Illinois 2023-2024 Regular Session

Illinois Senate Bill SB1497 Compare Versions

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1-Public Act 103-0489
21 SB1497 EnrolledLRB103 26129 CPF 52485 b SB1497 Enrolled LRB103 26129 CPF 52485 b
32 SB1497 Enrolled LRB103 26129 CPF 52485 b
4-AN ACT concerning regulation.
5-Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois,
6-represented in the General Assembly:
7-Section 5. The Nursing Home Care Act is amended by
8-changing Sections 1-112, 2-106, and 2-106.1 as follows:
9-(210 ILCS 45/1-112) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4151-112)
10-Sec. 1-112. "Emergency" means a situation, physical
11-condition, or one or more practices, methods, or operations
12-which present imminent danger of death or serious physical or
13-mental harm to residents of a facility and are clinically
14-documented in the resident's medical record.
15-(Source: P.A. 81-223.)
16-(210 ILCS 45/2-106) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4152-106)
17-Sec. 2-106. Restraints.
18-(a) For purposes of this Act, (i) a physical restraint is
19-any manual method or physical or mechanical device, material,
20-or equipment attached or adjacent to a resident's body that
21-the resident cannot remove easily and restricts freedom of
22-movement or normal access to one's body, and . Devices used for
23-positioning, including but not limited to bed rails, gait
24-belts, and cushions, shall not be considered to be restraints
25-for purposes of this Section; (ii) a chemical restraint is any
3+1 AN ACT concerning regulation.
4+2 Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois,
5+3 represented in the General Assembly:
6+4 Section 5. The Nursing Home Care Act is amended by
7+5 changing Sections 1-112, 2-106, and 2-106.1 as follows:
8+6 (210 ILCS 45/1-112) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4151-112)
9+7 Sec. 1-112. "Emergency" means a situation, physical
10+8 condition, or one or more practices, methods, or operations
11+9 which present imminent danger of death or serious physical or
12+10 mental harm to residents of a facility and are clinically
13+11 documented in the resident's medical record.
14+12 (Source: P.A. 81-223.)
15+13 (210 ILCS 45/2-106) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4152-106)
16+14 Sec. 2-106. Restraints.
17+15 (a) For purposes of this Act, (i) a physical restraint is
18+16 any manual method or physical or mechanical device, material,
19+17 or equipment attached or adjacent to a resident's body that
20+18 the resident cannot remove easily and restricts freedom of
21+19 movement or normal access to one's body, and . Devices used for
22+20 positioning, including but not limited to bed rails, gait
23+21 belts, and cushions, shall not be considered to be restraints
24+22 for purposes of this Section; (ii) a chemical restraint is any
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32-drug used for discipline or convenience and not required to
33-treat medical symptoms.
34-Devices used for positioning, including, but not limited
35-to, bed rails and gait belts, shall not be considered to be
36-physical restraints for purposes of this Act unless the device
37-is used to restrain or otherwise limit the patient's freedom
38-to move. A device used for positioning must be requested by the
39-resident or, if the resident is unable to consent, the
40-resident's guardian or authorized representative, or the need
41-for that device must be physically demonstrated by the
42-resident and documented in the resident's care plan. The
43-physically demonstrated need of the resident for a device used
44-for positioning must be revisited in every comprehensive
45-assessment of the resident.
46-The Department shall by rule, designate certain devices as
47-restraints, including at least all those devices which have
48-been determined to be restraints by the United States
49-Department of Health and Human Services in interpretive
50-guidelines issued for the purposes of administering Titles
51-XVIII and XIX of the Social Security Act.
52-(b) Neither restraints nor confinements shall be employed
53-for the purpose of punishment or for the convenience of any
54-facility personnel. No restraints or confinements shall be
55-employed except as ordered by a physician who documents the
56-need for such restraints or confinements in the resident's
57-clinical record.
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33+1 drug used for discipline or convenience and not required to
34+2 treat medical symptoms.
35+3 Devices used for positioning, including, but not limited
36+4 to, bed rails and gait belts, shall not be considered to be
37+5 physical restraints for purposes of this Act unless the device
38+6 is used to restrain or otherwise limit the patient's freedom
39+7 to move. A device used for positioning must be requested by the
40+8 resident or, if the resident is unable to consent, the
41+9 resident's guardian or authorized representative, or the need
42+10 for that device must be physically demonstrated by the
43+11 resident and documented in the resident's care plan. The
44+12 physically demonstrated need of the resident for a device used
45+13 for positioning must be revisited in every comprehensive
46+14 assessment of the resident.
47+15 The Department shall by rule, designate certain devices as
48+16 restraints, including at least all those devices which have
49+17 been determined to be restraints by the United States
50+18 Department of Health and Human Services in interpretive
51+19 guidelines issued for the purposes of administering Titles
52+20 XVIII and XIX of the Social Security Act.
53+21 (b) Neither restraints nor confinements shall be employed
54+22 for the purpose of punishment or for the convenience of any
55+23 facility personnel. No restraints or confinements shall be
56+24 employed except as ordered by a physician who documents the
57+25 need for such restraints or confinements in the resident's
58+26 clinical record.
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60-(c) A restraint may be used only with the informed consent
61-of the resident, the resident's guardian, or other authorized
62-representative. A restraint may be used only for specific
63-periods, if it is the least restrictive means necessary to
64-attain and maintain the resident's highest practicable
65-physical, mental or psychosocial well-being, including brief
66-periods of time to provide necessary life-saving treatment. A
67-restraint may be used only after consultation with appropriate
68-health professionals, such as occupational or physical
69-therapists, and a trial of less restrictive measures has led
70-to the determination that the use of less restrictive measures
71-would not attain or maintain the resident's highest
72-practicable physical, mental or psychosocial well-being.
73-However, if the resident needs emergency care, restraints may
74-be used for brief periods to permit medical treatment to
75-proceed unless the facility has notice that the resident has
76-previously made a valid refusal of the treatment in question.
77-(d) A restraint may be applied only by a person trained in
78-the application of the particular type of restraint.
79-(e) Whenever a period of use of a restraint is initiated,
80-the resident shall be advised of his or her right to have a
81-person or organization of his or her choosing, including the
82-Guardianship and Advocacy Commission, notified of the use of
83-the restraint. A recipient who is under guardianship may
84-request that a person or organization of his or her choosing be
85-notified of the restraint, whether or not the guardian
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88-approves the notice. If the resident so chooses, the facility
89-shall make the notification within 24 hours, including any
90-information about the period of time that the restraint is to
91-be used. Whenever the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission is
92-notified that a resident has been restrained, it shall contact
93-the resident to determine the circumstances of the restraint
94-and whether further action is warranted.
95-(f) Whenever a restraint is used on a resident whose
96-primary mode of communication is sign language, the resident
97-shall be permitted to have his or her hands free from restraint
98-for brief periods each hour, except when this freedom may
99-result in physical harm to the resident or others.
100-(g) The requirements of this Section are intended to
101-control in any conflict with the requirements of Sections
102-1-126 and 2-108 of the Mental Health and Developmental
103-Disabilities Code.
104-(Source: P.A. 97-135, eff. 7-14-11.)
105-(210 ILCS 45/2-106.1)
106-Sec. 2-106.1. Drug treatment.
107-(a) A resident shall not be given unnecessary drugs. An
108-unnecessary drug is any drug used in an excessive dose,
109-including in duplicative therapy; for excessive duration;
110-without adequate monitoring; without adequate indications for
111-its use; or in the presence of adverse consequences that
112-indicate the drugs should be reduced or discontinued. The
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115-Department shall adopt, by rule, the standards for unnecessary
116-drugs contained in interpretive guidelines issued by the
117-United States Department of Health and Human Services for the
118-purposes of administering Titles XVIII and XIX of the Social
119-Security Act.
120-(b) State laws, regulations, and policies related to
121-psychotropic medication are intended to ensure psychotropic
122-medications are used only when the medication is appropriate
123-to treat a resident's specific, diagnosed, and documented
124-condition and the medication is beneficial to the resident, as
125-demonstrated by monitoring and documentation of the resident's
126-response to the medication.
127-(b-3) Except in the case of an emergency, psychotropic
128-medication shall not be administered without the informed
129-consent of the resident or the resident's surrogate decision
130-maker. Psychotropic medication shall only be given in both
131-emergency and nonemergency situations if the diagnosis of the
132-resident supports the benefit of the medication and clinical
133-documentation in the resident's medical record supports the
134-benefit of the medication over the contraindications related
135-to other prescribed medications. "Psychotropic medication"
136-means medication that is used for or listed as used for
137-psychotropic, antidepressant, antimanic, or antianxiety
138-behavior modification or behavior management purposes in the
139-latest editions of the AMA Drug Evaluations or the Physician's
140-Desk Reference. "Emergency" has the same meaning as in Section
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69+1 (c) A restraint may be used only with the informed consent
70+2 of the resident, the resident's guardian, or other authorized
71+3 representative. A restraint may be used only for specific
72+4 periods, if it is the least restrictive means necessary to
73+5 attain and maintain the resident's highest practicable
74+6 physical, mental or psychosocial well-being, including brief
75+7 periods of time to provide necessary life-saving treatment. A
76+8 restraint may be used only after consultation with appropriate
77+9 health professionals, such as occupational or physical
78+10 therapists, and a trial of less restrictive measures has led
79+11 to the determination that the use of less restrictive measures
80+12 would not attain or maintain the resident's highest
81+13 practicable physical, mental or psychosocial well-being.
82+14 However, if the resident needs emergency care, restraints may
83+15 be used for brief periods to permit medical treatment to
84+16 proceed unless the facility has notice that the resident has
85+17 previously made a valid refusal of the treatment in question.
86+18 (d) A restraint may be applied only by a person trained in
87+19 the application of the particular type of restraint.
88+20 (e) Whenever a period of use of a restraint is initiated,
89+21 the resident shall be advised of his or her right to have a
90+22 person or organization of his or her choosing, including the
91+23 Guardianship and Advocacy Commission, notified of the use of
92+24 the restraint. A recipient who is under guardianship may
93+25 request that a person or organization of his or her choosing be
94+26 notified of the restraint, whether or not the guardian
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143-1-112 of the Nursing Home Care Act. A facility shall (i)
144-document the alleged emergency in detail, including the facts
145-surrounding the medication's need, and (ii) present this
146-documentation to the resident and the resident's
147-representative. The Department shall adopt, by rule, a
148-protocol specifying how informed consent for psychotropic
149-medication may be obtained or refused. The protocol shall
150-require, at a minimum, a discussion between (i) the resident
151-or the resident's surrogate decision maker and (ii) the
152-resident's physician, a registered pharmacist, or a licensed
153-nurse about the possible risks and benefits of a recommended
154-medication and the use of standardized consent forms
155-designated by the Department. The protocol shall include
156-informing the resident, surrogate decision maker, or both of
157-the existence of a copy of: the resident's care plan; the
158-facility policies and procedures adopted in compliance with
159-subsection (b-15) of this Section; and a notification that the
160-most recent of the resident's care plans and the facility's
161-policies are available to the resident or surrogate decision
162-maker upon request. Each form designated or developed by the
163-Department (i) shall be written in plain language, (ii) shall
164-be able to be downloaded from the Department's official
165-website or another website designated by the Department, (iii)
166-shall include information specific to the psychotropic
167-medication for which consent is being sought, and (iv) shall
168-be used for every resident for whom psychotropic drugs are
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171-prescribed. The Department shall utilize the rules, protocols,
172-and forms developed and implemented under the Specialized
173-Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013 in effect on the
174-effective date of this amendatory Act of the 101st General
175-Assembly, except to the extent that this Act requires a
176-different procedure, and except that the maximum possible
177-period for informed consent shall be until: (1) a change in the
178-prescription occurs, either as to type of psychotropic
179-medication or an increase or decrease in dosage, dosage range,
180-or titration schedule of the prescribed medication that was
181-not included in the original informed consent; or (2) a
182-resident's care plan changes. The Department may further amend
183-the rules after January 1, 2021 pursuant to existing
184-rulemaking authority. In addition to creating those forms, the
185-Department shall approve the use of any other informed consent
186-forms that meet criteria developed by the Department. At the
187-discretion of the Department, informed consent forms may
188-include side effects that the Department reasonably believes
189-are more common, with a direction that more complete
190-information can be found via a link on the Department's
191-website to third-party websites with more complete
192-information, such as the United States Food and Drug
193-Administration's website. The Department or a facility shall
194-incur no liability for information provided on a consent form
195-so long as the consent form is substantially accurate based
196-upon generally accepted medical principles and if the form
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199-includes the website links.
200-Informed consent shall be sought from the resident. For
201-the purposes of this Section, "surrogate decision maker" means
202-an individual representing the resident's interests as
203-permitted by this Section. Informed consent shall be sought by
204-the resident's guardian of the person if one has been named by
205-a court of competent jurisdiction. In the absence of a
206-court-ordered guardian, informed consent shall be sought from
207-a health care agent under the Illinois Power of Attorney Act
208-who has authority to give consent. If neither a court-ordered
209-guardian of the person nor a health care agent under the
210-Illinois Power of Attorney Act is available and the attending
211-physician determines that the resident lacks capacity to make
212-decisions, informed consent shall be sought from the
213-resident's attorney-in-fact designated under the Mental Health
214-Treatment Preference Declaration Act, if applicable, or the
215-resident's representative.
216-In addition to any other penalty prescribed by law, a
217-facility that is found to have violated this subsection, or
218-the federal certification requirement that informed consent be
219-obtained before administering a psychotropic medication, shall
220-thereafter be required to obtain the signatures of 2 licensed
221-health care professionals on every form purporting to give
222-informed consent for the administration of a psychotropic
223-medication, certifying the personal knowledge of each health
224-care professional that the consent was obtained in compliance
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105+1 approves the notice. If the resident so chooses, the facility
106+2 shall make the notification within 24 hours, including any
107+3 information about the period of time that the restraint is to
108+4 be used. Whenever the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission is
109+5 notified that a resident has been restrained, it shall contact
110+6 the resident to determine the circumstances of the restraint
111+7 and whether further action is warranted.
112+8 (f) Whenever a restraint is used on a resident whose
113+9 primary mode of communication is sign language, the resident
114+10 shall be permitted to have his or her hands free from restraint
115+11 for brief periods each hour, except when this freedom may
116+12 result in physical harm to the resident or others.
117+13 (g) The requirements of this Section are intended to
118+14 control in any conflict with the requirements of Sections
119+15 1-126 and 2-108 of the Mental Health and Developmental
120+16 Disabilities Code.
121+17 (Source: P.A. 97-135, eff. 7-14-11.)
122+18 (210 ILCS 45/2-106.1)
123+19 Sec. 2-106.1. Drug treatment.
124+20 (a) A resident shall not be given unnecessary drugs. An
125+21 unnecessary drug is any drug used in an excessive dose,
126+22 including in duplicative therapy; for excessive duration;
127+23 without adequate monitoring; without adequate indications for
128+24 its use; or in the presence of adverse consequences that
129+25 indicate the drugs should be reduced or discontinued. The
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227-with the requirements of this subsection.
228-(b-5) A facility must obtain voluntary informed consent,
229-in writing, from a resident or the resident's surrogate
230-decision maker before administering or dispensing a
231-psychotropic medication to that resident. When informed
232-consent is not required for a change in dosage, the facility
233-shall note in the resident's file that the resident was
234-informed of the dosage change prior to the administration of
235-the medication or that verbal, written, or electronic notice
236-has been communicated to the resident's surrogate decision
237-maker that a change in dosage has occurred.
238-(b-10) No facility shall deny continued residency to a
239-person on the basis of the person's or resident's, or the
240-person's or resident's surrogate decision maker's, refusal of
241-the administration of psychotropic medication, unless the
242-facility can demonstrate that the resident's refusal would
243-place the health and safety of the resident, the facility
244-staff, other residents, or visitors at risk.
245-A facility that alleges that the resident's refusal to
246-consent to the administration of psychotropic medication will
247-place the health and safety of the resident, the facility
248-staff, other residents, or visitors at risk must: (1) document
249-the alleged risk in detail; (2) present this documentation to
250-the resident or the resident's surrogate decision maker, to
251-the Department, and to the Office of the State Long Term Care
252-Ombudsman; and (3) inform the resident or his or her surrogate
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255-decision maker of his or her right to appeal to the Department.
256-The documentation of the alleged risk shall include a
257-description of all nonpharmacological or alternative care
258-options attempted and why they were unsuccessful.
259-(b-15) Within 100 days after the effective date of any
260-rules adopted by the Department under subsection (b-3) (b) of
261-this Section, all facilities shall implement written policies
262-and procedures for compliance with this Section. When the
263-Department conducts its annual survey of a facility, the
264-surveyor may review these written policies and procedures and
265-either:
266-(1) give written notice to the facility that the
267-policies or procedures are sufficient to demonstrate the
268-facility's intent to comply with this Section; or
269-(2) provide written notice to the facility that the
270-proposed policies and procedures are deficient, identify
271-the areas that are deficient, and provide 30 days for the
272-facility to submit amended policies and procedures that
273-demonstrate its intent to comply with this Section.
274-A facility's failure to submit the documentation required
275-under this subsection is sufficient to demonstrate its intent
276-to not comply with this Section and shall be grounds for review
277-by the Department.
278-All facilities must provide training and education on the
279-requirements of this Section to all personnel involved in
280-providing care to residents and train and educate such
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283-personnel on the methods and procedures to effectively
284-implement the facility's policies. Training and education
285-provided under this Section must be documented in each
286-personnel file.
287-(b-20) Upon the receipt of a report of any violation of
288-this Section, the Department shall investigate and, upon
289-finding sufficient evidence of a violation of this Section,
290-may proceed with disciplinary action against the licensee of
291-the facility. In any administrative disciplinary action under
292-this subsection, the Department shall have the discretion to
293-determine the gravity of the violation and, taking into
294-account mitigating and aggravating circumstances and facts,
295-may adjust the disciplinary action accordingly.
296-(b-25) A violation of informed consent that, for an
297-individual resident, lasts for 7 days or more under this
298-Section is, at a minimum, a Type "B" violation. A second
299-violation of informed consent within a year from a previous
300-violation in the same facility regardless of the duration of
301-the second violation is, at a minimum, a Type "B" violation.
302-(b-30) Any violation of this Section by a facility may be
303-enforced by an action brought by the Department in the name of
304-the People of Illinois for injunctive relief, civil penalties,
305-or both injunctive relief and civil penalties. The Department
306-may initiate the action upon its own complaint or the
307-complaint of any other interested party.
308-(b-35) Any resident who has been administered a
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140+1 Department shall adopt, by rule, the standards for unnecessary
141+2 drugs contained in interpretive guidelines issued by the
142+3 United States Department of Health and Human Services for the
143+4 purposes of administering Titles XVIII and XIX of the Social
144+5 Security Act.
145+6 (b) State laws, regulations, and policies related to
146+7 psychotropic medication are intended to ensure psychotropic
147+8 medications are used only when the medication is appropriate
148+9 to treat a resident's specific, diagnosed, and documented
149+10 condition and the medication is beneficial to the resident, as
150+11 demonstrated by monitoring and documentation of the resident's
151+12 response to the medication.
152+13 (b-3) Except in the case of an emergency, psychotropic
153+14 medication shall not be administered without the informed
154+15 consent of the resident or the resident's surrogate decision
155+16 maker. Psychotropic medication shall only be given in both
156+17 emergency and nonemergency situations if the diagnosis of the
157+18 resident supports the benefit of the medication and clinical
158+19 documentation in the resident's medical record supports the
159+20 benefit of the medication over the contraindications related
160+21 to other prescribed medications. "Psychotropic medication"
161+22 means medication that is used for or listed as used for
162+23 psychotropic, antidepressant, antimanic, or antianxiety
163+24 behavior modification or behavior management purposes in the
164+25 latest editions of the AMA Drug Evaluations or the Physician's
165+26 Desk Reference. "Emergency" has the same meaning as in Section
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311-psychotropic medication in violation of this Section may bring
312-an action for injunctive relief, civil damages, and costs and
313-attorney's fees against any facility responsible for the
314-violation.
315-(b-40) An action under this Section must be filed within 2
316-years of either the date of discovery of the violation that
317-gave rise to the claim or the last date of an instance of a
318-noncompliant administration of psychotropic medication to the
319-resident, whichever is later.
320-(b-45) A facility subject to action under this Section
321-shall be liable for damages of up to $500 for each day after
322-discovery of a violation that the facility violates the
323-requirements of this Section.
324-(b-55) The rights provided for in this Section are
325-cumulative to existing resident rights. No part of this
326-Section shall be interpreted as abridging, abrogating, or
327-otherwise diminishing existing resident rights or causes of
328-action at law or equity.
329-(c) The requirements of this Section are intended to
330-control in a conflict with the requirements of Sections 2-102
331-and 2-107.2 of the Mental Health and Developmental
332-Disabilities Code with respect to the administration of
333-psychotropic medication.
334-(d) In this Section only, "licensed nurse" means an
335-advanced practice registered nurse, a registered nurse, or a
336-licensed practical nurse.
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339-(Source: P.A. 101-10, eff. 6-5-19; 102-646, eff. 8-27-21.)
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176+1 1-112 of the Nursing Home Care Act. A facility shall (i)
177+2 document the alleged emergency in detail, including the facts
178+3 surrounding the medication's need, and (ii) present this
179+4 documentation to the resident and the resident's
180+5 representative. The Department shall adopt, by rule, a
181+6 protocol specifying how informed consent for psychotropic
182+7 medication may be obtained or refused. The protocol shall
183+8 require, at a minimum, a discussion between (i) the resident
184+9 or the resident's surrogate decision maker and (ii) the
185+10 resident's physician, a registered pharmacist, or a licensed
186+11 nurse about the possible risks and benefits of a recommended
187+12 medication and the use of standardized consent forms
188+13 designated by the Department. The protocol shall include
189+14 informing the resident, surrogate decision maker, or both of
190+15 the existence of a copy of: the resident's care plan; the
191+16 facility policies and procedures adopted in compliance with
192+17 subsection (b-15) of this Section; and a notification that the
193+18 most recent of the resident's care plans and the facility's
194+19 policies are available to the resident or surrogate decision
195+20 maker upon request. Each form designated or developed by the
196+21 Department (i) shall be written in plain language, (ii) shall
197+22 be able to be downloaded from the Department's official
198+23 website or another website designated by the Department, (iii)
199+24 shall include information specific to the psychotropic
200+25 medication for which consent is being sought, and (iv) shall
201+26 be used for every resident for whom psychotropic drugs are
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212+1 prescribed. The Department shall utilize the rules, protocols,
213+2 and forms developed and implemented under the Specialized
214+3 Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013 in effect on the
215+4 effective date of this amendatory Act of the 101st General
216+5 Assembly, except to the extent that this Act requires a
217+6 different procedure, and except that the maximum possible
218+7 period for informed consent shall be until: (1) a change in the
219+8 prescription occurs, either as to type of psychotropic
220+9 medication or an increase or decrease in dosage, dosage range,
221+10 or titration schedule of the prescribed medication that was
222+11 not included in the original informed consent; or (2) a
223+12 resident's care plan changes. The Department may further amend
224+13 the rules after January 1, 2021 pursuant to existing
225+14 rulemaking authority. In addition to creating those forms, the
226+15 Department shall approve the use of any other informed consent
227+16 forms that meet criteria developed by the Department. At the
228+17 discretion of the Department, informed consent forms may
229+18 include side effects that the Department reasonably believes
230+19 are more common, with a direction that more complete
231+20 information can be found via a link on the Department's
232+21 website to third-party websites with more complete
233+22 information, such as the United States Food and Drug
234+23 Administration's website. The Department or a facility shall
235+24 incur no liability for information provided on a consent form
236+25 so long as the consent form is substantially accurate based
237+26 upon generally accepted medical principles and if the form
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248+1 includes the website links.
249+2 Informed consent shall be sought from the resident. For
250+3 the purposes of this Section, "surrogate decision maker" means
251+4 an individual representing the resident's interests as
252+5 permitted by this Section. Informed consent shall be sought by
253+6 the resident's guardian of the person if one has been named by
254+7 a court of competent jurisdiction. In the absence of a
255+8 court-ordered guardian, informed consent shall be sought from
256+9 a health care agent under the Illinois Power of Attorney Act
257+10 who has authority to give consent. If neither a court-ordered
258+11 guardian of the person nor a health care agent under the
259+12 Illinois Power of Attorney Act is available and the attending
260+13 physician determines that the resident lacks capacity to make
261+14 decisions, informed consent shall be sought from the
262+15 resident's attorney-in-fact designated under the Mental Health
263+16 Treatment Preference Declaration Act, if applicable, or the
264+17 resident's representative.
265+18 In addition to any other penalty prescribed by law, a
266+19 facility that is found to have violated this subsection, or
267+20 the federal certification requirement that informed consent be
268+21 obtained before administering a psychotropic medication, shall
269+22 thereafter be required to obtain the signatures of 2 licensed
270+23 health care professionals on every form purporting to give
271+24 informed consent for the administration of a psychotropic
272+25 medication, certifying the personal knowledge of each health
273+26 care professional that the consent was obtained in compliance
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284+1 with the requirements of this subsection.
285+2 (b-5) A facility must obtain voluntary informed consent,
286+3 in writing, from a resident or the resident's surrogate
287+4 decision maker before administering or dispensing a
288+5 psychotropic medication to that resident. When informed
289+6 consent is not required for a change in dosage, the facility
290+7 shall note in the resident's file that the resident was
291+8 informed of the dosage change prior to the administration of
292+9 the medication or that verbal, written, or electronic notice
293+10 has been communicated to the resident's surrogate decision
294+11 maker that a change in dosage has occurred.
295+12 (b-10) No facility shall deny continued residency to a
296+13 person on the basis of the person's or resident's, or the
297+14 person's or resident's surrogate decision maker's, refusal of
298+15 the administration of psychotropic medication, unless the
299+16 facility can demonstrate that the resident's refusal would
300+17 place the health and safety of the resident, the facility
301+18 staff, other residents, or visitors at risk.
302+19 A facility that alleges that the resident's refusal to
303+20 consent to the administration of psychotropic medication will
304+21 place the health and safety of the resident, the facility
305+22 staff, other residents, or visitors at risk must: (1) document
306+23 the alleged risk in detail; (2) present this documentation to
307+24 the resident or the resident's surrogate decision maker, to
308+25 the Department, and to the Office of the State Long Term Care
309+26 Ombudsman; and (3) inform the resident or his or her surrogate
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320+1 decision maker of his or her right to appeal to the Department.
321+2 The documentation of the alleged risk shall include a
322+3 description of all nonpharmacological or alternative care
323+4 options attempted and why they were unsuccessful.
324+5 (b-15) Within 100 days after the effective date of any
325+6 rules adopted by the Department under subsection (b-3) (b) of
326+7 this Section, all facilities shall implement written policies
327+8 and procedures for compliance with this Section. When the
328+9 Department conducts its annual survey of a facility, the
329+10 surveyor may review these written policies and procedures and
330+11 either:
331+12 (1) give written notice to the facility that the
332+13 policies or procedures are sufficient to demonstrate the
333+14 facility's intent to comply with this Section; or
334+15 (2) provide written notice to the facility that the
335+16 proposed policies and procedures are deficient, identify
336+17 the areas that are deficient, and provide 30 days for the
337+18 facility to submit amended policies and procedures that
338+19 demonstrate its intent to comply with this Section.
339+20 A facility's failure to submit the documentation required
340+21 under this subsection is sufficient to demonstrate its intent
341+22 to not comply with this Section and shall be grounds for review
342+23 by the Department.
343+24 All facilities must provide training and education on the
344+25 requirements of this Section to all personnel involved in
345+26 providing care to residents and train and educate such
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356+1 personnel on the methods and procedures to effectively
357+2 implement the facility's policies. Training and education
358+3 provided under this Section must be documented in each
359+4 personnel file.
360+5 (b-20) Upon the receipt of a report of any violation of
361+6 this Section, the Department shall investigate and, upon
362+7 finding sufficient evidence of a violation of this Section,
363+8 may proceed with disciplinary action against the licensee of
364+9 the facility. In any administrative disciplinary action under
365+10 this subsection, the Department shall have the discretion to
366+11 determine the gravity of the violation and, taking into
367+12 account mitigating and aggravating circumstances and facts,
368+13 may adjust the disciplinary action accordingly.
369+14 (b-25) A violation of informed consent that, for an
370+15 individual resident, lasts for 7 days or more under this
371+16 Section is, at a minimum, a Type "B" violation. A second
372+17 violation of informed consent within a year from a previous
373+18 violation in the same facility regardless of the duration of
374+19 the second violation is, at a minimum, a Type "B" violation.
375+20 (b-30) Any violation of this Section by a facility may be
376+21 enforced by an action brought by the Department in the name of
377+22 the People of Illinois for injunctive relief, civil penalties,
378+23 or both injunctive relief and civil penalties. The Department
379+24 may initiate the action upon its own complaint or the
380+25 complaint of any other interested party.
381+26 (b-35) Any resident who has been administered a
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392+1 psychotropic medication in violation of this Section may bring
393+2 an action for injunctive relief, civil damages, and costs and
394+3 attorney's fees against any facility responsible for the
395+4 violation.
396+5 (b-40) An action under this Section must be filed within 2
397+6 years of either the date of discovery of the violation that
398+7 gave rise to the claim or the last date of an instance of a
399+8 noncompliant administration of psychotropic medication to the
400+9 resident, whichever is later.
401+10 (b-45) A facility subject to action under this Section
402+11 shall be liable for damages of up to $500 for each day after
403+12 discovery of a violation that the facility violates the
404+13 requirements of this Section.
405+14 (b-55) The rights provided for in this Section are
406+15 cumulative to existing resident rights. No part of this
407+16 Section shall be interpreted as abridging, abrogating, or
408+17 otherwise diminishing existing resident rights or causes of
409+18 action at law or equity.
410+19 (c) The requirements of this Section are intended to
411+20 control in a conflict with the requirements of Sections 2-102
412+21 and 2-107.2 of the Mental Health and Developmental
413+22 Disabilities Code with respect to the administration of
414+23 psychotropic medication.
415+24 (d) In this Section only, "licensed nurse" means an
416+25 advanced practice registered nurse, a registered nurse, or a
417+26 licensed practical nurse.
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428+1 (Source: P.A. 101-10, eff. 6-5-19; 102-646, eff. 8-27-21.)
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