Indiana 2025 Regular Session

Indiana Senate Bill SB0419 Compare Versions

Version 1 (Old)

Version 2 (New)

Old	New		Differences
1		-	SB0419.2
2		-	Reprinted
3		-	February 18, 2025
	1	+	SB0419.1
	2	+	February 14, 2025
4	3		SENATE BILL No. 419
5	4		_____
6		-	DIGEST OF SB 419 (Updated February 17, 2025 3:11 pm - DI 106)
	5	+	DIGEST OF SB 419 (Updated February 11, 2025 1:04 pm - DI 106)
7	6		Citations Affected: IC 5-2; IC 5-14; IC 27-10; IC 35-31.5;
8		-	IC 35-40.5; IC 35-42.
	7	+	IC 35-40.5; IC 35-42; IC 35-44.1; IC 35-45; IC 35-46.
9	8		Synopsis: Crimes against health care providers. Defines "health care
10	9		provider". Provides that the offense of battery is a Level 6 felony if it
11		-	is committed against a health care provider, and a Level 5 felony if it
12		-	is committed against a health care provider by placing bodily fluids or
13		-	waste on the health care provider.
	10	+	is committed against a health care provider while the health care
	11	+	provider is acting within the scope of the health care provider's duties.
	12	+	Provides that the offense of battery is a Level 5 felony if it is committed
	13	+	against a health care provider while the health care provider is acting
	14	+	within the scope of the health care provider's duties and: (1) it results
	15	+	in bodily injury to the health care provider; or (2) the person places
	16	+	bodily fluids or waste on the health care provider. Provides that the
	17	+	offense of intimidation is a Level 5 felony if the subject of the threat or
	18	+	the person to whom the threat is communicated is a health care
	19	+	provider and the threat relates to the person's status as a health care
	20	+	provider. Provides, for purposes of criminal statutes regarding offenses
	21	+	involving critical infrastructure, that a communications services facility
	22	+	includes wires and equipment used to provide communications service
	23	+	to a customer. Makes conforming changes.
14	24		Effective: July 1, 2025.
15	25		Carrasco, Johnson T, Walker K,
16	26		Ford J.D., Alting, Doriot, Niezgodski,
17		-	Bohacek~~, Randolph Lonnie M~~
	27	+	Bohacek
18	28		January 13, 2025, read first time and referred to Committee on Corrections and Criminal
19	29		Law.
20	30		February 13, 2025, amended, reported favorably — Do Pass.
21		-	February 17, 2025, read second time, amended, ordered engrossed.
22		-	SB 419—LS 6704/DI 149 Reprinted
23		-	February 18, 2025
	31	+	SB 419—LS 6704/DI 149 February 14, 2025
24	32		First Regular Session of the 124th General Assembly (2025)
25	33		PRINTING CODE. Amendments: Whenever an existing statute (or a section of the Indiana
26	34		Constitution) is being amended, the text of the existing provision will appear in this style type,
27	35		additions will appear in this style type, and deletions will appear in this style type.
28	36		Additions: Whenever a new statutory provision is being enacted (or a new constitutional
29	37		provision adopted), the text of the new provision will appear in this style type. Also, the
30	38		word NEW will appear in that style type in the introductory clause of each SECTION that adds
31	39		a new provision to the Indiana Code or the Indiana Constitution.
32	40		Conflict reconciliation: Text in a statute in this style type or this style type reconciles conflicts
33	41		between statutes enacted by the 2024 Regular Session of the General Assembly.
34	42		SENATE BILL No. 419
35	43		A BILL FOR AN ACT to amend the Indiana Code concerning
36	44		criminal law and procedure.
37	45		Be it enacted by the General Assembly of the State of Indiana:
38	46		1 SECTION 1. IC 5-2-22-1, AS AMENDED BY P.L.161-2018,
39	47		2 SECTION 11, IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE
40	48		3 JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 1. The following definitions apply throughout this
41	49		4 chapter:
42	50		5 (1) "Crime of child abuse" means:
43	51		6 (A) neglect of a dependent (IC 35-46-1-4) if the dependent is
44	52		7 a child and the offense is committed under:
45	53		8 (i) IC 35-46-1-4(a)(1);
46	54		9 (ii) IC 35-46-1-4(a)(2); or
47	55		10 (iii) IC 35-46-1-4(a)(3);
48	56		11 (B) child selling (IC 35-46-1-4(d));
49	57		12 (C) a sex offense (as defined in IC 11-8-8-5.2) committed
50	58		13 against a child; or
51	59		14 (D) battery against a child under:
52	60		15 (i) IC 35-42-2-1(e)(3) IC 35-42-2-1(f)(3) (battery on a
53	61		16 child);
54	62		17 (ii) IC 35-42-2-1(g)(5)(B) IC 35-42-2-1(h)(5)(B) (battery
55	63		SB 419—LS 6704/DI 149 2
56	64		1 causing bodily injury to a child);
57	65		2 (iii) IC 35-42-2-1(j) IC 35-42-2-1(k) (battery causing
58	66		3 serious bodily injury to a child); or
59	67		4 (iv) IC 35-42-2-1(k) IC 35-42-2-1(l) (battery resulting in the
60	68		5 death of a child).
61	69		6 (2) "Office" refers to the office of judicial administration created
62	70		7 under IC 33-24-6-1.
63	71		8 (3) "Registry" means the child abuse registry established under
64	72		9 section 2 of this chapter.
65	73		10 SECTION 2. IC 5-14-3-4, AS AMENDED BY P.L.104-2024,
66	74		11 SECTION 43, IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE
67	75		12 JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 4. (a) The following public records are excepted
68	76		13 from section 3 of this chapter and may not be disclosed by a public
69	77		14 agency, unless access to the records is specifically required by a state
70	78		15 or federal statute or is ordered by a court under the rules of discovery:
71	79		16 (1) Those declared confidential by state statute.
72	80		17 (2) Those declared confidential by rule adopted by a public
73	81		18 agency under specific authority to classify public records as
74	82		19 confidential granted to the public agency by statute.
75	83		20 (3) Those required to be kept confidential by federal law.
76	84		21 (4) Records containing trade secrets.
77	85		22 (5) Confidential financial information obtained, upon request,
78	86		23 from a person. However, this does not include information that is
79	87		24 filed with or received by a public agency pursuant to state statute.
80	88		25 (6) Information concerning research, including actual research
81	89		26 documents, conducted under the auspices of a state educational
82	90		27 institution, including information:
83	91		28 (A) concerning any negotiations made with respect to the
84	92		29 research; and
85	93		30 (B) received from another party involved in the research.
86	94		31 (7) Grade transcripts and license examination scores obtained as
87	95		32 part of a licensure process.
88	96		33 (8) Those declared confidential by or under rules adopted by the
89	97		34 supreme court of Indiana.
90	98		35 (9) Patient medical records and charts created by a provider,
91	99		36 unless the patient gives written consent under IC 16-39 or as
92	100		37 provided under IC 16-41-8.
93	101		38 (10) Application information declared confidential by the Indiana
94	102		39 economic development corporation under IC 5-28.
95	103		40 (11) A photograph, a video recording, or an audio recording of an
96	104		41 autopsy, except as provided in IC 36-2-14-10.
97	105		42 (12) A Social Security number contained in the records of a
98	106		SB 419—LS 6704/DI 149 3
99	107		1 public agency.
100	108		2 (13) The following information that is part of a foreclosure action
101	109		3 subject to IC 32-30-10.5:
102	110		4 (A) Contact information for a debtor, as described in
103	111		5 IC 32-30-10.5-8(d)(1)(B).
104	112		6 (B) Any document submitted to the court as part of the debtor's
105	113		7 loss mitigation package under IC 32-30-10.5-10(a)(3).
106	114		8 (14) The following information obtained from a call made to a
107	115		9 fraud hotline established under IC 36-1-8-8.5:
108	116		10 (A) The identity of any individual who makes a call to the
109	117		11 fraud hotline.
110	118		12 (B) A report, transcript, audio recording, or other information
111	119		13 concerning a call to the fraud hotline.
112	120		14 However, records described in this subdivision may be disclosed
113	121		15 to a law enforcement agency, a private university police
114	122		16 department, the attorney general, the inspector general, the state
115	123		17 examiner, or a prosecuting attorney.
116	124		18 (15) Information described in section 5(c)(3)(B) of this chapter
117	125		19 that is contained in a daily log or record described in section 5(c)
118	126		20 of this chapter for a victim of a crime or delinquent act who is less
119	127		21 than eighteen (18) years of age, unless and to the extent that:
120	128		22 (A) a parent, guardian, or custodian of the victim consents in
121	129		23 writing to public disclosure of the records; and
122	130		24 (B) that parent, guardian, or custodian of the victim has not
123	131		25 been charged with or convicted of committing a crime against
124	132		26 the victim.
125	133		27 However, records described in this subdivision may be disclosed
126	134		28 to the department of child services.
127	135		29 (b) Except as otherwise provided by subsection (a), the following
128	136		30 public records shall be excepted from section 3 of this chapter at the
129	137		31 discretion of a public agency:
130	138		32 (1) Investigatory records of law enforcement agencies or private
131	139		33 university police departments. For purposes of this chapter, a law
132	140		34 enforcement recording is not an investigatory record. However,
133	141		35 information described in subsection (a)(15) contained in a law
134	142		36 enforcement recording is exempt from disclosure, unless and to
135	143		37 the extent that a parent, guardian, or custodian of the victim
136	144		38 consents in writing to public disclosure of the records. However,
137	145		39 a parent, guardian, or custodian charged with or convicted of a
138	146		40 crime against the victim may not consent to public disclosure of
139	147		41 the records. Law enforcement agencies or private university
140	148		42 police departments may share investigatory records with:
141	149		SB 419—LS 6704/DI 149 4
142	150		1 (A) a person who advocates on behalf of a crime victim,
143	151		2 including a victim advocate (as defined in IC 35-37-6-3.5) or
144	152		3 a victim service provider (as defined in IC 35-37-6-5), for the
145	153		4 purposes of providing services to a victim or describing
146	154		5 services that may be available to a victim;
147	155		6 (B) a school corporation (as defined by IC 20-18-2-16(a)),
148	156		7 charter school (as defined by IC 20-24-1-4), or nonpublic
149	157		8 school (as defined by IC 20-18-2-12) for the purpose of
150	158		9 enhancing the safety or security of a student or a school
151	159		10 facility; and
152	160		11 (C) the victim services division of the Indiana criminal justice
153	161		12 institute under IC 5-2-6-8, for the purposes of conducting an
154	162		13 investigation under IC 5-2-6.1-26;
155	163		14 without the law enforcement agency or private university police
156	164		15 department losing its discretion to keep those records confidential
157	165		16 from other records requesters. However, certain law enforcement
158	166		17 records must be made available for inspection and copying as
159	167		18 provided in section 5 of this chapter.
160	168		19 (2) The work product of an attorney representing, pursuant to
161	169		20 state employment or an appointment by a public agency:
162	170		21 (A) a public agency;
163	171		22 (B) the state; or
164	172		23 (C) an individual.
165	173		24 (3) Test questions, scoring keys, and other examination data used
166	174		25 in administering a licensing examination, examination for
167	175		26 employment, or academic examination before the examination is
168	176		27 given or if it is to be given again.
169	177		28 (4) Scores of tests if the person is identified by name and has not
170	178		29 consented to the release of the person's scores.
171	179		30 (5) The following:
172	180		31 (A) Records relating to negotiations between:
173	181		32 (i) the Indiana economic development corporation;
174	182		33 (ii) the ports of Indiana;
175	183		34 (iii) the Indiana state department of agriculture;
176	184		35 (iv) the Indiana finance authority;
177	185		36 (v) an economic development commission;
178	186		37 (vi) the Indiana White River state park development
179	187		38 commission;
180	188		39 (vii) a local economic development organization that is a
181	189		40 nonprofit corporation established under state law whose
182	190		41 primary purpose is the promotion of industrial or business
183	191		42 development in Indiana, the retention or expansion of
184	192		SB 419—LS 6704/DI 149 5
185	193		1 Indiana businesses, or the development of entrepreneurial
186	194		2 activities in Indiana; or
187	195		3 (viii) a governing body of a political subdivision;
188	196		4 with industrial, research, or commercial prospects, if the
189	197		5 records are created while negotiations are in progress.
190	198		6 However, this clause does not apply to records regarding
191	199		7 research that is prohibited under IC 16-34.5-1-2 or any other
192	200		8 law.
193	201		9 (B) Notwithstanding clause (A), the terms of the final offer of
194	202		10 public financial resources communicated by the Indiana
195	203		11 economic development corporation, the ports of Indiana, the
196	204		12 Indiana finance authority, an economic development
197	205		13 commission, the Indiana White River state park development
198	206		14 commission, or a governing body of a political subdivision to
199	207		15 an industrial, a research, or a commercial prospect shall be
200	208		16 available for inspection and copying under section 3 of this
201	209		17 chapter after negotiations with that prospect have terminated.
202	210		18 (C) When disclosing a final offer under clause (B), the Indiana
203	211		19 economic development corporation shall certify that the
204	212		20 information being disclosed accurately and completely
205	213		21 represents the terms of the final offer.
206	214		22 (D) Notwithstanding clause (A), an incentive agreement with
207	215		23 an incentive recipient shall be available for inspection and
208	216		24 copying under section 3 of this chapter after the date the
209	217		25 incentive recipient and the Indiana economic development
210	218		26 corporation execute the incentive agreement regardless of
211	219		27 whether negotiations are in progress with the recipient after
212	220		28 that date regarding a modification or extension of the incentive
213	221		29 agreement.
214	222		30 (6) Records that are intra-agency or interagency advisory or
215	223		31 deliberative material, including material developed by a private
216	224		32 contractor under a contract with a public agency, that are
217	225		33 expressions of opinion or are of a speculative nature, and that are
218	226		34 communicated for the purpose of decision making.
219	227		35 (7) Diaries, journals, or other personal notes serving as the
220	228		36 functional equivalent of a diary or journal.
221	229		37 (8) Personnel files of public employees and files of applicants for
222	230		38 public employment, except for:
223	231		39 (A) the name, compensation, job title, business address,
224	232		40 business telephone number, job description, education and
225	233		41 training background, previous work experience, or dates of
226	234		42 first and last employment of present or former officers or
227	235		SB 419—LS 6704/DI 149 6
228	236		1 employees of the agency;
229	237		2 (B) information relating to the status of any formal charges
230	238		3 against the employee; and
231	239		4 (C) the factual basis for a disciplinary action in which final
232	240		5 action has been taken and that resulted in the employee being
233	241		6 suspended, demoted, or discharged.
234	242		7 However, all personnel file information shall be made available
235	243		8 to the affected employee or the employee's representative. This
236	244		9 subdivision does not apply to disclosure of personnel information
237	245		10 generally on all employees or for groups of employees without the
238	246		11 request being particularized by employee name.
239	247		12 (9) Minutes or records of hospital medical staff meetings.
240	248		13 (10) Administrative or technical information that would
241	249		14 jeopardize a record keeping system, voting system, voter
242	250		15 registration system, or security system.
243	251		16 (11) Computer programs, computer codes, computer filing
244	252		17 systems, and other software that are owned by the public agency
245	253		18 or entrusted to it and portions of electronic maps entrusted to a
246	254		19 public agency by a utility.
247	255		20 (12) Records specifically prepared for discussion or developed
248	256		21 during discussion in an executive session under IC 5-14-1.5-6.1.
249	257		22 However, this subdivision does not apply to that information
250	258		23 required to be available for inspection and copying under
251	259		24 subdivision (8).
252	260		25 (13) The work product of the legislative services agency under
253	261		26 personnel rules approved by the legislative council.
254	262		27 (14) The work product of individual members and the partisan
255	263		28 staffs of the general assembly.
256	264		29 (15) The identity of a donor of a gift made to a public agency if:
257	265		30 (A) the donor requires nondisclosure of the donor's identity as
258	266		31 a condition of making the gift; or
259	267		32 (B) after the gift is made, the donor or a member of the donor's
260	268		33 family requests nondisclosure.
261	269		34 (16) Library or archival records:
262	270		35 (A) which can be used to identify any library patron; or
263	271		36 (B) deposited with or acquired by a library upon a condition
264	272		37 that the records be disclosed only:
265	273		38 (i) to qualified researchers;
266	274		39 (ii) after the passing of a period of years that is specified in
267	275		40 the documents under which the deposit or acquisition is
268	276		41 made; or
269	277		42 (iii) after the death of persons specified at the time of the
270	278		SB 419—LS 6704/DI 149 7
271	279		1 acquisition or deposit.
272	280		2 However, nothing in this subdivision shall limit or affect contracts
273	281		3 entered into by the Indiana state library pursuant to IC 4-1-6-8.
274	282		4 (17) The identity of any person who contacts the bureau of motor
275	283		5 vehicles concerning the ability of a driver to operate a motor
276	284		6 vehicle safely and the medical records and evaluations made by
277	285		7 the bureau of motor vehicles staff or members of the driver
278	286		8 licensing medical advisory board regarding the ability of a driver
279	287		9 to operate a motor vehicle safely. However, upon written request
280	288		10 to the commissioner of the bureau of motor vehicles, the driver
281	289		11 must be given copies of the driver's medical records and
282	290		12 evaluations.
283	291		13 (18) School safety and security measures, plans, and systems,
284	292		14 including emergency preparedness plans developed under 511
285	293		15 IAC 6.1-2-2.5.
286	294		16 (19) A record or a part of a record, the public disclosure of which
287	295		17 would have a reasonable likelihood of threatening public safety
288	296		18 by exposing a vulnerability to terrorist attack. A record described
289	297		19 under this subdivision includes the following:
290	298		20 (A) A record assembled, prepared, or maintained to prevent,
291	299		21 mitigate, or respond to an act of terrorism under IC 35-47-12-1
292	300		22 (before its repeal), an act of agricultural terrorism under
293	301		23 IC 35-47-12-2 (before its repeal), or a felony terrorist offense
294	302		24 (as defined in IC 35-50-2-18).
295	303		25 (B) Vulnerability assessments.
296	304		26 (C) Risk planning documents.
297	305		27 (D) Needs assessments.
298	306		28 (E) Threat assessments.
299	307		29 (F) Intelligence assessments.
300	308		30 (G) Domestic preparedness strategies.
301	309		31 (H) The location of community drinking water wells and
302	310		32 surface water intakes.
303	311		33 (I) The emergency contact information of emergency
304	312		34 responders and volunteers.
305	313		35 (J) Infrastructure records that disclose the configuration of
306	314		36 critical systems such as voting system and voter registration
307	315		37 system critical infrastructure, and communication, electrical,
308	316		38 ventilation, water, and wastewater systems.
309	317		39 (K) Detailed drawings or specifications of structural elements,
310	318		40 floor plans, and operating, utility, or security systems, whether
311	319		41 in paper or electronic form, of any building or facility located
312	320		42 on an airport (as defined in IC 8-21-1-1) that is owned,
313	321		SB 419—LS 6704/DI 149 8
314	322		1 occupied, leased, or maintained by a public agency, or any part
315	323		2 of a law enforcement recording that captures information
316	324		3 about airport security procedures, areas, or systems. A record
317	325		4 described in this clause may not be released for public
318	326		5 inspection by any public agency without the prior approval of
319	327		6 the public agency that owns, occupies, leases, or maintains the
320	328		7 airport. Both of the following apply to the public agency that
321	329		8 owns, occupies, leases, or maintains the airport:
322	330		9 (i) The public agency is responsible for determining whether
323	331		10 the public disclosure of a record or a part of a record,
324	332		11 including a law enforcement recording, has a reasonable
325	333		12 likelihood of threatening public safety by exposing a
326	334		13 security procedure, area, system, or vulnerability to terrorist
327	335		14 attack.
328	336		15 (ii) The public agency must identify a record described
329	337		16 under item (i) and clearly mark the record as "confidential
330	338		17 and not subject to public disclosure under
331	339		18 IC 5-14-3-4(b)(19)(J) without approval of (insert name of
332	340		19 submitting public agency)". However, in the case of a law
333	341		20 enforcement recording, the public agency must clearly mark
334	342		21 the record as "confidential and not subject to public
335	343		22 disclosure under IC 5-14-3-4(b)(19)(K) without approval of
336	344		23 (insert name of the public agency that owns, occupies,
337	345		24 leases, or maintains the airport)".
338	346		25 (L) The home address, home telephone number, and
339	347		26 emergency contact information for any:
340	348		27 (i) emergency management worker (as defined in
341	349		28 IC 10-14-3-3);
342	350		29 (ii) public safety officer (as defined in IC 35-47-4.5-3);
343	351		30 (iii) emergency medical responder (as defined in
344	352		31 IC 16-18-2-109.8); or
345	353		32 (iv) advanced emergency medical technician (as defined in
346	354		33 IC 16-18-2-6.5).
347	355		34 (M) Information relating to security measures or precautions
348	356		35 used to secure the statewide 911 system under IC 36-8-16.7.
349	357		36 This subdivision does not apply to a record or portion of a record
350	358		37 pertaining to a location or structure owned or protected by a
351	359		38 public agency in the event that an act of terrorism under
352	360		39 IC 35-47-12-1 (before its repeal), an act of agricultural terrorism
353	361		40 under IC 35-47-12-2 (before its repeal), or a felony terrorist
354	362		41 offense (as defined in IC 35-50-2-18) has occurred at that location
355	363		42 or structure, unless release of the record or portion of the record
356	364		SB 419—LS 6704/DI 149 9
357	365		1 would have a reasonable likelihood of threatening public safety
358	366		2 by exposing a vulnerability of other locations or structures to
359	367		3 terrorist attack.
360	368		4 (20) The following personal information concerning a customer
361	369		5 of a municipally owned utility (as defined in IC 8-1-2-1):
362	370		6 (A) Telephone number.
363	371		7 (B) Address.
364	372		8 (C) Social Security number.
365	373		9 (21) The following personal information about a complainant
366	374		10 contained in records of a law enforcement agency:
367	375		11 (A) Telephone number.
368	376		12 (B) The complainant's address. However, if the complainant's
369	377		13 address is the location of the suspected crime, infraction,
370	378		14 accident, or complaint reported, the address shall be made
371	379		15 available for public inspection and copying.
372	380		16 (22) Notwithstanding subdivision (8)(A), the name,
373	381		17 compensation, job title, business address, business telephone
374	382		18 number, job description, education and training background,
375	383		19 previous work experience, or dates of first employment of a law
376	384		20 enforcement officer who is operating in an undercover capacity.
377	385		21 (23) Records requested by an offender, an agent, or a relative of
378	386		22 an offender that:
379	387		23 (A) contain personal information relating to:
380	388		24 (i) a correctional officer (as defined in IC 5-10-10-1.5);
381	389		25 (ii) a probation officer;
382	390		26 (iii) a community corrections officer;
383	391		27 (iv) a law enforcement officer (as defined in
384	392		28 IC 35-31.5-2-185);
385	393		29 (v) a judge (as defined in IC 33-38-12-3);
386	394		30 (vi) the victim of a crime; or
387	395		31 (vii) a family member of a correctional officer, probation
388	396		32 officer, community corrections officer, law enforcement
389	397		33 officer (as defined in IC 35-31.5-2-185), judge (as defined
390	398		34 in IC 33-38-12-3), or victim of a crime; or
391	399		35 (B) concern or could affect the security of a jail or correctional
392	400		36 facility.
393	401		37 For purposes of this subdivision, "agent" means a person who is
394	402		38 authorized by an offender to act on behalf of, or at the direction
395	403		39 of, the offender, and "relative" has the meaning set forth in
396	404		40 IC 35-42-2-1(b). IC 35-42-2-1(c). However, the term "agent"
397	405		41 does not include an attorney in good standing admitted to the
398	406		42 practice of law in Indiana.
399	407		SB 419—LS 6704/DI 149 10
400	408		1 (24) Information concerning an individual less than eighteen (18)
401	409		2 years of age who participates in a conference, meeting, program,
402	410		3 or activity conducted or supervised by a state educational
403	411		4 institution, including the following information regarding the
404	412		5 individual or the individual's parent or guardian:
405	413		6 (A) Name.
406	414		7 (B) Address.
407	415		8 (C) Telephone number.
408	416		9 (D) Electronic mail account address.
409	417		10 (25) Criminal intelligence information.
410	418		11 (26) The following information contained in a report of unclaimed
411	419		12 property under IC 32-34-1.5-18 or in a claim for unclaimed
412	420		13 property under IC 32-34-1.5-48:
413	421		14 (A) Date of birth.
414	422		15 (B) Driver's license number.
415	423		16 (C) Taxpayer identification number.
416	424		17 (D) Employer identification number.
417	425		18 (E) Account number.
418	426		19 (27) Except as provided in subdivision (19) and sections 5.1 and
419	427		20 5.2 of this chapter, a law enforcement recording. However, before
420	428		21 disclosing the recording, the public agency must comply with the
421	429		22 obscuring requirements of sections 5.1 and 5.2 of this chapter, if
422	430		23 applicable.
423	431		24 (28) Records relating to negotiations between a state educational
424	432		25 institution and another entity concerning the establishment of a
425	433		26 collaborative relationship or venture to advance the research,
426	434		27 engagement, or educational mission of the state educational
427	435		28 institution, if the records are created while negotiations are in
428	436		29 progress. The terms of the final offer of public financial resources
429	437		30 communicated by the state educational institution to an industrial,
430	438		31 a research, or a commercial prospect shall be available for
431	439		32 inspection and copying under section 3 of this chapter after
432	440		33 negotiations with that prospect have terminated. However, this
433	441		34 subdivision does not apply to records regarding research
434	442		35 prohibited under IC 16-34.5-1-2 or any other law.
435	443		36 (c) Nothing contained in subsection (b) shall limit or affect the right
436	444		37 of a person to inspect and copy a public record required or directed to
437	445		38 be made by any statute or by any rule of a public agency.
438	446		39 (d) Notwithstanding any other law, a public record that is classified
439	447		40 as confidential, other than a record concerning an adoption or patient
440	448		41 medical records, shall be made available for inspection and copying
441	449		42 seventy-five (75) years after the creation of that record.
442	450		SB 419—LS 6704/DI 149 11
443	451		1 (e) Only the content of a public record may form the basis for the
444	452		2 adoption by any public agency of a rule or procedure creating an
445	453		3 exception from disclosure under this section.
446	454		4 (f) Except as provided by law, a public agency may not adopt a rule
447	455		5 or procedure that creates an exception from disclosure under this
448	456		6 section based upon whether a public record is stored or accessed using
449	457		7 paper, electronic media, magnetic media, optical media, or other
450	458		8 information storage technology.
451	459		9 (g) Except as provided by law, a public agency may not adopt a rule
452	460		10 or procedure nor impose any costs or liabilities that impede or restrict
453	461		11 the reproduction or dissemination of any public record.
454	462		12 (h) Notwithstanding subsection (d) and section 7 of this chapter:
455	463		13 (1) public records subject to IC 5-15 may be destroyed only in
456	464		14 accordance with record retention schedules under IC 5-15; or
457	465		15 (2) public records not subject to IC 5-15 may be destroyed in the
458	466		16 ordinary course of business.
459	467		17 SECTION 3. IC 27-10-2-4.5, AS ADDED BY P.L.147-2022,
460	468		18 SECTION 2, IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE
461	469		19 JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 4.5. (a) The following definitions apply
462	470		20 throughout this section:
463	471		21 (1) "Charitable bail organization" means a business entity, or a
464	472		22 nonprofit organization under:
465	473		23 (A) the Internal Revenue Code; or
466	474		24 (B) Indiana law;
467	475		25 that exists for the purpose of paying cash bail for another person.
468	476		26 However, the term does not include a person who pays cash bail
469	477		27 for three (3) or fewer defendants in any one hundred eighty (180)
470	478		28 day period, or a person who pays bail for a relative (as defined in
471	479		29 IC 35-42-2-1(b)). IC 35-42-2-1(c)).
472	480		30 (2) "Crime of violence" has the meaning set forth in
473	481		31 IC 35-50-1-2(a).
474	482		32 (b) The commissioner may certify a charitable bail organization if
475	483		33 the charitable bail organization:
476	484		34 (1) is a business entity, or a nonprofit organization under:
477	485		35 (A) the Internal Revenue Code; or
478	486		36 (B) Indiana law;
479	487		37 (2) is currently registered to do business in Indiana;
480	488		38 (3) is located in Indiana; and
481	489		39 (4) exists for the purpose of depositing cash bail for an indigent
482	490		40 defendant who:
483	491		41 (A) is not charged with a crime of violence; or
484	492		42 (B) if charged with a felony, does not have a prior conviction
485	493		SB 419—LS 6704/DI 149 12
486	494		1 for a crime of violence.
487	495		2 (c) A person may apply for certification under this section in
488	496		3 accordance with rules adopted under this section.
489	497		4 (d) The commissioner shall certify a person as a charitable bail
490	498		5 organization if the:
491	499		6 (1) person pays an application fee of three hundred dollars
492	500		7 ($300);
493	501		8 (2) person meets the requirements of this section; and
494	502		9 (3) person, including an officer or director of the person, has not
495	503		10 engaged in conduct that:
496	504		11 (A) constitutes fraud, dishonesty, or deception;
497	505		12 (B) constitutes malfeasance, misfeasance, or nonfeasance in
498	506		13 dealing with money; or
499	507		14 (C) resulted in the suspension or revocation of a previous
500	508		15 certification.
501	509		16 (e) A charitable bail certification is valid for two (2) years from the
502	510		17 date of issuance and may be renewed upon payment of a renewal fee
503	511		18 of three hundred dollars ($300). If a person applies for renewal before
504	512		19 the expiration of the existing certification, the existing certification
505	513		20 remains valid until the commissioner renews the certification, or until
506	514		21 five (5) days after the commissioner denies the application for renewal.
507	515		22 A person is entitled to renewal unless the commissioner denies the
508	516		23 application for renewal under subsection (f).
509	517		24 (f) The commissioner shall deny, suspend, revoke, or refuse to
510	518		25 renew certification for any of the following causes:
511	519		26 (1) Any cause for which issuance of the certification could have
512	520		27 been refused had it then existed and been known to the
513	521		28 commissioner.
514	522		29 (2) Violation of any laws of this state in the course of dealings
515	523		30 under the certification.
516	524		31 (3) Material misstatement, misrepresentation, or fraud in
517	525		32 obtaining the certification.
518	526		33 (4) Misappropriation, conversion, or unlawful withholding of
519	527		34 money belonging to donors or others and received in the conduct
520	528		35 of business under the certification.
521	529		36 (5) Fraudulent or dishonest practices in the conduct of business
522	530		37 under the certification.
523	531		38 (6) Willful failure to comply with or willful violation of any
524	532		39 proper order or rule of the commissioner.
525	533		40 (7) When, in the judgment of the commissioner, the certificate
526	534		41 holder has, in the conduct of affairs under the certification,
527	535		42 demonstrated:
528	536		SB 419—LS 6704/DI 149 13
529	537		1 (A) incompetency or untrustworthiness;
530	538		2 (B) conduct or practices rendering the certificate holder unfit
531	539		3 to carry on charitable bail activities or making the certificate
532	540		4 holder's continuance detrimental to the public interest; or
533	541		5 (C) that the certificate holder is no longer in good faith
534	542		6 carrying on as a charitable bail organization;
535	543		7 and for these reasons is found by the commissioner to be a source
536	544		8 of detriment, injury, or loss to the public.
537	545		9 (8) The listing of the name of the applicant or certificate holder on
538	546		10 the most recent tax warrant list supplied to the commissioner by
539	547		11 the department of state revenue.
540	548		12 (g) A charitable bail organization must comply with all of the
541	549		13 following:
542	550		14 (1) If the charitable bail organization pays, or intends to pay, bail
543	551		15 for more than three (3) individuals in any one hundred eighty
544	552		16 (180) day period, the charitable bail organization must be certified
545	553		17 by the commissioner under this section before soliciting or
546	554		18 accepting donations for bail for another person, and before
547	555		19 depositing money for bail for another person.
548	556		20 (2) A charitable bail organization may not pay bail for a defendant
549	557		21 who:
550	558		22 (A) is charged with a crime of violence; or
551	559		23 (B) is charged with a felony and has a prior conviction for a
552	560		24 crime of violence.
553	561		25 (3) A charitable bail organization may not execute a surety bond
554	562		26 for a defendant.
555	563		27 (4) A charitable bail organization shall, before paying bail for an
556	564		28 individual, execute an agreement described in IC 35-33-8-3.2
557	565		29 allowing the court to retain all or a part of the bail to pay publicly
558	566		30 paid costs of representation and fines, costs, fees, and restitution
559	567		31 that the court may order the defendant to pay if the defendant is
560	568		32 convicted.
561	569		33 (5) A charitable bail organization may not charge a premium or
562	570		34 receive any consideration for acting as a charitable bail
563	571		35 organization.
564	572		36 (h) All fees collected under this section must be deposited in the
565	573		37 bail bond enforcement and administration fund created by
566	574		38 IC 27-10-5-1.
567	575		39 (i) Any authorized employee of a charitable bail organization may
568	576		40 only deposit cash bail to the court.
569	577		41 (j) If an individual fails to appear, the bail shall be forfeited in the
570	578		42 manner described in IC 35-33-8-7 and the court shall take the steps
571	579		SB 419—LS 6704/DI 149 14
572	580		1 described in IC 35-33-8-8.
573	581		2 SECTION 4. IC 35-31.5-2-152, AS ADDED BY P.L.114-2012,
574	582		3 SECTION 67, IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE
575	583		4 JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 152. (a) "Health care provider", for purposes
576	584		5 of IC 35-42-2-1, has the meaning set forth in IC 35-42-2-1.
577		-	6 (b) "Health care provider", for purposes of IC 35-~~46-7~~, has ~~the~~
578		-	7 meaning set forth in IC 35-~~46-7~~-1.
579		-	8 ~~SECTION 5.~~ IC 35-~~40.5-1-1~~, ~~AS AMENDED BY P.L.32-2021,~~
580		-	9 ~~SECTION 94,~~ ~~IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE~~
581		-	10 ~~JULY 1~~, ~~2025]: Sec~~. 1. ~~The following definitions apply throughout this~~
582		-	11 ~~article:~~
583		-	12 (1) "~~Law enforcement officer" means any~~ of ~~the following:~~
584		-	13 ~~(A) A law enforcement officer (as defined~~ in
585		-	14 IC 35-31.5-~~2-185)~~.
586		-	15 ~~(B) A state educational institution police officer appointed~~
587		-	16 ~~under IC 21-39-4~~.
588		-	17 ~~(C) A school corporation police officer appointed under~~
589		-	18 ~~IC 20-26-16.~~
590		-	19 (D) A ~~school resource~~ officer (as defined in ~~IC 20-26-18.2-1).~~
591		-	20 (E) ~~A police officer of a private postsecondary educational~~
592		-	21 institution ~~whose governing board has~~ appointed ~~the police~~
593		-	22 ~~officer~~ under IC 21-~~17-5-2~~.
594		-	23 (2) ~~"Provider" has the meaning set forth in IC 16-21-8-0.2.~~
595		-	24 ~~(3) "Relative" has the meaning set forth in~~ IC ~~35-42-2-1(b)~~.
596		-	25 IC ~~35-42-~~2-1(c).
597		-	26 (4) ~~"Sexual assault forensic evidence"~~ ~~means the results collected~~
598		-	27 ~~from a forensic medical examination of a victim by a provider.~~
599		-	28 (5~~) "State sexual assault response team" means the statewide~~
600		-	29 ~~sexual assault response team coordinated by~~ the ~~Indiana~~
601		-	30 ~~prosecuting attorneys council and~~ the ~~Indiana criminal justice~~
602		-	31 ~~institute~~.
603		-	32 (6) "~~Victim~~" means ~~an individual:~~
604		-	33 (A~~) who is~~ a victim ~~of sexual assault (as defined in~~
605		-	34 ~~IC 5-26.5-1-8); or~~
606		-	35 ~~(B) who:~~
607		-	36 ~~(i) is a relative of or a person who has had a close personal~~
608		-	37 ~~relationship with the individual described under clause (A);~~
609		-	38 ~~and~~
610		-	39 (ii) is ~~designated by the individual described under clause~~
611		-	40 (A) ~~as a representative.~~
612		-	41 ~~The term does not include an individual~~ who ~~is accused of~~
613		-	42 ~~committing an act~~ of ~~sexual assault (as~~ ~~defined in~~
	585	+	6 (b) "Health care provider", for purposes of IC 35-45-2-1, has
	586	+	7 the meaning set forth in IC 35-45-2-1.
	587	+	8 (c) "Health care provider", for purposes of IC 35-46-7, has the
	588	+	9 meaning set forth in IC 35-46-7-1.
	589	+	10 SECTION 5. IC 35-31.5-2-330, AS AMENDED BY P.L.5-2022,
	590	+	11 SECTION 2, IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE
	591	+	12 JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 330. "Threat", for purposes of IC 35-45-2-1, has
	592	+	13 the meaning set forth in IC 35-45-2-1(c). IC 35-45-2-1(d).
	593	+	14 SECTION 6. IC 35-40.5-1-1, AS AMENDED BY P.L.32-2021,
	594	+	15 SECTION 94, IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE
	595	+	16 JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 1. The following definitions apply throughout this
	596	+	17 article:
	597	+	18 (1) "Law enforcement officer" means any of the following:
	598	+	19 (A) A law enforcement officer (as defined in
	599	+	20 IC 35-31.5-2-185).
	600	+	21 (B) A state educational institution police officer appointed
	601	+	22 under IC 21-39-4.
	602	+	23 (C) A school corporation police officer appointed under
	603	+	24 IC 20-26-16.
	604	+	25 (D) A school resource officer (as defined in IC 20-26-18.2-1).
	605	+	26 (E) A police officer of a private postsecondary educational
	606	+	27 institution whose governing board has appointed the police
	607	+	28 officer under IC 21-17-5-2.
	608	+	29 (2) "Provider" has the meaning set forth in IC 16-21-8-0.2.
	609	+	30 (3) "Relative" has the meaning set forth in IC 35-42-2-1(b).
	610	+	31 IC 35-42-2-1(c).
	611	+	32 (4) "Sexual assault forensic evidence" means the results collected
	612	+	33 from a forensic medical examination of a victim by a provider.
	613	+	34 (5) "State sexual assault response team" means the statewide
	614	+	35 sexual assault response team coordinated by the Indiana
	615	+	36 prosecuting attorneys council and the Indiana criminal justice
	616	+	37 institute.
	617	+	38 (6) "Victim" means an individual:
	618	+	39 (A) who is a victim of sexual assault (as defined in
	619	+	40 IC 5-26.5-1-8); or
	620	+	41 (B) who:
	621	+	42 (i) is a relative of or a person who has had a close personal
614	622		SB 419—LS 6704/DI 149 15
615		-	1 ~~IC 5-26.5-1-8) against~~ the individual described under clause
616		-	2 ~~(A).~~
617		-	3 (7) ~~"Victim advocate"~~ ~~has~~ the ~~meaning set forth in IC 35-37-6-3.5.~~
618		-	4 (8) ~~"Victim service provider" has the meaning set forth in~~
619		-	5 ~~IC 35-37-6-5.~~
620		-	6 ~~SECTION 6.~~ ~~IC 35-42-2-0.5,~~ AS ~~ADDED BY P.L.65-2016,~~
621		-	7 ~~SECTION 32,~~ ~~IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE~~
622		-	8 ~~JULY 1, 2025]: Sec~~. ~~0.5. "Relative", for purposes of IC 35-42-2-1,~~
623		-	9 ~~section 1 of this chapter,~~ has the meaning set forth in IC 35-~~42-2-1(b)~~.
624		-	10 ~~section 1~~(c) ~~of this chapter.~~
625		-	11 ~~SECTION 7.~~ IC 35-~~42-2-1, AS AMENDED BY P~~.~~L.148-2024,~~
626		-	12 SECTION 24, ~~IS AMENDED TO READ~~ AS ~~FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE~~
627		-	13 ~~JULY 1~~, ~~2025]: Sec.~~ ~~1. (a)~~ As ~~used in this section, "health care~~
628		-	14 ~~provider" means an individual who is employed by~~, ~~in a~~
629		-	15 ~~contractual relationship with~~, ~~or providing services on behalf of:~~
630		-	16 (1) ~~an individual;~~
631		-	17 (2~~) a partnership;~~
632		-	18 ~~(3) a professional corporation;~~
633		-	19 (4) ~~a facility;~~
634		-	20 ~~(5)~~ an ~~institution;~~
635		-	21 ~~(6) a hospital;~~ or
636		-	22 (7) ~~any entity~~;
637		-	23 ~~that is licensed, certified, or authorized to administer health care~~
638		-	24 ~~in the ordinary course of business or practice of the profession.~~
639		-	25 (a) ~~(b) As used in this section, "public safety official" means:~~
640		-	26 (1) ~~a law enforcement officer, including~~ an ~~alcoholic beverage~~
641		-	27 ~~enforcement officer~~;
642		-	28 (2) ~~an employee of a penal facility or a juvenile detention facility~~
643		-	29 ~~(as defined in IC 31-9-2-71);~~
644		-	30 ~~(3) an employee~~ of the ~~department of correction;~~
645		-	31 (4) ~~a probation officer;~~
646		-	32 (5) a ~~parole~~ officer;
647		-	33 ~~(6) a community corrections worker~~;
648		-	34 (7) a ~~home~~ detention ~~officer;~~
649		-	35 (8) ~~a department of child services employee~~;
650		-	36 (9) ~~a firefighter~~;
651		-	37 (10) ~~an emergency medical services provider~~;
652		-	38 (11) a ~~judicial~~ officer;
653		-	39 (12) a ~~bailiff of any court~~; or
654		-	40 (13) a ~~special deputy (as described in IC 36-8-10-10.6).~~
655		-	41 (b) ~~(c) As used in this section, "relative" means an individual related~~
656		-	42 ~~by blood,~~ ~~half-blood, adoption, marriage, or remarriage, including:~~
	623	+	1 relationship with the individual described under clause (A);
	624	+	2 and
	625	+	3 (ii) is designated by the individual described under clause
	626	+	4 (A) as a representative.
	627	+	5 The term does not include an individual who is accused of
	628	+	6 committing an act of sexual assault (as defined in
	629	+	7 IC 5-26.5-1-8) against the individual described under clause
	630	+	8 (A).
	631	+	9 (7) "Victim advocate" has the meaning set forth in IC 35-37-6-3.5.
	632	+	10 (8) "Victim service provider" has the meaning set forth in
	633	+	11 IC 35-37-6-5.
	634	+	12 SECTION 7. IC 35-42-2-0.5, AS ADDED BY P.L.65-2016,
	635	+	13 SECTION 32, IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE
	636	+	14 JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 0.5. "Relative", for purposes of IC 35-42-2-1,
	637	+	15 section 1 of this chapter, has the meaning set forth in IC 35-42-2-1(b).
	638	+	16 section 1(c) of this chapter.
	639	+	17 SECTION 8. IC 35-42-2-1, AS AMENDED BY P.L.148-2024,
	640	+	18 SECTION 24, IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE
	641	+	19 JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 1. (a) As used in this section, "health care
	642	+	20 provider" means an individual who is employed by, in a
	643	+	21 contractual relationship with, or providing services on behalf of:
	644	+	22 (1) an individual;
	645	+	23 (2) a partnership;
	646	+	24 (3) a professional corporation;
	647	+	25 (4) a facility;
	648	+	26 (5) an institution;
	649	+	27 (6) a hospital; or
	650	+	28 (7) any entity;
	651	+	29 that is licensed, certified, or authorized to administer health care
	652	+	30 in the ordinary course of business or practice of the profession.
	653	+	31 (a) (b) As used in this section, "public safety official" means:
	654	+	32 (1) a law enforcement officer, including an alcoholic beverage
	655	+	33 enforcement officer;
	656	+	34 (2) an employee of a penal facility or a juvenile detention facility
	657	+	35 (as defined in IC 31-9-2-71);
	658	+	36 (3) an employee of the department of correction;
	659	+	37 (4) a probation officer;
	660	+	38 (5) a parole officer;
	661	+	39 (6) a community corrections worker;
	662	+	40 (7) a home detention officer;
	663	+	41 (8) a department of child services employee;
	664	+	42 (9) a firefighter;
657	665		SB 419—LS 6704/DI 149 16
658		-	1 (1) ~~a spouse~~;
659		-	2 (2) a ~~parent or stepparent~~;
660		-	3 (3) a ~~child~~ or ~~stepchild;~~
661		-	4 (4) a ~~grandchild or stepgrandchild;~~
662		-	5 (5) ~~a grandparent or stepgrandparent;~~
663		-	6 ~~(6) a brother~~, ~~sister~~, ~~stepbrother~~, or ~~stepsister;~~
664		-	7 (7) a ~~niece or nephew~~;
665		-	8 (8) ~~an aunt~~ or ~~uncle~~;
666		-	9 (9) a ~~daughter-in-law~~ or ~~son-in-law~~;
667		-	10 (10) a ~~mother-in-law~~ or ~~father-in-law~~; or
668		-	11 (11) a ~~first cousin.~~
669		-	12 (c) ~~(d) Except as provided in subsections (d) (e) through (k)~~, ~~(l)~~, a
670		-	13 ~~person who knowingly~~ or ~~intentionally:~~
671		-	14 (1) ~~touches another person in a rude, insolent,~~ or ~~angry manner~~;
672		-	15 or
673		-	16 (2) in a ~~rude, insolent,~~ or ~~angry manner places any bodily fluid~~ or
674		-	17 ~~waste on another person;~~
675		-	18 ~~commits battery~~, a ~~Class B misdemeanor.~~
676		-	19 ~~(d) (e) The offense described in subsection (c)(1) (d)(1)~~ or ~~(c)(2)~~
677		-	20 (~~d)(2~~) is a ~~Class A misdemeanor if it:~~
678		-	21 ~~(1) results in bodily injury to any other person;~~ or
679		-	22 (2) ~~is committed against~~ a ~~member of a foster family home (as~~
680		-	23 ~~defined in IC 35-31.5-2-139.3) by a~~ person ~~who is not a resident~~
681		-	24 ~~of the foster family home if the person who committed the offense~~
682		-	25 ~~is a relative of a person who lived~~ in ~~the foster family home at the~~
683		-	26 ~~time of the offense.~~
684		-	27 ~~(e) (f) The offense described in subsection (c)~~(1) ~~(d)(1)~~ or ~~(c)(2)~~
685		-	28 ~~(d)~~(2) is a ~~Level 6 felony if one (1) or more~~ of ~~the following apply:~~
686		-	29 ~~(1) The offense results~~ in ~~moderate bodily injury to any other~~
687		-	30 person.
688		-	31 ~~(2)~~ The ~~offense is committed against a:~~
689		-	32 ~~(A) public safety official while~~ the ~~official is engaged in the~~
690		-	33 ~~official's official duty;~~ or
691		-	34 (B) ~~health care provider while~~ the ~~health care provider is~~
692		-	35 ~~acting within~~ the ~~scope of the health care provider's duties;~~
693		-	36 ~~unless the offense is committed by a~~ person ~~detained or~~
694		-	37 committed ~~under IC 12-26.~~
695		-	38 (3) The ~~offense~~ is ~~committed against a person less than fourteen~~
696		-	39 ~~(14) years of age and is committed by a person at least eighteen~~
697		-	40 (18) ~~years of age.~~
698		-	41 ~~(4)~~ The ~~offense is committed against a person~~ of ~~any age who has~~
699		-	42 ~~a mental or physical disability and~~ is committed by a person
	666	+	1 (10) an emergency medical services provider;
	667	+	2 (11) a judicial officer;
	668	+	3 (12) a bailiff of any court; or
	669	+	4 (13) a special deputy (as described in IC 36-8-10-10.6).
	670	+	5 (b) (c) As used in this section, "relative" means an individual related
	671	+	6 by blood, half-blood, adoption, marriage, or remarriage, including:
	672	+	7 (1) a spouse;
	673	+	8 (2) a parent or stepparent;
	674	+	9 (3) a child or stepchild;
	675	+	10 (4) a grandchild or stepgrandchild;
	676	+	11 (5) a grandparent or stepgrandparent;
	677	+	12 (6) a brother, sister, stepbrother, or stepsister;
	678	+	13 (7) a niece or nephew;
	679	+	14 (8) an aunt or uncle;
	680	+	15 (9) a daughter-in-law or son-in-law;
	681	+	16 (10) a mother-in-law or father-in-law; or
	682	+	17 (11) a first cousin.
	683	+	18 (c) (d) Except as provided in subsections (d) (e) through (k), (l), a
	684	+	19 person who knowingly or intentionally:
	685	+	20 (1) touches another person in a rude, insolent, or angry manner;
	686	+	21 or
	687	+	22 (2) in a rude, insolent, or angry manner places any bodily fluid or
	688	+	23 waste on another person;
	689	+	24 commits battery, a Class B misdemeanor.
	690	+	25 (d) (e) The offense described in subsection (c)(1) (d)(1) or (c)(2)
	691	+	26 (d)(2) is a Class A misdemeanor if it:
	692	+	27 (1) results in bodily injury to any other person; or
	693	+	28 (2) is committed against a member of a foster family home (as
	694	+	29 defined in IC 35-31.5-2-139.3) by a person who is not a resident
	695	+	30 of the foster family home if the person who committed the offense
	696	+	31 is a relative of a person who lived in the foster family home at the
	697	+	32 time of the offense.
	698	+	33 (e) (f) The offense described in subsection (c)(1) (d)(1) or (c)(2)
	699	+	34 (d)(2) is a Level 6 felony if one (1) or more of the following apply:
	700	+	35 (1) The offense results in moderate bodily injury to any other
	701	+	36 person.
	702	+	37 (2) The offense is committed against a:
	703	+	38 (A) public safety official while the official is engaged in the
	704	+	39 official's official duty; or
	705	+	40 (B) health care provider while the health care provider is
	706	+	41 acting within the scope of the health care provider's duties;
	707	+	42 unless the offense is committed by a person detained or
700	708		SB 419—LS 6704/DI 149 17
701		-	1 ~~having the care of the person with the mental or physical~~
702		-	2 ~~disability, whether~~ the ~~care~~ is ~~assumed voluntarily or because of~~
703		-	3 a ~~legal obligation.~~
704		-	4 (5) ~~The offense is committed against an endangered adult (as~~
705		-	5 ~~defined in IC 12-10-3-2).~~
706		-	6 ~~(6) The offense:~~
707		-	7 ~~(A) is committed against a member~~ of ~~a foster family home (as~~
708		-	8 ~~defined in IC 35-31.5-2-139.3) by a person who~~ is ~~not a~~
709		-	9 ~~resident of the foster family home if the person who committed~~
710		-	10 the offense is ~~a relative of a person who lived in the foster~~
711		-	11 ~~family home at the time of the offense; and~~
712		-	12 (B) ~~results in bodily injury to~~ the ~~member of the foster family.~~
713		-	13 (~~f) (g) The offense described in subsection (c)(2) (d)(2~~) is a ~~Level~~
714		-	14 ~~6 felony if the~~ person ~~knew or recklessly failed to know that the bodily~~
715		-	15 ~~fluid or waste placed on another~~ person ~~was infected with hepatitis,~~
716		-	16 ~~tuberculosis, or human immunodeficiency virus.~~
717		-	17 ~~(g) (h)~~ The offense ~~described in subsection (c)(1) (d)(1) or (c)(2)~~
718		-	18 (~~d)(2~~) ~~is a Level 5 felony if one (1) or more~~ of the ~~following apply:~~
719		-	19 (1) The offense ~~results~~ in ~~serious bodily injury to another person.~~
720		-	20 ~~(2)~~ The ~~offense is committed with a deadly weapon.~~
721		-	21 ~~(3) The offense results in bodily injury to a pregnant woman if the~~
722		-	22 ~~person knew of the pregnancy~~.
723		-	23 (4) The ~~person has a previous conviction for a battery~~ or
724		-	24 ~~strangulation offense included in this chapter against~~ the ~~same~~
725		-	25 ~~victim~~.
726		-	26 (5) The offense ~~results in bodily injury to one (1) or more of the~~
727		-	27 ~~following:~~
728		-	28 ~~(A) A public safety official while~~ the ~~official is engaged in the~~
729		-	29 ~~official's official duties, unless~~ the ~~offense is committed by~~ a
730		-	30 ~~person detained or committed under IC 12-26.~~
731		-	31 ~~(B) A person less than fourteen (14) years of age if the offense~~
732		-	32 ~~is committed by a person at least eighteen~~ (18) ~~years~~ of ~~age.~~
733		-	33 ~~(C) A person who has a mental or physical disability if the~~
734		-	34 ~~offense~~ is ~~committed by an individual having care of~~ the
735		-	35 ~~person with~~ the ~~disability, regardless of whether the care~~ is
736		-	36 ~~assumed voluntarily~~ or ~~because of a legal obligation~~.
737		-	37 (D) ~~An endangered adult~~ (~~as defined in IC 12-10-3-2).~~
738		-	38 ~~(h) (i) The offense described in subsection (c)(2) (d)(2)~~ is a ~~Level~~
739		-	39 ~~5 felony~~ if:
740		-	40 ~~(1)~~ the ~~person knew or recklessly failed to know that the bodily~~
741		-	41 ~~fluid or waste placed on another~~ person ~~was infected with~~
742		-	42 ~~hepatitis, tuberculosis,~~ or ~~human immunodeficiency virus;~~ ~~and~~
	709	+	1 committed under IC 12-26.
	710	+	2 (3) The offense is committed against a person less than fourteen
	711	+	3 (14) years of age and is committed by a person at least eighteen
	712	+	4 (18) years of age.
	713	+	5 (4) The offense is committed against a person of any age who has
	714	+	6 a mental or physical disability and is committed by a person
	715	+	7 having the care of the person with the mental or physical
	716	+	8 disability, whether the care is assumed voluntarily or because of
	717	+	9 a legal obligation.
	718	+	10 (5) The offense is committed against an endangered adult (as
	719	+	11 defined in IC 12-10-3-2).
	720	+	12 (6) The offense:
	721	+	13 (A) is committed against a member of a foster family home (as
	722	+	14 defined in IC 35-31.5-2-139.3) by a person who is not a
	723	+	15 resident of the foster family home if the person who committed
	724	+	16 the offense is a relative of a person who lived in the foster
	725	+	17 family home at the time of the offense; and
	726	+	18 (B) results in bodily injury to the member of the foster family.
	727	+	19 (f) (g) The offense described in subsection (c)(2) (d)(2) is a Level
	728	+	20 6 felony if the person knew or recklessly failed to know that the bodily
	729	+	21 fluid or waste placed on another person was infected with hepatitis,
	730	+	22 tuberculosis, or human immunodeficiency virus.
	731	+	23 (g) (h) The offense described in subsection (c)(1) (d)(1) or (c)(2)
	732	+	24 (d)(2) is a Level 5 felony if one (1) or more of the following apply:
	733	+	25 (1) The offense results in serious bodily injury to another person.
	734	+	26 (2) The offense is committed with a deadly weapon.
	735	+	27 (3) The offense results in bodily injury to a pregnant woman if the
	736	+	28 person knew of the pregnancy.
	737	+	29 (4) The person has a previous conviction for a battery or
	738	+	30 strangulation offense included in this chapter against the same
	739	+	31 victim.
	740	+	32 (5) The offense results in bodily injury to one (1) or more of the
	741	+	33 following:
	742	+	34 (A) A public safety official while the official is engaged in the
	743	+	35 official's official duties, unless the offense is committed by a
	744	+	36 person detained or committed under IC 12-26.
	745	+	37 (B) A person less than fourteen (14) years of age if the offense
	746	+	38 is committed by a person at least eighteen (18) years of age.
	747	+	39 (C) A person who has a mental or physical disability if the
	748	+	40 offense is committed by an individual having care of the
	749	+	41 person with the disability, regardless of whether the care is
	750	+	42 assumed voluntarily or because of a legal obligation.
743	751		SB 419—LS 6704/DI 149 18
744		-	1 (2) the person placed the bodily fluid or waste on a public safety
745		-	2 official or a health care provider, unless the offense is
746		-	3 committed by a person detained or committed under IC 12-26.
747		-	4 (i) (j) The offense described in subsection (c)(1) (d)(1) or (c)(2)
748		-	5 (d)(2) is a Level 4 felony if it results in serious bodily injury to an
749		-	6 endangered adult (as defined in IC 12-10-3-2).
750		-	7 (j) (k) The offense described in subsection (c)(1) (d)(1) or (c)(2)
751		-	8 (d)(2) is a Level 3 felony if it results in serious bodily injury to a person
752		-	9 less than fourteen (14) years of age if the offense is committed by a
753		-	10 person at least eighteen (18) years of age.
754		-	11 (k) (l) The offense described in subsection (c)(1) (d)(1) or (c)(2)
755		-	12 (d)(2) is a Level 2 felony if it results in the death of one (1) or more of
756		-	13 the following:
757		-	14 (1) A person less than fourteen (14) years of age if the offense is
758		-	15 committed by a person at least eighteen (18) years of age.
759		-	16 (2) An endangered adult (as defined in IC 12-10-3-2).
	752	+	1 (D) An endangered adult (as defined in IC 12-10-3-2).
	753	+	2 (E) A health care provider while the health care provider
	754	+	3 is acting within the scope of the health care provider's
	755	+	4 duties.
	756	+	5 (h) (i) The offense described in subsection (c)(2) (d)(2) is a Level
	757	+	6 5 felony if:
	758	+	7 (1) the person knew or recklessly failed to know that the bodily
	759	+	8 fluid or waste placed on another person was infected with
	760	+	9 hepatitis, tuberculosis, or human immunodeficiency virus; and
	761	+	10 (2) the person placed the bodily fluid or waste on a public safety
	762	+	11 official or a health care provider, unless the offense is
	763	+	12 committed by a person detained or committed under IC 12-26.
	764	+	13 (i) (j) The offense described in subsection (c)(1) (d)(1) or (c)(2)
	765	+	14 (d)(2) is a Level 4 felony if it results in serious bodily injury to an
	766	+	15 endangered adult (as defined in IC 12-10-3-2).
	767	+	16 (j) (k) The offense described in subsection (c)(1) (d)(1) or (c)(2)
	768	+	17 (d)(2) is a Level 3 felony if it results in serious bodily injury to a person
	769	+	18 less than fourteen (14) years of age if the offense is committed by a
	770	+	19 person at least eighteen (18) years of age.
	771	+	20 (k) (l) The offense described in subsection (c)(1) (d)(1) or (c)(2)
	772	+	21 (d)(2) is a Level 2 felony if it results in the death of one (1) or more of
	773	+	22 the following:
	774	+	23 (1) A person less than fourteen (14) years of age if the offense is
	775	+	24 committed by a person at least eighteen (18) years of age.
	776	+	25 (2) An endangered adult (as defined in IC 12-10-3-2).
	777	+	26 SECTION 9. IC 35-44.1-2-2, AS AMENDED BY P.L.209-2023,
	778	+	27 SECTION 3, IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE
	779	+	28 JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 2. (a) A person who:
	780	+	29 (1) knowingly or intentionally induces, by threat, coercion, false
	781	+	30 statement, or offer of goods, services, or anything of value, a
	782	+	31 witness or informant in a legal proceeding or an administrative or
	783	+	32 criminal investigation to:
	784	+	33 (A) withhold or unreasonably delay in producing any
	785	+	34 testimony, information, document, or thing that the witness or
	786	+	35 informant is legally required to produce;
	787	+	36 (B) avoid legal process summoning the person to testify or
	788	+	37 supply evidence;
	789	+	38 (C) absent the person from a proceeding or investigation to
	790	+	39 which the person has been legally summoned; or
	791	+	40 (D) give a false or materially misleading statement;
	792	+	41 (2) knowingly or intentionally in a legal proceeding or an
	793	+	42 administrative or criminal investigation:
760	794		SB 419—LS 6704/DI 149 19
	795	+	1 (A) withholds or unreasonably delays in producing any
	796	+	2 testimony, information, document, or thing after a court orders
	797	+	3 the person to produce the testimony, information, document,
	798	+	4 or thing;
	799	+	5 (B) avoids legal process summoning the person to testify or
	800	+	6 supply evidence; or
	801	+	7 (C) absents the person from a proceeding or investigation to
	802	+	8 which the person has been legally summoned;
	803	+	9 (3) alters, damages, or removes any record, document, or thing,
	804	+	10 with intent to prevent it from being produced or used as evidence
	805	+	11 in any legal proceeding or administrative or criminal
	806	+	12 investigation;
	807	+	13 (4) makes, presents, or uses a false record, document, or thing
	808	+	14 with intent that the record, document, or thing, material to the
	809	+	15 point in question, appear in evidence in a legal proceeding or an
	810	+	16 administrative or criminal investigation to mislead a public
	811	+	17 servant;
	812	+	18 (5) communicates with a juror otherwise than as authorized by
	813	+	19 law, with intent to influence the juror regarding any matter that is
	814	+	20 or may be brought before the juror; or
	815	+	21 (6) being employed by a court or law enforcement agency, notifies
	816	+	22 the subject of a warrant of the warrant, with the intent to interfere
	817	+	23 with the execution of the warrant;
	818	+	24 commits obstruction of justice, a Level 6 felony, except as provided in
	819	+	25 subsection (b).
	820	+	26 (b) Except as provided in subsection (e), the offense is a Level 5
	821	+	27 felony if, during the investigation or pendency of a domestic violence
	822	+	28 or child abuse case under subsection (c), a person knowingly or
	823	+	29 intentionally:
	824	+	30 (1) offers, gives, or promises any benefit to;
	825	+	31 (2) communicates a threat as defined by IC 35-45-2-1(c)
	826	+	32 IC 35-45-2-1(d) to; or
	827	+	33 (3) intimidates, unlawfully influences, or unlawfully persuades;
	828	+	34 any witness to abstain from attending or giving testimony, or to give a
	829	+	35 false or materially misleading statement, at any hearing, trial,
	830	+	36 deposition, probation, or other criminal proceeding or from giving
	831	+	37 testimony or other statements, including giving a false or materially
	832	+	38 misleading statement, to a court or law enforcement officer under
	833	+	39 IC 35-31.5-2-185.
	834	+	40 (c) As used in this section, "domestic violence or child abuse case"
	835	+	41 means any case involving an allegation of:
	836	+	42 (1) the commission of a crime involving domestic or family
	837	+	SB 419—LS 6704/DI 149 20
	838	+	1 violence under IC 35-31.5-2-76 involving a family or household
	839	+	2 member under IC 35-31.5-2-128;
	840	+	3 (2) the commission of a crime of domestic violence under
	841	+	4 IC 35-31.5-2-78 involving a family or household member under
	842	+	5 IC 35-31.5-2-128; or
	843	+	6 (3) physical abuse, sexual abuse, or child neglect, including
	844	+	7 crimes listed under IC 35-31.5-2-76 involving a victim who was
	845	+	8 less than eighteen (18) years of age at the time of the offense,
	846	+	9 whether or not the person is a family or household member under
	847	+	10 IC 35-31.5-2-128.
	848	+	11 (d) Subsection (a)(2)(A) does not apply to:
	849	+	12 (1) a person who qualifies for a special privilege under IC 34-46-4
	850	+	13 with respect to the testimony, information, document, or thing; or
	851	+	14 (2) a person who, as:
	852	+	15 (A) an attorney;
	853	+	16 (B) a physician;
	854	+	17 (C) a member of the clergy; or
	855	+	18 (D) a husband or wife;
	856	+	19 is not required to testify under IC 34-46-3-1.
	857	+	20 (e) Subsections (a) and (b) do not apply to:
	858	+	21 (1) an attorney;
	859	+	22 (2) an investigator;
	860	+	23 (3) a law enforcement officer; or
	861	+	24 (4) a judge;
	862	+	25 engaged in that person's professional or official duties.
	863	+	26 SECTION 10. IC 35-45-2-1, AS AMENDED BY P.L.5-2022,
	864	+	27 SECTION 6, IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE
	865	+	28 JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 1. (a) As used in this section, "health care
	866	+	29 provider" means an individual who is employed by, in a
	867	+	30 contractual relationship with, or providing services on behalf of:
	868	+	31 (1) an individual;
	869	+	32 (2) a partnership;
	870	+	33 (3) a professional corporation;
	871	+	34 (4) a facility;
	872	+	35 (5) an institution;
	873	+	36 (6) a hospital; or
	874	+	37 (7) any entity;
	875	+	38 that is licensed, certified, or authorized to administer health care
	876	+	39 in the ordinary course of business or practice of the profession.
	877	+	40 (a) (b) A person who communicates a threat with the intent:
	878	+	41 (1) that another person engage in conduct against the other
	879	+	42 person's will;
	880	+	SB 419—LS 6704/DI 149 21
	881	+	1 (2) that another person be placed in fear of retaliation for a prior
	882	+	2 lawful act;
	883	+	3 (3) of:
	884	+	4 (A) causing:
	885	+	5 (i) a dwelling, a building, or other structure; or
	886	+	6 (ii) a vehicle;
	887	+	7 to be evacuated; or
	888	+	8 (B) interfering with the occupancy of:
	889	+	9 (i) a dwelling, building, or other structure; or
	890	+	10 (ii) a vehicle; or
	891	+	11 (4) that another person be placed in fear that the threat will be
	892	+	12 carried out, if the threat is a threat described in:
	893	+	13 (A) subsection (c)(1) (d)(1) through (c)(5); (d)(5); or
	894	+	14 (B) subsection (c)(7) (d)(7) through (c)(8); (d)(8);
	895	+	15 commits intimidation, a Class A misdemeanor.
	896	+	16 (b) (c) However, the offense is a:
	897	+	17 (1) Level 6 felony if:
	898	+	18 (A) the threat is to commit a forcible felony;
	899	+	19 (B) the subject of the threat or the person to whom the threat
	900	+	20 is communicated is a witness (or the spouse or child of a
	901	+	21 witness) in any pending criminal proceeding against the
	902	+	22 person making the threat;
	903	+	23 (C) the threat is communicated because of the occupation,
	904	+	24 profession, employment status, or ownership status of a person
	905	+	25 or the threat relates to or is made in connection with the
	906	+	26 occupation, profession, employment status, or ownership
	907	+	27 status of a person;
	908	+	28 (D) the person has a prior unrelated conviction for an offense
	909	+	29 under this section concerning the same victim; or
	910	+	30 (E) the threat is communicated using property, including
	911	+	31 electronic equipment or systems, of a school corporation or
	912	+	32 other governmental entity; and
	913	+	33 (2) Level 5 felony if:
	914	+	34 (A) while committing it, the person draws or uses a deadly
	915	+	35 weapon;
	916	+	36 (B) the subject of the threat or the person to whom the threat
	917	+	37 is communicated is a:
	918	+	38 (i) is a judicial officer or bailiff of any court; or
	919	+	39 (ii) is a prosecuting attorney or a deputy prosecuting
	920	+	40 attorney; or
	921	+	41 (iii) health care provider;
	922	+	42 and the threat relates to the person's status as a judicial officer,
	923	+	SB 419—LS 6704/DI 149 22
	924	+	1 bailiff, prosecuting attorney, or deputy prosecuting attorney, or
	925	+	2 health care provider, or is made in connection with the
	926	+	3 official duties of the judicial officer, bailiff, prosecuting
	927	+	4 attorney, or deputy prosecuting attorney, or health care
	928	+	5 provider; or
	929	+	6 (C) the threat is:
	930	+	7 (i) to commit terrorism; or
	931	+	8 (ii) made in furtherance of an act of terrorism.
	932	+	9 (c) (d) "Threat" means an expression, by words or action, of an
	933	+	10 intention to:
	934	+	11 (1) unlawfully injure the person threatened or another person, or
	935	+	12 damage property;
	936	+	13 (2) unlawfully subject a person to physical confinement or
	937	+	14 restraint;
	938	+	15 (3) commit a crime;
	939	+	16 (4) unlawfully withhold official action, or cause such withholding;
	940	+	17 (5) unlawfully withhold testimony or information with respect to
	941	+	18 another person's legal claim or defense, except for a reasonable
	942	+	19 claim for witness fees or expenses;
	943	+	20 (6) expose the person threatened to hatred, contempt, disgrace, or
	944	+	21 ridicule;
	945	+	22 (7) falsely harm the credit or business reputation of a person; or
	946	+	23 (8) cause the evacuation of a dwelling, a building, another
	947	+	24 structure, or a vehicle. For purposes of this subdivision, the term
	948	+	25 includes an expression that would cause a reasonable person to
	949	+	26 consider the evacuation of a dwelling, a building, another
	950	+	27 structure, or a vehicle, even if the dwelling, building, structure, or
	951	+	28 vehicle is not evacuated.
	952	+	29 SECTION 11. IC 35-46-10-1, AS ADDED BY P.L.276-2019,
	953	+	30 SECTION 7, IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE
	954	+	31 JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 1. (a) As used in this chapter, "critical
	955	+	32 infrastructure facility" means any of the following:
	956	+	33 (1) A chemical manufacturing facility.
	957	+	34 (2) A refinery.
	958	+	35 (3) A steelmaking facility.
	959	+	36 (4) An aluminum manufacturing facility.
	960	+	37 (5) An electric utility facility, including:
	961	+	38 (A) a power plant;
	962	+	39 (B) a power generation facility peaker;
	963	+	40 (C) an electric transmission facility;
	964	+	41 (D) an electric station or substation; or
	965	+	42 (E) any other facility used to support the generation,
	966	+	SB 419—LS 6704/DI 149 23
	967	+	1 transmission, or distribution of electricity.
	968	+	2 However, the term does not include electric transmission land or
	969	+	3 right-of-way that is not completely enclosed, posted, and
	970	+	4 maintained by the electric utility.
	971	+	5 (6) A water intake structure or water treatment facility.
	972	+	6 (7) A natural gas utility facility, including:
	973	+	7 (A) an age station;
	974	+	8 (B) a compressor station;
	975	+	9 (C) an odorization facility;
	976	+	10 (D) a main line valve;
	977	+	11 (E) a natural gas storage facility; or
	978	+	12 (F) any other facility used to support the acquisition,
	979	+	13 transmission, distribution, or storage of natural gas. However,
	980	+	14 the term does not include gas transmission pipeline property
	981	+	15 that is not completely enclosed, posted, and maintained by the
	982	+	16 natural gas utility.
	983	+	17 (8) A gasoline, propane, liquid natural gas (LNG), or other fuel
	984	+	18 terminal or storage facility.
	985	+	19 (9) A transportation facility, including, but not limited to, a port,
	986	+	20 railroad switching yard, or trucking terminal. However, the term
	987	+	21 does not include a railroad track that is not part of a railroad
	988	+	22 switching yard.
	989	+	23 (10) A pulp or paper manufacturing facility.
	990	+	24 (11) A pharmaceutical manufacturing facility.
	991	+	25 (12) A hazardous waste storage, treatment, or disposal facility.
	992	+	26 (13) A crude oil exploration and production equipment or refined
	993	+	27 products storage and distribution facility including, but not
	994	+	28 limited to, valve sites, pipeline interconnections, a pump station,
	995	+	29 a metering station, below or aboveground pipeline or piping, and
	996	+	30 a truck loading or offloading facility.
	997	+	31 (14) A communications services facility, including:
	998	+	32 (A) a central office;
	999	+	33 (B) a cable head end;
	1000	+	34 (C) a cable node; or
	1001	+	35 (D) a cellular telephone tower site; and
	1002	+	36 (E) wires and equipment used to provide communications
	1003	+	37 service to a customer.
	1004	+	38 (15) A dam that is regulated by the department of natural
	1005	+	39 resources.
	1006	+	40 (16) A facility:
	1007	+	41 (A) whose owner or operator is required to submit a risk
	1008	+	42 management plan under the federal Chemical Safety
	1009	+	SB 419—LS 6704/DI 149 24
	1010	+	1 Information, Site Security and Fuels Regulatory Relief Act (42
	1011	+	2 U.S.C. 7412(r)); or
	1012	+	3 (B) identified and regulated by the United States Department
	1013	+	4 of Homeland Security Chemical Facility Anti-Terrorism
	1014	+	5 Standards (CFATS) program.
	1015	+	6 (17) Any aboveground portion of an oil, gas, hazardous liquid, or
	1016	+	7 chemical pipeline, tank, railroad facility, or other storage facility
	1017	+	8 that is completely enclosed, posted, and maintained by the critical
	1018	+	9 infrastructure utility.
	1019	+	10 (18) A facility that is substantially similar to a facility, structure,
	1020	+	11 or station listed in this subsection.
	1021	+	12 (b) As used in this chapter, "critical infrastructure utility" means a
	1022	+	13 person that owns or operates, for public use, any plant, equipment,
	1023	+	14 property, franchise, or license for the production, storage, transmission,
	1024	+	15 sale, or delivery of the items listed in subsection (a).
	1025	+	16 (c) As used in this chapter, "person" has the meaning set forth in
	1026	+	17 IC 35-31.5-2-234(a).
	1027	+	SB 419—LS 6704/DI 149 25
761	1028		COMMITTEE REPORT
762	1029		Mr. President: The Senate Committee on Corrections and Criminal
763	1030		Law, to which was referred Senate Bill No. 419, has had the same
764	1031		under consideration and begs leave to report the same back to the
765	1032		Senate with the recommendation that said bill be AMENDED as
766	1033		follows:
767	1034		Page 22, after line 28, begin a new paragraph and insert:
768	1035		"SECTION 11. IC 35-46-10-1, AS ADDED BY P.L.276-2019,
769	1036		SECTION 7, IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE
770	1037		JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 1. (a) As used in this chapter, "critical
771	1038		infrastructure facility" means any of the following:
772	1039		(1) A chemical manufacturing facility.
773	1040		(2) A refinery.
774	1041		(3) A steelmaking facility.
775	1042		(4) An aluminum manufacturing facility.
776	1043		(5) An electric utility facility, including:
777	1044		(A) a power plant;
778	1045		(B) a power generation facility peaker;
779	1046		(C) an electric transmission facility;
780	1047		(D) an electric station or substation; or
781	1048		(E) any other facility used to support the generation,
782	1049		transmission, or distribution of electricity.
783	1050		However, the term does not include electric transmission land or
784	1051		right-of-way that is not completely enclosed, posted, and
785	1052		maintained by the electric utility.
786	1053		(6) A water intake structure or water treatment facility.
787	1054		(7) A natural gas utility facility, including:
788	1055		(A) an age station;
789	1056		(B) a compressor station;
790	1057		(C) an odorization facility;
791	1058		(D) a main line valve;
792	1059		(E) a natural gas storage facility; or
793	1060		(F) any other facility used to support the acquisition,
794	1061		transmission, distribution, or storage of natural gas. However,
795	1062		the term does not include gas transmission pipeline property
796	1063		that is not completely enclosed, posted, and maintained by the
797	1064		natural gas utility.
798	1065		(8) A gasoline, propane, liquid natural gas (LNG), or other fuel
799	1066		terminal or storage facility.
800	1067		(9) A transportation facility, including, but not limited to, a port,
801	1068		railroad switching yard, or trucking terminal. However, the term
802		-	SB 419—LS 6704/DI 149 20
	1069	+	SB 419—LS 6704/DI 149 26
803	1070		does not include a railroad track that is not part of a railroad
804	1071		switching yard.
805	1072		(10) A pulp or paper manufacturing facility.
806	1073		(11) A pharmaceutical manufacturing facility.
807	1074		(12) A hazardous waste storage, treatment, or disposal facility.
808	1075		(13) A crude oil exploration and production equipment or refined
809	1076		products storage and distribution facility including, but not
810	1077		limited to, valve sites, pipeline interconnections, a pump station,
811	1078		a metering station, below or aboveground pipeline or piping, and
812	1079		a truck loading or offloading facility.
813	1080		(14) A communications services facility, including:
814	1081		(A) a central office;
815	1082		(B) a cable head end;
816	1083		(C) a cable node; or
817	1084		(D) a cellular telephone tower site; and
818	1085		(E) wires and equipment used to provide communications
819	1086		service to a customer.
820	1087		(15) A dam that is regulated by the department of natural
821	1088		resources.
822	1089		(16) A facility:
823	1090		(A) whose owner or operator is required to submit a risk
824	1091		management plan under the federal Chemical Safety
825	1092		Information, Site Security and Fuels Regulatory Relief Act (42
826	1093		U.S.C. 7412(r)); or
827	1094		(B) identified and regulated by the United States Department
828	1095		of Homeland Security Chemical Facility Anti-Terrorism
829	1096		Standards (CFATS) program.
830	1097		(17) Any aboveground portion of an oil, gas, hazardous liquid, or
831	1098		chemical pipeline, tank, railroad facility, or other storage facility
832	1099		that is completely enclosed, posted, and maintained by the critical
833	1100		infrastructure utility.
834	1101		(18) A facility that is substantially similar to a facility, structure,
835	1102		or station listed in this subsection.
836	1103		(b) As used in this chapter, "critical infrastructure utility" means a
837	1104		person that owns or operates, for public use, any plant, equipment,
838	1105		property, franchise, or license for the production, storage, transmission,
839	1106		sale, or delivery of the items listed in subsection (a).
840	1107		(c) As used in this chapter, "person" has the meaning set forth in
841	1108		IC 35-31.5-2-234(a).".
842	1109		Renumber all SECTIONS consecutively.
843	1110		and when so amended that said bill do pass.
844		-	SB 419—LS 6704/DI 149 21
	1111	+	SB 419—LS 6704/DI 149 27
845	1112		(Reference is to SB 419 as introduced.)
846	1113		FREEMAN, Chairperson
847	1114		Committee Vote: Yeas 7, Nays 1.
848		-	_____
849		-	SENATE MOTION
850		-	Mr. President: I move that Senate Bill 419 be amended to read as
851		-	follows:
852		-	Page 14, delete lines 6 through 7.
853		-	Page 14, line 8, delete "(c)" and insert "(b)".
854		-	Page 14, delete lines 10 through 13.
855		-	Page 18, delete lines 2 through 4.
856		-	Page 18, delete lines 26 through 42.
857		-	Delete pages 19 through 24.
858		-	Renumber all SECTIONS consecutively.
859		-	(Reference is to SB 419 as printed February 14, 2025.)
860		-	CARRASCO
861	1115		SB 419—LS 6704/DI 149