Utah 2025 Regular Session

Utah Senate Bill SB0240 Compare Versions

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1-02-21 15:58 2nd Sub. (Salmon) S.B. 240
1+02-20 16:00 2nd Sub. (Salmon) S.B. 240
22 Derrin R. Owens proposes the following substitute bill:
33 1
44 Congregate Care Modifications
55 2025 GENERAL SESSION
66 STATE OF UTAH
77 Chief Sponsor: Derrin R. Owens
88 House Sponsor:
99 2
1010
1111 3
1212 LONG TITLE
1313 4
1414 General Description:
1515 5
1616 This bill addresses congregate care programs.
1717 6
1818 Highlighted Provisions:
1919 7
2020 This bill:
2121 8
2222 ▸ requires the Department of Health and Human Services (department) to make reasonable
2323 9
2424 effort to determine within seven days after receiving a completed report from the Bureau
2525 10
2626 of Criminal Identification about an individual whether to grant direct patient access to
2727 11
2828 the individual;
2929 12
3030 ▸ authorizes the department to establish fees for applications for certification for direct
3131 13
3232 patient access;
3333 14
3434 ▸ prohibits the Office of Licensing (office) from:
3535 15
3636 ● placing a restriction or prohibition on new admissions based on the sole fact that the
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3838 program is operating under a conditional license; or
3939 17
4040 ● altering or restricting the rights of a congregate care program based on the sole fact
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4242 that the program has appealed an agency action or an appeal or adjudicative
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4444 proceeding is pending;
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4646 ▸ requires the office, if conditions are met, to:
4747 21
4848 ● inspect a congregate care program;
4949 22
5050 ● provide notice to a congregate care program; or
5151 23
52-● remove restrictions Ŝ→ [and conditions] on new admissions or a conditional
53-23a
54-license[on a congregate care program's license] ←Ŝ ; and
52+● remove restrictions and conditions on a congregate care program's license; and
5553 24
5654 ▸ makes technical changes.
5755 25
5856 Money Appropriated in this Bill:
5957 26
6058 None
6159 27
6260 Other Special Clauses:
63-2nd Sub. S.B. 240 2nd Sub. (Salmon) S.B. 240 02-21 15:58
6461 28
6562 None
63+2nd Sub. S.B. 240 2nd Sub. (Salmon) S.B. 240 02-20 16:00
6664 29
6765 Utah Code Sections Affected:
6866 30
6967 AMENDS:
7068 31
7169 26B-2-120, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2024, Chapter 234
7270 32
7371 26B-2-703, as enacted by Laws of Utah 2024, Chapter 267
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7573
7674 34
7775 Be it enacted by the Legislature of the state of Utah:
7876 35
7977 Section 1. Section 26B-2-120 is amended to read:
8078 36
8179 26B-2-120 . Background check -- Direct access to children or vulnerable adults.
8280 37
8381 (1) As used in this section:
8482 38
8583 (a)(i) "Applicant" means an individual who is associated with a certification,
8684 39
8785 contract, or licensee with the department under this part and has direct access,
8886 40
8987 including:
9088 41
9189 (A) an adoptive parent or prospective adoptive parent, including an applicant for
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9391 an adoption in accordance with Section 78B-6-128;
9492 43
9593 (B) a foster parent or prospective foster parent;
9694 44
9795 (C) an individual who provides respite care to a foster parent or an adoptive parent
9896 45
9997 on more than one occasion;
10098 46
10199 (D) an individual who transports a child for a youth transportation company;
102100 47
103101 (E) an individual who provides certified peer support, as defined in Section
104102 48
105103 26B-5-610;
106104 49
107105 (F) an individual who provides peer supports, has a disability or a family member
108106 50
109107 with a disability, or is in recovery from a mental illness or a substance use
110108 51
111109 disorder;
112110 52
113111 (G) an individual who has lived experience with the services provided by the
114112 53
115113 department, and uses that lived experience to provide support, guidance, or
116114 54
117115 services to promote resiliency and recovery;
118116 55
119117 (H) an individual who is identified as a mental health professional, licensed under
120118 56
121119 Title 58, Chapter 60, Mental Health Professional Practice Act, and engaged in
122120 57
123121 the practice of mental health therapy, as defined in Section 58-60-102;
124122 58
125123 (I) an individual, other than the child or vulnerable adult receiving the service,
126124 59
127125 who is 12 years old or older and resides in a home, that is licensed or certified
128126 60
129127 by the division;
130128 61
131129 (J) an individual who is 12 years old or older and is associated with a certification,
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133130 62
134131 contract, or licensee with the department under this part and has or will likely
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135133 63
136134 have direct access;
137135 64
138136 (K) a foster home licensee that submits an application for an annual background
139137 65
140138 screening as required by Subsection 26B-2-105(4)(d)(iii); or
141139 66
142140 (L) a short-term relief care provider.
143141 67
144142 (ii) "Applicant" does not include:
145143 68
146144 (A) an individual who is in the custody of the Division of Child and Family
147145 69
148146 Services or the Division of Juvenile Justice and Youth Services;
149147 70
150148 (B) an individual who applies for employment with, or is employed by, the
151149 71
152150 Department of Health and Human Services;
153151 72
154152 (C) a parent of a person receiving services from the Division of Services for
155153 73
156154 People with Disabilities, if the parent provides direct care to and resides with
157155 74
158156 the person, including if the parent provides direct care to and resides with the
159157 75
160158 person pursuant to a court order; or
161159 76
162160 (D) an individual or a department contractor who provides services in an adults
163161 77
164162 only substance use disorder program, as defined by rule adopted by the
165163 78
166164 Department of Health and Human Services in accordance with Title 63G,
167165 79
168166 Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act, and who is not a program
169167 80
170168 director or a member, as defined by Section 26B-2-105, of the program.
171169 81
172170 (b) "Application" means a background check application to the office.
173171 82
174172 (c) "Bureau" means the Bureau of Criminal Identification within the Department of
175173 83
176174 Public Safety, created in Section 53-10-201.
177175 84
178176 (d) "Criminal finding" means a record of:
179177 85
180178 (i) an arrest for a criminal offense;
181179 86
182180 (ii) a warrant for a criminal arrest;
183181 87
184182 (iii) charges for a criminal offense; or
185183 88
186184 (iv) a criminal conviction.
187185 89
188186 (e) "Direct access" means that an individual has, or likely will have:
189187 90
190188 (i) contact with or access to a child or vulnerable adult by which the individual will
191189 91
192190 have the opportunity for personal communication or touch with the child or
193191 92
194192 vulnerable adult; or
195193 93
196194 (ii) an opportunity to view medical, financial, or other confidential personal
197195 94
198196 identifying information of the child, the child's parent or legal guardian, or the
199197 95
200198 vulnerable adult.
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202199 96
203200 (f)(i) "Direct access qualified" means that the applicant has an eligible determination
201+- 3 - 2nd Sub. (Salmon) S.B. 240 02-20 16:00
204202 97
205203 by the office within the license and renewal time period; and
206204 98
207205 (ii) no more than 180 days have passed since the date on which the applicant's
208206 99
209207 association with a certification, contract, or licensee with the department expires.
210208 100
211209 (g) "Incidental care" means occasional care, not in excess of five hours per week and
212210 101
213211 never overnight, for a foster child.
214212 102
215213 (h) "Licensee" means an individual or a human services program licensed by the
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217215 division.
218216 104
219217 (i) "Non-criminal finding" means a record maintained in:
220218 105
221219 (i) the Division of Child and Family Services' Management Information System
222220 106
223221 described in Section 80-2-1001;
224222 107
225223 (ii) the Division of Child and Family Services' Licensing Information System
226224 108
227225 described in Section 80-2-1002;
228226 109
229227 (iii) the Division of Aging and Adult Services' vulnerable adult abuse, neglect, or
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231229 exploitation database described in Section 26B-6-210;
232230 111
233231 (iv) juvenile court arrest, adjudication, and disposition records;
234232 112
235233 (v) the Sex, Kidnap, and Child Abuse Offender Registry described in Title 77,
236234 113
237235 Chapter 41, Sex, Kidnap, and Child Abuse Offender Registry, or a national sex
238236 114
239237 offender registry; or
240238 115
241239 (vi) a state child abuse or neglect registry.
242240 116
243241 (j) "Office" means the Office of Background Processing within the department.
244242 117
245243 (k) "Personal identifying information" means:
246244 118
247245 (i) current name, former names, nicknames, and aliases;
248246 119
249247 (ii) date of birth;
250248 120
251249 (iii) physical address and email address;
252250 121
253251 (iv) telephone number;
254252 122
255253 (v) driver license or other government-issued identification;
256254 123
257255 (vi) social security number;
258256 124
259257 (vii) only for applicants who are 18 years old or older, fingerprints, in a form
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261259 specified by the office; and
262260 126
263261 (viii) other information specified by the office by rule made in accordance with Title
264262 127
265263 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act.
266264 128
267265 (2) Except as provided in Subsection (12), an applicant or a representative shall submit the
268266 129
269267 following to the office:
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272269 (a) personal identifying information;
270+- 4 - 02-20 16:00 2nd Sub. (Salmon) S.B. 240
273271 131
274272 (b) a fee established by the office under Section 63J-1-504;
275273 132
276274 (c) a disclosure form, specified by the office, for consent for:
277275 133
278276 (i) an initial background check upon association with a certification, contract, or
279277 134
280278 licensee with the department;
281279 135
282280 (ii) ongoing monitoring of fingerprints and registries until no longer associated with a
283281 136
284282 certification, contract, or licensee with the department for 180 days;
285283 137
286284 (iii) a background check when the office determines that reasonable cause exists; and
287285 138
288286 (iv) retention of personal identifying information, including fingerprints, for
289287 139
290288 monitoring and notification as described in Subsections (3)(c) and (4);
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292290 (d) if an applicant resided outside of the United States and its territories during the five
293291 141
294292 years immediately preceding the day on which the information described in
295293 142
296294 Subsections (2)(a) through (c) is submitted to the office, documentation establishing
297295 143
298296 whether the applicant was convicted of a crime during the time that the applicant
299297 144
300298 resided outside of the United States or its territories; and
301299 145
302300 (e) an application showing an applicant's association with a certification, contract, or a
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304302 licensee with the department, for the purpose of the office tracking the direct access
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306304 qualified status of the applicant, which expires 180 days after the date on which the
307305 148
308306 applicant is no longer associated with a certification, contract, or a licensee with the
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310308 department.
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312310 (3) The office:
313311 151
314312 (a) shall perform the following duties as part of a background check of an applicant
315313 152
316314 before the office grants or denies direct access qualified status to an applicant:
317315 153
318316 (i) check state and regional criminal background databases for the applicant's
319317 154
320318 criminal history by:
321319 155
322320 (A) submitting personal identifying information to the bureau for a search; or
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324322 (B) using the applicant's personal identifying information to search state and
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326324 regional criminal background databases as authorized under Section 53-10-108;
327325 158
328326 (ii) submit the applicant's personal identifying information and fingerprints to the
329327 159
330328 bureau for a criminal history search of applicable national criminal background
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332330 databases;
333331 161
334332 (iii) search the Division of Child and Family Services' Licensing Information System
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336334 described in Section 80-2-1002;
337335 163
338336 (iv) search the Sex, Kidnap, and Child Abuse Offender Registry described in Title
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341338 77, Chapter 41, Sex, Kidnap, and Child Abuse Offender Registry, or a national
339+- 5 - 2nd Sub. (Salmon) S.B. 240 02-20 16:00
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343341 sex offender registry for an applicant 18 years old or older;
344342 166
345343 (v) if the applicant is associated with a licensee for a prospective foster or adoptive
346344 167
347345 parent, search the Division of Child and Family Services' Management
348346 168
349347 Information System described in Section 80-2-1001;
350348 169
351349 (vi) search the Division of Aging and Adult Services' vulnerable adult abuse, neglect,
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353351 or exploitation database described in Section 26B-6-210;
354352 171
355353 (vii) search the juvenile court records for substantiated findings of severe child abuse
356354 172
357355 or neglect described in Section 80-3-404; and
358356 173
359357 (viii) search the juvenile court arrest, adjudication, and disposition records, as
360358 174
361359 provided under Section 78A-6-209;
362360 175
363361 (b) may conduct all or portions of a background check in connection with determining
364362 176
365363 whether an applicant is direct access qualified, as provided by rule, made by the
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367365 office in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act:
368366 178
369367 (i) for an annual renewal; or
370368 179
371369 (ii) when the office determines that reasonable cause exists;
372370 180
373371 (c) may submit an applicant's personal identifying information, including fingerprints, to
374372 181
375373 the bureau for checking, retaining, and monitoring of state and national criminal
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377375 background databases and for notifying the office of new criminal activity associated
378376 183
379377 with the applicant;
380378 184
381379 (d) shall track the status of an applicant under this section to ensure that the applicant is
382380 185
383381 not required to duplicate the submission of the applicant's fingerprints if the applicant
384382 186
385383 is associated with more than one certification, contract, or licensee with the
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387385 department;
388386 188
389387 (e) shall notify the bureau when a direct access qualified individual has not been
390388 189
391389 associated with a certification, contract, or licensee with the department for a period
392390 190
393391 of 180 days;
394392 191
395393 (f) shall adopt measures to strictly limit access to personal identifying information solely
396394 192
397395 to the individuals responsible for processing and entering the applications for
398396 193
399397 background checks and to protect the security of the personal identifying information
400398 194
401399 the office reviews under this Subsection (3);
402400 195
403401 (g) as necessary to comply with the federal requirement to check a state's child abuse
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405403 and neglect registry regarding any applicant working in a congregate care program,
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407405 shall:
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410407 (i) search the Division of Child and Family Services' Licensing Information System
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412410 described in Section 80-2-1002; and
413411 200
414412 (ii) require the child abuse and neglect registry be checked in each state where an
415413 201
416414 applicant resided at any time during the five years immediately preceding the day
417415 202
418416 on which the application is submitted to the office; and
419417 203
420418 (h) shall make rules, in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative
421419 204
422420 Rulemaking Act, to implement the provisions of this Subsection (3) relating to
423421 205
424422 background checks.
425423 206
426424 (4)(a) With the personal identifying information the office submits to the bureau under
427425 207
428426 Subsection (3), the bureau shall check against state and regional criminal background
429427 208
430428 databases for the applicant's criminal history.
431429 209
432430 (b) With the personal identifying information and fingerprints the office submits to the
433431 210
434432 bureau under Subsection (3), the bureau shall check against national criminal
435433 211
436434 background databases for the applicant's criminal history.
437435 212
438436 (c) Upon direction from the office, and with the personal identifying information and
439437 213
440438 fingerprints the office submits to the bureau under Subsection (3)(c), the bureau shall:
441439 214
442440 (i) maintain a separate file of the fingerprints for search by future submissions to the
443441 215
444442 local and regional criminal records databases, including latent prints; and
445443 216
446444 (ii) monitor state and regional criminal background databases and identify criminal
447445 217
448446 activity associated with the applicant.
449447 218
450448 (d) The bureau is authorized to submit the fingerprints to the Federal Bureau of
451449 219
452450 Investigation Next Generation Identification System, to be retained in the Federal
453451 220
454452 Bureau of Investigation Next Generation Identification System for the purpose of:
455453 221
456454 (i) being searched by future submissions to the national criminal records databases,
457455 222
458456 including the Federal Bureau of Investigation Next Generation Identification
459457 223
460458 System and latent prints; and
461459 224
462460 (ii) monitoring national criminal background databases and identifying criminal
463461 225
464462 activity associated with the applicant.
465463 226
466464 (e) The [Bureau] bureau shall notify and release to the office all information of criminal
467465 227
468466 activity associated with the applicant.
469467 228
470468 (f) Upon notice that an individual who has direct access qualified status will no longer
471469 229
472470 be associated with a certification, contract, or licensee with the department, the
473471 230
474472 bureau shall:
475473 231
476474 (i) discard and destroy any retained fingerprints; and
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479476 (ii) notify the Federal Bureau of Investigation when the license has expired or an
477+- 7 - 2nd Sub. (Salmon) S.B. 240 02-20 16:00
480478 233
481479 individual's direct access to a child or a vulnerable adult has ceased, so that the
482480 234
483481 Federal Bureau of Investigation will discard and destroy the retained fingerprints
484482 235
485483 from the Federal Bureau of Investigation Next Generation Identification System.
486484 236
487485 (5)(a) Except as provided in Subsection (5)(b), the office shall deny direct access
488486 237
489487 qualified status to an applicant who, within three years from the date on which the
490488 238
491489 office conducts the background check, was convicted of:
492490 239
493491 (i) a felony or misdemeanor involving conduct that constitutes any of the following:
494492 240
495493 (A) an offense identified as domestic violence, lewdness, voyeurism, battery,
496494 241
497495 cruelty to animals, or bestiality;
498496 242
499497 (B) a violation of any pornography law, including sexual exploitation of a minor
500498 243
501499 or aggravated sexual exploitation of a minor;
502500 244
503501 (C) sexual solicitation or prostitution;
504502 245
505503 (D) a violent offense committed in the presence of a child, as described in Section
506504 246
507505 76-3-203.10;
508506 247
509507 (E) an offense included in Title 76, Chapter 4, Part 4, Enticement of a Minor;
510508 248
511509 (F) an offense included in Title 76, Chapter 5, Offenses Against the Individual;
512510 249
513511 (G) an offense included in Title 76, Chapter 5b, Sexual Exploitation Act;
514512 250
515513 (H) an offense included in Title 76, Chapter 7, Offenses Against the Family;
516514 251
517515 (I) an offense included in Title 76, Chapter 9, Part 4, Offenses Against Privacy;
518516 252
519517 (J) an offense included in Title 76, Chapter 10, Part 4, Weapons of Mass
520518 253
521519 Destruction;
522520 254
523521 (K) an offense included in Title 78B, Chapter 7, Protective Orders and Stalking
524522 255
525523 Injunctions;
526524 256
527525 (L) aggravated arson, as described in Section 76-6-103;
528526 257
529527 (M) aggravated burglary, as described in Section 76-6-203;
530528 258
531529 (N) aggravated exploitation of prostitution, as described in Section 76-10-1306;
532530 259
533531 (O) aggravated robbery, as described in Section 76-6-302;
534532 260
535533 (P) endangering persons in a human services program, as described in Section
536534 261
537535 26B-2-113;
538536 262
539537 (Q) failure to report, as described in Section 80-2-609;
540538 263
541539 (R) identity fraud crime, as described in Section 76-6-1102;
542540 264
543541 (S) leaving a child unattended in a motor vehicle, as described in Section
544542 265
545543 76-10-2202;
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548545 (T) riot, as described in Section 76-9-101;
546+- 8 - 02-20 16:00 2nd Sub. (Salmon) S.B. 240
549547 267
550548 (U) sexual battery, as described in Section 76-9-702.1; or
551549 268
552550 (V) threatening with or using a dangerous weapon in a fight or quarrel, as
553551 269
554552 described in Section 76-10-506; or
555553 270
556554 (ii) a felony or misdemeanor offense committed outside of the state that, if committed
557555 271
558556 in the state, would constitute a violation of an offense described in Subsection
559557 272
560558 (5)(a)(i).
561559 273
562560 (b)(i) Subsection (5)(a) does not apply to an applicant who is seeking a position as a
563561 274
564562 peer support provider or a mental health professional, if the applicant provides
565563 275
566564 services in a program that serves only adults with a primary mental health
567565 276
568566 diagnosis, with or without a co-occurring substance use disorder.
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570568 (ii) The office shall conduct a comprehensive review of an applicant described in
571569 278
572570 Subsection (5)(b)(i) in accordance with Subsection (7).
573571 279
574572 (c) The office shall deny direct access qualified status to an applicant if the office finds
575573 280
576574 that a court order prohibits the applicant from having direct access to a child or
577575 281
578576 vulnerable adult.
579577 282
580578 (6) The office shall conduct a comprehensive review of an applicant's background check if
581579 283
582580 the applicant:
583581 284
584582 (a) has a felony or class A misdemeanor conviction that is more than three years from
585583 285
586584 the date on which the office conducts the background check, for an offense described
587585 286
588586 in Subsection (5)(a);
589587 287
590588 (b) has a felony charge or conviction that is no more than 10 years from the date on
591589 288
592590 which the office conducts the background check for an offense not described in
593591 289
594592 Subsection (5)(a);
595593 290
596594 (c) has a felony charge or conviction that is more than 10 years from the date on which
597595 291
598596 the office conducts the background check, for an offense not described in Subsection
599597 292
600598 (5)(a), with criminal or non-criminal findings after the date of the felony charge or
601599 293
602600 conviction;
603601 294
604602 (d) has a class B misdemeanor or class C misdemeanor conviction that is more than
605603 295
606604 three years and no more than 10 years from the date on which the office conducts the
607605 296
608606 background check for an offense described in Subsection (5)(a);
609607 297
610608 (e) has a class B misdemeanor or class C misdemeanor conviction that is more than 10
611609 298
612610 years from the date on which the office conducts the background check, for an
613611 299
614612 offense described in Subsection (5)(a), with criminal or non-criminal findings after
615-- 9 - 2nd Sub. (Salmon) S.B. 240 02-21 15:58
616613 300
617614 the date of conviction;
615+- 9 - 2nd Sub. (Salmon) S.B. 240 02-20 16:00
618616 301
619617 (f) has a misdemeanor charge or conviction that is no more than three years from the
620618 302
621619 date on which the office conducts the background check for an offense not described
622620 303
623621 in Subsection (5)(a);
624622 304
625623 (g) has a misdemeanor charge or conviction that is more than three years from the date
626624 305
627625 on which the office conducts the background check, for an offense not described in
628626 306
629627 Subsection (5)(a), with criminal or non-criminal findings after the date of charge or
630628 307
631629 conviction;
632630 308
633631 (h) is currently subject to a plea in abeyance or diversion agreement for an offense
634632 309
635633 described in Subsection (5)(a);
636634 310
637635 (i) appears on the Sex, Kidnap, and Child Abuse Offender Registry described in Title
638636 311
639637 77, Chapter 41, Sex, Kidnap, and Child Abuse Offender Registry, or a national sex
640638 312
641639 offender registry;
642640 313
643641 (j) has a record of an adjudication in juvenile court for an act that, if committed by an
644642 314
645643 adult, would be a felony or misdemeanor, if the applicant is:
646644 315
647645 (i) under 28 years old; or
648646 316
649647 (ii) 28 years old or older and has been convicted of, has pleaded no contest to, or is
650648 317
651649 currently subject to a plea in abeyance or diversion agreement for a felony or a
652650 318
653651 misdemeanor offense described in Subsection (5)(a);
654652 319
655653 (k) has a pending charge for an offense described in Subsection (5)(a);
656654 320
657655 (l) has a listing that occurred no more than 15 years from the date on which the office
658656 321
659657 conducts the background check in the Division of Child and Family Services'
660658 322
661659 Licensing Information System described in Section 80-2-1002;
662660 323
663661 (m) has a listing that occurred more than 15 years from the date on which the office
664662 324
665663 conducts the background check in the Division of Child and Family Services'
666664 325
667665 Licensing Information System described in Section 80-2-1002, with criminal or
668666 326
669667 non-criminal findings after the date of the listing;
670668 327
671669 (n) has a listing that occurred no more than 15 years from the date on which the office
672670 328
673671 conducts the background check in the Division of Aging and Adult Services'
674672 329
675673 vulnerable adult abuse, neglect, or exploitation database described in Section
676674 330
677675 26B-6-210;
678676 331
679677 (o) has a listing that occurred more than 15 years from the date on which the office
680678 332
681679 conducts the background check in the Division of Aging and Adult Services'
682680 333
683681 vulnerable adult abuse, neglect, or exploitation database described in Section
684-- 10 - 02-21 15:58 2nd Sub. (Salmon) S.B. 240
685682 334
686683 26B-6-210, with criminal or non-criminal findings after the date of the listing;
684+- 10 - 02-20 16:00 2nd Sub. (Salmon) S.B. 240
687685 335
688686 (p) has a substantiated finding that occurred no more than 15 years from the date on
689687 336
690688 which the office conducts the background check of severe child abuse or neglect
691689 337
692690 under Section 80-3-404 or 80-3-504[ ]; or
693691 338
694692 (q) has a substantiated finding that occurred more than 15 years from the date on which
695693 339
696694 the office conducts the background check of severe child abuse or neglect under
697695 340
698696 Section 80-3-404 or 80-3-504, with criminal or non-criminal findings after the date of
699697 341
700698 the listing.
701699 342
702700 (7)(a) The comprehensive review shall include an examination of:
703701 343
704702 (i) the date of the offense or incident;
705703 344
706704 (ii) the nature and seriousness of the offense or incident;
707705 345
708706 (iii) the circumstances under which the offense or incident occurred;
709707 346
710708 (iv) the age of the perpetrator when the offense or incident occurred;
711709 347
712710 (v) whether the offense or incident was an isolated or repeated incident;
713711 348
714712 (vi) whether the offense or incident directly relates to abuse of a child or vulnerable
715713 349
716714 adult, including:
717715 350
718716 (A) actual or threatened, nonaccidental physical, mental, or financial harm;
719717 351
720718 (B) sexual abuse;
721719 352
722720 (C) sexual exploitation; or
723721 353
724722 (D) negligent treatment;
725723 354
726724 (vii) any evidence provided by the applicant of rehabilitation, counseling, psychiatric
727725 355
728726 treatment received, or additional academic or vocational schooling completed;
729727 356
730728 (viii) the applicant's risk of harm to clientele in the program or in the capacity for
731729 357
732730 which the applicant is applying; and
733731 358
734732 (ix) if the background check of an applicant is being conducted for the purpose of
735733 359
736734 giving direct access qualified status to an applicant seeking a position in a
737735 360
738736 congregate care program or to become a prospective foster or adoptive parent, any
739737 361
740738 listing in the Division of Child and Family Services' Management Information
741739 362
742740 System described in Section 80-2-1001.
743741 363
744742 (b) At the conclusion of the comprehensive review, the office shall deny direct access
745743 364
746744 qualified status to an applicant if the office finds the approval would likely create a
747745 365
748746 risk of harm to a child or vulnerable adult.
749747 366
750748 (8) The office shall grant direct access qualified status to an applicant who is not denied
751749 367
752750 under this section.
753-- 11 - 2nd Sub. (Salmon) S.B. 240 02-21 15:58
754751 368
755752 (9)(a) The office may conditionally grant direct access qualified status to an applicant,
753+- 11 - 2nd Sub. (Salmon) S.B. 240 02-20 16:00
756754 369
757755 for a maximum of 60 days after the day on which the office sends written notice,
758756 370
759757 without requiring that the applicant be directly supervised, if the office:
760758 371
761759 (i) is awaiting the results of the criminal history search of national criminal
762760 372
763761 background databases; and
764762 373
765763 (ii) would otherwise grant direct access qualified status to the applicant under this
766764 374
767765 section.
768766 375
769767 (b) The office may conditionally grant direct access qualified status to an applicant, for a
770768 376
771769 maximum of one year after the day on which the office sends written notice, without
772770 377
773771 requiring that the applicant be directly supervised if the office:
774772 378
775773 (i) is awaiting the results of an out-of-state registry for providers other than foster and
776774 379
777775 adoptive parents; and
778776 380
779777 (ii) would otherwise grant direct access qualified status to the applicant under this
780778 381
781779 section.
782780 382
783781 (c) Upon receiving the results of the criminal history search of a national criminal
784782 383
785783 background database, the office shall grant or deny direct access qualified status to
786784 384
787785 the applicant in accordance with this section.
788786 385
789787 (10)(a) Each time an applicant is associated with a licensee, the department shall review
790788 386
791789 the current status of the applicant's background check to ensure the applicant is still
792790 387
793791 eligible for direct access qualified status in accordance with this section.
794792 388
795793 (b) A licensee may not permit an individual to have direct access to a child or a
796794 389
797795 vulnerable adult without being directly supervised unless:
798796 390
799797 (i) the individual is the parent or guardian of the child, or the guardian of the
800798 391
801799 vulnerable adult;
802800 392
803801 (ii) the individual is approved by the parent or guardian of the child, or the guardian
804802 393
805803 of the vulnerable adult, to have direct access to the child or the vulnerable adult;
806804 394
807805 (iii) the individual is only permitted to have direct access to a vulnerable adult who
808806 395
809807 voluntarily invites the individual to visit; or
810808 396
811809 (iv) the individual only provides incidental care for a foster child on behalf of a foster
812810 397
813811 parent who has used reasonable and prudent judgment to select the individual to
814812 398
815813 provide the incidental care for the foster child.
816814 399
817815 (c) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, an applicant who is denied direct
818816 400
819817 access qualified status shall not have direct access to a child or vulnerable adult
820818 401
821819 unless the office grants direct access qualified status to the applicant through a
822-- 12 - 02-21 15:58 2nd Sub. (Salmon) S.B. 240
823820 402
824821 subsequent application in accordance with this section.
822+- 12 - 02-20 16:00 2nd Sub. (Salmon) S.B. 240
825823 403
826824 (11) If the office denies direct access qualified status to an applicant, the applicant may
827825 404
828826 request a hearing in the department's Office of Administrative Hearings to challenge the
829827 405
830828 office's decision.
831829 406
832830 (12)(a) This Subsection (12) applies to an applicant associated with a certification,
833831 407
834832 contract, or licensee serving adults only.
835833 408
836834 (b) A program director or a member, as defined in Section 26B-2-105, of the licensee
837835 409
838836 shall comply with this section.
839837 410
840838 (c) The office shall conduct a comprehensive review for an applicant if:
841839 411
842840 (i) the applicant is seeking a position:
843841 412
844842 (A) as a peer support provider;
845843 413
846844 (B) as a mental health professional; or
847845 414
848846 (C) in a program that serves only adults with a primary mental health diagnosis,
849847 415
850848 with or without a co-occurring substance use disorder; and
851849 416
852850 (ii) within three years from the date on which the office conducts the background
853851 417
854852 check, the applicant has a felony or misdemeanor charge or conviction or a
855853 418
856854 non-criminal finding.
857855 419
858856 (13)(a) This Subsection (13) applies to an applicant seeking a position in a congregate
859857 420
860858 care program, an applicant seeking to provide a prospective foster home, an applicant
861859 421
862860 seeking to provide a prospective adoptive home, and each adult living in the home of
863861 422
864862 the prospective foster or prospective adoptive home.
865863 423
866864 (b) As federally required, the office shall:
867865 424
868866 (i) check the child abuse and neglect registry in each state where each applicant
869867 425
870868 resided in the five years immediately preceding the day on which the applicant
871869 426
872870 applied to be a foster or adoptive parent, to determine whether the prospective
873871 427
874872 foster or adoptive parent is listed in the registry as having a substantiated or
875873 428
876874 supported finding of child abuse or neglect; and
877875 429
878876 (ii) except for applicants seeking a position in a congregate care program, check the
879877 430
880878 child abuse and neglect registry in each state where each adult living in the home
881879 431
882880 of the prospective foster or adoptive home resided in the five years immediately
883881 432
884882 preceding the day on which the applicant applied to be a foster or adoptive parent,
885883 433
886884 to determine whether the adult is listed in the registry as having a substantiated or
887885 434
888886 supported finding of child abuse or neglect.
889887 435
890888 (c) The requirements described in Subsection (13)(b) do not apply to the extent that:
891-- 13 - 2nd Sub. (Salmon) S.B. 240 02-21 15:58
892889 436
893890 (i) federal law or rule permits otherwise; or
891+- 13 - 2nd Sub. (Salmon) S.B. 240 02-20 16:00
894892 437
895893 (ii) the requirements would prohibit the Division of Child and Family Services or a
896894 438
897895 court from placing a child with:
898896 439
899897 (A) a noncustodial parent under Section 80-2a-301, 80-3-302, or 80-3-303; or
900898 440
901899 (B) a relative, other than a noncustodial parent, under Section 80-2a-301, 80-3-302,
902900 441
903901 or 80-3-303, pending completion of the background check described in
904902 442
905903 Subsections (5), (6), and (7).
906904 443
907905 (d) Notwithstanding Subsections (5) through (10), the office shall deny direct access
908906 444
909907 qualified status if the applicant has been convicted of:
910908 445
911909 (i) a felony involving conduct that constitutes any of the following:
912910 446
913911 (A) child abuse, as described in Sections 76-5-109, 76-5-109.2, and 76-5-109.3;
914912 447
915913 (B) commission of domestic violence in the presence of a child, as described in
916914 448
917915 Section 76-5-114;
918916 449
919917 (C) abuse or neglect of a child with a disability, as described in Section 76-5-110;
920918 450
921919 (D) intentional aggravated abuse of a vulnerable adult, as described in Section
922920 451
923921 76-5-111;
924922 452
925923 (E) endangerment of a child or vulnerable adult, as described in Section
926924 453
927925 76-5-112.5;
928926 454
929927 (F) aggravated murder, as described in Section 76-5-202;
930928 455
931929 (G) murder, as described in Section 76-5-203;
932930 456
933931 (H) manslaughter, as described in Section 76-5-205;
934932 457
935933 (I) child abuse homicide, as described in Section 76-5-208;
936934 458
937935 (J) homicide by assault, as described in Section 76-5-209;
938936 459
939937 (K) kidnapping, as described in Section 76-5-301;
940938 460
941939 (L) child kidnapping, as described in Section 76-5-301.1;
942940 461
943941 (M) aggravated kidnapping, as described in Section 76-5-302;
944942 462
945943 (N) human trafficking of a child, as described in Section 76-5-308.5;
946944 463
947945 (O) an offense described in Title 76, Chapter 5, Part 4, Sexual Offenses;
948946 464
949947 (P) sexual exploitation of a minor, as described in Title 76, Chapter 5b, Sexual
950948 465
951949 Exploitation Act;
952950 466
953951 (Q) aggravated exploitation of a minor, as described in Section 76-5b-201.1;
954952 467
955953 (R) aggravated arson, as described in Section 76-6-103;
956954 468
957955 (S) aggravated burglary, as described in Section 76-6-203;
958956 469
959957 (T) aggravated robbery, as described in Section 76-6-302;
960-- 14 - 02-21 15:58 2nd Sub. (Salmon) S.B. 240
961958 470
962959 (U) lewdness involving a child, as described in Section 76-9-702.5;
960+- 14 - 02-20 16:00 2nd Sub. (Salmon) S.B. 240
963961 471
964962 (V) incest, as described in Section 76-7-102; or
965963 472
966964 (W) domestic violence, as described in Section 77-36-1; or
967965 473
968966 (ii) an offense committed outside the state that, if committed in the state, would
969967 474
970968 constitute a violation of an offense described in Subsection (13)(d)(i).
971969 475
972970 (e) Notwithstanding Subsections (5) through (10), the office shall deny direct access
973971 476
974972 qualified status to an applicant if, within the five years from the date on which the
975973 477
976974 office conducts the background check, the applicant was convicted of a felony
977975 478
978976 involving conduct that constitutes a violation of any of the following:
979977 479
980978 (i) aggravated assault, as described in Section 76-5-103;
981979 480
982980 (ii) aggravated assault by a prisoner, as described in Section 76-5-103.5;
983981 481
984982 (iii) mayhem, as described in Section 76-5-105;
985983 482
986984 (iv) an offense described in Title 58, Chapter 37, Utah Controlled Substances Act;
987985 483
988986 (v) an offense described in Title 58, Chapter 37a, Utah Drug Paraphernalia Act;
989987 484
990988 (vi) an offense described in Title 58, Chapter 37b, Imitation Controlled Substances
991989 485
992990 Act;
993991 486
994992 (vii) an offense described in Title 58, Chapter 37c, Utah Controlled Substance
995993 487
996994 Precursor Act; or
997995 488
998996 (viii) an offense described in Title 58, Chapter 37d, Clandestine Drug Lab Act.
999997 489
1000998 (f) In addition to the circumstances described in Subsection (6), the office shall conduct
1001999 490
10021000 a comprehensive review of an applicant's background check under this section if the
10031001 491
10041002 applicant:
10051003 492
10061004 (i) has an offense described in Subsection (5)(a);
10071005 493
10081006 (ii) has an infraction conviction entered on a date that is no more than three years
10091007 494
10101008 before the date on which the office conducts the background check;
10111009 495
10121010 (iii) has a listing in the Division of Child and Family Services' Licensing Information
10131011 496
10141012 System described in Section 80-2-1002;
10151013 497
10161014 (iv) has a listing in the Division of Aging and Adult Services' vulnerable adult,
10171015 498
10181016 neglect, or exploitation database described in Section 26B-2-210;
10191017 499
10201018 (v) has a substantiated finding of severe child abuse or neglect under Section
10211019 500
10221020 80-3-404 or 80-3-504; or
10231021 501
10241022 (vi) has a listing on the registry check described in Subsection (13)(b) as having a
10251023 502
10261024 substantiated or supported finding of a severe type of child abuse or neglect, as
10271025 503
10281026 defined in Section 80-1-102.
1029-- 15 - 2nd Sub. (Salmon) S.B. 240 02-21 15:58
10301027 504
10311028 (g) The department shall make reasonable effort to determine, within seven business
1029+- 15 - 2nd Sub. (Salmon) S.B. 240 02-20 16:00
10321030 505
10331031 days after the date on which the department receives a completed report from the
10341032 506
10351033 bureau, whether to grant certification for direct patient access for each applicant for
10361034 507
10371035 whom the bureau receives:
10381036 508
10391037 (i) the personal identification information specified by the department under
10401038 509
10411039 Subsection (2);
10421040 510
10431041 (ii) results from other state child abuse and neglect registries, in accordance with
10441042 511
10451043 Subsection (3)(g); and
10461044 512
10471045 (iii) any fees established by the department under Subsection (14).
10481046 513
10491047 (14) In accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act, the
10501048 514
10511049 office may make rules, consistent with this part, to:
10521050 515
10531051 (a) establish procedures for, and information to be examined in, the comprehensive
10541052 516
10551053 review described in Subsections (6), (7), and (13);[ and]
10561054 517
10571055 (b) determine whether to consider an offense or incident that occurred while an
10581056 518
10591057 individual was in the custody of the Division of Child and Family Services or the
10601058 519
10611059 Division of Juvenile Justice and Youth Services for purposes of granting or denying
10621060 520
10631061 direct access qualified status to an applicant[.] ; and
10641062 521
10651063 (c) in accordance with Subsection 26B-2-240(9), establish fees for applications for
10661064 522
10671065 certification for direct patient access.
10681066 523
10691067 Section 2. Section 26B-2-703 is amended to read:
10701068 524
10711069 26B-2-703 . Sanctions -- Penalties and adjudicative procedure -- Rulemaking.
10721070 525
10731071 (1) If the department has reason to believe that a provider has failed to comply with this
10741072 526
10751073 chapter or rules made pursuant to this chapter, the department may serve a notice of
10761074 527
10771075 agency action to commence an adjudicative proceeding in accordance with Title 63G,
10781076 528
10791077 Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act.
10801078 529
10811079 (2)(a) In accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act, the
10821080 530
10831081 department may deny, place conditions on, suspend, or revoke a license, certificate,
10841082 531
10851083 or certification, and invoke penalties, including restricting or prohibiting new
10861084 532
10871085 admissions to a program or facility, if the department finds that there has been:
10881086 533
10891087 [(a)] (i) a failure to comply with:
10901088 534
10911089 [(i)] (A) rules established under this chapter; or
10921090 535
10931091 [(ii)] (B) any lawful order of the department or a local health department, or
10941092 536
10951093 applicable rule, statute, regulation, or requirement;
10961094 537
10971095 [(b)] (ii) aiding, abetting, or permitting the commission of any illegal act;
1098-- 16 - 02-21 15:58 2nd Sub. (Salmon) S.B. 240
10991096 538
11001097 [(c)] (iii) conduct adverse to the standards required to provide services and promote
1098+- 16 - 02-20 16:00 2nd Sub. (Salmon) S.B. 240
11011099 539
11021100 public trust, including aiding, abetting, or permitting the commission of abuse,
11031101 540
11041102 neglect, exploitation, harm, mistreatment, or fraud; or
11051103 541
11061104 [(d)] (iv) a failure to provide applicable health and safety services for clients.
11071105 542
11081106 (b) The department may not restrict or prohibit new admissions at a congregate care
11091107 543
1110-program based on Ŝ→ the ←Ŝ sole fact that the congregate care program is
1111-543a
1112-operating under a
1108+program based on sole fact that the congregate care program is operating under a
11131109 544
11141110 conditional license.
11151111 545
11161112 (3)(a) The department may act on an emergency basis if the department determines
11171113 546
11181114 immediate action is necessary to protect a client.
11191115 547
11201116 (b) Immediate action taken under Subsection (3)(a) may include restricting new
11211117 548
11221118 admissions to a program or facility, or increased monitoring of the operations of a
11231119 549
11241120 program or facility.
11251121 550
11261122 (4) The department may impose civil monetary penalties against any person, in a sum not to
11271123 551
11281124 exceed $10,000 per violation, in:
11291125 552
11301126 (a) an administrative action in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative
11311127 553
11321128 Procedures Act;
11331129 554
11341130 (b) a similar administrative proceeding adopted by a county or local government; or
11351131 555
11361132 (c) a judicial civil proceeding.
11371133 556
11381134 (5) Assessment of a civil penalty or administrative penalty does not preclude the
11391135 557
11401136 department or a local health department from:
11411137 558
11421138 (a) seeking criminal penalties;
11431139 559
11441140 (b) denying, revoking, imposing conditions on, or refusing to renew a license,
11451141 560
11461142 certificate, or certification; or
11471143 561
11481144 (c) seeking injunctive or equitable remedies.
11491145 562
11501146 (6) If the department revokes a license, certificate, or certification, the office may not grant
11511147 563
11521148 a new license, certificate, or certification unless:
11531149 564
11541150 (a) at least five years have passed since the day on which the provider was served with
11551151 565
11561152 final notice that the provider's license, certificate, or certification was revoked; and
11571153 566
11581154 (b) the office determines that the interests of the public will not be jeopardized by
11591155 567
11601156 granting the provider a new license, certificate, or certification.
11611157 568
11621158 (7) If the department does not renew a license, certificate, or certification because of
11631159 569
11641160 noncompliance with the provisions of this part or rules adopted under this part, the
11651161 570
11661162 department may not issue a new license, certificate, or certification unless:
1167-- 17 - 2nd Sub. (Salmon) S.B. 240 02-21 15:58
11681163 571
11691164 (a) at least one year has passed since the day on which the renewal was denied;
11701165 572
11711166 (b) the provider complies with all renewal requirements; and
1167+- 17 - 2nd Sub. (Salmon) S.B. 240 02-20 16:00
11721168 573
11731169 (c) the office determines that the interests of the public will not be jeopardized by
11741170 574
11751171 issuing a new license, certificate, or certification.
11761172 575
11771173 (8) The office may suspend a license, certificate, or certification for up to three years.
11781174 576
11791175 (9) When a license, certificate, or certification has been suspended, the office may restore,
11801176 577
11811177 or restore subject to conditions, the suspended license, certificate, or certification upon a
11821178 578
11831179 determination that the:
11841180 579
11851181 (a) conditions upon which the suspension were based have been completely or partially
11861182 580
11871183 corrected; and
11881184 581
11891185 (b) interests of the public will not be jeopardized by restoration of the license, certificate,
11901186 582
11911187 or certification.
11921188 583
11931189 (10) If a provider fails to comply with the provisions of this chapter, the department may
11941190 584
11951191 impose a penalty on the provider that is less than or equal to the cost incurred by the
11961192 585
11971193 department, which may include:
11981194 586
11991195 (a) the cost to continue providing services, including ensuring client safety and
12001196 587
12011197 relocating clients through the transition or closure of a program or facility;
12021198 588
12031199 (b) the cost to place an administrator or department representative as a monitor in a
12041200 589
12051201 program or facility; or
12061202 590
12071203 (c) the cost to assess to the provider those costs incurred by the department.
12081204 591
12091205 (11)(a) If a congregate care program or facility knowingly fails to comply with the
12101206 592
12111207 provisions of Section 26B-2-124, the office may impose a penalty on the congregate
12121208 593
12131209 care program or facility that is less than or equal to the cost of care incurred by the
12141210 594
12151211 state for a private-placement child described in Subsection 26B-2-124(3).
12161212 595
12171213 (b) The office may not deny, place a condition on, revoke, refuse to reinstate, suspend,
12181214 596
12191215 withdraw, or amend an authority, right, license, certificate, or certification under this
12201216 597
12211217 part based on the sole fact that:
12221218 598
12231219 (i) a program has appealed an agency action; or
12241220 599
12251221 (ii) an appeal or adjudicative proceeding is pending.
12261222 600
12271223 (c) The office shall notify a congregate care program within seven days of determining
12281224 601
12291225 that the office will not remove a condition on, reinstate, or renew a program's license.
12301226 602
12311227 (d) The office:
12321228 603
12331229 (i) shall:
12341230 604
12351231 (A) conduct an initial inspection within 14 days after the date on which the office
1236-- 18 - 02-21 15:58 2nd Sub. (Salmon) S.B. 240
12371232 605
12381233 places a restriction or prohibition on new admissions; and
12391234 606
12401235 (B) conduct subsequent inspections at least every 30 days until the the office
1236+- 18 - 02-20 16:00 2nd Sub. (Salmon) S.B. 240
12411237 607
12421238 removes the restriction or prohibition on new admissions;
12431239 608
12441240 (ii) may remove a restriction or prohibition on new admissions at a congregate care
12451241 609
1246-program if Ŝ→ [ the office] ←Ŝ :
1242+program if the office:
12471243 610
1248-(A) Ŝ→ the office ←Ŝ conducts two consecutive inspections showing full
1249-610a
1250-compliance with the
1244+(A) conducts two consecutive inspections showing full compliance with the
12511245 611
12521246 violated rules and any corrective action required by the office;
12531247 612
1254-(B) Ŝ→ the office ←Ŝ finds no new violations upon which the office may
1255-612a
1256-place a restriction or
1248+(B) finds no new violations upon which the office may place a restriction or
12571249 613
12581250 prohibition on new admissions; and
12591251 614
12601252 (C) at least 45 days have passed since the office placed the restriction or
12611253 615
12621254 prohibition on new admissions;
12631255 616
12641256 (iii) shall remove a conditional license on a congregate care program if:
12651257 617
1266-(A) the Ŝ→ [congregate care ] ←Ŝ program has rectified all issues for which
1267-617a
1268-the conditional
1258+(A) the congregate care program has rectified all issues for which the conditional
12691259 618
12701260 license was initially imposed;
12711261 619
12721262 (B) the department conducts three consecutive inspections showing full
12731263 620
12741264 compliance with the violations upon which the conditional license was initially
12751265 621
12761266 imposed;
12771267 622
12781268 (C) at least 90 days have passed since the date on which the first of the three
12791269 623
12801270 inspections described in Subsection (11)(d)(iii)(B) occurred; and
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12821272 (D) the office finds no new violations upon which the office may place a
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12841274 conditional license on the program.
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12861276 (12) If the department finds that an abortion has been performed in violation of Section
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12881278 76-7-314 or 76-7a-201, the department shall deny or revoke the license.
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12901280 (13) A provider, program or facility, or person may commence adjudicative proceedings in
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12921282 accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act, regarding all
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12941284 agency actions that determine the legal rights, duties, privileges, immunities, or other
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12961286 legal interests of the provider, program or facility, or persons associated with the
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12981288 provider, including all office actions to grant, deny, place conditions on, revoke,
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13001290 suspend, withdraw, or amend an authority, right, license, certificate, or certification
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13021292 under this part.
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13041294 (14) Subject to the requirements of federal and state law, the office shall make rules in
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13071296 accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act, to establish
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13091298 sanctions, penalties, and adjudicative proceedings as described in this chapter.
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13111300 Section 3. Effective Date.
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13131302 This bill takes effect on May 7, 2025.
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