Illinois 2023-2024 Regular Session

Illinois Senate Bill SB2822 Compare Versions

Version 1 (Old)

Version 2 (New)

Old	New		Differences
1		-	Public Act 103-0628
2	1		SB2822 EnrolledLRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b SB2822 Enrolled LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
3	2		SB2822 Enrolled LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
4		-	AN ACT concerning regulation.
5		-	Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois,
6		-	represented in the General Assembly:
7		-	Section 5. The Illinois Dental Practice Act is amended by
8		-	changing Sections 4, 8.1, 17, 19.2, and 45 as follows:
9		-	(225 ILCS 25/4)
10		-	(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)
11		-	Sec. 4. Definitions. As used in this Act:
12		-	"Address of record" means the designated address recorded
13		-	by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application
14		-	file or license file as maintained by the Department's
15		-	licensure maintenance unit. It is the duty of the applicant or
16		-	licensee to inform the Department of any change of address and
17		-	those changes must be made either through the Department's
18		-	website or by contacting the Department.
19		-	"Department" means the Department of Financial and
20		-	Professional Regulation.
21		-	"Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and
22		-	Professional Regulation.
23		-	"Board" means the Board of Dentistry.
24		-	"Dentist" means a person who has received a general
25		-	license pursuant to paragraph (a) of Section 11 of this Act and
26		-	who may perform any intraoral and extraoral procedure required
	3	+	1 AN ACT concerning regulation.
	4	+	2 Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois,
	5	+	3 represented in the General Assembly:
	6	+	4 Section 5. The Illinois Dental Practice Act is amended by
	7	+	5 changing Sections 4, 8.1, 17, 19.2, and 45 as follows:
	8	+	6 (225 ILCS 25/4)
	9	+	7 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)
	10	+	8 Sec. 4. Definitions. As used in this Act:
	11	+	9 "Address of record" means the designated address recorded
	12	+	10 by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application
	13	+	11 file or license file as maintained by the Department's
	14	+	12 licensure maintenance unit. It is the duty of the applicant or
	15	+	13 licensee to inform the Department of any change of address and
	16	+	14 those changes must be made either through the Department's
	17	+	15 website or by contacting the Department.
	18	+	16 "Department" means the Department of Financial and
	19	+	17 Professional Regulation.
	20	+	18 "Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and
	21	+	19 Professional Regulation.
	22	+	20 "Board" means the Board of Dentistry.
	23	+	21 "Dentist" means a person who has received a general
	24	+	22 license pursuant to paragraph (a) of Section 11 of this Act and
	25	+	23 who may perform any intraoral and extraoral procedure required
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33		-	in the practice of dentistry and to whom is reserved the
34		-	responsibilities specified in Section 17.
35		-	"Dental hygienist" means a person who holds a license
36		-	under this Act to perform dental services as authorized by
37		-	Section 18.
38		-	"Dental assistant" means an appropriately trained person
39		-	who, under the supervision of a dentist, provides dental
40		-	services as authorized by Section 17.
41		-	"Expanded function dental assistant" means a dental
42		-	assistant who has completed the training required by Section
43		-	17.1 of this Act.
44		-	"Dental laboratory" means a person, firm, or corporation
45		-	which:
46		-	(i) engages in making, providing, repairing, or
47		-	altering dental prosthetic appliances and other artificial
48		-	materials and devices which are returned to a dentist for
49		-	insertion into the human oral cavity or which come in
50		-	contact with its adjacent structures and tissues; and
51		-	(ii) utilizes or employs a dental technician to
52		-	provide such services; and
53		-	(iii) performs such functions only for a dentist or
54		-	dentists.
55		-	"Supervision" means supervision of a dental hygienist or a
56		-	dental assistant requiring that a dentist authorize the
57		-	procedure, remain in the dental facility while the procedure
58		-	is performed, and approve the work performed by the dental
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	34	+	1 in the practice of dentistry and to whom is reserved the
	35	+	2 responsibilities specified in Section 17.
	36	+	3 "Dental hygienist" means a person who holds a license
	37	+	4 under this Act to perform dental services as authorized by
	38	+	5 Section 18.
	39	+	6 "Dental assistant" means an appropriately trained person
	40	+	7 who, under the supervision of a dentist, provides dental
	41	+	8 services as authorized by Section 17.
	42	+	9 "Expanded function dental assistant" means a dental
	43	+	10 assistant who has completed the training required by Section
	44	+	11 17.1 of this Act.
	45	+	12 "Dental laboratory" means a person, firm, or corporation
	46	+	13 which:
	47	+	14 (i) engages in making, providing, repairing, or
	48	+	15 altering dental prosthetic appliances and other artificial
	49	+	16 materials and devices which are returned to a dentist for
	50	+	17 insertion into the human oral cavity or which come in
	51	+	18 contact with its adjacent structures and tissues; and
	52	+	19 (ii) utilizes or employs a dental technician to
	53	+	20 provide such services; and
	54	+	21 (iii) performs such functions only for a dentist or
	55	+	22 dentists.
	56	+	23 "Supervision" means supervision of a dental hygienist or a
	57	+	24 dental assistant requiring that a dentist authorize the
	58	+	25 procedure, remain in the dental facility while the procedure
	59	+	26 is performed, and approve the work performed by the dental
59	60
60	61
61		-	hygienist or dental assistant before dismissal of the patient,
62		-	but does not mean that the dentist must be present at all times
63		-	in the treatment room.
64		-	"General supervision" means supervision of a dental
65		-	hygienist requiring that the patient be a patient of record,
66		-	that the dentist examine the patient in accordance with
67		-	Section 18 prior to treatment by the dental hygienist, and
68		-	that the dentist authorize the procedures which are being
69		-	carried out by a notation in the patient's record, but not
70		-	requiring that a dentist be present when the authorized
71		-	procedures are being performed. The issuance of a prescription
72		-	to a dental laboratory by a dentist does not constitute
73		-	general supervision.
74		-	"Public member" means a person who is not a health
75		-	professional. For purposes of board membership, any person
76		-	with a significant financial interest in a health service or
77		-	profession is not a public member.
78		-	"Dentistry" means the healing art which is concerned with
79		-	the examination, diagnosis, treatment planning, and care of
80		-	conditions within the human oral cavity and its adjacent
81		-	tissues and structures, as further specified in Section 17.
82		-	"Branches of dentistry" means the various specialties of
83		-	dentistry which, for purposes of this Act, shall be limited to
84		-	the following: endodontics, oral and maxillofacial surgery,
85		-	orthodontics and dentofacial orthopedics, pediatric dentistry,
86		-	periodontics, prosthodontics, oral and maxillofacial
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88	63
89		-	radiology, and dental anesthesiology.
90		-	"Specialist" means a dentist who has received a specialty
91		-	license pursuant to Section 11(b).
92		-	"Dental technician" means a person who owns, operates, or
93		-	is employed by a dental laboratory and engages in making,
94		-	providing, repairing, or altering dental prosthetic appliances
95		-	and other artificial materials and devices which are returned
96		-	to a dentist for insertion into the human oral cavity or which
97		-	come in contact with its adjacent structures and tissues.
98		-	"Impaired dentist" or "impaired dental hygienist" means a
99		-	dentist or dental hygienist who is unable to practice with
100		-	reasonable skill and safety because of a physical or mental
101		-	disability as evidenced by a written determination or written
102		-	consent based on clinical evidence, including deterioration
103		-	through the aging process, loss of motor skills, abuse of
104		-	drugs or alcohol, or a psychiatric disorder, of sufficient
105		-	degree to diminish the person's ability to deliver competent
106		-	patient care.
107		-	"Nurse" means a registered professional nurse, a certified
108		-	registered nurse anesthetist licensed as an advanced practice
109		-	registered nurse, or a licensed practical nurse licensed under
110		-	the Nurse Practice Act.
111		-	"Patient of record" means a patient for whom the patient's
112		-	most recent dentist has obtained a relevant medical and dental
113		-	history and on whom the dentist has performed an examination
114		-	and evaluated the condition to be treated.
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117		-	"Dental responder" means a dentist or dental hygienist who
118		-	is appropriately certified in disaster preparedness,
119		-	immunizations, and dental humanitarian medical response
120		-	consistent with the Society of Disaster Medicine and Public
121		-	Health and training certified by the National Incident
122		-	Management System or the National Disaster Life Support
123		-	Foundation.
124		-	"Mobile dental van or portable dental unit" means any
125		-	self-contained or portable dental unit in which dentistry is
126		-	practiced that can be moved, towed, or transported from one
127		-	location to another in order to establish a location where
128		-	dental services can be provided.
129		-	"Public health dental hygienist" means a hygienist who
130		-	holds a valid license to practice in the State, has 2 years of
131		-	full-time clinical experience or an equivalent of 4,000 hours
132		-	of clinical experience, and has completed at least 42 clock
133		-	hours of additional structured courses in dental education in
134		-	advanced areas specific to public health dentistry.
135		-	"Public health setting" means a federally qualified health
136		-	center; a federal, State, or local public health facility;
137		-	Head Start; a special supplemental nutrition program for
138		-	Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) facility; a certified
139		-	school-based health center or school-based oral health
140		-	program; a prison; or a long-term care facility.
141		-	"Public health supervision" means the supervision of a
142		-	public health dental hygienist by a licensed dentist who has a
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	70	+	1 hygienist or dental assistant before dismissal of the patient,
	71	+	2 but does not mean that the dentist must be present at all times
	72	+	3 in the treatment room.
	73	+	4 "General supervision" means supervision of a dental
	74	+	5 hygienist requiring that the patient be a patient of record,
	75	+	6 that the dentist examine the patient in accordance with
	76	+	7 Section 18 prior to treatment by the dental hygienist, and
	77	+	8 that the dentist authorize the procedures which are being
	78	+	9 carried out by a notation in the patient's record, but not
	79	+	10 requiring that a dentist be present when the authorized
	80	+	11 procedures are being performed. The issuance of a prescription
	81	+	12 to a dental laboratory by a dentist does not constitute
	82	+	13 general supervision.
	83	+	14 "Public member" means a person who is not a health
	84	+	15 professional. For purposes of board membership, any person
	85	+	16 with a significant financial interest in a health service or
	86	+	17 profession is not a public member.
	87	+	18 "Dentistry" means the healing art which is concerned with
	88	+	19 the examination, diagnosis, treatment planning, and care of
	89	+	20 conditions within the human oral cavity and its adjacent
	90	+	21 tissues and structures, as further specified in Section 17.
	91	+	22 "Branches of dentistry" means the various specialties of
	92	+	23 dentistry which, for purposes of this Act, shall be limited to
	93	+	24 the following: endodontics, oral and maxillofacial surgery,
	94	+	25 orthodontics and dentofacial orthopedics, pediatric dentistry,
	95	+	26 periodontics, prosthodontics, oral and maxillofacial
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145		-	written public health supervision agreement with that public
146		-	health dental hygienist while working in an approved facility
147		-	or program that allows the public health dental hygienist to
148		-	treat patients, without a dentist first examining the patient
149		-	and being present in the facility during treatment, (1) who
150		-	are eligible for Medicaid or (2) who are uninsured or whose
151		-	household income is not greater than 300% of the federal
152		-	poverty level.
153		-	"Teledentistry" means the use of telehealth systems and
154		-	methodologies in dentistry and includes patient care and
155		-	education delivery using synchronous and asynchronous
156		-	communications under a dentist's authority as provided under
157		-	this Act.
158		-	"Moderate sedation" means a drug-induced depression of
159		-	consciousness during which: (1) patients respond purposefully
160		-	to verbal commands, either alone or accompanied by light
161		-	tactile stimulation; (2) no interventions are required to
162		-	maintain a patient's airway and spontaneous ventilation is
163		-	adequate; and (3) cardiovascular function is usually
164		-	maintained.
165		-	"Deep sedation" means a drug-induced depression of
166		-	consciousness during which: (1) patients cannot be easily
167		-	aroused, but respond purposefully following repeated or
168		-	painful stimulation; (2) the ability to independently maintain
169		-	ventilatory function may be impaired; (3) patients may require
170		-	assistance in maintaining airways and spontaneous ventilation
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172	99
173		-	may be inadequate; and (4) cardiovascular function is usually
174		-	maintained.
175		-	"General anesthesia" means a drug-induced loss of
176		-	consciousness during which: (1) patients are not arousable,
177		-	even by painful stimulation; (2) the ability to independently
178		-	maintain ventilatory function is often impaired; (3) patients
179		-	often require assistance in maintaining airways and positive
180		-	pressure ventilation may be required because of depressed
181		-	spontaneous ventilation or drug-induced depression of
182		-	neuromuscular function; and (4) cardiovascular function may be
183		-	impaired.
184		-	"Venipuncture" means the puncture of a vein as part of a
185		-	medical procedure, typically to withdraw a blood sample or for
186		-	an intravenous catheter for the administration of medication
187		-	or fluids.
188		-	"Enteral route of administration" means administration of
189		-	a drug that is absorbed through the gastrointestinal tract or
190		-	through oral, rectal, or sublingual mucosa.
191		-	"Parenteral route of administration" means administration
192		-	of a drug by which the drug bypasses the gastrointestinal
193		-	tract through intramuscular, intravenous, intranasal,
194		-	submucosal, subcutaneous, or intraosseous methods.
195		-	(Source: P.A. 102-93, eff. 1-1-22; 102-588, eff. 8-20-21;
196		-	102-936, eff. 1-1-23; 103-425, eff. 1-1-24; 103-431, eff.
197		-	1-1-24; revised 12-15-23.)
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200		-	(225 ILCS 25/8.1) (from Ch. 111, par. 2308.1)
201		-	(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)
202		-	Sec. 8.1. Permit for the administration of anesthesia and
203		-	sedation.
204		-	(a) No licensed dentist shall administer general
205		-	anesthesia, deep sedation, or moderate conscious sedation
206		-	without first applying for and obtaining a permit for such
207		-	purpose from the Department. The Department shall issue such
208		-	permit only after ascertaining that the applicant possesses
209		-	the minimum qualifications necessary to protect public safety.
210		-	A person with a dental degree who administers anesthesia, deep
211		-	sedation, or moderate conscious sedation in an approved
212		-	hospital training program under the supervision of either a
213		-	licensed dentist holding such permit or a physician licensed
214		-	to practice medicine in all its branches shall not be required
215		-	to obtain such permit.
216		-	(b) The minimum requirements for a permit to administer
217		-	moderate sedation issued after the effective date of this
218		-	amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly shall include the
219		-	completion of a minimum of 75 hours of didactic and supervised
220		-	clinical study in either:
221		-	(1) an American Dental Association Commission on
222		-	Dental Accreditation accredited dental specialty program,
223		-	general practice residency, or advanced education in
224		-	general dentistry residency that includes training and
225		-	documentation in moderate sedation techniques appropriate
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	106	+	1 radiology, and dental anesthesiology.
	107	+	2 "Specialist" means a dentist who has received a specialty
	108	+	3 license pursuant to Section 11(b).
	109	+	4 "Dental technician" means a person who owns, operates, or
	110	+	5 is employed by a dental laboratory and engages in making,
	111	+	6 providing, repairing, or altering dental prosthetic appliances
	112	+	7 and other artificial materials and devices which are returned
	113	+	8 to a dentist for insertion into the human oral cavity or which
	114	+	9 come in contact with its adjacent structures and tissues.
	115	+	10 "Impaired dentist" or "impaired dental hygienist" means a
	116	+	11 dentist or dental hygienist who is unable to practice with
	117	+	12 reasonable skill and safety because of a physical or mental
	118	+	13 disability as evidenced by a written determination or written
	119	+	14 consent based on clinical evidence, including deterioration
	120	+	15 through the aging process, loss of motor skills, abuse of
	121	+	16 drugs or alcohol, or a psychiatric disorder, of sufficient
	122	+	17 degree to diminish the person's ability to deliver competent
	123	+	18 patient care.
	124	+	19 "Nurse" means a registered professional nurse, a certified
	125	+	20 registered nurse anesthetist licensed as an advanced practice
	126	+	21 registered nurse, or a licensed practical nurse licensed under
	127	+	22 the Nurse Practice Act.
	128	+	23 "Patient of record" means a patient for whom the patient's
	129	+	24 most recent dentist has obtained a relevant medical and dental
	130	+	25 history and on whom the dentist has performed an examination
	131	+	26 and evaluated the condition to be treated.
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227	133
228		-	for each specialty or an American Dental Association
229		-	Commission on Dental Accreditation accredited dental
230		-	anesthesiology residency program and proof of completion
231		-	of 20 individually managed patients utilizing appropriate
232		-	routes of administration, in which the applicant is the
233		-	sole provider, which can include, but are not limited to,
234		-	intravenous, oral, intranasal, or intramuscular or
235		-	combinations thereof; or
236		-	(2) a structured course of study provided by an
237		-	approved continuing education provider that includes
238		-	training and documentation in moderate sedation, physical
239		-	evaluation, venipuncture, advanced airway management,
240		-	technical administration, recognition and management of
241		-	complications and emergencies and monitoring with
242		-	additional supervised experience and documentation
243		-	demonstrating competence in providing moderate sedation
244		-	utilizing enteral and parenteral routes of administration
245		-	of medications to competency to 20 individual patient
246		-	experiences on a 1 to 1 ratio with an instructor, in which
247		-	the applicant is the sole provider of sedation over a
248		-	continuous time frame as set by the Department and as
249		-	provided in the American Dental Association's Guidelines
250		-	for Teaching Pain Control and Sedation to Dentists and
251		-	Dental Students.
252		-	(b-5) The minimum requirements for a permit to administer
253		-	deep sedation and general anesthesia issued after the
254	134
255	135
256		-	effective date of this amendatory Act of the 103rd General
257		-	Assembly shall include:
258		-	(1) the completion of a minimum of 2 years of advanced
259		-	training in anesthesiology beyond the pre-doctoral level
260		-	in a training program approved by the American Dental
261		-	Association's Council on Dental Education and Licensure,
262		-	as outlined in Guidelines for Teaching Pain Control and
263		-	Sedation to Dentists and Dental Students, as published by
264		-	the American Dental Association's Council on Dental
265		-	Education and Licensure;
266		-	(2) a specialty license in oral and maxillofacial
267		-	surgery;
268		-	(3) completion of an accredited oral or maxillofacial
269		-	surgery residency program; or
270		-	(4) the completion of an American Dental Association
271		-	Commission on Dental Accreditation accredited dental
272		-	anesthesiology residency program.
273		-	(b-10) The Department may establish, by rule, additional
274		-	training programs and training requirements consistent with
275		-	this Section to ensure patient safety in dental offices
276		-	administering anesthesia, which shall include, but not be
277		-	limited to the following In determining the minimum permit
278		-	qualifications that are necessary to protect public safety,
279		-	the Department, by rule, shall:
280		-	(1) (blank); establish the minimum educational and
281		-	training requirements necessary for a dentist to be issued
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284		-	an appropriate permit;
285		-	(2) establish the standards for properly equipped
286		-	dental facilities (other than licensed hospitals and
287		-	ambulatory surgical treatment centers) in which general
288		-	anesthesia, deep sedation, or moderate conscious sedation
289		-	is administered, as necessary to protect public safety;
290		-	(3) establish minimum requirements for all persons who
291		-	assist the dentist in the administration of general
292		-	anesthesia, deep sedation, or moderate conscious sedation,
293		-	including minimum training requirements for each member of
294		-	the dental team, monitoring requirements, recordkeeping
295		-	requirements, and emergency procedures;
296		-	(4) ensure that the dentist has completed and
297		-	maintains current certification in advanced cardiac life
298		-	support or pediatric advanced life support and all persons
299		-	assisting the dentist or monitoring the administration of
300		-	general anesthesia, deep sedation, or moderate conscious
301		-	sedation maintain current certification in Basic Life
302		-	Support (BLS); and
303		-	(5) establish continuing education requirements in
304		-	sedation techniques and airway management for dentists who
305		-	possess a permit under this Section.
306		-	The Department shall adopt rules that ensure that a
307		-	continuing education course designed to meet the permit
308		-	requirements for moderate sedation training is reviewed and
309		-	certified by the Department if the course is not accredited by
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	142	+	1 "Dental responder" means a dentist or dental hygienist who
	143	+	2 is appropriately certified in disaster preparedness,
	144	+	3 immunizations, and dental humanitarian medical response
	145	+	4 consistent with the Society of Disaster Medicine and Public
	146	+	5 Health and training certified by the National Incident
	147	+	6 Management System or the National Disaster Life Support
	148	+	7 Foundation.
	149	+	8 "Mobile dental van or portable dental unit" means any
	150	+	9 self-contained or portable dental unit in which dentistry is
	151	+	10 practiced that can be moved, towed, or transported from one
	152	+	11 location to another in order to establish a location where
	153	+	12 dental services can be provided.
	154	+	13 "Public health dental hygienist" means a hygienist who
	155	+	14 holds a valid license to practice in the State, has 2 years of
	156	+	15 full-time clinical experience or an equivalent of 4,000 hours
	157	+	16 of clinical experience, and has completed at least 42 clock
	158	+	17 hours of additional structured courses in dental education in
	159	+	18 advanced areas specific to public health dentistry.
	160	+	19 "Public health setting" means a federally qualified health
	161	+	20 center; a federal, State, or local public health facility;
	162	+	21 Head Start; a special supplemental nutrition program for
	163	+	22 Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) facility; a certified
	164	+	23 school-based health center or school-based oral health
	165	+	24 program; a prison; or a long-term care facility.
	166	+	25 "Public health supervision" means the supervision of a
	167	+	26 public health dental hygienist by a licensed dentist who has a
310	168
311	169
312		-	the American Dental Association Commission on Dental
313		-	Accreditation.
314		-	When establishing requirements under this Section, the
315		-	Department shall consider the current American Dental
316		-	Association guidelines on sedation and general anesthesia, the
317		-	current "Guidelines for Monitoring and Management of Pediatric
318		-	Patients During and After Sedation for Diagnostic and
319		-	Therapeutic Procedures" established by the American Academy of
320		-	Pediatrics and the American Academy of Pediatric Dentistry,
321		-	and the current parameters of care and Office Anesthesia
322		-	Evaluation (OAE) Manual established by the American
323		-	Association of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgeons.
324		-	(c) A licensed dentist must hold an appropriate permit
325		-	issued under this Section in order to perform dentistry while
326		-	a nurse anesthetist administers moderate conscious sedation,
327		-	and a valid written collaborative agreement must exist between
328		-	the dentist and the nurse anesthetist, in accordance with the
329		-	Nurse Practice Act.
330		-	A licensed dentist must hold an appropriate permit issued
331		-	under this Section in order to perform dentistry while a nurse
332		-	anesthetist administers deep sedation or general anesthesia,
333		-	and a valid written collaborative agreement must exist between
334		-	the dentist and the nurse anesthetist, in accordance with the
335		-	Nurse Practice Act.
336		-	For the purposes of this subsection (c), "nurse
337		-	anesthetist" means a licensed certified registered nurse
338	170
339	171
340		-	anesthetist who holds a license as an advanced practice
341		-	registered nurse.
342		-	(Source: P.A. 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18;
343		-	101-162, eff. 7-26-19.)
344		-	(225 ILCS 25/17)
345		-	(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)
346		-	Sec. 17. Acts constituting the practice of dentistry. A
347		-	person practices dentistry, within the meaning of this Act:
348		-	(1) Who represents himself or herself as being able to
349		-	diagnose or diagnoses, treats, prescribes, or operates for
350		-	any disease, pain, deformity, deficiency, injury, or
351		-	physical condition of the human tooth, teeth, alveolar
352		-	process, gums, or jaw; or
353		-	(2) Who is a manager, proprietor, operator, or
354		-	conductor of a business where dental operations are
355		-	performed; or
356		-	(3) Who performs dental operations of any kind; or
357		-	(4) Who uses an X-Ray machine or X-Ray films for
358		-	dental diagnostic purposes; or
359		-	(5) Who extracts a human tooth or teeth, or corrects
360		-	or attempts to correct malpositions of the human teeth or
361		-	jaws; or
362		-	(6) Who offers or undertakes, by any means or method,
363		-	to diagnose, treat, or remove stains, calculus, and
364		-	bonding materials from human teeth or jaws; or
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366	175
367		-	(7) Who uses or administers local or general
368		-	anesthetics in the treatment of dental or oral diseases or
369		-	in any preparation incident to a dental operation of any
370		-	kind or character; or
371		-	(8) Who takes material or digital scans for final
372		-	impressions of the human tooth, teeth, or jaws or performs
373		-	any phase of any operation incident to the replacement of
374		-	a part of a tooth, a tooth, teeth, or associated tissues by
375		-	means of a filling, a crown, a bridge, a denture, or other
376		-	appliance; or
377		-	(9) Who offers to furnish, supply, construct,
378		-	reproduce, or repair, or who furnishes, supplies,
379		-	constructs, reproduces, or repairs, prosthetic dentures,
380		-	bridges, or other substitutes for natural teeth, to the
381		-	user or prospective user thereof; or
382		-	(10) Who instructs students on clinical matters or
383		-	performs any clinical operation included in the curricula
384		-	of recognized dental schools and colleges; or
385		-	(11) Who takes material or digital scans for final
386		-	impressions of human teeth or places his or her hands in
387		-	the mouth of any person for the purpose of applying teeth
388		-	whitening materials, or who takes impressions of human
389		-	teeth or places his or her hands in the mouth of any person
390		-	for the purpose of assisting in the application of teeth
391		-	whitening materials. A person does not practice dentistry
392		-	when he or she discloses to the consumer that he or she is
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	178	+	1 written public health supervision agreement with that public
	179	+	2 health dental hygienist while working in an approved facility
	180	+	3 or program that allows the public health dental hygienist to
	181	+	4 treat patients, without a dentist first examining the patient
	182	+	5 and being present in the facility during treatment, (1) who
	183	+	6 are eligible for Medicaid or (2) who are uninsured or whose
	184	+	7 household income is not greater than 300% of the federal
	185	+	8 poverty level.
	186	+	9 "Teledentistry" means the use of telehealth systems and
	187	+	10 methodologies in dentistry and includes patient care and
	188	+	11 education delivery using synchronous and asynchronous
	189	+	12 communications under a dentist's authority as provided under
	190	+	13 this Act.
	191	+	14 "Moderate sedation" means a drug-induced depression of
	192	+	15 consciousness during which: (1) patients respond purposefully
	193	+	16 to verbal commands, either alone or accompanied by light
	194	+	17 tactile stimulation; (2) no interventions are required to
	195	+	18 maintain a patient's airway and spontaneous ventilation is
	196	+	19 adequate; and (3) cardiovascular function is usually
	197	+	20 maintained.
	198	+	21 "Deep sedation" means a drug-induced depression of
	199	+	22 consciousness during which: (1) patients cannot be easily
	200	+	23 aroused, but respond purposefully following repeated or
	201	+	24 painful stimulation; (2) the ability to independently maintain
	202	+	25 ventilatory function may be impaired; (3) patients may require
	203	+	26 assistance in maintaining airways and spontaneous ventilation
393	204
394	205
395		-	not licensed as a dentist under this Act and (i) discusses
396		-	the use of teeth whitening materials with a consumer
397		-	purchasing these materials; (ii) provides instruction on
398		-	the use of teeth whitening materials with a consumer
399		-	purchasing these materials; or (iii) provides appropriate
400		-	equipment on-site to the consumer for the consumer to
401		-	self-apply teeth whitening materials.
402		-	The fact that any person engages in or performs, or offers
403		-	to engage in or perform, any of the practices, acts, or
404		-	operations set forth in this Section, shall be prima facie
405		-	evidence that such person is engaged in the practice of
406		-	dentistry.
407		-	The following practices, acts, and operations, however,
408		-	are exempt from the operation of this Act:
409		-	(a) The rendering of dental relief in emergency cases
410		-	in the practice of his or her profession by a physician or
411		-	surgeon, licensed as such under the laws of this State,
412		-	unless he or she undertakes to reproduce or reproduces
413		-	lost parts of the human teeth in the mouth or to restore or
414		-	replace lost or missing teeth in the mouth; or
415		-	(b) The practice of dentistry in the discharge of
416		-	their official duties by dentists in any branch of the
417		-	Armed Services of the United States, the United States
418		-	Public Health Service, or the United States Veterans
419		-	Administration; or
420		-	(c) The practice of dentistry by students in their
421	206
422	207
423		-	course of study in dental schools or colleges approved by
424		-	the Department, when acting under the direction and
425		-	supervision of dentists acting as instructors; or
426		-	(d) The practice of dentistry by clinical instructors
427		-	in the course of their teaching duties in dental schools
428		-	or colleges approved by the Department:
429		-	(i) when acting under the direction and
430		-	supervision of dentists, provided that such clinical
431		-	instructors have instructed continuously in this State
432		-	since January 1, 1986; or
433		-	(ii) when holding the rank of full professor at
434		-	such approved dental school or college and possessing
435		-	a current valid license or authorization to practice
436		-	dentistry in another country; or
437		-	(e) The practice of dentistry by licensed dentists of
438		-	other states or countries at meetings of the Illinois
439		-	State Dental Society or component parts thereof, alumni
440		-	meetings of dental colleges, or any other like dental
441		-	organizations, while appearing as clinicians; or
442		-	(f) The use of X-Ray machines for exposing X-Ray films
443		-	of dental or oral tissues by dental hygienists or dental
444		-	assistants; or
445		-	(g) The performance of any dental service by a dental
446		-	assistant, if such service is performed under the
447		-	supervision and full responsibility of a dentist. In
448		-	addition, after being authorized by a dentist, a dental
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450	211
451		-	assistant may, for the purpose of eliminating pain or
452		-	discomfort, remove loose, broken, or irritating
453		-	orthodontic appliances on a patient of record.
454		-	For purposes of this paragraph (g), "dental service"
455		-	is defined to mean any intraoral procedure or act which
456		-	shall be prescribed by rule or regulation of the
457		-	Department. "Dental service", however, shall not include:
458		-	(1) Any and all diagnosis of or prescription for
459		-	treatment of disease, pain, deformity, deficiency,
460		-	injury, or physical condition of the human teeth or
461		-	jaws, or adjacent structures.
462		-	(2) Removal of, restoration of, or addition to the
463		-	hard or soft tissues of the oral cavity, except for the
464		-	placing, carving, and finishing of amalgam
465		-	restorations and placing, packing, and finishing
466		-	composite restorations by dental assistants who have
467		-	had additional formal education and certification.
468		-	A dental assistant may place, carve, and finish
469		-	amalgam restorations, place, pack, and finish
470		-	composite restorations, and place interim restorations
471		-	if he or she (A) has successfully completed a
472		-	structured training program as described in item (2)
473		-	of subsection (g) provided by an educational
474		-	institution accredited by the Commission on Dental
475		-	Accreditation, such as a dental school or dental
476		-	hygiene or dental assistant program, or (B) has at
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	214	+	1 may be inadequate; and (4) cardiovascular function is usually
	215	+	2 maintained.
	216	+	3 "General anesthesia" means a drug-induced loss of
	217	+	4 consciousness during which: (1) patients are not arousable,
	218	+	5 even by painful stimulation; (2) the ability to independently
	219	+	6 maintain ventilatory function is often impaired; (3) patients
	220	+	7 often require assistance in maintaining airways and positive
	221	+	8 pressure ventilation may be required because of depressed
	222	+	9 spontaneous ventilation or drug-induced depression of
	223	+	10 neuromuscular function; and (4) cardiovascular function may be
	224	+	11 impaired.
	225	+	12 "Venipuncture" means the puncture of a vein as part of a
	226	+	13 medical procedure, typically to withdraw a blood sample or for
	227	+	14 an intravenous catheter for the administration of medication
	228	+	15 or fluids.
	229	+	16 "Enteral route of administration" means administration of
	230	+	17 a drug that is absorbed through the gastrointestinal tract or
	231	+	18 through oral, rectal, or sublingual mucosa.
	232	+	19 "Parenteral route of administration" means administration
	233	+	20 of a drug by which the drug bypasses the gastrointestinal
	234	+	21 tract through intramuscular, intravenous, intranasal,
	235	+	22 submucosal, subcutaneous, or intraosseous methods.
	236	+	23 (Source: P.A. 102-93, eff. 1-1-22; 102-588, eff. 8-20-21;
	237	+	24 102-936, eff. 1-1-23; 103-425, eff. 1-1-24; 103-431, eff.
	238	+	25 1-1-24; revised 12-15-23.)
477	239
478	240
479		-	least 4,000 hours of direct clinical patient care
480		-	experience and has successfully completed a structured
481		-	training program as described in item (2) of
482		-	subsection (g) provided by a statewide dental
483		-	association, approved by the Department to provide
484		-	continuing education, that has developed and conducted
485		-	training programs for expanded functions for dental
486		-	assistants or hygienists. The training program must:
487		-	(i) include a minimum of 16 hours of didactic study and
488		-	14 hours of clinical manikin instruction; all training
489		-	programs shall include areas of study in nomenclature,
490		-	caries classifications, oral anatomy, periodontium,
491		-	basic occlusion, instrumentations, pulp protection
492		-	liners and bases, dental materials, matrix and wedge
493		-	techniques, amalgam placement and carving, rubber dam
494		-	clamp placement, and rubber dam placement and removal;
495		-	(ii) include an outcome assessment examination that
496		-	demonstrates competency; (iii) require the supervising
497		-	dentist to observe and approve the completion of 8
498		-	amalgam or composite restorations; and (iv) issue a
499		-	certificate of completion of the training program,
500		-	which must be kept on file at the dental office and be
501		-	made available to the Department upon request. A
502		-	dental assistant must have successfully completed an
503		-	approved coronal polishing and dental sealant course
504		-	prior to taking the amalgam and composite restoration
505	241
506	242
507		-	course.
508		-	A dentist utilizing dental assistants shall not
509		-	supervise more than 4 dental assistants at any one
510		-	time for placing, carving, and finishing of amalgam
511		-	restorations or for placing, packing, and finishing
512		-	composite restorations.
513		-	(3) Any and all correction of malformation of
514		-	teeth or of the jaws.
515		-	(4) Administration of anesthetics, except for
516		-	monitoring of nitrous oxide, moderate conscious
517		-	sedation, deep sedation, and general anesthetic as
518		-	provided in Section 8.1 of this Act, that may be
519		-	performed only after successful completion of a
520		-	training program approved by the Department. A dentist
521		-	utilizing dental assistants shall not supervise more
522		-	than 4 dental assistants at any one time for the
523		-	monitoring of nitrous oxide.
524		-	(5) Removal of calculus from human teeth.
525		-	(6) Taking of material or digital scans for final
526		-	impressions for the fabrication of prosthetic
527		-	appliances, crowns, bridges, inlays, onlays, or other
528		-	restorative or replacement dentistry.
529		-	(7) The operative procedure of dental hygiene
530		-	consisting of oral prophylactic procedures, except for
531		-	coronal polishing and pit and fissure sealants, which
532		-	may be performed by a dental assistant who has
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534	246
535		-	successfully completed a training program approved by
536		-	the Department. Dental assistants may perform coronal
537		-	polishing under the following circumstances: (i) the
538		-	coronal polishing shall be limited to polishing the
539		-	clinical crown of the tooth and existing restorations,
540		-	supragingivally; (ii) the dental assistant performing
541		-	the coronal polishing shall be limited to the use of
542		-	rotary instruments using a rubber cup or brush
543		-	polishing method (air polishing is not permitted); and
544		-	(iii) the supervising dentist shall not supervise more
545		-	than 4 dental assistants at any one time for the task
546		-	of coronal polishing or pit and fissure sealants.
547		-	In addition to coronal polishing and pit and
548		-	fissure sealants as described in this item (7), a
549		-	dental assistant who has at least 2,000 hours of
550		-	direct clinical patient care experience and who has
551		-	successfully completed a structured training program
552		-	provided by (1) an educational institution including,
553		-	but not limited to, a dental school or dental hygiene
554		-	or dental assistant program, (2) a continuing
555		-	education provider approved by the Department, or (3)
556		-	a statewide dental or dental hygienist association
557		-	that has developed and conducted a training program
558		-	for expanded functions for dental assistants or
559		-	hygienists may perform: (A) coronal scaling above the
560		-	gum line, supragingivally, on the clinical crown of
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	249	+	1 (225 ILCS 25/8.1) (from Ch. 111, par. 2308.1)
	250	+	2 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)
	251	+	3 Sec. 8.1. Permit for the administration of anesthesia and
	252	+	4 sedation.
	253	+	5 (a) No licensed dentist shall administer general
	254	+	6 anesthesia, deep sedation, or moderate conscious sedation
	255	+	7 without first applying for and obtaining a permit for such
	256	+	8 purpose from the Department. The Department shall issue such
	257	+	9 permit only after ascertaining that the applicant possesses
	258	+	10 the minimum qualifications necessary to protect public safety.
	259	+	11 A person with a dental degree who administers anesthesia, deep
	260	+	12 sedation, or moderate conscious sedation in an approved
	261	+	13 hospital training program under the supervision of either a
	262	+	14 licensed dentist holding such permit or a physician licensed
	263	+	15 to practice medicine in all its branches shall not be required
	264	+	16 to obtain such permit.
	265	+	17 (b) The minimum requirements for a permit to administer
	266	+	18 moderate sedation issued after the effective date of this
	267	+	19 amendatory Act of the 103rd General Assembly shall include the
	268	+	20 completion of a minimum of 75 hours of didactic and supervised
	269	+	21 clinical study in either:
	270	+	22 (1) an American Dental Association Commission on
	271	+	23 Dental Accreditation accredited dental specialty program,
	272	+	24 general practice residency, or advanced education in
	273	+	25 general dentistry residency that includes training and
	274	+	26 documentation in moderate sedation techniques appropriate
561	275
562	276
563		-	the tooth only on patients 17 years of age or younger
564		-	who have an absence of periodontal disease and who are
565		-	not medically compromised or individuals with special
566		-	needs and (B) intracoronal temporization of a tooth.
567		-	The training program must: (I) include a minimum of 32
568		-	hours of instruction in both didactic and clinical
569		-	manikin or human subject instruction; all training
570		-	programs shall include areas of study in dental
571		-	anatomy, public health dentistry, medical history,
572		-	dental emergencies, and managing the pediatric
573		-	patient; (II) include an outcome assessment
574		-	examination that demonstrates competency; (III)
575		-	require the supervising dentist to observe and approve
576		-	the completion of 6 full mouth supragingival scaling
577		-	procedures unless the training was received as part of
578		-	a Commission on Dental Accreditation approved dental
579		-	assistant program; and (IV) issue a certificate of
580		-	completion of the training program, which must be kept
581		-	on file at the dental office and be made available to
582		-	the Department upon request. A dental assistant must
583		-	have successfully completed an approved coronal
584		-	polishing course prior to taking the coronal scaling
585		-	course. A dental assistant performing these functions
586		-	shall be limited to the use of hand instruments only.
587		-	In addition, coronal scaling as described in this
588		-	paragraph shall only be utilized on patients who are
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590	278
591		-	eligible for Medicaid, who are uninsured, or whose
592		-	household income is not greater than 300% of the
593		-	federal poverty level. A dentist may not supervise
594		-	more than 2 dental assistants at any one time for the
595		-	task of coronal scaling. This paragraph is inoperative
596		-	on and after January 1, 2026.
597		-	The limitations on the number of dental assistants a
598		-	dentist may supervise contained in items (2), (4), and (7)
599		-	of this paragraph (g) mean a limit of 4 total dental
600		-	assistants or dental hygienists doing expanded functions
601		-	covered by these Sections being supervised by one dentist;
602		-	or
603		-	(h) The practice of dentistry by an individual who:
604		-	(i) has applied in writing to the Department, in
605		-	form and substance satisfactory to the Department, for
606		-	a general dental license and has complied with all
607		-	provisions of Section 9 of this Act, except for the
608		-	passage of the examination specified in subsection (e)
609		-	of Section 9 of this Act; or
610		-	(ii) has applied in writing to the Department, in
611		-	form and substance satisfactory to the Department, for
612		-	a temporary dental license and has complied with all
613		-	provisions of subsection (c) of Section 11 of this
614		-	Act; and
615		-	(iii) has been accepted or appointed for specialty
616		-	or residency training by a hospital situated in this
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618	282
619		-	State; or
620		-	(iv) has been accepted or appointed for specialty
621		-	training in an approved dental program situated in
622		-	this State; or
623		-	(v) has been accepted or appointed for specialty
624		-	training in a dental public health agency situated in
625		-	this State.
626		-	The applicant shall be permitted to practice dentistry
627		-	for a period of 3 months from the starting date of the
628		-	program, unless authorized in writing by the Department to
629		-	continue such practice for a period specified in writing
630		-	by the Department.
631		-	The applicant shall only be entitled to perform such
632		-	acts as may be prescribed by and incidental to his or her
633		-	program of residency or specialty training and shall not
634		-	otherwise engage in the practice of dentistry in this
635		-	State.
636		-	The authority to practice shall terminate immediately
637		-	upon:
638		-	(1) the decision of the Department that the
639		-	applicant has failed the examination; or
640		-	(2) denial of licensure by the Department; or
641		-	(3) withdrawal of the application.
642		-	(Source: P.A. 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-936, eff. 1-1-23;
643		-	103-425, eff. 1-1-24; 103-431, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-15-23.)
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	285	+	1 for each specialty or an American Dental Association
	286	+	2 Commission on Dental Accreditation accredited dental
	287	+	3 anesthesiology residency program and proof of completion
	288	+	4 of 20 individually managed patients utilizing appropriate
	289	+	5 routes of administration, in which the applicant is the
	290	+	6 sole provider, which can include, but are not limited to,
	291	+	7 intravenous, oral, intranasal, or intramuscular or
	292	+	8 combinations thereof; or
	293	+	9 (2) a structured course of study provided by an
	294	+	10 approved continuing education provider that includes
	295	+	11 training and documentation in moderate sedation, physical
	296	+	12 evaluation, venipuncture, advanced airway management,
	297	+	13 technical administration, recognition and management of
	298	+	14 complications and emergencies and monitoring with
	299	+	15 additional supervised experience and documentation
	300	+	16 demonstrating competence in providing moderate sedation
	301	+	17 utilizing enteral and parenteral routes of administration
	302	+	18 of medications to competency to 20 individual patient
	303	+	19 experiences on a 1 to 1 ratio with an instructor, in which
	304	+	20 the applicant is the sole provider of sedation over a
	305	+	21 continuous time frame as set by the Department and as
	306	+	22 provided in the American Dental Association's Guidelines
	307	+	23 for Teaching Pain Control and Sedation to Dentists and
	308	+	24 Dental Students.
	309	+	25 (b-5) The minimum requirements for a permit to administer
	310	+	26 deep sedation and general anesthesia issued after the
644	311
645	312
646		-	(225 ILCS 25/19.2)
647		-	(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)
648		-	Sec. 19.2. Temporary permit for free dental care.
649		-	(a) Upon Board recommendation, the Department may issue a
650		-	temporary permit authorizing the practice in this State,
651		-	without compensation, of dentistry to an applicant who is
652		-	licensed to practice dentistry in another state, if all of the
653		-	following apply:
654		-	(1) the Department determines that the applicant's
655		-	services will improve the welfare of Illinois residents
656		-	who are eligible for Medicaid or who are uninsured and
657		-	whose household income is not greater than 200% of the
658		-	federal poverty level;
659		-	(2) the applicant has graduated from a dental program
660		-	approved by the American Dental Association's Commission
661		-	on Dental Accreditation and maintains an equivalent
662		-	authorization to practice dentistry in good standing in
663		-	his or her native licensing jurisdiction during the period
664		-	of the temporary visiting dentist permit and can furnish
665		-	the Department a certified letter upon request from that
666		-	jurisdiction attesting to the fact that the applicant has
667		-	no pending action or violations against his or her
668		-	license;
669		-	(3) the applicant has received an invitation to
670		-	perform dental care by a charitable organization or has
671		-	received an invitation to study or receive training on
672	313
673	314
674		-	specific dental or clinical subjects or techniques by a
675		-	licensed continuing education sponsor who is approved by
676		-	the Department to provide clinical training in the State
677		-	of Illinois on patients for the welfare of Illinois
678		-	residents pursuant to subsection (a-5) and is in
679		-	compliance with the provisions of this Act;
680		-	(4) the applicant will be working pursuant to a
681		-	collaborative agreement with and under the direct
682		-	supervision of an Illinois licensed dentist, who is in
683		-	good standing, during the duration of the program. The
684		-	supervising dentist must be physically present during all
685		-	clinical training courses; and
686		-	(5) payment of a fee established by rule.
687		-	The Department may adopt rules to implement this
688		-	subsection.
689		-	(a-5) Upon Board recommendation, after the filing of an
690		-	application, the Department may allow approved continuing
691		-	education sponsors to be licensed to provide live patient
692		-	continuing education clinical training courses if the
693		-	following requirements are met:
694		-	(1) the continuing education course provides services,
695		-	without compensation, that will improve the welfare of
696		-	Illinois residents as described in paragraph (1) of
697		-	subsection (a). The application to the Board must include
698		-	the following information for review and approval by the
699		-	Department:
	315	+
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700	317
701	318
702		-	(i) a plan of follow-up care and training models;
703		-	(ii) any and all documentation to be signed by the
704		-	patients, including, but not limited to, waivers,
705		-	consent forms, and releases;
706		-	(iii) information related to the facilities being
707		-	utilized, staffing plans, and emergency plans;
708		-	(iv) the process by which patients will be
709		-	contacted before, during, and after treatment;
710		-	(v) the intended population that will be receiving
711		-	treatment; and
712		-	(vi) proof of valid malpractice insurance for the
713		-	approved continuing education sponsor that extends
714		-	coverage to clinical staff, trainees, and out-of-state
715		-	permit holders that meet the requirements of
716		-	subsection (a);
717		-	(2) a valid written collaborative agreement must exist
718		-	between the temporary visiting dentist and the Illinois
719		-	licensed dentist co-treating patients under this Section.
720		-	The collaborative agreement must include a description of
721		-	the care to be provided and procedures to be performed by
722		-	the temporary visiting dentist. There shall be no more
723		-	than 5 trainees per supervising dentist. A copy of this
724		-	agreement shall become part of the patient's dental record
725		-	and shall be made available upon request to the
726		-	Department; and
727		-	(3) payment of a fee established by rule.
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	320	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 10 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	321	+	1 effective date of this amendatory Act of the 103rd General
	322	+	2 Assembly shall include:
	323	+	3 (1) the completion of a minimum of 2 years of advanced
	324	+	4 training in anesthesiology beyond the pre-doctoral level
	325	+	5 in a training program approved by the American Dental
	326	+	6 Association's Council on Dental Education and Licensure,
	327	+	7 as outlined in Guidelines for Teaching Pain Control and
	328	+	8 Sedation to Dentists and Dental Students, as published by
	329	+	9 the American Dental Association's Council on Dental
	330	+	10 Education and Licensure;
	331	+	11 (2) a specialty license in oral and maxillofacial
	332	+	12 surgery;
	333	+	13 (3) completion of an accredited oral or maxillofacial
	334	+	14 surgery residency program; or
	335	+	15 (4) the completion of an American Dental Association
	336	+	16 Commission on Dental Accreditation accredited dental
	337	+	17 anesthesiology residency program.
	338	+	18 (b-10) The Department may establish, by rule, additional
	339	+	19 training programs and training requirements consistent with
	340	+	20 this Section to ensure patient safety in dental offices
	341	+	21 administering anesthesia, which shall include, but not be
	342	+	22 limited to the following In determining the minimum permit
	343	+	23 qualifications that are necessary to protect public safety,
	344	+	24 the Department, by rule, shall:
	345	+	25 (1) (blank); establish the minimum educational and
	346	+	26 training requirements necessary for a dentist to be issued
728	347
729	348
730		-	A continuing education sponsor license issued under this
731		-	Section shall be valid for a period of time as provided by
732		-	rule.
733		-	The Department shall adopt rules to implement this
734		-	subsection.
735		-	(b) (Blank).
736		-	(c) A temporary permit shall be valid for no longer than 5
737		-	consecutive clinical days within 6 months from the date of
738		-	issuance. The temporary permit may be issued once per year to a
739		-	visiting dentist. Temporary permits under subsection (a) may
740		-	be restored no more than one time within 5 years of the initial
741		-	permits issuance. The Department may require an applicant to
742		-	pay a fee for the issuance or restoration of a permit under
743		-	this Section.
744		-	(d) (Blank).
745		-	(e) The temporary permit shall only permit the holder to
746		-	practice dentistry within the scope of the dental studies and
747		-	in conjunction with one of the following:
748		-	(1) the charitable organization; or
749		-	(2) a continuing education program provided by a
750		-	continuing education sponsor approved by the Department
751		-	pursuant to this Section that the permit holder is
752		-	attending.
753		-	(f) The temporary visiting dentist may not administer
754		-	moderate conscious sedation, deep sedation, or general
755		-	anesthesia.
756	349
757	350
758		-	(g) A patient who seeks treatment from a temporary
759		-	visiting dentist must sign a consent form acknowledging that
760		-	the care the patient will receive will be provided by a dentist
761		-	not licensed in the State of Illinois and that the Illinois
762		-	licensed dentist who has the collaborative agreement with the
763		-	temporary visiting dentist will be responsible for all the
764		-	follow-up care associated with the treatment rendered to the
765		-	patient.
766		-	(h) An application for the temporary permit shall be made
767		-	to the Department in writing on forms prescribed by the
768		-	Department and shall be accompanied by a nonrefundable fee
769		-	established by rule.
770		-	(i) An applicant for a temporary permit may be requested
771		-	to appear before the Board to respond to questions concerning
772		-	the applicant's qualifications to receive the permit. An
773		-	applicant's refusal to appear before the Board may be grounds
774		-	for denial of the application by the Department.
775		-	(j) The Secretary may summarily cancel any permit or
776		-	license issued pursuant to this Section without a hearing if
777		-	the Secretary finds that evidence in his or her possession
778		-	indicates that a continuing education sponsor licensed under
779		-	this Section or a temporary permit holder's continuation in
780		-	practice would constitute an imminent danger to the public or
781		-	violate any provision of this Act or its rules. If the
782		-	Secretary summarily cancels a permit or license issued
783		-	pursuant to this Section, the permit holder or licensee may
	351	+
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784	353
785	354
786		-	petition the Department for a hearing in accordance with the
787		-	provisions of subsection (b) of Section 26 of this Act to
788		-	reinstate his or her permit or license.
789		-	(k) In addition to terminating any permit or license
790		-	issued pursuant to this Section, the Department may impose a
791		-	monetary penalty not to exceed $10,000 upon the temporary
792		-	permit holder or licensee and may notify any state in which the
793		-	temporary permit holder or licensee has been issued a license
794		-	that his or her Illinois permit or license has been terminated
795		-	and the reasons for the termination. The monetary penalty
796		-	shall be paid within 60 days after the effective date of the
797		-	order imposing the penalty. The order shall constitute a
798		-	judgment and may be filed and execution had thereon in the same
799		-	manner as any judgment from any court of record. It is the
800		-	intent of the General Assembly that a permit or license issued
801		-	pursuant to this Section shall be considered a privilege and
802		-	not a property right.
803		-	(Source: P.A. 102-582, eff. 1-1-22.)
804		-	(225 ILCS 25/45) (from Ch. 111, par. 2345)
805		-	(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)
806		-	Sec. 45. Advertising. The purpose of this Section is to
807		-	authorize and regulate the advertisement by dentists of
808		-	information which is intended to provide the public with a
809		-	sufficient basis upon which to make an informed selection of
810		-	dentists while protecting the public from false or misleading
	355	+	SB2822 Enrolled- 11 -LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b SB2822 Enrolled - 11 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	356	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 11 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	357	+	1 an appropriate permit;
	358	+	2 (2) establish the standards for properly equipped
	359	+	3 dental facilities (other than licensed hospitals and
	360	+	4 ambulatory surgical treatment centers) in which general
	361	+	5 anesthesia, deep sedation, or moderate conscious sedation
	362	+	6 is administered, as necessary to protect public safety;
	363	+	7 (3) establish minimum requirements for all persons who
	364	+	8 assist the dentist in the administration of general
	365	+	9 anesthesia, deep sedation, or moderate conscious sedation,
	366	+	10 including minimum training requirements for each member of
	367	+	11 the dental team, monitoring requirements, recordkeeping
	368	+	12 requirements, and emergency procedures;
	369	+	13 (4) ensure that the dentist has completed and
	370	+	14 maintains current certification in advanced cardiac life
	371	+	15 support or pediatric advanced life support and all persons
	372	+	16 assisting the dentist or monitoring the administration of
	373	+	17 general anesthesia, deep sedation, or moderate conscious
	374	+	18 sedation maintain current certification in Basic Life
	375	+	19 Support (BLS); and
	376	+	20 (5) establish continuing education requirements in
	377	+	21 sedation techniques and airway management for dentists who
	378	+	22 possess a permit under this Section.
	379	+	23 The Department shall adopt rules that ensure that a
	380	+	24 continuing education course designed to meet the permit
	381	+	25 requirements for moderate sedation training is reviewed and
	382	+	26 certified by the Department if the course is not accredited by
811	383
812	384
813		-	advertisements which would detract from the fair and rational
814		-	selection process.
815		-	Any dentist may advertise the availability of dental
816		-	services in the public media or on the premises where such
817		-	dental services are rendered. Such advertising shall be
818		-	limited to the following information:
819		-	(a) The dental services available;
820		-	(b) Publication of the dentist's name, title, office
821		-	hours, address and telephone;
822		-	(c) Information pertaining to his or her area of
823		-	specialization, including appropriate board certification
824		-	or limitation of professional practice;
825		-	(d) Information on usual and customary fees for
826		-	routine dental services offered, which information shall
827		-	include notification that fees may be adjusted due to
828		-	complications or unforeseen circumstances;
829		-	(e) Announcement of the opening of, change of, absence
830		-	from, or return to business;
831		-	(f) Announcement of additions to or deletions from
832		-	professional dental staff;
833		-	(g) The issuance of business or appointment cards;
834		-	(h) Other information about the dentist, dentist's
835		-	practice or the types of dental services which the dentist
836		-	offers to perform which a reasonable person might regard
837		-	as relevant in determining whether to seek the dentist's
838		-	services. However, any advertisement which announces the
839	385
840	386
841		-	availability of endodontics, pediatric dentistry,
842		-	periodontics, prosthodontics, orthodontics and
843		-	dentofacial orthopedics, oral and maxillofacial surgery,
844		-	or oral and maxillofacial radiology by a general dentist
845		-	or by a licensed specialist who is not licensed in that
846		-	specialty shall include a disclaimer stating that the
847		-	dentist does not hold a license in that specialty.
848		-	Any dental practice with more than one location that
849		-	enrolls its dentist as a participating provider in a managed
850		-	care plan's network must verify electronically or in writing
851		-	to the managed care plan whether the provider is accepting new
852		-	patients at each of the specific locations listing the
853		-	provider. The health plan shall remove the provider from the
854		-	directory in accordance with standard practices within 10
855		-	business days after being notified of the changes by the
856		-	provider. Nothing in this paragraph shall void any contractual
857		-	relationship between the provider and the plan.
858		-	It is unlawful for any dentist licensed under this Act to
859		-	do any of the following:
860		-	(1) Use claims of superior quality of care to entice
861		-	the public.
862		-	(2) Advertise in any way to practice dentistry without
863		-	causing pain.
864		-	(3) Pay a fee to any dental referral service or other
865		-	third party who advertises a dental referral service,
866		-	unless all advertising of the dental referral service
	387	+
	388	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 11 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
867	389
868	390
869		-	makes it clear that dentists are paying a fee for that
870		-	referral service.
871		-	(4) Advertise or offer gifts as an inducement to
872		-	secure dental patronage. Dentists may advertise or offer
873		-	free examinations or free dental services; it shall be
874		-	unlawful, however, for any dentist to charge a fee to any
875		-	new patient for any dental service provided at the time
876		-	that such free examination or free dental services are
877		-	provided.
878		-	(5) Use the term "sedation dentistry" or similar terms
879		-	in advertising unless the advertising dentist holds a
880		-	valid and current permit issued by the Department to
881		-	administer either general anesthesia, deep sedation, or
882		-	moderate conscious sedation as required under Section 8.1
883		-	of this Act.
884		-	This Act does not authorize the advertising of dental
885		-	services when the offeror of such services is not a dentist.
886		-	Nor shall the dentist use statements which contain false,
887		-	fraudulent, deceptive or misleading material or guarantees of
888		-	success, statements which play upon the vanity or fears of the
889		-	public, or statements which promote or produce unfair
890		-	competition.
891		-	A dentist shall be required to keep a copy of all
892		-	advertisements for a period of 3 years. All advertisements in
893		-	the dentist's possession shall indicate the accurate date and
894		-	place of publication.
	391	+	SB2822 Enrolled- 12 -LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b SB2822 Enrolled - 12 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	392	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 12 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	393	+	1 the American Dental Association Commission on Dental
	394	+	2 Accreditation.
	395	+	3 When establishing requirements under this Section, the
	396	+	4 Department shall consider the current American Dental
	397	+	5 Association guidelines on sedation and general anesthesia, the
	398	+	6 current "Guidelines for Monitoring and Management of Pediatric
	399	+	7 Patients During and After Sedation for Diagnostic and
	400	+	8 Therapeutic Procedures" established by the American Academy of
	401	+	9 Pediatrics and the American Academy of Pediatric Dentistry,
	402	+	10 and the current parameters of care and Office Anesthesia
	403	+	11 Evaluation (OAE) Manual established by the American
	404	+	12 Association of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgeons.
	405	+	13 (c) A licensed dentist must hold an appropriate permit
	406	+	14 issued under this Section in order to perform dentistry while
	407	+	15 a nurse anesthetist administers moderate conscious sedation,
	408	+	16 and a valid written collaborative agreement must exist between
	409	+	17 the dentist and the nurse anesthetist, in accordance with the
	410	+	18 Nurse Practice Act.
	411	+	19 A licensed dentist must hold an appropriate permit issued
	412	+	20 under this Section in order to perform dentistry while a nurse
	413	+	21 anesthetist administers deep sedation or general anesthesia,
	414	+	22 and a valid written collaborative agreement must exist between
	415	+	23 the dentist and the nurse anesthetist, in accordance with the
	416	+	24 Nurse Practice Act.
	417	+	25 For the purposes of this subsection (c), "nurse
	418	+	26 anesthetist" means a licensed certified registered nurse
895	419
896	420
897		-	The Department shall adopt rules to carry out the intent
898		-	of this Section.
899		-	(Source: P.A. 99-329, eff. 1-1-16.)
	421	+
	422	+
	423	+
	424	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 12 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	425	+
	426	+
	427	+	SB2822 Enrolled- 13 -LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b SB2822 Enrolled - 13 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	428	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 13 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	429	+	1 anesthetist who holds a license as an advanced practice
	430	+	2 registered nurse.
	431	+	3 (Source: P.A. 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18;
	432	+	4 101-162, eff. 7-26-19.)
	433	+	5 (225 ILCS 25/17)
	434	+	6 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)
	435	+	7 Sec. 17. Acts constituting the practice of dentistry. A
	436	+	8 person practices dentistry, within the meaning of this Act:
	437	+	9 (1) Who represents himself or herself as being able to
	438	+	10 diagnose or diagnoses, treats, prescribes, or operates for
	439	+	11 any disease, pain, deformity, deficiency, injury, or
	440	+	12 physical condition of the human tooth, teeth, alveolar
	441	+	13 process, gums, or jaw; or
	442	+	14 (2) Who is a manager, proprietor, operator, or
	443	+	15 conductor of a business where dental operations are
	444	+	16 performed; or
	445	+	17 (3) Who performs dental operations of any kind; or
	446	+	18 (4) Who uses an X-Ray machine or X-Ray films for
	447	+	19 dental diagnostic purposes; or
	448	+	20 (5) Who extracts a human tooth or teeth, or corrects
	449	+	21 or attempts to correct malpositions of the human teeth or
	450	+	22 jaws; or
	451	+	23 (6) Who offers or undertakes, by any means or method,
	452	+	24 to diagnose, treat, or remove stains, calculus, and
	453	+	25 bonding materials from human teeth or jaws; or
	454	+
	455	+
	456	+
	457	+
	458	+
	459	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 13 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	460	+
	461	+
	462	+	SB2822 Enrolled- 14 -LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b SB2822 Enrolled - 14 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	463	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 14 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	464	+	1 (7) Who uses or administers local or general
	465	+	2 anesthetics in the treatment of dental or oral diseases or
	466	+	3 in any preparation incident to a dental operation of any
	467	+	4 kind or character; or
	468	+	5 (8) Who takes material or digital scans for final
	469	+	6 impressions of the human tooth, teeth, or jaws or performs
	470	+	7 any phase of any operation incident to the replacement of
	471	+	8 a part of a tooth, a tooth, teeth, or associated tissues by
	472	+	9 means of a filling, a crown, a bridge, a denture, or other
	473	+	10 appliance; or
	474	+	11 (9) Who offers to furnish, supply, construct,
	475	+	12 reproduce, or repair, or who furnishes, supplies,
	476	+	13 constructs, reproduces, or repairs, prosthetic dentures,
	477	+	14 bridges, or other substitutes for natural teeth, to the
	478	+	15 user or prospective user thereof; or
	479	+	16 (10) Who instructs students on clinical matters or
	480	+	17 performs any clinical operation included in the curricula
	481	+	18 of recognized dental schools and colleges; or
	482	+	19 (11) Who takes material or digital scans for final
	483	+	20 impressions of human teeth or places his or her hands in
	484	+	21 the mouth of any person for the purpose of applying teeth
	485	+	22 whitening materials, or who takes impressions of human
	486	+	23 teeth or places his or her hands in the mouth of any person
	487	+	24 for the purpose of assisting in the application of teeth
	488	+	25 whitening materials. A person does not practice dentistry
	489	+	26 when he or she discloses to the consumer that he or she is
	490	+
	491	+
	492	+
	493	+
	494	+
	495	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 14 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	496	+
	497	+
	498	+	SB2822 Enrolled- 15 -LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b SB2822 Enrolled - 15 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	499	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 15 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	500	+	1 not licensed as a dentist under this Act and (i) discusses
	501	+	2 the use of teeth whitening materials with a consumer
	502	+	3 purchasing these materials; (ii) provides instruction on
	503	+	4 the use of teeth whitening materials with a consumer
	504	+	5 purchasing these materials; or (iii) provides appropriate
	505	+	6 equipment on-site to the consumer for the consumer to
	506	+	7 self-apply teeth whitening materials.
	507	+	8 The fact that any person engages in or performs, or offers
	508	+	9 to engage in or perform, any of the practices, acts, or
	509	+	10 operations set forth in this Section, shall be prima facie
	510	+	11 evidence that such person is engaged in the practice of
	511	+	12 dentistry.
	512	+	13 The following practices, acts, and operations, however,
	513	+	14 are exempt from the operation of this Act:
	514	+	15 (a) The rendering of dental relief in emergency cases
	515	+	16 in the practice of his or her profession by a physician or
	516	+	17 surgeon, licensed as such under the laws of this State,
	517	+	18 unless he or she undertakes to reproduce or reproduces
	518	+	19 lost parts of the human teeth in the mouth or to restore or
	519	+	20 replace lost or missing teeth in the mouth; or
	520	+	21 (b) The practice of dentistry in the discharge of
	521	+	22 their official duties by dentists in any branch of the
	522	+	23 Armed Services of the United States, the United States
	523	+	24 Public Health Service, or the United States Veterans
	524	+	25 Administration; or
	525	+	26 (c) The practice of dentistry by students in their
	526	+
	527	+
	528	+
	529	+
	530	+
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	532	+
	533	+
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	535	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 16 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	536	+	1 course of study in dental schools or colleges approved by
	537	+	2 the Department, when acting under the direction and
	538	+	3 supervision of dentists acting as instructors; or
	539	+	4 (d) The practice of dentistry by clinical instructors
	540	+	5 in the course of their teaching duties in dental schools
	541	+	6 or colleges approved by the Department:
	542	+	7 (i) when acting under the direction and
	543	+	8 supervision of dentists, provided that such clinical
	544	+	9 instructors have instructed continuously in this State
	545	+	10 since January 1, 1986; or
	546	+	11 (ii) when holding the rank of full professor at
	547	+	12 such approved dental school or college and possessing
	548	+	13 a current valid license or authorization to practice
	549	+	14 dentistry in another country; or
	550	+	15 (e) The practice of dentistry by licensed dentists of
	551	+	16 other states or countries at meetings of the Illinois
	552	+	17 State Dental Society or component parts thereof, alumni
	553	+	18 meetings of dental colleges, or any other like dental
	554	+	19 organizations, while appearing as clinicians; or
	555	+	20 (f) The use of X-Ray machines for exposing X-Ray films
	556	+	21 of dental or oral tissues by dental hygienists or dental
	557	+	22 assistants; or
	558	+	23 (g) The performance of any dental service by a dental
	559	+	24 assistant, if such service is performed under the
	560	+	25 supervision and full responsibility of a dentist. In
	561	+	26 addition, after being authorized by a dentist, a dental
	562	+
	563	+
	564	+
	565	+
	566	+
	567	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 16 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	568	+
	569	+
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	571	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 17 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	572	+	1 assistant may, for the purpose of eliminating pain or
	573	+	2 discomfort, remove loose, broken, or irritating
	574	+	3 orthodontic appliances on a patient of record.
	575	+	4 For purposes of this paragraph (g), "dental service"
	576	+	5 is defined to mean any intraoral procedure or act which
	577	+	6 shall be prescribed by rule or regulation of the
	578	+	7 Department. "Dental service", however, shall not include:
	579	+	8 (1) Any and all diagnosis of or prescription for
	580	+	9 treatment of disease, pain, deformity, deficiency,
	581	+	10 injury, or physical condition of the human teeth or
	582	+	11 jaws, or adjacent structures.
	583	+	12 (2) Removal of, restoration of, or addition to the
	584	+	13 hard or soft tissues of the oral cavity, except for the
	585	+	14 placing, carving, and finishing of amalgam
	586	+	15 restorations and placing, packing, and finishing
	587	+	16 composite restorations by dental assistants who have
	588	+	17 had additional formal education and certification.
	589	+	18 A dental assistant may place, carve, and finish
	590	+	19 amalgam restorations, place, pack, and finish
	591	+	20 composite restorations, and place interim restorations
	592	+	21 if he or she (A) has successfully completed a
	593	+	22 structured training program as described in item (2)
	594	+	23 of subsection (g) provided by an educational
	595	+	24 institution accredited by the Commission on Dental
	596	+	25 Accreditation, such as a dental school or dental
	597	+	26 hygiene or dental assistant program, or (B) has at
	598	+
	599	+
	600	+
	601	+
	602	+
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	604	+
	605	+
	606	+	SB2822 Enrolled- 18 -LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b SB2822 Enrolled - 18 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	607	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 18 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	608	+	1 least 4,000 hours of direct clinical patient care
	609	+	2 experience and has successfully completed a structured
	610	+	3 training program as described in item (2) of
	611	+	4 subsection (g) provided by a statewide dental
	612	+	5 association, approved by the Department to provide
	613	+	6 continuing education, that has developed and conducted
	614	+	7 training programs for expanded functions for dental
	615	+	8 assistants or hygienists. The training program must:
	616	+	9 (i) include a minimum of 16 hours of didactic study and
	617	+	10 14 hours of clinical manikin instruction; all training
	618	+	11 programs shall include areas of study in nomenclature,
	619	+	12 caries classifications, oral anatomy, periodontium,
	620	+	13 basic occlusion, instrumentations, pulp protection
	621	+	14 liners and bases, dental materials, matrix and wedge
	622	+	15 techniques, amalgam placement and carving, rubber dam
	623	+	16 clamp placement, and rubber dam placement and removal;
	624	+	17 (ii) include an outcome assessment examination that
	625	+	18 demonstrates competency; (iii) require the supervising
	626	+	19 dentist to observe and approve the completion of 8
	627	+	20 amalgam or composite restorations; and (iv) issue a
	628	+	21 certificate of completion of the training program,
	629	+	22 which must be kept on file at the dental office and be
	630	+	23 made available to the Department upon request. A
	631	+	24 dental assistant must have successfully completed an
	632	+	25 approved coronal polishing and dental sealant course
	633	+	26 prior to taking the amalgam and composite restoration
	634	+
	635	+
	636	+
	637	+
	638	+
	639	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 18 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	640	+
	641	+
	642	+	SB2822 Enrolled- 19 -LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b SB2822 Enrolled - 19 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	643	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 19 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	644	+	1 course.
	645	+	2 A dentist utilizing dental assistants shall not
	646	+	3 supervise more than 4 dental assistants at any one
	647	+	4 time for placing, carving, and finishing of amalgam
	648	+	5 restorations or for placing, packing, and finishing
	649	+	6 composite restorations.
	650	+	7 (3) Any and all correction of malformation of
	651	+	8 teeth or of the jaws.
	652	+	9 (4) Administration of anesthetics, except for
	653	+	10 monitoring of nitrous oxide, moderate conscious
	654	+	11 sedation, deep sedation, and general anesthetic as
	655	+	12 provided in Section 8.1 of this Act, that may be
	656	+	13 performed only after successful completion of a
	657	+	14 training program approved by the Department. A dentist
	658	+	15 utilizing dental assistants shall not supervise more
	659	+	16 than 4 dental assistants at any one time for the
	660	+	17 monitoring of nitrous oxide.
	661	+	18 (5) Removal of calculus from human teeth.
	662	+	19 (6) Taking of material or digital scans for final
	663	+	20 impressions for the fabrication of prosthetic
	664	+	21 appliances, crowns, bridges, inlays, onlays, or other
	665	+	22 restorative or replacement dentistry.
	666	+	23 (7) The operative procedure of dental hygiene
	667	+	24 consisting of oral prophylactic procedures, except for
	668	+	25 coronal polishing and pit and fissure sealants, which
	669	+	26 may be performed by a dental assistant who has
	670	+
	671	+
	672	+
	673	+
	674	+
	675	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 19 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	676	+
	677	+
	678	+	SB2822 Enrolled- 20 -LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b SB2822 Enrolled - 20 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	679	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 20 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	680	+	1 successfully completed a training program approved by
	681	+	2 the Department. Dental assistants may perform coronal
	682	+	3 polishing under the following circumstances: (i) the
	683	+	4 coronal polishing shall be limited to polishing the
	684	+	5 clinical crown of the tooth and existing restorations,
	685	+	6 supragingivally; (ii) the dental assistant performing
	686	+	7 the coronal polishing shall be limited to the use of
	687	+	8 rotary instruments using a rubber cup or brush
	688	+	9 polishing method (air polishing is not permitted); and
	689	+	10 (iii) the supervising dentist shall not supervise more
	690	+	11 than 4 dental assistants at any one time for the task
	691	+	12 of coronal polishing or pit and fissure sealants.
	692	+	13 In addition to coronal polishing and pit and
	693	+	14 fissure sealants as described in this item (7), a
	694	+	15 dental assistant who has at least 2,000 hours of
	695	+	16 direct clinical patient care experience and who has
	696	+	17 successfully completed a structured training program
	697	+	18 provided by (1) an educational institution including,
	698	+	19 but not limited to, a dental school or dental hygiene
	699	+	20 or dental assistant program, (2) a continuing
	700	+	21 education provider approved by the Department, or (3)
	701	+	22 a statewide dental or dental hygienist association
	702	+	23 that has developed and conducted a training program
	703	+	24 for expanded functions for dental assistants or
	704	+	25 hygienists may perform: (A) coronal scaling above the
	705	+	26 gum line, supragingivally, on the clinical crown of
	706	+
	707	+
	708	+
	709	+
	710	+
	711	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 20 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	712	+
	713	+
	714	+	SB2822 Enrolled- 21 -LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b SB2822 Enrolled - 21 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	715	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 21 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	716	+	1 the tooth only on patients 17 years of age or younger
	717	+	2 who have an absence of periodontal disease and who are
	718	+	3 not medically compromised or individuals with special
	719	+	4 needs and (B) intracoronal temporization of a tooth.
	720	+	5 The training program must: (I) include a minimum of 32
	721	+	6 hours of instruction in both didactic and clinical
	722	+	7 manikin or human subject instruction; all training
	723	+	8 programs shall include areas of study in dental
	724	+	9 anatomy, public health dentistry, medical history,
	725	+	10 dental emergencies, and managing the pediatric
	726	+	11 patient; (II) include an outcome assessment
	727	+	12 examination that demonstrates competency; (III)
	728	+	13 require the supervising dentist to observe and approve
	729	+	14 the completion of 6 full mouth supragingival scaling
	730	+	15 procedures unless the training was received as part of
	731	+	16 a Commission on Dental Accreditation approved dental
	732	+	17 assistant program; and (IV) issue a certificate of
	733	+	18 completion of the training program, which must be kept
	734	+	19 on file at the dental office and be made available to
	735	+	20 the Department upon request. A dental assistant must
	736	+	21 have successfully completed an approved coronal
	737	+	22 polishing course prior to taking the coronal scaling
	738	+	23 course. A dental assistant performing these functions
	739	+	24 shall be limited to the use of hand instruments only.
	740	+	25 In addition, coronal scaling as described in this
	741	+	26 paragraph shall only be utilized on patients who are
	742	+
	743	+
	744	+
	745	+
	746	+
	747	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 21 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	748	+
	749	+
	750	+	SB2822 Enrolled- 22 -LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b SB2822 Enrolled - 22 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	751	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 22 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	752	+	1 eligible for Medicaid, who are uninsured, or whose
	753	+	2 household income is not greater than 300% of the
	754	+	3 federal poverty level. A dentist may not supervise
	755	+	4 more than 2 dental assistants at any one time for the
	756	+	5 task of coronal scaling. This paragraph is inoperative
	757	+	6 on and after January 1, 2026.
	758	+	7 The limitations on the number of dental assistants a
	759	+	8 dentist may supervise contained in items (2), (4), and (7)
	760	+	9 of this paragraph (g) mean a limit of 4 total dental
	761	+	10 assistants or dental hygienists doing expanded functions
	762	+	11 covered by these Sections being supervised by one dentist;
	763	+	12 or
	764	+	13 (h) The practice of dentistry by an individual who:
	765	+	14 (i) has applied in writing to the Department, in
	766	+	15 form and substance satisfactory to the Department, for
	767	+	16 a general dental license and has complied with all
	768	+	17 provisions of Section 9 of this Act, except for the
	769	+	18 passage of the examination specified in subsection (e)
	770	+	19 of Section 9 of this Act; or
	771	+	20 (ii) has applied in writing to the Department, in
	772	+	21 form and substance satisfactory to the Department, for
	773	+	22 a temporary dental license and has complied with all
	774	+	23 provisions of subsection (c) of Section 11 of this
	775	+	24 Act; and
	776	+	25 (iii) has been accepted or appointed for specialty
	777	+	26 or residency training by a hospital situated in this
	778	+
	779	+
	780	+
	781	+
	782	+
	783	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 22 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	784	+
	785	+
	786	+	SB2822 Enrolled- 23 -LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b SB2822 Enrolled - 23 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	787	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 23 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	788	+	1 State; or
	789	+	2 (iv) has been accepted or appointed for specialty
	790	+	3 training in an approved dental program situated in
	791	+	4 this State; or
	792	+	5 (v) has been accepted or appointed for specialty
	793	+	6 training in a dental public health agency situated in
	794	+	7 this State.
	795	+	8 The applicant shall be permitted to practice dentistry
	796	+	9 for a period of 3 months from the starting date of the
	797	+	10 program, unless authorized in writing by the Department to
	798	+	11 continue such practice for a period specified in writing
	799	+	12 by the Department.
	800	+	13 The applicant shall only be entitled to perform such
	801	+	14 acts as may be prescribed by and incidental to his or her
	802	+	15 program of residency or specialty training and shall not
	803	+	16 otherwise engage in the practice of dentistry in this
	804	+	17 State.
	805	+	18 The authority to practice shall terminate immediately
	806	+	19 upon:
	807	+	20 (1) the decision of the Department that the
	808	+	21 applicant has failed the examination; or
	809	+	22 (2) denial of licensure by the Department; or
	810	+	23 (3) withdrawal of the application.
	811	+	24 (Source: P.A. 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-936, eff. 1-1-23;
	812	+	25 103-425, eff. 1-1-24; 103-431, eff. 1-1-24; revised 12-15-23.)
	813	+
	814	+
	815	+
	816	+
	817	+
	818	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 23 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	819	+
	820	+
	821	+	SB2822 Enrolled- 24 -LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b SB2822 Enrolled - 24 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	822	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 24 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	823	+	1 (225 ILCS 25/19.2)
	824	+	2 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)
	825	+	3 Sec. 19.2. Temporary permit for free dental care.
	826	+	4 (a) Upon Board recommendation, the Department may issue a
	827	+	5 temporary permit authorizing the practice in this State,
	828	+	6 without compensation, of dentistry to an applicant who is
	829	+	7 licensed to practice dentistry in another state, if all of the
	830	+	8 following apply:
	831	+	9 (1) the Department determines that the applicant's
	832	+	10 services will improve the welfare of Illinois residents
	833	+	11 who are eligible for Medicaid or who are uninsured and
	834	+	12 whose household income is not greater than 200% of the
	835	+	13 federal poverty level;
	836	+	14 (2) the applicant has graduated from a dental program
	837	+	15 approved by the American Dental Association's Commission
	838	+	16 on Dental Accreditation and maintains an equivalent
	839	+	17 authorization to practice dentistry in good standing in
	840	+	18 his or her native licensing jurisdiction during the period
	841	+	19 of the temporary visiting dentist permit and can furnish
	842	+	20 the Department a certified letter upon request from that
	843	+	21 jurisdiction attesting to the fact that the applicant has
	844	+	22 no pending action or violations against his or her
	845	+	23 license;
	846	+	24 (3) the applicant has received an invitation to
	847	+	25 perform dental care by a charitable organization or has
	848	+	26 received an invitation to study or receive training on
	849	+
	850	+
	851	+
	852	+
	853	+
	854	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 24 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	855	+
	856	+
	857	+	SB2822 Enrolled- 25 -LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b SB2822 Enrolled - 25 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	858	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 25 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	859	+	1 specific dental or clinical subjects or techniques by a
	860	+	2 licensed continuing education sponsor who is approved by
	861	+	3 the Department to provide clinical training in the State
	862	+	4 of Illinois on patients for the welfare of Illinois
	863	+	5 residents pursuant to subsection (a-5) and is in
	864	+	6 compliance with the provisions of this Act;
	865	+	7 (4) the applicant will be working pursuant to a
	866	+	8 collaborative agreement with and under the direct
	867	+	9 supervision of an Illinois licensed dentist, who is in
	868	+	10 good standing, during the duration of the program. The
	869	+	11 supervising dentist must be physically present during all
	870	+	12 clinical training courses; and
	871	+	13 (5) payment of a fee established by rule.
	872	+	14 The Department may adopt rules to implement this
	873	+	15 subsection.
	874	+	16 (a-5) Upon Board recommendation, after the filing of an
	875	+	17 application, the Department may allow approved continuing
	876	+	18 education sponsors to be licensed to provide live patient
	877	+	19 continuing education clinical training courses if the
	878	+	20 following requirements are met:
	879	+	21 (1) the continuing education course provides services,
	880	+	22 without compensation, that will improve the welfare of
	881	+	23 Illinois residents as described in paragraph (1) of
	882	+	24 subsection (a). The application to the Board must include
	883	+	25 the following information for review and approval by the
	884	+	26 Department:
	885	+
	886	+
	887	+
	888	+
	889	+
	890	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 25 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	891	+
	892	+
	893	+	SB2822 Enrolled- 26 -LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b SB2822 Enrolled - 26 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	894	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 26 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	895	+	1 (i) a plan of follow-up care and training models;
	896	+	2 (ii) any and all documentation to be signed by the
	897	+	3 patients, including, but not limited to, waivers,
	898	+	4 consent forms, and releases;
	899	+	5 (iii) information related to the facilities being
	900	+	6 utilized, staffing plans, and emergency plans;
	901	+	7 (iv) the process by which patients will be
	902	+	8 contacted before, during, and after treatment;
	903	+	9 (v) the intended population that will be receiving
	904	+	10 treatment; and
	905	+	11 (vi) proof of valid malpractice insurance for the
	906	+	12 approved continuing education sponsor that extends
	907	+	13 coverage to clinical staff, trainees, and out-of-state
	908	+	14 permit holders that meet the requirements of
	909	+	15 subsection (a);
	910	+	16 (2) a valid written collaborative agreement must exist
	911	+	17 between the temporary visiting dentist and the Illinois
	912	+	18 licensed dentist co-treating patients under this Section.
	913	+	19 The collaborative agreement must include a description of
	914	+	20 the care to be provided and procedures to be performed by
	915	+	21 the temporary visiting dentist. There shall be no more
	916	+	22 than 5 trainees per supervising dentist. A copy of this
	917	+	23 agreement shall become part of the patient's dental record
	918	+	24 and shall be made available upon request to the
	919	+	25 Department; and
	920	+	26 (3) payment of a fee established by rule.
	921	+
	922	+
	923	+
	924	+
	925	+
	926	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 26 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	927	+
	928	+
	929	+	SB2822 Enrolled- 27 -LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b SB2822 Enrolled - 27 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	930	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 27 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	931	+	1 A continuing education sponsor license issued under this
	932	+	2 Section shall be valid for a period of time as provided by
	933	+	3 rule.
	934	+	4 The Department shall adopt rules to implement this
	935	+	5 subsection.
	936	+	6 (b) (Blank).
	937	+	7 (c) A temporary permit shall be valid for no longer than 5
	938	+	8 consecutive clinical days within 6 months from the date of
	939	+	9 issuance. The temporary permit may be issued once per year to a
	940	+	10 visiting dentist. Temporary permits under subsection (a) may
	941	+	11 be restored no more than one time within 5 years of the initial
	942	+	12 permits issuance. The Department may require an applicant to
	943	+	13 pay a fee for the issuance or restoration of a permit under
	944	+	14 this Section.
	945	+	15 (d) (Blank).
	946	+	16 (e) The temporary permit shall only permit the holder to
	947	+	17 practice dentistry within the scope of the dental studies and
	948	+	18 in conjunction with one of the following:
	949	+	19 (1) the charitable organization; or
	950	+	20 (2) a continuing education program provided by a
	951	+	21 continuing education sponsor approved by the Department
	952	+	22 pursuant to this Section that the permit holder is
	953	+	23 attending.
	954	+	24 (f) The temporary visiting dentist may not administer
	955	+	25 moderate conscious sedation, deep sedation, or general
	956	+	26 anesthesia.
	957	+
	958	+
	959	+
	960	+
	961	+
	962	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 27 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	963	+
	964	+
	965	+	SB2822 Enrolled- 28 -LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b SB2822 Enrolled - 28 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	966	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 28 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	967	+	1 (g) A patient who seeks treatment from a temporary
	968	+	2 visiting dentist must sign a consent form acknowledging that
	969	+	3 the care the patient will receive will be provided by a dentist
	970	+	4 not licensed in the State of Illinois and that the Illinois
	971	+	5 licensed dentist who has the collaborative agreement with the
	972	+	6 temporary visiting dentist will be responsible for all the
	973	+	7 follow-up care associated with the treatment rendered to the
	974	+	8 patient.
	975	+	9 (h) An application for the temporary permit shall be made
	976	+	10 to the Department in writing on forms prescribed by the
	977	+	11 Department and shall be accompanied by a nonrefundable fee
	978	+	12 established by rule.
	979	+	13 (i) An applicant for a temporary permit may be requested
	980	+	14 to appear before the Board to respond to questions concerning
	981	+	15 the applicant's qualifications to receive the permit. An
	982	+	16 applicant's refusal to appear before the Board may be grounds
	983	+	17 for denial of the application by the Department.
	984	+	18 (j) The Secretary may summarily cancel any permit or
	985	+	19 license issued pursuant to this Section without a hearing if
	986	+	20 the Secretary finds that evidence in his or her possession
	987	+	21 indicates that a continuing education sponsor licensed under
	988	+	22 this Section or a temporary permit holder's continuation in
	989	+	23 practice would constitute an imminent danger to the public or
	990	+	24 violate any provision of this Act or its rules. If the
	991	+	25 Secretary summarily cancels a permit or license issued
	992	+	26 pursuant to this Section, the permit holder or licensee may
	993	+
	994	+
	995	+
	996	+
	997	+
	998	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 28 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	999	+
	1000	+
	1001	+	SB2822 Enrolled- 29 -LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b SB2822 Enrolled - 29 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	1002	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 29 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	1003	+	1 petition the Department for a hearing in accordance with the
	1004	+	2 provisions of subsection (b) of Section 26 of this Act to
	1005	+	3 reinstate his or her permit or license.
	1006	+	4 (k) In addition to terminating any permit or license
	1007	+	5 issued pursuant to this Section, the Department may impose a
	1008	+	6 monetary penalty not to exceed $10,000 upon the temporary
	1009	+	7 permit holder or licensee and may notify any state in which the
	1010	+	8 temporary permit holder or licensee has been issued a license
	1011	+	9 that his or her Illinois permit or license has been terminated
	1012	+	10 and the reasons for the termination. The monetary penalty
	1013	+	11 shall be paid within 60 days after the effective date of the
	1014	+	12 order imposing the penalty. The order shall constitute a
	1015	+	13 judgment and may be filed and execution had thereon in the same
	1016	+	14 manner as any judgment from any court of record. It is the
	1017	+	15 intent of the General Assembly that a permit or license issued
	1018	+	16 pursuant to this Section shall be considered a privilege and
	1019	+	17 not a property right.
	1020	+	18 (Source: P.A. 102-582, eff. 1-1-22.)
	1021	+	19 (225 ILCS 25/45) (from Ch. 111, par. 2345)
	1022	+	20 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)
	1023	+	21 Sec. 45. Advertising. The purpose of this Section is to
	1024	+	22 authorize and regulate the advertisement by dentists of
	1025	+	23 information which is intended to provide the public with a
	1026	+	24 sufficient basis upon which to make an informed selection of
	1027	+	25 dentists while protecting the public from false or misleading
	1028	+
	1029	+
	1030	+
	1031	+
	1032	+
	1033	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 29 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	1034	+
	1035	+
	1036	+	SB2822 Enrolled- 30 -LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b SB2822 Enrolled - 30 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	1037	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 30 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	1038	+	1 advertisements which would detract from the fair and rational
	1039	+	2 selection process.
	1040	+	3 Any dentist may advertise the availability of dental
	1041	+	4 services in the public media or on the premises where such
	1042	+	5 dental services are rendered. Such advertising shall be
	1043	+	6 limited to the following information:
	1044	+	7 (a) The dental services available;
	1045	+	8 (b) Publication of the dentist's name, title, office
	1046	+	9 hours, address and telephone;
	1047	+	10 (c) Information pertaining to his or her area of
	1048	+	11 specialization, including appropriate board certification
	1049	+	12 or limitation of professional practice;
	1050	+	13 (d) Information on usual and customary fees for
	1051	+	14 routine dental services offered, which information shall
	1052	+	15 include notification that fees may be adjusted due to
	1053	+	16 complications or unforeseen circumstances;
	1054	+	17 (e) Announcement of the opening of, change of, absence
	1055	+	18 from, or return to business;
	1056	+	19 (f) Announcement of additions to or deletions from
	1057	+	20 professional dental staff;
	1058	+	21 (g) The issuance of business or appointment cards;
	1059	+	22 (h) Other information about the dentist, dentist's
	1060	+	23 practice or the types of dental services which the dentist
	1061	+	24 offers to perform which a reasonable person might regard
	1062	+	25 as relevant in determining whether to seek the dentist's
	1063	+	26 services. However, any advertisement which announces the
	1064	+
	1065	+
	1066	+
	1067	+
	1068	+
	1069	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 30 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	1070	+
	1071	+
	1072	+	SB2822 Enrolled- 31 -LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b SB2822 Enrolled - 31 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	1073	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 31 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	1074	+	1 availability of endodontics, pediatric dentistry,
	1075	+	2 periodontics, prosthodontics, orthodontics and
	1076	+	3 dentofacial orthopedics, oral and maxillofacial surgery,
	1077	+	4 or oral and maxillofacial radiology by a general dentist
	1078	+	5 or by a licensed specialist who is not licensed in that
	1079	+	6 specialty shall include a disclaimer stating that the
	1080	+	7 dentist does not hold a license in that specialty.
	1081	+	8 Any dental practice with more than one location that
	1082	+	9 enrolls its dentist as a participating provider in a managed
	1083	+	10 care plan's network must verify electronically or in writing
	1084	+	11 to the managed care plan whether the provider is accepting new
	1085	+	12 patients at each of the specific locations listing the
	1086	+	13 provider. The health plan shall remove the provider from the
	1087	+	14 directory in accordance with standard practices within 10
	1088	+	15 business days after being notified of the changes by the
	1089	+	16 provider. Nothing in this paragraph shall void any contractual
	1090	+	17 relationship between the provider and the plan.
	1091	+	18 It is unlawful for any dentist licensed under this Act to
	1092	+	19 do any of the following:
	1093	+	20 (1) Use claims of superior quality of care to entice
	1094	+	21 the public.
	1095	+	22 (2) Advertise in any way to practice dentistry without
	1096	+	23 causing pain.
	1097	+	24 (3) Pay a fee to any dental referral service or other
	1098	+	25 third party who advertises a dental referral service,
	1099	+	26 unless all advertising of the dental referral service
	1100	+
	1101	+
	1102	+
	1103	+
	1104	+
	1105	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 31 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	1106	+
	1107	+
	1108	+	SB2822 Enrolled- 32 -LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b SB2822 Enrolled - 32 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	1109	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 32 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	1110	+	1 makes it clear that dentists are paying a fee for that
	1111	+	2 referral service.
	1112	+	3 (4) Advertise or offer gifts as an inducement to
	1113	+	4 secure dental patronage. Dentists may advertise or offer
	1114	+	5 free examinations or free dental services; it shall be
	1115	+	6 unlawful, however, for any dentist to charge a fee to any
	1116	+	7 new patient for any dental service provided at the time
	1117	+	8 that such free examination or free dental services are
	1118	+	9 provided.
	1119	+	10 (5) Use the term "sedation dentistry" or similar terms
	1120	+	11 in advertising unless the advertising dentist holds a
	1121	+	12 valid and current permit issued by the Department to
	1122	+	13 administer either general anesthesia, deep sedation, or
	1123	+	14 moderate conscious sedation as required under Section 8.1
	1124	+	15 of this Act.
	1125	+	16 This Act does not authorize the advertising of dental
	1126	+	17 services when the offeror of such services is not a dentist.
	1127	+	18 Nor shall the dentist use statements which contain false,
	1128	+	19 fraudulent, deceptive or misleading material or guarantees of
	1129	+	20 success, statements which play upon the vanity or fears of the
	1130	+	21 public, or statements which promote or produce unfair
	1131	+	22 competition.
	1132	+	23 A dentist shall be required to keep a copy of all
	1133	+	24 advertisements for a period of 3 years. All advertisements in
	1134	+	25 the dentist's possession shall indicate the accurate date and
	1135	+	26 place of publication.
	1136	+
	1137	+
	1138	+
	1139	+
	1140	+
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	1142	+
	1143	+
	1144	+	SB2822 Enrolled- 33 -LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b SB2822 Enrolled - 33 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	1145	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 33 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b
	1146	+	1 The Department shall adopt rules to carry out the intent
	1147	+	2 of this Section.
	1148	+	3 (Source: P.A. 99-329, eff. 1-1-16.)
	1149	+
	1150	+
	1151	+
	1152	+
	1153	+
	1154	+	SB2822 Enrolled - 33 - LRB103 36437 AWJ 66539 b