adult subject to conservatorship are entitled under
60986098 subsection (e) to notice unless the court determines notice would be
60996099 contrary to the preferences or prior directions of the adult subject to
61006100 conservatorship or not in the best interest of the adult.
61016101 (h) If an individual subject to conservatorship is a minor, each parent
61026102 and adult sibling of the minor is entitled under subsection (e) to notice
61036103 unless the court determines notice would not be in the best interest of the
61046104 minor.
61056105 New Sec. 94. (a) Not later than 14 days after the appointment, a
61066106 conservator appointed under section 93, and amendments thereto, shall
61076107 give to the individual subject to conservatorship and to all other persons
61086108 given notice under section 85, and amendments thereto, a copy of the
61096109 order of appointment.
61106110 (b) Not later than 30 days after appointment of a conservator under
61116111 section 93, and amendments thereto, the court or the court's designee shall
61126112 give to the individual subject to conservatorship, the conservator, and any
61136113 other person entitled to notice under section 93(f), and amendments
61146114 thereto, a statement of the rights of the individual subject to
61156115 conservatorship and procedures to seek relief if the individual is denied
61166116 those rights. The statement must be in plain language, in at least 16-point
61176117 font, and to the extent feasible, in a language in which the individual
61186118 subject to conservatorship is proficient. The statement must notify the
61196119 individual subject to conservatorship of the right to:
61206120 (1) Seek termination or modification of the conservatorship, or
61216121 removal of the conservator, and choose an attorney to represent the
61226122 individual in these matters;
61236123 (2) file a grievance against the conservator under section 50, and
61246124 amendments thereto;
61256125 (3) participate in decision making to the extent reasonably feasible;
61266126 (4) receive a copy of the conservator's plan under section 103, and
61276127 amendments thereto, the conservator's inventory under section 104, and
61286128 amendments thereto, and the conservator's report under section 105, and
61296129 amendments thereto; and
61306130 (5) object to the conservator's inventory, plan or report.
61316131 (c) If a conservator is appointed for the reasons stated in section 83(b)
61326132 (1)(B), and amendments thereto, and the individual subject to
61336133 conservatorship is missing, notice under this section to the individual is
61346134 not required. If the individual subject to conservatorship is a minor under
61356135 the age of 12, notice under this section to the minor is not required.
61366136 (d) Any person required to provide notice under this section shall file
61376137 proof of service of such notice with the court.
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61816181 New Sec. 95. (a) On its own after a petition has been filed under
61826182 section 84, and amendments thereto, or on a verified petition by a person
61836183 interested in an individual's welfare, the court may appoint an emergency
61846184 conservator for the individual if the court finds a sufficient factual basis to
61856185 establish probable cause that:
61866186 (1) Appointment of an emergency conservator is necessary to prevent
61876187 imminent, substantial and irreparable harm to the individual's property or
61886188 financial interests;
61896189 (2) no other person has authority and willingness to act in the
61906190 circumstances; and
61916191 (3) a basis for appointment of a conservator under section 83, and
61926192 amendments thereto, exists.
61936193 (b) The duration of authority of an emergency conservator may not
61946194 exceed 30 days and the emergency conservator may exercise only the
61956195 powers specified in the order of appointment. The emergency conservator's
61966196 authority may be extended up to three times for not more than 30 days per
61976197 extension if the court finds good cause and that the conditions for
61986198 appointment of an emergency conservator under subsection (a) continue.
61996199 (c) Immediately on filing of a petition for an emergency conservator,
62006200 the court shall appoint an attorney to represent the respondent in the
62016201 proceeding. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (d), reasonable
62026202 notice of the date, time and place of a hearing on the petition must be
62036203 given to the respondent, the respondent's attorney and any other person the
62046204 court determines.
62056205 (d) The court may appoint an emergency conservator without notice
62066206 to the respondent and any attorney for the respondent only if the court
62076207 finds from an affidavit or testimony that the respondent's property or
62086208 financial interests will be substantially and irreparably harmed before a
62096209 hearing with notice on the appointment can be held. If the court appoints
62106210 an emergency conservator without giving notice under subsection (c), the
62116211 court must give notice of the appointment not later than 48 hours after the
62126212 appointment to:
62136213 (1) The respondent;
62146214 (2) the respondent's attorney; and
62156215 (3) any other person the court determines.
62166216 (e) Not later than five days after the appointment, the court shall hold
62176217 a hearing on the appropriateness of the appointment.
62186218 (f) Appointment of an emergency conservator under this section is
62196219 not a determination that a basis exists for appointment of a conservator
62206220 under section 83, and amendments thereto.
62216221 (g) The court may remove an emergency conservator appointed under
62226222 this section at any time. The emergency conservator shall make any report
62236223 the court requires.
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62676267 New Sec. 96. An individual subject to conservatorship or a person
62686268 interested in the welfare of the individual may petition for an order:
62696269 (a) Modifying bond requirements;
62706270 (b) requiring an accounting for the administration of the
62716271 conservatorship estate;
62726272 (c) directing distribution;
62736273 (d) removing the conservator and appointing a temporary or
62746274 successor conservator;
62756275 (e) modifying the type of appointment or powers granted to the
62766276 conservator, if the extent of protection or management previously granted
62776277 is excessive or insufficient to meet the individual's needs, including
62786278 because the individual's abilities or supports have changed;
62796279 (f) rejecting or modifying the conservator's plan under section 103,
62806280 and amendments thereto, the conservator's inventory under section 104,
62816281 and amendments thereto, or the conservator's report under section 105, and
62826282 amendments thereto; or
62836283 (g) granting other appropriate relief.
62846284 New Sec. 97. (a) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (c), the
62856285 court shall require a conservator to furnish a bond with a surety, or require
62866286 an alternative asset-protection arrangement, conditioned on faithful
62876287 discharge of all duties of the conservator. The court may waive the
62886288 requirement only if the court finds that a bond or other asset-protection
62896289 arrangement is not necessary to protect the interests of the individual
62906290 subject to conservatorship. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (c),
62916291 the court may not waive the requirement if the conservator is in the
62926292 business of serving as a conservator and is being paid for the conservator's
62936293 service.
62946294 (b) Unless the court directs otherwise, the bond required under this
62956295 section must be in the amount of the aggregate capital value of the
62966296 conservatorship estate, plus one year's estimated income, less the value of
62976297 property deposited under an arrangement requiring a court order for its
62986298 removal, and less the value of real property. The court, in place of surety
62996299 on a bond, may accept collateral for the performance of the bond,
63006300 including a pledge of securities or a mortgage of real property.
63016301 (c) A regulated financial-service institution qualified to do trust
63026302 business in this state is not required to give a bond under this section.
63036303 (d) If the conservator appointed is under contract with the Kansas
63046304 guardianship program, the Kansas department for children and families
63056305 shall act as surety on the bond.
63066306 New Sec. 98. (a) The following rules apply to the bond required
63076307 under section 97, and amendments thereto:
63086308 (1) Except as otherwise provided by the bond, the surety and the
63096309 conservator are jointly and severally liable.
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63536353 (2) By executing a bond provided by a conservator, the surety
63546354 submits to the personal jurisdiction of the court that issued letters of office
63556355 to the conservator in a proceeding relating to the duties of the conservator
63566356 in which the surety is named as a party. Notice of the proceeding must be
63576357 given to the surety at the address shown in the records of the court in
63586358 which the bond is filed and any other address of the surety then known to
63596359 the person required to provide the notice.
63606360 (3) On petition of a successor conservator or person affected by a
63616361 breach of the obligation of the bond, a proceeding may be brought against
63626362 the surety for breach of the obligation of the bond.
63636363 (4) A proceeding against the bond may be brought until liability
63646364 under the bond is exhausted.
63656365 (b) A proceeding may not be brought under this section against a
63666366 surety of a bond on a matter as to which a proceeding against the
63676367 conservator is barred.
63686368 (c) If a bond under section 97, and amendments thereto, is not
63696369 renewed by the conservator, the surety or sureties immediately shall give
63706370 notice to the court and the individual subject to conservatorship. Upon
63716371 receiving such notice, the clerk of the district court shall forward the notice
63726372 to the presiding judge who shall set the matter for hearing and determine
63736373 who should receive notice.
63746374 New Sec. 99. (a) A conservator is a fiduciary and has duties of
63756375 prudence, loyalty, reasonable care and diligence to the individual subject to
63766376 conservatorship.
63776377 (b) A conservator shall promote the self-determination of the
63786378 individual subject to conservatorship and, to the extent feasible, encourage
63796379 the individual to participate in decisions, act on the individual's own
63806380 behalf, and develop or regain the capacity to manage the individual's
63816381 personal affairs. A conservator shall strive to assure that the personal, civil
63826382 and human rights of the individual subject to conservatorship are
63836383 protected.
63846384 (c) In making a decision for an individual subject to conservatorship,
63856385 the conservator shall make the decision that the conservator reasonably
63866386 believes the individual would make if able, unless doing so would fail to
63876387 preserve the resources needed to maintain the individual's well-being and
63886388 lifestyle or otherwise unreasonably harm or endanger the welfare or
63896389 personal or financial interests of the individual. To determine the decision
63906390 the individual would make if able, the conservator shall consider the
63916391 individual's prior or current directions, preferences, opinions, values and
63926392 actions, to the extent actually known or reasonably ascertainable by the
63936393 conservator.
63946394 (d) If a conservator cannot make a decision under subsection (c)
63956395 because the conservator does not know and cannot reasonably determine
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64396439 the decision the individual subject to conservatorship probably would
64406440 make if able, or the conservator reasonably believes the decision the
64416441 individual would make would fail to preserve resources needed to
64426442 maintain the individual's well-being and lifestyle or otherwise
64436443 unreasonably harm or endanger the welfare or personal or financial
64446444 interests of the individual, the conservator shall act in accordance with the
64456445 best interest of the individual. In determining the best interest of the
64466446 individual, the conservator shall consider:
64476447 (1) Information received from professionals and persons that
64486448 demonstrate sufficient interest in the welfare of the individual;
64496449 (2) other information the conservator believes the individual would
64506450 have considered if the individual were able to act; and
64516451 (3) other factors a reasonable person in the circumstances of the
64526452 individual would consider, including consequences for others.
64536453 (e) Except when inconsistent with the conservator's duties under
64546454 subsections (a) through (d), a conservator shall invest and manage the
64556455 conservatorship estate as a prudent investor would, by considering:
64566456 (1) The circumstances of the individual subject to conservatorship
64576457 and the conservatorship estate;
64586458 (2) general economic conditions;
64596459 (3) the possible effect of inflation or deflation;
64606460 (4) the expected tax consequences of an investment decision or
64616461 strategy;
64626462 (5) the role of each investment or course of action in relation to the
64636463 conservatorship estate as a whole;
64646464 (6) the expected total return from income and appreciation of capital;
64656465 (7) the need for liquidity, regularity of income and preservation or
64666466 appreciation of capital; and
64676467 (8) the special relationship or value, if any, of specific property to the
64686468 individual subject to conservatorship.
64696469 (f) The propriety of a conservator's investment and management of
64706470 the conservatorship estate is determined in light of the facts and
64716471 circumstances existing when the conservator decides or acts and not by
64726472 hindsight.
64736473 (g) A conservator shall make a reasonable effort to verify facts
64746474 relevant to the investment and management of the conservatorship estate.
64756475 (h) A conservator that has special skills or expertise, or is named
64766476 conservator in reliance on the conservator's representation of special skills
64776477 or expertise, has a duty to use the special skills or expertise in carrying out
64786478 the conservator's duties.
64796479 (i) In investing, selecting specific property for distribution, and
64806480 invoking a power of revocation or withdrawal for the use or benefit of the
64816481 individual subject to conservatorship, a conservator shall consider any
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65256525 estate plan of the individual known or reasonably ascertainable to the
65266526 conservator and may examine the will or other donative, nominative or
65276527 appointive instrument of the individual.
65286528 (j) A conservator shall maintain insurance on the insurable real and
65296529 personal property of the individual subject to conservatorship, unless the
65306530 conservatorship estate lacks sufficient funds to pay for insurance or the
65316531 court finds:
65326532 (1) The property lacks sufficient equity; or
65336533 (2) insuring the property would unreasonably dissipate the
65346534 conservatorship estate or otherwise not be in the best interest of the
65356535 individual.
65366536 (k) A conservator has access to and authority over a digital asset of
65376537 the individual subject to conservatorship to the extent provided by the
65386538 revised uniform fiduciary access to digital assets act or court order.
65396539 (l) A conservator for an adult shall notify the court immediately if the
65406540 condition of the adult has changed so that the adult is capable of exercising
65416541 rights previously removed.
65426542 New Sec. 100. (a) Except as otherwise provided in section 102, and
65436543 amendments thereto, or as qualified or limited in the court's order of
65446544 appointment and stated in the letters of office, a conservator has all powers
65456545 granted in this section.
65466546 (b) A conservator, acting reasonably and consistent with the fiduciary
65476547 duties of the conservator to accomplish the purpose of the conservatorship,
65486548 without specific court authorization or confirmation, may with respect to
65496549 the conservatorship estate:
65506550 (1) Collect, hold and retain property, including property in which the
65516551 conservator has a personal interest and real property in another state, until
65526552 the conservator determines disposition of the property should be made;
65536553 (2) receive additions to the conservatorship estate;
65546554 (3) manage any ongoing business that the individual subject to
65556555 conservatorship was managing and operating prior to the appointment of
65566556 the conservator;
65576557 (4) acquire an undivided interest in property in which the conservator,
65586558 in a fiduciary capacity, holds an undivided interest;
65596559 (5) invest assets;
65606560 (6) deposit funds or other property in a financial institution, including
65616561 one operated by the conservator;
65626562 (7) make ordinary or necessary repairs, replacements and renovations
65636563 for the use and benefit of the individual subject to conservatorship;
65646564 (8) enter for any purpose into a lease of property as lessor or lessee,
65656565 with or without an option to purchase or renew, for a term not exceeding
65666566 one year;
65676567 (9) vote a security, in person or by general or limited proxy;
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66116611 (10) pay a call, assessment or other sum chargeable or accruing
66126612 against or on account of a security;
66136613 (11) sell or exercise a stock subscription or conversion right;
66146614 (12) consent, directly or through a committee or agent, to the
66156615 reorganization, consolidation, merger, dissolution or liquidation of a
66166616 corporation or other business enterprise in which the conservatorship has
66176617 less than a 20% ownership interest;
66186618 (13) hold a security in the name of a nominee or in other form
66196619 without disclosure of the conservatorship so that title to the security may
66206620 pass by delivery;
66216621 (14) insure:
66226622 (A) The conservatorship estate, in whole or in part, against damage or
66236623 loss in accordance with section 99(j), and amendments thereto; and
66246624 (B) the conservator against liability with respect to a third person;
66256625 (15) borrow funds without security to be repaid from the
66266626 conservatorship estate or otherwise;
66276627 (16) advance the conservator's personal funds for the protection of the
66286628 conservatorship estate or the individual subject to conservatorship and all
66296629 expenses, losses and liability sustained in the administration of the
66306630 conservatorship estate or because of holding any property for which the
66316631 conservator has a lien on the conservatorship estate, subject to
66326632 reimbursement as provided in section 43, and amendments thereto;
66336633 (17) pay or contest a claim, settle a claim by or against the
66346634 conservatorship estate or the individual subject to conservatorship by
66356635 compromise, arbitration or otherwise, or release, in whole or in part, a
66366636 claim belonging to the conservatorship estate to the extent the claim is
66376637 uncollectible;
66386638 (18) pay a tax, assessment and other expense incurred in the
66396639 collection, care, administration and protection of the conservatorship
66406640 estate;
66416641 (19) pay a sum distributable to the individual subject to
66426642 conservatorship or an individual who is in fact dependent on the individual
66436643 subject to conservatorship by paying the sum to the distributee or for the
66446644 use of the distributee:
66456645 (A) To the guardian for the distributee;
66466646 (B) to the custodian of the distributee under the uniform transfers to
66476647 minors act or custodial trustee under the uniform custodial trust act; or
66486648 (C) if there is no guardian, custodian or custodial trustee, to a relative
66496649 or other person having physical custody of the distributee;
66506650 (20) bring or defend an action, claim or proceeding in any jurisdiction
66516651 for the protection of the conservatorship estate or the conservator in the
66526652 performance of the conservator's duties;
66536653 (21) structure the finances of the individual subject to conservatorship
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66976697 to establish eligibility for a public benefit, if the conservator's action does
66986698 not jeopardize the individual's welfare and otherwise is consistent with the
66996699 conservator's duties;
67006700 (22) assert spousal rights in an estate, including the spousal elective
67016701 share; and
67026702 (23) execute and deliver any instrument that will accomplish or
67036703 facilitate the exercise of a power of the conservator.
67046704 New Sec. 101. Except as otherwise provided in section 102, and
67056705 amendments thereto, or as qualified or limited in the court's order of
67066706 appointment and stated in the letters of office, and unless contrary to a
67076707 conservator's plan under section 103, and amendments thereto, the
67086708 conservator may expend or distribute income or principal of the
67096709 conservatorship estate without specific court authorization or confirmation
67106710 for the support, care, education, health or welfare of the individual subject
67116711 to conservatorship or an individual who is in fact dependent on the
67126712 individual subject to conservatorship, including the payment of child or
67136713 spousal support, in accordance with the following rules:
67146714 (a) The conservator shall consider a recommendation relating to the
67156715 appropriate standard of support, care, education, health, or welfare for the
67166716 individual subject to conservatorship or individual who is dependent on
67176717 the individual subject to conservatorship, made by a guardian for the
67186718 individual subject to conservatorship, if any, and, if the individual subject
67196719 to conservatorship is a minor, a recommendation made by a parent of the
67206720 minor.
67216721 (b) The conservator acting in compliance with the conservator's
67226722 duties under section 99, and amendments thereto, is not liable for an
67236723 expenditure or distribution made based on a recommendation under
67246724 subsection (a) unless the conservator knows the expenditure or distribution
67256725 is not in the best interest of the individual subject to conservatorship.
67266726 (c) In making an expenditure or distribution under this section, the
67276727 conservator shall consider:
67286728 (1) The size of the conservatorship estate, the estimated duration of
67296729 the conservatorship and the likelihood the individual subject to
67306730 conservatorship, at some future time, may be fully self-sufficient and able
67316731 to manage the individual's financial affairs and the conservatorship estate;
67326732 (2) the accustomed standard of living of the individual subject to
67336733 conservatorship and individual who is dependent on the individual subject
67346734 to conservatorship;
67356735 (3) other funds or source used for the support of the individual
67366736 subject to conservatorship; and
67376737 (4) the preferences, values and prior directions of the individual
67386738 subject to conservatorship.
67396739 (d) Subject to section 43, and amendments thereto, funds expended or
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67836783 distributed under this section may be paid by the conservator to any
67846784 person, including the individual subject to conservatorship, as
67856785 reimbursement for expenditures the conservator might have made, or in
67866786 advance for services to be provided to the individual subject to
67876787 conservatorship or individual who is dependent on the individual subject
67886788 to conservatorship if it is reasonable to expect the services will be
67896789 performed and advance payment is customary or reasonably necessary
67906790 under the circumstances.
67916791 New Sec. 102. (a) Except as otherwise ordered by the court, a
67926792 conservator must give notice to persons entitled to notice under section
67936793 85(d), and amendments thereto, and receive specific authorization by the
67946794 court before the conservator may exercise, with respect to the
67956795 conservatorship, the power to:
67966796 (1) Make a gift, except a gift of de minimis value, unless such power
67976797 to make a gift is included in a conservator's plan approved by the court and
67986798 by the attorney for the individual subject to conservatorship;
67996799 (2) sell or otherwise dispose of, encumber an interest in, or surrender
68006800 a lease to any real or personal property of the individual subject to
68016801 conservatorship, unless such power is included in a conservator's plan
68026802 approved by the court and by the attorney for the individual subject to
68036803 conservatorship;
68046804 (3) acquire or dispose of property, including real property in another
68056805 state, for cash or on credit, at public or private sale, and manage, develop,
68066806 improve, exchange, partition, change the character of or abandon property;
68076807 (4) make extraordinary repairs or alterations in a building or other
68086808 structure, demolish any improvement, or raze an existing or erect a new
68096809 party wall or building;
68106810 (5) subdivide or develop land, dedicate land to public use, make or
68116811 obtain the vacation of a plat and adjust a boundary, adjust a difference in
68126812 valuation of land, exchange or partition land by giving or receiving
68136813 consideration and dedicate an easement to public use without
68146814 consideration;
68156815 (6) enter for any purpose into a lease of property as lessor or lessee,
68166816 with or without an option to purchase or renew, for a term exceeding one
68176817 year;
68186818 (7) enter into a lease or arrangement for exploration and removal of
68196819 minerals or other natural resources or a pooling or unitization agreement;
68206820 (8) grant an option involving disposition of property or accept or
68216821 exercise an option for the acquisition of property;
68226822 (9) convey, release or disclaim a contingent or expectant interest in
68236823 property, including marital property and any right of survivorship incident
68246824 to joint tenancy;
68256825 (10) exercise or release a power of appointment;
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68696869 (11) create a revocable or irrevocable trust of property of the
68706870 conservatorship estate, including an irrevocable trust which will enable the
68716871 individual subject to conservatorship to qualify for benefits from any
68726872 federal, state or local government program, or which will accelerate the
68736873 individual's qualification for such benefits, whether or not the trust extends
68746874 beyond the duration of the conservatorship;
68756875 (12) revoke or amend a trust revocable by the individual subject to
68766876 conservatorship pursuant to K.S.A. 58a-411 or 58a-602, and amendments
68776877 thereto;
68786878 (13) exercise a right to elect an option or change a beneficiary under
68796879 an insurance policy or annuity or surrender the policy or annuity for its
68806880 cash value;
68816881 (14) renounce or disclaim a property interest;
68826882 (15) grant a creditor priority for payment over creditors of the same
68836883 or higher class if the creditor is providing property or services used to meet
68846884 the basic living and care needs of the individual subject to conservatorship
68856885 and preferential treatment otherwise would be impermissible under section
68866886 110(e), and amendments thereto; and
68876887 (16) litigate as petitioner or respondent an action for divorce,
68886888 dissolution or annulment of marriage of the individual subject to
68896889 conservatorship, including negotiation of a settlement thereof.
68906890 (b) The court shall set the matter for hearing and, if the individual
68916891 subject to conservatorship is not represented by an attorney, shall appoint
68926892 an attorney to represent the individual.
68936893 (c) In approving a conservator's exercise of a power listed in
68946894 subsection (a), the court shall consider primarily the decision the
68956895 individual subject to conservatorship would make if able, to the extent the
68966896 decision can be ascertained.
68976897 (d) To determine under subsection (b) the decision the individual
68986898 subject to conservatorship would make if able, the court shall consider the
68996899 individual's prior or current directions, preferences, opinions, values and
69006900 actions, to the extent actually known or reasonably ascertainable by the
69016901 conservator. The court shall also consider:
69026902 (1) The financial needs of the individual subject to conservatorship
69036903 and individuals who are in fact dependent on the individual subject to
69046904 conservatorship for support, and the interests of creditors of the individual;
69056905 (2) possible reduction of income, estate, inheritance or other tax
69066906 liabilities;
69076907 (3) eligibility for governmental assistance;
69086908 (4) the previous pattern of giving or level of support provided by the
69096909 individual;
69106910 (5) any existing estate plan or lack of estate plan of the individual;
69116911 (6) the life expectancy of the individual and the probability the
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69556955 conservatorship will terminate before the individual's death; and
69566956 (7) any other relevant factor.
69576957 New Sec. 103. (a) Not later than 60 days after appointment, and
69586958 whenever there is a significant change in circumstances or the conservator
69596959 seeks to deviate significantly from the existing conservator's plan, a
69606960 conservator shall file with the court a plan for protecting, managing,
69616961 expending and distributing the assets of the conservatorship estate. The
69626962 plan must be based on the needs of the individual subject to
69636963 conservatorship and take into account the best interest of the individual as
69646964 well as the individual's preferences, values and prior directions, to the
69656965 extent known to or reasonably ascertainable by the conservator. The
69666966 conservator shall include in the plan:
69676967 (1) A budget containing projected expenses and resources, including
69686968 an estimate of the total amount of fees the conservator anticipates charging
69696969 per year and a statement or list of the amount the conservator proposes to
69706970 charge for each service the conservator anticipates providing to the
69716971 individual;
69726972 (2) how the conservator will involve the individual in decisions about
69736973 management of the conservatorship estate;
69746974 (3) any step the conservator plans to take to develop or restore the
69756975 ability of the individual to manage the conservatorship estate; and
69766976 (4) an estimate of the duration of the conservatorship.
69776977 (b) A conservator shall give notice of the filing of the conservator's
69786978 plan under subsection (a), together with a copy of the plan, to the
69796979 individual subject to conservatorship, any attorney representing the
69806980 individual subject to conservatorship, a person entitled to notice under
69816981 section 93(f), and amendments thereto, or a subsequent order, and any
69826982 other person the court determines. The notice must include a statement of
69836983 the right to object to the plan and must be given at the time of the filing.
69846984 (c) An individual subject to conservatorship and any person entitled
69856985 under subsection (b) to receive notice and a copy of the conservator's plan
69866986 may object to the plan in writing not later than 21 days after the filing.
69876987 (d) The court shall review the conservator's plan filed under
69886988 subsection (a) and determine whether to approve the plan or require a new
69896989 plan. In deciding whether to approve the plan, the court shall consider an
69906990 objection under subsection (c) and whether the plan is consistent with the
69916991 conservator's duties and powers. The court shall review an initial
69926992 conservator's plan at the review hearing scheduled under section 93(e), and
69936993 amendments thereto. For subsequent conservator's plans, the court has
69946994 discretion whether to set the matter for hearing but may not approve the
69956995 plan until 30 days after the filing.
69966996 (e) After a conservator's plan under this section is approved by the
69976997 court, the conservator shall provide a copy of the plan to the individual
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70417041 subject to conservatorship, any attorney representing the individual subject
70427042 to conservatorship, a person entitled to notice under section 93(f), and
70437043 amendments thereto, or a subsequent order, and any other person the court
70447044 determines.
70457045 New Sec. 104. (a) Not later than 60 days after appointment, a
70467046 conservator shall prepare and file with the appointing court a detailed
70477047 inventory of the conservatorship estate, together with an oath or
70487048 affirmation that the inventory is believed to be complete and accurate as
70497049 far as information permits. The inventory shall include all of the property
70507050 and assets of the conservatorship estate, including any sources of regular
70517051 income to the estate, and information about how property is titled and any
70527052 beneficiary designations, including pay-on-death and transfer-on-death
70537053 beneficiaries.
70547054 (b) A conservator shall give notice of the filing of an inventory to the
70557055 individual subject to conservatorship, a person entitled to notice under
70567056 section 93(f), and amendments thereto, or a subsequent order, and any
70577057 other person the court determines. The notice must be given not later than
70587058 14 days after the filing.
70597059 (c) A conservator shall keep records of the administration of the
70607060 conservatorship estate and make them available for examination on
70617061 reasonable request of the individual subject to conservatorship, a guardian
70627062 for the individual, or any other person the conservator or the court
70637063 determines.
70647064 New Sec. 105. (a) A conservator shall file with the court a report in a
70657065 record regarding the administration of the conservatorship estate annually
70667066 unless the court otherwise directs, on resignation or removal, on
70677067 termination of the conservatorship, and at any other time the court directs.
70687068 (b) A report under subsection (a) must state or contain:
70697069 (1) An accounting that lists property included in the conservatorship
70707070 estate and the receipts, disbursements, liabilities and distributions during
70717071 the period for which the report is made;
70727072 (2) a list of the services provided to the individual subject to
70737073 conservatorship;
70747074 (3) a statement whether the conservator has deviated from the
70757075 conservator's most recently approved plan and, if so, how the conservator
70767076 has deviated and why;
70777077 (4) a recommendation as to the need for continued conservatorship
70787078 and any recommended change in the scope of the conservatorship;
70797079 (5) to the extent feasible, a copy of the most recent reasonably
70807080 available financial statements evidencing the status of bank accounts,
70817081 investment accounts and mortgages or other debts of the individual subject
70827082 to conservatorship with account numbers and social security number
70837083 redacted;
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71277127 (6) anything of more than de minimis value which the conservator,
71287128 any individual who resides with the conservator, or the spouse, parent,
71297129 child or sibling of the conservator has received from a person providing
71307130 goods or services to the individual subject to conservatorship;
71317131 (7) any business relation the conservator has with a person the
71327132 conservator has paid or that has benefited from the property of the
71337133 individual subject to conservatorship;
71347134 (8) whether any co-conservator or successor conservator appointed to
71357135 serve when a designated event occurs is alive and able to serve; and
71367136 (9) a copy of the bond renewal.
71377137 (c) The court may appoint a court liaison to review a report under this
71387138 section or conservator's plan under section 103, and amendments thereto,
71397139 interview the individual subject to conservatorship or conservator, or
71407140 investigate any other matter involving the conservatorship. In connection
71417141 with the report, the court may order the conservator to submit the
71427142 conservatorship estate to appropriate examination in a manner the court
71437143 directs.
71447144 (d) Notice of the filing under this section of a conservator's report,
71457145 together with a copy of the report, must be provided to the individual
71467146 subject to conservatorship, a person entitled to notice under section 93(f),
71477147 and amendments thereto, or a subsequent order, and other persons the
71487148 court determines. The notice and report must be given not later than 14
71497149 days after filing.
71507150 (e) The court shall establish procedures for monitoring a report
71517151 submitted under this section and review each report at least annually to
71527152 determine whether:
71537153 (1) The reports provide sufficient information to establish the
71547154 conservator has complied with the conservator's duties;
71557155 (2) the conservatorship should continue; and
71567156 (3) the conservator's requested fees, if any, should be approved.
71577157 (f) If the court determines there is reason to believe a conservator has
71587158 not complied with the conservator's duties or the conservatorship should
71597159 not continue, the court:
71607160 (1) Shall notify the individual subject to conservatorship, the
71617161 conservator and any other person entitled to notice under section 93(f), and
71627162 amendments thereto, or a subsequent order;
71637163 (2) may require additional information from the conservator;
71647164 (3) may appoint a court liaison to interview the individual subject to
71657165 conservatorship or conservator or investigate any matter involving the
71667166 conservatorship; and
71677167 (4) consistent with sections 112 and 113, and amendments thereto,
71687168 may hold a hearing to consider removal of the conservator, termination of
71697169 the conservatorship or a change in the powers granted to the conservator or
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72137213 terms of the conservatorship.
72147214 (g) If the court has reason to believe fees requested by a conservator
72157215 are not reasonable, the court shall hold a hearing to determine whether to
72167216 adjust the requested fees.
72177217 (h) A conservator may petition the court for approval of a report filed
72187218 under this section. The court after review may approve the report. If the
72197219 court approves the report, there is a rebuttable presumption the report is
72207220 accurate as to a matter adequately disclosed in the report.
72217221 (i) An order, after notice and hearing, approving an interim report of a
72227222 conservator filed under this section adjudicates liabilities concerning a
72237223 matter adequately disclosed in the report, as to a person given notice of the
72247224 report or accounting.
72257225 (j) An order, after notice and hearing, approving a final report filed
72267226 under this section discharges the conservator from all liabilities, claims
72277227 and causes of action by a person given notice of the report and the hearing
72287228 as to a matter adequately disclosed in the report.
72297229 New Sec. 106. (a) The interest of an individual subject to
72307230 conservatorship in property included in the conservatorship estate is not
72317231 transferrable or assignable by the individual and is not subject to levy,
72327232 garnishment, or similar process for claims against the individual unless
72337233 allowed under section 110, and amendments thereto.
72347234 (b) If an individual subject to conservatorship enters into a contract
72357235 after having the right to enter the contract removed by the court, the
72367236 contract is void against the individual and the individual's property but is
72377237 enforceable against the person that contracted with the individual.
72387238 (c) A person other than the conservator that deals with an individual
72397239 subject to conservatorship with respect to property included in the
72407240 conservatorship estate is entitled to protection provided by law of this state
72417241 other than this act.
72427242 New Sec. 107. A transaction involving a conservatorship estate which
72437243 is affected by a substantial conflict between the conservator's fiduciary
72447244 duties and personal interests is voidable unless the transaction is
72457245 authorized by court order after notice to persons entitled to notice under
72467246 section 93(f), and amendments thereto, or a subsequent order. A
72477247 transaction affected by a substantial conflict includes a sale, encumbrance
72487248 or other transaction involving the conservatorship estate entered into by
72497249 the conservator, an individual with whom the conservator resides, the
72507250 spouse, descendant, sibling, agent or attorney of the conservator, or a
72517251 corporation or other enterprise in which the conservator has a substantial
72527252 beneficial interest.
72537253 New Sec. 108. (a) A person that assists or deals with a conservator in
72547254 good faith and for value in any transaction, other than a transaction
72557255 requiring a court order under section 102, and amendments thereto, is
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72997299 protected as though the conservator properly exercised any power in
73007300 question. Knowledge alone by a person that the person is dealing with a
73017301 conservator does not require the person to inquire into the existence of
73027302 authority of the conservator or the propriety of the conservator's exercise
73037303 of authority, but restrictions on authority stated in letters of office, or
73047304 otherwise provided by law, are effective as to the person. A person that
73057305 pays or delivers property to a conservator is not responsible for proper
73067306 application of the property.
73077307 (b) Protection under subsection (a) extends to a procedural
73087308 irregularity or jurisdictional defect in the proceeding leading to the
73097309 issuance of letters of office and does not substitute for protection for a
73107310 person that assists or deals with a conservator provided by comparable
73117311 provisions in law of this state other than this act relating to a commercial
73127312 transaction or simplifying a transfer of securities by a fiduciary.
73137313 New Sec. 109. (a) If an individual subject to conservatorship dies, the
73147314 conservator shall deliver to the district court any will of the individual that
73157315 is in the conservator's possession and inform the personal representative
73167316 named in the will if feasible. The conservator shall give notice of the
73177317 delivery of the will under this section to any person entitled to notice under
73187318 section 93(f), and amendments thereto, or a subsequent order.
73197319 (b) On the death of an individual subject to conservatorship, the
73207320 conservator shall conclude the administration of the conservatorship estate
73217321 as provided in section 113, and amendments thereto.
73227322 New Sec. 110. (a) A conservator may pay a claim against the
73237323 conservatorship estate or the individual subject to conservatorship arising
73247324 before or during the conservatorship, on presentation and allowance in
73257325 accordance with the priorities under subsection (d). A claimant may
73267326 present a claim by:
73277327 (1) Sending or delivering to the conservator a statement in a record of
73287328 the claim, indicating its basis, the name and address of the claimant and
73297329 the amount claimed; or
73307330 (2) filing the claim with the court, in a form acceptable to the court,
73317331 and sending or delivering a copy of the claim to the conservator.
73327332 (b) A claim under subsection (a) is presented on receipt by the
73337333 conservator of the statement of the claim or the filing with the court of the
73347334 claim, whichever occurs first. A presented claim is allowed, if it is not
73357335 disallowed in whole or in part, by the conservator in a record sent or
73367336 delivered to the claimant not later than 60 days after its presentation.
73377337 Before payment, the conservator may change an allowance of the claim to
73387338 a disallowance in whole or in part, but not after allowance under a court
73397339 order or order directing payment of the claim. Presentation of a claim tolls
73407340 until 30 days after disallowance of the claim the running of a statute of
73417341 limitations that has not expired relating to the claim.
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73857385 (c) A claimant whose claim under subsection (a) has not been paid
73867386 may petition the court to determine the claim at any time before it is barred
73877387 by a statute of limitations, and the court may order its allowance, payment
73887388 or security by encumbering property included in the conservatorship
73897389 estate. If a proceeding is pending against the individual subject to
73907390 conservatorship at the time of appointment of the conservator or is
73917391 initiated thereafter, the moving party shall give the conservator notice of
73927392 the proceeding if it could result in creating a claim against the
73937393 conservatorship estate.
73947394 (d) If a conservatorship estate is likely to be exhausted before all
73957395 existing claims are paid, the conservator shall distribute the estate in
73967396 money or in kind in payment of claims in the following order:
73977397 (1) Costs and expenses of administration;
73987398 (2) a claim of the federal or state government having priority under
73997399 law other than this act;
74007400 (3) a claim incurred by the conservator for support, care, education,
74017401 health or welfare previously provided to the individual subject to
74027402 conservatorship or an individual who is in fact dependent on the individual
74037403 subject to conservatorship;
74047404 (4) a claim arising before the conservatorship; and
74057405 (5) all other claims.
74067406 (e) Preference may not be given in the payment of a claim under
74077407 subsection (d) over another claim of the same class. A claim due and
74087408 payable may not be preferred over a claim not due unless:
74097409 (1) Doing so would leave the conservatorship estate without
74107410 sufficient funds to pay the basic living and healthcare expenses of the
74117411 individual subject to conservatorship; and
74127412 (2) the court authorizes the preference under section 102(a)(8), and
74137413 amendments thereto.
74147414 (f) If assets of a conservatorship estate are adequate to meet all
74157415 existing claims, the court, acting in the best interest of the individual
74167416 subject to conservatorship, may order the conservator to grant a security
74177417 interest in the conservatorship estate for payment of a claim at a future
74187418 date.
74197419 New Sec. 111. (a) Except as otherwise agreed by a conservator, the
74207420 conservator is not personally liable on a contract properly entered into in a
74217421 fiduciary capacity in the course of administration of the conservatorship
74227422 estate unless the conservator fails to reveal the conservator's representative
74237423 capacity in the contract or before entering into the contract.
74247424 (b) A conservator is personally liable for an obligation arising from
74257425 control of property of the conservatorship estate or an act or omission
74267426 occurring in the course of administration of the conservatorship estate only
74277427 if the conservator is personally at fault.
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74717471 (c) A claim based on a contract entered into by a conservator in a
74727472 fiduciary capacity, an obligation arising from control of property included
74737473 in the conservatorship estate, or a tort committed in the course of
74747474 administration of the conservatorship estate may be asserted against the
74757475 conservatorship estate in a proceeding against the conservator in a
74767476 fiduciary capacity, whether or not the conservator is personally liable for
74777477 the claim.
74787478 (d) A question of liability between a conservatorship estate and the
74797479 conservator personally may be determined in a proceeding for accounting,
74807480 surcharge, or indemnification or another appropriate proceeding or action.
74817481 New Sec. 112. (a) The court may remove a conservator for failure to
74827482 perform the conservator's duties or other good cause and appoint a
74837483 successor conservator to assume the duties of the conservator.
74847484 (b) The court shall hold a hearing to determine whether to remove a
74857485 conservator and appoint a successor on:
74867486 (1) Petition of the individual subject to conservatorship, conservator
74877487 or person interested in the welfare of the individual which contains
74887488 allegations that, if true, would support a reasonable belief that removal of
74897489 the conservator and appointment of a successor may be appropriate, but
74907490 the court may decline to hold a hearing if a petition based on the same or
74917491 substantially similar facts was filed during the preceding six months;
74927492 (2) communication from the individual subject to conservatorship,
74937493 conservator or person interested in the welfare of the individual which
74947494 supports a reasonable belief that removal of the conservator and
74957495 appointment of a successor may be appropriate;
74967496 (3) determination by the court that a hearing would be in the best
74977497 interest of the individual subject to conservatorship; or
74987498 (4) determination by the court that the conservator's reports and
74997499 accountings are delinquent or deficient as filed.
75007500 (c) Notice of a petition under subsection (b)(1) or any hearing under
75017501 this section must be given to the individual subject to conservatorship, the
75027502 conservator, a person entitled to notice under section 93(f), and
75037503 amendments thereto, or a subsequent order, and any other person the court
75047504 determines.
75057505 (d) If the individual subject to conservatorship is not represented by
75067506 an attorney, the court shall appoint an attorney under the same conditions
75077507 as in section 88, and amendments thereto. The court shall award
75087508 reasonable attorney fees to the attorney as provided in section 42, and
75097509 amendments thereto.
75107510 (e) In selecting a successor conservator, the court shall follow the
75117511 priorities under section 92, and amendments thereto.
75127512 (f) Not later than 30 days after appointing a successor conservator,
75137513 the court or court's designee shall give notice of the appointment to the
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75577557 individual subject to conservatorship and any person entitled to notice
75587558 under section 93(f), and amendments thereto, or a subsequent order.
75597559 New Sec. 113. (a) A conservatorship for a minor terminates on the
75607560 earliest of:
75617561 (1) A court order terminating the conservatorship;
75627562 (2) the minor becoming an adult except as provided in section 114,
75637563 and amendments thereto;
75647564 (3) emancipation of the minor; or
75657565 (4) death of the minor.
75667566 (b) A conservatorship for an adult terminates on order of the court or
75677567 when the adult dies.
75687568 (c) An individual subject to conservatorship, the conservator, or a
75697569 person interested in the welfare of the individual may petition for:
75707570 (1) Termination of the conservatorship on the ground that a basis for
75717571 appointment under section 83, and amendments thereto, does not exist or
75727572 termination would be in the best interest of the individual or for other good
75737573 cause; or
75747574 (2) modification of the conservatorship on the ground that the extent
75757575 of protection or assistance granted is not appropriate or for other good
75767576 cause.
75777577 (d) The court shall hold a hearing to determine whether termination
75787578 or modification of a conservatorship is appropriate on:
75797579 (1) Petition under subsection (c) which contains allegations that, if
75807580 true, would support a reasonable belief that termination or modification of
75817581 the conservatorship may be appropriate, but the court may decline to hold
75827582 a hearing if a petition based on the same or substantially similar facts was
75837583 filed within the preceding six months;
75847584 (2) a communication from the individual subject to conservatorship,
75857585 conservator or person interested in the welfare of the individual which
75867586 supports a reasonable belief that termination or modification of the
75877587 conservatorship may be appropriate, including because the functional
75887588 needs of the individual or supports or services available to the individual
75897589 have changed;
75907590 (3) a report from a guardian or conservator which indicates that
75917591 termination or modification may be appropriate because the functional
75927592 needs or supports or services available to the individual have changed or a
75937593 protective arrangement instead of conservatorship or other less restrictive
75947594 alternative is available; or
75957595 (4) a determination by the court that a hearing would be in the best
75967596 interest of the individual.
75977597 (e) Notice of a petition under subsection (c) or of a hearing under this
75987598 section must be given to the individual subject to conservatorship, the
75997599 conservator, a person entitled to notice under section 93(f), and
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76437643 amendments thereto, or a subsequent order, and any other person the court
76447644 determines.
76457645 (f) After the hearing, the court shall order termination unless it is
76467646 proven that a basis for appointment of a conservator under section 83, and
76477647 amendments thereto, continues to exist.
76487648 (g) The court shall modify the powers granted to a conservator if the
76497649 powers are excessive or inadequate due to a change in the abilities or
76507650 limitations of the individual subject to conservatorship, the individual's
76517651 supports or other circumstances.
76527652 (h) Unless the court otherwise orders for good cause, before
76537653 terminating a conservatorship, the court shall follow the same procedures
76547654 to safeguard the rights of the individual subject to conservatorship which
76557655 apply to a petition for conservatorship.
76567656 (i) An individual subject to conservatorship who seeks to terminate or
76577657 modify the terms of the conservatorship has the right to retain an attorney
76587658 to represent the individual in this matter. If the individual is not
76597659 represented by an attorney, the court shall appoint an attorney under the
76607660 same conditions as in section 88, and amendments thereto. The court shall
76617661 award reasonable attorney fees to the attorney as provided in section 42,
76627662 and amendments thereto.
76637663 (j) On termination of a conservatorship other than by reason of the
76647664 death of the individual subject to conservatorship, property of the
76657665 conservatorship estate passes to the individual. The order of termination
76667666 must direct the conservator to file a final report and petition for discharge
76677667 on approval by the court of the final report.
76687668 (k) On termination of a conservatorship by reason of the death of the
76697669 individual subject to conservatorship, the conservator promptly shall file a
76707670 final report and petition for discharge on approval by the court of the final
76717671 report. On approval of the final report, the conservator shall proceed
76727672 expeditiously to distribute the conservatorship estate to the individual's
76737673 estate or as otherwise ordered by the court. The conservator may take
76747674 reasonable measures necessary to preserve the conservatorship estate until
76757675 distribution can be made.
76767676 (l) The court shall issue a final order of discharge on the approval by
76777677 the court of the final report and satisfaction by the conservator of any other
76787678 condition the court imposed on the conservator's discharge.
76797679 (m) Not later than 30 days after entering an order under this section,
76807680 the court or the court's designee shall give notice of the order to the adult
76817681 subject to conservatorship and any person entitled to notice under section
76827682 93(f), and amendments thereto, or a subsequent order.
76837683 New Sec. 114. (a) A conservatorship for a minor may be extended
76847684 beyond the minor's 18
76857685 th
76867686 birthday if the minor consents or the court finds by
76877687 clear and convincing evidence that substantial harm to the minor's interests
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77317731 is otherwise likely. A conservatorship may be extended under this section
77327732 until the minor reaches the age of 21 and may be extended for two
77337733 additional two-year periods upon the same finding by the court or upon
77347734 consent of the minor. Consent to the extension of a conservatorship may be
77357735 withdrawn at any time.
77367736 (b) Any request to extend a minor conservatorship under this section
77377737 must be accompanied by:
77387738 (1) A description of the funds or assets of the minor's estate which the
77397739 conservator proposes to distribute to the minor over an extended period
77407740 following the minor's 18
77417741 th
77427742 birthday;
77437743 (2) the factual basis upon which the conservator alleges the need for
77447744 such an extended distribution plan; and
77457745 (3) a proposed conservator's plan that describes how the distribution
77467746 will occur.
77477747 (c) The court shall appoint an attorney to represent the minor as
77487748 provided in section 88, and amendments thereto.
77497749 (d) After a hearing, the court may extend a conservatorship for a
77507750 minor and grant to the conservator the authority to establish an extended
77517751 distribution plan if the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that:
77527752 (1) Substantial harm to the minor's interests is likely if the
77537753 conservatorship is not extended; and
77547754 (2) the plan approved by the court adequately provides for meeting
77557755 the expected needs of the minor from the minor's 18
77567756 th
77577757 birthday until the
77587758 final distribution of the funds or assets which the court authorizes to be set
77597759 aside or transferred from the estate are paid over to the minor, including
77607760 provisions for accelerated distribution in extraordinary circumstances,
77617761 which may require court approval.
77627762 (e) If the court orders a conservatorship for a minor to be extended
77637763 under this section, the court shall order the conservator to report any
77647764 expenditure or transfer of funds or assets from the minor's estate for the
77657765 purposes of effectuating an extended distribution plan within the
77667766 conservator's next accounting.
77677767 (f) The court may extend the conservatorship with regard to specific
77687768 funds or assets of the minor's estate, even though other funds or assets of
77697769 the minor's estate are paid over to the minor upon the minor's becoming 18
77707770 years of age.
77717771 (g) The minor shall be without the power, voluntarily or involuntarily,
77727772 to sell, mortgage, pledge, hypothecate, assign, alienate, anticipate, transfer
77737773 or convey any interest in the principal or the income from any funds or
77747774 assets of the minor's estate set aside or transferred to effectuate a plan for
77757775 extended distribution until such is actually paid to the minor.
77767776 New Sec. 115. (a) Unless a person required to transfer funds or other
77777777 property to a minor knows that a conservator for the minor has been
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78217821 appointed or a proceeding is pending for conservatorship, the person may
78227822 transfer an amount or value not exceeding $25,000 in a 12-month period
78237823 to:
78247824 (1) A person that has care or custody of the minor and with whom the
78257825 minor resides;
78267826 (2) a guardian for the minor;
78277827 (3) a custodian under the uniform transfers to minors act; or
78287828 (4) a financial institution as a deposit in an interest-bearing account or
78297829 certificate solely in the name of the minor and shall give notice to the
78307830 minor of the deposit.
78317831 (b) A person that transfers funds or other property under this section
78327832 is not responsible for its proper application.
78337833 (c) A person that receives funds or other property for a minor under
78347834 subsection (a)(1) or (2) may apply it only to the support, care, education,
78357835 health or welfare of the minor, and may not derive a personal financial
78367836 benefit from it, except for reimbursement for necessary expenses. Funds
78377837 not applied for these purposes must be preserved for the future support,
78387838 care, education, health or welfare of the minor, and the balance, if any,
78397839 transferred to the minor when the minor becomes an adult or otherwise is
78407840 emancipated.
78417841 (d) Any accumulated balance under this section shall be subject to
78427842 other provisions of this act.
78437843 New Sec. 116. The parent of a minor has the right and responsibility
78447844 to hold in trust and manage for the minor's benefit all of the personal and
78457845 real property vested in such minor when the total of such property does not
78467846 exceed $25,000 in value, unless a guardian or conservator has been
78477847 appointed for the minor.
78487848 New Sec. 117. (a) Any court having either control over or possession
78497849 of any amount of money not exceeding $100,000, the right to which is
78507850 vested in a minor, shall have the discretion to authorize, without the
78517851 appointment of a conservator or the giving of bond, and notwithstanding
78527852 the authority of a parent as provided for in section 116, and amendments
78537853 thereto, the deposit of the money in a savings account of a bank, credit
78547854 union, savings and loan association or any other investment account that
78557855 the court may authorize, payable either to a conservator, if one shall be
78567856 appointed for the minor, or to the minor upon attaining 18 years of age.
78577857 (b) Any court having either control over or possession of any amount
78587858 of money not exceeding $25,000, the right to which is vested in a minor,
78597859 shall have the discretion to order the payment of the money to any person,
78607860 including the parent of the minor, or the minor. If the person is the
78617861 conservator for the minor, the court may waive or recommend the waiver
78627862 of the requirement of a bond. If the person is anyone other than the minor,
78637863 the court shall order that person to hold in trust and manage the minor's
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79077907 estate for the minor's benefit.
79087908 New Sec. 118. Any court having either control over or possession of
79097909 any amount of money not exceeding $25,000, the right to which is vested
79107910 in an adult subject to guardianship, shall have the discretion to authorize,
79117911 without the appointment of a conservator or the giving of bond, the deposit
79127912 of the money in a savings account of a bank, credit union or savings and
79137913 loan association, payable to the guardian for the benefit of the adult subject
79147914 to guardianship if authorized pursuant to section 78(c), and amendments
79157915 thereto, payable to a conservator, if one shall be appointed for the adult, or
79167916 payable to the adult subject to guardianship upon termination of the
79177917 guardianship.
79187918 New Sec. 119. (a) On receiving a petition for a guardianship for an
79197919 adult, a court may order a protective arrangement instead of guardianship
79207920 as a less restrictive alternative to guardianship.
79217921 (b) On receiving a petition for a conservatorship for an individual, a
79227922 court may order a protective arrangement instead of conservatorship as a
79237923 less restrictive alternative to conservatorship.
79247924 (c) A person interested in an adult's welfare, including the adult or a
79257925 conservator for the adult, may petition under sections 119 through 130,
79267926 and amendments thereto, for a protective arrangement instead of
79277927 guardianship.
79287928 (d) The following persons may petition under sections 119 through
79297929 130, and amendments thereto, for a protective arrangement instead of
79307930 conservatorship:
79317931 (1) The individual for whom the protective arrangement is sought;
79327932 (2) a person interested in the property, financial affairs or welfare of
79337933 the individual, including a person that would be affected adversely by lack
79347934 of effective management of property or financial affairs of the individual;
79357935 and
79367936 (3) the guardian for the individual.
79377937 New Sec. 120. (a) After the hearing on a petition under section 65,
79387938 and amendments thereto, for a guardianship or under section 119(b), and
79397939 amendments thereto, for a protective arrangement instead of guardianship,
79407940 the court may issue an order under subsection (b) for a protective
79417941 arrangement instead of guardianship if the court finds by clear and
79427942 convincing evidence that:
79437943 (1) The respondent lacks the ability to meet essential requirements for
79447944 physical health, safety or self-care because the respondent is unable to
79457945 receive and evaluate information or make or communicate decisions, even
79467946 with appropriate supportive services, technological assistance or supported
79477947 decision making; and
79487948 (2) the respondent's identified needs cannot be met by a less
79497949 restrictive alternative.
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79937993 (b) If the court makes the findings under subsection (a), the court,
79947994 instead of appointing a guardian, may:
79957995 (1) Authorize or direct a transaction necessary to meet the
79967996 respondent's need for health, safety or care, including:
79977997 (A) A particular medical treatment or refusal of a particular medical
79987998 treatment;
79997999 (B) a move to a specified place of dwelling; or
80008000 (C) visitation between the respondent and another person;
80018001 (2) order supervised visitation with, or restrict access to the
80028002 respondent by, a specified person whose access places the respondent at
80038003 serious risk of physical, psychological or financial harm; and
80048004 (3) order other arrangements on a limited basis that are appropriate.
80058005 (c) In deciding whether to issue an order under this section, the court
80068006 shall consider the factors under sections 76 and 77, and amendments
80078007 thereto, which a guardian must consider when making a decision on behalf
80088008 of an adult subject to guardianship.
80098009 (d) Any order issued under this section may include reporting
80108010 requirements, time limits, bond requirements or any other provisions
80118011 deemed necessary by the court.
80128012 New Sec. 121. (a) After the hearing on a petition under section 84,
80138013 and amendments thereto, for conservatorship for an adult or under section
80148014 119(c), and amendments thereto, for a protective arrangement instead of
80158015 conservatorship for an adult, the court may issue an order under subsection
80168016 (c) for a protective arrangement instead of conservatorship for the adult if
80178017 the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that:
80188018 (1) The adult is unable to manage property or financial affairs
80198019 because:
80208020 (A) Of a limitation in the ability to receive and evaluate information
80218021 or make or communicate decisions, even with appropriate supportive
80228022 services, technological assistance or supported decision making; or
80238023 (B) the adult is missing, detained, or unable to return to the United
80248024 States;
80258025 (2) an order under subsection (c) is necessary to:
80268026 (A) Avoid harm to the adult or significant dissipation of the property
80278027 of the adult; or
80288028 (B) obtain or provide funds or other property needed for the support,
80298029 care, education, health or welfare of the adult or an individual entitled to
80308030 the adult's support; and
80318031 (3) the respondent's identified needs cannot be met by a less
80328032 restrictive alternative.
80338033 (b) After the hearing on a petition under section 84, and amendments
80348034 thereto, for conservatorship for a minor or under section 119(c), and
80358035 amendments thereto, for a protective arrangement instead of
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80798079 conservatorship for a minor, the court may issue an order under subsection
80808080 (c) for a protective arrangement instead of conservatorship for the
80818081 respondent if the court finds by a preponderance of the evidence that the
80828082 arrangement is in the minor's best interest, and:
80838083 (1) If the minor has a parent, the court gives weight to any
80848084 recommendation of the parent whether an arrangement is in the minor's
80858085 best interest;
80868086 (2) either:
80878087 (A) The minor owns money or property requiring management or
80888088 protection that otherwise cannot be provided;
80898089 (B) the minor has or may have financial affairs that may be put at
80908090 unreasonable risk or hindered because of the minor's age; or
80918091 (C) the arrangement is necessary or desirable to obtain or provide
80928092 funds or other property needed for the support, care, education, health or
80938093 welfare of the minor; and
80948094 (3) the order under subsection (c) is necessary or desirable to obtain
80958095 or provide money needed for the support, care, education, health or
80968096 welfare of the minor.
80978097 (c) If the court makes the findings under subsection (a) or (b), the
80988098 court, instead of appointing a conservator, may:
80998099 (1) Authorize or direct a transaction necessary to protect the financial
81008100 interest or property of the respondent, including:
81018101 (A) An action to establish eligibility for benefits;
81028102 (B) payment, delivery, deposit or retention of funds or property;
81038103 (C) sale, mortgage, lease or other transfer of property;
81048104 (D) purchase of an annuity;
81058105 (E) entry into a contractual relationship, including a contract to
81068106 provide for personal care, supportive services, education, training or
81078107 employment;
81088108 (F) addition to or establishment of a trust;
81098109 (G) ratification or invalidation of a contract, trust, will or other
81108110 transaction, including a transaction related to the property or business
81118111 affairs of the respondent; or
81128112 (H) settlement of a claim; or
81138113 (2) restrict access to the respondent's property by a specified person
81148114 whose access to the property places the respondent at serious risk of
81158115 financial harm.
81168116 (d) After the hearing on a petition under section 119(a)(2) or (c), and
81178117 amendments thereto, whether or not the court makes the findings under
81188118 subsection (a) or (b), the court may issue an order to restrict access to the
81198119 respondent or the respondent's property by a specified person that the court
81208120 finds by clear and convincing evidence:
81218121 (1) Through fraud, coercion, duress or the use of deception and
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81658165 control caused or attempted to cause an action that would have resulted in
81668166 financial harm to the respondent or the respondent's property; and
81678167 (2) poses a serious risk of substantial financial harm to the respondent
81688168 or the respondent's property.
81698169 (e) Before issuing an order under subsection (c) or (d), the court shall
81708170 consider the factors under section 99, and amendments thereto, a
81718171 conservator must consider when making a decision on behalf of an
81728172 individual subject to conservatorship.
81738173 (f) Before issuing an order under subsection (c) or (d) for a
81748174 respondent who is a minor, the court also shall consider the best interest of
81758175 the minor, the preference of the parents of the minor and the preference of
81768176 the minor, if the minor is 12 years of age or older.
81778177 (g) Any order issued under this section may include reporting
81788178 requirements, time limits, bond requirements or any other provisions
81798179 deemed necessary by the court.
81808180 New Sec. 122. A verified petition for a protective arrangement
81818181 instead of guardianship or conservatorship must state the petitioner's name,
81828182 principal residence, current street address, if different, relationship to the
81838183 respondent, interest in the protective arrangement, the name and address of
81848184 any attorney representing the petitioner and, to the extent known, the
81858185 following:
81868186 (a) The respondent's name, age, principal residence, current street
81878187 address if different, and address of the dwelling in which it is proposed the
81888188 respondent will reside if the petition is granted;
81898189 (b) the name and address of the respondent's:
81908190 (1) Spouse or, if the respondent has none, an adult with whom the
81918191 respondent has shared household responsibilities for more than six months
81928192 in the 12-month period before the filing of the petition; and
81938193 (2) adult children, adult stepchildren, adult grandchildren and each
81948194 parent and adult sibling of the respondent, or, if none, at least one adult
81958195 nearest in kinship to the respondent who can be found with reasonable
81968196 diligence; and
81978197 (3) adult former stepchildren with whom the respondent had an
81988198 ongoing relationship in the two-year period immediately before the filing
81998199 of the petition;
82008200 (c) the name and current address of each of the following, if
82018201 applicable:
82028202 (1) A person primarily responsible for the care or custody of the
82038203 respondent;
82048204 (2) any attorney currently representing the respondent;
82058205 (3) the representative payee appointed by the social security
82068206 administration for the respondent;
82078207 (4) a guardian or conservator acting for the respondent in this state or
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82518251 another jurisdiction;
82528252 (5) a trustee or custodian of a trust or custodianship of which the
82538253 respondent is a beneficiary;
82548254 (6) the fiduciary appointed for the respondent by the department of
82558255 veterans affairs and any curator appointed under K.S.A. 73-507, and
82568256 amendments thereto;
82578257 (7) an agent designated under a power of attorney for healthcare in
82588258 which the respondent is identified as the principal;
82598259 (8) an agent designated under a power of attorney for finances in
82608260 which the respondent is identified as the principal;
82618261 (9) a person nominated as guardian or conservator by the respondent
82628262 if the respondent is 12 years of age or older;
82638263 (10) a person nominated as guardian by the respondent's parent or
82648264 spouse in a will or other signed record;
82658265 (11) a person known to have routinely assisted the respondent with
82668266 decision making in the six-month period immediately before the filing of
82678267 the petition; and
82688268 (12) if the respondent is a minor:
82698269 (A) An adult not otherwise listed with whom the respondent resides;
82708270 and
82718271 (B) each person not otherwise listed that had primary care or custody
82728272 of the respondent for at least 60 days during the two years immediately
82738273 before the filing of the petition or for at least 730 days during the five
82748274 years immediately before the filing of the petition;
82758275 (d) the nature of the protective arrangement sought;
82768276 (e) the reason the protective arrangement sought is necessary,
82778277 including a description of:
82788278 (1) The nature and extent of the respondent's alleged need;
82798279 (2) any less restrictive alternative for meeting the respondent's alleged
82808280 need which has been considered or implemented;
82818281 (3) if no less restrictive alternative has been considered or
82828282 implemented, the reason less restrictive alternatives have not been
82838283 considered or implemented; and
82848284 (4) the reason other less restrictive alternatives are insufficient to
82858285 meet the respondent's alleged need;
82868286 (f) the name and current address, if known, of any person with whom
82878287 the petitioner seeks to limit the respondent's contact and the reason why
82888288 limited contact with the respondent is necessary;
82898289 (g) whether the respondent needs an interpreter, translator, or other
82908290 form of support to communicate effectively with the court or understand
82918291 court proceedings;
82928292 (h) if a protective arrangement instead of guardianship is sought and
82938293 the respondent has property other than personal effects, a general
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83378337 statement of the respondent's property with an estimate of its value,
83388338 including any insurance or pension, and the source and amount of any
83398339 other anticipated income or receipts; and
83408340 (i) if a protective arrangement instead of conservatorship is sought, a
83418341 general statement of the respondent's property with an estimate of its
83428342 value, including any insurance or pension, and the source and amount of
83438343 other anticipated income or receipts.
83448344 New Sec. 123. (a) On filing of a petition under section 119, and
83458345 amendments thereto, the court shall set a date, time and place for a hearing
83468346 on the petition.
83478347 (b) A copy of a petition under section 119, and amendments thereto,
83488348 and notice of a hearing on the petition must be served personally on the
83498349 respondent. The notice must inform the respondent of the respondent's
83508350 rights at the hearing, including the right to an attorney and to attend the
83518351 hearing. The notice must include a description of the nature, purpose and
83528352 consequences of granting the petition. The court may not grant the petition
83538353 if notice substantially complying with this subsection is not served on the
83548354 respondent. The court may order any of the following persons to serve the
83558355 notice upon the respondent:
83568356 (1) The petitioner or the attorney for the petitioner;
83578357 (2) the attorney appointed by the court to represent the respondent;
83588358 (3) any law enforcement officer; or
83598359 (4) any other person whom the court finds to be a proper person to
83608360 serve this notice.
83618361 (c) In a proceeding on a petition under section 119, and amendments
83628362 thereto, the notice required under subsection (b) must be given to the
83638363 persons required to be listed in the petition under section 122(a) through
83648364 (c), and amendments thereto, and any other person interested in the
83658365 respondent's welfare the court determines. Failure to give notice under this
83668366 subsection does not preclude the court from granting the petition.
83678367 (d) After the court has ordered a protective arrangement under
83688368 sections 119 through 130, and amendments thereto, notice of a hearing on
83698369 a petition for any other order filed under this act, together with a copy of
83708370 the petition, must be given to the respondent and any other person the
83718371 court determines.
83728372 New Sec. 124. (a) On filing of a petition under section 119, and
83738373 amendments thereto, for a protective arrangement instead of guardianship,
83748374 the court may appoint a court liaison. The court liaison must be an
83758375 individual with training or experience in the type of abilities, limitations
83768376 and needs alleged in the petition.
83778377 (b) On filing of a petition under section 119, and amendments thereto,
83788378 for a protective arrangement instead of conservatorship for a minor, the
83798379 court may appoint a court liaison to investigate a matter related to the
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84238423 petition or inform the minor or a parent of the minor about the petition or a
84248424 related matter.
84258425 (c) On filing of a petition under section 119, and amendments thereto,
84268426 for a protective arrangement instead of conservatorship for an adult, the
84278427 court may appoint a court liaison. The court liaison must be an individual
84288428 with training or experience in the types of abilities, limitations and needs
84298429 alleged in the petition.
84308430 (d) A court liaison appointed under subsection (a) or (c) shall
84318431 interview the respondent in person and in a manner the respondent is best
84328432 able to understand:
84338433 (1) Explain, in general, the petition, and the nature and purpose of the
84348434 proceeding including the potential loss of rights as a result of the
84358435 proceeding;
84368436 (2) obtain the respondent's views with respect to the order sought;
84378437 (3) if the petitioner seeks an order related to the dwelling of the
84388438 respondent, visit the respondent's present dwelling and any dwelling in
84398439 which it is reasonably believed the respondent will live if the order is
84408440 granted;
84418441 (4) if a protective arrangement instead of guardianship is sought,
84428442 obtain information from any physician or other provider known to have
84438443 treated, advised or assessed the respondent's relevant physical or mental
84448444 condition, to the extent that such information has not already been
84458445 provided to the court;
84468446 (5) if a protective arrangement instead of conservatorship is sought,
84478447 review financial records of the respondent, if relevant to the court liaison's
84488448 recommendation under subsection (e)(2); and
84498449 (6) investigate the allegations in the petition and any other matter
84508450 relating to the petition as directed by the court, including, but not limited
84518451 to, the respondent's family relationships, past conduct, the nature and
84528452 extent of any property or income of the respondent, whether the
84538453 respondent is likely to injure self or others and other matters as the court
84548454 may specify.
84558455 (e) A court liaison under this section promptly shall file a report with
84568456 the court at least 10 days prior to the hearing on the petition or other
84578457 hearing as directed by the court. Unless otherwise ordered by the court,
84588458 such report must include:
84598459 (1) To the extent relevant to the order sought, a summary of self-care,
84608460 independent-living tasks and financial-management tasks the respondent:
84618461 (A) Can manage without assistance or with existing supports;
84628462 (B) could manage with the assistance of appropriate supportive
84638463 services, technological assistance or supported decision making; and
84648464 (C) cannot manage;
84658465 (2) a recommendation regarding the appropriateness of the protective
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85098509 arrangement sought and whether a less restrictive alternative for meeting
85108510 the respondent's needs is available;
85118511 (3) if the petition seeks to change the physical location of the
85128512 dwelling of the respondent, a statement whether the proposed dwelling
85138513 meets the respondent's needs and whether the respondent has expressed a
85148514 preference as to the respondent's dwelling;
85158515 (4) a statement whether the respondent is able to attend a hearing at
85168516 the location court proceedings typically are held;
85178517 (5) a statement whether the respondent is able to participate in a
85188518 hearing and which identifies any technology or other form of support that
85198519 would enhance the respondent's ability to participate; and
85208520 (6) any other matter the court directs.
85218521 (f) The costs of an investigation by a court liaison shall be assessed as
85228522 provided for in section 42, and amendments thereto.
85238523 New Sec. 125. (a) Unless the respondent in a proceeding under
85248524 sections 119 through 130, and amendments thereto, is represented by an
85258525 attorney, the court shall appoint an attorney to represent the respondent,
85268526 regardless of the respondent's ability to pay. The court shall give
85278527 preference in the appointment of an attorney to an attorney whom the
85288528 respondent has requested or to any attorney who has represented the
85298529 respondent in other matters if the court has knowledge of that prior
85308530 representation.
85318531 (b) An attorney representing the respondent in a proceeding under
85328532 sections 119 through 130, and amendments thereto, shall:
85338533 (1) Make reasonable efforts to ascertain the respondent's wishes;
85348534 (2) advocate for the respondent's wishes to the extent reasonably
85358535 ascertainable; and
85368536 (3) if the respondent's wishes are not reasonably ascertainable,
85378537 advocate for the result that is the least restrictive alternative in type,
85388538 duration and scope, consistent with the respondent's interests.
85398539 (c) The court may appoint an attorney to represent a parent of a minor
85408540 who is the subject of a proceeding under sections 119 through 130, and
85418541 amendments thereto, if:
85428542 (1) The parent objects to the entry of an order for a protective
85438543 arrangement instead of guardianship or conservatorship;
85448544 (2) the court determines that counsel is needed to ensure that consent
85458545 to the entry of an order for a protective arrangement is informed; or
85468546 (3) the court otherwise determines the parent needs representation.
85478547 (d) An attorney representing the respondent shall interview the
85488548 respondent in person and, in a manner the respondent is best able to
85498549 understand:
85508550 (1) Explain to the respondent the substance of the petition, the nature,
85518551 purpose and effect of the proceeding, and the respondent's rights at the
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85958595 hearing on the petition;
85968596 (2) determine the respondent's views about the order sought by the
85978597 petitioner; and
85988598 (3) inform the respondent that all costs and expenses of the
85998599 proceeding, including respondent's attorney fees, may be paid from the
86008600 respondent's assets.
86018601 New Sec. 126. (a) Upon the filing of the petition or any other time at
86028602 or before the hearing, if the contents of the petition or evidence at the
86038603 hearing support a prima facie case of the need for a protective
86048604 arrangement, the court shall order an examination and evaluation of the
86058605 respondent to be conducted through a general hospital, psychiatric
86068606 hospital, community mental health center, or community developmental
86078607 disability organization, or by a licensed physician, psychiatrist,
86088608 psychologist, physician assistant, nurse practitioner, social worker or other
86098609 professional appointed by the court who is qualified to evaluate the
86108610 respondent's alleged cognitive and functional abilities and limitations and
86118611 will not be advantaged or disadvantaged by a decision to grant the petition
86128612 or otherwise have a conflict of interest.
86138613 (b) Unless otherwise specified by the court, the report of the
86148614 examination and evaluation submitted to the court shall contain:
86158615 (1) The respondent's name, age and date of birth;
86168616 (2) a description of the respondent's physical and mental condition;
86178617 (3) a description of the nature and extent of the respondent's cognitive
86188618 and functional abilities and limitations, including adaptive behaviors and
86198619 social skills, and, as appropriate, educational and developmental potential;
86208620 (4) a summary of self-care and independent-living tasks the
86218621 respondent can manage without assistance or with existing supports, could
86228622 manage with the assistance of appropriate supportive services,
86238623 technological assistance or supported decision making, and cannot
86248624 manage;
86258625 (5) a prognosis for any improvement and, as appropriate, any
86268626 recommendation for treatment or rehabilitation;
86278627 (6) a list and description of any prior assessments, evaluations or
86288628 examinations of the respondent, including the dates thereof, which were
86298629 relied upon in the preparation of this evaluation;
86308630 (7) the date and location where this examination and evaluation
86318631 occurred, and the name or names of the professional or professionals
86328632 performing the examination and evaluation and such professional's
86338633 qualifications;
86348634 (8) a statement by the professional that the professional has
86358635 personally completed an independent examination and evaluation of the
86368636 respondent, and that the report submitted to the court contains the results
86378637 of that examination and evaluation, and the professional's opinion with
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86818681 regard to the issues of whether or not the respondent is in need of a
86828682 guardian and whether there are barriers to the respondent's attendance and
86838683 participation at the hearing on the petition; and
86848684 (9) the signature of the professional who prepared the report.
86858685 (c) The professional shall file with the court, at least five days prior to
86868686 the date of the trial, such professional's written report concerning the
86878687 examination and evaluation ordered by the court. The report shall be made
86888688 available by the court to counsel for all parties.
86898689 (d) In lieu of entering an order for an examination and evaluation as
86908690 provided for in this section, the court may determine that the report
86918691 accompanying the petition is in compliance with the requirements of this
86928692 section and that no further examination or evaluation should be required,
86938693 unless the respondent, or such person's attorney, requests such an
86948694 examination and evaluation in writing. Any such request shall be filed with
86958695 the court, and a copy thereof delivered to the petitioner, at least four days
86968696 prior to the date of the trial. Accompanying the request shall be a statement
86978697 of the reasons why an examination and evaluation is requested and the
86988698 name and address of a qualified professional or facility willing and able to
86998699 conduct this examination and evaluation. If the court orders a further
87008700 examination and evaluation, the court may continue the trial and fix a new
87018701 date, time and place of the trial at a time not to exceed 30 days from the
87028702 date of the filing of the request.
87038703 New Sec. 127. (a) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (b), a
87048704 hearing under sections 119 through 130, and amendments thereto, may not
87058705 proceed unless the respondent attends the hearing. If it is not reasonably
87068706 feasible for the respondent to attend a hearing at the location where court
87078707 proceedings typically are held, the court shall make reasonable efforts to
87088708 hold the hearing at an alternative location convenient to the respondent or
87098709 allow the respondent to attend the hearing using real-time audio-visual
87108710 technology.
87118711 (b) A hearing under sections 119 through 130, and amendments
87128712 thereto, may proceed without the respondent in attendance if the court
87138713 finds by clear and convincing evidence that:
87148714 (1) The respondent is choosing not to attend the hearing after having
87158715 been fully informed of the right to attend and the potential consequences
87168716 of failing to do so;
87178717 (2) there is no practicable way for the respondent to attend and
87188718 participate in the hearing even with appropriate supportive services and
87198719 technological assistance; or
87208720 (3) the respondent is a minor who has received proper notice and
87218721 attendance would be harmful to the minor.
87228722 (c) The respondent may be assisted in a hearing under sections 119
87238723 through 130, and amendments thereto, by a person or persons of the
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87678767 respondent's choosing, assistive technology or an interpreter or translator,
87688768 or a combination of these supports. If assistance would facilitate the
87698769 respondent's participation in the hearing, but is not otherwise available to
87708770 the respondent, the court shall make reasonable efforts to provide it.
87718771 (d) The respondent has a right to retain an attorney to represent the
87728772 respondent at a hearing under sections 119 through 130, and amendments
87738773 thereto.
87748774 (e) At a hearing under sections 119 through 130, and amendments
87758775 thereto, the respondent may:
87768776 (1) Present evidence and subpoena witnesses and documents;
87778777 (2) examine witnesses, including any court-appointed evaluator and
87788778 the court liaison; and
87798779 (3) otherwise participate in the hearing.
87808780 (f) A hearing under sections 119 through 130, and amendments
87818781 thereto, must be closed on request of the respondent and a showing of
87828782 good cause.
87838783 (g) Any person may request to participate in a hearing under sections
87848784 119 through 130, and amendments thereto. The court may grant the
87858785 request, with or without a hearing, on determining that the best interest of
87868786 the respondent will be served. The court may impose appropriate
87878787 conditions on the person's participation.
87888788 New Sec. 128. The court shall give notice of an order under sections
87898789 119 through 130, and amendments thereto, to the individual who is subject
87908790 to the protective arrangement instead of guardianship or conservatorship, a
87918791 person whose access to the individual is restricted by the order and any
87928792 other person the court determines.
87938793 New Sec. 129. (a) The existence of a proceeding for or the existence
87948794 of a protective arrangement instead of guardianship or conservatorship is a
87958795 matter of public record unless the court seals the record after:
87968796 (1) The respondent, the individual subject to the protective
87978797 arrangement, or the parent of a minor subject to the protective arrangement
87988798 requests the record be sealed; and
87998799 (2) either:
88008800 (A) The proceeding is dismissed;
88018801 (B) the protective arrangement is no longer in effect; or
88028802 (C) an act authorized by the order granting the protective arrangement
88038803 has been completed.
88048804 (b) (1) An order of protective arrangement is a matter of public record
88058805 unless sealed by the court. All other court records of the proceeding
88068806 relating to the protective arrangement are not a matter of public record
88078807 except as further provided.
88088808 (2) The following persons may access court records of the proceeding
88098809 and resulting protective arrangement:
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88538853 (A) A respondent;
88548854 (B) an individual subject to a protective arrangement instead of
88558855 guardianship or conservatorship;
88568856 (C) an attorney designated by the respondent or individual;
88578857 (D) a parent of a minor subject to a protective arrangement; and
88588858 (E) a licensed attorney, abstractor, or title insurance agent.
88598859 (3) A person not otherwise entitled to access to court records under
88608860 this subsection for good cause may request permission from the court for
88618861 access. The court shall grant access if access is in the best interest of the
88628862 respondent or individual subject to the protective arrangement or furthers
88638863 the public interest and does not endanger the welfare or financial interests
88648864 of the respondent or individual.
88658865 (c) A report of a court liaison or professional evaluation generated in
88668866 the course of a proceeding under sections 119 through 130, and
88678867 amendments thereto, must be sealed on filing but is available to:
88688868 (1) The court;
88698869 (2) the individual who is the subject of the report or evaluation,
88708870 without limitation as to use;
88718871 (3) the petitioner, court liaison and petitioner's and respondent's
88728872 attorneys, for purposes of the proceeding;
88738873 (4) unless the court orders otherwise, an agent appointed under a
88748874 power of attorney for finances in which the respondent is the principal;
88758875 (5) if the order is for a protective arrangement instead of guardianship
88768876 and unless the court orders otherwise, an agent appointed under a power of
88778877 attorney for healthcare in which the respondent is identified as the
88788878 principal; and
88798879 (6) any other person if it is in the public interest or for a purpose the
88808880 court orders for good cause.
88818881 New Sec. 130. The court may appoint a facilitator to assist in
88828882 implementing a protective arrangement under sections 119 through 130,
88838883 and amendments thereto. The facilitator has the authority conferred by the
88848884 order of appointment and serves until discharged by court order.
88858885 New Sec. 131. For purposes of this act, the judicial council shall
88868886 develop a statement of rights form, petition forms and report and
88878887 accounting forms.
88888888 New Sec. 132. In applying and construing this uniform act,
88898889 consideration must be given to the need to promote uniformity of the law
88908890 with respect to its subject matter among states that enact it.
88918891 New Sec. 133. This act modifies, limits or supersedes the electronic
88928892 signatures in global and national commerce act, 15 U.S.C. § 7001 et seq.,
88938893 but does not modify, limit or supersede section 101(c) of that act, 15
88948894 U.S.C. § 7001(c), or authorize electronic delivery of any of the notices
88958895 described in section 103(b) of that act, 15 U.S.C. § 7003(b).
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89398939 New Sec. 134. (a) This act applies to:
89408940 (1) A proceeding for appointment of a guardian or conservator or for
89418941 a protective arrangement instead of guardianship or conservatorship
89428942 commenced after January 1, 2026; and
89438943 (2) except as provided in subsection (b), a guardianship,
89448944 conservatorship or protective arrangement instead of guardianship or
89458945 conservatorship in existence on January 1, 2026, unless the court finds
89468946 application of a particular provision of this act would substantially
89478947 interfere with the effective conduct of the proceeding or prejudice the
89488948 rights of a party, in which case the particular provision of this act does not
89498949 apply and the superseded law applies.
89508950 (b) Sections 79 and 103, and amendments thereto, mandating a
89518951 guardian's plan or conservator's plan shall not apply to guardianships or
89528952 conservatorships in existence on January 1, 2026, unless the court orders
89538953 that a guardian's plan or conservator's plan is required.
89548954 New Sec. 135. If any provision of this act or its application to any
89558955 person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other
89568956 provisions or applications of this act which can be given effect without the
89578957 invalid provision or application, and to this end the provisions of this act
89588958 are severable.
89598959 Sec. 136. K.S.A. 9-1215 is hereby amended to read as follows: 9-
89608960 1215. (a) Subject to the provisions of this section, an individual owner of
89618961 an account may enter into a written contract with any bank located in this
89628962 state that provides that at the time of the owner's death, the balance of the
89638963 owner's legal share of the account shall be paid to one or more
89648964 beneficiaries. If a beneficiary has predeceased the owner, that beneficiary's
89658965 share shall be divided equally among the remaining beneficiaries unless
89668966 the contract provides otherwise.
89678967 (b) If any beneficiary is a minor at the time funds become payable to
89688968 the beneficiary pursuant to this section, the bank shall pay out in
89698969 accordance with K.S.A. 59-3053 section 116, and amendments thereto.
89708970 (c) During the owner's lifetime, the owner has the right to both
89718971 withdraw funds on deposit in the account in the manner provided in the
89728972 contract, in whole or in part, as though no beneficiary has been named, and
89738973 to change the designation of beneficiary. No change in the designation of
89748974 the beneficiary shall be valid unless executed in the form and manner
89758975 prescribed by the bank and delivered to the bank prior to the death of the
89768976 owner.
89778977 (d) The interest of the beneficiary shall not vest until the death of the
89788978 owner. Vesting of the beneficiary's interest is subject to the following if,
89798979 prior to the owner's death or payment to the beneficiary, the bank has
89808980 received written notice:
89818981 (1) From the department for children and families of a claim pursuant
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90259025 to K.S.A. 39-709, and amendments thereto, the balance of the owner's
90269026 share shall be paid to the department for children and families to the extent
90279027 of medical assistance expended on the deceased owner, with the
90289028 beneficiary then receiving the balance of the owner's share, if any remains;
90299029 or
90309030 (2) of the owner's surviving spouse's intent to claim an elective share
90319031 under K.S.A. 59-6a214, and amendments thereto, the balance of the
90329032 owner's share shall be paid to the court having jurisdiction as provided in
90339033 K.S.A. 59-6a214, and amendments thereto, to the extent of the owner's
90349034 surviving spouse's elective share, with the beneficiary then receiving the
90359035 balance of the owner's share, if any remains.
90369036 (e) Transfers pursuant to this section shall not be considered
90379037 testamentary or be invalidated due to nonconformity with the provisions of
90389038 chapter 59 of the Kansas Statutes Annotated, and amendments thereto.
90399039 (f) Payment by the bank of the owner's deposit account pursuant to
90409040 the provisions of this section shall release and discharge the bank from
90419041 further liability for the payment.
90429042 (g) For the purposes of this section:
90439043 (1) The balance of the owner's deposit account or the balance of the
90449044 owner's legal share of a deposit account shall be construed to not include
90459045 any portion of the account which under the law of joint tenancy is the
90469046 property of another joint tenant of the account upon the death of the
90479047 owner; and
90489048 (2) where multiple owners exist, such owners will be presumed to
90499049 own equal shares of the deposit account unless the deposit contract with
90509050 the bank specifies a different percentage of ownership for the owners.
90519051 Sec. 137. K.S.A. 17-2263 is hereby amended to read as follows: 17-
90529052 2263. (a) Subject to the provisions of this section and K.S.A. 17-2264, and
90539053 amendments thereto, an individual adult or minor, hereafter referred to as
90549054 the member, may enter into a written contract with any credit union
90559055 located in this state providing that the balance of the member's account, or
90569056 the balance of the member's legal share of an account, at the time of death
90579057 of the member shall be made payable on the death of the member to one or
90589058 more persons or, if the persons predecease the owner, to another person or
90599059 persons, hereafter referred to as the beneficiary or beneficiaries. If any
90609060 beneficiary is a minor at the time the account, or any portion of the
90619061 account, becomes payable to the beneficiary and the balance, or portion of
90629062 the balance, exceeds the amount specified by K.S.A. 59-3053 section 116,
90639063 and amendments thereto, the moneys shall be payable only to a
90649064 conservator of the minor beneficiary.
90659065 (b) Transfers pursuant to this section shall not be considered
90669066 testamentary or be invalidated due to nonconformity with the provisions of
90679067 chapter 59 of the Kansas Statutes Annotated, and amendments thereto.
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91119111 (c) Every contract authorized by this section shall be considered to
91129112 contain a right on the part of the member during the member's lifetime
91139113 both to withdraw funds on deposit in the account in the manner provided
91149114 in the contract, in whole or in part, as though no beneficiary has been
91159115 named, and to change the designation of beneficiary. The interest of the
91169116 beneficiary shall be considered not to vest until the death of the member
91179117 and, if there is a claim pursuant to K.S.A. 39-709, and amendments
91189118 thereto, until such claim is satisfied.
91199119 (d) No change in the designation of the beneficiary shall be valid
91209120 unless executed in the form and manner prescribed by the credit union and
91219121 delivered to the credit union prior to the death of the member.
91229122 (e) For the purposes of this section, the balance of the member's
91239123 account or the balance of the member's legal share of an account shall not
91249124 be construed to include any portion of the account that under the law of
91259125 joint tenancy is the property of another joint tenant of the account, upon
91269126 the death of the owner.
91279127 (f) As used in this section, "person" means any individual, individual
91289128 or corporate fiduciary or nonprofit religious or charitable organization as
91299129 defined by K.S.A. 79-4701, and amendments thereto.
91309130 Sec. 138. K.S.A. 17-2264 is hereby amended to read as follows: 17-
91319131 2264. When the shareholder and the credit union have entered into a
91329132 contract authorized in K.S.A. 17-2263, and amendments thereto, the
91339133 shareholder's account subject to the contract or any part of or interest on
91349134 the account shall be paid by the credit union to the shareholder or pursuant
91359135 to the shareholder's order during the shareholder's lifetime. On the
91369136 shareholder's death, the deposit account or any part of or interest on the
91379137 account shall be paid by the credit union to the secretary for children and
91389138 families for a claim pursuant to K.S.A. 39-709, and amendments thereto,
91399139 or, if there is no such claim or if any portion of the account remains after
91409140 such claim is satisfied, to the designated beneficiary or beneficiaries. If
91419141 any designated beneficiary is a minor at the time the account, or any
91429142 portion of the account, becomes payable to the beneficiary and the
91439143 balance, or portion of the balance, exceeds the amount specified by K.S.A.
91449144 59-3053 section 116, and amendments thereto, the credit union shall pay
91459145 the moneys or any interest on them only to a conservator of the minor
91469146 beneficiary. The receipt of the conservator shall release and discharge the
91479147 credit union for the payment.
91489148 Sec. 139. K.S.A. 21-5417 is hereby amended to read as follows: 21-
91499149 5417. (a) Mistreatment of a dependent adult or an elder person is
91509150 knowingly committing one or more of the following acts:
91519151 (1) Infliction of physical injury, unreasonable confinement or
91529152 unreasonable punishment upon a dependent adult or an elder person;
91539153 (2) taking the personal property or financial resources of a dependent
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91979197 adult or an elder person for the benefit of the defendant or another person
91989198 by taking control, title, use or management of the personal property or
91999199 financial resources of a dependent adult or an elder person through:
92009200 (A) Undue influence, coercion, harassment, duress, deception, false
92019201 representation, false pretense or without adequate consideration to such
92029202 dependent adult or elder person;
92039203 (B) a violation of the Kansas power of attorney act, K.S.A. 58-650 et
92049204 seq., and amendments thereto;
92059205 (C) a violation of the Kansas uniform trust code, K.S.A. 58a-101 et
92069206 seq., and amendments thereto; or
92079207 (D) a violation of the act for obtaining a guardian or a conservator, or
92089208 both, K.S.A. 59-3050 et seq. Kansas uniform guardianship,
92099209 conservatorship and other protective arrangements act, sections 24
92109210 through 135, and amendments thereto; or
92119211 (3) omission or deprivation of treatment, goods or services that are
92129212 necessary to maintain physical or mental health of such dependent adult or
92139213 elder person.
92149214 (b) Mistreatment of a dependent adult or an elder person as defined
92159215 in:
92169216 (1) (A) Subsection (a)(1) is a severity level 5, person felony, except as
92179217 provided in subsection (b)(1)(B);
92189218 (B) subsection (a)(1) is a severity level 2, person felony, when the
92199219 victim is a dependent adult who is a resident of an adult care home, as
92209220 described in subsection (e)(2)(A), during the commission of the offense;
92219221 (2) subsection (a)(2) if the aggregate amount of the value of the
92229222 personal property or financial resources is:
92239223 (A) $1,000,000 or more is a severity level 2, person felony;
92249224 (B) at least $250,000 but less than $1,000,000 is a severity level 3,
92259225 person felony;
92269226 (C) at least $100,000 but less than $250,000 is a severity level 4,
92279227 person felony;
92289228 (D) at least $25,000 but less than $100,000 is a severity level 5,
92299229 person felony;
92309230 (E) at least $1,500 but less than $25,000 is a severity level 7, person
92319231 felony;
92329232 (F) less than $1,500 is a class A person misdemeanor, except as
92339233 provided in subsection (b)(2)(G); and
92349234 (G) less than $1,500 and committed by a person who has, within five
92359235 years immediately preceding commission of the crime, been convicted of a
92369236 violation of this section two or more times is a severity level 7, person
92379237 felony; and
92389238 (3) (A) subsection (a)(3) is a severity level 8, person felony, except as
92399239 provided in subsection (b)(3)(B); and
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92839283 (B) subsection (a)(3) is a severity level 5, person felony, when the
92849284 victim is a dependent adult who is a resident of an adult care home, as
92859285 described in subsection (e)(2)(A), during the commission of the offense.
92869286 (c) It shall be an affirmative defense to any prosecution for
92879287 mistreatment of a dependent adult or an elder person as described in
92889288 subsection (a)(2) that:
92899289 (1) The personal property or financial resources were given as a gift
92909290 consistent with a pattern of gift giving to the person that existed before the
92919291 dependent adult or elder person became vulnerable;
92929292 (2) the personal property or financial resources were given as a gift
92939293 consistent with a pattern of gift giving to a class of individuals that existed
92949294 before the dependent adult or elder person became vulnerable;
92959295 (3) the personal property or financial resources were conferred as a
92969296 gift by the dependent adult or elder person to the benefit of a person or
92979297 class of persons, and such gift was reasonable under the circumstances; or
92989298 (4) a court approved the transaction before the transaction occurred.
92999299 (d) No dependent adult or elder person is considered to be mistreated
93009300 under subsection (a)(1) or (a)(3) for the sole reason that such dependent
93019301 adult or elder person relies upon or is being furnished treatment by
93029302 spiritual means through prayer in lieu of medical treatment in accordance
93039303 with the tenets and practices of a recognized church or religious
93049304 denomination of which such dependent adult or elder person is a member
93059305 or adherent.
93069306 (e) As used in this section:
93079307 (1) "Adequate consideration" means the personal property or
93089308 financial resources were given to the person as payment for bona fide
93099309 goods or services provided by such person and the payment was at a rate
93109310 customary for similar goods or services in the community that the
93119311 dependent adult or elder person resided in at the time of the transaction.
93129312 (2) "Dependent adult" means an individual 18 years of age or older
93139313 who is unable to protect the individual's own interest. Such term shall
93149314 include, but is not limited to, any:
93159315 (A) Resident of an adult care home including, but not limited to,
93169316 those facilities defined by K.S.A. 39-923, and amendments thereto;
93179317 (B) adult cared for in a private residence;
93189318 (C) individual kept, cared for, treated, boarded, confined or otherwise
93199319 accommodated in a medical care facility;
93209320 (D) individual with intellectual disability or a developmental
93219321 disability receiving services through a community facility for people with
93229322 intellectual disability or residential facility licensed under K.S.A. 39-2001
93239323 et seq., and amendments thereto;
93249324 (E) individual with a developmental disability receiving services
93259325 provided by a community service provider as provided in the
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93699369 developmental disability reform act; or
93709370 (F) individual kept, cared for, treated, boarded, confined or otherwise
93719371 accommodated in a state psychiatric hospital or state institution for people
93729372 with intellectual disability.
93739373 (3) "Elder person" means a person 60 years of age or older.
93749374 (f) An offender who violates the provisions of this section may also
93759375 be prosecuted for, convicted of, and punished for any other offense in
93769376 article 54, 55, 56 or 58 of chapter 21 of the Kansas Statutes Annotated, or
93779377 K.S.A. 21-6418, and amendments thereto.
93789378 Sec. 140. K.S.A. 38-2217 is hereby amended to read as follows: 38-
93799379 2217. (a) Physical or mental care and treatment. (1) When a child less
93809380 than 18 years of age is alleged to have been physically, mentally or
93819381 emotionally abused or neglected or sexually abused, no consent shall be
93829382 required to medically examine the child to determine whether the child has
93839383 been abused or neglected. Unless the child is alleged or suspected to have
93849384 been abused by the parent or guardian, the investigating officer shall notify
93859385 or attempt to notify the parent or guardian of the medical examination of
93869386 the child.
93879387 (2) When the health or condition of a child who is subject to
93889388 jurisdiction of the court requires it, the court may consent to the
93899389 performing and furnishing of hospital, medical, surgical or dental
93909390 treatment or procedures, including the release and inspection of medical or
93919391 dental records. A child, or parent of any child, who is opposed to certain
93929392 medical procedures authorized by this subsection may request an
93939393 opportunity for a hearing thereon before the court. Subsequent to the
93949394 hearing, the court may limit the performance of matters provided for in
93959395 this subsection or may authorize the performance of those matters subject
93969396 to terms and conditions the court considers proper.
93979397 (3) The custodian or agent of the custodian is the personal
93989398 representative for the purpose of consenting to disclosure of otherwise
93999399 protected health information and may give consent to the following:
94009400 (A) Dental treatment for the child by a licensed dentist;
94019401 (B) diagnostic examinations of the child, including but not limited to
94029402 the withdrawal of blood or other body fluids, x-rays and other laboratory
94039403 examinations;
94049404 (C) releases and inspections of the child's medical history records;
94059405 (D) immunizations for the child;
94069406 (E) administration of lawfully prescribed drugs to the child;
94079407 (F) examinations of the child including, but not limited to, the
94089408 withdrawal of blood or other body fluids or tissues for the purpose of
94099409 determining the child's parentage; and
94109410 (G) subject to the limitations in K.S.A. 59-3075(e)(4), (5) and (6)
94119411 section 78, and amendments thereto, medical or surgical care determined
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94559455 by a physician to be necessary for the welfare of such child, if the parents
94569456 are not available or refuse to consent.
94579457 (4) When the court has adjudicated a child to be in need of care, the
94589458 custodian or an agent designated by the custodian is the personal
94599459 representative for the purpose of consenting to disclosure of otherwise
94609460 protected health information and shall have authority to consent to the
94619461 performance and furnishing of hospital, medical, surgical or dental
94629462 treatment or procedures or mental care or treatment other than inpatient
94639463 treatment at a state psychiatric hospital, including the release and
94649464 inspection of medical or hospital records, subject to terms and conditions
94659465 the court considers proper and subject to the limitations of K.S.A. 59-3075
94669466 (e)(4), (5) and (6) section 78, and amendments thereto.
94679467 (5) Any health care provider who in good faith renders hospital,
94689468 medical, surgical, mental or dental care or treatment to any child or
94699469 discloses protected health information as authorized by this section shall
94709470 not be liable in any civil or criminal action for failure to obtain consent of
94719471 a parent.
94729472 (6) Nothing in this section shall be construed to mean that any person
94739473 shall be relieved of legal responsibility to provide care and support for a
94749474 child.
94759475 (b) Care and treatment requiring court action. If it is brought to the
94769476 court's attention, while the court is exercising jurisdiction over the person
94779477 of a child under this code, that the child may be a mentally ill person as
94789478 defined in K.S.A. 59-2946, and amendments thereto, or a person with an
94799479 alcohol or substance abuse problem as defined in K.S.A. 59-29b46, and
94809480 amendments thereto, the court may:
94819481 (1) Direct or authorize the county or district attorney or the person
94829482 supplying the information to file the petition provided for in K.S.A. 59-
94839483 2957, and amendments thereto, and proceed to hear and determine the
94849484 issues raised by the application as provided in the care and treatment act
94859485 for mentally ill persons or the petition provided for in K.S.A. 59-29b57,
94869486 and amendments thereto, and proceed to hear and determine the issues
94879487 raised by the application as provided in the care and treatment act for
94889488 persons with an alcohol or substance abuse problem; or
94899489 (2) authorize that the child seek voluntary admission to a treatment
94909490 facility as provided in K.S.A. 59-2949, and amendments thereto, or K.S.A.
94919491 59-29b49, and amendments thereto.
94929492 The application to determine whether the child is a mentally ill person
94939493 or a person with an alcohol or substance abuse problem may be filed in the
94949494 same proceedings as the petition alleging the child to be a child in need of
94959495 care, or may be brought in separate proceedings. In either event, the court
94969496 may enter an order staying any further proceedings under this code until
94979497 all proceedings have been concluded under the care and treatment act for
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95419541 mentally ill persons or the care and treatment act for persons with an
95429542 alcohol or substance abuse problem.
95439543 Sec. 141. K.S.A. 44-513a is hereby amended to read as follows: 44-
95449544 513a. Whenever a minor person shall be entitled to compensation under
95459545 the provisions of the workers compensation act, the administrative law
95469546 judge is authorized to direct such compensation to be paid in accordance
95479547 with K.S.A. 59-3050 through 59-3095 the Kansas uniform guardianship,
95489548 conservatorship and other protective arrangements act, sections 24
95499549 through 135, and amendments thereto.
95509550 Sec. 142. K.S.A. 44-1601 is hereby amended to read as follows: 44-
95519551 1601. As used in this act:
95529552 (a) (1) "Amusement ride" means any mechanical or electrical device
95539553 that carries or conveys passengers along, around or over a fixed or
95549554 restricted route or course or within a defined area for the purpose of giving
95559555 its passengers amusement, pleasure, thrills or excitement, including, but
95569556 not be limited to:
95579557 (A) Rides commonly known as ferris wheels, carousels, parachute
95589558 towers, bungee jumping, reverse bungee jumping, tunnels of love, roller
95599559 coasters, boat rides, water slides, inflatable devices, commercial zip lines,
95609560 trampoline courts and go-karts;
95619561 (B) equipment generally associated with winter activities, such as ski
95629562 lifts, ski tows, j-bars, t-bars, chair lifts and aerial tramways; and
95639563 (C) equipment not originally designed to be used as an amusement
95649564 ride, such as cranes or other lifting devices, when used as part of an
95659565 amusement ride.
95669566 (2) "Amusement ride" does not include:
95679567 (A) Games, concessions and associated structures;
95689568 (B) any single passenger coin-operated ride that: (i) Is manually,
95699569 mechanically or electrically operated; (ii) is customarily placed in a public
95709570 location; and (iii) does not normally require the supervision or services of
95719571 an operator;
95729572 (C) nonmechanized playground equipment, including, but not limited
95739573 to, swings, seesaws, stationary spring-mounted animal features, rider-
95749574 propelled merry-go-rounds, climbers, slides and physical fitness devices;
95759575 (D) antique amusement rides;
95769576 (E) limited-use amusement rides;
95779577 (F) registered agritourism activities;
95789578 (G) any ride commonly known as a hayrack ride in which patrons sit
95799579 in a wagon or cart that is then pulled by horses or a tractor or other motor
95809580 vehicle;
95819581 (H) any ride commonly known as a barrel train, which has a series of
95829582 handmade cars fashioned from barrels that are connected and pulled by a
95839583 tractor or other motor vehicle; or
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96279627 (I) any amusement ride owned by an individual and operated solely
96289628 within a single county for strictly private use.
96299629 (b) "Antique amusement ride" means an amusement ride, as defined
96309630 in subsection (a)(1), manufactured prior to January 1, 1930.
96319631 (c) "Certificate of inspection" means a certificate, signed and dated
96329632 by a qualified inspector, showing that an amusement ride has satisfactorily
96339633 passed inspection by such inspector.
96349634 (d) "Class A amusement ride" means an amusement ride designed for
96359635 use primarily by individuals aged 12 or less.
96369636 (e) "Class B amusement ride" means an amusement ride that is not
96379637 classified as a class A amusement ride.
96389638 (f) "Department" means the department of labor.
96399639 (g) "Limited-use amusement ride" means an amusement ride, as
96409640 defined in subsection (a)(1), owned and operated by a nonprofit,
96419641 community-based organization that is operated for less than 20 days, or
96429642 160 hours, in a year and is operated at only one location each year.
96439643 (h) "Nondestructive testing" means the development and application
96449644 of technical methods in accordance with ASTM F747 standards such as
96459645 radiographic, magnetic particle, ultrasonic, liquid penetrant,
96469646 electromagnetic, neutron radiographic, acoustic emission, visual and leak
96479647 testing to:
96489648 (1) Examine materials or components in ways that do not impair the
96499649 future usefulness and serviceability in order to detect, locate, measure and
96509650 evaluate discontinuities, defects and other imperfections;
96519651 (2) assess integrity, properties and composition; and
96529652 (3) measure geometrical characters.
96539653 (i) "Operator" means a person actually supervising, or engaged in or
96549654 directly controlling the operations of an amusement ride.
96559655 (j) "Owner" means a person who owns, leases, controls or manages
96569656 the operations of an amusement ride and may include the state or any
96579657 political subdivision of the state.
96589658 (k) "Parent or guardian" means any parent, guardian or custodian
96599659 responsible for the control, safety, training or education of a minor or an
96609660 adult or minor with an impairment in need of a guardian or a conservator,
96619661 or both, as those terms are defined by K.S.A. 59-3051 section 25, and
96629662 amendments thereto.
96639663 (l) (1) "Patron" means any individual who is:
96649664 (A) Waiting in the immediate vicinity of an amusement ride to get on
96659665 the ride;
96669666 (B) getting on an amusement ride;
96679667 (C) using an amusement ride;
96689668 (D) getting off an amusement ride; or
96699669 (E) leaving an amusement ride and still in the immediate vicinity of
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97139713 the ride.
97149714 (2) "Patron" does not include employees, agents or servants of the
97159715 owner while engaged in the duties of their employment.
97169716 (m) "Person" means any individual, association, partnership,
97179717 corporation, limited liability company, government or other entity.
97189718 (n) "Qualified inspector" means a person who:
97199719 (1) Is a licensed professional engineer, as defined in K.S.A. 74-7003,
97209720 and amendments thereto, and has completed at least two years of
97219721 experience in the amusement ride field, consisting of at least one year of
97229722 actual inspection of amusement rides under a qualified inspector for a
97239723 manufacturer, governmental agency, amusement park, carnival or
97249724 insurance underwriter, and an additional year of practicing any
97259725 combination of amusement ride inspection, design, fabrication,
97269726 installation, maintenance, testing, repair or operation;
97279727 (2) provides satisfactory evidence of completing a minimum of five
97289728 years of experience in the amusement ride field, at least two years of
97299729 which consisted of actual inspection of amusement rides under a qualified
97309730 inspector for a manufacturer, governmental agency, amusement park,
97319731 carnival or insurance underwriter, and the remaining experience consisting
97329732 of any combination of amusement ride inspection, design, fabrication,
97339733 installation, maintenance, testing, repair or operation;
97349734 (3) has received qualified training from a third party, such as
97359735 attainment of level I certification from the national association of
97369736 amusement ride safety officials (NAARSO), attainment of level I
97379737 certification from the amusement industry manufacturers and suppliers
97389738 international (AIMS), attainment of a qualified inspector certification from
97399739 the association for challenge course technology (ACCT), when applicable,
97409740 or other similar qualification from another nationally recognized
97419741 organization; or
97429742 (4) for purposes of inspecting inflatable devices that are rented on a
97439743 regular basis and erected at temporary locations, provides satisfactory
97449744 evidence of completing a minimum of five years of experience working
97459745 with inflatable devices and has received qualified training from a third
97469746 party, such as attainment of an advanced inflatable safety operations
97479747 certification from the safe inflatable operators training organization or
97489748 other nationally recognized organization.
97499749 (o) "Registered agritourism activity" means an amusement ride, as
97509750 defined in subsection (a)(1), that is a registered agritourism activity, as
97519751 defined in K.S.A. 32-1432, and amendments thereto.
97529752 (p) "Secretary" means the secretary of labor.
97539753 (q) "Serious injury" means an injury that results in:
97549754 (1) Death, dismemberment, significant disfigurement or permanent
97559755 loss of the use of a body organ, member, function or system;
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97999799 (2) a compound fracture; or
98009800 (3) other injury or illness that requires immediate admission and
98019801 overnight hospitalization, and observation by a licensed physician.
98029802 (r) "Sign" means any symbol or language reasonably calculated to
98039803 communicate information to patrons or their parents or guardians,
98049804 including placards, prerecorded messages, live public address, stickers,
98059805 pictures, pictograms, guide books, brochures, videos, verbal information
98069806 and visual signals.
98079807 (s) "Water slide" means a slide that is at least 35 feet in height and
98089808 that uses water to propel the patron through the ride.
98099809 Sec. 143. K.S.A. 2024 Supp. 58a-103 is hereby amended to read as
98109810 follows: 58a-103. As used in this code:
98119811 (1) "Action," with respect to an act of a trustee, includes a failure to
98129812 act.
98139813 (2) "Beneficiary" means a person that:
98149814 (A) Has a present or future beneficial interest in a trust, vested or
98159815 contingent; or
98169816 (B) in a capacity other than that of trustee, holds a power of
98179817 appointment over trust property.
98189818 (3) "Charitable trust" means a trust, or portion of a trust, created for a
98199819 charitable purpose described in K.S.A. 58a-405(a), and amendments
98209820 thereto.
98219821 (4) "Conservator" means a person appointed by the court pursuant to
98229822 K.S.A. 59-3001 et seq. section 25, and amendments thereto, to administer
98239823 the estate of a minor or adult individual.
98249824 (5) "Environmental law" means a federal, state, or local law, rule,
98259825 regulation, or ordinance relating to protection of the environment.
98269826 (6) "Guardian" means a person appointed by the court pursuant to
98279827 K.S.A. 59-3001 et seq. section 25, and amendments thereto, to make
98289828 decisions regarding the support, care, education, health, and welfare of a
98299829 minor or adult individual. The term does not include a guardian ad litem.
98309830 (7) "Interests of the beneficiaries" means the beneficial interests
98319831 provided in the terms of the trust.
98329832 (8) "Jurisdiction," with respect to a geographic area, includes a state
98339833 or country.
98349834 (9) "Person" means an individual, corporation, business trust, estate,
98359835 trust, partnership, limited liability company, association, joint venture,
98369836 government; governmental subdivision, agency, or instrumentality; public
98379837 corporation, or any other legal or commercial entity.
98389838 (10) "Power of withdrawal" means a presently exercisable general
98399839 power of appointment other than a power:
98409840 (A) Exercisable by a trustee and limited by an ascertainable standard
98419841 relating to an individuals health, education, support or maintenance within
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98859885 the meaning of section 2041(b)(1)(A) or 2514(c)(1) of the internal revenue
98869886 code of 1986, as in effect on July 1, 2022; or
98879887 (B) exercisable by another person only upon consent of the trustee or
98889888 a person holding an adverse interest.
98899889 (11) "Property" means anything that may be the subject of ownership,
98909890 whether real or personal, legal or equitable, or any interest therein.
98919891 (12) (A) "Qualified beneficiary" means a beneficiary who, as of the
98929892 date in question, either is eligible to receive mandatory or discretionary
98939893 distributions of trust income or principal, or would be so eligible if the
98949894 trust terminated on that date.
98959895 (B) For the purpose of trustee determining "qualified beneficiaries" of
98969896 a trust in which a beneficial interest is subject to a power of appointment
98979897 of any nature, the trustee may conclusively presume such power of
98989898 appointment has not been exercised unless the trustee has been furnished
98999899 by the powerholder or the legal representative of the powerholder or the
99009900 powerholder's estate with the original or a copy of an instrument validly
99019901 exercising such power of appointment, in which event the qualified
99029902 beneficiaries shall be subsequently determined by giving due consideration
99039903 to such exercise unless and until the trustee has been given notification in a
99049904 similar manner of an instrument which validly revokes or modifies such
99059905 exercise.
99069906 (13) "Revocable," as applied to a trust, means revocable by the settlor
99079907 without the consent of the trustee or a person holding an adverse interest.
99089908 (14) "Settlor" means a person, including a testator, who creates, or
99099909 contributes property to, a trust. If more than one person creates or
99109910 contributes property to a trust, each person is a settlor of the portion of the
99119911 trust property attributable to that person's contribution except to the extent
99129912 another person has the power to revoke or withdraw that portion.
99139913 (15) "Spendthrift provision" means a term of a trust which restrains
99149914 either voluntary or involuntary transfer of a beneficiary's interest.
99159915 (16) "State" means a state of the United States, the District of
99169916 Columbia, Puerto Rico, the United States Virgin Islands, or any territory or
99179917 insular possession subject to the jurisdiction of the United States. The term
99189918 includes an Indian tribe or band recognized by federal law or formally
99199919 acknowledged by a state.
99209920 (17) "Terms of a trust" means:
99219921 (A) Except as otherwise provided in subparagraph (B), the
99229922 manifestation of the settlor's intent regarding a trust's provisions as:
99239923 (i) Expressed in the trust instrument; or
99249924 (ii) established by other evidence that would be admissible in a
99259925 judicial proceeding; or
99269926 (B) the trust's provisions as established, determined, or amended by:
99279927 (i) A trustee or person holding a power to direct under K.S.A. 58a-
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99719971 808, and amendments thereto, in accordance with applicable law;
99729972 (ii) court order; or
99739973 (iii) a nonjudicial settlement agreement under K.S.A. 58a-111, and
99749974 amendments thereto.
99759975 (18) "Trust instrument" means an instrument executed by the settlor
99769976 that contains terms of the trust, including any amendments thereto.
99779977 (19) "Trustee" includes an original, additional, and successor trustee,
99789978 and a cotrustee.
99799979 Sec. 144. K.S.A. 2024 Supp. 58-656 is hereby amended to read as
99809980 follows: 58-656. (a) An attorney in fact who elects to act under a power of
99819981 attorney is under a duty to act in the interest of the principal and to avoid
99829982 conflicts of interest that impair the ability of the attorney in fact so to act.
99839983 A person who is appointed an attorney in fact under a power of attorney
99849984 who undertakes to exercise the authority conferred in the power of
99859985 attorney, has a fiduciary obligation to exercise the powers conferred in the
99869986 best interests of the principal, and to avoid self-dealing and conflicts of
99879987 interest, as in the case of a trustee with respect to the trustee's beneficiary
99889988 or beneficiaries. The attorney in fact shall keep a record of receipts,
99899989 disbursements and transactions made on behalf of the principal and shall
99909990 not comingle funds or assets of the principal with the funds or assets of the
99919991 attorney in fact. In the absence of explicit authorization, the attorney in
99929992 fact shall exercise a high degree of care in maintaining, without
99939993 modification, any estate plan which the principal may have in place,
99949994 including, but not limited to, arrangements made by the principal for
99959995 disposition of assets at death through beneficiary designations, ownership
99969996 by joint tenancy or tenancy by the entirety, trust arrangements or by will or
99979997 codicil. Unless otherwise provided in the power of attorney or in a separate
99989998 agreement between the principal and attorney in fact, an attorney in fact
99999999 who elects to act shall exercise the authority granted in a power of attorney
1000010000 with that degree of care that would be observed by a prudent person
1000110001 dealing with the property and conducting the affairs of another, except that
1000210002 all investments made on or after July 1, 2003, shall be in accordance with
1000310003 the provisions of the Kansas uniform prudent investor act, K.S.A. 58-
1000410004 24a01 et seq., and amendments thereto. If the attorney in fact has special
1000510005 skills or was appointed attorney in fact on the basis of representations of
1000610006 special skills or expertise, the attorney in fact has a duty to use those skills
1000710007 in the principal's behalf.
1000810008 (b) On matters undertaken or to be undertaken in the principal's
1000910009 behalf and to the extent reasonably possible under the circumstances, an
1001010010 attorney in fact has a duty to keep in regular contact with the principal, to
1001110011 communicate with the principal and to obtain and follow the instructions
1001210012 of the principal.
1001310013 (c) If, following execution of a durable power of attorney, a court of
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1005710057 the principal's domicile appoints a conservator, guardian of the estate or
1005810058 other fiduciary charged with the management of all of the principal's
1005910059 property or all of the principal's property except specified exclusions, the
1006010060 attorney in fact is accountable to the fiduciary as well as to the principal.
1006110061 The fiduciary has the same power to revoke or amend the durable power of
1006210062 attorney that the principal would have had if the principal were not an
1006310063 adult with an impairment in need of a guardian or conservator or both as
1006410064 defined by subsection (a) of K.S.A. 59-3051 section 25, and amendments
1006510065 thereto.
1006610066 (d) A principal may nominate by a power of attorney, a guardian or
1006710067 conservator, or both, for consideration by the court. If a petition to appoint
1006810068 a guardian or conservator, or both, is filed, the court shall make the
1006910069 appointment in accordance with the principal's most recent nomination in
1007010070 the power of attorney, so long as the individual nominated is a fit and
1007110071 proper person.
1007210072 (e) An attorney in fact shall exercise authority granted by the
1007310073 principal in accordance with the instrument setting forth the power of
1007410074 attorney, any modification made therein by the principal or the principal's
1007510075 legal representative or a court, and the oral and written instructions of the
1007610076 principal, or the written instructions of the principal's legal representative
1007710077 or a court.
1007810078 (f) An attorney in fact may be instructed in a power of attorney that
1007910079 the authority granted shall not be exercised until, or shall terminate on, the
1008010080 happening of a future event, condition or contingency, as determined in a
1008110081 manner prescribed in the instrument.
1008210082 (g) On the death of the principal, the attorney in fact shall follow the
1008310083 instructions of the court, if any, having jurisdiction over the estate of the
1008410084 principal, or any part thereof, and shall communicate with and be
1008510085 accountable to the principal's personal representative, or if none, the
1008610086 principal's successors. The attorney in fact shall promptly deliver to and
1008710087 put in the possession and control of the principal's personal representative
1008810088 or successors, any property of the principal and copies of any records of
1008910089 the attorney in fact relating to transactions undertaken in the principal's
1009010090 behalf that are deemed by the personal representative or the court to be
1009110091 necessary or helpful in the administration of the decedent's estate.
1009210092 (h) If an attorney in fact has a property or contract interest in the
1009310093 subject of the power of attorney or the authority of the attorney in fact is
1009410094 otherwise coupled with an interest in a person other than the principal, this
1009510095 section does not impose any duties on the attorney in fact that would
1009610096 conflict or be inconsistent with that interest.
1009710097 Sec. 145. K.S.A. 58-662 is hereby amended to read as follows: 58-
1009810098 662. (a) The principal may petition the court for an accounting by the
1009910099 principal's attorney in fact or the legal representative of the attorney in
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1014310143 fact. If the principal is disabled or deceased, a petition for accounting may
1014410144 be filed by the principal's legal representative, an adult member of the
1014510145 principal's family or any person interested in the welfare of the principal.
1014610146 (b) Any requirement for an accounting may be waived or an
1014710147 accounting may be approved by the court without hearing, if the
1014810148 accounting is waived or approved by a principal who is not disabled, or by
1014910149 a principal whose legal capacity has been restored, or by all creditors and
1015010150 distributees of a deceased principal's estate whose claims or distributions
1015110151 theretofore have not been satisfied in full. The approval or waiver shall be
1015210152 in writing, signed by the affected persons and filed with the court.
1015310153 (c) For the purposes of subsection (b), a legal representative or a
1015410154 person providing services to the principal's estate shall not be considered a
1015510155 creditor of the principal's estate. No express approval or waiver shall be
1015610156 required from the legal representative of a disabled principal if the
1015710157 principal's legal capacity has been restored, or from the personal
1015810158 representative of a deceased principal's estate, or from any other person
1015910159 entitled to compensation or expense for services rendered to a disabled or
1016010160 deceased principal's estate, unless the principal or the principal's estate is
1016110161 unable to pay in full the compensation and expense to which the person
1016210162 rendering the services may be entitled.
1016310163 (d) The principal, the principal's attorney in fact, an adult member of
1016410164 the principal's family or any person interested in the welfare of the
1016510165 principal may petition the district court in the county where the principal is
1016610166 then residing to determine and declare whether a principal, who has
1016710167 executed a power of attorney, is a disabled person.
1016810168 (e) If the principal is a disabled person, on petition of the principal's
1016910169 legal representative, an adult member of the principal's family or any
1017010170 interested person, including a person interested in the welfare of the
1017110171 principal, for good cause shown, the court may:
1017210172 (1) Order the attorney in fact to exercise or refrain from exercising
1017310173 authority in a durable power of attorney in a particular manner or for a
1017410174 particular purpose;
1017510175 (2) modify the authority of an attorney in fact under a durable power
1017610176 of attorney;
1017710177 (3) declare suspended a power of attorney that is nondurable;
1017810178 (4) terminate a durable power of attorney;
1017910179 (5) remove the attorney in fact under a durable power of attorney;
1018010180 (6) confirm the authority of an attorney in fact or a successor attorney
1018110181 in fact to act under a durable power of attorney; and
1018210182 (7) issue such other orders as the court finds will be in the best
1018310183 interest of the disabled principal, including appointment of a conservator
1018410184 for the principal pursuant to K.S.A. 59-3050, et seq. the Kansas uniform
1018510185 guardianship, conservatorship and other protective arrangements act,
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1022910229 sections 24 through 135, and amendments thereto.
1023010230 (f) In addition to any other remedies available under law, if after
1023110231 notice and hearing, the court determines that there has been a showing that
1023210232 the principal is a disabled person and that the attorney in fact has breached
1023310233 such attorney in fact's fiduciary duty to the principal or that there is a
1023410234 reasonable likelihood that such attorney in fact may do so in the immediate
1023510235 future, the court, in its discretion, may issue an order that some or all of
1023610236 the authority granted by the durable power of attorney be suspended or
1023710237 modified, and that a different attorney in fact be authorized to exercise
1023810238 some or all of the powers granted by the durable power of attorney. Such
1023910239 attorney in fact may be designated by the court. The court may require any
1024010240 person petitioning for any such order to file a bond in such amount and
1024110241 with such sureties as required by the court to indemnify either the attorney
1024210242 in fact who has been acting on behalf of the principal or the principal and
1024310243 the principal's successors in interest for the expenses, including attorney
1024410244 fees, incurred by any such persons with respect to such proceeding. The
1024510245 court, after hearing, may allow payment or enter judgment. None of the
1024610246 actions described in this subsection shall be taken by the court until after
1024710247 hearing upon reasonable notice to all persons identified in a verified
1024810248 statement supplied by the petitioner who is requesting such action
1024910249 identifying the immediate relatives of the principal and any other persons
1025010250 known to the petitioner to be interested in the welfare of the principal.
1025110251 Except that in the event of an emergency as determined by the court, the
1025210252 court, without notice, may enter such temporary order as seems proper to
1025310253 the court, but no such temporary order shall be effective for more than 30
1025410254 days unless extended by the court after hearing on reasonable notice to the
1025510255 persons identified as herein provided in this subsection.
1025610256 (g) If a power of attorney is suspended or terminated by the court or
1025710257 the attorney in fact is removed by the court, the court may require an
1025810258 accounting from the attorney in fact and order delivery of any property
1025910259 belonging to the principal and copies of any necessary records of the
1026010260 attorney in fact concerning the principal's property and affairs to a
1026110261 successor attorney in fact or the principal's legal representative.
1026210262 (h) In a proceeding under this act or in any other proceeding, or upon
1026310263 petition of an attorney in fact or successor, the court may:
1026410264 (1) Require or permit an attorney in fact under a power of attorney to
1026510265 account;
1026610266 (2) authorize the attorney in fact under a power of attorney to enter
1026710267 into any transaction, or approve, ratify, confirm and validate any
1026810268 transaction entered into by the attorney in fact that the court finds is, was
1026910269 or will be beneficial to the principal and which the court has power to
1027010270 authorize for a conservator pursuant to K.S.A. 59-3050 et seq. the Kansas
1027110271 uniform guardianship, conservatorship and other protective arrangements
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1031510315 act, sections 24 through 135, and amendments thereto; and
1031610316 (3) relieve the attorney in fact of any obligation to exercise authority
1031710317 for a disabled principal under a durable power of attorney.
1031810318 (i) Unless previously barred by adjudication, consent or limitation,
1031910319 any cause of action against an attorney in fact or successor for breach of
1032010320 duty to the principal shall be barred as to any principal who has received
1032110321 an account or other statement fully disclosing the matter unless a
1032210322 proceeding to assert the cause of action is commenced within two years
1032310323 after receipt of the account or statement by the principal or, if the principal
1032410324 is a disabled person, by a guardian or conservator of the disabled person's
1032510325 estate. If a disabled person has no guardian or conservator of the disabled
1032610326 person's estate at the time an account or statement is presented, then the
1032710327 cause of action shall not be barred until one year after the removal of the
1032810328 principal's disability or incapacity, one year after the appointment of a
1032910329 conservator for the principal or one year after the death of the principal.
1033010330 The cause of action thus barred does not include any action to recover
1033110331 from an attorney in fact or successor for fraud, misrepresentation or
1033210332 concealment related to the settlement of any transaction involving the
1033310333 agency relationship of the attorney in fact with the principal.
1033410334 Sec. 146. K.S.A. 58-24a15 is hereby amended to read as follows: 58-
1033510335 24a15. Conservators shall not invest funds under their control and
1033610336 management in investments other than those specifically permitted by
1033710337 K.S.A. 59-3078 sections 99 and 100, and amendments thereto, except
1033810338 upon the entry of an order of a court of competent jurisdiction, after a
1033910339 hearing on a verified petition. Before authorizing any such investment, the
1034010340 court shall require evidence of value and advisability of such purchase.
1034110341 Sec. 147. K.S.A. 2024 Supp. 58-4802 is hereby amended to read as
1034210342 follows: 58-4802. In this act:
1034310343 (a) "Account" means an arrangement under a terms-of-service
1034410344 agreement in which a custodian carries, maintains, processes, receives or
1034510345 stores a digital asset of the user or provides goods or services to the user.
1034610346 (b) "Agent" means an attorney-in-fact granted authority under a
1034710347 durable or nondurable power of attorney.
1034810348 (c) "Carries" means engages in the transmission of an electronic
1034910349 communication.
1035010350 (d) "Catalogue of electronic communications" means information that
1035110351 identifies each person with which a user has had an electronic
1035210352 communication, the time and date of the communication and the electronic
1035310353 address of the person.
1035410354 (e) "Conservatee" means an individual for whom a conservator has
1035510355 been appointed.
1035610356 (f) "Conservator" means a person appointed by a court pursuant to
1035710357 K.S.A. 59-3050 et seq. the Kansas uniform guardianship, conservatorship
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1040110401 and other protective arrangements act, sections 24 through 135, and
1040210402 amendments thereto, to manage the estate of a minor or adult individual.
1040310403 The term includes a temporary conservator.
1040410404 (g) "Content of an electronic communication" means information
1040510405 concerning the substance or meaning of the communication which:
1040610406 (1) Has been sent or received by a user;
1040710407 (2) is in electronic storage by a custodian providing an electronic
1040810408 communication service to the public or is carried or maintained by a
1040910409 custodian providing a remote computing service to the public; and
1041010410 (3) is not readily accessible to the public.
1041110411 (h) "Court" means the district court.
1041210412 (i) "Custodian" means a person that carries, maintains, processes,
1041310413 receives or stores a digital asset of a user.
1041410414 (j) "Designated recipient" means a person chosen by a user using an
1041510415 online tool to administer digital assets of the user.
1041610416 (k) "Digital asset" means an electronic record in which an individual
1041710417 has a right or interest. The term does not include an underlying asset or
1041810418 liability unless the asset or liability is itself an electronic record.
1041910419 (l) "Electronic" means relating to technology having electrical,
1042010420 digital, magnetic, wireless, optical, electromagnetic or similar capabilities.
1042110421 (m) "Electronic communication" has the meaning set forth in 18
1042210422 U.S.C. § 2510(12).
1042310423 (n) "Electronic communication service" means a custodian that
1042410424 provides to a user the ability to send or receive an electronic
1042510425 communication.
1042610426 (o) "Fiduciary" means an original, additional or successor personal
1042710427 representative, guardian, conservator, agent or trustee.
1042810428 (p) "Guardian" means a person appointed by the court pursuant to
1042910429 K.S.A. 59-3050 et seq. the Kansas uniform guardianship, conservatorship
1043010430 and other protective arrangements act, sections 24 through 135, and
1043110431 amendments thereto, to make decisions regarding the support, care,
1043210432 education, health and welfare of a minor or adult individual. The term
1043310433 includes a temporary guardian but does not include a guardian ad litem.
1043410434 (q) "Information" means data, text, images, videos, sounds, codes,
1043510435 computer programs, software, databases or the like.
1043610436 (r) "Online tool" means an electronic service provided by a custodian
1043710437 that allows the user, in an agreement distinct from the terms-of-service
1043810438 agreement between the custodian and user, to provide directions for
1043910439 disclosure or nondisclosure of digital assets to a third person.
1044010440 (s) "Person" means an individual, estate, business or nonprofit entity,
1044110441 public corporation, government or governmental subdivision, agency or
1044210442 instrumentality, or other legal entity.
1044310443 (t) "Personal representative" means an executor, administrator, special
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1048710487 administrator or person that performs substantially the same function
1048810488 under law of this state other than this act.
1048910489 (u) "Power of attorney" means a record that grants an agent authority
1049010490 to act on behalf of a principal.
1049110491 (v) "Principal" means an individual who grants authority to an agent
1049210492 in a power of attorney.
1049310493 (w) "Record" means information that is inscribed on a tangible
1049410494 medium or that is stored in an electronic or other medium and is
1049510495 retrievable in perceivable form.
1049610496 (x) "Remote computing service" means a custodian that provides to a
1049710497 user computer-processing services or the storage of digital assets by means
1049810498 of an electronic communications system, as defined in 18 U.S.C. §
1049910499 2510(14).
1050010500 (y) "Terms of service agreement" means an agreement that controls
1050110501 the relationship between a user and a custodian.
1050210502 (z) "Trustee" means a fiduciary with legal title to property under an
1050310503 agreement or declaration that creates a beneficial interest in another. The
1050410504 term includes a successor trustee.
1050510505 (aa) "User" means a person that has an account with a custodian.
1050610506 (bb) "Ward" means an individual for whom a guardian has been
1050710507 appointed.
1050810508 (cc) "Will" includes a codicil, a testamentary instrument that only
1050910509 appoints an executor and an instrument that revokes or revises a
1051010510 testamentary instrument.
1051110511 Sec. 148. K.S.A. 2024 Supp. 58-4814 is hereby amended to read as
1051210512 follows: 58-4814. (a) After an opportunity for a hearing under K.S.A. 59-
1051310513 3050 et seq. the Kansas uniform guardianship, conservatorship and other
1051410514 protective arrangements act, sections 24 through 135, and amendments
1051510515 thereto, the court may grant a guardian or conservator access to the digital
1051610516 assets of a ward or conservatee.
1051710517 (b) Unless otherwise ordered by the court or directed by the user, a
1051810518 custodian shall disclose to a guardian or conservator the catalogue of
1051910519 electronic communications sent or received by a ward or conservatee and
1052010520 any digital assets, other than the content of electronic communications, in
1052110521 which the ward or conservatee has a right or interest if the guardian or
1052210522 conservator gives the custodian:
1052310523 (1) A written request for disclosure in physical or electronic form;
1052410524 (2) a certified copy of the court order that gives the guardian or
1052510525 conservator authority over the digital assets of the ward or conservatee;
1052610526 and
1052710527 (3) if requested by the custodian:
1052810528 (A) A number, username, address or other unique subscriber or
1052910529 account identifier assigned by the custodian to identify the account of the
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1057310573 ward or conservatee; or
1057410574 (B) evidence linking the account to the ward or conservatee.
1057510575 (c) A guardian or conservator with general authority to manage the
1057610576 assets of a ward or conservatee may request a custodian of the digital
1057710577 assets of the ward or conservatee to suspend or terminate an account of the
1057810578 ward or conservatee for good cause. A request made under this section
1057910579 must be accompanied by a certified copy of the court order giving the
1058010580 guardian or conservator authority over the ward or conservatee's property.
1058110581 Sec. 149. K.S.A. 59-1701 is hereby amended to read as follows: 59-
1058210582 1701. (a) No bank, savings and loan association or other corporation shall
1058310583 be appointed or authorized directly or indirectly to act as a fiduciary in this
1058410584 state except:
1058510585 (1) A bank, savings and loan association or other corporation
1058610586 organized under the laws of, and having its principal place of business in,
1058710587 this state;
1058810588 (2) a national bank, federal savings bank or federal savings and loan
1058910589 association located in this state;
1059010590 (3) a bank, savings and loan association or other corporation
1059110591 organized under the laws of, and having its principal place of business in,
1059210592 another state which permits a bank, savings and loan association or other
1059310593 corporation which is similarly organized in this state to act in a like
1059410594 fiduciary capacity in the other state under similar conditions;
1059510595 (4) a national bank, federal savings bank or federal savings and loan
1059610596 association located in another state which permits a national bank, federal
1059710597 savings bank or federal savings and loan association located in this state to
1059810598 act in a like fiduciary capacity in the other state under similar conditions;
1059910599 (5) a nonprofit corporation certified in accordance with K.S.A. 59-
1060010600 3070 section 35, and amendments thereto, to the extent provided by that
1060110601 statute; or
1060210602 (6) as provided in K.S.A. 59-1707 and 59-1708, and amendments
1060310603 thereto.
1060410604 (b) No officer, employee or agent of a bank, savings and loan
1060510605 association or corporation which is not authorized to act as a fiduciary in
1060610606 this state shall be permitted to act as a fiduciary, whether such officer,
1060710607 employee or agent is a resident or a nonresident of this state, when in fact
1060810608 such officer, employee or agent is acting as a fiduciary on behalf of such
1060910609 bank, savings and loan association or corporation.
1061010610 (c) No bank, savings and loan association or other corporation, other
1061110611 than a nonprofit corporation certified in accordance with K.S.A. 59-3070
1061210612 section 35, and amendments thereto, shall be appointed guardian of the
1061310613 person of a ward.
1061410614 Sec. 150. K.S.A. 2024 Supp. 59-2401a is hereby amended to read as
1061510615 follows: 59-2401a. (a) An appeal by an interested party from a district
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1065910659 magistrate judge who is not regularly admitted to practice law in Kansas to
1066010660 a district judge may be taken no later than 14 days from any final order,
1066110661 judgment or decree entered in any proceeding pursuant to:
1066210662 (1) The Kansas adoption and relinquishment act, K.S.A. 59-2111 et
1066310663 seq., and amendments thereto;
1066410664 (2) the care and treatment act for mentally ill persons, K.S.A. 59-
1066510665 2945 et seq., and amendments thereto;
1066610666 (3) the care and treatment act for persons with an alcohol or substance
1066710667 abuse problem, K.S.A. 59-29b45 et seq., and amendments thereto; or
1066810668 (4) the act for obtaining a guardian or conservator, or both, K.S.A.
1066910669 59-3050 et seq. Kansas uniform guardianship, conservatorship and other
1067010670 protective arrangements act, sections 24 through 135, and amendments
1067110671 thereto.
1067210672 The appeal shall be heard no later than 30 days from the date the notice
1067310673 of appeal is filed. If no record was made of the proceedings, the trial shall
1067410674 be de novo. Except as provided further, if a record was made of the
1067510675 proceedings, the district judge shall conduct the appeal on the record.
1067610676 Upon motion of any party to the proceedings, the district judge may hold a
1067710677 trial de novo.
1067810678 (b) An appeal by an interested party from a district judge, or a district
1067910679 magistrate judge who is regularly admitted to practice law in Kansas, to an
1068010680 appellate court shall be taken pursuant to article 21 of chapter 60 of the
1068110681 Kansas Statutes Annotated, and amendments thereto, from any final order,
1068210682 judgment or decree entered in any proceeding pursuant to:
1068310683 (1) The Kansas adoption and relinquishment act, K.S.A. 59-2111 et
1068410684 seq., and amendments thereto;
1068510685 (2) the care and treatment act for mentally ill persons, K.S.A. 59-
1068610686 2945 et seq., and amendments thereto;
1068710687 (3) the Kansas sexually violent predator act, K.S.A. 59-29a01 et seq.,
1068810688 and amendments thereto;
1068910689 (4) the care and treatment act for persons with an alcohol or substance
1069010690 abuse problem, K.S.A. 59-29b45 et seq., and amendments thereto; or
1069110691 (5) the act for obtaining a guardian or conservator, or both, K.S.A.
1069210692 59-3050 et seq. Kansas uniform guardianship, conservatorship and other
1069310693 protective arrangements act, sections 24 through 135, and amendments
1069410694 thereto.
1069510695 Except for appeals under the Kansas judicial review act and cases
1069610696 otherwise specifically provided for by law, appeals under this section shall
1069710697 have priority over all others.
1069810698 (c) Pending the determination of an appeal pursuant to subsection (a)
1069910699 or (b), any order appealed from shall continue in force unless modified by
1070010700 temporary orders entered by the court hearing the appeal. The supersedeas
1070110701 bond provided for in K.S.A. 60-2103, and amendments thereto, shall not
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1074510745 stay proceedings under an appeal from the district court to an appellate
1074610746 court.
1074710747 (d) In an appeal taken pursuant to subsection (a) or (b), the court from
1074810748 which the appeal is taken may require an appropriate party, other than the
1074910749 state of Kansas, any subdivision thereof, and all cities and counties in this
1075010750 state, to file a bond in such sum and with such sureties as may be fixed and
1075110751 approved by the court to ensure that the appeal will be prosecuted without
1075210752 unnecessary delay and to ensure the payment of all judgments and any
1075310753 sums, damages and costs that may be adjudged against that party.
1075410754 (e) As used in this section, "interested party" means:
1075510755 (1) The parent in a proceeding pursuant to the Kansas adoption and
1075610756 relinquishment act, K.S.A. 59-2111 et seq., and amendments thereto;
1075710757 (2) the patient under the care and treatment act for mentally ill
1075810758 persons, K.S.A. 59-2945 et seq., and amendments thereto;
1075910759 (3) the patient under the care and treatment act for persons with an
1076010760 alcohol or substance abuse problem, K.S.A. 59-29b45 et seq., and
1076110761 amendments thereto;
1076210762 (4) the person adjudicated a sexually violent predator under the
1076310763 Kansas sexually violent predator act, K.S.A. 59-29a01 et seq., and
1076410764 amendments thereto;
1076510765 (5) the ward or conservatee under the act for obtaining a guardian or
1076610766 conservator, or both, K.S.A. 59-3050 et seq. Kansas uniform
1076710767 guardianship, conservatorship and other protective arrangements act,
1076810768 sections 24 through 135, and amendments thereto;
1076910769 (6) the parent of a minor person adjudicated a ward or conservatee
1077010770 under the act for obtaining a guardian or conservator, or both, K.S.A. 59-
1077110771 3050 et seq. Kansas uniform guardianship, conservatorship and other
1077210772 protective arrangements act, sections 24 through 135, and amendments
1077310773 thereto;
1077410774 (7) the petitioner in the case on appeal; and
1077510775 (8) any other person granted interested party status by the court from
1077610776 which the appeal is being taken.
1077710777 (f) This section shall be part of and supplemental to the Kansas
1077810778 probate code.
1077910779 Sec. 151. K.S.A. 2024 Supp. 59-29b46 is hereby amended to read as
1078010780 follows: 59-29b46. When used in the care and treatment act for persons
1078110781 with an alcohol or substance abuse problem:
1078210782 (a) "Discharge" means the final and complete release from treatment,
1078310783 by either the head of a treatment facility acting pursuant to K.S.A. 59-
1078410784 29b50, and amendments thereto, or by an order of a court issued pursuant
1078510785 to K.S.A. 59-29b73, and amendments thereto.
1078610786 (b) "Head of a treatment facility" means the administrative director of
1078710787 a treatment facility or such person's designee.
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1083110831 (c) "Law enforcement officer" means the same as defined in K.S.A.
1083210832 22-2202, and amendments thereto.
1083310833 (d) "Licensed addiction counselor" means a person who engages in
1083410834 the practice of addiction counseling limited to substance use disorders and
1083510835 who is licensed by the behavioral sciences regulatory board. Such person
1083610836 shall engage in the practice of addiction counseling in a state-licensed or
1083710837 certified alcohol and other drug treatment program or while completing a
1083810838 Kansas domestic violence offender assessment for participants in a
1083910839 certified batterer intervention program pursuant to K.S.A. 75-7d01 through
1084010840 75-7d13, and amendments thereto, unless otherwise exempt from licensure
1084110841 under subsection (n).
1084210842 (e) "Licensed clinical addiction counselor" means a person who
1084310843 engages in the independent practice of addiction counseling and diagnosis
1084410844 and treatment of substance use disorders specified in the edition of the
1084510845 American psychiatric association's diagnostic and statistical manual of
1084610846 mental disorders (DSM) designated by the board by rules and regulations
1084710847 and is licensed by the behavioral sciences regulatory board.
1084810848 (f) "Licensed master's addiction counselor" means a person who
1084910849 engages in the practice of addiction counseling limited to substance use
1085010850 disorders and who is licensed under this act. Such person may diagnose
1085110851 substance use disorders only under the direction of a licensed clinical
1085210852 addiction counselor, a licensed psychologist, a person licensed to practice
1085310853 medicine and surgery or a person licensed to provide mental health
1085410854 services as an independent practitioner and whose licensure allows for the
1085510855 diagnosis and treatment of substance abuse disorders or mental disorders.
1085610856 (g) "Other facility for care or treatment" means any mental health
1085710857 clinic, medical care facility, nursing home, the detox units at either
1085810858 Osawatomie state hospital or Larned state hospital, any physician or any
1085910859 other institution or individual authorized or licensed by law to give care or
1086010860 treatment to any person.
1086110861 (h) "Patient" means a person who is a voluntary patient, a proposed
1086210862 patient or an involuntary patient.
1086310863 (1) "Voluntary patient" means a person who is receiving treatment at
1086410864 a treatment facility pursuant to K.S.A. 59-29b49, and amendments thereto.
1086510865 (2) "Proposed patient" means a person for whom a petition pursuant
1086610866 to K.S.A. 59-29b52 or 59-29b57, and amendments thereto, has been filed.
1086710867 (3) "Involuntary patient" means a person who is receiving treatment
1086810868 under order of a court or a person admitted and detained by a treatment
1086910869 facility pursuant to an application filed pursuant to K.S.A. 59-29b54(b) or
1087010870 (c), and amendments thereto.
1087110871 (i) "Person with an alcohol or substance abuse problem" means a
1087210872 person who: (1) Lacks self-control as to the use of alcoholic beverages or
1087310873 any substance as defined in subsection (m); or
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1091710917 (2) uses alcoholic beverages or any substance to the extent that the
1091810918 person's health may be substantially impaired or endangered without
1091910919 treatment.
1092010920 (j) (1) "Person with an alcohol or substance abuse problem subject to
1092110921 involuntary commitment for care and treatment" means a person with an
1092210922 alcohol or substance abuse problem who also is incapacitated by alcohol or
1092310923 any substance and is likely to cause harm to self or others.
1092410924 (2) "Incapacitated by alcohol or any substance" means that the
1092510925 person, as the result of the use of alcohol or any substance, has impaired
1092610926 judgment resulting in the person:
1092710927 (A) Being incapable of realizing and making a rational decision with
1092810928 respect to the need for treatment; or
1092910929 (B) lacking sufficient understanding or capability to make or
1093010930 communicate responsible decisions concerning either the person's well-
1093110931 being or estate.
1093210932 (3) "Likely to cause harm to self or others" means that the person, by
1093310933 reason of the person's use of alcohol or any substance: (A) Is likely, in the
1093410934 reasonably foreseeable future, to cause substantial physical injury or
1093510935 physical abuse to self or others or substantial damage to another's property,
1093610936 as evidenced by behavior threatening, attempting or causing such injury,
1093710937 abuse or damage; except that if the harm threatened, attempted or caused is
1093810938 only harm to the property of another, the harm must be of such a value and
1093910939 extent that the state's interest in protecting the property from such harm
1094010940 outweighs the person's interest in personal liberty; or
1094110941 (B) is substantially unable, except for reason of indigency, to provide
1094210942 for any of the person's basic needs, such as food, clothing, shelter, health
1094310943 or safety, causing a substantial deterioration of the person's ability to
1094410944 function on the person's own.
1094510945 (k) "Physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine and
1094610946 surgery as provided for in the Kansas healing arts act or a person who is
1094710947 employed by a state psychiatric hospital or by an agency of the United
1094810948 States and who is authorized by law to practice medicine and surgery
1094910949 within that hospital or agency.
1095010950 (l) "Psychologist" means a licensed psychologist, as defined by
1095110951 K.S.A. 74-5302, and amendments thereto.
1095210952 (m) "Substance" means: (1) The same as the term "controlled
1095310953 substance" as defined in K.S.A. 21-5701, and amendments thereto; or
1095410954 (2) fluorocarbons, toluene or volatile hydrocarbon solvents.
1095510955 (n) "Treatment" means the broad range of emergency, outpatient,
1095610956 intermediate and inpatient services and care, including diagnostic
1095710957 evaluation, medical, psychiatric, psychological and social service care,
1095810958 vocational rehabilitation and career counseling, which may be extended to
1095910959 persons with an alcohol or substance abuse problem.
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1100311003 (o) (1) "Treatment facility" means a treatment program, public or
1100411004 private treatment facility, or any facility of the United States government
1100511005 available to treat a person for an alcohol or other substance abuse problem,
1100611006 but such term does not include a licensed medical care facility, a licensed
1100711007 adult care home, a facility licensed under K.S.A. 2015 Supp. 75-3307b,
1100811008 prior to its repeal or under K.S.A. 39-2001 et seq., and amendments
1100911009 thereto, a community-based alcohol and drug safety action program
1101011010 certified under K.S.A. 8-1008, and amendments thereto, and performing
1101111011 only those functions for which the program is certified to perform under
1101211012 K.S.A. 8-1008, and amendments thereto, or a professional licensed by the
1101311013 behavioral sciences regulatory board to diagnose and treat mental
1101411014 disorders at the independent level or a physician, who may treat in the
1101511015 usual course of the behavioral sciences regulatory board licensee's or
1101611016 physician's professional practice individuals incapacitated by alcohol or
1101711017 other substances, but who are not primarily engaged in the usual course of
1101811018 the individual's professional practice in treating such individuals, or any
1101911019 state institution, even if detoxification services may have been obtained at
1102011020 such institution.
1102111021 (2) "Private treatment facility" means a private agency providing
1102211022 facilities for the care and treatment or lodging of persons with either an
1102311023 alcohol or other substance abuse problem and meeting the standards
1102411024 prescribed in either K.S.A. 65-4013 or 65-4603, and amendments thereto,
1102511025 and licensed under either K.S.A. 65-4014 or 65-4607, and amendments
1102611026 thereto.
1102711027 (3) "Public treatment facility" means a treatment facility owned and
1102811028 operated by any political subdivision of the state of Kansas and licensed
1102911029 under either K.S.A. 65-4014 or 65-4603, and amendments thereto, as an
1103011030 appropriate place for the care and treatment or lodging of persons with an
1103111031 alcohol or other substance abuse problem.
1103211032 (p) The terms defined in K.S.A. 59-3051 section 25, and amendments
1103311033 thereto, shall have the meanings provided by that section.
1103411034 Sec. 152. K.S.A. 2024 Supp. 59-29b48 is hereby amended to read as
1103511035 follows: 59-29b48. (a) The fact that a person may have voluntarily
1103611036 accepted any form of treatment for an alcohol or substance abuse problem,
1103711037 or become subject to a court order entered under authority of this act, shall
1103811038 not be construed to mean that such person shall have lost any civil right
1103911039 they otherwise would have as a resident or citizen, any property right or
1104011040 their legal capacity, except as may be specified within any court order or as
1104111041 otherwise limited by the provisions of this act or the reasonable rules and
1104211042 regulations which the head of a treatment facility may for good cause find
1104311043 necessary to make for the orderly operations of that facility. No person
1104411044 held in custody under the provisions of this act shall be denied the right to
1104511045 apply for a writ of habeas corpus.
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1108911089 (b) There shall be no implication or presumption that a patient within
1109011090 the terms of this act is for that reason alone a person in need of a guardian
1109111091 or a conservator, or both, as provided in K.S.A. 59-3050 through 59-3095
1109211092 the Kansas uniform guardianship, conservatorship and other protective
1109311093 arrangements act, sections 24 through 135, and amendments thereto.
1109411094 (c) A person who is a mentally ill person subject to involuntary
1109511095 commitment for care and treatment as defined in K.S.A. 59-2946, and
1109611096 amendments thereto, or a person with an alcohol or substance abuse
1109711097 problem subject to involuntary commitment for care and treatment as
1109811098 defined in K.S.A. 59-29b46, and amendments thereto, shall be subject to
1109911099 K.S.A. 21-6301, and amendments thereto.
1110011100 Sec. 153. K.S.A. 59-29b49 is hereby amended to read as follows: 59-
1110111101 29b49. (a) A person with an alcohol or substance abuse problem may be
1110211102 admitted to a treatment facility as a voluntary patient when there are
1110311103 available accommodations and the head of the treatment facility
1110411104 determines such person is in need of treatment therein, and that the person
1110511105 has the capacity to consent to treatment.
1110611106 (b) Admission shall be made upon written application:
1110711107 (1) If such person is 18 years of age or older the person may make
1110811108 such application for themself; or
1110911109 (2) (A) If such person is less than 18 years of age, a parent may make
1111011110 such application for their child; or
1111111111 (B) if such person is less than 18 years of age, but 14 years of age or
1111211112 older, the person may make such written application on their own behalf
1111311113 without the consent or written application of their parent, legal guardian or
1111411114 any other person. Whenever a person who is 14 years of age or older
1111511115 makes written application on their own behalf and is admitted as a
1111611116 voluntary patient, the head of the treatment facility shall promptly notify
1111711117 the child's parent, legal guardian or other person known to the head of the
1111811118 treatment facility to be interested in the care and welfare of the minor of
1111911119 the admittance of that child; or
1112011120 (3) if such person has a legal guardian, the legal guardian may make
1112111121 such application provided that if the legal guardian is required to obtain
1112211122 authority to do so pursuant to K.S.A. 59-3077 sections 77 and 78, and
1112311123 amendments thereto, then only in accordance with the provisions thereof.
1112411124 If the legal guardian is seeking admission of their ward upon an order
1112511125 giving the guardian continuing authority to admit the ward to a treatment
1112611126 facility as defined in K.S.A. 59-3077 sections 77 and 78, and amendments
1112711127 thereto, the head of the treatment facility may require a statement from the
1112811128 patient's attending physician or from the local health officer of the area in
1112911129 which the patient resides confirming that the patient is in need of treatment
1113011130 for an alcohol or substance abuse problem in a treatment facility before
1113111131 accepting the ward for admission, and shall divert any such person to a
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1117511175 less restrictive treatment alternative as may be appropriate.
1117611176 (c) No person shall be admitted as a voluntary patient under the
1117711177 provisions of this act to any treatment facility unless the head of the
1117811178 treatment facility has informed such person or such person's parent, legal
1117911179 guardian, or other person known to the head of the treatment facility to be
1118011180 interested in the care and welfare of a minor, in writing, of the following:
1118111181 (1) The rules and procedures of the treatment facility relating to the
1118211182 discharge of voluntary patients;
1118311183 (2) the legal rights of a voluntary patient receiving treatment from a
1118411184 treatment facility as provided for in K.S.A. 59-29b78 and amendments
1118511185 thereto; and
1118611186 (3) in general terms, the types of treatment which are available or
1118711187 would not be available to a voluntary patient from that treatment facility.
1118811188 (d) Nothing in this act shall be construed as to prohibit a proposed or
1118911189 involuntary patient with capacity to do so from making an application for
1119011190 admission as a voluntary patient to a treatment facility. Any proposed or
1119111191 involuntary patient desiring to do so shall be afforded an opportunity to
1119211192 consult with their attorney prior to making any such application. If the
1119311193 head of the treatment facility accepts the application and admits the patient
1119411194 as a voluntary patient, then the head of the treatment facility shall notify, in
1119511195 writing, the patient's attorney, the patient's legal guardian, if the patient has
1119611196 a legal guardian, and the district court which has jurisdiction over the
1119711197 patient of the patient's voluntary status. When a notice of voluntary
1119811198 admission is received, the court shall file the same which shall terminate
1119911199 the proceedings.
1120011200 Sec. 154. K.S.A. 59-29b51 is hereby amended to read as follows: 59-
1120111201 29b51. (a) A voluntary patient shall be entitled to be discharged from a
1120211202 treatment facility, by the head of the treatment facility, by no later than the
1120311203 third day, excluding Saturdays, Sundays and holidays, after receipt of the
1120411204 patient's written request for discharge.
1120511205 (b) (1) If the voluntary patient is an adult admitted upon the
1120611206 application of a legal guardian or pursuant to an order of the court issued
1120711207 pursuant to K.S.A. 59-3077 sections 77 and 78, and amendments thereto,
1120811208 any request for discharge must be made, in writing, by the legal guardian.
1120911209 (2) If the voluntary patient is a minor, the written request for
1121011210 discharge shall be made by the child's parent or legal guardian except if the
1121111211 minor was admitted upon their own written application to become a
1121211212 voluntary patient made pursuant to K.S.A. 59-29b49 and amendments
1121311213 thereto, then the minor may make the request. In the case of a minor 14 or
1121411214 more years of age who had made written application to become a
1121511215 voluntary patient on their own behalf and who has requested to be
1121611216 discharged, the head of the treatment facility shall promptly inform the
1121711217 child's parent, legal guardian or other person known to the head of the
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1126111261 treatment facility to be interested in the care and welfare of the minor of
1126211262 the minor's request for discharge.
1126311263 Sec. 155. K.S.A. 2024 Supp. 59-29b60 is hereby amended to read as
1126411264 follows: 59-29b60. (a) Upon the filing of the petition provided for in
1126511265 K.S.A. 59-29b57, and amendments thereto, the district court shall issue the
1126611266 following:
1126711267 (1) An order fixing the time and place of the trial upon the petition.
1126811268 Such hearing, in the court's discretion, may be conducted in a courtroom, a
1126911269 treatment facility or at some other suitable place. The time fixed in the
1127011270 order shall in no event be earlier than seven days or later than 14 days after
1127111271 the date of the filing of the petition. If a demand for a trial by jury is later
1127211272 filed by the proposed patient, the court may continue the trial and fix a
1127311273 new time and place of the trial at a time that may exceed beyond the 14
1127411274 days but shall be fixed within a reasonable time not exceeding 30 days
1127511275 from the date of the filing of the demand.
1127611276 (2) An order that the proposed patient appear at the time and place of
1127711277 the hearing and providing that the proposed patient's presence will be
1127811278 required at the hearing unless the attorney for the proposed patient shall
1127911279 make a request that the proposed patient's presence be waived and the
1128011280 court finds that the proposed patient's presence at the hearing would be
1128111281 injurious to the proposed patient's welfare. The order shall further provide
1128211282 that notwithstanding the foregoing provision, if the proposed patient
1128311283 requests in writing to the court or to such person's attorney that the
1128411284 proposed patient wishes to be present at the hearing, the proposed patient's
1128511285 presence cannot be waived.
1128611286 (3) An order appointing an attorney to represent the proposed patient
1128711287 at all stages of the proceedings and until all orders resulting from such
1128811288 proceedings are terminated. The court shall give preference, in the
1128911289 appointment of this attorney, to any attorney who has represented the
1129011290 proposed patient in other matters if the court has knowledge of that prior
1129111291 representation. The proposed patient shall have the right to engage an
1129211292 attorney of the proposed patient's own choice and, in such event, the
1129311293 attorney appointed by the court shall be relieved of all duties by the court.
1129411294 (4) An order that the proposed patient shall appear at a time and place
1129511295 that is in the best interests of the patient where the proposed patient will
1129611296 have the opportunity to consult with the proposed patient's court-appointed
1129711297 attorney, which time shall be at least five days prior to the date set for the
1129811298 trial under K.S.A. 59-29b65, and amendments thereto.
1129911299 (5) An order for an evaluation as provided for in K.S.A. 59-29b61,
1130011300 and amendments thereto.
1130111301 (6) A notice as provided for in K.S.A. 59-29b63, and amendments
1130211302 thereto.
1130311303 (7) If the petition also contains allegations as provided for in K.S.A.
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1134711347 59-3058, 59-3059, 59-3060, 59-3061 or 59-3062 sections 17, 18, 28, 49,
1134811348 52 or 65, and amendments thereto, those orders necessary to make a
1134911349 determination of the need for a legal guardian or conservator, or both, to
1135011350 act on behalf of the proposed patient. For these purposes, the trials
1135111351 required by K.S.A. 59-29b65 and K.S.A. 59-3067, and amendments
1135211352 thereto, sections 30, 53, 55, 66 and 70, and amendments thereto, may be
1135311353 consolidated.
1135411354 (8) If the petitioner shall not have named a proposed treatment
1135511355 facility to which the proposed patient may be sent as provided for
1135611356 subsection (b)(8) of in K.S.A. 59-29b57(b)(8), and amendments thereto,
1135711357 but instead stated that the secretary for aging and disability services has
1135811358 been notified and requested to determine which treatment facility the
1135911359 proposed patient should be sent to, then the court shall issue an order
1136011360 requiring the secretary, or the secretary's designee, to make that
1136111361 determination and to notify the court of the name and address of that
1136211362 treatment facility by such time as the court shall specify in the court's
1136311363 order.
1136411364 (b) Nothing in this section shall prevent the court from granting an
1136511365 order of continuance, for good cause shown, to any party for no longer
1136611366 than seven days, except that such limitation does not apply to a request for
1136711367 an order of continuance made by the proposed patient or to a request made
1136811368 by any party if the proposed patient is absent such that further proceedings
1136911369 can not be held until the proposed patient has been located. The court also,
1137011370 upon the request of any party, may advance the date of the hearing if
1137111371 necessary and in the best interests of all concerned.
1137211372 Sec. 156. K.S.A. 2024 Supp. 59-29c03 is hereby amended to read as
1137311373 follows: 59-29c03. (a) The fact that a person has been detained for
1137411374 emergency observation and treatment under this act shall not be construed
1137511375 to mean that such person shall have lost any civil right such person would
1137611376 otherwise have as a resident or citizen, any property right or legal capacity,
1137711377 except as may be specified within any court order or as otherwise limited
1137811378 by the provisions of this act or the reasonable policies which the head of a
1137911379 crisis intervention center may, for good cause shown, find necessary to
1138011380 make for the orderly operations of that facility. No person held in custody
1138111381 under the provisions of this act shall be denied the right to apply for a writ
1138211382 of habeas corpus. No judicial action taken as part of the procedure
1138311383 provided in K.S.A. 2024 Supp. 59-29c08(c), and amendments thereto,
1138411384 shall constitute a finding by the court.
1138511385 (b) There shall be no implication or presumption that a patient within
1138611386 the terms of this act is, for that reason alone, a person in need of a guardian
1138711387 or a conservator, or both, as provided in K.S.A. 59-3050 through 59-3097
1138811388 the Kansas uniform guardianship, conservatorship and other protective
1138911389 arrangements act, sections 24 through 135, and amendments thereto.
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1143311433 Sec. 157. K.S.A. 2024 Supp. 59-2946 is hereby amended to read as
1143411434 follows: 59-2946. When used in the care and treatment act for mentally ill
1143511435 persons:
1143611436 (a) "Discharge" means the final and complete release from treatment,
1143711437 by either the head of a treatment facility acting pursuant to K.S.A. 59-
1143811438 2950, and amendments thereto, or by an order of a court issued pursuant to
1143911439 K.S.A. 59-2973, and amendments thereto.
1144011440 (b) "Head of a treatment facility" means the administrative director of
1144111441 a treatment facility or such person's designee.
1144211442 (c) "Law enforcement officer" means the same as defined in K.S.A.
1144311443 22-2202, and amendments thereto.
1144411444 (d) (1) "Mental health center" means any community mental health
1144511445 center as defined in K.S.A. 39-2002, and amendments thereto, or a mental
1144611446 health clinic organized as a not-for-profit or a for-profit corporation
1144711447 pursuant to K.S.A. 17-1701 through 17-1775, and amendments thereto, or
1144811448 K.S.A. 17-6001 through 17-6010, and amendments thereto, and licensed in
1144911449 accordance with the provisions of K.S.A. 39-2001 et seq., and
1145011450 amendments thereto.
1145111451 (2) "Participating mental health center" means a mental health center
1145211452 that has entered into a contract with the secretary for aging and disability
1145311453 services pursuant to the provisions of K.S.A. 39-1601 through 39-1612,
1145411454 and amendments thereto.
1145511455 (e) "Mentally ill person" means any person who is suffering from a
1145611456 mental disorder that is manifested by a clinically significant behavioral or
1145711457 psychological syndrome or pattern and associated with either a painful
1145811458 symptom or an impairment in one or more important areas of functioning,
1145911459 and involving substantial behavioral, psychological or biological
1146011460 dysfunction, to the extent that the person is in need of treatment.
1146111461 (f) (1) "Mentally ill person subject to involuntary commitment for
1146211462 care and treatment" means a mentally ill person, as defined in subsection
1146311463 (e), who also lacks capacity to make an informed decision concerning
1146411464 treatment, is likely to cause harm to self or others, and whose diagnosis is
1146511465 not solely one of the following mental disorders: Alcohol or chemical
1146611466 substance abuse; antisocial personality disorder; intellectual disability;
1146711467 organic personality syndrome; or an organic mental disorder.
1146811468 (2) "Lacks capacity to make an informed decision concerning
1146911469 treatment" means that the person, by reason of the person's mental
1147011470 disorder, is unable, despite conscientious efforts at explanation, to
1147111471 understand basically the nature and effects of hospitalization or treatment
1147211472 or is unable to engage in a rational decision-making process regarding
1147311473 hospitalization or treatment, as evidenced by an inability to weigh the
1147411474 possible risks and benefits.
1147511475 (3) "Likely to cause harm to self or others" means that the person, by
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1151911519 reason of the person's mental disorder: (A) Is likely, in the reasonably
1152011520 foreseeable future, to cause substantial physical injury or physical abuse to
1152111521 self or others or substantial damage to another's property, as evidenced by
1152211522 behavior threatening, attempting or causing such injury, abuse or damage;
1152311523 except that if the harm threatened, attempted or caused is only harm to the
1152411524 property of another, the harm must be of such a value and extent that the
1152511525 state's interest in protecting the property from such harm outweighs the
1152611526 person's interest in personal liberty; or (B) is substantially unable, except
1152711527 for reason of indigency, to provide for any of the person's basic needs,
1152811528 such as food, clothing, shelter, health or safety, causing a substantial
1152911529 deterioration of the person's ability to function on the person's own.
1153011530 No person who is being treated by prayer in the practice of the religion
1153111531 of any church that teaches reliance on spiritual means alone through prayer
1153211532 for healing shall be determined to be a mentally ill person subject to
1153311533 involuntary commitment for care and treatment under this act unless
1153411534 substantial evidence is produced upon which the district court finds that
1153511535 the proposed patient is likely in the reasonably foreseeable future to cause
1153611536 substantial physical injury or physical abuse to self or others or substantial
1153711537 damage to another's property, as evidenced by behavior threatening,
1153811538 attempting or causing such injury, abuse or damage; except that if the harm
1153911539 threatened, attempted or caused is only harm to the property of another, the
1154011540 harm must be of such a value and extent that the state's interest in
1154111541 protecting the property from such harm outweighs the person's interest in
1154211542 personal liberty.
1154311543 (g) "Patient" means a person who is a voluntary patient, a proposed
1154411544 patient or an involuntary patient.
1154511545 (1) "Voluntary patient" means a person who is receiving treatment at
1154611546 a treatment facility pursuant to K.S.A. 59-2949, and amendments thereto.
1154711547 (2) "Proposed patient" means a person for whom a petition pursuant
1154811548 to K.S.A. 59-2952 or 59-2957, and amendments thereto, has been filed.
1154911549 (3) "Involuntary patient" means a person who is receiving treatment
1155011550 under order of a court or a person admitted and detained by a treatment
1155111551 facility pursuant to an application filed pursuant to K.S.A. 59-2954(b) or
1155211552 (c), and amendments thereto.
1155311553 (h) "Physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine and
1155411554 surgery as provided for in the Kansas healing arts act or a person who is
1155511555 employed by a state psychiatric hospital or by an agency of the United
1155611556 States and who is authorized by law to practice medicine and surgery
1155711557 within that hospital or agency.
1155811558 (i) "Psychologist" means a licensed psychologist, as defined by
1155911559 K.S.A. 74-5302, and amendments thereto.
1156011560 (j) "Qualified mental health professional" means a physician or
1156111561 psychologist who is employed by a participating mental health center or
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1160511605 who is providing services as a physician or psychologist under a contract
1160611606 with a participating mental health center, a licensed master's level
1160711607 psychologist, a licensed clinical psychotherapist, a licensed marriage and
1160811608 family therapist, a licensed clinical marriage and family therapist, a
1160911609 licensed professional counselor, a licensed clinical professional counselor,
1161011610 a licensed specialist social worker or a licensed master social worker or a
1161111611 registered nurse who has a specialty in psychiatric nursing, who is
1161211612 employed by a participating mental health center and who is acting under
1161311613 the direction of a physician or psychologist who is employed by, or under
1161411614 contract with, a participating mental health center.
1161511615 (1) "Direction" means monitoring and oversight including regular,
1161611616 periodic evaluation of services.
1161711617 (2) "Licensed master social worker" means a person licensed as a
1161811618 master social worker by the behavioral sciences regulatory board under
1161911619 K.S.A. 65-6301 through 65-6318, and amendments thereto.
1162011620 (3) "Licensed specialist social worker" means a person licensed in a
1162111621 social work practice specialty by the behavioral sciences regulatory board
1162211622 under K.S.A. 65-6301 through 65-6318, and amendments thereto.
1162311623 (4) "Licensed master's level psychologist" means a person licensed as
1162411624 a licensed master's level psychologist by the behavioral sciences regulatory
1162511625 board under K.S.A. 74-5361 through 74-5373, and amendments thereto.
1162611626 (5) "Registered nurse" means a person licensed as a registered
1162711627 professional nurse by the board of nursing under K.S.A. 65-1113 through
1162811628 65-1164, and amendments thereto.
1162911629 (k) "Secretary" means the secretary for aging and disability services.
1163011630 (l) "State psychiatric hospital" means Larned state hospital,
1163111631 Osawatomie state hospital or Rainbow mental health facility.
1163211632 (m) "Treatment" means any service intended to promote the mental
1163311633 health of the patient and rendered by a qualified professional, licensed or
1163411634 certified by the state to provide such service as an independent practitioner
1163511635 or under the supervision of such practitioner.
1163611636 (n) "Treatment facility" means any mental health center or clinic,
1163711637 psychiatric unit of a medical care facility, state psychiatric hospital,
1163811638 psychologist, physician or other institution or person authorized or
1163911639 licensed by law to provide either inpatient or outpatient treatment to any
1164011640 patient.
1164111641 (o) The terms defined in K.S.A. 59-3051 section 25, and amendments
1164211642 thereto, shall have the meanings provided by that section.
1164311643 Sec. 158. K.S.A. 2024 Supp. 59-2948 is hereby amended to read as
1164411644 follows: 59-2948. (a) The fact that a person may have voluntarily accepted
1164511645 any form of psychiatric treatment, or become subject to a court order
1164611646 entered under authority of this act, shall not be construed to mean that such
1164711647 person shall have lost any civil right they otherwise would have as a
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1169111691 resident or citizen, any property right or their legal capacity, except as may
1169211692 be specified within any court order or as otherwise limited by the
1169311693 provisions of this act or the reasonable rules and regulations which the
1169411694 head of a treatment facility may for good cause find necessary to make for
1169511695 the orderly operations of that facility. No person held in custody under the
1169611696 provisions of this act shall be denied the right to apply for a writ of habeas
1169711697 corpus.
1169811698 (b) There shall be no implication or presumption that a patient within
1169911699 the terms of this act is for that reason alone a person in need of a guardian
1170011700 or a conservator as provided for in K.S.A. 59-3050 through 59-3095 the
1170111701 Kansas uniform guardianship, conservatorship and other protective
1170211702 arrangements act, sections 24 through 135, and amendments thereto.
1170311703 (c) A person who is a mentally ill person subject to involuntary
1170411704 commitment for care and treatment as defined in K.S.A. 59-2946, and
1170511705 amendments thereto, or a person with an alcohol or substance abuse
1170611706 problem subject to involuntary commitment for care and treatment as
1170711707 defined in K.S.A. 59-29b46, and amendments thereto, shall be subject to
1170811708 K.S.A. 21-6301, and amendments thereto.
1170911709 Sec. 159. K.S.A. 59-2949 is hereby amended to read as follows: 59-
1171011710 2949. (a) A mentally ill person may be admitted to a treatment facility as a
1171111711 voluntary patient when there are available accommodations and the head
1171211712 of the treatment facility determines such person is in need of treatment
1171311713 therein, and that the person has the capacity to consent to treatment, except
1171411714 that no such person shall be admitted to a state psychiatric hospital without
1171511715 a written statement from a qualified mental health professional authorizing
1171611716 such admission.
1171711717 (b) Admission shall be made upon written application:
1171811718 (1) If such person is 18 years of age or older the person may make
1171911719 such application for themself; or
1172011720 (2) (A) If such person is less than 18 years of age, a parent may make
1172111721 such application for their child; or
1172211722 (B) if such person is less than 18 years of age, but 14 years of age or
1172311723 older the person may make such written application on their own behalf
1172411724 without the consent or written application of their parent, legal guardian or
1172511725 any other person. Whenever a person who is 14 years of age or older
1172611726 makes written application on their own behalf and is admitted as a
1172711727 voluntary patient, the head of the treatment facility shall promptly notify
1172811728 the child's parent, legal guardian or other person known to the head of the
1172911729 treatment facility to be interested in the care and welfare of the minor of
1173011730 the admittance of that child; or
1173111731 (3) if such person has a legal guardian, the legal guardian may make
1173211732 such application provided that if the legal guardian is required to obtain
1173311733 authority to do so pursuant to K.S.A. 59-3077 section 78, and amendments
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1177711777 thereto. If the legal guardian is seeking admission of their ward upon an
1177811778 order giving the guardian continuing authority to admit the ward to a
1177911779 treatment facility, as defined in K.S.A. 59-3077 section 78, and
1178011780 amendments thereto, the head of the treatment facility may require a
1178111781 statement from the patient's attending physician or from the local health
1178211782 officer of the area in which the patient resides confirming that the patient
1178311783 is in need of psychiatric treatment in a treatment facility before accepting
1178411784 the ward for admission, and shall divert any such person to a less
1178511785 restrictive treatment alternative, as may be appropriate.
1178611786 (c) No person shall be admitted as a voluntary patient under the
1178711787 provisions of this act to any treatment facility unless the head of the
1178811788 treatment facility has informed such person or such person's parent, legal
1178911789 guardian, or other person known to the head of the treatment facility to be
1179011790 interested in the care and welfare of a minor, in writing, of the following:
1179111791 (1) The rules and procedures of the treatment facility relating to the
1179211792 discharge of voluntary patients;
1179311793 (2) the legal rights of a voluntary patient receiving treatment from a
1179411794 treatment facility as provided for in K.S.A. 59-2978 and amendments
1179511795 thereto; and
1179611796 (3) in general terms, the types of treatment which are available or
1179711797 would not be available to a voluntary patient from that treatment facility.
1179811798 (d) Nothing in this act shall be construed as to prohibit a proposed or
1179911799 involuntary patient with capacity to do so from making an application for
1180011800 admission as a voluntary patient to a treatment facility. Any proposed or
1180111801 involuntary patient desiring to do so shall be afforded an opportunity to
1180211802 consult with their attorney prior to making any such application. If the
1180311803 head of the treatment facility accepts the application and admits the patient
1180411804 as a voluntary patient, then the head of the treatment facility shall notify, in
1180511805 writing, the patient's attorney, the patient's legal guardian, if the patient has
1180611806 a legal guardian, and the district court which has jurisdiction over the
1180711807 patient of the patient's voluntary status. When a notice of voluntary
1180811808 admission is received, the court shall file the same which shall terminate
1180911809 the proceedings.
1181011810 Sec. 160. K.S.A. 59-2951 is hereby amended to read as follows: 59-
1181111811 2951. (a) A voluntary patient shall be entitled to be discharged from a
1181211812 treatment facility, by the head of the treatment facility, by no later than the
1181311813 third day, excluding Saturdays, Sundays and holidays, after receipt of the
1181411814 patient's written request for discharge. If the voluntary patient is a patient
1181511815 in a state psychiatric hospital, that hospital shall immediately give either
1181611816 oral or facsimile notice to the participating mental health center serving the
1181711817 area where the patient intends to reside and shall consider any
1181811818 recommendations from that mental health center which may be received
1181911819 prior to the time set for discharge as specified in the notice.
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1186311863 (b) (1) If the voluntary patient is an adult admitted upon the
1186411864 application of a legal guardian or pursuant to an order of the court issued
1186511865 pursuant to K.S.A. 59-3077 section 78, and amendments thereto, any
1186611866 request for discharge must be made, in writing, by the legal guardian.
1186711867 (2) If the voluntary patient is a minor, the written request for
1186811868 discharge shall be made by the child's parent or legal guardian except if the
1186911869 minor was admitted upon their own written application to become a
1187011870 voluntary patient made pursuant to K.S.A. 59-2949 and amendments
1187111871 thereto, then the minor may make the request. In the case of a minor 14 or
1187211872 more years of age who had made written application to become a
1187311873 voluntary patient on their own behalf and who has requested to be
1187411874 discharged, the head of the treatment facility shall promptly inform the
1187511875 child's parent, legal guardian, or other person known to the head of the
1187611876 treatment facility to be interested in the care and welfare of the minor of
1187711877 the minor's request for discharge.
1187811878 Sec. 161. K.S.A. 59-2960 is hereby amended to read as follows: 59-
1187911879 2960. (a) Upon the filing of the petition provided for in K.S.A. 59-2957
1188011880 and amendments thereto, the district court shall issue the following:
1188111881 (1) An order fixing the time and place of the trial upon the petition.
1188211882 Such hearing, in the court's discretion, may be conducted in a courtroom, a
1188311883 treatment facility or at some other suitable place. The time fixed in the
1188411884 order shall in no event be earlier than seven days or later than 14 days after
1188511885 the date of the filing of the petition. If a demand for a trial by jury is later
1188611886 filed by the proposed patient, the court may continue the trial and fix a
1188711887 new time and place of the trial at a time that may exceed beyond the 14
1188811888 days but shall be fixed within a reasonable time not exceeding 30 days
1188911889 from the date of the filing of the demand.
1189011890 (2) An order that the proposed patient appear at the time and place of
1189111891 the hearing and providing that the proposed patient's presence will be
1189211892 required at the hearing unless the attorney for the proposed patient shall
1189311893 make a request that the proposed patient's presence be waived and the
1189411894 court finds that the proposed patient's presence at the hearing would be
1189511895 injurious to the proposed patient's welfare. The order shall further provide
1189611896 that notwithstanding the foregoing provision, if the proposed patient
1189711897 requests in writing to the court or to such person's attorney that the
1189811898 proposed patient wishes to be present at the hearing, the proposed patient's
1189911899 presence cannot be waived.
1190011900 (3) An order appointing an attorney to represent the proposed patient
1190111901 at all stages of the proceedings and until all orders resulting from such
1190211902 proceedings are terminated. The court shall give preference, in the
1190311903 appointment of this attorney, to any attorney who has represented the
1190411904 proposed patient in other matters if the court has knowledge of that prior
1190511905 representation. The proposed patient shall have the right to engage an
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1194911949 attorney of the proposed patient's own choice and, in such event, the
1195011950 attorney appointed by the court shall be relieved of all duties by the court.
1195111951 (4) An order that the proposed patient shall appear at a time and place
1195211952 that is in the best interests of the patient where the proposed patient will
1195311953 have the opportunity to consult with the proposed patient's court-appointed
1195411954 attorney, which time shall be at least five days prior to the date set for the
1195511955 trial under K.S.A. 59-2965 and amendments thereto.
1195611956 (5) An order for a mental evaluation as provided for in K.S.A. 59-
1195711957 2961 and amendments thereto.
1195811958 (6) A notice as provided for in K.S.A. 59-2963 and amendments
1195911959 thereto.
1196011960 (7) If the petition also contains allegations as provided for in K.S.A.
1196111961 59-3058, 59-3059, 59-3060, 59-3061 or 59-3062 sections 17, 18, 28, 49,
1196211962 52 or 65, and amendments thereto, those orders necessary to make a
1196311963 determination of the need for a legal guardian or conservator, or both, to
1196411964 act on behalf of the proposed patient. For these purposes, the trials
1196511965 required by K.S.A. 59-2965 and 59-3067, and amendments thereto,
1196611966 sections 30, 53, 55, 66 and 70, and amendments thereto, may be
1196711967 consolidated.
1196811968 (b) Nothing in this section shall prevent the court from granting an
1196911969 order of continuance, for good cause shown, to any party for no longer
1197011970 than seven days, except that such limitation does not apply to a request for
1197111971 an order of continuance made by the proposed patient or to a request made
1197211972 by any party if the proposed patient absents him or herself such that further
1197311973 proceedings can not be held until the proposed patient has been located.
1197411974 The court also, upon the request of any party, may advance the date of the
1197511975 hearing if necessary and in the best interests of all concerned.
1197611976 Sec. 162. K.S.A. 73-507 is hereby amended to read as follows: 73-
1197711977 507. Upon the filing of a petition for the appointment of a curator, under
1197811978 the provisions of this act, the court shall cause such notice to be given as
1197911979 provided by the act for obtaining a guardian or conservator, or both
1198011980 (K.S.A. 59-3050 through 59-3095 Kansas uniform guardianship,
1198111981 conservatorship and other protective arrangements act, sections 24
1198211982 through 135, and amendments thereto).
1198311983 Sec. 163. K.S.A. 2024 Supp. 75-652 is hereby amended to read as
1198411984 follows: 75-652. As used in this act:
1198511985 (a) "Account" or "ABLE savings account" means an individual
1198611986 savings account established in accordance with the provisions of this act.
1198711987 (b) "Account owner" means the person who enters into an ABLE
1198811988 savings agreement pursuant to the provisions of this act. The account
1198911989 owner shall also be the designated beneficiary. A conservator, guardian or
1199011990 a person authorized by the treasurer through procedures established by the
1199111991 treasurer may act on behalf of a designated beneficiary of an account in
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1203512035 accordance with procedures established by the treasurer.
1203612036 (c) "Conservator" means a person appointed by the court pursuant to
1203712037 K.S.A. 59-3050 et seq. the Kansas uniform guardianship, conservatorship
1203812038 and other protective arrangements act, sections 24 through 135, and
1203912039 amendments thereto.
1204012040 (d) "Designated beneficiary" means a Kansas resident or a person
1204112041 authorized by the treasurer pursuant to K.S.A. 75-653, and amendments
1204212042 thereto, whose qualified disability expenses may be paid from the account.
1204312043 The designated beneficiary must be an eligible individual at the time the
1204412044 account is established.
1204512045 (e) "Eligible individual" means the same as defined in section 529A
1204612046 of the federal internal revenue code of 1986, as amended.
1204712047 (f) "Financial organization" means an organization authorized to do
1204812048 business in the state of Kansas and is:
1204912049 (1) Licensed or chartered by the commissioner of insurance;
1205012050 (2) licensed or chartered by the state bank commissioner;
1205112051 (3) chartered by an agency of the federal government; or
1205212052 (4) subject to the jurisdiction and regulation of the securities and
1205312053 exchange commission of the federal government.
1205412054 (g) "Guardian" means a person appointed by the court pursuant to
1205512055 K.S.A. 59-3050 et seq. the Kansas uniform guardianship, conservatorship
1205612056 and other protective arrangements act, sections 24 through 135, and
1205712057 amendments thereto.
1205812058 (h) "Management contract" means the contract executed by the
1205912059 treasurer and a financial organization selected to act as a depository and
1206012060 manager of the program.
1206112061 (i) "Member of the family" means the same as defined in section
1206212062 529A of the federal internal revenue code of 1986, as amended.
1206312063 (j) "Nonqualified withdrawal" means a withdrawal from an account
1206412064 which is not:
1206512065 (1) A qualified withdrawal; or
1206612066 (2) a rollover distribution.
1206712067 (k) "Program" means the Kansas ABLE savings program established
1206812068 pursuant to this act.
1206912069 (l) "Program manager" means a financial organization selected by the
1207012070 treasurer to act as a depository and manager of the program.
1207112071 (m) "Qualified disability expense" means the same as defined in
1207212072 section 529A of the federal internal revenue code of 1986, as amended.
1207312073 (n) "Qualified withdrawal" means a withdrawal from an account to
1207412074 pay the qualified disability expenses of the designated beneficiary of the
1207512075 account.
1207612076 (o) "Rollover distribution" means a rollover distribution as defined in
1207712077 section 529A of the federal internal revenue code of 1986, as amended.
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1212112121 (p) "Savings agreement" means an agreement between the program
1212212122 manager or the treasurer and the account owner.
1212312123 (q) "Secretary" means the secretary of the United States treasury.
1212412124 (r) "Treasurer" means the state treasurer.
1212512125 Sec. 164. K.S.A. 76-729 is hereby amended to read as follows: 76-
1212612126 729. (a) (1) Persons enrolling at the state educational institutions under the
1212712127 control and supervision of the state board of regents who, if such persons
1212812128 are adults, have been domiciliary residents of the state of Kansas or, if
1212912129 such persons are minors, whose parents have been domiciliary residents of
1213012130 the state of Kansas for at least 12 months prior to enrollment for any term
1213112131 or session at a state educational institution are residents for fee purposes. A
1213212132 person who has been a resident of the state of Kansas for fee purposes and
1213312133 who leaves the state of Kansas to become a resident of another state or
1213412134 country shall retain status as a resident of the state of Kansas for fee
1213512135 purposes if the person returns to domiciliary residency in the state of
1213612136 Kansas within 60 months of departure. All other persons are nonresidents
1213712137 of the state of Kansas for fee purposes.
1213812138 (2) The provisions of this subsection shall not apply to a person who
1213912139 is deemed a resident for fee purposes pursuant to K.S.A. 76-731a, and
1214012140 amendments thereto.
1214112141 (b) The state board of regents may authorize the following persons, or
1214212142 any class or classes thereof, and their spouses and dependents to pay an
1214312143 amount equal to resident fees:
1214412144 (1) Persons who are employees of a state educational institution;
1214512145 (2) persons having special domestic relations circumstances;
1214612146 (3) persons who have lost their resident status within six months of
1214712147 enrollment;
1214812148 (4) persons who are not domiciliary residents of the state, who have
1214912149 graduated from a high school accredited by the state board of education
1215012150 within six months of enrollment, who were domiciliary residents of the
1215112151 state at the time of graduation from high school or within 12 months prior
1215212152 to graduation from high school, and who are entitled to admission at a
1215312153 state educational institution pursuant to K.S.A. 76-717b, and amendments
1215412154 thereto;
1215512155 (5) persons who are domiciliary residents of the state, whose
1215612156 domiciliary residence was established in the state for the purpose of
1215712157 accepting, upon recruitment by an employer, or retaining, upon transfer
1215812158 required by an employer, a position of full-time employment at a place of
1215912159 employment in Kansas, but the domiciliary residence of whom was not
1216012160 timely enough established to meet the residence duration requirement of
1216112161 subsection (a), and who are not otherwise eligible for authorization to pay
1216212162 an amount equal to resident fees under this subsection.
1216312163 (c) Pursuant to K.S.A. 2024 Supp. 48-3601, and amendments thereto,
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1220712207 a veteran, an active duty member of the armed forces and the spouse and
1220812208 dependent child of such veteran or active duty member of the armed forces
1220912209 shall be deemed residents of the state for fee purposes.
1221012210 (d) As used in this section:
1221112211 (1) "Parents" means and includes natural parents, adoptive parents,
1221212212 stepparents, guardians and custodians.
1221312213 (2) "Guardian" has the meaning ascribed thereto by K.S.A. 59-3051
1221412214 means the same as defined in section 25, and amendments thereto.
1221512215 (3) "Custodian" means a person, agency or association granted legal
1221612216 custody of a minor under the revised Kansas code for care of children.
1221712217 (4) "Domiciliary resident" means a person who has present and fixed
1221812218 residence in Kansas where the person intends to remain for an indefinite
1221912219 period and to which the person intends to return following absence.
1222012220 (5) "Full-time employment" means employment requiring at least
1222112221 1,500 hours of work per year.
1222212222 (6) "Dependent" means: (A) A birth child, adopted child or stepchild;
1222312223 or
1222412224 (B) any child other than the foregoing who is actually dependent in
1222512225 whole or in part on the person in military service and who is related to
1222612226 such individual by marriage or consanguinity.
1222712227 (7) "Academic year" means the twelve-month 12-month period
1222812228 ending June 30.
1222912229 Sec. 165. K.S.A. 76-12b04 is hereby amended to read as follows: 76-
1223012230 12b04. If in the opinion of the superintendent an applicant for admission
1223112231 meets the definition of a person in need of a guardian or a conservator, or
1223212232 both, as provided in K.S.A. 59-3050 through 59-3095 the Kansas uniform
1223312233 guardianship, conservatorship and other protective arrangements act,
1223412234 sections 24 through 135, and amendments thereto, the person shall not be
1223512235 admitted to an institution except for the purposes of conducting a court
1223612236 ordered evaluation pursuant to K.S.A. 59-3064 section 69, and
1223712237 amendments thereto, until a court has determined the legal status of the
1223812238 person under the act for obtaining a guardian or conservator, or both. The
1223912239 provisions of this paragraph shall not be applicable if a court has already
1224012240 determined the legal status of the applicant under the act.
1224112241 Sec. 166. K.S.A. 77-201 is hereby amended to read as follows: 77-
1224212242 201. In the construction of the statutes of this state the following rules
1224312243 shall be observed, unless the construction would be inconsistent with the
1224412244 manifest intent of the legislature or repugnant to the context of the statute:
1224512245 First. The repeal of a statute does not revive a statute previously
1224612246 repealed, nor does the repeal affect any right which accrued, any duty
1224712247 imposed, any penalty incurred or any proceeding commenced, under or by
1224812248 virtue of the statute repealed. The provisions of any statute, so far as they
1224912249 are the same as those of any prior statute, shall be construed as a
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1229312293 continuation of the prior provisions and not as a new enactment.
1229412294 Second. Words and phrases shall be construed according to the context
1229512295 and the approved usage of the language, but technical words and phrases,
1229612296 and other words and phrases that have acquired a peculiar and appropriate
1229712297 meaning in law, shall be construed according to their peculiar and
1229812298 appropriate meanings.
1229912299 Third. Words importing the singular number only may be extended to
1230012300 several persons or things, and words importing the plural number only
1230112301 may be applied to one person or thing. Words importing the masculine
1230212302 gender only may be extended to females.
1230312303 Fourth. Words giving a joint authority to three or more public officers
1230412304 or other persons shall be construed as given that authority to a majority of
1230512305 them, unless it is otherwise expressed in the act giving the authority.
1230612306 Fifth. "Highway" and "road" include public bridges and may be
1230712307 construed to be equivalent to "county way," "county road," "common
1230812308 road," "state road" and "territorial road."
1230912309 Sixth. "Incompetent person" includes disabled persons and
1231012310 incapacitated persons as defined herein in this section.
1231112311 Seventh. "Issue," as applied to the descent of estates, includes all the
1231212312 lawful lineal descendants of the ancestor.
1231312313 Eighth. "Land," "real estate" and "real property" include lands,
1231412314 tenements and hereditaments, and all rights to them and interest in them,
1231512315 equitable as well as legal.
1231612316 Ninth. "Personal property" includes money, goods, chattels, evidences
1231712317 of debt and things in action, and digital assets as defined in the revised
1231812318 uniform fiduciary access to digital assets act, K.S.A. 2024 Supp. 58-4801
1231912319 through 58-4819, and amendments thereto.
1232012320 Tenth. "Property" includes personal and real property.
1232112321 Eleventh. "Month" means a calendar month, unless otherwise
1232212322 expressed. "Year" alone, and also the abbreviation "A.D.," is equivalent to
1232312323 the expression "year of our Lord."
1232412324 Twelfth. "Oath" includes an affirmation in all cases where an
1232512325 affirmation may be substituted for an oath, and in similar cases "swear"
1232612326 includes affirm.
1232712327 Thirteenth. "Person" may be extended to bodies politic and corporate.
1232812328 Fourteenth. If the seal of a court or public office or officer is required
1232912329 by law to be affixed to any paper, "seal" includes an impression of the seal
1233012330 upon the paper alone, as well as upon wax or a wafer affixed to the paper.
1233112331 "Seal" also includes both a rubber stamp seal used with permanent ink and
1233212332 the word "seal" printed on court documents produced by computer
1233312333 systems, so that the seal may be legibly reproduced by photographic
1233412334 process.
1233512335 Fifteenth. "State," when applied to the different parts of the United
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1237912379 States, includes the District of Columbia and the territories. "United
1238012380 States" may include that district and those territories.
1238112381 Sixteenth. "Town" may mean a civil township, unless a different
1238212382 meaning is plainly intended.
1238312383 Seventeenth. "Will" includes codicils.
1238412384 Eighteenth. "Written" and "in writing" may include printing, engraving,
1238512385 lithography and any other mode of representing words and letters,
1238612386 excepting those cases where the written signature or the mark of any
1238712387 person is required by law.
1238812388 Nineteenth. "Sheriff" may be extended to any person performing the
1238912389 duties of the sheriff, either generally or in special cases.
1239012390 Twentieth. "Deed" is applied to an instrument conveying lands but does
1239112391 not imply a sealed instrument. "Bond" and "indenture" do not necessarily
1239212392 imply a seal but in other respects mean the same kind of instruments as
1239312393 above. "Undertaking" means a promise or security in any form where
1239412394 required by law.
1239512395 Twenty-first. "Executor" includes an administrator where the subject
1239612396 matter applies to an administrator.
1239712397 Twenty-second. Roman numerals and Arabic figures are to be taken as a
1239812398 part of the English language.
1239912399 Twenty-third. "Residence" means the place which is adopted by a
1240012400 person as the person's place of habitation and to which, whenever the
1240112401 person is absent, the person has the intention of returning. When a person
1240212402 eats at one place and sleeps at another, the place where the person sleeps
1240312403 shall be considered the person's residence.
1240412404 Twenty-fourth. "Usual place of residence" and "usual place of abode,"
1240512405 when applied to the service of any process or notice, means the place
1240612406 usually occupied by a person. If a person has no family, or does not have
1240712407 family with the person, the person's office or place of business or, if the
1240812408 person has no place of business, the room or place where the person
1240912409 usually sleeps shall be construed to be the person's place of residence or
1241012410 abode.
1241112411 Twenty-fifth. "Householder" means a person who is 18 or more years of
1241212412 age and who owns or occupies a house as a place of residence and not as a
1241312413 boarder or lodger.
1241412414 Twenty-sixth. "General election" refers to the election required to be
1241512415 held on the Tuesday following the first Monday in November of each
1241612416 even-numbered year.
1241712417 Twenty-seventh. "Under legal disability" includes persons who are
1241812418 within the period of minority, or who are incapacitated, incompetent or
1241912419 imprisoned.
1242012420 Twenty-eighth. When a person is required to be disinterested or
1242112421 indifferent in acting on any question or matter affecting other parties,
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1246512465 relationship within the degree of second cousin, inclusive, shall disqualify
1246612466 the person from acting, except by consent of parties.
1246712467 Twenty-ninth. "Head of a family" shall include any person who has
1246812468 charge of children, relatives or others living with the person.
1246912469 Thirtieth. "Mentally ill person" means a mentally ill person as defined
1247012470 in K.S.A. 59-2946, and amendments thereto.
1247112471 Thirty-first. "Incapacitated person" means an individual whose ability
1247212472 to receive and evaluate relevant information, or to effectively
1247312473 communicate decisions, or both, even with the use of assistive
1247412474 technologies or other supports, is impaired to the degree that the person
1247512475 lacks the capacity to manage the person's estate, or to meet essential needs
1247612476 for the person's physical health, safety or welfare, as defined in K.S.A. 59-
1247712477 3051 section 25, and amendments thereto, whether or not a guardian or a
1247812478 conservator has been appointed for that person.
1247912479 Thirty-second. "Guardian" means an individual or a nonprofit
1248012480 corporation certified in accordance with K.S.A. 59-3070 section 35, and
1248112481 amendments thereto, which has been appointed by a court to act on behalf
1248212482 of a ward and possessed of some or all of the powers and duties set out in
1248312483 K.S.A. 59-3075 sections 76 through 78, and amendments thereto.
1248412484 "Guardian" does not mean natural guardian unless specified.
1248512485 Thirty-third. "Natural guardian" means both the biological or adoptive
1248612486 mother and father of a minor if neither parent has been found to be an
1248712487 adult with an impairment in need of a guardian or has had parental rights
1248812488 terminated by a court of competent jurisdiction. If either parent of a minor
1248912489 is deceased, or has been found to be an adult with an impairment in need
1249012490 of a guardian, as provided for in K.S.A. 59-3050 through 59-3095 the
1249112491 Kansas uniform guardianship, conservatorship and other protective
1249212492 arrangements act, sections 24 through 135, and amendments thereto, or
1249312493 has had parental rights terminated by a court of competent jurisdiction,
1249412494 then the other parent shall be the natural guardian, unless also deceased, or
1249512495 found to be an adult with an impairment in need of a guardian, or has had
1249612496 parental rights terminated by a court of competent jurisdiction, in which
1249712497 case no person shall qualify as the natural guardian.
1249812498 Thirty-fourth. "Conservator" means an individual or corporation
1249912499 appointed by the court to act on behalf of a conservatee and possessed of
1250012500 some or all of the powers and duties set out in K.S.A. 59-3078 sections 99
1250112501 through 102, and amendments thereto.
1250212502 Thirty-fifth. "Minor" means any person defined by K.S.A. 38-101, and
1250312503 amendments thereto, as being within the period of minority.
1250412504 Thirty-sixth. "Proposed ward" means a person for whom a petition for
1250512505 the appointment of a guardian pursuant to K.S.A. 59-3058, 59-3059, 59-
1250612506 3060 or 59-3061 sections 17, 18, 28, 49, 52 or 65, and amendments
1250712507 thereto, has been filed.
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1255112551 Thirty-seventh. "Proposed conservatee" means a person for whom a
1255212552 petition for the appointment of a conservator pursuant to K.S.A. 59-3058,
1255312553 59-3059, 59-3060 or 59-3061 sections 17, 18, 28, 49, 52 or 65, and
1255412554 amendments thereto, has been filed.
1255512555 Thirty-eighth. "Ward" means a person who has a guardian.
1255612556 Thirty-ninth. "Conservatee" means a person who has a conservator.
1255712557 Fortieth. "Manufactured home" means a structure which:
1255812558 (1) Is transportable in one or more sections which, in the traveling
1255912559 mode, is 8 body feet or more in width or 40 body feet or more in length,
1256012560 or, when erected on site, is 320 or more square feet, and which is built on a
1256112561 permanent chassis and designed to be used as a dwelling, with or without
1256212562 permanent foundation, when connected to the required utilities, and
1256312563 includes the plumbing, heating, air conditioning and electrical systems
1256412564 contained therein; and
1256512565 (2) is subject to the federal manufactured home construction and
1256612566 safety standards established pursuant to 42 U.S.C. § 5403.
1256712567 Forty-first. "Mobile home" means a structure which:
1256812568 (1) Is transportable in one or more sections which, in the traveling
1256912569 mode, is 8 body feet or more in width and 36 body feet or more in length
1257012570 and is built on a permanent chassis and designed to be used as a dwelling,
1257112571 with or without a permanent foundation, when connected to the required
1257212572 utilities, and includes the plumbing, heating, air conditioning and electrical
1257312573 systems contained therein; and
1257412574 (2) is not subject to the federal manufactured home construction and
1257512575 safety standards established pursuant to 42 U.S.C. § 5403.
1257612576 Forty-second. "Disabled person" includes incapacitated persons and
1257712577 incompetent persons as defined herein in this section.
1257812578 Sec. 167. K.S.A. 9-1215, 17-2263, 17-2264, 21-5417, 38-2217, 44-
1257912579 513a, 44-1601, 58-662, 58-24a15, 59-1701, 59-2701, 59-2702, 59-2703,
1258012580 59-2704, 59-2705, 59-2706, 59-2707, 59-2708, 59-2949, 59-2951, 59-
1258112581 2960, 59-29b49, 59-29b51, 59-3050, 59-3054, 59-3057, 59-3063, 59-3064,
1258212582 59-3066, 59-3071, 59-3072, 59-3074, 59-3076, 59-3079, 59-3081, 59-
1258312583 3082, 59-3084, 59-3085, 59-3087, 59-3088, 59-3089, 59-3090, 59-3091,
1258412584 59-3092, 59-3093, 59-3095, 59-3096, 73-507, 76-729, 76-12b04 and 77-
1258512585 201 and K.S.A. 2024 Supp. 58-656, 58-4802, 58-4814, 58a-103, 59-2401a,
1258612586 59-2946, 59-2948, 59-29b46, 59-29b48, 59-29b60, 59-29c03, 59-3051,
1258712587 59-3052, 59-3053, 59-3055, 59-3056, 59-3058, 59-3059, 59-3060, 59-
1258812588 3061, 59-3062, 59-3065, 59-3067, 59-3068, 59-3069, 59-3070, 59-3073,
1258912589 59-3075, 59-3077, 59-3078, 59-3080, 59-3083, 59-3086, 59-3094, 59-
1259012590 3097 and 75-652 are hereby repealed.
1259112591 Sec. 168. This act shall take effect and be in force from and after
1259212592 January 1, 2026, and its publication in the statute book.
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