CT
Connecticut House Bill HB05500

Connecticut 2022 Regular Session

Connecticut House Bill HB05500 Compare Versions

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914 AN ACT CONCERNING THE DEPARTMENT OF PUBLIC HEALTH'S
1015 RECOMMENDATIONS REGARDING VARIOUS REVISIONS TO THE
1116 PUBLIC HEALTH STATUTES.
1217 Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives in General
1318 Assembly convened:
1419
15-Section 1. Section 19a-490 of the 2022 supplement to the general
16-statutes, as amended by sections 29 and 30 of public act 21-2 of the June
17-special session, is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu
18-thereof (Effective October 1, 2022):
19-As used in this chapter, unless the context otherwise requires:
20-(a) "Institution" means a hospital, short-term hospital special hospice,
21-hospice inpatient facility, residential care home, nursing home facility,
22-home health care agency, home health aide agency, behavioral health
23-facility, assisted living services agency, substance abuse treatment
24-facility, outpatient surgical facility, outpatient clinic, clinical laboratory,
25-an infirmary operated by an educational institution for the care of
26-students enrolled in, and faculty and employees of, such institution; a
27-facility engaged in providing services for the prevention, diagnosis,
28-treatment or care of human health conditions, including facilities
29-operated and maintained by any state agency; and a residential facility
30-for persons with intellectual disability licensed pursuant to section 17a- Substitute House Bill No. 5500
20+Section 1. Section 19a-490 of the 2022 supplement to the general 1
21+statutes, as amended by sections 29 and 30 of public act 21-2 of the June 2
22+special session, is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 3
23+thereof (Effective October 1, 2022): 4
24+As used in this chapter, unless the context otherwise requires: 5
25+(a) "Institution" means a hospital, short-term hospital special hospice, 6
26+hospice inpatient facility, residential care home, nursing home facility, 7
27+home health care agency, home health aide agency, behavioral health 8
28+facility, assisted living services agency, substance abuse treatment 9
29+facility, outpatient surgical facility, outpatient clinic, clinical laboratory, 10
30+an infirmary operated by an educational institution for the care of 11
31+students enrolled in, and faculty and employees of, such institution; a 12
32+facility engaged in providing services for the prevention, diagnosis, 13
33+treatment or care of human health conditions, including facilities 14
34+operated and maintained by any state agency; and a residential facility 15
35+for persons with intellectual disability licensed pursuant to section 17a-16
36+227 and certified to participate in the Title XIX Medicaid program as an 17 Substitute Bill No. 5500
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34-227 and certified to participate in the Title XIX Medicaid program as an
35-intermediate care facility for individuals with intellectual disability.
36-"Institution" does not include any facility for the care and treatment of
37-persons with mental illness or substance use disorder operated or
38-maintained by any state agency, except Whiting Forensic Hospital and
39-the hospital and psychiatric residential treatment facility units of the
40-Albert J. Solnit Children's Center;
41-(b) "Hospital" means an establishment for the lodging, care and
42-treatment of persons suffering from disease or other abnormal physical
43-or mental conditions and includes inpatient psychiatric services in
44-general hospitals;
45-(c) "Residential care home" or "rest home" means a community
46-residence that furnishes, in single or multiple facilities, food and shelter
47-to two or more persons unrelated to the proprietor and, in addition,
48-provides services that meet a need beyond the basic provisions of food,
49-shelter and laundry and may qualify as a setting that allows residents to
50-receive home and community-based services funded by state and
51-federal programs;
52-(d) "Home health care agency" means a public or private
53-organization, or a subdivision thereof, engaged in providing
54-professional nursing services and the following services, available
55-twenty-four hours per day, in the patient's home or a substantially
56-equivalent environment: Home health aide services as defined in this
57-section, physical therapy, speech therapy, occupational therapy or
58-medical social services. The agency shall provide professional nursing
59-services and at least one additional service directly and all others
60-directly or through contract. An agency shall be available to enroll new
61-patients seven days a week, twenty-four hours per day;
62-(e) "Home health aide agency" means a public or private
63-organization, except a home health care agency, which provides in the Substitute House Bill No. 5500
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43+intermediate care facility for individuals with intellectual disability. 18
44+"Institution" does not include any facility for the care and treatment of 19
45+persons with mental illness or substance use disorder operated or 20
46+maintained by any state agency, except Whiting Forensic Hospital and 21
47+the hospital and psychiatric residential treatment facility units of the 22
48+Albert J. Solnit Children's Center; 23
49+(b) "Hospital" means an establishment for the lodging, care and 24
50+treatment of persons suffering from disease or other abnormal physical 25
51+or mental conditions and includes inpatient psychiatric services in 26
52+general hospitals; 27
53+(c) "Residential care home" or "rest home" means a community 28
54+residence that furnishes, in single or multiple facilities, food and shelter 29
55+to two or more persons unrelated to the proprietor and, in addition, 30
56+provides services that meet a need beyond the basic provisions of food, 31
57+shelter and laundry and may qualify as a setting that allows residents to 32
58+receive home and community-based services funded by state and 33
59+federal programs; 34
60+(d) "Home health care agency" means a public or private 35
61+organization, or a subdivision thereof, engaged in providing 36
62+professional nursing services and the following services, available 37
63+twenty-four hours per day, in the patient's home or a substantially 38
64+equivalent environment: Home health aide services as defined in this 39
65+section, physical therapy, speech therapy, occupational therapy or 40
66+medical social services. The agency shall provide professional nursing 41
67+services and at least one additional service directly and all others 42
68+directly or through contract. An agency shall be available to enroll new 43
69+patients seven days a week, twenty-four hours per day; 44
70+(e) "Home health aide agency" means a public or private 45
71+organization, except a home health care agency, which provides in the 46
72+patient's home or a substantially equivalent environment supportive 47
73+services which may include, but are not limited to, assistance with 48
74+personal hygiene, dressing, feeding and incidental household tasks 49 Substitute Bill No. 5500
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67-patient's home or a substantially equivalent environment supportive
68-services which may include, but are not limited to, assistance with
69-personal hygiene, dressing, feeding and incidental household tasks
70-essential to achieving adequate household and family management.
71-Such supportive services shall be provided under the supervision of a
72-registered nurse and, if such nurse determines appropriate, shall be
73-provided by a social worker, physical therapist, speech therapist or
74-occupational therapist. Such supervision may be provided directly or
75-through contract;
76-(f) "Home health aide services" as defined in this section shall not
77-include services provided to assist individuals with activities of daily
78-living when such individuals have a disease or condition that is chronic
79-and stable as determined by a physician licensed in the state;
80-(g) "Behavioral health facility" means any facility that provides
81-mental health services to persons eighteen years of age or older or
82-substance use disorder services to persons of any age in an outpatient
83-treatment or residential setting to ameliorate mental, emotional,
84-behavioral or substance use disorder issues;
85-(h) ["Alcohol or drug treatment facility" means any facility for the
86-care or treatment of persons suffering from alcoholism or other drug
87-addiction] "Clinical laboratory" means any facility or other area used for
88-microbiological, serological, chemical, hematological,
89-immunohematological, biophysical, cytological, pathological or other
90-examinations of human body fluids, secretions, excretions or excised or
91-exfoliated tissues for the purpose of providing information for the (1)
92-diagnosis, prevention or treatment of any human disease or
93-impairment, (2) assessment of human health, or (3) assessment of the
94-presence of drugs, poisons or other toxicological substances;
95-(i) "Person" means any individual, firm, partnership, corporation,
96-limited liability company or association; Substitute House Bill No. 5500
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100-(j) "Commissioner" means the Commissioner of Public Health or the
101-commissioner's designee;
102-(k) "Home health agency" means an agency licensed as a home health
103-care agency or a home health aide agency;
104-(l) "Assisted living services agency" means an agency that provides,
105-among other things, nursing services and assistance with activities of
106-daily living to a population that is chronic and stable and may have a
107-dementia special care unit or program as defined in section 19a-562;
108-(m) "Outpatient clinic" means an organization operated by a
109-municipality or a corporation, other than a hospital, that provides (1)
110-ambulatory medical care, including preventive and health promotion
111-services, (2) dental care, or (3) mental health services in conjunction with
112-medical or dental care for the purpose of diagnosing or treating a health
113-condition that does not require the patient's overnight care;
114-(n) "Multicare institution" means a hospital that provides outpatient
115-behavioral health services or other health care services, psychiatric
116-outpatient clinic for adults, free-standing facility for the care or
117-treatment of substance abusive or dependent persons, hospital for
118-psychiatric disabilities, as defined in section 17a-495, or a general acute
119-care hospital that provides outpatient behavioral health services that (1)
120-is licensed in accordance with this chapter, (2) has more than one facility
121-or one or more satellite units owned and operated by a single licensee,
122-and (3) offers complex patient health care services at each facility or
123-satellite unit. For purposes of this subsection, "satellite unit" means a
124-location where a segregated unit of services is provided by the multicare
125-institution;
126-(o) "Nursing home" or "nursing home facility" means (1) any chronic
127-and convalescent nursing home or any rest home with nursing
128-supervision that provides nursing supervision under a medical director Substitute House Bill No. 5500
81+essential to achieving adequate household and family management. 50
82+Such supportive services shall be provided under the supervision of a 51
83+registered nurse and, if such nurse determines appropriate, shall be 52
84+provided by a social worker, physical therapist, speech therapist or 53
85+occupational therapist. Such supervision may be provided directly or 54
86+through contract; 55
87+(f) "Home health aide services" as defined in this section shall not 56
88+include services provided to assist individuals with activities of daily 57
89+living when such individuals have a disease or condition that is chronic 58
90+and stable as determined by a physician licensed in the state; 59
91+(g) "Behavioral health facility" means any facility that provides 60
92+mental health services to persons eighteen years of age or older or 61
93+substance use disorder services to persons of any age in an outpatient 62
94+treatment or residential setting to ameliorate mental, emotional, 63
95+behavioral or substance use disorder issues; 64
96+(h) ["Alcohol or drug treatment facility" means any facility for the 65
97+care or treatment of persons suffering from alcoholism or other drug 66
98+addiction] "Clinical laboratory" means any facility or other area used for 67
99+microbiological, serological, chemical, hematological, 68
100+immunohematological, biophysical, cytological, pathological or other 69
101+examinations of human body fluids, secretions, excretions or excised or 70
102+exfoliated tissues for the purpose of providing information for the (1) 71
103+diagnosis, prevention or treatment of any human disease or 72
104+impairment, (2) assessment of human health, or (3) presence of drugs, 73
105+poisons or other toxicological substances; 74
106+(i) "Person" means any individual, firm, partnership, corporation, 75
107+limited liability company or association; 76
108+(j) "Commissioner" means the Commissioner of Public Health or the 77
109+commissioner's designee; 78
110+(k) "Home health agency" means an agency licensed as a home health 79
111+care agency or a home health aide agency; 80 Substitute Bill No. 5500
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132-twenty-four hours per day, or (2) any chronic and convalescent nursing
133-home that provides skilled nursing care under medical supervision and
134-direction to carry out nonsurgical treatment and dietary procedures for
135-chronic diseases, convalescent stages, acute diseases or injuries;
136-(p) "Outpatient dialysis unit" means (1) an out-of-hospital out-patient
137-dialysis unit that is licensed by the department to provide (A) services
138-on an out-patient basis to persons requiring dialysis on a short-term
139-basis or for a chronic condition, or (B) training for home dialysis, or (2)
140-an in-hospital dialysis unit that is a special unit of a licensed hospital
141-designed, equipped and staffed to (A) offer dialysis therapy on an out-
142-patient basis, (B) provide training for home dialysis, and (C) perform
143-renal transplantations; [and]
144-(q) "Hospice agency" means a public or private organization that
145-provides home care and hospice services to terminally ill patients; [.]
146-(r) "Psychiatric residential treatment facility" means a nonhospital
147-facility with a provider agreement with the Department of Social
148-Services to provide inpatient services to Medicaid-eligible individuals
149-under the age of twenty-one; [.] and
150-(s) "Chronic disease hospital" means a long-term hospital having
151-facilities, medical staff and all necessary personnel for the diagnosis,
152-care and treatment of chronic diseases.
153-Sec. 2. Subsection (a) of section 19a-491c of the 2022 supplement to
154-the general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu
155-thereof (Effective October 1, 2022):
156-(a) As used in this section:
157-(1) "Criminal history and patient abuse background search" or
158-"background search" means (A) a review of the registry of nurse's aides
159-maintained by the Department of Public Health pursuant to section 20- Substitute House Bill No. 5500
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118+(l) "Assisted living services agency" means an agency that provides, 81
119+among other things, nursing services and assistance with activities of 82
120+daily living to a population that is chronic and stable and may have a 83
121+dementia special care unit or program as defined in section 19a-562; 84
122+(m) "Outpatient clinic" means an organization operated by a 85
123+municipality or a corporation, other than a hospital, that provides (1) 86
124+ambulatory medical care, including preventive and health promotion 87
125+services, (2) dental care, or (3) mental health services in conjunction with 88
126+medical or dental care for the purpose of diagnosing or treating a health 89
127+condition that does not require the patient's overnight care; 90
128+(n) "Multicare institution" means a hospital that provides outpatient 91
129+behavioral health services or other health care services, psychiatric 92
130+outpatient clinic for adults, free-standing facility for the care or 93
131+treatment of substance abusive or dependent persons, hospital for 94
132+psychiatric disabilities, as defined in section 17a-495, or a general acute 95
133+care hospital that provides outpatient behavioral health services that (1) 96
134+is licensed in accordance with this chapter, (2) has more than one facility 97
135+or one or more satellite units owned and operated by a single licensee, 98
136+and (3) offers complex patient health care services at each facility or 99
137+satellite unit. For purposes of this subsection, "satellite unit" means a 100
138+location where a segregated unit of services is provided by the multicare 101
139+institution; 102
140+(o) "Nursing home" or "nursing home facility" means (1) any chronic 103
141+and convalescent nursing home or any rest home with nursing 104
142+supervision that provides nursing supervision under a medical director 105
143+twenty-four hours per day, or (2) any chronic and convalescent nursing 106
144+home that provides skilled nursing care under medical supervision and 107
145+direction to carry out nonsurgical treatment and dietary procedures for 108
146+chronic diseases, convalescent stages, acute diseases or injuries; 109
147+(p) "Outpatient dialysis unit" means (1) an out-of-hospital out-patient 110
148+dialysis unit that is licensed by the department to provide (A) services 111
149+on an out-patient basis to persons requiring dialysis on a short-term 112 Substitute Bill No. 5500
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163-102bb, (B) checks of state and national criminal history records
164-conducted in accordance with section 29-17a, and (C) a review of any
165-other registry specified by the Department of Public Health which the
166-department deems necessary for the administration of a background
167-search program.
168-(2) "Direct access" means physical access to a patient or resident of a
169-long-term care facility that affords an individual with the opportunity
170-to commit abuse or neglect against or misappropriate the property of a
171-patient or resident.
172-(3) "Disqualifying offense" means a conviction of (A) any crime
173-described in 42 USC 1320a-7(a)(1), (2), (3) or (4), (B) a substantiated
174-finding of neglect, abuse or misappropriation of property by a state or
175-federal agency pursuant to an investigation conducted in accordance
176-with 42 USC 1395i-3(g)(1)(C) or 42 USC 1396r(g)(1)(C), or (C) a
177-conviction of any crime described in section 53a-59a, 53a-60b, 53a-60c,
178-53a-61a, 53a-321, 53a-322 or 53a-323.
179-(4) "Long-term care facility" means any facility, agency or provider
180-that is a nursing home, as defined in section 19a-521, a residential care
181-home, as defined in section 19a-521, a home health care agency, hospice
182-agency or home health aide agency, as defined in section 19a-490, as
183-amended by this act, an assisted living services agency, as defined in
184-section 19a-490, as amended by this act, an intermediate care facility for
185-individuals with intellectual disabilities, as defined in 42 USC 1396d(d),
186-except any such facility operated by a Department of Developmental
187-Services' program subject to background checks pursuant to section 17a-
188-227a, a chronic disease hospital, as defined in section [19a-550] 19a-490,
189-as amended by this act, or an agency providing hospice care which is
190-licensed to provide such care by the Department of Public Health or
191-certified to provide such care pursuant to 42 USC 1395x.
192-Sec. 3. Section 19a-535b of the general statutes is repealed and the Substitute House Bill No. 5500
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196-following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2022):
197-[(a) As used in this section, a "facility" means a chronic disease
198-hospital which is a long-term hospital having facilities, medical staff and
199-all necessary personnel for the diagnosis, care and treatment of chronic
200-diseases.]
201-[(b)] A [facility] chronic disease hospital shall not transfer or
202-discharge a patient from [the facility] such hospital except for medical
203-reasons, or for the patient's welfare or the welfare of other patients, as
204-documented in the patient's medical record; or, in the case of a self pay
205-patient, for nonpayment or arrearage of more than fifteen days of the
206-per diem chronic disease hospital room rates for the patient's stay,
207-except as prohibited by the Social Security Act. In the case of an
208-involuntary transfer or discharge, the patient and, if known, the
209-patient's legally liable relative, guardian or conservator and the patient's
210-personal physician, if the discharge plan is prepared by the medical
211-director of the chronic disease hospital, shall be given at least thirty
212-days' written notice of the proposed action to ensure orderly transfer or
213-discharge.
214-Sec. 4. Subsection (a) of section 19a-537 of the general statutes is
215-repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October
216-1, 2022):
217-(a) As used in this section and section 19a-537a:
218-(1) "Vacancy" means a bed that is available for an admission;
219-(2) "Nursing home" means any chronic and convalescent facility or
220-any rest home with nursing supervision, as defined in section 19a-521;
221-(3) "Hospital" means a general short-term hospital licensed by the
222-Department of Public Health or a hospital for mental illness, as defined
223-in section 17a-495, or a chronic disease hospital. [, as defined in section Substitute House Bill No. 5500
156+basis or for a chronic condition, or (B) training for home dialysis, or (2) 113
157+an in-hospital dialysis unit that is a special unit of a licensed hospital 114
158+designed, equipped and staffed to (A) offer dialysis therapy on an out-115
159+patient basis, (B) provide training for home dialysis, and (C) perform 116
160+renal transplantations; [and] 117
161+(q) "Hospice agency" means a public or private organization that 118
162+provides home care and hospice services to terminally ill patients; [.] 119
163+(r) "Psychiatric residential treatment facility" means a nonhospital 120
164+facility with a provider agreement with the Department of Social 121
165+Services to provide inpatient services to Medicaid-eligible individuals 122
166+under the age of twenty-one; [.] and 123
167+(s) "Chronic disease hospital" means a long-term hospital having 124
168+facilities, medical staff and all necessary personnel for the diagnosis, 125
169+care and treatment of chronic diseases. 126
170+Sec. 2. Subsection (a) of section 19a-491c of the 2022 supplement to 127
171+the general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 128
172+thereof (Effective October 1, 2022): 129
173+(a) As used in this section: 130
174+(1) "Criminal history and patient abuse background search" or 131
175+"background search" means (A) a review of the registry of nurse's aides 132
176+maintained by the Department of Public Health pursuant to section 20-133
177+102bb, (B) checks of state and national criminal history records 134
178+conducted in accordance with section 29-17a, and (C) a review of any 135
179+other registry specified by the Department of Public Health which the 136
180+department deems necessary for the administration of a background 137
181+search program. 138
182+(2) "Direct access" means physical access to a patient or resident of a 139
183+long-term care facility that affords an individual with the opportunity 140
184+to commit abuse or neglect against or misappropriate the property of a 141
185+patient or resident. 142 Substitute Bill No. 5500
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227-19-13-D1(a) of the Public Health Code.]
228-Sec. 5. Subsection (a) of section 19a-550 of the 2022 supplement to the
229-general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu
230-thereof (Effective October 1, 2022):
231-(a) (1) As used in this section, (A) "nursing home facility" has the same
232-meaning as provided in section 19a-521, and (B) "residential care home"
233-has the same meaning as provided in section 19a-521; [, and (C) "chronic
234-disease hospital" means a long-term hospital having facilities, medical
235-staff and all necessary personnel for the diagnosis, care and treatment
236-of chronic diseases;] and (2) for the purposes of subsections (c) and (d)
237-of this section, and subsection (b) of section 19a-537, "medically
238-contraindicated" means a comprehensive evaluation of the impact of a
239-potential room transfer on the patient's physical, mental and
240-psychosocial well-being, which determines that the transfer would
241-cause new symptoms or exacerbate present symptoms beyond a
242-reasonable adjustment period resulting in a prolonged or significant
243-negative outcome that could not be ameliorated through care plan
244-intervention, as documented by a physician, physician assistant or an
245-advanced practice registered nurse in a patient's medical record.
246-Sec. 6. Subsections (a) to (e), inclusive, of section 20-185r of the general
247-statutes are repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof
248-(Effective October 1, 2022):
249-(a) As used in this section:
250-(1) "Central service technician" means a person who decontaminates,
251-inspects, assembles, packages and sterilizes reusable medical
252-instruments or devices [in] for a health care facility, whether such
253-person is employed by the health care facility or provides services
254-pursuant to a contract with the health care facility;
255-(2) "Health care facility" means an outpatient surgical facility, as Substitute House Bill No. 5500
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192+(3) "Disqualifying offense" means a conviction of (A) any crime 143
193+described in 42 USC 1320a-7(a)(1), (2), (3) or (4), (B) a substantiated 144
194+finding of neglect, abuse or misappropriation of property by a state or 145
195+federal agency pursuant to an investigation conducted in accordance 146
196+with 42 USC 1395i-3(g)(1)(C) or 42 USC 1396r(g)(1)(C), or (C) a 147
197+conviction of any crime described in section 53a-59a, 53a-60b, 53a-60c, 148
198+53a-61a, 53a-321, 53a-322 or 53a-323. 149
199+(4) "Long-term care facility" means any facility, agency or provider 150
200+that is a nursing home, as defined in section 19a-521, a residential care 151
201+home, as defined in section 19a-521, a home health care agency, hospice 152
202+agency or home health aide agency, as defined in section 19a-490, as 153
203+amended by this act, an assisted living services agency, as defined in 154
204+section 19a-490, as amended by this act, an intermediate care facility for 155
205+individuals with intellectual disabilities, as defined in 42 USC 1396d(d), 156
206+except any such facility operated by a Department of Developmental 157
207+Services' program subject to background checks pursuant to section 17a-158
208+227a, a chronic disease hospital, as defined in section [19a-550] 19a-490, 159
209+as amended by this act, or an agency providing hospice care which is 160
210+licensed to provide such care by the Department of Public Health or 161
211+certified to provide such care pursuant to 42 USC 1395x. 162
212+Sec. 3. Section 19a-535b of the general statutes is repealed and the 163
213+following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2022): 164
214+[(a) As used in this section, a "facility" means a chronic disease 165
215+hospital which is a long-term hospital having facilities, medical staff and 166
216+all necessary personnel for the diagnosis, care and treatment of chronic 167
217+diseases.] 168
218+[(b)] A [facility] chronic disease hospital shall not transfer or 169
219+discharge a patient from [the facility] such hospital except for medical 170
220+reasons, or for the patient's welfare or the welfare of other patients, as 171
221+documented in the patient's medical record; or, in the case of a self pay 172
222+patient, for nonpayment or arrearage of more than fifteen days of the 173
223+per diem chronic disease hospital room rates for the patient's stay, 174 Substitute Bill No. 5500
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259-defined in section 19a-493b, or a hospital, as defined in section 19a-490,
260-as amended by this act, but does not include a chronic disease hospital,
261-as defined in section [19a-550] 19a-490, as amended by this act;
262-(3) "Health care provider" means a person or organization that
263-provides health care services and is licensed in accordance with this title;
264-and
265-(4) "Central service department" means a department within a health
266-care facility that processes, issues and controls medical supplies, devices
267-and equipment, both sterile and nonsterile, for patient care areas of a
268-health care facility.
269-(b) Unless otherwise permitted pursuant to this section, no person
270-shall practice as a central service technician unless such person (1) (A)
271-has successfully passed a nationally accredited central service exam for
272-central service technicians and holds and maintains one of the following
273-credentials: (i) A certified registered central service technician credential
274-administered by the International Association of Healthcare Central
275-Service Materiel Management, or its successor organization, or (ii) a
276-certified sterile processing and distribution technician credential
277-administered by the Certification Board for Sterile Processing and
278-Distribution, Inc., or (B) was employed or otherwise contracted for
279-services as a central service technician [in] by a health care facility before
280-January 1, 2016, or (2) obtains a certified registered central service
281-technician credential administered by the International Association of
282-Healthcare Central Service Materiel Management, or its successor
283-organization, or a certified sterile processing and distribution technician
284-credential administered by the Certification Board for Sterile Processing
285-and Distribution, Inc., not later than two years after such person's date
286-of hire or contracting for services with the health care facility.
287-(c) A central service technician shall complete a minimum of ten
288-hours of continuing education annually. The continuing education shall Substitute House Bill No. 5500
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292-be in areas related to the functions of a central service technician.
293-(d) A health care facility shall, upon the written request of a central
294-service technician, verify, in writing, the central service technician's
295-dates of employment or the contract period during which the central
296-service technician provided services to the health care facility.
297-(e) Nothing in this section shall prohibit the following persons from
298-performing the tasks or functions of a central service technician: (1) A
299-health care provider; (2) a student or intern performing the functions of
300-a central service technician under the direct supervision of a health care
301-provider as part of the student's or intern's training or internship; or (3)
302-a person who does not work in a central service department in a health
303-care facility, but who has been specially trained and determined
304-competent, based on standards set by a health care facility's infection
305-prevention or control committee, acting in consultation with a central
306-service technician certified in accordance with subsection (b) of this
307-section, to decontaminate or sterilize reusable medical equipment,
308-instruments or devices, in a manner that meets applicable
309-manufacturer's instructions and standards.
310-Sec. 7. Subsection (a) of section 12-20a of the general statutes is
311-repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October
312-1, 2022):
313-(a) Until the fiscal year commencing July 1, 2016, on or before January
314-first, annually, the Secretary of the Office of Policy and Management
315-shall determine the amount due to each municipality in the state, in
316-accordance with this section, as a state grant in lieu of taxes with respect
317-to real property owned by any private nonprofit institution of higher
318-learning or any nonprofit general hospital facility or freestanding
319-chronic disease hospital or an urgent care facility that operates for at
320-least twelve hours a day and that had been the location of a nonprofit
321-general hospital for at least a portion of calendar year 1996 to receive Substitute House Bill No. 5500
230+except as prohibited by the Social Security Act. In the case of an 175
231+involuntary transfer or discharge, the patient and, if known, the 176
232+patient's legally liable relative, guardian or conservator and the patient's 177
233+personal physician, if the discharge plan is prepared by the medical 178
234+director of the chronic disease hospital, shall be given at least thirty 179
235+days' written notice of the proposed action to ensure orderly transfer or 180
236+discharge. 181
237+Sec. 4. Subsection (a) of section 19a-537 of the general statutes is 182
238+repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 183
239+1, 2022): 184
240+(a) As used in this section and section 19a-537a: 185
241+(1) "Vacancy" means a bed that is available for an admission; 186
242+(2) "Nursing home" means any chronic and convalescent facility or 187
243+any rest home with nursing supervision, as defined in section 19a-521; 188
244+(3) "Hospital" means a general short-term hospital licensed by the 189
245+Department of Public Health or a hospital for mental illness, as defined 190
246+in section 17a-495, or a chronic disease hospital. [, as defined in section 191
247+19-13-D1(a) of the Public Health Code.] 192
248+Sec. 5. Subsection (a) of section 19a-550 of the 2022 supplement to the 193
249+general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 194
250+thereof (Effective October 1, 2022): 195
251+(a) (1) As used in this section, (A) "nursing home facility" has the same 196
252+meaning as provided in section 19a-521, and (B) "residential care home" 197
253+has the same meaning as provided in section 19a-521; [, and (C) "chronic 198
254+disease hospital" means a long-term hospital having facilities, medical 199
255+staff and all necessary personnel for the diagnosis, care and treatment 200
256+of chronic diseases;] and (2) for the purposes of subsections (c) and (d) 201
257+of this section, and subsection (b) of section 19a-537, "medically 202
258+contraindicated" means a comprehensive evaluation of the impact of a 203
259+potential room transfer on the patient's physical, mental and 204 Substitute Bill No. 5500
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325-payments in lieu of taxes for such property, exclusive of any such facility
326-operated by the federal government, except a campus of the United
327-States Department of Veterans Affairs Connecticut Healthcare Systems,
328-or the state of Connecticut or any subdivision thereof. As used in this
329-section, "private nonprofit institution of higher learning" means any
330-such institution, as defined in subsection (a) of section 10a-34, or any
331-independent institution of higher education, as defined in subsection (a)
332-of section 10a-173, that is engaged primarily in education beyond the
333-high school level, and offers courses of instruction for which college or
334-university-level credit may be given or may be received by transfer, the
335-property of which is exempt from property tax under any of the
336-subdivisions of section 12-81, as amended by this act; "nonprofit general
337-hospital facility" means any such facility that is used primarily for the
338-purpose of general medical care and treatment, exclusive of any hospital
339-facility used primarily for the care and treatment of special types of
340-disease or physical or mental conditions; and "freestanding chronic
341-disease hospital" [means a facility that provides for the care and
342-treatment of chronic diseases] has the same meaning as "chronic disease
343-hospital" as defined in section 19a-490, as amended by this act,
344-excluding any such facility having an ownership affiliation with and
345-operated in the same location as a chronic and convalescent nursing
346-home.
347-Sec. 8. Section 17b-368 of the general statutes is repealed and the
348-following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2022):
349-On or before July 1, 2004, the Department of Social Services shall,
350-within the limits of available Medicaid funding, implement a pilot
351-project in Greater Hartford with a chronic disease hospital colocated
352-with a skilled nursing facility and with the facilities, medical staff and
353-all necessary personnel for the diagnosis, care and treatment of chronic
354-or geriatric mental conditions that require prolonged hospital or
355-restorative care. For purposes of this section, "chronic disease hospital" Substitute House Bill No. 5500
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266+psychosocial well-being, which determines that the transfer would 205
267+cause new symptoms or exacerbate present symptoms beyond a 206
268+reasonable adjustment period resulting in a prolonged or significant 207
269+negative outcome that could not be ameliorated through care plan 208
270+intervention, as documented by a physician, physician assistant or an 209
271+advanced practice registered nurse in a patient's medical record. 210
272+Sec. 6. Subsections (a) to (e), inclusive, of section 20-185r of the general 211
273+statutes are repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof 212
274+(Effective October 1, 2022): 213
275+(a) As used in this section: 214
276+(1) "Central service technician" means a person who decontaminates, 215
277+inspects, assembles, packages and sterilizes reusable medical 216
278+instruments or devices [in] for a health care facility, whether such 217
279+person is employed by the health care facility or provides services 218
280+pursuant to a contract with the health care facility; 219
281+(2) "Health care facility" means an outpatient surgical facility, as 220
282+defined in section 19a-493b, or a hospital, as defined in section 19a-490, 221
283+as amended by this act, but does not include a chronic disease hospital, 222
284+as defined in section [19a-550] 19a-490, as amended by this act; 223
285+(3) "Health care provider" means a person or organization that 224
286+provides health care services and is licensed in accordance with this title; 225
287+and 226
288+(4) "Central service department" means a department within a health 227
289+care facility that processes, issues and controls medical supplies, devices 228
290+and equipment, both sterile and nonsterile, for patient care areas of a 229
291+health care facility. 230
292+(b) Unless otherwise permitted pursuant to this section, no person 231
293+shall practice as a central service technician unless such person (1) (A) 232
294+has successfully passed a nationally accredited central service exam for 233
295+central service technicians and holds and maintains one of the following 234 Substitute Bill No. 5500
358296
359-[means a long-term hospital with facilities, medical staff and all
360-necessary personnel for the diagnosis, care and treatment of chronic
361-physical and geriatric mental health conditions that require prolonged
362-hospital or restorative care] has the same meaning as provided in section
363-19a-490, as amended by this act.
364-Sec. 9. Subsection (a) of section 19a-491 of the 2022 supplement to the
365-general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu
366-thereof (Effective from passage):
367-(a) No person acting individually or jointly with any other person
368-shall establish, conduct, operate or maintain an institution in this state
369-without a license as required by this chapter, except for persons issued
370-a license by the Commissioner of Children and Families pursuant to
371-section 17a-145 for the operation of (1) a substance abuse treatment
372-facility, or (2) a facility for the purpose of caring for women during
373-pregnancies and for women and their infants following such
374-pregnancies, provided such exception shall not apply to the hospital and
375-psychiatric residential treatment facility units of the Albert J. Solnit
376-Children's Center. Application for such license shall (A) be made to the
377-Department of Public Health upon forms provided by it, (B) be
378-accompanied by the fee required under subsection (c), (d) or (e) of this
379-section, (C) contain such information as the department requires, which
380-may include affirmative evidence of ability to comply with reasonable
381-standards and regulations prescribed under the provisions of this
382-chapter, and (D) not be required to be notarized. The commissioner may
383-require as a condition of licensure that an applicant sign a consent order
384-providing reasonable assurances of compliance with the Public Health
385-Code. The commissioner may issue more than one chronic disease
386-hospital license to a single institution until such time as the state offers
387-a rehabilitation hospital license.
388-Sec. 10. Subsection (a) of section 19a-497 of the general statutes is
389-repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, Substitute House Bill No. 5500
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393-2022):
394-(a) Each institution shall, upon receipt of a notice of intention to strike
395-by a labor organization representing the employees of such institution,
396-in accordance with the provisions of the National Labor Relations Act,
397-29 USC 158, file a strike contingency plan with the commissioner not
398-later than five days before the date indicated for the strike. Such strike
399-contingency plan shall include the institution's staffing plan for at least
400-the first three days of such strike. The strike contingency plan shall
401-include, but need not be limited to, the names and titles of the
402-individuals who will be providing services at the institution. An
403-institution that is a residential facility for persons with intellectual
404-disability licensed pursuant to section 17a-227 and certified to
405-participate in the Title XIX Medicaid program as an intermediate care
406-facility for individuals with intellectual disabilities shall submit a strike
407-contingency plan that contains the same information as required of
408-nursing homes.
409-Sec. 11. Subsections (a) and (b) of section 19a-515 of the general
410-statutes are repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof
411-(Effective from passage):
412-(a) Each nursing home administrator's license issued pursuant to the
413-provisions of sections 19a-511 to 19a-520, inclusive, shall be renewed
414-once every two years, in accordance with section 19a-88, except for
415-cause, by the Department of Public Health, upon forms to be furnished
416-by said department and upon the payment to said department, by each
417-applicant for license renewal, of the sum of two hundred five dollars.
418-Each such fee shall be remitted to the Department of Public Health on
419-or before the date prescribed under section 19a-88. Such renewals shall
420-be granted unless said department finds the applicant has acted or failed
421-to act in such a manner or under such circumstances as would constitute
422-grounds for suspension or revocation of such license. Substitute House Bill No. 5500
302+credentials: (i) A certified registered central service technician credential 235
303+administered by the International Association of Healthcare Central 236
304+Service Materiel Management, or its successor organization, or (ii) a 237
305+certified sterile processing and distribution technician credential 238
306+administered by the Certification Board for Sterile Processing and 239
307+Distribution, Inc., or (B) was employed or otherwise contracted for 240
308+services as a central service technician [in] by a health care facility before 241
309+January 1, 2016, or (2) obtains a certified registered central service 242
310+technician credential administered by the International Association of 243
311+Healthcare Central Service Materiel Management, or its successor 244
312+organization, or a certified sterile processing and distribution technician 245
313+credential administered by the Certification Board for Sterile Processing 246
314+and Distribution, Inc., not later than two years after such person's date 247
315+of hire or contracting for services with the health care facility. 248
316+(c) A central service technician shall complete a minimum of ten 249
317+hours of continuing education annually. The continuing education shall 250
318+be in areas related to the functions of a central service technician. 251
319+(d) A health care facility shall, upon the written request of a central 252
320+service technician, verify, in writing, the central service technician's 253
321+dates of employment or the contract period during which the central 254
322+service technician provided services to the health care facility. 255
323+(e) Nothing in this section shall prohibit the following persons from 256
324+performing the tasks or functions of a central service technician: (1) A 257
325+health care provider; (2) a student or intern performing the functions of 258
326+a central service technician under the direct supervision of a health care 259
327+provider as part of the student's or intern's training or internship; or (3) 260
328+a person who does not work in a central service department in a health 261
329+care facility, but who has been specially trained and determined 262
330+competent, based on standards set by a health care facility's infection 263
331+prevention or control committee, acting in consultation with a central 264
332+service technician certified in accordance with subsection (b) of this 265
333+section, to decontaminate or sterilize reusable medical equipment, 266
334+instruments or devices, in a manner that meets applicable 267 Substitute Bill No. 5500
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425336
426-(b) Each licensee shall complete a minimum of forty hours of
427-continuing education every two years, including, but not limited to,
428-training in (1) Alzheimer's disease and dementia symptoms and care,
429-and (2) infection prevention and control. Such two-year period shall
430-commence on the first date of renewal of the licensee's license after
431-January 1, 2004. The continuing education shall be in areas related to the
432-licensee's practice. Qualifying continuing education activities are
433-courses offered or approved by the Connecticut Association of
434-Healthcare Facilities, LeadingAge Connecticut, Inc., the Connecticut
435-Assisted Living Association, the Connecticut Alliance for Subacute
436-Care, Inc., the Connecticut Chapter of the American College of Health
437-Care Administrators, the Association For Long Term Care Financial
438-Managers, the Alzheimer's Association or any accredited college or
439-university, or programs presented or approved by the National
440-Continuing Education Review Service of the National Association of
441-Boards of Examiners of Long Term Care Administrators, the
442-Association for Professionals in Infection Control and Epidemiology or
443-by federal or state departments or agencies.
444-Sec. 12. Subsection (a) of section 19a-492e of the 2022 supplement to
445-the general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu
446-thereof (Effective October 1, 2022):
447-(a) For purposes of this section "home health care agency" and
448-"hospice agency" have the same meanings as provided in section 19a-
449-490, as amended by this act. Notwithstanding the provisions of chapter
450-378, a registered nurse may delegate the administration of medications
451-that are not administered by injection to home health aides and hospice
452-aides who have obtained (1) certification and recertification every
453-[three] two years thereafter for medication administration in accordance
454-with regulations adopted pursuant to subsection (b) of this section, or
455-(2) a current certification from the Department of Children and Families
456-or the Department of Developmental Services in accordance with Substitute House Bill No. 5500
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341+manufacturer's instructions and standards. 268
342+Sec. 7. Subsection (a) of section 12-20a of the general statutes is 269
343+repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 270
344+1, 2022): 271
345+(a) Until the fiscal year commencing July 1, 2016, on or before January 272
346+first, annually, the Secretary of the Office of Policy and Management 273
347+shall determine the amount due to each municipality in the state, in 274
348+accordance with this section, as a state grant in lieu of taxes with respect 275
349+to real property owned by any private nonprofit institution of higher 276
350+learning or any nonprofit general hospital facility or freestanding 277
351+chronic disease hospital or an urgent care facility that operates for at 278
352+least twelve hours a day and that had been the location of a nonprofit 279
353+general hospital for at least a portion of calendar year 1996 to receive 280
354+payments in lieu of taxes for such property, exclusive of any such facility 281
355+operated by the federal government, except a campus of the United 282
356+States Department of Veterans Affairs Connecticut Healthcare Systems, 283
357+or the state of Connecticut or any subdivision thereof. As used in this 284
358+section, "private nonprofit institution of higher learning" means any 285
359+such institution, as defined in subsection (a) of section 10a-34, or any 286
360+independent institution of higher education, as defined in subsection (a) 287
361+of section 10a-173, that is engaged primarily in education beyond the 288
362+high school level, and offers courses of instruction for which college or 289
363+university-level credit may be given or may be received by transfer, the 290
364+property of which is exempt from property tax under any of the 291
365+subdivisions of section 12-81, as amended by this act; "nonprofit general 292
366+hospital facility" means any such facility that is used primarily for the 293
367+purpose of general medical care and treatment, exclusive of any hospital 294
368+facility used primarily for the care and treatment of special types of 295
369+disease or physical or mental conditions; and "freestanding chronic 296
370+disease hospital" [means a facility that provides for the care and 297
371+treatment of chronic diseases] has the same meaning as "chronic disease 298
372+hospital" as defined in section 19a-490, as amended by this act, 299
373+excluding any such facility having an ownership affiliation with and 300 Substitute Bill No. 5500
459374
460-section 19a-495a, as amended by this act, unless the prescribing
461-practitioner specifies that a medication shall only be administered by a
462-licensed nurse. [Any home health aide or hospice aide who obtained
463-certification in the administration of medications on or before June 30,
464-2015, shall obtain recertification on or before July 1, 2018.]
465-Sec. 13. Subsections (a) and (b) of section 19a-495a of the general
466-statutes are repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof
467-(Effective October 1, 2022):
468-(a) (1) The Commissioner of Public Health may adopt regulations, as
469-provided in subsection (d) of this section, to require each residential care
470-home [, as defined in section 19a-490,] that admits residents requiring
471-assistance with medication administration, to (A) designate unlicensed
472-personnel to obtain certification for the administration of medication
473-from the Department of Public Health, Department of Children and
474-Families or Department of Developmental Services, and (B) ensure that
475-such unlicensed personnel receive such certification and recertification
476-every [three] two years thereafter from the Department of Public Health,
477-Department of Children and Families or Department of Developmental
478-Services.
479-(2) Any regulations adopted pursuant to this subsection shall
480-establish criteria to be used by such homes in determining (A) the
481-appropriate number of unlicensed personnel who shall obtain such
482-certification and recertification, and (B) training requirements,
483-including ongoing training requirements for such certification and
484-recertification.
485-(3) Training requirements for initial certification and recertification
486-shall include, but shall not be limited to: Initial orientation, resident
487-rights, identification of the types of medication that may be
488-administered by unlicensed personnel, behavioral management,
489-personal care, nutrition and food safety, and health and safety in Substitute House Bill No. 5500
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493-general.
494-(b) Each residential care home [, as defined in section 19a-490,] shall
495-ensure that an appropriate number of unlicensed personnel, as
496-determined by the residential care home, obtain certification and
497-recertification for the administration of medication from the
498-Department of Public Health, Department of Children and Families or
499-Department of Developmental Services. Certification and recertification
500-of such personnel shall be in accordance with any regulations adopted
501-pursuant to this section. [, except any personnel who obtained
502-certification in the administration of medication on or before June 30,
503-2015, shall obtain recertification on or before July 1, 2018.] Unlicensed
504-personnel obtaining such certification and recertification may
505-administer medications that are not administered by injection to
506-residents of such homes, unless a resident's physician specifies that a
507-medication only be administered by licensed personnel.
508-Sec. 14. (Effective from passage) The Commissioner of Public Health
509-shall conduct a scope of practice review pursuant to sections 19a-16d to
510-19a-16f, inclusive, of the general statutes, as amended by this act, to
511-determine whether the Department of Public Health should regulate
512-midwives who are not eligible for licensure as nurse-midwives, licensed
513-pursuant to chapter 377 of the general statutes. The commissioner shall
514-report, in accordance with the provisions of section 11-4a of the general
515-statutes, the findings of such review and any recommendations to the
516-joint standing committee of the General Assembly having cognizance of
517-matters relating to public health on or before February 1, 2023.
518-Sec. 15. Section 20-90 of the general statutes is repealed and the
519-following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage):
520-(a) [Said board may adopt a seal. The Commissioner of Public Health,
521-with advice and assistance from the board, and in consultation with the
522-State Board of Education, shall adopt regulations, in accordance with Substitute House Bill No. 5500
380+operated in the same location as a chronic and convalescent nursing 301
381+home. 302
382+Sec. 8. Section 17b-368 of the general statutes is repealed and the 303
383+following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2022): 304
384+On or before July 1, 2004, the Department of Social Services shall, 305
385+within the limits of available Medicaid funding, implement a pilot 306
386+project in Greater Hartford with a chronic disease hospital colocated 307
387+with a skilled nursing facility and with the facilities, medical staff and 308
388+all necessary personnel for the diagnosis, care and treatment of chronic 309
389+or geriatric mental conditions that require prolonged hospital or 310
390+restorative care. For purposes of this section, "chronic disease hospital" 311
391+[means a long-term hospital with facilities, medical staff and all 312
392+necessary personnel for the diagnosis, care and treatment of chronic 313
393+physical and geriatric mental health conditions that require prolonged 314
394+hospital or restorative care] has the same meaning as provided in section 315
395+19a-490, as amended by this act. 316
396+Sec. 9. Subsection (a) of section 19a-491 of the 2022 supplement to the 317
397+general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 318
398+thereof (Effective from passage): 319
399+(a) No person acting individually or jointly with any other person 320
400+shall establish, conduct, operate or maintain an institution in this state 321
401+without a license as required by this chapter, except for persons issued 322
402+a license by the Commissioner of Children and Families pursuant to 323
403+section 17a-145 for the operation of (1) a substance abuse treatment 324
404+facility, or (2) a facility for the purpose of caring for women during 325
405+pregnancies and for women and their infants following such 326
406+pregnancies, provided such exception shall not apply to the hospital and 327
407+psychiatric residential treatment facility units of the Albert J. Solnit 328
408+Children's Center. Application for such license shall (A) be made to the 329
409+Department of Public Health upon forms provided by it, (B) be 330
410+accompanied by the fee required under subsection (c), (d) or (e) of this 331
411+section, (C) contain such information as the department requires, which 332 Substitute Bill No. 5500
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526-the provisions of chapter 54, permitting and setting standards for
527-courses for the training of practical nurses to be offered in high schools
528-or by the Technical Education and Career System for students who have
529-not yet acquired a high school diploma. Students who satisfactorily
530-complete courses approved by said Board of Examiners for Nursing,
531-with the consent of the Commissioner of Public Health, as meeting such
532-standards shall be given credit for each such course toward the
533-requirements for a practical nurse's license. All schools of nursing in this
534-state, except such schools accredited by the National League for Nursing
535-or other professional accrediting association approved by the United
536-States Department of Education and recognized by the Commissioner
537-of Public Health, and all schools for training licensed practical nurses
538-and all hospitals connected to such schools] The Connecticut State Board
539-of Examiners for Nursing shall have the following duties: (1) Hear and
540-decide matters concerning suspension or revocation of licensure; (2)
541-adjudicate complaints filed against practitioners licensed under this
542-chapter and impose sanctions where appropriate; (3) approve schools of
543-nursing in the state that prepare persons for examination under the
544-provisions of this chapter; and (4) consult, where possible, with national
545-recognized accrediting agencies when approving schools pursuant to
546-subdivision (3) of this subsection. The board may adopt a seal.
547-(b) All schools of nursing in the state that prepare persons for
548-examination under the provisions of this chapter, shall be (1) visited
549-periodically by a representative of the Department of Public Health who
550-shall be a registered nurse or a person experienced in the field of nursing
551-education, and (2) approved by the Connecticut State Board of
552-Examiners for Nursing pursuant to subdivisions (3) and (4) of
553-subsection (a) of this section.
554-(c) The [board shall keep] Department of Public Health shall post a
555-list of all nursing programs and all programs for training licensed
556-practical nurses that are approved by [it, with the consent of the Substitute House Bill No. 5500
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418+may include affirmative evidence of ability to comply with reasonable 333
419+standards and regulations prescribed under the provisions of this 334
420+chapter, and (D) not be required to be notarized. The commissioner may 335
421+require as a condition of licensure that an applicant sign a consent order 336
422+providing reasonable assurances of compliance with the Public Health 337
423+Code. The commissioner may issue more than one chronic disease 338
424+hospital license to a single institution until such time as the state offers 339
425+a rehabilitation hospital license. 340
426+Sec. 10. Subsection (a) of section 19a-497 of the general statutes is 341
427+repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 342
428+1, 2022): 343
429+(a) Each institution shall, upon receipt of a notice of intention to strike 344
430+by a labor organization representing the employees of such institution, 345
431+in accordance with the provisions of the National Labor Relations Act, 346
432+29 USC 158, file a strike contingency plan with the commissioner not 347
433+later than five days before the date indicated for the strike. Such strike 348
434+contingency plan shall include the institution's staffing plan for at least 349
435+the first three days of such strike. The strike contingency plan shall 350
436+include, but need not be limited to, the names and titles of the 351
437+individuals who will be providing services at the institution. 352
438+Sec. 11. Subsections (a) and (b) of section 19a-515 of the general 353
439+statutes are repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof 354
440+(Effective from passage): 355
441+(a) Each nursing home administrator's license issued pursuant to the 356
442+provisions of sections 19a-511 to 19a-520, inclusive, shall be renewed 357
443+once every two years, in accordance with section 19a-88, except for 358
444+cause, by the Department of Public Health, upon forms to be furnished 359
445+by said department and upon the payment to said department, by each 360
446+applicant for license renewal, of the sum of two hundred five dollars. 361
447+Each such fee shall be remitted to the Department of Public Health on 362
448+or before the date prescribed under section 19a-88. Such renewals shall 363
449+be granted unless said department finds the applicant has acted or failed 364 Substitute Bill No. 5500
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560-Commissioner of Public Health, as maintaining] the Connecticut State
561-Board of Examiners for Nursing and maintain the standard for the
562-education of nurses and the training of licensed practical nurses as
563-established by the [commissioner. The board shall consult, where
564-possible, with nationally recognized accrediting agencies when
565-approving schools] Commissioner of Public Health on the department's
566-Internet web site.
567-[(b) Said board shall (1) hear and decide matters concerning
568-suspension or revocation of licensure, (2) adjudicate complaints filed
569-against practitioners licensed under this chapter and impose sanctions
570-where appropriate.]
571-Sec. 16. Subsections (c) and (d) of section 19a-16d of the general
572-statutes are repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof
573-(Effective from passage):
574-(c) In any year in which a scope of practice request is received
575-pursuant to this section, not later than September [fifteenth] first of the
576-year preceding the commencement of the next regular session of the
577-General Assembly, the Department of Public Health, within available
578-appropriations, shall: (1) Provide written notification to the joint
579-standing committee of the General Assembly having cognizance of
580-matters relating to public health of any health care profession that has
581-submitted a scope of practice request, including any request for
582-exemption, to the department pursuant to this section; and (2) post any
583-such request, including any request for exemption, and the name and
584-address of the requestor on the department's Internet web site.
585-(d) Any person or entity, acting on behalf of a health care profession
586-that may be directly impacted by a scope of practice request submitted
587-pursuant to this section, may submit to the department a written
588-statement identifying the nature of the impact not later than [October
589-first] September fifteenth of the year preceding the next regular session Substitute House Bill No. 5500
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593-of the General Assembly. Any such person or entity directly impacted
594-by a scope of practice request shall indicate the nature of the impact
595-taking into consideration the criteria set forth in subsection (b) of this
596-section and shall provide a copy of the written impact statement to the
597-requestor. Not later than October [fifteenth] first of such year, the
598-requestor shall submit a written response to the department and any
599-person or entity that has provided a written impact statement. The
600-requestor's written response shall include, but not be limited to, a
601-description of areas of agreement and disagreement between the
602-respective health care professions.
603-Sec. 17. Subsection (a) of section 19a-16e of the general statutes is
604-repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from
605-passage):
606-(a) On or before [November first] October fifteenth of the year
607-preceding the commencement of the next regular session of the General
608-Assembly, the Commissioner of Public Health shall select from the
609-timely scope of practice requests submitted to the department pursuant
610-to section 19a-16d, as amended by this act, the requests on which the
611-department will act and, within available appropriations allocated to
612-the department, establish and appoint members to a scope of practice
613-review committee for each [timely scope of practice] such request.
614-[submitted to the department pursuant to section 19a-16d.] Committees
615-established pursuant to this section shall consist of the following
616-members: (1) Two members recommended by the requestor to represent
617-the health care profession making the scope of practice request; (2) two
618-members recommended by each person or entity that has submitted a
619-written impact statement pursuant to subsection (d) of section 19a-16d,
620-as amended by this act, to represent the health care professions directly
621-impacted by the scope of practice request; and (3) the Commissioner of
622-Public Health or the commissioner's designee, who shall serve as an ex-
623-officio, nonvoting member of the committee. The Commissioner of Substitute House Bill No. 5500
456+to act in such a manner or under such circumstances as would constitute 365
457+grounds for suspension or revocation of such license. 366
458+(b) Each licensee shall complete a minimum of forty hours of 367
459+continuing education every two years, including, but not limited to, 368
460+training in (1) Alzheimer's disease and dementia symptoms and care, 369
461+and (2) infection prevention and control. Such two-year period shall 370
462+commence on the first date of renewal of the licensee's license after 371
463+January 1, 2004. The continuing education shall be in areas related to the 372
464+licensee's practice. Qualifying continuing education activities are 373
465+courses offered or approved by the Connecticut Association of 374
466+Healthcare Facilities, LeadingAge Connecticut, Inc., the Connecticut 375
467+Assisted Living Association, the Connecticut Alliance for Subacute 376
468+Care, Inc., the Connecticut Chapter of the American College of Health 377
469+Care Administrators, the Association For Long Term Care Financial 378
470+Managers, the Alzheimer's Association or any accredited college or 379
471+university, or programs presented or approved by the National 380
472+Continuing Education Review Service of the National Association of 381
473+Boards of Examiners of Long Term Care Administrators, the 382
474+Association for Professionals in Infection Control and Epidemiology or 383
475+by federal or state departments or agencies. 384
476+Sec. 12. Subsection (a) of section 19a-492e of the 2022 supplement to 385
477+the general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 386
478+thereof (Effective October 1, 2022): 387
479+(a) For purposes of this section "home health care agency" and 388
480+"hospice agency" have the same meanings as provided in section 19a-389
481+490, as amended by this act. Notwithstanding the provisions of chapter 390
482+378, a registered nurse may delegate the administration of medications 391
483+that are not administered by injection to home health aides and hospice 392
484+aides who have obtained (1) certification and recertification every three 393
485+years thereafter for medication administration in accordance with 394
486+regulations adopted pursuant to subsection (b) of this section, or (2) a 395
487+current certification from the Department of Children and Families or 396
488+the Department of Developmental Services in accordance with section 397 Substitute Bill No. 5500
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627-Public Health or the commissioner's designee shall serve as the
628-chairperson of any such committee. The Commissioner of Public Health
629-may appoint additional members to any committee established
630-pursuant to this section to include representatives from health care
631-professions having a proximate relationship to the underlying request if
632-the commissioner or the commissioner's designee determines that such
633-expansion would be beneficial to a resolution of the issues presented.
634-Any member of such committee shall serve without compensation.
635-Sec. 18. Subsection (c) of section 20-132a of the 2022 supplement to
636-the general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu
637-thereof (Effective from passage):
638-(c) (1) Except as provided in this section, a licensee who is actively
639-engaged in the practice of optometry shall earn a minimum of twenty
640-hours of continuing education each registration period. The subject
641-matter for continuing education shall reflect the professional needs of
642-the licensee in order to meet the health care needs of the public, and shall
643-include [(1)] (A) not less than six hours in any of the following areas:
644-Pathology, detection of diabetes and ocular treatment; and [(2)] (B) not
645-less than six hours in treatment as it applies to the use of ocular agents-
646-T.
647-(2) Coursework shall be provided in the following manner: (A) Not
648-less than ten hours shall be earned through direct, live instruction that
649-the licensee physically attends; [either individually or as part of a group
650-of participants or through a formal home study or distance learning
651-program. Not] (B) not more than ten hours shall be earned through
652-synchronous online education with opportunities for live interaction;
653-(C) not more than [six] five hours shall be earned through [a home study
654-or other distance learning program] asynchronous online education,
655-distance learning or home study; and (D) not more than six hours shall
656-be in practice management. For the purposes of this subdivision,
657-"synchronous online education" means live online classes that are Substitute House Bill No. 5500
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495+19a-495a, as amended by this act, unless the prescribing practitioner 398
496+specifies that a medication shall only be administered by a licensed 399
497+nurse. [Any home health aide or hospice aide who obtained certification 400
498+in the administration of medications on or before June 30, 2015, shall 401
499+obtain recertification on or before July 1, 2018.] 402
500+Sec. 13. Subsections (a) and (b) of section 19a-495a of the general 403
501+statutes are repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof 404
502+(Effective October 1, 2022): 405
503+(a) (1) The Commissioner of Public Health may adopt regulations, as 406
504+provided in subsection (d) of this section, to require each residential care 407
505+home [, as defined in section 19a-490,] that admits residents requiring 408
506+assistance with medication administration, to (A) designate unlicensed 409
507+personnel to obtain certification for the administration of medication 410
508+from the Department of Public Health, Department of Children and 411
509+Families or Department of Developmental Services, and (B) ensure that 412
510+such unlicensed personnel receive such certification and recertification 413
511+every three years thereafter from the Department of Public Health, 414
512+Department of Children and Families or Department of Developmental 415
513+Services. 416
514+(2) Any regulations adopted pursuant to this subsection shall 417
515+establish criteria to be used by such homes in determining (A) the 418
516+appropriate number of unlicensed personnel who shall obtain such 419
517+certification and recertification, and (B) training requirements, 420
518+including ongoing training requirements for such certification and 421
519+recertification. 422
520+(3) Training requirements for initial certification and recertification 423
521+shall include, but shall not be limited to: Initial orientation, resident 424
522+rights, identification of the types of medication that may be 425
523+administered by unlicensed personnel, behavioral management, 426
524+personal care, nutrition and food safety, and health and safety in 427
525+general. 428 Substitute Bill No. 5500
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661-conducted in real time and "asynchronous online education" means a
662-program where the instructor, learner and other participants are not
663-engaged in the learning process at the same time, there is no real-time
664-interaction between participants and instructors and the educational
665-content is created and made available for later consumption.
666-(3) Qualifying continuing education activities include, but are not
667-limited to, courses offered or approved by the Council on Optometric
668-Practitioner Education of the Association of Regulatory Boards of
669-Optometry, the American Optometric Association or state or local
670-optometry associations and societies that are affiliated with the
671-American Optometric Association, a hospital or other health care
672-institution, a school or college of optometry or other institution of higher
673-education accredited or recognized by the Council on Optometric
674-Practitioner Education or the American Optometric Association, a state
675-or local health department, or a national, state or local medical
676-association.
677-Sec. 19. Subsection (b) of section 19a-14c of the 2022 supplement to
678-the general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu
679-thereof (Effective from passage):
680-(b) A psychiatrist licensed pursuant to chapter 370, a psychologist
681-licensed pursuant to chapter 383, [an independent] a clinical social
682-worker [certified] licensed pursuant to chapter 383b or a marital and
683-family therapist licensed pursuant to chapter 383a may provide
684-outpatient mental health treatment to a minor without the consent or
685-notification of a parent or guardian at the request of the minor if (1)
686-requiring the consent or notification of a parent or guardian would
687-cause the minor to reject such treatment; (2) the provision of such
688-treatment is clinically indicated; (3) the failure to provide such treatment
689-would be seriously detrimental to the minor's well-being; (4) the minor
690-has knowingly and voluntarily sought such treatment; and (5) in the
691-opinion of the provider of treatment, the minor is mature enough to Substitute House Bill No. 5500
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695-participate in treatment productively. The provider of such treatment
696-shall document the reasons for any determination made to treat a minor
697-without the consent or notification of a parent or guardian and shall
698-include such documentation in the minor's clinical record, along with a
699-written statement signed by the minor stating that (A) the minor is
700-voluntarily seeking such treatment; (B) the minor has discussed with the
701-provider the possibility of involving his or her parent or guardian in the
702-decision to pursue such treatment; (C) the minor has determined it is
703-not in his or her best interest to involve his or her parent or guardian in
704-such decision; and (D) the minor has been given adequate opportunity
705-to ask the provider questions about the course of his or her treatment.
706-Sec. 20. Subsection (b) of section 20-12j of the 2022 supplement to the
707-general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu
708-thereof (Effective from passage):
709-(b) Each person holding a license as a physician assistant shall,
710-annually, during the month of such person's birth, [register] renew such
711-license with the Department of Public Health, upon payment of a fee of
712-one hundred fifty-five dollars, on [blanks] a form to be [furnished]
713-provided by the department for such purpose, giving such person's
714-name in full, such person's residence and business address and such
715-other information as the department requests. No such license shall be
716-renewed unless the department is satisfied that the practitioner (1) has
717-met the mandatory continuing medical education requirements of the
718-National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants or a
719-successor organization for the certification or recertification of physician
720-assistants that may be approved by the department; (2) has passed any
721-examination or continued competency assessment the passage of which
722-may be required by said commission for maintenance of current
723-certification by said commission; (3) has completed not less than one
724-contact hour of training or education in prescribing controlled
725-substances and pain management in the preceding two-year period; and Substitute House Bill No. 5500
532+(b) Each residential care home [, as defined in section 19a-490,] shall 429
533+ensure that an appropriate number of unlicensed personnel, as 430
534+determined by the residential care home, obtain certification and 431
535+recertification for the administration of medication from the 432
536+Department of Public Health, Department of Children and Families or 433
537+Department of Developmental Services. Certification and recertification 434
538+of such personnel shall be in accordance with any regulations adopted 435
539+pursuant to this section. [, except any personnel who obtained 436
540+certification in the administration of medication on or before June 30, 437
541+2015, shall obtain recertification on or before July 1, 2018.] Unlicensed 438
542+personnel obtaining such certification and recertification may 439
543+administer medications that are not administered by injection to 440
544+residents of such homes, unless a resident's physician specifies that a 441
545+medication only be administered by licensed personnel. 442
546+Sec. 14. (Effective from passage) The Commissioner of Public Health 443
547+shall conduct a scope of practice review pursuant to sections 19a-16d to 444
548+19a-16f, inclusive, of the general statutes, as amended by this act, to 445
549+determine whether the Department of Public Health should regulate 446
550+midwives who are not eligible for licensure as nurse-midwives, licensed 447
551+pursuant to chapter 377 of the general statutes. The commissioner shall 448
552+report, in accordance with the provisions of section 11-4a of the general 449
553+statutes, the findings of such review and any recommendations to the 450
554+joint standing committee of the General Assembly having cognizance of 451
555+matters relating to public health on or before February 1, 2023. 452
556+Sec. 15. Section 20-90 of the general statutes is repealed and the 453
557+following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage): 454
558+(a) [Said board may adopt a seal. The Commissioner of Public Health, 455
559+with advice and assistance from the board, and in consultation with the 456
560+State Board of Education, shall adopt regulations, in accordance with 457
561+the provisions of chapter 54, permitting and setting standards for 458
562+courses for the training of practical nurses to be offered in high schools 459
563+or by the Technical Education and Career System for students who have 460
564+not yet acquired a high school diploma. Students who satisfactorily 461 Substitute Bill No. 5500
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729-(4) for registration periods beginning on [or before] and after January 1,
730-2022, during the first renewal period and not less than once every six
731-years thereafter, earn not less than two contact hours of training or
732-education screening for post-traumatic stress disorder, risk of suicide,
733-depression and grief and suicide prevention training administered by
734-the American [Association] Academy of Physician [Assistants]
735-Associates, or the American Academy of Physician Associates' successor
736-organization, a hospital or other licensed health care institution or a
737-regionally accredited institution of higher education.
738-Sec. 21. Subparagraph (B) of subdivision (8) of section 19a-177 of the
739-2022 supplement to the general statutes is repealed and the following is
740-substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage):
741-(B) On or before [December 31, 2018] June 1, 2023, and annually
742-thereafter, the commissioner shall prepare a report to the Emergency
743-Medical Services Advisory Board, established pursuant to section 19a-
744-178a, that shall include, but not be limited to, the following data: (i) The
745-total number of calls for emergency medical services received during
746-the reporting year by each licensed ambulance service, certified
747-ambulance service or paramedic intercept service; (ii) the level of
748-emergency medical services required for each such call; (iii) the name of
749-the emergency medical service organization that provided each such
750-level of emergency medical services furnished during the reporting
751-year; (iv) the response time, by time ranges or fractile response times,
752-for each licensed ambulance service, certified ambulance service or
753-paramedic intercept service, using a common definition of response
754-time, as provided in regulations adopted pursuant to section 19a-179;
755-and (v) the number of passed calls, cancelled calls and mutual aid calls
756-during the reporting year. The commissioner shall prepare such report
757-in a format that categorizes such data for each municipality in which the
758-emergency medical services were provided, with each such
759-municipality grouped according to urban, suburban and rural Substitute House Bill No. 5500
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571+complete courses approved by said Board of Examiners for Nursing, 462
572+with the consent of the Commissioner of Public Health, as meeting such 463
573+standards shall be given credit for each such course toward the 464
574+requirements for a practical nurse's license. All schools of nursing in this 465
575+state, except such schools accredited by the National League for Nursing 466
576+or other professional accrediting association approved by the United 467
577+States Department of Education and recognized by the Commissioner 468
578+of Public Health, and all schools for training licensed practical nurses 469
579+and all hospitals connected to such schools] The Connecticut State Board 470
580+of Examiners for Nursing shall have the following duties: (1) Hear and 471
581+decide matters concerning suspension or revocation of licensure; (2) 472
582+adjudicate complaints filed against practitioners licensed under this 473
583+chapter and impose sanctions where appropriate; (3) approve schools of 474
584+nursing in the state that prepare persons for examination under the 475
585+provisions of this chapter; and (4) consult, where possible, with national 476
586+recognized accrediting agencies when approving schools pursuant to 477
587+subdivision (3) of this subsection. The board may adopt a seal. 478
588+(b) All schools of nursing in the state that prepare persons for 479
589+examination under the provisions of this chapter, shall be (1) visited 480
590+periodically by a representative of the Department of Public Health who 481
591+shall be a registered nurse or a person experienced in the field of nursing 482
592+education, and (2) approved by the Connecticut State Board of 483
593+Examiners for Nursing pursuant to subdivisions (3) and (4) of 484
594+subsection (a) of this section. 485
595+(c) The [board shall keep] Department of Public Health shall post a 486
596+list of all nursing programs and all programs for training licensed 487
597+practical nurses that are approved by [it, with the consent of the 488
598+Commissioner of Public Health, as maintaining] the Connecticut State 489
599+Board of Examiners for Nursing and maintain the standard for the 490
600+education of nurses and the training of licensed practical nurses as 491
601+established by the [commissioner. The board shall consult, where 492
602+possible, with nationally recognized accrediting agencies when 493
603+approving schools] Commissioner of Public Health on the department's 494 Substitute Bill No. 5500
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763-classifications.
764-Sec. 22. Subdivision (5) of section 14-1 of the 2022 supplement to the
765-general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu
766-thereof (Effective from passage):
767-(5) "Authorized emergency vehicle" means (A) a fire department
768-vehicle, (B) a police vehicle, or (C) an [ambulance] authorized
769-emergency medical services vehicle, as defined in section 19a-175;
770-Sec. 23. Subsection (a) of section 19a-30 of the 2022 supplement to the
771-general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu
772-thereof (Effective October 1, 2022):
773-(a) As used in this section, "clinical laboratory" [means any facility or
774-other area used for microbiological, serological, chemical,
775-hematological, immunohematological, biophysical, cytological,
776-pathological or other examinations of human body fluids, secretions,
777-excretions or excised or exfoliated tissues, for the purpose of providing
778-information for the diagnosis, prevention or treatment of any human
779-disease or impairment, for the assessment of human health or for the
780-presence of drugs, poisons or other toxicological substances] has the
781-same meaning as provided in section 19a-490, as amended by this act.
782-Sec. 24. Section 19a-31b of the general statutes is repealed and the
783-following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2022):
784-No clinical laboratory, as defined in section [19a-30] 19a-490, as
785-amended by this act, that offers hair follicle drug testing as part of its
786-array of diagnostic testing services shall refuse to administer a hair
787-follicle drug test that has been ordered by a physician or physician
788-assistant, licensed under chapter 370, or an advanced practice registered
789-nurse, licensed under chapter 378.
790-Sec. 25. Subdivisions (1) and (2) of subsection (a) of section 19a-72 of Substitute House Bill No. 5500
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794-the 2022 supplement to the general statutes are repealed and the
795-following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2022):
796-(1) "Clinical laboratory" [means any facility or other area used for
797-microbiological, serological, chemical, hematological,
798-immunohematological, biophysical, cytological, pathological or other
799-examinations of human body fluids, secretions, excretions or excised or
800-exfoliated tissues, for the purpose of providing information for the
801-diagnosis, prevention or treatment of any human disease or
802-impairment, for the assessment of human health or for the presence of
803-drugs, poisons or other toxicological substances] has the same meaning
804-as provided in section 19a-490, as amended by this act;
805-(2) "Hospital" [means an establishment for the lodging, care and
806-treatment of persons suffering from disease or other abnormal physical
807-or mental conditions and includes inpatient psychiatric services in
808-general hospitals] has the same meaning as provided in section 19a-490,
809-as amended by this act;
810-Sec. 26. Subdivision (1) of subsection (a) of section 19a-215 of the 2022
811-supplement to the general statutes is repealed and the following is
812-substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2022):
813-(1) "Clinical laboratory" [means any facility or other area used for
814-microbiological, serological, chemical, hematological,
815-immunohematological, biophysical, cytological, pathological or other
816-examinations of human body fluids, secretions, excretions or excised or
817-exfoliated tissues, for the purpose of providing information for the
818-diagnosis, prevention or treatment of any human disease or
819-impairment, for the assessment of human health or for the presence of
820-drugs, poisons or other toxicological substances] has the same meaning
821-as provided in section 19a-490, as amended by this act.
822-Sec. 27. Subsection (a) of section 19a-269b of the general statutes is Substitute House Bill No. 5500
610+Internet web site. 495
611+[(b) Said board shall (1) hear and decide matters concerning 496
612+suspension or revocation of licensure, (2) adjudicate complaints filed 497
613+against practitioners licensed under this chapter and impose sanctions 498
614+where appropriate.] 499
615+Sec. 16. Subsections (c) and (d) of section 19a-16d of the general 500
616+statutes are repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof 501
617+(Effective from passage): 502
618+(c) In any year in which a scope of practice request is received 503
619+pursuant to this section, not later than September [fifteenth] first of the 504
620+year preceding the commencement of the next regular session of the 505
621+General Assembly, the Department of Public Health, within available 506
622+appropriations, shall: (1) Provide written notification to the joint 507
623+standing committee of the General Assembly having cognizance of 508
624+matters relating to public health of any health care profession that has 509
625+submitted a scope of practice request, including any request for 510
626+exemption, to the department pursuant to this section; and (2) post any 511
627+such request, including any request for exemption, and the name and 512
628+address of the requestor on the department's Internet web site. 513
629+(d) Any person or entity, acting on behalf of a health care profession 514
630+that may be directly impacted by a scope of practice request submitted 515
631+pursuant to this section, may submit to the department a written 516
632+statement identifying the nature of the impact not later than [October 517
633+first] September fifteenth of the year preceding the next regular session 518
634+of the General Assembly. Any such person or entity directly impacted 519
635+by a scope of practice request shall indicate the nature of the impact 520
636+taking into consideration the criteria set forth in subsection (b) of this 521
637+section and shall provide a copy of the written impact statement to the 522
638+requestor. Not later than October [fifteenth] first of such year, the 523
639+requestor shall submit a written response to the department and any 524
640+person or entity that has provided a written impact statement. The 525
641+requestor's written response shall include, but not be limited to, a 526 Substitute Bill No. 5500
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826-repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October
827-1, 2022):
828-(a) As used in this section, "clinical laboratory" has the same meaning
829-as provided in section [19a-30] 19a-490, as amended by this act.
830-Sec. 28. Subsection (d) of section 20-7a of the general statutes is
831-repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October
832-1, 2022):
833-(d) No person or entity, other than a physician licensed under chapter
834-370, a clinical laboratory, as defined in section [19a-30] 19a-490, as
835-amended by this act, or a referring clinical laboratory, shall directly or
836-indirectly charge, bill or otherwise solicit payment for the provision of
837-anatomic pathology services, unless such services were personally
838-rendered by or under the direct supervision of such physician, clinical
839-laboratory or referring laboratory in accordance with section 353 of the
840-Public Health Service Act, (42 USC 263a). A clinical laboratory or
841-referring laboratory may only solicit payment for anatomic pathology
842-services from the patient, a hospital, the responsible insurer of a third
843-party payor, or a governmental agency or such agency's public or
844-private agent that is acting on behalf of the recipient of such services.
845-Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to prohibit a clinical
846-laboratory from billing a referring clinical laboratory when specimens
847-are transferred between such laboratories for histologic or cytologic
848-processing or consultation. No patient or other third party payor, as
849-described in this subsection, shall be required to reimburse any provider
850-for charges or claims submitted in violation of this section. For purposes
851-of this subsection, (1) "referring clinical laboratory" means a clinical
852-laboratory that refers a patient specimen for consultation or anatomic
853-pathology services, excluding the laboratory of a physician's office or
854-group practice that takes a patient specimen and does not perform the
855-professional diagnostic component of the anatomic pathology services
856-involved, and (2) "anatomic pathology services" means the gross and Substitute House Bill No. 5500
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858-Public Act No. 22-58 27 of 100
648+description of areas of agreement and disagreement between the 527
649+respective health care professions. 528
650+Sec. 17. Subsection (a) of section 19a-16e of the general statutes is 529
651+repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from 530
652+passage): 531
653+(a) On or before [November first] October fifteenth of the year 532
654+preceding the commencement of the next regular session of the General 533
655+Assembly, the Commissioner of Public Health shall, within available 534
656+appropriations allocated to the department, establish and appoint 535
657+members to a scope of practice review committee for each timely scope 536
658+of practice request submitted to the department pursuant to section 19a-537
659+16d, as amended by this act. Committees established pursuant to this 538
660+section shall consist of the following members: (1) Two members 539
661+recommended by the requestor to represent the health care profession 540
662+making the scope of practice request; (2) two members recommended 541
663+by each person or entity that has submitted a written impact statement 542
664+pursuant to subsection (d) of section 19a-16d, as amended by this act, to 543
665+represent the health care professions directly impacted by the scope of 544
666+practice request; and (3) the Commissioner of Public Health or the 545
667+commissioner's designee, who shall serve as an ex-officio, nonvoting 546
668+member of the committee. The Commissioner of Public Health or the 547
669+commissioner's designee shall serve as the chairperson of any such 548
670+committee. The Commissioner of Public Health may appoint additional 549
671+members to any committee established pursuant to this section to 550
672+include representatives from health care professions having a proximate 551
673+relationship to the underlying request if the commissioner or the 552
674+commissioner's designee determines that such expansion would be 553
675+beneficial to a resolution of the issues presented. Any member of such 554
676+committee shall serve without compensation. 555
677+Sec. 18. Subsection (c) of section 20-132a of the 2022 supplement to 556
678+the general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 557
679+thereof (Effective from passage): 558 Substitute Bill No. 5500
859680
860-microscopic examination and histologic or cytologic processing of
861-human specimens, including histopathology or surgical pathology,
862-cytopathology, hematology, subcellular pathology or molecular
863-pathology or blood banking service performed by a pathologist.
864-Sec. 29. Subsection (a) of section 20-7c of the general statutes is
865-repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October
866-1, 2022):
867-(a) For purposes of this section, "clinical laboratory" has the same
868-meaning as provided in section [19a-30] 19a-490, as amended by this act.
869-"Clinical laboratory" does not include any state laboratory established
870-by the Department of Public Health pursuant to section 19a-26 or 19a-
871-29.
872-Sec. 30. Subparagraph (A) of subdivision (6) of subsection (a) of
873-section 38a-477aa of the general statutes is repealed and the following is
874-substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2022):
875-(6) (A) "Surprise bill" means a bill for health care services, other than
876-emergency services, received by an insured for services rendered by an
877-out-of-network health care provider, where such services were rendered
878-by (i) such out-of-network provider at an in-network facility, during a
879-service or procedure performed by an in-network provider or during a
880-service or procedure previously approved or authorized by the health
881-carrier and the insured did not knowingly elect to obtain such services
882-from such out-of-network provider, or (ii) a clinical laboratory, as
883-defined in section [19a-30] 19a-490, as amended by this act, that is an
884-out-of-network provider, upon the referral of an in-network provider.
885-Sec. 31. Section 7-51a of the 2022 supplement to the general statutes
886-is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from
887-passage):
888-(a) Any person eighteen years of age or older may purchase certified Substitute House Bill No. 5500
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891685
892-copies of marriage and death records, and certified copies of records of
893-births or fetal deaths which are at least one hundred years old, in the
894-custody of any registrar of vital statistics. The department may issue
895-uncertified copies of death certificates for deaths occurring less than one
896-hundred years ago, and uncertified copies of birth, marriage, death and
897-fetal death certificates for births, marriages, deaths and fetal deaths that
898-occurred at least one hundred years ago, to researchers approved by the
899-department pursuant to section 19a-25, and to state and federal agencies
900-approved by the department. During all normal business hours,
901-members of genealogical societies incorporated or authorized by the
902-Secretary of the State to do business or conduct affairs in this state shall
903-(1) have full access to all vital records in the custody of any registrar of
904-vital statistics, including certificates, ledgers, record books, card files,
905-indexes and database printouts, except for those records containing
906-Social Security numbers protected pursuant to 42 USC 405 (c)(2)(C), and
907-confidential files on adoptions, gender change, surrogacy agreements,
908-and parentage, (2) be permitted to make notes from such records, (3) be
909-permitted to purchase certified copies of such records, and (4) be
910-permitted to incorporate statistics derived from such records in the
911-publications of such genealogical societies. For all vital records
912-containing Social Security numbers that are protected from disclosure
913-pursuant to federal law, the Social Security numbers contained on such
914-records shall be redacted from any certified copy of such records issued
915-to a genealogist by a registrar of vital statistics.
916-(b) For marriage and civil union licenses, the Social Security numbers
917-of the parties to the marriage or civil union shall be recorded in the
918-"administrative purposes" section of the marriage or civil union license
919-and the application for such license. All persons specified on the license,
920-including the parties to the marriage or civil union, officiator and local
921-registrar shall have access to the Social Security numbers specified on
922-the marriage or civil union license and the application for such license
923-for the purpose of processing the license. Only the parties to a marriage Substitute House Bill No. 5500
686+(c) (1) Except as provided in this section, a licensee who is actively 559
687+engaged in the practice of optometry shall earn a minimum of twenty 560
688+hours of continuing education each registration period. The subject 561
689+matter for continuing education shall reflect the professional needs of 562
690+the licensee in order to meet the health care needs of the public, and shall 563
691+include [(1)] (A) not less than six hours in any of the following areas: 564
692+Pathology, detection of diabetes and ocular treatment; and [(2)] (B) not 565
693+less than six hours in treatment as it applies to the use of ocular agents-566
694+T. 567
695+(2) Coursework shall be provided in the following manner: (A) Not 568
696+less than ten hours shall be earned through direct, live instruction that 569
697+the licensee physically attends; [either individually or as part of a group 570
698+of participants or through a formal home study or distance learning 571
699+program. Not] (B) not more than ten hours shall be earned through 572
700+synchronous online education with opportunities for live interaction; 573
701+(C) not more than [six] five hours shall be earned through [a home study 574
702+or other distance learning program] asynchronous online education, 575
703+distance learning or home study; and (D) not more than six hours shall 576
704+be in practice management. For the purposes of this subdivision, 577
705+"synchronous online education" means live online classes that are 578
706+conducted in real time and "asynchronous online education" means a 579
707+program where the instructor, learner and other participants are not 580
708+engaged in the learning process at the same time, there is no real-time 581
709+interaction between participants and instructors and the educational 582
710+content is created and made available for later consumption. 583
711+(3) Qualifying continuing education activities include, but are not 584
712+limited to, courses offered or approved by the Council on Optometric 585
713+Practitioner Education of the Association of Regulatory Boards of 586
714+Optometry, the American Optometric Association or state or local 587
715+optometry associations and societies that are affiliated with the 588
716+American Optometric Association, a hospital or other health care 589
717+institution, a school or college of optometry or other institution of higher 590
718+education accredited or recognized by the Council on Optometric 591 Substitute Bill No. 5500
924719
925-Public Act No. 22-58 29 of 100
926720
927-or civil union, or entities authorized by state or federal law, may receive
928-a certified copy of a marriage or civil union license with the Social
929-Security numbers included on the license. Any other individual,
930-researcher or state or federal agency requesting a certified or uncertified
931-copy of any marriage or civil union license in accordance with the
932-provisions of this section shall be provided such copy with such Social
933-Security numbers removed or redacted, or with the "administrative
934-purposes" section omitted.
935-(c) For deaths occurring on or after July 1, 1997, the Social Security
936-number of the deceased person shall be recorded in the "administrative
937-purposes" section of the death certificate. Such administrative purposes
938-section, and the Social Security number contained therein, shall be
939-restricted and disclosed only to the following eligible parties: (1) All
940-parties specified on the death certificate, including the informant,
941-licensed funeral director, licensed embalmer, conservator, surviving
942-spouse, physician or advanced practice registered nurse and town clerk,
943-for the purpose of processing the certificate, (2) the surviving spouse, (3)
944-the next of kin, or (4) any state and federal agencies authorized by
945-federal law. The department shall provide any other individual,
946-researcher or state or federal agency requesting a certified or uncertified
947-death certificate, or the information contained within such certificate,
948-for a death occurring on or after July 1, 1997, such certificate or
949-information. The decedent's Social Security number shall be removed or
950-redacted from such certificate or information or the administrative
951-purposes section shall be omitted from such certificate.
952-(d) The registrar of vital statistics of any town or city in this state that
953-has access to an electronic vital records system, as authorized by the
954-department, may use such system to issue certified copies of birth,
955-death, fetal death or marriage certificates that are electronically filed in
956-such system.
957-[(e) Any registrar of vital statistics who receives payment pursuant to Substitute House Bill No. 5500
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959-Public Act No. 22-58 30 of 100
725+Practitioner Education or the American Optometric Association, a state 592
726+or local health department, or a national, state or local medical 593
727+association. 594
728+Sec. 19. Subsection (b) of section 19a-14c of the 2022 supplement to 595
729+the general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 596
730+thereof (Effective from passage): 597
731+(b) A psychiatrist licensed pursuant to chapter 370, a psychologist 598
732+licensed pursuant to chapter 383, [an independent] a clinical social 599
733+worker [certified] licensed pursuant to chapter 383b or a marital and 600
734+family therapist licensed pursuant to chapter 383a may provide 601
735+outpatient mental health treatment to a minor without the consent or 602
736+notification of a parent or guardian at the request of the minor if (1) 603
737+requiring the consent or notification of a parent or guardian would 604
738+cause the minor to reject such treatment; (2) the provision of such 605
739+treatment is clinically indicated; (3) the failure to provide such treatment 606
740+would be seriously detrimental to the minor's well-being; (4) the minor 607
741+has knowingly and voluntarily sought such treatment; and (5) in the 608
742+opinion of the provider of treatment, the minor is mature enough to 609
743+participate in treatment productively. The provider of such treatment 610
744+shall document the reasons for any determination made to treat a minor 611
745+without the consent or notification of a parent or guardian and shall 612
746+include such documentation in the minor's clinical record, along with a 613
747+written statement signed by the minor stating that (A) the minor is 614
748+voluntarily seeking such treatment; (B) the minor has discussed with the 615
749+provider the possibility of involving his or her parent or guardian in the 616
750+decision to pursue such treatment; (C) the minor has determined it is 617
751+not in his or her best interest to involve his or her parent or guardian in 618
752+such decision; and (D) the minor has been given adequate opportunity 619
753+to ask the provider questions about the course of his or her treatment. 620
754+Sec. 20. Subsection (b) of section 20-12j of the 2022 supplement to the 621
755+general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 622
756+thereof (Effective from passage): 623 Substitute Bill No. 5500
960757
961-this section may permit such payment to be made on an Internet web
962-site designated by the registrar, in a manner prescribed by the registrar.]
963-Sec. 32. Section 7-74 of the general statutes is repealed and the
964-following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage):
965-(a) The fee for a certification of birth registration, short form, shall be
966-fifteen dollars. The fee for a certified copy of a certificate of birth, long
967-form, shall be twenty dollars, except that the fee for such certifications
968-and copies when issued by the department shall be thirty dollars.
969-(b) (1) The fee for a certified copy of a certificate of marriage or death
970-shall be twenty dollars. Such fees shall not be required of the
971-department.
972-(2) Any fee received by the Department of Public Health for a
973-certificate of death shall be deposited in the neglected cemetery account,
974-established in accordance with section 19a-308b.
975-(c) The fee for one certified copy of a certificate of death for any
976-deceased person who was a veteran, as defined in subsection (a) of
977-section 27-103, shall be waived when such copy is requested by a
978-spouse, child or parent of such deceased veteran.
979-(d) The fee for an uncertified copy of an original certificate of birth
980-issued pursuant to section 7-53 shall be sixty-five dollars.
981-(e) Any registrar of vital statistics who receives payment pursuant to
982-this section may permit such payment to be made on an Internet web
983-site designated by the registrar, in a manner prescribed by the registrar,
984-as approved by the Commissioner of Public Health, o r the
985-commissioner's designee.
986-Sec. 33. Subsections (c) and (d) of section 19a-36m of the general
987-statutes are repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof Substitute House Bill No. 5500
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990762
991-(Effective from passage):
992-(c) The provisions of the food code that concern the employment of a
993-certified food protection manager and any reporting requirements
994-relative to such certified food protection manager [(1)] shall not apply
995-to [(A)] (1) an owner or operator of a soup kitchen that relies exclusively
996-on services provided by volunteers, [(B)] (2) any volunteer who serves
997-meals from a nonprofit organization, including a temporary food
998-service establishment and a special event sponsored by a nonprofit civic
999-organization, including, but not limited to, school sporting events, little
1000-league food booths, church suppers and fairs, or [(C)] (3) any person
1001-who serves meals to individuals at a registered congregate meal site
1002-funded under Title III of the Older Americans Act of 1965, as amended
1003-from time to time, that were prepared under the supervision of a
1004-certified food protection manager. [, and (2) shall not prohibit the sale
1005-or distribution of food at (A) a bed and breakfast establishment that
1006-prepares and offers food to guests, provided the operation is owner-
1007-occupied and the total building occupant load is not more than sixteen
1008-persons, including the owner and occupants, has no provisions for
1009-cooking or warming food in the guest rooms, breakfast is the only meal
1010-offered and the consumer of such operation is informed by statements
1011-contained in published advertisements, mailed brochures and placards
1012-posted in the registration area that the food is prepared in a kitchen that
1013-is not regulated and inspected by the local health director, and (B) a
1014-noncommercial function, including, but not limited to, an educational,
1015-religious, political or charitable organization's bake sale or potluck
1016-supper, provided the seller or person distributing the food maintains
1017-the food at the temperature, pH level and water activity level conditions
1018-that will inhibit the growth of infectious or toxigenic microorganisms.
1019-For the purposes of this subsection, "noncommercial function" means a
1020-function where food is sold or distributed by a person not regularly
1021-engaged in the business of selling such food for profit.] Substitute House Bill No. 5500
763+(b) Each person holding a license as a physician assistant shall, 624
764+annually, during the month of such person's birth, [register] renew such 625
765+license with the Department of Public Health, upon payment of a fee of 626
766+one hundred fifty-five dollars, on [blanks] a form to be [furnished] 627
767+provided by the department for such purpose, giving such person's 628
768+name in full, such person's residence and business address and such 629
769+other information as the department requests. No such license shall be 630
770+renewed unless the department is satisfied that the practitioner (1) has 631
771+met the mandatory continuing medical education requirements of the 632
772+National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants or a 633
773+successor organization for the certification or recertification of physician 634
774+assistants that may be approved by the department; (2) has passed any 635
775+examination or continued competency assessment the passage of which 636
776+may be required by said commission for maintenance of current 637
777+certification by said commission; (3) has completed not less than one 638
778+contact hour of training or education in prescribing controlled 639
779+substances and pain management in the preceding two-year period; and 640
780+(4) for registration periods beginning on [or before] and after January 1, 641
781+2022, during the first renewal period and not less than once every six 642
782+years thereafter, earn not less than two contact hours of training or 643
783+education screening for post-traumatic stress disorder, risk of suicide, 644
784+depression and grief and suicide prevention training administered by 645
785+the American [Association] Academy of Physician Assistants, or the 646
786+American Academy of Physician Assistants' successor organization, a 647
787+hospital or other licensed health care institution or a regionally 648
788+accredited institution of higher education. 649
789+Sec. 21. Subparagraph (B) of subdivision (8) of section 19a-177 of the 650
790+2022 supplement to the general statutes is repealed and the following is 651
791+substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage): 652
792+(B) On or before [December 31, 2018] April 1, 2023, and annually 653
793+thereafter, the commissioner shall prepare a report to the Emergency 654
794+Medical Services Advisory Board, established pursuant to section 19a-655
795+178a, that shall include, but not be limited to, the following data: (i) The 656 Substitute Bill No. 5500
1022796
1023-Public Act No. 22-58 32 of 100
1024797
1025-(d) The provisions of the food code shall not (1) apply to a residential
1026-care home with thirty beds or less that is licensed pursuant to chapter
1027-368v, provided the administrator of the residential care home or the
1028-administrator's designee has satisfactorily passed a test as part of a food
1029-protection manager certification program that is evaluated and
1030-approved by an accrediting agency recognized by the Conference for
1031-Food Protection as conforming to its standard for accreditation of food
1032-protection manager certification programs, unless such residential care
1033-home enters into a service contract with a food establishment or lends,
1034-rents or leases any area of its facility to any person or entity for the
1035-purpose of preparing or selling food, at which time the provisions of the
1036-food code shall apply to such residential care home, and (2) shall not
1037-prohibit the sale or distribution of food at (A) a bed and breakfast
1038-establishment that prepares and offers food to guests, provided the
1039-operation is owner-occupied and the total building occupant load is not
1040-more than sixteen persons, including the owner and occupants, has no
1041-provisions for cooking or warming food in the guest rooms, breakfast is
1042-the only meal offered and the consumer of such operation is informed
1043-by statements contained in published advertisements, mailed brochures
1044-and placards posted in the registration area that the food is prepared in
1045-a kitchen that is not regulated and inspected by the local health director,
1046-and (B) a noncommercial function, including, but not limited to, an
1047-educational, religious, political or charitable organization's bake sale or
1048-potluck supper, provided the seller or person distributing the food
1049-maintains the food at the temperature, pH level and water activity level
1050-conditions that will inhibit the growth of infectious or toxigenic
1051-microorganisms. For the purposes of this subsection, "noncommercial
1052-function" means a function where food is sold or distributed by a person
1053-not regularly engaged in the business of selling such food for profit.
1054-Sec. 34. Subparagraph (A) of subdivision (2) of subsection (c) of
1055-section 16-245n of the 2022 supplement to the general statutes is
1056-repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from Substitute House Bill No. 5500
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1058-Public Act No. 22-58 33 of 100
802+total number of calls for emergency medical services received during 657
803+the reporting year by each licensed ambulance service, certified 658
804+ambulance service or paramedic intercept service; (ii) the level of 659
805+emergency medical services required for each such call; (iii) the name of 660
806+the emergency medical service organization that provided each such 661
807+level of emergency medical services furnished during the reporting 662
808+year; (iv) the response time, by time ranges or fractile response times, 663
809+for each licensed ambulance service, certified ambulance service or 664
810+paramedic intercept service, using a common definition of response 665
811+time, as provided in regulations adopted pursuant to section 19a-179; 666
812+and (v) the number of passed calls, cancelled calls and mutual aid calls 667
813+during the reporting year. The commissioner shall prepare such report 668
814+in a format that categorizes such data for each municipality in which the 669
815+emergency medical services were provided, with each such 670
816+municipality grouped according to urban, suburban and rural 671
817+classifications. 672
818+Sec. 22. Subdivision (5) of section 14-1 of the 2022 supplement to the 673
819+general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 674
820+thereof (Effective from passage): 675
821+(5) "Authorized emergency vehicle" means (A) a fire department 676
822+vehicle, (B) a police vehicle, or (C) an [ambulance] authorized 677
823+emergency medical services vehicle, as defined in section 19a-175; 678
824+Sec. 23. Subsection (a) of section 19a-30 of the 2022 supplement to the 679
825+general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 680
826+thereof (Effective October 1, 2022): 681
827+(a) As used in this section, "clinical laboratory" [means any facility or 682
828+other area used for microbiological, serological, chemical, 683
829+hematological, immunohematological, biophysical, cytological, 684
830+pathological or other examinations of human body fluids, secretions, 685
831+excretions or excised or exfoliated tissues, for the purpose of providing 686
832+information for the diagnosis, prevention or treatment of any human 687
833+disease or impairment, for the assessment of human health or for the 688 Substitute Bill No. 5500
1059834
1060-passage):
1061-(2) (A) There is hereby created an Environmental Infrastructure Fund
1062-which shall be within the Connecticut Green Bank. The fund may
1063-receive any amount required by law to be deposited into the fund and
1064-may receive any federal funds as may become available to the state for
1065-environmental infrastructure investments, except that the fund shall not
1066-receive: (i) Ratepayer or Regional Greenhouse Gas Initiative funds, (ii)
1067-funds that have been deposited in, or are required to be deposited in, an
1068-account of the Clean Water Fund pursuant to sections 22a-475 to [22a-
1069-438f] 22a-483f, inclusive, or (iii) funds collected from a water company,
1070-as defined in section 25-32a.
1071-Sec. 35. Subsection (b) of section 20-191c of the 2022 supplement to
1072-the general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu
1073-thereof (Effective July 1, 2022):
1074-(b) Qualifying continuing education activities shall be related to the
1075-practice of psychology and shall include courses, seminars, workshops,
1076-conferences and postdoctoral institutes offered or approved by: (1) The
1077-American Psychological Association; (2) a regionally accredited
1078-institution of higher education graduate program; (3) a nationally
1079-recognized provider of continuing education seminars; (4) the
1080-Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services; or (5) a
1081-behavioral science organization that is professionally or scientifically
1082-recognized. Not more than five continuing education units during each
1083-registration period shall be completed via [the Internet] asynchronous
1084-online education, distance learning or home study. Not less than five
1085-continuing education units shall be earned through synchronous online
1086-education. On and after January 1, 2016, qualifying continuing
1087-education activities shall include not less than two contact hours of
1088-training or education during the first renewal period in which
1089-continuing education is required and not less than once every six years
1090-thereafter on the topic of mental health conditions common to veterans Substitute House Bill No. 5500
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1094-and family members of veterans, including (A) determining whether a
1095-patient is a veteran or family member of a veteran, (B) screening for
1096-conditions such as post-traumatic stress disorder, risk of suicide,
1097-depression and grief, and (C) suicide prevention training. Qualifying
1098-continuing education activities may include a licensee's research-based
1099-presentation at a professional conference, provided not more than five
1100-continuing education units during each registration period shall be
1101-completed by such activities. A licensee who has earned a diploma from
1102-the American Board of Professional Psychology during the registration
1103-period may substitute the diploma for continuing education
1104-requirements for such registration period. For purposes of this section,
1105-"continuing education unit" means fifty to sixty minutes of participation
1106-in accredited continuing professional education. For the purposes of this
1107-subsection, "synchronous online education" means live online classes
1108-that are conducted in real time and "asynchronous online education"
1109-means a program where the instructor, learner and other participants
1110-are not engaged in the learning process at the same time, there is no real-
1111-time interaction between participants and instructors and the
1112-educational content is created and made available for later
1113-consumption.
1114-Sec. 36. Section 19a-563h of the 2022 supplement to the general
1115-statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof
1116-(Effective from passage):
1117-(a) On or before January 1, 2022, the Department of Public Health
1118-shall (1) establish minimum staffing level requirements for nursing
1119-homes of three hours of direct care per resident per day, and (2) modify
1120-staffing level requirements for social work and recreational staff of
1121-nursing homes such that the requirements (A) for social work, [are] a
1122-number of hours that is based on one full-time social worker per sixty
1123-residents and that shall vary proportionally based on the number of
1124-residents in the nursing home, and (B) for recreational staff are lower Substitute House Bill No. 5500
840+presence of drugs, poisons or other toxicological substances] has the 689
841+same meaning as provided in section 19a-490, as amended by this act. 690
842+Sec. 24. Section 19a-31b of the general statutes is repealed and the 691
843+following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2022): 692
844+No clinical laboratory, as defined in section [19a-30] 19a-490, as 693
845+amended by this act, that offers hair follicle drug testing as part of its 694
846+array of diagnostic testing services shall refuse to administer a hair 695
847+follicle drug test that has been ordered by a physician or physician 696
848+assistant, licensed under chapter 370, or an advanced practice registered 697
849+nurse, licensed under chapter 378. 698
850+Sec. 25. Subdivisions (1) and (2) of subsection (a) of section 19a-72 of 699
851+the 2022 supplement to the general statutes are repealed and the 700
852+following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2022): 701
853+(1) "Clinical laboratory" [means any facility or other area used for 702
854+microbiological, serological, chemical, hematological, 703
855+immunohematological, biophysical, cytological, pathological or other 704
856+examinations of human body fluids, secretions, excretions or excised or 705
857+exfoliated tissues, for the purpose of providing information for the 706
858+diagnosis, prevention or treatment of any human disease or 707
859+impairment, for the assessment of human health or for the presence of 708
860+drugs, poisons or other toxicological substances] has the same meaning 709
861+as provided in section 19a-490, as amended by this act; 710
862+(2) "Hospital" [means an establishment for the lodging, care and 711
863+treatment of persons suffering from disease or other abnormal physical 712
864+or mental conditions and includes inpatient psychiatric services in 713
865+general hospitals] has the same meaning as provided in section 19a-490, 714
866+as amended by this act; 715
867+Sec. 26. Subdivision (1) of subsection (a) of section 19a-215 of the 2022 716
868+supplement to the general statutes is repealed and the following is 717
869+substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2022): 718 Substitute Bill No. 5500
1125870
1126-Public Act No. 22-58 35 of 100
1127871
1128-than the current requirements, as deemed appropriate by the
1129-Commissioner of Public Health.
1130-(b) The commissioner shall adopt regulations in accordance with the
1131-provisions of chapter 54 that set forth nursing home staffing level
1132-requirements to implement the provisions of this section. The
1133-Commissioner of Public Health may implement policies and procedures
1134-necessary to administer the provisions of this section while in the
1135-process of adopting such policies and procedures as regulations,
1136-provided notice of intent to adopt regulations is published on the
1137-eRegulations System not later than twenty days after the date of
1138-implementation. Policies and procedures implemented pursuant to this
1139-section shall be valid until the time final regulations are adopted.
1140-Sec. 37. Section 17b-59d of the general statutes is repealed and the
1141-following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage):
1142-(a) There shall be established a State-wide Health Information
1143-Exchange to empower consumers to make effective health care
1144-decisions, promote patient-centered care, improve the quality, safety
1145-and value of health care, reduce waste and duplication of services,
1146-support clinical decision-making, keep confidential health information
1147-secure and make progress toward the state's public health goals.
1148-(b) It shall be the goal of the State-wide Health Information Exchange
1149-to: (1) Allow real-time, secure access to patient health information and
1150-complete medical records across all health care provider settings; (2)
1151-provide patients with secure electronic access to their health
1152-information; (3) allow voluntary participation by patients to access their
1153-health information at no cost; (4) support care coordination through
1154-real-time alerts and timely access to clinical information; (5) reduce costs
1155-associated with preventable readmissions, duplicative testing and
1156-medical errors; (6) promote the highest level of interoperability; (7) meet
1157-all state and federal privacy and security requirements; (8) support Substitute House Bill No. 5500
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1159-Public Act No. 22-58 36 of 100
876+(1) "Clinical laboratory" [means any facility or other area used for 719
877+microbiological, serological, chemical, hematological, 720
878+immunohematological, biophysical, cytological, pathological or other 721
879+examinations of human body fluids, secretions, excretions or excised or 722
880+exfoliated tissues, for the purpose of providing information for the 723
881+diagnosis, prevention or treatment of any human disease or 724
882+impairment, for the assessment of human health or for the presence of 725
883+drugs, poisons or other toxicological substances] has the same meaning 726
884+as provided in section 19a-490, as amended by this act. 727
885+Sec. 27. Subsection (a) of section 19a-269b of the general statutes is 728
886+repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 729
887+1, 2022): 730
888+(a) As used in this section, "clinical laboratory" has the same meaning 731
889+as provided in section [19a-30] 19a-490, as amended by this act. 732
890+Sec. 28. Subsection (d) of section 20-7a of the general statutes is 733
891+repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 734
892+1, 2022): 735
893+(d) No person or entity, other than a physician licensed under chapter 736
894+370, a clinical laboratory, as defined in section [19a-30] 19a-490, as 737
895+amended by this act, or a referring clinical laboratory, shall directly or 738
896+indirectly charge, bill or otherwise solicit payment for the provision of 739
897+anatomic pathology services, unless such services were personally 740
898+rendered by or under the direct supervision of such physician, clinical 741
899+laboratory or referring laboratory in accordance with section 353 of the 742
900+Public Health Service Act, (42 USC 263a). A clinical laboratory or 743
901+referring laboratory may only solicit payment for anatomic pathology 744
902+services from the patient, a hospital, the responsible insurer of a third 745
903+party payor, or a governmental agency or such agency's public or 746
904+private agent that is acting on behalf of the recipient of such services. 747
905+Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to prohibit a clinical 748
906+laboratory from billing a referring clinical laboratory when specimens 749
907+are transferred between such laboratories for histologic or cytologic 750 Substitute Bill No. 5500
1160908
1161-public health reporting, quality improvement, academic research and
1162-health care delivery and payment reform through data aggregation and
1163-analytics; (9) support population health analytics; (10) be standards-
1164-based; and (11) provide for broad local governance that (A) includes
1165-stakeholders, including, but not limited to, representatives of the
1166-Department of Social Services, hospitals, physicians, behavioral health
1167-care providers, long-term care providers, health insurers, employers,
1168-patients and academic or medical research institutions, and (B) is
1169-committed to the successful development and implementation of the
1170-State-wide Health Information Exchange.
1171-(c) All contracts or agreements entered into by or on behalf of the state
1172-relating to health information technology or the exchange of health
1173-information shall be consistent with the goals articulated in subsection
1174-(b) of this section and shall utilize contractors, vendors and other
1175-partners with a demonstrated commitment to such goals.
1176-(d) (1) The executive director of the Office of Health Strategy, in
1177-consultation with the Secretary of the Office of Policy and Management
1178-and the State Health Information Technology Advisory Council,
1179-established pursuant to section 17b-59f, shall, upon the approval by the
1180-State Bond Commission of bond funds authorized by the General
1181-Assembly for the purposes of establishing a State-wide Health
1182-Information Exchange, develop and issue a request for proposals for the
1183-development, management and operation of the State-wide Health
1184-Information Exchange. Such request shall promote the reuse of any and
1185-all enterprise health information technology assets, such as the existing
1186-Provider Directory, Enterprise Master Person Index, Direct Secure
1187-Messaging Health Information Service provider infrastructure, analytic
1188-capabilities and tools that exist in the state or are in the process of being
1189-deployed. Any enterprise health information exchange technology
1190-assets purchased after June 2, 2016, and prior to the implementation of
1191-the State-wide Health Information Exchange shall be capable of Substitute House Bill No. 5500
1192909
1193-Public Act No. 22-58 37 of 100
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1194913
1195-interoperability with a State-wide Health Information Exchange.
1196-(2) Such request for proposals may require an eligible organization
1197-responding to the request to: (A) Have not less than three years of
1198-experience operating either a state-wide health information exchange in
1199-any state or a regional exchange serving a population of not less than
1200-one million that (i) enables the exchange of patient health information
1201-among health care providers, patients and other authorized users
1202-without regard to location, source of payment or technology, (ii)
1203-includes, with proper consent, behavioral health and substance abuse
1204-treatment information, (iii) supports transitions of care and care
1205-coordination through real-time health care provider alerts and access to
1206-clinical information, (iv) allows health information to follow each
1207-patient, (v) allows patients to access and manage their health data, and
1208-(vi) has demonstrated success in reducing costs associated with
1209-preventable readmissions, duplicative testing or medical errors; (B) be
1210-committed to, and demonstrate, a high level of transparency in its
1211-governance, decision-making and operations; (C) be capable of
1212-providing consulting to ensure effective governance; (D) be regulated or
1213-administratively overseen by a state government agency; and (E) have
1214-sufficient staff and appropriate expertise and experience to carry out the
1215-administrative, operational and financial responsibilities of the State-
1216-wide Health Information Exchange.
1217-(e) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (d) of this section,
1218-if, on or before January 1, 2016, the Commissioner of Social Services, in
1219-consultation with the State Health Information Technology Advisory
1220-Council, established pursuant to section 17b-59f, submits a plan to the
1221-Secretary of the Office of Policy and Management for the establishment
1222-of a State-wide Health Information Exchange consistent with
1223-subsections (a), (b) and (c) of this section, and such plan is approved by
1224-the secretary, the commissioner may implement such plan and enter
1225-into any contracts or agreements to implement such plan. Substitute House Bill No. 5500
914+processing or consultation. No patient or other third party payor, as 751
915+described in this subsection, shall be required to reimburse any provider 752
916+for charges or claims submitted in violation of this section. For purposes 753
917+of this subsection, (1) "referring clinical laboratory" means a clinical 754
918+laboratory that refers a patient specimen for consultation or anatomic 755
919+pathology services, excluding the laboratory of a physician's office or 756
920+group practice that takes a patient specimen and does not perform the 757
921+professional diagnostic component of the anatomic pathology services 758
922+involved, and (2) "anatomic pathology services" means the gross and 759
923+microscopic examination and histologic or cytologic processing of 760
924+human specimens, including histopathology or surgical pathology, 761
925+cytopathology, hematology, subcellular pathology or molecular 762
926+pathology or blood banking service performed by a pathologist. 763
927+Sec. 29. Subsection (a) of section 20-7c of the general statutes is 764
928+repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 765
929+1, 2022): 766
930+(a) For purposes of this section, "clinical laboratory" has the same 767
931+meaning as provided in section [19a-30] 19a-490, as amended by this act. 768
932+"Clinical laboratory" does not include any state laboratory established 769
933+by the Department of Public Health pursuant to section 19a-26 or 19a-770
934+29. 771
935+Sec. 30. Subparagraph (A) of subdivision (6) of subsection (a) of 772
936+section 38a-477aa of the general statutes is repealed and the following is 773
937+substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2022): 774
938+(6) (A) "Surprise bill" means a bill for health care services, other than 775
939+emergency services, received by an insured for services rendered by an 776
940+out-of-network health care provider, where such services were rendered 777
941+by (i) such out-of-network provider at an in-network facility, during a 778
942+service or procedure performed by an in-network provider or during a 779
943+service or procedure previously approved or authorized by the health 780
944+carrier and the insured did not knowingly elect to obtain such services 781
945+from such out-of-network provider, or (ii) a clinical laboratory, as 782 Substitute Bill No. 5500
1226946
1227-Public Act No. 22-58 38 of 100
1228947
1229-(f) The executive director of the Office of Health Strategy shall have
1230-administrative authority over the State-wide Health Information
1231-Exchange. The executive director shall be responsible for designating,
1232-and posting on its Internet web site, the list of systems, technologies,
1233-entities and programs that shall constitute the State-wide Health
1234-Information Exchange. Systems, technologies, entities, and programs
1235-that have not been so designated shall not be considered part of said
1236-exchange.
1237-(g) The executive director of the Office of Health Strategy shall adopt
1238-regulations in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54 that set forth
1239-requirements necessary to implement the provisions of this section. The
1240-executive director may implement policies and procedures necessary to
1241-administer the provisions of this section while in the process of adopting
1242-such policies and procedures in regulation form, provided the executive
1243-director holds a public hearing at least thirty days prior to implementing
1244-such policies and procedures and publishes notice of intention to adopt
1245-the regulations on the Office of Health Strategy's Internet web site and
1246-the eRegulations System not later than twenty days after implementing
1247-such policies and procedures. Policies and procedures implemented
1248-pursuant to this subsection shall be valid until the time such regulations
1249-are effective.
1250-Sec. 38. Section 17b-59e of the general statutes is repealed and the
1251-following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage):
1252-(a) For purposes of this section:
1253-(1) "Health care provider" means any individual, corporation, facility
1254-or institution licensed by the state to provide health care services; and
1255-(2) "Electronic health record system" means a computer-based
1256-information system that is used to create, collect, store, manipulate,
1257-share, exchange or make available electronic health records for the Substitute House Bill No. 5500
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1259-Public Act No. 22-58 39 of 100
952+defined in section [19a-30] 19a-490, as amended by this act, that is an 783
953+out-of-network provider, upon the referral of an in-network provider. 784
954+Sec. 31. Section 7-51a of the 2022 supplement to the general statutes 785
955+is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from 786
956+passage): 787
957+(a) Any person eighteen years of age or older may purchase certified 788
958+copies of marriage and death records, and certified copies of records of 789
959+births or fetal deaths which are at least one hundred years old, in the 790
960+custody of any registrar of vital statistics. The department may issue 791
961+uncertified copies of death certificates for deaths occurring less than one 792
962+hundred years ago, and uncertified copies of birth, marriage, death and 793
963+fetal death certificates for births, marriages, deaths and fetal deaths that 794
964+occurred at least one hundred years ago, to researchers approved by the 795
965+department pursuant to section 19a-25, and to state and federal agencies 796
966+approved by the department. During all normal business hours, 797
967+members of genealogical societies incorporated or authorized by the 798
968+Secretary of the State to do business or conduct affairs in this state shall 799
969+(1) have full access to all vital records in the custody of any registrar of 800
970+vital statistics, including certificates, ledgers, record books, card files, 801
971+indexes and database printouts, except for those records containing 802
972+Social Security numbers protected pursuant to 42 USC 405 (c)(2)(C), and 803
973+confidential files on adoptions, gender change, surrogacy agreements, 804
974+and parentage, (2) be permitted to make notes from such records, (3) be 805
975+permitted to purchase certified copies of such records, and (4) be 806
976+permitted to incorporate statistics derived from such records in the 807
977+publications of such genealogical societies. For all vital records 808
978+containing Social Security numbers that are protected from disclosure 809
979+pursuant to federal law, the Social Security numbers contained on such 810
980+records shall be redacted from any certified copy of such records issued 811
981+to a genealogist by a registrar of vital statistics. 812
982+(b) For marriage and civil union licenses, the Social Security numbers 813
983+of the parties to the marriage or civil union shall be recorded in the 814
984+"administrative purposes" section of the marriage or civil union license 815 Substitute Bill No. 5500
1260985
1261-purposes of the delivery of patient care.
1262-(b) Not later than one year after commencement of the operation of
1263-the State-wide Health Information Exchange, each hospital licensed
1264-under chapter 368v and clinical laboratory licensed under section 19a-
1265-30, as amended by this act, shall maintain an electronic health record
1266-system capable of connecting to and participating in the State-wide
1267-Health Information Exchange and shall apply to begin the process of
1268-connecting to, and participating in, the State-wide Health Information
1269-Exchange.
1270-(c) Not later than two years after commencement of the operation of
1271-the State-wide Health Information Exchange, (1) each health care
1272-provider with an electronic health record system capable of connecting
1273-to, and participating in, the State-wide Health Information Exchange
1274-shall apply to begin the process of connecting to, and participating in,
1275-the State-wide Health Information Exchange, and (2) each health care
1276-provider without an electronic health record system capable of
1277-connecting to, and participating in, the State-wide Health Information
1278-Exchange shall be capable of sending and receiving secure messages
1279-that comply with the Direct Project specifications published by the
1280-federal Office of the National Coordinator for Health Information
1281-Technology.
1282-(d) The executive director of the Office of Health Strategy shall adopt
1283-regulations in accordance with the provisions of chapter 54 that set forth
1284-requirements necessary to implement the provisions of this section. The
1285-executive director may implement policies and procedures necessary to
1286-administer the provisions of this section while in the process of adopting
1287-such policies and procedures in regulation form, provided the executive
1288-director holds a public hearing at least thirty days prior to implementing
1289-such policies and procedures and publishes notice of intention to adopt
1290-the regulations on the Office of Health Strategy's Internet web site and
1291-the eRegulations System not later than twenty days after implementing Substitute House Bill No. 5500
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1294990
1295-such policies and procedures. Policies and procedures implemented
1296-pursuant to this subsection shall be valid until the time such regulations
1297-are effective.
1298-Sec. 39. Subsection (c) of section 19a-495 of the general statutes is
1299-repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from
1300-passage):
1301-(c) The commissioner may waive any provisions of the regulations
1302-affecting an institution [, as defined in section 19a-490] or a clinical
1303-laboratory, licensed pursuant to section 19a-30, as amended by this act,
1304-if the commissioner determines that such waiver would not endanger
1305-the health, safety or welfare of any patient or resident. The
1306-commissioner may impose conditions, upon granting the waiver, that
1307-assure the health, safety and welfare of patients or residents, and may
1308-revoke the waiver upon a finding that the health, safety or welfare of
1309-any patient or resident has been jeopardized. The commissioner shall
1310-not grant a waiver that would result in a violation of the Fire Safety
1311-Code or State Building Code. The commissioner may adopt regulations,
1312-in accordance with chapter 54, establishing procedures for an
1313-application for a waiver pursuant to this subsection.
1314-Sec. 40. (Effective from passage) (a) As used in this section:
1315-(1) "Certified doula" means a doula that is certified by the Department
1316-of Public Health; and
1317-(2) "Doula" means a trained, nonmedical professional who provides
1318-physical, emotional and informational support, virtually or in person,
1319-to a pregnant person before, during and after birth.
1320-(b) The Commissioner of Public Health shall, within available
1321-resources, establish a Doula Advisory Committee within the
1322-Department of Public Health. The Doula Advisory Committee shall
1323-develop recommendations for (1) requirements for certification and Substitute House Bill No. 5500
991+and the application for such license. All persons specified on the license, 816
992+including the parties to the marriage or civil union, officiator and local 817
993+registrar shall have access to the Social Security numbers specified on 818
994+the marriage or civil union license and the application for such license 819
995+for the purpose of processing the license. Only the parties to a marriage 820
996+or civil union, or entities authorized by state or federal law, may receive 821
997+a certified copy of a marriage or civil union license with the Social 822
998+Security numbers included on the license. Any other individual, 823
999+researcher or state or federal agency requesting a certified or uncertified 824
1000+copy of any marriage or civil union license in accordance with the 825
1001+provisions of this section shall be provided such copy with such Social 826
1002+Security numbers removed or redacted, or with the "administrative 827
1003+purposes" section omitted. 828
1004+(c) For deaths occurring on or after July 1, 1997, the Social Security 829
1005+number of the deceased person shall be recorded in the "administrative 830
1006+purposes" section of the death certificate. Such administrative purposes 831
1007+section, and the Social Security number contained therein, shall be 832
1008+restricted and disclosed only to the following eligible parties: (1) All 833
1009+parties specified on the death certificate, including the informant, 834
1010+licensed funeral director, licensed embalmer, conservator, surviving 835
1011+spouse, physician or advanced practice registered nurse and town clerk, 836
1012+for the purpose of processing the certificate, (2) the surviving spouse, (3) 837
1013+the next of kin, or (4) any state and federal agencies authorized by 838
1014+federal law. The department shall provide any other individual, 839
1015+researcher or state or federal agency requesting a certified or uncertified 840
1016+death certificate, or the information contained within such certificate, 841
1017+for a death occurring on or after July 1, 1997, such certificate or 842
1018+information. The decedent's Social Security number shall be removed or 843
1019+redacted from such certificate or information or the administrative 844
1020+purposes section shall be omitted from such certificate. 845
1021+(d) The registrar of vital statistics of any town or city in this state that 846
1022+has access to an electronic vital records system, as authorized by the 847
1023+department, may use such system to issue certified copies of birth, 848 Substitute Bill No. 5500
13241024
1325-Public Act No. 22-58 41 of 100
13261025
1327-certification renewal of doulas, including, but not limited to, training,
1328-experience or continuing education requirements; and (2) standards for
1329-recognizing doula training program curricula that are sufficient to
1330-satisfy the requirements for doula certification.
1331-(c) The Commissioner of Public Health, or the commissioner's
1332-designee, shall be the chairperson of the Doula Advisory Committee.
1333-(d) The Doula Advisory Committee shall consist of the following
1334-members:
1335-(1) Seven appointed by the Commissioner of Public Health, or the
1336-commissioner's designee, who are actively practicing as doulas in the
1337-state;
1338-(2) One appointed by the Commissioner of Public Health, or the
1339-commissioner's designee, who is a nurse-midwife, licensed pursuant to
1340-chapter 377 of the general statutes, who has experience working with a
1341-doula;
1342-(3) One appointed by the Commissioner of Public Health, or the
1343-commissioner's designee, in consultation with the Connecticut Hospital
1344-Association, who shall represent an acute care hospital;
1345-(4) One appointed by the Commissioner of Public Health, or the
1346-commissioner's designee, who shall represent an association that
1347-represents hospitals and health-related organizations in the state;
1348-(5) One appointed by the Commissioner of Public Health, or the
1349-commissioner's designee, who shall be a licensed health care provider
1350-who specializes in obstetrics and has experience working with a doula;
1351-(6) One appointed by the Commissioner of Public Health, or the
1352-commissioner's designee, who shall represent a community-based
1353-doula training organization; Substitute House Bill No. 5500
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13541029
1355-Public Act No. 22-58 42 of 100
1030+death, fetal death or marriage certificates that are electronically filed in 849
1031+such system. 850
1032+[(e) Any registrar of vital statistics who receives payment pursuant to 851
1033+this section may permit such payment to be made on an Internet web 852
1034+site designated by the registrar, in a manner prescribed by the registrar.] 853
1035+Sec. 32. Section 7-74 of the general statutes is repealed and the 854
1036+following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage): 855
1037+(a) The fee for a certification of birth registration, short form, shall be 856
1038+fifteen dollars. The fee for a certified copy of a certificate of birth, long 857
1039+form, shall be twenty dollars, except that the fee for such certifications 858
1040+and copies when issued by the department shall be thirty dollars. 859
1041+(b) (1) The fee for a certified copy of a certificate of marriage or death 860
1042+shall be twenty dollars. Such fees shall not be required of the 861
1043+department. 862
1044+(2) Any fee received by the Department of Public Health for a 863
1045+certificate of death shall be deposited in the neglected cemetery account, 864
1046+established in accordance with section 19a-308b. 865
1047+(c) The fee for one certified copy of a certificate of death for any 866
1048+deceased person who was a veteran, as defined in subsection (a) of 867
1049+section 27-103, shall be waived when such copy is requested by a 868
1050+spouse, child or parent of such deceased veteran. 869
1051+(d) The fee for an uncertified copy of an original certificate of birth 870
1052+issued pursuant to section 7-53 shall be sixty-five dollars. 871
1053+(e) Any registrar of vital statistics who receives payment pursuant to 872
1054+this section may permit such payment to be made on an Internet web 873
1055+site designated by the registrar, in a manner prescribed by the registrar, 874
1056+as approved by the Commissioner of Public Health, or the 875
1057+commissioner's designee. 876 Substitute Bill No. 5500
13561058
1357-(7) One appointed by the Commissioner of Public Health, or the
1358-commissioner's designee, who shall represent a community-based
1359-maternal and child health organization;
1360-(8) One appointed by the Commissioner of Public Health, or the
1361-commissioner's designee, who shall have expertise in health equity;
1362-(9) The Commissioner of Social Services, or the commissioner's
1363-designee;
1364-(10) The Commissioner of Mental Health and Addiction Services, or
1365-the commissioner's designee; and
1366-(11) The Commissioner of Early Childhood, or the commissioner's
1367-designee.
1368-(e) Not later than January 15, 2023, the Doula Advisory Committee
1369-shall establish a Doula Training Program Review Committee. Such
1370-committee shall (1) conduct a continuous review of doula training
1371-programs; and (2) provide a list of approved doula training programs
1372-in the state that meet the requirements established by the Doula
1373-Advisory Committee.
1374-Sec. 41. (Effective from passage) The Commissioner of Public Health
1375-shall study whether the state should adopt safe harbor legislation that
1376-permits alternative health care practitioners who are not licensed,
1377-certified or registered in the state to provide traditional health care
1378-services, to provide certain alternative health care services, including,
1379-but not limited to, aromatherapy, energetic healing, healing touch,
1380-herbology or herbalism, meditation and mind body practices, polarity
1381-therapy, reflexology and Reiki, without violating any provision of the
1382-general statutes relating to the unlicensed practice of medicine. Not later
1383-than January 1, 2023, the commissioner shall report, in accordance with
1384-the provisions of section 11-4a of the general statutes, regarding such
1385-study to the joint standing committee of the General Assembly having Substitute House Bill No. 5500
13861059
1387-Public Act No. 22-58 43 of 100
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13881063
1389-cognizance of matters relating to public health.
1390-Sec. 42. Subsection (c) of section 19a-498 of the general statutes is
1391-repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October
1392-1, 2022):
1393-(c) The Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services, with
1394-respect to any behavioral health facility, [or alcohol or drug treatment
1395-facility,] shall be authorized, either upon the request of the
1396-Commissioner of Public Health or at such other times as they deem
1397-necessary, to enter such facility for the purpose of inspecting programs
1398-conducted at such facility. A written report of the findings of any such
1399-inspection shall be forwarded to the Commissioner of Public Health and
1400-a copy shall be maintained in such facility's licensure file.
1401-Sec. 43. Section 19a-509g of the general statutes is repealed and the
1402-following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2022):
1403-[An alcohol or drug treatment facility, as defined in section 19a-490,]
1404-A behavioral health facility shall use the criteria for admission
1405-developed by the American Society of Addiction Medicine for purposes
1406-of assessing a person for admission to such facility in consideration of
1407-(1) the services for which the facility is licensed, and (2) the appropriate
1408-services required for treatment of such person.
1409-Sec. 44. Subdivision (1) of subsection (b) of section 38a-493 of the 2022
1410-supplement to the general statutes is repealed and the following is
1411-substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2022):
1412-(1) "Hospital" means an institution that is primarily engaged in
1413-providing, by or under the supervision of physicians, to inpatients (A)
1414-diagnostic, surgical and therapeutic services for medical diagnosis,
1415-treatment and care of persons who have an injury, sickness or disability,
1416-or (B) medical rehabilitation services for the rehabilitation of persons
1417-who have an injury, sickness or disability. "Hospital" does not include a Substitute House Bill No. 5500
1064+Sec. 33. Subsections (c) and (d) of section 19a-36m of the general 877
1065+statutes are repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof 878
1066+(Effective from passage): 879
1067+(c) The provisions of the food code that concern the employment of a 880
1068+certified food protection manager and any reporting requirements 881
1069+relative to such certified food protection manager [(1)] shall not apply 882
1070+to [(A)] (1) an owner or operator of a soup kitchen that relies exclusively 883
1071+on services provided by volunteers, [(B)] (2) any volunteer who serves 884
1072+meals from a nonprofit organization, including a temporary food 885
1073+service establishment and a special event sponsored by a nonprofit civic 886
1074+organization, including, but not limited to, school sporting events, little 887
1075+league food booths, church suppers and fairs, or [(C)] (3) any person 888
1076+who serves meals to individuals at a registered congregate meal site 889
1077+funded under Title III of the Older Americans Act of 1965, as amended 890
1078+from time to time, that were prepared under the supervision of a 891
1079+certified food protection manager. [, and (2) shall not prohibit the sale 892
1080+or distribution of food at (A) a bed and breakfast establishment that 893
1081+prepares and offers food to guests, provided the operation is owner-894
1082+occupied and the total building occupant load is not more than sixteen 895
1083+persons, including the owner and occupants, has no provisions for 896
1084+cooking or warming food in the guest rooms, breakfast is the only meal 897
1085+offered and the consumer of such operation is informed by statements 898
1086+contained in published advertisements, mailed brochures and placards 899
1087+posted in the registration area that the food is prepared in a kitchen that 900
1088+is not regulated and inspected by the local health director, and (B) a 901
1089+noncommercial function, including, but not limited to, an educational, 902
1090+religious, political or charitable organization's bake sale or potluck 903
1091+supper, provided the seller or person distributing the food maintains 904
1092+the food at the temperature, pH level and water activity level conditions 905
1093+that will inhibit the growth of infectious or toxigenic microorganisms. 906
1094+For the purposes of this subsection, "noncommercial function" means a 907
1095+function where food is sold or distributed by a person not regularly 908
1096+engaged in the business of selling such food for profit.] 909 Substitute Bill No. 5500
14181097
1419-Public Act No. 22-58 44 of 100
14201098
1421-residential care home, nursing home, rest home or [alcohol or drug
1422-treatment facility] behavioral health facility, as defined in section 19a-
1423-490, as amended by this act;
1424-Sec. 45. Subdivision (1) of subsection (b) of section 38a-520 of the 2022
1425-supplement to the general statutes is repealed and the following is
1426-substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2022):
1427-(1) "Hospital" means an institution that is primarily engaged in
1428-providing, by or under the supervision of physicians, to inpatients (A)
1429-diagnostic, surgical and therapeutic services for medical diagnosis,
1430-treatment and care of persons who have an injury, sickness or disability,
1431-or (B) medical rehabilitation services for the rehabilitation of persons
1432-who have an injury, sickness or disability. "Hospital" does not include a
1433-residential care home, nursing home, rest home or [alcohol or drug
1434-treatment facility] behavioral health facility, as defined in section 19a-
1435-490, as amended by this act;
1436-Sec. 46. Section 19a-535a of the general statutes is repealed and the
1437-following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2022):
1438-(a) As used in this section: [, a "facility"]
1439-(1) "Facility" means a residential care home, as defined in section 19a-
1440-490, as amended by this act; [.]
1441-(2) "Emergency" means a situation in which a resident of a facility
1442-presents an imminent danger to the resident's own health or safety, the
1443-health or safety of another resident or the health or safety of an
1444-employee or the owner of the facility;
1445-(3) "Department" means the Department of Public Health; and
1446-(4) "Commissioner" means the Commissioner of Public Health, or the
1447-commissioner's designee. Substitute House Bill No. 5500
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14481102
1449-Public Act No. 22-58 45 of 100
1103+(d) The provisions of the food code shall not (1) apply to a residential 910
1104+care home with thirty beds or less that is licensed pursuant to chapter 911
1105+368v, provided the administrator of the residential care home or the 912
1106+administrator's designee has satisfactorily passed a test as part of a food 913
1107+protection manager certification program that is evaluated and 914
1108+approved by an accrediting agency recognized by the Conference for 915
1109+Food Protection as conforming to its standard for accreditation of food 916
1110+protection manager certification programs, unless such residential care 917
1111+home enters into a service contract with a food establishment or lends, 918
1112+rents or leases any area of its facility to any person or entity for the 919
1113+purpose of preparing or selling food, at which time the provisions of the 920
1114+food code shall apply to such residential care home, and (2) shall not 921
1115+prohibit the sale or distribution of food at (A) a bed and breakfast 922
1116+establishment that prepares and offers food to guests, provided the 923
1117+operation is owner-occupied and the total building occupant load is not 924
1118+more than sixteen persons, including the owner and occupants, has no 925
1119+provisions for cooking or warming food in the guest rooms, breakfast is 926
1120+the only meal offered and the consumer of such operation is informed 927
1121+by statements contained in published advertisements, mailed brochures 928
1122+and placards posted in the registration area that the food is prepared in 929
1123+a kitchen that is not regulated and inspected by the local health director, 930
1124+and (B) a noncommercial function, including, but not limited to, an 931
1125+educational, religious, political or charitable organization's bake sale or 932
1126+potluck supper, provided the seller or person distributing the food 933
1127+maintains the food at the temperature, pH level and water activity level 934
1128+conditions that will inhibit the growth of infectious or toxigenic 935
1129+microorganisms. For the purposes of this subsection, "noncommercial 936
1130+function" means a function where food is sold or distributed by a person 937
1131+not regularly engaged in the business of selling such food for profit. 938
1132+Sec. 34. Subparagraph (A) of subdivision (2) of subsection (c) of 939
1133+section 16-245n of the 2022 supplement to the general statutes is 940
1134+repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from 941
1135+passage): 942 Substitute Bill No. 5500
14501136
1451-(b) A facility shall not transfer or discharge a resident from the facility
1452-unless (1) the transfer or discharge is necessary to meet the resident's
1453-welfare and the resident's welfare cannot be met in the facility, (2) the
1454-transfer or discharge is appropriate because the resident's health has
1455-improved sufficiently so the resident no longer needs the services
1456-provided by the facility, (3) the health or safety of individuals in the
1457-facility is endangered, (4) the resident has failed, after reasonable and
1458-appropriate notice, to pay for a stay or a requested service [,] at the
1459-facility, or (5) the facility ceases to operate. In the case of an involuntary
1460-transfer or discharge, the facility shall provide written notice to the
1461-resident and, if known, [his] the resident's legally liable relative,
1462-guardian or conservator [shall be given a thirty-day written notification
1463-which includes] not less than thirty days prior to the proposed transfer
1464-or discharge date, except when the facility has requested an immediate
1465-transfer or discharge in accordance with subsection (e) of this section.
1466-Such notice shall include the reason for the transfer or discharge, [and
1467-notice of] the effective date of the transfer or discharge, the right of the
1468-resident to appeal a transfer or discharge by the facility pursuant to
1469-subsection (d) of this section and the resident's right to represent himself
1470-or herself or be represented by legal counsel. Such notice shall be in a
1471-form and manner prescribed by the commissioner, as modified from
1472-time to time, and shall include the name, mailing address and telephone
1473-number of the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman and be sent by
1474-facsimile or electronic communication to the Office of the Long-Term
1475-Care Ombudsman on the same day as the notice is given to the resident.
1476-If the facility knows the resident has, or the facility alleges that the
1477-resident has, a mental illness or an intellectual disability, the notice shall
1478-also include the name, mailing address and telephone number of the
1479-entity designated by the Governor in accordance with section 46a-10b to
1480-serve as the Connecticut protection and advocacy system. No resident
1481-shall be involuntarily transferred or discharged from a facility if such
1482-transfer or discharge presents imminent danger of death to the resident. Substitute House Bill No. 5500
14831137
1484-Public Act No. 22-58 46 of 100
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14851141
1486-(c) The facility shall be responsible for assisting the resident in finding
1487-[appropriate placement] an alternative residence. A discharge plan,
1488-prepared by the facility, [which indicates] in a form and manner
1489-prescribed by the commissioner, as modified from time to time, shall
1490-include the resident's individual needs and shall [accompany the
1491-patient] be submitted to the resident not later than seven days after the
1492-notice of transfer or discharge is issued to the resident. The facility shall
1493-submit the discharge plan to the commissioner at or before the hearing
1494-held pursuant to subsection (d) of this section.
1495-(d) (1) [For transfers or discharges effected on or after October 1, 1989,
1496-a] A resident or [his] the resident's legally liable relative, guardian or
1497-conservator who has been notified by a facility, pursuant to subsection
1498-(b) of this section, that [he] the resident will be transferred or discharged
1499-from the facility may appeal such transfer or discharge to the
1500-Commissioner of Public Health by filing a request for a hearing with the
1501-commissioner [within] not later than ten days [of] after the receipt of
1502-such notice. Upon receipt of any such request, the commissioner [or his
1503-designee] shall hold a hearing to determine whether the transfer or
1504-discharge is being effected in accordance with this section. Such a
1505-hearing shall be held [within] not later than seven business days [of]
1506-after the receipt of such request. [and a determination made by the] The
1507-commissioner [or his designee within] shall issue a decision not later
1508-than twenty days [of the termination of] after the closing of the hearing
1509-record. The hearing shall be conducted in accordance with chapter 54.
1510-[(2) In an emergency the facility may request that the commissioner
1511-make a determination as to the need for an immediate transfer or
1512-discharge of a resident. Before making such a determination, the
1513-commissioner shall notify the resident and, if known, his legally liable
1514-relative, guardian or conservator. The commissioner shall issue such a
1515-determination no later than seven days after receipt of the request for
1516-such determination. If, as a result of such a request, the commissioner or Substitute House Bill No. 5500
1142+(2) (A) There is hereby created an Environmental Infrastructure Fund 943
1143+which shall be within the Connecticut Green Bank. The fund may 944
1144+receive any amount required by law to be deposited into the fund and 945
1145+may receive any federal funds as may become available to the state for 946
1146+environmental infrastructure investments, except that the fund shall not 947
1147+receive: (i) Ratepayer or Regional Greenhouse Gas Initiative funds, (ii) 948
1148+funds that have been deposited in, or are required to be deposited in, an 949
1149+account of the Clean Water Fund pursuant to sections 22a-475 to [22a-950
1150+438f] 22a-483f, inclusive, or (iii) funds collected from a water company, 951
1151+as defined in section 25-32a. 952
1152+Sec. 35. Subsection (b) of section 20-191c of the 2022 supplement to 953
1153+the general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu 954
1154+thereof (Effective July 1, 2022): 955
1155+(b) Qualifying continuing education activities shall be related to the 956
1156+practice of psychology and shall include courses, seminars, workshops, 957
1157+conferences and postdoctoral institutes offered or approved by: (1) The 958
1158+American Psychological Association; (2) a regionally accredited 959
1159+institution of higher education graduate program; (3) a nationally 960
1160+recognized provider of continuing education seminars; (4) the 961
1161+Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services; or (5) a 962
1162+behavioral science organization that is professionally or scientifically 963
1163+recognized. Not more than five continuing education units during each 964
1164+registration period shall be completed via [the Internet] asynchronous 965
1165+online education, distance learning or home study. Not less than five 966
1166+continuing education units shall be earned through synchronous online 967
1167+education. On and after January 1, 2016, qualifying continuing 968
1168+education activities shall include not less than two contact hours of 969
1169+training or education during the first renewal period in which 970
1170+continuing education is required and not less than once every six years 971
1171+thereafter on the topic of mental health conditions common to veterans 972
1172+and family members of veterans, including (A) determining whether a 973
1173+patient is a veteran or family member of a veteran, (B) screening for 974
1174+conditions such as post-traumatic stress disorder, risk of suicide, 975 Substitute Bill No. 5500
15171175
1518-Public Act No. 22-58 47 of 100
15191176
1520-his designee determines that a failure to effect an immediate transfer or
1521-discharge would endanger the health, safety or welfare of the resident
1522-or other residents, the commissioner or his designee shall order the
1523-immediate transfer or discharge of the resident from the facility. A
1524-hearing shall be held in accordance with the requirements of
1525-subdivision (1) of this subsection within seven business days of the
1526-issuance of any determination issued pursuant to this subdivision.
1527-(3) Any involuntary transfer or discharge shall be stayed pending a
1528-determination by the commissioner or his designee. Notwithstanding
1529-any provision of the general statutes, the determination of the
1530-commissioner or his designee after a hearing shall be final and binding
1531-upon all parties and not subject to any further appeal.]
1532-(2) Any involuntary transfer or discharge that is appealed under this
1533-subsection shall be stayed pending a final determination by the
1534-commissioner.
1535-(3) The commissioner shall send a copy of the decision regarding a
1536-transfer or discharge to the facility, the resident and the resident's legal
1537-guardian, conservator or other authorized representative, if known, or
1538-the resident's legally liable relative or other responsible party, and the
1539-State Long-Term Care Ombudsman.
1540-(e) (1) In the case of an emergency, the facility may request that the
1541-commissioner make a determination as to the need for an immediate
1542-transfer or discharge of a resident by submitting a sworn affidavit
1543-attesting to the basis for the emergency transfer or discharge. The facility
1544-shall provide a copy of the request for an immediate transfer or
1545-discharge and the notice described in subsection (b) of this section to the
1546-resident. After receipt of such request, the commissioner may issue an
1547-order for the immediate temporary transfer or discharge of the resident
1548-from the facility. The temporary order shall remain in place until a final
1549-decision is issued by the commissioner, unless earlier rescinded. The Substitute House Bill No. 5500
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15501180
1551-Public Act No. 22-58 48 of 100
1181+depression and grief, and (C) suicide prevention training. Qualifying 976
1182+continuing education activities may include a licensee's research-based 977
1183+presentation at a professional conference, provided not more than five 978
1184+continuing education units during each registration period shall be 979
1185+completed by such activities. A licensee who has earned a diploma from 980
1186+the American Board of Professional Psychology during the registration 981
1187+period may substitute the diploma for continuing education 982
1188+requirements for such registration period. For purposes of this section, 983
1189+"continuing education unit" means fifty to sixty minutes of participation 984
1190+in accredited continuing professional education. For the purposes of this 985
1191+subsection, "synchronous online education" means live online classes 986
1192+that are conducted in real time and "asynchronous online education" 987
1193+means a program where the instructor, learner and other participants 988
1194+are not engaged in the learning process at the same time, there is no real-989
1195+time interaction between participants and instructors and the 990
1196+educational content is created and made available for later 991
1197+consumption. 992
1198+Sec. 36. Section 19a-563h of the 2022 supplement to the general 993
1199+statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof 994
1200+(Effective from passage): 995
1201+(a) On or before January 1, 2022, the Department of Public Health 996
1202+shall (1) establish minimum staffing level requirements for nursing 997
1203+homes of three hours of direct care per resident per day, and (2) modify 998
1204+staffing level requirements for social work and recreational staff of 999
1205+nursing homes such that the requirements (A) for social work, [are] a 1000
1206+number of hours that is based on one full-time social worker per sixty 1001
1207+residents and that shall vary proportionally based on the number of 1002
1208+residents in the nursing home, and (B) for recreational staff are lower 1003
1209+than the current requirements, as deemed appropriate by the 1004
1210+Commissioner of Public Health. 1005
1211+(b) The commissioner shall adopt regulations in accordance with the 1006
1212+provisions of chapter 54 that set forth nursing home staffing level 1007
1213+requirements to implement the provisions of this section. The 1008 Substitute Bill No. 5500
15521214
1553-commissioner shall issue the determination as to the need for an
1554-immediate transfer or discharge of a resident not later than seven days
1555-after receipt of the request from the facility. A hearing shall be held not
1556-later than seven business days after the date on which a determination
1557-is issued pursuant to this section. The commissioner shall issue a
1558-decision not later than twenty days after the date on which the hearing
1559-record is closed. The hearing shall be conducted in accordance with the
1560-provisions of chapter 54.
1561-(2) The commissioner shall send a copy of the decision regarding an
1562-emergency transfer or discharge to the facility, the resident and the
1563-resident's legal guardian, conservator or other authorized
1564-representative, if known, or the resident's legally liable relative or other
1565-responsible party and the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman.
1566-(3) If the commissioner determines, based upon the request, that an
1567-emergency does not exist, the commissioner shall proceed with a
1568-hearing in accordance with the provisions of subsection (d) of this
1569-section.
1570-(f) A facility or resident who is aggrieved by a final decision of the
1571-commissioner may appeal to the Superior Court in accordance with the
1572-provisions of chapter 54. Pursuant to subsection (f) of section 4-183, the
1573-filing of an appeal to the Superior Court shall not, of itself, stay
1574-enforcement of an agency decision. The Superior Court shall consider
1575-an appeal from a decision of the commissioner pursuant to this section
1576-as a privileged case in order to dispose of the case with the least possible
1577-delay.
1578-Sec. 47. (NEW) (Effective October 1, 2022) (a) For purposes of this
1579-section, "clinical medical assistant" means a person who (1) (A) is
1580-certified by the American Association of Medical Assistants, the
1581-National Healthcareer Association, the National Center for Competency
1582-Testing or the American Medical Technologists, and (B) has graduated Substitute House Bill No. 5500
15831215
1584-Public Act No. 22-58 49 of 100
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15851219
1586-from a postsecondary medical assisting program (i) on and after January
1587-1, 2024, that is accredited by the Commission on Accreditation of Allied
1588-Health Education Programs, the Accrediting Bureau of Health
1589-Education Schools or another accrediting organization recognized by
1590-the United States Department of Education, or (ii) offered by an
1591-institution of higher education accredited by an accrediting
1592-organization recognized by the United States Department of Education
1593-and that includes a total of seven hundred twenty hours, including one
1594-hundred sixty hours of clinical practice skills, including, but not limited
1595-to, administering injections, or (2) has completed relevant medical
1596-assistant training provided by any branch of the armed forces of the
1597-United States.
1598-(b) A clinical medical assistant may administer a vaccine under the
1599-supervision, control and responsibility of a physician licensed pursuant
1600-to chapter 370 of the general statutes, a physician assistant licensed
1601-pursuant to chapter 370 of the general statutes or an advanced practice
1602-registered nurse licensed pursuant to chapter 378 of the general statutes
1603-to any person in any setting other than a hospital setting. Prior to
1604-administering a vaccine, a clinical medical assistant shall complete not
1605-less than twenty-four hours of classroom training and not less than eight
1606-hours of training in a clinical setting regarding the administration of
1607-vaccines. Nothing in this section shall be construed to permit an
1608-employer of a physician, a physician assistant or an advanced practice
1609-registered nurse to require the physician, physician assistant or
1610-advanced practice registered nurse to oversee a clinical medical
1611-assistant in the administration of a vaccine without the consent of the
1612-physician, physician assistant or advanced practice registered nurse.
1613-(c) On or before January first annually, the Commissioner of Public
1614-Health shall obtain from the American Association of Medical
1615-Assistants, the National Healthcareer Association, the National Center
1616-for Competency Testing and the American Medical Technologists a Substitute House Bill No. 5500
1220+Commissioner of Public Health may implement policies and procedures 1009
1221+necessary to administer the provisions of this section while in the 1010
1222+process of adopting such policies and procedures as regulations, 1011
1223+provided notice of intent to adopt regulations is published on the 1012
1224+eRegulations System not later than twenty days after the date of 1013
1225+implementation. Policies and procedures implemented pursuant to this 1014
1226+section shall be valid until the time final regulations are adopted. 1015
1227+Sec. 37. Section 17b-59d of the general statutes is repealed and the 1016
1228+following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage): 1017
1229+(a) There shall be established a State-wide Health Information 1018
1230+Exchange to empower consumers to make effective health care 1019
1231+decisions, promote patient-centered care, improve the quality, safety 1020
1232+and value of health care, reduce waste and duplication of services, 1021
1233+support clinical decision-making, keep confidential health information 1022
1234+secure and make progress toward the state's public health goals. 1023
1235+(b) It shall be the goal of the State-wide Health Information Exchange 1024
1236+to: (1) Allow real-time, secure access to patient health information and 1025
1237+complete medical records across all health care provider settings; (2) 1026
1238+provide patients with secure electronic access to their health 1027
1239+information; (3) allow voluntary participation by patients to access their 1028
1240+health information at no cost; (4) support care coordination through 1029
1241+real-time alerts and timely access to clinical information; (5) reduce costs 1030
1242+associated with preventable readmissions, duplicative testing and 1031
1243+medical errors; (6) promote the highest level of interoperability; (7) meet 1032
1244+all state and federal privacy and security requirements; (8) support 1033
1245+public health reporting, quality improvement, academic research and 1034
1246+health care delivery and payment reform through data aggregation and 1035
1247+analytics; (9) support population health analytics; (10) be standards-1036
1248+based; and (11) provide for broad local governance that (A) includes 1037
1249+stakeholders, including, but not limited to, representatives of the 1038
1250+Department of Social Services, hospitals, physicians, behavioral health 1039
1251+care providers, long-term care providers, health insurers, employers, 1040
1252+patients and academic or medical research institutions, and (B) is 1041 Substitute Bill No. 5500
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1618-Public Act No. 22-58 50 of 100
16191254
1620-listing of all state residents maintained on said organizations' registries
1621-of certified medical assistants. The commissioner shall make such
1622-listings available for public inspection.
1623-Sec. 48. (NEW) (Effective July 1, 2022) (a) On and after July 1, 2023,
1624-there is established a Connecticut Rare Disease Advisory Council. The
1625-council shall advise and make recommendations to the Department of
1626-Public Health and other state agencies, as appropriate, regarding the
1627-needs of persons in the state living with a rare disease and such persons'
1628-caregivers. The council may perform the following functions:
1629-(1) Hold public hearings and otherwise make inquiries of and solicit
1630-comments from the general public to assist with a study or survey of
1631-persons living with a rare disease and such persons' caregivers and
1632-health care providers;
1633-(2) Consult with experts on rare diseases to develop policy
1634-recommendations for improving patient access to quality medical care
1635-in the state, affordable and comprehensive insurance coverage,
1636-medications, medically necessary diagnostics, timely treatment and
1637-other necessary services and therapies;
1638-(3) Research and make recommendations to the department, other
1639-state agencies, as necessary, and health carriers that provide services to
1640-persons living with a rare disease regarding the adverse impact that
1641-changes to health insurance coverage, drug formularies and utilization
1642-review, as defined in section 38a-591a of the general statutes, may have
1643-on the provision of treatment or care to persons living with a rare
1644-disease;
1645-(4) Research and identify priorities related to treatments and services
1646-provided to persons living with a rare disease and develop policy
1647-recommendations regarding (A) safeguards and legal protections
1648-against discrimination and other practices that limit access to Substitute House Bill No. 5500
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1256+R01-HB.docx }
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16491258
1650-Public Act No. 22-58 51 of 100
1259+committed to the successful development and implementation of the 1042
1260+State-wide Health Information Exchange. 1043
1261+(c) All contracts or agreements entered into by or on behalf of the state 1044
1262+relating to health information technology or the exchange of health 1045
1263+information shall be consistent with the goals articulated in subsection 1046
1264+(b) of this section and shall utilize contractors, vendors and other 1047
1265+partners with a demonstrated commitment to such goals. 1048
1266+(d) (1) The executive director of the Office of Health Strategy, in 1049
1267+consultation with the Secretary of the Office of Policy and Management 1050
1268+and the State Health Information Technology Advisory Council, 1051
1269+established pursuant to section 17b-59f, shall, upon the approval by the 1052
1270+State Bond Commission of bond funds authorized by the General 1053
1271+Assembly for the purposes of establishing a State-wide Health 1054
1272+Information Exchange, develop and issue a request for proposals for the 1055
1273+development, management and operation of the State-wide Health 1056
1274+Information Exchange. Such request shall promote the reuse of any and 1057
1275+all enterprise health information technology assets, such as the existing 1058
1276+Provider Directory, Enterprise Master Person Index, Direct Secure 1059
1277+Messaging Health Information Service provider infrastructure, analytic 1060
1278+capabilities and tools that exist in the state or are in the process of being 1061
1279+deployed. Any enterprise health information exchange technology 1062
1280+assets purchased after June 2, 2016, and prior to the implementation of 1063
1281+the State-wide Health Information Exchange shall be capable of 1064
1282+interoperability with a State-wide Health Information Exchange. 1065
1283+(2) Such request for proposals may require an eligible organization 1066
1284+responding to the request to: (A) Have not less than three years of 1067
1285+experience operating either a state-wide health information exchange in 1068
1286+any state or a regional exchange serving a population of not less than 1069
1287+one million that (i) enables the exchange of patient health information 1070
1288+among health care providers, patients and other authorized users 1071
1289+without regard to location, source of payment or technology, (ii) 1072
1290+includes, with proper consent, behavioral health and substance abuse 1073
1291+treatment information, (iii) supports transitions of care and care 1074 Substitute Bill No. 5500
16511292
1652-appropriate health care, services or therapies, and (B) planning for
1653-natural disasters and other public health emergencies;
1654-(5) Research and make recommendations regarding improving the
1655-quality and continuity of care for persons living with a rare disease who
1656-are transitioning from pediatric to adult health care services;
1657-(6) Research and make recommendations regarding the development
1658-of educational materials on rare diseases, including, but not limited to,
1659-online educational materials and a list of reliable resources for the
1660-department, other state agencies, as necessary, the public, persons living
1661-with a rare disease, such persons' families and caregivers, medical
1662-school students and health care providers; and
1663-(7) Research and make recommendations for support and training
1664-resources for caregivers and health care providers of persons living with
1665-a rare disease.
1666-(b) The council shall consist of the following members:
1667-(1) The Commissioner of Public Health, or the commissioner's
1668-designee;
1669-(2) The Commissioner of Social Services, or the commissioner's
1670-designee;
1671-(3) The Insurance Commissioner, or the commissioner's designee,
1672-who may be the representative of a health carrier;
1673-(4) Two appointed by the Governor, one of whom shall be a
1674-representative of an association of hospitals in the state or an
1675-administrator of a hospital that provides health care to persons living
1676-with a rare disease, and one of whom shall be a physician licensed under
1677-chapter 370 of the general statutes who has expertise in the field of
1678-medical genetics; Substitute House Bill No. 5500
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16811297
1682-(5) Two appointed by the Senate chairperson of the joint standing
1683-committee of the General Assembly having cognizance of matters
1684-relating to public health, one of whom shall be a representative of a
1685-patient advocacy group in the state representing all rare diseases, and
1686-one of whom shall be the family member or caregiver of a pediatric
1687-patient living with a rare disease;
1688-(6) Two appointed by the House chairperson of the joint standing
1689-committee of the General Assembly having cognizance of matters
1690-relating to public health, one of whom shall be a representative of the
1691-biopharmaceutical industry who is involved in rare disease research
1692-and therapy development, and one of whom shall be an adult living
1693-with a rare disease;
1694-(7) Two appointed by the Senate ranking member of the joint
1695-standing committee of the General Assembly having cognizance of
1696-matters relating to public health, one of whom shall be a member of the
1697-scientific community in the state who is engaged in rare disease
1698-research, and one of whom shall be the caregiver of a child or adult
1699-living with a rare disease; and
1700-(8) Two appointed by the House ranking member of the joint
1701-standing committee of the General Assembly having cognizance of
1702-matters relating to public health, one of whom shall be a physician
1703-licensed to practice under chapter 370 of the general statutes who treats
1704-persons living with a rare disease, and one of whom shall be a
1705-representative, family member or caregiver of a person living with a rare
1706-disease.
1707-(c) All initial appointments to the council shall be made not later than
1708-October 31, 2023. Any vacancy shall be filled by the appointing
1709-authority. Except for members of the council who represent state
1710-agencies, five of the members first appointed shall serve for a term of
1711-two years, five of such members shall serve for a term of three years and, Substitute House Bill No. 5500
1298+coordination through real-time health care provider alerts and access to 1075
1299+clinical information, (iv) allows health information to follow each 1076
1300+patient, (v) allows patients to access and manage their health data, and 1077
1301+(vi) has demonstrated success in reducing costs associated with 1078
1302+preventable readmissions, duplicative testing or medical errors; (B) be 1079
1303+committed to, and demonstrate, a high level of transparency in its 1080
1304+governance, decision-making and operations; (C) be capable of 1081
1305+providing consulting to ensure effective governance; (D) be regulated or 1082
1306+administratively overseen by a state government agency; and (E) have 1083
1307+sufficient staff and appropriate expertise and experience to carry out the 1084
1308+administrative, operational and financial responsibilities of the State-1085
1309+wide Health Information Exchange. 1086
1310+(e) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (d) of this section, 1087
1311+if, on or before January 1, 2016, the Commissioner of Social Services, in 1088
1312+consultation with the State Health Information Technology Advisory 1089
1313+Council, established pursuant to section 17b-59f, submits a plan to the 1090
1314+Secretary of the Office of Policy and Management for the establishment 1091
1315+of a State-wide Health Information Exchange consistent with 1092
1316+subsections (a), (b) and (c) of this section, and such plan is approved by 1093
1317+the secretary, the commissioner may implement such plan and enter 1094
1318+into any contracts or agreements to implement such plan. 1095
1319+(f) The executive director of the Office of Health Strategy shall have 1096
1320+administrative authority over the State-wide Health Information 1097
1321+Exchange. The executive director shall be responsible for designating, 1098
1322+and posting on its Internet web site, the list of systems, technologies, 1099
1323+entities and programs that shall constitute the State-wide Health 1100
1324+Information Exchange. Systems, technologies, entities, and programs 1101
1325+that have not been so designated shall not be considered part of said 1102
1326+exchange. 1103
1327+(g) The executive director of the Office of Health Strategy may 1104
1328+implement policies and procedures necessary to administer the 1105
1329+provisions of this section while in the process of adopting such policies 1106
1330+and procedures in regulation form, provided the executive director 1107 Substitute Bill No. 5500
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1713-Public Act No. 22-58 53 of 100
17141332
1715-thereafter, members shall serve for a term of two years. The
1716-Commissioner of Public Health shall determine which of the members
1717-first appointed shall serve for a term of two years and which of such
1718-members shall serve for a term of three years. The members of the
1719-council shall receive no compensation for their services but may be
1720-reimbursed for any necessary expenses incurred in the performance of
1721-their duties. The commissioner shall select an acting chairperson of the
1722-council from its members for the purpose of organizing the first council
1723-meeting. Such chairperson shall schedule and convene the first meeting,
1724-which shall be held not later than November 30, 2023. The members of
1725-the council shall appoint, by majority vote, a permanent chairperson
1726-and vice-chairperson during the first meeting of the council. Nothing in
1727-this subsection shall prohibit the reappointment of the chairperson,
1728-vice-chairperson or any member of the council to their position on the
1729-council.
1730-(d) The council shall meet in person or on a remote platform not less
1731-than six times between November 30, 2023, and October 31, 2024, as
1732-determined by the chairperson. Thereafter, the council shall meet
1733-quarterly in person or on a remote platform, as determined by the
1734-chairperson.
1735-(e) The council shall provide opportunities at council meetings for the
1736-general public to make comments, hear updates from the council and
1737-provide input on council activities. The council shall create an Internet
1738-web site where meeting minutes, notices of upcoming meetings and
1739-feedback may be posted.
1740-(f) The council shall be within the Department of Public Health for
1741-administrative purposes only.
1742-(g) Not later than one year after the date of its first meeting, and
1743-annually thereafter, the council shall report to the Governor and, in
1744-accordance with the provisions of section 11-4a of the general statutes, Substitute House Bill No. 5500
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1746-Public Act No. 22-58 54 of 100
1337+publishes notice of intention to adopt the regulations on the Office of 1108
1338+Health Strategy's Internet web site and the eRegulations System not 1109
1339+later than twenty days after implementing such policies and procedures. 1110
1340+Policies and procedures implemented pursuant to this subsection shall 1111
1341+be valid until the time such regulations are effective. 1112
1342+Sec. 38. Section 17b-59e of the general statutes is repealed and the 1113
1343+following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from passage): 1114
1344+(a) For purposes of this section: 1115
1345+(1) "Health care provider" means any individual, corporation, facility 1116
1346+or institution licensed by the state to provide health care services; and 1117
1347+(2) "Electronic health record system" means a computer-based 1118
1348+information system that is used to create, collect, store, manipulate, 1119
1349+share, exchange or make available electronic health records for the 1120
1350+purposes of the delivery of patient care. 1121
1351+(b) Not later than one year after commencement of the operation of 1122
1352+the State-wide Health Information Exchange, each hospital licensed 1123
1353+under chapter 368v and clinical laboratory licensed under section 19a-1124
1354+30, as amended by this act, shall maintain an electronic health record 1125
1355+system capable of connecting to and participating in the State-wide 1126
1356+Health Information Exchange and shall apply to begin the process of 1127
1357+connecting to, and participating in, the State-wide Health Information 1128
1358+Exchange. 1129
1359+(c) Not later than two years after commencement of the operation of 1130
1360+the State-wide Health Information Exchange, (1) each health care 1131
1361+provider with an electronic health record system capable of connecting 1132
1362+to, and participating in, the State-wide Health Information Exchange 1133
1363+shall apply to begin the process of connecting to, and participating in, 1134
1364+the State-wide Health Information Exchange, and (2) each health care 1135
1365+provider without an electronic health record system capable of 1136
1366+connecting to, and participating in, the State-wide Health Information 1137
1367+Exchange shall be capable of sending and receiving secure messages 1138 Substitute Bill No. 5500
17471368
1748-to the joint standing committee of the General Assembly having
1749-cognizance of matters relating to public health regarding its findings
1750-and recommendations, including, but not limited to, (1) the council's
1751-activities, research findings and any recommendations for proposed
1752-legislative changes, and (2) any potential sources of funding for the
1753-council's activities, including, but not limited to, grants, donations,
1754-sponsorships or in-kind donations.
1755-Sec. 49. Section 2-119 of the 2022 supplement to the general statutes
1756-is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from
1757-passage):
1758-(a) There is established a chronic kidney disease advisory committee.
1759-The advisory committee shall:
1760-(1) Work directly with policymakers, public health organizations and
1761-educational institutions to:
1762-(A) Increase awareness of chronic kidney disease in this state; and
1763-(B) Develop health education programs that:
1764-(i) Are intended to reduce the burden of kidney disease throughout
1765-this state;
1766-(ii) Include an ongoing health and wellness campaign that is based
1767-on relevant research;
1768-(iii) Promote preventive screenings; and
1769-(iv) Are promoted through social media and public relations
1770-campaigns;
1771-(2) Examine chronic kidney disease, kidney transplantation,
1772-including, but not limited to, kidney transplantation as a preferred
1773-treatment for chronic kidney disease, living and deceased kidney Substitute House Bill No. 5500
17741369
1775-Public Act No. 22-58 55 of 100
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17761373
1777-donation and racial disparities in the rates of individuals afflicted with
1778-chronic kidney disease;
1779-(3) Examine methods to reduce the occurrence of chronic kidney
1780-disease by controlling the most common risk factors, diabetes and
1781-hypertension, through early detection and preventive efforts at the
1782-community level and disease management efforts in the primary care
1783-setting;
1784-(4) Identify the barriers to the adoption of best practices and the
1785-policies available to address such barriers;
1786-(5) Develop an equitable, sustainable, cost-effective plan to raise
1787-awareness about the importance of early detection, screening, diagnosis
1788-and treatment of chronic kidney disease and prevention; and
1789-(6) Examine the potential for an opt-out organ or kidney donor
1790-registry.
1791-(b) The advisory committee shall consist of the following members:
1792-[(1) The chairpersons and ranking members of the joint standing
1793-committee of the General Assembly having cognizance of matters
1794-relating to public health, or their designees;
1795-(2) One appointed by the Senate chairperson of the joint standing
1796-committee of the General Assembly having cognizance of matters
1797-relating to public health;
1798-(3) One appointed by the House chairperson of the joint standing
1799-committee of the General Assembly having cognizance of matters
1800-relating to public health;
1801-(4) One appointed by the Senate ranking member of the joint standing
1802-committee of the General Assembly having cognizance of matters
1803-relating to public health; Substitute House Bill No. 5500
1374+that comply with the Direct Project specifications published by the 1139
1375+federal Office of the National Coordinator for Health Information 1140
1376+Technology. 1141
1377+(d) The executive director of the Office of Health Strategy may 1142
1378+implement policies and procedures necessary to administer the 1143
1379+provisions of this section while in the process of adopting such policies 1144
1380+and procedures in regulation form, provided the executive director 1145
1381+publishes notice of intention to adopt the regulations on the Office of 1146
1382+Health Strategy's Internet web site and the eRegulations System not 1147
1383+later than twenty days after implementing such policies and procedures. 1148
1384+Policies and procedures implemented pursuant to this subsection shall 1149
1385+be valid until the time such regulations are effective. 1150
1386+Sec. 39. Subsection (c) of section 19a-495 of the general statutes is 1151
1387+repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from 1152
1388+passage): 1153
1389+(c) The commissioner may waive any provisions of the regulations 1154
1390+affecting an institution [, as defined in section 19a-490] or a clinical 1155
1391+laboratory, licensed pursuant to section 19a-30, as amended by this act, 1156
1392+if the commissioner determines that such waiver would not endanger 1157
1393+the health, safety or welfare of any patient or resident. The 1158
1394+commissioner may impose conditions, upon granting the waiver, that 1159
1395+assure the health, safety and welfare of patients or residents, and may 1160
1396+revoke the waiver upon a finding that the health, safety or welfare of 1161
1397+any patient or resident has been jeopardized. The commissioner shall 1162
1398+not grant a waiver that would result in a violation of the Fire Safety 1163
1399+Code or State Building Code. The commissioner may adopt regulations, 1164
1400+in accordance with chapter 54, establishing procedures for an 1165
1401+application for a waiver pursuant to this subsection. 1166
1402+Sec. 40. (Effective from passage) (a) As used in this section: 1167
1403+(1) "Certified doula" means a doula that is certified by the Department 1168
1404+of Public Health; and 1169 Substitute Bill No. 5500
18041405
1805-Public Act No. 22-58 56 of 100
18061406
1807-(5) One appointed by the House ranking member of the joint standing
1808-committee of the General Assembly having cognizance of matters
1809-relating to public health;]
1810-[(6)] (1) One appointed by the speaker of t he House of
1811-Representatives, who shall represent the renal provider community;
1812-[(7)] (2) One appointed by the president pro tempore of the Senate,
1813-who shall represent a medical center with a kidney-related program;
1814-[(8)] (3) One appointed by the majority leader of the House of
1815-Representatives;
1816-[(9)] (4) One appointed by the majority leader of the Senate;
1817-[(10)] (5) One appointed by the minority leader of the House of
1818-Representatives;
1819-[(11)] (6) One appointed by the minority leader of the Senate;
1820-[(12)] (7) One appointed by the Governor;
1821-[(13)] (8) The Commissioner of Public Health, or the commissioner's
1822-designee;
1823-[(14)] (9) One appointed by the chief executive officer of the National
1824-Kidney Foundation;
1825-[(15)] (10) One appointed by the chief executive officer of the
1826-American Kidney Fund; and
1827-[(16)] (11) At least three additional members appointed by the
1828-chairpersons of the joint standing committee of the General Assembly
1829-having cognizance of matters relating to public health, one of whom
1830-shall represent the kidney physician community, one of whom shall
1831-represent a nonprofit organ procurement organization, one of whom Substitute House Bill No. 5500
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1833-Public Act No. 22-58 57 of 100
1411+(2) "Doula" means a trained, nonmedical professional who provides 1170
1412+physical, emotional and informational support, virtually or in person, 1171
1413+to a pregnant person before, during and after birth. 1172
1414+(b) The Commissioner of Public Health shall, within available 1173
1415+resources, establish a Doula Advisory Committee within the 1174
1416+Department of Public Health. The Doula Advisory Committee shall 1175
1417+develop recommendations for (1) requirements for certification and 1176
1418+certification renewal of doulas, including, but not limited to, training, 1177
1419+experience or continuing education requirements; and (2) standards for 1178
1420+recognizing doula training program curricula that are sufficient to 1179
1421+satisfy the requirements for doula certification. 1180
1422+(c) The Commissioner of Public Health, or the commissioner's 1181
1423+designee, shall be the chairperson of the Doula Advisory Committee. 1182
1424+(d) The Doula Advisory Committee shall consist of the following 1183
1425+members: 1184
1426+(1) Seven appointed by the Commissioner of Public Health, or the 1185
1427+commissioner's designee, who are actively practicing as doulas in the 1186
1428+state; 1187
1429+(2) One appointed by the Commissioner of Public Health, or the 1188
1430+commissioner's designee, who is a nurse-midwife, licensed pursuant to 1189
1431+chapter 377 of the general statutes, who has experience working with a 1190
1432+doula; 1191
1433+(3) One appointed by the Commissioner of Public Health, or the 1192
1434+commissioner's designee, in consultation with the Connecticut Hospital 1193
1435+Association, who shall represent an acute care hospital; 1194
1436+(4) One appointed by the Commissioner of Public Health, or the 1195
1437+commissioner's designee, who shall represent an association that 1196
1438+represents hospitals and health-related organizations in the state; 1197
1439+(5) One appointed by the Commissioner of Public Health, or the 1198 Substitute Bill No. 5500
18341440
1835-shall represent the kidney patient community in this state and such
1836-other members that such chairpersons, in their discretion, agree are
1837-necessary to represent public health clinics, community health centers,
1838-minority health organizations and health insurers.
1839-(c) Any member of the advisory committee appointed under
1840-subdivision (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6) [, (7), (8), (9), (10),] or (11) [or (16)] of
1841-subsection (b) of this section may be a member of the General Assembly.
1842-(d) All initial appointments to the advisory committee shall be made
1843-not later than thirty days after [July 12, 2021] the effective date of this
1844-section. Any vacancy shall be filled by the appointing authority.
1845-(e) The speaker of the House of Representatives and the president pro
1846-tempore of the Senate shall select the chairpersons of the advisory
1847-committee from among the members of the advisory committee. Such
1848-chairpersons shall schedule the first meeting of the advisory committee,
1849-which shall be held not later than sixty days after [July 12, 2021] the
1850-effective date of this section. Meetings of the advisory committee may,
1851-at the discretion of the chairpersons of the advisory committee, be
1852-conducted on a virtual platform.
1853-(f) The administrative staff of the advisory committee shall be
1854-selected by the Office of Legislative Management in consultation with
1855-the chairpersons of the advisory committee.
1856-(g) Not later than January 1, [2022] 2024, and annually thereafter, the
1857-advisory committee shall submit a report on its findings and
1858-recommendations to the joint standing committee of the General
1859-Assembly having cognizance of matters relating to public health in
1860-accordance with the provisions of section 11-4a.
1861-Sec. 50. Section 19a-127k of the general statutes is repealed and the
1862-following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective January 1, 2023): Substitute House Bill No. 5500
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18651445
1866-(a) As used in this section:
1867-(1) "Community benefit partners" means federal, state and municipal
1868-government entities and private sector entities, including, but not
1869-limited to, faith-based organizations, businesses, educational and
1870-academic organizations, health care organizations, health departments,
1871-philanthropic organizations, organizations specializing in housing
1872-justice, planning and land use organizations, public safety
1873-organizations, transportation organizations and tribal organizations,
1874-that, in partnership with hospitals, play an essential role with respect to
1875-the policy, system, program and financing solutions necessary to
1876-achieve community benefit program goals;
1877-[(1)] (2) "Community [benefits] benefit program" means any
1878-voluntary program or activity to promote preventive health care,
1879-protect health and safety, improve health equity and reduce health
1880-disparities, reduce the cost and economic burden of poor health and [to]
1881-improve the health status for [working families and] all populations [at
1882-risk in the communities] within the geographic service areas of a
1883-[managed care organization or a] hospital, [in accordance with
1884-guidelines established pursuant to subsection (c) of this section;
1885-(2) "Managed care organization" has the same meaning as provided
1886-in section 38a-478;] regardless of whether a member of any such
1887-population is a patient of such hospital;
1888-(3) "Community benefit program reporting" means the community
1889-health needs assessment, implementation strategy and annual report
1890-submitted by a hospital to the Office of Health Strategy pursuant to the
1891-provisions of this section;
1892-(4) "Community health needs assessment" means a written
1893-assessment, as described in 26 CFR 1.501(r)-(3);
1894-(5) "Health disparities" means health differences that are closely Substitute House Bill No. 5500
1446+commissioner's designee, who shall be a licensed health care provider 1199
1447+who specializes in obstetrics and has experience working with a doula; 1200
1448+(6) One appointed by the Commissioner of Public Health, or the 1201
1449+commissioner's designee, who shall represent a community-based 1202
1450+doula training organization; 1203
1451+(7) One appointed by the Commissioner of Public Health, or the 1204
1452+commissioner's designee, who shall represent a community-based 1205
1453+maternal and child health organization; 1206
1454+(8) One appointed by the Commissioner of Public Health, or the 1207
1455+commissioner's designee, who shall have expertise in health equity; 1208
1456+(9) The Commissioner of Social Services, or the commissioner's 1209
1457+designee; 1210
1458+(10) The Commissioner of Mental Health and Addiction Services, or 1211
1459+the commissioner's designee; and 1212
1460+(11) The Commissioner of Early Childhood, or the commissioner's 1213
1461+designee. 1214
1462+(e) Not later than January 15, 2023, the Doula Advisory Committee 1215
1463+shall establish a Doula Training Program Review Committee. Such 1216
1464+committee shall (1) conduct a continuous review of doula training 1217
1465+programs; and (2) provide a list of approved doula training programs 1218
1466+in the state that meet the requirements established by the Doula 1219
1467+Advisory Committee. 1220
1468+Sec. 41. (Effective from passage) The Commissioner of Public Health 1221
1469+shall study whether the state should adopt safe harbor legislation that 1222
1470+permits alternative health care practitioners who are not licensed, 1223
1471+certified or registered in the state to provide traditional health care 1224
1472+services, to provide certain alternative health care services, including, 1225
1473+but not limited to, aromatherapy, energetic healing, healing touch, 1226
1474+herbology or herbalism, meditation and mind body practices, polarity 1227 Substitute Bill No. 5500
18951475
1896-Public Act No. 22-58 59 of 100
18971476
1898-linked with social or economic disadvantages that adversely affect one
1899-or more groups of people who have experienced greater systemic social
1900-or economic obstacles to health or a safe environment based on race or
1901-ethnicity, religion, socioeconomic status, gender, age, mental health,
1902-cognitive, sensory or physical disability, sexual orientation, gender
1903-identity, geographic location or other characteristics historically linked
1904-to discrimination or exclusion;
1905-(6) "Health equity" means that every person has a fair and just
1906-opportunity to be as healthy as possible, which encompasses removing
1907-obstacles to health, such as poverty, racism and the adverse
1908-consequences of poverty and racism, including, but not limited to, a lack
1909-of equitable opportunities, access to good jobs with fair pay, quality
1910-education and housing, safe environments and health care;
1911-[(3)] (7) "Hospital" [has the same meaning as provided in section 19a-
1912-490.] means a nonprofit entity licensed as a hospital pursuant to chapter
1913-368v that is required to annually file Internal Revenue Service form 990.
1914-"Hospital" includes a for-profit entity licensed as an acute care general
1915-hospital;
1916-(8) "Implementation strategy" means a written plan, as described in
1917-26 CFR 1.501(r)-(3), that is adopted by an authorized body of a hospital
1918-and documents how such hospital intends to address the needs
1919-identified in the community health needs assessment; and
1920-(9) "Meaningful participation" means that (A) residents of a hospital's
1921-community, including, but not limited to, residents of such community
1922-that experience the greatest health disparities, have an appropriate
1923-opportunity to participate in such hospital's planning and decisions, (B)
1924-community participation influences a hospital's planning, and (C)
1925-participants receive information from a hospital summarizing how their
1926-input was or was not used by such hospital. Substitute House Bill No. 5500
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19271480
1928-Public Act No. 22-58 60 of 100
1481+therapy, reflexology and Reiki, without violating any provision of the 1228
1482+general statutes relating to the unlicensed practice of medicine. Not later 1229
1483+than January 1, 2023, the commissioner shall report, in accordance with 1230
1484+the provisions of section 11-4a of the general statutes, regarding such 1231
1485+study to the joint standing committee of the General Assembly having 1232
1486+cognizance of matters relating to public health. 1233
1487+Sec. 42. Subsection (c) of section 19a-498 of the general statutes is 1234
1488+repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1235
1489+1, 2022): 1236
1490+(c) The Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services, with 1237
1491+respect to any behavioral health facility, [or alcohol or drug treatment 1238
1492+facility,] shall be authorized, either upon the request of the 1239
1493+Commissioner of Public Health or at such other times as they deem 1240
1494+necessary, to enter such facility for the purpose of inspecting programs 1241
1495+conducted at such facility. A written report of the findings of any such 1242
1496+inspection shall be forwarded to the Commissioner of Public Health and 1243
1497+a copy shall be maintained in such facility's licensure file. 1244
1498+Sec. 43. Section 19a-509g of the general statutes is repealed and the 1245
1499+following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2022): 1246
1500+[An alcohol or drug treatment facility, as defined in section 19a-490,] 1247
1501+A behavioral health facility shall use the criteria for admission 1248
1502+developed by the American Society of Addiction Medicine for purposes 1249
1503+of assessing a person for admission to such facility in consideration of 1250
1504+(1) the services for which the facility is licensed, and (2) the appropriate 1251
1505+services required for treatment of such person. 1252
1506+Sec. 44. Subdivision (1) of subsection (b) of section 38a-493 of the 2022 1253
1507+supplement to the general statutes is repealed and the following is 1254
1508+substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2022): 1255
1509+(1) "Hospital" means an institution that is primarily engaged in 1256
1510+providing, by or under the supervision of physicians, to inpatients (A) 1257
1511+diagnostic, surgical and therapeutic services for medical diagnosis, 1258 Substitute Bill No. 5500
19291512
1930-(b) [On or before January 1, 2005, and biennially thereafter, each
1931-managed care organization and] On and after January 1, 2023, each
1932-hospital shall submit community benefit program reporting to the
1933-[Healthcare Advocate, or the Healthcare Advocate's designee, a report
1934-on whether the managed care organization or hospital has in place a
1935-community benefits program. If a managed care organization or
1936-hospital elects to develop a community benefits program, the report
1937-required by this subsection shall comply with the reporting
1938-requirements of subsection (d) of this section] Office of Health Strategy,
1939-or to a designee selected by the executive director of the Office of Health
1940-Strategy, in the form and manner described in subsections (c) to (e),
1941-inclusive, of this section.
1942-[(c) A managed care organization or hospital may develop
1943-community benefit guidelines intended to promote preventive care and
1944-to improve the health status for working families and populations at
1945-risk, whether or not those individuals are enrollees of the managed care
1946-plan or patients of the hospital. The guidelines shall focus on the
1947-following principles:
1948-(1) Adoption and publication of a community benefits policy
1949-statement setting forth the organization's or hospital's commitment to a
1950-formal community benefits program;
1951-(2) The responsibility for overseeing the development and
1952-implementation of the community benefits program, the resources to be
1953-allocated and the administrative mechanisms for the regular evaluation
1954-of the program;
1955-(3) Seeking assistance and meaningful participation from the
1956-communities within the organization's or hospital's geographic service
1957-areas in developing and implementing the program and in defining the
1958-targeted populations and the specific health care needs it should
1959-address. In doing so, the governing body or management of the Substitute House Bill No. 5500
19601513
1961-Public Act No. 22-58 61 of 100
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1515+R01-HB.docx }
1516+41 of 42
19621517
1963-organization or hospital shall give priority to the public health needs
1964-outlined in the most recent version of the state health plan prepared by
1965-the Department of Public Health pursuant to section 19a-7; and
1966-(4) Developing its program based upon an assessment of the health
1967-care needs and resources of the targeted populations, particularly low
1968-and middle-income, medically underserved populations and barriers to
1969-accessing health care, including, but not limited to, cultural, linguistic
1970-and physical barriers to accessible health care, lack of information on
1971-available sources of health care coverage and services, and the benefits
1972-of preventive health care. The program shall consider the health care
1973-needs of a broad spectrum of age groups and health conditions.]
1974-(c) Each hospital shall submit its community health needs assessment
1975-to the Office of Health Strategy not later than thirty days after the date
1976-on which such assessment is made available to the public pursuant to
1977-26 CFR 1.501(r)-(3)(b), provided the executive director of the Office of
1978-Health Strategy, or the executive director's designee, may grant an
1979-extension of time to a hospital for the filing of such assessment. Such
1980-submission shall contain the following:
1981-(1) Consistent with the requirements set forth in 26 CFR 1.501(r)-
1982-(3)(b)(6)(i), and as included in a hospital's federal filing submitted to the
1983-Internal Revenue Service:
1984-(A) A definition of the community served by the hospital and a
1985-description of how the community was determined;
1986-(B) A description of the process and methods used to conduct the
1987-community health needs assessment;
1988-(C) A description of how the hospital solicited and took into account
1989-input received from persons who represent the broad interests of the
1990-community it serves; Substitute House Bill No. 5500
1518+treatment and care of persons who have an injury, sickness or disability, 1259
1519+or (B) medical rehabilitation services for the rehabilitation of persons 1260
1520+who have an injury, sickness or disability. "Hospital" does not include a 1261
1521+residential care home, nursing home, rest home or [alcohol or drug 1262
1522+treatment facility] behavioral health facility, as defined in section 19a-1263
1523+490, as amended by this act; 1264
1524+Sec. 45. Subdivision (1) of subsection (b) of section 38a-520 of the 2022 1265
1525+supplement to the general statutes is repealed and the following is 1266
1526+substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2022): 1267
1527+(1) "Hospital" means an institution that is primarily engaged in 1268
1528+providing, by or under the supervision of physicians, to inpatients (A) 1269
1529+diagnostic, surgical and therapeutic services for medical diagnosis, 1270
1530+treatment and care of persons who have an injury, sickness or disability, 1271
1531+or (B) medical rehabilitation services for the rehabilitation of persons 1272
1532+who have an injury, sickness or disability. "Hospital" does not include a 1273
1533+residential care home, nursing home, rest home or [alcohol or drug 1274
1534+treatment facility] behavioral health facility, as defined in section 19a-1275
1535+490, as amended by this act;1276
1536+This act shall take effect as follows and shall amend the following
1537+sections:
19911538
1992-Public Act No. 22-58 62 of 100
1539+Section 1 October 1, 2022 19a-490
1540+Sec. 2 October 1, 2022 19a-491c(a)
1541+Sec. 3 October 1, 2022 19a-535b
1542+Sec. 4 October 1, 2022 19a-537(a)
1543+Sec. 5 October 1, 2022 19a-550(a)
1544+Sec. 6 October 1, 2022 20-185r(a) to (e)
1545+Sec. 7 October 1, 2022 12-20a(a)
1546+Sec. 8 October 1, 2022 17b-368
1547+Sec. 9 from passage 19a-491(a)
1548+Sec. 10 October 1, 2022 19a-497(a)
1549+Sec. 11 from passage 19a-515(a) and (b)
1550+Sec. 12 October 1, 2022 19a-492e(a)
1551+Sec. 13 October 1, 2022 19a-495a(a) and (b)
1552+Sec. 14 from passage New section Substitute Bill No. 5500
19931553
1994-(D) A prioritized description of the significant health needs of the
1995-community identified through the community health needs assessment,
1996-and a description of the process and criteria used in identifying certain
1997-health needs as significant and prioritizing those significant health
1998-needs;
1999-(E) A description of the resources potentially available to address the
2000-significant health needs identified through the community health needs
2001-assessment;
2002-(F) An evaluation of the impact of any actions that were taken, since
2003-the hospital finished conducting its immediately preceding community
2004-health needs assessment, to address the significant health needs
2005-identified in the hospital's prior community health needs assessment;
2006-and
2007-(2) Additional documentation of the following:
2008-(A) The names of the individuals responsible for developing the
2009-community health needs assessment;
2010-(B) The demographics of the population within the geographic
2011-service area of the hospital and, to the extent feasible, a detailed
2012-description of the health disparities, health risks, insurance status,
2013-service utilization patterns and health care costs within such geographic
2014-service area;
2015-(C) A description of the health status and health disparities affecting
2016-the population within the geographic service area of the hospital,
2017-including, but not limited to, the health status and health disparities
2018-affecting a representative spectrum of age, racial and ethnic groups,
2019-incomes and medically underserved populations;
2020-(D) A description of the meaningful participation afforded to
2021-community benefit partners and diverse community members in Substitute House Bill No. 5500
20221554
2023-Public Act No. 22-58 63 of 100
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1556+R01-HB.docx }
1557+42 of 42
20241558
2025-assessing community health needs, priorities and target populations;
2026-(E) A description of the barriers to achieving or maintaining health
2027-and to accessing health care, including, but not limited to, social,
2028-economic and environmental barriers, lack of access to or availability of
2029-sources of health care coverage and services and a lack of access to and
2030-availability of prevention and health promotion services and support;
2031-(F) Recommendations regarding the role that the state and other
2032-community benefit partners could play in removing the barriers
2033-described in subparagraph (E) of this subdivision and enabling effective
2034-solutions; and
2035-(G) Any additional information, data or disclosures that the hospital
2036-voluntarily chooses to include as may be relevant to its community
2037-benefit program.
2038-(d) Each hospital shall submit its implementation strategy to the
2039-Office of Health Strategy not later than thirty days after the date on
2040-which such implementation strategy is adopted pursuant to 26 CFR
2041-1.501(r)-(3)(c), provided the executive director of the Office of Health
2042-Strategy, or the executive director's designee, may grant an extension to
2043-a hospital for the filing of such implementation strategy. Such
2044-submission shall contain the following:
2045-(1) Consistent with the requirements set forth in 26 CFR 1.501(r)-
2046-(3)(b)(6)(i), and as included in a hospital's federal filing submitted to the
2047-Internal Revenue Service:
2048-(A) With respect to each significant health need identified through
2049-the community health needs assessment, either (i) a description of how
2050-the hospital plans to address the health need, or (ii) identification of the
2051-health need as one which the hospital does not intend to address;
2052-(B) For significant health needs described in subparagraph (A)(i) of Substitute House Bill No. 5500
1559+Sec. 15 from passage 20-90
1560+Sec. 16 from passage 19a-16d(c) and (d)
1561+Sec. 17 from passage 19a-16e(a)
1562+Sec. 18 from passage 20-132a(c)
1563+Sec. 19 from passage 19a-14c(b)
1564+Sec. 20 from passage 20-12j(b)
1565+Sec. 21 from passage 19a-177(8)(B)
1566+Sec. 22 from passage 14-1(5)
1567+Sec. 23 October 1, 2022 19a-30(a)
1568+Sec. 24 October 1, 2022 19a-31b
1569+Sec. 25 October 1, 2022 19a-72(a)(1) and (2)
1570+Sec. 26 October 1, 2022 19a-215(a)(1)
1571+Sec. 27 October 1, 2022 19a-269b(a)
1572+Sec. 28 October 1, 2022 20-7a(d)
1573+Sec. 29 October 1, 2022 20-7c(a)
1574+Sec. 30 October 1, 2022 38a-477aa(a)(6)(A)
1575+Sec. 31 from passage 7-51a
1576+Sec. 32 from passage 7-74
1577+Sec. 33 from passage 19a-36m(c) and (d)
1578+Sec. 34 from passage 16-245n(c)(2)(A)
1579+Sec. 35 July 1, 2022 20-191c(b)
1580+Sec. 36 from passage 19a-563h
1581+Sec. 37 from passage 17b-59d
1582+Sec. 38 from passage 17b-59e
1583+Sec. 39 from passage 19a-495(c)
1584+Sec. 40 from passage New section
1585+Sec. 41 from passage New section
1586+Sec. 42 October 1, 2022 19a-498(c)
1587+Sec. 43 October 1, 2022 19a-509g
1588+Sec. 44 October 1, 2022 38a-493(b)(1)
1589+Sec. 45 October 1, 2022 38a-520(b)(1)
20531590
2054-Public Act No. 22-58 64 of 100
1591+Statement of Legislative Commissioners:
1592+In Section 15, former Subsec. (b), which had been redesignated as
1593+Subsec. (d), has been bracketed to avoid repetition.
20551594
2056-this subdivision, (i) a description of the actions that the hospital intends
2057-to take to address the health need and the anticipated impact of such
2058-actions, (ii) identification of the resources that the hospital plans to
2059-commit to address the health need, and (iii) a description of any planned
2060-collaboration between the hospital and other facilities or organizations
2061-to address the health need;
2062-(C) For significant health needs identified in subparagraph (A)(ii) of
2063-this subdivision, an explanation of why the hospital does not intend to
2064-address such health need; and
2065-(2) Additional documentation of the following:
2066-(A) The names of the individuals responsible for developing the
2067-implementation strategy;
2068-(B) A description of the meaningful participation afforded to
2069-community benefit partners and diverse community members;
2070-(C) A description of the community health needs and health
2071-disparities that were prioritized in developing the implementation
2072-strategy with consideration given to the most recent version of the state
2073-health plan prepared by the Department of Public Health pursuant to
2074-section 19a-7;
2075-(D) Reference-citing evidence, if available, that shows how the
2076-implementation strategy is intended to address the corresponding
2077-health need or reduction in health disparity;
2078-(E) A description of the planned methods for the ongoing evaluation
2079-of proposed actions and corresponding process or outcome measures
2080-intended for use in assessing progress or impact;
2081-(F) A description of how the hospital solicited commentary on the
2082-implementation strategy from the communities within such hospital's Substitute House Bill No. 5500
2083-
2084-Public Act No. 22-58 65 of 100
2085-
2086-geographic service area and revisions to such strategy based on such
2087-commentary; and
2088-(G) Any other information that the hospital voluntarily chooses to
2089-include as may be relevant to its implementation strategy, including, but
2090-not limited to, data, disclosures, expected or planned resource outlay,
2091-investments or commitments, including, but not limited to, staff,
2092-financial or in-kind commitments.
2093-[(d) Each managed care organization and each hospital that chooses
2094-to participate in developing a community benefits program shall
2095-include in the biennial report required by subsection (b) of this section
2096-the status of the program, if any, that the organization or hospital
2097-established. If the managed care organization or hospital has chosen to
2098-participate in a community benefits program, the report shall include
2099-the following components: (1) The community benefits policy statement
2100-of the managed care organization or hospital; (2) the mechanism by
2101-which community participation is solicited and incorporated in the
2102-community benefits program; (3) identification of community health
2103-needs that were considered in developing and implementing the
2104-community benefits program; (4) a narrative description of the
2105-community benefits, community services, and preventive health
2106-education provided or proposed, which may include measurements
2107-related to the number of people served and health status outcomes; (5)
2108-measures taken to evaluate the results of the community benefits
2109-program and proposed revisions to the program; (6) to the extent
2110-feasible, a community benefits budget and a good faith effort to measure
2111-expenditures and administrative costs associated with the community
2112-benefits program, including both cash and in-kind commitments; and
2113-(7) a summary of the extent to which the managed care organization or
2114-hospital has developed and met the guidelines listed in subsection (c) of
2115-this section. Each managed care organization and each hospital shall
2116-make a copy of the report available, upon request, to any member of the Substitute House Bill No. 5500
2117-
2118-Public Act No. 22-58 66 of 100
2119-
2120-public.]
2121-(e) On or before October 1, 2023, and annually thereafter, each
2122-hospital shall submit to the Office of Health Strategy a status report on
2123-such hospital's community benefit program, provided the executive
2124-director of the Office of Health Strategy, or the executive director's
2125-designee, may grant an extension to a hospital for the filing of such
2126-report. Such report shall include the following:
2127-(1) A description of major updates regarding community health
2128-needs, priorities and target populations, if any;
2129-(2) A description of progress made regarding the hospital's actions in
2130-support of its implementation strategy;
2131-(3) A description of any major changes to the proposed
2132-implementation strategy and associated hospital actions; and
2133-(4) A description of financial resources and other resources allocated
2134-or expended that supported the actions taken in support of the hospital's
2135-implementation strategy.
2136-(f) Notwithstanding the provisions of section 19a-755a, and to the full
2137-extent permitted by 45 CFR 164.514(e), the Office of Health Strategy
2138-shall make data in the all-payer claims database available to hospitals
2139-for use in their community benefit programs and activities solely for the
2140-purposes of (1) preparing the hospital's community health needs
2141-assessment, (2) preparing and executing the hospital's implementation
2142-strategy, and (3) fulfilling community benefit program reporting, as
2143-described in subsections (c) to (e), inclusive, of this section. Any
2144-disclosure made by said office pursuant to this subsection of
2145-information other than health information shall be made in a manner to
2146-protect the confidentiality of such information as may be required by
2147-state or federal law. Substitute House Bill No. 5500
2148-
2149-Public Act No. 22-58 67 of 100
2150-
2151-(g) A hospital shall not be responsible for limitations in its ability to
2152-fulfill community benefit program reporting requirements, as described
2153-in subsections (c) to (e), inclusive, of this section, if the all-payer claims
2154-database data is not provided to such hospital, as required by subsection
2155-(f) of this section.
2156-[(e)] (h) [The Healthcare Advocate, or the Healthcare Advocate's
2157-designee, shall, within available appropriations,] On or before April 1,
2158-2024, and annually thereafter, the executive director of the Office of
2159-Health Strategy shall develop a summary and analysis of the
2160-community benefits program [reports] reporting submitted by
2161-[managed care organizations and] hospitals under this section [and shall
2162-review such reports for adherence to the guidelines set forth in
2163-subsection (c) of this section. Not later than October 1, 2005, and
2164-biennially thereafter, the Healthcare Advocate, or the Healthcare
2165-Advocate's designee, shall make such summary and analysis available
2166-to the public upon request.] during the previous calendar year and post
2167-such summary and analysis on its Internet web site and solicit
2168-stakeholder input through a public comment period. The Office of
2169-Health Strategy shall use such reporting and stakeholder input to:
2170-(1) Identify additional stakeholders that may be engaged to address
2171-identified community health needs including, but not limited to, federal,
2172-state and municipal entities, nonhospital private sector health care
2173-providers and private sector entities that are not health care providers,
2174-including community-based organizations, insurers and charitable
2175-organizations;
2176-(2) Determine how each identified stakeholder could assist in
2177-addressing identified community health needs or augmenting solutions
2178-or approaches reported in the implementation strategies;
2179-(3) Determine whether to make recommendations to the Department
2180-of Public Health in the development of its state health plan; and Substitute House Bill No. 5500
2181-
2182-Public Act No. 22-58 68 of 100
2183-
2184-(4) Inform the state-wide health care facilities and services plan
2185-established pursuant to section 19a-634.
2186-[(f) The Healthcare Advocate may, after notice and opportunity for a
2187-hearing, in accordance with chapter 54, impose a civil penalty on any
2188-managed care organization or hospital that fails to submit the report
2189-required pursuant to this section by the date specified in subsection (b)
2190-of this section. Such penalty shall be not more than fifty dollars a day
2191-for each day after the required submittal date that such report is not
2192-submitted.]
2193-(i) Each for-profit entity licensed as an acute care general hospital
2194-shall submit community benefit program reporting consistent with the
2195-reporting schedules of subsections (c) to (e), inclusive, of this section,
2196-and reasonably similar to what would be included on such hospital's
2197-federal filings to the Internal Revenue Service, where applicable.
2198-Sec. 51. (NEW) (Effective from passage) (a) As used in this section:
2199-(1) "Anatomical gift" means a donation of all or part of a human body
2200-to take effect after the donor's death for the purpose of transplantation;
2201-(2) "Intellectual disability" means a significant limitation in
2202-intellectual functioning existing concurrently with deficits in adaptive
2203-behavior that originated during the developmental period before
2204-eighteen years of age;
2205-(3) "Mental disability" means one or more mental disorders, as
2206-defined in the most recent edition of the American Psychiatric
2207-Association's "Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders";
2208-(4) "Organ" means all or part of a human liver, pancreas, kidney,
2209-intestine or lung; and
2210-(5) "Physical disability" means any chronic physical handicap, Substitute House Bill No. 5500
2211-
2212-Public Act No. 22-58 69 of 100
2213-
2214-infirmity or impairment, whether congenital or resulting from bodily
2215-injury, organic processes or changes or from illness, including, but not
2216-limited to, blindness, epilepsy, deafness or being hard of hearing or
2217-reliance on a wheelchair or other remedial appliance or device.
2218-(b) A person who is a candidate to receive an anatomical gift or an
2219-organ from a living donor for transplantation shall not be deemed
2220-ineligible to receive the anatomical gift or organ solely because of the
2221-person's physical, mental or intellectual disability, except to the extent
2222-that a physician has determined, following an evaluation of the person,
2223-that the person's physical, mental or intellectual disability is medically
2224-significant so as to contraindicate the acceptance of the anatomical gift
2225-or organ. If a person has the necessary support to assist the person in
2226-complying with post-transplant medical requirements, the person's
2227-inability to comply with such requirements without assistance shall not
2228-be deemed to be medically significant. The provisions of this subsection
2229-shall apply to each part of the transplant process.
2230-(c) Nothing in this section shall be construed to require a physician to
2231-make a referral or recommendation for, or perform a medically
2232-inappropriate transplant of an anatomical gift or organ.
2233-Sec. 52. Section 19a-563 of the 2022 supplement to the general statutes
2234-is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July
2235-1, 2022):
2236-(a) As used in this section [,] and sections 19a-563a to 19a-563h,
2237-inclusive, as amended by this act: [, and sections 9 and 11 of public act
2238-21-185:]
2239-(1) "Nursing home" means any chronic and convalescent nursing
2240-home or any rest home with nursing supervision that provides nursing
2241-supervision under a medical director twenty-four hours per day, or any
2242-chronic and convalescent nursing home that provides skilled nursing Substitute House Bill No. 5500
2243-
2244-Public Act No. 22-58 70 of 100
2245-
2246-care under medical supervision and direction to carry out nonsurgical
2247-treatment and dietary procedures for chronic diseases, convalescent
2248-stages, acute diseases or injuries; and
2249-(2) "Dementia special care unit" means the unit of any assisted living
2250-facility that locks, secures, segregates or provides a special program or
2251-unit for residents with a diagnosis of probable Alzheimer's disease,
2252-dementia or other similar disorder, in order to prevent or limit access by
2253-a resident outside the designated or separated area, or that advertises or
2254-markets the facility as providing specialized care or services for persons
2255-suffering from Alzheimer's disease or dementia.
2256-(b) Each nursing home and dementia special care unit with more than
2257-sixty residents shall employ a full-time infection prevention and control
2258-specialist. [who] Each nursing home and dementia special care unit with
2259-sixty residents or less shall employ a part-time infection prevention and
2260-control specialist. The infection prevention and control specialist shall
2261-be responsible for the following:
2262-(1) Ongoing training of all administrators and employees of the
2263-nursing home or dementia special care unit on infection prevention and
2264-control using multiple training methods, including, but not limited to,
2265-in-person training and the provision of written materials in English and
2266-Spanish;
2267-(2) The inclusion of information regarding infection prevention and
2268-control in the documentation that the nursing home or dementia special
2269-care unit provides to residents regarding their rights while in the home
2270-or unit and posting of such information in areas visible to residents;
2271-(3) Participation as a member of the infection prevention and control
2272-committee of the nursing home or dementia special care unit and
2273-reporting to such committee at its regular meetings regarding the
2274-training he or she has provided pursuant to subdivision (1) of this Substitute House Bill No. 5500
2275-
2276-Public Act No. 22-58 71 of 100
2277-
2278-subsection;
2279-(4) The provision of training on infection prevention and control
2280-methods to supplemental or replacement staff of the nursing home or
2281-dementia special care unit in the event an infectious disease outbreak or
2282-other situation reduces the staffing levels of the home or unit; and
2283-(5) Any other duties or responsibilities deemed appropriate for the
2284-infection prevention and control specialist, as determined by the
2285-nursing home or dementia special care unit.
2286-(c) Each nursing home and dementia special care unit shall require its
2287-infection prevention and control specialist to [work on a rotating
2288-schedule that ensures the specialist covers each eight-hour shift at least
2289-once per month] implement procedures to monitor the infection
2290-prevention and control practice of each daily shift for purposes of
2291-ensuring compliance with relevant infection prevention and control
2292-standards.
2293-(d) An infection prevention and control specialist may provide
2294-infection prevention and control services in accordance with the
2295-provisions of this section to both a nursing home and a dementia special
2296-care unit or to two nursing homes, provided (1) the nursing home and
2297-dementia special care unit, or the two nursing homes, are (A) adjacently
2298-located to or on the same campus as one another, and (B) commonly
2299-owned or operated, and (2) the owner or operator of such nursing home
2300-and dementia special care unit, or the two nursing homes, (A) submits
2301-a written request to the Commissioner of Public Health, or the
2302-commissioner's designee, in a form and manner prescribed by the
2303-commissioner, for such infection prevention and control specialist to
2304-provide infection prevention and control services in accordance with the
2305-provisions of this section, and (B) receives notification from the
2306-Commissioner of Public Health, or the commissioner's designee, that
2307-such written request is approved. Substitute House Bill No. 5500
2308-
2309-Public Act No. 22-58 72 of 100
2310-
2311-(e) The Commissioner of Public Health may waive any requirement
2312-of this section if the commissioner determines that doing so would not
2313-endanger the life, safety or health of any resident or employee of a
2314-nursing home or dementia special care unit. If the commissioner waives
2315-any requirement, the commissioner may impose conditions that assure
2316-the health, safety and welfare of the residents and employees of each
2317-nursing home and dementia special care unit or revoke such waiver if
2318-the commissioner finds that the health, safety or welfare of any resident
2319-or employee of a nursing home or dementia special care unit has been
2320-jeopardized by such waiver.
2321-Sec. 53. Subdivision (2) of section 19a-693 of the general statutes is
2322-repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1,
2323-2022):
2324-(2) "Assisted living services" means nursing services and assistance
2325-with activities of daily living provided to residents living within (A) a
2326-managed residential community having supportive services that
2327-encourage persons primarily fifty-five years of age or older to maintain
2328-a maximum level of independence, or (B) an elderly housing complex
2329-receiving assistance and funding through the United States Department
2330-of Housing and Urban Development's Assisted Living Conversion
2331-Program.
2332-Sec. 54. Section 19a-564 of the 2022 supplement to the general statutes
2333-is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July
2334-1, 2022):
2335-(a) The Commissioner of Public Health shall license assisted living
2336-services agencies, as defined in section 19a-490, as amended by this act.
2337-A managed residential community wishing to provide assisted living
2338-services shall become licensed as an assisted living services agency or
2339-shall arrange for assisted living services to be provided by another entity
2340-that is licensed as an assisted living services agency. Substitute House Bill No. 5500
2341-
2342-Public Act No. 22-58 73 of 100
2343-
2344-(b) A managed residential care community that intends to arrange for
2345-assisted living services shall only do so with a currently licensed assisted
2346-living services agency. Such managed residential community shall
2347-submit an application to arrange for the assisted living services to the
2348-Department of Public Health in a form and manner prescribed by the
2349-commissioner.
2350-(c) An elderly housing complex receiving assistance and funding
2351-through the United States Department of Housing and Urban
2352-Development's Assisted Living Conversion Program that intends to
2353-arrange for assisted living services may do so with a currently licensed
2354-assisted living services agency. Such elderly housing complex shall
2355-inform the Department of Public Health of the arrangement upon
2356-request in a form and manner prescribed by the commissioner and shall
2357-not be required to register with the department as a managed residential
2358-community.
2359-[(c)] (d) An assisted living services agency providing services as a
2360-dementia special care unit or program, as defined in section 19a-562,
2361-shall obtain approval for such unit or program from the Department of
2362-Public Health. Such assisted living services agencies shall ensure that
2363-they have adequate staff to meet the needs of the residents. Each assisted
2364-living services agency that provides services as a dementia special care
2365-unit or program, as defined in section 19a-562, shall submit to the
2366-Department of Public Health a list of dementia special care units or
2367-locations and their staffing plans for any such units and locations when
2368-completing an initial or a renewal licensure application, or upon request
2369-from the department.
2370-[(d)] (e) An assisted living services agency shall ensure that (1) all
2371-services being provided on an individual basis to clients are fully
2372-understood and agreed upon between either the client or the client's
2373-representative, and (2) the client or the client's representative are made
2374-aware of the cost of any such services. Substitute House Bill No. 5500
2375-
2376-Public Act No. 22-58 74 of 100
2377-
2378-[(e)] (f) The Department of Public Health may adopt regulations, in
2379-accordance with the provisions of chapter 54, to carry out the purposes
2380-of this section.
2381-Sec. 55. Subsection (a) of section 19a-16d of the general statutes is
2382-repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from
2383-passage):
2384-(a) Any person or entity, acting on behalf of a health care profession
2385-that seeks to establish a new scope of practice or change a profession's
2386-scope of practice, [may] shall submit a written scope of practice request
2387-to the Department of Public Health not later than August fifteenth of the
2388-year preceding the commencement of the next regular session of the
2389-General Assembly.
2390-Sec. 56. Section 19a-408 of the general statutes is repealed and the
2391-following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2022):
2392-After the termination of all proceedings for which the body is
2393-required by the Chief Medical Examiner, the Deputy Chief Medical
2394-Examiner, an associate medical examiner or an authorized assistant
2395-medical examiner, the body shall be delivered to a person or persons
2396-entitled by law to receive the same; but, if there are no such persons who
2397-will take charge of and dispose of the body, then to the proper
2398-authorities of the town in which the body is lying, whose duty it shall
2399-be to dispose of it. Whenever the deceased person has not left property
2400-sufficient to defray the expenses of disposition of the body, the same
2401-shall be paid by such town. The Office of the Chief Medical Examiner
2402-may take custody and coordinate the disposition of the body, including
2403-cremation or burial, of such body. The Office of the Chief Medical
2404-Examiner shall not proceed with the disposition of such body during the
2405-twenty-one day period following the date of the pronouncement of
2406-death and during such period of time shall make a reasonable effort,
2407-including engaging the services of the law enforcement agency of the Substitute House Bill No. 5500
2408-
2409-Public Act No. 22-58 75 of 100
2410-
2411-town in which the deceased person died or of such deceased person's
2412-residence to locate and contact any relatives of the deceased person. A
2413-funeral director handling the disposition of the body of such deceased
2414-person shall notify the Commissioner of Social Services in accordance
2415-with sections 17b-84 and 17b-131, as amended by this act, for
2416-reimbursement. The cremation certificate fee for any such disposition
2417-shall be waived.
2418-Sec. 57. Subsection (d) of section 45a-318 of the general statutes is
2419-repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October
2420-1, 2022):
2421-(d) In the absence of a written designation of an individual pursuant
2422-to subsection (a) of this section, or in the event that an individual and
2423-any alternate designated pursuant to subsection (a) of this section
2424-decline to act or cannot be located within forty-eight hours after the time
2425-of death or the discovery of the body, the following individuals, in the
2426-priority listed, shall have the right to custody and control of the
2427-disposition of a person's body upon the death of such person, subject to
2428-any directions for disposition made by such person, conservator or
2429-agent pursuant to subdivision (1) or (2) of subsection (a) of this section:
2430-(1) The deceased person's spouse, unless such spouse abandoned the
2431-deceased person prior to the deceased person's death or has been
2432-adjudged incapable by a court of competent jurisdiction;
2433-(2) The deceased person's surviving adult children;
2434-(3) The deceased person's surviving parents;
2435-(4) The deceased person's surviving siblings;
2436-(5) Any adult person in the next degree of kinship in the order named
2437-by law to inherit the deceased person's estate, provided such adult
2438-person shall be of the third degree of kinship or higher; [and] Substitute House Bill No. 5500
2439-
2440-Public Act No. 22-58 76 of 100
2441-
2442-(6) The Office of the Chief Medical Examiner; and
2443-[(6)] (7) Such adult person as the Probate Court shall determine.
2444-Sec. 58. Section 17b-131 of the general statutes is repealed and the
2445-following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2022):
2446-(a) When a person in any town, or sent from such town to any
2447-licensed institution or state humane institution, dies or is found dead
2448-therein and does not leave sufficient estate and has no legally liable
2449-relative able to pay the cost of a proper funeral and burial, or upon the
2450-death of any beneficiary under the state-administered general assistance
2451-program, the Commissioner of Social Services shall give to such person
2452-a proper funeral and burial, and shall pay a sum not exceeding one
2453-thousand three hundred fifty dollars as an allowance toward the funeral
2454-expenses of such decedent. Said sum shall be paid, upon submission of
2455-a proper bill, to the funeral director, cemetery or crematory, as the case
2456-may be. Such payment for funeral and burial expenses shall be reduced
2457-by (1) the amount in any revocable or irrevocable funeral fund, (2) any
2458-prepaid funeral contract, (3) the face value of any life insurance policy
2459-owned by the decedent that names a funeral home, cemetery or
2460-crematory as a beneficiary, (4) the net value of all liquid assets in the
2461-decedent's estate, and (5) contributions in excess of three thousand four
2462-hundred dollars toward such funeral and burial expenses from all other
2463-sources including friends, relatives and all other persons, organizations,
2464-agencies, veterans' programs and other benefit programs .
2465-Notwithstanding the provisions of section 17b-90, whenever payment
2466-for funeral, burial or cremation expenses is reduced due to liquid assets
2467-in the decedent's estate, the commissioner may disclose information
2468-concerning such liquid assets to the funeral director, cemetery or
2469-crematory providing funeral, burial or cremation services for the
2470-decedent.
2471-(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this section Substitute House Bill No. 5500
2472-
2473-Public Act No. 22-58 77 of 100
2474-
2475-and section 17b-84, the Commissioner of Social Services shall, upon
2476-submission of a proper bill, pay the maximum amount authorized
2477-under subsection (a) of this section to a funeral director, cemetery or
2478-crematory if the Chief Medical Examiner, or the Chief Medical
2479-Examiner's designee, certifies that, after an investigation, the Office of
2480-the Chief Medical Examiner was unable to locate any person with a
2481-connection to the decedent, including a relative or friend, who was
2482-willing to take possession of the decedent's remains, and that the
2483-decedent's remains were therefore transferred to such funeral director,
2484-cemetery or crematory for disposition.
2485-[(b)] (c) The Commissioner of Social Services may adopt regulations,
2486-in accordance with chapter 54, to implement the provisions of this
2487-section.
2488-Sec. 59. Section 19a-401 of the general statutes is repealed and the
2489-following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2022):
2490-(a) There is established a Commission on Medicolegal Investigations,
2491-as an independent administrative commission, consisting of [nine] the
2492-Commissioner of Public Health, or the commissioner's designee, and
2493-eight members appointed by the Governor as follows: Two full
2494-professors of pathology, two full professors of law, a member of the
2495-Connecticut Medical Society, a member of the Connecticut Bar
2496-Association, and two members of the public. [, selected by the Governor,
2497-and the Commissioner of Public Health, or the commissioner's
2498-designee.] The Governor shall appoint [the two full professors of
2499-pathology and the two full professors of law from a panel of not less
2500-than four such professors in the field of medicine and four such
2501-professors in the field of law recommended by a committee composed
2502-of the deans of the recognized schools and colleges of medicine and of
2503-law in the state of Connecticut;] the member of the Connecticut Medical
2504-Society from a panel of not less than three members of that society
2505-recommended by the council of that society; and the member of the Substitute House Bill No. 5500
2506-
2507-Public Act No. 22-58 78 of 100
2508-
2509-Connecticut Bar Association from a panel of not less than three members
2510-of that association recommended by [the board of governors of] that
2511-association. [Initially, one professor of pathology, one professor of law,
2512-the member of the Connecticut Medical Society, and one member of the
2513-public shall serve for six years and until their successors are appointed,
2514-and one professor of pathology, one professor of law, the member of the
2515-Connecticut Bar Association and one member of the public shall serve
2516-for three years, and until their successors are appointed.] All
2517-appointments to full terms [subsequent to the initial appointments] shall
2518-be for six years. Vacancies shall be filled for the expiration of the term of
2519-the member being replaced. [in the same manner as original
2520-appointments.] Members shall be eligible for reappointment. [under the
2521-same conditions as are applicable to initial appointments.] The
2522-commission shall elect annually one of its members as [chairman]
2523-chairperson and one as [vice chairman] vice-chairperson. Members of
2524-the commission shall receive no compensation but shall be reimbursed
2525-for their actual expenses incurred in service on the commission. The
2526-commission shall meet at least once each year and more often as its
2527-duties require, upon the request of any two members and shall meet at
2528-least once each year with those persons and groups that are affected by
2529-commission policies and procedures. The commission shall adopt its
2530-own rules for the conduct of its meetings.
2531-(b) The commission shall adopt regulations, in accordance with
2532-chapter 54, as necessary or appropriate to carry out effectively the
2533-administrative provisions of this chapter.
2534-Sec. 60. Section 19a-37 of the 2022 supplement to the general statutes
2535-is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective
2536-October 1, 2022):
2537-(a) As used in this section:
2538-(1) "Laboratory or firm" means an environmental laboratory Substitute House Bill No. 5500
2539-
2540-Public Act No. 22-58 79 of 100
2541-
2542-registered by the Department of Public Health pursuant to section 19a-
2543-29a;
2544-(2) "Private well" means a water supply well that meets all of the
2545-following criteria: (A) Is not a public well; (B) supplies a residential
2546-population of less than twenty-five persons per day; and (C) is owned
2547-or controlled through an easement or by the same entity that owns or
2548-controls the building or parcel that is served by the water supply well;
2549-(3) "Public well" means a water supply well that supplies a public
2550-water system;
2551-(4) "Semipublic well" means a water supply well that (A) does not
2552-meet the definition of a private well or public well, and (B) provides
2553-water for drinking and other domestic purposes; and
2554-(5) "Water supply well" means an artificial excavation constructed by
2555-any method for the purpose of obtaining or providing water for
2556-drinking or other domestic, industrial, commercial, agricultural,
2557-recreational or irrigation use, or other outdoor water use.
2558-(b) (1) The Commissioner of Public Health may adopt regulations, [in
2559-the regulations of Connecticut state agencies] in accordance with the
2560-provisions of chapter 54, for the preservation of the public health
2561-pertaining to [(1)] (A) protection and location of new water supply wells
2562-or springs for residential or nonresidential construction or for public or
2563-semipublic use, and [(2)] (B) inspection for compliance with the
2564-provisions of municipal regulations adopted pursuant to section 22a-
2565-354p.
2566-(2) The Commissioner of Public Health shall adopt regulations, in
2567-accordance with the provisions of chapter 54, for the testing of water
2568-quality in private wells and semipublic wells.
2569-(3) The Commissioner of Public Health shall adopt regulations, in Substitute House Bill No. 5500
2570-
2571-Public Act No. 22-58 80 of 100
2572-
2573-accordance with the provisions of chapter 54, to clarify the criteria under
2574-which the commissioner may issue a well permit exception and to
2575-describe the terms and conditions that shall be imposed when a well is
2576-allowed at a premises that is connected to a public water supply system
2577-or whose boundary is located within two hundred feet of an approved
2578-community water supply system, measured along a street, alley or
2579-easement. Such regulations shall (A) provide for notification of the
2580-permit to the public water supplier, (B) address the (i) quality of the
2581-water supplied from the well, (ii) means and extent to which the well
2582-shall not be interconnected with the public water supply, (iii) need for a
2583-physical separation and the installation of a reduced pressure device for
2584-backflow prevention, and (iv) inspection and testing requirements of
2585-any such reduced pressure device, and (C) identify the extent and
2586-frequency of water quality testing required for the well supply.
2587-(c) (1) [The Commissioner of Public Health shall adopt regulations, in
2588-accordance with chapter 54, for the testing of water quality in private
2589-wells and semipublic wells.] Any laboratory or firm which conducts a
2590-water quality test on a private well serving a residential property or
2591-semipublic well shall, not later than thirty days after the completion of
2592-such test, report the results of such test to [(1)] (A) the public health
2593-authority of the municipality where the property is located, and [(2)] (B)
2594-the Department of Public Health in a format specified by the
2595-department. [, provided such report shall only be required if the party
2596-for whom the laboratory or firm conducted such test informs the
2597-laboratory or firm identified on the chain of custody documentation
2598-submitted with the test samples that the test was conducted in
2599-connection with the sale of such property. No regulation may require
2600-such a test to be conducted as a consequence or a condition of the sale,
2601-exchange, transfer, purchase or rental of the real property on which the
2602-private well or semipublic well is located.] Results submitted to the
2603-Department of Public Health or the local health authority pursuant to
2604-this subsection, information obtained from any Department of Public Substitute House Bill No. 5500
2605-
2606-Public Act No. 22-58 81 of 100
2607-
2608-Health or local health authority investigation regarding those results
2609-and any Department of Public Health or local health authority study of
2610-morbidity and mortality regarding the results shall be confidential
2611-pursuant to section 19a-25.
2612-(2) On and after October 1, 2022, the owner of each newly constructed
2613-private well or semipublic well shall test the water quality of such well.
2614-Such test shall be performed by a laboratory and include, but need not
2615-be limited to, testing for coliform, nitrate, nitrite, sodium, chloride, iron,
2616-lead, manganese, hardness, turbidity, pH, sulfate, apparent color, odor,
2617-arsenic and uranium. The owner shall submit test results to the
2618-Department of Public Health in a form and manner prescribed by the
2619-Commissioner of Public Health.
2620-(d) Prior to the sale, exchange, purchase, transfer or rental of real
2621-property on which a private or semipublic well is located, the owner
2622-shall provide the buyer or tenant notice that educational material
2623-concerning private well testing is available on the Department of Public
2624-Health web site. If the prospective buyer or tenant has hired a real estate
2625-licensee to facilitate the property transaction, such real estate licensee,
2626-or, if the prospective buyer or tenant has not hired a real estate licensee,
2627-the owner, landlord or closing attorney shall provide to the buyer or
2628-tenant an electronic or hard copy of educational material prepared by
2629-the Department of Public Health that recommends testing for the
2630-contaminants listed in subsection (c) of this section and any other
2631-recommendation concerning well testing that the Department of Public
2632-Health deems necessary. Failure to provide such notice or educational
2633-material shall not invalidate any sale, exchange, purchase, transfer or
2634-rental of real property. If the seller or landlord provides such notice or
2635-educational material in writing, the seller or landlord and any real estate
2636-licensee shall be deemed to have fully satisfied any duty to notify the
2637-buyer or tenant. [that the subject real property is located in an area for
2638-which there are reasonable grounds for testing under subsection (g) or Substitute House Bill No. 5500
2639-
2640-Public Act No. 22-58 82 of 100
2641-
2642-(j) of this section.]
2643-[(e) The Commissioner of Public Health shall adopt regulations, in
2644-accordance with chapter 54, to clarify the criteria under which the
2645-commissioner may issue a well permit exception and to describe the
2646-terms and conditions that shall be imposed when a well is allowed at a
2647-premises (1) that is connected to a public water supply system, or (2)
2648-whose boundary is located within two hundred feet of an approved
2649-community water supply system, measured along a street, alley or
2650-easement. Such regulations shall (A) provide for notification of the
2651-permit to the public water supplier, (B) address the quality of the water
2652-supplied from the well, the means and extent to which the well shall not
2653-be interconnected with the public water supply, the need for a physical
2654-separation, and the installation of a reduced pressure device for
2655-backflow prevention, the inspection and testing requirements of any
2656-such reduced pressure device, and (C) identify the extent and frequency
2657-of water quality testing required for the well supply.]
2658-[(f)] (e) No regulation may require that a certificate of occupancy for
2659-a dwelling unit on such residential property be withheld or revoked on
2660-the basis of a water quality test performed on a private well pursuant to
2661-this section, unless such test results indicate that any maximum
2662-contaminant level applicable to public water supply systems for any
2663-contaminant listed in the regulations of Connecticut state agencies has
2664-been exceeded. No administrative agency, health district or municipal
2665-health officer may withhold or cause to be withheld such a certificate of
2666-occupancy except as provided in this section.
2667-[(g)] (f) (1) The local director of health may require a private well or
2668-semipublic well to be tested for arsenic, radium, uranium, radon or
2669-gross alpha emitters, when there are reasonable grounds to suspect that
2670-such contaminants are present in the groundwater. For purposes of this
2671-subsection, "reasonable grounds" means [(1)] (A) the existence of a
2672-geological area known to have naturally occurring arsenic, radium, Substitute House Bill No. 5500
2673-
2674-Public Act No. 22-58 83 of 100
2675-
2676-uranium, radon or gross alpha emitter deposits in the bedrock; or [(2)]
2677-(B) the well is located in an area in which it is known that arsenic,
2678-radium, uranium, radon or gross alpha emitters are present in the
2679-groundwater.
2680-(2) The local director of health may require a private well or
2681-semipublic well to be tested for pesticides, herbicides or organic
2682-chemicals when there are reasonable grounds to suspect that any such
2683-contaminants might be present in the groundwater. For purposes of this
2684-subsection, "reasonable grounds" means (A) the presence of nitrate-
2685-nitrogen in the groundwater at a concentration greater than ten
2686-milligrams per liter, or (B) that the private well or semipublic well is
2687-located on land, or in proximity to land, associated with the past or
2688-present production, storage, use or disposal of organic chemicals as
2689-identified in any public record.
2690-[(h)] (g) Except as provided in subsection [(i)] (h) of this section, the
2691-collection of samples for determining the water quality of private wells
2692-and semipublic wells may be made only by (1) employees of a
2693-laboratory or firm certified or approved by the Department of Public
2694-Health to test drinking water, if such employees have been trained in
2695-sample collection techniques, (2) certified water operators, (3) local
2696-health departments and state employees trained in sample collection
2697-techniques, or (4) individuals with training and experience that the
2698-Department of Public Health deems sufficient.
2699-[(i)] (h) Any owner of a residential construction, including, but not
2700-limited to, a homeowner, on which a private well is located or any
2701-general contractor of a new residential construction on which a private
2702-well is located may collect samples of well water for submission to a
2703-laboratory or firm for the purposes of testing water quality pursuant to
2704-this section, provided (1) such laboratory or firm has provided
2705-instructions to said owner or general contractor on how to collect such
2706-samples, and (2) such owner or general contractor is identified to the Substitute House Bill No. 5500
2707-
2708-Public Act No. 22-58 84 of 100
2709-
2710-subsequent owner on a form to be prescribed by the Department of
2711-Public Health. No regulation may prohibit or impede such collection or
2712-analysis.
2713-[(j) The local director of health may require private wells and
2714-semipublic wells to be tested for pesticides, herbicides or organic
2715-chemicals when there are reasonable grounds to suspect that any such
2716-contaminants might be present in the groundwater. For purposes of this
2717-subsection, "reasonable grounds" means (1) the presence of nitrate-
2718-nitrogen in the groundwater at a concentration greater than ten
2719-milligrams per liter, or (2) that the private well or semipublic well is
2720-located on land, or in proximity to land, associated with the past or
2721-present production, storage, use or disposal of organic chemicals as
2722-identified in any public record.]
2723-[(k)] (i) Any water transported in bulk by any means to a premises
2724-currently supplied by a private well or semipublic well where the water
2725-is to be used for purposes of drinking or domestic use shall be provided
2726-by a bulk water hauler licensed pursuant to section 20-278h. No bulk
2727-water hauler shall deliver water without first notifying the owner of the
2728-premises of such delivery. Bulk water hauling to a premises currently
2729-supplied by a private well or semipublic well shall be permitted only as
2730-a temporary measure to alleviate a water supply shortage.
2731-Sec. 61. Subsection (i) of section 19a-180 of the 2022 supplement to the
2732-general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu
2733-thereof (Effective October 1, 2022):
2734-(i) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this section,
2735-any [volunteer, hospital-based or municipal ambulance service or any
2736-ambulance service or paramedic intercept service operated and
2737-maintained by a state agency] emergency medical services organization
2738-that is licensed or certified and is a primary service area responder may
2739-apply to the commissioner to add one emergency vehicle to its existing Substitute House Bill No. 5500
2740-
2741-Public Act No. 22-58 85 of 100
2742-
2743-fleet every three years, on a short form application prescribed by the
2744-commissioner. No such [volunteer, hospital-based or municipal
2745-ambulance service or any ambulance service or paramedic intercept
2746-service] emergency medical services organization operated and
2747-maintained by a state agency may add more than one emergency vehicle
2748-to its existing fleet pursuant to this subsection regardless of the number
2749-of municipalities served by such volunteer, hospital-based or municipal
2750-ambulance service. Upon making such application, the applicant shall
2751-notify in writing all other primary service area responders in any
2752-municipality or abutting municipality in which the applicant proposes
2753-to add the additional emergency vehicle. Except in the case where a
2754-primary service area responder entitled to receive notification of such
2755-application objects, in writing, to the commissioner not later than fifteen
2756-calendar days after receiving such notice, the application shall be
2757-deemed approved thirty calendar days after filing. If any such primary
2758-service area responder files an objection with the commissioner within
2759-the fifteen-calendar-day time period and requests a hearing, the
2760-applicant shall be required to demonstrate need at a public hearing as
2761-required under subsection (a) of this section.
2762-Sec. 62. (Effective from passage) Not later than July 1, 2022, the
2763-Commissioner of Public Health shall convene a working group of
2764-representatives of hospitals, nursing homes and water companies for
2765-the purpose of identifying issues, evaluating data, determining
2766-appropriate action timelines and developing solutions regarding the
2767-prevention and mitigation of legionella in hospitals, nursing homes and
2768-other health care facilities. Not later than December 31, 2022, the
2769-Commissioner of Public Health shall report, in accordance with section
2770-11-4a of the general statutes, to the joint standing committee of the
2771-General Assembly having cognizance of matters relating to public
2772-health on the efforts of such working group and its recommendations
2773-for legislation, regulations or other changes concerning the prevention
2774-and mitigation of legionella in hospitals, nursing homes and other Substitute House Bill No. 5500
2775-
2776-Public Act No. 22-58 86 of 100
2777-
2778-health care facilities. The working group shall terminate on the date it
2779-submits such report or December 31, 2022, whichever is earlier.
2780-Sec. 63. Section 19a-903b of the general statutes is repealed and the
2781-following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2022):
2782-A hospital, as defined in section 19a-490b, may designate any
2783-licensed health care provider and any certified ultrasound or nuclear
2784-medicine, or polysomnographic technologist to perform the following
2785-oxygen-related patient care activities in a hospital: (1) Connecting or
2786-disconnecting oxygen supply; (2) transporting a portable oxygen source;
2787-(3) connecting, disconnecting or adjusting the mask, tubes and other
2788-patient oxygen delivery apparatus; and (4) adjusting the rate or flow of
2789-oxygen consistent with a medical order. Such provider or technologist
2790-may perform such activities only to the extent permitted by hospital
2791-policies and procedures, including bylaws, rules and regulations
2792-applicable to the medical staff. A hospital shall document that each
2793-person designated to perform oxygen-related patient care activities has
2794-been properly trained, either through such person's professional
2795-education or through training provided by the hospital. In addition, a
2796-hospital shall require that such person satisfy annual competency
2797-testing. Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit a hospital
2798-from designating persons who are authorized to transport a patient with
2799-a portable oxygen source. The provisions of this section shall not apply
2800-to any type of ventilator, continuous positive airway pressure or bi-level
2801-positive airway pressure units or any other noninvasive positive
2802-pressure ventilation.
2803-Sec. 64. Section 17a-52 of the general statutes is repealed and the
2804-following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1, 2022):
2805-(a) There is established a [Youth] Connecticut Suicide Advisory
2806-Board, within the Department of Children and Families, which shall be
2807-a coordinating source for suicide prevention across a person's lifespan, Substitute House Bill No. 5500
2808-
2809-Public Act No. 22-58 87 of 100
2810-
2811-including, but not limited to, youth suicide prevention. The board [shall
2812-consist of twenty members, which shall include] may include (1)
2813-representatives from suicide prevention foundations, youth-serving
2814-organizations, law enforcement agencies, religious or fraternal
2815-organizations, civic or volunteer groups, state and local government
2816-agencies, tribal governments or organizations, health care providers or
2817-local organizations with expertise in the mental health of children or
2818-adults or mental health issues with a focus on suicide prevention, (2)
2819-one psychiatrist licensed to practice medicine in this state, (3) one
2820-psychologist licensed in this state, (4) one representative of a local or
2821-regional board of education, (5) one high school teacher, (6) one high
2822-school student, (7) one college or university faculty member, (8) one
2823-college or university student, [and] (9) one parent, and (10) a person
2824-who has experienced suicide ideation or loss, all appointed by the
2825-Commissioner of Children and Families. [,] The board shall include one
2826-representative of the Department of Public Health appointed by the
2827-Commissioner of Public Health, one representative of the state
2828-Department of Education appointed by the Commissioner of Education
2829-and one representative of the Board of Regents for Higher Education
2830-appointed by the president of the Connecticut State Colleges and
2831-Universities. [The balance of the board shall be comprised of persons
2832-with expertise in the mental health of children or mental health issues
2833-with a focus on suicide prevention and shall be appointed by the
2834-Commissioner of Children and Families. Members of the board shall
2835-serve for two-year terms, without compensation. Any member who fails
2836-to attend three consecutive meetings or fifty per cent of all meetings held
2837-during any calendar year shall be deemed to have resigned from the
2838-board. The Commissioner] The Commissioners of Children and
2839-Families and Mental Health and Addiction Services, or the
2840-commissioners' designees, shall [be a nonvoting, ex-officio member of
2841-the board. The board shall elect a chairman, and a vice-chairman to act
2842-in the chairman's absence] serve as cochairpersons of the board and may
2843-appoint a representative of a local organization with expertise in mental Substitute House Bill No. 5500
2844-
2845-Public Act No. 22-58 88 of 100
2846-
2847-health or a suicide prevention foundation to serve as a third
2848-cochairperson of the board. The board may adopt bylaws to govern it
2849-and its meetings.
2850-(b) The board shall: (1) Increase public awareness of the existence of
2851-[youth] suicide and means of suicide prevention across a person's
2852-lifespan; (2) make recommendations to the [commissioner]
2853-Commissioners of Children and Families and Mental Health and
2854-Addiction Services for the development of state-wide training in the
2855-prevention of [youth] suicide; (3) develop a state-wide strategic [youth]
2856-suicide prevention plan; (4) recommend interagency policies and
2857-procedures for the coordination of services [for youths and families] in
2858-the area of suicide prevention, intervention and response; (5) make
2859-recommendations for the establishment and implementation of suicide
2860-prevention, intervention and response procedures in schools and
2861-communities; (6) establish a coordinated system for the utilization of
2862-data for the prevention of [youth] suicide; (7) make recommendations
2863-concerning the integration of suicide prevention and intervention
2864-strategies into [other] youth-focused prevention and intervention
2865-programs; and (8) periodically offer, within available appropriations,
2866-[youth] suicide prevention training and education for health care and
2867-behavioral health care providers, school employees, faculty members of
2868-institutions of higher education and other persons who provide services
2869-to children, [young] adults and families.
2870-Sec. 65. Subsection (b) of section 20-10b of the general statutes is
2871-repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective July 1,
2872-2022):
2873-(b) Except as otherwise provided in subsections (d), (e) and (f) of this
2874-section, a licensee applying for license renewal shall earn a minimum of
2875-fifty contact hours of continuing medical education within the
2876-preceding twenty-four-month period. Such continuing medical
2877-education shall (1) be in an area of the physician's practice; (2) reflect the Substitute House Bill No. 5500
2878-
2879-Public Act No. 22-58 89 of 100
2880-
2881-professional needs of the licensee in order to meet the health care needs
2882-of the public; and (3) during the first renewal period in which continuing
2883-medical education is required and not less than once every six years
2884-thereafter, include at least one contact hour of training or education in
2885-each of the following topics: (A) Infectious diseases, including, but not
2886-limited to, acquired immune deficiency syndrome and human
2887-immunodeficiency virus, (B) risk management, including, but not
2888-limited to, prescribing controlled substances and pain management,
2889-and, for registration periods beginning on or after October 1, 2019, such
2890-risk management continuing medical education may also include
2891-screening for inflammatory breast cancer and gastrointestinal cancers,
2892-including colon, gastric, pancreatic and neuroendocrine cancers and
2893-other rare gastrointestinal tumors, (C) sexual assault, (D) domestic
2894-violence, (E) cultural competency, and (F) behavioral health, provided
2895-further that on and after January 1, 2016, such behavioral health
2896-continuing medical education may include, but not be limited to, at least
2897-two contact hours of training or education during the first renewal
2898-period in which continuing education is required and not less than once
2899-every six years thereafter, on (i) suicide prevention, or (ii) diagnosing
2900-and treating [(i)] (I) cognitive conditions, including, but not limited to,
2901-Alzheimer's disease, dementia, delirium, related cognitive impairments
2902-and geriatric depression, or [(ii)] (II) mental health conditions,
2903-including, but not limited to, mental health conditions common to
2904-veterans and family members of veterans. Training for mental health
2905-conditions common to veterans and family members of veterans shall
2906-include best practices for [(I)] determining whether a patient is a veteran
2907-or family member of a veteran, [(II)] screening for conditions such as
2908-post-traumatic stress disorder, risk of suicide, depression and grief, and
2909-[(III)] suicide prevention training. For purposes of this section,
2910-qualifying continuing medical education activities include, but are not
2911-limited to, courses offered or approved by the American Medical
2912-Association, American Osteopathic Association, Connecticut Hospital
2913-Association, Connecticut State Medical Society, Connecticut Substitute House Bill No. 5500
2914-
2915-Public Act No. 22-58 90 of 100
2916-
2917-Osteopathic Medical Society, county medical societies or equivalent
2918-organizations in another jurisdiction, educational offerings sponsored
2919-by a hospital or other health care institution or courses offered by a
2920-regionally accredited academic institution or a state or local health
2921-department. The commissioner, or the commissioner's designee, may
2922-grant a waiver for not more than ten contact hours of continuing medical
2923-education for a physician who [: (I) Engages] engages in activities
2924-related to the physician's service as a member of the Connecticut
2925-Medical Examining Board, established pursuant to section 20-8a, [; (II)]
2926-engages in activities related to the physician's service as a member of a
2927-medical hearing panel, pursuant to section 20-8a, [; or (III)] or assists the
2928-department with its duties to boards and commissions as described in
2929-section 19a-14.
2930-Sec. 66. Subdivision (6) of subsection (b) of section 10-222q of the
2931-general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu
2932-thereof (Effective July 1, 2022):
2933-(6) Three appointed by the minority leader of the Senate, one of
2934-whom is a representative of the Connecticut Education Association; one
2935-of whom is a representative of the National Alliance on Mental Illness,
2936-Connecticut; and one of whom is a representative of the [Youth]
2937-Connecticut Suicide Advisory Board established pursuant to section
2938-17a-52, as amended by this act;
2939-Sec. 67. (NEW) (Effective July 1, 2022) (a) As used in this section:
2940-(1) "Hospital" means an establishment licensed pursuant to chapter
2941-368v of the general statutes for the lodging, care and treatment of
2942-persons suffering from disease or other abnormal physical or mental
2943-conditions;
2944-(2) "Outpatient surgical facility" means any entity, individual, firm,
2945-partnership, corporation, limited liability company or association, other Substitute House Bill No. 5500
2946-
2947-Public Act No. 22-58 91 of 100
2948-
2949-than a hospital, licensed pursuant to chapter 368v of the general statutes
2950-to engage in providing surgical services or diagnostic procedures for
2951-human health conditions that include the use of moderate or deep
2952-sedation, moderate or deep analgesia or general anesthesia, as such
2953-levels of anesthesia are defined from time to time by the American
2954-Society of Anesthesiologists, or by such other professional or accrediting
2955-entity recognized by the Department of Public Health;
2956-(3) "Surgical smoke" means the by-product of the use of an energy-
2957-generating device during surgery, including, but not limited to, surgical
2958-plume, smoke plume, bioaerosols, laser -generated airborne
2959-contaminants and lung-damaging dust. "Surgical smoke" does not
2960-include the by-product of the use of an energy-generating device during
2961-a gastroenterological or ophthalmic procedure, which by-product is not
2962-emitted into the operating room during surgery; and
2963-(4) "Surgical smoke evacuation system" means a system, including,
2964-but not limited to, a smoke evacuator, laser plume evacuator or local
2965-exhaust ventilator that captures and neutralizes surgical smoke (A) at
2966-the site of origin of such surgical smoke, and (B) before the surgical
2967-smoke makes contact with the eyes or respiratory tract of any person in
2968-an operating room during surgery.
2969-(b) Not later than January 1, 2024, each hospital and outpatient
2970-surgical facility shall develop a policy for the use of a surgical smoke
2971-evacuation system to prevent a person's exposure to surgical smoke.
2972-Not later than January 1, 2024, each hospital and outpatient facility shall
2973-implement such policy and, upon request, provide a copy of such policy
2974-to the Department of Public Health.
2975-Sec. 68. Section 19a-7o of the general statutes is repealed and the
2976-following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2022):
2977-(a) For purposes of this section: Substitute House Bill No. 5500
2978-
2979-Public Act No. 22-58 92 of 100
2980-
2981-(1) "Hepatitis C screening test" means a laboratory test that detects
2982-the presence of hepatitis C virus antibodies in the blood;
2983-(2) "Hepatitis C diagnostic test" means a laboratory test that detects
2984-the presence of hepatitis C virus in the blood and provides confirmation
2985-of whether the person whose blood is being tested has a hepatitis C virus
2986-infection;
2987-(3) "HIV infection" means infection with the human
2988-immunodeficiency virus or any other related virus identified as a
2989-probable causative agent of acquired immune deficiency syndrome, as
2990-defined by the Centers for Disease Control of the United States Public
2991-Health Service;
2992-(4) "HIV–related test" means any laboratory test or series of tests for
2993-any virus, antibody, antigen or etiologic agent whatsoever thought to
2994-cause or indicate the presence of HIV infection;
2995-[(3)] (5) "Primary care provider" means a physician, advanced
2996-practice registered nurse or physician assistant who provides primary
2997-care services and is licensed by the Department of Public Health
2998-pursuant to title 20; and
2999-[(4)] (6) "Primary care" means the medical fields of family medicine,
3000-general pediatrics, primary care, internal medicine, primary care
3001-obstetrics or primary care gynecology, without regard to board
3002-certification.
3003-(b) [On and after October 1, 2014, a] A primary care provider shall
3004-offer to provide to, or order for, each patient who was born between
3005-1945 to 1965, inclusive, a hepatitis C screening test or hepatitis C
3006-diagnostic test at the time the primary care provider provides services
3007-to such patient, except a primary care provider is not required to offer
3008-to provide to, or order for, such patient a hepatitis C screening test or
3009-hepatitis C diagnostic test when the primary care provider reasonably Substitute House Bill No. 5500
3010-
3011-Public Act No. 22-58 93 of 100
3012-
3013-believes: (1) Such patient is being treated for a life-threatening
3014-emergency; (2) such patient has previously been offered or has received
3015-a hepatitis C screening test; or (3) such patient lacks the capacity to
3016-consent to a hepatitis C screening test.
3017-(c) On and after January 1, 2023, a primary care provider, or such
3018-provider's designee, shall offer to provide to, order for, or arrange for
3019-the order for, each patient who is thirteen years of age or older, an HIV-
3020-related test, except a primary care provider, or such provider's designee,
3021-is not required to offer to provide to, or order for, such patient an HIV-
3022-related test when the primary care provider reasonably believes: (1)
3023-Such patient is being treated for a life-threatening emergency; (2) such
3024-patient has previously been offered or has received an HIV-related test;
3025-or (3) such patient lacks the capacity to consent to an HIV-related test.
3026-The primary care provider, or such provider's designee, shall comply
3027-with all requirements concerning HIV-related testing and HIV-related
3028-information prescribed in chapter 368x.
3029-Sec. 69. (NEW) (Effective October 1, 2022) (a) On and after January 1,
3030-2024, an employee or a staff member of a hospital licensed under chapter
3031-386v of the general statutes who is treating a patient thirteen years of
3032-age or older in the emergency department shall offer the patient an HIV-
3033-related test unless the employee or staff member documents that any of
3034-the following conditions have been met: (1) The patient is being treated
3035-for a life-threatening emergency; (2) the patient received an HIV-related
3036-test in the preceding year; (3) the patient lacks the capacity to provide
3037-general consent to the HIV-related test as required under subsection (a)
3038-of section 19a-582 of the general statutes; or (4) the patient declines the
3039-HIV-related test. Any hospital employee or staff member offering an
3040-HIV-related test under this subsection shall comply with all
3041-requirements concerning HIV-testing and HIV-related information
3042-prescribed in chapter 368x of the general statutes.
3043-(b) Prior to January 1, 2024, each hospital shall develop protocols, in Substitute House Bill No. 5500
3044-
3045-Public Act No. 22-58 94 of 100
3046-
3047-accordance with the provisions of section 19a-582 of the general statutes,
3048-for implementing the HIV-related testing required under subsection (a)
3049-of this section, including, but not limited to, the following: (1) Offering
3050-and providing such testing to a patient and notifying the patient of the
3051-results of such testing; (2) tracking and documenting the number of
3052-HIV-related tests that were performed, the number of HIV-related tests
3053-that were declined, and the results of the HIV-related tests; (3) reporting
3054-of positive HIV-related test results to the Department of Public Health
3055-pursuant to section 19a-215 of the general statutes, as amended by this
3056-act; and (4) referring patients who test positive for the human
3057-immunodeficiency virus to an appropriate health care provider for
3058-treatment of such virus. A hospital may collaborate with a municipal
3059-health department, district department of health, regional mental health
3060-board, emergency medical services council or community organization
3061-in developing and implementing such protocols.
3062-Sec. 70. (Effective from passage) The Commissioner of Public Health
3063-shall conduct a review of statutes and regulations pertaining to, or
3064-otherwise impacting, the practice of plasmapheresis, clinical
3065-laboratories, and blood donation centers in the state. For purposes of
3066-such review, the commissioner shall (1) consult clinical laboratories,
3067-businesses and nonprofit organizations with expertise in the practice of
3068-clinical laboratory operations and facilities, plasmapheresis and blood
3069-collection, and (2) review the federal regulations governing the practice
3070-of plasmapheresis and blood collections. Not later than January 1, 2023,
3071-the commissioner shall report, in accordance with the provisions of
3072-section 11-4a of the general statutes, regarding such review and make
3073-recommendations regarding how the state may better align with federal
3074-requirements for clinical laboratories, plasmapheresis and blood
3075-collection while maintaining a high level of donor safety.
3076-Sec. 71. Subsection (g) of section 17b-451 of the 2022 supplement to
3077-the general statutes, as amended by section 12 of public act 22-57, is Substitute House Bill No. 5500
3078-
3079-Public Act No. 22-58 95 of 100
3080-
3081-repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from
3082-passage):
3083-(g) The Commissioner of Social Services shall develop an educational
3084-training program to promote and encourage the accurate and prompt
3085-identification and reporting of abuse, neglect, exploitation and
3086-abandonment of elderly persons. Such training program shall be made
3087-available on the Internet web site of the Department of Social Services
3088-to mandatory reporters and other interested persons. The commissioner
3089-shall also make such training available in person or otherwise at various
3090-times and locations throughout the state as determined by the
3091-commissioner. Except for a mandatory reporter who has received
3092-training from an institution, organization, agency or facility required to
3093-provide such training pursuant to subsection (a) of this section, a
3094-mandatory reporter shall complete the educational training program
3095-developed by the commissioner, or an alternate program approved by
3096-the commissioner, not later than [December 31, 2022] June 30, 2023, or
3097-not later than ninety days after becoming a mandatory reporter.
3098-Sec. 72. Subsection (i) of section 17a-412 of the 2022 supplement to the
3099-general statutes, as amended by section 13 of public act 22-57, is
3100-repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective from
3101-passage):
3102-(i) Any person required to report suspected abuse, neglect,
3103-exploitation or abandonment pursuant to subsection (a) of this section
3104-shall complete the educational training program provided by the
3105-Commissioner of Social Services pursuant to subsection (g) of section
3106-17b-451, as amended by [this act] public act 22-57, or an alternate
3107-program approved by the commissioner, not later than [December 31,
3108-2022] June 30, 2023, or not later than ninety days after beginning
3109-employment as a person required to report suspected abuse, neglect,
3110-exploitation or abandonment pursuant to subsection (a) of this section. Substitute House Bill No. 5500
3111-
3112-Public Act No. 22-58 96 of 100
3113-
3114-Sec. 73. (NEW) (Effective from passage) (a) As used in this section: (1)
3115-"Health care facility" means a hospital or an outpatient clinic, as such
3116-terms are defined in section 19a-490 of the general statutes, a long-term
3117-care facility, as defined in section 17a-405 of the general statutes, and a
3118-hospice facility, licensed pursuant to section 19a-122b of the general
3119-statutes; and (2) "medical diagnostic equipment" means (A) an
3120-examination table, (B) an examination chair, (C) a weight scale, (D)
3121-mammography equipment, and (E) x -ray, imaging and other
3122-radiological diagnostic equipment.
3123-(b) On and after January 1, 2023, each health care facility shall take
3124-into consideration the technical standards for accessibility developed by
3125-the federal Architectural and Transportation Barriers Compliance Board
3126-in accordance with Section 4203 of the Patient Protection and Affordable
3127-Care Act, P.L. 111-148, as amended from time to time, when purchasing
3128-medical diagnostic equipment.
3129-(c) Not later than December 1, 2022, and annually thereafter, the
3130-Commissioner of Public Health shall notify each health care facility,
3131-physician licensed pursuant to chapter 370 of the general statutes,
3132-physician assistant licensed pursuant to chapter 370 of the general
3133-statutes and advanced practice registered nurse licensed pursuant to
3134-chapter 378 of the general statutes, of information pertaining to the
3135-provision of health care to individuals with accessibility needs,
3136-including, but not limited to, the technical standards for accessibility
3137-developed by the federal Architectural and Transportation Barriers
3138-Compliance Board in accordance with Section 4203 of the Patient
3139-Protection and Affordable Care Act, P.L. 111-148, as amended from time
3140-to time, for medical diagnostic equipment. The Department of Public
3141-Health shall post such information on its Internet web site.
3142-Sec. 74. (Effective from passage) (a) There is established a task force to
3143-study assisted living services agencies that provide services as a
3144-dementia special care unit or program, as defined in section 19a-562 of Substitute House Bill No. 5500
3145-
3146-Public Act No. 22-58 97 of 100
3147-
3148-the general statutes. Such study shall include, but need not be limited
3149-to, an examination of (1) the regulation of such agencies by the
3150-Department of Public Health and whether additional oversight by the
3151-department is required, (2) whether minimum staffing levels for such
3152-agencies should be required, and (3) the maintenance of records by such
3153-agencies of meals served to, bathing of, administration of medication to
3154-and the overall health of each resident.
3155-(b) The task force shall consist of the following members:
3156-(1) Two appointed by the speaker of the House of Representatives;
3157-(2) Two appointed by the president pro tempore of the Senate;
3158-(3) One appointed by the majority leader of the House of
3159-Representatives;
3160-(4) One appointed by the majority leader of the Senate;
3161-(5) One appointed by the minority leader of the House of
3162-Representatives;
3163-(6) One appointed by the minority leader of the Senate; and
3164-(7) The Commissioner of Public Health, or the commissioner's
3165-designee.
3166-(c) Any member of the task force appointed under subdivision (1),
3167-(2), (3), (4), (5) or (6) of subsection (b) of this section may be a member
3168-of the General Assembly.
3169-(d) All initial appointments to the task force shall be made not later
3170-than thirty days after the effective date of this section. Any vacancy shall
3171-be filled by the appointing authority.
3172-(e) The speaker of the House of Representatives and the president pro Substitute House Bill No. 5500
3173-
3174-Public Act No. 22-58 98 of 100
3175-
3176-tempore of the Senate shall select the chairpersons of the task force from
3177-among the members of the task force. Such chairpersons shall schedule
3178-the first meeting of the task force, which shall be held not later than sixty
3179-days after the effective date of this section.
3180-(f) The administrative staff of the joint standing committee of the
3181-General Assembly having cognizance of matters relating to public
3182-health shall serve as administrative staff of the task force.
3183-(g) Not later than January 1, 2023, the task force shall submit a report
3184-on its findings and recommendations to the joint standing committee of
3185-the General Assembly having cognizance of matters relating to public
3186-health, in accordance with the provisions of section 11-4a of the general
3187-statutes. The task force shall terminate on the date that it submits such
3188-report or January 1, 2023, whichever is later.
3189-Sec. 75. Section 19a-59i of the 2022 supplement to the general statutes
3190-is amended by adding subsection (g) as follows (Effective from passage):
3191-(NEW) (g) Not later than January 1, 2023, the maternal mortality
3192-review committee shall develop educational materials regarding:
3193-(1) The health and safety of pregnant and postpartum persons with
3194-mental health disorders, including, but not limited to, perinatal mood
3195-and anxiety disorders, for distribution by the Department of Public
3196-Health to each birthing hospital in the state. As used in this subdivision,
3197-"birthing hospital" means a health care facility, as defined in section 19a-
3198-630, operated and maintained in whole or in part for the purpose of
3199-caring for patients during the delivery of a child and for a postpartum
3200-person and such person's newborn following birth;
3201-(2) Evidence-based screening tools for screening patients for intimate
3202-partner violence, peripartum mood disorders and substance use
3203-disorder for distribution by the Department of Public Health to
3204-obstetricians and other health care providers who practice obstetrics; Substitute House Bill No. 5500
3205-
3206-Public Act No. 22-58 99 of 100
3207-
3208-and
3209-(3) Indicators of intimate partner violence for distribution by the
3210-Department of Public Health to (A) hospitals for use by health care
3211-providers in the emergency department and hospital social workers,
3212-and (B) obstetricians and other health care providers who practice
3213-obstetrics.
3214-Sec. 76. (NEW) (Effective July 1, 2022) (a) As used in this section,
3215-"birthing hospital" means a health care facility, as defined in section 19a-
3216-630 of the general statutes, operated and maintained in whole or in part
3217-for the purpose of caring for a person during the delivery of a child and
3218-for a postpartum person and such person's newborn following birth.
3219-(b) On and after October 1, 2022, each birthing hospital shall provide
3220-to each patient who has undergone a caesarean section written
3221-information regarding the importance of mobility following a caesarean
3222-section and the risks associated with immobility following a caesarean
3223-section.
3224-(c) Not later than January 1, 2023, each birthing hospital shall
3225-establish a patient portal through which a postpartum patient can
3226-virtually access, through an Internet web site or application, any
3227-educational materials and other information that the birthing hospital
3228-provided to the patient during the patient's stay at the birthing hospital
3229-and at the time of the patient's discharge from the birthing hospital.
3230-(d) On and after January 1, 2023, each birthing hospital shall provide
3231-to each postpartum patient the educational materials regarding the
3232-health and safety of pregnant and postpartum persons with mental
3233-health disorders, including, but not limited to, perinatal mood and
3234-anxiety disorders, developed by the maternal mortality review
3235-committee pursuant to subsection (g) of section 19a-59i of the general
3236-statutes, as amended by this act. Substitute House Bill No. 5500
3237-
3238-Public Act No. 22-58 100 of 100
3239-
3240-Sec. 77. Subsection (a) of section 10-29a of the 2022 supplement to the
3241-general statutes is amended by adding subdivisions (104) and (105) as
3242-follows (Effective from passage):
3243-(NEW) (104) Maternal Mental Health Month. The Governor shall
3244-proclaim the month of May of each year to be Maternal Mental Health
3245-Month, to raise awareness of issues surrounding maternal mental
3246-health. Suitable exercises may be held in the State Capitol and elsewhere
3247-as the Governor designates for the observance of the month.
3248-(NEW) (105) Maternal Mental Health Day. The Governor shall
3249-proclaim May fifth of each year to be Maternal Mental Health Day, to
3250-raise awareness of issues surrounding maternal mental health. Suitable
3251-exercises may be held in the State Capitol and elsewhere as the
3252-Governor designates for the observance of the day.
3253-Sec. 78. Section 19a-6f of the general statutes is repealed. (Effective
3254-October 1, 2022)
1595+PH Joint Favorable Subst.
32551596